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2021 phy per

The document analyzes candidates' performance in two papers consisting of multiple-choice and conventional questions across various physics topics. It highlights specific areas where candidates struggled, such as understanding fundamental concepts and applying knowledge correctly, with statistical data on their performance. Overall, while some candidates performed satisfactorily, many exhibited gaps in their understanding and application of key physics principles.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views8 pages

2021 phy per

The document analyzes candidates' performance in two papers consisting of multiple-choice and conventional questions across various physics topics. It highlights specific areas where candidates struggled, such as understanding fundamental concepts and applying knowledge correctly, with statistical data on their performance. Overall, while some candidates performed satisfactorily, many exhibited gaps in their understanding and application of key physics principles.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Candidates' Performance

paper I

paperI consists of two sections: multiple-choice questions in Section A and conventional questions in Section B.
in both sections are compulsory.
Allquestions
(multiple-choice questions)
SectionA
sectionA consisted of 33 multiple-choice questions and the mean score was 19. Items where candidates'
typically weaker will be presented below with mean percentage statistics.
perfomancewas

4.
A block of weight W is at rest on a horizontal ground as shown.

ground

The force acting on the block by the ground is R. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

R and Ware opposite in direction.


(2) R and Ware equal in magnitude.
(3) R and Wis an action-and-reaction pair.

(l) only (3%)


(l) and (2) only (43%)
c. (2) and (3) only (1%)
D. (1), (2) and (3) (53%)

Over half of the candidates wrongly thought that R and Wis an action-and-reaction pair.

5. A block is sliding down a rough incline with constant velocity as shown. Which arrow indicates the
directionof the resultant force acting on the block by the incline ? Neglect air resistance.

B.

(13%) (29%)
slid
do
coostaotdo constant

c.
(35%)
Slidin(23%) Sliding
const e do PVO do
coostant
ant veloc%ty
Ø v

Just over one-third of the candidates realised that the resultant force from the incline acting on the block
in uniform motion should balance the block's own weight.

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8. A stationary uranium nucleus 92U decays to give a thorium nucleus 90Th and an aparticle 24He.

238U 234Th + 21-1e


92

Which of the following correctly describes the situationabout the 2%Th nucleus and the a particlejust
after the decay ?
magnitudeof kinetic energy KE
momentum p
p(Th) = p(a) KE(Th) < KE(a) (44%)
B. p(Th) > p(a) KE(Th) > KE(a) (18%)
c. p(Th) = p(a) KE(Th) > KE(a) (29%)
D. p(Th) = p(a) KE(Th) = KE(a) (9%)
While over 80% of the candidates indicated knowledge that the momentum of the two decay products is
equal in magnitude, just over 40% of them knew that most of the kinetic energy goes to the lighter
a-particle.

14. In a ripple tank, circular water waves of wavelengths Il and 12 (11> 12) are produced by two vibrators
Sl and S2 respectively. The figure represents the two circular waves propagating on the water surface at a
certain moment.

crest
trough

Which of the following statements is correct ?


The particle at P is always at crest position. (10%)
B. At P, the two waves always reinforce to give a larger amplitude. (29%)
c. The principle of superposition cannot be applied at P as 11 12. (14%)
The principle of superposition can be applied at P but the two waves do not always
reinforce at that location. (47%)
About 30% of the candidates wrongly held that two waves of different frequencies would always
reinforce to give a larger amplitude at a certain location.

20. Submarines employ ultrasound instead of microwaves to detect obstacles in the sea. This is because

wavelengths of ultrasound are shorter than those of microwaves. (17%)


B. ultrasound travels faster than microwaves in the sea. (24%)
microwaves are easily absorbed by sea water. (33%)
D. microwaves diffract too much in the sea. (26%)
Just about one-third of the candidates knew the reason why microwaves are not used for detection in the
sea.

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When a point charge +0 is placed at X as shown, the strength
of the electric field at Yis Eo.
22.

If W and Z are each placed with a point charge of +Q, what will be the electric field strength at Y?
0 = cos 45 0 =
Note: sin 45 2

*A. (28%)
B. (23%)
c. (38%)
D. (11%)
Less than 30% of the candidates were able to compute the vector sum of the electric fields created by the
point charges.

24. The figure shows a metallic cube of side length x. How is its resistance R between any two opposite
faces related to x ?

1
*A. (45%)
x
B. (15%)
c. (15%)
D R ccx21 (25%)

Candidateschoosing option D may only have considered the cross-section of the cube and overlooked
the contribution of its length.
26. When a copper rod PQ moves with a constant velocity across a uniform magnetic field as shown, an
e.m.f. is induced across the rod.

x X x x
uniform magnetic
x X X x x field (into the paper)
X x

Whichof the following statements is/are correct ?

(l) The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. depends on the length of the rod.
(2) Rod PQ acts like a cell providing an e.m.f. with P being its positive terminal.
(3) There is a force acting on the rod to oppose its motion.

A. (l) only (22%)


B. (3) only (21%)
*C. (1) and (2) only (35%)
D. (2) and (3) only (22%)

Over 40% of the candidates wrongly held that statement (3) is correct. They did not notice that no
induced current flows in the rod and therefore no opposing force results.

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33. Which of the following may contain sources of ionizing radiations ?

(l) sea water


(2) a rock sample
(3) human body

(l) only (8%)


B. (2) only (32%)
c. (2) and (3) only (12%)
(48%)
(1), (2) and (3)

Less than half ofthe candidates answered correctly. It seems that they were not familiar with the various
natural sources of radiations in the environment.

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questions)
section
B (conventional

Question Performance in General


Number
This question examined candidates' knowledge and understanding of heat transfer. Candidates'
performance was satisfactory. Most candidates managed to obtain the correct numerical answers
in (a) and (b). However, some failed to present the answers with correct units. Part (c) was well
answered. In (d), weaker candidates wrongly held that a good conductor such as copper
absorbed more thermal energy. Perhaps they got heat capacity and conduction mixed up.
Candidates' performance was satisfactory. In (a), quite a number of the candidates did not realise
2 that the sound travelled twice the water depth within the time interval. Most were able to apply
the ideal gas equation to answer (b)(i) although a few candidates forgot to add 273 in converting
the temperature in degrees Celsius. A lot of the candidates were competent in using kinetic
theory to explain the pressure drop in (b)(ii). Candidates employed different approaches,
including mole ratio or pressure ratio, in answering (c). Quite a number of them did not realise
that the pressure of compressed gas needed to be greater than the pressure outside, i.e. 4.0 atm
at the seabed.
This question tested candidates' knowledge and understanding of projectile motion in the context
3
of a volleyball game. The overall performance was good. In (a)(i), most candidates knew that
the work done on the ball became its kinetic energy. A few misinterpreted the situation and also
considered the ball's gravitational potential energy in the calculation. In (a)(ii), nearly half of
the candidates computed the horizontal and vertical components ofthe velocity separately rather
than simply using the method of conservation of mechanical energy. Weaker ones held that B
was the highest point of the trajectory in (b)(i). In (c), most knew that the suggested way would
result in a shorter time of flight. However, some failed to point out explicitly that this was due
to a larger horizontal component of the velocity. Part (d) was well answered, although some
candidates wrongly stated that a concrete floor providing larger friction was the reason.

4 Candidates' performance was fair. Although many were able to indicate the forces in the free-
body diagrams in (a)(i), they did not pay attentionto the points of applicationof the forces
concerned. In (a)(ii), some candidates did not explicitly point out the directions of the net force
acting on the hanging mass and the resulting acceleration. Weaker ones held that there was
acceleration even though they stated that the forces were balanced. Parts (a)(iii) and (b) were
quite challenging. Candidates had to realise that the total mass of the system was constant (i.e.
(M + 0. l) kg) throughout the experiment. Thus, only the more able ones obtained the correct
equation of a straight line in (a)(iii) and found M conectly in (b).
thrust
5 Candidates' performance was fair in general. Some candidates failed to relate the average
Newton's laws of
to the rate of change of momentum of the exhaust gas in (a)(i). In applying
or
motion to find the rocket's accelerationin (a)(ii), weaker candidatesomitted the weight mg
mg. Candidates performed poorly in (a)(iii). Not many
wrongly took the net force as Fthrust+
rocket's mass
were able to point out that the average thrust remained the same while the
of the satellite around the Earth as I year or
decreased. A few candidates mistook the period GM—g to tackle
how to make use of —
365 days in (b)(i). In (b)(ii), only the more able ones knew
this part.
candidates were not aware that the
6 Candidates' performance was satisfactory. In (a)(i), some few
concerned. A
frequency of red light is an invariant, i.e. irrespectiveof the medium in (a)(ii).
incidence and refraction
candidates made mistakes in identifying the correct angles of
the magnified image in (b)(i).
Part (a)(iii) was well answered. Most understood the nature of
O and L in (b)(ii). Not many obtained
Just a few failed to obtain the correct separation between
drawing light rays without arrows and
full marks in (b)(iii). Common mistakes included
some confused diffraction and refraction
inappropriate use of solid and dotted lines. In (b)(iv),
from a black-and-white slide.
in explaining the colour edges of the image formed

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of eddy currents and their
7 This question tested candidates' knowledge and understanding candidates identified the
was poor in general. In (a)(i), not many
applications. The performance
how eddy currents were induced,
correct direction of movement of the metal sheet. Most knew
plate and the magnet. In
however, some forgot to mention the relative motion between the
in the process. In
quite a number of the candidatesomitted the electrical energy produced
vehicle is moving. Some wrongly
very few realised that eddy braking operates only when the
held that frictional braking was more effective or eddy braking would generate an enormous
amount of thermal energy. Part (b) was well answered. Not many stated the correct term
of
'lamination' in answering (c). Some candidates misunderstood part (d), using the production
eddy currents due to changing magnetic field instead of the magnetic field generated by eddy
currents in their answer.
8 Candidates performance was satisfactory. Many candidates realised that resistors R and S were
in parallel and thus answered (a)(i)(ii) correctly. Weaker candidates made mistakes in the units
of currents or mistook 9 V to be the p.d. across the two parallel branches, Parts (a)(iii)(iv) were
well answered. In (b), very few knew the purpose of introducing a protective resistor R in the
branch with an ammeter. Some wrongly stated that the ammeter reading would be infinite
without R, or a short circuit would occur if R was connected in parallel with the ammeter.
9 This question tested candidates' knowledge and understanding of radioactivity in the context of
radioactive potassium contained in bananas. The performance of candidates was good. In
most candidates knew that ßdecay occurred. Candidates' performance was fair in (a)(ii) as some
explained the answer in terms of the ionising power or range of" particles instead of penetrating
power. Many candidates knew how to tackle part (b). However, quite a number of them made
mistakes in unit conversions or mistook N as the number of moles of radionuclides.

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paper 2
of four sections. Each section contained eight multiple-choice questions and one structured
paper2 consisted Section A contained questions on 'Astronomy and Space Science', Section B
C on 'Energy and Use of Energy' and Section D on 'Medical Physics'. Candidates
to attempt all questions in two of the four sections.
wererequired
Popularity
Question
Performance in General
Part (a)(i) revealed that many candidates did not fully understand the concepts of parsec
17 and angular size. Quite a number of them were not aware that the angle must be in
1

radian when calculating the angular size. In (a)(ii), most candidates were able to start
with Kepler's third law but less able ones failed to compare the Sgr A*-Xand Sun-Earth
systems in order to find the mass of Sgr A*. In (b)(i), candidates knew that the radial
velocity could be deduced using the Doppler effect. In (b)(ii), most knew that star X
was at D around the year 2002. However,few could correctly explain the fact that
Sgr A* is at position 2. Some candidatesconfused radial velocity and orbital speed.
In (c), a considerable number of them mistakenly used the radial velocity as the escape
velocity to calculate the radius of the black hole.
In (a), most candidates realised that the atom would collapse according to Rutherford's
64
2 model but some did not give a reason. A few candidates had no idea of the circular
motion of the electron and held that it would hit the nucleus due to electrostatic
attraction. Candidatesdid poorly in (b)(i) and the responses were quite random. (b)(ii)
was well answered. Most managed to find the wavelength but quite a number of them
failed to state the correct colour. Candidates' performance in (b)(iii) was fair. Some
did not know the quantum nature of photons and stated that the photon lost some energy
to the atom and left. In fact an atom would absorb the whole photon if the photon energy
was larger than the ionization energy. Some of them perhaps confused this with
excitation in which only a certain amount of energy could be absorbed and concluded
that the photon would not be absorbed while the atom was not affected. In (b)(iv), not
many were able to mark the two electron transitions for the visible lines correctly. Some
candidates omitted those transitions to n= I. Quite a lot of them did not draw the energy
level diagram in a conventional manner, i.e. the transitions were not drawn in groups or
the diagram was drawn horizontally.
In (a), very few candidates were able to point out that a more massive vehicle required
3 87 a larger force/power for acceleration/deceleration. A common misconception was that
(b)
a larger force/power was for maintaining the speed of a more massive vehicle. Part
was well answered. A few candidates mistook 220 V as the peak voltage while weaker
ones treated kW h as a unit of power. Candidates did poorly in (c). As candidates had
to tackle the questions from first principlesusing relevant data from the information
given, not many were able to answer (c)(i)(ii) correctly. Weaker ones mixed up input
performance in
and output powers or made mistakes in unit conversions. Candidates'
understand how a regenerative braking
(d) was fair. It seems that they did not fully
Mode 3 (driving on a highway)
system works. Quite a number of them wrongly chose
most effective among the
to be the situation in which regenerative braking would be the
situations given.

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bifocal lens for viewing
4 In (a), candidates were required to distinguish the parts of the
32 able to deduce the far point
distant and near objects respectively. Although most were
distance of the unaided eyes in (a)(i), some confused the two parts of the lens when
dealing with near point N in (a)(ii) using the lens formula. Weaker ones did not know
that one dioptre, representing the power of a lens, corresponds to a focal length of one
how the near
metre. Many candidates failed to draw a correct ray diagram showing
point of the unaided eyes was corrected by the lens. In (b)(i), candidates were asked to
information from it to
interpret an ultrasound A-scan display graph and extract relevant
find the thickness of the eye lens. Most candidates were able to identify the time interval
corresponding to the echoes produced at the boundaries of the eye lens and found the
answer using the echo time formula. Some mistook the echo from the retina and
obtained a centimetre thickness for the eye lens. This revealed that they had no idea
about the size of the eye ball, which is about 2 cm in diameter. A few candidates made
mistakes in manipulatingmicrosecond (us) time intervals. In (b)(ii), most candidates
correctly chose 15 MHz rather than 3 MHz ultrasound for the A-scan as it provided a
higher resolution. A few picked 3 MHz ultrasound and held that it was less harmful or
it had a higher penetrating power. Less than half of the candidates were able to give
examples of medical applications of ultrasound in (b)(iii) other than its diagnostic
medical a lications.

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