Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

1 (16) NAVIGATION DIRECTION, LATITUDE AND LONGITUDE

1.18 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS

1. What is the approximate compression of the Earth?

a) 3%
b) 0.03%
c) 0.3%
d) 1/3000

2. A Graticule is the name given to:

a)A series of lines drawn on a chart
b)A series of Latitude and Longitude lines drawn on a chart or map
c)A selection of small circles as you get nearer to either pole
d) Both a & b are correct

3. A great circle has its North vertex at 70N 130E. What is the position of its South vertex?
a) 70N 050W
b) 70S 050E
c) 70S 050W
d) 70N 050E

4. Deleted.

5. Given that the compression of the Earth is 1/297 and that the semi-major axis of the Earth, measured at the
axis of the Equator is 6378.4 km, what is the semi-major axis of the Earth measured at the axis of the
Poles'?
a) 6399.9 Km
b) 6356.9 Km
c) 6378.4 Km
d) 6367.0 Km

6. A nautical mile is defined as:

a) The length of the arc of a great circle which subtends an angle of one minute in the centre of the
Earth.
b) The length of the are of the Earth’s equator which subtends an angle of one minute at the centre.
c) The length of 1/10,000th part of the average distance between the equator and either pole.
d) None of the above.

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2 (18-20) NAVIGATION GREAT CIRCLES, RHUMB LINES AND DISTANCES ON THE EARTH
2.9 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS

1. What is the Change of Latitude between the following positions:

a)52° 15'N to 39°35'N
b)49°351N to 60°201S
c)74°20'S to 34°301S
d)71°20'N to 86°45'N over the north pole.

2. Deleted.

3. What is the Change of Longitude between the following positions:

a) 075°40'W to 125°35'W b) 001 °20'E to 004°20'W
c) 150°40’ E to 179°30'E d) 162°36'W to 140°42'E

4. Deleted.

5. Deleted.

6. Deleted.

7. You are at position A at 54°20'N 002°30'W. Given a ch.lat of 16°20'N and a ch.long of 020°30'W to B,
what is the position of B?
a) 70° 40'N 023° 00'W
b) 70° 40'S 023° 00'W
c) 70° 40'N 023° 00'E
d) 60° 40'N 023° 00'W

8. You are at position C at 36°47'S 179°21 'E. Given a ch.lat of 46°47'N and a ch. long of 20°30'E to D, what
is the position of D?
a) 10° 00' S 160° 09'W
b) 10° 00' N 160° 09'W
c) 10° 00' N 160° 09'E
d) 11° 00' N 160° 09'W

9. Deleted.

10. Any Meridian Line is a:

a) Rhumb Line
b) Semi Great Circle
c) Rhumb Line and a semi Great Circle
d) All above are correct.

11. A Rhumb Line cuts all meridians at the same angle. This gives:
a) The shortest distance between two points.
b) A line which could never be a great circle track
c) A line of constant direction
d) All above are correct.

12. The shortest distance between to points on the Earth is along the:
a) Rhumb line
b) Great circle
c) Both of ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) None of ‘a’ and ‘c’

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13. The departure between any two points of A and B on the Earth can be calculated by the formula:
a) Ch. long (mins) X sin mean Lat
b) Ch. long (mins) X sec mean Lat
c) Ch. long (mins) X cos mean Lat
d) Ch. long (mins) X cose mean Lat

Where mean lat = Lat A + Lat B

2

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

3 (21-24) NAVIGATION EARTH MAGNETISM

3.16 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS
1. The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is:
a) Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
b) Proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
c) Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field.
d) Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field.

2. What is the definition of magnetic variation?

a)The angle between the direction indicated by a compass and Magnetic North.
b)The angle between True North and Compass North.
c)The angle between Magnetic North and True North.
d)The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North.

3. At the magnetic equator:

a) Dip is zero
b) Variation is zero
c) Deviation is zero
d) The isogonal is an agonic line

4. Which of these is a correct statement about the Earth's magnetic field?

a) It acts as though there is a large blue magnetic pole in Northern Canada
b) The angle of dip is the angle between the vertical and the total magnetic force.
c) It may be temporary, transient, or permanent.
d) It has no effect on aircraft deviation.

5. Where is a compass most effective?

a)About midway between the earth's magnetic poles
b)In the region of the magnetic South pole
c)In the region of the magnetic North pole
d)On the geographic equator

6. The value of variation:

a)is zero at the magnetic equator
b)has a maximum value of 180°
c)has a maximum value of 45° E or 45° W
d)cannot exceed 90°

7. The agonic line:

a) is midway between the magnetic North and South poles
b) follows the geographic equator
c) is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic North and South poles
d) Follows separate paths out of the North polar regions, one currently running through Western Europe
and the other through the USA

8. The angle between True North and Magnetic north is known as:
a) deviation
b) variation
c) alignment error
d) dip

9. The value of magnetic variation on a chart changes with time. This is due to:
a) Movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase
b) Increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c) Reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d) Movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease

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10. Deleted.

11. What is the maximum possible value of Dip Angle?

a) 66°
b) 180°
c) 90°
d) 45°

12. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole?

a) 0°
b) 90°
c) 180°
d) 64°

13. What is a line of equal magnetic variation?

a)An isocline
b)An isogonal
c)An isogriv
d)An isovar

14. If variation is West; then:

a)True North is West of Magnetic North
b)Compass North is West of Magnetic North
c)True North is East of Magnetic North
d)Magnetic North is West of Compass North

15. Deleted.

16. Disadvantages of the latitude are longitude Reference system:

a) The possibility of confusion in areas closed to the equator and the prime meridian
b) The necessity of giving a 10 or 11 figure group to obtain positional accuracy of 1 min
c) One minute of latitude are one minute of longitude represent different distances on the earth, except of the
equator
d) All the above.

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9 (17) NAVIGATION MULTI-DRIFT WINDS AND WIND COMPONENTS

9.14 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS – WIND COMPONENTS

1. An airfield has runways 18/36 and 07/25, all of equal length. The TAF W/V is 310/25. Variation is 20°E.
Which will be the best R/W for take-off and landing?
a) 18
b) 36
c) 07
d) 25

2. An airfield has runways 18/36 and 07/25, all of equal length. The TAF W/V is 310/25. Variation is 20°E.
Which will be the best R/W for take-off and landing and head and cross wind components on this runway?

RW Head Cross
a) 36 24 17
b) 18 13 19
c) 25 19 16
d) 07 17 12

3. An aircraft requires 10 knots headwind component for take-off. The crosswind limit for the aircraft is 20
knots. The only runway available is 25. The ATIS W/V is 290/10G40. What are the minimum and
maximum windspeeds for take-off?
Min Max
a) 17 31
b) 13 17
c) 13 31
d) 17 26

4. On a particular take-off, you can accept up to 10 knots tailwind. The runway QDM is 047, the variation is
17°E and the ATIS gives the wind direction as 210. What is the maximum wind strength you can accept?
a)18 knots
b)1 I knots
c)8 knots
d)4 knots

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

10 (05) NAVIGATION THE 1 IN 60 RULE

10.4 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS
1. You are flying from A to B. You find that your position is 60 nm outbound from A and 7 nm left of the
required track. What is your track error angle?
a) 7° L
b) 7° R
c) 3.5° L
d) 3.5° R

2. You are flying from C to D. You find that your position is 120 nm outbound from C and 8 nm right of the
required track. What is your track error angle?
a) 8° R
b) 8° L
c) 4° R
d) 4° L

3. You are flying from E to F. You find that your position is 90 nm outbound from E and 6 nm right of the
required track. What is your track error angle?
a) 4° L
b) 4° R
c) 6° R
d) 6° L

4. You are flying from G to H. You find that your position is 30 nm outbound from G and 4 nm left of the
required track. What is your track error angle?
a) 4° L
b) 4° R
c) 8° R
d) 8° L

5. You are flying from J to K, which is a required track of 045°(T). You find that your position is 80 nm
outbound from J and 4 nm left of the required track. What is your track made good?
a) 032°(T)
b) 036°(T)
c) 042°(T)
d) 045°(T)

6. You are flying from L to M, which is a required track of 220°(T). You find that your position is 45 nm
outbound from L and 3 nm right of the required track. What is your track made good?
a) 224°(T)
b) 220°(T)
c) 234°(T)
d) 244°(T)

7. You are flying from N to P, which is a required track of 315°(T). You find that your position is 40 nm
outbound from N and 6 nm left of the required track. What is your track made good?
a) 302°(T)
b) 306°(T)
c) 309°(T)
d) 315°(T)

8. A surveyor places himself 660 meters from a mast and measures an elevation angle of 4° to the top of the
mast. What is the height of the mast?
a) 34metres
b) 40metres
c) 44 metres
d) 54 metres

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9. You are flying an instrument approach to an airfield and the required glide slope angle is 3.00°. What
height should you be passing when you are exactly 2 nautical miles from the touchdown point? (NOTE:
For this question, assume 1 nm = 6000 feet).
a) 400 feet
b) 500 feet
c) 550 feet
d) 600 feet

10. You are flying an instrument approach to an airfield and the required glide slope angle is 2.5°. You are
correctly on the glideslope and you are passing a height of 1000 feet QFE. What is your range from the
touchdown point? (Assume 1 nm = 6000 feet).
a) 4 nm
b) 6 nm
c) 7 nm
d) 9 nm

11. You are flying from Q to R, which is a required track of 125°(T). You find that your position is 40 nm from
R and 2 nm left of the required track. What track must you fly to arrive overhead R?
a) 120°(T)
b) 128°(T)
c) 138°(T)
d) 140°(T)

12. You are flying from S to T, which is a required track of 272°(T). You find that your position is 50 nm from
T and 5 nm right of the required track. What track must you fly to arrive overhead T?
a) 246°(T)
b) 256°(T)
c) 266°(T)
d) 272°(T)

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

11 (11-12) NAVIGATION NAVIGATION USING THE 1 IN 60 RULE

11.7 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS

1. If an aircraft is 3° off required track at a range of 120 nm, how far in nautical miles (nm) is the aircraft off
required track?
a) 4nm
b) 5nm
c) 6nm
d) 7nm

2. If an aircraft is 2 miles off required track at a range of 40 nm, what is the angle off track (track error)?
a) 6°
b) 5°
c) 4°
d) 3°

3. An aircraft leaves A to fly to B, 95 nms distance. Having flown 35 nms, the aircraft position is found from
a `pinpoint' (a geographical point over which the aircraft has flown); the pinpoint is 7 nms right of
track.What is the track error?
a) 12° right
b) 14° right
c) 15° right
d) 16° right

4. An aircraft leaves A to fly to B, 95 nms distance. Having flown 35 nms, the aircraft position is found from
a `pinpoint' (a geographical point over which the aircraft has flown); the pinpoint is 7 nms right of track.
What alteration of heading is required to fly direct to B?
a) 19° right(TE = 12°, CA = 7°)
b) 09° left (TE = 12°, CA = 7°)
c) 19° left (TE = 12°, CA = 7°)
d) 29° left (TE = 12°, CA = 7°)

5. An aircraft is flying from point A to C, planned track 074°M, distance 70 nm, heading 065°M. Having
flown 30 nm, the pilot `pinpoints' the aircraft position overhead point C, 4 nm left of planned track.
What is the track error overhead C ?
a) 8° left
b) 8° right
c) 6° left
d) 6° right

6. An aircraft is flying from A to B, planned track 250°M, distance 96 nms, heading 260°M, ground speed 180 kts.
The aircraft departs A at 1000 hrs. At 1012, the aircraft is overhead C, 3 nms right of planned track. Use the
1:60 to estimate the TMG.
a) TMG = 250°M
b) TMG = 255°M
c) TMG = 265°M
d) TMG = 275°M

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

12 (08-09) NAVIGATION OTHER APPLICATIONS OF THE 1 IN 60 RULE

12.7 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS
1. An aircraft is flying due South. At 1000 hrs, point P bears 267°(T) from the aircraft. At 1006 hrs, point P
bears 275 °(T) from the aircraft. If the aircraft has a ground speed of 120 kts, estimate the range of the
aircraft from point P.
a) 70nm
b) 80nm
c) 85nm
d) 90nm

2. You are approaching VGHS/DAC on a glide slope of 3.5 °. What height (QFE) should you be at 2 miles
range?
a) 700 ft
b) 650 ft
c) 550 ft
d) 500 ft

3. Deleted.

4. Deleted.

5. Deleted.

6. On the approach to VGEG/CGP runway 23, glide slope 3 °, you reduce speed from 150 kts to 120 kts.
What change should you make to your ROD to maintain glideslope?
a) Decrease ROD by 120 ft/min
b) Decrease ROD by 140 ft/min
c) Decrease ROD by 150 ft/min
d) Decrease ROD by 160 ft/min

7. Deleted.

8. Deleted.

9. You are flying an airway with a centerline QDM of 137 °M towards VOR/DME `A'. Your RMI reads
141°M/DME 90 nms.Are you left or right of centerline ?
a) left
b) right

10. You are flying an airway with a centerline QDM of 137 °M towards VOR/DME `A'. Your RMI reads 141°
M / DME 90 nms.What is your distance off the airway centerline ?
a) 5nms
b) 6nms
c) 7nms
d) 8nms

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

13 (15-16) NAVIGATION TROPOGRPHICAL MAPS & MAP REDING

13.3 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS

1. You are flying a VFR route and have become uncertain of your position. Which is the best course of
action?
a) set heading towards a line feature - coastline, river or motorway
b) turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognised before
c) fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next check point
d) Turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base

2. What is the symbol for an unlighted obstacle?

A B C D

3. Deleted.

4. Deleted.

5. Which of the following is the symbol for an exceptionally high (over 1000 feet AGL) lighted obstruction?

A. B. C. D.

6. What symbol is used to show a VORTAC on a map/chart?

A. B. C. D.

7. Which is the symbol for a VOR?

A. B. C. D.

8. What is the symbol for aeronautical ground light ?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

A. B. C. D.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

14 (18-19) NAVIGATION CONVERGENCY & CONVERSION ANGLE

14.8 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS
1. The convergency of the meridians through M and N which are in the southern hemisphere is 12°. If the
rhumb line track from M to N is 249°(T), what is the great circle bearing ofN from M ?.
a) 243°(T)
b) 245°(T)
c) 247°(T)
d) 253°(T)

2. The convergency of the meridians through M and N which are in the southern hemisphere is 12°. If the
rhumb line track from M to N is 249°(T), what is the great circle bearing of M from N ?.
a) 070°(T)
b) 075°(T)
c) 080°(T)
d) 085°(T)

3. Deleted.

4. In northern hemisphere, the great circle track from A to B measures 227°(T) at A and 225°(T) at B. What is
the convergency of the meridians through A and B?
a) 1° of Convergency
b) 2° of Convergency
c) 3° of Convergency
d) 4° of Convergency

5. Deleted.

6. Deleted.

7. Deleted.

8. Deleted.

9. The great circle bearing of A from B is 245°(T) and the rhumb line bearing of B from A is 060°(T).
If the mean latitude between A and B is 53° and the longitude of B is 02°15'E, what is the longitude of A?
a) 005° 15'W
b) 007° 15'W
c) 010° 15'W
d) 012° 15'W

10. Deleted.

11. Earth convergence can be calculate by the formula:

a) earth convergence = ch.long X sin mean lat
b) earth convergence = ch. long X cos mean lat
c) earth convergence = ch. long X sec mean lat
d) All above are correct.

12. Conversion angle is equal to:

a) ½ X Earth convergence
b) ½ X ch long X sin mean lat
c) Only ‘a’ is correct
d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

15(07-09) NAVIGATION DEPARTURE

15.7 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS

1. A flight is to be made along the parallel of latitude from A at 48°00'N 04°00'W to B at 48°00'N 02° 27' E.
Calculate the distance.
a) 239 nm
b) 245 nm
c) 251 nm
d) 259 nm

2.----- 10 Deleted.

11. An aircraft starts at position 0410S 17822W and heads true north for 2950 nm, then turns 90 degrees left,
and maintains a rhumb line track for 314 kilometers. What is its final position?
a) 5500N 17422W
b) 4500N 17422W
c) 5500N 17738E
d) 4500N 17738E

12. An aircraft at position 2700 N 17000W travels 3000 km on a track of 180°(T), then 3000 km on a track of
090°(T), then 3000 km on a track of 000°(T), then 3000 km on a track of 270°(T). What is its final
position?
a) 2700 N 17000W
b) OOOON/S 17000W
c) 2700 N 17318W
d) 2700 N 14300 W

13. An aircraft departs a point 0400 N 17000W and flies 600 nm South, followed by 600 nm East, then 600 nm
North, then 600 nm West. What is its final position?
a) 0400 N 17000W
b) 0600S 17000W
c) 0400 N 169° 58.1'W
d) 0400 N 170° 01.8'W

14. An aircraft is flying around the Earth eastwards along the 60N parallel of latitude at a groundspeed of 240
knots. At what groundspeed would another aircraft have to fly eastwards along the Equator to fly once
round the Earth in the same journey time?
a) 600 knots
b) 240 knots
c) 480 knots
d) 120 knots

15. Your position is 5833N 17400W. You fly exactly 6 nm eastwards. What is your new position?
a) 5833N 17411.5 W
b) 5833N 17355 W
c) 5833N 17340 W
d) 5833N 17348.5 W

16. Departure is the distance between two given meridians, measured along a stated parallel and is expressed
in:
a) Kilometer
b) Nautical mile
c) Statute mile
d) None of the above

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

17. The formula used for calculation of departure:

a) Ch long (degree) X cos mean lat
b) Ch. long (mins) X cos mean lat
c) Ch. long (degree) X sin mean lat
d) Ch long (mins) X sin mean lat

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16(08-09) NAVIGATION SCALE

16.8CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS

1. ----- 7 Deleted.

8. On a chart, 49 nautical miles is represented by 7.0 centimeters. What is the scale?

a) 1 /700,000
b) 1 / 2,015,396
c) 1 / 1,296,400
d) 1 / 1,156,600

9. On a chart, meridians at 43N are shown every 10 degrees apart. This is shown on the chart by a distance of
14 cm. What is the scale?
a) 1:2,000,000
b) 1:4,000,000
c) 1:5,000,000
d) 1:6,000,000

10. Scale on map or chart can be expressed by:

a) The representative fraction
b) The plain statement
c) The graduated scale
d) All the above

11. If the scale factor is other than unity the difference between scale factor and unity is called:
a) Scale deviation
b) Scale error
c) None of ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) Both of ‘a’ and ‘b’

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18(13-14) NAVIGATION MERCATOR CHARTS – PROPERTIES

18.5CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS– MERCATOR GENERAL PROPERTIES

1. A normal Mercator chart is a _______ projection?

(i) Cylindrical
(ii) Perspective
(iii) Non-Perspective
(iv) Conformal
(v) Conical
(vi) Azimuthal

The correct combination of the above statements is:

a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
d) (iii), (iv) and (vi)

2. A direct Mercator graticule is:

a) Rectangular
b) Square
c) Circular
d) Convergent

3. On a normal Mercator chart, rhumb lines are represented as:

a) Curves concave to the Equator
b) Curves convex to the Equator
c) Complex curves
d) Straight lines

4. On a direct Mercator, Great Circles can be represented as:

a)Straight lines
b) Curves
c)Straight lines and curves
d) all of the above

5. On a direct Mercator, with the exception of the meridians and the Equator, Great Circles are represented as:
a) Curves concave to the Nearer Pole
b) Curves convex to the Equator
c) Curves concave to the Equator
d) Straight lines

6. The angle between a straight line on a Mercator chart and the corresponding great circle is:
a) Zero
b) Earth convergency
c) Conversion Angle
d) Chart Convergence

7. If the rhumb line track from Turin (45N 008E) to Khartoum (15N 032E) is 145°(T), what is the direction of
the great circle track measured at Turin?
a) 133°(T)
b) 139°(T)
c) 145°(T)
d) 151°(T)

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8. If the rhumb line track from Turin (45N 008E) to Khartoum (15N 032E) is 145°(T), what is the direction of
the great circle track from Khartoum to Turin?
a) 319°(T)
b) 325°(T)
c) 331°(T)
d) 337°(T)

9. On a Mercator chart, the rhumb line track from Durban (30S 032E) to Perth (30S 116E) is 090°(T). What is
the great circle track from Perth to Durban?
a) 291 °(T)
b) 312° (T)
c) 228° (T)
d) 249° (T)

10. At 60S on a Mercator chart, chart convergence is:

a) greater than Earth convergency
b) "correct"
c) less than Earth convergency
d) equal to ch long x 0.866

11. On a Gromonic Projection the Grat circles are:

a) Concase to the nearer pole
b) Couver to the nearer pole
c) Straight lines
d) None of the above.

12. For a Cylindrical Marcator projector the scale factor is equal to:
a) Cos lat
b) Sec lat
c) Sin lat
d) Cosec lat

13. On a oblique Marcator scale is almost constant within a distance band of :

a) 920 nm
b) 900 nm
c) 960 nm
d) None of the above.

14. On a normal Mercator Projection the correct statement is:

a) The projection is not conformal
b) It is not equal area projection
c) It is perspective
d) A great circle is always represented by a straight line.

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19(09) NAVIGATION MERCATOR CHARTS – SCALE

19.7CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS – MERCATOR SCALE

1. For a Marcator chart

a) Scale factor along the meridian is 1.01 and along the parallels is sec λ
b) Scale factor along the meridian as 1 and along the parallels is sec λ
c) Scale factor along the meridians is 1 and along the parallels is sin λ
d) Scale factor along the meridian is 1.01 and along the parallels is sin λ

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

20(11-12) NAVIGATION MERCATOR CHARTS – PLOTTING

20.4 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS – MERCATOR PLOTTING
1. An aircraft receives a QTE from airfield `A' of 063°T. Airfield A is in the Northern Hemisphere. The
convergency between the aircraft and the airfield is 6°. What bearing should be plotted on a Mercator chart
from the airfield?
a. 060° (T)
b. 063° (T)
c. 066° (T)
d. 069° (T)

2. An aircraft receives a QTE from airfield `B' of 315°(T). Airfield B is in the Southern Hemisphere. The
convergency between the aircraft and the airfield is 2°. What bearing should be plotted on a Mercator chart
from the airfield?
a. 314°
b. 315°
c. 316°
d. 317°

3. An aircraft flying in the Northern Hemisphere has an RMI reading of 050° to VOR beacon `C'. Variation at
the aircraft is 5°E. Variation at the VOR beacon is 8°E. If the convergency between the aircraft meridian
and the VOR meridian is 4°, what bearing should be plotted on a Mercator chart from the beacon to the
aircraft?
a. 234°
b. 236°
c. 233°
d. 238°

4. An aircraft flying in the Southern Hemisphere has an RMI reading of 130° to VOR beacon `D'. Variation at
the aircraft is 5°W.Variation at the VOR beacon is 2°W.If the convergency between the aircraft meridian
the VOR meridian is 2°, what bearing should be plotted on a Mercator chart from the beacon to the
aircraft?
a. 310°
b. 307°
c. 308°
d. 309°

5. An aircraft and an NDB are in the Northern Hemisphere. The aircraft's heading is 236°M. Variation is
13°W at the aircraft and 11 °W at the NDB. The relative bearing (RBI) of the NDB is 226° (R).
Convergency between the aircraft's meridian and the meridian of the NDB is 4°. What bearing should be
plotted from the NDB on a Mercator chart?
a. 271 °(T)
b. 269°(T)
c. 273°(T)
d. 275°(T)

6. An aircraft and an NDB are in the Southern Hemisphere. The aircraft's heading is 236°M. Variation is
13°W at the aircraft and 11 °W at the NDB. The relative bearing (RBI) of the NDB is 226° (R).
Convergency between the aircraft's meridian and the meridian of the NDB is 4°. What bearing should be
plotted from the NDB on a Mercator chart?

a. 269°(T)
b. 267°(T)
c. 271°(T)
d. 265°(T)

7. Deleted.

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8. The great circle bearing of a radio facility at 175°W from an aircraft at 175°E is 068°(T). Given that the
convergency between the meridians is 6°, what bearing should be plotted from the radio facility on a
Mercator chart? (Assume Northern Hemisphere).
a. 248°
b. 245°
c. 254°
d. 251°

9. The great circle bearing of a radio facility at 175°W from an aircraft at 175°E is 068°(T). Given that the
convergency between the meridians is 6°, what bearing should be plotted from the radio facility on a
Mercator chart? (Assume Southern Hemisphere).
a. 248°
b. 245°T
c. 254°T
d. 251°T

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22(10-12) NAVIGATION LAMBERT’S CONFORMAL CHART - 2

22.8 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS

1.----3. Deleted.

4. A Lamberts Conical conformal chart has standard parallels at 63N and 41N. What is the constant of the
cone?
a) .891
b) .788
c) .656
d) .707

5. Scale on a Lambert's conformal conic chart

a) is constant
b) is constant along a meridian of longitude
c) varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
d) is constant along a parallel of latitude

6. On a conformal chart, the standards parallels are 41 °20'N and 11 °40'N. What is the constant of the cone?
a) .660
b) .202
c) .446
d) .895

7. Scale on a Lambert conformal chart is:

a) constant along a line of latitude
b) constant along a line of longitude
c) constant everywhere
d) correct at the parallel of origin

8. On a Lambert chart, the constant of the cone is .78585. What is the parallel of tangency?
a) 51o02'
b) 51 °36'
c) 51°15'
d) 51o48'

9. On a Lambert's chart the constant of the cone is 0.80. A is at 53N 04W. You plan to fly to B. The initial
Lambert's chart straight-line track is 070°(T) and the Rhumb Line track from A to B is 082°(T). What is the
longitude of B?
a) 26 E
b) 34 W
c) 11 E
d) 15 E

10. The best chart made by lambert conformal Projection is between the latitudes:
a) 12S and 12 N
b) 12 and 74 (either of N or at S)
c) 74 and 90 (either of N or at S)
d) None of the above.

11. A polar chart is the best between 90 and 74 and it is made by:
a) Gnomonic projection
b) Stographicprojection
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above.

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23(01-11) NAVIGATION
23.2
1. What is the shortest distance in kilometers between San Francisco (38N 123W) and Dubai (25N 057E) ?
a) 7020
b) 8073
c) 13001
d) 11250

2. A Great Circle has a Northern Vertex of 50N 100W. The Southern Vertex is?
a) 40S 100W
b) 40S 080E
c) 50S 100W
d) 50S 080E

3. An ICAO nautical mile is defined as?

a) 6080 feet
b) 1842 metres
c) 1863 feet
d) 6062 feet

4. How much is the polar diameter of the Earth different from the equatorial diameter?
a) less by 40 km
b) greater by 27 statute miles
c) less by 27 statute miles
d) greater by 27 nautical miles

5. The maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude occurs at about?
a) 45° North and South
b) 90° North and South
c) 60° North and South
d) 0° (Equator)

6. Required course 045°(T), W/V = 190°(T)/30, FL=55 at ISA, Variation = 15°E. CAS = 120 knots. What is
magnetic heading and G/S?
a) 052°(M) 154
b) 067°(M) 154
c) 037°(M) 154
d) 037°(M) 113

7. What is the shortest distance in kilometres between Cairo (30°17'N 030°10 E) and Durban (29°48' S
030010'E) ?
a) 3605
b) 4146
c) 4209
d) 6676

8. An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km. What is its latitude at the end of the flight' ?
a) 03°50' S
b) 02°50' S
c) 02010' S
d) 08°55' S

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9. An aircraft is at latitude I0N and is flying South at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is ?
a) los
b) 02 N
c) 02 S
d) 0N / S

10. The circumference of the Earth is approximately?

a) 43200 nm
b) 10800 nm
c) 21600 nm
d) 5400 nm

11. SAT = +35°C. Pressure alt (corrected for barometric error) = 5000 feet. What is true alt?
a) 4550 feet
b) 5550 feet
c) 4920 feet
d) 5320 feet

12. Given that the value of ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297 and that the semi-major axis of the Earth, measured
at the axis of the Equator is 6378.4 Kin, what is the semi-major axis of the earth measured at the axis of the
Poles?
a) 6399.9 Km
b) 6356.9 Km
c) 6378.4 Km
d) 6367.0 Km

13. You plan to fly a track (course) of 348°(T), Drift is 17°port, Variation = 32°W. Deviation is 4°E. What
compass heading should you fly?
a) 0410
b) 033°
c) 016°
d) 359°

14. At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation

a)depends on the value of magnetic heading
b)depends on the value of true heading
c)varies slowly over time
d)depends on the type of compass installed

15. At the magnetic equator

a)Dip is zero
b)Variation is zero
c)Deviation is zero
d)The isogonal is an agonic line

16. The value of magnetic variation on a chart changes with time. This is due to:
a) movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase
b) increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c) reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d) movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease

17. The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:
a) using long magnets
b) keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the pivot point and using damping wires
c) pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
d) using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

18. Given:
True Track = 352o (T), Variation = 11o W, Deviation = - 5o, Drift = 10o R
What is Heading °(C)?
a) 078°(C)
b) 346°(C)
c) 358°(C)
d) 025°(C)

19. Pressure Altitude is 27,000 feet, OAT = -35°C, Mach No = 0.45, WN = 270/85, Track = 200°(T). What is
drift and groundspeed?
a) 18L / 252 knots
b) 15R / 310 knots
c) 17L / 228 knots
d) 17R / 287 knots

20. You plan to take off from KhamisMushayt, Saudi Arabia, elevation 6500 ft. The ambient temperature
is +25°C. What is your Density Altitude?
a) 3500 ft
b) 6500 ft
c) 9500 ft
d) 12500 ft

21. You are flying at 400 kts TAS, Indicated temperature -50°C. What is your COAT?
a) -67°C
b) -50°C
c) -33°C
d) -17°C

22. You are flying at FL330 at Mach No 0.9M.Ambient temperature is ISA +15°. What is your TAS?
a) 600 knots
b) 595 knots
c) 540 knots
d) 505 knots

23. You plan to land on R/W 14. The met forecast wind velocity is 110/30. Variation is 30°W. What crosswind
do you expect?
a) 15 kts
b) 0 kts
c) 26 kts
d) 30 kts

24. Given: IAS 120 knots, FL 80, OAT +20°C. What is the TAS?
a) 132 kt
b) 141 kt
c) 102 kt
d) 120 kt

25. Given: TAS 200 kt, Track 110°(T), W/V 015/40, calculate heading (°T) and groundspeed.
a) 0970 - 201 kt
b) 0990 - 200 kt
c) 1210 - 207 kt
d) 1210 - 199 kt

26. Given: True Hdg 145°, TAS 240 kt, True Track 150°, G/S 210 kt, calculate the Wind.
a) 360/35
b) 295/35
c) 180/35
d) 115/35

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

27. Given: TAS 140 kt, Heading 005°(T), WN 265/25, calculate the drift and groundspeed.
a) 11 R - 140 kt
b) 10 R - 146 kt
c) 9R - 140 kt
d) 11 R - 142 kt

28. An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient on a flat terrain. Its height at 7 nm from the runway is
approximately?
a) 3640 feet
b)1890 feet
c) 2210 feet
d) 680 feet

29. G/S = 240 knots, Distance to go = 500 nm. What is time to go?
a) 20 minutes
b) 29 minutes
c) 2h 05 m
d) 2h 12 m

30. Course 040°(T), TAS 120 kn, Wind speed = 30 knots. From which direction will the wind give the greatest
drift ?
a) 215°(T)
b) 230°(T)
c) 235°(T)
d) 240°(T)

31. X ------- 30 nm--------Y----------20nm-----Z

ATA X is 1420. ETA Y is 1447. ATA Y is 1450. What is new ETA Z?
a) 1506
b) 1512
c) 1510
d) 1515

32. Heading is 156°(T), TAS is 320 knots, WN 130/45. What is your true track?
a) 160
b) 152
c) 104
d) 222

33. You are flying at a True Mach No of. 72 in a SAT of -45°C. At 1000 hours you are 100 nm from the CPT
DME and your ETA at CPT is 1012. ATC ask you to slow down to be at CPT at 1016. What should your
new True Mach No (TMN) be if you reduce speed at 100 nm to go?
a) .67
b) .63
c) .54
d) .51

34. Track = 090°(T), TAS = 460 knots, W/V = 360°(T) / 100, Variation = 10°E, Deviation = -2. What is
compass heading and groundspeed?
a) 079o – 470 kt
b) 069o – 450 kt
c) 068o – 460 kt
d) 070o – 455 kt

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

35. You leave A to fly to B, 475 nm away, at 1000 hours. Your ETA at B is 1130. At 1040, you are 190 nm
from A. What groundspeed is required to arrive on time at B?
a) 317 knots
b) 330 knots
c) 342 knots
d) 360 knots

36. The wind velocity is 359/25. An aircraft is heading 180° (T) at a TAS of 198 knots. (All directions are
True). What is its track and groundspeed?
a) 180o – 223 kt
b) 179o – 220 kt
c) 180o – 220 kt
d) 179o – 223 kt

37. An aircraft is climbing at a constant CAS in ISA conditions. What will be the effect on TAS and Mach No?
a) TAS increases and Mach No decreases
b) Both increase
c) Both decrease
d) TAS decreases and Mach No increases

38. Convert 70 metres/sec into knots.

a) 136 knots
b) 36 knots
c) 146 knots
d) 54 knots

39. Airfield elevation is 1000 feet. The QNH is 988. Use 27 feet per hectopascal. What is pressure altitude?
a) 675 feet
b) 325 feet
c) 1675 feet
d) 825 feet

40. You are flying from A to B, planned track 245°(M), distance 225 nm. Your groundspeed is 180 knots.
After 15 minutes flying, you fix your position as 3 nm left of planned track. Which of the following
statements is correct?
a) Your drift is 2°R
b) Your drift is 4°R
c) You should turn 5°right to go direct to B
d) You should turn 8° right to go direct to B

41. A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME station.
Radial = 180° +/- 1°, distance = 200 nm What is the approximate maximum error?
a) +/- 2 nm
b) +/- 3.5 nm
c) +/- 7 nm
d) +/- 1 nm

42. You are flying a VFR route and have become uncertain of your position. Which is the best course of
action?
a) set heading towards a line feature - coastline, river or motorway
b) turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognised before
c) fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next check point
d) turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

43. By what amount must you change your rate of descent given a 10 knot increase in headwind on a 3°
glideslope ?
a) 50 feet per minute increase
b) 30 feet per minute increase
c) 50 feet per minute decrease
d) 30 feet per minute decrease

44. You are on an ILS 3-degree glideslope which passes over the runway threshold at 50 feet. Your DME range
is 25 nm from the threshold. What is your height above the runway threshold elevation? (Use the 1 in 60
rule and 6000 feet = 1 nautical mile).
a) 8010 feet
b) 7450 feet
c) 6450 feet
d) 7550 feet

45. An INS-equipped aircraft flies from 56N 020W (Waypoint 3) to 56N 030W (Waypoint 4). The initial INS
desired track at Waypoint 3 is:
a) 086°(T)
b) 082°(T)
c) 274°(T)
d) 278°(T)

46. An aircraft starts at position 0410S 17822W and tracks true north for 2950 nm, then turns 90 degrees left,
and maintains a rhumb line track for 314 kilometres. What is the final position?
a) 5500 N 17422 W
b) 4500 N 17422 W
c) 5500 N 17738 E
d) 4500 N 17738 E

47. On a chart, 49 nautical miles is represented by 7.0 centimetres. What is the scale?
a) 1 /700,000
b) 1 / 2,015,396
c) 1 / 1,296,400
d) 1 / 1,156,600

48. On a particular Direct Mercator wall chart, the 180W to 180E parallel of latitude at 53N is 133 cm long.
What is the scale of the chart at 30S?
a) 1 /3,00,000
b) 1 / 18,000,000
c) 1 / 21,000,000
d) 1 / 26,000,000

49. Which of the following differences in latitude will give the biggest difference in the initial Great Circle
track and the mean Great Circle track between 2 points separated by 10° change of longitude?
a) 60N and 60S
b) 60N and 55N
c) 30S and 30N
d) 30S and 25S

50. On a chart, meridians at 43N are shown every 10 degrees apart. This is shown on the chart by a distance of
14 cm. What is the scale?
a) 1/2,00,000
b) 1 / 4,000,000
c) 1 / 5,000,000
d) 1 / 6,000,000

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

51. A non-perspective chart:

a) is produced directly from a light projection of a Reduced Earth
b) cannot be used for navigation
c) is produced by mathematically adjusting a light projection of the Reduced Earth
d) is used for a Polar Stereographic projection

52. On a Mercator chart, a Rhumb Line appears as a:

a) small circle concave to the nearer pole
b) curve convex to the nearer pole
c) complex curve
d) straight line

53. Mercator charts use for what Projections?

a) cylindrical
b) conical
c) plane/azimuthal
d) complex

54. How does scale change on a normal Mercator chart?

a) expands as the secant
b) expands directly with the secant of the latitude
c) correct on the standard parallels, expands outside them, contracts within them
d) expands as the secant of the E/W great circle distance

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25(10) NAVIGATION TRANSVERSE & OBLIQUE MERCATOR CHARTS

25.10 CONSOLIDATION
1. Convergence on a Transverse Mercator chart is correct at:
a) the datum meridian only
b) the datum meridian and the Equator
c) the Equator and the Poles
d) the Parallel of Origin

2. Where is scale correct on a Transverse Mercator chart?

a) along the great Circle of Tangency
b) at the Poles and the Equator
c) along the Datum Meridian and at meridians at 90° to it
d) at the Greenwich meridian

3. What is the main use of a Transverse Mercator chart?

a) flying a specified Great Circle route
b) flying an equatorial route
c) mapping countries with a large N/S extent but a lesser E/W extent
d) mapping countries with a large E/W extent but a lesser N/S extent

4. What is the main use of an Oblique Mercator chart?

a) flying a specified Great Circle route
b) flying an equatorial route
c) mapping countries with a large N/S extent but a lesser E/W extent
d) mapping countries with a large E/W extent but a lesser N/S extent

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26(11-13) NAVIGATION
26.6 CONSOLIDATION – TIME THEORY
1. When does perihelion occur?
a)early January
b)mid March
c)early July
d)September 21

2. When does aphelion occur?

a) early January
b) mid March
c) early July
d) September 21

3. Viewed from the North Celestial Pole (above the North Pole), the Earth orbits the Sun
a) clockwise in a circular orbit
b) anti-clockwise in a circular orbit
c) clockwise in an elliptical orbit
d) anti-clockwise in an elliptical orbit

4. When do `equinoxes' occur?

a) December and June
b) February and November
c) March and September
d) January and July

5. When it is the Winter Solstice in the Southern Hemisphere, the Declination of the Sun is
a) 0° N/S
b) 23 ½°N
c) 66½°N
d) 23½°S

6. When it is the Winter Solstice in the Southern Hemisphere, the sun will be overhead
a) the Arctic Circle
b) the Tropic of Capricorn
c) the Equator
d) the Tropic of Cancer

7. What is the angle between the Equinoctial and the Ecliptic?

a) 66'/20
b) 23'/20
c) varies between 23'/20N and 23'/20S
d) varies between 66'/20N and 66'/20S

8. The Declination of a celestial body (the Sun) measured on the Celestial Sphere is analogous
(equivalent) to on the Earth?
a) latitude
b) longitude
c) altitude of the body measured from the sensible horizon
d) co-latitude

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9. `The length of daylight/night depends upon the declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer'.
When is the rate of change of the length of daylight greatest?
a) February/November
b) January/July
c) at the Equinoxes
d) at the Solstices

10. A sidereal day is?

a) longer than an apparent solar day
b) longer than a real solar day
c) shorter than an apparent solar day
d) equal to a real solar day

11. The maximum difference between mean noon ( 1200LMT ) and real/apparent noon occurs in
a) January/July
b) March/September
c) November/February
d) December/June

12. The maximum difference between Mean Time and Apparent Time is:
a) 21 minutes
b) 16 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) there is no difference

13. What is the length of a Sidereal Year?

a) 365 days
b) 366 days
c) 365 days 6 hrs
d) 365 days 5 hrs 48.75 minutes

14. `The Calendar Year and the Tropical Year are of different lengths. The difference is adjusted partly by
using leap years every fourth calendar year. However, some years are not designated as leap years'. Which
of the following years will be a leap year?
a) 2001
b) 2100
c) 2300
d) 2400

15. The Hour Angle (Greenwich Hour Angle) of a celestial body is analogous/equivalent on the Earth to?
a) latitude
b) longitude
c) co-latitude
d) UTC

16. A star has a Greenwich Hour Angle (GHA) of 220°. Which meridian is the star transitting (crossing?)
a) 040W
b) 040E
c) 140W
d) 140E

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

27(18-19) NAVIGATION
27.8 CONSOLIDATION – 1
1. Without using the Air Almanac, convert 153°30' of arc of longitude into time.
a) 10 hrs 24 mins
b) 10 hrs 22 mins
c) 10 hrs 14 mins
d) 10 hrs. 8 mins

2. The definition of Local Mean Time (LMT) is:

a) time based upon the average movement of the Earth around the Sun.
b) when the Mean Sun is transitting (crossing) your meridian, it is 1200 hrs LMT.
c) when the Mean Sun is transitting (crossing) your anti-meridian, it is 0000 hrs LMT (2400 hrs LMT,
previous day).
d) all of the above.

3. Local Mean Time (LMT) always changes by a day when crossing ?

a) the Greenwich Meridian
b) 180°E/W
c) the International Date Line
d) the Equator

4. Zone Time (ZT) is used?

a) by aircraft on trans-oceanic routes
b) as legal time in all countries
c) by ships at sea
d) in polar regions

5. What is the Zone Number for longitude 127°30'W

a) +8
b) +9
c) -8
d) -9

6. A ship at longitude 83E observes sunrise at a Zone Time of 0500 ZT on Zone Date 15"' May. What is the
UTC?
a) 2300 UTC 14"' May
b) 1100 UTC 15 `h May
c) 2328 UTC 14 `h May
d) 1032 UTC 15 `h May

7. On Mid-summer Day in the Southern Hemisphere, the sun will be overhead:

a) 66 %2 S
b) 23'/2 N
c) 23'/2 S
d) the Equator

8. On Mid-winter Day in the Northern Hemisphere, the sun will be overhead:

a) 66'/2 S
b) 23'/2 N
c) 23'/2 S
d) the Equator

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28(11-12) NAVIGATION
28.4 CONSOLIDATION

1. On June 21, what is the lowest northerly latitude (listed in the Air Almanac) at which the sun will be above
the horizon for 24 hrs (all day)?
a) 64N
b) 66N
c) 68N
d) 70N

2. On December 21, what is the lowest northerly latitude (listed in the Air Almanac) at which the sun never
rises (or sets)?
a) 64N
b) 66N
c) 68N
d) 70N

3. Civil Twilight is?

a) the period between sunset and the end of Evening Civil Twilight (ECT)
b) the period between the start of Morning Civil Twilight (MCT) and sunrise
c) related to the position of the centre of the sun being 6° below the sensible horizon
d) all of the above

4. Nautical Twilight and Astronomic Twilight are the twilight periods that follow Civil Twilight. Nautical
Twilight occurs when the sun is between _______and ______ below the Sensible Horizon?
a) 0°/6°
b) 6°/12°
c) 12°/18°
d) 18°/24°

5. Between 60N and 60S, the minimum duration of Civil Twilight is?
a) 21 minutes
b) 16 minutes
c) 14 minutes
d) 30 minutes

6. Sunrise/Sunset Twilight Tables in the Air Almanac are listed for a sea level situation. An aircraft flying at
FL350 would experience sunrise ______ , sunset _______ and the length of twilight would _____.
Sunrise Sunset Duration of Twilight
a) Later earlier be longer
b) Earlier later not change
c) Later earlier not change
d) Earlier later be shorter

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31 (20-23) NAVIGATION GRIDDED CHARTS

31.10 CONSOLIDATION QUESTIONS

1. A Northern Lamberts conformal conic chart with a convergency factor of 0.75 is overprinted with a false
grid - where the grid datum is the prime meridian. The grid track at 130E is 335°, will the true track be:
a) 072.5o
b) 105.0o
c) 205.0o
d) 237.5o

2. A Northern Lamberts conformal conic chart is overprinted with a false grid. The constant of the cone of the
chart is 0.80. At 60°W the grid track is 090° and the true track is 010°.
At which longitude is the false grid aligned?
a) 160W
b) 140W
c) 020E
d) 040E

3. A Northern Lamberts conformal conic chart is overprinted with a false grid which is aligned with the 25W
longitude. The constant of the cone of the chart is 0.80. If the true track at 120W is 090° will the grid track
be:
a) 014°
b) 166°
c) 185°
d) 355°

4. A North polar stereographic chart is overprinted with a false grid aligned with the prime meridian. At
position 80N 135E the grid track is 235°, will the true track be?
a) 010°
b) 100°
c) 190°
d) 280°

5. A South polar stereographic chart is overprinted with a false grid aligned with the prime meridian. At
position 87S 123W the true track of an aircraft is 179° what will the grid track be?
a) 056°
b) 123o
c) 237°
d) 302°

6. South polar stereographic chart is overprinted with a false grid aligned with the anti-meridian of the prime
meridian. At 78N 101E with a grid track of 180° the true track will be?
a) 079°
b) 101o
c) 259°
d) 281o

7. North polar stereographic chart is overprinted with a false grid. At 77N 37W the grid track is 175° and the
true track is 093°. At which longitude is the false grid aligned?
a) 045W
b) 045E
c) 082E
d) 119W

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8. Using the data in the diagram, the false grid datumis.......................... andweare inthe.......................
hemisphere

a) 180° E/W, Northern

b) 180° E/W, Southern
c) 000° E/W, Northern
d) 000° E/W, Southern

9. Using a grid based on 20W what will the magnetic heading be of an aircraft at position 50N 50E, given
variation is 8°W and n = 0.75. The grid heading of the aircraft is 224°
a) 162.0o
b) 179.5o
c) 284.5o
d) 302.5o

10. An aircraft position 40N 10E has a magnetic heading of 150° and a grid heading of 170°. Variation is 10oW
and n=0.8. Will the datum meridian be:
a) 27o0’ W
b) 20o00’ W
c) 40o00’ E
d) 47o30’ E

11. A Lambert conformal conic chart is overprinted with a false grid. The constant of the cone is 0.60. At 40S
70W the grid track is 197o and the true track is 239o.

At which longitude is the false grid aligned ?

a) 112 W
b) 028 W
c) 000E/W
d) 030E

12. A Southern Lamberts conformal conic chart is overprinted with a false grid aligned with the 180°W
meridian. The constant of the cone is 0.843. If the true track at 145°E is 333° will the grid track be:
a) 002.5°
b) 029.5
c) 303.5°
d) 360o

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13. Please refer to Annex A

Assume a North Polar Stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the Greenwich meridian.
An aircraft flies from the geographic north pole for a distance of 480 nm along the 110°E meridian, then
follows a grid track of 154° for a distance of 300 nm.

Its position is now:

a 7845 N087 E
b 8000 N080 E
c 7915 N074 E
d 7015 N080 E

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33(19-20) NAVIGATION THE DIRECT INDICATING COMPASS

DIRECT INDICATING COMPASS QUESTIONS
1. In a standby direct reading compass there is:
a) a non-pendulously mounted magnet system.
b) a single pendulously mounted bar magnet.
c) a circular magnet or pair of bar magnets pendulously mounted.
d) a low magnetic moment system, either of circular or bar configuration.

2. The main requirements of a direct reading magnetic compass are that it should be:
a) horizontal, sensitive, periodic.
b) easily read, floating in a transparent liquid, quick to react to change in aircraft heading.
c) positioned directly in front of the pilot, easily corrected for magnetic deviation, aperiodic.
d) aperiodic, horizontal, sensitive.

3. For a position in the southern hemisphere, the effect of acceleration errors are greatest on headings:
a) 180°(C) and 360°(C)
b) 045°(C) and 225°(C)
c) 135°(C) and 315°(C)
d) 090°(C) and 270°(C)

4. An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is turning from a heading of 045 °(C) to 315 °(C) using a DGI.
At the end of the turn the compass will read ....... than 315 ° and liquid swirl will ....... this effect.
a) more increase
b) less increase
c) more decrease
d) less decrease

5. In a standby compass the magnet system is immersed in a transparent liquid. The purpose of this liquid is
to:
a) increase sensitivity, increase aperiodicity.
b) increase sensitivity, decrease aperiodicity.
c) increase sensitivity at high latitudes, lubricate bearings.
d) increase sensitivity, reduce liquid swirl.

6. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point:
a) on the centre line of the magnet.
b) below the centre of gravity.
c) above the centre of gravity.
d) varying with magnetic latitude.

7. The magnitude, and sense, of turning error shown by a direct reading compass varies with:
1) the design of the compass.
2) the direction of the turn.
3) the rate of turn.
4) which hemisphere the aircraft is in.
5) the heading of the aircraft.
6) the amount of dip at the aircraft's latitude.

Of these statements:
a) only 1, 2, 5 and 6 are correct.
b) only l, 3, 5 and 6 are correct.
c) only 2, 4 and 5 are correct.
d) all are correct.

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8. During a sustained turn ....... the nearer magnetic pole, the effect of liquid swirl will ....... compass turning
error.
a) away from increase.
b) towards not affect.
c) away from not affect.
d) towards increase.

9. When carrying out a turn at the magnetic equator there will be:
a) no turning error.
b) a tendency to underread turns through south and overread turns through north.
c) a tendency to underread turns due to liquid swirl.
d) no turning error when turning through east or west only.

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34(13-14) NAVIGATION REMOTE INDICATING COMPASS. (THE SLAVED GYRO COMPASS)

REMOTE INDICATING COMPASS QUESTIONS
1. The detector unit of a remote indicating compass is normally:
a) Fixed in the vertical plane only
b) Fixed in the azimuth
c) Free in the vertical
d) Free in the horizontal plane

2. In a remote indicating compass, the rotor of the slaved gyro is automatically prevented from wandering in
the vertical plane by means of:
a) A levelling switch and torque motor
b) pendulous suspension
c) Bevel gears and gimbals
d) A torque motor

3. The residual deviation of a remote indicating compass shall not exceed;

a) 1 degree
b) 3 degrees
c) 2 degrees
d) 5 degrees

4. What prevents the rotor of the slaved gyro from wandering in the horizontal plane:
a) A levelling switch
b) An alignment switch
c) A precession circuit
d) A follow up amplifier

5. A DG flag appears on the pilots gyro unit. What does it indicate to the pilot?
a) Remote indicating compass in unserviceable
b) The compass is misaligned
c) The gyro is no longer being monitored by the detector unit
d) The compass is aligned with the detector unit

6. The function of the follow up system in a remote indicating compass is to;

a) Exercise a low rate if control over the gyro unit
b) Maintain the master indicator aligned with the gyro unit
c) Ensure the two gyro units are in alignment
d) To ensure that the annunciator unit is working

7. The purpose of the annunciator circuit is to:

a) Alternate irregularly
b) Alternate regularly
c) To indicate that the system is synchronized
d) To show by a dot or a cross independently that the system is synchronized

8. With reference to the flux valve of a remote indicating compass;

a) The flux valve is pendulously mounted and is free to turn to remain aligned with the earth magnetic field
b) The flux valve is not subject to acceleration errors
c) The flux valve is pendulously mounted and so it is not subject to or affected by the earth's magnetic field
d) The flux valve is fixed to the aircraft and so turns with the aircraft to measure the angle between the
aircraft and the earth's magnetic field

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38 (17-19) NAVIGATION AIRCRAFT MAGNETISM

AIRCRAFT MAGNETISM QUESTIONS
1.---- 3. Deleted.

4. Compass swings should be carried out:

a) on the apron.
b) only on the compass swinging base or site.
c) at the holding point.
d) on the active runway.

5. When compensating a magnetic compass:

a) coefficient A is always subtracted on any heading.
b) coefficient B is subtracted on 090°C.
c) coefficient C is added on 180°C.
d) coefficient A may be corrected on any heading.

6. Deleted.

7. Aircraft magnetism caused by Vertical Soft Iron:

a)varies with magnetic heading but not with magnetic latitude.
b)varies with magnetic latitude but not with heading.
c)it is not affected magnetic latitude or heading.
d)varies as the cosine of the compass heading.

8. Aircraft magnetism caused by Hard Iron:

a)is not usually influenced by the earth's magnetic field.
b)varies directly with magnetic latitude.
c)varies indirectly with magnetic latitude.
d)is maximum on east and west.

9. Deviation due to coefficient A is mainly caused by:

a) hard iron force acting along the longitudinal axis.
b) hard and soft iron forces acting along the lateral axis.
c) vertical soft iron forces.
d) a misaligned lubber line.

10. The aim of a compass swing is:

1. to find deviation on the cardinal headings and to calculate coefficients A, B and C.
2. to eliminate or reduce the coefficients found.
3. to record any residual deviation and to prepare a compass correction card.
a) only answer 1 is correct.
b) answers 1 and 3 are correct.
c) answers 1, 2 and 3 are all correct.
d) none of the above answers are correct.

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39 (01-19) GENERAL NAVIGATION

1. Pressure Altitude is 27,000 feet, OAT = -35°C, Mach No = 0.45, W/V = 270/85, Track = 200°T. What is
drift and groundspeed?
a. 18L / 252 knots
b. 15R / 310 knots
c. 17L / 228 knots
d. 17R / 287 knots

2. G/S = 240 knots, Distance to go = 500 nm. What is time to go?

a. 20 minutes
b. 29 minutes
c. 2 h 05 m
d. 2h 12m

3. OAT = +35°C, Pressure alt = 5000 feet. What is true alt?

a. 4550 feet
b. 5550 feet
c. 4290 feet
d. 5320 feet

4. Course 040°T, TAS 120 kts, Wind speed = 30 knots. From which direction will the wind give the greatest
drift?
a. 215°T
b. 230°T
c. 235°T
d. 240°T

5. Required course 045°T, W/V = 190 /30, FL = 55 at ISA, Variation = 15°E. CAS = 120 knots. What is
magnetice heading and G/S?
a. 052°M 154
b. 067°M 154
c. 037°M 154
d. 037°M 113

6. An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56°N 070°W to 62°N 110°E. The total distance travelled is?
a. 3720 NM
b. 5420 NM
c. 1788 NM
d. 2040 NM

7. You are flying 090°C heading. Deviation is 2W and Variation is 12 E. Your TAS is 160 knots. You are
flying the 070 radial outbound from a VOR and you have gone 14 nm in 6 minutes. What is the W/V?
a. 158°T / 51
b. 060°T / 50
c. 340°T / 25
d. 055°T / 25

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8. Please refer to Appendix B (In the Given Graph).

APPENDIX-B

Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the Greenwich meridian.
An aircraft flies from the geographic north pole for a distance of 480 nm along the 110°°-E meridian, then
follows a grid track of 154°- for a distance of 300 nm.
Its position is now approximately:
a. 78°-45'N 087oE
b. 80°-00'N 080°E
c. 79°-15'N 074°E
d. 70°-15'N 080°E

9. The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is:

a. Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
b. Proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
c. Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field.
d. Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field.

10. An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 km. On completion of the flight the longitude
will be:
a. 002° 10' W
b. 000° 15'E
c. 000° 40'E
d. 005° 15'E

11. What is the definition of magnetic variation?

a. The angle between the direction indicated by a compass and Magnetic North.
b. The angle between True North and Compass North.
c. The angle between Magnetic North and True North.
d. The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North.

12. At the magnetic equator:

a. Dip is zero
b. Variation is zero
c. Deviation is zero
d. The isogonal is an agonic line

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13. Which of these is a correct statement about the Earth's magnetic field:
a. It acts as though there is a large blue magnetic pole in Northern Canada
b. The angle of dip is the angle between the vertical and the total magnetic force.
c. It may be temporary, transient, or permanent.
d. It has no effect on aircraft deviation.

14. Where is a compass most effective?

a. About midway between the earth's magnetic poles
b. In the region of the magnetic South pole
c. In the region of the magnetic North pole
d. On the geographic equator

15. The value of variation:

a. is zero at the magnetic equator
b. has a maximum value of 180°
c. has a maximum value of 45° E or 45° W
d. cannot exceed 90°

16. You are in the northern hemisphere, heading West, and the aircraft is accelerating. Will a direct reading
magnetic compass over-read or under-read? Is the compass indicating a turn to the north or to the south?

Compass Indicating turn to

a over-reads north
b over-reads south
c under-read north
d under-reads south

17. What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct reading
magnetic compass?
a. It is lighter
b. It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate
c. It senses the earth's magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive
d. It is not affected by aircraft deviation

18. You are in the Northern hemisphere, heading 135° C on a Direct Reading Magnetic Compass. You turn
right in a Rate 1 turn for 30 seconds. Do you roll out on an indicated heading of.
a. Greater than 225
b. Less than 225
c. Equal to 225
d. Not possible to determine

19. IRS differs from INS in that it:

a. Has a longer spin-up time and is not affected by vertical accelerations due to gravity.
b. Has a shorter spin-up time and suffers from laser lock.
c. Does not need to correct for coriolis and central acceleration.
d. Does not experience Schuler errors as accelerometers are strapped down and are not rotated by a
V/Rfeedback loop.

20. The period of validity of an FMS database is:

a. 56 days
b. One week
c. 28 days
d. Varies depending on the area of operational cover.

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21. In an IRS:
a. The accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is gyro stabilised.
b. The platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are gyro-stabilised.
c. Accelerometers and platform are both gyro-stabilised.
d. Accelerometers and platform are both strapped down.

22. When initial position is put into an FMS, the system:

a. Rejects initial latitude error, but it will accept longitude error.
b. Rejects initial longitude error, but it will accept latitude error.
c. Rejects initial latitude or longitude error.
d. Cannot detect input errors, and accepts whatever is put in.

23. In a ring laser gyro, the purpose of the dither motor is to:
a. Enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates.
b. Overcome laser lock.
c. Compensate for transport wander.
d. Stabilise the laser frequencies.

24. The FMC position is:

a. The average of the IRS positions
b. The average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
c. Computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions
d. Computer generated from the radio navigation positions

25. Deleted.

26. The following waypoints are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS)
WPT 1: 60N 30W
WPT 2: 60N 20W
WPT 3: 60N IOW
The inertial navigation is connected to the automatic pilot on the route WP 1 - WP2 - WP3. The track
change on passing WPT 2 will be approximately:

a. a 9oincrease
b. a 4o decrease
c. zero
d. a 9o decrease

27. What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management system (FMS)?
a. The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux valve) positioned in the wing tip.
b. Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated
by the respective IRS
c. Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the aircraft's
magnetic heading
d. The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position

28----29. Deleted.

30. An INS platform is kept at right angles to local gravity by applying corrections for the effects of:
i. Aircraft manoeuvres
ii. earth rotation
iii. transport wander
iv. coriolis
v. gyroscopic inertia
a. i, iii and v
b. ii, iii and v
c. ii, iv and v
d. i, ii, iii and iv

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31. When and where are IRS positions updated?

a. during all phases of flight
b. only on the ground during the alignment procedure
c. when the FMS is in IRS ONLY NAV operation
d. when the VHF Nav Radios are selected to AUTO

32. An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation system (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot l.
Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from waypoint A to B. The inertial systems' CDU s show:
XTK on INS 1 = 0
XTK on INS 2 = 8L

From this information it can be deduced that:

a. only inertial navigation No 1 is drifting

b. only inertial navigation No 2 is drifting
c. at least one of the inertial navigation systems is drifting
d. the autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode

33. Deleted.

34. On a triple-fit IRS system, present positions on the CDU:

a. will only differ if one IRS has been decoupled due to a detected malfunction
b. will only differ if an initial input error of aircraft position has been made
c. are likely to differ as the information comes from different sources
d. will not differ as the information is averaged

35. Gyro-compassing in an INS:

a. is possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and
initial alignment errors
b. is not possible in flight as the gyros can differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and
initial alignment errors
c. is not possible in flight as the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement
and initial alignment errors
d. is possible in flight as the gyros cannot differentiate between acceleration due to aircraft movement and
initial alignment errors

36. Deleted.

37. An aircraft leaves at 0900 UTC on a 250 nm journey with a planned groundspeed of 115 knots. After 74
nm the aircraft is 1.5 minutes behind the planned schedule. What is the revised ETA at the destination?
a 1100
b 1110
c 1115
d 1054

38. In an INS / IRS, an azimuth gyro is found to have a drift rate. If t is the time since selecting the the MSU
from ALIGN to NAVigate, is the azimuth gyro heading error
a. Proportional to t
b. Proportional to t2
c. Proportional to t/2
d. sinusoidal

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39. In an INS / IRS, an azimuth gyro is found to have a drift rate. If t is the time since selecting the the MSU
from ALIGN to NAVigate, is the position error
a. Proportional to t
b. Proportional to t2
c. Proportional to t/2
d. sinusoidal

40. Laser lock is overcome in an IRS system by using a piezo-electric motor which utilises the principle of
a. shake
b. SAGNAC
c. dither
d. vibration

41. A----------30nm------B-----20nm-------C
ATA A is 1010. ETA B is 1030. ETA C is 1043.
ATA B is 1027. What is revised ETA C?
a. 1040
b. 1043
c. 1038
d. 1036

42. Isogrivs are lines that connect positions that have

a. the same grivation
b. the same variation
c. 0° magnetic dip
d. the same horizontal magnetic field strength

43. An aircraft at position 6000N 00522W flies 165 km due East. What is the new position?
a. 6000N 00820E
b. 6000N 00224W
c. 6000N 00108E
d. 6000N 00108W

44. An aircraft at latitude 0220N tracks 180°T for 685 kilometres. What is its latitude at the end of the flight?
a 0350S
b 0250S
c 0210S
d 0855S

45----46 Deleted.

47. An aircraft is flying TAS 180 knots and tracking 090°T. The W/V is 045/50. How far can the aircraft fly
out from its base and return within 1 hour?
a. 74 nm
b. 85 nm
c. 102 nm
d. 111 nm

48. You are flying a VFR route and have become uncertain of your position. Which is the best course of
action?
a. set heading towards a line feature - coastline, river, or motorway
b. turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognized before
c. fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next check point
d. Turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base

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49. An aircraft is at FL 140 with an IAS of 210 and a true OAT of -5 °C. The wind component is - 35 knots.
When the aircraft is at 150 nm from a reporting point, ATC request the crew to lose 5 minutes by the time
they get to the beacon. How much do they need to reduce IAS?
a. 15 knots
b. 25 knots
c. 30 knots
d. 20 knots

50. An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours. If the wind component on the
outbound leg is 50 knots head, what is the distance to the point of safe endurance?
a. 1500 nm
b. 1458 nm
c. 1544 nm
d. 1622 nm

51. An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and is over a stretch of water between 2 airfields 500 nm apart. If the
wind component is 60 knots head, what is the distance from the first airfield to the critical point?
a. 250 nm
b. 200 nm
c. 300 nm
d. 280 nm

52. X----- 30nm----Y-------20nm-----Z

ATA X is 1420. ETA Y is 1447. ATA Y is 1450.
What is new ETA Z?
a. 1506
b. 1512
c. 1510
d. 1515

53 Given:
Airport elevation is 1000 feet. QNH is 988 hPa, What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
a. 320
b. 1680
c. -320
d. 680

54. An aircraft starts at position 0410S 17822W and heads true north for 2950 nm,then turns 90 degrees left,
and maintains a rhumb line track for 314 kilometers. What is its final position?
a 5500N 17422W
b 4500N 17422W
c 5500N 17738E
d 4500N 17738E

55. You are heading 080°T when you get a range and bearing fix from your AWR on a headland at 185 nm 30°
left of the nose. What true bearing do you plot on the chart?
a. 050 from the headland, using the headland's meridian
b. 050 from the headland, using the aircraft's meridian
c. 230 from the headland, using the headland's meridian
d. 230 from the headland, using the aircraft's meridian

56. By what amount must you change your rate of descent given a 10 knot increase in headwind on a 3°
glideslope?
a. 50 feet per minute increase
b. 30 feet per minute increase
c. 50 feet per minute decrease
d. 30 feet per minute decrease

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57----58 Deleted.

59. In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
a. November and February
b. January and July
c. March and September
d. June and December

60. 5 hours 20 minutes and 20 seconds hours time difference is equivalent to which change of longitude?
a 81°30'
b78° 15'
c79° 10'
d80° 05'

61. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different durations is due to the:
a. earth's rotation
b. relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
c. inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
d. gravitational effect of the Sun and the Moon on the speed of rotation of the Earth

62. A Lamberts Conical conformal chart has standard parallels at 63N and 41N. What is the constant of the
cone?
a .891
b .788
c .656
d .707

63. On a chart, 49 nautical miles is represented by 7.0 centimetres. What is the scale?
a. 1 /700,000
b. 1 / 2,015,396
c. 1 / 1,296,400
d. 1 / 1,156,600

64. On a Direct Mercator chart, great circles are shown as:

a. Curves convex to the nearer pole
b. Straight lines
c. Rhumb lines
d. Curves concave to the nearer pole

65. The scale on a Lambert's conformal conic chart

a. is constant along a meridian of longitude
b. is constant along a parallel of latitude
c. varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
d. is constant across the whole map

66----67 Deleted.

68. Heading is 156°T, TAS is 320 knots, W/V is 130/45. What is your true track?
a 160
b 152
c 104
d 222

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69. You are heading 345°M, the variation is 20°E, and you take a radar bearing of 30° left of the nose from an
island. What bearing do you plot?
a 160°T
b 155°T
c 140°T
d 180°T

70. Your pressure altitude is FL55, the QNH is 998, and the SAT is +30°C. What is Density Altitude?
a. 6980 feet
b. 7750 feet
c. 8620 feet
d. 10020 feet

71. Convergence on a Transverse Mercator chart is correct at:

a. the datum meridian only
b. the datum meridian and the Equator
c. the Equator and the Poles
d. the Parallel of Origin

72. When is the last point at which an INS or IRS may be selected to NAV mode?
a. After passengers and freight are aboard
b. Immediately prior to push back or taxy from the gate
c. At the holding point
d. On operation of the TOGA switch when opening the throttles for the take-off

73. On a particular take-off, you can accept up to 10 knots tailwind. The runway QDM is 047, the variation is
17°E and the ATIS gives the wind direction as 210. What is the maximum wind strength you can accept?
a. 18 knots
b. 11 knots
c. 8 knots
d. 4 knots

74. The agonic line:

a. is midway between the magnetic North and South poles
b. follows the geographic equator
c. is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic North and South poles
d. Follows separate paths out of the North polar regions, one currently running through Western Europe
and the other through the USA

75. On a 12% glide slope, your groundspeed is 540 knots. What is your rate of descent?
a. 6550 feet/min
b. 4820 feet/min
c. 8740 feet/min
d. 3120 feet/min

76. What does the sensor of an INS/IRS measure ?

a. velocity
b. displacement
c. pressure
d. acceleration

77. At 65 nm from a VOR you commence a descent from FL330 in order to arrive over the VOR at FL 100.
Your mean groundspeed in the descent is 240 knots. What rate of descent is required?
a. 1420 feet/min
b. 1630 feet/min
c. 1270 feet/min
d. 1830 feet/min

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78. In an Inertial Navigation System, what is the output of the first stage North/South integrator?
a. groundspeed
b. latitude
c. velocity along the local meridian
d. change of latitude

79. Deleted.

80. In which month does aphelion occur?

a. January
b. March
c. July
d. November

81. The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in?
a. any plane
b. the horizontal plane
c. the vertical plane
d. the vertical and horizontal plane

82. What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day?
a. 68° N
b. 66° N
c. 62° N
d. 72° N

83. The pressure alt is 29000 feet and the SAT is -55°C. What is density altitude?
a. 27500 feet
b. 26000 feet
c. 30000 feet
d. 31000 feet

84. The distance from A to B is 2368 nautical miles. If outbound groundspeed in 365 knots and homebound
groundspeed is 480 knots and safe endurance is 8 hours 30 minutes, what is the time to the PNR?
a. 290 minutes
b. 209 minutes
c. 219 minutes
d. 190 minutes

85. What is the UTC time of sunrise in Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada (49N 123 30W) on the 6th
December? (In the exam, tables were supplied. The answers given below are based on the tables in your
Gen Nav notes).
a. 2324 UTC
b. 0724 UTC
c. 1552 UTC
d. 0738 UTC

86. How does scale change on a normal Mercator chart?

a. Expands as the secant z (2 co-latitude)
b. Expands directly with the secant of the latitude
c. Correct on the standard parallels, expands outside them, contracts within them
d. Expands as the secant of the E/W great circle distance

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

87. You are on ILS 3-degree glideslope which passes over the runway threshold at 50 feet. Your DME range is
25 nm from the threshold. What is your height above the runway threshold elevation? (Use the 1 in 60 rule
and 6000 feet = 1 nautical mile)
a. 8010 feet
b. 7450 feet
c. 6450 feet
d. 7550 feet

88. At 1200 Standard Time on the 10th July in Queensland, Australia, what is the Standard Time in Hawaii,
USA?
a. 1200 ST 10 July
b. 1000 ST 10 July
c. 1600 ST 09 July
d. 0200 ST 10 July

89. Deleted.

90. You are flying at a True Mach No of .82 in a SAT of -45°C. At 1000 hours you are 100 nm from the POL
DME and your ETA at POL is 1012. ATC ask you to slow down to be at POL at 1016. What should your
new TMN be if you reduce speed at 100 nm distance to go?
a. M .76
b M.72
c. M .68
d. M .61

91. The relative bearing to a beacon is 270°R. Three minutes later, at a groundspeed of 180
knots, it has changed to 225°R.What was the distance of the closest point of approach of the aircraft to the
beacon'?
a. 45 nm
b. 18 nm
c. 9 nm
d. 3 nm

92. Groundspeed is 540 knots. 72 ran to go. What is time to go?

a. 8 mins
b. 9 mins
c. 18 mins
d. 12 mins

93. An aircraft at position 2700 N 17000W travels 3000 km on a track of 180°T, then 3000 km on a track of
090°T, then 3000 km on a track of 000°T, then 3000 km on a track of 270°T. What is its final position?
a. 2700 N 17000W
b. 0000N/S 17000W
c. 2700 N 17318W
d. 2700 N 14300 W

94. Deleted.

95. An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR and to cross the facility at
FL 130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is:
a. 920 ft/min
b. 890 ft/min
c. 860 ft/min
d. 960 ft/min

96. Deleted.

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

97. You are homing to overhead a VORTAC and will descend from 7500 QNH to be 1000 AMSL by 6 nm
DME. Your groundspeed is 156 knots and the ROD will be 800 feet/min. At what range from the
VORTAC do you commence the descent?
a. 27.1 nm
b. 15.8 nm
c. 11.7 nm
d. 30.2 nm

98. ATT mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:
a. altitude, heading and position information
b. navigation information
c. only attitude information
d. only attitude and heading information

99. The data that needs to be inserted into an Inertial Reference System in order to enable the system to make a
successful alignment for navigation is:
a. airport ICAO identifier
b. the position of an in-range DME
c. aircraft heading
d. aircraft position in latitude and longitude

100. A Rhumb line is:

a. the vertex of a conformal polyformic projection
b. a straight line on a Lambert's conformal chart
c. a line on the Earth which cuts all meridians at the same angle
d. the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's surface

101. You fly from 49N to 58N along the 180 E/W meridian. What is the distance in kilometres?
a. 540 km
b. 804 km
c. 1222 km
d. 1000 km

102. How long does alignment of an IRS (Laser Ring Gyros) normally take at mid-latitudes?
a. 17 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 2 minutes

103. On a particular Direct Mercator wall chart, the 180°°-W to 180°°-E parallel of latitude at 53N is 133 cm
long. What is the scale of the chart at 30S?
a. 1:3,000,000
b. 1:18,000,000
c. 1: 21,000,000
d. 1:27,000,000

104. What method of entering waypoints can be used on all INS equipments?
a. Distance and bearing
b. Waypoint name
c. Navaid identifier
d. Latitude and longitude

105. What is the highest latitude on the Earth at which the Sun can be vertically overhead?
a 23½o
b 66½o
c 45o
d 90o

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106. Track = 090 (T), TAS = 460 knots, W/V = 360 (T) / 100,
Variation= 10 E, Deviation = -2.
What is compass heading and groundspeed?
a. 079o 470 knots
b. 069o 450 knots
c. 068o 460 knots
d. 070o 455 knots

107. Deleted.

108. The purpose of the TAS input, from the air data computer, to the Inertial Navigation System is for
a. position update in Attitude mode
b. the calculation of wind velocity
c. the calculation of drift
d. position update in Navigation mode

109. The angle between True North and Magnetic north is known as:
a. deviation
b. variation
c. alignment error
d. dip

110. An aircraft is at 10° N and is flying South at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is:
a. 10oS
b. 02° N
c. 02oS
d. 00° N/S

111. Given that:

A is N55o E/W 000°
B is N54° E010o,
If the true great circle track from A to B is 100° T, what is the true Rhumb Line track at A?
a. 096°
b. 107°
c. 104°
d. 100°

112. The circumference of the Earth is approximately:

a. 43200 nm
b. 10800 nm
c. 21600 nm
d. 5400 nm

113. The angle between the plane of the Equator and the plane of the Ecliptic is:
a. 66.5°
b. 23.5°
c. 25.3°
d. 65.6°

114. Position A is at 70S 030W, position B is 70S 060E. What is the Great Circle track of B from A, measured
at A?
a. 132° T
b. 048° T
c. 090° T
d. 228° T

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

115. Alignment of INS and IRS equipments can take place in which of the following modes?
a. ATT and ALIGN
b. NAV and ALIGN
c. ALIGN only
d. ALIGN and ATT

116. The value of magnetic variation on a chart changes with time. This is due to:
a. Movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase
b. Increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c. Reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d. Movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease

117 Isogonal lines converge as follows:

a. At the North Magnetic Pole
b. At the North and South Magnetic and Geographical Poles
cAt the North and South Magnetic Poles
dAt the Magnetic equator.

118 Position A is 55N 30W. Position B is 54N 20W. The Great Circle track from A to B, measured at A, is
100°T. What is the Rhumb line bearing from A to B?
a 104°T
b 090°T
c I 00°T
d 284°T

119 An aircraft departs a point 0400N 17000W and flies 600 nm South, followed by 600 nm East, then 600 nm
North, then 600 nm West. What is its final position?
a 0400N 17000W
b 0600S 17000W
c0400N 169o 58.1'W
d0400N 170o 01.8'W

120 Why are the detector units of slaved gyro compasses usually located in the aircraft wingtips?
a. With one detector unit in each wingtip, compass deviations are cancelled out.
b. To isolate the detector unit from the aircraft deviation sources.
c To isolate the detector unit from the Earth's magnetic field.
d. To reduce turning and acceleration errors.

121. What measurement is used to carry out alignment of an Inertial Navigation System?
a. acceleration sensed by the east gyro horizontal accelerometer
b. acceleration sensed by the north gyro horizontal accelerometer
c. acceleration sensed by the north gyro vertical accelerometer
d. difference in magnitude of the value of gravity compared with the gravity at the last known position

122. At 1000 hours an aircraft is on the 310 radial from a VOR/DME, at 10 nautical miles range. At 1010 the
radial and range are 040/10 nm. What is the aircraft's track and groundspeed?
a 080o/ 85 knots
b 085"/ 85 knots
c 080"/ 80 knots
d 085o/ 90 knots

123 A straight line is drawn on a North Polar Stereographic chart joining Point A (7000N 06000W) to Point B
(7000N 06000E). What is the initial track direction (going eastwards) of the line at A ?
a.090° T
b. 030° T
c. 120° T
d. 330° T

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124. What is the maximum possible value of Dip Angle?

a 66°
b 180°
c 90°
d 45°

125 Given:
Magnetic heading 311o
Drift is 10° left
Relative bearing of NDB 270
What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB treasured from the aircraft?
a 221o
b 208°
c 211°
d 180°

126. The initial straight track from A (75N 60E) to B (75N 60W) on a Polar Stereographic chart is:
a. 030°
b. 360°
c. 060°
d. 330°

127. Waypoint 1 is 60N 30W. Waypoint 2 is 60N 20W. The aircraft autopilot is coupled to the INS steer. What
is the latitude on passing 25 W?
a. 6005N
b. 6011N
c. 6032N
d. 5949N

128. Deleted.

129. Which of the following equipments does not use information from external sources in flight?
a. INS / IRS
b. pressure altimeter
c. slaved gyro compass
d. VOR

130. Deleted.

131. Which mode on the CDU of an INS must be selected in order to display initial Great Circle track''
a HDG\DA
b TK\GS
c DSRTK\STS
d XTK\TKE

132. What is the weight in kilogrammes of 380 US Gallons at a Specific Gravity of 0.78?
a 1123
b 2470
c 5434
d 543

133. You leave A to fly to B, 475 nm away, at 1000 hours. Your ETA at B is 1130. At 1040, you are 190 nm
from A. What groundspeed is required to arrive on time at B?
a. 317 knots
b. 330 knots
c. 342 knots
d. 360 knots

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134---139 Deleted.

140. Which of the following differences in latitude will give the biggest difference in the initial Great Circle
track and the mean Great Circle track between two points separated by 10° change of longitude?
a. 60N and 60S
b. 60N and 55N
c. 30S and 30N
d. 30S and 25S

141. An aircraft is at 5530N 03613W, where the variation is 15W. It is tuned to a VOR located at 5330N
03613W, where the variation is 12W. What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
a 348
b 012
c 165
d 015

142. The wind velocity is 359/25. An aircraft is heading 180 at a TAS of 198 knots. (All directions are True).
What is its track and groundspeed?
a 180 223
b 179 220
c 180 220
d 179 223

143. An aircraft's compass must be swung:

a. If the aircraft has been in the hangar for a long time and has been moved several times.
b. If the aircraft has been subjected to hammering.
c. Every maintenance inspection
d. After a change of theatre of operations at the same magnetic latitude.

144. Civil Twilight occurs between:

a. Sunset and 6° below the horizon
b. 6° and 12° below the horizon
c. 12° and 18° below the horizon
d. Sunrise and sunset

145. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole?

a 0°
b 90°
c 180°
d 64°

146. What is a line of equal magnetic variation?

a. An isocline
b. An isogonal
c. An isogriv
d. An isovar

147. What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?

a. Because the Earth's spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the Sun
b. Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
c. Because the Earth's orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the time of the year
d. Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar Year

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148 The aircraft position is at 5330N 00800W. The VORs are tuned to Shannon (SHA, 5243N 00853W) and
Connaught (CON, 5355N 00849W). Which radials will be indicated?
SHA CON
a 033 130
b 221 318
c 042 138
d 213 310

149. You are on the 205 radial from the Shannon VOR (SHA, 5243N 00853W) and on the 317 radial from Cork
VOR (CRK, 5150N 00830W). What is the aircraft position?
a. 5205N 00915W
b. 5215N 00917W
c. 5118N 00913W
d. 5210N 00909W

150. What is the radial and DME distance from Connaught VOR/DME (CON, 5355N 00849W) to overhead
Abbey Shrule aerodrome( 5336N 00739W)?
a. 304 47 nm
b. 124 47 nm
c. 296 46 nm
d. 116 46 nm

151. What is the average magnetic track and distance between Kerry NDB ( KER, 521 1N 00932W) and
Carnmore NDB (CRN, 5318N 00856W)?
a. 025 70 nm
b. 197 71 nm
c. 017 70 nm
d. 205 71 nm

152. What is the approximate course (T) and distance between Waterford NDB (WTD, 5212N 00705W) and
Sligo NDB (SLG, 5417N 00836W)?
a. 344 139 nm
b. 164 138 nm
c. 156 136 nm
d. 336 137 nm

153. What is the Rhumb Line track from A (4500N 01000W) to B (4830N 01500W)?
a. 315° T
b. 330° T
c. 215° T
d. 150° T

154. A pilot accidentally turns OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few moments later. Following
this incident
a. everything returns to normal and is usable
b. the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update
c. it can only be used for attitude reference.
d. no useful information can be obtained from the INS

155. Some inertial reference systems are known as 'strapdown'. This means:
a. The system is mounted on a stabilised platform.
b. The system is mounted and fixed to the aircraft structure
c. The accelerometers are fixed but the gyros are stabilised.
d. The gyros are fixed but the accelerometers are stabilised.

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156. What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS?
a. Mach number decreases; TAS decreases
b. Mach number increases; TAS remains constant
c. Mach number increases; TAS increases
d. Mach number remains constant; TAS increases

157. Deleted.

158. Given: Waypoint 1 is 60°°-S 030°°-W, waypoint 2 is 60°°-S 020°-W. What will be the approximate
latitude on the display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude 025°°-W?
a 60-06'S
b 59°-49'S
c 60°-00'S
d 60911S

159. The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:
a. using long magnets
b. keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and using damping wires
c. pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
d. using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid

160. An aircraft is on the 025 radial from Shannon VOR (SHA, 5243N 00853W) at 49 DME. What is its
position?
a 5329N 00930W
b 5239N 00830W
c 5229N 00930W
d 5329N 00830W

161. An island is observed to be 15° to the left.

The aircraft heading is 120° (M), variation 17° (W). The bearing (° T) from the aircraft to the island is:
a 268
b 302
c 088
d 122

162. An aircraft is flying around the Earth eastwards along the 60N parallel of latitude at a groundspeed of 240
knots. At what groundspeed would another aircraft have to fly eastwards along the Equator to fly once
round the Earth in the same journey time?
a. 600 knots
b. 240 knots
c. 480 knots
d. 120 knots

163. Deleted.

164. If variation is West; then:

a. True North is West of Magnetic North
b. Compass North is West of Magnetic North
c. True North is East of Magnetic North
d. Magnetic North is West of Compass North

165. Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the Inertial Reference System
(IRS) display is correct?
a. The positions from the two IRSs are compared to obtain a `best position' which is displayed on the IRS.
b. It is updated when 'go-around' is selected on take-off
c. It is constantly updated by information obtained by the FMC
d. It is not updated once the IRS mode is set to NAV

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166. At what latitude does the maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude occur?
a 0°
b 45°
c 60°
d 90°

167. At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?
a. Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox
b. Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice
c. Spring Equinox and Summer Solstice
d. Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice

168. Given: Aircraft height = 2500 feet, ILS GP angle = 3°-, at what approximate distance from the threshold
can you expect to intercept the glide-path?
a. 8.0 nm
b. 14.5 nm
c. 13.1 nm
d. 7.0 nm

169. Convert 70 metres/sec into knots.

a. 136 knots
b. 36 knots
c. 146 knots
d. 54 knots

170. In an INS, what is the output of the E/W second-stage integrator?

a. Velocity N/S
b. Distance N/S
c. Distance E/W
d. Velocity E/W

171. In which of the following projections does a plane surface touch the Reduced Earth at one of the Poles?
a Gnomic
b Stereographic
c Lambert's
dDirect Mercator

172. Which of the following conversions from True to Compass is the correct one?
TVMDC
a 130 2W 132 -1 131
b 130 2E 132 -1 133
c 130 2W 132 -1 133
d 130 2E 132 -1 133

173. Your position is 5833N 17400W. You fly exactly 6 nm eastwards. What is your new position?
a. 5833N 17411.5W
b. 5833N 17355W
c. 5833N 17340W
d. 5833N 17348.5W

174. TAS = 240 knots. Track is 180°°-T. The relative bearing from an NDB is 315R at 1410. At 1420 the
bearing has changed to 270R. What is your distance from the NDB at 1420?
a. 40 nm
b. 50 nm
c. 60 nm
d. 70 nm

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175. Given:
True Track = 352
Variation = 11 W
Deviation = -5
Drift = 10 R

What is compassheading ?
a. 078 C
b. 346 C
c. 358 C
d. 025 C

176. What is the definition of EAT?

a. Estimated on-blocks arrival time
b. Estimated time overhead the destination airfield
c. Estimated initial approach fix time
d. Estimated final approach fix time

177. What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR (5151N 00830W) to position 5220N 00910W?
a. 322M 39nm
b. 330M 41 nm
c. 330M 39nm
d. 322M 41 nm

178. What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR (5243N 00853W) to Birr airport (5311N 00754W)?
a. 068M 42nm
b. 060M 40nm
c. 068M 40nm
d. 060M 42nm

179. What is the lat and long of the SHA VOR (5243N 00853W) 239M / 36nm radial/range?
a. 5215N 00930W
b. 5220N 00937W
c. 5212N 00930W
d. 5212N 00915W

180. A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80.
A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080° at A; course at B is 092°.
What is the longitude of B?
a 019°E
b 008°E
c 009°36'E
d 011°E

181. An aircraft at position 0000 N/S 16327W flies a track of 225°-T for 70 nm. What is its new position?
a. 0049N 16238W
b. 0049S 16238W
c. 0049N 16416W
d. 00495 16416W

182. On a Polar Stereographic map, a straight line is drawn from position A

(70N 102W) to position B (80N 006E). The point of highest latitude along this line occurs at longitude 035
W. What is the initial straight-line track angle from A to B, measured at A?
a 049°°-T
b 077°°-T
c 229°-T
d 023°-T

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183. Given that the value of ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297 and that the semi-major axis of the Earth, measured
at the axis of the Equator is 6378.4 Km, what is the semi-major axis of the Earth measured at the axis of the
Poles?
a. 6399.9 Km
b. 6356.9 Km
c. 6378.4 Km
d. 6367.0 Km

184. Double integration of the output from the East/West accelerometer of the Inertial Navigation System when
in NAV mode gives:
a. Distance E/W
b. Vehicle Longitude
c. Distance N/S
d. Velocity E/W

185. On a chart, meridians at 43N are shown every 10 degrees apart. This is shown on the chart by a distance of
14 cm. What is the scale'?
a. 1: 2,000,000
b. 1: 4,000,000
c. 1: 5,000,000
d. 1: 6,000,000

186. The principle of "Schuler Tuning", as applicable to INS / IRS systems, is applicable to:
a. Gyro-stabilised systems only
b. Laser gyro "strapdown" systems only
c. Both gyro-stabilised platform systems and laser gryro systems, but only when not in "strapdown" mode.
d. Both gyro-stabilised and laser-gyro strapdown systems.

187. On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the?

a. Equator, parallel of origin and prime vertical
b. meridian of tangency
c. datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to it.
d. prime meridian and the equator.

188. Deleted.

189. How do Rhumb lines (with the exception of meridians) appear on a Polar Stereographic chart?
a. concave to the nearer pole
b. convex to the nearer pole
c. an ellipse round the pole
d. straight lines

190. In which IRS mode does gyro-compassing take place?

a ON
b STANDBY
c ATT /REF
d ALIGN

191. Deleted.

192. The purpose of the FMS is to:

a. provide continuous automatic navigation, guidance, and performance management.
b. provide continuous manual navigation, guidance, and performance management
c. provide continuous manual navigation, guidance and automatic performance management
d. provide continuous automatic navigation, guidance and manual performance management

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193. What is the value of convergence on a polar stereographic chart?

a0
b 1.0
c 0.866
d 0.5

194. At 0422 you are 185 nm from a VOR at FL 370. You need to descend at a mean descent rate of 1800'/min
to be at FL 80 overhead the VOR. Your groundspeed in the level cruise is currently 320 knots. In the
descent your mean G/S will be 232 knots. What is the latest time to commence descent?
a 0437
b 0441
c 0444
d 0451

195. Given: Heading 165(M), Variation 25W, Drift 10° R, G/S 360 knots. ATA your relative bearing to an NDB
is 325R. Five minutes later, at 'B', the relative bearing is 280R. What is the True Bearing and Distance from
'B' to the NDB?
A 060°T 40nm
b 105°T 30nm
c 060°T 30nm
d 105°T 40nm

196. What is the diameter of the Earth?

a. 40000 km
b. 12732 km
c. 21600 km
d. 6366 km

197. An aircraft on the Equator accelerates whilst traveling westwards. What will be the effect on a direct
reading compass?
a. Indicates an increase in heading
b. No change
c. Indicates a decrease in heading
d. Indicates an apparent turn to the North

198. An aircraft flies 100 st mile in 20 minutes. How long does it take to fly 215 nm?
a. 50 mins
b. 37 mins
c. 57 mins
d. 42 mins

199. What is the duration of civil twilight?

a. From the moment when the centre of the sun is on the sensible horizon until the centre reaches a
depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
b. From the moment when the tip of the sun disappears below the sensible horizon until the centre reaches a
depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
c. From the moment when the centre of the sun is on the visual horizon until the centre reaches a depression
angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
d. From the moment when the tip of the sun disappears below the visual horizon until the centre reaches a
depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.

200. Deleted.

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201. What is the shortest distance between Point 'A' (3543N 00841E) and Point 'B' (5417N 17119W)?
a. 5400 nm
b. 6318 nm
c. 6557 nm
d. 6000 nm

202. On a conformal chart, the standard parallels are 41 °20'N and I 1 °40'N. What is the constant of the cone?
a .660
b .202
c .446
d .895

203. Scale on a Lambert conformal chart is:

a. constant along a line of latitude
b. constant along a line of longitude
c. constant everywhere
d. correct at the parallel of origin

204. Given: TAS=375 Trk=335 °T W/V=340 °T/50 What is heading and Groundspeed?

a.335°T 322
b.335 °T 318
c.336°T 326
d.333oT 326

205. Lines of latitude on a chart are always:

a. Great Circles
b. Small Circles except for the Equator
c. Vertices
d. Meridians

206. You enter the start position of an INS from a ramp at 7019.2N 13946.3W but you incorrectly enter
13946.3E instead of W. You fly to 7019.2N 180E/W without updating the INS in flight. What longitude is
indicated on your INS present position display?
a 08027E
b 09933E
c 08027W
d 09933W

207. On a Lambert chart, the constant of the cone is .78585. What is the parallel of tangency?
a 5l°02'
b 51o36'
c 51°15'
d 51o48'

208. On a Lambert's chart the constant of the cone is 0.80. A is at 53N 04W. You plan to fly to B. The initial
Lambert's chart straight-line track is 070T and the Rhumb Line track from A to B is 082T. What is the
longitude of B?
a 26E
b 34W
c 11E
d 15E

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209. On which chart projection is it not possible to show the North Pole?
a. Direct Mercator
b. Lamberts
c. Transverse Mercator
d. Polar Stereographic

210. You are at FL 150 and the SAT is -5°C. You are over an airport with an elevation of 720 feet. The QNH is
1003. Assume 27 feet = 1HPa.
What is your true height?
a. 14300 feet
b. 15300 feet
c. 14700 feet
d. 15600 feet

211. What is the formula for Conversion Angle?

a. Change of longitude x Sine latitude
b. Change of longitude x ½ Sine mean longitude
c. Change of longitudex½ Sine mean latitude
d. Change of longitude x Cosine latitude

212. On the Polar Stereographic projection, a Great Circle appears as:

a. a straight line
b. a curve which becomes more near to a straight line as the latitude increases
c. a curve convex to the nearer pole
d. a curve which can be concave or convex to the nearer pole, depending on the latitude

213. What is the input to an INS which allows it to compute W/V?

a. Altitude and OAT
b. IAS
c. Mach No
d. TAS

214. Deleted.

215. The FMC can calculate:

1) Fuel necessary to divert round bad weather.

2) Fuel required for a missed approach, climb to altitude and fuel required to alternate. The correct
combination is:
a. (1) only
b. (2) only
c. Neither
d. (1) and (2)

216. What rate of descent is required to maintain a 3.5° glideslope at a groundspeed of 150 knots?
a. 850 fpm
b. 800 fpm
c. 600 fpm
d. 875 fpm

217. What is the meaning of the term `standard time'?

a. It is another term for UTC
b. It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA.
c. It is an expression for local mean time.
d. It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country.

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218. On 27 Feb at 52°S 040°E sunrise is a 0243UTC. On the same day at 52°S 035°W the time of sunrise is?
a. 0743 UTC
b. 0243 UTC
c. 2143 UTC
d. 0543 UTC.

219. A compass swing is performed in order to correct for?

a acceleration
b deviation
c variation
d aperiodicity

220. Isogonals are lines of equal:

a. compass deviation
b. magnetic variation
c. wind velocity
d. pressure

221. On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:

a. small circle concave to the nearer pole
b. straight line
c. curve convex to the nearer pole
d. spiral curve

222. Given:
IAS 120 kt,
FL 80,
OAT +20°C
What is the TAS?
a. 141 kt
b. 102 kt
c. 120 kt
d. 132 kt

223. The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM.

To calculate compass heading the pilot used 2°E magnetic variation instead of 2°W. Assuming that the
forecast W/V applied, what will the off track distance be at the second waypoint?
a. 14 NM
b. 7 NM
c. 0 NM
d. 21 NM

224. Given:
True Course 300° Drift 8°R Variation 10°W Deviation -4° Calculate the compass heading.
a 322°
b 306°
c 278°
d 294°

225. Given: True track 180° Drift 8°R Compass Heading 195° Deviation -2° Calculate the variation.
a 21°W
b 25°W
c 5°W
d 9°W

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226. Given the following: Magnetic heading: 060° Magnetic variation: 8°W Drift angle: 4° right What is the true
track?
a 064°
b 056°
c 072°
d 048°

227. An aircraft was over `Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to `R'. Given:
Distance `Q' to `R' True air speed
Mean wind component `out' Mean wind component `back' Safe endurance
The distance from
016 NM 480 knots -90 kt +75 kt 10:00 HR `Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
a. 2370 NM
b. 2290 NM
c. 1510 NM
d. 1310 NM

228. Given:
Half way between two reporting points the navigation log TAS 360 kt
W/V 330o/80 kt Compass heading 237° Deviation on this heading -5° Variation 19°W
What is the average ground speed for this leg?
gives the following information:
a. 403 kt
b. 354 kt
c. 373 kt
d. 360 kt

229. Deleted.

230. A laser reference system (IRS), as compared to a gyro reference system (INS):
a. is not strapped down and is adversely affected by g-forces
b. is strapped down and is not adversely affected by g-forces
c. the platform is strapped down but the accelerometers are not
d. the accelerometers are strapped down but the platform is not

231. On a Transverse Mercator projection, a parallel of latitude other than the equator is:
a. an ellipse
b. parabolic
c. hyperbolic
d. a straight line

232. When visually navigating, you cross 2 parallel roads approximately at right angles to track, about 1 nm
apart. The time difference between crossing these roads can be used to derive:
a. track
b. drift
c. groundspeed
d. heading

233. The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A
(60S 165W) and B (60S 177E) at the place of departure A, is?
a 9°
b. 15.6°
c 5.2°
d. 7.8°

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234. Which of the following indicates an advisory airspace (ADA boundary?

a.
b.---------------------------
c.
d. -- . -- . -- . -- . --- . -- . -- . --

235. Given: Runway direction 083°(M), Surface WN 035/35kt. Calculate the effective headwind component.
a. 24 kt
b. 27 kt
c. 31 kt
d. 34 kt

236. In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed (GS) is calculated:

a. by integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively
b. by integrating measured acceleration
c. from TAS and W/V from RNAV data
d. from TAS and WN from Air Data Computer (ADC

237. Given: For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 kt and has a cross-wind limit
of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the runway is 60°. Calculate the maximum and
minimum allowable wind speeds.
a. 20 kt and 40 kt
b. 15 kt and 43 kt
c. 12 kt and 38 kt
d. 18 kt and 50 kt

238. From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is:
a. proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back
b. inversely proportional to the total distance to go
c. inversely proportional to ground speed back
d. inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back

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GENERAL NAVIGATION

1. Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50° N/S), at which time of the year is the relationship between the length of
day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?
a)Summer solstice and winter solstice
b)Spring equinox and autumn equinox
c)Summer solstice and spring equinox
d)Winter solstice and autumn equinox

2. In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the Apparent Sun and Mean Sun
across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?
a)March and September
b)February and November
c)June and December
d) April and August

3. Position `B' is 240°(T) and 200 nm from `A'. If the position of `A' is N000 E100°, what is the position of
`B'?
a) S01o40' E 101o40'
b) S01o40' E097o07'
c) N01o40' E097o07'
d)N01°40' E101°40'

4. An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S 148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt. The autopilot is
engaged and coupled with an Inertial navigation system in which AB track is active. On route AB, the true
track:
a)varies by 4°
b)decreases by 6°
c)varies by 10°
d)increases by 5°

5. Given: Waypoint 1 is 60°S 030°W, waypoint 2 is 60°S 020°W. What will be the approximate latitude on
the display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude 025°W?
a) 60°06'S
b) 59°49'S
c) 60°00'S
d)60o11'S

6. The maximum difference between the geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about:
a)45° North and South
b)90° North and South
c)60° North and South
d)0° North and South

7. What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between meridians 010°E and 030°W
at a groundspeed of 480 kt?
a)1 hr 15 min
b)2 hr 30 min
c)1 hr 45 min
d)5 hr 00 min

8. What is the meaning of the term `standard time'?

a)It is another term for UTC
b)It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA.
c)It is an expression for local mean time.
d)It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country.

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9. Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:

a)magnetic track
b)magnetic course
c)true heading
d) compass heading

10. Given: Position A is 60N 020W, Position B is 60N 021 W, and Position C is 59N 020W, what are,
respectively, the distances from A to B and from A to C?
a)60nm and 30nm
b)30nm and 60 nm
c)52 nm and 60nm
d) 60nm and 52 nm

11. At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation:

a)depends on the magnetic heading
b)depends on the value of true heading
c)varies slowly over time
d)depends on the type of compass installed

12. The value of magnetic variation:

a)has a maximum of 180°
b)varies between a maximum of 45°E and 45W
c)must be 0° at the magnetic equator
d) cannot exceed 90°

13. In the northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in a easterly direction, the magnetic compass will
indicate:
a)a heading of East
b)an increase in heading
c)an apparent turn to the South
d)a decrease in heading

14. The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:
a)using long magnets
b)keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and using damping wires
c)pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
d)using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid

15. In a remote indicating magnetic compass system, the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and
electrical circuits may be minimised by:
a)the use of repeater cards
b)positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft
c)mounting the detector unit in the wingtip
d)using a vertically mounted gyroscope

16. Which of the following is an advantage of a remote reading compass as compared to a standby compass?
a)It eliminates the effect of turning and acceleration errors by pendulously suspending the detector unit.
b)It senses the magnetic meridian instead of seeking it, increasing compass sensitivity.
c)It is more reliable because it is operated electrically and power is always available from sources within
the aircraft.
d)It is lighter than a direct reading compass because it employs, apart from the detector
unit, existing aircraft equipment.

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17. At 47°N the chart distance between meridians 10° apart on a chart is 5 inches. The scale of the chart at that
latitude is approximately:
a) 1: 2 500 000
b) 1: 3 000 000
c) 1: 8 000 000
d) 1: 6 000 000

18. On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart, earth convergence is most accurately represented at the:
a)north and south limits of the chart
b)standard parallels
c) Equator
d)parallel of origin

19. An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to produce:

a)radio navigation charts in equatorial regions
b)topographical maps of large east/west extent
c)plotting charts in equatorial regions
d)charts of the great circle route between two points

20. On the Transverse Mercator chart, scale is correct along the:

a)equator, parallel of origin and prime vertical
b)prime meridian and equator
c)datum meridian and the meridian perpendicular to it
d)meridian of tangency

21. Which of the following describes the appearance of Rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar
Stereographic chart?
a)Ellipses around the Pole
b)Straight lines
c)Curves concave to the Pole
d)Curves convex to the Pole

22------27 Deleted.

28. An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed?
a)183 kt
b)13 kt
c)209 kt
d)160 kt

29. Given: IAS 120 knots, FL 80, OAT +20°C, what is the TAS?
a)132 kt
b)141 kt
c)102 kt
d)120 kt

30. Given: TAS 200 kt, Track 110°(T), W/V 015/40 kt, calculate heading°(T) and groundspeed.
a) 097° - 201 kt
b) 099° - 199 kt
c) 121° - 207 kt
d) 121° - 199 kt

31. Given: True HDG 145°, TAS 240 kt, True Track 150°, G/S 210 kt, calculate the W/V.
a) 360/35
b) 295/35
c) 180/35
d)115/35

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32. Given: TAS 140 kt, HDG 005°(T), W/V 265/25, calculate the drift and groundspeed.
a) 11R - 140 kt
b) 10 R - 146 kt
c) 09R - 140 kt
d) 11R - 142 kt

33. Given: FL 120, OAT is ISA, CAS = 200 knots, Track = 222°(M),
Heading = 215°(M), Variation = 15°W.
If the time to fly 105 nm is 21 minutes, what is the W/V ?
a)040T / 105 kt
d)055T / 105 kt
c)050T / 70 kt
d)065T / 70 kt

34. Given: Airport elevation = 1000 feet, QNH = 988 hPa, what is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 feet)
a)-320 feet
b)1680 feet
c)320 feet
d)680 feet

35. Given: TAS = 487, FL 330, Temp = ISA+15, calculate the Mach No?
a) 0.81
b) 0.78
c) 0.84
d)0.76

36. Deleted.

37. Given:
AD = Air distance
GD = Ground distance TAS = True Airspeed GS = Groundspeed

Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance (GD) gone?
a) GD = TAS/(GS x AD)
b) GD = (AD x GS)/TAS
c) GD = AD x (GS-TAS)/GS
d) GD = (AD-TAS)/TAS

38. An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line of an airborne weather display. What is the true bearing
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of the observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of
020° with the magnetic variation of 25°W.
a) 145°
b) 195°
c) 205°
d)325°

39. Given: Aircraft height = 2500 feet, ILS GP angle = 3°, at what approximate distance from the threshold can
you expect to intercept the glidepath?
a)8.0 nm
b)14.5 nm
c)13.1 nm
d)7.0 nm

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40. An aircraft is planned to fly from position A to position B, distance 480 nm, at an average groundspeed of
240 knots. It departs A at 1000 UTC. After flying 150 nm along track from A, the aircraft is 2 minutes
behind the planned time.
Using the actual groundspeed experienced, what is the revised ETA at B?
a) 1153
b) 1203
c) 1206
d)1157

41. The distance between two waypoints is 200 nm. To calculate compass heading, the pilot used 2°E magnetic
variation instead of 2°W. Assuming that the forecast WN applied, what will the off track distance be at the
end of the second waypoint?
a)7 nm
b)14 nm
c)0 nm
d)21 nm

42. An aircraft at FL 140, IAS 210 knots, OAT -5°C and wind component - 35 knots, is required to reduce
speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 minutes later than planned. Assuming that flight conditions do
not change, when the aircraft is 150 nm from the reporting point, the IAS should be reduced by:
a)15 kt
b)20 kt
c)30 kt
d)25 kt

43-----45 Deleted.

46. If the Standard Time in Port of Spain, Trinidad (1 IN 066W) is 2215 on 7 Feb, what is the Standard Time in
Vientiane, Laos (18N 103E)?
Standard Date Standard Time
a) 07 1115
b) 08 1115
c) 08 0915
d) 07 0915

47. The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the operation of Inertial Navigation Systems / Inertial
Reference Systems is applicable to:
a) only `strapdown' laser gyro systems
b) only gyro-stabilised systems
c) both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in the non `strapdown' mode
d) both gyro-stabilised and `strapdown systems

48. Which of the following statements concerning the loss of alignment by an Inertial Reference System (IRS)
in flight is correct?
a) It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the rest of the flight.
b) The navigation mode, including present position and groundspeed outputs, is inoperative for the rest of
the flight.
c) The mode selector has to be rotated to ATT then back through ALIGN to NAV in order to obtain an in-
flight re-alignment.
d) The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable system and a re-alignment
carried out in flight.

49. ATT mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:
a)altitude, heading and position information
b)only attitude and heading information
c)navigation information
d)only attitude information

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50. An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation system (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1.
Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from waypoint A to B. The inertial systems' CDUs show:
XTK on INS 1 = 0
XTK on INS 2 = 8L

From this information it can be deduced that:

a)only inertial navigation No 1 is drifting
b)only inertial navigation No 2 is drifting
c)at least one of the inertial navigation systems is drifting
d)the autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode

51. Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with the mode selector switched to:
a) ON
b) STBY
c) ATT/REF
d)ALIGN

52. With reference to the inertial navigation system (INS), the initial great circle track between computer
inserted waypoints will be displayed when the CDU is selected to:
a) XTK/TKE
b) TK/GS
c) DSRTK/STS
d) HDG/DA

53. Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different formats. In which of the following formats can
waypoints be entered into all INSs?
a) geographical co-ordinates
b) hexadecimal
c) by waypoint's name
d) bearing and distance

54. The following waypoints are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS)
WPT 1: 60N 30W
WPT 2: 60N 20W
WPT 3: 60N 10W
The inertial navigation is connected to the automatic pilot on the route WP 1 - WP2 - WP3.
The track change on passing WPT 2 will be approximately:
a) a 9° increase
b) a 4° decrease
c) zero
d) a 9° decrease

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