Daily Current Affairs Questions

January 2025 Part 7

Why in News?
1. Atal Yuva Maha Kumbh 20. Income tax 36. Sagar Mitra Initiative
2. Bad loans 21. Kaveri Engine 37. Sea Otter
3. Baltic Sea 22. Keynesian economics 38. Shaheed Udham Singh
4. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserves 23. Lagrange points 39. Shock syringes
5. Belagavi Congress Session 24. Lithium Triangle 40. Shock wave
6. Belagavi Congress Session 25. Matsya Seva Kendras 41. Similipal Reserve Forest
7. Brahmaputra River 26. Monetary policy 42. Smart Cities Mission (SCM)
8. Brahmaputra River 27. Monetary policy 43. Supreme Court Collegium
9. Central Zoo Authority (CZA) 28. National Accreditation Board 44. Surya Kiran 2024
10. Cooperative Sector for Testing and Calibration 45. United Nations Disengagement
11. Current Account Deficit (CAD) Laboratories (NABL) Observer Force (UNDOF)
12. Din-i-Ilahi 29. National Maritime Heritage mission
13. Doppler Effect Complex (NMHC) 46. United Nations Peacekeeping
14. Election Commission 30. Parker Solar Probe mission operations
15. Fiscal policy 31. Port Louis 47. Wealth Tax
16. Global warming 32. Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya 48. Wealth Tax
17. Governor Bal Puraskar 49. World Trade Organization
18. Household Consumption 33. PRAGATI meeting (WTO)
Expenditure (HCE) 34. Rare earth minerals 50. Zika virus
19. Household Consumption 35. Real Effective Exchange
Expenditure Survey (HCES) Rate (REER)

1. The Uttar Pradesh government inaugurated the ‘Atal b) Only two

Yuva Maha Kumbh’ in which city? c) All three
[A] Lucknow d) None
[B] Agra Solution (c)
[C] Gorakhpur Statement Analysis
[D] Ayodhya Statement 1 correct
Answer: A [Lucknow] The RBI has directed banks to classify loans as Non-
Notes: Performing Assets (NPAs) if the interest or principal is
Uttar Pradesh CM Yogi Adityanath and Defence overdue for more than 90 days.
Minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated the ‘Atal Yuva Statement 2 Correct
Maha Kumbh’ in Lucknow. The event celebrates the The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) has
birth centenary year of former PM Atal Bihari helped in the recovery of bad loans by providing a
Vajpayee. Certificates and prizes were awarded to time-bound framework for resolving insolvency.
meritorious students excelling in various competitions. Statement 3 correct
2. Consider the following statements about the Bad The RBI’s Prompt Corrective Action (PCA)
loans framework is triggered when a bank’s net NPA ratio
The RBI has directed banks to classify loans as Non- exceeds 6%.
Performing Assets (NPAs) if the interest or principal is Context: Bad loans decline: Banks’ gross NPA ratio
overdue for more than 90 days. declines to 13-year low of 2.5% at September end.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) has 3. Consider the following countries:
helped in the recovery of bad loans by providing a Estonia
time-bound framework for resolving insolvency. Poland
The RBI’s Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) Belarus
framework is triggered when a bank’s net NPA ratio Lithuania
exceeds 6%. How many of the above countries border the Baltic
How many of the statements given above are Sea?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two

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 c) Only three Congress membership fee by 90%, making it more
d) All four accessible.
Ans: C Statement 3 is correct as the session prioritized
Exp: self-reliance through khadi promotion and rural
Recently NATO said it would boost its presence in the revitalization.
Baltic Sea after the suspected sabotage of an undersea About Belagavi Congress Session, 1924:
power cable and four internet cables. Year and Presidentship:Held in December 1924;
while alliance Member Estonia launched a naval chaired by Mahatma Gandhi, marking the only
operation to guard a parallel electricity link. Congress session he presided over.
About Baltic Sea: Blend of Political and Social Reform:Unlike other
The Baltic Sea is located in Northern Europe. sessions, it focused equally on social issues like
It connects to the North Sea via the Kattegat and untouchability eradication, khadi promotion,
Skagerrak straits, and its waters are relatively sanitation, and Hindu-Muslim unity, alongside
shallow compared to other seas. political goals like Swaraj.
Countries Bordering the Baltic Sea: Institutional Transformation:Gandhi restructured
Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, Latvia, the Congress into a mass movement by reducing
Lithuania, Poland,Sweden and Russia (via Kaliningrad the membership fee by 90%, making it accessible
and the Saint Petersburg region). Hence Option C is to all social classes.
Correct. Focus on Grassroots Empowerment:The session
Significance of Baltic Sea: mandated contributions to hand-spun khadi,
The Nord Stream pipelines, connecting Russia and promoting self-reliance and village industries, and
Germany, pass under the Baltic Sea, making it vital for marked a shift from urban-centric strategies
Europe’s energy security. to rural revitalization.
Many Baltic nations (e.g., Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania) Cultural and Ethical Impact:
are NATO members, and the sea is essential for Advocated equality, with Brahmin volunteers
NATO’s strategic defense against potential threats engaging in sanitation work.
from Russia. Iconic cultural performances by Vishnu Digambar
Baltic States: Paluskar and Gangubai Hangal.
Group of independent countries that border the Baltic Gandhi’s famous declaration, “If I am to be born
Sea→ Lithuania, Estonia, and Latvia again, may I be born a Bhangi,”emphasized social
4. Kanha, Pench and Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserves are justice and upliftment.
located in which state? Infrastructure Legacy:The construction of Pampa
[A] Rajasthan Sarovara, a well for the session, continues to
[B] Odisha serve Belagavi, symbolizing sustainable
[C] Kerala contributions from the event.
[D] Madhya Pradesh Visionary Resolutions:Unique resolutions
Answer: D [Madhya Pradesh] on urban planning and cow protection linked
Notes: economic development with cultural preservation,
Madhya Pradesh will translocate 15 tigers (12 tigresses showcasing Gandhi’s holistic approach.
and 3 tigers) to Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha 6. What was unique about the Belagavi Congress
after Central Government approval. Tigers will be Session of 1924?
relocated from Bandhavgarh, Kanha, and Pench Tiger a) It was the first Congress session to focus
Reserves. These tiger reserves are located in Madhya solely on political goals.
Pradesh. Madhya Pradesh leads India in tiger b) It was chaired by Subhas Chandra Bose.
population with 785 tigers, followed by Karnataka c) It was the only session presided over by
(563) and Uttarakhand (560). Ratapani forest was Mahatma Gandhi.
recently notified as MP’s eighth tiger reserve. d) It introduced the resolution for Purna Swaraj.
5. Consider the following statements about the Solution: c)
Belagavi Congress Session, 1924: The Belagavi Congress Session of 1924 stands
It marked the first introduction of the Purna out as the only session presided over by
Swaraj resolution. Mahatma Gandhi in his political career. Unlike
Gandhi restructured the Congress by significantly other sessions, this event emphasized the
reducing the membership fee. eradication of untouchability, promotion of khadi,
The session emphasized grassroots empowerment sanitation drives, and Hindu-Muslim unity,
through hand-spun khadi promotion. alongside the pursuit of Swaraj.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? Held in Belagavi (then Belgaum), the session also
a) Only one reflected Gandhi’s commitment to grassroots
b) Only two empowerment, demonstrated by restructuring
c) All three Congress to make it more inclusive. He
d) None significantly reduced the membership fee, making
Solution: b) the organization accessible to marginalized
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Purna sections of society.
Swaraj resolution was introduced later in 1929. 7. Consider the following statements about the
Statement 2 is correct as Gandhi reduced the Brahmaputra River system:

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 It originates from the Manasarovar Lake in Tibet. repeatedly informed by WAZA, about the
The river enters Arunachal Pradesh through the shortcomings in its approach when it comes to the
Mariam La Pass. framing and enforcement of up-to-date guidelines–in
The river forms the Sunderbans delta along with line with the global norms–regarding animal welfare
the Ganga in Bangladesh. applicable to zoos across India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct? About CZA:
a) Only one This is a statutory body established in 1992 under the
b) Only two Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Hence Statement 1 is
c) All three incorrect.
d) None Composition: It is chaired by the Union minister
Solution: a) for Environment, forest and climate change and
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Brahmaputra has 10 members and a member-secretary. Hence
originates from the Chemayungdung Glacier near Statement 2 is Correct.
Mount Kailash, not directly from Manasarovar Functions of CZA: The major functions performed
Lake. by it include the following:
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Mariam La To specify the minimum standards for housing,
Pass separates the Brahmaputra’s source from upkeep, and veterinary care of the animals kept in a
Manasarovar Lake; it does not mark its entry into zoo.
Arunachal Pradesh. To evaluate and assess the functioning of zoos with
Statement 3 is correct as the Brahmaputra, called respect to the standards or the norms as may be
Jamuna in Bangladesh, merges with the Ganga to prescribed.
form the Sunderbans delta. To provide recognition and derecognition of zoos.
8. Consider the following statements regarding the To identify endangered species of wild animals for
Brahmaputra River: purposes of captive breeding and assign responsibility
1. The Brahmaputra River takes a sharp U-turn near in this regard to specific zoos. Hence Statement 3 is
the Mount Kailash in Tibet before entering India. Correct.
2. In Tibet, before making its U-turn, the Brahmaputra 10. Consider the following statements regarding
is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo River. Cooperative Sector in India:
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? The right to form cooperative societies is a
1 only fundamental right under Article 19 of Constitution
2 only introduced by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act
Both 1 and 2 of 2011.
Neither 1 nor 2 India's cooperative sector accounts for above 50% of
Answer: B the distribution of agricultural loans.
Notes: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanations – Statement 1 is incorrect. The A 1 only
Brahmaputra River takes a sharp U-turn near Mount B 2 only
Namcha Barwa in Tibet. This U-turn, also known as C Both 1 and 2
the "Great Bend," occurs as the river flows around D Neither 1 nor 2
Namcha Barwa before entering Arunachal Pradesh in Explanation
India. Statement 2 is correct. In Tibet, the Brahmaputra A cooperative society is a voluntary
River is called the Yarlung Tsangpo River. It association formed to serve common economic
originates from the Angsi Glacier near Mount Kailash interests through self-help and mutual assistance.
and flows eastward through Tibet before making its U- India's cooperative movement began during the
turn and entering India. independence era.
9. With reference to Central Zoo Authority (CZA) The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of
Consider the following statements: 2011 made the right to form cooperative societies a
The Central Zoo Authority is constituted under the fundamental right under Article 19, introduced Article
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 43-B as a Directive Principle to promote cooperatives,
The Central Zoo Authority is chaired by the Union and added a new section (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT)
Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate change. dedicated to cooperatives in the Constitution. Hence,
The authority provides recognition to zoos and is also statement 1 is correct.
tasked with regulating the zoos across the country. India’s cooperative sector contributes 20% to the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? distribution of agricultural loans, 35% to fertiliser
a) 1 and 2 only distribution, 21% to production, 31% to sugar
b) 2 and 3 only production, 13% to wheat procurement, and 20% to
c) 1 and 3 only paddy procurement.
d) 1, 2, and 3 The dairy sector, driven by the cooperative
Ans: B movement, contributes 4.5% to India’s GDP and
Exp: accounts for 24% of the agriculture sector’s value,
Recently, the World Association of Zoos and amounting to approximately Rs 10 lakh crore, the
Aquariums (WAZA) suspended the membership highest in the world. Hence, statement 2 is not
of Delhi’s National Zoological Park . correct.
The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) has been

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11. Consider the following statements regarding the Akbarnama and Ain-i-Akbari by Abu’l-
Current Account Deficit (CAD): Fazl:Detailed records of Akbar’s reign and
1. It refers to a shortfall in government tax revenues administration.
compared to its expenditures. Hamzanama:Commissioned by Akbar, narrating
2. A persistently high CAD can lead to increase in Persian epic tales.
domestic manufacturing competitiveness. Razmnama:Persian translation of the
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Mahabharata.
1 only Literature:
2 only Encouraged translations of Hindu and Persian
Both 1 and 2 texts, such as Yogavashishtha and Mahabharata.
Neither 1 nor 2 Patronized poets and scholars like Faizi and
Answer: D Tansen.
Notes: 13. How does a speed gun utilize the Doppler Effect?
Explanations – Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. The a) By measuring the amplitude of reflected waves
CAD refers to the shortfall in a country's current b) By analyzing the frequency shift in reflected
account, which is part of its Balance of Payments waves
(BoP). CAD occurs when a country's imports of goods, c) By comparing the wavelengths of two
services, and transfers exceed its exports of the stationary objects
same. A high CAD can indicate that a country is d) By detecting interference patterns in wave
heavily reliant on imports, which may harm domestic propagation
industries. It can also lead to currency depreciation, Solution: b)
increased external debt, and vulnerability to global Speed guns leverage the Doppler Effect to
financial shocks, which may negatively impact measure the speed of moving objects. When the
economic stability and competitiveness. gun emits electromagnetic waves, these waves
12. Consider the following statements about Akbar’s reflect off a moving object (e.g., a vehicle). If
religious policies: the object is moving towards the speed gun, the
Akbar introduced Din-i-Ilahi to promote equality reflected waves have a higher frequency than the
among all religious communities. emitted waves; if moving away, the reflected
Sulh-i-Kul was a governance principle focusing waves have a lower frequency. This frequency
on inclusivity and harmony. shift is directly proportional to the speed of the
Akbar prohibited translations of Hindu texts to object relative to the speed gun.
Persian. The speed gun’s receiver detects the frequency
The Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was used to shift in the reflected waves and uses it to calculate
conduct Islamic theological debates exclusively. the speed of the moving object. The formula used
How many of the above statements is/are correct? incorporates the known speed of the emitted
a) Only one waves (speed of light for radar-based speed guns)
b) Only two and the measured frequency difference.
c) Only three 14. Consider the following statements related to the
d) All four Election Commission of India:
Solution: b) It is responsible for conducting elections to the Lok
Statement 1 is correct; Din-i-Ilahi aimed to foster Sabha, Rajya Sabha, Legislative Assemblies, and
universal harmony, emphasizing equality and Panchayats.
moral values. The Constitution explicitly outlines a specific
Statement 2 is correct; Sulh-i-Kul promoted procedure for the appointment of the Chief Election
inclusivity and peaceful coexistence among all Commissioners.
communities. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed
Statement 3 is incorrect; Akbar actively from office on grounds of proven misbehavior or
encouraged translations of Hindu texts, such as incapacity.
the Mahabharata, into Persian. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Statement 4 is incorrect; the Ibadat Khana was A Only one
open to interfaith dialogues, not limited to Islamic B Only two
theological debates. C All three
Religious Policy: D None
Religious Tolerance: Explanation
Abolished jiziya and pilgrimage tax for non- The Election Commission of India is responsible for
Muslims. conducting elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha,
Prevented Sati and promoted equality. Legislative Assemblies, and Presidential elections but
Ibadat Khana:Established a platform for interfaith not Panchayat elections, which are handled by the
dialogues at Fatehpur Sikri. respective state election commissions. Hence,
Din-i-Ilahi:Introduced a syncretic religious statement 1 is not correct.
doctrine promoting universal harmony. The Constitution of India does not explicitly outline
Sulh-i-Kul:Governance policy advocating peace the detailed procedure for the appointment of the
and inclusivity. Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election
Historians and Books on Akbar: Commissioners. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

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 The Chief Election Commissioner can only be A 1 only
removed from office on the grounds of proven B 2 only
misbehavior or incapacity, and this requires a C Both 1 and 2
resolution passed by a majority in both Houses of D Neither 1 nor 2
Parliament, similar to the process for removing a Explanation
Supreme Court judge. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Legislature Power of the Governor:
15. Which of the following is an example of an Under Article 174, the Governor may recommend
expansionary fiscal policy measure? dissolving the Legislative Assembly if no party can
a) Increasing income tax rates form a government or upon the Chief Minister's
b) Reducing government spending on advice, but this power is subject to specific conditions
infrastructure and is not entirely discretionary. Hence, statement 1 is
c) Introducing subsidies for renewable energy correct.
d) Increasing interest rates Under Article 175(2), the Governor can call for a floor
Solution: c) test to verify government majority and send messages
Subsidies for renewable energy represent an to the legislature for consideration of bills or other
example of expansionary fiscal policy because matters.
they aim to boost economic activity by Under Article 176, the Governor addresses the
increasing sectoral demand. Expansionary fiscal legislature at the first session after general
policies are designed to stimulate economic elections and annually, explaining the reasons for
growth, especially during periods of slow summoning the assembly or both Houses. Hence,
economic activity or recession. By reducing the statement 2 is correct.
cost of renewable energy projects through The Governor, like the President, can delay assent to
subsidies, the government encourages investment money bills and make recommendations, but the
in this sector, leading to job creation, increased legislature is not obligated to accept them.
production, and a multiplier effect across the 18. Household Consumption Expenditure (HCE) is an
economy. important component of Gross Domestic Product
In contrast, other options like increasing income (GDP) calculation because:
tax rates or reducing government spending on It reflects the level of investment in infrastructure by
infrastructure are contractionary measures as they households.
lower disposable income and decrease public It records government expenditure on public goods and
expenditure, thereby dampening demand. services.
Increasing interest rates is a tool of monetary It represents the demand for goods and services
policy, not fiscal policy, and it is used to control generated by households.
inflation rather than stimulate demand. It measures the savings of households contributing to
16. Which of the following is a key feedback loop national wealth.
contributing to global warming? Answer: C
a) Reduction in albedo from melting ice Notes:
b) Increased plant growth due to higher CO₂ Explanation – Household Consumption Expenditure
levels (HCE), also referred to as Private Final Consumption
c) Higher reflectivity of the Earth's surface Expenditure (PFCE), is a critical component of GDP
d) Reduced methane emissions from wetlands calculation because it reflects the total spending by
Solution: a) households on goods and services to meet their needs
The reduction in albedo due to melting ice is a and wants. This expenditure accounts for a significant
key feedback loop that contributes to global portion of GDP, often around 60-70%, and serves as a
warming. Albedo refers to the reflectivity of the key indicator of domestic demand within an economy.
Earth’s surface, where ice and snow reflect a 19. Consider the following statements with respect to the
significant portion of solar radiation back into Household Consumption Expenditure Survey
space. When ice melts, it exposes darker surfaces (HCES)
such as oceans or land, which absorb more solar HCES is designed to collect information on
energy instead of reflecting it. This absorbed heat consumption and expenditure of the households on
further accelerates the melting of ice, creating goods and services.
a positive feedback loop that exacerbates global The survey provides data required to assess trends in
warming. economic well-being and to determine and update the
17. Consider the following statements regarding the basket of consumer goods and services.
provisions related to the Governor in India: Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Under Article 174, the Governor may recommend a. 1 only
dissolving the Legislative Assembly if no party can b. 2 only
form a government; however, this power is subject to c. Both 1 and 2
certain conditions. d. Neither 1 nor 2
Under Article 176, the Governor addresses the Answer : d
legislature at the first session after general elections Household Consumption Expenditure Survey
and annually, explaining the reasons for summoning (HCES)
the assembly or both Houses. HCES is designed to collect information on
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? consumption and expenditure of the households on

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 goods and services. 23. With reference to the Lagrange points, consider the
The survey provides data required to assess trends in following statements:
economic well-being and to determine and update the Lagrange point-1 (L1) lies between the Sun-Earth line.
basket of consumer goods and services and weights The James Webb Space Telescope orbits the Sun near
used for the calculation of the Consumer Price Index. the L2.
Data collected in HCES is also used to measure Objects at L4 and L5 maintain stable positions due to
poverty, inequality, and social exclusion. the unique gravitational and centripetal forces acting
The Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure on them.
(MPCE) compiled from HCES is the primary indicator How many of the above statements is/are correct?
used for most analytical purposes. A Only one
20. If the government decides to reduce personal income B Only two
tax, which one of the following is likely to be the C All three
short-term impact? D None
Increase in government revenue due to higher Explanation
compliance Lagrange point-1 (L1) lies between the Sun and
Reduction in disposable income of taxpayers Earth, approximately 1.5 million kilometers inside
Boost in consumer spending and aggregate demand Earth's orbit. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Decrease in inflation due to reduced economic activity It is a point of gravitational equilibrium where the
Answer: C gravitational forces of the Earth and the Sun, along
Notes: with the centripetal force of an object, balance each
Explanation – Cutting personal income tax increases other.
the disposable income of taxpayers, enabling them to The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) orbits
spend more on goods and services. This leads to the Sun near the second Lagrange point (L2), which
a short-term boost in consumer spending, which in turn is about 1.5 million kilometers away from Earth in the
stimulates aggregate demand and economic activity. opposite direction from the Sun. Hence, statement 2 is
21. Kaveri Engine was developed by which organization? correct.
[A] Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) This location allows the telescope to observe the
[B] Defence Research and Development Organisation universe without interference from Earth's shadow.
(DRDO) Objects at Lagrange points L4 and L5 maintain
[C] Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) stable positions due to the unique gravitational and
[D] Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) centripetal forces acting on them. Hence, statement 3
Answer: B [Defence Research and Development is correct.
Organisation (DRDO)] These points form an equilateral triangle with the two
Notes: larger bodies, such as the Earth and the Sun, or the Sun
DRDO’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE) and Jupiter.
has cleared the Kaveri engine for inflight testing. The 24. The ‘Lithium Triangle’ is located in which of the
Kaveri engine project started in the late 1980s to power following regions?
India’s Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas. It was a) Central Africa
developed by Gas Turbine Research Establishment b) Eastern Europe
(GTRE) under the Defence Research and Development c) South America
Organisation (DRDO). The clearance represents d) Central Asia
progress in India’s indigenous aero-engine technology Solution: c)
development. China: Dominates lithium, graphite, and REE
22. The main principle of Keynesian economics is: processing (controls 87% of rare earth
Economic growth is best achieved by focusing on processing).
international trade. Australia: Major producer of lithium and REE.
Government intervention is crucial to stabilize demand DRC: Largest cobalt reserves (60% of global
during economic downturns. output).
Inflation is caused only by an increase in the money USA: Significant REE mining but lacks refining
supply. capabilities.
Long-term economic equilibrium is always achieved South America: Lithium Triangle (Chile,
without external interventions. Argentina, Bolivia).
Answer: B 25. Consider the following statements regarding
Notes: Matsya Seva Kendras.
Explanation – The main principle of Keynesian Statement-I: Matsya Seva Kendras were
economics is that aggregate demand (total spending in established to provide extension services to fish
the economy) drives economic output and farmers.
employment. Keynes argued that during economic Statement-II: They are equipped with
downturns, private sector demand may fall short, laboratories for water, soil, and microbial
leading to recessions and high unemployment. To analysis.
address this, government intervention through fiscal Which one of the following is correct in respect of
and monetary policies is necessary to stabilize demand, the above statements?
stimulate economic activity, and achieve full a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
employment and price stability. correct and Statement-II is the correct

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 explanation for Statement-I a) To boost aggregate demand and economic
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct growth
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for b) To control inflation and reduce economic
Statement-I overheating
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is c) To increase credit availability in the economy
incorrect d) To enhance employment opportunities
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Solution: b)
correct Contractionary monetary policy aims to
Solution: a) control inflation and reduce overheating by
Both statements are correct, and Statement-II curbing excessive demand through measures
explains Statement-I. Matsya Seva Kendras are like higher interest rates and reduced money
designed to offer one-stop solutions, including supply.
analytical services like water, soil, and Impact of Monetary Policy on Growth and
microbial testing, to fish farmers. Demand:
About Matsya Seva Kendras: Expansionary Monetary Policy
What it is:One-stop solution centres providing – Lower interest rates
extension services to fish farmers and hatcheries. – Encourages borrowing and investment
Launched in:Under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya – Increases consumer spending
Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) in 2020. – Reduce CRR
Aim:To provide comprehensive support in – Stimulates economic activity
aquaculture, disease management, and training. – Boosts aggregate demand
Features: – Quantitative Easing (QE)
Equipped with labs for water, soil, and microbial Contractionary Monetary Policy
analysis. – Higher interest rates
Offers need-based services like disease testing, – Reduces overheating in the economy
capacity building, and technology infusion. – Decreases consumer and business spending
Mobilizes cooperatives, SHGs, and start-ups to – Increase CRR
share best practices. – Slows down GDP growth
26. Consider the following statements about – Controls inflation by reducing aggregate demand
monetary policy: – Open Market Sales
Quantitative Easing (QE) is a contractionary 28. Consider the following statements with respect to the
monetary policy tool. National Accreditation Board for Testing and
Open Market Operations (OMO) involve buying Calibration Laboratories (NABL)
and selling government securities to manage It works to improve the quality of testing and
liquidity. calibration services, ensuring trust in the products and
Repo rate changes directly affect short-term services used by consumers, businesses and regulators.
borrowing costs. It is a constituent board of the Quality Council of India
How many of the above statements is/are correct? (QCI).
a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
b) Only two a. 1 only
c) All three b. 2 only
d) None c. Both 1 and 2
Solution: b) d. Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect because Quantitative Answer : c
Easing (QE) is an expansionary monetary National Accreditation Board for Testing and
policy tool, not contractionary. QE involves the Calibration Laboratories (NABL)
central bank purchasing financial assets, such as NABL aims to provide Government, Industry
government securities, to inject liquidity into the Associations and Industry in general with a scheme
economy, stimulate demand, and promote growth, for 3rd party assessment of the quality and technical
particularly during economic slowdowns. competence of testing and calibration laboratories.
Statement 2 is correct as Open Market NABL offers accreditation services to the laboratories
Operations (OMO) involve the central bank in a non-discriminatory manner.
buying or selling government securities to manage NABL is self-financing and charges fees to
liquidity in the financial system. When the central Conformity Assessment Bodies to cover operational
bank buys securities, it increases liquidity; when costs and other expenditure.
it sells, it reduces liquidity. NABL offers accreditation services in a non-
Statement 3 is also correct because repo discriminatory manner.
rate changes directly influence short-term It is a constituent board of the Quality Council of India
borrowing costs. A reduction in the repo rate (QCI).
lowers borrowing costs for banks, encouraging Quality Council of India (QCI) – Is a premier
lending and investment, while an increase has the autonomous body set up by the Government of India.
opposite effect. QCI is responsible for creating a Quality Mind-set and
27. What is the primary objective of contractionary envisions to ensure quality across products and
monetary policy? services that touch every citizen.

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 QCI creates a mechanism for independent third-party temperatures as high as 1,377°C while keeping its
assessments of products, services and processes, instruments at near room temperature.
coordinating its activities through its constituent boards 31. Port Louis, sometimes seen in the news recently, is
and divisions. situated at?
The Department for Promotion of Industry and a. Mauritius
Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce & b. India
Industry, serves as the nodal point for QCI. c. Sri Lanka
29. With reference to the National Maritime Heritage d. Vietnam
Complex (NMHC), consider the following statements: Answer : a
1. It aims to showcase India's maritime heritage from Port Louis
ancient to modern times. INS Sarvekshak arrived at Port Louis, Mauritius
2. It is being constructed at Kochi, Kerala. recently to undertake Joint Hydrographic Survey.
3. It will have the longest underwater tunnel in the Port Louis is the capital and main port of the island of
world. Mauritius in the western Indian Ocean.
4. Ministry of Culture is responsible for the It lies between a well-sheltered, deep-water harbour,
development of the NMHC. accessible to ships through a break in the coral reef,
How many of the statements given above are correct? and a semicircle of mountains.
Only one INS Sarvekshak arrived at Port Louis to undertake
Only two Joint Hydrographic Survey.
Only three INS Sarvekshak (J22) is a hydrographic survey ship in
All four the Indian Navy, under the Southern Naval Command.
Answer: A INS Sarvekshak will engage with Mauritian authorities
Notes: through technical knowledge exchange, professional
Explanations – Statement 1 is correct. The National interactions and training sessions on hydrography.
Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) is designed to This crucial survey will enable Mauritius to develop
preserve and showcase India's maritime history, maritime infrastructure, resource management and
spanning from the Harappan era to modern times, coastal development planning.
through galleries, exhibitions, and immersive 32. Consider the following statements about the
experiences. Statements 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar:
NMHC is being constructed at Lothal, Gujarat, a It is India’s highest civilian award for children
historically significant port city of the Indus Valley above 18 years of age.
Civilization. The NMHC will feature a lighthouse The award is organized by the Ministry of Youth
museum that is set to be among the world's tallest of its Affairs and Sports.
kind. It will also include Asia's largest underwater Achievements for consideration must have
marine museum as part of its attractions. The NMHC is occurred within five years prior to the nomination
being developed under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, deadline.
and Waterways (MoPSW) as part of the Sagarmala How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Programme. a) Only one
30. With reference to the Parker Solar Probe mission, b) Only two
which of the following statements are correct? c) All three
1. Its main objective is to study the Sun's corona and d) None
solar wind to better understand solar phenomena. Solution: d)
2. It has become the first human-made object to fly Statement 1 is incorrect because the award is for
close to the Sun. children aged 5–18 years, not above 18.
3. It uses an advanced carbon-composite heat shield to Statement 2 is incorrect as it is organized by the
withstand extreme temperatures near the Sun. Ministry of Women and Child Development, not
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
1 and 2 only Statement 3 is incorrect because achievements
2 and 3 only must have occurred within two years prior to the
1 and 3 only nomination deadline, not five years.
1, 2 and 3 About Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar:
Answer: D What it is:India’s highest civilian award for
Notes: children, celebrating exceptional achievements in
Explanations – Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The various fields.
Parker Solar Probe's primary mission is to study the Awarded by:President of India on behalf of the
Sun's outer atmosphere (corona), understand why it is Government of India.
hotter than the Sun's surface, and investigate the Ministry involved:Organized by the Ministry of
origins and acceleration of the solar wind. The Parker Women and Child Development.
Solar Probe is the first spacecraft to "touch" the Sun by Categories:
entering its corona, achieving a record-setting closest Art & Culture
approach of 6.1 million kilometers from the Sun's Bravery
surface. The spacecraft is equipped with a cutting- Innovation
edge carbon-composite heat shield, known as the Science & Technology
Thermal Protection System, designed to endure Social Service

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 Sports manufacturer of rare earth compounds under the
Environment Department of Atomic Energy.
Eligibility: Statement 3 correct
Must be an Indian citizen. The Bay of Bengal and the Andaman and Nicobar
Age: 5–18 years as of July 31 of the respective Islands are potential areas for rare earth mineral
year. exploration in India.
Achievements must have occurred within two Context:Tapping into Kazakhstan’s rare earths
years prior to the nomination deadline. potential
Up to 25 awards are conferred annually, with 35. Which of the following factors is NOT directly
flexibility at the discretion of the National used in the calculation of Real Effective
Selection Committee. Exchange Rate (REER)?
Award details: Winners receive a medal, a a) Bilateral nominal exchange rates
certificate, and a citation booklet. b) Trade weights of trading partners
33. Who chaired the 45th edition of PRAGATI meeting c) Inflation differentials
in New Delhi? d) Domestic interest rates
[A] Home Minister Amit Shah Solution: d)
[B] Prime Minister Narendra Modi Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a
[C] Defence Minister Rajnath Singh weighted average of a country’s currency value
[D] External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar relative to the currencies of its major trading
Answer: B [Prime Minister Narendra Modi] partners, adjusted for inflation. Its calculation
Notes: involves the following components:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the 45th edition Bilateral nominal exchange rates: These
of PRAGATI, a platform for pro-active governance measure the value of a country’s currency relative
and timely implementation. Eight major projects worth to each trading partner’s currency.
over ₹1 lakh crore were reviewed, including six metro Trade weights of trading partners: These
projects, one road connectivity, and one thermal power represent the relative importance of each trading
project. States were directed to enhance rooftop solar partner in the country’s overall trade, influencing
installations under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana the weight assigned to each exchange rate.
with improved vendor ecosystems and quicker Inflation differentials: Adjustments for
processes. PRAGATI has reviewed 363 projects worth differences in inflation rates between the country
₹19.12 lakh crore across 45 editions. PRAGATI is a and its trading partners ensure that the REER
multi-purpose platform launched on March 25, 2015. It reflects real competitiveness.
addresses common people’s grievances while Domestic interest rates are not directly used in
monitoring key government programs and projects. the calculation of REER. While interest rates can
The platform reviews both central and state influence exchange rates through capital flows,
government projects. It promotes e-transparency and e- they do not factor directly into the formula for
accountability among stakeholders. REER.
34. Consider the following statements about the Rare 36. Consider the following statements regarding
earth minerals Sagar Mitra Initiative.
Rare earth minerals are a group of 17 elements with Statement-I: Sagar Mitras were introduced to
unique properties that make them crucial for advanced support coastal fishers by bridging the gap
technologies. between government services and their
India is the world’s largest producer of rare earth implementation.
minerals, accounting for over 30% of global Statement-II: They primarily focus on financial
production. assistance and biodiversity conservation.
The Bay of Bengal and the Andaman and Nicobar Which one of the following is correct in respect of
Islands are potential areas for rare earth mineral the above statements?
exploration in India. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
How many of the statements given above are and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
correct? Statement-I
a) Only one b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
b) Only two and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
c) All three Statement-I
d) None c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Solution (b) incorrect
Statement Analysis d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
Statement 1 correct correct
Rare earth minerals are a group of 17 elements with Solution: c)
unique properties that make them crucial for advanced Statement-I is correct as Sagar Mitras act as a
technologies. vital link between the government and coastal
Statement 2 Incorrect fishers.
India possesses the world’s fifth-largest deposits of Statement-II is incorrect because their focus is
rare earth minerals. Due to the radioactivity of not on direct financial assistance or
monazite sands, Indian Rare Earths Ltd is the sole biodiversity conservation but on data

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 dissemination, sustainable fishing, and market Ans: B
insights. Exp:
About Sagar Mitra: Researchers at IIT Bombay develop a shockwave-
What it is:A field-level interface between based needle-free syringe that ensures painless and
government and coastal fishers. safe drug delivery with lesser damage to skin and
Launched in:Coastal States and UTs lower risk of infection.
under Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana The shock waves generated by shock syringes
(PMMSY). are designed to penetrate the skin without piercing
Aim:To support fishers with data dissemination, it, making the delivery process needle-free and non-
market insights, and sustainable fishing practices. invasive.
Features: How Does It Work?
Collects data on marine catch, market trends, and Uses high-energy pressure waves (shock waves)
prices. instead of needles
Provides updates on local regulations, weather These waves travel faster than sound and penetrate
forecasts, and potential fishing zones. the skin without piercing it. Hence Option B is
Facilitates hygienic fish handling and safety Correct.
information. A similar effect happens during a sonic
37. Consider the following statements with respect to Sea boom→ Aircraft flies faster than the speed of sound→
Otter creates shock waves that push & disturb the air
Sea otters have webbed feet, water-repellent fur to Features and Benefits:
keep them dry and warm. Precise & Safe→ Pressure is continuously monitored
It is listed as ‘Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List. for consistent drug delivery
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Rigorous testing on synthetic skin ensures safety and
a. 1 only comfort
b. 2 only Prevents blood-borne diseases caused by improper
c. Both 1 and 2 handling of needles
d. Neither 1 nor 2 Quick & Efficient→ Delivers drugs at speeds nearly
Answer : c twice as fast as a commercial airplane take-off
Sea Otter (Enhydra lutris) Can make vaccination drives more efficient
Sea Otter is an aquatic member of the weasel family. Reliable & cost-effective
It is found along the coasts of the Pacific Ocean in Suitable for multiple drug deliveries with one
North America and Asia. syringe
The sea otter spends most of its time in the water but, 40. A shock wave can be best described as:
in some locations, comes ashore to sleep or rest. A low-energy sound wave that travels at subsonic
They have webbed feet, water-repellent fur to keep speeds.
them dry and warm, and nostrils and ears that close in A type of electromagnetic wave with varying
the water. frequencies.
Sea otters are wild animals that are meticulously clean. A longitudinal wave that propagates in a vacuum
It is listed as ‘Endangered’ in the International Union without a medium.
for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. A rapidly compressed wave traveling at a speed greater
They are a rare species as humans excessively hunted than sound.
them in the 18th and 19th Century. Answer: D
They were mainly hunted for their thick, soft fur. Notes:
38. Consider the following statements about the Explanation – A shock wave is a strong pressure wave
Shaheed Udham Singh that propagates through a medium (such as air, water,
Udham Singh was motivated by revenge for the or solids) at a speed greater than the local speed of
Jallianwala Bagh massacre. sound. It is characterized by an abrupt and nearly
He was a member of the Ghadar Party. discontinuous change in the medium's properties, such
Choose the correct statements: as pressure, temperature, and density. Researchers at
a) 1 only b) 2 only the IIT Bombay have developed a needle-free "shock
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 syringe", offering a pain-free alternative for drug
Udham Singh was a Freedom Fighter who belonged to delivery. The shock syringe uses high-energy pressure
the Gadar Party. He killed Michael O'Dwyer, former waves (shock waves) to pierce the skin and deliver
lieutenant governor of the Punjab medication without needles.
39. Which of the following best describes the primary 41. Consider the following:
function of the shock waves generated by shock 1. National Park
syringes? 2. Tiger Reserve
a) To pierce the skin and inject the drug into the 3. Biosphere Reserve
bloodstream. 4. Wildlife Sanctuary 5. Ramsar Site
b) To travel faster than sound and penetrate the How many of the above recognitions has Similipal
skin without the need for a needle. Reserve Forest received?
c) To create a vacuum that pulls the drug into the Only two
syringe. Only three
d) To generate heat for sterilization purposes. Only four

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 All five c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C Solution: b)
Notes: Surya Kiran 2024:
Explanation – The Similipal Reserve Forest has Exercise name:Surya Kiran 2024
received the following recognitions: National Park, Held at:Saljhandi, Nepal
Tiger Reserve, Biosphere Reserve, Wildlife Sanctuary. Nations involved:India and Nepal
The Similipal Reserve Forest, located in Focus:Jungle warfare, counter-terrorism, and
the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha, is a significant humanitarian operations under the UN Charter.
biodiversity hotspot and a vital part of India's 45. United Nations Disengagement Observer Force
conservation efforts. (UNDOF) mission was established to maintain peace
42. Consider the following statements: between which forces?
1. Smart Cities Mission (SCM) aims to promote [A] Israel and Syria [B] India and Pakistan
sustainable and inclusive cities with core infrastructure [C] Russia and Ukraine [D] Iran and Israel
and improved quality of life. Answer: A [Israel and Syria]
2. SAAR (Smart Cities and Academia towards Action Notes:
& Research) initiative under the SCM aims to provide UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres paid tribute to
funding for urban research and development. Brigadier General Amitabh Jha of India, serving with
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? the UN Disengagement Observer Force (UNDOF) in
1 only Golan Heights. UNDOF was established in 1974 to
2 only maintain the ceasefire and supervise the demilitarized
Both 1 and 2 buffer zone between Israel and Syria. The mission’s
Neither 1 nor 2 mandate is renewed every six months and extended
Answer: A until June 2025. UNDOF is funded annually by the UN
Notes: General Assembly. India is the third-largest troop and
Explanations – Statement 1 is correct. The Smart Cities police contributor to UNDOF. Golan Heights is a hilly
Mission (SCM), launched in 2015, aims to promote region, part of Syria, occupied by Israel since 1967.
sustainable and inclusive urban development by UNDOF headquarters is at Camp Faouar.
providing core infrastructure, improving the quality of 46. Consider the following statements regarding United
life for citizens, ensuring a clean and sustainable Nations Peacekeeping operations:
environment, and applying smart solutions. Statement It provides security, political and peacebuilding
2 is incorrect. The SAAR (Smart Cities and Academia support to help countries make the difficult, early
towards Action & Research) initiative aims to transition from conflict to peace.
document landmark urban projects under SCM, The Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to UN
capture best practices, and facilitate learning between Peacekeepers in 2024 for their contribution to global
academia and urban practitioners. It focuses on peace and security.
research, documentation, and dissemination of The Capstone Doctrine defines the basic principles and
knowledge rather than funding. key concepts related to UN Peacekeeping.
43. Consider the following statements about How many of the above given statements
the Supreme Court Collegium are incorrect?
It consists of the Chief Justice of India and four senior- a) Only one b) Only two
most judges of the Supreme Court. c) All three d) None
Its recommendations are binding on the Government of Ans: A
India. Exp:
Choose the incorrect statements: Recently, the United Nations Security Council
a) 1 only b) 2 only (UNSC) has authorized a new peacekeeping mission
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 called AUSSOM (African Union Stabilisation and
Solution (b) Support Mission) that will replace the existing, larger
Statement Analysis AU anti-terrorism mission in Somalia starting January
Statement 1 correct 1, 2025.
It consists of the Chief Justice of India and four senior- Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations
most judges of the Supreme Court. Peacekeeping operations provides security, political
Statement 2 Incorrect and peacebuilding support to help countries make the
Its recommendations are not binding on the difficult, early transition from conflict to peace.
Government of India. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Nobel Peace Prize was
Context: SC Collegium recommends appointments awarded to UN Peacekeepers in 1988 for their efforts
of judges for four different High Courts in maintaining peace and security around the world.
44. Consider the following statements about Surya Statement 3 is correct: The Capstone
Kiran 2024: Doctrine outlines the principles, guidelines, and key
It is a bilateral exercise between India and concepts central to UN Peacekeeping operations.
Bhutan. Current Operations→ 11→ on three continents→
It focuses on counter-terrorism operations and Africa, Asia, & Europe
humanitarian operations under the UN Charter. Three basic principles of UN Peacekeeping:
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Consent of the parties
a) 1 only b) 2 only Impartiality

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 Non-use of force except in self-defence & defence of It is a successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs
the mandate and Trade (GATT).
International Day of Peacekeeping→ May 29th It is the only global international organization dealing
On this day in 1948, the first UN Peacekeeping with the rules of trade between nations.
Mission, the UN Truce Supervision Organisation How many of the above given statements
(UNTSO), began operations in Palestine. are correct?
47. Which of the following is NOT exempt from Wealth a) Only one b) Only two
Tax in India? c) All three d) None
a) Residential property Ans: C
b) Commercial property Exp:
c) Jewellery The Geneva-based World Trade Organization
d) Agricultural land (WTO), which serves as a multilateral trade referee, is
Solution (b) set to miss yet another crucial target of revitalising “a
Option Correct full and well-functioning dispute settlement system” by
Commercial property. the end of 2024.
48. With reference to the Wealth Tax in India, consider It has been five years since the Appellate Body
the following statements: (AB), the second tier of the WTO’s two-tier dispute
Wealth Tax in India was abolished in 2015-16 due to settlement system, has been non-operational due to the
high collection costs and low revenue. persistent blocking, by the United States, of the
An individual, a Hindu Undivided Family or a appointment of the Appellate Body members.
company had to pay 1% as wealth tax on net wealth of Statement 1 is correct: Formally, the WTO
value over ₹ 50 lakh. was established on January 1, 1995, under the 1994
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Marrakesh Agreement.
a) 1 only b) 2 only Statement 2 is correct: The WTO is a successor to
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 or 2 the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
Ans: A (GATT) of 1948, which was established in the wake of
Exp: the Second World War.
French economist Thomas Piketty suggested that a Statement 3 is correct: The World Trade
wealth and inheritance tax be imposed on the super- Organization (WTO) is the only global international
rich in India, which, in turn, could fund health and organization dealing with the rules of trade between
education. nations.
Critics, including India’s Chief Economic Advisor Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
Anantha Nageswaran, argue that such a tax may lead 50. Consider the following statements regarding Zika
to capital flight and hurt economic growth. virus:
About Wealth tax: Zika virus is transmitted primarily by Aedes
Wealth tax is a type of direct tax imposed on the mosquitoes, which bite mostly during the day.
richer section of the society. The intention of doing so It is generally non-fatal, but it can cause microcephaly
is to bring parity among the taxpayers. (reduced head size) in babies born to pregnant women
However, the wealth tax was abolished in the budget who are infected.
of 2015 (effective FY 2015-16) as the cost of Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
recovering taxes was more than the benefit A 1 only B 2 only
derived. Hence Statement 1 is correct. C Both 1 and 2 D Neither 1 nor 2
Till now, an individual, a Hindu Undivided Family or a Explanation
company had to pay 1% as wealth tax on net wealth of Zika virus is primarily transmitted through bites of
value over ₹ 30 lakh. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect. Aedes mosquitoes, which are most active during the
Wealth tax was a charge levied on the book or the day. While most infected individuals remain
market value of the personal assets of rich individuals. asymptomatic, those who develop symptoms
For the purpose of valuation of assets, which experience rash, fever, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint
included immovable assets, vehicles, jewellery, pain, malaise, and headache, typically lasting 2–7
bullion, yachts, boats, aircraft, and so on, subject to days. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
certain exemptions such productive assets which Zika virus infection during pregnancy can lead to
included mutual funds, fixed deposits, exchange- infants being born with microcephaly (reduced head
traded gold funds and savings bank accounts. size) and other congenital abnormalities, as well as an
Other than this, a self-occupied residential house or a increased risk of preterm birth and miscarriage. Hence,
plot of land that is not bigger than 500 sq. metres is statement 2 is correct.
exempt from wealth tax. India reported its first Zika case from Gujarat
49. With reference to the World Trade Organization State in 2016. Since then, many other States namely
(WTO), consider the following statements: Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Kerala,
It was formally established in 1995, under the Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, and Karnataka have
Marrakesh Agreement. reported cases subsequently.

Compiler
PrabhuNath Singh (PNS)

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