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PY_GATE_1996

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to pharmacology, chemistry, and drug formulation. It includes questions about the chemical composition of various drugs, their mechanisms of action, and properties relevant to pharmacy practice. Additionally, there are matching questions that require knowledge of drug classifications and their biological activities.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
10 views

PY_GATE_1996

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions related to pharmacology, chemistry, and drug formulation. It includes questions about the chemical composition of various drugs, their mechanisms of action, and properties relevant to pharmacy practice. Additionally, there are matching questions that require knowledge of drug classifications and their biological activities.

Uploaded by

dddn1909
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© © All Rights Reserved
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TM

PART - A
SECTION - I ( CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER )
Q.1
i. Reserpine on hydrolysis gives :
(a) Reserpic acid + Methyl alcohol + Trimethoxy cinnamic acid
(b) Reserpic acid + Acetic acid + Trimethoxy benzaldehyde
(c) Reserpic acid + Methyl alcohol + Trimethoxy benzoic acid
(d) Reserpic acid + Methyl alcohol + Trimethoxy cinnamaldehyde
ii. Papaverine is
(a) 6,7 - dimethoxy -1- (3’,4’ – dimethoxy benzyl) isoquinoline
(b) 6,7 - dimethoxy -1- (3’,4’ – dimethyl benzyl) isoquinoline
(c) 6,7 - dimethoxy -1- (3’,4’ – dimethoxy benzyl) quinolone
(d) 6,7 - dimethoxy -1- (3’,4’ – dimethyl benzyl) quinolone
iii. Titanium dioxide is commonly present in
(a) Vanishing cream (b) Sunscreen cream
(c) Aqueous calamine cream (d) Opthalmic cream
iv. Powder ergot when treated with sodium hydroxide solution develops
(a) A strong odour of ammonia (b) A strong odour of trimethyl amine
(c) A strong odour of indol (d) A strong odour of urea
v. Salbutamol sulphate IP is assayed by
(a) Direct titration with standard sodium hydroxide solution
(b) Direct titration with standard sodium hydrochloric acid
(c) A known amount of standard acid is added and excess is titrated with standard alkali
(d) Dissolve in glacial acetic acid and titrated with standard perchloric acid using orcets blue.
vi. Heparin prevent blood coagulation by
(a) Inhibiting thrombin catalysed conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(b) Precipitate blood calcium thereby prevent coagulation reactions
(c) Inhibiting enzyme reactions
(d) Converting ionized calcium into chelation
vii. For the registration of pharmacist in the various states, the Pharmacy Act provide for the
constitution of:
(a) Registration tribunals (b) Registrar of Co-operative societies
(c) Registrar of state pharmacy council (d) Registrar of central pharmacy council

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GATE - 1990

viii. Powdered digitalis is dried at temperature :


(a) Not exceeded 60oC (b) 65 oC (c) 75 oC (d) 100 oC
ix. Prazepam differ in structure from diazepam by
(a) N- methyl group (b) N –cyclopropyl group
(c) N-cyclopropyl methyl group (d) N-propyl group
x. The mechanism of action of rifampicin involve
(a) Inhibition of bacterial DNA directed RNA polymerase
(b) Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
(c) Inhibition of protein synthesis
(d) Inhibition of transpeptidase
xi. The UV- visible region in the electromagnetic spectrum of radiation is
(a) 200 – 400 nm (b) 300 – 660 nm
(c) 400 – 800 nm (d) 200 – 800 nm
xii. The Mantoux test uses
(a) Old tuberculin (b) Diptheria toxins
(c) Serum antigens (d) Polysaccharide antigens
xiii. Rotosort is a machine used to sort out :
(a) Coated tablets (b) Filled capsule (c) Sealed ampoules (d) Sealed containers
xiv. The volume of distribution of drugs is
(a) An expression of total body volume
(b) A measure of total fluid volume
(c) A relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the concentration of the
drug in the blood
(d) Proportional to bioavailability of the drug
xv. Resolution of a spectrophotometer is
(a) Its wave length range
(b) Its ability to distinguish adjacent absorption bands
(c) Its capacity for its continuous use
(d) Its power to gather light according to source
xvi. Heloperidol is a major transquillizer. It belongs to the class of
(a) Carbamates (b) Propanediol
(c) Butarophenone (d) Phenothiazine
xvii. Glandular hair growing having a unicellular or occasionally a short uniserate pedicel
with a unicellular or bicellular terminal gland is characteristics of
(a) Senna leaves (b) Belladonna leaves
(c) Datura stramonium leaves (d) Digitalis Purpurea leaves
xviii. Skeletal muscle relaxation produced by the drug ……. is effectively antagonized by
neostigmine
(a) Diazepam (b) Succinylcholine (c) Tubocurarine (d) Aminophylline

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GATE - 1990

xix. Vitamin D2 is
(a) 22,23-dihydro -5,6 cis –ergocalciferol (b) 5,6 cis- chlorcalciferol
(c) 7- dehydrocholesterol (d) 21,24 – dihydro 5,6 cis ergocalciferol
xx. R.W.C. is used to identify the strength of an
(a) Antibiotics (b) Antipyretics (c) Antiseptic (d) Antiinflammatory
xxi. The colligative property of a solution is related to the
(a) Total number of solute particles (b) pH
(c) Number of ions (d) Number of ingredients
xxii. The essential structural unit for the anthelmintics activity of mebendazole is
(a) Benzoyl group (b) Benzimidazole (c) Methyl carbamates (d) Imidazole
xxiii. The anticoagulant activity of heparin sodium injection IP is estimated by using :
(a) Female rats (b) Male rats (c) Rabbits (d) Sheep
xxiv. The biological half-life of a drug (first order kinetics) is represented by
(a) 1/K (b) log K (c) 0.693/ K (d) 2.303 / K
xxv. Infra-red spectromety is a convenient method for understanding of
(a) Drug receptor interaction (b) Functional group identification
(c) Physiochemical properties (d) Conformational properties
xxvi. Most commonly used amtimicrobial agent for intraperitoneal dialysis fluid is
(a) Chlorocresol (b) Benzalkonium chloride
(c) Isopropyl alcohol (d) None of the above
xxvii. In the steroid nucleus, there are
(a) Six chiral center with nucleus i.e. 5,8,9,10,13, and 14
(b) Seven chiral center with nucleus i.e. 3,8,9,10,11, 12 and 14
(c) Six chiral center with nucleus i.e. 3,8,9,10,11, and 12
(d) Six chiral center with nucleus i.e. 5,7,9,10,13, and 16
xxviii. Thermolabile immiscible liquid can be separated by
(a) Decantation (b) Dilution
(c) Capacity centrifugation (d) Counter current distribution
xxix. Sulphamethoxazole is an antibacterial drug. It is a
(a) Short acting drug (b) Short and intermediate acting drugs
(c) Long acting drugs (d) Mixed acting drugs
xxx. Wave number is the number of waves
(a) Per second (b) Per centimeter
(c) Per inch (d) Per centimeter3
xxxi. The raw material for the synthesis of propranolol is
(a)  – napthylamine (b)  naphthol
(c)  naphthol (d) 1- nepthaldehyde
xxxii. All the statement mentioned below about choral hydrate is true EXCEPT that it
(a) Produces hypnosis (b) Produces analgesia
(c) Produce dependence (d) Irritate gastric mucosa

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GATE - 1990

xxxiii. In drug and cosmetics act and rules therunder, list of substances that should be sold by
retail only on prescription of registered medical practitioner is given in
(a) Schedule H (b) Schedule V (c) Schedule X (d) Schedule Q
xxxiv. Which is ideal combination for testing the solubility of an enteric coated capsule in alkaline
medium
(a) Sodium bicarbobnate + Potassium hydroxide + Pepsin
(b) Sodium bicarbobnate + Sodium tauroglycocholate + Papain
(c) Sodium bicarbobnate + Pancreatin + Sodium tauroglycocholate
(d) Sodium bicarbobnate + Billirubin
xxxv. Oxazepam is used in relief of psychoneurosis. It has lower incidents of side effects and
reduced toxicity due to
(a) N-demethylation (b) Ring oxidation
(c) Aromatic hydroxylation (d) Conjugation of 3- hydroxyl group
xxxvi. The rate of diffusion of drug across biological membrane is
(a) Directly proportional to the concentration gradients
(b) Dependant on route of administration
(c) Indirectly proportional to membrane thickness
(d) None of the above
xxxvii. In sugar coating of tablets subcoating is done
(a) To prevent moisture deposition
(b) To round the edge and build tablet size
(c) To smoothen the surface
(d) To prevent the tablet from breaking due to vibration
xxxviii. One of the detectors used in gas chromatography
(a) Bolometer (b) Thermal conductivity detector
(c) Golay detectors (d) Giger Counter
xxxix. Alkloids in chinchona bark are detected by
(a) Iodine test (b) Thalleoquine test
(c) Liebermann –Burchard test (d) Nessler’s test
xxxxx. 2- amino -5-chorbenzophenone is the convenient starting material for the synthesis of
(a) Nitrazepam (b) Diazepam
(c) Chloramphenicol (d) Trimethoprim

SECTION - II ( MATCH THE FOLLOWING )

Q.2
i. Given below are some of the associate colloids, Match the correct type from the list A to E
(1) Sodium lauryl sulphate (A) Anionic
(2) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide (B) Cationic
(3) Polyoxy ethelene lauryl ether (C) Nonionic
(4) Dimethyl dodecyl ammonio propane sulphate (D) Ampholytics
(E) None

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GATE - 1990

(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-E (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-E
ii. Given below are the essential pharmacophores for the drugs mentioned from A to E, match
them
(1) 1, 4 benzodiazepine (A) Pindolol
(2)  –lactum fused with thiazolidine (B) Amoxycillin
(3) Ethylene diamine (C) Ethambutol
(4) Aryloxypropanolamine (D) Salbutamol
(E) Oxazepam
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-E
iii. The drugs mentioned below are produced by species mentioned from A to E
(1) Rifampicin (A) Streptomyces griseus
(2) Nystastin (B) Bacillus polymyxa
(3) Amphotericin B (C) Streptomyces mediterranei
(4) Candicidin (D) Streptomyces nodosus
(E) Streptomyces noursei
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-E, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B
iv. Given below are some important drugs. find out the correct constitution listed A to E derived
from them
(1) Cephalis ipecacunha (A) Cineole
(2) Papaver Somniferum (B) Safrole and myresticin
(3) Cascara sagrada (C) Morphine
(4) Myristica fragnans (D) Antraquinone glycoside
(E) Emetine
(a) 1-E, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
v. The side chain responsible for the biological activity of drug listed from A to E are given
below.match them correctly
(1) NH CH CH 2 CH 2 N(C 2 H 5 )2 (A) Amodiaquine

CH 3

(2)  CH2  CH2  SO2  CH2  CH3 (B) Tinidazole


(3)  O-CH2  CH2  N(CH3)2 (C) Chloroquine
(4)  NH  C6H3(OH) CH3N(C3H5)2 (D) Diphenhydramine
(E) Chlorpromazine

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GATE - 1990

(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-A
vi. The following form under schedule A of the drug and cosmetics act utilized for applying for
licenses listed A to E, match them
(1) Form 8 (A) Application to import drugs for personal use
(2) Form 12 A (B) Application for grant of license to sell, stock or distribute drug
(3) Form 19 (C) Application to import biological products
(4) Form 24 C (D) Application to manufacture homeopathy drugs
(E) Application to important drugs for research purposes
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
vii. Listed below are the instruments used for measuring the factors given in A to E. match
them
(1) Rotational viscometer (A) Shear rate/shear stress and viscosity
(2) Penetrometer (B) Melting point
(3) Hansen-paddle equipment (C) For consistency and hardness of relatively rigid
simisolids
(4) Glass electrode (D) Dissolution of granules and tablets
(E) pH indicating electrode
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
viii. Symptoms for the following diseases are indicated from A to E. match them
(1) Cushing’s syndrome (A) Hyperthyrodism
(2) Addison’s disease (B) Inflammatory bowel
(3) Grave’s disease (C) Decreases production of cortisol
(4) Crohn’s disease (D) Increased production of cortisol
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D (c) 1-E, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
ix. Some possible causes are mentioned in A to E for the following defects during the film coating
of tablets, match them
(1) Chipping (A) Poor spreading of sprayed droplets
(2) Cracking (B) Over heating during spraying
(3) Orange peel (C) High internal stresses in film
(4) Blistering (D) Excess coating process
(E) Precipitate of polymer due to high temperature or poor
solvent
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
x. Match the biological activity listed under A to E for following drugs
(1) O-2-naphthyl- m, N-dimethylthio carbanilaste (A) Antineoplastic
(2) Trans – 1,4,5,6 –tetrahydro-1-methyl-2[2-(2-thienyl)vinyl]Pyrimidine (B) Anthelmentic
(3) 2,4-diamino -5-(p-chorophenyl)-6-ethylpyrimidine (C) Antimalarial
(4) p-(di-2-chloroethyl) aminophenyl butyric acid (D) Antifungal

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(a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
xi. Match the correct method of sterilization listed A to E for the following drugs
(1) Tetracycline injection (A) Sterilized by dry heat
(2) Insulin injection (B) Sterilized by heating with bactericide
(3) Quinine injection (C) Sterilized by bacterial filtration
(4) morphine injection (D) Sterilized by aseptic method
(E) Sterilized by heating in an autoclave
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-E, 4-B
xii. Given below are the receptors and their antagonists. match them correctly
(1) GABA receptors (A) Buprenorphine
(2) Histamine GH2 receptors (B) Diazepam
(3) Opiate receptors (C) Ranitidine
(4) -adernergic receptors (D) Nifedipine
(E) Atenolol
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-E
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
xiii. The names of equations
1 2 1 for various expression are given below. match them Correctly
(1) id = 607 n CD m 3 t 6
2 (A) Mark - Houwink
πr 4 tΔP
(2) V= (B) Likovic
8I.n
(3) [n] = kM (C) Poiseuille
(4) Tg = (0.5 - 0.67) Tm (D) Boyer-Beaman
(E) Beer-Lambert
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D (d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
xiv. The various equipments are used for size reduction of material of different nature. Match
them correctly
(1) Rod mill (A) Sticky material
(2) Fluid energy mill (B) Abrasive material
(3) Cutting mill (C) Thermolabile material
(4) Revolving mill (D) Fibrous material
(E) Thermostable material
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
xv. Match the drugs in A to E which inhibit the following enzymes
(1) Carbonic anhydrase (A) Dicloxacillin
(2) Dihydrofolate synthtase (B) Physostigmine
(3)  –lactamase (C) Acetazolamide
(4) Acetylcholinesterase (D) Sulphanilamide
(E) Ibuprofen
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

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GATE - 1990

xvi. Given below are some of the important drugs. appropriate tests are listed in A to E. match
them correctly
(1) Cardiac glycoside (A) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde
(2) Ergot alkaloids (B) Fluorescence test
(3) Quinidine sulphate (C) Liebermann Burchard test
(4) Camphor (D) 2,4 dinitrophenyl hydrazine
(E) Benedict’s test
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c)1-E, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
xvii. The undesirable effects of the antibiotics are listed in A to E match them
(1) Tetracycline (A) Gray-baby syndrome
(2) Strptomycin (B) Discolouration of teech
(3) Chloramphenicol (C) Jaundice
(4) Rifampicin (D) Obesity
(E) Ototoxicity
(a) 1-B, 2-E, 3-A, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
xviii. Choose the most appropriate strating material listed in A to E for the synthesis of the
following
(1) Riboflavin (A) p-anisidine
(2) Progesterone (B) 3, 4-diemthylaniline and D- ribose
(3) Isoniazide (C) Diosgenin
(4) Indomethacin (D) - picoline
(E) Lumiflavine
(a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
xix. Absorption frequency (cm ) in IR spectroscopy for carbonyl group are given in A to E match
-1

them
(1) –COCl O (A) 1720
(2) O C (B) 1735
(3) –CHO (C) 1750
(4) –CONH2 (D) 1776
(E) 1812
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-D, 2-E, 3-B, 4-A (d) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-D
xx. Following are the prefixes used in nomenclature which signifies as indicated from A to E
match them
(1) Levo (A) not all the same atom
(2) Ortho (B) Rotate the plain polarized light to the left
(3) Poly (C) Made up of many group
(4) Hetero (D) Signifies the 1 : 2 position in benzene ring
(E) Threo – configuration
(a) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C (b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(c) 1-E, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (d) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A

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PART - B
3. Classify emulsifying agents in accordance with the type of film they form at the interface.
Give example for each
4. Define creaming, inversion, sedimentation – instability of emulsions.
Give the principle and procedure for the assay of Glyceryl trinitrate tablets I.P.
5. (a) What is the source of squill and Indian squill ?
(b) In what crystalline form the calcium oxalate occure in squill ?
(c) Give the names of the adulterants of belladonna
(d) What is the difference between hyoscamine and atropine ?
6. (a) Give the names of the organism used in the following biological assay
1. Diphtheria antitoxin 2. Gas gangrene antitoxin
3. Tetanus Antitoxin 4. Typoid vaccine
(b) What is ‘sham test’ in pyrogen testing ?
7. What is importance of deaeration in capsulation ? How it is achived ?
8. Classify neuromuscular blocking agents according to their mechanism of action
9. (a) What is source of caffeine ?
(b) What is its chemical name ?
(c) What happened when caffeine is treated with chorine and the resulting compound is treated
with methanolic NaOH, product obtained is further boiled dilute HCl ? Give equations.
10. Explain why ranitidine, an H2 receptor antagonist is more active and more selective than
cimetidine
11. (a) Define
1. Palisade ratio
2. Stomatal number
3. Stomatal index
(b) 80 is the number of stomata per unit area. Ordinary epidermal cells present in the area.
Calculate the stomatal index
12. (a) Outline the assay of ephedrine Hydrochloride I.P.
(b) Define standard preparation and units of activity in microbial assays of antibiotic.
13. Synthesis of pyrazinamide is outlined below. Write the structure for A, B, C and D
NH2
NH2
+ KMnO4 CH3COOH NH3
A B C D
NH2
NH2

14. (a) Mention the important constitution and source of the following
1. Beeswax 2. Spermaceti 3. Wool alcohol

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(b) Give the specific method for Keller –Killani test. Which of the component in the respective
plant drug is detected by this test ?
15. Which factor alter insulin requirements ?
16. (a) What is an ‘ideal’ antimalerial drug ?
(b) What are the four different ways by which antimalerial drug exert their action ?
17. (a) Name the different components of the aerosol package
(b) What are different objectives behind coating of tablets
18. Give the structural activity relationship of the following drug
(a) Promethazine (b) Chorpromazine (c) Thioridazine
(d) Trifluperazine
19. What is role of plastisizers in tablet coating ?
20. Define pM indiacators. Name the important pM indicators.
21. Give synthesis of the following drugs.
(a) Meprobamate (b) Metronidazole (c) Chorpheniramine
22. What are different method of locating end point in potentiometric titrations ?
23. (a) Define:
1. Hypotonic 2. Hypertonic 3. Isotonic
(b) Calculate the amount of sodium chloride required to made 100 ml. of a 2% solution of
the given local anaesthetic isotonic with blood serum. Molecular wt of local
anaesthetic = 339.5,
Molar concentration of Blood = 0.030.
24. (a) What is drug regimen in combination therapy of leprosy ?
(b) Why chemotheraphy leprosy is hampered ?
25. Give reasons for the following :
(a) In the determination of Ca ++ ions by complexometry using Erichrome black T
asindicated a little magnesium EDTA is added
(b) Tetrabutyl ammonium hydroxide is the preferred titration in the titration of acidic
substance by nonaquaous method.
(c) Ammonia and EDTA forms complexes with metal ions like Cu++, Ag+ butammonia is not
used as a titrant in complexometry.
26. Write the merits and demerits of anabolic streroids. Mention the names of two official
preparations.
27. What happens when ? Give equations
(a) Sodium salt of tolune p- sulphonamide is condensed with n-butyl isocynate.
(b) Benzhydryl bromide is treated with 2-dimethyl amino ethanol in presence of alkali.
(c) m-nitrobenzaldehyde is treated with butyric anhydride, the resulting compound is reduced
and iodinated.

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GATE - 1990

ANSWERKEY
ANSWER KEY GATE
GATE 1990
1990

SECTION - I

i-c ii - a iii - b iv - b v-d vi - a vii - c


viii - a ix - c x-a xi - d xii - a xiii - b xiv - c
xv - b xvi - c xvii - d xviii - b xix - a xx - c xxi - a
xxii - c xxiii - d xxiv - c xxv - b xxvi - d xxvii - a xxviii - a
xxix - a xxx - b xxxi - c xxxii - b xxxiii - a xxxiv - c xxxv - d
xxxvi - a xxxvii - b xxxviii - b xxxix - b xxxx - b

SECTION - II

i-b ii - c iii - d iv - a v-a vi - c vii - b


viii - c ix - d x-a xi - d xii - b xiii - c xiv - c
xv - d xvi - c xvii - a xviii - a xix - c xx - d

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