VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Current Affair Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 04
(CA2254)

2025
40/-
 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 04 – (CA2254)
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
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THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
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omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
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Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
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the Answer Sheet.
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has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
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i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

 VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. The term “Orangutan diplomacy” was recently 4. Which of the following differentiates Subclinical
seen in the news in the context of: Tuberculosis (TB) from other forms of TB?
(a) strengthening international cooperation for
(a) It does not respond to first-line TB drugs.
prevention of wildlife trafficking
(b) reducing the negative impact of the palm oil (b) It primarily affects the lungs of the infected
industry on biodiversity person.
(c) promoting sustainable tourism in tropical (c) It affects organs and tissues outside of the
regions
lungs.
(d) enhancing research collaborations on primate
conservation between countries (d) It does not show TB-related symptoms.

2. Consider the following statements: 5. With reference to the Unified Pension Scheme
Statement-I:
(UPS), consider the following statements:
The month of August is one of the best times to
see meteor showers without a telescope. 1. It assures all government employees a
Statement-II: pension of 50% of their last-drawn basic pay.
In August, the Earth is closest to the Sun in the 2. It provides a family pension of 60% of the
entire year.
pension drawn by an employee before the
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
death.
the above statements?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct 3. It assures pensions with inflation indexation.
and Statement–II explains Statement–I 4. It applies retrospectively to those who joined
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
after January 1, 2004, under the National
correct, but Statement–II does not explain
Pension Scheme.
Statement–I
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is How many of the above statements are correct?
incorrect (a) Only one
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is (b) Only two
correct
(c) Only three

3. With reference to the management of disasters in (d) All four

India, consider the following statements:
1. There is no specific criterion in India for 6. Which one of the following is the only arboreal
declaring a natural calamity as a calamity of
species in India with the unique ability to climb
severe nature.
2. There is no category or definition for national trees and dwell in them?
calamity in the Disaster Management Act, (a) Indian giant squirrel
2005. (b) Hoolock gibbon
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Indian tree frog
correct?
(a) 1 only (d) Malabar Tree Toad
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
7. Consider the following statements: 9. The new “composite cylinders” that are set to
Statement-I: replace the old steel LPG cylinders in India are
Artificial Light At Night (ALAN) is an area of primarily made up of:
(a) Aluminium and Copper
growing concern among scientific communities.
(b) Titanium and Plant Fibre
Statement-II: (c) High-Density Polyethylene and Fiberglass
ALAN disrupts nocturnal plant-pollinator (d) Steel and Polymer Fibers
interactions.
Statement-III: 10. Which of the following are benefits of higher
Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) by crops?
ALAN makes tree leaves harder for insects to eat,
1. Reduction in the extent of eutrophication
posing a threat to food chains. 2. Lower input cost of farmers
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 3. Fewer greenhouse gas emissions
the above statements? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) Both Statement–II and Statement–III are below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct and both of them explain Statement–I.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Both Statement–II and Statement–III are
(c) 1 and 3 only
correct, but only one of them explains (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement–I.
(c) Only one of the Statements–II and III is 11. Which one of the following trees is known to act
correct and that explains Statement–I. as a natural lightning conductor?
(a) Banayan
(d) Neither Statement–II nor Statement–III is
(b) Palm
correct. (c) Birch
(d) Maple
8. With reference to a Central Processing Unit (CPU)
and a Graphics Processing Unit (GPU), consider 12. What is the ‘Sahm Rule’?
(a) A policy to adjust interest rates in response to
the following statements:
changes in inflation and economic output
1. A CPU is designed for general-purpose (b) A framework for identifying recessionary
computing applications, while a GPU is periods based on the unemployment rate
designed for high-performance computing (c) An economic theory that illustrates the
applications. relationship between tax rates and tax revenue
2. CPUs have fewer and more powerful cores, (d) A concept that depicts an inverse relationship
between inflation and unemployment
while GPUs have many cores but they are
less powerful than CPU cores. 13. Consider the following:
3. A CPU handles main processing functions 1. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions
of a server, while a GPU is a specialized 2. Improving nutrient cycling and soil fertility
component that excels at parallel computing. 3. Cleaning oil spills
How many of the above are the benefits of using
How many of the above statements are correct?
methanotrophic bacteria?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
14. Consider the following pairs: 17. Which one of the following best describes the
term “Yen carry trade”, recently seen in the news?
Organization Country of Origin (a) A strategy of investing in Japanese yen-
1. Hezbollah Iran
denominated assets while borrowing funds in
2. Hamas Lebanon other currencies with higher interest rates
3. Houthis Egypt (b) A financial practice involving borrowing
yen at low interest rates to invest in higher-
How many of the pairs given above are correctly yielding assets in other currencies
matched? (c) An investment approach that involves
(a) Only one pair converting yen into other currencies to exploit
(b) Only two pairs differences in exchange rates between Japan
and other countries
(c) All three pairs
(d) A method of using high-interest loans from
(d) None
Japanese banks to purchase foreign assets
with lower returns
15. “Salar de Uyuni”, the world’s largest salt desert
that overlays a brine layer enriched with lithium, 18. Consider the following:
is located in: 1. Severe heat waves during winter in Antarctica
(a) Argentina 2. Weakening of global ocean circulation,
through the influx of freshwater
(b) Bolivia
3. Less Ozone depletion in the Stratosphere
(c) Brazil How many of the above are most likely impacts of
(d) Chile a weakened Antarctica Polar vortex?
(a) Only one
16. Consider the following statements: (b) Only two
Statement-I: (c) All three
An increase in tree and shrub cover can reduce the (d) None
overall biodiversity in the Savanna grasslands.
19. Which of the following statements regarding the
Statement-II: “Beta-lactam ring” is correct?
Homogenization of trees reduces habitat (a) It is present in heteroresistant bacteria.
complexity and the variety of niches in an (b) It is the central motif of a class of antibiotics.
ecosystem. (c) It is present in gram-positive bacteria that
Which one of the following is correct in respect of helps in cell wall synthesis.
(d) It is present in a class of antiviral drugs.
the above statements?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
20. Consider the following:
and Statement–II explains Statement–I 1. Reduced use of water
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are 2. Less fuel consumption
correct, but Statement–II does not explain 3. Enhanced fertilizer use efficiency
Statement–I 4. No requirement of herbicides
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is How many of the above are the benefits of Direct
Seeded Rice (DSR) cultivation?
incorrect
(a) Only one
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
(b) Only two
correct (c) Only three
(d) All four

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21. What is spintronics? 24. With reference to Genetic rescue, consider the
(a) It is the study of the spin of Boson particles. following statements:
(b) It is the study of the spin of the electron and 1. It is the immigration of unique genomes into
its associated magnetic moment.
a population to alleviate genetic load.
(c) It exploits the intrinsic spin properties of
2. It increases the genetic variation and
protons with implications in the efficiency of
data storage and transfer. diversifies the gene pool.
(d) It is the study of spin waves, which are 3. It may lead to inbreeding or mating between
elementary excitations of magnetic order in close relatives.
magnetic materials. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
22. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
Statement-I:
(b) 2 and 3 only
The Funan Techo Canal project is a strategic route
to reduce Cambodia's dependence on trade routes (c) 1 and 2 only
controlled by Vietnam. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement-II:
The Funan Techo Canal will link the Mekong 25. Which of the following statements regarding the
River to the Gulf of Thailand. 'rare disease' is not correct?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of (a) The World Health Organization defines rare
the above statements?
disease as often debilitating lifelong disease
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
and Statement–II explains Statement–I. or disorder with a prevalence of 1 or less, per
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are 1000 population.
correct, but Statement–II does not explain (b) Different countries have their own definitions
Statement–I. to suit their specific requirements and in
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is context of their own population
incorrect. (c) A disease must be chronic to be considered as
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
a “rare disease”.
correct.
(d) Pompe disease is recognised as one of the
23. With reference to genetics, which one of the rare diseases in India.
following statements best describes ‘zombie’
regions? 26. Consider the following:
(a) These are viruses that integrate their RNA 1. Machinery and fuel cost
genome into the host’s DNA, potentially 2. Rent paid for leased-in land
reshaping the host genome.
3. Value of family labour
(b) These are enzymes that act like glue to bind
4. Interest on fixed capital
reverse-transcribed DNA into the host’s
DNA. How many of the above are considered while
(c) These are forms of viral DNA integrated into deciding Minimum Support Price for crops in
the host's genome, which is a crucial step in India?
the life cycle of retroviruses. (a) Only one
(d) These are remnants of retroviral infections (b) Only two
that are no longer capable of replication
(c) Only three
but may influence the host’s evolution and
(d) All four
biology.

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27. Consider the following statements: 30. Consider the following statements:
1. ‘International Mathematical Olympiad’ is Statement-I:
the World Championship in Mathematics for The frequency of Pyrocumulonimbus clouds
High School students. formation has increased significantly in recent
2. The ‘Abel Prize’ is awarded in the discipline years.
of Physics. Statement-II:
3. The ‘Fields Medal’ is awarded to recognize Wildfires, often exacerbated by climate change,
outstanding mathematical achievement. are a primary driver for the formation of
Which of the statements given above are correct? Pyrocumulonimbus clouds.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which one of the following is correct in respect of
(b) 2 and 3 only the above statements?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
28. Ceramics are used in the manufacturing of which correct, but Statement–II does not explain
of the following? Statement–I
1. Race car brakes (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
2. Body armour incorrect
3. Space shuttle tiles (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
4. Bakelite correct
5. Artificial joints
Select the correct answer using the code given 31. With reference to the e-SIMs, consider the
below: following statements:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1. They are non-detachable chips, built
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only into mobile phone devices, which can be
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only programmed remotely.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 2. They are more vulnerable to cyber security
threats as compared to the traditional SIM
29. The Dumboor Dam, recently seen in the news, is cards.
built on which of the following rivers? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Barak correct?
(b) Gomati (a) 1 only
(c) Meghna (b) 2 only
(d) Manu (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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32. Consider the following statements: 35. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the largest trade partner of Bangladesh. Statement-I:
Gram-negative bacteria are more antibiotic-
2. Bangladesh is the biggest export destination
resistant than gram-positive bacteria.
for India’s cotton.
Statement-II:
3. India’s top import from Bangladesh are Gram-negative bacteria have an additional outer
readymade garments. plasma membrane.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which one of the following is correct in respect of
correct? the above statements?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
(a) 1 and 2 only
and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(b) 3 only (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
(c) 2 and 3 only correct, but Statement–II does not explain
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement–I
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
incorrect
33. Which of the following are the objectives of the
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
Clean Plant Programme (CPP), launched by the
correct
Government of India?
1. Virus-free planting material 36. It is the cooled remnant of the first light that
2. Promotion of organic farming could ever travel freely throughout the Universe.
3. Infrastructure support to nurseries It is currently one of the most promising ways
of understanding the birth and evolution of the
4. Creation of water resources
Universe.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the following is best described above?
below: (a) Event Horizon
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Cosmic Microwave Background
(b) 2 and 4 only (c) Dark Matter
(d) Big Bang
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
37. The International Space Station is managed by
which of the following space agencies?
34. Which river, often referred to as the "Everest 1. Indian Space Research Organisation
of rivers," has carved out the world's largest 2. Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
terrestrial canyon, one that is longer than the 3. National Aeronautics and Space
Administration
Grand Canyon in Arizona and deeper than any
4. Canadian Space Agency
other known canyon on land? 5. Roscosmos (Russia)
(a) Brahmaputra Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) Yarlung Tsangpo below:
(c) Yellow (a) 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) Yangtze
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1 and 5 only
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
38. Xerogels have application in which of the 41. Consider the following information:
following areas? Disease Causative Vector
1. Drug delivery Agent
2. Food packaging 1. Lymphatic Nematode Mosquito
Filariasis
3. Chemical sensors 2. Trachoma Bacterium Flies
4. Nuclear waste storage 3. Scrub typhus Virus Mites
Select the correct answer using the code given
In how many of the above rows is the given
below:
information correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 3 and 4 only
(b) Only two
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) All three
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None

39. Consider the following statements: 42. It is a gigantic seasonal floodplain and one of the
1. It is a folk dance characterized by young boys world’s largest freshwater wetlands. It is often
dressing as women. called the “kingdom of water” and is made up of
2. It involves performance of acrobatic feats more than 1,200 rivers and streams.
inspired by the lives of Radha and Krishna. Which one of the following wetlands is best
3. It is celebrated as the precursor to the classical described above?
Odissi dance form. (a) Danube delta
Which one of the following dance forms is (b) Pantanal
described in the statements given above? (c) Kafue flats
(d) Okavango delta
(a) Dhap
(b) Bamsarani
43. The UNESCO Kalinga Prize is given for:
(c) Gotipua
(a) achievement in Art
(d) Paika
(b) popularisation of Science
(c) contribution in Peace
40. Which one of the following statements best (d) contribution in conservation of forests
describes ‘Artificial General Intelligence (AGI)’?
(a) It refers to AI systems that have surpassed 44. In India, the Housing Finance Companies (HFCs)
human intelligence in all aspects, capable of are regulated by:
independent thought and action. (a) National Housing Bank
(b) It is a type of AI that specializes in a specific (b) Reserve Bank of India
task, such as facial recognition or language (c) Small Industries Development Bank of India
translation, and cannot be applied to other (d) Life Insurance Corporation of India
domains.
(c) It is a form of AI that possesses intelligence 45. The site of Gobekli Tepe located in Turkey was
equal to humans, enabling it to understand, recently seen in the news in the context of:
(a) location of an ancient synagogue
learn, and apply knowledge across various
(b) discovery of the world’s oldest calendar
domains.
(c) recognition as the world’s first UNESCO
(d) It is a branch of AI that focuses on creating
‘City of Literature’
machines that can mimic human emotions
(d) discovery of the oldest neolithic site in the
and consciousness.
world

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46. Which of the following are most likely reasons 49. Consider the following pairs:
for the recent increase of India’s trade deficit with Missiles Features
Russia?
1. GAURAV Air-to-Surface Long Range
1. Imposition of non-tariff barriers by Russia on Glide Bomb
Indian marine exports 2. Akash-NG Air-to-Surface missile capable
of intercepting high-speed,
2. Surge in the price of Russian oil agile aerial threats
3. Rise in import of crude oil from Russia 3. RudraM-II Air-to-Surface missile meant
for neutralising many types of
Select the correct answer using the code given enemy assets
below: Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(a) 1 and 2 only matched?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

47. Which of the following statements are correct 50. Consider the following statements:
regarding the 'Model Solar Village’? Statement-I:
1. It is an initiative under the Pradhan Mantri The melting of polar ice can lead to changes in the
Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan duration of a day on Earth.
Mahabhiyan Yojana (PM-KUSUM). Statement-II:
The flow of polar ice water towards the Equator
2. Its aim is to create One Model Solar Village
causes the Earth to spin slower.
in every district in the country.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
3. A village must be a revenue village with a the above statements?
population size above 5,000 or 2,000 if (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
special category states, to be considered and Statement–II explains Statement–I
under this scheme. (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
Select the correct answer using the code given correct, but Statement–II does not explain
below: Statement–I
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
(a) 1 and 2 only
incorrect
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
(c) 1 and 3 only correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3
51. The glacier has been recently in the news for
48. Which one of the following species are playing a critical role in the global climate system
emblematic of the ecological crisis facing African by contributing significantly to rising sea levels.
tropical forests and their declining populations is It also acts as a barrier preventing the collapse of
the entire West Antarctic ice sheet. It is popularly
considered as a warning to the fate of other large-
called the "Doomsday Glacier". This is the most
bodied terrestrial vertebrates?
likely description of:
(a) Binturong (a) Thwaites Glacier
(b) Small-clawed Otter (b) Pine Island Glacier
(c) Red Colobus (c) Greenland Ice Sheet
(d) Baobab (d) Petermann Glacier

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52. Consider the following pairs: 55. Consider the following:
Military India and partner 1. Education
Exercise Country
2. Poverty
1. Mitra Shakti Sri Lanka
2. Maitree Bhutan 3. Health
3. Dustlik Oman 4. Infrastructure
4. Harimau Shakti Indonesia
5. Governance
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
How many of the above are considered for the
matched?
(a) Only one pair QCI-Surajya Recognition & Ranking Framework?
(b) Only two pairs (a) Only two
(c) Only three pairs (b) Only three
(d) All four pairs
(c) Only four

53. Which one of the following best describes the (d) All five
term ''vampire stars''?
(a) These are in a binary state where a smaller 56. Which one of the following best describes a
star feeds off its companion star.
rotating column of upward air and mist that forms
(b) These stars show the best example of stellar
over a water body, is less intense than a tornado
evolution.
(c) These are a type of star that form when a main and typically lasts for a few minutes?
sequence star runs out of hydrogen in its core. (a) Microburst
(d) They are more massive than planets but not
(b) Waterspout
as massive as stars.
(c) Dust devil
54. Which of the following benefits are granted to a (d) Squall
language being notified as ‘Classical Language’ in
India? 57. Consider the following statements:
1. Two major annual international awards are
1. It is a man-made wetland which was created
introduced for scholars of eminence in the
said languages. primarily for irrigation.
2. The Union Ministry of Education sets up 2. It is located within Satpura Tiger Reserve.
a Centre of Excellence for Studies in the 3. It has been declared a Ramsar site in 2024.
language.
Which one of the following wetland is described
3. The University Grants Commission is
requested to create a certain number of above?
professional chairs in the Central Universities (a) Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary
for the language. (b) Yashwant Sagar lake
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Bhoj Wetland
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Tawa Reservoir
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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58. Consider the following statements regarding 61. According to a recent environmental study, Chile's
the Voluntary Vehicle Modernization Program “Atacama salt flat” is at risk of sinking due to
(VVMP): which one of the following primary reasons?
1. It encourages the scrapping of unfit (a) Over-extraction of geothermal energy
commercial and passenger vehicles strictly
(b) Increases in Physiological Equivalent
based on their age.
Temperature (PET)
2. It mandates fitness tests for commercial
(c) Lithium brine extraction
vehicles every five years to meet emission
standards. (d) Decline of water storage due to sedimentation
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 62. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 only Region Reason for being in the
(b) 2 only news
1. Mount Cold lava flow
(c) Both 1 and 2 Kanlaon
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Shiveluch Discovery of rare mineral
volcano deposits
3. St. Martin The U.S. naval base in the
59. The "Security of Supply Arrangement (SOSA)" Island Pacific Ocean
was recently discussed in the context of which of 4. Kursk Buffer zone along the Isreal-
Lebanon border
the following?
(a) Cooperation in the field of helicopter How many of the pairs given above are correctly
engineering between China and Russia matched?
(b) Promoting reciprocal priority support for (a) Only one pair
defence supplies between India and the USA (b) Only two pairs
(c) Collaborative relationship to combat (c) Only three pairs
transnational crime between India and Nepal
(d) All four pairs
(d) Protection of classified military information
between France and the USA
63. Which one of the following is the primary function

60. Consider the following countries: of Cyanobacterial Engineered Living Material

1. Australia (C-ELM) used in building interiors?
2. Cook Islands (a) To absorb carbon dioxide (CO₂) through
3. Seychelles photosynthesis
4. Papua New Guinea (b) To absorb methane through anaerobic
5. Fiji respiration
How many of the above are members of the
(c) To emit light using chemical energy
Pacific Islands Forum (PFI)?
(d) To increase the tensile strength of building
(a) Only two
materials
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

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64. With reference to the Polaris Dawn mission, 68. Consider the following pairs:
consider the following statements:
1. It completed the world's first commercial Tribe State
spacewalk.
1. Bonda Karnataka
2. It tested laser-based satellite communications
2. Saora Odisha
in orbit.
3. Dhokra Damar West Bengal
3. It undertook the farthest journey since 4. Kutia Kondh Rajasthan
NASA's Apollo Program’s culmination in
1972.
How many of the above statements are correct? How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(a) Only one matched?
(b) Only two (a) Only one pair
(c) All three
(b) Only two pairs
(d) None
(c) Only three pairs
65. The “Nankai Trough” is an underwater subduction (d) All four pairs
zone between:
(a) Eurasian plate and the Indian plate
69. The “Plug-n-play” and “walk-to-work” concepts,
(b) South American plate and the Scotia plate
(c) North American plate and the Caribbean plate recently seen in the news, are related to:
(d) Eurasian plate and the Philippine Sea plate (a) gaming zones
(b) gig economy
66. Which of the following services are provided by
(c) urban planning
the Krishi-Decision Support System (K-DSS)
platform launched by the Government of India? (d) electric vehicles
1. Weather information
2. Groundwater levels 70. Consider the following pairs:
3. Soil health information
4. Reservoir storage levels Deception Description
Select the correct answer using the code given Detection
below: Test (DDT)
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. Polygraph Measures physiological
Test responses like galvanic skin
(b) 1 and 3 only response
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 2. Narco- Using electrodes to detect
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 analysis familiarity with certain
stimuli
3. Brain Involves injecting sodium
67. Which one of the following is the reason why Mapping pentothal to induce a
Fixed-Dose Combinations (FDCs) drugs have sedated state
become a cause of concern recently?
(a) They lead to lower patient compliance. How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(b) They may contain a combination of matched?
ingredients that interact negatively with each (a) Only one pair
other.
(b) Only two pairs
(c) They are less effective than individual
medications. (c) All three pairs
(d) They are more expensive than separate drugs. (d) None

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71. Consider the following statements with reference 74. Which of the following are the likely impacts of
to Vaccine-Derived Poliovirus (VDPV): space travel on the health of astronauts?
1. It is a rare condition where the weakened 1. Reduction in red blood cells and haemoglobin
poliovirus in the oral vaccine mutates and
levels
regain its ability to cause paralysis.
2. Higher risk of cardiovascular diseases
2. India has not reported any cases of VDPV
3. Increase in bone mineral density
since 2011.
3. It spreads in areas with low immunization. 4. Higher risk of developing cancer
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

72. Consider the following statements regarding the

National Sports Day of India: 75. Consider the following statements regarding the
1. It is celebrated on August 29 every year. Payment Passkey Service:
2. It was included in the list of celebratory days 1. It utilizes biometric authentication methods
in India for the first time in 2012. like fingerprints or facial recognition.
3. It is celebrated to commemorate the birth 2. It offers transaction management that relies
anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan
on One-Time Passwords (OTPs).
Chand.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
73. With reference to the Gender Budget Statement
(GBS) of the Union Government, consider the
76. What are Extremophiles?
following statements:
(a) Microbes that survive only in acidic
1. It has reached 10% of the Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) for the first time in 2024-25. conditions.
2. Its allocation exceeded 15% of the total (b) Microbes that live in an extreme environment
budget expenditure in 2024-25. under high pressure and temperature
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Microbes that survive only on dead organic
correct? matter
(a) 1 only
(d) Microbes that only thrive in temperate
(b) 2 only
environments
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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77. Consider the following statements regarding the 80. The Nord Stream Gas Pipeline passes through the
Green Tug Transition Program (GTTP): Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of which of
1. It has been launched under the ‘Panch Karma the following countries?
Sankalp’ initiative under the Union Ministry 1. Russia
of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. 2. Ukraine
2. It aims to replace existing diesel-powered 3. Finland
tugs with zero-emission tugs. 4. Denmark
3. All tugs are constructed in Indian shipyards 5. Germany
as part of the ‘Make in India’ initiative. Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above are correct? below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 4 and 5 only

78. Consider the following pairs: 81. Regenerative agriculture is a practice in which:
Tribe Region (a) monocropping is maximised alongwith
balanced use of synthetic fertilisers and
1. Thadou India
2. Marubo Indonesia pesticides
3. Berbers North Africa (b) no-till farming and cover cropping reduce
erosion and water pollution, producing
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
healthier soils
matched?
(c) crop rotation is primarily used to maintain
(a) 1 and 2 only
soil fertility and control pests
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) organic farming methods are used exclusively
(c) 1 and 3 only
to enhance soil health and biodiversity
(d) 1, 2 and 3

82. Consider the following pairs:

79. Consider the following:
Island Territory Country
1. India
2. Bangladesh 1. Guam United States of America
3. Mauritius 2. Bermuda United Kingdom
4. Maldives 3. Reunion Australia
4. Canary Canada
5. Seychelles
How many of the above countries are the members How many of the above pairs are correctly

of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)? matched?

(a) Only two (a) Only one pair
(b) Only three (b) Only two pairs
(c) Only four (c) Only three pairs
(d) All five (d) All four pairs

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83. Which of the following statements are correct 86. Recently, ISRO has launched the Earth
regarding the Revised Model Foster Care Observation Satellite (EOS-08). In this context,
Guidelines, 2024 in India? which of the following are the applications of its
1. It allows single individuals, regardless of
various payloads?
marital status, to foster a child.
2. It has reduced the mandatory fostering period 1. Electro Optical Infrared Payload (EOIR)
before adoption from two years to six months. will help in fire detection and monitoring of
3. A stable marital relationship of at least two industrial and power plant disasters.
years is required for married couples, before 2. Global Navigation Satellite System-
they can foster a child.
Reflectometry payload (GNSS-R) will help
Select the correct answer using the code given
in detection of ocean surface winds and
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only cryosphere applications over the Himalayan
(b) 2 and 3 only Region.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. The SiC UV Dosimeter will monitor the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 UV irradiance at the View Port of the Crew
Module in Gaganyaan Mission.
84. A Super Blue Moon occurs if:
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) the moon is closest to Earth and is the second
full moon of the month below:
(b) the moon is at perigee during a total solar (a) 1 and 2 only
eclipse, causing the it to block out the Sun (b) 2 and 3 only
completely (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) a full moon coincides with the lunar perigee,
(d) 1, 2 and 3
making it appear larger and brighter than
usual
(d) the moon appears blue in colour due to 87. Consider the following pairs:
atmospheric conditions Financial messaging Country/Group
system
85. Consider the following statements: 1. Society for Worldwide Group of Ten
Interbank Financial
1. It is a mixture of arid grassland and wetland Telecommunication
ecosystems. 2. Structured Financial India
Messaging System
2. It is a Protected Forest under the Indian Forest
3. Cross-Border Interbank Russia
Act, 1927. Payment System
3. It hosts Narayan Sarovar Sanctuary as one of 4. System for Transfer of China
the last remaining habitat of the Cheetah in Financial Messages
India.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
Which one of the following grasslands is best
matched?
described above?
(a) Khajjar (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Bugyal (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Banni (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Shola (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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88. With reference to the term Global South, which of 91. Consider the following statements:
the following statements is correct? 1. Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme
(a) It is defined by the World Bank for disbursal aims to achieve a 20% ethanol blending target
of the developmental aid to countries. by the end of the Ethanol Supply Year 2030.
(b) All countries included in the Global South lie 2. The second generation (2G) Ethanol is derived
in the southern hemisphere. from surplus biomass and agricultural waste.
(c) It commonly refers to the countries belonging 3. The “Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN Yojana”
to the Group of 77 at the United Nations. provides financial assistance for 2G bio-
(d) No Gulf country is included in the Global ethanol projects.
South. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
89. Consider the following countries: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Taiwan (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Vietnam (d) 1, 2, and 3
3. Philippines
4. Malaysia 92. The term "Nikkomycin", recently seen in the
5. Laos news, refers to:
How many of the above are involved in territorial (a) newly discovered antibiotic effective against
disputes over various parts of the South China bacterial infections
Sea? (b) pesticide used in agriculture to control insect
(a) Only two infestations on crops
(b) Only three (c) chemical compound used in the treatment of
(c) Only four viral infections
(d) All five (d) chitin synthesis inhibitor used in the
development of antifungal drugs
90. It is a field of study that explores how animals
self-medicate by selecting and using plants, soils, 93. Which one of the following statements best
and other natural substances to treat and prevent describes the Hayflick limit?
diseases. For example, chimpanzees in the wild (a) It states that somatic cells can divide only a
have been observed eating specific leaves that have limited number of times.
medicinal properties to treat parasitic infections. (b) It refers to the maximum amount of energy a
It is known as: cell can produce before it stops functioning.
(a) Ethnobotany (c) It refers to the duplication of the chromosomes
(b) Ethnopharmacology which are separated into two daughter cells.
(c) Phytotherapy (d) It refers to the maximum number of identical
(d) Zoopharmacognosy copies of the Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA).

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94. Consider the following statements: 97. With reference to the International Criminal Court
Statement-I: (ICC), consider the following statements:
Quantum nonlocality appears to violate the 1. Its operations are primarily governed by the
classical idea that information or influence cannot Rome Statute.
travel faster than the speed of light. 2. It is one of the specialized agencies of the
United Nations (UN).
Statement-II:
3. It requires the accused persons to be present
Quantum nonlocality allows objects to
in the courtroom for their trial.
instantaneously know about each other’s state, 4. India is not a member of the ICC.
even when separated by large distances. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
the above statements? (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
and Statement–II explains Statement–I (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
correct, but Statement–II does not explain 98. Which of the following has been recently named
Statement–I as “Jan Poshan Kendras”?
(a) Fair Price Shops
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
(b) Community kitchens
incorrect
(c) Anganwadi centers
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is (d) Canteens serving subsidised food at low
correct prices

95. India has established a “2+2” dialogue with which 99. Consider the following pairs:
of the following countries?
Portal Purpose
1. Australia
2. France 1. DRIPS To track the efficient delivery
of water for agricultural crops
3. Japan
2. PARIVESH To facilitate single window
4. South Korea 2.0 platform for environmental
5. Brazil clearance for various projects
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. She-Box To register and monitor
complaints of sexual
below: harassment at the workplace
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only matched?
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
96. The term ‘TnpB’ is often mentioned in the news in (d) 1, 2 and 3
the context of:
(a) tool for genome editing in plants 100. The primary responsibility for licensing FinTech
companies lies with which one of the following
(b) biosensor used in detection of pathogens in
organisations?
patients
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(c) radio collar for tracking the movements of (b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
the wildlife (c) Department of Financial Services
(d) technique used to separate and analyze (d) Department of Investment and Public Asset
macromolecules Management
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Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

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Answer Key
&
Detailed Answer Explanations
 CA Test – 04 (CA2254) - Answer Key

1. (b) 11. (b) 21. (b) 31. (a) 41. (b) 51. (a) 61. (c) 71. (b) 81. (b) 91. (b)

2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (a) 32. (c) 42. (b) 52. (a) 62. (a) 72. (d) 82. (b) 92. (d)

3. (c) 13. (c) 23. (d) 33. (d) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (a) 73. (d) 83. (c) 93. (a)

4. (d) 14. (d) 24. (c) 34. (b) 44. (b) 54. (d) 64. (c) 74. (b) 84. (a) 94. (a)

5. (c) 15. (b) 25. (c) 35. (a) 45. (b) 55. (b) 65. (d) 75. (a) 85. (c) 95. (c)

6. (d) 16. (a) 26. (d) 36. (b) 46. (c) 56. (b) 66. (d) 76. (b) 86. (d) 96. (a)

7. (a) 17. (b) 27. (c) 37. (c) 47. (b) 57. (d) 67. (b) 77. (d) 87. (a) 97. (c)

8. (c) 18. (c) 28. (a) 38. (d) 48. (c) 58. (d) 68. (b) 78. (c) 88. (c) 98. (a)

9. (c) 19. (b) 29. (b) 39. (c) 49. (b) 59. (b) 69. (c) 79. (c) 89. (c) 99. (b)

10. (d) 20. (c) 30. (a) 40. (c) 50. (a) 60. (c) 70. (a) 80. (c) 90. (d) 100. (a)

Q1.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The “Orangutan diplomacy” is a strategy proposed by the Malaysian Government, inspired by China's Panda
diplomacy. Orangutan diplomacy aims to gift Orangutans to countries that import palm oil. Malaysia, one
of the largest palm oil producers, has faced criticism due to the impact of palm oil plantations on orangutan
habitats. To alleviate such concerns, the idea was initially to gift orangutans to these nations.
● The tropical areas suitable for oil palm plantations are
affluent in biodiversity. Oil palm development, therefore, has Points to remember
significant negative impacts on global biodiversity, as it often
replaces tropical forests and other species-rich habitats. Some Panda diplomacy refers to the practice
10,000 of the estimated 75,000–100,000 Critically Endangered of the Chinese Government gifting or
Bornean orangutans are currently found in areas allocated to oil loaning giant pandas to other countries as
a symbol of friendship and goodwill, or to
palm. Every year around 750 to 1,250 of the species are killed
strengthen diplomatic relations.
during human-orangutan conflicts, which are often linked to
expanding agriculture.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Orangutans are the largest arboreal mammals and the most socially solitary of the great
apes. They are found only in the rainforests of the Southeast Asian islands of Borneo and
Sumatra. They spend nearly their entire lives in trees—swinging in tree tops and building
nests for sleep. All three orangutan species — Bornean, Sumatran and the newly discovered
Tapanuli — are “Critically Endangered”, primarily due to habitat loss.
Relevance: Recently, Malaysia has initiated "Orangutan Diplomacy" to address sustainability concerns related to palm oil-
linked deforestation affecting orangutans.

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Q2.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Milky Way is a spiral galaxy with a visible diameter of 100,000-200,000 light-years. The Sun, the Earth, and
the rest of our Solar System reside in the Orion Arm.
● A meteor shower is a celestial event in which a number of meteors are observed to radiate, or originate,
from one point in the night sky called Radiant.
● For observing both the Milky Way and meteor showers without a telescope, a dark sky unhindered by light
pollution is crucial.
● It is true that the first week of August is one of the best times all year to see the Milky Way and meteor
showers without a telescope. So, statement 1 is correct.
● In 2024, there was a new moon on August 4, which kept the post-sunset sky dark until about August 8. That
makes the first week of August ideal for spotting "shooting stars" and the Milky Way. Also, August marks one of
the most gorgeous annual meteor showers, the Perseid meteor shower.
● Earth is closest to the Sun in early January every year. This is said to be at perihelion. The perihelion is the
closest distance between Earth and the Sun. So, statement 2 is not correct.
So, statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is incorrect.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q3.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● As per the Disaster Management Act of 2005, “disaster” means a catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave
occurrence arising from natural or man-made causes which is beyond the coping capacity of the affected
community.
● A natural disaster includes earthquake, flood, landslide, cyclone, tsunami, urban flood, heatwave; a man-made
disaster can be nuclear, biological and chemical.
● Presently, there is no provision, executive or legal, to declare a disaster as a national calamity. The
existing guidelines of State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)/National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF), do not
contemplate declaring a disaster as a ‘national calamity’. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The guidelines published by the National Disaster Management Authority talks about “calamity of a severe nature”,
and not national calamity. Further, no specific criterion is given in the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) or
National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) guidelines for declaring a natural calamity as a calamity of severe
nature. So, statement 1 is correct.
● However, based on the intensity and magnitude of losses to life, property and infrastructure caused by the calamity,
the Central government may treat it as a calamity of severe nature.
● As per the Disaster Management Act 2005 and 14th Finance Commission recommendations, any notified ‘calamity
of a severe nature’ will qualify for assistance from National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q4.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Subclinical Tuberculosis (TB):
● TB is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It can practically affect any organ of the body.
The most common ones are the lungs, pleura, lymph nodes, intestines, spine and brain. It is an airborne infection
that spreads through close contact with the infected persons.

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 ● Subclinical TB is defined as “disease due to viable M. tuberculosis bacteria that does not cause clinical TB-
related symptoms but causes other abnormalities that can be detected using existing radiologic or
microbiological assays”. It is commonly understood as confirmed tuberculosis without the classic symptoms.
So, option (d) is correct.
● Multidrug-resistant TB is a form of TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to isoniazid and
rifampicin, the 2 most effective first-line TB drugs. It is treatable and curable by using second-line drugs.
However, second-line treatment options require extensive medicines that are expensive and toxic. Drug
resistance emerges when TB medicines are used inappropriately. So, option (a) is not correct.
● Pulmonary TB (PTB) is a type of TB that affects the lungs. It refers to any bacteriologically confirmed or
clinically diagnosed case of TB involving the lung parenchyma or the tracheobronchial tree. So, option (b) is not
correct.
● Extrapulmonary TB affects organs and tissues outside of the lungs. TB Lymphadenitis is a type of TB that
affects the lymph nodes and is the most common form of extrapulmonary TB. Skeletal TB is a type of TB that has
spread to the bones. Genitourinary TB affects the genitals, urinary tract, or kidneys. TB meningitis is an infection
of the meninges. So, option (c) is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The first-of-its-kind TB prevalence cross-sectional survey was carried out among individuals aged older than
15 years across Tamil Nadu.

Q5.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Central Government recently introduced the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) to fulfill a long-standing
demand of government unions. It is based on the recommendations of a committee under former Finance
Secretary and Cabinet Secretary-designate T.V. Somanathan, set up in March 2023 to review the National
Pension System (NPS). The UPS assures government employees a lifelong monthly pension equivalent to 50%
of their last-drawn salary, similar to the Old Pension Scheme (OPS). To qualify for this, retirees must have
completed at least 25 years of service. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● For lesser service (up to ten years), the percentage is reduced proportionately, but the minimum has been fixed
to ₹10,000. 60% of the pension drawn by the employee prior to his/her death will be awarded as a family
pension. So, statement 2 is correct.
● All of the above pensions are assured with inflation indexation. It also assures 10% of the monthly pension
amount (pay plus Dearness Allowance (DA)) as on the date of retirement for every completed six months of
service. So, statement 3 is correct.
● However, contrary to the Old Pension Scheme, the UPS is not fully funded by the government. Similar to
the National Pension Scheme (NPS), employees contribute 10% of their salary, while the government contributes
18.5%. The UPS applies retrospectively to those who joined after January 1, 2004, under the NPS. So,
statement 4 is correct.
So, only three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The National Pension Scheme (NPS), introduced in 2004, replaced the Old Pension
Scheme (OPS) for government employees. It is based on a "Defined Contribution" system,
where employees contribute 10% of their basic pay and DA, with a matching government
contribution.
● Employees retiring at 60 must invest 40% of the corpus in an annuity, providing lifetime pension
for them and their dependents.
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 ● Regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA),
NPS funds are managed by entities like the State Bank of India and Life Insurance
Corporation (LIC) Pension Funds. Unlike OPS, NPS builds individual wealth through
employer-employee contributions and allows voluntary contributions with tax benefits. All
States, except Tamil Nadu and West Bengal, have implemented NPS.
Relevance: Recently the Central Government unveiled a new ‘Unified Pension Scheme’ (UPS) assuring government
employees half their last drawn salary as a lifelong monthly benefit.

Q6.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Malabar Tree Toad (MTT) is endemic to the Western Ghats. It is the only species in the monotypic
genus Pedostibes, meaning it is the only arboreal species in India with the unique ability to climb trees
and dwell in them, unlike most toads in the region that are ground-dwelling.
○ It was first discovered in 1876 and was not sighted for over 100 years until it was rediscovered in 1980 at
Silent Valley National Park in Kerala.
● Although the MTT is a tree toad, it comes to the ground to breed in water pools at the edges of streams
formed during the monsoon, indicating that precipitation and moisture provide the necessary conditions for its
breeding.
● According to a study conducted by a group of concerned citizens and scientists, climate change may reduce the
distribution range of the Malabar Tree Toad (MTT) by up to 68.7 percent of its current estimated range within
India’s Protected Areas (PAs).
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Arboreal Species:
● Animals that live in the trees are called 'arboreal' and they have some amazing
adaptations to make the most of their leafy surroundings at every level.
Amphibians:
● They are one of the most sensitive groups to the impacts of climate change due to their
unique ecology, habitat needs and limited thermal tolerance, giving them narrow
dispersal abilities.
Relevance: According to a study conducted by a concerned group of citizens and scientists, the Endemic Malabar Tree
Toad populations may decline due to climate change.

Q7.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Light pollution is defined as the presence of unwanted, inappropriate, or excessive artificial lighting.
It can have numerous negative impacts. Artificial Light At Night (ALAN) is a form of light pollution.
● While its impacts are still being studied and vary widely across species, scientists do know light pollution is
affecting how plants grow and reproduce. It disrupts their seasonal rhythms, their ability to sense and react
to natural light and their fragile relationship with pollinators. So, statement 1 is correct.
● As artificial lights disrupt how nocturnal pollinators interact with plants, their pollen output can be affected,
which may, in turn, impact how well bees and other diurnal pollinators can fertilise them during the daytime.
○ Moths, beetles, and even some bees pollinate plants at night and often reach a more diverse set of flowers
and crops than their daytime counterparts. ALAN can reduce the number of nocturnal visits to plants by
62% compared to areas free from ALAN. So, statement 2 is correct.
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 ● According to a new study, high levels of Artificial Light At Night (ALAN) are making tree leaves tougher and
harder for insects to eat, posing a threat to urban food chains. So, statement 3 is correct.
● There might also be an impact on photosynthesis, which could be potentially triggered by exceptional bright ALAN
exposure. However, plants must prevent photooxidative damage and repair mechanisms are active during night,
which might be hampered by ALAN.
● ALAN perceived by photoreceptors can disrupt the normal transmission of information, leading to misleading
signals and disturbances in the signaling and functions of photoreceptors, which can change their function in the
daytime.
● Leaves with higher toughness also decompose at a slower rate, potentially affecting nutrient cycling
negatively. High ALAN intensity is detrimental to the energy flow from plants to higher trophic levels, posing a
potential threat to the maintenance of biodiversity.
● There is a growing movement to establish “dark-sky places” - areas independently certified to have a management
plan to minimise light pollution.
So, both Statement–II and Statement–III are correct and both of them explain Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q8.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Central Processing Unit (CPU) is a hardware component that is the core computational unit in a server. It
handles all types of computing tasks required for the operating system and applications to run.
● Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) is a similar hardware component but more specialized. It can more efficiently
handle complex mathematical operations that run in parallel than a general CPU.
Differences between a CPU and a GPU:
● Best Suited For: CPUs are ideal for general-purpose computing applications, while GPUs are well-suited for
high-performance computing tasks. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Design: CPUs have fewer, more powerful cores, while GPUs boast a larger number of cores but with
lower individual core performance. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Function: CPUs are versatile components handling various tasks, while GPUs specialize in parallel
computing. So, statement 3 is correct.
● Processing: CPUs excel at sequential instruction execution, whereas GPUs are optimized for simultaneously
processing multiple instructions.
So, all three of the statements given above are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

IndiaAI Mission:
● It has various components, namely IndiaAI Compute Capacity, IndiaAI Innovation Centre
(IAIC), IndiaAI Datasets Platform, IndiaAI Application Development Initiative, IndiaAI
FutureSkills, IndiaAI Startup Financing, and Safe & Trusted AI.
● Under IndiaAI Compute Capacity, a cutting-edge, scalable AI computing infrastructure
will be erected by deploying more than 10,000 Graphics Processing Units (GPUs) through
strategic public-private collaborations.
● IAIC will be a leading academic institution for streamlined implementation and retention
of top research talent, while Datasets Platform is to ensure data-driven governance and
catalyzing AI-based innovation and research.

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 ● The FutureSkills programme will expand the reach of AI education, while the Startup
Financing Mechanism will facilitate streamlined access to funding of budding artificial intelligence
startups.
● The financial outlay on the IndiaAI Mission will be made over the next five years.
Also, the outlay will ensure a structured implementation of the IndiaAI Mission through a public-
private partnership model.
Relevance: The government has finalised a tender document to procure 1,000 Graphics Processing Units (GPUs) as part
of its ambitious IndiaAI Mission.

Q9.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Union Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has announced the gradual replacement of traditional steel LPG
cylinders with new-age fibre-based composite cylinders.
● “Composite cylinders” are a recent offering of Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs). These cylinders have a
three-layered construction. The cylinder is made up of a blow-molded High-Density Polyethylene
(HDPE) inner liner, covered with a composite layer of polymer- wrapped fiberglass and fitted with a
HDPE outer jacket. HDPE is a thermoplastic polymer produced from the monomer ethylene.
● These new-age composite cylinders have multiple advantages over the existing steel cylinders:
○ The weight of a composite cylinder is half of its steel counterpart.
○ They have a translucent body which helps customers to accurately check the LPG level against light.
This will help customers plan their next refill easily.
○ They are rust-free and do not corrode. This reduces the chances of leaving stains and marks on
surfaces.
○ They are aesthetically designed which makes them visually appealing and ideal for modern kitchens of
today.
○ They are explosion-proof, hence safer to use.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has announced the gradual replacement of traditional steel LPG
cylinders with new-age fibre-based composite cylinders.

Q10.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) is a term that is used to describe the efficiency of a plant in using applied or
fixed nitrogen for biomass production. It is further defined as the ratio between crop yield and the amount
of nitrogen absorbed from the soil through roots or from the atmosphere through fixation by bacteria.
● NUE in cereals, particularly rice, is a critical factor in agricultural sustainability. Poor fertiliser NUE leads to the
wastage of nitrogen fertilisers worth a staggering Rs 1 lakh crore annually in India.
● Nitrogen fertilisers contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions through nitrous oxide, a potent
greenhouse gas. Moreover, nitrogen runoff into water bodies leads to eutrophication, which depletes
oxygen in the water, causing dead zones that severely impact aquatic life. Improving NUE in rice can mitigate
these issues, promoting more sustainable agricultural practices. So, point 1 is correct.

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 ● In India, where a large portion of the population depends on agriculture for their livelihood, improving NUE
can enhance productivity and profitability for farmers. By reducing the need for excessive fertiliser
application, farmers can lower their input costs and minimise their environmental footprint. This can
lead to a more sustainable agricultural economy and better living standards for farming communities. So, point 2
is correct.
● Reducing fertilizer inputs would lead to fewer greenhouse gas emissions and less nitrate leaching into
the groundwater and surface water. So, point 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Indian scientists have discovered significant natural variations in rice Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) along
with associated traits and genes.

Q11.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, the Odisha government has approved a proposal to plant 19 lakh palm trees to ward against the problem of
lightning strikes and related deaths.
● Palm trees, being tall and containing high moisture content, can act as natural lightning conductors. When
lightning strikes a palm tree, the electrical current is conducted through the tree which absorbs the lightning,
potentially reducing the direct impact on the ground. So, option (b) is correct.
● Lightning is a giant spark of electricity in the atmosphere between clouds, the air, or the ground. In the early stages
of development, air acts as an insulator between the positive and negative charges in the cloud and between the
cloud and the ground.
● Lightning can occur within a cloud (intra-cloud lightning) when the positive and negative charge regions are
relatively balanced. When the electrical potential difference between these regions is not sufficient to
overcome the air's insulating capacity, the lightning discharge remains confined within the cloud.
● Lightning can occur during volcanic eruptions and forest fires. In volcanic eruptions, lightning can be generated by
ash particles and gases creating an electrically charged environment. In forest fires, intense heat can lead to the
formation of pyrocumulonimbus clouds, which can produce lightning.
● Odisha’s susceptibility to lightning is influenced by its tropical climate, which provides favourable
conditions such as hot and dry climate for lightning formation and cyclonic activities, which enhance
atmospheric instability and convective energy. The combination of these factors increases the likelihood of
lightning strikes in the region.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Odisha Government approved a proposal to plant 19 lakh palm trees to ward against the
problem of deaths due to lightning strikes.

Q12.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Sahm Rule is an economic guideline introduced by economist Claudia Sahm in early 2019. It is designed
to provide an early warning for potential recessions based on unemployment data. So, option (b) is
correct.
○ The rule states that if the three-month average U.S. unemployment rate increases by 0.50% or
more from its 12-month low, a recession is likely underway. This threshold helps signal when
economic conditions are deteriorating.
○ Analysis from 1947 to 2008 shows that the unemployment rate tends to rise gradually before a recession.
The rule’s reliability is demonstrated by its historical accuracy; it has coincided with every recession
since 1970.

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 ● Taylor Rule: A monetary policy guideline that prescribes how central banks should adjust interest rates in
response to changes in inflation and economic output. So, option (a) is not correct.
● Laffer Curve: An economic theory that illustrates the relationship between tax rates and tax revenue, showing
that there is an optimal tax rate to maximize revenue. So, option (c) is not correct.
● Phillips Curve: A concept that depicts an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment, suggesting
that lower unemployment comes with higher inflation and vice versa. So, option (d) is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q13.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Methanotrophs are bacteria that play a critical role in mitigating methane, a potent greenhouse gas.
Methanotrophs help reduce greenhouse gas emissions by oxidizing methane, converting it into carbon
dioxide and water. This process decreases the amount of methane, which is significantly more harmful at trapping
heat in the atmosphere compared to carbon dioxide. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Methanotrophs contribute to environmental cleanup by degrading methane, which is often released from
sources like landfills and wetlands. This action helps mitigate the adverse effects of methane on the
environment.
● Methanotrophs can enhance nutrient cycling and soil fertility. In rice fields and wetlands, where they are
abundant, their activities support the natural processes that maintain soil health and fertility. So, point 2 is
correct.
● Methanotrophs helped clean up the Deepwater Horizon oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico in 2010 by consuming
methane that was released from a deep-sea well. So, point 3 is correct.
○ Methylococcus capsulatus, the species of methanotroph, was one of many that helped clean up the spill.
So, all three of the above are the benefits of using methanotrophic bacteria.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India’s first cultures of indigenous natural methane mitigating agents reported from rice fields and wetlands,
can help tackle upcoming climate challenges.

Q14.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Hezbollah:
● Meaning “Party of God” in Arabic, it was established during the Lebanese Civil War (1975-1990) following
Israel's 1982 invasion of Beirut, Lebanon. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
● Founded with the support of Iran's Revolutionary Guards, the group initially fought Israeli forces occupying
southern Lebanon until their withdrawal in 2000.
Hamas:
● Hamas, which originated from the Muslim Brotherhood movement, was established in 1987 in Palestine
(Israel), during the first Palestinian uprising, known as the intifada, and has governed the Gaza Strip since 2007.
● Over the years, the group has faced targeted assassinations of its political and military leaders, leading its leadership
to operate from abroad, including Syria, Lebanon, Qatar, and Turkey. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Houthis:
● Originating from northern Yemen, the Houthis were established in the 1990s to address the perceived
marginalization of their Zaidi Shia community in a predominantly Sunni country. So, pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
● In 2014, they seized control of the capital, Sanaa, and large areas of Yemen, leading Saudi Arabia to form a
multinational coalition in 2015 to support Yemen's internationally recognized government.
So, none of the pairs given above is correctly matched.
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Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Israeli Prime Minister addressed a joint session of the US Congress, proposing the establishment of a
regional alliance, the "Abraham Alliance" to counter Iran's influence.

Q15.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Salar de Uyuni, located in Bolivia, is the world’s largest salt flat. Covering approximately 10,400 square
kilometres across the Andean plateau, it is renowned for its vast salt flats and stunning honeycomb patterns.
○ Formed around 5 million years ago, the region's prehistoric lakes evaporated due to extreme heat
and minimal rainfall, leaving behind salt crusts that were subsequently pushed up onto the high plateau
through tectonic and volcanic activity.
● The salt crust, though relatively thin compared to other salt flats, overlays a brine layer enriched with
lithium. The region's lithium-rich brine is due to hydrothermal and volcanic activity in the Andes, making it a
critical source of this valuable resource, with estimates suggesting it holds up to 38% of the world’s known
lithium supplies.
● Compared with other salt flats like Salar de Atacama in Chile, which has a salt crust more than 3,300 feet
(1,000 m) thick in some places, Salar de Uyuni is thin.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The demand for electric vehicles and lithium batteries is booming, and Bolivia wants to exploit its lithium
resources.

Q16.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Grasslands and savannahs are among the most extensive terrestrial ecosystems on Earth. They span about
40% of the planet’s land surface. They support a wide range of species adapted to these open environments,
including large herbivores, numerous bird species, insects, and a variety of plant species.
● The increase in tree and shrub cover changes the structure of the habitat. This can lead to a homogenization
of the ecosystem, where the diverse mix of grasses and other plants is replaced by a more uniform layer of
woody plants. Such changes can reduce habitat complexity and the variety of niches available for different
species. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Grasslands and savannahs are maintained by natural disturbance regimes such as grazing and fire. These
disturbances prevent the overgrowth of trees and maintain the open character of these ecosystems. Woody
encroachment often disrupts these processes, leading to a reduction in species adapted to the original
conditions. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Increased atmospheric CO2 is likely to promote trees over grasses because the C3 photosynthetic pathway used
by trees is favoured under higher CO2 conditions. Further, trees becoming dominant in a system suppress grasses
through shading and fire suppression.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Woody encroachment:
● It refers to the process where trees and shrubs gradually invade and increase in grassland and
savannah areas, often due to changes in disturbance regimes such as reduced grazing, fire
suppression, or increased atmospheric CO2 levels.

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Relevance: In a recent study, scientists reported that more trees in open ecosystems like grasslands have substantially
reduced the number of native grassland birds.

Q17.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The “yen carry trade” is a financial strategy where investors borrow yen, which has a low interest rate,
and use it to invest in assets or currencies that offer higher yields. This practice leverages the interest
rate differential between the low-yielding yen and higher-yielding assets like bonds or money market instruments
in other currencies.
● At the end of the trade, the invested currencies are converted back to yen to repay the loan, ideally at a profit
due to the yield differential. This strategy has been popular due to Japan's historically low interest rates
compared to other countries.
● However, the yen carry trade is extremely sensitive. Recently, the mere talk of further rate rises in Japan
and Fed rate cuts by September 2024 has driven the yen up 13% in a month and narrowed the yield gap, completely
wiping out the slim gains in pure yen-dollar carry trades.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Global stock and bond markets, in particular Japan's, are being rocked by an unwinding of the hugely popular
yen carry trade.

Q18.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Weakening of Antarctica Polar vortex:
● The polar vortex is the band of cold air and low-pressure systems that spins around the poles of the Earth in
the stratosphere.
● The Polar vortex usually remains strong and stable during winter in the southern hemisphere — keeping
cold air trapped over Antarctica and not letting hot air come in, but it has been disturbed this year by large-scale
atmospheric waves.
● When the polar vortex weakens, it can lead to unusual weather patterns, including heatwaves in polar
regions such as Antarctica. The weakened polar vortex releases trapped cold air, and opens the door
for warmer air to enter the region. As this warmer air travels downwards from the upper atmosphere, it causes
an increase in temperatures. So, point 1 is correct.
● Antarctica’s hot winter also impacts the global ocean circulation system as the melting ice in Antarctica is
slowing down this circulation. The freshwater from melting ice reduces the salinity and density of the
surface water and diminishes the downward flow to the ocean’s bottom. So, point 2 is correct.
● During winter, temperatures in the vortex usually drop below 195 K and polar stratospheric clouds form.
Chemical reactions on the surfaces of these cloud particles releases chlorine that originated from
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) into forms that can rapidly destroy ozone. Thus, a weak polar vortex
in winter causes less ozone depletion. So, point 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above are most likely impacts of a weakened Antarctica Polar vortex.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Other factors responsible for heat waves in Antarctica:

● Several other factors including the reduction of the extent of the Antarctic Sea ice can also be
responsible for heatwaves.

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 ● Sea ice plays a crucial role in keeping temperatures down in the polar regions, as its bright,
white surface reflects more sunlight (solar energy) back to space than liquid water.
Sea ice also ensures that the air remains cool by acting as a barrier between the cold air and
the relatively warmer water below. The ice sheet strengthens the polar vortex.
● Antarctica’s hot winter will likely lead to further losses of the Antarctic Ice Sheet that can
potentially raise global sea levels by hundreds of feet. The Antarctic Ice Sheet, a glacier
covering 98% of the Antarctic continent, holds more than 60% of the world’s total
freshwater. If entirely melted, it can submerge coastal cities and reshape the world’s map.
Relevance: For the second time in two years, a record-breaking heatwave is sweeping through Antarctica at the height
of its winter season.

Q19.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Bacteria are unicellular, free-living, microscopic microorganisms capable of performing all the essential functions of
life. They possess both Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) and Ribonucleic Acid (RNA). They are prokaryotic
microorganisms that do not contain chlorophyll. They can survive extremes of temperature, pH, oxygen and
atmospheric pressure.
● The “Beta-lactam ring” is the central motif of drugs like ampicillin and amoxicillin, utilized for the
treatment of several bacterial infections. It inhibits the formation of bacterial cell walls, which in turn kills or
inhibits the growth of bacteria.
● Many bacteria become resistant to the beta lactam drugs by synthesizing Beta lactamase. Resistance to beta-lactam
antibiotics is an alarming and growing phenomenon and, in turn, a public health challenge.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Heteroresistance:
● Scientists have found evidence for a new type of antibiotic resistance, known as
heteroresistance.
● When typical antibiotic-resistant bacteria propagate, they pass resistance genes to the next
generation, creating a legion of antibiotic-resistant populations that collectively counter the
treatment.
Relevance: Scientists have found evidence for a new type of antibiotic resistance, known as heteroresistance.

Q20.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● In Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) cultivation, raising of nursery for transplantation is done away with.
Direct sown rice consumes relatively less water compared to transplanted flooded rice. So, point 1 is
correct.
● Energy demand for pumping of irrigation water is also less and saving can be much higher during deficit
rainfall situations compared to transplanted rice. Enhanced fertilizer use efficiency is also high due to
placement of fertilizer in the root zone. So, points 2 and 3 are correct.
● DSR replaces water and repeated field ploughings with a chemical herbicide to take care of weeds. Glyphosate,
Imazethapyr and paraquat, etc. are recommended for DSR. So, point 4 is not correct.
So, only three of the above are the benefits of Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) cultivation.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

Zero tillage:
● Zero tillage is the process where the crop seed will be sown through drillers without
prior land preparation and disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles are present.
Zero tillage not only reduces the cost of cultivation, it also reduces the soil erosion, crop
duration and irrigation requirement and weed effect which is better than tillage.
● Zero tillage technology makes it possible to sow wheat directly, without any paddy stubble
burning or even land preparation.

Q21.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Spintronics, also known as spin electronics, is an emerging solid-state device technology that exploits
the intrinsic spin properties of an electron and its associated magnetic moment, in addition to the
electron charge.
● Conventional electronic and semiconductor devices rely on the transport of electron charge carriers. Whereas,
spintronics deal with spin-charge coupling in metallic systems with implications in the efficiency of data storage
and transfer.
● Spintronic systems are of particular interest in the field of quantum computing and neuromorphic
computing. There are many spintronic based devices in the market ranging from transistors, oscillators, memory
units to quantum computing.
Points to Remember

● Magnonics combines the study of waves and magnetism.

● Its main aim is to investigate the behaviour of spin waves in nano-structure elements.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Researchers have created an innovative transparent layer that sits between two insulating materials.

Q22.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Funan Techo Canal is an ambitious waterway
project designed to connect Phnom Penh (capital of
Cambodia) to the coast through Kep province.
● The Funan Techo Canal project aims to reduce
Cambodia's dependence on trade routes along
the Mekong River controlled by Vietnam. This
initiative is designed to enhance Cambodia's strategic
autonomy and economic development. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● The Funan Techo Canal will link the Mekong River
to the Gulf of Thailand. The project involves
creating a waterway connecting Phnom Penh with the
coast through Kep province, which aligns with the goal
of decreasing reliance on the Mekong River trade
routes. So, statement 2 is correct.

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 ● The Funan Techo Canal project will likely lead to further discussion on Thailand’s ‘Land Bridge’ project,
described as an ‘alternative route’ to the Malacca Strait that has sparked wide discussion about the relationship
between Thailand, Singapore and Malaysia. China is one of the potential investors of the ‘Land Bridge’
project and it should recognise the need to be more cautious and prioritise risk management.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Cambodia is pushing ahead with the Funan Techo Canal project to link the nation’s capital, Phnom Penh, to
its coast with a canal running 180 kilometres.

Q23.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● A virus is an infectious microbe consisting of a segment of nucleic acid (either DNA or RNA) surrounded
by a protein coat. A virus cannot replicate alone; instead, it must infect cells and use components of the host
cell to make copies of itself. Often, a virus ends up killing the host cell in the process, causing damage to the host
organism. Well-known examples of viruses causing human disease include AIDS, COVID-19, measles and
smallpox.
● It’s typically not possible for a person to inherit retrovirus infections or even the provirus because these
integrations usually damage only a subset of cells. However, such genome invasions can sometimes mess
up the integration process, causing ‘zombie’ regions in the host’s genome. These parts are called
Endogenous Retroviruses (ERVs). ERVs usually can’t replicate and produce functional proteins since they lack
their regulatory regions.
○ The host can pass on its (ERVs) to its descendants. Over millions of years of mammalian evolution,
numerous retroviruses have left behind various genomic remnants in the genome, akin to genetic
fossils from early infections. Although these remnants no longer can generate viruses, scientists believe
they have significantly influenced the evolution of their hosts. Research indicates that
approximately 8% of the human genome is made up of ERVs. So, option (d) is correct.
● In the life cycle of a retrovirus, the reverse-transcribed DNA is integrated into the host’s DNA along with another
enzyme called integrase, which acts like glue to bind the two DNA genomes. Once bound, the viral
DNA is called a provirus and is complete with all the ingredients it needs to be functional. So, options (c)
and (b) are not correct.
● Most viruses can’t affect the genome. However, retroviruses are a group of viruses that can integrate and reshape
the genomes of the hosts they infect. Retroviruses have an RNA genome; can reverse-transcribe it to DNA and
thus insert it into the host’s genome. So, option (a) is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent study published in the Journal Science Advances says that zombies in our genes helped us evolve,
and could help battle cancers.

Q24.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Genetic rescue is defined as the immigration of unique genomes into a population with the result of
alleviating genetic load and increasing population size. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Inbreeding means mating between close relatives. As these relatives have common ancestors in the past,
they share both positive and negative genetic variation. Bad genetic variation could result in the appearance of
abnormalities or other traits that decrease survival or reproduction, eventually affecting population growth.
● If inbreeding is not addressed, populations may suffer from inbreeding depression, meaning lower average
fitness, ultimately leading to reduced population size and possibly extinction.

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 ● Studies recommend genetic rescue of such an isolated population, which means increasing the
genetic variation by gene flow by bringing more individuals to diversify the gene pool to prevent
inbreeding and increase population fitness. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Thus, the genetic rescue does not lead to inbreeding, rather it prevents inbreeding. So, statement 3 is
not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Odisha Forest department plans to introduce two new female tigers to the reserve to combat inbreeding
in the reserve’s unique tiger population by increasing genetic diversity.

Q25.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The World Health Organization defines rare disease as often debilitating lifelong disease or disorder
with a prevalence of 1 or less, per 1000 population. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) serves
to record and report health and health-related conditions globally. ICD-11 includes some 5500 rare diseases and
their synonyms. The rare diseases are regularly updated, in close collaboration and conceptual identity with
Orphanet. The work is also linked to the "WHO Collaborative Global Network 4 Rare Diseases". So, option
(a) is correct.
○ However, different countries have their own definitions to suit their specific requirements and in context
of their own population, health care system and resources. So, option (b) is correct.
● India has over 450 identified rare diseases, which is about one-third of the world's total. But there are 63 Rare
Diseases, included under National Policy for Rare Diseases on recommendation of the Central Technical
Committee for Rare Diseases.
○ Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment:
○ Group 2: Diseases requiring long term / lifelong treatment having relatively lower cost of treatment and
benefit has been documented in literature and annual or more frequent surveillance is required:
○ Group 3: Diseases for which definitive treatment is available but challenges are to make optimal patient
selection for benefit, very high cost and lifelong therapy. This group includes Pompe disease. Pompe
disease (also known as acid-maltase disease and glycogen storage disease II) is a rare genetic disorder that
causes progressive weakness to the heart and skeletal muscles. So, option (d) is correct.
● Most of the rare diseases are chronic, however, many short-term medical conditions are also
examples. Some rare diseases are genetic, while others have no genetic cause and may result from
bacterial or viral infections, allergies, etc. So, option (c) is not correct.
○ For example, Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic condition caused by a mutation
in the dystrophin gene.
○ On the other hand, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is often triggered by an infection.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
Relevance: A total number of 1,118 patients have benefited under National Policy for Rare Diseases.

Q26.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Government of India fixes Minimum Support Price (MSP) on the basis of recommendations of the Commission
for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
● CACP considers A2+FL costs while recommending MSP and currently, MSPs are fixed at 50 per
cent more than the A2+FL cost of production (1.5 times of A2+FL). However, C2 costs are used by
CACP primarily as benchmark reference costs (opportunity costs) to see if the MSPs recommended by them at
least cover these costs in some of the major producing States.
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 ○ A2: Costs incurred by the farmer in production of a particular crop. It includes several inputs such as
expenditure on machinery and fuel, seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, leased-in land, and hired labour. So,
point 1 is correct.
○ A2+FL: Costs incurred by the farmer and the value of family labour. So, point 3 is correct.
○ C2: A comprehensive cost, which is A2+FL cost plus imputed rental value of owned land plus interest
on fixed capital, rent paid for leased-in land. So, points 2 and 4 are correct.
So, all four of the above are considered while deciding Minimum Support Price for crops in India.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Minimum Support Prices (MSP):

● It is the minimum rate at which farmers sell their crops to the government. This price prevents
farmers from market fluctuation and offers stability and income security.
● The Government of India fixes MSP on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission
for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP), views of State Governments and Central
Ministries/Departments concerned.
● The CACP recommends MSPs of 23 commodities, which comprise 7 cereals (paddy, wheat,
maize, sorghum, pearl millet, barley and ragi), 5 pulses (gram, tur, moong, urad, lentil), 7
oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed-mustard, soyabean, sesamum, sunflower, safflower, niger seed),
and 4 commercial crops (copra, sugarcane, cotton and raw jute).
○ CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare,
Government of India.
○ It is mandated to recommend MSPs to incentivize the cultivators to adopt modern
technology, and raise productivity and overall grain production in line with the emerging
demand patterns in the country.
○ It submits its recommendations to the government in the form of Price Policy Reports
every year, separately for five groups of commodities namely Kharif crops, Rabi
crops, Sugarcane, Raw Jute and Copra.
● The government circulates the CACP reports to state governments and concerned central
Ministries for their comments. After receiving the feed-back from them, the Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) of the Union government takes a final decision
on the level of MSPs and other recommendations made by CACP.
Relevance: Farmer groups recently demanded that the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) be set at 50 per cent more than
the comprehensive cost of production (C2).

Q27.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The ‘International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO)’ is the World Championship Mathematics Competition
for High School students of Class VIII to XII (8-12) and is held annually in a different country. So,
statement 1 is correct.
○ The first IMO was held in 1959 in Romania, with 7 countries participating. The IMO is supported by the
IMO Foundation which is a charity. The IMO Board ensures that the competition takes place each year
and that each host country observes the regulations and traditions of the IMO.
● The ‘Abel Prize’ is a scientific prize, awarded annually within the discipline of mathematics by the
Norwegian Academy of Science on behalf of the Norwegian government.

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 ○ The Abel Prize is named in honour of the Norwegian mathematician Niels Henrik Abel (1802 – 1829). It
was established by the Norwegian Parliament (Stortinget) in 2002, which marked the 200th anniversary
of Abel’s birth. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The Fields Medal is awarded every four years on the occasion of the ‘International Congress of Mathematicians’
by the ‘International Mathematical Union’ to recognize outstanding mathematical achievement for
existing work and for the promise of future achievement. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ International Mathematical Union is an international non-governmental and non-profit scientific
organisation, with the purpose of promoting international cooperation in mathematics. It is located in
Berlin, Germany and is a member of the International Science Council (ISC).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Indian team ranked fourth among teams from 108 participating countries in ‘International Mathematical
Olympiad (IMO)’ held recently in the United Kingdom.

Q28.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Ceramics are materials that are neither metallic nor organic and can exist in crystalline, glassy, or a
combination of both forms. These materials are generally hard, chemically stable or non-reactive, and can
be shaped or solidified with heat. Ceramics encompass much more than just pottery and dishes; common examples
include clay, bricks, tiles, glass and cement.
● Due to their diverse properties, ceramics are utilized in a wide range of products, such as spark plugs, fiber optics,
artificial joints, space shuttle tiles, cooktops, race car brakes, micro positioners, chemical sensors, self-
lubricating bearings, body armor, and skis. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
● Bakelite is a thermoset plastic, made from phenol and formaldehyde. It is not a ceramic material. So,
point 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q29.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Dumboor Lake is a charming water body located in Tripura. The look of the Lake is like a tabour shaped small
drum, “Dumboor” of Lord Shiva from which the name “Dumboor” originates.
● There is a Hydel Project (Dumboor Dam) near the Lake from where River Gomati originates. The Lake is the
confluence of rivers Raima and Sarma. The dam is located about 120 kilometres from the Indo-Bangladesh border.
● The Gumti (or Gomti) flows through Tripura, India and Comilla district in Bangladesh.
● The Dakatia river is one of the important tributaries of the Gumti and the Buri river is its distributary.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A senior official of the Tripura government has refuted the claim made by Bangladesh that the opening of
Dumbur dam caused the recent floods in Bangladesh.

Q30.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are thunder clouds created by intense heat from the Earth’s surface. They are
formed similarly to cumulonimbus clouds, but the intense heat that results in the vigorous updraft comes from
fire, either large wildfires or volcanic eruptions.
● According to recent studies, climate change is leading to a steady increase in wildfires, leading to a
significant increase in the frequency of pyrocumulonimbus cloud formation. So, statements 1 and 2
are correct.
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 ● For example, Canada experienced a record 140 pyrocumulonimbus clouds in 2023, surpassing the previous annual
average of 50. These clouds pose a significant fire hazard due to their ability to produce lightning strikes, generate
strong winds, and spark more wildfires.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent studies have shown that with rise in temperatures across the world, wildfires are becoming more
common, causing the occurrence of pyrocumulonimbus clouds.

Q31.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● eSIMs or embedded SIMs are digital versions of traditionally used physical SIM cards. e-SIMs are the chips that
are directly integrated into the device's hardware during the device manufacturing process, unlike
traditional physical SIM cards that are inserted into a tray. This means they can be programmed and activated
remotely, without the need for a physical SIM card swap. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Generally, the data on an eSIMs is encrypted, it provides greater security than physical, detachable
SIM cards. eSIMs are less vulnerable to physical damage, loss, or theft because, as there is no physical part to
pull out and use in another device, eSIMs protect against SIM card theft. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Instant Virtual Number (IVN):

● It is different from traditional mobile numbers provided by cellular network operators.
● It is a virtual number which is configured virtually on the top of the user's existing
primary mobile number and requires no additional devices and SIM cards. The consumers
can have multiple instant virtual numbers, but the operators may limit the total number of IVN
to three or four per consumer.
● It is used as a temporary phone number to shield the primary number from potential misuse or
spam. It reduces the risk of falling victim to phishing scams that often require phone number
verification.

Q32.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia and India is the second biggest trade partner of
Bangladesh in Asia after China. Bangladesh exported USD 1.97 billion of goods to India in FY 2023-24. In FY
2023-24, the total bilateral trade has been reported as USD 14.01 billion. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Bangladesh is the biggest export destination for India’s cotton, accounting for 34.9% of India’s total
cotton exports (some $2.4 billion in FY24). Other major Indian exports to Bangladesh are petroleum products
and cereals. So, statement 2 is correct.
● India’s top import from Bangladesh are readymade garments, amounting to $391 million in FY24. In
recent years, Bangladesh has emerged as a major global hub for textiles. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The recent event of Sheikh Hasina's ouster and internal crisis in Bangladesh could hamper these trade ties
between India and Bangladesh.

Q33.
Answer: d
Explanation:
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 ● The Clean Plant Programme (CPP), launched in 2023, is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at
boosting the availability of virus-free and high-quality planting material for horticultural crops, such as
fruits, vegetables, and flowers. So, point 1 is correct.
● The programme consists of three key components designed to help farmers access virus-free, high-quality
planting material for vegetative propagation, aimed at boosting crop yields and enhancing income
opportunities:
○ Establishment of Nine Clean Plant Centres (CPCs): These centres will offer disease diagnostics
and treatments, develop mother plants for nurseries, and quarantine all domestic and imported planting
materials intended for commercial propagation and distribution.
○ Infrastructure Development: This includes setting up large-scale nurseries to efficiently multiply
clean planting material. The mother plants produced by the CPCs will be propagated in these nurseries
and then distributed to farmers. So, point 3 is correct.
○ Regulatory and Certification Framework: A robust regulatory and certification process will be
created to ensure complete accountability and traceability in the production and distribution of planting
material.
● The promotion of organic farming is not a direct objective of the Clean Plant Programme. Organic farming
is encouraged under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH). MIDH supports
organic farming practices by providing assistance for the establishment of vermi-compost units, organic
certification, and other related activities. So, point 2 is not correct.
● The creation of water resources is not an objective of the Clean Plant Programme. Water resource
development, such as building community tanks, on-farm ponds, and water harvesting systems, is addressed under
the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH). So, point 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Clean Plant Programme (CPP):

● The Clean Plant Programme (CPP) complements the ongoing Mission for
Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH), a Centrally Sponsored Scheme
initiated in 2014-15 aimed at the holistic growth of the horticulture sector. MIDH covers a wide
range of crops including fruits, vegetables, root and tuber crops, mushrooms, spices, flowers,
aromatic plants, coconut, cashew, bamboo, and cocoa.
● Under MIDH, several key measures are being undertaken:
○ Plantation Infrastructure Development
○ Area Expansion
○ Rejuvenation
○ Protected Cultivation
○ Promotion of Organic Farming
○ Creation of Water Resources
○ Pollination Support through Beekeeping
○ Horticulture Mechanisation
○ Human Resource Development
○ Post-Harvest Management (PHM) Infrastructure
○ Marketing Infrastructure
Relevance: The Union Cabinet recently approved the Clean Plant Programme (CPP), aimed at increasing the yield and
productivity of horticulture crops in India.

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Q34.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Yarlung Tsangpo River, referred to as the "Everest of Rivers," is renowned for carving out the world's
largest terrestrial canyon, surpassing even the famous Grand Canyon in Arizona in both depth and length. The
gorge of the Canyon is three times deeper than the Grand Canyon.
● Originating in western Tibet near Mount Kailash, the Yarlung Tsangpo flows for about 3,000 kilometres
and is notable for its incredibly high elevation, averaging
4,000 metres above sea level, the highest of any major
river globally. The headwaters of the Yarlung Tsangpo are
located in the west of the Tibet Autonomous Region at Angsi
Glacier, and the river then meanders east across the Tibetan
Plateau before bending sharply southwestward to join up with
the Brahmaputra River.
● The Yarlung Tsangpo River passes between two
towering peaks: Namcha Barwa, and Gyala Peri. The
Yarlung Tsangpo canyon is also home to the tallest tree ever
discovered in Asia — a 335-foot-tall (102 m) cypress, taller
than the Statue of Liberty.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Reportedly, China is considering building a ‘Super’ Mega Dam on the Yarlung Tsangpo quite close to the
Indian border at Medog County.

Q35.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Most species of bacteria can be broadly divided into two groups, known as Gram-positive and Gram-
negative. These categories reflect big differences in the microbes' biology and they also dictate how doctors
treat bacterial infections.
● Danish bacteriologist Hans Christian Gram developed a staining procedure to view bacteria under the
microscope. First, he applied a dye, called gentian violet, which penetrates both the protective wall and membrane
of bacteria, thus staining the material inside. Then, he added the mineral iodine, which formed a complex with the
dye that wouldn't break down in water, thus "fixing" the stain in place. After being washed with alcohol, some
bacteria remained blue or purple, while others did not retain the stain. The first group was dubbed
"Gram-positive," while the latter was designated “Gram-negative.”
● Gram-negative bacteria are characterised by having a thin peptidoglycan cell wall surrounded by an
additional outer membrane. This outer membrane is absent in Gram-positive bacteria, which have a
much thicker peptidoglycan layer. The outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria plays a crucial role in
protecting these bacteria from certain antibiotics and other harmful substances. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria provides an additional barrier that prevents certain antibiotics
from penetrating the cell. This makes Gram-negative bacteria generally more resistant to antibiotics compared
to Gram-positive bacteria. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Bacteria can also pick up antibiotic resistance from neighbouring bacterial cells, even if they belong to
a totally different species. That's because the microbes can swap small pieces of DNA that carry antibiotic-
resistance genes from one bacterial cell to another. These genes can be traded through direct physical contact
between the cells in a process called conjugation.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
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Relevance: Researchers have developed a new antibiotic, Lolamicin, which is effective against Gram-negative bacteria,
which are difficult to treat.

Q36.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is the cooled remnant of the first light that could ever
travel freely throughout the Universe. This 'fossil' radiation, the furthest that any telescope can see, was released
soon after the Big Bang. Scientists consider it as an echo or 'shockwave' of the Big Bang. Over time, this primeval
light has cooled and weakened considerably; nowadays we detect it in the microwave domain. So, option (b) is
correct.
● The CMB takes astronomers as close as possible to the Big Bang and is currently one of the most
promising ways of understanding the birth and evolution of the Universe.
● Today, the Big Bang model is still the only model that is able to convincingly explain the existence of the CMB.
According to this model, the Universe started with a very dense and hot phase that expanded and cooled itself;
for several hundreds of thousands of years the temperature was so high that neutral atoms could not form.
● Cosmic reheating is the process through which the early universe was filled with a hot plasma,
following its cooling by the inflationary expansion. This process ultimately established the initial conditions for the
"hot Big Bang," which resulted in the formation of the universe as we know it.
● Matter consists mostly of neutrons and charged particles (protons and electrons). Light could therefore not
propagate and the Universe was opaque. It took about 3,00,000 years for the Universe to cool down to
a temperature at which atoms can form (about 3000 °C). Matter then became neutral, and allowed the light to
travel freely: the Universe became transparent. The relic of that 'first light' is the CMB.
● Dark Matter is an invisible substance that makes up most of the Universe's mass, exerting gravitational force
without emitting light.
● Event Horizon is the boundary surrounding a black hole beyond which nothing, not even light, can escape its
gravitational pull.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent paper, published in Physical Review Letters, suggests that upcoming CMB measurements could help
to explore the connection between cosmic inflation and particle physics.

Q37.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The International Space Station (ISS) has 5 representatives: National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(NASA), the European Space Agency (ESA), Roscosmos (Russia), the Japan Aerospace Exploration
Agency and the Canadian Space Agency. So, points 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
● India is not a part of the ISS program. So, point 1 is not correct.
○ India has set an ambitious goal to have its own space station by 2035.
○ Recently, India has shortlisted two astronaut-designates for the upcoming Axiom-4 mission to the
International Space Station.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Axiom-4 Mission:

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 ● The Axiom-4 mission is a private astronaut mission to the International Space Station
(ISS). It is organised and led by Axiom Space, a private company specialising in
spaceflight services. Axiom Space is responsible for arranging the logistics, training, and other
operational aspects of the mission. This makes it a private mission rather than a government-
led one.
● The Axiom-4 mission involves multiple international partners: Axiom Space, ISRO (India),
NASA, ESA (European Space Agency) and Hungary. JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration
Agency) is not mentioned as a direct partner in this specific mission.
● The Axiom-4 mission will undertake selected scientific research and technology demonstration
experiments on board the ISS as well as engage in space outreach activities. The experiences
gained during this mission will be beneficial for the Indian Human Space Program and it
will also strengthen human space flight cooperation between ISRO and NASA.
Relevance: India has shortlisted two astronaut-designates for the upcoming Axiom-4 mission to the International Space
Station.

Q38.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Xerogels are a type of solid-formed gels, which are being prepared through drying slowly at room temperature
with an unconstrained shrinkage. They generally possess the properties of higher porosity and larger surface
area together with very smaller pore sizes. These are prepared by the sol–gel methodology. The applications of
the xerogels are as follows:
○ Drug delivery: Xerogels are highly desirable for drug delivery because they have a high drug-loading
capacity and can maintain sustained drug release. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Tissue engineering: Xerogels are used in tissue engineering and regenerative medicine because they
are biocompatible, non-immunogenic and non-cytotoxic.
○ Food packaging: Xerogels can be used to remove harmful food dyes from water. So, point 2 is
correct.
○ Chemical sensors: Xerogels are chemical sensors because they have high chemical and thermal stability,
high sorption capacity, and high reactivity toward many substances. So, point 3 is correct.
○ Nuclear waste storage: Xerogels can be used for nuclear waste storage as they have high chemical and
thermal stability and can bind to radionuclides and other contaminants. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Researchers have developed a porous composite xerogel dressing incorporating Silica Nanoparticles and
calcium that can help blood clot rapidly.

Q39.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Gotipua is the majestic folk dance of Odisha. In Oriya language, “Goti” means
“single” and “Pua” means “boy”.
● For centuries, the Gotipua dance has been performed in Odisha by young
boys who dress up as females to praise Lord Jagannath and Lord Krishna.
● The actual form of the dance is executed by a group of boys who perform
acrobatic figures inspired by the life of Radha & Krishna.
● The boys start to learn the dance at an early age until adolescence,
when their androgynous look is fading.

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 ● To transform into graceful feminine dancers, the boys do not cut their hair to make an elaborate hair-do in a knot.
● Originating in the 16th century, Gotipua is celebrated as the precursor to the classical Odissi dance
form.
○ However, very few dancers make the transition to Odissi, which is centred in urban areas and is woman-
focused.
● Gotipua stands out as a dance form where each dancer sings while performing, demanding exceptional breath
control.
○ However, this is fading as modern Gotipua performances increasingly rely on pre-recorded or live songs
sung by others, with the dancers merely miming to the music.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Dhap Dance:
● Kandhas tribes of Western Odisha perform the Dhap Dance. The dance is an integral part of
all major festivals, especially the Nirakhai festival.
● The villagers gather to worship the village deity. An elaborate village feast and merry making
follow this.
Bamsarani:
● The Bamsarani, literally meaning 'Bamboo Queen', is a popular folk dance from Puri. In this
dance, little girls exhibit acrobatic movements on a crossed bamboo bar as well as on
the floor with admirable accuracy.
Paika Dance:
● It is a martial art form of ancient Odisha. As early as the 15th century A.D., Gajapati Raja
was believed to have raised an army of Paika warriors.
● The brave Paikas raised their voice of rebellion against the British rulers as early as 1817, four
decades before the Sepoy Mutiny broke out.
● Buxi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mahapatra Bhramarabar Roy led the Paika Bidroha. The Paiks of
Khurda did not allow the British to enter the region and that is why Khurda is known as the
last freedom fort of India.
Relevance: Gotipua child artistes face an uncertain future when they hit puberty, leaving them without skills required for
a job.

Q40.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) is a field of theoretical AI research that attempts to create software
with human-like intelligence and the ability to self-teach. The aim is for the software to be able to
perform tasks that it is not necessarily trained or developed for.
● Current Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies all function within a set of pre-determined parameters. For
example, AI models trained in image recognition and generation cannot build websites.
● AGI is a theoretical pursuit to develop AI systems that possess autonomous self-control, a reasonable degree
of self-understanding, and the ability to learn new skills.
● It can solve complex problems in settings and contexts that were not taught to it at the time of its creation.
AGI with human abilities remains a theoretical concept and research goal.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

Artificial Intelligence:
● Artificial intelligence leverages computers and machines to mimic the problem-solving and
decision-making capabilities of the human mind.
Types of Artificial Intelligence:
● Weak AI, also called Narrow AI or Artificial Narrow Intelligence (ANI), is AI trained and
focused to perform specific tasks. Weak AI drives most of the AI that surrounds us today.
Apple's Siri, Amazon's Alexa, IBM Watson, and autonomous vehicles are based on Weak AI.
● Strong AI is made up of Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) and Artificial Super Intelligence
(ASI) that aims to create machines with human-like intelligence.
Relevance: In a recent interview the CEO of OpenAI, expressed his commitment to invest billions of dollars towards
the development of Artificial General Intelligence (AGI).

Q41.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Lymphatic filariasis (LF):
● Commonly known as elephantiasis (Haatipaon), it is a serious debilitating disease transmitted through the bite
of a Culex mosquito that breeds in dirty/polluted water.
● It is caused by infection with parasites classified as nematodes (roundworms) of the family Filariodidea
that are transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitos. So, row 1 is correctly matched.
● Infection is usually acquired in childhood causing hidden damage to the lymphatic system with visible manifestations
(lymphoedema, elephantiasis, and scrotal swelling/hydrocele) which occur later in life and can lead to permanent
disability.
Trachoma:
● It is a disease of the eye caused by infection with the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.
● Infection spreads through personal contact (via hands, clothes, bedding or hard surfaces) and by flies that
have been in contact with discharge from the eyes or nose of an infected person. So, row 2 is
correctly matched.
○ With repeated episodes of infection over many years, the eyelashes may be drawn in so that they rub on
the surface of the eye. This causes pain and may permanently damage the cornea.
Scrub Typhus:
● Also known as bush typhus, it is a disease caused by a bacteria called Orientia tsutsugamushi. So, row 3 is
not correctly matched.
● Scrub typhus is spread to people through bites of infected chiggers (larval mites).
● The symptoms of scrub typhus are similar to symptoms of many other diseases. The most common symptoms of
scrub typhus include fever, headache, body aches, and sometimes rash, enlarged lymph nodes and scabs where
chigger mites bite on the body.
● Antibiotics are most effective if given soon after symptoms begin. No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus.
So, in only two of the rows given above the given information is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Union Minister of State for Health & Family Welfare virtually launched the second phase of the Bi-annual
Nationwide Mass Drug Administration (MDA) campaign for Lymphatic Filariasis elimination.

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Q42.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Recently, the Brazilian government announced that the Paraguay River, which drains the Pantanal wetland for six
months then floods it for the rest of the year, would be developed to be turned into an industrial shipping route known
as the Hidrovia Paraguay-Paraná waterway.
● Scientists, however, fear dredging and deepening will in effect create a “big drain”, disconnecting the Paraguay
River from its floodplain and shrinking the wetland area.
Pantanal:
● The Pantanal, often called the “kingdom of water”, is made up of more
than 1,200 rivers and streams, and its vast biodiversity relies on the
seasonal flood pattern.
● The Pantanal lies in south-central Brazil and extends into northeast
Paraguay and southeast Bolivia. It is one of the world’s largest
freshwater wetlands. The wetlands extend for about 600 km north-to-
south along the banks of the upper Paraguay River and several of its
tributaries.
● The Pantanal is a gigantic seasonal floodplain. During the summer
rainy season (November–March), the rivers overflow their banks and flood the adjacent lowlands, forming shallow
lakes and innumerable swamps and marshes and leaving islandlike areas of higher ground. During the drier winter
season (April–September), the rivers withdraw into their banks, but the lowlands are only partially drained.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Plans are under way to revive the Paraguay River, one of the Pantanal’s main arteries, to be turned into an
industrial shipping route known as the Hidrovia Paraguay-Paraná waterway.

Q43.
Answer: b
Explanation:
UNESCO’s oldest award, instituted through a donation by Odisha’s former Chief Minister Biju Patnaik way
back in 1951.
UNESCO Kalinga Prize:
● The UNESCO Kalinga Prize for the Popularization of Science is an international award to reward exceptional
contributions made by individuals in communicating science to society and promoting the popularization of
science.
● It is awarded to persons who have had a distinguished career as writer, editor, lecturer, radio, television, or web
programme director, or film producer in helping interpret science, research and technology to the public.
● This science popularization can include all forms of media communication.
● The Prize is funded by the Kalinga Foundation Trust, the Government of the State of Odisha, and the Government
of India (Department of Science and Technology).
Features of the Prize:
● The Prize may be conferred upon individuals, institutions, other entities or non-governmental
organizations;
● The applicants do not need to have a science degree;
● This prize does not reward research;
● This prize does not reward formal teaching (at school/university), nor curriculum development for the
formal learning sector;
● If a work being rewarded has been produced by two or three persons, the prize shall be awarded to them jointly.
The prize may not be shared by more than three persons.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
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Relevance: The Science and Technology Ministry has withdrawn its contribution to the prestigious UNESCO Kalinga
Prize.

Q44.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Housing Finance Company
● Housing Finance Companies, or HFCs, are entities that are governed by the Companies Act 1956.
● These entities were initially regulated by the National Housing Bank (NHB). However, the regulatory
power was later shifted to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2019.
● Today these HFCs have become a significant source of home loans. As of now, HFCs have managed to surpass
banks in terms of loan disbursement volume. This is mostly due to their flexible lending practices.
● As of now, HFCs have managed to surpass banks in terms of loan disbursement volume. This is mostly due to
their flexible lending practices. However, they have slightly higher interest rates for home loans than most banks.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

New Rules for the Housing Finance Companies (HFCs):

● The Reserve Bank of India has released revised rules for deposit-taking HFCs, requiring them
to maintain 15% liquid assets against public deposits held by them in a phased manner, up from
13% at present.
○ The new rules are aimed at bringing deposit-taking HFCs on par with non-banking
financial companies (NBFCs).
Relevance: The Reserve Bank of India has released revised rules for deposit-taking housing finance companies (HFCs).

Q45.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Recently, the world’s oldest calendar was
discovered. It was carved into an ancient pillar
around 12,000 years ago.
● The timekeeping system was unearthed at the
Gobekli Tepe site in the mountains of
Anatolia in Turkey. It suggests that people were
accurately recording dates 10,000 years before it
was documented in Greece in 150 BC. The calendar
has 365 “V” symbols, etched on one of the pillars at
the site, each thought to represent a single day. This
calendar also shows 12 lunar months with 11
additional days.
● The Gobekli Tepe site features the oldest-
known man-made structures. It was built by
hunter-gatherers between 9,600 and 8,200 BC,
predating Stonehenge by more than 6,000 years.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Subject: Geography | Miscellaneous(geo)
Tags: Factual, Current Affairs

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Q46.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Russia is the fourth largest trading partner of India. India’s trade deficit with Russia has increased considerably in
the recent past. Indian exports to Russia amounted to $ 4.26 billion in FY24. Indian imports from Russia
jumped by 952% to $ 61.44 billion in FY24 from $ 5.84 billion in FY23, expanding the trade deficit from
$3.45 billion in FY23 to $57.18 billion in FY24.
● India has flagged concerns over Non-Tariff barriers (NTBs) faced by its exporters with the Russian
government. NTBs faced by Indian exporters are mainly in sectors such as marine products and
pharmaceuticals. For instance, India has been finding it difficult to export marine products to Russia as
exporters face certification and listing challenges related to exports. So, point 1 is correct.
● Top exports from India to Russia include computer hardware, drug formulations, residual chemicals and aluminum
products.
● India’s trade deficit with Russia has grown many times in the recent past especially because of the increase
in India’s imports of crude oil from Russia. The import in crude oil rapidly expanded after western sanctions
were imposed on Russia. The sanctions were imposed following the launch of the special military operation against
Ukraine. Crude petroleum has been the top import from Russia. So, point 3 is correct
○ India vastly increased its purchases of Russian crude due to the drop in the Russian oil prices, to
overcome the high freight costs between Russia and India. So, point 2 is not correct.
● India is in talks of a proposed Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU).
EAEU comprises five member states of Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Armenia. The agreement is
not yet signed.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Prime Minister of India visited Moscow to participate in the 22nd India-Russia Annual Summit.

Q47.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana is a landmark initiative that was launched to transform India's energy
landscape by providing free electricity to households.
● Model Solar Village is an initiative under the PM-Surya Ghar-Muft Bijli Yojana. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
● A total financial outlay of 800 crore rupees has been allocated for this initiative. It will provide 1 crore rupees per
selected Model Solar Village. To be considered under this scheme, a village must be a revenue village with
a population size above 5,000 or 2,000 for special category states. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has provided that under the scheme, emphasis has been
placed on creating one Model Solar Village per district across the country. So, statement 3 is
correct.
● The villages will be assessed based on their overall distributed renewable energy capacity installed in six
months after the declaration of the potential candidate by the District Level Committee. The winning village in
each district, with the highest renewable energy capacity will receive a central financial assistance grant of one
crore rupees.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

PM Surya Ghar-Muft Bijli Yojana:

● It is a government scheme that aims to provide free electricity to households in India. Under
the scheme, households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their
roofs. The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of the solar panels.
● The PM-KUSUM Scheme was launched in 2019 for de-dieselisation of the farm sector and
enhancing the income of farmers. It is aimed at ensuring energy security for farmers in India.
Under the Scheme, a central government subsidy upto 30% or 50% of the total cost is
given for the installation of standalone solar pumps.
Relevance: Govt issues operational guidelines for implementation of Model Solar Village under PM-Surya Ghar-Muft Bijli
Yojana.

Q48.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Red Colobus are a rare group of imperilled monkeys spread across Africa. There are 17 species of
red colobus found in tropical forests from Senegal in west Africa to the Zanzibar archipelago in east Africa.
● These monkeys have aesthetically appealing hairdos, coat colours and colour patterns. They weigh, on
average, between 5kg and 12kg and take daring, long-distance leaps between trees to find foods that other primates
find difficult to digest, like leaves and unripe fruit.
● Evidence from several sites shows that red colobus are among the first large mammals to disappear
from forests. They vanish before more well-known species such as gorilla, chimpanzee, and elephant die out in
forests from hunting. Therefore, the absence of red colobus, or a declining population, is an early warning
indicator of emptying forests and eroding ecosystems. Thus, these are one of the primary indicators of
biodiversity.
● According to the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, every species of red colobus is threatened with
extinction. Hunting by humans for meat is a leading cause of their decline. Red colobus live in large, noisy social
groups. They tend not to flee like other mammals do in the presence of a hunter. This makes them easy targets.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Binturong:
● These are found in Assam’s Kaziranga National Park. They are usually found in dense
forests of India (Meghalaya, Sikkim), Indonesia, Thailand, Malaysia, etc. They are also referred
to as Bearcat, Asian Bearcat and Asian Civet. They are solitary and nocturnal in nature. They
have a lifespan of 18 years and grow upto 2.8 ft.
Small-clawed Otter:
● It is a mammalian species.
● It was recently added to the list of fauna in Assam’s Kaziranga National Park. It is primarily found
in freshwater habitats. It is the smallest otter species in the world. It is usually found in India,
Southeast Asia and Southern China.
Baobab:

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 ● It is a Long-lived deciduous, small to large tree from 20 to 100 ft tall with broad trunks and
compact tops. It grows in Africa, Madagascar and Australia. It is also found in Mandu, in Dhar
district of Madhya Pradesh. Fiber from its bark is used to make rope, cloth, musical instrument
strings etc.

Q49.
Answer: b
Explanation:
GAURAV:
● Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has recently carried out a successful maiden flight test
of Long Range Glide Bomb (LRGB) GAURAV from Su-30 MK-I platform of the Indian Air Force (IAF). So,
pair 1 is correctly matched.
● It is an Air to Surface LRGB with conventional warheads to destroy enemy air strips, bunkers, hard
installations, buildings etc. It is designed to integrate with fighter aircrafts. It consists of an Inertial Navigation based
guidance system with Digital Control.
● GAURAV has been designed and developed indigenously by the Research Centre Imarat (RCI),
Hyderabad. Research Centre Imarat (RCI) is a laboratory of the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO).
Akash-NG:
● It is a Surface to Air Missile capable of intercepting high-speed, agile aerial threats. Its active
electronically scanned array (AESA) multi-function radar features all three functions - search, track and fire control
in one platform. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
RudraM-II:
● It is an indigenously-developed solid-propelled air-launched missile system meant for Air-to-Surface role to
neutralise many types of enemy assets. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
● A number of state-of-the-art indigenous technologies developed by various DRDO laboratories have been
incorporated in the missile system.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has carried out a successful maiden flight
test of Long Range Glide Bomb (LRGB), GAURAV from Su-30 MK-I platform of the Indian Air Force (IAF).

Q50.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Researchers have discovered that the melting polar ice caps have caused the earth to spin slower. This can lead
to minuscule changes in the actual duration of a day. So, statement 1 is correct.
● A basic physics phenomenon called the conservation of angular momentum is key to this change in length of days.
○ When polar ice melts, the water flows to the equator, which makes the earth bulge out slightly.
This increases the moment of inertia, and the rotation rate slows, increasing the time taken to
complete a rotation and thus lengthening our day. So, statement 2 is correct.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Principle of Conservation of Angular momentum:

● L=Iw (L is angular momentum, I is moment of inertia and w is angular velocity).

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 ● Now, as per the principle of conservation of angular momentum, if the moment of inertia of a
rotating body increases, its angular velocity decreases.
● Example: When an ice skater rotates, if their arms are held in tightly, their moment of inertia
decreases, and they spin faster. If they stretched their arms out wide, their moment of inertia
would increase, making them spin slower.

Q51.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Thwaites Glacier, often referred to as the “Doomsday Glacier,” is one of the fastest-melting glaciers globally
and significantly influences sea level rise. It accounts for 4 percent of the Earth's sea level rise and loses 50 billion
tons of ice annually. When it collapses, it could raise oceans worldwide by 65 centimetres, or just over 2 feet.
● It is located in West Antarctica and is about the size of Florida and acts as a barrier preventing the collapse
of the entire West Antarctic ice sheet, which contains enough ice to raise global sea levels by approximately
3.3 meters (11 feet).
● Recent studies show that warm tidal currents are reaching the glacier at depths of up to 3.7 miles, accelerating its
melting. Since the late 19th century, global sea levels have risen by about 9 inches, and the rapid melting of glaciers
like Thwaites poses a significant risk to coastal cities worldwide.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, scientists have revealed that Antarctica's Thwaites Glacier has been losing ice since the 1940s.

Q52.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Military Exercise Details

1. Mitra Shakti ● It is an annual training event conducted

alternatively in India and Sri Lanka. In 2023, it
was held in Pune, while the 2024 edition was held
at the Army Training School, Maduru Oya, Sri
Lanka. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.

2. Maitree ● It is an India-Thailand joint military exercise.

In 2024, it was conducted at Fort Vachiraprakan in
Thailand. It will focus on high physical fitness, joint
planning and joint tactical drills. So, pair 2 is not
correctly matched.

3. Dustlik ● It is a joint military exercise conducted

alternatively in India and Uzbekistan. It was
recently held in Termez, the Republic of
Uzbekistan. So, pair 3 is not correctly
matched.

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 4. Harimau Shakti ● It is a joint bilateral training exercise between the
Indian & Malaysian Army. It aims to enhance
military capability for conducting Multi-Domain
Operations in a sub-conventional scenario. So,
pair 4 is not correctly matched.
So, only one of the pairs given above is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the 10th edition of the annual bilateral Exercise MITRA SHAKTI was conducted in Sri Lanka.

Q53.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Vampire stars are the stars that rejuvenate their youth by sucking up material from their
companion stars. Vampire stars, known to astronomers as blue straggler stars (BSS), are identified easily in star
clusters. These are binary systems in which the smaller star sucks material out of the bigger companion
star to become a blue straggler, and hence is called a vampire star. So, option (a) is correct.
○ The Vampire star, when it has consumed a large amount from its victim, will become a blue star, also
known as a blue straggler.
○ These stars defy simple models of stellar evolution and show many characteristics of younger stars.
This anomalous youth is explained theoretically as due to rejuvenation by eating up material from a binary
stellar companion. Once rejuvenated, these stars follow a different path of evolution when compared to
Sun-like single stars. So, option (b) is not correct.
● A neutron star forms when a main sequence star with between about eight and 20 times the Sun’s mass runs out
of hydrogen in its core. So, option (c) is not correct.
● Brown dwarfs are more massive than planets but not quite as massive as stars. They are not technically stars. So,
option (d) is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the AstroSat revealed the mystery of vampire star rejuvenation.

Q54.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● India recognises six Classical Languages: Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia. Four of
the language centres operate under the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) in Mysuru, while the Tamil
language centre is autonomous. Additionally, dedicated universities promoting Sanskrit receive direct funding from
the Union Education Ministry.
● Once a language is notified as a
Points to remember
Classical Language, the Union
Ministry of Education provides
Tamil was declared a classical language in 2004, Sanskrit in 2005, Kannada
certain benefits to promote it, in 2008, Telugu in 2008, Malayalam in 2013, and Odia in 2014.
including two major annual
international awards for scholars of eminence in the said languages. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Other benefits of conferment of Classical Language status include establishing a Centre of Excellence for
Studies in the Classical Language and the University Grants Commission is requested to create a certain
number of Chairs for the Classical Language, at least in the Central Universities. So, statements 2 and 3
are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

The Government of India uses the following criteria to declare a language as a Classical
Language:
● High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
● A body of ancient literature/texts which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of
speakers;
● The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
● With Classical Language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Relevance: There is a demand for autonomy by special centres set up for the promotion of Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam,
and Odia languages after they were declared as classical languages.

Q55.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Quality Council of India (QCI) has recently introduced the QCI Surajya Recognition & Ranking
Framework to drive excellence in certain key sectors. It is an empowering initiative designed to drive excellence
among States to improve quality of life of citizens for a Viksit Bharat.
● This framework is categorized under four pillars:
○ Education: Enhancing the quality of education (Shiksha) through robust accreditation and certification
processes. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Health: Guaranteeing superior healthcare (Swasthya) services throughout the nation and upholding the
highest standards of medical care in every region. So, point 3 is correct.
○ Prosperity: Driving economic prosperity (Samriddhi) through quality assurance in manufacturing and
industrial practices.
○ Governance: Ensuring transparent, accountable and responsive governance (Sushasan) that upholds the
highest standards of quality. So, point 5 is correct.
● Poverty and Infrastructure are not considered for the QCI-Surajya Recognition & Ranking Framework. So, points
2 and 4 are not correct.
So, only three of the above are considered for the QCI-Surajya Recognition & Ranking Framework.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Quality Council of India introduces QCI Surajya Recognition & Ranking Framework to Drive Excellence in
Key Sectors.

Q56.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● A waterspout is a rotating column of air and mist that forms over a water body, often resembling a
tornado but generally less intense. These phenomena typically last around five minutes, though occasionally
they can persist for up to ten minutes.
● They are less destructive than microbursts or downbursts, which involve descending winds, while
waterspouts feature rotating upward air.
● Squalls, on the other hand, involve sharp increases in wind speed, often with precipitation, but lack the rotating
column seen in waterspouts.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

● Downbursts are a general term for strong winds that occur when air falls rapidly from
a thunderstorm and spreads out on the ground. Microbursts are a type of downburst that are
smaller in size and have more specific characteristics.
● A dust devil is a small, short-lived whirlwind that typically forms during the early afternoon
when the land surface heats up rapidly. It often becomes visible as it lifts dust, leaves, or other
loose debris from the ground.
Relevance: Understanding waterspouts is essential for weather forecasting, particularly for ensuring the safety of
maritime operations.

Q57.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Tawa Reservoir is a reservoir on the Tawa River in central India. It is located in Madhya Pradesh. The site is
a man-made wetland which was created primarily for irrigation through the construction of Tawa
Dam.
● It is located within Satpura Tiger Reserve, in the Central Indian Highlands. It is the largest protected area in
Madhya Pradesh, Notably, it is an important fish spawning ground, hosting indigenous species such as the vulnerable
common carp (Cyprinus carpio) and shark catfish (Wallago attu).
● It is also integral in regional water management. Created by damming the Tawa River, the reservoir became a
massive wintering ground for migratory birds. It provides irrigation water to farmlands and drinking water
to local communities and sustains the nearby fisheries. It has been declared a Ramsar site in 2024, also
known as wetlands of international importance.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary is a freshwater lake located within the Neruperichal and
Sarkar Periyapalayam villages in Tamil Nadu. It holds historical significance, having been named
after King Nanjarayan who constructed the reservoir 400 years ago. The lake’s water levels
fluctuate based on rainfall and runoff from the surrounding catchment area and Nallar River. In
2022, the Site was designated as a Bird Sanctuary.
● Yashwant Sagar Lake is a freshwater reservoir that was built in the Gambhir River basin
in the 1930s to provide irrigation and drinking water to the Indore region in Madhya Pradesh.
It is designated as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) and is one of the most
important birdwatching sites in the region. It has been designated as a protected Ramsar site
since 2022.
● Bhoj Wetland is located in the city of Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. It consists of two
contiguous human-made reservoirs, the upper and lower lakes. The Upper lake is called
Bhojtal (Bada Talaab) and the Lower Lake is known as Chhota Talaab. The Upper Lake
is surrounded by Van Vihar National Park on the south, human settlements on the east and
north, and agriculture fields on the west.
Relevance: Recently, Tawa Reservoir has been declared as a Ramsar site.

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Q58.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Voluntary Vehicle Modernization Program (VVMP) targets the voluntary scrapping of unfit
commercial and passenger vehicles, with the focus strictly on their fitness rather than age. This means that
vehicles failing fitness tests, regardless of their age, are encouraged to be scrapped. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
● Fitness tests for commercial vehicles are mandatory every two years for the first eight years and annually
thereafter. For private vehicles, fitness certificates are required for the renewal of registration after 15 years,
with a renewal validity of five years. This ensures that only vehicles that meet safety and emission standards
continue to operate. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The VVMP phases out unfit and polluting vehicles through a network of Registered Vehicle Scrapping
Facilities (RVSFs) and Automated Testing Stations (ATSs). Fitness testing for heavy commercial vehicles
is mandated through ATSs, and this requirement will extend to other vehicle types in phases. Vehicles failing these
tests will be declared End-of-Life Vehicles (ELVs) and scrapped.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways launched the Voluntary Vehicle Modernization
Program to phase out polluting vehicles.

Q59.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Recently, India and the United States of America signed a Security of Supply Arrangement (SOSA) in
2024 to provide reciprocal priority support for each other’s national defence needs, addressing supply
chain disruptions related to critical defence resources. The SOSA allows both the United States and India to
request each other for priority delivery of certain defence items.
● The United States operates the Defence Priorities and Allocations System (DPAS), which ensures the
prioritization of certain defence contracts. Under the SOSA, India has agreed to implement a Code of
Conduct, requiring Indian firms to make reasonable efforts to fulfill requested items. This Code of Conduct will
help ensure prioritization of requests made through SOSA. Similarly, DPAS will prioritize contracts for defence
items requested by India.
● Although SOSA is non-binding, there is a provision in each SOSA that if a company declines priority support,
the partner country will investigate the reasons for the refusal.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Memorandum on Liaison Officers: It builds on a decision to enhance information-sharing

between India and the United States. As part of this initiative, Indian armed forces officers will
be stationed in key strategic US Commands. India’s first Liaison Officer will be deployed to
the US Special Operations Command headquarters in Florida.
Relevance: Recently, India and the US have signed a Security of Supply Arrangement (SOSA) and Memorandum of
Agreement regarding the Assignment of Liaison Officers.

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Q60.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Pacific Islands Forum (PIF), established in 1971, is an intergovernmental organization comprising
18 member states from the Pacific region. It includes both large, economically advanced nations like Australia
and New Zealand, as well as other island nations such as Cook Islands, Federated States of Micronesia, Fiji,
French Polynesia, Kiribati, Nauru, New Caledonia, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Republic of Marshall Islands,
Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu. So, points 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct.
● The PIF focuses on promoting regional cooperation, economic development and political stability among
its members. It discusses priority issues at its annual meeting, where decisions made by the member states are
reached by consensus. The decisions are implemented by the Pacific Islands Forum Secretariat.
● Seychelles is not a member of the PIF. It is located in the Somali Sea segment of the Indian Ocean. So, point
3 is not correct.
So, only four of the above countries are members of the Pacific Islands Forum (PFI).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: At the Pacific Islands Forum's (PIF) annual meeting, climate change is a top priority, as many PIF members are
among the countries most severely impacted by its effects.

Q61.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● According to a recent study published in the Transactions on Geoscience and Remote Sensing, Chile's
“Atacama salt flat” is sinking at a rate of 1 to 2 centimeters per year due to lithium brine extraction.
This process involves pumping salt-rich water to the surface, which is transferred into evaporation ponds to
extract lithium.
● The brine evaporation process used to extract lithium consumes vast amounts of fresh water, a critical
resource already in short supply, particularly in the Atacama Desert. According to a study, producing one ton of
lithium in the Atacama requires 2,000 tons of water. This exacerbates water shortages for indigenous communities
and wildlife in the region. Additionally, chemicals like sulfuric acid and sodium hydroxide, used during lithium
extraction, contaminate the soil and water, threatening ecosystems and putting local species at risk.
● Chile's Atacama salt flat, also known as Salar de Atacama, is located in the Atacama Desert in northern Chile.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to a recent study, Chile’s Atacama salt flat is sinking at a rate of 1 to 2 centimetres per year due
to lithium brine extraction.

Q62.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Mount Kanlaon: Its recent volcanic eruption caused a cold lava flow, a mixture of volcanic debris and
pebbles, which can have either smooth, glassy textures or rough, jagged surfaces. It is located in the Philippines.
So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Shiveluch Volcano: It is a volcano in
Points to remember
Russia that erupted following a 7.0-
magnitude earthquake that struck the Kamchatka Peninsula: It lies in far eastern Russia, between the
country's eastern coast. So, pair 2 is not Sea of Okhotsk on the west and the Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea
correctly matched. on the east. It is one of the world’s most concentrated areas of
geothermal activity, with about 30 active volcanoes.

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 ● St. Martin Island: It is located in the northeastern Bay of Bengal, near the Bangladesh-Myanmar border.
The island was recently in the news when former Bangladeshi Prime Minister mentioned that she could have
remained in power if she had given away St. Martin's Island and parts of the Bay of Bengal to the U.S. So, pair 3
is not correctly matched.
● Kursk: Recently, Ukrainian forces advanced into Russia's Kursk region to create a buffer zone aimed at
hindering Russian offensives. It is located on Russia's southwestern border and is part of the fertile Black Earth
territory. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
So, only one of the pairs given above is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Shiveluch volcano in Russia erupted after a 7.0-magnitude earthquake struck off the eastern
coast of the country.

Q63.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Cyanobacterial Engineered Living Material (C-ELM) is a biomaterial embedded with cyanobacteria,
capable of capturing carbon dioxide (CO₂) through photosynthesis. It incorporates living cyanobacteria
within translucent panels that can be mounted on the interior walls of buildings. As the microorganisms grow
through photosynthesis, they capture carbon dioxide from the air through biomineralisation, the
captured CO2 is converted into calcium carbonate, effectively trapping the carbon.
● A kilogram of C-ELM can capture up to 350g of carbon dioxide, while the same amount of traditional
concrete would emit approximately 500g of CO2. A wall covered with 150 square metres of these panels could
sequester about one tonne of carbon dioxide.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently developed (C-ELM) can utilise living microorganisms to remove carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere.

Q64.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Polaris Dawn mission was a SpaceX initiative and was launched aboard a Falcon 9 rocket, with SpaceX's
Dragon spacecraft carrying a crew of four. The mission marked the first-ever commercial spacewalk, with
the crew using SpaceX-designed Extra Vehicular Activity (EVA) suits. These advanced suits were designed
to offer enhanced mobility, improved helmet displays, and advanced thermal management, representing a key step
toward developing suits for future long-duration missions. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The mission crew tested Starlink’s laser-based satellite communications in orbit. This technology aimed
to improve communication speed and quality, laying the foundation for future missions to destinations like the
Moon and Mars. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It undertook the farthest journey since NASA's Apollo Program’s culmination in 1972. It took the crew
through parts of the Van Allen radiation belt, allowing scientists to gather data on the effects of space radiation
on human health. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Polaris Dawn mission is the first-ever private spacewalk by non-professional astronauts.

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Q65.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The “Nankai Trough” is an underwater subduction zone (nearly
900 km long) where the Eurasian Plate collides with and
subducts the Philippine Sea Plate. This tectonic interaction
leads to the accumulation of stress, resulting in frequent seismic
activity and potential megaquakes. This accumulates tectonic
stress which can cause a megaquake — an earthquake with a
magnitude larger than 8.
● The trough has produced large earthquakes roughly every 100 to
150 years, according to the 2023 study published in the journal
Nature. These tremors usually come in pairs, with the second
often rupturing in the subsequent two years — the most recent
“twin” earthquakes took place in 1944 and 1946.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Japan’s meteorological agency said the likelihood of strong shaking and large tsunamis is higher than
normal on the Nankai Trough.

Q66.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Krishi-Decision Support System (K-DSS) is a satellite-based geospatial platform launched by the
Government of India aimed at helping farmers and stakeholders make informed decisions related to
agriculture. It uses advanced technologies like data analytics, weather forecasting and satellite data to offer
insights that enhance agricultural productivity.
● One of the core applications of the K-DSS portal is to provide real-time weather updates and forecasts,
which are crucial for farmers to plan activities such as sowing, irrigation, and harvesting. The system integrates
weather data to offer region-specific advice, helping farmers avoid losses due to unpredictable weather. So, point
1 is correct.
● It also provides information on groundwater levels, helping farmers make informed irrigation decisions.
Monitoring groundwater levels is critical for water management, especially in regions prone to water scarcity
or over-extraction of groundwater. So, point 2 is correct.
● It includes soil health data, providing farmers with insights about nutrient levels, soil moisture, and other
essential soil parameters. This enables farmers to manage fertilizers and choose crops best suited to their
soil conditions, promoting sustainable farming practices. So, point 3 is correct.
● It aims to monitor reservoir storage levels. Knowing the water availability in reservoirs is crucial for effective
water management in agriculture, particularly in regions dependent on canal irrigation systems. So, point 4 is
correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Krishi-Decision Support System (K-DSS), a satellite-based geospatial platform was launched.

Q67.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Fixed-Dose Combinations (FDCs) are pharmaceutical products that contain two or more active
ingredients in a fixed ratio of doses. They are used to simplify treatment regimens, especially in conditions
where patients require multiple medications.

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 ● Recently the Government of India banned 156 FDC medicines. These medicines were banned by the
government because they either contain ingredients that do not work well together or those that are not
needed by patients to be commonly taken together. This could occur for several reasons:
o Drug Interactions: In some FDCs, the active ingredients may interact negatively with each
other, reducing their effectiveness or increasing the risk of side effects. So, option (b) is correct.
o Inappropriate Combinations: Some FDCs have been criticized for combining drugs that treat different
conditions or have different mechanisms of action, which may not always be necessary or safe.
● FDCs are actually designed to increase patient compliance by reducing the number of pills a patient needs to
take. By combining multiple medications into one, patients are more likely to adhere to their treatment regimens.
So, option (a) is not correct.
● FDCs can be just as effective as individual medications, or even more effective in some cases when the
ingredients work well together. However, the effectiveness depends on the specific combination and how it’s
used. So, option (c) is not correct.
● FDCs are often used to reduce costs by combining medications. They can be more affordable for patients
who need multiple drugs. So, option (d) is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Government of India banned 156 of these fixed-dose combination medicines.

Q68.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Bondas are exclusively found in the Malkangiri district of Odisha It is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Group (PVTG) and one of the oldest tribes in India. They belong to the Austro-Asiatic racial stock and speak
the Austro-Asiatic dialect. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
● Saora is one of the ancient tribes of Odisha, which is also mentioned in the epics Ramayana and Mahabharata.
Though Odisha is the mainland for the tribe, a small number of people are also found in the states of Andhra
Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Assam. They have their own native language called Sora, which
is a Munda language. The Saoras show their racial affinity to the Proto Australoid physical characters. They have
unique art practices and religious customs, as well as a dying tattooing tradition called ‘Tantangbo’. So, pair 2
is correctly matched.
● 'Dhokra Damar,' is a nomadic Indian tribe belonging to the eastern part of the country. The tribe initially resided
in the Bankura-Dariapur belt in West Bengal, parts of Madhya Pradesh and Odisha. Dhokra art, one of
the oldest existing art forms in India, involving the casting of non-ferrous metal, has been named after the Dhokra
Damar Tribes. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
● Kutia Kondhs are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Odisha. Members of the community
take turns to protect forests and wildlife that surround their houses. The Kondhs who live in hilltops and
valleys are known as Kutia Kondh. Whereas those who live in high land and near the streams are called
Dongria Kondh and kondhas who reside in plain areas are known as Desia Kondh. So, pair 4 is not correctly
matched.
So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Saoras tribe became the 5th Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) to get habitat rights
in the State of Odisha.

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Q69.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The “Plug-n-play” and “walk-to-work” concepts are key components in smart cities and urban planning.
These ideas are intended to create modern, efficient and sustainable urban living spaces.
● “Plug-n-play”: It refers to the creation of ready-to-use infrastructure where businesses and residents can
quickly set up operations without having to worry about essential services such as power, water,
internet and office spaces. It is a key feature in smart cities, where fully functional infrastructure is available for
industries, tech companies and businesses, helping them integrate seamlessly into the urban fabric.
● “Walk-to-work”: It emphasizes creating residential areas close to workplaces, where residential,
commercial, and business spaces are located, allowing people to live near their workplaces. It reduces the
need for long commutes, improving work-life balance and contributing to environmental sustainability by reducing
traffic congestion and pollution.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Union Cabinet approved the setting up of 12 industrial smart cities.

Q70.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Deception Detection Tests (DDTs) are scientific methods used to assess the likelihood of deception during
interrogations. These tests include polygraph tests, narco-analysis and brain mapping.
● A polygraph test is administered by attaching instruments like cardio-cuffs or sensitive electrodes to the suspect
to measure variables such as blood pressure, galvanic skin response (a proxy for sweat), breathing and pulse
rate. measures physiological changes such as blood pressure, breathing, and sweat response, operating on the
belief that lying causes specific bodily reactions. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Narco-analysis involves the injection of a drug called sodium pentothal into the accused, inducing a
hypnotic or sedated state. The assumption is that a subject in such a state is less inhibited and is more likely
to divulge information. Because the drug is thought to weaken the subject’s resolve to lie, it is often referred to
as a “truth serum.”So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Brain mapping detects specific brainwave patterns using electrodes attached to the face and neck. It
operates on the principle that the brain generates distinctive brainwaves when exposed to familiar stimuli,
such as an image or a sound. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
So, only one of the above pairs is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) conducted polygraph tests on seven individuals in
connection with the murder of a resident doctor.

Q71.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Poliomyelitis, commonly known as polio, is a highly infectious viral disease caused by the Wild Poliovirus
(WPV). It primarily affects young children and can lead to paralysis or even death in severe cases.
● The Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) contains a weakened but live strain of the poliovirus. In rare cases, the
weakened virus can mutate and regain its ability to cause paralysis. This mutated virus can circulate in
under-immunized populations and cause what is known as Vaccine-Derived Poliovirus (VDPV). Although
OPV is effective in preventing polio, this rare risk exists, particularly in areas with low immunization coverage. So,
statement 1 is correct.

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 ● India, along with 10 other countries in the World Health Organization (WHO) Southeast Asia Region, was
declared polio-free in 2014. No new cases of polio caused by the poliovirus that is circulating naturally in the
environment have been reported in India
since January 2011. However, there have Points to remember
been few instances of Vaccine-Derived
Poliovirus (VDPV), a well-documented Polioviruses are enteroviruses that are transmitted primarily by
strain of poliovirus mutated from the strain the faecal-oral route. Three types – Wild Poliovirus type 1
originally contained in oral polio vaccine (WPV1), Wild Poliovirus type 2 (WPV2) and Wild Poliovirus type
(OPV). So, statement 2 is not correct. 3 (WPV3) – have been known to exist. Symptomatically, all these
strains are identical.
● VDPV spreads more easily in communities
where immunization levels are low. In such areas, the mutated virus can circulate for an extended period,
potentially infecting those who are not fully immunized. Additionally, individuals with weakened immune
systems (such as those who are immunocompromised) may shed the mutated virus for a longer time,
which increases the risk of transmission in areas with low vaccine coverage. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: More than 90% of vaccine-derived poliovirus outbreaks are due to type 2 virus present in oral polio vaccines.

Q72.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The National Sports Day in India is celebrated on 29 August every year. It is celebrated to commemorate
the birth anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand. The day also serves as a reminder to recall
the contributions, determination and
Points to remember
extraordinary achievements of the athletes
and their influence in shaping societies. So, The National Sports Day is an occasion that sees the nation
statements 1 and 3 are correct. honour its sporting heroes with recognitions like the Major
● National Sports Day was included in the list Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (formerly called the Rajiv Gandhi Khel
of celebratory days in India for the first time Ratna), Arjuna Award, Dhyan Chand Award and the Dronacharya
in 2012. So, statement 2 is correct. Award.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

●Major Dhyan Chand was born on August 29, 1905, in Allahabad (Prayagraj). He is one of
India's greatest hockey players, known as the "Hockey Wizard." He led India to Olympic
gold medals in 1928, 1932, and 1936, playing a pivotal role in the nation's dominance in pre-
World War II hockey.
● Practising under moonlight due to regimental duties, he earned the name "Chand" (moon in
Hindi).
● His remarkable career spanned from 1926 to 1948, with over 400 goals in 185 international
matches. In 1956, he was awarded the Padma Bhushan, and his birthday is celebrated as
National Sports Day.
Relevance: The National Sports Day was established to commemorate the birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand's
birthday.

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Q73.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Gender Budgeting, or Gender-Responsive Budgeting, is a tool for implementing policies and programs that
address the specific needs of women, working toward a more gender-equal society. It is not a separate
budget for women, but a part of the Union Budget designed to highlight government fiscal allocations aimed at
improving the well-being of women.
● The Gender Budget Statement (GBS) was introduced in the Union Budget for the first time in 2005-06. It is
divided into two parts:
○ Part A: Reflects schemes with 100% allocation exclusively for women.
○ Part B: Includes schemes where at least 30% of the allocation is directed toward women.
● The 2024-25 Union Budget focuses on women-led development. For the first time, the Gender Budget
reached 1% of GDP in 2024-25. The total allocation for pro-women programs has crossed ₹3 lakh crore. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● The share of pro-women schemes in the total budget expenditure has risen to 6.8% in 2024-25, a significant
increase from the historical average of around 5%. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Additionally, a new Part ‘C’ has been introduced in the GBS this year, which tracks schemes where less than 30%
of the allocation is directed toward women, broadening the scope of gender-responsive budgeting.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: As reported by the Gender Budget Statement (GBS), the Budget of 2024-2025 allocated funds to pro-women
programmes, reflecting a commitment to women's empowerment.

Q74.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● As humanity ventures further into the cosmos, understanding and managing the health effects of space travel
becomes increasingly important. Understanding the impact of spaceflight on humans is essential as astronauts
move from the International Space Station in low-Earth orbit to deep space destinations on and around the Moon,
and beyond.
● A condition that has emerged as a significant concern to astronauts in space anemia. This phenomenon is
characterised by a reduction in red blood cells and haemoglobin levels. Space anaemia is a condition
observed in astronauts during and after extended space missions. In microgravity, the body experiences significant
fluid shifts. In space, the gravitational pull is absent, leading to an upward shift of bodily fluids towards
the head. This shift impacts blood volume and the production of red blood cells. So, point 1 is correct.
● One of the long-term effects of space anaemia is the higher risk of cardiovascular issues. Lower red blood
cell counts can lead to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues and organs, potentially straining the cardiovascular
system. Over time, this strain can elevate the risk of heart disease and other cardiovascular complications. So,
point 2 is correct.
● Long-duration space travel may lead to significant loss of bone mineral density. This presents increased
risks for bone fracture and affects wound healing. So, point 3 is not correct.
● Astronauts who stay in space, where there is almost no atmosphere, are exposed to higher energy radiation than
on the earth. If a person is exposed to a lot of higher energy radiation, the risk increases that they will
develop diseases such as cancer. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Astronaut Sunita Williams is currently facing various health challenges that arise from living in space for
extended periods.

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Q75.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Mastercard, a worldwide payment technology leader, has announced its new Payment Passkey Service,
which improves the security and convenience of online buying.
● This service is being tested in India by major payment providers such as Juspay, Razorpay, and PayU, as well as
online merchants like Bigbasket and banks such as Axis Bank. Payment passkeys use device-based biometric
identification technologies, such as fingerprints and facial recognition, to simplify the online shopping
experience. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It eliminates the need for traditional passwords and One-Time Passwords (OTPs), resulting in faster,
more secure transactions while lowering the risk of fraud and scams. With payment passkeys, customers no longer
have to worry about forgetting or exchanging passwords or OTPs. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Mastercard, a global technology in the payments industry, announced the worldwide launch of its
new Payment Passkey Service.

Q76.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Extremophiles: They are the microbes that live in extreme natural conditions under high pressure
and temperature. These microbes have also been found thriving on the exteriors of spacecraft and around
nuclear waste storage sites.
● It is believed that life began on the earth in an extreme environmental niche, in the form of an extremophile,
before spreading and adapting to more temperate ecosystems.
● Extremophile microbes have multiple sets of proteins, each customised for life in a specific
environmental niche. They ‘activate’ each set depending on the conditions around them and what they need
to survive: say, one set for the super-high temperature during a volcanic eruption, one for the debilitating lack of
water during a prolonged drought, and one for the gruesome acidity of a volcanic crater lake.
● The unique enzymes used by these organisms, called "extremozymes," enable these organisms to
function in such forbidding environments. These creatures hold great promise for genetically based
medications and industrial chemicals and processes.
● These organisms are 'extreme' only from a human perspective. While oxygen, for example, is a necessity for life
as we know it, some organisms flourish in environments with no oxygen at all.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Scientists suggest that extremophiles may have applications in the bioremediation of toxic waste.

Q77.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Recently, the Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways has launched the ‘Green Tug Transition Program
(GTTP)’ under the ‘Panch Karma Sankalp’ initiative. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ This initiative is set to drive the transition from conventional fuel-based harbour tugs to greener,
more sustainable alternatives.
● The GTTP is designed to phase out conventional fuel-based harbour tugs operating in Indian Major Ports.
The program aims to replace them with green tugs powered by cleaner and more sustainable
alternative fuels. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The GTTP will be a major boost to the domestic tug industry, with all tugs built under this program constructed
in Indian shipyards as part of the Government of India's ‘Make in India’ initiative. The program is also expected
to create significant employment opportunities in shipbuilding and ship design. So, statement 3 is correct.
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 ● By the end of 2040, all tugs operating in Indian Major Ports are envisioned to transition to green tugs, ensuring
a standardised, eco-friendly fleet across the country. Furthermore, beyond 2033, any new tug built in India for
use in Indian ports will need to comply with the All Sustainable Tug Design Standards (ASTDS)-GTTP standards.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box:

Maritime India Vision 2030 (MIV 2030):

● It was launched to enhance India’s maritime sector, aiming to make it a global leader in
safety, sustainability, and environmental responsibility.
● It includes ambitious targets such as sourcing 60% of each major port’s power demand
from renewable energy and achieving a 30% reduction in carbon emissions per
ton of cargo by 2030.
● The Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047, introduced in 2023, sets a specific goal for Major
Ports to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from port vessels by 30% by 2030.
● Harbor tugs, vital for port operations like berthing, unberthing, and ship assist
functions, are ideal candidates for adopting green technologies, such as electric
propulsion and alternative fuels, which can significantly cut emissions while maintaining
operational efficiency.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Minister of Ports Shipping and Waterways has launched the ‘Green Tug Transition
Program (GTTP)’ under the ‘Panch Karma Sankalp’ initiative.

Q78.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Thadou are an indigenous people who mostly live in the hill areas adjacent to the Imphal Valley in the Indian
State of Manipur. They are the second largest in terms of population in Manipur, next to Meitei. They are also
found in Assam, Nagaland and Mizoram in India, and in Chin State and Sagaing Division in Myanmar.
The Thadou language belongs to the Tibeto-Burman family of the Sino-Tibetan languages. So, pair 1 is correctly
matched.
○ Recently, a section of the Thadou tribes represented by the Manipur-based Thadou Students' Association
(TSA) has formed a global platform to look into critical issues facing the community, particularly in
Manipur.
● Marubo tribes live in the upper Amazon Basin, along the Ituí River in Brazil. They are a 2,000-member
tribe. They were first contacted by rubber tappers in the 19th century. Their language is a member of the Pano
family. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● The Imazighen or Berbers are a diverse ethnic group indigenous to the Maghreb region of North Africa, where
they mostly live in scattered communities across parts of Morocco, Algeria and Libya. So, pair 3 is correctly
matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q79.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was established in 2020, when India, Sri Lanka and the Maldives
agreed to expand the scope of their trilateral meeting on maritime cooperation.
● The existing members of CSC are India, Sri Lanka, Mauritius, and the Maldives. Recently Bangladesh has
been officially included into the grouping. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
● In the 2024 meet, Seychelles participated as an observer state. So, point 5 is not correct.
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 ● In the recent meeting, the member states reviewed the progress of activities outlined in the CSC’s Roadmap for
2023-2024.
● The CSC’s core objective is to promote regional security by addressing transnational threats and
challenges of common concern to the Member States.

Points to Remember:

There are five pillars of cooperation under the CSC

namely:
● Maritime Safety and Security;
● Countering Terrorism and Radicalisation;
● Combating Trafficking and Transnational
Organised Crime;
● Cyber Security and Protection of Critical
Infrastructure and Technology;
● Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief.
So, only four of the above countries are the members of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Member States of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) signed the Charter and the MoU for
the Establishment of the CSC Secretariat.

Q80.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Nord Stream consists of two pipelines, which have two
lines each. Nord Stream 1 was completed in 2011 and
runs from Vyborg in Leningrad to Lubmin near
Greifswald, Germany. Nord Stream 2 which runs
from Ust-Luga in Saint Petersburg (Russia) to Lubmin
(Germany) was completed in 2021.
● The twin pipelines together can transport a
combined total of 110 billion cubic metres (bcm) of
gas a year to Europe for at least 50 years.
● The Nord Stream crosses the Exclusive Economic Zones
(EEZs) of several countries including Russia, Finland,
Sweden, Denmark and Germany, and the
territorial waters of Russia, Denmark, and
Germany. So, points 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
● In Germany, the pipeline connects to the OPAL (Baltic Sea Pipeline) and NEL (North European Pipeline)
which further connects to the European grid.
● It does not pass through the EEZ of Ukraine. So, point 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Wall Street Journal has reported that a team of Ukrainian patriots sabotaged the Nordic Gas
Pipeline.
Subject: Geography | Mapping
Tags: Factual

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Q81.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Regenerative agriculture: It promotes the health of degraded soils by restoring their organic carbon. It
sequesters atmospheric carbon dioxide, reversing industrial agriculture’s contributions to climate change.
Regenerative agriculture practices such as no till farming and cover cropping are reducing erosion and
water pollution, and in turn, producing healthier soils.
● It strives to work with nature rather than against it. Regenerative agriculture is more than just being sustainable.
It is about reversing degradation and building up the soil to make it healthier than its current state.
● Common Practices in Regenerative Agriculture are:
○ Planting crops using no-till, which minimises disturbance to the soil
○ Incorporating cover crops and other diverse mixtures of forage species into monoculture crops
and perennial introduced grasses
○ Decreasing use of fertilisers and pesticides
○ Using Adaptive Multi-Paddock grazing (AMP or adaptive grazing) — moving cattle and other
pastured animals (sheep, goats, turkeys, bison, pigs) through smaller sections of the overall land and
allowing grazed land adequate rest and recovery.
○ A major goal of regenerative agriculture is to make actual, measured improvements to soil health.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Andhra Pradesh’s natural farming model won the Gulbenkian Prize recently.

Q82.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Guam is an island and unincorporated territory of the
United States of America in the North Pacific Ocean. It is
the largest, most populous, and southernmost of the Mariana
Islands. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.

● Bermuda is a self-governing British overseas territory in

the western North Atlantic Ocean. It is an archipelago of 7 main
islands and about 170 additional (named) islets and rocks,
situated about 650 miles (1,050 km) east of Cape Hatteras
(North Carolina, U.S.). So, pair 2 is correctly matched.

● Reunion is an island of the Mascarene Islands that is a

French overseas department and overseas region. It is located
in the western Indian Ocean about 420 miles (680 km) east of
Madagascar. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

● Canary Islands are an autonomous community of Spain, consisting of an archipelago in the Atlantic Ocean,
the nearest island being 67 miles (108 km) off the northwest African mainland. So, pair 4 is not correctly
matched.
So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) 2024:

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 ● It is a biennial exercise designed to foster and sustain cooperative relationships, critical to
ensuring the safety of sea lanes and security in support of a free and open Indo-Pacific region.
● The exercise, which takes place in the waters surrounding the Hawaiian Islands, is a unique
training platform designed to enhance interoperability and strategic maritime partnerships.
● RIMPAC 2024 is the 29th exercise in the series that began in 1971. As the world’s largest
international maritime exercise, RIMPAC combines force capabilities in a dynamic maritime
environment to demonstrate enduring interoperability across the full spectrum of military
operations.
● The theme of RIMPAC 2024 is “Partners: Integrated and Prepared.”
Relevance: INS Shivalik reached Guam for an Operational Turnaround on successful completion of the recently
concluded world’s largest Multinational Maritime Exercise RIMPAC 2024.

Q83.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Revised Model Foster Care Guidelines, 2024:
● Foster care involves placing a child with either extended family members or unrelated individuals temporarily.
Eligible children for foster care in India are typically over the age of six, residing in childcare institutions, and
without suitable guardians.
● The Union Ministry of Women and Child Development (WCD) has broadened the scope of foster care in India
by permitting single individuals — regardless of their marital status — to foster children, with the
option of adoption after two years. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ This change represents a significant departure from the previous regulations, which restricted foster care
to married couples.
● Additionally, the mandatory fostering period before adoption has been reduced from five years to two
years under the revised guidelines. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● For married couples, a stable marital relationship of at least two years is now required before they
can foster a child, a new stipulation added to the previous guidelines. So, statement 3 is correct.
● The revised guidelines also address minors classified as ‘hard to place’ or with ‘special needs.
● Under the updated guidelines, individuals aged between 35 and 60 can now foster children, regardless of
their marital status. This includes those who are unmarried, widowed, divorced, or legally separated.
○ Single women can foster and adopt children of any gender, while single men are restricted to fostering
and adopting male children.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Online registration for foster parents

● Prospective foster parents can now register online through the Child Adoption Resource
Information and Guidance System (CARINGS), a platform previously used by adoptive
parents.
● The guidelines also introduce a dedicated online portal where prospective foster parents can
upload their documents for review by District Child Protection Units.
Relevance: The Women and Child Development (WCD) Ministry has broadened the scope of foster care in India under
the revised guidelines.

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Q84.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● When the moon is at or near its closest point to Earth (perigee) at the same time as it is full, it is
called a “supermoon.” During this event, because the full moon is a little bit closer to us than usual, it appears
especially large and bright in the sky.
● A monthly blue moon occurs when we see the full moon twice in a single month. Also, there is a
seasonal blue moon which occurs when there are four full moons in a single season (spring, summer,
fall and winter) instead of the usual three. The third moon in this lineup is a blue moon.
● The moon does not become blue during a
Super Blue moon event. Super Blue Moon is
just the term for two full moons in a month,
or the third full moon in a season with four.
○ On rare occasions though, tiny particles
in the air ― typically of smoke or dust ―
can scatter away red wavelengths of light,
causing the Moon to appear blue.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Knowledge Box

● The term “supermoon” is used to describe a full Moon that occurs within a day or so of
perigee, so they happen three to four times a year. About 25 percent of all full moons are
supermoons, but only 6 percent of full moons are blue moons (seasonal and monthly).
Relevance: The rare Super Blue Moon will be sighted on August 30.

Q85.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Banni grasslands are located along the northern border of Kachchh district in Gujarat. They consist of two
ecosystems: wetlands and grasslands.
● They are spread across dry and semi-arid land. Banni is the largest grassland in Asia and is home to around 40
different species of grass.
● In 1955, it was declared a “protected forest” under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and in 1998, a state
government resolution handed over the management of the grassland to the forest department.
● It also hosts Narayan Sarovar Sanctuary as one of the last remaining habitat of the cheetah in India.
Traditionally, Banni grasslands were managed following a system of rotational grazing. With the disintegration
of traditional management practices, these grasslands are degrading rapidly due to excessive pressure from
livestock grazing and increased soil salinity leading to invasion of Prosopis juliflora, water scarcity, climate change
and desertification.
● Adverse climatological conditions and high salinity in the soil, however, limit agricultural viability, making
animal husbandry the main source of livelihood here.
● Banni has historically remained a free-grazing land, now supporting the livelihood of around 45,000 people,
most of them belonging to the Maldhari pastoral community.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In a new study, researchers have assessed the suitability of different areas of Banni for sustainable grassland
restoration, considering ecological value to be the primary criterion.

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Q86.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) recently launched the EOS-08 Earth Observation Satellite onboard
the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)-D3. EOS-08 is a first-of-its-kind mission built on a standard ISRO’s
Microsat/IMS-1 bus with a suite of advanced payloads for observation in the IR range, novel GNSS-R Payload and SiC UV
dosimeter.
● The satellite carries a host of new technology developments in satellite mainframe systems like an
Integrated Avionics system - Communication, Baseband, Storage and Positioning (CBSP) Package, Structural panel
embedded with PCB, embedded battery, Micro-DGA (Dual Gimbal Antenna), M-PAA (Phased array antenna) and
Flexible solar panel & Nano star sensor etc for onboard Technology Demonstration. The satellite is slated for
launch by the SSLV-D3.
● The satellite carries three payloads, namely Electro Optical Infrared Payload (EOIR), SAC, Global Navigation
Satellite System- Reflectometry payload (GNSS-R), SAC and SiC UV Dosimeter, LEOS.
○ The EOIR payload is to image in the Mid-Wave IR (MIR) band and long-wave IR (LWIR) band during day
and night for various applications like Satellite-based surveillance, Disaster Monitoring, Environmental
Monitoring, Fire Detection, Volcanic activities and Industrial and power plant disaster. So, statement 1
is correct.
○ GNSS-R payload is to demonstrate the capability of using GNSS-R-based remote sensing to derive
applications like Ocean Surface Winds, Soil moisture, Cryosphere applications over the Himalayan Region,
Flood detection, In-land water body detection, etc. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ SiC UV Dosimeter is to monitor the UV irradiance at the View Port of the Crew Module in Gaganyaan
Mission and to be used as a high-dose alarm sensor for UV Radiation. So, statement 3 is correct.
● The spacecraft mission configuration is set to operate in a Circular Low Earth Orbit (LEO) at an altitude
of 475 km with an inclination of 37.4° and has a mission life of 1 year. Also onboard was the SR-0 DEMOSAT
developed by Space Kidz India which was also placed in the intended orbit.
● The SSLV is capable of launching Mini, Micro or Nanosatellites (10 to 500kg mass) into a 500 km planar
orbit. SSLV is a three-stage launch vehicle with all solid propulsion stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity
Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage.
● According to ISRO, the design drivers of SSLV are low cost, low turn-around time, flexibility in
accommodating multiple satellites, launch-on-demand feasibility, minimal launch infrastructure requirements,
etc.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) recently launched the EOS-08 Earth Observation Satellite
onboard the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)-D3.

Q87.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) is a global member-owned
cooperative and the world’s leading provider of secure financial messaging services.
○ It was established in 1973 in Belgium and owned by the banks and other member firms that use its service.
○ It provides the main messaging network through which international payments are initiated.
○ It is overseen by the G-10 central banks (Belgium, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, The
Netherlands, United Kingdom, United States, Switzerland, and Sweden), as well as the European Central
Bank, with its lead overseer being the National Bank of Belgium. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.

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 ○ It works by assigning each member institution a unique ID code (a BIC number) that identifies the bank
name and the country, city, and branch.
○ It has been used to impose economic sanctions on Iran (2012), Russia (2023), and Belarus (2022).
● System for Transfer of Financial Messages is a Russian equivalent of the SWIFT financial transfer system,
developed by the Central Bank of Russia. It was established due to the sanctions on Russia. So, pair 4 is not
correctly matched.
● Structured Financial Messaging System (SFMS) is a secure messaging standard developed to serve as a
platform for intra-bank and inter-bank applications. It is an Indian standard similar to SWIFT, launched in 2001.
SFMS is an EDI (Electronic Data Intervention) for banks and it uses INFINET (Indian Financial Network) as the
communication medium. Various intrabank applications can make use of SFMS to improve efficiency and speed in
fund transfer, MIS reports, information reports, etc. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● The Cross-border Interbank Payment System (CIPS) is a Chinese payment system that offers clearing and
settlement services for its participants in cross-border renminbi payments and trade. It is backed by the People's
Bank of China and was launched in 2015 as part of a policy effort to internationalize the use of China’s currency.
So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications (SWIFT), the global specialist in financial
transactions, is launching an artificial intelligence-driven pilot project with Axis Bank to help combat payments fraud
occurring in cross-border payments.

Q88.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Global South is not a geographical term. Many countries included in the Global South are in the
northern hemisphere, such as India, China and all of those in the northern half of Africa. So, option (a) is
not correct.
● Australia and New Zealand, both are in the southern hemisphere but they are not part of the Global South.
So, option (b) is not correct.
● The Brandt Line was proposed by former German Chancellor Willy Brandt in the 1980s as a visual depiction
of the north-south divide based upon per-capita GDP.
● Most commonly the term refers to the countries belonging to the Group of 77 at the United
Nations, which, confusingly, is today actually a coalition of 134 countries. So, option (c) is correct.
● They're primarily considered developing countries, but also include China - about which there is some debate
- and several wealthy Gulf states. So, option (d) is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Global North:
● It is generally agreed that the Global North would include the United States of America,
Canada, England, nations of the European Union, as well as Singapore, Japan, South
Korea, and even some countries in the southern hemisphere: Australia, and New Zealand.
● Like prior attempts to characterise nations, the Global North/South distinction simplifies the
world order, ignoring internal variation within both the North and South, while negating
commonalities that exist between these large and diverse entities.
Relevance: The third Voice of Global South Summit was recently hosted by India in the virtual format.

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Q89.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The claim of China to the South China Sea is based
in history, dating back to records from the Xia and
Han dynasties. The Nine-dash line is the boundary
of the South China Sea as claimed by China.
● Different parts of the South China Sea are claimed by
China, Taiwan, Vietnam, the Philippines,
Malaysia, and Brunei. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4
are correct.
Growing tension in recent years:
● In particular, China's sweeping claims - which include
sovereignty claims over land parcels and their
adjacent waters - have angered competing claimants
like Vietnam, the Philippines, Taiwan, Malaysia and
Brunei.
○ The other countries have staked claims on
islands and various zones in the sea, such as
the Paracels and the Spratlys.
● Laos is a landlocked country in Southeast Asia,
meaning it has no direct access to the sea. It is not
involved in the territorial dispute over the South China Sea. So, point 5 is not correct.
So, only four of the above countries claim their sovereignty over the various parts of the South China Sea.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Kuril Islands:
● These islands are controlled by Russia and claimed by Japan. The dispute over this volcano-
intensive archipelago of 56 islands is the primary reason Japan and Russia have never signed a
peace treaty to formalize the end of World War II.
● At the end of the war, the Soviet Union invaded the Kuril Islands, some of which Imperial Russia
had previously controlled.
● While the transfer of the islands to the Soviet Union was included in the Yalta agreements,
Japan continued to claim historical rights to the southernmost islands.
Senkaku Islands:
● Ties between China and Japan have been strained by a territorial row over a group of islands,
known as the Senkaku islands in Japan and the Diaoyu islands in China located in the East China
Sea.
Spratly Islands:
● These are a large group of reefs, shoals, atolls, and small islets in the South China Sea of the
Pacific Ocean.
● They are located north of Malaysia and are roughly midway between Vietnam and the
Philippines.
● They are claimed in their entirety by China, Taiwan, and Vietnam, while portions are claimed
by Malaysia and the Philippines.

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Relevance: China's bullying tactics in the South China Sea are endangering regional stability and harming the livelihoods
of Filipino fishermen.

Q90.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The science of animal self-medication is called zoopharmacognosy, derived from the roots zoo
(“animal”), pharma (“drug”), and gnosy (“knowing”). It’s not clear how much knowing or learning is involved, but
many animals seem to have evolved an innate ability to detect the therapeutic constituents in plants. Although the
evidence is entirely circumstantial, the examples are plentiful.
● Birds, bees, lizards, elephants, and chimpanzees all share this survival trait of self-medication. These
animals eat things that make them feel better, or prevent disease, or kill parasites like flatworms, bacteria, and
viruses, or just to aid in digestion. Even creatures with brains the size of pinheads somehow know to ingest certain
plants or use them in unusual ways when they need them.
○ For example, chimpanzees in the wild have been observed eating specific leaves that have medicinal
properties to treat parasitic infections.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Ethnobotany: The study of the relationships between people and plants, focusing on how
different cultures use plants for medicinal, nutritional, and ceremonial purposes.
● Phytotherapy: The use of plant-based remedies for the treatment of medical conditions in
humans and animals.
● Ethnopharmacology: The study of how different cultures use natural substances, particularly
plants, for medicinal purposes, focusing on the pharmacological aspects.
Relevance: An orangutan in Indonesia has been observed using a plant paste to treat a wound on its face, according to a
new study published in the journal Nature.

Q91.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Government of India has actively promoted blending ethanol with petrol through the Ethanol Blended
Petrol (EBP) Programme, where Public Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) sell ethanol-blended petrol.
Key Facets of EBP Programme:
● OMCs aim to achieve a 20% ethanol blending target by the end of the Ethanol Supply Year (ESY) 2025-26.
So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Approximately 1,100 crore litres of ethanol will be needed to reach this 20% blending target. To meet the blending
requirement and other uses, 1,750 crore litres of ethanol distillation capacity need to be installed.
● The Government is promoting 2nd-generation (2G) Ethanol, which is derived from surplus biomass,
agricultural waste, and industrial waste using advanced biofuel technology. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The “Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana” was launched
in 2019, to provide financial assistance for 2G bio-ethanol projects. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Generations of Biofuels:

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 ● Biofuel is any fuel that is derived from biomass—that is, plant or algae or animal waste. Since
such feedstock material can be replenished readily, biofuel is considered to be a source of
renewable energy, unlike fossil fuels such as petroleum, coal, and natural gas.
● First-generation biofuel: They are produced from food crops.
● Second-generation biofuels: They are derived from low-value biomass that possesses a high
cellulose content, including wood chips, crop residues, rice & wheat straw/corn cobs &
Stover/bagasse, woody biomass, municipal waste etc.
● Third-generation biofuels: They are obtained by the use of algae and cyanobacteria. Some
estimates state that algae and cyanobacteria could yield between 10 and 100 times more fuel
per unit area than second-generation biofuels.
● Fourth-generation biofuels: They combine genetically optimized feedstocks, which are
designed to capture large amounts of carbon, with genomically synthesized microbes, which are
made to efficiently make fuels.
○ Key to the process is the capture and sequestration of CO2, a process that renders
fourth-generation biofuels a carbon negative source of fuel.
○ Plant-based biofuels in principle make little net contribution to global warming and
climate change; the carbon dioxide (a major greenhouse gas) that enters the air during
combustion will have been removed from the air earlier as growing plants engage in
photosynthesis. Such a material is said to be “carbon neutral.”
Relevance: Since the inception of the EBP Programme, ethanol blending has increased from 38 crore litres in the Ethanol
Supply Year (ESY) 2013-14 to over 500 crore litres in ESY 2022-23.

Q92.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Polymer nanoparticles are solid particles made from macromolecular polymers, with sizes ranging from 10 to
1000 nm.
● These nanoparticles can shield encapsulated macromolecules from enzymatic degradation and alter the
dynamic behavior and tissue distribution of the drugs they carry in vivo.
Nikkomycin-loaded Nanoparticles:
● Scientists have utilised Nikkomycin, a chitin synthesis inhibitor produced by Streptomyces bacteria, and
loaded it onto polymeric nanoparticles to target fungal infections.
● Chitin, the main component of fungal cell walls, is absent in the human body, making it an ideal target
for antifungal drugs. The nanoparticle-based delivery system leverages this difference to disrupt fungal growth.
Effectiveness against Aspergillosis:
● The formulation has shown significant effectiveness against Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus fumigatus, the fungi
responsible for pulmonary aspergillosis.
● The nanoparticle-based drug delivery system inhibits fungal growth without causing cytotoxic (cell-
damaging) or hemolytic (red blood cell-damaging) effects, making it a safer treatment option.
Potential applications:
● The method is particularly beneficial for patients with conditions like asthma, cystic fibrosis, HIV, cancer,
or those on long-term corticosteroid therapy, who are at higher risk of fungal infections.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A team of scientists have used a chitin synthesis fungicide, Nikkomycin, produced by the bacterial
Streptomyces spp. to develop antifungal drugs.

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Q93.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● In the early 1960s, Hayflick discovered that cell division in somatic (non-reproductive) cells stopped
after roughly 40-60 times.
● This cessation in cell division is what Hayflick posited causes aging, as senescent cells (those that have
stopped dividing) accumulate, one’s body begins to age and decline.
● This means that there is an in-built cellular clock in the human body (and that of other organisms)
which determines how long one can live.
● This “ultimate Hayflick limit”, as scientists have termed it, is around 125 years for humans, beyond which no
amount of diet, exercise, or even genetic tweaking against diseases can extend the human lifespan.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Biomedical researcher Leonard Hayflick, who discovered that normal somatic cells can divide (and thus
reproduce) only a certain number of times, died on August 1 at the age of 98.

Q94.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● In quantum physics, Nonlocality describes the apparent ability of objects to instantaneously know about
each other’s state, even when separated by large distances (potentially even billions of light years), almost as if
the universe at large instantaneously arranges its particles in anticipation of future events. So, statement 2 is
correct.
● Thus, in the quantum world, despite what Einstein had established about the speed of light being the maximum
speed for anything in the universe, instantaneous action or transfer of information does appear to be possible.
Thus, quantum nonlocality appears to violate the classical idea that information or influence cannot
travel faster than the speed of light. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Nonlocality occurs due to the phenomenon of entanglement, whereby particles that interact with each
other become permanently correlated, or dependent on each other’s states and properties, to the extent that
they effectively lose their individuality and, in many ways, behave as a single entity.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Scientists have demonstrated that a universal standard for measuring and quantifying non-local quantum
correlations is not possible.

Q95.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The “2+2” dialogue is a format of meeting of the Foreign and Defence Ministers of India and its allies on
strategic and security issues. It enables the partners to better understand and appreciate each other’s strategic
concerns and sensitivities taking into account political factors on both sides, in order to build a stronger, more
integrated strategic relationship in a rapidly changing global environment.
● India has 2+2 dialogues with seven key strategic partners: the United States of America, Australia, Japan,
United Kingdom (UK), Republic of Korea, Brazil and Russia. So, points 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
○ The '2+2' dialogue with Japan was initiated in 2019 to further deepen bilateral security and defence
cooperation and bring greater depth to the special strategic and global partnership between the two
countries.
○ The inaugural 2+2 dialogue with Australia was held in 2021. India held its first 2+2 dialogue with Russia
in 2021. India and Brazil discussed expanding cooperation in various key areas at their first '2+2' dialogue
in Delhi, in 2024.
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 ○ The first India-Republic of Korea 2+2 Bilateral Dialogue was held in 2021. Also, the inaugural India-UK
2+2 Foreign and Defence Dialogue was held in New Delhi in 2023.
○ India established the "2+2" dialogue format with the United States of America in September 2018.
● India does not currently have a formal "2+2 Ministerial Dialogue" with France, although the two
countries maintain a strong strategic partnership and have significant defence, security and diplomatic cooperation.
So, point 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In a recent '2+2' dialogue India asks Japan to remove bottlenecks in tech sharing.

Q96.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● TnpB is one of the proteins found in bacteria which is associated with transposable elements or "jumping genes,"
which are segments of DNA that can move within the genome.
● Recently, TnpB is being explored by scientists as a tool for genome editing in plants. It is similar to CRISPR
but smaller and more efficient. The key issue with traditional CRISPR systems such as Cas9 and Cas12 is their
large size which makes them hard to use in plant genomes.
● TnpB, derived from bacteria like Deinococcus Radiodurans, is significantly smaller, allowing scientists to edit plant
DNA more easily and precisely. It hitches a ride on a piece of RNA that guides it to the target DNA sequence.
Once there the TnpB binds with the sequence and eliminates it. The cell that houses this DNA repairs the cut by
restoring the ‘correct’ sequence. Thus, the genome is modified to replace an undesirable sequence with a desirable
one.
● This enables the introduction of desirable traits, such as improving crop yields, resistance to diseases, and
other agricultural benefits. Recent studies have shown that TnpB can successfully modify both monocot and dicot
plants, paving the way for more efficient genetic engineering in agriculture.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent studies have shown that TnpB could solve the major problem in plant genome editing.

Q97.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The International Criminal Court (ICC) is an independent international tribunal established in 2002 by the
Rome Statute (1998). It investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of
concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of
aggression.
● According to the Rome Statute, the ICC may exercise its functions and powers, as provided in the
Rome Statute, on the territory of any State Party and, by special agreement, on the territory of any other State.
So, statement 1 is correct.
● While the United Nations (UN) plays a role in supporting the ICC and promoting its work, it does not have
direct control over the court's operations. The ICC is an independent international court with its
own jurisdiction and procedures, established by the Rome Statute. The ICC has a cooperation agreement
with the United Nations. When a situation is not within the Court’s jurisdiction, the United Nations Security
Council can refer the situation to the ICC granting it jurisdiction. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● India is not a member of the International Criminal Court (ICC). Ever since the passage of the Rome
Statute of ICC in 1998, India’s policy towards the ICC has been clear and consistent and that it refuses to join the
ICC on grounds that it lacks prudent safeguards against political manipulation, possesses sweeping authority
without accountability to the U.N. Security Council, and violates national sovereignty by claiming jurisdiction over
the nationals and military personnel of non-party states in some circumstances. So, statement 4 is correct.
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 ● The ICC does not try individuals in ‘Absentia’ and a member state is obligated to arrest any individual under ICC
arrest warrant who is present on its territory. ICC requires the accused to be present in the courtroom
for their trial. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Rome Statute:

● It is an international treaty that established the International Criminal Court (ICC),

which is tasked with prosecuting individuals for crimes such as genocide, war crimes, crimes
against humanity, and the crime of aggression.
● It was adopted on July 17, 1998, at a diplomatic conference in Rome and entered into force on
July 1, 2002.
● It outlines the responsibilities of states in cooperating with the ICC, including arresting
suspects and providing evidence.

Relevance: Ukraine's Parliament has voted recently to join the International Criminal Court.

Q98.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Jan Poshan Kendra Initiative was launched by the Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public
Distribution. The Fair Price Shops (FPS), known as ration shops, will be renamed as ‘Jan Poshan
Kendra’. These Kendra’s will offer a diverse range of nutrition-rich food items to consumers as well as provide
an additional source of income to the FPS dealers. These Kendra’s will also have provision for storing 50%
products under the category of nutrition while the rest for keeping other household items.
● Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has developed ‘FPS-Sahay,’ an on-demand Invoice Based
Financing (IBF) application designed to offer completely paperless, presence-less, collateral-free, cash flow-based
financing to FPS dealers.
● This initiative has introduced the Quality Management System (QMS), a digital application for integration of
Quality Control Labs in Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) & Food Corporation
of India (FCI). The digital QMS is a vital tool for the Quality Control Labs which is able to capture all key
transactions in real time during the stages of procurement, storage and distribution.
● DFPD has formulated a comprehensive Handbook of Quality Control that gives a precise description of the
various procedures, standards, roadmap and policies to be adopted for ensuring strict quality standards of central
pool foodgrains.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution has launched a pilot project to turn 60 Fair
Price Shops into 'Jan Poshan Kendras’.

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Q99.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Disaster Resilient Infrastructure for Power Sector (DRIPS) is an online portal launched by the Union
Ministry of Power to enable transparent, coordinated and effective working of the power sector in the country
during any adverse situations such as cyclones, floods, etc. It would allow for rapid identification and deployment
of necessary resources, ensuring that power sector disruptions are addressed promptly and efficiently in a
disaster situation. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
● PARIVESH 2.0: It is an updated version of PARIVESH, a Single-Window Integrated Environmental
Management portal launched by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in 2018. It will
provide a seamless experience across all major clearances by completely automating the modern
technologies which further increases its efficiency and decision making without compromising on the
environmental rigors. It serves as a single window platform for environmental clearance for various
projects. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● She-Box: It was launched by the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development to facilitate women
employees with a centralized platform for registering and monitoring complaints of sexual harassment at the
workplace. It serves as a centralized repository of information related to Internal Committees (ICs) and
Local Committees (LCs) formed across the country, encompassing both the government and private sectors.
It offers a common platform to file complaints, track their status and ensure a time-bound processing
of complaints by ICs. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Government of India announced the last date for declaring exotic animals under Schedule IV of
Wild Life Protection Act.

Q100.
Answer: a
Explanation:
FinTech companies, or financial technology companies, leverage technology to provide innovative financial services and
solutions. They operate in various sectors of finance, enhancing traditional financial services through digital platforms.
● The primary responsibility for licensing and regulating FinTech companies in India lie with the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI). As the central banking authority, the RBI oversees various aspects of financial regulation, including:
The RBI regulates the FinTech companies in the following ways:

● It issues licenses to entities providing financial services, such as digital payments, lending platforms, and prepaid
payment instruments (like wallets).
● It establishes guidelines and regulations to ensure the safety and security of financial transactions, protect
consumer interests, and promote financial inclusion.
● It regulates payment aggregators and gateways, ensuring compliance with the Payment and Settlement
Systems Act, 2007.
● It has introduced specific guidelines for digital lending platforms to enhance transparency, prevent predatory
lending practices, and ensure consumer protection.
● It mandates Know Your Customer (KYC) and Anti-Money Laundering (AML) requirements that FinTech
firms must adhere to, ensuring compliance with national and international regulations.
● It plays a key role in safeguarding consumer interests by monitoring practices within the FinTech sector and
addressing grievances.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO):

● A Self-Regulatory Organisation (SRO) for the fintech sector is an industry-led body
that acts as a bridge between fintech companies and regulators, operating under the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) oversight.
● According to the draft framework issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for SROs, the SRO
should be a not-for-profit company registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013.
● The SRO functions as an industry association for Fintech companies, and as an association, it
must facilitate communication between the industry and the RBI. Some of the responsibilities
of an SRO are to:
○ Ensure compliance with statutory and regulatory frameworks, adherence to
industry standards and best practices, and transparent communication with RBI.
○ Act as the collective voice of FinTech entities in engagements with the Reserve Bank.
○ Addresses the larger concerns of the FinTech sector and functions beyond the self-
interest of specific members.
Relevance: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India has recognized the Fintech Association for Consumer Empowerment
(FACE) as a Self-Regulatory Organisation in the FinTech sector (SRO-FT).

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 UPSC PRELIMS MOCK OMR ANSWER SHEET
DATE : TEST SUBJECT - .............................................................................

TEST NUMBER - ..................

Questions Attempted ____ Total Marks ____ Time Taken : ____ RESULT
Answers Wrong ____ (-)Negative marking____ Time Left : ____
Marks Obtained ____