lIELTS-5 TEST-2

Section 2: Questions 11-15

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
BICYCLES FOR THE WORLD
11. In 1993 Dan Pearman went to Ecuador
A as a tourist guide
B as part of his studies
C as a voluntary worker
12. Dan’s neighbour was successful in business because he
A employed carpenters from the area
B was the most skilled craftsman in the town
C found it easy to reach customers
13. Dan says the charity relies on
A getting enough bicycles to send regularly
B finding new areas which need the bicycles
C charging for the bicycles it sends abroad
14. What does Dan say about the town of Rivas?
A It has received the greatest number of bikes
B It has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam
C Its economy has been totally transformed
15. What problem did the charity face in August 2000?
A It couldn’t meet its overheads
B It had to delay sending the bikes
C It was criticized in the British media
IELTS-5 TEST-3
Questions 16-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
16. The speaker says international students at UK universities will be
A offered accommodation with local families.
B given special help by their lecturers.
C expected to work independently.
17. What does the speaker say about university accommodation on campus?
A Most places are given to undergraduates.
B No places are available for postgraduates with families.
C A limited number of places are available for new postgraduates.
18. Students wishing to live off-campus should apply
A several months in advance.
B two or three weeks in advance.
C at the beginning of term.
19. The university accommodation officer will
A send a list of agents for students to contact.
B contact accommodation agencies for students.
C ensure that students have suitable accommodation.
20. With regard to their English, the speaker advises the students to
A tell their lecturers if they have problems understanding.
B have private English lessons when they arrive.
C practise their spoken English before they arrive.
IELTS-5 TEST-4
Questions 25-27
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
25. What does Karin think the company will do?
A look for private investors
B accept a takeover offer
C issue some new shares
26. How does the tutor suggest the company can recover?
A by appointing a new managing director
B by changing the way it is organised
C by closing some of its retail outlets
27. The tutor wants Jason and Karin to produce a report which
A offers solutions to Box Telecom’s problems.
B analyses the UK market.
C compares different companies.
Questions 28-30
Which opinion does each person express about Box Telecom?
Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 28-30.
A its workers are motivated
B it has too little investment
C it will overcome its problems
D its marketing campaign needs improvement
E it is old-fashioned
F it has strong managers
IELTS-6 TEST-1
Section 2:
Questions 11-16
What change has been made to each part of the theatre?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11-16.
Rivenden City Thatre
A doubled in number
B given separate entrance
C reduced in number
D increased in size
E replaced
F strengthened
G temporarily closed
11. box office _______________
12. shop _______________
13. ordinary seats _______________
14. seats for wheelchair users _______________
15. lifts _______________
16. dressing room _______________
Questions 38-40
Which THREE of the following problems are mentioned in connection with 20th century
housing in the East End?
A unsympathetic landlords
B unclean water
C heating problems
D high rents
E overcrowding
F poor standards of building
G houses catching fire
IELTS-6 TEST-2
Questions 18-20
Which THREE attractions can you visit at present by train from Trebirch?
A a science museum
B a theme park
C a climbing wall
D a mining museum
E an aquarium
F a castle
G a zoo
Section 4:
Questions 31-37
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
The History of Moving Pictures
31. Some photographs of a horse running showed
A all feet off the ground
B at least one foot on the ground
C two feet off the ground
32. The Scotsman employed by Edison
A designed a system to use the technology Edison had invited
B used available technology to make a new system
C was already an expert in motion picture technology
33. One major problem with the first system was that
A only one person could be filmed
B people could only see very short films
C the camera was very heavy
34. Rival systems started to appear in Europe after people had
A been told about the American system
B seen the American system
C used the American system
35. In 1895, a famous new system was developed by
A a French team working alone
B a French and German team working together
C a German team who invented the word ‘cinema’
36. Longer films were not made at the time because of problems involving
A the subject matters
B the camera
C the film projector
37. The ‘Lantham Loop’ invention relied on
A removing tension between the film reels
B adding three more films reels to the system
C making one of the film reels more effective
IELTS-6 TEST-3
Section 2:
Question 11-13
Choose the correct letter A, B and C.
The History of Rosewood House
11. When the writer Sebastian George first saw Rosewood House, he
A thought he might rent it
B felt it was too expensive for him
C was unsure whether to buy it
12. Before buying the house. George had
A experienced seevere family problems
B struggled to become a successful author
C suffered a serious illness
13. According to the speaker, George viewed Rosewood House as
A a rich source of material for his books
B a way to escape from his work
C a typical building of the region
Section 4:
Question 31-34
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Ireland In The Neolithic Period

31. According to the speaker, it is not clear

A when the farming economy was introduced to Ireland
B why people began to farm in Ireland
C where the early Irish farmers came from
32. What point does the speaker make about breeding animals in Neolithic Ireland?
A Their numbers must have been above a certain level
B They were under threat from wild animals
C Some species died out during this period
33. What does the speaker say about the transportation of animals?
A Livestock would have limited the distance the farmers could sail
B Neolithic boats were loo primitive to have been used
C Probably only a few breeding animals were imported
34. What is the main evidence for cereal crops in Neolithic Ireland?
A the remains of burnt grain in pots
B the marks left on pots by grains
C the patterns painted on the surface of pots
IELTS-6 TEST-4
Part 2:
Questions 11-13
Which team will do each of the following jobs?
Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-D next to questions 11-13
11. checking entrance tickets ___________
12. preparing refreshments ___________
13. directing car park traffic ___________
Teams
A the blue team
B the yellow team
C the green team
D the red team
Questions 28-30
Choose THREE letters, A-G.
Which THREE topics do this term’s study skills workshops cover?
A An introduction to the Internet
B How to carry out research for a dissertation
C Making good use of the whole range of library services
D Planning a dissertation
E Standard requirements when writing a dissertation
F Using the Internet when doing research
G What books and technical resources are available in the library
Part 4:
Asiatic Lions
Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
31. When did Asiatic lions develop as a separate sub-species?
A about 10,000 years ago
B about 100,000 years ago
C about 1,000,000 years ago
32. Pictures of Asiatic lions can be seen on ancient coins from
A Greece
B The Middle East
C India
33. Asiatic lions disappeared from Europe
A 2,500 years ago
B 2,000 years ago
C 1,900 years ago
34. Very few African lions have
A a long mane
B a coat with varied colours
C a fold of skin on their stomach
IELTS-7 TEST-1
Section 2: Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
11. PS Camping has been organising holidays for
A 15 years
B 20 years
C 25 years
12. The company has most camping sites in
A France
B Italy
C Switzerland
13. Which organised activity can children do every day of the week?
A football
B drama
C model making
14. Some areas of the sites have a ‘no noise’ rule after
A 9.30 p.m
B 10.00 p.m
C 10.30 p.m
15. The holiday insurance that is offered by PS Camping
A can be charged on an annual basis
B is included in the price of the holiday
C must be taken out at the time of booking
16. Customers who recommend PS Camping to friends will receive
A a free gift
B an upgrade to a luxury tent
C a discount
Questions 17-20
What does the speaker say about the following items?
Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 17-20
17. barbeques
18. toys
19. cool boxes
20. mops and buckets
A They are provided in all tents.
B They are found in central areas of the campsite.
C They are available on requests.
Questions 24-27
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
24. Janice thinks that employers should encourage workers who are
A potential leaders
B open to new ideas
C good at teamwork
25. Janice suggests that managers may find it difficult to
A form successful groups
B balance conflicting needs
C deal with uncooperative workers
26. Janice believes employers should look for job applicants who
A can think independently
B will obey the system
C can solve problems
27. Janice believes managers should
A demonstrate good behavior
B encourage co-operation early on
C increase financial incentives
IELTS-7 TEST-2
Section 3: Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
21. The Antarctic Centre was established in Christchurch because
A New Zealand is a member of the Antarctic Treaty
 B Christchurch is geographically well positioned
C the climate of Christchurch is suitable
22. One role of the Antarctic Centre is to
A provide expeditions with suitable equipment
B provide researchers with financial assistance
C ensure that research is internationally relevant
23. The purpose of the Visitors’ Centre is to
A provide accommodation
B run training sessions
C show people what Antarctica is like
24. Dr Merrywhether says that Antarctica is
A unlike any other country
B extremely beautiful
C too cold for tourists
25. According to Dr Merrywhether, Antarctica is very cold because
A of the shape of the continent
B it is surrounded by a frozen sea
C it is an extremely dry continent
26. Dr Merrywhether thinks Antarctica was part of another continent because
A he has done his own research in the area
B there is geological evidence of this
C it is very close to South America
Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO achievements of the Antarctic Treaty are mentioned by the speakers?
A no military use
B animals protected
C historic sites reserved
D no nuclear testing
E fishing rites protected
IELTS-7 TEST-3
Section 2:
Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
SPONSORED WALKING HOLIDAY
11. On the holiday, you will be walking for
A 6 days
B 8 days
C 10 days
12. What proportion of the sponsorship money goes to charity?

13. Each walker’s sponsorship money goes to one

A student
B teacher
C school
14. When you start the trek you must be
A interested in getting fit
B already quite fit
C already very fit
15. As you walk you will carry
A all of your belongings
B some of your belongings
C none of your belongings
16. The Semira Region has a long tradition of
A making carpets
B weaving blankets
C carving wood
Questions 26-30
In what time period can data from the float projects help with the following things?
Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 26-30.
26. understanding of El Nino
27. understanding of climate change
28. naval rescues
29. sustainable fishing practices
30. crop selection
A At present
B In the near future
C In the long term future
Section 4:
Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Hotels and Tourist Industry
31. According to the speaker, how might a guest feel when staying in a luxury hotel?
A impressed with the facilities
B depressed by the experience
C concerned at the high costs
32. According to recent research, luxury hotels overlook the need to
A provide for the demands of important guests
B create a comfortable environment
C offer an individual and personal welcome
33. The company focused their research on
A a wide variety of hotels
B large, luxury hotel chains
C exotic holiday hotels
34. What is the impact of the outside environment on a hotel guest?
A It has a considerable effect
B It has a very limited effect
C It has no effect whatsoever
IELTS-7 TEST-4
Section 2: Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
11. What kind of tour is Sally leading?
A a bus tour
B a train tour
C a walking tour
12. The original buildings on the site were
A houses
B industrial buildings
C shops
13. The local residents wanted to use the site for
A leisure
B apartment blocks
C a sports centre
14. The Tower is at the centre of the
A nature reserve
B formal gardens
C Bicentennial Park
Section 4: Questions 31-33
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)
31. The speaker says the main topic of the lecture is
A the history of monosodium glutamate
B the way monosodium glutamate works
C where monosodium glutamate is used
32. In 1908, scientists in Japan
A made monosodium glutamate
B began using kombu
C identified glutamate
33. What change occurred in the manufacture of glutamate in 1956?
A It began to be manufactured on a large scale
B The Japanese began extracting it from natural sources
C It became much more expensive to produce
IELTS-8 TEST-1
Questions 16-18
Choose THREE letter A-G.
Which THREE things can students have with them in the museum?
A food
B water
C cameras
D books
E bags
F pens
G worksheets
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO activities can students do after the tour at present?
A build model dinosaurs
B watch films
C draw dinosaurs
D find dinosaur eggs
E play computer games
Section 3:
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Field Trip Proposal
21. The tutor thinks that Sandra’s proposal
A should be re-ordered in some parts
B needs a contents page
C ought to include more information
22. The proposal would be easier to follow if Sandra
A inserted subheadings
B used more paragraphs
C shortened her sentences
23. What was the problem with the formatting on Sandra’s proposal?
A Separate points were not clearly identified
B The headings were not always clear
C Page numbering was not used in an appropriate way
24. Sandra became interested in visiting the Navajo National Park through
A articles she read
B movies she saw as a child
C photographs she found on the internet
Questions 25-27
Choose THREE letters A-G
Which THREE topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal?
A climate change
B field trip activities
C geographical features
D impact of tourism
E myths and legends
F plant and animal life G social history
IELTS-8 TEST-2
Part 2: Question 11
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
11. According to the speaker, the main purposes of the park are
A education and entertainment
B research and education
C research and entertainment
Questions 15-20
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
15. When are the experimental areas closed to the public?
A all the year round
B almost all the year
C a short time every year
16. How can you move around the park?
A by tram, walking or bicycle
B by solar car or bicycle
C by bicycle, walking or bus
17. The rare breed animals kept in the park include
A hens and horses
B goats and cows
C goats and hens
18. What is the main purpose of having the Rare Breeds Section?
A to save unusual animals
B to keep a variety of breeds
C to educate the public
19. What can you see in the park at the present time?
A the arrival of wild birds
B fruit tree blossom
C a demonstration of fishing
20. The shop contains books about
A animals
B local traditions
C the history of the park
Part 3: Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Honey Bees in Australia
21. Where in Australia have Asian honey bees been found in the past?
A Queensland
B New South Wales
C several states
22. A problem with Asian honey bees is that they
A attack native bees
B carry parasites
C damage crops
23. What point is made about Australian bees?
A Their honey varies in quality
B Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers
C They are sold to customers abroad
24. Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia,
A the country’s economy would be affected
B they could be used in the study of allergies
C certain areas of agriculture would benefit
IELTS-8 TEST-3
Questions 9 and 10
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO facilities in the district of Devon Close are open to the public at the moment?
A museum
B concert hall
C cinema
D sports centre
E swimming pool
Section 3:
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Latin American Studies
21. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted
A to teach English there
B to improve his Spanish
C to learn about Latin American life
22. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in?
A construction
B agriculture
C tourism
23. Why did Paul change from one project to another?
A His first job was not well organized
B He found doing the routine work very boring
C The work was too physically demanding
24. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to
A respect family life
B develop trust
C use money wisely
25. What does Paul say about his project manager?
A He let Paul do most of the work
B His plans were too ambitious
C He was very supportive of Paul
26. Paul was surprised to be given
A a computer to use
B so little money to live on
C an extension to his contract
Questions 27-30
What does Paul decide about each of the following modules?
Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 27-30.
Module
27. Gender studies in Latin America ____________
28. Second language acquisition ____________
29. Indigenous women’s lives ____________
30. Portuguese language studies ____________
A He will do this.
B He might do this.
C He won’t do this.
IELTS-8 TEST-4
Section 2: Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Improvements to Red Hill Suburb
11. Community groups are mainly concerned about
A pedestrian safety
B traffic jams
C increased pollution
12. It has been decided that the overhead power lines will be
A extended
B buried
C repaired
13. The expenses related to the power lines will be paid by
A the council
B the power company
C local businesses
Section 3: Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters A-E.
In which TWO ways is Dan financing his course?
A He is receiving money from the government
B His family are willing to help him
C The college is giving him a small grant
D His local council is supporting him for a limited period
E A former employer is providing partial funding
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO reasons does Jeannie give for deciding to leave some college clubs?
A She is not sufficiently challenged
B The activity interferes with her studies
C She does not have enough time
D The activity is too demanding physically
E She does not think she is any good at the activity
Section 4: Questions 31-36
Australian Aboriginal Rock Paintings
Which painting styles have the following features?
Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 31-36.
Features
31. figures revealing bones ___________
32. rounded figures ___________
33. figures with parts missing ___________
34. figures smaller than life size ___________
35. sea creatures ___________
36. plants ___________
Painting Styles
A Dynamic
B Yam
C Modern
IELTS-9 TEST-1
Questions 17 and 18
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
17. A champion athlete will be in the shop
A on Saturday morning only
B all day Saturday
C for the whole weekend
18. The first person to answer 20 quiz questions correctly will win
A gym membership
B a video
C a calendar
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO pieces of information does the speaker give about the fitness test?
A You need to reserve a place
B It is free to account holders
C You get advice on how to improve your health
D It takes place in a special clinic
E It is cheaper this month
Cambridge IELTS 9 Listening Test 1- Section 3
Questions 21-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Course Feedback
21. One reason why Spiros felt happy about his marketing presentation was that
A he was not nervous
B his style was good
C the presentation was the best in his group
22. What surprised Hiroko about the other students’ presentations?
A Their presentations were not interesting
B They found their presentations stressful
C They didn’t look at the audience enough
23. After she gave her presentation, Hiroko felt
A delighted
B dissatisfied
C embarrassed
24. How does Spiros feel about his performance in tutorials?
A not very happy
B really pleased
C fairly confident
25. Why can the other students participate so easily in discussions?
A They are polite to each other
B They agree to take turns in speaking
C They know each other well
26. Why is Hiroko feeling more positive about tutorials now?
A She finds the other students’ opinions more interesting
B She is making more of a contribution
C The tutor includes her in the discussion
27. To help her understand lectures, Hiroko
A consulted reference materials
B had extra tutorials with her lecturers
C borrowed lecture notes from other students
28. What does Spiros think of his reading skills?
A He reads faster than he used to
B It still takes him a long time to read
C He tends to struggle with new vocabulary
29. What is Hiroko’s subject area?
A environmental studies
B health education
C engineering
30. Hiroko thinks that in the reading classes the students should
A learn more vocabulary
B read more in their own subject areas
C develop better reading strategies
IELTS-9 TEST-2
Questions 14-16
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Longfield Park
14. As part of Monday’s activity, visitors will
A prepare food with herbs
B meet a well-known herbalist
C dye cloth with herbs
15. For the activity on Wednesday,
A only group bookings are accepted
B visitors should book in advance
C attendance is free
16. For the activity on Saturday, visitors should
A come in suitable clothing
B make sure they are able to stay for the whole day
C tell the rangers before the event what they wish to do
Section 3: Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
 Self-Access Centre
21. Students want to keep the Self-Access Centre because
A they enjoy the variety of equipment
B they like being able to work on their own
C it is an important part of their studies
22. Some teachers would prefer to
A close the Self-Access Centre
B move the Self-Access Centre elsewhere
C restrict access to the Self-Access Centre
23. The students’ main concern about using the library would be
A the size of the library
B difficulty in getting help
C the lack of materials
24. The Director of Studies is concerned about
A the cost of upgrading the centre
B the lack of space in the centre
C the difficulty in supervising the centre
IELTS-9 TEST-3
Section 2: Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
WINRIDGE FOREST RAILWAY PARK
11. Simon’s idea for a theme park came from
A his childhood hobby
B his interest in landscape design
C his visit to another park
12. When they started, the family decided to open the park only when
A the weather was expected to be good
B the children weren’t at school
C there were fewer farming commitments
13. Since opening, the park has had
A 50,000 visitors
B 1,000,000 visitors
C 1,500,000 visitors
Questions 14-18
What is currently the main area of work of each of the following people?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-H next to questions 14-18.
People
14. Simon _______________
15. Liz _______________
16. Sarah _______________
17. Duncan _______________
18. Judith _______________
Area of work
A advertising
B animal care
C building
D educational links
E engine maintenance
F food and drink
G sales
H staffing
IELTS-9 TEST-4
Questions 14-18
Where can each of the following items be found?
Choose FIVE answers from the options and write the correct letter A-G.
Locations
A in box on washing machine
B in cupboard on landing
C in chest of drawers
D next to window in living room
E on shelf of back door
F on top of television
G under kitchen sink
14. Pillows
15. Washing powder
16. Key
17. Light bulbs
18. Map
Section 4: Questions 31-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Wildlife in city gardens
31. What led the group to choose their topic?
A They were concerned about the decline of one species
 B They were interested in the effects of city growth
C They wanted to investigate a recent phenomenon
32. The exact proportion of land devoted to private gardens was confirmed by
A consulting some official documents
B taking large-scale photos
C discussions with town surveyors
33. The group asked garden owners to
A take part in formal interviews
B keep a record of animals they saw
C get in contact when they saw a rare species
34. The group made their observations in gardens
A which had a large number of animal species
B which they considered to be representative
C which had stable populations of rare animals
35. The group did extensive reading on
A wildlife problems in rural areas
B urban animal populations
C current gardening practices
36. The speaker focuses on three animal species because
A a lot of data has been obtained about them
B the group were most interested in them
C they best indicated general trends
IELTS-10 TEST-1
Questions 21 – 25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Global Design Competition
21 Students entering the design competition have to
A produce an energy-efficient design.
B adapt an existing energy-saving appliance.
C develop a new use for current technology.
22 John chose a dishwasher because he wanted to make dishwashers
A more appealing.
B more common.
C more economical.
23 The stone in John’s ‘Rockpool’ design is used
A for decoration.
B to switch it on.
C to stop water escaping.
24 In the holding chamber, the carbon dioxide
A changes back to a gas.
B dries the dishes.
C is allowed to cool.
25 At the end of the cleaning process, the carbon dioxide
A is released into the air.
B is disposed of with the waste.
C is collected ready t be re-used.
IELTS-10 TEST-2
Questions 11 – 14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
New city developments
11 The idea for the two new developments in the city came from
A local people.
B the City Council.
C the SWRDC.
12 What is unusual about Brackenside pool?
A its architectural style
B its heating system
C its method of water treatment
13 Local newspapers have raised worries about
A the late opening date.
B the cost of the project.
C the size of the facilities.
14 What decision has not yet been made about the pool?
A whose statue will be at the door
B the exact opening times
C who will open it
Questions 15-20
Which feature is related to each of the following areas of the world represented in the
playground?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-I, next to questions 15-20
Features
A ancient forts
B waterways
C ice and snow
D jewels
E local animals
F mountains
G music and film
H space travel
I volcanoes
Areas of the world
15 Asia ………….
16 Antarctica ………….
17 South America ………….
18 North America ………….
19 Europe ………….
20 Africa ………….
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO hobbies was Thor Heyerdahl very interested in as a youth?
A camping
B climbing
C collecting
D hunting
E reading
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which do the speakers say are the TWO reasons why Heyerdahl went to live on an island?
A to examine ancient carvings
B to experience an isolated place
C to formulate a new theory
D to learn survival skills
E to study the impact of an extreme environment
Questions 25-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
The later life of Thor Heyerdahl
25 According to Victor and Olivia, academics thought that Polynesian migration from the east
was impossible due to
A the fact that Eastern countries were far away.
B the lack of materials for boat building.
C the direction of the winds and currents.
26 Which do the speakers agree was the main reason for Heyerdahl’s raft journey?
A to overcome a research setback
B to demonstrate a personal quality
C to test a new theory
27 What was most important to Heyerdahl about his raft journey?
A the fact that he was the first person to do it
B the speed of crossing the Pacific
C the use of authentic construction methods
28 Why did Heyerdahl go to Easter Island?
A to build a stone statue
B to sail a reed boat
C to learn the local language
29 In Olivia’s opinion, Heyerdahl’s greatest influence was on
A theories about Polynesian origins.
B the development of archaeological methodology.
C establishing archaeology as an academic subject.
30 Which criticism do the speakers make of William Oliver’s textbook?
A Its style is out of date.
B Its content is over-simplified.
C Its methodology is flawed.
IELTS-10 TEST-3
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO things does Alice say about the Dolphin Conservation Trust?
A Children make up most of the membership.
B It’s the country’s largest conservation organisation.
C It helps finance campaigns for changes in fishing practices.
D It employs several dolphin experts full-time.
E Volunteers help in various ways.
Questions 13-15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
13 Why is Alice so pleased the Trust has won the Charity Commission award?
A It has brought in extra money.
B It made the work of the trust better known.
C It has attracted more members.
14 Alice says oil exploration causes problems to dolphins because of
A noise.
B oil leaks.
C movement of ships.
15 Alice became interested in dolphins when
A she saw one swimming near her home.
B she heard a speaker at her school.
C she read a book about them.
Questions 16-20
Which dolphin does Alice make each of the following comments about?
Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, next to questions 16-20.
Dolphins
A Moondancer
B Echo
C Kiwi
D Samson
Comments
16 It has not been seen this year. …………..
17 It is photographed more than the others. …………..
18 It is always very energetic. …………..
19 It is the newest one in the scheme. …………..
20 It has an unusual shape. …………..
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Theatre Studies Course
21 What helped Rob to prepare to play the character of a doctor?
A the stories his grandfather told him
B the times when he watched his grandfather working
C the way he imagined his grandfather at work
22 In the play’s first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by
A repetition of words and phrases.
B scenery painted in dull colours.
C long pauses within conversations.
23 What has Rob learned about himself through working in a group?
A He likes to have clear guidelines.
B He copes well with stress.
C He thinks he is a good leader.
24 To support the production, research material was used which described
A political developments.
B changing social attitudes.
C economic transformations.
25 What problem did the students overcome in the final rehearsal?
A one person forgetting their words
B an equipment failure
C the injury of one character
Questions 26-30
What action is needed for the following stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30.
Action
A be on time
B get a letter of recommendation
C plan for the final year
D make sure the institution’s focus is relevant
E show ability in Theatre Studies
F make travel arrangements and bookings
G ask for help
Stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option
26 in the second year of the course …………..
27 when first choosing where to go …………..
28 when sending in your choices …………..
29 when writing your personal statement …………..
30 when doing the year abroad …………..
IELTS-10 TEST-4
Questions 11 – 15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
MANHAM PORT
11 Why did a port originally develop at Manham?
A It was safe from enemy attack.
B It was convenient for river transport.
C It had a good position on the sea coast.
12 What caused Manham’s sudden expansion during the Industrial Revolution?
A the improvement in mining techniques
B the increase in demand for metals
C the discovery of tin in the area
13 Why did rocks have to be sent away from Manham to be processed?
A shortage of fuel
B poor transport systems
C lack of skills among local people
14 What happened when the port declined in the twentieth century?
A The workers went away.
B Traditional skills were lost.
C Buildings were used for new purposes.
15 What did the Manham Trust hope to do?
A discover the location of the original port
B provide jobs for the unemployed
C rebuild the port complex
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO skills did Laura improve as a result of her work placement?
A communication
B design
C IT
D marketing
E organisation
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO immediate benefits did the company get from Laura’s work placement?
A updates for its software
B cost savings
C an improved image
D new clients
E a growth in sales
Questions 25-30
What source of information should Tim use at each of the following stages of the work
placement?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 25-30.
Sources of information
A company manager
B company’s personnel department
C personal tutor
D psychology department
E mentor
F university careers officer
G internet
Stages of the work placement procedure
25 obtaining booklet ………….
26 discussing options ………….
27 getting updates ………….
28 responding to invitation for interview ………….
29 informing about outcome of interview ………….
30 requesting a reference ………….
IELTS-11 TEST-1
Questions 21 – 30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Study on Gender in Physics
21 The students in Akira Miyake’s study were all majoring in
A physics.
B psychology or physics.
C science, technology, engineering or mathematics.
22 The aim of Miyake’s study was to investigate
A what kind of women choose to study physics.
B a way of improving women’s performance in physics.
C whether fewer women than men study physics at college.
23 The female physics students were wrong to believe that
A the teachers marked them in an unfair way.
B the male students expected them to do badly.
C their test results were lower than the male students’.
24 Miyake’s team asked the students to write about
A what they enjoyed about studying physics.
B the successful experiences of other people.
C something that was important to them personally.
25 What was the aim of the writing exercise done by the subjects?
A to reduce stress
B to strengthen verbal ability
C to encourage logical thinking
26 What surprised the researchers about the study?
A how few students managed to get A grades
B the positive impact it had on physics results for women
C the difference between male and female performance
27 Greg and Lisa think Miyake’s results could have been affected by
A the length of the writing task.
B the number of students who took part.
C the information the students were given.
28 Greg and Lisa decide that in their own project, they will compare the effects of
A two different writing tasks.
B a writing task with an oral task.
C two different oral tasks.
29 The main finding of Smolinsky’s research was that class teamwork activities
A were most effective when done by all-women groups.
B had no effect on the performance of men or women.
C improved the results of men more than of women.
30 What will Lisa and Greg do next?
A talk to a professor
B observe a science class
C look at the science timetable
IELTS-11 TEST-2
Questions 11 – 20
New staff at theatre
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO changes have been made so far during the refurbishment of the theatre?
A Some rooms now have a different use.
B A different type of seating has been installed.
C An elevator has been installed.
D The outside of the building has been repaired.
E Extra seats have been added.
Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO facilities does the theatre currently offer to the public?
A rooms for hire
B backstage tours
C hire of costumes
D a bookshop
E a café
Questions 15 and 16
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO workshops does the theatre currently offer?
A sound
B acting
C making puppets
D make-up
E lighting
Questions 21 – 26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Rocky Bay field trip
21 What do the students agree should be included in their aims?
A factors affecting where organisms live
B the need to preserve endangered species
C techniques for classifying different organisms
22 What equipment did they forget to take on the Field Trip?
A string
B a compass
C a ruler
23 In Helen’s procedure section, Colin suggests a change in
A the order in which information is given.
B the way the information is divided up.
C the amount of information provided.
24 What do they say about the method they used to measure wave speed?
A It provided accurate results.
B It was simple to carry out.
C It required special equipment.
25 What mistake did Helen make when first drawing the map?
A She chose the wrong scale.
B She stood in the wrong place.
C She did it at the wrong time.
26 What do they decide to do next with their map?
A scan it onto a computer
B check it using photographs
C add information from the internet
Questions 27 and 28
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO problems affecting organisms in the splash zone are mentioned?
A lack of water
B strong winds
C lack of food
D high temperatures
E large waves
Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO reasons for possible error will they include in their report?
A inaccurate records of the habitat of organisms
B influence on behaviour of organisms by observer
C incorrect identification of some organisms
D making generalisations from a small sample
E missing some organisms when counting
IELTS-11 TEST-3
Questions 1 – 6
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Free activities in the Burnham area
1 The ‘Family Welcome’ event in the art gallery begins at
A 10 am.
B 10.30 am.
C 2 pm.
2 The film that is now shown in the ‘Family Welcome’ event is about
A sculpture.
B painting.
C ceramics.
3 When do most of the free concerts take place?
A in the morning
B at lunchtime
C in the evening
4 Where will the 4 pm concert of Latin American music take place?
A in a museum
B in a theatre
C in a library
5 The boat race begins at
A Summer Pool.
B Charlesworth Bridge.
C Offord Marina.
6 One of the boat race teams
A won a regional competition earlier this year.
B has represented the region in a national competition.
C has won several regional competitions.
Questions 11 – 15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Changes in Barford over the last 50 years
11 In Shona’s opinion, why do fewer people use buses in Barford these days?
A The buses are old and uncomfortable.
B Fares have gone up too much.
C There are not so many bus routes.
12 What change in the road network is known to have benefited the town most?
A the construction of a bypass
B the development of cycle paths
C the banning of cars from certain streets
13 What is the problem affecting shopping in the town centre?
A lack of parking spaces
B lack of major retailers
C lack of restaurants and cafés
14 What does Shona say about medical facilities in Barford?
A There is no hospital.
B New medical practices are planned.
C The number of dentists is too low.
15 The largest number of people are employed in
A manufacturing.
B services.
C education.
Questions 16-20
What is planned for each of the following facilities?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 16-20
Plans
A It will move to a new location.
B It will have its opening hours extended.
C It will be refurbished.
D It will be used for a different purpose.
E It will have its opening hours reduced.
F It will have new management.
G It will be expanded.
Facilities
16 railway station car park ……………
17 cinema ……………
18 indoor market ……………
19 library ……………
20 nature reserve ……………
Questions 27-30
Who is going to write each of the following parts of the report?
Write the correct letter, A-D, next to Questions 27-30.
A Helen only
B Jeremy only
C both Helen and Jeremy
D neither Helen nor Jeremy
Parts of the report
27 how they planned the project
28 how they had ideas for their stories
29 an interpretation of their stories
30 comments on the illustrations
IELTS-11 TEST-4
Questions 11 – 16
What does the speaker say about each of the following collections?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 11-16.
Comments
A was given by one person
B was recently publicised in the media
C includes some items given by members of the public
D includes some items given by the artists
E includes the most popular exhibits in the museum
F is the largest of its kind in the country
G has had some of its contents relocated
Collections
11 20th- and 21st-century paintings
12 19th-century paintings
13 Sculptures
14 ‘Around the world’ exhibition
15 Coins
16 Porcelain and glass
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO characteristics were shared by the subjects of Joanna’s psychology study?
A They had all won prizes for their music.
B They had all made music recordings.
C They were all under 27 years old.
D They had all toured internationally.
E They all played a string instrument.
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO points does Joanna make about her use of telephone interviews?
A It meant rich data could be collected.
B It allowed the involvement of top performers.
C It led to a stressful atmosphere at times.
D It meant interview times had to be limited.
E It caused some technical problems.
Questions 25 and 26
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO topics did Joanna originally intend to investigate in her research?
A regulations concerning concert dress
B audience reactions to the dress of performers
C changes in performer attitudes to concert dress
D how choice of dress relates to performer roles
E links between musical instrument and dress choice
Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
27 Joanna concentrated on women performers because
A women are more influenced by fashion.
B women’s dress has led to more controversy.
C women’s code of dress is less strict than men’s.
28 Mike Frost’s article suggests that in popular music, women’s dress is affected by
A their wish to be taken seriously.
B their tendency to copy each other.
C their reaction to the masculine nature of the music.
29 What did Joanna’s subjects say about the audience at a performance?
A The musicians’ choice of clothing is linked to respect for the audience.
B The clothing should not distract the audience from the music.
C The audience should make the effort to dress appropriately.
30 According to the speakers, musicians could learn from sports scientists about
A the importance of clothing for physical freedom.
B the part played by clothing in improving performance.
C the way clothing may protect against physical injury.
IELTS-12 TEST-1
Questions 11 – 14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Talk to new kitchen assistants
11 According to the manager, what do most people like about the job of kitchen assistant?
A the variety of work
B the friendly atmosphere
C the opportunities for promotion
12 The manager is concerned about some of the new staff’s
A jewellery.
B hair styles.
C shoes.
13 The manager says that the day is likely to be busy for kitchen staff because
A it is a public holiday.
B the head chef is absent.
C the restaurant is almost fully booked.
14 Only kitchen staff who are 18 or older are allowed to use
A the waste disposal unit.
B the electric mixer.
C the meat slicer.
Questions 15 and 16
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
According to the manager, which TWO things can make the job of kitchen assistant stressful?
A They have to follow orders immediately.
B The kitchen gets very hot.
C They may not be able to take a break.
D They have to do overtime.
E The work is physically demanding.
Questions 17 – 20
What is the responsibility of each of the following restaurant staff?
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 17-20
Responsibilities
A training courses
B food stocks
C first aid
D breakages
E staff discounts
F timetables
Restaurant staff
17 Joy Parkins ……………
18 David Field ……………
19 Dexter Wills ……………
20 Mike Smith ……………
Questions 21 – 23
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Paper on Public Libraries
21 What will be the main topic of Trudie and Stewart’s paper?
A how public library services are organised in different countries
B how changes in society are reflected in public libraries
C how the funding of public libraries has changed
22 They agree that one disadvantage of free digitalised books is that
A they may take a long time to read.
B they can be difficult to read.
C they are generally old.
23 Stewart expect that in the future libraries will
A maintain their traditional function.
B become centres for local communities.
C no longer contain any books.
IELTS-12 TEST-2
Questions 11 – 15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Theatre trip to Munich
11 When the group meet at the airport they will have
A breakfast.
B coffee.
C lunch.
12 The group will be met at Munich Airport by
A an employee at the National Theatre.
B a theatre manager.
C a tour operator.
13 How much will they pay per night for a double room at the hotel?
A 110 euros
B 120 euros
C 150 euros
14 What type of restaurant will they go to on Tuesday evening?
A an Italian restaurant
B a Lebanese restaurant
C a typical restaurant of the region
15 Who will they meet on Wednesday afternoon?
A an actor
B a playwright
C a theatre director
Questions 16-20
What does the man say about the play on each of the following days?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 16-20
Comments
A The playwright will be present.
B The play was written to celebrate an anniversary.
C The play will be performed inside a historic building.
D The play will be accompanied by live music.
E The play will be performed outdoors.
F The play will be performed for the first time.
G The performance will be attended by officials from the town.
Days
16 Wednesday …………..
17 Thursday …………..
18 Friday …………..
19 Saturday …………..
20 Monday …………..
Questions 21 – 25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Scandinavian Studies
21 James chose to take Scandinavian Studies because when he was a child
A he was often taken to Denmark.
B his mother spoke to him in Danish.
C a number of Danish people visited his family.
22 When he graduates, James would like to
A take a postgraduate course.
B work in the media.
C become a translator.
23 Which course will end this term?
A Swedish cinema
B Danish television programmes
C Scandinavian literature
24 They agree that James’s literature paper this term will be on
A 19th century playwrights
B the Icelandic sagas
C modern Scandinavian novels.
25 Beth recommends that James’s paper should be
A a historical overview of the genre.
B an in-depth analysis of a single writer.
C a study of the social background to the literature.
IELTS-12 TEST-3
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO age groups are taking increasing numbers of holidays with BC Travel?
A 16-30 years
B 31-42 years
C 43-54 years
D 55-64 years
E over 65 years
Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO are the main reasons given for the popularity of activity holidays?
A Clients make new friends.
B Clients learn a useful skill.
C Clients learn about a different culture.
D Clients are excited by the risk involved.
E Clients find them good value for money.
Questions 15 – 17
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
15 How does BC Travel plan to expand the painting holidays?
A by adding to the number of locations
B by increasing the range of levels
C by employing more teachers
16 Why are BC Travel’s cooking holidays unusual?
A They only use organic foods.
B They have an international focus.
C They mainly involve vegetarian dishes.
17 What does the speaker say about the photography holidays?
A Clients receive individual tuition.
B The tutors are also trained guides.
C Advice is given on selling photographs.
Questions 27 – 30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
The Horton Castle site
27 Natalie and Dave agree one reason why so few people visit Horton Castle is that
A the publicity is poor.
B it is difficult to get to.
C there is little there of interest.
28 Natalie and Dave agree that the greatest problem with a visitor centre could be
A covering the investment costs.
B finding a big enough space for it.
C dealing with planning restrictions.
29 What does Dave say about conditions in the town of Horton?
A There is a lot of unemployment.
B There are few people of working age.
C There are opportunities for skilled workers.
30 According to Natalie, one way to prevent damage to the castle site would be to
A insist visitors have a guide.
B make visitors keep to the paths.
C limit visitor numbers.
IELTS-12 TEST-4
Questions 11 – 14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Visiting the Sheepmarket area
11 Which is the most rapidly-growing group of residents in the Sheepmarket area?
A young professional people
B students from the university
C employees in the local market
12 The speaker recommends the side streets in the Sheepmarket for their
A international restaurants.
B historical buildings.
C arts and crafts.
13 Clothes designed by entrants for the Young Fashion competition must
A be modelled by the designers themselves.
B be inspired by aspects of contemporary culture.
C be made from locally produced materials.
14 Car parking is free in some car parks if you
A stay for less than an hour.
B buy something in the shops.
C park in the evenings or at weekends.
Questions 25 – 30
What do the speakers say about each of the following films?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 25-30.
Comments
A clearly shows the historical period
B contains only parts of the play
C is too similar to another kind of film
D turned out to be unpopular with audiences
E presents the play in a different period from the original
F sets the original in a different country
G incorporates a variety of art forms
Films
25 Ran ……………
26 Much Ado About Nothing ……………
27 Romeo & Juliet ……………
28 Hamlet ……………
29 Prospero’s Books ……………
30 Looking for Richard ……………