RBTS : 01

Test ID : 301

DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 26-Nov.-2024 MARKS : 720

Topic Covered
Physics : Physics and Measurement, Kinematics, Experimental Skills
Chemistry : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry and Atomic Structure
Biology : The living world, Biological Classification

(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2023-24 is as follows:

• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

INSTRUCTION

• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

• Rapid Fire Revision of all tests Live Classes available on "New LIght Institute"
Channel ( ) before the scheduled test.
• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.
• Chat support 24×7 available for the students on "New Light Institute" App.
• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.
For lattest update on NEET, PDF sheets, other examinations and class schedule.
Please Subscribe our –
Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur
Youtube Channel - New Light Institute

For Today's Paper Discussion - Scan the QR code -

• Youtube Channel Link :

https://www.youtube.com/@newlightprayaas2583

• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas

NLI / 2
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

TOPIC : Physics and Measurement, Kinematics, Experimental Skills

-A SECTION-A

35 Attempt All 35 Questions

1. The density of material in CGS system of units is 4
4 g/cm3 g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of length
10 cm 100g is 10cm and unit of mass is 100g, the value of
density of material will be –
(1) 0.4 bdkbZ (1) 0.4 unit
(2) 40 bdkbZ (2) 40 unit
(3) 400 bdkbZ (3) 400 unit
(4) 0.04 bdkbZ (4) 0.04 unit
E, m, J G 2. If E, m, J and G represent energy, mass, angular
EJ /
2 momentum and gravitational constant respectively,
m5G 2 then the dimentional formula of EJ2/m5G2 is same
as that of the
(1) dks.k
(1) Angle
(2) yackbZ (2) Length
(3) nzO;eku (3) Mass
(4) le; (4) Time
3. With the usual notations, the following equation
1
st  u  a(2t  1) 1
2 st  u  a(2t  1) is
2
(1) dsoy la[;kRed :i ls lgh
(1) Only numerically correct
(2) dsoy vk;keh :i ls lgh
(2) Only dimensionally correct
(3) la[;kRed vkSj vk;keh nksuksa :i ls lgh (3) Both numerically and dimensionally correct
(4) u rks la[;kRed :i ls vkSj u gh vk;keh :i ls lgh (4) Neither numerically nor dimensionally correct
6% 4. If the error in the measurement of the volume of
sphere is 6%, then the error in the measurement
of its surface area will be
(1) 2%
(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(2) 3%
(3) 4%
(3) 4%
(4) 7.5% (4) 7.5%
5. Choose the correct statement from the following

¼1½ fdlh d.k ds rkR{kf.kd osx dk ifjek.k mldh (1) The magnitude of instantaneous velocity of a
rkR{kf.kd pky ds cjkcj gksrk gSA particle is equal to its instantaneous speed.
(2) The magnitude of the average velocity in an interval
¼2½ fdlh varjky esa vkSlr osx dk ifjek.k ml varjky esa
is equal to its average speed in that interval.
mldh vkSlr pky ds cjkcj gksrk gSA
(3) It is possible to have a situation in which the speed
¼3½ ,slh fLFkfr laHko gS ftlesa d.k dh pky dHkh 'kwU; u of the particle is never zero but the average speed
gks ysfdu fdlh varjky esa vkSlr pky 'kwU; gksA in an interval is zero.
¼4½ ,slh fLFkfr laHko gS ftlesa d.k dh pky 'kwU; gks (4) It is possible to have a situation in which the speed
ysfdu vkSlr pky 'kwU; u gksA of particle is zero but the average speed is not zero.
NLI / 3
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
6. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark
the correct option

Assertion : A body having non-zero acceleration

can have a constant velocity.

Reason : Acceleration is the rate of change of

velocity
(1) dFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu dkj.k dFku dh
(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
lgh O;k[;k ugha gS not correct explanation.
(2) dFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu dkj.k dFku dh (2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
lgh O;k[;k gS the correct explanation.
(3) dFku lgh gS ysfdu dkj.k xyr gS (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) dFku xyr gS ysfdu dkj.k lgh gS (4) Assertion is false but reason is true

7. An electron starting from rest has a velocity that

v = kt k increases linearly with the time that is v = kt, where
= 2m/s2 k = 2m/s2. The distance travelled in the first 3 sec-
onds will be
(1) 9 m
(1) 9 m
(2) 16 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 27 m (3) 27 m
(4) 36 m (4) 36 m

8. Two stones of different masses are dropped

simultaneously from the top of a building

(1) NksVk iRFkj igys tehu ij fxjk (1) Smaller stone hit the ground earlier

(2) cM+k iRFkj igys tehu ij fxjk (2) Larger stone hit the ground earlier

(3) nksuksa iRFkj ,d lkFk tehu ij igq¡prs gSa (3) Both stones reach the ground simultaneouly.

(4) dkSu lk iRFkj tehu ij igys igq¡prk gS ;g iRFkj ds (4) W hichever stone reach the ground earlier
lajpuk ij fuHkZj djrk gSA depends on the composition of stone.

9. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the

following graph represent velocity time graph of
the ball during its flight (air resistance is neglected)

((1) (2)
(1) (2)

v
(3) (4) t

(3) (4) t

NLI / 4
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
P, Q R 5, 12 13 10. If vectors P, Q and R have magnitude 5, 12 and 13
     
P  Q  R, Q R units and P  Q  R, the angle between Q and R is

1 5 1 5
(1) cos (1) cos
12 12

1 5 1 5
(2) cos (2) cos
13 13

1 12 1 12
(3) cos (3) cos
13 13

1 7 1 7
(4) cos (4) cos
13 13
11. A particle moves towards east with velocity 5m/s.
After 10 seconds its direction changes towards north
with same velocity. The average acceleration of
the particle is

(1) 'kwU; (1) Zero

1 1
(2) m / s2 N  W (2) m / s2 N  W
2 2

1 1
(3) m / s2 N  E (3) m / s2 N  E
2 2

1 1
(4) m / s2 S  W (4) m / s2 S  W
2 2

12. In a vernier callipers, ten smallest divisions of the

vernier scale are equal to nine smallest division
on the main scale. If the smallest division on the
main scale is half milimeter, then the vernier con-
stant is
(1) 0.5 feeh (1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.1 feeh (2) 0.1 mm
(3) 0.05 feeh (3) 0.05 mm
(4) 0.005 feeh (4) 0.005 mm
b  13. A vector of magnitude b is rotated through angle
. What is the change in magnitude of the vector?


 (1) 2b sin
(1) 2b sin 2
2

 
(2) 2b cos (2) 2b cos
2 2

(3) 2b sin  (3) 2b sin 

(4) 2b cos  (4) 2b cos 

NLI / 5
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
ehukj d sf' k[ kj l su 14. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the
3u top of the tower reaches the ground with the
velocity 3u. The height of the tower is

(1) 3u2 / g (1) 3u2 / g

(2) 6u2 / g (2) 6u2 / g

(3) 9u2 / g (3) 9u2 / g

(4) 4u2 / g (4) 4u2 / g

45o E 15. A ball is projected with kinetic energy E at an angle

of 45o to the horizontal. At highest point during its
flight, its kinetic energy will be
(1) Zero
(1) Zero
(2) E/2 (2) E/2

E E
(3) (3)
2 2

(4) E (4) E

16. In uniform circular motion,

(1) Both the angular velocity and the angular

(1) dks.kh; osx vkSj dks.kh; laosx nksuksa fHkUu gksrs gSaA
momentum vary
(2) dks.kh; osx cnyrk jgrk gS ysfdu dks.kh; laosx fLFkj (2) The angular velocity varies but the angular
jgrk gSA momentum remains constant

(3) dks.kh; osx vkSj dks.kh; laosx nksuksa fLFkj jgrs gSaA (3) Both the angular velocity and the angular
momentum stay constant.
(4) dks.kh; laosx cnyrk jgrk gS ysfdu dks.kh; osx fLFkj
(4) The angular momentum varies but the angular
jgrk gSA velocity remains constant.
A B 17. Two quantities A and B have different dimensions.
Which mathematical operation given below is
physically meaningful

(1) A/B (1) A/B

(2) A +B (2) A +B
(3) A – B (3) A – B
(4) dksbZ ugha (4) None
18. 10m/s 2m/s2 18. The initial velocity of the particle is 10m/s and its
retardation is 2m/s2. The distance moved by the
particle in 5th second of its motion is

(1) 19 ehVj (1) 19 m

(2) 50 ehVj (2) 50 m

(3) 75 ehVj (3) 75 m

(4) 1 ehVj (4) 1 m

NLI / 6
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
19. The position of a particle moving along the x-axis
at certain times is given below

t(s) t(s) 0 1 2 3
0 1 2 3
x(m) –2 6 16 x(m) –2 0 6 16
0

Which of the following describes the motion

correctly

¼1½ ,dleku] Rofjr (1) Uniform, accelerated

¼2½ ,dleku] eafnr (2) Uniform, decelerated

¼3½ vleku] Rofjr (3) Non-uniform, accelerated
¼4½ lkekU;hdj.k ds fy, i;kZIr MsVk ugha gSA (4) There is not enough data for generalization.
10 20. Two trains, each 50 m long are travelling in oppo-
m/s 15 m/s site direction with velocity 10 m/s and 15 m/s. The
time of crossing is
(1) 2 s
(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s (2) 4 s

(3) 2 3s (3) 2 3s

(4) 4 3s (4) 4 3s

21. 21. The speed of a boat is 5 km/hr in still water. It

crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest
possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the
river water is
(1) 1 fdeh/?kaVk (1) 1 km/hr
(2) 3 fdeh/?kaVk (2) 3 km/hr
(3) 4 fdeh/?kaVk (3) 4 km/hr
(4) 5 fdeh/?kaVk (4) 5 km/hr

22.   3iˆ  4ˆj  kˆ 22. What is the value of linear velocity, if
  
r  5iˆ  6ˆj  6kˆ   3iˆ  4ˆj  kˆ and r  5iˆ  6ˆj  6kˆ

(1) 6iˆ  2jˆ  3kˆ (1) 6iˆ  2jˆ  3kˆ

(2) 6iˆ  2jˆ  8kˆ (2) 6iˆ  2jˆ  8kˆ

(3) 4iˆ  13ˆj  6kˆ (3) 4iˆ  13ˆj  6kˆ

(4) 18iˆ  13ˆj  2kˆ (4) 18iˆ  13ˆj  2kˆ
23. 23. A projectile can have the same range 'R' for two
'R' 'T1' 'T2' angles of projection. If 'T1' and 'T2' be time of flights
in the two cases, then the product of the two time
of flights is directly proportional to

(1) R
(1) R
(2) 1/R
(2) 1/R
(3) 1/R2 (3) 1/R2

(4) R2 (4) R2

NLI / 7
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
24. A particle is constrained to move on a straight line
path. It returns to the starting point after 10 sec the
total distance covered by the particle during this
time is 30 m. Which of the following statements
about the motion of the particle is false

(1) Displacement of particle is zero.

(1) d.k dk foLFkkiu 'kwU; gSA
(2) Average speed of the particle is 3m/s
(2) d.k dh vkSlr pky 3m/s gS
(3) Displacement of particle is 30m
(3) d.k dk foLFkkiu 30 ehVj gSA
(4) (1) vkSj (2) nksuksa (4) Both (1) and (2)

25. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in

2.63 s, 2.56 s, 2.42 s, 2.71 s 2.80 s the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56 s, 2.42 s,
2.71 s and 2.80 s respectively. The average abso-
lute error is
(1) 0.1 s (1) 0.1 s
(2) 0.11 s (2) 0.11 s

(3) 0.01 s (3) 0.01 s

(4) 1.0 s (4) 1.0 s

ˆi  ˆj 26. The unit vector along ˆi  ˆj is

(1) k̂ (1) k̂

(2) ˆi  ˆj (2) ˆi  ˆj

ˆi  ˆj ˆi  ˆj
(3) (3)
2 2
ˆi  ˆj ˆi  ˆj
(4) (4)
2 2
27. m 27. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path
of constant radius r such that its centripetal accel-
eration ac is varying with time t as, ac = k2rt2, the
ac t ac = k2rt2
power delivered to the particle by the forces act-
ing on it is
(1) 2mk2r2t
(1) 2mk2r2t
(2) mk2r2t
(2) mk2r2t

mk 4r 2 t mk 4r 2 t
(3) (3)
3 3

(4) Zero (4) Zero

28. The displacement of a particle is proportional to
the cube of time elapsed. How does the accelera-
tion of the particle depends on time obtained

(1) a  t 2 (1) a  t 2

(2) a  2t (2) a  2t

(3) a  t 3 (3) a  t 3

(4) a  t (4) a  t

NLI / 8
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

(V) (F) (E) 29. If velocity (V), force (F) and energy (E) are taken as
fundamental units, then dimensional formula for
mass will be
(1) V2F0E (1) V2F0E
(2) V0FE2
(2) V0FE2
(3) V F–2E0
(3) V F–2E0
(4) V–2F0E
(4) V–2F0E
23.023, 0.0003 2.1 x 103 30. The respective number of significant figures for
the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 x 103 are

(1) 5, 1, 2 (1) 5, 1, 2

(2) 5, 1, 5 (2) 5, 1, 5

(3) 5, 5, 2 (3) 5, 5, 2

(4) 4, 4, 2 (4) 4, 4, 2

31. A body starting from rest moves with constant

acceleration. The ratio of distance covered by the
body during the 5th sec to that covered in 5 sec is

(1) 9/25 (1) 9/25

(2) 3/5 (2) 3/5

(3) 25/9 (3) 25/9

(4) 1/25 (4) 1/25

h 32. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height

t t/3 h metres. It takes T seconds to reach the ground.
What is the position of the ball in t/3 seconds.

(1) tehu ls h/9 ehVj (1) h/9 meters from the ground.

(2) tehu ls 7h/9 ehVj (2) 7h/9 meters from the ground.

(3) tehu ls 8h/9 ehVj (3) 8h/9 meters from the ground.

(4) tehu ls 17h/9 ehVj (4) 17h/9 meters from the ground.

33. 33. A man standing on a road hold his umbrella at 30o

30o with the vertical to keep the rain away. he throws
10 km/h the umbrella and starts running at 10 km/h. He finds
that raindrops are hitting his head vertically, the
speed of raindrops with respect to the road will be

(1) 10 km/hr
(1) 10 fdeh/?kaVk
(2) 20 km/hr
(2) 20 fdeh/?kaVk
(3) 30 fdeh/?kaVk (3) 30 km/hr

(4) 40 fdeh/?kaVk (4) 40 km/hr

NLI / 9
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

34. 34. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum hori-

zontal distance of 100 m with the same speed how
much high above the ground can the cricketer
throw the same ball?

(1) 50 m
(1) 50 m

(2) 100 m (2) 100 m

(3) 150 m (3) 150 m

(4) 200 m (4) 200 m

35. A stone tied with a string, is rotated in a verticle

circle. The minimum speed with which the string
has to be rotated
¼1½ iRFkj ds nzO;eku ls Lora= gS
(1) Is independent of the mass of the stone.
¼2½ Mksjh dh yackbZ ls Lora= gS (2) Is independent of the length of the string.
¼3½ iRFkj ds c<+rs nzO;eku ds lkFk ?kVrk gSA (3) Decreases with increasing mass of the stone.
¼4½ Mksjh dh yackbZ c<+us ij ?kV tkrh gSA (4) Decreases with increasing in length of the string.

-B SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking.

36. Which of the following options is correct for the

object having a straight motion represented by the
following graph

D D

C C

t B t B

A A

s s

¼1½ oLrq O ls A rd yxkrkj c<+rs osx ls pyrh gS vkSj fQj (1) The object moves with constantly increasing
velocity from O to A and then it moves with
og fLFkj osx ls pyrh gSA
constant velocity
¼2½ oLrq dk osx leku :i ls c<+rk gSA (2) Velocity of the object increases uniformly

¼3½ vkSlr osx 'kwU; gS (3) Average velocity is zero.

¼4½ fn[kk;k x;k xzkQ vlaHko gSA (4) The graph shown is impossible.

NLI / 10
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
37. Read the statements carefully and mark the
correct option
A particle in one-dimensional motion
(A)
(A) With zero speed at an instant may have non-
zero acceleration at that instant.
(B) (B) With zero speed may have non-zero velocity.
(C) (C) With constant speed must have zero
acceleration.
(D)
(D) With positive value of acceleration must be
(1) (A), (B), (D) lR; gSa speeding up.
(2) (A), (B), lR; gSa ysfdu (C), (D) xyr gSaA (1) (A), (B), (D) are true
(2) (A), (B), are true but (C), (D) are false
(3) (A) vkSj (C) lR; gSa ysfdu (B) vkSj (D) xyr gSaA
(3) (A) and (C) are true but (B) and (D) are false
(4) lHkh lR; gSaA (4) All are true
38. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km/hr
ejects its products of combustion at the speed of
1500 km/hr relative to the jet plane. What is the
speed of the latter with respect to an observer on
ground?
(1) 2000 fdeh/?kaVk (1) 2000 km/hr
(2) –2000 fdeh/?kaVk (2) –2000 km/hr
(3) 1000 fdeh/?kaVk (3) 1000 km/hr
(4) –1000 fdeh/?kaVk (4) –1000 km/hr
39. Which two of the following five physical quanti-
ties have the same dimensions?

(A) (A) Energy density

(B) (B) refractive index

(C) (C) Dielectric constant

(D) (D) Young's modulus

(E) (E) Magnetic field.

(1) (B) vkSj (D) (1) (B) and (D)

(2) (C) vkSj (E) (2) (C) and (E)

(3) (A) vkSj (D) (3) (A) and (D)
(4) (A) vkSj (E) (4) (A) and (E)

40. ( 4 .0  0 .3 ) 40. A body travels uniformly a distance of

(1 3 .8  0 .2 ) (13.8  0.2) m in a time (4.0  0.3)s. The Velocity
of the body within error limits is

((1) (3.45  0.5) m / s (1) (3.45  0.5) m / s

(2) (3.45  0.2) m / s (2) (3.45  0.2) m / s

(3) (3.45  0.4) m / s (3) (3.45  0.4) m / s

(4) (3.45  0.3) m / s (4) (3.45  0.3) m / s

NLI / 11
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
41. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark
the correct option

Assertion : When we change the unit of measure-

ment of a quantity, its numerical value changes.

Reason : Smaller the unit of measurement, smaller

is its numerical value.

¼1½ vfHkdFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj dkj.k dFku (1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason
dh lgh O;k[;k gSA is correct explanation

¼2½ vfHkdFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj dkj.k dFku (2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason
dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA is not correct explanation

¼3½ vfHkdFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k xyr gSA (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.

¼4½ vfHkdFku vkSj dkj.k nksuksa gh xyr gSaA (4) Both assertion and reason are false.

2iˆ  3ˆj  8kˆ , 4 ˆj  4iˆ  kˆ 42. If a vector 2iˆ  3ˆj  8kˆ is perpendicular to the vec-

 tor 4ˆj  4iˆ  k.

ˆ Then the value of  is

(1) –1/2 (1) –1/2

(2) –1 (2) –1
(3) 1/2 (3) 1/2
(4) 1 (4) 1
43. 43. From the top of a building 40 m tall, a boy projects
a stone vertically upwards with an initial velocity
10 m/s such that it eventually falls to the ground.
After how long will the stone strike the ground ?

(g = 10 m/s–2) (g = 10 m/s–2)

(1) 2 ls- (1) 2 sec

(2) 4 ls- (2) 4 sec

(3) 3 ls- (3) 3 sec

(4) 1 ls- (4) 1 sec

45o 44. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45o with the

horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its
highest point as seen from the point of projection
is
(1) 60o
(1) 60o

1  1 
1  1  (2) tan  
(2) tan   2
2

 3 1
 3
(3) tan  2 
1
(3) tan  2 
   

(4) 45o (4) 45o

NLI / 12
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
L.C 45. Find L.C of screw gauge, whose head scale which
is divided into 200 division if it moves 5 mm
distance when the head scale is rotated through 5
revolutions
(1) 5 x 10–4 cm (1) 5 x 10–4 cm
(2) 5 x 10 m –3
(2) 5 x 10–3 m
(3) 5 x 104 m (3) 5 x 104 m
(4) 5 x 104 cm (4) 5 x 104 cm
ar at 46. If a r and a t represent radial and tangential
accelerations, the motion of a particle will be
uniformly circular if
(1) ar = 0 and at = 0
(1) ar = 0 and at = 0
(2) ar = 0 but at  0
(2) ar = 0 but at  0
(3) ar  0 and at = 0 (3) ar  0 and at = 0
(4) ar  0 and at  0 (4) ar  0 and at  0
t=0 x=0 47. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts
x- 'v' moving along with the positive x-direction with a
v=a x velocity 'v' that varies as v = a x . The
displacement of the particle varies with time as
(1) t2
(1) t2
(2) t
(2) t
(3) t1/2 (3) t1/2
(4) t3 (4) t3
           
A B A B  A B 48. Two vectors A and B are such that A  B  A  B
then
 
  (1) A  B  0
(1) A  B  0
 
  (2) A  B  0
(2) A  B  0
 
(3) A  0 (3) A  0
 
(4) B  0 (4) B  0
49. In the motion of a projectile freely under gravity,
its

(1) dqy ÅtkZ lajf{kr jgrh gS (1) Total energy is conserved

(2) laosx lajf{kr jgrk gS (2) Momentum is conserved

(3) ÅtkZ vkSj laosx nksuksa lajf{kr jgrk gSA (3) Energy and momentum both are conserved

(4) dksbZ Hkh lajf{kr ugha gS (4) None is conserved

50. 50. An unbanked curve has a radius of 60 m. The
maximum speed at which a car can make a turn if
the coefficient of static friction is 0.75, is

(1) 2.1 m/s (1) 2.1 m/s

(2) 14 m/s (2) 14 m/s

(3) 21 m/s (3) 21 m/s

(4) 7 m/s (4) 7 m/s

NLI / 13
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

TOPIC : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry and Atomic Structure

Atomic Masses : H = 1, He = 4, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Mg = 24, P=31, S=32,

Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba =137, Au = 197
-A SECTION-A

35 Attempt All 35 Questions

51. 51. Carbon and oxygen combine to form two oxides,
carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide in which the
ratio of weights of carbon and oxygen is
respectively 12 : 16 and 12 : 32. These figures
12:16 12:32
illustrates the :
(1) nzO;eku laj{k.k dk fu;e
(1) Law of conservation of mass
(2) fLFkj vuqikr dk fu;e (2) Law of constant proportions
(3) xqf.kr vuqikr dk fu;e (3) Law of multiple proportions
(4) O;qRØekuqikr vuqikr dk fu;e (4) Law of reciprocal proportions
52. 4.25 g 52. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH 3 is
approximately :
(1) 1 × 1023
(1) 1 × 1023
(2) 2 × 1023
(2) 2 × 1023
(3) 4 × 1023 (3) 4 × 1023
(4) 6 × 1023 (4) 6 × 1023

53. NTP 1 cc. N2O 53. 1 cc. N2O at NTP contains :

1.8 1.8
(1)  1022 ijek.kq (1)  1022 atoms
224 224

6.02 6.02
(2)  1023 v.kq (2)  1023 molecules
22400 22400

1.32
(3)  1023 bysDVªkWu 1.32
224 (3)  1023 electrons
224
(4) mijksDr lHkh (4) All of the above
54. 54. Choose the correct statement :
(a) 1 g ghfy;e esa ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k 1.506 ×1022 gSA (a) The number of atoms in 1 g helium is 1.506 × 1022
(b) CO ds ,d v.kq dk nzO;eku 4.65 × 10 –23 g gSA (b) The mass of 1 molecule of CO is 4.65 × 10–23 g
(c) 240 gm xzke SO2 }kjk STP }kjk STP ij ?ksjk x;k (c) The volume at STP occupied by 240 gm of SO2 is
vk;ru 22.4 yhVj gSA 22.4 litre
(d) 240 gm, SO2 }kjk STP ij ?ksjk x;k vk;ru 84 yhVj (d) The volume at STP occupied by 240 gm of SO2 is
gSA 84 litre
(1) (a), (b) rFkk (c) lgh gSA (1) (a), (b) and (c) correct
(2) (a) rFkk (b) lgh gSA (2) (a) and (b) correct

(3) (b) rFkk (d) lgh gSA (3) (b) and (d) correct

(4) (a) rFkk (c) lgh gSA (4) (a) and (c) correct

NLI / 14
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
55. 55. In the reaction,

4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g)  4NO (g) + 6H2O (g) 4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g)  4NO (g) + 6H2O (g)

1 1 O2 when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are

made to react to completion :
(1) 1.0 eksy H2O mRikfnr gksrk gSA (1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced
(2) 1.0 eksy NO dk mRiknu gksxkA (2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(3) lHkh vkWDlhtu dh [kir gksxhA (3) All the oxygen will be consumed
(4) lHkh veksfu;k dk [kir gksxhA (4) All the ammonia will be consumed
56. 56. Match the column
-I - II Column - I Column - II
A. CO2 88 g I. 0.25 A. 88 g of CO2 I. 0.25 mole
B. II. 2
B. 6.022 × 1023 II. 2 mole
6.022 × 1023
molecules of H2O
C. STP O2 III. 1
C. 5.6 litres of O2 III. 1 mole
5.6
at STP
D. 96 g of O2 IV. 6.022 × 1023
D. 96 g of O2 IV. 6.022 × 1023 molecules
E. V. 3
E. 1 mol of any gas V. 3 mol
1

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV

(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-V, E-IV (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-V, E-IV

(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-V, E-IV (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-V, E-IV

(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV, E-V (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV, E-V

57. NaOH 200 cc 57. How much water should be added to 200 cc of semi
normal solution of NaOH to make it exactly
decinormal :

(1) 200 cc (1) 200 cc

(2) 400 cc (2) 400 cc

(3) 800 cc (3) 800 cc

(4) 600 cc (4) 600 cc

58. Cr+3 ( 58. The no.of unpaired electrons in Cr+3 ion will be
Cr = 24) : (At. no. of Cr = 24) :

(1) 2 (1) 2

(2) 3 (2) 3

(3) 4 (3) 4

(4) 5 (4) 5

NLI / 15
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
59. 59. Read the following assertion and reason carefully
and mark the correct option :
Assertion : fdlh rRo ds leLFkkfudksa esa yxHkx leku Assertion : Isotopes of an element have almost similar
jklk;fud xq.k gksrs gSA chemical properites
Reason : leLFkkfudksa ds bysDVªkfud foU;kl leku gksrs Reason : Isotopes have same electronic configuration.
gSA
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason
(1) nksuks vfHkdFku o dkj.k lgh gS rFkk dkj.k vfHkdFku
is the correct explanation of assertion
dh lgh O;k[;k djrk gSA
(2) nksuks vfHkdFku o dkj.k lgh gS rFkk dkj.k vfHkdFku (2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason
dh lgh O;k[;k djrk ugh gSA is not correct explanation of assertion

(3) vfHkdFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA (3) Assertion is true but reason is false

(4) vfHkdFku vlR; gS ysfdu dkj.k lR; gSA (4) Assertion is false but reason is true

60. 60. If uncertainty in the position of an electron is zero,

the uncertainty in its momentum would be :
(1) Zero (1) Zero

h h
(2)  (2) 
2 2

h h
(3)  (3) 
2 2

(4) vuar (4) Infinite

61. 61. The explanation for the presence of three unpaired

electrons in the nitrogen atom can be given by :

(1) Pauli's exclusion principle

(1) ikmyh dk viotZu fl)kUr
(2) Hund's rule
(2) gq.M dk fu;e
(3) Aufbau's principle
(3) vkWQckÅ dk fl)kUr
(4) vfuf'prrk dk fl)kUr (4) Uncertainty principle

62. 62. The four quantum numbers of the valence electron

of potassium are :

1 1
(1) 4, 1, 0 rFkk (1) 4, 1, 0 and
2 2

1 1
(2) 4, 0, 1 rFkk (2) 4, 0, 1 and
2 2

1 1
(3) 4, 0, 0 rFkk (3) 4, 0, 0 and
2 2

1 1
(4) 4, 1, 1 rFkk (4) 4, 1, 1 and
2 2

NLI / 16
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
63. 'n' 63. The total number of orbitals in an energy level
designated by principal quantum number n is equal
to :
(1) 2n
(1) 2n
(2) 2n2
(2) 2n2
(3) n (3) n
(4) n2 (4) n2
64. (I IV ) 64. Rearrange the following (I to IV) in the order of
increasing masses and choose the correct answer:

I. 1 I. 1 molecule of oxygen

II. 1 II. 1 atom of nitrogen

III. 1 × 10–10 g molecular weight of oxygen

III. 1 × 10–10 g
IV. 1 × 10–10 g atomic weight of copper
IV. 1 × 10–10 g

(1) II < I < III < IV (1) II < I < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I (2) IV < III < II < I

(3) II < III < I < IV (3) II < III < I < IV
(4) III < IV < I < II (4) III < IV < I < II
65. (COOH)2.2H2O 0.3 gm 65. The number of gram atoms of oxygen present in
0.3 gm mole of (COOH)2.2H2O :

(1) 0.6 (1) 0.6

(2) 1.8 (2) 1.8

(3) 1.2 (3) 1.2

(4) 3.6 (4) 3.6

66. A, B C 66. A compound contains atoms of three elements in

A +2, B A, B and C. If the oxidation number of A is +2, B is
+2, B +5 +5 and that of C is –2, the possible formula of the
C –2 compound is :

(1) A3(BC4)2
(1) A3(BC4)2
(2) A3(B4C)2
(2) A3(B4C)2
(3) ABC2 (3) ABC2

(4) A2(BC3)2 (4) A2(BC3)2

67. 90% 10 NTP 67. What will be volume of CO2 at NTP obtained on
CO2 heating 10 grams of 90% pure limestone :

(1) 22.4 litre (1) 22.4 litre

(2) 2.016 litre (2) 2.016 litre

(3) 2.24 litre (3) 2.24 litre

(4) 20.16 litre (4) 20.16 litre

NLI / 17
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
68. 68. Which of the following set of quantum number is
not possible :

n l ml ms
n l ml ms
(1) 3 2 1 +1/2 (1) 3 2 1 +1/2

(2) 3 2 1 –1/2 (2) 3 2 –1 –1/2

(3) 3 2 1 0 (3) 3 2 –3 +1/2

(4) 5 2 –1 +1/2 (4) 5 2 –1 +1/2

69. n=4 l=3 69. For principal quantum number n = 4 the total
number of orbitals having l = 3 :

(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 7 (2) 7
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 9 (4) 9
70. 70. Match the columns.

-I -II Column-I Column-II

A. Principal quantum I. Orientation of orbital
A. I.
B. Azimuthal quantum II. Energy and size of
B. II.
orbital
C. Magnetic quantum III. Spin of electron
C. III. number
D. Spin quantum IV. Shape of the orbital

D. IV. number

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(2) A-IV, B-II, C-IV, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
71. 71. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic
orbitals is :
(1) 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p
(1) 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p
(2) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p
(2) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p
(3) 3s, 3p, 4s, 4p, 3d
(3) 3s, 3p, 4s, 4p, 3d
(4) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4p, 4s
(4) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4p, 4s
72. 4d 72. What are the number of angular nodes and radial
nodes for 4d-orbitals respectively :

(1) 2 and 3 (1) 2 and 3

(2) 3 and 2 (2) 3 and 2

(3) 1 and 2 (3) 1 and 2

(4) 2 and 1 (4) 2 and 1

NLI / 18
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
73. NA, 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 6.022 73. If the Avagadro number NA, is changed from 6.022
× 1020 mol–1 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1, this would
change :
(1) xzke dh bdkb;ksa esa nzO;eku dh ifjHkk"kk (1) The definition of mass in units of grams
(2) larqfyr lehdj.k esa jklk;fud iztkfr;ksa dk ,d (2) The ratio of chemical species to each other in a
nwljs ls vuqikr balanced equation
(3) dkcZu ds ,d eksy dk nzO;eku (3) The mass of one mole of carbon
(4) fdlh ;kSfxd esa rRoksa dk ,d nwljs ls vuqikr (4) The ratio of elements to each other in a compound
74. 74. Read the two statements below and mark the
correct option :
xSlh; vfHkdkjdksa vkSj mRiknksa dk vk;ru
:
vuqikr muds eksyj vuqikr ds vuq:i gSA Assertion : The ratio by volume of gaseous reactants
and products is in agreement with their molar ratio.
:xSl dk vk;ru xSl ds eksyksa dh la[;k ds
O;qRØekuqikrh gksrk gSA Reason : Volume of a gas is inversely proportional to
the number of moles of a gas.
(1) nksuks vfHkdFku o dkj.k lgh gS rFkk dkj.k vfHkdFku
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason
dh lgh O;k[;k djrk gSA
is the correct explanation
(2) nksuks vfHkdFku o dkj.k lgh gS rFkk dkj.k vfHkdFku (2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason
dh lgh O;k[;k djrk ugh gSA is not correct explanation
(3) vfHkdFku lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k vlR; gSA (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) vfHkdFku vlR; gS ysfdu dkj.k lR; gSA (4) Assertion is false but reason is true
75. 8% 75. A compound possess 8% sulphur by mass. The least
molecular mass of compound is :

(1) 200 (1) 200

(2) 400 (2) 400

(3) 155 (3) 155

(4) 355 (4) 355

76. 5.85 gms NaCl 90 gms 76. If 5.85 grams of NaCl are dissolved in 90 grams of
NaCl water, the mole fraction of NaCl is :

(1) 0.1 (1) 0.1

(2) 0.2 (2) 0.2

(3) 0.32 (3) 0.32

(4) 0.0196 (4) 0.0196

77. 3 NaOH 1.11 g/ml 77. 3 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.11 g/ml.
The molarity of the solution is :

(1) 3.0504 M (1) 3.0504 M

(2) 3.641 M (2) 3.641 M

(3) 3.083 M (3) 3.083 M

(4) 2.9732 M (4) 2.9732 M

NLI / 19
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

78. 3 × 104 cms–1 78. The uncertainty in the position of an electron (m =

(m = 9.1 × 10–28 g) 9.1 × 10–28 g) moving with a velocity of 3 × 104 cms–1
0.011% accurate upto 0.011% will be :

(1) 1.92 cm (1) 1.92 cm

(2) 7.68 cm (2) 7.68 cm

(3) 0.175 cm (3) 0.175 cm

(4) 3.84 cm (4) 3.84 cm

79. H- 13.6 eV Li2+ 79. The ionization energy of H-atom is 13.6 eV. The
ionisation energy of Li2+ ion will be :

(1) 13.6 eV (1) 13.6 eV

(2) 27.2 eV (2) 27.2 eV

(3) 54.4 eV (3) 54.4 eV

(4) 122.4 eV (4) 122.4 eV

80. n=6 H- 80. If an electron is present in n = 6 level. How many

spectral lines would be observed in case of H-atom
:
(1) 10
(1) 10
(2) 15
(2) 15
(3) 20
(3) 20
(4) 25 (4) 25

81. 81. How many electrons can be accomodated in a

n = 3, l = 1 : orbital for which n = 3, l = 1 :

(1) 6 (1) 6

(2) 3 (2) 3

(3) 10 (3) 10

(4) 2 (4) 2

82. 82. Which of the following statements does not form

part of Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom :

(1) d{kk esa bysDVªkWu dh ÅtkZ DokafVr gksrh gSA (1) Energy of the electron in the orbit is quantised

(2) ukfHkd ds fudVre d{kk esa bysDVªkWu dh ÅtkZ lcls (2) The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus has
de gksrh gSA the lowest energy

(3) bysDVªkWu ukfHkd ds pkjksa vkSj vyx&2 d{kkvksa esa ?kwers (3) Electrons revolve in different orbits around the
gSA nucleus.

(4) d{kk esa bysDVªkWuks dh fLFkfr vkSj osx dks ,d lkFk (4) The position and velocity of the electrons in the
fu/kkZfjr ugh fd;k tk ldrk gSA orbit cannot be determined simultaneously

NLI / 20
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
83. H2SO4 83. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution, that has a
density 1.84 gm/cc at 35° and contains 98% by
35°C 1.84 gm/cc 98%
weight :
(1) 4.18 M (1) 4.18 M
(2) 8.14 M (2) 8.14 M
(3) 18.4 M (3) 18.4 M
(4) 18 M (4) 18 M
84. 84. If two compounds have the same empirical formula
but different molecular formula, they must have :

(1) fHkUu izfr'kr la?kVu (1) Different percentage composition

(2) fHkUu vkf.od Hkkj (2) Different molecular weights

(3) leku ';kurk (3) Same viscosity

(4) leku ok"i ?kuRo (4) Same vapour density

85. M M2HPO4 85. A metal M forms a compound M2HPO4. The formula

of the metal sulphate is :

(1) M2SO4 (1) M2SO4

(2) MSO4 (2) MSO4

(3) M(SO4)2 (3) M(SO4)2
(4) M2(SO4)3 (4) M2(SO4)3

-B SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking.
86. 22.4 L H2(g) 11.2 L Cl2(g) STP 86. When 22.4 L of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 L of Cl2(g)
HCl(g) each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal
to :

(1) 1 eksy HCl (1) 1 mole of HCl

(2) 2 eksy HCl (2) 2 moles of HCl

(3) 0.5 eksy HCl (3) 0.5 mole of HCl

(4) 1.5 eksy HCl (4) 1.5 moles of HCl

87. 'X' 5g 45 g 'Y' 87. A solution is prepared by adding 5 g of a solute 'X'

'X' to 45 g of solvent 'Y'. What is the mass percent of
solute 'X' :

(1) 75% (1) 75%

(2) 10% (2) 10%

(3) 90% (3) 90%

(4) 25% (4) 25%

NLI / 21
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
88. 8 STP 24.0 g 88. The vapour density of a gas is 8. Then the volume
occupied by 24.0 g of the gas at STP is :

(1) 22.4 litre (1) 22.4 litre

(2) 44.8 litre (2) 44.8 litre

(3) 33.6 litre (3) 33.6 litre

(4) 11.2 litre (4) 11.2 litre

89. 89. Arrange the electrons represented by the following

sets of quantum numbers in the decreasing order
of energy:
i. n=4, l=2, m=–1, s=+1/2
i. n=4, l=2, m=–1, s=+1/2
ii. n=4, l=0, m=0, s=+1/2
ii. n=4, l=0, m=0, s=+1/2
iii. n=3, l=2, m=+1, s=+1/2
iii. n=3, l=2, m=+1, s=+1/2
iv n=3, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2
iv n=3, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2
(A) 4d > 3d > 4s > 3p
(A) 4d > 3d > 4s > 3p
(B) 3p > 4s > 3d > 4d (B) 3p > 4s > 3d > 4d

(C) 4s > 4d > 3p > 3d (C) 4s > 4d > 3p > 3d

(D) 3p > 3d > 4s > 4d (D) 3p > 3d > 4s > 4d

90. 90. The brackett series of spectral lines arise when an

electron in an excited hydrogen atom jumps from
an energy level :

(1) n = 5 ls n = 1 (1) n = 5 to n = 1

(2) n = 5 ls n = 2 (2) n = 5 to n = 2

(3) n = 5 rFkk n = 3 (3) n = 5 and n = 3

(4) n = 5 ls n = 4 (4) n = 5 to n = 4

91. 91. If the speed of electron in Bohr's first orbit of

x hydrogen atom be x, then speed of the electron in
3rd orbit is :

x x
(1) (1)
9 9

x x
(2) (2)
3 3

(3) 3x (3) 3x

(4) 9x (4) 9x

NLI / 22
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
92. d- 92. Which of the following pairs of d-orbital will have
electron density along the axes :

(1) dz2 , dxz (1) dz2 , dxz

(2) dxz , dyz (2) dxz , dyz

(3) dz2 , dx2  y2 (3) dz2 , dx2  y2

(4) dxy , dx2  y2 (4) dxy , dx2  y2

93. 93. Maximum number of electron in a subshell of an

atom can be determined by which of the following
formula :

(1) 2l + 1 (1) 2l + 1

(2) 4l – 2 (2) 4l – 2

(3) 2n2 (3) 2n2

(4) 4l + 2 (4) 4l + 2

94. 94. The incorrect statement among the following is :

(1) 's' d{kd esa ,d bysDVªkWu dk dqy d{kh; dks.kh; laox

s (1) Total orbital angular momentum of an electron in 's'
'kwU; ds cjkcj gksrk gSA orbital is equal to zero

(2) ,d d{kd dks rhu DokaVe la[;kvksa }kjk fufnZ"Vfn;k (2) An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers,
tkrk gS] tcfd ,d ijek.kq esa ,d bysDVªkWu dks pkj while an electron in an atom is designated by four
DokaVe la[;kvksa }kjk fufnZ"V fd;k tkrk gSA quantum numbers

(3) N-ijek.kq dk bysDVªkWfud foU;kl gSA (3) The electronic configuration of N-atom is

2 2 1 1 1
1s
2
2s
2 1 1
2px 2p y 2p z
1
1s 2s 2px 2p y 2p z

(4) dz2 ds fy;s m dk eku 'kwU; gSA (4) The value of m for dz2 is zero

95. d- m 95. The angular momentum of electrons in d-orbital

is equal to :
(1) 6
(1) 6

(2) 2 (2) 2

(3) 2 3  (3) 2 3 

(4) 0  (4) 0 

96. 96. The orbital diagram in which both the Pauli's

exclusion principle and Hund's rule are violated
is :
(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

NLI / 23
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

97. Na2SO4.nH2O 97. The hydrated salt, Na2SO4.nH2O undergoes a 55%

55% loss in mass m heating and becomes anhydrous.
n The value of n will be :

(1) 5 (1) 5

(2) 3 (2) 3

(3) 7 (3) 7

(4) 10 (4) 10

98. 98. Which of the following pairs of gases contains the

same number of molecules:

(1) 16 g O2 rFkk 14 g of N2 (1) 16 g O2 and 14 g of N2

(2) 8 g of O2 rFkk 22 g of CO2 (2) 8 g of O2 and 22 g of CO2

(3) 28 g of N2 rFkk 22 g of CO2 (3) 28 g of N2 and 22 g of CO2

(4) 32 g of O2 rFkk 32 g of N2 (4) 32 g of O2 and 32 g of N2

99. 99. The empirical formula of an organic carbon and

CH2 STP hydrogen is CH2. The mass of one litre of this
STP N2 1 organic gas at STP is exactly equal to that of one
litre of N2 at STP. Therefore, the molecular formula
of the organic gas is:

(1) C2H4 (1) C2H4

(2) C3H6 (2) C3H6

(3) C6H12 (3) C6H12

(4) C4H8 (4) C4H8

100. H2 O2 1 : 4 (w/w) 100. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in

the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of
the two gases in the mixture?

(1) 1 : 4 (1) 1 : 4

(2) 4 : 1 (2) 4 : 1

(3) 16 : 1 (3) 16 : 1

(4) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

NLI / 24
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

BIOLOGY
TOPIC : The Living world, Biological Classification

-A PART-1 (SECTION-A)

35 Attempt All 35 Questions

101. Which of the following term is used to refer the

number of varieties of plants and animals on earth?

(1) Taxonomy
¼1½ ofxZdh
(2) Identification
¼2½ igpku
(3) Biodiversity
¼3½ tSo fofo/krk
¼4½ oxhZdj.k (4) Classification

102. Systematics refers to the:

(1) identification and classification of plants and
¼1½ ikS/kksa vkSj tkuojksa dh igpku vkSj oxhZdj.k
animals
¼2½ ikS/kksa vkSj tkuojksa dk uke i)fr vkSj igpku (2) nomenclature and identification of plants and
animals
¼3½ thoksa ds çdkj vkSj muds laca/kksa dh fofo/krkA (3) diversity of kinds of organisms and their
relationship.
¼4½ fofHkUu çdkj ds tho vkSj mudk oxhZdj.kA (4) different kinds of organisms and their classification.
103. Pigment present in cyanobacteria that is similar
to green plants is :

(1) Chlorophyll 'a'

¼1½ DyksjksfQy ,
¼2½ DyksjksfQy ch (2) Chlorophyll 'b'

¼3½ DyksjksfQy lh (3) Chlorophyll 'c'

¼4½ DyksjksfQy Mh (4) Chlorophyll 'd'

104. Arrange the following taxonomic categories in

increasing number of common characteristics w.r.t
plant mango:

A. Dicotyledonae
A
B B. Sapindales

C C. Mangifera
D D. Angiospermae
E.
E. Anacardiaceae.
(1) A  D  B  E  C
(1) A  D  B  E  C
(2) A  D  C  B  E
(2) A  D  C  B  E
(3) D  A  B  E  C (3) D  A  B  E  C

(4) D  A  C  E  B (4) D  A  C  E  B

NLI / 25
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

105. Which of the following pair comes under the group

chrysophytes?

(1) Diatoms and Euglena

¼1½ Mkb,Ve vkSj ;wXyhuk
¼2½ ;wXyhuk vkSj fVªiSukslksek (2) Euglena and Trypanosoma

¼3½ Mkb,Ve vkSj MsfLeM~l (3) Diatoms and desmids

¼4½ xksfu;kySDl vkSj MsfLeM~l (4) Gonyaulax and desmids

106. Which of the following is the correct sequence of

three steps in the sexual cycle of fungi?

¼1½ ekbVksfll  fevkWfll fu"kspu (1) Mitosis  Meiosis  Fertilization

¼2½ IykTeksxSeh  dsaæ lay;u  fevkWfll (2) Plasmogamy  Karyogamy  Meiosis

¼3½ ekbVksfll  IykTeksxSeh dsaæ lay;u (3) Mitosis  Plasmogamy  Karyogamy

¼4½ dsaæ lay;u  IykTeksxSeh ekbVksfll (4) Karyogamy  Plasmogamy  Meiosis

'X' 107. Fungi are filamentous with the exception of 'X'

which is unicellular. Identify X.
X
(1) Yeast
¼1½ ;hLV
¼2½ ,sycwxks (2) Albugo

¼3½ E;wdj (3) Mucor

¼4½ ykbdsu (4) Lichen

108. Bionomial nomenclature means:

¼1½ nks oSKkfudksa }kjk fn;k x;k ,d uke (1) one name given by two scientists

¼2½ ,d oSKkfud uke ftlesa ,d oa'kuke vkSj fof'k"V (2) one scientific name consisting of a generic name

tkfr ladsr in gksrk gSA and specific epithet.

¼3½ nks uke] ,d ySfVu—r] ,d O;fä dk vU;A (3) two names, one latinized, other of a person.

¼4½ dqN ikS/kksa ds nkss uke (4) two names of some plants

109. Dikaryon formation is the characteristic feature of:

¼1½ QkbdksekbflVht vkSj csflfMvksekblsV~l (1) Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes

¼2½ ,LdksekbflVht vkSj csflfMvksekblsV~l (2) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes

¼3½ QkbdksekbflVht vkSj MîwVsjksekbflVht (3) Phycomycetes and Deuteromycetes

¼4½ csflfMvksekbflVht vkSj MîwVsjksekbflVht (4) Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes

NLI / 26
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

I II 110. Match the terms given in column I with their

examples given in column II and choose the
correct option:
I II
Column I Column II

(Terms) (Examples)
A- ,sLdl I- ukWLVkWd
A. Ascus I. Nostoc
B- csflfM;e II- isfuflfy;e
B. Basidium II. Penicillium
C- çksfVLVk III- vxfjdl
D- lk;ukscSDVhfj;k IV- ;wXyhuk C. Protista III. Agaricus

E- tUrq V- Liat D. Cyanobacteria IV. Euglena

(1) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - V, E - I E. Animalia V. Sponges

(1) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - V, E - I

(2) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - V, E - IV
(2) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - V, E - IV
(3) A - II, B - V, C - III, D - I, E - IV
(3) A - II, B - V, C - III, D - I, E - IV
(4) A - II, B - III, C - IV D - I, E - V
(4) A - II, B - III, C - IV D - I, E - V

111. Which of the following statements is correct for

blue-green algae ?

¼1½ DyksjksfQy a ik;k tkrk gSA (1) Have chlorophyll a

¼2½ Loiks"kh (2) Photosynthesis

¼3½ dsoy dyksfuvy (3) Only colonial

¼4½ nksuksa ¼1½ rFkk ¼2½ (4) Both (1) and (2)
112. Families are characterised on the basis of which
of the following in the plant species:

(1) Vegetative features only

¼1½ dsoy dkf;d xq.k
¼2½ dsoy tuu xq.k (2) Reproductive features only

¼3½ ouLifr vkSj tuu nksuksa xq.k (3) Both vegetative and reproductive features

¼4½ fdlh vk/kkj ij ugha (4) Not characterised on any basis

113. Which of the following combinations is correct for

wheat?

¼1½ oa'k % VªhVhde] dqy % ,ukdjfM,lh x.k % iks,yl] (1) Genus : Triticum, family : Anacardiaceae order :

oxZ % eksuksdksVkfyMuh Poales, Class : Monocotyledonae

¼2½ oa'k % VªhVhde] dqy % iks,lh] x.k % iks,yl] oxZ % (2) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae order : Poales;
MkbdksVhfyMuhA Class : Dicotyledonae.

¼3½ oa'k % VªhVhde] dqy % iks,lh] x.k % lSfiaMYl] (3) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae order :
oxZ % eksuksdksVkfyMuhA Sapindales, Class : Monocotyledonae.

¼4½ oa'k % VªhVhde] dqy % iks,lh] x.k % iks,yl] oxZ (4) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae order : Poales,
% eksuksdksVhfyMuhA Class : Monocotyledonae.

NLI / 27
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
114. The bacteria which oxidize various inorganic
substances and use the released energy for their
ATP production are called:

(1) Archaebacteria
¼1½ vk|cSDVhfj;k
(2) Heterotrophic bacteria
¼2½ ijiks"kh cSDVhfj;k
¼3½ çdk'k la'ys"kd Loiks"kh cSDVhfj;k (3) Photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

¼4½ jlk;u la'kys"kh cSDVhfj;k (4) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria

115. Organisms of which of the following kingdom do

not have nuclear membrane?

(1) protista
¼1½ çksfVLVk
¼2½ QatkbZ (2) Fungi

¼3½ ekWusjk (3) Monera

¼4½ IykaVh (4) Plantae

116. Which of the following characteristics is/are used

by whittaker for the classification of organisms?

(1) Mode of nutrition

¼1½ iks"k.k dh fof/k
¼2½ ckWMh laxBu (2) Body organisation

¼3½ tkfro`Rrh; laca/k (3) Phylogenetic relationships

¼4½ mijksä lHkh (4) All of the above

117. The book Systema Naturae was written by:

¼1½ vuZLV es;jA (1) Ernst Mayr.

¼2½ csaFke vkSj gwdj (2) Bentham and Hooker

¼3½ gfpalu (3) Hutchinson

¼4½ dSjksyl yhfu;l (4) Carolus Linnaeus

118. Consider the following characters:

¼a½ vpy chtk.kq (a) Non motile spores

¼b½ e`rthoh ,ddksf'kdh; ;wdsfj;ksV~l (b) Saprophytic unicellular eukaryotes

(c) Transfer of gametes by wind currents

¼c½ ok;q }kjk ;qXedksa dk ifj{ksi.k
(d) Differentiation of plasmodium under suitable
¼d½ vuqdwy ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa IykTeksfM;e dk foHksnuA conditions.
Åij fn, x, o.kksaZ esa ls fdrus voiad dod ls lacaf/kr How many of the characters given above belong
to slime moulds.
gSa\
¼1½ pkj (1) Four

¼2½ ,d (2) One

¼3½ rhu (3) Three

¼4½ nks (4) Two

NLI / 28
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

119. How many options are incorrect with respect to

housefly?
¼a½ oa'k & eLdk
(a) Genus – Musca
¼b½ dqy & E;wlhMh
(b) Family – Muscidae
¼c ½ x.k & çkbesVk
(c) Order – Primata
¼d½ oxZ & balsDVk (d) Class – Insecta
¼1½ 4 (1) 4
¼2½ 3 (2) 3
¼3½ 2 (3) 2
¼4½ 1 (4) 1
120. Which of the following statements is correct for
bacteria?

¼1½ os eksusjk txr ds varxZr vkrs gSaA (1) They are the members of the kingdom Monera.
¼2½ os xeZ >juks]a e:LFky] cQZ vkSj xgjs leqæ tSls fo"ke (2) They live in extreme habitats such as hot springs,
deserts, snow and deep oceans.
okl LFkkuksa esa ik;s tkrs gSaA
¼3½ os lcls O;kid p;kip; fofo/krk fn[kkrs gSaA (3) They show the most extensive metabolic diversity.

¼4½ mijksä lHkhA (4) All of the above.

121. How many of the following are not correct
statements among Dinoflagellates and Euglenoids:

(a) All are saprophytic

¼a½ lHkh e`riks"kh gSa
(b) All are flagellated organism
¼b½ lHkh d'kkHkhr tho gSa
¼c½ ;s vyx&vyx txr ls lacaf/kr gSa (c) These belong to different kingdom

¼d½ lHkh ,ddksf'kdh; tho gSa (d) All are unicellular organism

¼1½ 4 (1) 4

¼2½ 1 (2) 1

¼3½ 2 (3) 2

¼4½ 3 (4) 3

122. The order carnivora includes family:

¼1½ QsfyMh (1) Felidae
¼2½ dSuhMh (2) Canidae
¼3½ dksuoksyO;qyslh (3) Convolvulaceae
¼4½ ¼1½ vkSj ¼2½ nksuksa (4) Both (1) and (2)
123. Asexual reproduction can take place by how many
spores given below:

dksfufM;ksLiksj] tkbxksLiksj] tksLiksj] LiksjSaft;ksLiksj] Conidiospore, Zygospore, Zoospore,

ÅLiksj] csflfM;ksLiksj Sporangiospore, Oospore, Basidiospore

¼1½ 6 ¼2½ 5 (1) 6 (2) 5

¼3½ 4 ¼4½ 3 (3) 4 (4) 3

NLI / 29
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
124. The spores of slime moulds possess true walls and
dispersed by:

(1) Water current

¼1½ ty çokg
¼2½ ok;q çokg (2) Air current

¼3½ i'kq (3) Animals

¼4½ pexknM+ (4) Bat

125. Which of the following statement is/are correct

about ascomycetes?

¼i½ U;wjksLiksjk] ftldk mi;ksx tSo jklk;fud vkSj (i) Neurospora, which is used in biochemical and
genetic work is a member of this class.
vkuqoaf'kd dk;Z esa fd;k tkrk gS] bl oxZ dk lnL;
gSA (ii) They are mostly multicellular e.g. Yeast, or
rarely unicellular eg. Penicillium
¼ii½ os T;knkrj cgqdksf'kdh; gksrs gSa tSls ;hLV] ;k nqyZHk
,ddksf'kdh; tSls isfuflfy;e (iii) They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic
or coprophilous.
¼iii½ ;s e`rthoh] vi?kVd] ijthoh vFkok 'keyjkxh gksrs
gSaA (iv) Some examples are Aspergillus, Claviceps,
Morrels & Truffles.
¼iv½ dqN mnkgj.k ,LiftZyl] DysfolsIl] ekWfjy vkSj VªQy
gSaA (1) Both (i) and (ii)

¼1½ nksuksa ¼i½ vkSj ¼ii½ (2) Only (ii)

¼2½ dsoy ¼ii½
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
¼3½ ¼i½] ¼iii½ vkSj ¼iv½
(4) All of these
¼4½ ;s lc
126. Given below are two statements;

,d dks vfHkdFku ¼A½ ds :i esa yscy fd;k tkrk gS vkSj one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
nwljs dks dkj.k ¼R½ ds :i esa yscy fd;k tkrk gSA
Assertion (A) : Bacteria as an individual show the most
A vdsys ds :i esa thok.kq lcls O;kid extensive metabolic diversity.
p;kip; fofo/krk n'kkZrs gSaA
Reason (R) : They may be autotrophic (chemosynthetic
R os Loiks"kh ¼jlk;u la'kys"kh vkSj çdk'k la'ys"kh½ and photosynthetic) and heterotrophic (Saprophytic and
vkSj ijiks'kh ¼e`riks"kh vkSj ijthoh½ gks ldrs gSa Parasitic)

In the light of the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
¼1½ nksuksa ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ lgh gSa ysfdu ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA explanation of (A).
¼2½ ¼A½ lgh gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh ugha gSA (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
¼3½ ¼A½ lgh ugha gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh gSA (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
¼4½ nksuksa ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ lgh gSa vkSj ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
Li"Vhdj.k gSA explanation of (A).

NLI / 30
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
127. How many of these belongs to kingdom protista:

Anabaena, Chlorella, Trypanosoma, Rhizopus,

Gonyaulax, Plasmodium, Paramoecium.

(1) Five
¼1½ ik¡p
¼2½ nks (2) Two

¼3½ pkj (3) Four

¼4½ rhu (4) Three

128. Refer to the statement and answer the question:

"Once the sexual stage of members of

^,d ckj MîwVsjksekblsV~l ds lnL;ksa ds ;kSu pj.k dh [kkst deuteromycetes were discovered, they were often
moved to X and Y"
dh xbZ] mUgsa vDlj X vkSj Y esa ys tk;k tk;sxkA X vkSj
Identify X and Y.
Y dks igpkfu,A
(1) X - Monera; Y - Protista
¼1½ X & eksusjk Y & çksfVLVk
¼2½ X & csflfMvksekbflVht Y & QkbdksekbflVht (2) X - Basidiomycetes; Y - Phycomycetes

¼3½ X & ,LdksekblsVht Y & csflfMvksekbflVht (3) X - Ascomycetes; Y - Basidiomycetes

¼4½ X& QkbdksekblsVht Y & vk|cSDVsfj;k (4) X - Phycomycetes; Y - Archaebacteria

129. In Lichen fungi provides to its partner.

¼1½ [kk|] [kfut] ty (1) Food, mineral nutrient, water

¼2½ dsoy ty vkSj [kfut rRo (2) Water & mineral nutrients only

¼3½ vkJ;] ty vkSj [kfut iks"kd rRo (3) Shelter, water & mineral nutrient
¼4½ Hkkstu] vkJ;] ty (4) food, shelter, water
A, 130. The given figure shows some structures labelled
B, C D as A, B, C and D. Which structure has the protein
coat that encloses the nucleic acid?

(1) A

(1) A (2) C
(2) C
(3) D
(3) D
(4) B (4) B

NLI / 31
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
131. Which of the following statements regarding
nomenclature is correct?

¼1½ oa'k uke ges'kk cM+s v{kj ls 'kq: gksrk gS tcfd tkfr (1) Generic name always begins with capital letter
whereas specific name with small letter.
ladsr in NksVs v{kj ls gksrk gSA
¼2½ oSKkfud uke ySfVu esa NikbZ esa fd;k tkuk pkfg, (2) Scientific name should be printed in Latin

¼3½ Vkbi ;k gLrfyf[kr gksus ij oSKkfud uke dks js[kkafdr (3) Scientific name when typed or handwritten should

ugha fd;k tkuk pkfg, not be underlined

¼4½ mijksä lHkh (4) All of the above

I I 132. Match column I (containing fungus name) with

column II (common name) and choose the correct
options:
I II
Column I Column II
A- ifDlfu;k I- ;hLV
A. Puccinia I. Yeast
B- vkLVhySxks II- e'k:e
B. Ustilago II. Mushroom
C- ,sxSfjdl III- daM Qaxl
D- lsdSjksekblht IV- dhV~V QaxlA C. Agaricus III. Smut fungus

(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV D. Saccharomyces IV. Rust Fungus.

(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(2) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(2) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
(3) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(3) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

133. Read the following statements and answer the

question given below:

i (i) They are saprophytic protists

ii (ii) Under unsuitable condition, they form an

aggregation (called plasmodium) which may
grow and spread over several feet.

iii (iii) During favourable conditions, the plasmodium

differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing
spores at their tips

Which of the following class of protista is being

described by the above statements?

(1) Slime moulds

¼1½ voiad dod
¼2½ Mkbuks¶ySftysV (2) Dinoflagellates

¼3½ ;wxyhu‚bM~l (3) Euglenoids

¼4½ buesa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of these

NLI / 32
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

134. Given below are two statements:

A
One is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is
R labelled as Reason (R).

A Vh,eoh ,d ok;jl gS tks ekstSd jksx dk Assertion (A) : TMV is a virus which causes mosaic
disease.
dkj.k curk gSA
R Vh,eoh esa vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ ds :i esa vkj,u, Reason (R) : TMV has RNA as genetic material.
gSA
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
mijksä dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa] uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls answer from the options given below:
lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
¼1½ nksuksa ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ lgh gSa ysfdu ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh correct explanation of (A).
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
¼2½ ¼A½ lgh gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh ugha gSA
¼3½ ¼A½ lgh ugha gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh gS (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

¼4½ nksuksa ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ lgh gSa vkSj ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
Li"Vhdj.k gSA explanation of (A).

135. Mad cow disease in cattle caused by an agent

which has:

¼1½ cgqQyd T;kfer izksVhu (1) Polyhedrally arranged protein

¼2½ cSDVhfj;k dh rqyuk esa NksVk vkdkj (2) Smaller size than bacteria

¼3½ vlkekU; :i ls eqM+k gqvk çksVhu (3) Abnormally folded protein

¼4½ 2 vkSj 3 nksuksa (4) Both 2 and 3
-B PART-1 (SECTION-B)
15 15 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
10 10 choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candidate attempts more than
10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking.

136. Study the following statements and identify the

correct option given below:

¼I½ ikS/kksa dks laØfer djus okys ok;jl esa ,d yM+h okys (I) Viruses that infect plants have single stranded RNA
vkj,u, gksrs gSa vkSj ok;jl tks tkuojksa dks laØfer and viruses that infect animals have either single
or double-stranded RNA or double stranded DNA
djrs gSa] muesa ;k rks ,d yM+h okys vkj,u, ;k nks
yM+h okys Mh,u, gksrk gS (II) Bacterial viruses or bacteriophages are usually
¼II½ cSDVhfj;y ok;jl ;k cSDVhfj;ksQst vkerkSj ij ,d single stranded RNA virus.

yM+h okys vkj,u, ok;jl gksrs gSaA (1) I is true, but II is false.
¼1½ I lR; gS] ysfdu II vlR; gSA
(2) I is false, but II is true
¼2½ I vlR; gS] ysfdu II lR; gS
(3) I and II both are true
¼3½ I vkSj II nksuksa lR; gSa-
¼4½ I vkSj II nksuksa vlR; gSa- (4) I and II both are false

NLI / 33
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
137. Viral capsid contains:

¼1½ fyfiM (1) Lipids

¼2½ çksVhu (2) Proteins

¼3½ dkcksZgkbMªsV (3) Carbohydrates

¼4½ ;s lHkh (4) All of these

138. Which of the following is true about

basidiomycetes:

a (a) Also called bracket fungi

b (b) Sex organs absent, but plasmogamy is brought

about by fusion of two vegetative cells of
different phenotypes:

(c) Karyogamy and miosis takes place outside the

c
basidium.

(d) Basidiopores are produced exogenously

d
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
¼1½ ¼a½ vkSj ¼b½ lgh gSa
¼2½ ¼c½ vkSj ¼d½ lgh gSa (2) (c) and (d) are correct

¼3½ ¼a½] ¼b½] ¼c½ vkSj ¼d½ lHkh lgh gSa (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct

¼4½ ¼a½ vkSj ¼d½ lgh gSa (4) (a) and (d) are correct

139. Taxon is a:

¼1½ oxhZdj.k dh bdkbZ (1) unit of classification

¼2½ tkfr;k¡ (2) Species

¼3½ oxhZdj.k dk mPpre in (3) highest rank of classification

¼4½ fudV laca/kh thoksa dk lewg (4) group of closely related organisms

"X" 140. "X" being a higher category is the assemblage of

families which exhibit a few "Y" characters. The
"Y"
"Z" characters are less in a number as compared
"Z" to different genera included in a family. Identify

"X", "Y" "Z" "X", "Y" and "Z".

¼1½ X & x.k Y & leku Z & leku (1) X – Orders Y – Similar Z – Similar

¼2½ X & oa'k Y & leku Z & vyx (2) X – Genus Y – Similar Z – Different

¼3½ X & tkfr Y & fHkUu Z & leku (3) X – Species Y – Different Z – Similar

¼4½ X & oxZ Y & fHkUu Z & fHkUu (4) X – Class Y – Different Z – Different

NLI / 34
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

141. Match the following columns and choose the

correct combination from the given option:

I II Column I Column II

¼a½ ok;jl ¼i½ eSM dkÅ jksx (a) Virus (i) Mad cow disease

¼b½ thok.kq ¼ii½ iksVsVks fLiaMy V~;wcj (b) Bacteria (ii) Potato spindle tuber
disease
¼c½ okbjksbM~l ¼iii½ VkbQkbM
¼d½ fçvksu ¼iv½ pspd (c) Viroids (iii) Typhoid

(1) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i) (d) Prions (iv) Small Pox

(1) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (i)

(2) a - (i), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (iv)
(2) a - (i), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (iv)
(3) a - (iv), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (ii)
(3) a - (iv), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (ii)
(4) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iv), d - (iii) (4) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iv), d - (iii)

142. Which of the following is correct about kingdom

animalia in five kingdom classification system:

¼1½ ;g ijiks"kh ;wdSfj;ksfVd thoksa dh fo'ks"krk gS vkSj (1) It is characterised by heterotrophic eukaryotic
organisms and cell wall is devoid of cellulose.
dksf'kdk fHkfÙk lsY;wykst ls jfgr gSA
¼2½ ,fuesfy;k ds lnL; ,d fuf'pr iSVuZ dk ikyu djrs (2) Members of animalia follow a definite pattern and

gSa vkSj iks"k.k dk rjhdk leiks"k.k gSA mode of nutrition is holozoic.

¼3½ ;g ijiks"kh ;wdsfj;ksfVd thoksa dh fo'ks"krk gS tks (3) It is characterised by heterotrophic eukaryotic

,ddksf'kdh; ;k cgqdksf'kdh; gSaA organisms that are unicellular or multicellular.

¼4½ lHkh lnL; pyu djus esa l{ke gSa vkSj ySfxd tuu (4) All the members are capable of locomotion and
laxe ls gksrk gSA sexual reproduction is by copulation.

143. Bacteria which play a great role in recycling

nutrient like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and
sulphur are:

(1) Anoxygenic photosynthesizer

¼1½ ,uksDlhtsfud çdk'k la'ys"kh
(2) Blue green algae
¼2½ uhy gfjr 'kSoky
¼3½ jlk;u la'ys"kh Loiks"kh (3) Chemosynthetic autotrophic

¼4½ çdk'k la'ys"kd Loiks"kh (4) Photosynthetic autotrophic

144. Which is not true for viruses:

¼1½ nksgjh yM+h okyk Mh,u, (1) Double stranded DNA

¼2½ nksgjh yM+h okyk vkj,u, (2) Double Stranded RNA

¼3½ Mh,u, vkSj vkj,u, nksuksa (3) Both DNA and RNA

¼4½ ,d yM+h okyk Mh,u, (4) Single stranded DNA

NLI / 35
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

145. As we go from species to a kingdom in a taxonomic

hierarchy, the number of common characteristics:

¼1½ ?kVrh gS (1) will decrease

¼2½ o`f) gksxh (2) will increase

¼3½ ogh jgrh gS (3) remains same

¼4½ c<+ ;k ?kV ldrh gS (4) may increase or decrease

146. The common characteristics between tomato and

potato will be maximum in:

¼1½ oa'k (1) genus

¼2½ dqy (2) family

¼3½ x.k (3) order

¼4½ Hkkx (4) division

147. Mycelium is septate and branched in:

¼1½ ,LdksekbflVht] QkbdksekbflVht (1) Ascomycetes, Phycomycetes

¼2½ csflfMvksekbflVht] QkbdksekbflVht (2) Basidiomycetes, Phycomycetes

¼3½ ,LdksekblsVht] csflfMvksekblsVht (3) Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes

¼4½ 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (4) Both 1 and 2
148. Which of the following is not a viral disease?
¼1½ ,M~l vkSj eEil (1) AIDS and mumps
¼2½ pspd vkSj gihZt (2) Small pox and herpes
¼3½ bU¶yw,atk (3) Influenza
¼4½ gStk (4) Cholera
149. Match the following and choose the correct options:
Column I Column II

d‚ye I d‚ye II (Scientists) (Related to)

¼oSKkfud½ ¼ls lacaf/kr½ A. D. Ivanowsky (1892) (i) Viroids

A. Mh bokuksoLdh ¼1892½ ¼i½ okbjkbM~l B. MW Beijerinek (1898) (ii) First Crystalized
B. ,e-MCyw- csbtsfjusd ¼ii½ igyk josnkj TMV
¼1898½ Vh,eoh C. WM Stanley (1935) (iii) Contagium Vivum
C. ,e-MCyw- LVsuyh ¼1935½ ¼iii½ daVsft;e okboe fluidum
¶yq;bMe D. T.O. Diener (1971) (iv) Mosaic disease of
D- Vh- vks- Mk;uj ¼1971½ ¼iv½ rEckdw ds ekstSd jksx tobacco
(1) A - (i), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii)
(1) A - (i), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii)
(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii) (2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii)

(3) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D -(i) (3) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D -(i)

(4) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv) (4) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)

NLI / 36
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
150. Which of the following is incorrect about
chrysophytes?

¼1½ ØkblksQkbV~l esa Mk;Ve vkSj lqugjs 'kSoky 'kkfey gSaA (1) Chrysophytes includes diatoms and golden algae.

¼2½ ØkblksQkbV~l LoPN ikuh ds lkFk&lkFk leqæh ikuh (2) Chrysophytes are found in freshwater as well as
esa Hkh ik, tkrs gSa- in marine water.
¼3½ os lw{e gksrs gSa vkSj ty /kkjk esa fuf"Ø; :i ls rSjrs
(3) They are microscopic and float passively water
gSaA current.
¼4½ buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) None of these

-A PART-2 (SECTION-A)

35 Attempt All 35 Questions

151. Which of the following organisms is not correctly

matched with its particular?

(1) Human beings – sapiens, species

¼1½ ekuo & lsfi;Ul] tkfr
¼2½ 'ksj & iSaFksjk] oa'k (2) Lion – Panthera, genus

¼3½ fcfYy;k¡ & QsfyMs] oa'k (3) Cats – Felidae, genus

¼4½ /krwjk & lksysul

s h] dqy (4) Datura – Solanaceae, family

152. Which taxonomic category of mango and wheat

is similar?
¼1½ x.k vkSj dqy
(1) Order and family
¼2½ Hkkx vkSj oxZ (2) Division and class
¼3½ dsoy Hkkx (3) Only Division
¼4½ Hkkx] oxZ vkSj x.k (4) Division, Class and Order
153. Choose incorrect option

¼1½ x.k izkbesV  canj] fxCcu] xksfjYykA (1) Order Primata  monkey, gibbon, gorilla.

¼2½ x.k dkjuhoksjk  ck?k] fcYyh] dqÙkk (2) Order carnivora  tiger, cat, dog

¼3½ Qkbye d‚MsZVk  gkml¶ykbZ] fNidyh] ekuoA (3) Phylum chordata  housefly, lizard, human.

¼4½ x.k i‚yheksfu;y  vkyw] cSaxu] isVwfu;k (4) Order polymoniales  potato, brinjal, Petunia

A A 154. Asexual spore are produced exogenously in

A and endogenously in B:

(1) A - Ascomycetes, B - Phycomycetes

¼1½ A & ,LdksekbflVht] B & QkbdksekbflVht
¼2½ A ¾ csflfMvksekbflVht] B & ,LdksekbflVht (2) A - Basidiomycetes, B - Ascomycetes

¼3½ A & ,LdksekbflVht] B & csflfMvksekbflVht (3) A - Ascomycetes, B - Basidiomycetes

¼4½ A & csflfMvksekbflVht] B & QkbdksekbflVht (4) A - Basidiomycetes, B - Phycomycetes

NLI / 37
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
155. Given below are two statements:

% ekbdksIykTek ,d ekbØksu ls Hkh de fQYVj

I Statement -I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than
vkdkj ls xqtj ldrk gSA one micron filter size.

dFku& I% ekbdksIykTek dksf'kdk fHkfÙk okys cSDVhfj;k gksrs Statement- II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.
gSaA (1) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
¼1½ dFku I vkSj II nksuksa xyr gSaA
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
¼2½ dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gS
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
¼3½ dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA
¼4½ dFku I vkSj II nksuksa lgh gSaA (4) Both statement I and II are correct.

156. Which of the following is correct with respect to

kingdom plantae:

¼1½ txr IykaVh esa lHkh çksdSfj;ksfVd vkSj ;wdsfj;ksfVd (1) Kingdom plantae includes all prokaryotic &
DyksjksfQy 'kkfey gSa eukaryotic chlorophyll

¼2½ txr IykaVh dk lnL; ijthoh gks ldrk gSA (2) Member of kingdom plantae may be parasitic.
¼3½ dhVHk{kh ikS/ks iwjh rjg ls fo"ke gksrs gSa
(3) Insectivorous plants are totally heterotrophic
¼4½ IykaV fHkRrh dh nhokj eq[; :i ls dkbfVu ls cuh gksrh
gSA (4) Plant cell wall is mainly made of chitin.

I II 157. Match column I with column II and choose the

correct option:

I II Column I Column II

A i A. Family (i) tuberosum

B ii B. Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales
C iii
C. Order (iii) Solanum
D iv
D. Species (iv) Plantae
E V
E. Genus (v) Solanaceae
(1) A - IV; B - III; C - V; D - II; E - I
(1) A - IV; B - III; C - V; D - II; E - I
(2) A - V; B - IV; C - II; D - I ; E - III
(2) A - V; B - IV; C - II; D - I ; E - III
(3) A - IV; B - V; C - II; D - I; E - III
(3) A - IV; B - V; C - II; D - I; E - III
(4) A - V; B - III; C - II; D - I; E - IV (4) A - V; B - III; C - II; D - I; E - IV

158. Which scientist classified plants into trees, shrubs

herbs and animals into two groups based on
absence or presence of red blood cells:

(1) Aristotle
¼1½ vjLrw
(2) Bentham & Hooker
¼2½ csaFke vkSj gwdj
¼3½ vkj,p fOgVsdj (3) R.H Whittaker

¼4½ dSjksyl fyfuvl (4) Carolus Linnaeus

NLI / 38
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

159. Which component of lichen prepare/synthesise

food:
¼1½ ekbdksck;aV
(1) Mycobiont
¼2½ Qkbdksck;aV
(2) Phycobiont
¼3½ dod (3) Fungi
¼4½ ;s lc (4) All of these

160. Which of the following organism are parasites:

¼1½ dldqVk vkSj vYcqxks (1) Cuscuta and Albugo
¼2½ CySMjo‚VZ vkSj vYcqxks (2) Bladderwort and Albugo
¼3½ CySMjo‚VZ vkSj ohul ¶ykbZ VªSi (3) Bladderwort and venus fly trap

¼4½ ;s lc (4) All of these

161. Drosophila of plant kingdom, which is used

extensively in biochemical and genetic work,
belongs to which class :

(1) Deuteromycetes
¼1½ MîwVsjksekbflVht
(2) Phycomycetes
¼„½ QkbdksekbflVht
¼3½ csflfM;ksekbflVht (3) Basidiomycetes

¼4½ ,LdksekbflVht (4) Ascomycetes

162. Find the correct matching of the following:

a i (a) 1.7 –1.8 million (i) Infectious living fluid

b ii
(b) 1969 (ii) Dmitri Ivanowsky
c iii
(c) Billion of year (iii) Diatoms accumulates
d iv
(d) 1892 (iv) R.H. Whittakar
e v
(e) 1898 (v) Species described
(1) a - v, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii, e - i
(1) a - v, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii, e - i
(2) a - iv, b - v, c - iii, d - i, e - ii
(2) a - iv, b - v, c - iii, d - i, e - ii
(3) a - v, b - iv, c - ii, d - i, e - iii
(3) a - v, b - iv, c - ii, d - i, e - iii
(4) a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii, e - v (4) a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii, e - v

163. Which of the following organism have flagella and

cause diseases.

¼1½ ,aVvehck (1) Entamoeba

¼2½ fVªiSukslksek (2) Trypanosoma

¼3½ IykTeksfM;e (3) Plasmodium

¼4½ iSjkehf'k;e (4) Paramoecium
NLI / 39
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
164. The scope of systematics was later enlarged to
include:

A (A) Identification

B (B) Nomenclature
C (C) Classification
D (D) Phylogenetic relationship
(1) (A), (B), (C) (1) (A), (B), (C)
(2) (B), (C), (D) (2) (B), (C), (D)
(3) (A), (C), (D) (3) (A), (C), (D)
¼4½ ;s lc (4) All of these
165. The genetic material of virus includes:
¼1½ dsoy RNA (1) Only RNA
¼2½ dsoy DNA
(2) Only DNA
¼3½ RNA vkSj DNA nksuksa
(3) RNA and DNA both
¼4½ RNA ;k DNA ;kuh] ,d ok;jl esa ,d U;wfDyd
,flMA (4) RNA or DNA i.e., one nucleic acid in a virus.

166. Mucor and Rhizopus are the example of:

¼1½ ,LdksekbflVht (1) Ascomycetes

¼2½ csflfMvksekbflVht (2) Basidiomycetes

¼3½ M;wfVjksekbZflVht (3) Deuteromycetes

¼4½ QkbdksekbflVht (4) Phycomycetes

167. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
¼i½ QatkbZ esa dkf;d tuu&[kaMu] fo[kaMu rFkk eqdqyu (i) Reproduction in fungi can take place by vegetative
fof/k }kjk gksrk gSA means - fragmentation, fission and budding.

¼ii½ nks dsUædksa ds lay;u dks IykLeksxSeh dgk tkrk gS (ii) Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy
¼iii½ nks py vFkok vpy ;qXedksa ds chp çksVksIykTeksa ds (iii) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or non-
lay;u dks dsUæ lay;u dgrs gSaA motile gametes is called karyogamy.
¼iv½ ;qXeut esa v/kZlw=hfoHkktu ds ifj.kkeLo:i f}xqf.kr (iv) Meiosis in zygote results in diploid spores.
chtk.kq gksrs gSaA (1) only (i)
¼1½ dsoy ¼i½
(2) both (ii) and (iii)
¼2½ ¼ii½ vkSj ¼iii½ nksuksa
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
¼3½ ¼ii½] ¼iii½ vkSj ¼iv½
¼4½ ;s lc (4) All of these

168. 168. Identify correct statement about life :

(1) Lof}xq.ku (1) Self replicating
(2) Lo fofu;eu (2) Self regulating
(3) mn~fodkl (3) Evolving

(4) mijksDr lHkh (4) All of these

NLI / 40
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
169. 169. Match the following column - I and column - II
-I - II Column - I Column - II
a) dksdkbZ i) ?kM+kdkj a) Cocci i) Rod shaped

b) csflykbZ ii) dkWek vkdkj b) Bacilli ii) Comma shaped

c) Likbfjye iii) xksykdkj c) Spirillum iii) Spherical shaped

d) fofcz;e iv) lfiZykdkj d) Vibrium iv) Spiral shaped

(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(4) a-iv, b-ii ,c-i, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-ii ,c-i, d-iii
170. (A) 170. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
izksfVLVk txr dh dksf'kdk esa ,d lqalxfBr dsUnzd ,oa
The protistan cell body contains a well defined nucleus
vU; f>Yyh dksf'kdkax ik, tkrs gSA and other membrane bound organelles.
(R) : Reason (R) :
izksfVLVk dk laxBu ;qdSfj;ksfVd gksrk gSA Protistan have eukaryotic organisation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSA ysfdu (R) lgh O;k[;k (A) (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
dk ugha gSA
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) lgh gS ysfdu (R) xyr gSA
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) xyr gS yfdu(R) lgh gSA
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(4) nksuksa (A) vkSj (R) lgh (R) lgh O;k[;k (A) dk gSA explanation of (A)
171. 171. Match the following column-I and column-II
-I - II Column - I Column - II
a) dwViknksa dk gksuk i) IykTkeksfM;e a) Presence of pseudopodia i) Plasmodium
b) d'kkHkh izksVkstksvk ii) iSjkehf'k;e b) Flagellated protozoa ii) Paramoecium
c) eysfj;k ijthoh iii) ,aVvkehck c) Malarial parasite iii) Entamoeba
d) i{ekHkh izkVs kstksvk iv) fVªiSukslksek d) Ciliated protozoa iv) Trypanosoma
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
172. 172. The plants of wheat belongs to :
(1) dqy ,ukdkMhZ,lh ls (1) Family anacardiaceae
(2) iks,Yl x.k ls (2) Order poales
(3) 1 vkSj 2 nksuks (3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Dykl MkbdkWVhyhMksuh (4) Class dicotyledonae

NLI / 41
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
173. 173. Mycelium of rhizopus are

(1) 'kkf[kr vkSj iVh; (1) Branched and septate

(2) cgqdafs nzr (2) Coenocytic

(3) viVh; (3) Aseptate

(4) nksuksa 2 rFkk 3 (4) Both 2 & 3

174. 174. Given below are two statements

-I: Statement I:
Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a
vk| cSDVhfj;k rFkk vU; cSDVhfj;k dh dksf'kdk fHkfRr dh
different cell wall structure and this feature is responsible
lajpuk ,d nwljs ls fHkUu gksrh gSA ;gh y{k.k mUgsa izfrdwy for their survival in extreme condition.
voLFkkvksa esa thfor j[kus ds fy, mRrjnk;h gSA Statement II :
- II : Methanogen are present in the gut of several ruminant
eSFksukstu vusd :feusaV i'kqvksa ds vkU=k esa ik;s tkrs gSA animals.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
175. 175. Given below are two statements

-I: Statement I:

QatkbZ fo'oO;kih gS vkSj ;s gok] ty feV~Vh esa tUrq Fungi are cosmopolitan and occurs in air, water, soil
and on animals and plants.
rFkk ikS/ksa ij ik;s tkrs gSaA
Statement II :
- II :
Some unicellular fungi like yeast are used to make bread
dqN ,d dksf'kdh; QatkbZ tSls ;hLV dk mi;ksx jksVh rFkk
and antibiotics
,UVhck;ksfVDl cukus esa fd;k tkrk gSA
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
176. ________ 176. Mayr was awarded by the Balzan Prize in ________,
________ , the International Prize for Biology in ________, and
________ the Crafoord Prize in ________ respectively :

(1) 1994, 1983, 1999 (1) 1994, 1983, 1999

(2) 1983, 1994, 1999 (2) 1983, 1994, 1999

(3) 1999, 1983, 1994 (3) 1999, 1983, 1994

(4) 1985, 1995, 1999 (4) 1985, 1995, 1999

NLI / 42
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

177. 177. Given below are two statements

-I: Statement I:
cSDVhfj;k ekWusjk txr ds vUrxZr vkrs gSA Bacteria are the sole members of kingdom monera.

- II : Statement II :
They live in extreme habitats such as hot springs,
;s xeZ ty ds >juksa] e:LFky] cQZ ,oa xgjs leqnz tSls
deserts, snow and deep oceans where very few other
fo"ke ,oa izfrdwy okl LFkkuksa tgk¡ nwljs tho thfor ugha life forms can survive.
jg ikrs gSA
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
178. 178. Find the correct option regarding this diagram
(a) (a) Some of these organism can fix atmospheric
nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts.
(b) The colonies are generally surrounded by
gelatinous sheath
(b)
(c) They often form blooms in polluted water
bodies
(c) (d) Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll-a similar to
(d) - green plants
a

(1) a, d
(1) a, d
(2) b, c
(2) b, c
(3) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
179. 179. Following are some characteristics of a specific
group. Considered the characters and identify the
i. respective group :
ii. i. Majority of organism are fresh water
iii. ii. Pellicle is present
(1) ØkblksQkbVk iii. Two flagella present
(1) Chrysophyta
(2) Lykbe eksYM~l
(2) Slime moulds
(3) ;qXyhukWbMl (3) Euglenoids
(4) ekbdksIyktek (4) Mycoplasma

NLI / 43
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
180. 180. Which of the following is true about
basidiomycetes:

(a) (a) Also called bracket fungi

(b) (b) Sex organs absent, but plasmogamy is

brought about by fusion of two vegetative cells of
different genotypes

(c) (c) Karyogamy and meiosis takes place outside

the basidium
(d) Basidiospores are produced exogenously
(d)
(1) a vkSj b lgh (1) a and b are correct

(2) b vkSj c lgh (2) b and c are correct

(3) a, b, c vkSj d lHkh lgh (3) a, b, c and d all are correct

(4) a, b vkSj d lgh (4) a, b and d are correct

181. 181. Bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria) have
usually :

(1) xksykdkj vkj,u, (1) Circular RNA

(2) ,dy yM+h vkj,u, (2) Single stranded RNA

(3) ,dy yM+h Mh,u, (3) Single stranded DNA

(4) nksgjh yM+h Mh,u, (4) Double stranded DNA
182. : 182. Growth and reproduction are mutually Exclusive
events in:
(1) mPpdksfV ds izkf.k;ksa rFkk ikniksa esa
(1) Higher animals and plants
(2) fuEudksfV ds thoksa esa (2) Lower organism
(3) dsoy ikS/kksa esa (3) Plants only
(4) dsoy tkuojksa esa (4) Animals only
183. 183. Find the correct option regarding this diagram
(a) (a) Slime moulds are photosynthetic protist
(b) (b) During favourable conditions the plasmodium
differentiates and forms fruiting bodies
(c)
(c) The spores possess true walls
(d)
(d) The spores are dispersed by water currents

(1) a, b, c (2) b, c (1) a, b, c (2) b, c

(3) b, d (4) dsoy c (3) b, d (4) Only c

NLI / 44
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
184. 184. Which of the following organism form water bloom
in polluted water body:

(1) ,YC;wxks dsUMhMk (1) Albugo candida

(2) vk| cSDVhfj;k (2) Archaebacteria
(3) lk;uksacSDVhfj;k (3) Cynobacteria
(4) xksu;ksySDl (4) Gonyaulax

185. 185. Who showed that Viruses could be crystalised :

(1) bokuksoLdh (1) Ivanowsky
(2) MCY;w ,e LVsuys (2) W.M Stanley
(3) ,e MCyw cstsfjusd (3) M.W. Beijerinek
(4) LVsuys feyj (4) Stanley miller
-B PART-2 (SECTION-B)
15 15 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
10 10 choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candidate attempts more than
10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking.
186. 186. Maximum nutritional diversity with multicellular
organisation is found in which group:
(1) ,fuesfy;k (2) izkfs VLVk (1) Animalia (2) Protista
(3) QatkbZ (4) eksujs k (3) Fungi (4) Monera
187. ICZN 187. ICZN stand for :

(1) bafM;u dkmUlhy QkWj twyksthdy uksesuDyspj (1) Indian council for Zoological Nomenclature.

(2) baVjus'kuy dksM vkWQ twyksthdy uksesuDyspj (2) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature.

(3) bafM;u lfVZfIQdsV QkWj twyksthdy uksesuDyspj (3) Indian certificate for Zoological Nomenclature.

(4) bafM;u dksM vkWQ tsyksthydy uksesuDyspj (4) Indian code of Zoological Nomenclature.

188. I 188. Match the different types of spores listed under

II column-I with the names of the organisms given
under column-II

-I -II Column-I Column-II

Spore Organisms

a. f. a. Ascospores f. Mushroom

b. g. b. Basidiospores g. Yeast

c. h. c. Zygospores h. Albugo

d. i. d. Conidia i. Pencillium

(1) a-g, b-f, c-h, d-i (2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-i (1) a-g, b-f, c-h, d-i (2) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-i

(3) a-h, b-i, c-g, d-f (4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-i (3) a-h, b-i, c-g, d-f (4) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-i

NLI / 45
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024
189. 189. Which is correct statement :

(1) Vh-vks- Mkbuj us 1971 esa ok;jl dh [kkst dh (1) T.O. Diener discovered virus in 1971

(2) ok;jkbM dk vkj,u, dk vkf.od Hkkj de gksrk gS (2) RNA of viroid was of low molecular weight

(3) bU¶yw,atk ,d cSfDVfj;y jksx gS (3) Influenza is a bacterial disease

(4) ykbdsu iznwf"kr {ks= esa vkrs gS (4) Lichens grow in polluted areas

190. 190. Cell wall of fungi is composed of :

(1) dsoy lSY;wykst (1) Cellulose only

(2) iSDVkst + dkbfVu (2) Pectose + chitin

(3) dsoy dkbfVu (3) Chitin only
(4) dkbfVu + ikWyhlSdsjkbM (4) Chitin + Polysaccharide

191. (A) 191. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
vf/kdka'k QatkbZ ijiksf"kr gksrs gSA
Most fungi are saprophytic in their mode of nutrition.
(R) : Reason (R) :
os e`r LkClVªVs l
~ ls ?kqyu'khy dkcZfud inkFkksZ dks vo'kksf"kr They absorb soluble organic matter from dead
djrs gSA substrate.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(1) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSA ysfdu (R) lgh O;k[;k (A)
correct explanation of (A)
dk ugha gSA
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) lgh gS ysfdu (R) xyr gSA
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) xyr gS yfdu(R) lgh gSA
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(4) nksuksa (A) vkSj (R) lgh] (R) lgh O;k[;k (A) dk gSA explanation of (A)
192. 192. Locomotory organelles in protista is/are :
(1) d'kkfHkdk (1) Flagella

(2) i{ekHkh (2) Cilia

(3) fiykbZ (3) Pilli

(4) nksuksa 1 rFkk 2 (4) Both 1 & 2

193. 193. How many matchings are correct :

a. – a. Extreme salty areas – Halophiles

b. – b. Hot springs – Thermoacidophiles

c. Marshy areas – Methanogens
c. –
d. Methanogens – Ruminant animals
d. –

(1) 3 (2) 1 (1) 3 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 4 (3) 2 (4) 4

NLI / 46
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

194. 194. Chlorella & Amoeba are placed in which kingdom

(according to 5 kingdom classification system):
(1) IykUVh vkSj ,uhesfy;k (1) Plantae & Animalia
(2) IykUVh vkSj izksfVLVk (2) Plantae & Protista
(3) izksfVLVk vkSj ,uhesfy;k (3) Protista & Animalia
(4) nksuksa gh izksfVLVk ds varZxr j[ks tkrs gS (4) Both are placed in protista
195. 195. Which of the following statement is correct about

mycoplasma :
(1) bu vkjxsfuTe eas dksf'kdk fHkfRr iw.kZr;k vuqifLFkr (1) These organisms completely lack a cell wall
gksrh gS
(2) These are smallest living cell known and survive
(2) ;s lcls NksVs thfor dksf'kdk gS vkSj dsoy vkWDlhtu
in oxygen only
ds jg ldrs gS
(3) ;s dsoy ikS/ksa esa iSFkkstsfud gS (3) These are pathogenic in plants only

(4) lHkh lgh gS (4) All of these.

196. 196. Match the following column - I and column - II
-I - II Column - I Column - II
a) e'k:e i) ,sYkcwxksa a) Mushroom i) Albugo
b) Rust fungus ii) Yeast
b) fdV~V Qaxl ii) ;hLV
c) Saccharomyces iii) Agaricus
c) ldSjksekblht iii) ,sxSfjdl
d) Parasitic fungi on iv) Puccinia
d) ljlksa dk ijthoh QatkbZ iv) ifDlfu;k mustard
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-ii ,c-i, d-iii (3) a-iv, b-ii ,c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
197. 197. Which of the following is insectivorous plant :
(1) ohul ¶ykbZ VªSi (1) Venus fly trap
(2) CySMjoVZ (2) Bladderwort
(3) dlD;wVk (3) Cuscuta
(4) 1 vkSj 2 nksuks (4) Both (1) and (2)
198. 198. Kingdom fungi is divided into various classes on
the basis of :

(1) ekbflfy;e dh ekQksZykth] Liksj cuus ds izdkj (1) Morphology of the mycelium, mode of spore

vkSj U;wVªh'ku ds izdkj formation, mode of nutrition

(2) gk;Qh dh ekQksZykth] xsehV cuus ds izdkj] U;wVªh'ku (2) Morphology of the hyphae mode of gamete

ds izdkj formation, mode of nutrition

(3) ekbflfy;e dh ekQksZykth] Liksj cuus ds izdkj vkSj (3) Morphology of the mycelium, mode of spore

ÝwfVax ckMht formation & fruiting bodies

(4) mijksDr lHkh (4) All of these

NLI / 47
 All India RBTS –01 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025/Rank Booster /26-Nov.-2024

199. 199. Match the following correctly :

(i) (a) (i) Albugo (a) Phycomycetes

(ii) (b)
(ii) Coenocytic (b) Used extensively in

biochemical work.

(iii) Neurospora (c) Puff balls

(iii) (c)
(iv) Basidiomycetes (d) Parasitic fungi
(iv) (d)
(1) i -d, ii -a, iii -b, iv -c
(1) i -d, ii -a, iii -b, iv -c
(2) i -c, ii -a, iii -b, iv -d
(2) i -c, ii -a, iii -b, iv -d

(3) i -a, ii -d, iii -c, iv -b (3) i -a, ii -d, iii -c, iv -b

(4) i -b, ii -a, iii -d, iv -c (4) i -b, ii -a, iii -d, iv -c

200. 200. Nuclear membrane is absent in:

(1) ukWLVkWd (1) Nostoc

(2) isfuflfy;e (2) Penicillium

(3) ,xkfjdl (3) Agaricus

(4) okWyokDl (4) Volvox

NLI / 48