Grade - 4

Time: 45 mins

Grand Finale - 2024

Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

4
Seat No. _____________ Grade ____________ Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are three sections A, B & C. Section A has 10 questions of 1 mark

each. Section B has 30 questions of 2 marks each. Section C has 10
questions of 3 marks each. Every wrong answer of section A, B, C will
carry 25% negative mark.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.

After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue /
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No

scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form

during the examination will be disqualified. Use of calculator is prohibited

7) Students must carry the admit card & their school identity card with them.

Total Marks: / 100

 Answer Key
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D

1 A B C D 11 A B C D 21 A B C D 31 A B C D 41 A B C D

2 A B C D 12 A B C D 22 A B C D 32 A B C D 42 A B C D

3 A B C D 13 A B C D 23 A B C D 33 A B C D 43 A B C D

4 A B C D 14 A B C D 24 A B C D 34 A B C D 44 A B C D

5 A B C D 15 A B C D 25 A B C D 35 A B C D 45 A B C D

6 A B C D 16 A B C D 26 A B C D 36 A B C D 46 A B C D

7 A B C D 17 A B C D 27 A B C D 37 A B C D 47 A B C D

8 A B C D 18 A B C D 28 A B C D 38 A B C D 48 A B C D

9 A B C D 19 A B C D 29 A B C D 39 A B C D 49 A B C D

10 A B C D 20 A B C D 30 A B C D 40 A B C D 50 A B C D
 Grade - 4

Time: 45 min

Section - A (1 mark each)

1) 1984 1948 Compare & put appropriate sign (<, >, =).
a) < b) = c) > d) None of these

2) Find the even number from the following?

a) 3750 b) 3461 c) 1749 d) 2461

3) Triple of 74 = ?
a) 37 b) 148 c) 222 d) 212

4) Half of 516 = ?
a) 1032 b) 208 c) 102 d) 258

5) Which of the following is the greatest number?

a) 1548 b) 1845 c) 1485 d) 1805

6) 2000 + + 30 + 6 = 2526
a) 500 b) 520 c) 490 d) 510

7) Round off 5726 to nearest 100s

a) 6000 b) 5000 c) 5800 d) 5700

8) Which of the following numbers is multiple of 12?

a) 121 b) 72 c) 80 d) 65

9) 5186 - = 2945
a) 2241 b) 3841 c) 3214 d) 2214

10) Which of the following is the biggest measure?

1
a) 957 ml b) 120 litre c) 1.540 litre d) 1 litre
4
1
 Grade - 4

Section - B (2 marks each)

11) What is the sum of place value of number 3 in the number 3436?
a) 6 b) 330 c) 303 d) 3030

12) 3rd odd number after 136 = ?

a) 142 b) 141 c) 140 d) 143

13) If ‘5P + 2’ is an odd number, what will be the next odd number?
a) 5P + 3 b) 5P + 5 c) 5P + 4 d) 5P + 7

14) Three digit largest even number minus 4 = ?

a) 1003 b) 1002 c) 994 d) 995

15) a x 74 = 888 Find the value of ‘a’.

a) 22 b) 42 c) 13 d) 12

16) Find the predecessor of 1400.

a) 1401 b) 1501 c) 1499 d) 1399

17) Form the smallest 4-digit number using each digit only once. 4, 1, 3, 5
a) 5431 b) 1345 c) 1354 d) 5413

25
18) litre = ml
40
a) 750 b) 500 c) 625 d) 830

19) Eight times eight added to eighteen.

a) 144 b) 82 c) 34 d) 74

20) What is the sum of digits in the product of 12 & 6?

a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
2
 Grade - 4
21) Which of the following is an incorrect conversion?
a) 120 cm = 1200 m b) 5 kg = 5000 gm
c) 2.5 litre = 2500 ml d) 2 m = 200 cm

22) Seven thousand = hundreds

a) 70 b) 7 c) 700 d) 0.7

23) Area of a square is 169 cm2, find the length of the side.
a) 13 cm b) 14 cm c) 15 cm d) 16 cm

24) tens - 30 tens = 230

a) 260 b) 200 c) 70 d) 53

25) 9x8=6xa Find the value of ‘a’.

a) 12 b) 66 c) 8 d) 9

26) 1 9 5 Find the missing number.

x 9
1305

a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

27) 45 3 = 15 Put correct symbol to make equation correct.

a) + b) - c) x d)

28) cm Find the length of a side if its perimeter is 64 cm.

16
18
cm

23 cm

a) 57 cm b) 7 cm c) 9 cm d) 6 cm

29) Find the biggest fraction from the following.

3 17 9 23
a) b) c) d)
2 22 16 28
3
 Grade - 4

30) The length of a rectangle is 15 cm and its breadth is 9 cm. What is

its perimeter?
a) 108 cm b) 24 cm c) 48 cm d) 159 cm

31) 2070 9 = ? Find the quotient.

a) 0 b) 230 c) 203 d) 147

32) Quarter to 7 in the morning is same as ____.

a) 7:15 am b) 7:45 pm c) 6:45 am d) 6:15 pm

33) 150 cm = m
a) 15 b) 1.5 c) 1500 d) 0.15

34) 189 - (23 x 6) = ?

a) 996 b) 63 c) 51 d) 160

9
35) Find the equivalent fraction for =
10 70
a) 63 b) 69 c) 72 d) 54

36) Find the sum of odd number given here.

15, 18, 22, 27, 45
a) 40 b) 87 c) 72 d) 42

37) 4 hours = seconds

a) 60 x 60 b) 4 x 60 c) 24 x 60 x 60 d) 4 x 60 x 60

38) One fourth of a number is 37. What is that number?

a) 148 b) 128 c) 74 d) 6.5

39) START END

129 ÷ 3 x9 - 39 Find the END number.
a) 429 b) 13 c) 284 d) 348

16 14
40) + =3 Find the value of
a) 30 b) 20 c) 10 d) 5
4
 Grade - 4

Section - C (3 marks each)

41) There are 50 questions in a maths competition. For each correct

answer 2 marks are given while 1 mark is deducted for every wrong
answer. How many questions does Soham answer wrongly if he
scores 82 marks? (assuming that he solved all questions)
a) 8 b) 6 c) 5 d) 9

3
42) John is th as old as his brother, who is 20 years old. How old is
4
Sarah if she is 7 years younger than John?
a) 23 years b) 8 years c) 7 years d) 27 years

43) The square and rectangle shown below have the same area. Find the
length of the rectangle. (not drown to scale)
20 cm

8 cm

a) 50 cm b) 25 cm c) 10 cm d) 8 cm

44) The difference between two numbers is 512. If the bigger number is
5 times as big as the smaller number, find the sum of the two numbers.
a) 768 b) 670 c) 838 d) 650

45) The table shows the number of different notes and coins.
The total amount Rs. 6000.

Rs. 500 Rs. 200 Rs. 100 Rs. 5 50 paise

8 5 9 14 ?

What is the number of 50 paise coins?

a) 30 b) 50 c) 60 d) 70
5
 Grade - 4

46) An amusement park sold 50 standard tickets for Rs. 150 each and
30 express tickets for Rs. 200 each. If the amusement park is fully
occupied, what will be the total collection?
a) Rs. 14500 b) Rs. 15000 c) Rs. 14000 d) Rs. 13500

47) Ram works 5 hours a day. If he earns Rs. 150 per hour and he works
everyday in the month of February 2024. How much does he earn?
a) Rs. 21000 b) Rs. 22500 c) Rs. 21750 d) Rs. 23250

48) START END

÷5 x8 - 20 + 45
225 Find the START number.

a) 400 b) 125 c) 320 d) 256

3
49) Tom sell a toy car for Rs. 60 each. He sold of his cars and received
4
Rs. 4500. How many toy cars did he have earlier?
a) 75 b) 80 c) 100 d) 125

50) A bus arrives at the bus stop every 25 minutes. If the first bus
arrives at 8:15 am, At what time the fifth bus will arrive?
a) 9:55 am b) 10 am c) 10:15 am d) 11:05 am

6
 Class - 4

Time: 45 mins

Grand Finale - 2023

Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

4
Seat No. _____________ Class ____________ Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are two sections A & B. Section A has 50 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B has 25 questions of 2 marks each. Every wrong answer of
section B will carry half negative mark. There will not be negative
marking for section A.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.

After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue /
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No

scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form

during the examination will be disqualified. Use of calculator is prohibited

7) Students must carry the hall ticket & their school identity card with them.

Total Marks: / 100

 Class - 4

Time: 45 mins

Section - A

1) 5 times 5 added to 25.

a) 25 b) 35 c) 50 d) 625

2) 76 5 = 380 Put appropriate symbol.

a) x b) ÷ c) + d) -

3) 81 = 9 Find the equivalent fraction.

10
a) 85 b) 82 c) 80 d) 90

4) Double of 236 = ?

a) 118 b) 462 c) 472 d) 113

5) START END
120x2 +120 - 120 Find the END number.

a) 480 b) 380 c) 340 d) 240

6) Select the prime number.

a) 97 b) 49 c) 27 d) 90

7) 1730 ÷ 5 =?

a) 326 b) 348 c) 346 d) 0

8) a x a = 169 a =?

a) 12 b) 16 c) 14 d) 13

9) 13.05 litre = ml

a) 13050 b) 13500 c) 13005 d) 13000

10) Half of 6350 = ?

a) 12700 b) 3120 c) 3175 d) 3275

11) 178 ÷ = 178

a) 178 b) 1 c) 5 d) 2
1
 Class - 4
1
12) 6 + 6 =1 Find the missing number.
a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 1
13) Find the area of a rectangle when its length = 15 cm and breadth = 9 cm.
a) 48 cm2 b) 135 cm2 c) 105 cm2 d) 58 cm2
14) Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) 176 = 176 b) 295 > 287 c) 153 > 173 d) 18 < 36
15) 2940 Find the missing number.
-
1425
1020
a) 5 b) 4 c) 9 d) 7
16) What number will be formed by 500 + 6 + 50 + 2000?
a) 5652 b) 2562 c) 2556 d) 6525
17) Form the largest 4-digit number using each of the digits only once.
6, 2, 3, 1
a) 6321 b) 1236 c) 6312 d) 1263
18) Side of a square is 10 cm, Find its area.
a) 40 cm2 b) 20 cm2 c) 121 cm2 d) 100 cm2
19) Find the biggest fraction.
a) 21 b) 19 c) 24 d) 17
28 28 28 28
20) Write Eighteen thousand eighteen in number.
a) 8018 b) 8008 c) 18018 d) 180018
21) 18 + = 29
35 35 35
a) 23 b) 35 c) 12 d) 11
22) 274
x
3

a) 822 b) 612 c) 622 d) 827

23) Which of the following was a leap year?
a) 2013 b) 2015 c) 2010 d) 2008
24) What is the place value of digit 6 in a number 6258?
a) 6000 b) 6 c) 60 d) 600
2
 Class - 4
25) 1945 + 1798 = ?
a) 3743 b) 2743 c) 3473 d) 2634
26) The length of a rectangle is 12 cm and its breadth is 10 cm. What is
its perimeter ?
a) 22 cm b) 120 cm c) 44 cm d) 240 cm
27) How many 5 rupee coins make Rs. 125?
a) 125 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
28) 2820 seconds = minutes.
a) 403 b) 45 c) 47 d) 470
29) 43 x 4 x 0 x 6 = ?
a) 1032 b) 53 c) 0 d) None of these
3
30) kg = gms
8
a) 380 b) 375 c) 650 d) 425
31) a ÷ 20 = 50 Find the value of ‘a’.
a) 70 b) 30 c) 100 d) 1000
32) 2nd odd number after 125 = ?
a) 129 b) 128 c) 130 d) 131
33) Find the smallest fraction from the following.
19 14 21 18
a) 25 b) 25 c) 25 d) 25
34) Which of the following is same as 25 + (30 + 18)?
a) 25 (30 + 18) b) 18 + (25 + 30)
c) 30 + (25 x 18) d) 18 x (30 + 25)
35) Quarter to 7 in the morning is same as ___
a) 7:15 am b) 6:30 am c) 6:45 am d) 7:15 pm
36) 120 + 89 = ?
a) 109 b) 209 c) 169 d) 219
37) 3.5 meter = cm
a) 35000 b) 35 c) 350 d) 305
3
 Class - 4
38) 2945 2695 Compare & put appropriate sign

a) < b) = c) > d) none of these

39) 174 - a = 96 a=?

a) 170 b) 78 c) 122 d) 76

40) Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by 5?

a) 57 b) 53 c) 55 d) 52

41) Subtract 100 from 356, you will get

a) 456 b) 256 c) 355 d) 156

42) 153 more than 74 = ?

a) 227 b) 127 c) 79 d) 97

43) Which of the following is the greatest number?

a) 5394 b) 5098 c) 5396 d) 5218

44) Express 4:25 pm as 24 hours time

a) 16:25 b) 4:25 c) 14:25 d) 18:25

45) Round off 3705 to nearest 100s

a) 3800 b) 3700 c) 4000 d) 3750

46) In which of the given numbers the place value of the digit 8 is the

greatest ?

a) 9854 b) 8516 c) 9980 d) 7328

1
47) of 70 = ?
5
a) 14 b) 10 c) 12 d) 16

48) If A = 6 then A + A + A = ?

a) 6 b) 9 c) 12 d) 18

49) 70 ones - 7 tens = ?

a) 63 b) 0 c) 77 d) 70

50) The sum of which two prime number is 8.

a) 3 and 5 b) 2 and 6 c) 1 and 7 d) None of these

4
 Class - 4

Section - B

51) 7x8=?
a) 9 x 6 b) 70 - 24 c) 30 + 26 d) All of these
52) Music class starts at 1:15 pm and ends 3:45 pm. How long does it run?
a) 2 hrs 20 mins b) 1 hr 20 mins c) 2 hrs 30 mins d) 1 hr 30 mins
1
53) 1 dozen = units
4
a) 3 b) 15 c) 9 d) 4
54) 2658 Find the Missing number.
+
3040
5005
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
55) Mr. Rajesh runs 5 km everyday from Monday to Friday & 10 km a day
on Saturday & Sunday. How many km does Mr. Rajesh run in a week?
a) 35 km b) 45 km c) 30 km d) 50 km
START END
56)
+4 ÷4 -4 x 10
40 Find the START number.

a) 28 b) 6 c) 103 d) 4
57) If the perimeter of a rectangle is 150 cm and its length is 45 cm,
Find the breadth.
a) 105 cm b) 75 cm c) 40 cm d) 30 cm
58) Soham works 8 hours a day. If he earns Rs. 100 per hour and he works
for 2 weeks every day except Sunday. How much does he earn?
a) Rs. 800 b) Rs. 9600 c) Rs. 4800 d) Rs. 1600
59) 15, 30, 45, ____ Complete the series.
a) 65 b) 55 c) 50 d) 60
60) Half of = (10 x 8)
a) 20 x 4 b) 13 x 5 c) 20 x 8 d) 100 ÷ 5
61) The passing marks for an exam was 35. Deepti scored 60 more marks
1
than the passing marks. What was her score?
5
a) 95 b) 47 c) 67 d) 76
62) The cost of a book is Rs. 263. What is the cost of 7 books?
a) Rs.1421 b) Rs. 1841 c) Rs. 1821 d) Rs. 1721
5
 Class - 4 .
63) Rakhi had 50 drawing books out of that 37 books were sold @ 20 each
& remaining for Rs. 10 each. Find the total amount she received?
a) Rs. 750 b) Rs. 1000 c) Rs. 870 d) Rs. 800
64) (125 + 50) (35 x 5) Compare & put appropriate sign.
a) < b) > c) = d) None of these
65) What is the sum of place value of 7 in the number 7175?
a) 7700 b) 7070 c) 7007 d) 7175
66) There are 1967 students in a school. Out of these 1039 are boys.
How many girls are there?
a) 932 b) 1928 c) 3006 d) 928
67) Smallest two digit number divided by even prime number = ?
a) 20 b) 25 c) 5 d) 10
68) 30 tens + 20 tens = tens.
a) 10 b) 50 c) 5 d) 60
69) If perimeter of a square is 40 cm, find its area?
a) 1600 cm2 b) 160 cm2 c) 80 cm2 d) 100 cm2
70) Greatest four digit odd number minus greatest three digit even
number =?
a) 9000 b) 9001 c) 9899d) 1999
1
71) Yash gets pocket money of Rs. 500 per month. He saves part of
5
it in the bank every month. How much does he save in a year?
a) Rs. 6000 b) Rs. 1500 c) Rs. 1800 d) Rs. 1200
72) The difference of two numbers is 7. Their sum is 17. What could be
combinations from the following ?
a) 12 & 5 b) 10 & 7 c) 10 & 3 d) 15 & 2
73) Add 47 to smallest two digit odd number.
a) 57 b) 59 c) 58 d) 56
74) 9x7= +8
a) 55 b) 63 c) 71 d) 60
75) What is the sum of the digits in the product of 8 and 7?
a) 12 b) 11 c) 10 d) 9

6
 OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper

Grand Finale 2023
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Class...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
 OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper

Grand Finale 2023
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Class...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
 Class - 4

Time: 45 mins

Grand Finale - 2022

Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

4
Seat No. _____________ Class ____________ Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are two sections A & B. Section A has 50 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B has 25 questions of 2 marks each. Every wrong answer of
section B will carry half negative mark. There will not be negative
marking for section A.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.

After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue /
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No

scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form

during the examination will be disqualified. Use of calculator is prohibited

7) Students must carry the hall ticket & their school identity card with them.

Total Marks: / 100

 Class - 4

Time: 45 mins

Section - A

1) Which of the following statements is false?

a) 138 > 140 b) 128 = 128
c) 279 > 197 d) 110 < 184
2) Add 73 to the smallest two digit odd number
a) 173 b) 83 c) 84 d) 172
3) The sum of which two prime numbers is 8
a) 3 and 5 b) 2 and 6 c) 1 and 7 d) None of these
4) 9 x 5 =?
a) 450 ÷ 10 b) 270 - 225 c) 90 ÷ 2 d) All of these
5) Side of a square is 15 cm. Find its area
a) 60 cm b) 225 cm c) 225 cm2 d) 60 cm2
6) 1600 = 40 x
a) 1560 b) 34 c) 1640 d) 40
7) Form the largest four digit odd number using each digit only once
6, 0, 1, 7
a) 7610 b) 7601 c) 1067 d) 1076
8) Half of 1890 =?
a) 950 b) 472 c) 945 d) 875
9) 3360 seconds = minutes
a) 45 b) 56 c) 60 d) 46
10) Which of the following is a leap year?
a) 1956 b) 2014 c) 2018 d) 1902
11) 45 minutes after 4:45 pm =?
a) 4:00 pm b) 4:30 pm c) 5:45 pm d) 5:30 pm
1
 Class - 4

12) Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by 3?

a) 314 b) 570 c) 283 d) 416

13) If a x a = 144, find the value of ‘a’.

a) 72 b) 288 c) 13 d) 12

14) 423 ÷ 5, what will be the remainder?

a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1

15) Find the perimeter of a square when its side = 20 cm.

a) 80 cm b) 400 cm c) 40 cm d) 120 cm

16) Add 189 to the smallest three digit odd number.

a) 290 b) 89 c) 289 d) 300

17) 17 x 5 =?

a) 47 + 38 b) 100 - 35 c) 13 × 8 d) 135 ÷ 5

18) 3 + =3 Find the missing number.

7 7
a) 15 b) 9 c) 18 d) 12
25 35
19) 30 = Find the equivalent fraction.

a) 42 b) 40 c) 45 d) 35

20) Find the biggest fraction from the following

a) 28 b) 17 c) 3 d) 3
30 30 2 30
21) START END
130÷2 x8 - 194 Find the END number.

a) 426 b) 326 c) 286 d) None of these

22) Find the sum of odd numbers given here 14, 21, 37, 20, 55, 58.

a) 92 b) 205 c) 113 d) 115

23) 9 litre + 5 ml = ml

a) 9500 b) 9050 c) 9.005 d) 9005

24) Which is the greatest number of the following?

a) 5764 b) 6745 c) 6547 d) 6457

2
 Class - 4
25) Select the smallest fraction from the following
15 13 19 10
a) b) c) d)
28 28 28 28
26) In which of the given numbers place value of the digit 7 is the
greatest?
a) 30,725 b) 89,470 c) 70,000 d) 97,195
11 7 3
27) + - =?
18 18 18
15 8 4
a) b) 1 c) d)
18 18 18
28) 3 dozen = units
4
a) 12 b) 9 c) 6 d) 5
29) 805 ÷ 7 =? Find the quotient.
a) 101 b) 116 c) 106 d) 115
30) Find prime numbers from the following.
a) 83 b) 47 c) 2 d) All of these
31) 5 + 2 =?
7 7
3 1
a) 1 b) c) d) 7
7 7
32) In a number 6841 what is product of face values of all digits?
a) 19 b) 184 c) 96 d) 192
33) Double of 638 is =?
a) 1266 b) 319 c) 1276 d) 1019
34) 4 times 4 added to 4 =?
a) 20 b) 12 c) 16 d) 24
35) In a number 1385, what is the product of face value of all digits?
a) 120 b) 0 c) 17 d) 16
36) 6 Find the missing number.
x
6
216

a) 36 b) 4 c) 9 d) 3
37) Find the area of a rectangle when its length = 15 cm & breadth = 10 cm
a) 150 cm b) 50 cm c) 150 cm2 d) 50 cm2
3
 Class - 4
38) 5 gm = kg

a) 5000 b) 0.5 c) 0.05 d) 0.005

39) Write place value of digit 7 in the number 28716.

a) 7 b) 756 c) 700 d) 765

40) What is sum of largest two digit number and smallest three digit

odd number?

a) 199 b) 200 c) 198 d) 150

41) Write in numerals. Twenty five thousand and twenty five

a) 250025 b) 25025 c) 2525 d) 25250

42) 84 8 = 672 Put appropriate sign.

a) x b) ÷ c) + d) -

43) 5129 - = 3845

a) 1284 b) 2724 c) 2284 d) 1484

44) 2 days 5 hours = hours

a) 48 b) 25 c) 53 d) 50

45) 198 x 8 =?

a) 1386 b) 1584 c) 1464 d) 1544

32
46) 40 litre = ml

a) 650 b) 320 c) 580 d) 800

47) 167 - 57 - 67 + 157 =?

a) 257 b) 200 c) 167 d) 267

48) What is sum of place value and face value of 5 in the number 9508?

a) 500 b) 5 c) 508 d) 505

49) 5607 gm = 5 kg + gm

a) 600 b) 607 c) 7 d) 60

50) 100 - (25 x 4) =?

a) 75 b) 50 c) 0 d) 79

4
 Class - 4

Section - B
3079
+
51) 3830 Find the missing number
7818
a) 8 b) 9 c) 7 d) 3
52) Mr. Joshi runs 5 km everyday from Monday to Friday and 21 km a day
on Saturday and Sunday. How many km does Joshi run in a week?
a) 26 b) 46 c) 67 d) 62
53) How many times 8 can be subtracted from 152 to get remainder zero?
a) 17 b) 20 c) 18 d) 19
54) The rice bags are arranged in 10 rows each containing 7 bags. If they
are arranged in 14 rows, how many rice bags will be there in each row?
a) 7 b) 6 c) 5 d) 4
55) A school starts at 8:15 am in morning and ends at 2:45 pm in
afternoon. How many hours does the school runs?
a) 5 hrs 45 mins b) 6 hrs 30 mins c) 6 hrs 15 mins d) 6 hrs 45 mins
56) Find the next number in the series 4, 9, 16, ___
a) 25 b) 28 c) 20 d) 32
57) Which of the following is correct conversion?
3
a) 100 ml = 0.01 litre b) dozen = 6 units
4
c) 5 kg = 500 gm d) 2 cm = 0.02 m
58) 10 + 10 x 10 - 10 ÷ 10 =?
a) 19 b) 0 c) 109 d) None of these
59) write fraction for shaded figure.

6.5 4 3.5 3.5

a) b) c) d)
10 10 10 6.5
60) Aryan works 10 hours a day. If he earns Rs. 10 per hour and he works
for 2 weeks every day except Sunday, how much does he earn?
a) 1000 b) 1200 c) 1400 d) 1600
61) Half of = (35 x 2)
a) 28 x 5 b) 140 ÷ 2 c) 7 x 5 d) 10 x 7
62) Beena cut a pizza into 12 equal pieces. She ate 2 pieces and from
2
remaining she gave pieces to her friend. How many pieces of
5
pizza were left?
a) 6 b) 4 c) 8 d) 5
5
 Class - 4 .
START END
63) x6 + 10 - 74 x4
104 Find the START number.

a) 2112 b) 352 c) 15 d) 105

64) Rahul had 90 movie tickets. Out of that 52 tickets were sold @ 90
each and the remaining for Rs 110 per ticket. Find the total amount
he received?
a) 8760 b) 8850 c) 8750 d) 8860
65) The passing marks for an exam was 40. Dev scored 45 more marks
1
than the passing marks. What was his score?
4
a) 85 b) 50 c) 60 d) 55
66) If perimeter of a rectangle is 180 cm and length is 55 cm, find the
breadth.
a) 90 cm b) 35 cm c) 125 cm
d) None of these
1
67) Sakshi gets a scholarship of Rs 500 per month. She saves part of
4
it in the bank every month. How much does she save in a year?
a) 1500 b) 1200 c) 1000 d) 2000
68) If 2 litres of milk is purchased every day in the month of January, what
will be the total bill for January if the price of milk is Rs. 62 per litre?
a) 3782 b) 3844 c) 868d) 3882
1 1
69) Samiksha has 120 books. Out of which 3 are story books, 5 are
novels and remaining are comics. How many comics does she have?
a) 40 b) 56 c) 64 d) 66
70) How many books can be bought for 80, if cost of 5 books is 25?
a) 30 b) 25 c) 20 d) 16
71) What is sum of digits in the product of 9 and 8?
a) 72 b) 9 c) 8 d) 15
72) The total cost of 5 books and 12 notebooks is Rs. 394. If the cost of
each book is Rs. 50, what is the cost of each notebook?
a) 5 b) 7 c) 12 d) 17
73) The product of two numbers is 40. What will be the product if both the
numbers are doubled?
a) 80 b) 100 c) 160 d) 180
4
74) What should be added to 9 to get 2 ?
a) 2 b) 8 c) 9 d) 14
9 9 10 9
75) Find the 12th odd number after 83.
a) 107 b) 106 c) 97 d) 105
6
 OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper

Grand Finale 2022
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Class...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
 OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper

Grand Finale 2022
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Class...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
 Class - 4

Time: 45 mins

Grand Finale - 2021

Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

4
Seat No. _____________ Class ____________ Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are two sections A & B. Section A has 50 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B has 25 questions of 2 marks each. Every wrong answer of
section B will carry half negative mark. There will not be negative
marking for section A.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.

After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue /
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No

scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form

during the examination will be disqualified. Use of calculator is prohibited

7) Students must carry the hall ticket & their school identity card with them.

Total Marks: / 100

 Class - 4

Time: 45 mins

Section - A

1) If you switch the positions of the digits 4 and 7 in the number 4672,
which statement is correct about the new number?
a) the number increases b) the number has more digits
c) the number does not change d) the number decreases
2) Form the smallest four digit odd number using each digit only once.
3, 1, 8, 2
a) 8312 b) 1283 c) 1238 d) 8321
3) 80 kg = g
a) 8000 b) 800 c) 80000 d) 0.08
4) How many times does the digit 3 occur between 29 and 40?
a) 11 b) 14 c) 12 d) 13
5) 9022 = ?
a) 90 + 22 b) 9000 + 20 + 2
c) 9000 + 200 + 2 d) 9 + 200 + 2
6) Fifteen less than 100 = ?
a) 115 b) 95 c) 75 d) 85
7) 3x4+4=?
a) 16 b) 48 c) 11 d) 24
8) Add 2345 and 6789.
a) 4444 b) 9134 c) 3574 d) 8024
9) (6 x 7) x 8 = x (6 x 8) Find the missing number.
a) 42 b) 7 c) 48 d) 56
10) 1651 1615 Compare and put appropriate sign.
a) < b) = c) > d) None of these

1
 Class - 4

11) The length of a rectangle is 13 cm and its breadth is 11 cm.

What is its area?
a) 48 cm2 b) 24 cm2 c) 163 cm2 d) 143 cm2
12) Area of the square is 121 cm2, find the length of the side.
a) 13 b) 44 c) 12 d) 11
13) Find the perimeter of a square whose side is 25 cm.
a) 100 cm b) 625 cm c) 5 cm d) 50 cm
14) 3 kg = gm
5
a) 300 b) 400 c) 500 d) 600
15) 63 ÷ 7 = ?
a) 8 b) 9 c) 6 d) 7
16) What number will be formed by 400 + 6 + 3000 + 50?
a) 4635 b) 4653 c) 5643 d) 3456
17) Which of the following was a leap year?
a) 2018 b) 2020 c) 2019 d) 2014
18) (20 __ 5)__ 2 = 8 Fill the correct operators.
a) +, - b) -, x c) ÷, x d) ÷, +
19) 3 days = hours
a) 180 b) 90 c) 72 d) 21
20) Form the largest 4-digit number using each of the digits only once
2, 8, 3, 6
a) 2368 b) 8623 c) 8632 d) 2683
8 72
21) Write equivalent fraction for =
9
a) 81 b) 90 c) 80 d) 73
22) 12 x 5 8x9 Compare and put appropriate sign.
a) > b) < c) = d) None of these
23) 2000 cm = m
a) 20 b) 200 c) 0.2 d) 0.02
2
 Class - 4
24) Ten more than 97 = ?
a) 87 b) 117 c) 107 d) 970
25) 2045 ml = L
a) 2.045 b) 20.45 c) 204.5 d) 0.245
26) 132 units = dozen
a) 11 b) 13 c) 12 d) 14
27) In which of the following numbers, the place value of 7 is 70?
a) 6700 b) 4978 c) 7065 d) 5607
28) Which of the given numbers is the smallest?
a) 4657 b) 4675 c) 4765 d) 4756
29) Seven times seven added to seventeen.
a) 31 b) 32 c) 70 d) 66
30) Which of the following is the smallest fraction?
11 13 9 14
a) b) c) d)
15 15 15 15
31) 10 minutes after midnight = ?
a) 11:50 am b) 11:50 pm c) 12:10 am d) 1:10 am
32) 28 3 = 84. Select the correct operator.
a) ÷ b) x c) + d) -
33) Write the Roman numeral for 39.
a) XXIX b) XLIX c) XXXIX d) XXX
34) a - 135 = 50 Find the value of ‘a’.
a) 85 b) 195 c) 125 d) 185
35) 9 x 4 is same as ____.
a) 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 b) 9 x 9 x 9 x 9
c) 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 d) 4 x 4 x 4 x 4
36) Find the Prime number from the following.
a) 15 b) 39 c) 73 d) 100
37) Rs. 30 = paise
a) 3 b) 3000 c) 300 d) 30
3
 Class - 4
38) B - 8 + B = 32. Find the value of ‘B’.

a) 60 b) 24 c) 20 d) 40

39) Find the area of a square whose side is 7 cm.

a) 28 cm2 b) 49 cm2 c) 14 cm2 d) 42 cm2

40) 12 x = 96

a) 8 b) 7 c) 9 d) 6

41) Half of 2250 = ?

a) 4500 b) 1120 c) 1125 d) 4400

42) 639 ÷ 9 = ?

a) 701 b) 710 c) 17 d) 71

43) Double of 90 = ?

a) 45 b) 180 c) 55 d) 190

44) The position of the underlined digit in 3809 is ___.

a) Ten b) Hundreds c) Thousands d) None of these

45) 78 ÷ 8 Find the remainder.

a) 9 b) 8 c) 7 d) 6

46) + 64 = 138

a) 202 b) 74 c) 102 d) 64

47) Subtract 3046 from 7023.

a) 10069 b) 4023 c) 3977 d) 3882

48) 2nd odd number after 114 = ?

a) 118 b) 115 c) 116 d) 117

49) How many books can be bought for Rs. 150, if cost of 8 books

is Rs. 240?

a) 5 b) 30 c) 45 d) 90

50) Roman numeral ‘L’ stands for ____.

a) Ten b) Five c) Hundred d) Fifty

4
 Class - 4

Section - B

51) Find the perimeter of a square whose side is a Prime number from
given numbers. 41, 51, 81, 91.
a) 204 b) 164 c) 324 d) 364
52) Find the product of the place value of the underlined digits in the
number 2345
a) 15 b) 1500 c) 150 d) 105
53) I am a multiple of 9 and fall between 60 and 100. I am also a
multiple of 6. Who am I from the following?
a) 63 b) 99 c) 81 d) 90
54) 2.07 L 207 mL Compare and put appropriate sign.
a) > b) < c) = d) None of these
55) Rahul bought grocery for Rs. 567. He ate a sandwich for Rs. 25.
How much money is left with him if he had Rs. 1000 with him?
a) Rs. 592 b) Rs. 433 c) Rs. 548 d) Rs. 408
56) Product of the biggest 2 digit number and the smallest prime
number = ?
a) 20 b) 101 c) 198 d) 12
57) How many chocolates will remain if 145 chocolates are equally
distributed among 8 children?
a) 18 b) 5 c) 8 d) 1
58) A number when divided by 7 gives 18 as quotient and 6 as
remainder. Find the number.
a) 132 b) 252 c) 67 d) 176
59) Music class starts at 1:15 pm and ends at 3:45 pm. How long
does it run?
a) 2 hrs 20 mins b) 1 hr 20 mins c) 2 hrs 30 mins d) 1 hr 30 mins
60) 1.6 km + 400 m = km
a) 401.6 b) 164 c) 2 d) 1.406
61) 64, 81, 100, ____. Find the next number in the number pattern.
a) 110 b) 121 c) 181 d) 131
62) A family needs 4 litres of milk every week. How much milk does the
family need for the whole year (52 weeks)?
a) 208000 mL b) 208 mL c) 20800 mL d) 2080 mL
5
 Class - 4 .
63) Kiran reads 16 pages per day for 10 days and 10 pages per day for
9 days to complete the book. How many pages are there in the book?
a) 34 b) 250 c) 178 d) 106
64) Half of =6x4
a) 3 x 2 b) 12 x 8 c) 24 x 2 d) 9 x 6
65) Sum of ages of Ram and his brother is 56 years. Find Ram’s age if
his brother is 4 years younger than him.
a) 28 yrs b) 52 yrs c) 30 yrs d) 32 yrs
66) Which of the following is incorrect conversion?
a) 1.2 km = 1200 m b) 12 kg = 12000 g
c) 120 mm = 12 cm d) 1200 mL = 12 L
67) Prem had 119 stamps. He kept 11 stamps for himself and distributed
the remaining stamps equally among his 9 friends. How many
stamps did each of his friends get?
a) 13 b) 19 c) 17 d) 12
68) (20 x 3 + 11 + 13) ÷ 7 = ?
a) 67 b) 12 c) 6.7 d) 16
69) 3 2 4 2 Compare and put appropriate sign.
4 3
a) = b) < c) > d) None of these
70) The passing marks for an exam was 40. John scored 36 more marks
than half the passing marks. What was his score?
a) 46 b) 56 c) 76 d) 66
71) A rectangle is 10 cm long and 7 cm wide. What is the perimeter if
the length is increased by 2 cm?
a) 38 cm b) 34 cm c) 72 cm d) 90 cm
72) There are 61 boxes of pencils having 14 pencils in each box.
How many pencils are there in all?
a) 854 b) 75 c) 624 d) 444
13 11
73) Which statement about and is true?
52 44
a) 13 < 11 b) 13 > 11 c) 13 = 11 d) None of these
52 44 52 44 52 44
74) Area of a square is 100 cm². Find its perimeter.
a) 50 cm b) 44 cm c) 40 cm d) 10 cm
75) Aman deposited Rs. 1750. Ali deposited Rs. 695 more than Aman.
Find the total amount deposited.
a) Rs. 2055 b) Rs. 1055 c) Rs. 3500 d) Rs. 4195

6
 OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper

Grand Finale 2021
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Class...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
 OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper

Grand Finale 2021
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Class...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
 Class - 4

Time: 45 mins

Grand Finale - 2020

Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

4
Seat No. _____________ Class ____________ Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are two sections A & B. Section A has 50 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B has 25 questions of 2 marks each. Every wrong answer of
section B will carry half negative mark. There will not be negative
marking for section A.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.

After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue or
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No

scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form

during the examination will be disqualified. Calculator is not allowed.

7) Students must produce hall ticket & their school identity card when
demanded at the examination venue.

Total Marks: / 100

 Class - 4

Time: 45 mins

Section - A

1) Which of the following is same as 28 + (63 + 15)?

a) 15 + (28 + 63) b) 28 (63 + 15)
c) 15 (28 + 63) d) 63 + (28 x 15)
2) 300 + + 6 = 383
a) 80 b) 77 c) 8 d) 83
3) Find the biggest fraction from the following.
7 5 10 3
a) b) c) d)
21 15 12 2
4) 200 10 = 190 Find the correct operator.
a) x b) + c) - d) ÷
5) Half of 96 = ?
a) 43 b) 192 c) 48 d) 38
6) Form the largest 4-digit number using each of the digits only once.
1, 6, 3, 8.
a) 1368 b) 8631 c) 8136 d) 1683
7) 1805 mL = Litre
a) 1.805 b) 18.05 c) 180.5 d) 18050
8) In which of the following numbers the place value of 6 is 60?
a) 4694 b) 6135 c) 2680 d) 1360
9) The length of a rectangle is 10 cm and its breadth is 7 cm. What is
its area?
a) 70 cm2 b) 34 cm2 c) 140 cm2 d) 17 cm2
10) Double of 45 = ?
a) 23 b) 80 c) 90 d) 100
11) tens - 30 tens = 230
a) 260 b) 53 c) 530 d) 60
1
 Class - 4

12) 8x5x4=5x
a) 8 b) 32 c) 12 d) 17
13) 7315 Find the missing number.
-
1013
6100

a) 8 b) 3 c) 2 d) 0
14) START END
7x9 +7 ÷ 10 Find the END number.

a) 13 b) 60 c) 8 d) 7
15) 1685 1568 Compare & put appropriate sign.
a) > b) < c) = d) None of these
16) Subtract 1036 from 3859.
a) 4895 b) 1823 c) 2813 d) 2823
17) 2 days = hours.
a) 60 b) 48 c) 120 d) 24
18) 2 kg = gm
5
a) 400 b) 500 c) 650 d) 750
19) Which of the given numbers is the smallest?
a) 1401 b) 1638 c) 1386 d) 1390
20) Find the perimeter of a square whose side is 60 cm.
a) 3600 cm b) 240 cm c) 120 cm d) 60 cm
21) Find the sum of face value of all digits of 3085.
a) 0 b) 16 c) 13 d) 11
22) Find the remainder. If 845 is divided by 11.
a) 9 b) 76 c) 10 d) 8
23) 23 x a = 161, find the value of 'a'.
a) 138 b) 8 c) 7 d) 184
24) Form the smallest 4-digit even number using each of the digits only
once. 1, 5, 2, 0.
a) 1025 b) 5210 c) 5201 d) 1052
2
 Class - 4
3 6
25) 6 = Find the equivalent fraction.

a) 6 b) 12 c) 3 d) 9
1 5
26) + 6 =?
6
a) 6 b) 1 c) 4 d) 5
27) Which of the following unit can be used to measure distance from
Bombay to Kolkata?
a) m b) cm c) km d) mm
28) 9 less than = 4 tens.
a) 31 b) 50 c) 51 d) 49
29) 5 groups of 5 is same as _____.
a) 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 b) 5 - 5 - 5 - 5 - 5
c) 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 d) 5 x 4
30) John had 185. He purchased goods worth 79. What amount is
left with him now?
a) 264 b) 116 c) 106 d) 114
31) Write the fraction for unshaded portion.

a) 3 b) 7 c) 4 d) 5
10 10 10 10
32) 600 ÷ 5 = ?
a) 120 b) 100 c) 140 d) 595
33) If today is Tuesday. Find the day before yesterday.
a) Monday b) Wednesday c) Friday d) Sunday
34) 1 hour 20 minutes after 10 pm = ?
a) 9:20 pm b) 8:40 pm c) 11:20 pm d) 11:40 pm
35) Select the prime numbers from the following.
a) 57 b) 67 c) 87 d) 27
36) Which is the greatest number from the following.

a) 18450 b) 18054 c) 18405 d) 18054

3
 Class - 4

37) 40 Find the missing number.
x
6
270
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
38) Area of a square is 121 cm2, what is its side?
a) 9 cm b) 10 cm c) 11 cm d) 12 cm
39) Number of days in a leap year is ____.
a) 365 b) 366 c) 24 d) 31
40) XXIX XL Compare & put appropriate sign.
a) > b) < c) = d) None of these
41) 5723 - = 5023
a) 700 b) 5000 c) 623 d) 723

42) 82 - = 63
93 93 93
a) 145 b) 21 c) 141 d) 19
43) 0.45 metre = cm
a) 4.5 b) 450 c) 4500 d) 45
44) Identify the smallest fraction from the following.
10 13 15 16
a) 17 b) 17 c) 17 d) 17
45) Find the 5th odd number after 130.
a) 135 b) 137 c) 139 d) 140
46) (100 - 40) x 4 = ?
a) 64 b) 240 c) 56 d) 144
47) What is the underlying rule to this pattern? 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 ......
a) Addition by 4 b) Subtraction by 2
c) Multiply by 2 d) None of these
48) 145 + a = 193 Find the value of 'a'.
a) 48 b) 338 c) 238 d) 52
49) 8 656 Find the quotient.
a) 82 b) 77 c) 94 d) 76
50) 185 3 = 555 Find the correct operator.
a) + b) - c) ÷ d) x
4
 Class - 4

Section - B
51) Jar A contained 145 mL water. Jar B contained 235 mL of water.
How much water must be poured from Jar B to Jar A so that the
both jars would have the same amount of water?
a) 190 mL b) 90 mL c) 45 mL d) 105 mL
52) The difference of two numbers is 8. Their sum is 14. What are the
two numbers?
a) 12 and 4 b) 11 and 3 c) 9 and 5 d) 8 and 14
53) Sita bought 15 oranges. Geeta bought 5 more oranges than Sita.
How many oranges did they buy altogether?
a) 35 b) 30 c) 25 d) 20
54) START END
÷5 +5 x2 Find the START number.
20
a) 9 b) 3 c) 1 d) 25
55) Sudha cut a pizza into 12 equal pieces. She ate 2 pieces and gave
4 pieces to her friend. What fraction of the pizza was left?
1 1 1 2
a) b) c) d)
3 2 4 12
56) Ram collected 115 stamps. He collected 79 more stamps than sham.
How many stamps did sham collected?
a) 194 b) 164 c) 36 d) 84
57) The weighs of an eraser is 10 gram & a pencil is 8 gram. Tom
bought 2 eraser and some pencils. The total weight of his erasers &
pencils is 68 gram. How many pencils did Tom buy?
a) 8 b) 10 c) 6 d) 2
58) Niya spent 1:30 hrs doing her homework. She completed her
homework at 9:15 pm. What time did she start doing her homework?
a) 7:45 pm b) 10:45 pm c) 8:30 pm d) 9:45 pm
59) A table and 2 chairs cost 1900. If the cost of a table is 1250, what
is the cost of the a chair?
a) 625 b) 650 c) 450 d) 325
60) Soham collected 200 seashells. Arham collected 150 more seashells
than Soham. Arham put his seashells equally into 5 boxes. How
many seashells were there in each box?
a) 70 b) 30 c) 40 d) 50
5
 Class - 4

61) Find the perimeter of a square whose side is prime number from
these numbers. 25, 37, 51, 93.
a) 100 b) 148 c) 204 d) 372
62) The passing marks for an exam was 40. John scored 36 more marks
than half the passing marks. What was his score?
a) 76 b) 56 c) 38 d) 92
63) (20 5) 2 = 8 Fill the correct operators.
a) +, - b) ÷, x c) -, x d) ÷, +
64) How many books can be bought for 150, if cost of 8 books is 240?
a) 30 b) 90 c) 45 d) 5
65) 8 = 64 Find the twice of "A".
11 A
a) 88 b) 67 c) 176 d) 19
66) The poduct of two numbers is 20. What will be the product if both
the numbers are doubled?
a) 80 b) 40 c) 20 d) 10
67) (180 + 67) (137 + 85) Compare & put appropriate sign.
a) < b) = c) > d) None of these
68) Double of 30 + Half of 30 = ?
a) 75 b) 90 c) 120 d) 60
69) 2 hours = seconds
a) 2 x 3600 b) 2 x 60 x 60 c) 120 x 60 d) All of these
70) Find the sum of odd numbers from these numbers 45, 60, 73, 81, 94.
a) 154 b) 199 c) 118 d) 105
71) What is the sum of digits in the product of 11 and 7?
a) 77 b) 70 c) 14 d) 18
72) Biggest two digit even number divided by even prime number = ?
a) 33 b) 49 c) 40 d) 54
73) 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ___ Find the next number in the number pattern.
a) 64 b) 48 c) 40 d) 49
12 9
74) Which statement about and is true?
60 45
12 9 12 9 12 9
a) = b) > c) < d) None of these
60 45 60 45 60 45
75) Which of the following is correct conversion?
a) 1.2 L = 1200 mL b) 1.02 L = 1200 mL
c) 0.750 mL = 7.5 L d) 0.070 mL = 7 L
6
 OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper

Grand Finale 2020
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Class...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
 OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper

Grand Finale 2020
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Class...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D