Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics-Section-A 4. Select the correct option based on the

statements given below:
1. The magnitude of the vector When a projectile is at its highest
î + î × ĵ + ( î × ĵ) × î + (( î × ĵ) × î) × ĵ : Statement I: point, its tangential acceleration
1. 1 is zero.
2. √2 When a projectile is at the
Statement II: highest point of its trajectory, its
3. √3
speed is minimum.
4. 2

2. A particle is moving such that its position Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
1.
coordinates (x, y) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, ( correct.
6 m,7 m) at time t = 2 s, and (13 m, 14 m) at Both Statement I and Statement II are
2.
time t = 5 s. The average velocity vector v →avg correct.
from t = 0 to t = 5 s is: Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
incorrect.
1. 5 (13^
i + 14^j)
1
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
2. 3 (^
i + ^j)
7 4.
incorrect.
3. 2(^
i + ^j)
4. 5
11
(^i + ^j)
5. If
E and G respectively, denote energy and
E
3. Two cars A & B, each 5 m long, are gravitational constant, then has the
G
travelling along parallel lanes with speeds of dimensions of:
36 km/h and 72 km/h. Car B is just behind 1. [ML0 T 0 ]
car A, but is beginning to overtake. What will
2. [M 2 L−2 T −1 ]
be the distance covered by car B by the time it
is just ahead of car A? 3. [M 2 L−1 T 0 ]
4. [ML−1 T −1 ]

6. →
If A = cos ωt^i + sin ωt^j and
vectors
→
B = cos( ωt )^i + sin( ωt )^j are functions of
2 2
time. Then, at what value of t are they
1. 10 m 2. 15 m orthogonal to one another?
π
3. 20 m 4. 25 m 1. t = 4ω
π
2. t = 2ω
π
3. t = ω
4. t = 0

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

7. Two particles A, B move along the periphery 10. A car is going up a slight slope decelerating
of a circle of radius R, with the same uniform at 0.1 m/s2. It comes to a stop after going for 5 s.
speed u. Particle A follows B, a quarter of the What was its initial velocity?
circumference behind it. The acceleration of A 1. 0.02 m/s 2. 0.25 m/s
relative to B is: 3. 0.5 m/s 4. 1.0 m/s

11. IfF→ = 2^i + ^j − k

^ and r→ = 3^i + 2^j − 2k,
^
then the scalar and vector products of F→ and r→
have the magnitudes, respectively, as:
1. 5, √3
2. 4, √5
2u2 3. 10, √2
1. zero 2. 4. 10, 2
R
u2 √2u2 12. A particle moves at a constant speed along
3. 4.
√2R R the circumference of a circle with a radius R,
subject to a central fictitious force F that is
inversely proportional to R3 . Its time period of
8. A physical quantity of the dimensions of revolution will be given by:
2
length that can be formed out of 1. T ∝ R
3
e2 2. T ∝ R 2
c, G, and is [c is the velocity of light, G is 5
4πε0 3. T ∝ R 2
the universal constant of gravitation and e is 4

charge]: 4. T ∝ R 3

1
2 13. The two blocks A, B have identical masses
2
1. c [G
e
2 ] and are placed on a smooth horizontal plane.
4πε0 The pulley P is light, and is rigidly connected to
1 the block A by means of a horizontal light rod.
1 e2 2 The string connecting block B is also
2. [ ] horizontal. A force F is acting vertically on the
c2 4Gπε0 string, and the two blocks move horizontally.
1 e2 The force on A due to rod is
3. G
c 4πε0
1
2
1 2
[G
e
4. ]
c2 4πε0
1. F
9. If the magnitude of the sum of two vectors is 2. 2F
equal to the magnitude of the difference of the 3. √2F
two vectors, then the angle between these F
4.
vectors is: √2
∘
1. 0
∘
2. 45
∘
3. 90
∘
4. 180

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

14. A stone is thrown vertically downwards 17. Consider the two situations A and B:
with an initial velocity of 40 m/s from the top of (A) a man pushes a block along a smooth
a building. If it reaches the ground with a horizontal plane with a force F (figure A)
velocity of 60 m/s, then the height of the (B) a man pulls an identical block along a
building is: (Take g = 10 m/s2) smooth horizontal plane, applying an equally
1. 120 m 2. 140 m inclined force F (figure B)
3. 80 m 4. 100 m

15. The system of blocks is pulled up by force as

shown in the figure. The force exerted on the
3 kg block by the connecting string is:
Normal reaction of the plane on the block:
1. is greater in (A) than in (B)
2. is greater in (B) than in (A)
3. is equal for (A) and (B)
can be greater, lesser or equal for A
4. compared to B depending on the magnitude
of F .

1. 80 N 2. 60 N
3. 40 N 4. 100 N 18. Planck's constant (h), speed of light in the
vacuum (c), and Newton's gravitational
constant (G) are the three fundamental
16. A ball is projected with a velocity of constants. Which of the following combinations
of these has the dimension of length?
10 ms–1 at an angle of 60∘ with the vertical √hG √hG
direction. Its speed at the highest point of its 1. 3/2
2.
c c5/2
trajectory will be:
√hG √Gc
1. 10 ms–1 3. 4.
G h3/2
2. zero
3. 5√3 ms–1
4. 5 ms–1 19. Raindrops fall from the sky making an angle
∘
of 30 with the vertical. If a man runs at 2 m/s,
he finds that the drops fall vertically. If he were
to run in the opposite direction with the same
speed, the raindrops will fall with a vertical
speed of:
1. 2 m/s
2. 4 m/s
3. 2√3 m/s
4. 4√3 m/s

20. Which one of the following is not a vector

quantity?
1. velocity
2. weight
3. electric charge
4. electric field

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

21. The unit of energy is eV and the unit of 26. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on inclined
velocity is c, in a certain system. The unit of rough surface AC (as shown in the figure) of
momentum in this system is: coefficient of friction μ. If g = 10 ms–1, the net
1. eV × c force (in N) on the block will be:
eV
2. c
eV
3. 2
c
4. eV × c2

22. Which of the following, is dimensionless?

pressure density×pressure
1. density×acceleration 2. speed
viscosity×speed surface tension 1. 10√3
3. surface tension 4. (speed)2 2. zero
3. 10
4. 20
23. The position-time (x-t) graph for positive
acceleration is: 27. A block of mass m, placed on a rough
incline (as shown) – is observed to remain at
rest. The coefficient of friction is μ. The net
1. 2. force exerted by the incline on the block equals:
(in magnitude)

3. 4.

24. The motion of a particle is given by

S = 1 + 4t − 2t2 . The distance travelled by the 1. mg cos θ + μmg cos θ
particle during t = 0 to t = 2 seconds will be: 2. mg cos θ√1 + μ2
1. 0 unit 2. 2 unit 3. mg sin θ
3. 4 unit 4. 3 unit 4. mg

28. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact with the

25. A shell explodes and many pieces fly off in inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
different directions. Which of the following is radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between
conserved? the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
1. Kinetic energy 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for
2. Momentum the cylinder, which is vertical and rotating
about its axis, will be: (g = 10 m/s )
3. Neither momentum nor kinetic energy 2

4. Momentum and kinetic energy

1. 10 π rad/s
2. √10 π rad/s
10
3. 2π rad/s
4. 10 rad/s

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

29. A particle moves along a straight line with 33. Suppose the velocity of water waves is equal
its velocity (v) varying as the square root of its K
to λ aL ρM , where λ is wavelength, a is
displacement (x): v ∝ √x acceleration due to gravity and ρ is the density
Then its acceleration varies as: of water. Then, the values of K, L, M are:
1 1 1
1. 2 , 0, 2
1. 2. x3/2
√x 1 1
2. 2 , 2 , 0
3. x−3/2 4. x0 1 1
3. 2 ,− 2 ,0
1
4. 2 , 0, 1
30. Two projectiles, A and B are projected from
the same point on the ground with the same 34. The following diagram represents three
initial speed, as shown in the figure. The ratio vectors of equal magnitudes in a plane.
of maximum height attained by the projectile A
to that of projectile B is:

What arrow best represents the direction of the

sum of three vectors?
1. 3 : 1 1. →
2. 1 : 3 2. ←
3. √3 : 1 3. ↑
4. √3 : 2 4. ↓

31. A particle moves from a point 35. The mechanical quantity, which has
( − 2^i + 5^j ) to ( 4^j + 3k
^ ) when a force of dimensions of reciprocal of mass (M −1 ), is:
( 4^i + 3^j ) N is applied. How much work has 1. angular momentum
been done by the force? 2. coefficient of thermal conductivity
1. 8J 2. 11 J 3. torque
3. 5J 4. 2J 4. gravitational constant

32. A particle moves in a circle with a uniform

speed of 3 m/s and its acceleration is 6 m/s2. Physics-Section-B
The time period of its motion is (in seconds): 36. If the magnitude of the sum of two vectors
1. 4π is equal to the magnitude of the difference
2. 2π between the two vectors, the angle between
3. π these vectors is?
π
4. 2 1. 90∘
∘
2. 45
3. 180∘
4. 0∘

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

37. A block of mass 5 kg is moving horizontally 42. The coefficient of static friction between
∘
at speed of 1.5 ms−1 . A vertically upward force block A and the 45 -incline is, μS = 2. The
5 N acts on it for 4 s. What will be the distance block A is released on the incline. The force of
of the block from the point where the force friction on the 2 kg block is: (take g = 10 m/s2)
starts acting after 4 s? (Ignore gravity)
1. 2 m
2. 6 m
3. 14 m
4. 10 m

38. A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g,

radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length
(5 ± 0.02) cm. The maximum possible
percentage error in the measurement of 1. 40 N
density will nearly be: 2. 20√2 N
1. 1.4% 3. 10√2 N
2. 1.2%
4. 10 N
3. 1.3%
4. 1.6% 43. A particle moving in a uniform circular
^
39. Vectors A, → B → and C → are such that motion of radius 1 m has velocity 3 j m/s at
point B. What are the velocity (→ v )and
→ ⋅B
A → = 0 and A → ⋅C
→ = 0. Then the vector acceleration → at diametrically opposite point
(a)
→ is:
parallel to A A?
→×B
1. A → 1. v
→A = 3^j m/s; a
→A = −9^i m/s2
→ + C→
2. B →A = −3^j m/s; a
2. v →A = 9^i m/s2
→ × C→
3. B
→A = −3^i m/s; a
3. v →A = 9^j m/s2
→
4. B and C→
→A = 3^i m/s; a
4. v →A = 9^j m/s2
40. The dimensions of momentum per unit time
is the same as that of:
1. Torque / Mass 2. Energy / Length 44. Match the units mentioned in List-I with the
units in List-II.
3. Acceleration / Mass 4. Power / Acceleration

List-I List-II
41. A mass is projected from the ground with a (a) H/s (i) s2
certain velocity, at an angle with the (b) H×A (ii) Wb
horizontal. Neglecting air resistance, we can (c) H×F (iii) s
say that its speed will be: (d) Ω×F (iv) Ω
1. constant during the flight
2. decreasing continuously during the flight 1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
3. minimum at the highest point 2. (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
4. maximum at the highest point 3. (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
4. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

45. A ball, thrown vertically upward, is 48. Given below are two statements:
observed to move upward with a speed v1 at The average speed of a particle
time t1 and a speed v2 , downward, at time t2 . that has undergone motion can
Assertion (A):
The acceleration of the ball is (downward): be zero, but its average
v2 −v1
1. t −t acceleration cannot be zero.
2 1
v2 +v1 The average speed is the
2. t −t distance travelled per unit time
2 1
v2 −v1
3. t +t over the entire motion, while
2 1 Reason (R):
v2 +v1 the average acceleration is the
4. t +t change in velocity divided by
2 1
the time.
46. The 2 kg block (A) lies on a smooth
horizontal table and is connected by a light Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
string passing over a smooth light pulley. The correct explanation of (A).
string is connected to a second 2 kg block (B). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
The system is released from rest. 2. correct explanation of (A).
2
Take g = 10 m/s . 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

49. A man (A) has to throw a ball vertically up

to a partner (B) who is standing up, above his
level by 15 m. The partner (B) can catch the
ball only when it comes downwards with a
The acceleration of block A is: maximum speed of 10 m/s (take acceleration
2 2
1. 10 m/s 2. 5 m/s due to gravity as 10 m/s )
2
2
3. 15 m/s 4. zero The minimum and maximum speed of throw
are: (nearly)
1. 10 m/s and 20 m/s
47. The angle between the force F = 6^i + 2^j 2. 10 m/s and 30 m/s

and the displacement d = 2^

i + 6^j is: 3. 20m/s and 20√3 m/s
1. sin−1 (0.3) 4. 10√3 m/s and 20 m/s
2. sin−1 (0.6)
50. A car is moving along a circular path of
3. cos−1 (0.3) radius 500 m with a speed of 30 m/s. If, at some
4. cos−1 (0.6) instant, its speed increases at the rate of 2 m/s2,
then, at that instant, the magnitude of the
resultant acceleration will be:
1. 4.7 m/s2
2. 3.8 m/s2
3. 3 m/s2
4. 2.7 m/s2

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry-Section-A 56. A gas absorbs a photon of 355 nm and emits

at two wavelengths. If one of the emissions is at
51. Of the following atoms/ions, which one 680 nm, the other is at:
contains the greatest number of neutrons? 1. 1035 nm
60
1. 28 Ni
64
2. 29 Cu
+ 2. 325 nm
64 64
3. 743 nm
3. 30 Zn 4. 30 Zn2+ 4. 518 nm

57. The incorrect statement about spectra is:

52. Calculate the mass of 95% pure CaCO3 that Atomic spectra can be used in chemical
1.
will be required to neutralize 50 mL of 0.5 M analysis to identify unknown atoms.
HCl solution according to the following Each element in the gaseous state has a
2.
reaction. unique line spectrum.
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + The number of lines in the spectrum is the
3.
2H2O(l) same as the number of electrons in the atom.
[Calculate up to the second place of decimal The splitting of spectral lines in the presence
point] 4. of an electric field is known as the Stark
1. 9.50 g 2. 1.25 g effect.
3. 1.32 g 4. 3.65 g

58. Identify the incorrect statement from the

53. What is the maximum number of electrons following:
that can be associated with the following set of The shapes of dxy, dyz, and dzx orbitals
quantum numbers? 1. are similar to each other; and dx2 -y2 and
n = 3, l = 1 and m = –1. dz2 are similar to each other.
1. 6
All the five 5d orbitals are different in
2. 4
2. size when compared to the respective 4d
3. 2
orbitals.
4. 10
All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar
3.
to the respective 3d orbitals.
In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal
4.
54. The correct statement among the following in energy in free state.
is:
1. The number of orbitals in nth shell is n2 .
2. The number of orbitals in a subshell is 59. An element with mass number 81 contains
(2l − 1). 31.7 % more neutrons as compared to protons.
3. The number of subshells in n th
shell is The atomic symbol of the element is:
(n + l). 1. 81
40 X
4. The number of electrons in a shell is 2. 81
35 X
2(2l + 1). 3. 31.7
81 X
81
4. 41 X
55. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2
litres of Cl2(g), both at STP, the moles of HCl(g)
60. The magnetic moment of Ni2+ (Z=28) is:
formed is equal to:
1. 1.732 BM
1. 1 mol of HCl(g)
2. 2.82 BM
2. 2 mol of HCl(g)
3. 3.87 BM
3. 0.5 mol of HCl(g)
4. 4.89 BM
4. 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

61. The number of moles of carbon and oxygen 65. Match List-I with List-II:
23
required to produce 6.023 × 10 molecules of List-I List-II
CO2 are: (a) 4.48 litres of O 2 at STP (i) 0.2 moles
1. 0.01 mol and 0.01 mol 22
2. 0.5 mol and 0.1 mol 12.022 × 10 12.044 × 1023
(b) (ii)
3. 10.0 mol and 5.0 mol molecules of H2O molecules
4. 1.0 mol and 1.0 mol (c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g
(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP
62. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength
(Given - Molar volume of a gas at STP - 22.4 L)
663 nm is just sufficient to ionize the atom of
Choose the correct answer from the options
metal A. The ionization energy of metal A in kJ
given below:
mol–1 is: (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
[h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, c = 3.00 × 108 ms–1 , NA =
1. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
6.02 × 1023 mol–1] 2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
1. 189 2. 175 3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
3. 181 4. 185 4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

63. The NaNO3 weighed out to make 50 mL of 66. Match column I (parameters) with column II
an aqueous solution containing 70.0 mg Na+ per (expressions) and mark the appropriate choice:
ml is: Column I Column II
(Rounded off to the nearest integer) [Given: (Parameters) (Expressions)
Atomic weight in g mol–1 – Na: 23; N: 14; O: 16] 5.29×n2
(A) Uncertainty of an object (i)
1. 13 g Z
2. 26 g h
(B) Bohr's radius of an orbit (ii) 4πm
3. 18 g
4. 22 g The angular momentum h
(C) (iii) mv
of an electron
h
64. An organic compound contains 80 % (by (D) de Broglie wavelength (iv) n. 2π
wt.) carbon and the remaining percentage of
hydrogen. The empirical formula of this 1. (A)→(iii), (B)→(iv), (C)→(i), (D)→(ii)
compound is: 2. (A)→(ii), (B)→(i), (C)→(iv), (D)→(iii)
[Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] 3. (A)→(iv), (B)→(iii), (C)→(i), (D)→(ii)
1. CH3 2. CH4 4. (A)→(i), (B)→(ii), (C)→(iv), (D)→(iii)
3. CH 4. CH2
67. To neutralize 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous
solution of phosphorus acid (H3 P O3 )
completely, the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH
solution required is:
1. 10 mL 2. 20 mL
3. 40 mL 4. 60 mL

68. Millikan’s Oil drop Method was used to

determine:
1. Neutron
2. Alpha particle
3. Positron
4. Charge on the electrons

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Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

69. The element Z = 114 has been discovered 75. The increasing order (lowest first) for the
recently. Family/group and electronic values of charge/mass ratio for electron (e-),
configuration from which it will belong are: proton (p+), neutron (n), and alpha particle (α),
1. Carbon family and [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2 respectively, is:
2. Oxygen family and [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p4 1. e, p, n, α
3. Nitrogen family and [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6 2. n, p, e , α
3. n, p, α, e
4. Halogen family and [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p5
4. n, α, p, e
70. With a ground state energy of –13.6 eV for a
hydrogen atom, what would be the energy in 76. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell
the second excited state? with l = 3 and n = 4 is:
1. –6.8 eV 1. 14
2. –3.4 eV 2. 16
3. –1.51 eV 3. 10
4. –4.53 eV 4. 12

71. A solution was prepared by adding 125 77. The molarity of the solution obtained by
adding 5 grams of NaOH to 200 ml of water is:
cm3 of isopropyl alcohol to water until the
1. 1.043 M
volume of the solution was 175 cm3 . The 2. 1.725 M
volume percent of isopropyl alcohol in the 3. 0.825 M
solution is: 4. 0.625 M
1. 80.2 % 2. 71.4 %
3. 78.3 % 4. 84.5 % 78. What is the approximate number of atoms
present in 4.25 grams of NH3?
1. 4 x 1023
72. The maximum number of atoms is present
2. 2 x 1023
in which of the following -
1. 1 g of Mg(s) 3. 1 x 1023
4. 6 x 1023
2. 1 g of O2 (g)
3. 1 g of Li(s)
79. The characteristic velocity associated with a
4. 1 g of Ag(s) neutron that has a wavelength of 800 pm is :
1. 496 m s–1 2. 567 m s–1
73. Which of the following compounds has the
same empirical formula as that of glucose? 3. 494 cm s–1 4. 501 m s–1
1. CH3 CHO
2. CH3 COOH
3. CH3 OH 80.
4. C2 H6 1. 16 g of gas
2. 22.9 L of gas
74. 3 gm H2 reacts with 20 gm O2 to form H2 O. 3. 6. 022 × 1023 dioxygen molecules
The maximum mass of H2 O formed is: 4. 11.2 L of gas
1. 27 gm The incorrect statements regarding 1 mole of
2. 22.5 gm dioxygen gas at STP from the above four
3. 18 gm statements are:
4. 9.0 gm
1. (a, b, c) 2. (a, b, d)
3. (b, c, d) 4. (a, c, d)

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry-Section-B
81. What is the mass of the precipitate formed
when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is
mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution? (Ag = 86. The number of atoms in 560 g of Fe (atomic
107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na= 23, Cl = 35.5) mass 56 g mol–1) is:
1. 28 g 1. Twice that of 70 g N
2. 3.5 g 2. Half that of 20 g H
3. 7 g
3. Both 1 and 2
4. 14 g
4. None of the above
82. The number of moles of hydrogen gas
liberated when 39 g of potassium reacts with
7.8 g of water is: 87. The azimuthal quantum number
1. 0.22 mol characterizes:
2. 0.43 mol 1. e/m ratio of electron
3. 0.50 mol 2. Spin of electron
4. 1.0 mol 3. Angular momentum of the electron
4. Magnetic momentum of the electron
83.
The wave function is a 88. A pair that has both isoelectronic and
mathematical function whose value isotopic;
Statement- (Atomic numbers: Ca=20, Ar=18, K=19, Mg=12,
depends upon the coordinates of
I: Fe=26, Na=11)
the electron in the atom and does
not carry any physical meaning. 1. 40 Ca2+ and 40 Ar
Statement- The ionization potential of He atom 2. 39 K + and 40 K +
II: is greater than that of He+ ion. 3. 24 Mg 2+ and 25 Mg
4. 23 Na and 24 Na+

1. Both statements are correct.

2. Both statements are incorrect. 89. At standard temperature and pressure
3. Statement -I is correct and statement -II is (STP), the volume of oxygen required to
incorrect. completely combust 30 ml of acetylene under
4. Statement -II is correct and statement-I is similar conditions is:
incorrect. 1. 100 ml
2. 75 ml
84. The correct statement among the following 3. 50 ml
regarding the hydrogen atom is: 4. 25 ml
3s, 3p and 3d-orbitals: all have the same
1. 90. The most paramagnetic species is:
energy.
3s and 3p-orbitals are of lower energy than 1. Ni2+ (Z = 28)
2. 2. F e2+ (Z = 26)
3d-orbital.
3. 3p-orbital is lower in energy than 3d-orbital. 3. Mn2+ (Z = 25)
4. 3s-orbital is lower in energy than 3p-orbital. 4. V 3+ (Z = 23)

91. If the value of m = +3 for an electron, then

85. An organic compound on combustion gives the electron must be present in:
0.22 g CO2 and 0.126 g H2 O. If the percentage 1. s subshell
of carbon in the given organic compound is 2. p subshell
40%, then the percentage of hydrogen in this 3. d subshell
compound will be: 4. f subshell
1. 12.45 %
2. 60 %
3. 9.33 %
4. 15.12 %
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92. According to Bohr's theory, what is the 98. How many moles of magnesium phosphate,
angular momentum of an electron located in Mg₃(PO₄)₂, contain 0.25 moles of oxygen atoms?
the fifth orbit? 1. 0.02
2. 3.125 × 10-2
h
1. 25 π
h
2. 1. 0 π 3. 1.25 × 10-2
h 4. 2.5 × 10-2
3. 10 π
h
4. 2. 5 π 99. In compound A, 1.00g of nitrogen unites
with 0.57g of oxygen.
93. The number of unpaired electrons in Ni and In compound B, 2.00g of nitrogen combines
Ni2+, respectively, are (Z of Ni = 28) with 2.24g of oxygen.
1. 2, 2 In compound C, 3.00g of nitrogen combines
2. 2, 4 with 5.11g of oxygen.
3. 2, 0 These results are in accordance with which of
4. 4, 2 the following law?
1. Law of constant proportion
94. Which will have the largest number of 2. Law of multiple proportions
atoms among the following? 3. Law of reciprocal proportion
1. 1 g Au (s) 4. Dalton’s law of partial pressure
2. 1 g Na (s) 1 1
3. 1 g Li (s) 100. The quantum numbers + 2 and − 2 for
4. 1 g of Cl2(g) the electron spin represent:
Rotation of the electron in clockwise and
1.
95. The molarity of one liter solution of 22.2 gm anticlockwise directions, respectively.
CaCl2 is: Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and
2.
1. 0.4 M 2. 0.2 M clockwise directions, respectively.
3. 0.8 M 4. 0.6 M The magnetic moment of the electrons
3.
pointing up and down, respectively.
Two quantum mechanical spin states that
4.
96. The total number of electrons present in 1.0 have no classical analogues.
g of C2H4 is:
1. 6 × 1023
2. 3.44 × 1023
3. 0.5 × 1011
Biology-I-Section-A
101. Beginning with 15 N15 N DNA [15 N is the
4. None of the above
heavy isotope of nitrogen] and after two rounds
14
97. The number of electrons that can be present of replication in N medium, E.coli cells will
in the subshells having ms value of − 2 for n = contain:
1

4 are: 25%15 N15 N DNA; 50%15 N14 N DNA;

1.
1. 36 25%14 N14 N DNA
2. 4 25%15 N14 N DNA; 50%15 N15 N DNA;
3. 16 2.
4. 2 25%14 N14 N DNA
3. 50%15 N15 N DNA; 50%15 N14 N DNA
4. 50%15 N14 N DNA; 50%14 N14 N DNA

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102. Identify the correct statements: 106. In the given diagram, the correctly labeled
In castor and maize, autogamy is prevented parts are:
I:
but not geitonogamy
In papaya, both autogamy and geitonogamy
II.
are prevented

1. Both I and II 2. Only I

3. Only II 4. Neither I nor II

103. If two persons with' AB' blood group marry

and have the sufficiently large number of
children, these children could be classified as 'A'
blood group: 'AB' blood group: 'B' blood group
in 1: 2: 1 ratio. The modern technique of protein 1. Only E 2. Only D and E
electrophoresis reveals the presence of both' A' 3. Only A and C 4. Only B
and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood group
individuals. This is an example of:
1. Incomplete dominance
107. Endosperm is completely consumed by the
2. Partial dominance
developing embryo in all of the following
3. Complete dominance
angiosperms, except:
4. Codominance
1. pea 2. groundnut
104. The UTRs in a mature eukaryotic mRNA: 3. beans 4. coconut

are present at both 5'-end (before start

1. 108. If the length of a DNA molecules is 1.1
codon) and at 3'-end (after stop codon).
metres, what will be the approximate number
are present only at 5'-end (before start
2. of base pairs?
codon). 6
3. are present only at 3'-end (after stop codon). 1. 6.6 × 10 bp 2. 3.3 × 109 bp
9 6
4. are absent but are present in hnRNA. 3. 6.6 × 10 bp 4. 3.3 × 10 bp

105. In a cross AaBb X aabb [assuming 109. In a cross AaBbCc X AaBbCc [assuming
independent assortment], what fraction of independent assortment at all loci], what
progeny are expected to be AaBb? proportion of the progeny are expected to be
1. ¼ aabbcc?
2. 1/3 1. 20/64
3. ½ 2. 15/64
4. 2/3 3. 1/64
4. 6/64

110. In a plant, genes A, B and C are located on

different autosomes. Two plants with genotypes
AaBbCc are inter-crossed. The number of
phenotypes and genotypes that can occur in
their progeny will respectively be:
1. 6 and 8 2. 8 and 9
3. 4 and 16 4. 8 and 27

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
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111. The bacterium Escherichia coli was not 116. Consider the given two statements:
used by: Female must have the colour
Assertion: blindness gene on both of their X
Fred Griffith, when he discovered bacterial chromosomes to be colour blind.
1.
transformation Colour blindness is a sex linked
Reason:
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase, when dominant trait.
2. they conclusively proved that DNA is the
molecule that stores genetic information Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl, when they 1. Reason does not correctly explain the
3. experimentally proved that DNA replicates Assertion.
semi-conservatively Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
2.
Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod, when Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
4.
they proposed the working of lactose operon 3. Assertion is false and Reason is also false.
4. Assertion is true but Reason is false.

112. Coconut water from a tender coconut is?

1. Immature embryo 117. Transformation was discovered by:
2. Free nuclear endosperm 1. Meseson and Stahl
3. Innermost layers of the seed coat 2. Hershey and Chase
4. Degenerated nucellus 3. Griffith
4. Waston and crick
113. A very low level of expression of lac
operon is present in E.coli: 118. The type of distribution curve shown in
1. Only when lactose is present the figure is seen in:
2. Only when glucose is absent
3. Only when allolactose is present
4. all the time

114. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a

developing organism is associated with:
1. developmental mutations
2. differential expression of genes
1. Co-dominance
3. lethal mutations
2. Multiple allelism
4. deletion of a gene
3. Polygenic inheritance
4. Pleiotropy
115. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is
attached to the?
119. In over 60 % of angiosperms, pollen grains
1. connective 2. placenta are shed at:
3. thalamus or petal 4. anther 1. 2-celled stage 2. 3-celled stage
3. 4-celled stage 4. 1-celled stage

120. The accessibility of promoter regions of

prokaryotic DNA is in many cases regulated by
the interaction of
proteins with sequences termed:
1. Enhancers
2. Silencers
3. Operators
4. Terminators

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 Custom Practice Test - 18-Oct
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121. How many of the given statements 126. Identify the incorrect statement related to
regarding endosperm tissue in angiosperms are Pollination:
correct?
In the most common type of endosperm Moths and butterflies are the most dominant
1.
development, the primary endosperm pollinating agents among insects
nucleus (PEN) undergoes successive Pollination by water is quite rare in
I: nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei, 2.
flowering plants
and subsequently cell wall formation Pollination by wind is more common
occurs and the endosperm becomes 3.
amongst abiotic pollination
cellular.
Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies
The number of free nuclei formed before 4.
and beetles to get pollinated
II: cellularization is uniform in all
angiosperms.
The coconut water from tender coconut 127. In a typical human cell:
that you are familiar with, is nothing but the total number of bp in DNA present is
III: free-nuclear endosperm (made up of I:
about 6.6 × 109
thousands of nuclei) and the surrounding
white kernel is the cellular endosperm. the total length of unwinded DNA is
II:
approximately 2.2 metres
1. 0 the dimension of nucleus is approximately
III: –6
2. 1 10 m
3. 2
4. 3 1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only II and III are correct
122. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses
3. I, II and III are correct
transcription on one strand of the DNA which is
called the? 4. I, II, and III are incorrect
1. template strand 2. coding strand
3. alpha strand 4. anti strand
128. Consider the given two statements:
The order and sequence of
amino acids in a polypeptide
123. A person suffering from Klinefelter’s Assertion (A):
are defined by the sequence of
syndrome:
bases in the mRNA.
1. has 45 autosomes
2. is likely to have short stature and webbed The mRNA is formed in a
neck Reason (R): template independent manner
3. can develop Gynecomastia in eukaryotes.
4. has normal fertility
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
1.
124. The best example of pleiotropy is: correctly explain (A).
1. Skin color 2. Phenylketonuria 2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. Colour Blindness 4. ABO Blood group 3. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
4.
explains (A).
125. The final proof for DNA as the genetic
material came from the experiments of:
1. Hershey and chase
2. Avery, McLeod and McCarty
3. Har Gobind Khorana
4. Griffith

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129. Cells of which of the following wall layer of 133. Endosperm development precedes embryo
microsporangium possess dense cytoplasm and development. Why?
generally have more than one nucleus? 1. Endosperm is triploid tissue in angiosperms.
1. epidermis Endosperm can be free nuclear or cellular
2. endothecium 2.
type.
3. middle layers
Endosperm contains growth factors
4. tapetum
3. necessary to induce dormancy if conditions
are unfavourable.
130. The gynoecium with many pistils that are
fused together will best be described as: Endosperm cells are filled with reserve food
1. monocarpellary, apocarpous 4. materials and are used for the nutrition of
2. multicarpellary, syncarpous the developing embryo.
3. multicarpellary, synandrous
4. monocarpellary, apocarpous
134. Consider the two statements:
131. That the pairing and separation of a pair of Statement I: In co-dominance, the F1 progeny
chromosomes would lead to the segregation of resembles neither of the parents.
a pair of factors they carried is the argument In incomplete dominance, the
that formed the basis for: Statement II: F1 progeny resembles both
1. the Law of Independent Assortment. parents.
2. the concept of Linkage
3. the chromosomal theory of inheritance. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
4. the One Gene One Enzyme hypothesis. correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
incorrect
132. Consider the given two statements: Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
Pollen grains are generally correct
Assertion (A): sticky in animal pollinated Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
flowers. 4.
incorrect
In general, pollination by
Reason (R): animals occurs after they reach
inside the flowers for nectar. 135. The number of different kinds of gametes
produced by a plant with genotype AABb will
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains be:
1.
(A) 1. 1
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not 2. 2
2. 3. 4
explain (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 4. 16
4. (A) is False but (R) is True
Biology-I-Section-B
136. If each strand of a dsDNA acts as a
template for a new strand, the two daughter
DNAs will be:
1. Complementary to each other
2. Identical to the parental DNA
3. Similar to each other
4. Complementary to the parental DNA

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137. Discovered during the archeological 140. If mapping of genes is carried out based on
excavation at King Herod’s palace near the linkage analysis, it:
Dead Sea, a 2000 years old viable seed is of:
1. Phoenix dactylifera helps in identifying the physical location of
2. Arabidopsis thaliana 1.
genes on a chromosome
3. Lupinus arcticus 2. determines the size of chromosomes
4. Melandrium album
predicts the number of chromosomes in an
3.
organism
138. Consider the given two statements:
4. reveals the function of genes in an organism
Transcription and translation
Assertion (A):
can be coupled in bacteria.
In bacteria, mRNA does not
141. The number of correct statements from the
require any processing to
given statements is:
become active, and
Reason (R): Gregor Mendel, conducted hybridisation
transcription and translation
experiments on garden peas for seven
take place in the same I:
years (1856-1863) and proposed the laws of
compartment.
inheritance in living organisms.
During Mendel’s investigations into
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
1. inheritance patterns it was for the first
explains (A).
II: time that statistical analysis and
2. (A) is True but (R) is False. mathematical logic were applied to
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not problems in biology.
3.
correctly explain (A). His experiments had a large sampling size,
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. III: which gave greater credibility to the data
that he collected.
Mendel investigated characters in the
139. Identify the correctly matched pairs: IV: garden pea plant that were manifested as
pollination is achieved two opposing traits.
I: Autogamy:
within the same flower 1. 1
functionally self-pollination, 2. 2
II: Geitonogamy:
genetically cross-pollination 3. 3
the only type of pollination 4. 4
which during pollination
III: Xenogamy: brings genetically different 142. Morgan, in his experiment on fruit flies,
types of pollen grains to the found that the genes white and yellow were
stigma very tightly linked and showed:
37.2 %
1. 50 % recombination 2.
1. Only I and II recombination
2. Only I and III 12.5 %
3. 4. 1.3 % recombination
3. Only II and III recombination
4. I, II and III

143. Parthenium or carrot grass, an invasive

species, came into India as a contaminant with
imported:
1. Rice 2. Wheat
3. Maize 4. Cotton

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144. In the human genome, the chromosome 147. Study the pedigree chart given below:
with most number of genes and the
chromosome with fewest genes, carried by
them, respectively are:
1. The X Chromosome and the Y Chromosome
2. Chromosome 1 and Chromosome 22
3. Chromosome 1 the Y chromosome
4. Chromosome 1 the X chromosome
What does it show?
145. Consider the two statements:
Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of
When Griffith injected a 1.
metabolism
Assertion (A): mixture of heat-killed S and
Inheritance of a condition like
live R bacteria, the mice died.
2. phenylketonuria as an
Mice infected with the S strain autosomal recessive trait
(virulent) die from pneumonia
The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
Reason (R): infection but mice infected 3.
possible
with the R strain do not
develop pneumonia. Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease
4. like
haemophilia
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 148. Consider the given two statements:
2.
correct explanation of (A).
Pollen grain exine has prominent
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Assertion: apertures called germ pores where
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. sporopollenin is absent.
Germ pore is the structure through
Reason: which the germ tube or pollen tube
146. In an ovule: makes its exit on germination.
the body fuses with hilum in the region
1.
called funicle. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
2. the chalaza is the apical part. 1. Reason does not correctly explain the
3. there are two integuments in angiosperms. Assertion.
placenta is a stalk to which the ovary is 2. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4.
attached. Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
3.
Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.

149. There is now enough evidence to suggest

that essential life processes (such as
metabolism, translation, splicing, etc.), evolved
around:
1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Proteins
4. Lipids

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150. For a female becoming haemophilic: 155. Which alphabet represent the ampulla in
I: mother of such a female has to be at least a the given figure?
carrier.
II: father of such a female has to be at least a
carrier.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Biology-II-Section-A
151. How many secondary spermatocytes are
required to form 400 million spermatozoa ?
1. 50 million
2. 100 million
3. 200 million
4. 400 million

152. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine

Devices.
1. Lippes Loop, Multitoad 375
2. Vaults, LNG-20
3. Multiload 375, Progestasert
4. Progestasert, LNG-20
1. A
153. Consider the two statements: 2. B
Placenta provides nutrients and 3. C
Statement
oxygen to the developing fetus 4.D
I:
during pregnancy.
Statement Amniotic sac protecs the fetus 156. Signals for parturition originate from:
II: during pregnancy. 1. Both placenta as well as fully developed
foetus
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 2. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
1. 3. Placenta only
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 4. Fully developed foetus only
2.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
incorrect

154. For maintenance of the endometrium, the

corpus luteum secretes large amounts of:
1. Progesterone
2. Oestrogen
3. LH
4. FSH

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157. Match List - I with List - II with respective 160. Absence of a menstrual period in a woman
to methods of Contraception and their of reproductive age is called as:
respective actions. 1. Menopause
List - I List - II 2. Dysmenorrhoea
Inhibit ovulation and 3. Menorrhagia
(a) Diaphragms (i) 4. Amenorrhoea
Implantation
Contraceptive Increase phagocytosis
(b) (ii) 161. Arrange the following male sex accessory
Pills of sperm within Uterus
ducts in the correct sequence for the transport
Absence of Menstrual
of sperms from the testis:
Intra Uterine
(c) (iii) cycle and ovulation
(a) Epididymis
Devices
following parturition
(b) Ejaculatory duct
They cover the cervix
(c) Vasa efferentia
Lactational
(d) (iv) blocking the entry of
(d) Rete testis
Amenorrhea
sperms (e) Vas deferens
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Choose the correct answer from the options options given below:
given below: 1. (d), (a), (c), (e), (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2. (d), (c), (e), (a), (b)
1. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 3. (d), (c), (a), (e), (b)
2. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 4. (d), (e), (a), (c), (b)
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
162. The number of testicular lobules in each
4. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) testis is about:
1. 1 to 3 2. 15 to 20
3. 250 4. 600
158. Identify the incorrect statement:
Lactational amenorrhoea can be effective for
1.
a maximum period of six months.
163. In the absence of fertilization:
Tubectomy and Vasectomy are easily 1. the zona pellucid gets hardened
2.
reversible processes. 2. the secondary oocyte completes meiosis II
Male barrier contraceptives protect against 3. the corpus luteum degenerates
3.
STIs. 4. menstruation does not occur
4. Oral contraceptive pills prevent ovulation.
164. Which of the following Intrauterine
devices are most likely to make the uterus
159. What would be the advantage of the fact unsuitable for implantation and the cervix
that the secondary oocyte retains bulk of the hostile to the sperms?
nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte? 1. Lippes loop
This ensures dumping of extra genetic 2. Multiload 375
1. 3. Progestasert
material
2. This ensures nutrition for the early embryo 4. Cu T
This ensures easy passage of the released
3.
oocyte in the oviduct
This ensures equal holoblastic cleavage after
4.
fertilisation

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165. Consider the given two statements: 168. Vasectomy:

Periodic abstinence, in which the is the most effective permanent form of
I:
couples avoid or abstain from coitus contraception available to men.
Assertion: from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual protects against sexually transmitted
cycle, is regarded as a natural II:
infections.
method of contraception.
Natural methods work on the 1. Both I and II are correct
Reason: principle of avoiding chances of 2. Only I is correct
ovum and sperms meeting.
3. Only II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
1. Assertion is true; Reason is false
Both Assertion and Reason are true and
2.
Reason correctly explains the Assertion
169. The population of India:
3. Assertion is false; Reason is true was approximately 350 million at the time
Both Assertion and Reason are true but I:
of our independence.
4. Reason does not correctly explain the reached close to the two billion mark by
Assertion II:
2000.

1. Only I is correct
166. Lactational amenorrhea, as a natural 2. Only II is correct
method of contraception, has been reported to 3. Both I and II are correct
be effective only up 4. Both I and II are incorrect
to a maximum period of:
1. one month following parturition. 170. How many of the given statements
2. two months following parturition. regarding human placenta are correct?
3. three months following parturition.
I: It is formed only by the maternal tissue.
4. six months following parturition.
It facilitates the supply of oxygen and
167. Match List - I with List - II nutrients to the embryo and also removal
II:
of carbon dioxide and excretory/waste
List-I List-II
materials produced by the embryo.
(A) Non-medicated IUDs (I) Multiload 375
The placenta is connected to the embryo
Rubber through an umbilical cord which helps in
(B) Copper releasing IUDs (II) III:
barrier the transport of substances to and from the
Hormone releasing embryo.
(C) (III) Lippes loop
IUDs Placenta allows mixing of maternal blood
(D) Vaults (IV) LNG-20 IV: and foetal blood from the middle of the
pregnancy.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: 1. 1 2. 2
Options: (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. 3 4. 4
1. (IV) (III) (I) (II)
2. (II) (IV) (III) (I)
3. (III) (I) (IV) (II) 171. Amniocentesis can be used to test for the
4. (III) (IV) (II) (I) presence of certain genetic disorders including
all the following except:
1. Down’s syndrome
2. Haemoplilia
3. Pernicious anaemia
4. Klinefelter’s syndrome

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172. Which of the following is incorrect 177. Which of the following contraceptive
regarding vasectomy? methods involve the role of hormones?
1. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid Pills, Emergency contraceptives, barrier
2. No sperm occurs in epididymis 1.
methods
3. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency
4. Irreversible sterility 2.
contraceptives
Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea,
173. At present, the legal age for marriage in 3.
pills
India:
1. has been raised to 21 years for females 4. CuT, Pills, barrier methods
2. has been reduced to 18 years for males
3. is 18 years for females and 21 years for males
4. is 18 years for males and 21 years for females 178. What is transferred into the fallopian tube
in ZIFT?
174. All of the following will be true for ovaries, 1. Zygote only
except: 2. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres
Ovaries are the primary female sex organs 3. Zygote or embryos with up to 8 blastomeres
1. that produce the female gamete and several All of the above can be transferred during
gonadotropins. 4.
ZIFT
The ovaries are located one on each side of
2.
the lower abdomen
Each ovary is about 2 to 4 cm in length and is 179. Which of the following hormones are
3. connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by secreted in women only during pregnancy?
ligaments. (a) Relaxin (b) Oxytocin
Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium (c) hCG (d) hPL
which encloses the ovarian stroma. The (e) Progesterone
4.
stroma is divided into two zones – a
peripheral cortex and an inner medulla. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:

175. What is incorrect regarding the ovary in 1. (c), (d) and (e) only
humans? 2. (b) and (e) only
3. (b), (c) and (d) only
The surface is covered with simple cuboidal 4. (a), (c) and (d) only
1.
epithelium, called the germinal epithelium.
Follicles in various phases of development 180. Match the following columns and select
2. the correct option:
are seen in the ovarian cortex
Column I Column II
It is connected to the uterus and pelvic floor
3. Human chorionic
by tendons (a) Ovary (i)
gonadotropin
4. It is a primary sex organ
(b) Placenta (ii) Estrogen & Progesterone
Corpus
(c) (iii) Androgens
176. The combination oral contraceptive pills luteum
should be started: (d) Leydig cells (iv) Progesterone only
1. within the first few days of the menstrual
cycle Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. around the timing of ovulation 1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3. early in post-ovulatory phase
2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4. late in post ovulatory phase
3. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
4. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

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181. Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used

as: Biology-II-Section-B
1. Copper releasing IUD 186. Fertilisation in humans is practically
2. Cervical barrier feasible only if?
3. Vault barrier the ovum and sperms are transported
4. Non-Medicated IUD 1. simultaneously to the ampullary-isthmic
junction of the fallopian tube
182. Consider the given two statements: the ovum and sperms are transported
The testes are situated outside the 2. simultaneously to the ampullary-isthmic
Assertion: abdominal cavity within a pouch junction of the cervix
called scrotum.
the sperms are transported into the cervix
The scrotum helps in maintaining 3. within 48 hrs of the release of the ovum in
Reason: the low temperature of the testes the uterus
necessary for spermatogenesis.
the sperms are transported into the vagina
4. just after the release of the ovum in the
Both Assertion and Reason are true and fallopian tube
1.
Reason explains the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but
2.
Reason does not explain the Assertion. 187. Transfer of an ovum collected from a
3. Assertion is true but Reason is False donor into the fallopian tube of another female
4. Assertion is False but Reason is true who cannot produce one, but can provide
suitable environment for fertilisation and
further development is called as:
183. Which of the following techniques is 1. GIFT – gamete intra fallopian transfer
banned by law in India for pre-natal sex 2. ZIFT – zygote intra fallopian transfer
determination? 3. SUZI – Sub Zonal insemination
1. Laparoscopy 2. Amniocentesis 4. HSG – Hystero Salpingo Graphy
3. Hysteroscopy 4. MRI and CT scan
188. What is released at the time of ovulation?
1. Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
2. Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis II
184. In the ‘test–tube baby’ procedure: 3. Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
Fertilization is in-vitro but embryo 4. Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II
1.
development is in-vivo
Fertilization is in-vivo but embryo 189. Which part of the ovary in mammals acts
2.
development is in-vitro as an endocrine gland after ovulation?
Both fertilization and embryo development 1. Graafian follicle
3.
are in-vitro 2. Stroma
Both fertilization and embryo development 3. Germinal epithelium
4.
are in-vivo 4. Vitelline membrane

185. The primary follicles in the ovary grow to 190. In the last century an all-round
become a fully mature Graafian follicle and development in various fields significantly
simultaneously the endometrium of the uterus improved the quality of life of the people.
regenerates through proliferation during the: Currently in our country all the following are in
1. menstrual phase of the menstrual cycle decline, except:
2. follicular phase of the menstrual cycle 1. Maternal mortality 2. Infant mortality
3. ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle 3. Life expectancy 4. Death rate
4. luteal phase of the menstrual cycle

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191. The testes of a male child aged four years 197. At the birth of the female child, the follicles
will have: in her ovaries contain:
1. primary spermatocytes Primary oocytes that have been arrested at
2. immature sperms 1.
the S phase of the cell cycle
3. spermatogonia Primary oocytes that have been arrested at
4. spermatids 2.
prophase I of meiosis I
Secondary oocytes that have been arrested
192. The combination pill works mainly by 3.
prophase I of meiosis I
directly preventing:
1. ovulation Secondary oocytes that have been arrested
4.
2. menstruation at metaphase II of meiosis II
3. fertilisation
4. implantation
198. In case of a couple where the male is
193. Saheli is: having a very low sperm count, which
technique will be suitable for fertilization?
1. a copper releasing intra-uterine device 1. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
2. combination oral contraceptive pill 2. Artificial insemination
non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill 3. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
3. 4. Intrauterine transfer
developed by CDRI
is an assisted reproductive technology centre
4.
located in New Delhi
199. Which of the following sexually
transmitted infections is completely curable if
194. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of diagnosed and treated early?
puberty due to a significant increase in the 1. Hepatitis B 2. Syphilis
secretion of: 3. Genital herpes 4. HIV
1. GnRH
2. FSH
3. LH 200. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
4. Testosterone fallopian tubes:

195. As per the provisions of The Medical 1. Infundibulum possesses fimbriae

Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, Fertilization takes place in the narrowest
2017, under ordinary circumstances, a 2.
part of fallopian tube called ampulla
pregnancy may be terminated maximum up to:
3. Isthmus joins the uterus
1. 12 weeks of pregnancy
2. 20 weeks of pregnancy 4. It is lined with ciliated epithelium
3. 24 weeks of pregnancy
4. 28 weeks of pregnancy

196. Oral progestogen–estrogen combinations:

I: inhibit ovulation
II: inhibit implantation
alter the quality of cervical mucus to
III:
prevent/retard entry of sperms

1. Only I and II are correct

2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

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