Paper - 1

JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER

QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. A vessel, whose bottom is flat and perfectly reflecting, is filled with water
4
(refractive index = ) upto a height = 40 cm. A point object in air above is
3

moving towards the water surface with a constant speed = 4 m/s. What is
the relative speed of its final image (in m/s), as seen by the object itself, at a
moment when the object is 30 cm above the water surface ?

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

2. A small block slides with velocity 0.5√gr on the horizontal frictionless

surface as shown in the Figure. The block leaves the surface at point C. The
x
angle cos θ = . Find the value of x.
4

3. The density of the substance is 7 kg/m of a spherical planet where the daily
3

period of rotation equals 10 sec, if it is known that bodies are weightless at

5

the equator of the planet. Find x. Round off to nearest integer. (Take
G = 6.6 × 10 Nm /kg
−11 2 2

4. A block of density 2000 kg/m and mass 10 kg is suspended by a spring of

3

stiffness 100 N/m. The other end of the spring is attached to a fixed support.
The block is completely submerged in a liquid of density 1000 kg/m . If the 3

block is in equilibrium position. The spring potential energy is 4x. Find the
value of x . Round off to nearest integer.

5. When monochromatic light falls normally on the surface of the soap film in
air, the intensity of the reflected light depends on the wavelength: it has a
maximum at λ = 630 nm and the minimum at λ = 525 nm .The film
1 2

4725.04 4
thickness is . Refractive index of the film μ = . Find x.
x 3

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

6. The uniform solid cylinder rolls without slipping in the system shown. If the
maximum compression in spring is 15 cm, the possible friction force (in N)
acting on the cylinder during its motion is :

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. Consider a cart lying on a frictionless surface that can hold a full tank of
water. The mass of the cart with the full tank of water is M . A fire-hose
sprays water with a constant ejection speed V W at a constant mass rate
dm
r = and at an angle θ relative to the horizontal.
dt

A The acceleration at any time t of the cart while it is spraying water is given
V r cos θ
. by
W

M − rt

B M VW rt cos θ
The speed of the cart as a function of time(t < ) is
. r M − rt

M
C The speed of the cart as a function of time(t < ) is
r
. V cos θ ln(M − rt)
W

D
The external horizontal force that must be applied to keep the cart
. stationary while spraying water is rV cos θ
W

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

2. A light rigid rod AB of length 3l has a point mass m at end A and a point
mass 2m at end B. It is kept on a smooth horizontal surface. Point C is the
center of mass of the system. Initially the system is at rest. The mass 2m is
suddenly given a velocity v towards right. Take Z axis to be perpendicular
0

to the plane of the paper.

A
. The minimum moment of inertia (about Z -axis), I of the system is 5ml .
2
zz

B 2
2mv
. The magnitude of tension in the rod in subsequent motion is
0

9l

C The ratio of moment of inertia about Z -axis at points A and B,

(I )
. ZZ
= 2
A

(IZZ )B

D
. Point C remains stationary during subsequent motion.

3. A gas is filled in an organ pipe and it is sounded in fundamental mode.

Choose the correct statement(s) :
(T = constant)

A .
If gas is changed from H 2 to O2 , the resonant frequency will increase
B .
If gas is changed from O 2 to N2 , the resonant frequency will increase
C .If gas is changed from N to H e , the resonant frequency will decrease
2

D .If gas is changed from H e to CH , the resonant frequency will decrease

4
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

4. Waves are moving along +X− axis with amplitude 0.4 m, speed 6 m/s and
frequency 17 Hz. If this waves are travelling on a string with mass per unit
length = 0.02 kg/m. Then :

A .The energy per unit length is 18.3 J/m

B .
The power being fed into the vibrating string is 109.5 W
The equation of the wave is
C . 17πx
y = 0.4 cos( − 34πt) m
3

D .
The energy per unit length is 15 J/m

5. In the arrangement shown in the figure, initially the block of mass m is in 1

limiting equilibrium. The coefficient of friction between the block of mass m 1

and floor is μ. Now the block of mass m is given a horizontal velocity v

2 0.

The initial distance of the block of mass m from the pulley is l. The masses
2

of pulley and threads are negligible. Choose the correct option(s) :

2
A . μ v
Acceleration of m just after the velocity given is (
0
1 )
1 + μ l

2
B . μ v
Acceleration of m just after the velocity given is(
0
1 )
1 + μ 2l

C .Radius of curvature of path of m just after the velocity given is l(1 + μ)

2

D .Radius of curvature of path of m just after the velocity given is 2l(1 + μ)

2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

6. Consider a thermodynamic cycle in a P V diagram shown in the figure

perform by one mole of a mono atomic gas. The temperature at A is T and 0

volume at A and B are related as V B = VC = 2VA . Choose the correct

option(s) form the following

A .
The maximum temperature during the cycle is 4T 0

B .Net work done by the gas during the cycle is 0.5 RT

0

C .
The heat capacity of the process AB is 2R
D .
Heat capacity of process AB is 3R

7. In the circuit shown E, F , G and H are cells of e. m. f . 2 V, 1 V, 3 V and 1 V

respectively and their internal resistances are 2 Ω, 1 Ω, 3 Ω and 1 Ω

respectively.

A . −2
VD − VB = Volt
13

B . 2
VD − VB = Volt
13

C . 21
VG = Volt ,V G = potential difference across G.
13

D . 19
VH = Volt ,V H = potential difference across H
13

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

8. Density of water is ρ and density of mercury ρ

w Hg
. The valve is opened.
Then which of the following is/are true-

A .Height of level of mercury in the left container is ρH g − ρw

2ρH g

B . ρH g + ρw
Pressure at the bottom of left container is ( )g
2

C .Height of level of mercury in right container ρH g + ρw

2ρH g

D . ρH g + ρw
Pressure at the bottom of right container is g
2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

1. A small point mass carrying some positive charge on it, is released from the
edge of a table. There is a uniform electric field in this region in the
horizontal direction. Which of the following options then correctly describe
the trajectory of the mass? (Curves are drawn schematically and are not to
scale).

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

A.

B.

C.

D.

2. In figure, assuming the diodes to be ideal,

A. D1 is forward biased and D is reverse biased and hence current

2

flows from A to B
B. D2 is forward biased and D is reverse biased and hence no current
1

flows from B to A and vice versa.

C. D1 and D are both forward biased and hence current flows from A
2

to B.
D. D1 and D are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from
2

A to B and vice versa.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

3. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released
due to fission of each nucleus of uranium atom U 228
is 170 MeV. The
number of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be

A. 30 × 10
25

B. 4 × 10
22

C. 10 × 10
20

D. 5 × 10
5

4. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 μF is broken into eight drops of equal

radius. Then, the capacitance of each small drop is -

A. 1
μF
2

B. 1
μF
4

C. 1
μF
8

D. 8 μF

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. Find the quantum number ‘n corresponding to the excited state of He ion.

′ +

If on transition to the ground state that ion emits two photons in succession
with wavelengths 108.5 and 30.4 nm.

2. For a reaction X + Y ⇌ 2Z 1.0 mol of X, 1.5 mol of Y and 0.5 mol of Z

were taken in a 1 L vessel and allowed to react.
At equilibrum, the concentration of Z was 1.0 mol L . −1

x
The equilibrium constant of the reaction is . The value of x is
15

3. The reaction of cyanamide, N H CN (s) with oxygen was run in a bomb

2

calorimeter and ΔU was found to be −742.24 kJ mol l .The magnitude of−1

ΔH for the reaction

298

3
N H2 CN (s) + O2(g) → N2 (g) + CO2 (g) + H2 O(l) is kJ. (Rounded off to the
2

nearest integer)

[Assume ideal gases and R = 8 J mol −1

K
−1
]

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION A)

4. The pyrolysis of an ester follows a first-order process and its rate constant
42075
can be expressed as ln k = 78.09 − , where k is given in the min . −1

The time required for 25% reaction to complete at 227 ∘

C will be hr.
( Consider e −6.06
= 2.4 × 10 and ln2 = 0.6)
−3

5. The total number of reagents from those given below, that can convert
nitrobenzene into aniline is _____. (Integer answer)
Sn − H Cl

Sn − N H4 OH

F e − H Cl
Zn − H Cl
H2 − P d

H2 − Raney N ickel

6. Find the total number of possible stereoisomers for

− 0
[P d(N H2 − CH (CH3 ) − CO )2 ]
2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. The lowest energy X-rays having λ = 3.055 × 10 −8

m . Which of the following
statements is/are true?

AThe minimum difference in energy between two Bohr's orbits such that an
. electronic transition would correspond to the emission of an X-ray is
−18
6.52 × 10 J

B
For Z = 2 the transiton that corresponds to the above radiation is n = 2 to
.n = 1

C
For Z = 2 the transiton that corresponds to the above radiation is n = 3 to
.n = 2

DThe minimum difference in energy between two Bohr's orbits such that an
. electronic transition would correspond to the emission of an X-ray is
18
1.65 × 10 J

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

2. Which transition state is not for S N2?

A .

B .

C .

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

D .

3. Which of the following condition are correct for a binary solution, in which
the solute, as well as the solvent, are liquid?

A .C 6
H6 and C6 H5 CH3

ΔHsolution > 0; ΔVsolution = 0

B .CH 3
COCH3 and CHCl3

ΔHsolution < 0; ΔVsolution < 0

C .H 2
O and HCl

ΔHsolution > 0; ΔVsolution < 0

D .H 2
O and C2 H5 OH

ΔHsolution > 0; ΔVsolution > 0

4. Which of the following is/are ore of Cu?

A .
Chalcopyrites
B .
Chalcocite
C .
Cuprite
D .
Bornite

5. Xanthoproteic test is given by:

A .
Tyrosine
B .
Tryptophan
C .
Phenylalanine
D .
Glycine

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

6. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen will not fail in the case of:

A .NH CONH2
2

B .NH CONHNH2 ⋅ HCl

2

C .
NH2 NH2 ⋅ HCl

D .PhNHNH ⋅ 2HCl
2

7. From molecule(s) which given below is expected to exhibit diamagnetic

behaviour?

A .C
2

B .
O2

C .N
2

D .S
2

8. Identify which of the structures below are not meso structures?

A .
1 and 3

B .2, and 4

C .
1, and 4

D .2, 4 and 5

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

1. Identify major product in the given chemical reaction.

A.

B.

C.

D.

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QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

2. In the spinel structure, oxides ions are cubical-closest packed whereas 1/8 th

1
of tetrahedral voids are occupied by A cation and of octahedral voids
2+

are occupied by B 3+
cations. The general formula of the compound having
spinel structure is:

A. A2 B 2 O 4

B. AB2 O4

C. A2 B 4 O 2

D. A4 B 2 O 2

3. The carboxyl functional group (−COOH ) is present in which of the

following:

A. Picric acid

B. Barbituric acid

C. Ascorbic acid

D. Aspirin

4. Consider the following reactions.

Δ

I) Na 2 S2 O3 + dil HCl −
→
Δ

II) Na 2
S2 O3 + Cl2 + H2 O −
→

III) SO 2 + H2 S −
→
Δ

IV) H S + H O −
2 → 2 2

The reactions which give yellow turbidity are

A. II, III, IV

B. III, IV

C. I, III, IV

D. I, II, III, IV

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. Points O, A, B, C, … are shown in figure where OA = 2AB = 4BC = … so

on. Let A be the centroid of a triangle whose orthocentre and circumcentre
7 5
are (2, 4) and ( , ) respectively. If an insect starts moving from the point
2 2

O(0, 0) along the straight line in zig-zag fashion and terminates ultimately at
point P (α, β), then the value of α + β is

2. Let A(z 1) and B(z 2) be two points lying on the curve z − 3 − 4i =

25

¯
¯¯
z − 3 + 4i

where |z | is maximum. Now, A(z ) is rotated about the origin in anti-

1 1

clockwise direction through 90 reaching at P (z ). If A, B and P are

∘
0

collinear, then the value of |z − z ||z − z | is

0 1 0 2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

3. If reciprocal of the area enclosed by the simultaneous inequations

x − 2y
2
≥ 0 and 1 − x − | y | ≥ 0 is z, then the value of 7z is

4. If α +
1
& 2 − β −
1
(α, β > 0) are the roots of the quadratic equation
α β

x
2
− 2(a + 1)x + a − 3 = 0 , then the sum of integral values of a is

5. If f (x) is continuous function and

x 2 ′′
∣ F (2) ∣
F (x) = ∫ ((2t + 3) ⋅ ∫ f (z)dz) dt, then the value of ∣ ∣ is
0 t ∣ f (2) ∣

6. If the A.M., the G.M. and the H.M. of the first and the last terms of the series
100, 101, 102, … , n − 1, n are the terms of the series itself, then the value of
n
is (100 < n ≤ 500)
10

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. Let F be the foot of perpendicular from P (1, 2, −3) on the line

x + 1 y − 3 z
L : = = . Given Q (x 1
, y1 , z 1 ) and R (x 2
, y2 , z 2 ) are points at a
2 −2 −1

distance of 3 units from F on line L. Let π and π be two planes passing 1 2

through Q and R respectively and perpendicular to the line of intersection of

the planes 9x − 7y + 6z + 48 = 0 and x + y − z = 7. Then which of the
following statements is (are) CORRECT?

A
. The coordinates of F are (1, 1, −1)

B 2

The value of ∑ (x 2
+ y
2 2
+ z ) equals 24
. i=1
i i i

C 88

. The distance between planes π and π equals 1 2

√482

D
The normal vector of planes π and π is parallel to the vector
1 2

. ^i + 15^j + 16k.
^

2. If P = [
5 −3
] and det (−3P 2013
+ P
2014
) = α
α
β
2
(1 + γ + γ )
2
where
111 336

α, β, γ are natural numbers, then

A .
α = 2013

B .β = 3

C .γ = 10

D .
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

3. A fair die is rolled four times. If the probability that outcome of each of the
roll is at least as large as the outcome of the preceding roll, can be
a
expressed as , where a is natural number and bc is two digit number, then
bc

A .
a = b

B .c + a ÷ b = 3

C .
3c − a ÷ b = 4

D .
a + b + c = 15

4. ABC is an equilateral triangle whose centroid is origin and base BC is

along the line 11x + 60y = 122. Then which of the following is/are
INCORRECT

A .
Area of triangle is numerically double the perimeter
B .
Area of triangle is numerically three times the perimeter
C .
Area of the triangle is numerically equal to the perimeter
D .
Area of triangle is numerically half of the perimeter

5. In a triangle ABC, if tan A = 2 sin 2C and 3 cos A = 2 sin B ⋅ sin C , then

possible value(s) of C is/are

A .π
8

B . π

C . π

D .π
3

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

6. If (f (x) − 1) (x 2
+ x + 1)
2
− (f (x) + 1) (x
4
+ x
2
+ 1) = 0 is true for all
x ∈ R − {0} , then which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

A .|
f (x) | ≥ 2, ∀ x ∈ R − {0}

B .
f (x) has local maximum at x = −1
C .
f (x) has local minimum at x = 1
π

D .The value of definite integral ∫ (cos x)f (x)dx = 0

−π

7. Let the function f (x) be the thrice differentiable and satisfies

1
4
f (f (x)) = 1 − x ∀ x ∈ (0, 1). If J = ∫ f (x)dx and f ′′
( ) = 0 , then which
0
5

of the following is(are) TRUE?

A . 1 2
f ( ) + f ( ) = 1
3 3

B . 1
J =
2

C .f ′′′
(x) = 0 has at least one root in x ∈ (
1 4
, )
2 5

D .f ′′
(x) = 0 has at least one root in x ∈ (
1 3
, )
4 4

8. 2 2
x y
Let P be any point on the ellipse + = 1, whose foci are S 1 & S2 . If
2 2
a b

∠P S1 S2 = α & ∠P S2 S1 = β , then

A .P S + P S2 = 2a, if a > b
1

B .P S + P S2 = 2b, if a < b
1

C . α β 1 − e
tan ⋅ tan =
2 2 1 + e

D . α β √a
2
− b
2

2 2
tan ⋅ tan = [a − √a − b ]
2
2 2 b

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

π
1. If exp{(tan 2
x − tan
4
x + tan
6
x − tan
8
x + ⋯) loge 16}, 0 < x < , satisfies
4

the quadratic equation x 2

− 3x + 2 = 0 , then value of cos 2
x + cos
4
x is

A. 4

B. 21

16

C. 17

11

D. 19

31

2. Range of the function f (x) =

ln x
is
√x

A. (−∞, e)

B. (−∞, e )
2

2
C. (−∞, ]
e

1
D. (−∞, )
e

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

→
3. If b and
→
c are any two non-collinear unit vectors and
→
a is any vector, then
→ → →
a ⋅ ( b × c )
→ → →
→ → → → →
( a ⋅ b ) b + ( a ⋅ c ) c + ( b × c ) is equal to
2
∣→ →∣
∣ b × c ∣
∣ ∣

A. →
a

B. →
b

C. →
c

D. → →
b + 2 c

4. A curve passing through the point (1, 1) has the property that the
perpendicular distance of the origin from the normal at any point P is equal
to perpendicular distance of P from the x−axis. Then the equation of the
curve is

A. x
2
+ y
2
= 2x

B. x
2
+ y
2
= 2y

C. x
2
+ y
2
= 2

D. x
2
+ y
2
= 4

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. A vessel, whose bottom is flat and perfectly reflecting, is filled with water
4
(refractive index = ) upto a height = 40 cm. A point object in air above is
3

moving towards the water surface with a constant speed = 4 m/s. What is
the relative speed of its final image (in m/s), as seen by the object itself, at a
moment when the object is 30 cm above the water surface ?

Accepted Answers

8 8.0 8.00
Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

Given :velocity of object v o = −4 m/s

4
refractive index μ =
3

∴ velocity of image with respect to mirror

vi/m = −μvo

4 16
vi/m = − × (−4) = m/s
3 3
∴ velocity of image with respect to ground
vi/m
vi/G = = 4 m/s
μ

∴ velocity of image with respect to object

= v − v = 4 − (−4) = 8 m/s
i/G o

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

2. A small block slides with velocity 0.5√gr on the horizontal frictionless

surface as shown in the Figure. The block leaves the surface at point C. The
x
angle cos θ = . Find the value of x.
4

Accepted Answers

3 3.0 3.00
Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)
Given:
Velocity of block V 0 = 0.5√gr

Applying conservation of energy

at point B and at point C

Velocity at point C :

2 2
v = vο + 2gh

⇒ v
2
= (0.5√gr)
2
+2gr(1 − cos θ)

2
⇒ v = (2.25gr − 2gr cos θ). . . . . . . (i)

2
mv
Centripetal force F c =
r

When the block leaves the surface at point C, then normal is zero.
2
mv
mg cos θ − N =
r

2
mv
i. e, mg cos θ =
r

On substituting in equation (i) in the above equation:

m(2.25gr − 2gr cos θ)

mg cos θ =
r

2.25
Then, cos θ =
3

3
−1
θ = cos
4

On comparison x=3

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

3. The density of the substance is 7 kg/m of a spherical planet where the daily
3

period of rotation equals 10 sec, if it is known that bodies are weightless at

5

the equator of the planet. Find x. Round off to nearest integer. (Take
G = 6.6 × 10
−11
Nm /kg
2 2

Accepted Answers

2 2.0 2.00
Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)
Given:
Density of the substance ρ = 7 kg/m 3

Daily period of rotation T = 10 sec, 5

We know that,
GM m
The gravitational force FG = will provide the centripetal force
2
R
2
mv
FC = between them.
R

2
GM m mv
So, =
2
R R

GM
or, v 2
= − − −(i)
R

Where, M = Mass of the planet

4
= Volume x Density= 3
πR ×ρ
3

If T be the time period,

2πR
then we know v =
T

Substituting v and M in the equation (i)

2
4 4π R
2
πR ρG =
2
3 T

on solving we get

3π
ρ =
2
GT

Putting the given values of G and T ,

3π 3
5 2
ρ = × (10) ) kg/m
−11
6.6 × 10

3
ρ = 14.2 kg/m

Now comparing with the given value of density,

we get 7x = 14.2

Therefore, x≃2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

4. A block of density 2000 kg/m and mass 10 kg is suspended by a spring of

3

stiffness 100 N/m. The other end of the spring is attached to a fixed support.
The block is completely submerged in a liquid of density 1000 kg/m . If the
3

block is in equilibrium position. The spring potential energy is 4x. Find the
value of x . Round off to nearest integer.

Accepted Answers

3 3.0 3.00
Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)
Given:
Block density ρ = 2000 kg/m
3

mass m = 10 kg
Spring stiffness k = 100 N/m.
liquid density ρ
3
= 1000 kg/m
liquid

At equilibrium
Spring force = Weight —Buoyant force
∴ Kx = mg − FB

ρliquid
Kx = mg [1 − ]
ρ

1000
100x = 10 × 10 [1 − ]
2000

or, x = 0.5 m

∴ Potential energy of spring

1 1
2
Kx = × 100 × 0.5 × 0.5 = 12.5 J
2 2

But the given Potential energy is = 4x

⇒ 4x = 12.5

12.5
⇒ x =
4

⇒ x = 3.125

∴ x ≈ 3

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

5. When monochromatic light falls normally on the surface of the soap film in
air, the intensity of the reflected light depends on the wavelength: it has a
maximum at λ 1 = 630 nm and the minimum at λ 2 = 525 nm .The film
4725.04 4
thickness is . Refractive index of the film μ = . Find x.
x 3

Accepted Answers

8 8.0 8.00
Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)
Given :
Maximum wavelength λ 1 = 630 nm Minimum wavelength λ 2 = 525 nm and
4
refractive index of the film μ =
3

Maximum intensity condition of light is

1
2μt = (n − )λ
2

Substituting the given values,

4 1
⇒2 × t = (n − ) 630 . . . . (i)
3 2

Minimum intensity condition of the light is

4
2μt = nλ ⇒ 2 × t = n × 525 . . . . (ii)
3

Dividing equation (i) with (ii)

(n − 0.5) × 630
⇒ = 1
525 × n

⇒n × 525 = (n − 0.5) × 630

525 2n − 1
⇒ = ⇒n = 3
630 2n

Substituting n = 3 in equation (ii),

4
⇒2 × t = 3 × 525
3

3 × 525 × 3
⇒t =
2 × 4

hence thickness, t = 590.63 nm

4725.04
Given the thickness t =
x

4725.04
∴ = 590.63
x

4725.04
⇒x = = 8
590.63

therefore x = 8

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

6. The uniform solid cylinder rolls without slipping in the system shown. If the
maximum compression in spring is 15 cm, the possible friction force (in N)
acting on the cylinder during its motion is :

Accepted Answers

10 10.0 10.00
Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)
Given: Maximum compression in spring x = 15 cm

Consider the uniform solid cylinder rolls without slipping in the system.

Equation of motion is given by:kx − f = ma. . . . .(1)

We know that f R = I α....(2)

2
mR
Moment of inertia of solid cylinder I =
2

a
Angular acceleration α =
R

Then equation (2) becomes:

2
mR α ma
fR = ⇒ f = . . . . . (3)
2 2

Substituting (3) in (1):

ma
kx − = ma
2

3ma
⇒kx =
2

2kx
Acceleration a = . . . . . (4)
3m

Substitute the above value in equation (3):

m 2kx
Frictional force: f =
2 3m

kx
⇒ f =
3

On substituting the given values:

200 × 0.15
f = = 10 N
3

So the friction force (in N) acting on the cylinder during its motion is 10.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. Consider a cart lying on a frictionless surface that can hold a full tank of
water. The mass of the cart with the full tank of water is M . A fire-hose
sprays water with a constant ejection speed V W at a constant mass rate
dm
r = and at an angle θ relative to the horizontal.
dt

A The acceleration at any time t of the cart while it is spraying water is

V r cos θ
 . given by W

M − rt

B M VW rt cos θ
The speed of the cart as a function of time(t < ) is
. r M − rt

M
C The speed of the cart as a function of time(t < ) is
r
. V cos θ ln(M − rt)
W

D
 . The external horizontal force that must be applied to keep the cart
stationary while spraying water is rV cos θ W

Given:
Mass of the cart = M
Ejection speed of the water = V W

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)
dm
Mass ejection rate r =
dt

Angle relative to horizontal = θ

Thrust force on the cart is calculated by :

dm
F T = VW
dt

There will be two components of the thrust force.

Vertical force gets balances with the normal.
Force on the cart in the horizontal direction is given by :

Fh = FT cos θ

dm
= VW cos θ = VW r cos θ
dt

At time t, the mass of the cart M becomes (M − rt) .

Therefore, the acceleration of cart is :

Fh VW r cos θ
ah = =
(M − rt) M − rt

dvh VW r cos θ
⇒ =
dt M − rt

Integrating both sides :

v t dt
∫ dvh = VW r cos θ ∫
0 0
M − rt

M
⇒ vh (t) = VW cos θ ln( )
M − rt

Option (a) is correct because the acceleration at any time t of the cart, while
it is spraying, is :
VW r cos θ

M − rt

Option (b) and (c) are incorrect because the speed of the cart as a function
of time is
M
VW r cos θ ln( )
M − rt

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)
Option (d) is correct because the external horizontal force that must be
applied to keep the cart stationary while spraying water is V r cos θ
W

Hence , option (a) and (d) are correct.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

2. A light rigid rod AB of length 3l has a point mass m at end A and a point
mass 2m at end B. It is kept on a smooth horizontal surface. Point C is the
center of mass of the system. Initially the system is at rest. The mass 2m is
suddenly given a velocity v towards right. Take Z axis to be perpendicular
0

to the plane of the paper.

A
The minimum moment of inertia (about Z -axis), I of the system is
zz
. 5ml .
2

B 2mv
2

 . The magnitude of tension in the rod in subsequent motion is 0

9l

C The ratio of moment of inertia about Z -axis at points A and B,

 . (I ) ZZ A
= 2
(IZZ )B

D
. Point C remains stationary during subsequent motion.
Given:
Length of rod = 3l

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

Distance of COM of the system (C) from point B is :

m × 3l + 2m × 0
′
r = = l
m + 2m

Moment of inertia is minimum about an axis passing through the center of

mass.

Since, C is the center of the mass,

2 2 2
Imin = IC = 2m × l + m × (2l) = 6ml

Therefore, options (a) is incorrect.

Let the angular velocity of the system about its center of mass is ω.
Applying conservation of angular momentum about the center of mass of
the system :
Li = Lf
2
⇒ 2m × v0 × l = 6ml × ω
v0
∴ ω =
3l

The magnitude of tension in the rod is:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)
2
T = Mω r
2
v
0
2
⇒ T = 2m × ω × l = 2m × × l
2
9l

2
2mv
0
⇒ T =
9l

Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Moment of inertia about Z -axis at point A :

2 2
(Izz )A = 2m(3l) = 18ml

Moment of inertia about Z -axis at point B :

2 2
(Izz )B = m(3l) = 9ml

The ratio of moment of inertia about Z -axis at point A and B is:

(IZZ )A
= 2
(IZZ )B

Therefore, option (c) is correct.

From conservation of linear momentum we can say that point C has

translatory motion. So option (d) is incorrect.

Hence, correct options are (b) and (c).

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

3. A gas is filled in an organ pipe and it is sounded in fundamental mode.

Choose the correct statement(s) :
(T = constant)

A
. If gas is changed from H 2 to O2 , the resonant frequency will increase

B
 . If gas is changed from O 2 to N2 , the resonant frequency will increase

C
. If gas is changed from N 2 to H e , the resonant frequency will decrease

D
If gas is changed from H e to CH , the resonant frequency will
. 4

decrease

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)
For longitudinal sound waves in gases, velocity of sound is :

γE
v = √
d

Where,
E is the elasticity of the medium,

d is the density of the medium,

CP
and γ =
Cv

Frequency of the wave is given by :

v
f =
λ
Where wavelength λ depends on the length of the tube.
So, the frequency of the wave is directly proportional to the velocity of the
wave.
i.e. f ∝ v

Therefore, the frequency depends on the speed of sound in medium.

Now molecular weight of different gases are,

MH = 2, MO = 32, MN = 28,
2 2 2

MH e = 4 and MCH
4
= 16 atomic mass unit.

The density of the gas is given by :

PM
d =
RT
Where,
M = Molecular weight

γERT
⇒ v = √
PM
γ
Or, v ∝ √
M

For Helium, degrees of freedom is less than diatomic molecules. Therefore,

γ (= 1.667) is high as compared to other diatomic molecules.
He

(γCH = 1.31, γN2 = 1.4, γO = 1.39)

4 2

f1 γ1 M2
∴ = √ [ ∵ f ∝ v]
f2 γ2 M1

Now if gas is changed from O to N , the resonant frequency will increase

2 2

and if gas is changed from H e to CH , the resonant frequency will

4

decrease.

Hence, correct options are (b), (d)

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

4. Waves are moving along +X− axis with amplitude 0.4 m, speed 6 m/s and
frequency 17 Hz. If this waves are travelling on a string with mass per unit
length = 0.02 kg/m. Then :

A .The energy per unit length is 18.3 J/m

B .The power being fed into the vibrating string is 109.5 W

The equation of the wave is
C . 17πx
y = 0.4 cos( − 34πt) m
3

D .
The energy per unit length is 15 J/m

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)
Given:
Mass per unit length μ = 0.02 kg/m
Amplitude A = 0.4 m
Frequency f = 17 Hz

Energy per unit length is,

2 2 2
U = 2π μA f

2 2 2
U = 2π (0.02)(0.4) (17) = 18.3 J/m

So, option (a) is correct and option (d) is wrong.

(ii) Power fed into the string,

2 2 2
P = 2π μA f V

2 2 2
P = 2π (0.2)(0.4) (17) 6 = 109.5 W

so, option B is correct.

(iii) General equation for a progressive wave along +x direction is,

2πxf
y(x, t) = A cos( − 2πf t)
v

2π(17)x
= 0.4 cos[ − 2π(17)t]
6

17πx
= 0.4 cos( − 34πt)
3

17π
= (0.4) cos[( )x– (34π)t] m
3

So, option C is correct.

Hence, correct options are (A), (B) and (C) .

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

5. In the arrangement shown in the figure, initially the block of mass m is in 1

limiting equilibrium. The coefficient of friction between the block of mass m 1

and floor is μ. Now the block of mass m is given a horizontal velocity v

2 0.

The initial distance of the block of mass m from the pulley is l. The masses
2

of pulley and threads are negligible. Choose the correct option(s) :

A v
2
μ
 . Acceleration of m just after the velocity given is (
1 )
0

1 + μ l

B v
2
μ
. Acceleration of m just after the velocity given is(
0
1 )
1 + μ 2l

C
 . Radius of curvature of path of m just after the velocity given is
2

l(1 + μ)

D
Radius of curvature of path of m just after the velocity given is
2
. 2l(1 + μ)
Given :
Coefficient of friction between the block m and floor = μ
1

Initialy system is in limiting equillibrium

So, μm g = m g or, m = μm
1 2 2 1

Equation of motion of m 1,

T − f = m1 a
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

We know that frictional force f = μN ;

where μ is co-effiecient of friction and N is normal force

∴ N = m1 g

Then the above equation becomes: T − μm1 g = m1 a ........(i)

Equation of motion of m , 2

2
m2 v
0
m2 g − T = m2 a − . . . . . . (ii)
l

Adding equations (ii) and (i):

2
m2 v
0
(m1 + m2 )a = m2 g − μm1 g +
l

2
m 2 vo
m2 g − μm1 g +
l
⇒ a =
m1 + m2

Since, m 2
= μm1

2
(μm1 )v
0
(μm1 )g − μm1 g + 2
μ v
l 0
⇒ a = =
m1 + (μm1 ) 1 + μ l

2
μ v
0
⇒ a =
1 + μ l

Therefore, option (a) is correct and option (b) is incorrect.

Substituting the value of a in equation (ii) :

2 2 2
m v m2 v
2 0 0
m2 g − T = −
m1 + m2 l l

2 2 2
m − m + m1 m2 v
2 2 0
⇒ T = m2 g + ( )
m1 + m2 l
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

2
m2 v
0
⇒ T = m2 g + (∵ m2 = μm1 )
l(1 + μ)

2
m2 v
0
⇒ T − m2 g =
l(1 + μ)
2 2
m2 v m2 v
0 0
∴ =
R l(1 + μ)

R = l(1 + μ)

∴ Radius of curvature is l(1 + μ)

So, option (c) is correct and option (d) is incorrect.
Hence, correct options are (a), (C).

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

6. Consider a thermodynamic cycle in a P V diagram shown in the figure

perform by one mole of a mono atomic gas. The temperature at A is T and 0

volume at A and B are related as V B = VC = 2VA . Choose the correct

option(s) form the following

A .The maximum temperature during the cycle is 4T 0

B .Net work done by the gas during the cycle is 0.5 RT 0

C .The heat capacity of the process AB is 2R

D .
Heat capacity of process AB is 3R
Given:
VB = VC = 2VA

Consider a thermodynamic cycle in a P V diagram.

Temperature at state `B' is maximum as pressure and volume both are large
at this point than other two state.

From the idea gas law we know that

P V = nRT .

On applying the gas law in the above P V diagram for B:

PB VB = nRTB

On applying the gas law in the above P V diagram for point A:

PA VA = nRTA

and for path A → B

P ∝ V
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i. e. P = CV , (C = const. )
 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

i. e. , for the path A → B,

2
V ∝ T

Then, T B = 4TA = 4T0

(Since temperature at A is T ) 0

Therefore, option (A) is correct.

Now along path C → A,

P is const.

TC VC
= ie, TC = 2T0
TA VA

Net work done by gas in cyclic process is:

workdone along B → C,
W1 = 0

(as volume is const)

workdone along C → A,

W2 = P (VA − VC )

W2 = R(TA − TC ) = −RT0

workdone along A → B,
1 T 1
B
W3 = ∫ P dV = R∫ dT = R(TB − TA )
T
2 A
2

3
W3 = RT0
2

∴ net workdone

W = W1 + W2 + W3 = 0.5RT0

Therefore, option (B) is correct.

Net heat absorbed during process

A → B

QAB = ∫ (dU + P dV )

3 1
= R(TB − TA ) + R(TB − TA )
2 2

= 2R(TB − TA )

QAB
∴ heat capacity C =
TB − TA

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

Hence, correct options are (A), (B), (C).

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

7. In the circuit shown E, F , G and H are cells of e. m. f . 2 V, 1 V, 3 V and 1 V

respectively and their internal resistances are 2 Ω, 1 Ω, 3 Ω and 1 Ω

respectively.

A .V
−2
D − VB = Volt
13

B . 2
VD − VB = Volt
13

C .V
21
G = Volt ,V G = potential difference across G.
13

D .V
19
H = Volt ,V H = potential difference across H
13

From the above circuit,

cells E, F , G, and H have emf 2 V, 1 V, 3 V, and 1 V
and resistances 2 Ω, 1 Ω, 3 Ω, and 1 Ω respectively.

Let us find current:

Apply KCL at point B:

I1 + I2 = I

Consider the loop DCBD:

Apply KV L

⇒ 3 − 3I − 1 − I − 2(I − I1 ) = 0 ,

⇒ 3I – I1 = 1. . . . . . . . . . . (i)

Consider loop DCBA:

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4I + 3I1 = 3. . . . . . . . . . . (ii)
 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

From equation (i) and (ii),

6
I = A ,
13

5
I1 = A ,
13

1
and I 2 = A ,
13

Let us find voltage:

1 2
VB − VD = 2 × = Volts
13 13

−2
VD − VB = Volts
13

Therefore, option (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

Voltage across G:

6
VG = (3 − 3I ) = (3 − 3 × Volts)
13

21
Then, V G = Volts
13

Therefore, option (C) is correct.

Voltage across H :

6
VH = (1 + I × 1) = (1 + 1 × )
13

19
VH = Volts
13

Therefore, option (D) is correct.

Hence, correct options are (A), (C), (D) .

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

8. Density of water is ρ and density of mercury ρ

w Hg
. The valve is opened.
Then which of the following is/are true-

A .Height of level of mercury in the left container is

ρH g − ρw

2ρH g

B .Pressure at the bottom of left container is (

ρ Hg
+ ρw
)g
2

C .Height of level of mercury in right container

ρH g + ρw

2ρH g

D .Pressure at the bottom of right container is

ρH g + ρw
g
2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

Let, after valve is open hight of mercury downward by x m from its initial
position to reach equillibrium condition.

At equillibrium P 2 = P1

i. e, (1 − x) × ρ Hg × g = x × ρH g × g + 1 × ρw × g

ρH g − ρw
or, x =
2ρH g

Height of mercury in right container

ρH g + ρw
= (1 − x) =( )g
2ρH g

Pressure at the bottom of right container

P2 = (1 − x) × ρH g × g

ρH g + ρw
P2 = g
2

Pressure at the bottom of left container

P1 = x × ρH g × g + 1 × ρw × g

ρH g + ρw
P1 = g
2

Hence, correct options are (A), (B), (C), (D).

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

1. A small point mass carrying some positive charge on it, is released from the
edge of a table. There is a uniform electric field in this region in the
horizontal direction. Which of the following options then correctly describe
the trajectory of the mass? (Curves are drawn schematically and are not to
scale).

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 A.

 B.

 C.

 D.

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qE
Acceleration of the particle along X axis a X
=
m
Acceleration of the particle along Y axis a Y = g

so, after time interval t

Distance travelled along X axis,
2
1 qEt
x = .......(1)
2 m
Distance travelled along Y axis
1
y = gt
2
.........(2)
2

from equation (1) and (2)

x (qE/m)
=
y g

mg
⇒ y = x
qE

which is the equation of the straight line .

Hence , option (C) is correct.

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

2. In figure, assuming the diodes to be ideal,

 A. D1 is forward biased and D is reverse biased and hence

2

current flows from A to B

 B. D2 is forward biased and D is reverse biased and hence no

1

current flows from B to A and vice versa.

 C. D1 and D are both forward biased and hence current flows

2

from A to B.

 D. D1 and D are both reverse biased and hence no current flows

2

from A to B and vice versa.

From the given diagram we can say,

In circuit:
A is at −10 V and B is at 0 V.

So, with respect to A , B is positive

Therefore we can say that,

D is in forward bias
2

and D is in reverse bias,

1

This will result in no current flows from A to B and vice-versa.

Hence , option (B) is correct.

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

3. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released
due to fission of each nucleus of uranium atom U 228
is 170 MeV. The
number of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be

 A. 30 × 10
25

 B. 4 × 10
22

 C. 10 × 10
20

 D. 5 × 10
5

Given,
Power, P = 300 MW = 300 × 10 W 6

Energy released due to fission of each nucleas,

−19 6
E = 170 MeV = 170 × 1.6 × 10 × 10 J

By using the relation of power and energy,

nE
P =
t
6 −19
n × 170 × 10 × 1.6 × 10
6
⇒ 300 × 10 =
t

n
⇒ = 1.1 × 10
19
= no of atoms fissiond per second
t

So,number of atoms per hour

n
19
= 1.1 × 10 × 3600
t

n 22 22
⇒ = 3.96 × 10 ≈ 4 × 10
t

Hence , option (B) is correct.

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

4. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 μF is broken into eight drops of equal

radius. Then, the capacitance of each small drop is -

 A. 1
μF
2

 B. 1
μF
4

 C. 1
μF
8

 D. 8 μF

Given, The capacitance of the large drop , C ′

= 1 μF

Let, the radius of the small drop be r and the radius of the large drop be R,

The volume of the large drop = The volume of 8 small drops

4 4
3 3
or, πR = 8 × πr
3 3

3 3
⇒ R = 8r

⇒ R = 2r

The capacitance of a smaller spherical drop is C = 4πε0 r

The capacitance of bigger drop is

′
C = 4πε0 R = 4πε0 (2r) = 2C

′
C 1
or, C = = μF
2 2

Hence , option (D) is correct.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. Find the quantum number ‘n corresponding to the excited state of He ion.

′ +

If on transition to the ground state that ion emits two photons in succession
with wavelengths 108.5 and 30.4 nm.

Accepted Answers

5 5.0 5.00
Solution:

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SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION A)
Given:
−7
λ2 = 30.4 × 10 cm
−7
λ1 = 108.5 × 10 cm

Let excited state of He be n . It comes from n to n and then n to 1 to

+
2 2 1 1

emit two successive photon.

1 2
1 1
= RH Z [ − ]
2 2
λ2 1 n
1

1 1 1
= 109678 × 4 [ − ]
−7 2 2
30.4 × 10 1 n
1

∴ n1 = 2

n1 = 2 and n2 =?

1 1 1
2
= RH Z [ − ]
2 2
λ1 2 n
2

1 1 1
= 109678 × 4 [ − ]
−7 2 2
108.5 × 10 2 n
2

∴ n2 = 5

Thus, excited state for He is 5 orbit. th

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2. For a reaction X + Y ⇌ 2Z 1.0 mol of X, 1.5 mol of Y and 0.5 mol of Z

were taken in a 1 L vessel and allowed to react.
At equilibrum, the concentration of Z was 1.0 mol L . −1

x
The equilibrium constant of the reaction is . The value of x is
15

Accepted Answers

16 16.0 16.00
Solution:
The given Reactions,
X + Y ⇌ 2Z

3 1
to 1
2 2

3 1
teq (1 − a) ( − a) ( + 2a)
2 2

According to question,
1
+ 2a = 1
2
1
⇒ 2a =
2
1
⇒ a =
4

Hence, at equilibrium:
1 3
X = 1 − a = 1 − =
4 4
3 3 1 5
Y = − a = − =
2 2 4 4
1 1 1
Z = + 2a = + 2 × = 1
2 2 4

2 2
Z (1) 16 x
⇒ Keq = = = =
X × Y 5 3 15 15
×
4 4

x 16
On comparing and
15 15
⇒ x = 16

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3. The reaction of cyanamide, N H CN (s) with oxygen was run in a bomb

2

calorimeter and ΔU was found to be −742.24 kJ mol l .The magnitude of −1

ΔH298 for the reaction

3
N H2 CN (s) + O2(g) → N2 (g) + CO2 (g) + H2 O(l) is kJ. (Rounded off to the
2

nearest integer)

[Assume ideal gases and R = 8 J mol −1

K
−1
]

Accepted Answers

741 741.04 741.00

Solution:
3
N H2 CN (s) + O2 (g) → N2 (g) + CO2 (g) + H2 O(l)
2

∵ ΔH = ΔU + Δng RT

3
Δng = 2 − = 0.5
2

Assume that the ΔU is given at the same temperature.

0.5 × 8 × 298
ΔH298 = −742.24 kJ + kJ
1000
= − 742.24 + 1.192
= − 741.04 kJ

|ΔH298 | = 741.04 kJ

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4. The pyrolysis of an ester follows a first-order process and its rate constant
42075
can be expressed as ln k = 78.09 − , where k is given in the min . −1

The time required for 25% reaction to complete at 227 ∘

C will be hr.
( Consider e −6.06 −3
= 2.4 × 10 and ln2 = 0.6 )

Accepted Answers

8.33 8.34 8.3

Solution:
Given:
42075
ln k = 78.09 −
T
(Where T = 227 + 273 = 500 K )
42075
∴ ln k = 78.09 −
500
⇒ ln k = −6.06
−6.06
⇒ k = e
−3
⇒ k = 2.4 × 10

For the first order reaction,

1 a
t = ln
k a − x

Here, a = 100, a − x = 25
So putting this value we get,
2 × ln 2 1.2
t = =
k k
1.2
⇒ t =
−3
2.4 × 10
= 500 min = 8.33 hr

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5. The total number of reagents from those given below, that can convert
nitrobenzene into aniline is _____. (Integer answer)
Sn − H Cl

Sn − N H4 OH

F e − H Cl
Zn − H Cl
H2 − P d

H2 − Raney N ickel

Accepted Answers

5 5.0 5.00
Solution:

Hence, answer is 5

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SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION A)

6. Find the total number of possible stereoisomers for

− 0
[P d(N H2 − CH (CH3 ) − CO )2 ]
2

Accepted Answers

6 6.0 6.00
Solution:

For each optically active

structure given above will have ′

d
′
and ′ ′
l form of isomers so total number of
possible stereoisomers is 6.

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SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. The lowest energy X-rays having λ = 3.055 × 10 −8

m . Which of the following
statements is/are true?

AThe minimum difference in energy between two Bohr's orbits such that
 . an electronic transition would correspond to the emission of an X-ray is
−18
6.52 × 10 J

B
 . For Z = 2 the transiton that corresponds to the above radiation is n = 2
to n = 1
C
For Z = 2 the transiton that corresponds to the above radiation is n = 3
. to n = 2

DThe minimum difference in energy between two Bohr's orbits such that
. an electronic transition would correspond to the emission of an X-ray is
18
1.65 × 10 J
−34 8
hc (6.63 × 10 J . s) × (3 × 10 m/s)
ΔE = =
−8
λ 3.055 × 10 m
−18
= 6.52 × 10 J
3
−18
ΔE H = (2.176 × 10 ) J
4
−18
= 1.63 × 10
2
ΔE = ΔE H ( Z )
−18
ΔE 6.52 × 10
2
Z = = = 4
−18
ΔE H 1.63 × 10
Z = 2

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2. Which transition state is not for S N2?

A .

B .

C .

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D .

In S 2 mechanism, a bond is broken and another is formed synchronously

N

so option (4) is the correct transition state.

3. Which of the following condition are correct for a binary solution, in which
the solute, as well as the solvent, are liquid?

A .C 6
H6 and C6 H5 CH3

ΔHsolution > 0; ΔVsolution = 0

B .
CH 3
COCH3 and CHCl3

ΔHsolution < 0; ΔVsolution < 0

C .H 2
O and HCl

ΔHsolution > 0; ΔVsolution < 0

D .H 2
O and C2 H5 OH

ΔHsolution > 0; ΔVsolution > 0

(A) C H + C H CH ⇒ Shows no deviation from Raoult's law.

6 6 6 5 3

(B) CH COCH + CHCl ⇒ Shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.

3 3 3

(C) H O + HCl ⇒ Shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.

2

(D) H O + C H OH ⇒ Shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.

2 2 5

In positive deviation ΔH > 0; ΔV > 0

solution solution

While in negative deviation ΔH < 0; ΔV < 0 solution solution

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4. Which of the following is/are ore of Cu?

A .Chalcopyrites

B .Chalcocite

C .Cuprite

D .Bornite
(A) Chalcopyrites (CuFeS )2

(B) Chalcocite (Cu S)

2

(C) Cuprite (Cu O)

2

(D) Bornite (Cu FeS )

5 4

Given all ores contain Cu.

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SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

5. Xanthoproteic test is given by:

A .Tyrosine

B .Tryptophan

C .Phenylalanine
D .
Glycine
Xanthoproteic test is given by such amino acids which contains aromatic
groups.

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6. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen will not fail in the case of:

A .NH 2
CONH2

B .NH 2
CONHNH2 ⋅ HCl

C .NH NH2 ⋅ HCl

2

D .PhNHNH 2
⋅ 2HCl

Lassaigne's test is given by those nitrogenous compounds in which

carbon is also present along with nitrogen.
In C carbon is absent hence, it does not give Lassaigne's test.

7. From molecule(s) which given below is expected to exhibit diamagnetic

behaviour?

A .C 2

B .
O2

C .N 2

D .S
2

C2 (6 + 6 = 12)

2 ∗ 2 2 ∗ 2 2 2
= σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s , π2px ≈ π2py

N2 (7 + 7) = 14
2 ∗ 2 2 ∗ 2 2 2 2
= σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s , π2px ≈ π2py , σ2pz

C2 and N2 , all the electrons are paired, therefore both of are diamagnetic.

O2 = 8 + 8 = 16
2 ∗ 2 2 ∗ 2 2 2 2 ∗ 1 ∗ 1
= σ1s , σ 1s , σ2s , σ 2s , σ2pz , π2px = π2py , π 2px = π 2py
2 ∗ 2 2 2 2 ∗ 1 ∗ 1
S2 : LL σ3s , σ 3s , σ3px , π3py , π3pz , π 3py , π 3pz

Oxygen and sulphur both are paramagnetic molecules due to presence of

unpaired electrons.

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8. Identify which of the structures below are not meso structures?

A .
1 and 3

B .2, and 4
C .
1, and 4

D .2, 4 and 5

(i) (1) has pos so it is a meso compound.

(ii) (2) has no pos so it is not a meso compound.
(iii) (3) has pos so it is a meso compound.
(iv) (4) has no pos so it is not a meso compound.
(v) (5) has no pos so it is not a meso compound.

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SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

1. Identify major product in the given chemical reaction.

 A.

 B.

 C.

 D.

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SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)
Aldehyde with alpha hydrogens undergoes aldol condensation in presence
of dilute base followed by removal of water molecule during heating.

In the given molecule, there are two symmetrical aldehyde group so it will
undergoes intramolecular aldol condensation followed by condensation
reaction to give conjugated enone as given below:

Hence, option (d) is correct.

2. In the spinel structure, oxides ions are cubical-closest packed whereas 1/8 th

1
of tetrahedral voids are occupied by A cation and of octahedral voids
2+

are occupied by B 3+
cations. The general formula of the compound having
spinel structure is:

 A. A2 B2 O4

 B. AB2 O4

 C. A2 B4 O2

 D. A4 B2 O2

2−
Effective number of O in the unit cell
1 1
= 8 × + 6 × = 4
8 2
2+
Effective number of A in the unit cell
1
= 8 × = 1
8
3+
Effective no. of B in the unit cell
1
= 4 × = 2
2
∴ the general formula is AB O4
2
.

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3. The carboxyl functional group (−COOH ) is present in which of the

following:

 A. Picric acid

 B. Barbituric acid

 C. Ascorbic acid

 D. Aspirin

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SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)
The structures of the given compounds are:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

As can be seen from the above structures,only aspirin contains carboxyl

functional group (−COOH ).

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4. Consider the following reactions.

Δ

I) Na 2 S 2 O3 + dil HCl −
→

II) Na 2
S2 O3 + Cl2 + H2 O −
→

III) SO 2 + H2 S −
→

IV) H 2S + H2 O2 −
→

The reactions which give yellow turbidity are

 A. II, III, IV

 B. III, IV

 C. I, III, IV

 D. I, II, III, IV

I) Na 2 S 2 O3 + dil 2HCl −
→ S (yellow turbidity) + SO2 + 2NaCl + H2 O .
Δ

II) Na 2 S 2 O3 + Cl2 + H2 O −
→ N a2 SO4 + 2HCl + S (yellow turbidity) .
Δ

III) SO 2 + 2H2 S −
→ 3S (yellow turbidity) + 2H2 O .
Δ

IV) H S + H O −
2 → S (yellow turbidity) + 2H O.
2 2 2

Yellow turbidity of Sulphur is obtained in all the cases.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. Points O, A, B, C, … are shown in figure where OA = 2AB = 4BC = … so

on. Let A be the centroid of a triangle whose orthocentre and circumcentre
7 5
are (2, 4) and ( , ) respectively. If an insect starts moving from the point
2 2

O(0, 0) along the straight line in zig-zag fashion and terminates ultimately at
point P (α, β), then the value of α + β is

Accepted Answers

8 8.0 8.00
Solution:

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SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)
Since, centroid divides line joining orthocentre and circumcentre in the ratio
2 : 1,

7 5
⎛ ⎞
2 × + 1 × 2 2 × + 1 × 4
⎜ 2 2 ⎟
∴ A ≡ ⎜ , ⎟ = (3, 3)
⎜ ⎟
2 + 1 2 + 1
⎝ ⎠

⇒ OA = 3√2

So, x-coordinate of point P is OA cos 45 ∘

+ AB cos 45
∘
+ BC cos 45
∘
+ ⋯

∘
OA OA
= cos 45 (OA + + + ⋯)
2 4

1 OA
= ×
√2 1
1 −
2

1 3√2 × 2
= × = 6
√2 1

Similarly, y-coordinate of point P is

∘ ∘ ∘
OA sin 45 − AB sin 45 + BC sin 45 − ⋯

∘
OA OA
= sin 45 (OA − + − ⋯)
2 4

1 OA
=
√2 −1
1 − ( )
2

2
= OA = 2
3√2

∴ P ≡ (6, 2)

⇒ α + β = 8

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2. Let A(z and B(z be two points lying on the curve z − 3 − 4i =

25
1) 2)
¯
¯¯
z − 3 + 4i

where |z | is maximum. Now, A(z

1 1) is rotated about the origin in anti-
clockwise direction through 90 reaching at P (z ∘
0 ). If A, B and P are
collinear, then the value of |z 0 − z1 ||z0 − z2 | is

Accepted Answers

100 100.0 100.00

Solution:
25
z − 3 − 4i =
¯
¯¯
z − 3 + 4i
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
⇒ (z − (3 + 4i))(z − (3 + 4i)) = 25

2
¯
¯¯
⇒ |z − (3 + 4i)| = 5 (∵ zz = |z| )

This represents a circle with centre at (3, 4) and radius 5.

Since, |z | is maximum, A occurs along the diameter.
1

∴ z1 = 6 + 8i

Now, z 0 = (6 + 8i)i = −8 + 6i
2
P A ⋅ P B = OP

⇒ |z0 − z1 ||z0 − z2 | = 100

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3. If reciprocal of the area enclosed by the simultaneous inequations

x − 2y ≥ 0 and 1 − x − | y | ≥ 0 is z, then the value of 7z is
2

Accepted Answers

12.0 12.00 12
Solution:
Given,
2
x − 2y ≥ 0
x
2
⇒ y ≤
2

and 1 − x − | y | ≥ 0
When y ≥ 0
1 − x − y ≥ 0

⇒ x + y ≤ 1

Corresponding equation of line y = 1 − x

When y < 0
1 − x + y ≥ 0

⇒ 1 − x + y ≤ 0

⇒ y ≤ (x − 1)

Corresponding equation of line y = x − 1

Parabola is symmetric to y−axis

x
2
y =
2
x
2
⇒ (1 − x) = (∵ y = 1 − x)
2
x
2 2
⇒ 1 − 2x + x =
2
2
⇒ 2x − 5x + 2 = 0

5 ± √25 − 16
⇒ x =
4
1
⇒ x = 2,
2
1 1
and y = 1 − ⇒ y =
2 2
if x = 2, y = −1
Now total area A = 2 (Area in first quadrant)

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1/2
√x 1 1 1
= 2 [∫ dx + × × ]
0 √2 2 2 2

1/2
1 2 1
3/2
= 2( [ x ] + )
√2 3 8
0

1 1 7
A = + =
3 4 12
1 12
z = =
A 7
12
∴ 7z = 7 × = 12
7

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SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

4. If α +
1
& 2 − β −
1
(α, β > 0) are the roots of the quadratic equation
α β

x
2
− 2(a + 1)x + a − 3 = 0 , then the sum of integral values of a is

Accepted Answers

5.0 5.00 05
Solution:
1
We know that α + ≥ 2 (∵ α > 0)
α
1
and −β − ≤ −2 (∵ β > 0)
β
1
⇒ 2 − β − ≤ 0
β

One root is less than equal 0 and other root is greater than equal 2

f (0) ≤ 0

⇒ a − 3 ≤ 0
⇒ a ≤ 3 … (1)

Now, f (2) ≤ 0
⇒ 4 − 4(a + 1) + a − 3 ≤ 0

⇒ −3a − 3 ≤ 0

⇒ a ≥ −1 … (2)

From (1) and (2)

We get a ∈ [−1, 3]
∴ sum of integral values of a = −1 + 0 + 1 + 2 + 3 = 5

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SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

5. If f (x) is continuous function and

x 2 ′′
∣ F (2) ∣
F (x) = ∫ ((2t + 3) ⋅ ∫ f (z)dz) dt, then the value of ∣ ∣ is
0 t ∣ f (2) ∣

Accepted Answers

7 7.0 7.00 07
Solution:
x 2

F (x) = ∫ [(2t + 3) ∫ f (z)dx] dt

0 t

Differentiate w.r.t x by applying Leibniz’s rule

2

′
⇒ F (x) = (2x + 3) ⋅ ∫ f (z)dz
x

Again differentiate w.r.t x

2
d(2) d(x)
′′
F (x) = ∫ f (z)dz ⋅ (2 + 0) + (2x + 3) [f (2) − f (x) ]
x dx x

′′
⇒ F (x) = 2 ∫ f (z)dz − (2x + 3)f (x)
x

At x = 2
′′
F (2) = 0 − (4 + 3)f (2)
′′
F (2)
⇒ = −7
f (2)
′′
∣ F (2) ∣
∴ ∣ ∣ = 7
∣ f (2) ∣

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

6. If the A.M., the G.M. and the H.M. of the first and the last terms of the series
100, 101, 102, … , n − 1, n are the terms of the series itself, then the value of
n
is (100 < n ≤ 500)
10

Accepted Answers

40.0 40.00 40
Solution:
Given series is, 100, 101, 102 … … n– 1, n . And the A.M., the G.M. and the
H.M. of the first and the last terms of the series are the terms of the series
itself .
We get
100 + n
A.M.=
2
G.M.= 10√n
200n
And H.M. =
100 + n

For A.M. to be an integer n must be even.

For G.M. to be an integer n must be perfect square.
2
⇒ n = 4k
2
200k
∴ H.M. = 2
25 + k

Since numerator is multiple of 25, so denominator must be a multiple of 25

as H.M. is an integer.
Also 100 < n ≤ 500
2
⇒ 25 < k ≤ 125

⇒ k
2
and 125
= 50, 75, 100

Satisfying these values, we get

k = 100 is the only solution
2

⇒ n = 4(100) = 400

Therefore,
n 400
= = 40
10 10

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. Let F be the foot of perpendicular from P (1, 2, −3) on the line

x + 1 y − 3 z
L : = = . Given Q (x 1
, y1 , z 1 ) and R (x 2
, y2 , z 2 ) are points at a
2 −2 −1

distance of 3 units from F on line L. Let π and π be two planes passing 1 2

through Q and R respectively and perpendicular to the line of intersection of

the planes 9x − 7y + 6z + 48 = 0 and x + y − z = 7. Then which of the
following statements is (are) CORRECT?

A
 . The coordinates of F are (1, 1, −1)

B 2

 . The value of ∑ (x equals 24

2 2 2
+ y + z )
i i i

i=1

C 88
 . The distance between planes π and π equals 1 2

√482

D
The normal vector of planes π and π is parallel to the vector
. ^ 1 2

i + 15^ ^
j + 16k.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)
x + 1 y − 3 z
L : = = = λ (let)
2 −2 −1
⇒ x = 2λ − 1, y = 3 − 2λ, z = −λ

Clearly, 2(2λ − 1 − 1) − 2(3 − 2λ − 2) − 1(−λ + 3) = 0

⇒ 2(2λ − 2) − 2(1 − 2λ) − 1(3 − λ) = 0

⇒ 4λ − 4 − 2 + 4λ − 3 + λ = 0 ⇒ 9λ = 9 ⇒ λ = 1

⇒ F ≡ (1, 1, −1)

Co-ordinates of a point on L at a distance r from (x 1, y1 , z 1 ) is

(x1 + lr, y1 + mr, z1 + nr)

2 −2 −1
Here, l = , m = ,n = , r = ±3
3 3 3
2 2 2
{∵ √a + b + c = √2 + 2 + 1 = 3}
2 2 2

So, Q ≡ (3, −1, −2) ≡ (x 1, y1 , z 1 ) and R ≡ (−1, 3, 0) ≡ (x 2, y2 , z 2 )

2

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
∴ ∑ (x + y + z ) = x + y + z + x + y + z
i i i 1 1 1 2 2 2

i=1
2 2 2 2 2
= (3) + (−1) + (−2) + (−1) + (3) + 0

= 24

→ → →
Now, normal vector to planes π and π is 1 2 n 1 × n 2 = n (let)
→ →
Given, n = 9i − 7j + 6k, n = i + j − k
1 2

∣ i j k ∣
→ → → ∣ ∣
So, n = n 1 × n 2 = 9 −7 6
∣ ∣
∣1 1 −1 ∣

= ^
i (7 − 6) − ^ ^
j(−9 − 6) + k(9 + 7) = ^
i + 15^ ^
j + 16k

⇒ Equation of planes π and π are 1(x − 3) + 15(y + 1) + 16(z + 2) = 0

1 2

and 1(x + 1) + 15(y − 3) + 16(z − 0) = 0

i.e., x + 15y + 16z + 44 = 0 and x + 15y + 16z − 44 = 0

∣ ∣ ∣
44 + 44 88 ∣
Distance between planes π and π 1 2
=
∣
∣
∣
∣
= ∣ ∣

∣ √1
2
+ 15
2 2
+ 16 ∣ ∣ √482∣

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

2. 5 −3
If P = [ ] and det (−3P 2013
+ P
2014
) = α
α
β
2 2
(1 + γ + γ ) where
111 336

α, β, γ are natural numbers, then

A .α = 2013

B .β = 3

C .γ = 10

D .
α = 2014

∣ 5 −3 ∣
|P | = ∣ ∣ = 1680 + 333 = 2013
∣ 111 336 ∣

Now, det(−3P 2013

+ P
2014
) = | −3P
2013
+ P
2013
× P |

2013
= ∣P (−3I + P ) ∣

2013
= |P | | − 3I + P |

∣5 − 3 −3 ∣
2013
= (2013) × ∣ ∣
∣ 111 336 − 3 ∣

∣ 2 −3 ∣
2013 2013
= (2013) × ∣ ∣ = (2013) (666 + 333)
∣ 111 333 ∣
2013
= (2013) (111 × 9)
2013 2 2
= (2013) ⋅ 3 (1 + 10 + 10 )

On comparing, we get
α = 2013, β = 3 and γ = 10

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

3. A fair die is rolled four times. If the probability that outcome of each of the
roll is at least as large as the outcome of the preceding roll, can be
a
expressed as , where a is natural number and bc is two digit number, then
bc

A .a = b

B .c + a ÷ b = 3
C .3c − a ÷ b = 4

D .a + b + c = 15
Let N represent the number appearing on die when die is rolled i time,
i
th

i = 1, 2, 3, 4

Given that
N1 ≤ N2 ≤ N3 ≤ N4

Each time when a die is rolled, six options are there.

Let we have four equal sets {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, now we have to select four
numbers such that, exactly one number is selected from each set

Case 1 : All four are same

Number of ways: C = 6 6
1

Case 2 : Three are same but one is different

Number of ways: C × C = 30 6
1
5
1

Case 3 : Two are same of one kind and two are same of second kind
1
Number of ways: ×
6
C1 ×
5
C1 = 15
2

Case 4 : Two are same and two are different

Number of ways: C × C = 60 6
1
5
2

Case 5 : All four are different

Number of ways: C = 15 6
4

6 + 30 + 15 + 60 + 15
Required probability =
6 × 6 × 6 × 6
126 7 a
= = =
36 × 36 72 bc
a = 7, b = 7, c = 2

∴ a = b

and c + a ÷ b = 3
7
2 + = 3
7

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

4. ABC is an equilateral triangle whose centroid is origin and base BC is

along the line 11x + 60y = 122. Then which of the following is/are
INCORRECT

A .Area of triangle is numerically double the perimeter

B .Area of triangle is numerically three times the perimeter

C .
Area of the triangle is numerically equal to the perimeter
D .Area of triangle is numerically half of the perimeter
We have an equilateral triangle ΔABC and O(0, 0) the centroid

Height of ΔABC, AD = C
In an equilateral triangle, the line segment passing through the centroid is
the
perpendicular bisector to the opposite side.
This implies OD ⊥ BC
and, BD = CD & AO : OD = 2 : 1 … (1)
∣ 11(0) + 60(0) − 122 ∣

Now, OD = ∣ ∣ … (2)
∣ √112 + 602 ∣

From (1) and (2) we get

h 122
=
3 √3721

122 × 3
h =
61

h = 6 units
Let the side of the equilateral triangle be 2x units.
From (1), we get
BD = x units

In ΔABC, by the Pythagoras theorem, we get

2 2 2
AB = AD + BD
2 2
4x = 36 + x
2
3x = 36

x = 2√3

Therefore, the side of the triangle = 4√3

Perimeter of ΔABC = 3 × 4√3
= 12√3 units

√3
Area of ΔABC = × (4√3)
2

= 12√3 units
√3
Area of ΔABC = × (4√3)
2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)
= 12√3 square units
Therefore, the area of the triangle is numerically equal to the perimeter.

Alternate method

In equilateral triangle
O(0, 0) is the incentre

∣ 11(0) + 60(0) − 122 ∣

122
and r = OD = ∣ ∣ = = 2
√11
2 2 61
∣ + 60 ∣

Δ
and r =
s
⇒ 2s = Δ
∴ Area = Perimeter

5. In a triangle ABC, if tan A = 2 sin 2C and 3 cos A = 2 sin B ⋅ sin C , then

possible value(s) of C is/are

A .π
8

B .π
6

C .
π

D .
π

3
3 cos A = 2 sin B sin C

⇒ 3 cos A = cos(B − C) − cos(B + C)

⇒ 3 cos A = cos(B − C) + cos A ∵ (A + B + C = π)

⇒ 2 cos A = cos(B − C)

= − cos(A + 2C)

− 2 cos A = cos A cos 2C − sin A sin 2C

⇒ 2 = tan A sin 2C − cos 2C

Given that tan A = 2 sin 2C , we get

2
2 = 2 sin (2C) − cos 2C
2
⇒ cos 2C = 2 (sin (2C) − 1)
2
⇒ cos 2C = −2 cos (2C)

⇒ cos 2C(1 + 2 cos 2C) = 0

1
⇒ cos 2C = 0 or cos 2C = −
2
π 3π π π
⇒ 2C = , or 2C = π − ,π +
2 2 3 3
π 3π π 2π
⇒ C = , or C = ,
4 4 3 3

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

6. If (f (x) − 1) (x 2
+ x + 1)
2
− (f (x) + 1) (x
4
+ x
2
+ 1) = 0 is true for all
x ∈ R − {0} , then which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

A .| f (x) | ≥ 2, ∀ x ∈ R − {0}

B .f (x) has local maximum at x = −1

C .f (x) has local minimum at x = 1

π

The value of definite integral ∫

D .
(cos x)f (x)dx = 0
−π

2 2 4 2
[f (x) − 1][x + x + 1] − (f (x) + 1)(x + x + 1) = 0
4 2
(f (x) − 1) (x + x + 1)
⇒ =
f (x) + 1 (x2 + x + 1)2
4 2
−2 (x + x + 1)
⇒ 1 + =
2 2
f (x) + 1 (x + x + 1)(x + x + 1)
4 2 4 2 3 2
−2 (x + x + 1) − 1 × [(x + x + 1) + (2x + 2x + 2x)]
⇒ =
2 2
f (x) + 1 (x + x + 1)
2
−2 0 − 2x(x + x + 1)
⇒ =
2
f (x) + 1 (x2 + x + 1)

−2 −2x
⇒ =
2
f (x) + 1 (x + x + 1)
2
x + x + 1
⇒ f (x) + 1 =
x
2
x + x + 1 − x
⇒ f (x) =
x
2
x + 1 1
⇒ f (x) = = x + ,x ≠ 0
x x
2
∣ x + 1 ∣
| f (x) | = ∣ ∣
∣ x ∣

1
∵ x + ∈ (−∞, −2] ∪ [2, ∞)
x
∴ |f (x)| ∈ [2, ∞)

1
Now, f (x) = x +
x
1
′
f (x) = 1 −
2
x
for critical points
′
f (x) = 0

1
⇒ 1 − = 0
2
x
2
⇒ x − 1 = 0
⇒ x = ±1
2
′′
f (x) =
3
x
and f ′′
(local minimum)
(1) = 2 > 0

and
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f
′′
(−1) = −2 < 0 (local maximum)
 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

π 2
x − 1
I = ∫ cos x ( ) dx … (1)
−π
x

b b

(∵ ∫ f (x)dx = ∫ f (a + b − x)dx)
a a

2
π
(−x) − 1
I = ∫ cos(−x) ( ) dx
−x
−π

π 2
x − 1
⇒ I = −∫ cos x ( ) dx … (2)
−π
x

From (1) + (2)

2I = 0 ⇒ I = 0

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

7. Let the function f (x) be the thrice differentiable and satisfies

1
4
f (f (x)) = 1 − x ∀ x ∈ (0, 1). If J = ∫ f (x)dx and f ′′
( ) = 0 , then which
0
5

of the following is(are) TRUE?

A .f ( ) + f ( ) = 1
1 2

3 3

B .J
1
=
2

C .f
1 4
′′′
(x) = 0 has at least one root in x ∈ ( , )
2 5

D .f
1 3
′′
(x) = 0 has at least one root in x ∈ ( , )
4 4

f (f (x)) = 1 − x … (1)

Put x = f (x)
f [f (f (x)] = 1 − f (x)

From equation (1)

f (x) + f (1 − x) = 1 … (2)

1
at x =
3
1 1
f ( ) + f (1 − ) = 1
3 3

1 2
∴ f ( ) + f ( ) = 1
3 3

f (x) = 1 − f (1 − x)
1

J = ∫ f (x)dx
0

= ∫ (1 − f (1 − x))dx … (3)
0

b b

Apply (∫ f (x)dx = ∫ f (a + b − x)dx)

a a

J = ∫ (1 − f (x))dx … (4)
0

From (3) + (4)

1

2J = ∫ (2 − f (1 − x) − f (x))dx
0

From equation (2)

1

2J = ∫ 1dx
0
1
x
⇒ J = [ ]
2
0

1
∴ J =
2
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)
Differentiate equation (2) w.r.t. to x we get
′ ′
f (x) − f (1 − x) = 0

Again differentiate
′′ ′′
f (x) + f (1 − x) = 0

1
Putting x =
2

1 1
′′ ′′
f ( ) + f (1 − ) = 0
2 2

1
′′
⇒ f ( ) = 0
2

4
Given, f ′′
( ) = 0
5

1 4
So, f ′′
(
′′
) = f ( ) = 0
2 5

1 4
So, f ′′′
(x) = 0, has at least one root in x ∈ ( , )
2 5

′ ′
f (x) − f (1 − x) = 0

1
At x =
4
1 3
′ ′
f ( ) = f ( )
4 4

Now from rolle's theorem

1 3
So, f ′′
(x) = 0, for at least one root in x ∈ ( , )
4 4

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

8. 2 2
x y
Let P be any point on the ellipse 2
+
2
= 1, whose foci are S 1 & S2 . If
a b

∠P S1 S2 = α & ∠P S2 S1 = β , then

A .P S 1 + P S2 = 2a, if a > b

B .P S 1 + P S2 = 2b, if a < b

C .tan α β 1 − e
⋅ tan =
2 2 1 + e

D . α β √a2 − b2
2 2
tan ⋅ tan = [a − √a − b ]
2
2 2 b
2 2
x y
Given ellipse + = 1
2 2
a b

Let P (a cos θ, b sin θ) point on ellipse.

Case : 1, a > b
foci are (±ae, 0)
P S + P S = major axes
1 2

⇒ P S1 + P S2 = 2a

Case : 2, a < b
foci are (0, ±ae)
So, P S + P S = 2b
1 2

P S1 + P S2 = 2a

P S1 = x, P S2 = y (say)
⇒ x cos α + y cos β = 2ae … (1)

x sin α = y sin β … (2)

From (1) and (2)

sin β
y cos α + y cos β = 2ae
sin α
⇒ y sin(α + β) = 2ae sin α

2ae sin α
⇒ y =
sin(α + β)

2ae sin β
Similarly, x =
sin(α + β)

And x + y = 2a
2ae(sin α + sin β)
⇒ = 2a
sin(α + β)

α + β α − β α + β α + β
⇒ e2 sin( ) cos( ) = 2 sin( ) cos( )
2 2 2 2
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)
α − β
cos( )
1 2
⇒ =
e α + β
cos( )
2

α − β α + β
cos( ) − cos( )
1 − e 2 2
⇒ =
1 + e α − β α + β
cos( ) + cos( )
2 2

α β
2 sin sin
2 2
=
α β
2 cos cos
2 2

1 − e α β
∴ = tan tan
1 + e 2 2

For a > b
2 2 2 2
a − b a − b
√ {a − √ }
b2 b2

2 2
a e
= {a − ae}
2 2
a (1 − e )
2
ae 1 − e
∴ ≠
1 + e 1 + e

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

π
1. If exp{(tan 2
x − tan
4
x + tan
6
x − tan
8
x + ⋯) loge 16}, 0 < x < , satisfies
4

the quadratic equation x 2

− 3x + 2 = 0 , then value of cos 2
x + cos
4
x is

 A. 4

 B. 21

16

 C. 17

11

 D. 19

31

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)
Let y = exp{(tan 2
x − tan
4
x + tan
6
x − tan
8
x + …) log
e
16}
2 4 6 8
tan x − tan x + tan x − tan x + …

Terms are in infinite G.P

2
a = tan x
2
r = − tan x
2 2
a tan x tan x
2
S∞ = = = = sin x
2 2
1 − r 1 − (− tan x) sec x
2
⇒ S∞ = sin x

y = exp{(S∞ ) log 16}

e
2
2 sin x
sin x log 16 log 16
⇒ y = e e = (e e )
2
sin x
∴ y = 16 … (1)

Where y satisfies, x 2
− 3x + 2 = 0
2
⇒ y − 3y + 2 = 0

So (y − 2)(y − 1) = 0
y = 1, 2

from equation (1)

2

either y = 1 ⇒ 16 sin x
= 1
2

or y = 2 ⇒ 16 sin x
= 2
π
Since 0 < x <
4
1
⇒ 0 < sin x <
√2
1
2
⇒ 0 < sin x <
2
2

Then, 16 = 1 (not possible)

sin x

Now, again from (1)

2
sin x
y = 2 ⇒ 16 = 2
2
4 sin x 1
⇒ 2 = 2
2
⇒ 4sin x = 1

2
1
⇒ sin x =
4
Now, cos 2
x + cos
4
x
2 2 2
(1 − sin x) + (1 − sin x)
2
1 1
= (1 − ) + (1 − )
4 4
2
3 3
= + ( )
4 4

3 9
= +
4 16
12 + 9 21
= =
16 16

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

2. Range of the function f (x) =

ln x
is
√x

 A. (−∞, e)

 B. 2
(−∞, e )

2
 C. (−∞, ]
e

1
 D. (−∞, )
e

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)
ln x
f (x) =
√x

Domain: x > 0
d d
√x (ln x) − ln x (√x)
′
dx dx
⇒ f (x) =
(√x)2

1 1
√x × − ln x ×
x 2√x
′
⇒ f (x) =
x
2 − ln x
′
⇒ f (x) =
3/2
2x

Critical point is x = e 2

Now check function value at critical point and boundary points

2
ln e 2
2
f (e ) = =
√e2 e

at x → 0 +

ln x → −∞ and √x → 0 +

∞
and − → −∞
+
0
So, f (x → 0 +
) → −∞

ln x ∞
Now f (∞) = lim ( ) form
x→∞
√x ∞

So, applying L-hospital Rule

(1/x)
= lim
x→∞
1/(2√x)

2
= lim → 0
x→∞
√x

Graph of the function is

2
∴ Range of function f (x) = (−∞, ]
e

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

→
3. If b and
→
c are any two non-collinear unit vectors and
→
a is any vector, then
→ → →
a ⋅ ( b × c )
→ → →
→ → → → →
( a ⋅ b ) b + ( a ⋅ c ) c + ( b × c ) is equal to
2
→
∣ →∣
∣ b × c ∣
∣ ∣

 A. →
a

 B. →
b

 C. →
c

 D. → →
b + 2 c

→ →
Let, b
^
= i and ^
c = j
→
and let ^ ^ ^
a = a1 i + a2 j + a3 k

→ →
Now, ^ ^ ^ ^
a ⋅ b = (a1 i + a2 j + a3 k) ⋅ i = a1
→ →
a ⋅ c = (a1 ^
i + a2 ^ ^ ⋅ ^
j + a3 k) j = a2

→ →
^
k
→ b × c
and a ⋅
→
= (a1 ^
i + a2 ^ ^ ⋅
j + a3 k) (∵ ^
i × ^ ^
j = k)
∣ →∣ 1
∣ b × c ∣

= a3

From question
→ → →
a ⋅ ( b × c )
→ → → → → → → →
( a ⋅ b ) b + ( a ⋅ c ) c + ( b × c )
2
∣→ →∣
∣ b × c ∣
∣ ∣

→ →
→ →
= a1 b + a2 c + a3 ( b × c )

→
= a1 ^
i + a2 ^ ^ =
j + a3 k a

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

4. A curve passing through the point (1, 1) has the property that the
perpendicular distance of the origin from the normal at any point P is equal
to perpendicular distance of P from the x−axis. Then the equation of the
curve is

 A. x
2
+ y
2
= 2x

 B. x
2
+ y
2
= 2y

 C. x
2
+ y
2
= 2

 D. x
2
+ y
2
= 4

Equation of normal at point P (x, y) is

dx
Y − y = − (X − x) … (1)
dy

Perpendicular distance from the origin to eq. (1)

∣ dx ∣
∣ y + x ∣
∣ dy ∣
=
2
dx
√1 + ( )
dy

Also, distance between P and x−axis is | y |.

∣ dx ∣
∣ y + x ∣
∣ dy ∣
= |y|
2
dx
√1 + ( )
dy

Squaring on both sides

2
dx dx
2 2
y + ( ) x + 2xy
dy dy
2
= y
2
dx
(1 + ( ) )
dy

2 2
dx dx dx
2 2 2
⇒ y + ( ) ⋅ x + 2xy = y [1 + ( ) ]
dy dy dy

2
dx dx
2 2
⇒ ( ) (x − y ) + 2xy = 0
dy dy

dx dx
⇒ = 0 or 2 2
(x − y ) + 2xy = 0
dy dy

dx
From = 0
dy

⇒ x = c, where c is a constant.
Since, curve passes through (1, 1), we get the equation of the curve as
x = 1
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)
dx
From 2 2
(x − y ) + 2xy = 0
dy
2 2
dy y − x
⇒ =
dx 2xy

Above equation is a homogeneous equation

dy dv
Put y = vx ⇒ = v + x
dx dx
We get
2 2 2
dv v x − x
v + x =
dx 2x2 v
2 2 2 2
dv v − 1 v − 1 − 2v v + 1
⇒ x = − v = = −
dx 2v 2v 2v
−2v dx
⇒ dv =
v
2
+ 1 x
2
⇒ c1 − ln(v + 1) = ln| x |
2
⇒ ln(|x|(v + 1)) = c1

2
y
c
⇒ e 1
= |x| ( + 1)
x2

for x ≥ 0 we get
2
y
c
e 1
= x( + 1)
2
x

and for x < 0 we get

2
y
c1
e = −x ( + 1)
2
x

Curve passing through (1, 1)

c c
∴ 1 + 1 = e 1
(∵ e 1
> 0)
c1
⇒ e = 2
Hence, required curve is x 2
+ y
2
= 2x

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 Paper - 2
JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. A block of weight 100 N is suspended by copper and steel wires of same

cross-sectional area 0.5 cm and lengths √3 m and 1 m, respectively. Their
2

other ends are fixed on a ceiling as shown in figure. The angles subtended
by copper and steel wires with ceiling are 30 and 60 , respectively. If
∘ ∘

elongation in copper wire is (ΔL ) and elongation in steel wire is (ΔL ),

c s

ΔLc
then the ratio is
ΔLs

[Young's modulus for copper and steel are 1 × 10 11

Nm
2
and 2 × 10
11
Nm
2

respectively]

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

2. A planar structure of length L and width W is made of two different optical

media of refractive indices n = 1.5 and n = 1.44 as shown in figure. If
1 2

L ≫ W, a ray entering from end AB will emerge from end CD only if the

total internal reflection condition is met inside the structure. For L = 9.6 m, if
the incident angle θ is varied, the maximum time taken by a ray to exit the
plane CD is t × 10 −9
s , where t is
[Speed of light c = 3 × 10 8
m/s ]

3. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C has spacing d between two

plates having area A. The region between the plates is filled with N
d
dielectric layers, parallel to its plates, each with thickness δ = . The
N

m
dielectric constant of the m th
layer is K m = K (1 + ) . For a very large
N

Kϵ0 A
N (> 10 )
3
, the capacitance C is α ( ) . The value of α will be [ ϵ is the
0
d ln 2

permittivity of free space]

4. A particle is moved along a path AB → BC → CD → DE → EF → FA, as

shown in figure, in presence of a force F→ = (αy^i + 2αx^j) N, where x and y
are in meter and α = −1 N/m . The work done on the particle by this force
−1

F→ will be. In multiple of 100 (in Joule.)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

5. A train S , moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h, approaches another

1

train S standing on a platform. An observer O moves with a uniform velocity

2

of 36 km/h towards S as shown in figure. Both the trains are blowing

2

whistles of same frequency 120 Hz. When O is 600 m away from S and 2

distance between S and S is 800 m, the number of beats heard by O is.

1 2

[Speed of the sound = 330 m/s ]

6. A liquid at 30 ∘
C is poured very slowly into a Calorimeter that is at
temperature of 110 ∘
C . The boiling temperature of the liquid is 80 ∘
C . It is
found that the first 5 gm of the liquid completely evaporates. After pouring
another 80 gm of the liquid the equilibrium temperature is found to be 50 ∘
C .
The ratio of the Latent heat of the liquid to its specific heat will be ∘
C .
[Neglect the heat exchange with surrounding]

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas goes through a thermodynamic cycle,

as shown in the volume versus temperature (V − T ) diagram. The correct
statement(s) is/are :
[ R is the gas constant].

A Work done in this thermodynamic cycle (1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 1) is

. |W | = 1RT
0
2

B
∣ Q 12 ∣ 5
. The ratio of heat transfer during processes 1 → 2 and 2 → 3 is ∣∣ Q ∣ =
∣ 3
23

C
The above thermodynamic cycle exhibits only isochoric and adiabatic
. processes.

D
∣ Q 12 ∣ 1
. The ratio of heat transfer during processes 1 → 2 and 3 → 4 is ∣∣ Q ∣ =
∣ 2
34

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

2. In the circuit shown, initially there is no charge on capacitors and keys S 1

and S are open.

2

The values of the capacitors are C 1 = 10 μF, C2 = 30 μF and

C3 = C4 = 80 μF

Which of the statement (s) is/are correct?

AThe keys S is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully
1

charged. Now key S is closed, at this time, the instantaneous current

. across 30 Ω resistor (between points P and Q) will be 0.2A (round off to
2

1 decimal place).
st

B
If key S is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged,
1
. the voltage difference between points P and Q will be 10 V.

CAt time t = 0, the key S is closed, the instantaneous current in the closed-
1

. circuit will be 25 mA.

D
If key S is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged,
1
. the voltage across the capacitors C will be 4 V
1

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

3. A thin convex lens is made of two materials with refractive indices n and n 1 2

, as shown in figure. The radius of curvature of the left and right spherical
surfaces are equal. f is the focal length of the lens when n 1 = n2 = n . The
focal length is f + Δf when n = n and n = n +Δn. Assuming
1 2

Δn ≪ (n − 1) and 1 < n < 2, the correct statement(s) is/are:

Δf Δn
AThe relation between and remains unchanged if both the convex
f n
.
surfaces are replaced by concave surfaces of the same radius of
curvature.
B
∣ Δf ∣ ∣ Δn∣
.∣ ∣ < ∣ ∣
∣ n ∣
∣ f ∣

C
For n = 1.5, Δn = 10 and f = 20 cm, the value of |Δf | will be 0.02 cm
−3

. (round off to 2 decimal place)

nd

D
Δn Δf
. If n
< 0 then > 0
f

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

4. A cylindrical capillary tube of 0.2 mm radius is made by joining two

capillaries T and T of different materials having water contact angles of 0
1 2
∘

and 60 , respectively. The capillary tube is dipped vertically in water in two

∘

different configurations, case I and I I as shown in figure. Which of the

following option(s) is(are) correct?
(Surface tension of water = 0.075 N/m, density of water = 1000 kg/m , take 3

g = 10 m/s
2
)

A
The correction in the height of water column raised in the tube, due to
. weight of water contained in the meniscus, will be different for both cases.

BFor case I , if the capillary joint is 5 cm cm above the water surface, the
. height of water column raised in the tube will be more than 8.75 cm.
(Neglect the weight of the water in the meniscus)
CFor case I , if the joint is kept at 8 cm above the water surface, the height
. of water column in the tube will be 7.5 cm. (Neglect the weight of the water
in the meniscus)
DFor case I I , if the capillary joint is 5 cm above the water surface, the
. height of water column raised in the tube will be 3.75 cm. (Neglect the
weight of the water in the meniscus)

5. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using two different plates of

silver and sodium having work functions 4.6 eV and 2.3 eV respectively. A
light beam of wavelength 200 nm illuminates each plates. Then (Take
hc = 1240 eV. nm )

A .
Ratio of maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons is 0.41
B .
Ratio of threshold frequency is 0.5
C .
Ratio of threshold wavelength is 0.5
D .
Ratio of slope of the stopping potential versus frequency plot is 1

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

6. Which of the following system has/have time period T = π√

m
for small
k

oscillation? [Pulleys are ideal and surfaces are smooth]

A .

B .

C .

D .

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

7. The satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit of radius a with a

velocity v . Mass of earth is M . A gun in the satellite is directly aimed
0

v0
toward earth. A bullet is fired from the gun with muzzle velocity . Assume
2

that mass of the satellite is very-very large with respect to the mass of the
bullet. Choose the correct option(s):

4a
A .Maximum distance of bullet from the centre of earth is .
3

v0
B .Minimum speed of bullet (relative to earth) is .
2

C . 3v0
Minimum speed of bullet (relative to earth) is
4

3
D . 2π 4a 2
Time period of motion of bullet around earth is T = ( )
√GM 3

8. The value of rms current for circuit shown in figure is 2.2 A. Then the correct
statement(s) is/are-

A
. The value of capacitance is 100 μ F

B
The power factor of circuit is 1
.

C
The power dissipated in the circuit is 484 watt
.

D
The rms current in the circuit increases by √2 times after inductor is
. short-circuited

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

1. In each situation of column-I, some charge distributions are given with all
details explained. The electrostatic potential energy and its nature is given
in column-II. Then match situation in column-I with the corresponding results
in column-II -
Column-I Column-II
(A) A thin shell of radius a and having a charge – Q uniformly

distributed over its surface as shown (P )

2
1 Q
in
8πε0 a

magnitude

5a
(B) A thin shell of radius and having a charge – Q uniformly
2
distributed over its surface and a point charge – Q placed at its (Q)

centre as shown
2
3 Q

20πε0 a

in
magnitude

(C) A solid sphere of radius a and having a charge – Q uniformly

distributed throughout its volume as shown
(R)

2
2 Q

5πε0 a

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)
(T ) A solid sphere of radius a and having a charge – Q uniformly
distributed throughout its volume. The solid sphere is surrounded
by a concentric thin uniformly charged spherical shell of radius
(S)
2a and carrying charge – Q as shown

positive in
sign

(T )

negative
in sign

Which of the following option has the correct combination considering

column-I and Column-II.

A. A → P, T

B. B → Q, R

C. B → Q, S

D. D → S, T

2. Let h be the initial height of ball with respect to the earth. The coefficient of
0

restitution is e.
Column-I Column-II
Total distance travelled by the ball before coming to rest e
2n
h 0

2
1 + e
Height attained after n impacts h0 (
2
)
1 − e

Average force exerted by ball P (

1 + e
)
1 − e

Total momentum transferred to the earth mg

Here,P is the inital momentum of the ball just before the collision. Which of
the following option has the correct combination considering column-I and
Column-II.

A. A → R

B. B → P

C. C → Q

D. D → S
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

→
3. The position vector r of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is given by the equation
→ 10
r (t) = (
3
t ^
2
i + 5t ^j) m . At t = 1 s , the torque experienced by the
3

particle due to force with respect to the origin is given by

A. 20
^
k N-m
3

B. 20
^
j N-m
3

C. −
20
^
k N-m
3

D. −
20
^
j N-m
3

4. For the given arrangement, find the value of electric field at C .

A. 2 × 10
3
N/C

B. 3 × 10
3
N/C

C. 5 × 10
3
N/C

D. 9 × 10
3
N/C

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION A)

1. The total number of C − C sigma bond(s) in mesityl oxide (C 6 H10 O) is:

2.

How many of the given compound(s) will give identical S 1 and S N N 2

product(s) via S 1 an S 2 products (excluding stereoisomers)?

N N

3. 30 mL of a solution containing 9.15 gm/lit of an oxalate

Kx Hy (C2 O4 )z . nH2 O are required for titrating 27 mL of 0.12 N NaOH and

36ml of 0.12 M KM nO separately x + y + z is

4

4. How many of the following oxides are neutral oxides?

Cl2 O7 , SO3 , SrO, H2 O, CO, N2 O5 , N2 O, P2 O5 and N O

5. How many of the following are pseudohalogens?

Azidocarbon disulphide, Isocyanide ions, Fluminate ion, Tellurocynante ion,
Oxycyanogen, Selenocyanogen.

6. 500 ml of a M solution and 250 ml of b M solution of the same solute are

mixed and diluted to 2 L. The diluted solution shows the molarity 1.6 M. If
a : b is 2 : 5, then the value of a + b upto two decimal is

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. Factors that affect degree of ionisation include:

A .
Dilution
B .
Presence of other solutes
C .
Nature of electrolyte
D .
Nature of solvent

2. For aq. solution of potash alum, which is/are false

A .
One gm eq of potash alum will give 1 gm eq of K +

B .
One gm eq of potash alum will give 1 gm eq of Al 3+

C .One gm eq of potash alum will give 2 gm eq of SO 2−

D .1
mole of potash alum will give 1 gm eq of SO 2−

4
8

3. [Ru(NH3 )6 ] is an octahedral, d low-spin complex, how many unpaired

3+ 5

electrons does this complex have?

A .
4

B .
3

C .
1

D .
5

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

4. If at 25 ∘
C an aq. solution of 0.4 M N a 2 SO4 and water are separated by SPM
as mentioned below

If a pressure of 2 atm is applied on solution, find what will happen.

A .
Reverse osmosis takes place
B .
Osmosis takes place
C .
N a2 SO4 will not move from solution to solvent side
D .
Nothing will happen

5. Synergic bonding in metal carbonyl complexes [M = Metal]:

A .
Decreases C– O bond strength
B .
Increases M – C bond length
C .
Increases bond order for M – C bond
D .
Increases paramagnetism of complexes

6. In which of the following compound(s), the colour is due to charge transfer

spectra?

A .KM nO
4

B .CrO
3

C .CuCl
2

D .Cu O
2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

7. For the reaction,

−1
C2 H4 (g) + H2 (g) ⇌ C2 H6 (g); ΔH = – 137 kJ mol

Carried out in a closed vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C 2 H4 (g) can

be increased by:

A .
Increasing the temperature
B .
Decreasing the pressure
C .Removing some C
2 H6

D .Adding some H
2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

8. Which of the following is correct order as per the mentioned property?

Acidic strength:

A .

Acidic strength:

B .

Acidic strength:

C .

Basic strength:

D .

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

1. The noble gases have closed shell electrons configuration and are
monatomic gases under normal conditions. The low boiling point of the
lighter noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces between the atoms.

List - I List - II

3 3
(I ) XeF6 (P ) sp d

3 2
(I I ) XeO3 (Q) sp d

3
(I I I ) XeOF4 (R) sp

3
(I V ) XeF4 (S)sp d

(T ) Distorted octahedral

(U ) Square planar

Which of the following options has the correct combination considering list-I
and list-II.

A. (II) - (Q)

B. (I) - (R)

C. (I) - (T)

D. (III) - (U)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

2. The noble gases have closed shell electrons configuration and are
monatomic gases under normal conditions. The low boiling point of the
lighter noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces between the atoms.

List - I List - II

3 3
(I ) XeF6 (P ) sp d

3 2
(I I ) XeO3 (Q) sp d

3
(I I I ) XeOF4 (R) sp

3
(I V ) XeF4 (S)sp d

(T ) Distorted octahedral

(U ) Square planar

Which of the following options has the correct combination considering list-I
and list-II.

A. (III) - (P)

B. (IV)- (Q)

C. (IV) - (T)

D. (III) - (S)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

3. Answer 1 and 2 by appropriately matching the information given in the three

columns of the following table.

Column ColumnII ColumnIII

I
After electrolysis
Dil. N aCl One of the products is Cl during
(I) (i) solution becomes (P)
2

solution the electrolysis

alkaline
Aq. After electrolysis
One of the products is H during
(II) CuSO (ii) solution becomes (Q)
2
4
electrolysis
solution acidic
No effect on pH of
Pure H2 and O2 are the products of
(III) (iii) solution due to (R)
water elecrolysis
electrolysis
Metal deposition at cathode and
Aq. Solution is acidic
(IV) (iv) (S) O evolved at anode during
AgN O before electrolysis 2
3
electrolysis
Which of the following options are correct?

A. (II) – (iv) – (R)

B. (I) – (ii) – (R)

C. (I) – (i) – (P)

D. (IV) – (iv) – (P)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

4. Answer 1 and 2 by appropriately matching the information given in the three

columns of the following table.

Column ColumnII ColumnIII

I
After electrolysis One of the products is Cl during
Dil. N aCl
(I) (i) solution becomes (P) 2

solution the electrolysis

alkaline
Aq. After electrolysis One of the products is H during
(II) CuSO (ii) solution becomes (Q) 2
4
electrolysis
solution acidic
No effect on pH of are the products of
Pure H2 and O2
(III) (iii) solution due to (R)
water elecrolysis
electrolysis
Metal deposition at cathode and
Aq. Solution is acidic
(IV) AgN O (iv) (S) O evolved at anode during
before electrolysis 2
3
electrolysis
Which of the following options are correct?

A. (IV) – (ii) – (S)

B. (IV) – (iii) – (R)

C. (I) – (ii) – (R)

D. (II) – (i) – (S)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

1. On a normal standard die one of the 21 dots from any one of the six faces is
removed at random with each dot equally likely to be chosen. The die is
then rolled. If the probability that the top face has an odd number of dots is
p (p + q)
where p and q are in their lowest form, then the value of is
q 4

n
2. ⎡
1 2 a
⎤ ⎡
1 18 2007
⎤ (n + a)
If ⎢0 1 4⎥ = ⎢0 1 36 ⎥ , then the value of is.
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 100
0 0 1 0 0 1

3. Let P and Q are two points in xy-plane on the curve

−
−→ −
−→
y = x
7
− 2x
5
+ 5x
3
+ 8x + 5 such that OP ⋅ ^
i = 2 and OQ ⋅ ^i = −2 and the
−
−→ −
−→
magnitude of OP + OQ = 2M (where O is origin). Then the value of M is

4. Three distinct points A, B and C are given in the two-dimensional coordinate

plane such that the ratio of the distance of any one of them from the point
1
(1, 0) to the distance from the point (−1, 0) is equal to . Circumcenter of
3

a
the triangle ABC is at the point ( , 0) , a, b ∈ N and coprime. Then a + b is
b

equal to

5. Let H = 1 +
1
+
1
+ ⋯ +
1
and T =
1
. Then the value of
n n
2 3 n (n + 1)Hn Hn+1

T1 + T2 + T3 + … upto ∞ terms is

6.
2
1 − 7 cos x g(x)
Suppose ∫ dx = + C , where C is an arbitrary constant of
7 7
sin x cos2 x sin x

π
integration. Then the value of g (0) + g ′ ′′
( ) is
4

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

πx
1. −
1

Let f (x) = e x
2
+ ∫
2
√1 + sin tdt ∀ x ∈ (0, ∞) . Then
0

A .f exists and is continuous

′
∀ x ∈ (0, ∞)

B .f exists ∀ x ∈ (0, ∞)
′′

C .f is bounded in (1, ∞)
′

D .There exists α > 0 such that |f (x)| > |f ′

(x)| ∀ x ∈ (α, ∞)

2. Let x, y, z are positive real numbers and l is the least value of 1

2x + 2y + 4z − 8xyz and l is the least value of

4 4 4
2

4 1
4
x y + xy
4
+
2 3
+
3 2
+ 8 . Then
x y x y

A .l = −1
1

B .l > −1
2

C .l = 10
2

D .l > 10
2

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

3. If (1 + x + x 2
+ x )
3 100 2
= a0 + a1 x + a2 x +. . . . . . . . . +a300 x
300
, then

A .a + a1 + a2 + a3 +. . . . . . . +a300 is divisible by 1024

0

B .a + a2 + a4 +. . . . . . . +a300 = a1 + a3+ . . . . . . . +a299

0

C .
Coefficients equidistant from beginning and end are equal
D .a = 100
1

4. If in a ΔABC , a, b, c are in A. P . and P 1, P2 , P3 are the altitudes from the

vertices A, B and C respectively, then

A .P are in A. P .
1, P2 , P3

B .P are in H . P
1, P2 , P3

C . 3R
P1 + P2 + P3 ≤
Δ

D . 1
+
1
+
1
≤
3R

P1 P2 P3 Δ

π
5. ⎧
⎪
⎪ cos x , 0 ≤ x <
⎪
2
Consider f : R → R and f (x) = ⎨ 2 such that f is
⎪ π π
⎪
⎩(
⎪ − x) , ≤ x < π
2 2

periodic with fundamental period π. Then

A 2
π
. The range of f is [0, 4
)

B
. f is continuous for all real x, but not differentiable for some real x

C
. f is continuous for all real x

D The area bounded by y = f (x) and the x−axis from x = −nπ to x = nπ is

3
. 2n (1 + π ) for a given n ∈ N
24

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
QUESTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

6. If α, β, γ are roots of x 3
+ 2x
2
− 3x + 1 = 0, then value of
αβ αγ βγ
+ + is less than
α + β α + γ β + γ

A .
2

B .
3

C .
4

D .
5

7. For any positive integer n, let S n : (0, ∞) → R be defined by

2
n 1 + k(k + 1)x
Sn (x) = ∑ cot
−1
( ) where for any cot −1
(x) ∈ (0, π) and
k=1
x

π π
−1
tan (x) ∈ (− , )
2 2

Then which of the following statements is(are) TRUE ?

A .S
2
π 1 + 11x
10
(x) = − tan
−1
( ) , for all x > 0
2 10x

B . lim cot(Sn (x)) = x , for all x > 0

n→∞

C .The equation S (x) =

π
has a root in (0, ∞)
3
4

D . 1
tan(Sn (x)) ≤ , for all n ≥ 1 and x > 0
2

8. The solution of differential equation 3

dx
=
x
is x l n
= mx y + c , Then
3
dy x − y

which of the following is/are CORRECT ? {c is any arbitrary constant}

A .l + m + n = 11

B .l + n = 9

C .l + 2m = 10

D .
m + n = 4

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER QUESTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will be deducted for any incorrect
answer.

1. Match List I with the List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I List - II

→ → →
(A) If a = t^
i − 3^ ^
j + 2tk; b = ^
i − 2^ ^ and c = 3^
j + 2k i + t^ ^ then the value of
j − k, (P) 1

2
→ → →
(∫ a ⋅ ( b × c ) dt + 2) equal to
1

→ →
(B) The value of t ∈ R for which the vectors a = (1, −2, 3), b = (−2, 3, −4), c = (1, −1, t) (Q) 2

form a linearly dependent system

(C) If the area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are 3^

i + ^ ^ and ^
j − 2k i − 3^ ^ is
j + 4k (R) 3

μ√3 sq. unit, then the value of μ is

→ → → →
(D) Let p = ^
i + ^
j, q = ^
i − ^
j and r = ^
i + 2^ ^ If x is an unit vector such that
j + 3k. (S) 4

→ → → → ∣→ →∣
p ⋅ x = 0 and q ⋅ x = 0, then r ⋅ x is equal to
∣ ∣

(T) 5

Which of the following combination is CORRECT ?

A. A → Q, B → P

B. A → P, B → R

C. A → R, B → S

D. A → S, B → T

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER QUESTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

2. Match List I with the List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I List - II

π/4
3 3 −1
(A) If I = ∫ sin x ⋅ cos xdx, then the value of I is (P) 4
0

2π

(B) If I = ∫ [2 sin x]dx, then the value of |[ I ]| is ([. ] is GIF) (Q) 24

0

(C) If I = ∫ sgn(x − 1)dx, then the value of I is (sgn(.) is signum function) (R) 2
−2

1 3
x − 1
(D) If I = ∫ dx, then the value of [3I − ln 64] is ([. ]is GIF) (S) −2
0
x + 1

Which of the following combinations is CORRECT ?

A. A → Q, B → P

B. A → R, B → S

C. A → S, B → Q

D. A → P, B → Q

3. Match List I with the List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I List - II

→ → →
(A) If a = t^
i − 3^ ^
j + 2tk; b = ^
i − 2^ ^ and c = 3^
j + 2k i + t^ ^ then the value of
j − k, (P) 1

2
→ → →
(∫ a ⋅ ( b × c ) dt + 2) equal to
1

→ →
(B) The value of t ∈ R for which the vectors a = (1, −2, 3), b = (−2, 3, −4), c = (1, −1, t) (Q) 2

form a linearly dependent system

(C) If the area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are 3^

i + ^ ^ and ^
j − 2k i − 3^ ^ is
j + 4k (R) 3

μ√3 sq. unit, then the value of μ is

→ → → →
(D) Let p = ^
i + ^
j, q = ^
i − ^
j and r = ^
i + 2^ ^ If x is an unit vector such that
j + 3k. (S) 4

→ → → → ∣→ →∣
p ⋅ x = 0 and q ⋅ x = 0, then r ⋅ x is equal to
∣ ∣

(T) 5

Which of the following combination is CORRECT ?

A. C → R, D → T

B. C → S, D → R

C. C → T, D → R

D. C → P, D → Q

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER QUESTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

4. Match List I with the List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I List - II

π/4
3 3 −1
(A) If I = ∫ sin x ⋅ cos xdx, then the value of I is (P) 4
0

2π

(B) If I = ∫ [2 sin x]dx, then the value of |[ I ]| is ([. ] is GIF) (Q) 24

0

(C) If I = ∫ sgn(x − 1)dx, then the value of I is (sgn(.) is signum function) (R) 2
−2

1 3
x − 1
(D) If I = ∫ dx, then the value of [3I + ln 64] is ([. ]is GIF) (S) −2
0
x + 1

Which of the following combinations is CORRECT ?

A. C → R, D → S

B. C → S, D → R

C. C → P, D → Q

D. C → Q, D → P

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. A block of weight 100 N is suspended by copper and steel wires of same

cross-sectional area 0.5 cm and lengths √3 m and 1 m, respectively. Their
2

other ends are fixed on a ceiling as shown in figure. The angles subtended
by copper and steel wires with ceiling are 30 and 60 , respectively. If
∘ ∘

elongation in copper wire is (ΔL ) and elongation in steel wire is (ΔL ),

c s

ΔLc
then the ratio is
ΔLs

[Young's modulus for copper and steel are 1 × 10 11

Nm
2
and 2 × 10
11
Nm
2

respectively]

Accepted Answers

2 2.0 2.00
Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)
Let,
T = tension in steel wire
S

T = Tension in copper wire

C

At equilibrium :

Net force along +X direction :

∑ Fx = 0
∘ ∘
⇒ Tc cos 30 = Ts cos 60

√3 1
⇒ Tc × = Ts ×
2 2

⇒ √3TC = Ts … … (i)

Net force along +Y direction

∑ Fy = 0
∘ ∘
⇒ Tc sin 30 + Ts sin 60 − 100 = 0

Tc Ts √3
⇒ + = 100
2 2

As, T s = √3TC from equation (i)

⇒ Tc = 50 N

∴ Ts = 50 √3 N
We know
FL
ΔL =
AY
ΔLc T c Lc As Ys
⇒ = ×
ΔLs Ac Yc T s Ls

On solving above equation

ΔLc
⇒ = 2
ΔLs

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

2. A planar structure of length L and width W is made of two different optical

media of refractive indices n 1 = 1.5 and n 2 = 1.44 as shown in figure. If
L ≫ W , a ray entering from end AB will emerge from end CD only if the
total internal reflection condition is met inside the structure. For L = 9.6 m, if
the incident angle θ is varied, the maximum time taken by a ray to exit the
plane CD is t × 10 −9
s , where t is
[Speed of light c = 3 × 10 8
m/s ]

Accepted Answers

50 50.0 50.00
Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)
Time spend by the ray within the core will be maximum if maximum no of
reflection occur within the core. To satisfy this condition angle of incident at
cladding will be minimum
i.e. θ c

For T.I.R.
n1 sin θC = n2

1.44
⇒ sin θC =
1.5
From above triangle
x
sin θc = − − − (i)
d

x
⇒ d =
sin θc

Total length travel by light from equation (i)

Ld L 9.6
D = = = = 10 m
x sin θc 1.44
( )
1.5

Time taken by light to cover this distance

distance
=
velocity of light in that medium
D 10
= =
8
c 3 × 10
( ) ( )
n1 1.5
−9
= 50 × 10 s

∴ value of t = 50

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

3. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C has spacing d between two

plates having area A. The region between the plates is filled with N
d
dielectric layers, parallel to its plates, each with thickness δ = . The
N
m
dielectric constant of the m th
layer is K m = K (1 + ) . For a very large
N

Kϵ0 A
N (> 10 )
3
, the capacitance C is α ( ) . The value of α will be [ ϵ is the
0
d ln 2

permittivity of free space]

Accepted Answers

1 1.0 1.00
Solution:

To calculate the capacitance we are taking small elemental capacitor at a

distance x of dielectric thickness dx along with the spacing of the plate as
ε 0 Km A
shown in figure Formula used : dC =
dx

Where
dC is the elemental capacitance

dx is the spacing between plates having elemental area A.

As per the information given in the question :

d
δ = … … … (i)
N
m
Km = K (1 + ) … … … (ii)
N

x d
= … … … … . . (iii)
m N
For the series combination of dielectrics formula used:
1 1
= ∫ … … … . . (iv)
Ceq dC

1 dx
⇒ =
dC km ε 0 A

1
Substitute the value of in the equation (iv), we get
dC

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)
d
1 dx
= ∫
Ceq 0
Km ε 0 A

After puting the value of K we get : m

d
1 dx
⇒ = ∫
Ceq 0 m
Kε0 A (1 + )
N

d
1 dx
⇒ = ∫ [∵ m = x]
Ceq 0 x
Kε0 A (1 + )
d

d
1 (d) dx
⇒ = ∫
Ceq 0 Kε0 A(d + x)

1 d
⇒ = ln 2
Ceq Kε0 A

Kε0 A
⇒ Ceq =
d ln 2

Therefore, the value of α will be 1.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

4. A particle is moved along a path AB → BC → CD → DE → EF → FA, as

shown in figure, in presence of a force F→ = (αy^i + 2αx^j) N, where x and y
are in meter and α = −1 N/m . The work done on the particle by this force
−1

F→ will be. In multiple of 100 (in Joule.)

Accepted Answers

75 75.0 75.00
Solution:
Given Force :
F→ = (αy^i + 2αx^j) N
Stokes theorem states that,
we can transform line integranl to surface integral by-
∮ →. dr
F → = ∬ (∇ → × F→). dS→
C S

→ × F→ = −α k
∇ ^

and dS→=k ^

∬ ∇ → × F→. dS→ = −α ∬ dS = ∬ dS
S

= area under the line curve

=(1 × 1 − 0.5 × 0.5)= 0.75 × 100 = 75

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

5. A train S , moving with a uniform velocity of 108 km/h, approaches another

1

train S standing on a platform. An observer O moves with a uniform velocity

2

of 36 km/h towards S as shown in figure. Both the trains are blowing

2

whistles of same frequency 120 Hz. When O is 600 m away from S and
2

distance between S and S is 800 m, the number of beats heard by O is.

1 2

[Speed of the sound = 330 m/s ]

Accepted Answers

813 813.0 813.00

Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)

Frequency observed by O from S 1

∘
330 + 10 cos 53
f1 = 120 [
∘
] Hz
330 − 30 cos 37

as sourse and observer both are moving

Frequency observed by O from S 2

330 + 10
f2 = 120 [ ] Hz
330

Here, observer is moving but source is at rest.

336 34
Beat frequency Δf = f1 − f2 = 120 × [ − ] = 8.13 Hz
306 33
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION A)
In multiple of 100
= 8.13 × 100 = 813 Hz

6. A liquid at 30 C is poured very slowly into a Calorimeter that is at

∘

temperature of 110 C. The boiling temperature of the liquid is 80 C. It is

∘ ∘

found that the first 5 gm of the liquid completely evaporates. After pouring
another 80 gm of the liquid the equilibrium temperature is found to be 50 ∘
C .
The ratio of the Latent heat of the liquid to its specific heat will be ∘
C .
[Neglect the heat exchange with surrounding]

Accepted Answers

270 270.0 270.00

Solution:
Let,
m = mass of calorimeter,
x =specific heat of calorimeter
s = specific heat of liquid

L = latent heat of liquid

Applying the principle of calorimetry for first 5 g of liquid :

m × x × (110 − 80)

= 5 × s × (80 − 30) + 5L

⇒ 30mx = 250s + 5L . . . (i)

Now, 80 g of liquid at 30 C is poured into calorimeter at 80

∘ ∘
C , the equilibrium
temperature reaches to 50 C. ∘

∴ m × x × (80 − 50) = 80 × s × (50 − 30)

⇒ 30mx = 1600 s … . (ii)

From (i) and (ii) :

1600 s = 250 s + 5L
⇒ 5L = 1350s
L
⇒ = 270
s

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas goes through a thermodynamic cycle,

as shown in the volume versus temperature (V − T ) diagram. The correct
statement(s) is/are :
[ R is the gas constant].

A Work done in this thermodynamic cycle (1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 1) is

. 1
|W | = RT0
2

B The ratio of heat transfer during processes 1 → 2 and 2 → 3 is

 . ∣Q ∣ 5 12
∣ ∣ =
∣ Q23 ∣ 3

C
The above thermodynamic cycle exhibits only isochoric and adiabatic
. processes.

D The ratio of heat transfer during processes 1 → 2 and 3 → 4 is

. ∣∣ Q ∣∣ = 1
12

∣ Q34 ∣ 2

Given: (V − T) graph,
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

From graph,

RT0
Process 1 → 2 is isobaric with P =
V0

Process 2 → 3 is isochoric with V = 2 V 0

RT0
Process 3 → 4 is isobaric with P =
2V0

Process 4 → 1 is isochoric with

V = V0

Hence option (C) is incorrect as no adiabatic transformation present here

Work done during 2 → 3 and 4 → 1 will be zero as volume is constant.

Net work done in full cycle

W = W1−2 + W3−4

RT0 RT0
W = (2V0 − V0 ) + (V0 − 2V0 )
V0 2V0

RT0 RT0
W = ⋅ V0 − ⋅ V0
V0 2V0

RT0
W =
2

hence option (A) is correct

Heat transfer during process 1 → 2

5R
Q1−2 = nCP ΔT = n ⋅ T0
2

Heat transfer during process 2 → 3

3R
Q2−3 = nCV ΔT = n ⋅ T0
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

therefore, ratio of heat transfer

∣ Q1−2 ∣ 5
∴ ∣ ∣ =
∣ Q2−3 ∣ 3

Hence option (B) is correct

Heat transfer during 3 → 4

5R T0
Q3−4 = nCp ΔT = n ⋅ ⋅ ( − T0 )
2 2

5R T0
Q3−4 = −n ⋅ ⋅
2 2

∣ Q1−2 ∣
∴ ∣ ∣ = 2
∣ Q3−4 ∣

Hence option (D) is incorrect

So, correct options are (A), (B).

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

2. In the circuit shown, initially there is no charge on capacitors and keys S 1

and S are open.

2

The values of the capacitors are C 1 = 10 μF, C2 = 30 μF and

C3 = C4 = 80 μF

Which of the statement (s) is/are correct?

AThe keys S is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully
1

charged. Now key S is closed, at this time, the instantaneous current

. across 30 Ω resistor (between points P and Q) will be 0.2A (round off to
2

1 decimal place).
st

B
If key S is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully
1
. charged, the voltage difference between points P and Q will be 10 V.

CAt time t = 0, the key S is closed, the instantaneous current in the

1

 . closed-circuit will be 25 mA.

D
 . If key S is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully
1

charged, the voltage across the capacitors C will be 4 V 1

When switch S being closed,then capacitor will act as short circuit so the
1

equivalent circuit at t = 0 is given by

Here, Req = R1 + R2 + R3

⇒ Req = 70 + 100 + 30 = 200 Ω

V 5
Instantaneous current will be given by i = = = 25 mA
Req 200

hence option (C) is correct

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

when S closed for long time (at steady state) all of the capacitor will be fully
1

charged and no current flow through the circuit

So, equivalent circuit ca be drawn as

1 1 1 1
= + +
Ceq C1 C2 C3

1 1 1 1
= + +
Ceq 10 80 80

⇒ Ceq = 8 μF

Now, total charge consumption by the circuit at steady state condition,

Q = Ceq V = 8 μF × 5 V

Q = 40 μC

Now, the voltage across C 1,

Q 40 μC
VC
1
= = = 4 V &
C 10 μF

VC = VC = 0.5 V
3 4

hence option (D) is correct

At steady state potential difference between P and Q

= potential across C = 4 V . 1

hence, option (C) is incorrect

Now, when switch S , is closed after long time .

2

At this instant voltage across capacitor C , C and C will act as a battery but
1 3 4

C will act as short circuit .

2

Then equivalent circuit

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

∴ current betwen P and Q

6
⇒ i = = 0.079 A
91
30 +
2

Hence option (A) is incorrect

Therefore correct options are (C), (D).

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)

3. A thin convex lens is made of two materials with refractive indices n and n 1 2

, as shown in figure. The radius of curvature of the left and right spherical
surfaces are equal. f is the focal length of the lens when n 1 = n2 = n . The
focal length is f + Δf when n 1 = n and n 2 = n +Δn . Assuming
Δn ≪ (n − 1) and 1 < n < 2, the correct statement(s) is/are:

Δf Δn
AThe relation between and remains unchanged if both the
. f n

convex surfaces are replaced by concave surfaces of the same radius

of curvature.
B
∣ Δf ∣ ∣ Δn∣
.∣ ∣ < ∣ ∣
∣ n ∣
∣ f ∣

C
For n = 1.5, Δn = 10 and f = 20 cm, the value of |Δf | will be 0.02 cm
−3

.
(round off to 2 decimal place)
nd

D Δf
Δn
 . If < 0 then > 0
n f

When n 1 = n2 = n

By lens maker formula

1 1 1
= (n − 1) × ( − )
f R −R

2(n − 1)
=
R

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R
⇒ f =
2(n − 1)

2
nd
case:

If focul length of the left plano convex lens is f then, 1

1 1 1 (n − 1)
= (n − 1) ( − ) =
f1 R ∞ R

If focul length of the right plano convex lens is f then, 2

1 1 1
= [(n + Δn) − 1] [ − ]
f2 ∞ −R

(n + Δn) − 1
=
R

∴ equivalent focul length of combination

1 1 1
= +
feq f1 f2

n − 1 (n + Δn) − 1
= ( ) +
R R

1 2(n − 1) + Δn
=
feq R

R R
Δf = ( ) − ( ) … (2)
2(n − 1) + Δn 2(n − 1)

1 1
( ) − ( )
Δf 2(n − 1) + Δn 2(n − 1)
=
f 1

2(n − 1)

Δf 2(n − 1)
= − 1
f 2(n − 1) + Δn
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Δf −Δn
=
f 2(n − 1) + Δn

Δf −Δn
= as, Δn ≪ (n − 1)
f 2(n − 1)

Δf Δn
Relation between and is independent of R
f n

hence (A) is correct.

(2n − 2) < n because n < 2

Δf 1∣ Δn ∣ Δn
⇒ = ∣ ∣ >
f 2∣ n − 1∣ n

So,
Δf ∣ Δn∣
> ∣ ∣
f ∣ n ∣

hence, (B) is wrong

−3
f Δn (20 × 10 )
|Δf | = =
2(n − 1) 2(1.5 − 1)

|Δf | = 20 × 10
−3
= 0.02 cm

hence, (C) is correct

Δf −Δn Δn n
= = −
f 2(n − 1) n 2(n − 1)

Δn
as, < 0 and 1 < n < 2
n

Δf
So, > 0
f

hence, (C) is correct

Therefore correct options are (A), (C), (D).

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4. A cylindrical capillary tube of 0.2 mm radius is made by joining two

capillaries T and T of different materials having water contact angles of 0
1 2
∘

and 60 , respectively. The capillary tube is dipped vertically in water in two

∘

different configurations, case I and I I as shown in figure. Which of the

following option(s) is(are) correct?
(Surface tension of water = 0.075 N/m, density of water = 1000 kg/m , take
3

g = 10 m/s
2
)

AThe correction in the height of water column raised in the tube, due to
 . weight of water contained in the meniscus, will be different for both
cases.
BFor case I , if the capillary joint is 5 cm cm above the water surface, the
. height of water column raised in the tube will be more than 8.75 cm.
(Neglect the weight of the water in the meniscus)
CFor case I , if the joint is kept at 8 cm above the water surface, the
 . height of water column in the tube will be 7.5 cm. (Neglect the weight of
the water in the meniscus)
DFor case I I , if the capillary joint is 5 cm above the water surface, the
 . height of water column raised in the tube will be 3.75 cm. (Neglect the
weight of the water in the meniscus)
GIven:
Surface tension of water T = 0.075 N/m,
density of water ρ = 1000 kg/m , 3

take g = 10 m/s 2

We know that,
The rise in capillary tube is given by

2T cos θ
h =
ρgR

Heights if only single material tubes are used of sufficient length

∘
2 × 0.075 × cos 0
h1 =
−3
1000 × 10 × 0.2 × 10

⇒ h1 = 75 mm = 7.5 cm (in T )1

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[If we assume entire tube of T ] 1

∘
2 × 0.075 × cos 60
⇒ h2 = = 37.5 mm
−3
1000 × 10 × 0.2 × 10

h2 = 3.75 cm(in T2 )

[If we assume entire tube of T2 ]

Since contact angles are different so correction in the height of water

column raised in the tube will be different in both the cases,

hence, option (A) is correct

If joint is 5 cm is above water surface, then lets say water crosses the joint
by height h, then:

2T −3
⇒ P0 − + ρgh + ρg × 5 × 10 = P0
r

From the figure

R
⇒ cos θ =
r

R
r =
cos θ

−2
2T cos θ
⇒ ρg (h + 5 × 10 ) =
R

2 × 0.075 × cos 60
−2
⇒ h = − 5 × 10
−3
0.2 × 10 × 1000 × 10

⇒ h = −ve , not possible,

so liquid will not cross the interface, but angle of contact at the interface will
change, to balance the pressure,

hence, option (B) is wrong.

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If interface is 8 cm above water then water will not even reach the interface,
and water will rise till 7.5 cm only in T ,
1

hence option (C) is right.

If interface is 5 cm above the water in vessel, then water in capillary will not
even reach the interface. Water will reach only till 3.75 cm,

hence option (D) is right.

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5. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using two different plates of

silver and sodium having work functions 4.6 eV and 2.3 eV respectively. A
light beam of wavelength 200 nm illuminates each plates. Then (Take
hc = 1240 eV. nm )

A .Ratio of maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons is 0.41

B .
Ratio of threshold frequency is 0.5
C .Ratio of threshold wavelength is 0.5

D .Ratio of slope of the stopping potential versus frequency plot is 1

Given:
Work function of silver ϕ = 4.6 eV silver

Work function of sodiumϕ = 2.3 eV sodium

The Einstein equation of photoelectric effect is given by.

hc
KEmax = − ϕ
λ

kinetic energy of electron emits from first plate

1240
KE1 = − 4.6 = 1.6 eV
200

kinetic energy of electron emits from second plate

1240
KE2 = − 2.3 = 3.9 eV
200

therefore,

KE1
= 0.41
KE2

hence option (A) is correct

ϕ
thresold frequency ν 0
=
h

ratio of thresold frequency

ν01 ϕ1 4.6
⇒ = = = 2
ν02 ϕ2 2.3

hence, option (B) is wrong

∴ ratio of thresold wavelength

λ0 1
1
= = 0.5
λ0 2
2

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hence, option (C) is right

we know,
eVS = hν − ϕ

h ϕ
or, VS = ν −
e e

h
∴ slope = = const.
e

so, ratio of slope will be 1

hence, option (D) is correct

correct options are (A), (C), (D) .

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6. Which of the following system has/have time period T = π√

m
for small
k

oscillation? [Pulleys are ideal and surfaces are smooth]

A .

B .

C .

D .

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(A) Time period for given configuration :

reduced mass μ
T = 2π√ = 2π√
spring const k

 m

 m
2
= 2π⎷ = π√
2k k

Hence, option (a) is correct

kx
(B) If block is displaced by x then restoring force of spring =
4
k
∴ spring factor k ′
=
4

m 4m
Time period T = 2π√
′
= 2π√
k k

hence, option (b) is incorrect

(C) If block is displaced by x, restoring force = 4kx

∴ spring factor k = 4k
′

m m m
Time period T = 2π√
′
= 2π√ = π√
k 4k k

Hence, option (c) is correct

(D) If block is displaced by x then restoring force on spring = kx

m
∴ Time period T = 2π√
k

hence, option (d) is incorrect

Correct options are (a), (c)

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7. The satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit of radius a with a

velocity v . Mass of earth is M . A gun in the satellite is directly aimed
0

v0
toward earth. A bullet is fired from the gun with muzzle velocity . Assume
2

that mass of the satellite is very-very large with respect to the mass of the
bullet. Choose the correct option(s):

4a
A .Maximum distance of bullet from the centre of earth is .
3

v0

B .Minimum speed of bullet (relative to earth) is 2

.

C . 3v0
Minimum speed of bullet (relative to earth) is
4

D . 2π 4a 2
Time period of motion of bullet around earth is T = ( )
√GM 3

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION B)
Satellite is revolving around the earth in a circular orbit, therefore, the orbital
velocity of satellite is given by.
GM
v0 = √
a

From conservation of angular momentum of the bullet :

mv0 a = mvr
a
⇒ v = v0 − − − (i)
r
From conservation of energy of bulllet :
2
1 v GM m
0
2
m (v + ) −
0
2 4 a

1 GM m
2
= mv − − − − (ii)
2 r
From equation (i) and (ii) we will get,
2 2
3r − 8ar + 4a = 0
2a
Solving, rmax = 2a, rmin =
3

Hence, option (a) is incorrect.

Length of semi-major axis :

rmax + rmin 4a
′
= a = =
2 3
3/2
2π 2π 4a
∴ Time period : T = a
′ 3/2
= ( )
√GM √GM 3

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Velocity of bullet will be minimum at apogee (r max

)

Initial angular momentum L = mv a i 0

Final angular momentum (at apogee) L = mv f min

rmax

From conservation of angular momentum :

Li = Lf
v0 a v0
⇒ vmin = =
rmax 2

Hence, option (b) is correct and (c) is incorrect.

The correct options are (b), (d)

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8. The value of rms current for circuit shown in figure is 2.2 A. Then the correct
statement(s) is/are-

A
. The value of capacitance is 100 μ F

B
 . The power factor of circuit is 1

C
 . The power dissipated in the circuit is 484 watt

D
The rms current in the circuit increases by √2 times after inductor is
. short-circuited

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rms value current through the circuit is :
Erms
Irms =
Z

220
⇒ 2.2 =
Z

⇒ Z = 100 Ω = value of resistance(R) in the circuit.

Hence, X L
= XC
1
⇒ ωL =
ωC

1 1 1 100
⇒ C = = = C = μC
2
ω L 1 4
10 π π
2
(100π) ⋅
π

Hence, option (a) is incorrect.

∵ XL = XC

Hence, power factor is :

R R
cos ϕ = = = 1
Z R

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Power dissipted in the circuit

P = Erms Irms cos ϕ

= 220 × 2.2 × 1 = 484 W

Hence, option (c) is correct.

After inductor is short circuited :

Impedance :
2
1
2
Z = √R + ( ) = 100√2 Ω
ωC

′
200 2
∴ Irms = = ( ) ≠ √2Irms
100√2 √2

Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Correct options are (B), (C)

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SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

1. In each situation of column-I, some charge distributions are given with all
details explained. The electrostatic potential energy and its nature is given
in column-II. Then match situation in column-I with the corresponding results
in column-II -
Column-I Column-II
(A) A thin shell of radius a and having a charge – Q uniformly

distributed over its surface as shown (P )

2
1 Q
in
8πε0 a

magnitude

5a
(B) A thin shell of radius and having a charge – Q uniformly
2
distributed over its surface and a point charge – Q placed at its (Q)

centre as shown
2
3 Q

20πε0 a

in
magnitude

(C) A solid sphere of radius a and having a charge – Q uniformly

distributed throughout its volume as shown
(R)

2
2 Q

5πε0 a

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(T ) A solid sphere of radius a and having a charge – Q uniformly
distributed throughout its volume. The solid sphere is surrounded
by a concentric thin uniformly charged spherical shell of radius
(S)
2a and carrying charge – Q as shown

positive in
sign

(T )

negative
in sign

Which of the following option has the correct combination considering

column-I and Column-II.

 A. A → P, T

 B. B → Q, R

 C. B → Q, S

 D. D → S, T

(A) Electrostatic potential energy

2 2
1 (−Q) Q
= =
4πε0 2a 8πϵ0 a

(B) Electrostatic potential energy

2 2
1 (−Q) × (−Q) (−Q) 3 Q
= [ + ] =
4πε0 5a/2 2(5a/2) 20 πεo a

(C) Electrostatic potential energy

2 2
1 3Q 3 Q
= =
4πε0 5a 20 πε0 a

(D) Electrostatic potential energy

2 2 2
1 3Q (−Q ) (−Q) × (−Q) 27Q
= [ + + ] =
4πε0 5a 2(2a) 2a 80πε0 a

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

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2. Let h be the initial height of ball with respect to the earth. The coefficient of
0

restitution is e.
Column-I Column-II
Total distance travelled by the ball before coming to rest e
2n
h0
2
1 + e
Height attained after n impacts h0 (
2
)
1 − e

Average force exerted by ball 1 + e

P ( )
1 − e

Total momentum transferred to the earth mg

Here,P is the inital momentum of the ball just before the collision. Which of
the following option has the correct combination considering column-I and
Column-II.

 A. A → R

 B. B → P

 C. C → Q

 D. D → S

From definition of coefficient of restitution :

v2 − v1
e =
u1 − u2

Since the floor is at the rest :

v1 √2gh1
e = =
u1
√2gh0

Here, h 1 = height attained by the ball after 1 collision with floor

st

2
⇒ h1 = e h0

So, after n impact, height attained by the ball is :

2n
hn = e h0

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Total distance travelled by the ball before coming to rest :

h = h0 + 2h1 + 2h2 + …
2 4
= h0 + 2e h0 + 2e h0 + …
−1
2 2
= h0 (1 + e ) (1 − e )
2
1 + e
= h0 ( )
2
1 − e

Hence, option (a) is wrong

Momentum transfer after 1 collison :

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS PHYSICS (SECTION C)
ΔP1 = P − (−eP ) = P (1 + e)

P =initial momentum = m√2gh 0

Momentum transfer after 2 collison : nd

ΔP2 = eP − (−eP )

ΔP2 = eP (1 + e)

Total momentum transfer is :

ΔP = P (1 + e) + eP (1 + e) + …

1 + e
= P ( )
1 − e

Hence, option (d) is incorrect

dP ΔP
Average force F = ⇒
dt ΔT
ΔT = total time taken by the ball till it comes to rest
g 1 − e
= √ ( )
2ho 1 + e

ΔP
Average force =
ΔT

1 + e g 1 − e
= P ( ).√ ( )
1 − e 2ho 1 + e

= mg

Hence, option (c) is incorrect

Therefore, correct option is (b).

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→
3. The position vector r of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is given by the equation
→ 10
r (t) = (
3
t ^
2
i + 5t ^j) m . At t = 1 s , the torque experienced by the
3

particle due to force with respect to the origin is given by

 A. 20
^
k N-m
3

 B. 20
^j N-m
3

 C. −
20
^
k N-m
3

 D. −
20
^j N-m
3

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→ 10
Given: r = (
3
t ^
2
i + 5t ^j) m
3

and,

2
→
→ d r 2
a = = (20t ^
i + 10 ^
j) m/s
2
dt

From Newton's second law , we can write that,

→ →
F = m a = 0.1 × (20t ^
i + 10 ^
j) = (2t ^
i + ^
j) N

At t = 1 s,

→ 10 3 2
10
r = × 1 ^i + 5 × 1 ^j = ( ^
i + 5 ^
j) m
3 3

→
F = (2 × 1) ^
i + ^
j = (2 ^
i + ^
j) N

Now, Torque due to this force with respect to origin is

∣ ^
i ^
j ^∣
k
∣ ∣
→ → →
∣ 10 ∣
τ = r × F = 5 0∣
∣
3
∣ ∣
∣ 2 1 0∣

→ 10 → 20
⇒ τ = ^
i (0 − 0) − ^ ^(
j(0 − 0) + k − 10) ⇒ τ = (− ^
k) N-m
3 3

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Note:- For a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis and being acted upon by
a force F. Torque of F about O(point on the axis of rotation) is given by
→ → →
τ = r × F

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4. For the given arrangement, find the value of electric field at C .

 A. 3
2 × 10 N/C

 B. 3
3 × 10 N/C

 C. 3
5 × 10 N/C

 D. 3
9 × 10 N/C

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At C ,

Electric field due to charge at A,

9 −8
kq 9 × 10 × 10
EA = =
3
= 9 × 10 N/C (away from A)
r2 0.1
2

Similarly, due to charge at B,

= 9 × 10 N/C (towards B)
3
E B

By principle of superposition,
2 2
E = √E + E + 2EA EB cos θ
A B

Here, θ = 120 ∘

2 2 3 3 3 3 ∘
⇒ E = √(9 × 10 ) + (9 × 10 ) + 2 × 9 × 10 × 9 × 10 × cos 120

3
⇒ E = 9 × 10 N/C

Why this question ?

Second method - After finding EA and EB at C,

we can take its component and add them to get resultant E.

EA sin θ and EB sin θ will cancel out.

So, net electric field, E = EA cos θ + EB cos θ

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. The total number of C − C sigma bond(s) in mesityl oxide (C 6 H10 O) is:

Accepted Answers

5 5.0 5.00
Solution:
Answer (5)
Structure of mesityl oxide is:

Number of C - C sigma bonds = 5

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2.

How many of the given compound(s) will give identical S N 1 and SN 2

product(s) via S N 1 an SN 2 products (excluding stereoisomers)?

Accepted Answers

1 1.0 1.00
Solution:

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3. 30 mL of a solution containing 9.15 gm/lit of an oxalate

K x Hy (C O ) . nH O are required for titrating 27 mL of 0.12
2 4 z 2 N NaOH and

36ml of 0.12 M KM nO4 separately x + y + z is

Accepted Answers

6 6.0 6.00
Solution:
Let mol. wt of salt is M
(i) n-factor in acid – base titration = y

(ii) n–factor in redox titration = 2z

eq. of acid in 30 mL = eq. of NaOH
9.15
30 × × y = 27 × 0.12 ...(i)
M
9.15
30 × × (2Z) = 36 × 0.12 ..(ii)
M
From equation(i) and(ii) we get ,
y 3
∴ = ..(ii)
z 2
Total catonic charge =Total anionic charge
x+y = 2z
⇒ x+3 = 2 × 2
⇒ x=4-3=1
⇒ x+y+z =1+3+2 =6

4. How many of the following oxides are neutral oxides?

Cl2 O7 , SO3 , SrO, H2 O, CO, N2 O5 , N2 O, P2 O5 and N O

Accepted Answers

4 4.0 4.00
Solution:
Oxides which neither react with acids nor with bases are called neutral
oxides.

Neutral oxides : H2 O, CO, N2 O, N O

Acidic oxides : N2 O5 , SO3 , Cl2 O7 , P2 O5

Baisc oxides : SrO

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5. How many of the following are pseudohalogens?

Azidocarbon disulphide, Isocyanide ions, Fluminate ion, Tellurocynante ion,
Oxycyanogen, Selenocyanogen.

Accepted Answers

3 3.0 3.00
Solution:
Pseudo halides are false halides, and their composition resembles true
halides.
Pseudo halides are polyatomic molecules, whose chemistry resembles that
of the true halogens.
Ex. Azido carbon disulphide (SCSN ) , Oxy cyanogen (OCN ) , and
3 2 2

Selenocyanogen (SeCN ) . 2

6. 500 ml of a M solution and 250 ml of b M solution of the same solute are

mixed and diluted to 2 L. The diluted solution shows the molarity 1.6 M. If
a : b is 2 : 5, then the value of a + b upto two decimal is

Accepted Answers

9.9 9.95
Solution:
Using mixture molarity formula:
M 1 × V1 + M 2 × V2

V1 + V2

500 × a + 250 × b
⇒ = 1.6
2000
⇒ 500a + 250b = 3200
a 2
Given =
b 5
500 × b × 2
⇒ + 250b = 3200
5
⇒ 450b = 3200
3200
⇒ b = = 7.11
450
Similarly,
250 × 5a
500a + = 3200
2
3200
⇒ a = = 2.84
1125
Hence, a + b = 2.84 + 7.11 = 9.95

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in
this section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any
incorrect answer is not selected.

1. Factors that affect degree of ionisation include:

A .Dilution

B .Presence of other solutes

C .Nature of electrolyte

D .Nature of solvent
Theory:
Factors affecting degree of ionization:
1. Nature of electrolyte: Weak electrolyte dissociates less and strong
electrolyte dissociates more
2. Nature of the solvent: The ionizing power of the solvent depends upon its
dielectric constant. Greater the value of dielectric constant greater will be
ionizing power of solvent and greater will be the degree of ionization. For
example, water has a high dielectric constant and it is generally taken as a
solvent.
3. Temperature: Effects K value as (K ∝ T )
w

4. Dilution: On dilution α value increases. More the dilution, more is the

ionisation.
(α = 1 at infinite dilution)
5. Presence of other solutes: When a substance is present in a solution, It
may affect the dissociation of another substance. This is due to the common
ion effect.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

2. For aq. solution of potash alum, which is/are false

A .One gm eq of potash alum will give 1 gm eq of K +

B .One gm eq of potash alum will give 1 gm eq of Al 3+

C .One gm eq of potash alum will give 2 gm eq of SO 2−

D .1
mole of potash alum will give 1 gm eq of SO 2−

4
8
Answer: A, B, C
+ 3+ 2–
K2 SO4 . Al2 (SO4 ) . 24H2 O → 2K + 2Al + 4SO
3 4
2 mol 2 mol
1 mole 4 mol

charge on the ion

Equivalent =
total charge

1 1 1
+
mol of potash alum = × 2 = eq. of K ion
8 8 4

1 1 3
3+
mol of potash alum = × 6 = eq. of Al ion
8 8 4

1 1 2−
mol of potash alum = × 8 = 1eq. of SO ion
4
8 8

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SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

3. is an octahedral, d low-spin complex, how many unpaired

3+ 5
[Ru(NH3 )6 ]

electrons does this complex have?

A .
4

B .
3

C .1
D .
5

[Ru(NH3 )6 ]
3+
: Octahedral

7 1
44 Ru : [Kr] 4d 5s

+ 5 0
Ru : [Kr] 4d 5s

∴ Due to presence of strong field ligand electrons get paired, only 1

unpaired electron is present.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

4. If at 25 C an aq. solution of 0.4 M N a

∘
2 SO4 and water are separated by SPM
as mentioned below

If a pressure of 2 atm is applied on solution, find what will happen.

A .
Reverse osmosis takes place
B .Osmosis takes place

C .N a 2 SO4 will not move from solution to solvent side

D .
Nothing will happen
Osmotic pressure(π) = i. C. R. T

Given,
∘
T = 25 C or 298 K

C = 0.4 M

–1 –1
R = 0.0821 L atm K mol

+ 2–
i = 3 (N a2 SO4 → 2Na + SO4 )

⇒ π = 3 × 0.4 × 0.0821 × 298

⇒ π = 29.358 atm

As the osmotic pressure is more than applied pressure so osmosis will

occur. So, solvent moves towards solution side.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

5. Synergic bonding in metal carbonyl complexes [M = Metal]:

A .Decreases C– O bond strength

B .
Increases M – C bond length
C .Increases bond order for M – C bond
D .
Increases paramagnetism of complexes
Synergic bonding in metal carbonyl complexes is a transfer of electrons
from ligands to metals or transfer of electrons from filled metal orbitals to
anti-bonding orbitals of ligands.

M ←: C ≡ O

M = C = O

So, bond strength of C– O bond decreases and bond order of M – C bond

increases.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

6. In which of the following compound(s), the colour is due to charge transfer

spectra?

A .KM nO 4

B .CrO 3

C .CuCl
2

D .Cu 2
O

In KM nO , Mn has a oxidation state of +7 therefore doesn't have any

4

electron in d orbital which implies there is no d-d transition in KM nO and

4

colour will appear due to ligand to metal charge transfer spectra.

Similarly, in CrO , Cr has a oxidation state of +6 therefore doesn't have
3

any electron in d orbital which implies there is no d-d transition in CrO and3

colour will appear due to ligand to metal charge transfer spectra.

In case of CuCl , Cu has a oxidation state of +2 and Cu has d electronic

2
9

configuration and therefore d − d transition can take place.

In last option Cu O has oxidation state of +1 which recommend d

2
10

electronic configuration for Cu O and therefore there is no d − d transition in

2

Cu O. 2

Hence colour is arised in A, B, D due to charge transfer spectra.

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

7. For the reaction,

−1
C2 H4 (g) + H2 (g) ⇌ C2 H6 (g); ΔH = – 137 kJ mol

Carried out in a closed vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C 2 H4 (g) can

be increased by:

A .Increasing the temperature

B .Decreasing the pressure

C .
Removing some C 2 H6

D .Adding some H
2

C2 H4 (g) + H2 (g) ⇌ C2 H6 (g); ΔH = −ve

Le chatlier's law:
Le Chatelier said that equilibrium adjusts the forward and backward
reactions in such a way as to accept the changes affecting the equilibrium
conditions.

Here ΔH is negative, that means reaction is exothermic. So, increase in

temperature causes backward reaction Δn = 1– 2 =– 1.

On decreasing pressure the reaction moves in backward direction.

On removing C H (g) the reaction will move forward and hence will
2 6

decrease the concentration of C H (g) at equilibrium.

2 4

On adding H (g) the reaction will move forward and hence will decrease
2

equilibrium concentration of C H (g). 2 4

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

8. Which of the following is correct order as per the mentioned property?

Acidic strength:

A .

Acidic strength:

B .

Acidic strength:

C .

Basic strength:

D .

Answer: A, C, D

∴ Acidic strength ∝ −M, −H, −I

1
Acidic strength ∝
+M, +H, +I

While Basic strength ∝ +M, +H, +I

1
Basic strength ∝
−M, −H, −I

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)

(A)

(B) (C)

(D)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted for any incorrect answer.

1. The noble gases have closed shell electrons configuration and are
monatomic gases under normal conditions. The low boiling point of the
lighter noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces between the atoms.

List - I List - II

3 3
(I ) XeF6 (P ) sp d

3 2
(I I ) XeO3 (Q) sp d

3
(I I I ) XeOF4 (R) sp

3
(I V ) XeF4 (S)sp d

(T ) Distorted octahedral

(U ) Square planar

Which of the following options has the correct combination considering list-I
and list-II.

 A. (II) - (Q)

 B. (I) - (R)

 C. (I) - (T)

 D. (III) - (U)

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SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

2. The noble gases have closed shell electrons configuration and are
monatomic gases under normal conditions. The low boiling point of the
lighter noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces between the atoms.

List - I List - II

3 3
(I ) XeF6 (P ) sp d

3 2
(I I ) XeO3 (Q) sp d

3
(I I I ) XeOF4 (R) sp

3
(I V ) XeF4 (S)sp d

(T ) Distorted octahedral

(U ) Square planar

Which of the following options has the correct combination considering list-I
and list-II.

 A. (III) - (P)

 B. (IV)- (Q)

 C. (IV) - (T)

 D. (III) - (S)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

3. Answer 1 and 2 by appropriately matching the information given in the three

columns of the following table.

Column ColumnII ColumnIII

I
After electrolysis One of the products is Cl during
Dil. N aCl
(I) (i) solution becomes (P) 2

solution the electrolysis

alkaline
Aq. After electrolysis One of the products is H during
(II) CuSO (ii) solution becomes (Q) 2
4
electrolysis
solution acidic
No effect on pH of are the products of
Pure H2 and O2
(III) (iii) solution due to (R)
water elecrolysis
electrolysis
Metal deposition at cathode and
Aq. Solution is acidic
(IV) AgN O (iv) (S) O evolved at anode during
before electrolysis 2
3
electrolysis
Which of the following options are correct?

 A. (II) – (iv) – (R)

 B. (I) – (ii) – (R)

 C. (I) – (i) – (P)

 D. (IV) – (iv) – (P)

(1) Electrolysis of aqueous N aCl :
1
− −
At anode : Cl → Cl2 + 1e
2
− −
At cathode : H2 O + 2e → H2 + 2H O Alkaline Solution

(2) Electrolysis of aq. CuSO 4

2+ −
At cathode : Cu + 2e → Cu (s)
– −
At anode : 4H O → 2H2 O + O2 + 4e

(3) Pure water

1
− −
At anode : 2H O → H2 O + O2 + 2e
2
− –
At cathode : 2H2 O +2e → H2 + 2H O

(4) Electrolysis of aq. AgN O 3

+ –
At cathode : Ag + e → Ag
− –
At anode : Ag + N O → AgN O3 + e
3
+ –
2H2 O → O2 + 4H + 4e Acidic solution

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS CHEMISTRY (SECTION C)

4. Answer 1 and 2 by appropriately matching the information given in the three

columns of the following table.

Column ColumnII ColumnIII

I
After electrolysis One of the products is Cl during
Dil. N aCl
(I) (i) solution becomes (P)
2

solution the electrolysis

alkaline
Aq. After electrolysis One of the products is H during
(II) CuSO (ii) solution becomes (Q)
2
4
electrolysis
solution acidic
No effect on pH of are the products of
Pure H2 and O2
(III) (iii) solution due to (R)
water elecrolysis
electrolysis
Metal deposition at cathode and
Aq. Solution is acidic
(IV) AgN O (iv) (S) O evolved at anode during
before electrolysis 2

electrolysis
3

Which of the following options are correct?

 A. (IV) – (ii) – (S)

 B. (IV) – (iii) – (R)

 C. (I) – (ii) – (R)

 D. (II) – (i) – (S)

(1) Electrolysis of aqueous N aCl :
1
− −
At anode : Cl → Cl2 + 1e
2
− −
At cathode : H2 O + 2e → H2 + 2H O Alkaline Solution

(2) Electrolysis of aq. CuSO 4

2+ −
At cathode : Cu + 2e → Cu (s)
– −
At anode : 4H O → 2H2 O + O2 + 4e

(3) Pure water

1
− −
At anode : 2H O → H2 O + O2 + 2e
2
− –
At cathode : 2H2 O +2e → H2 + 2H O

(4) Electrolysis of aq. AgN O 3

+ –
At cathode : Ag + e → Ag
− –
At anode : Ag + N O → AgN O3 + e
3
+ –
2H2 O → O2 + 4H + 4e Acidic solution

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

Instructions:

This section consists of six numerical value based questions. You will have to
answer upto two digits after the decimal place for each question. Use the following
examples for your reference:

1) If your final answer is 3, you will have to enter 3.00

2) If your final answer is 3.33333, you will have to enter 3.33
3) If your final answer is 3.678, you will have to enter 3.68

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and there will be
no deduction for any incorrect answer.

1. On a normal standard die one of the 21 dots from any one of the six faces is
removed at random with each dot equally likely to be chosen. The die is
then rolled. If the probability that the top face has an odd number of dots is
p (p + q)
where p and q are in their lowest form, then the value of is
q 4

Accepted Answers

8 8.0 8.00 08
Solution:

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)
Total dots on die = 21
E : dot removed from odd face
1

E : dot removed from even face

2

Total dots on odd faces = 1 + 3 + 5 = 9

Total dots on even faces = 2 + 4 + 6 = 12
By removing a dot even number becomes odd and odd number becomes
9
even. P (E 1) =
21
12
and P (E 2) =
21
E : odd number appears when die is thrown
P (E) = P (E ∩ E1 ) + P (E ∩ E2 )

E E
= P (E1 ) × P ( ) + P (E2 ) ⋅ P ( )
E1 E2

9 2 12 4
= ( × + × )
21 6 21 6

18 + 48 66 11
= ( ) = ( ) =
21 × 6 21 × 6 21

p 11
Given that =
q 21
p + q 11 + 21 32
Now, = = = 8
4 4 4

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

n
2. ⎡
1 2 a
⎤ ⎡
1 18 2007
⎤ (n + a)
If ⎢ 0 1 4⎥ = ⎢0 1 36 ⎥ , then the value of is.
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦ 100
0 0 1 0 0 1

Accepted Answers

2 2.0 2.00 02
Solution:
Consider n = 2,
1 2 a 1 2 a 1 4 2a + 8
⎡ ⎤⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
⎢0 1 4⎥⎢0 1 4⎥ = ⎢0 1 8 ⎥
⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1

Now, consider n = 3,
1 4 2a + 8 1 2 a 1 6 3a + 24
⎡ ⎤⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
⎢0 1 8 ⎥⎢0 1 4⎥ = ⎢0 1 12 ⎥
⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1
n n−1
1 2 a ⎡1 2n na + 8 ∑ k⎤
⎡ ⎤ k=0

Hence, ⎢ 0 1 4⎥ = ⎢0 1 4n ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
0 0 1 0 0 1

Given, a 12
= 18

⇒ 2n = 18
⇒ n = 9

For n = 9, na + 8 ∑ n−1

k=0
k = 2007

⇒ 9a + 8(0 + 1 + 2 + ⋯ + 8) = 2007

8 × 9
⇒ 9a + 8 ( ) = 2007
2

⇒ a = 191
n + a 9 + 191
∴ = = 2
100 100

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SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

3. Let P and Q are two points in xy-plane on the curve

−
−→ −
−→
y = x
7
− 2x
5
+ 5x
3
+ 8x + 5 such that OP ⋅ ^
i = 2 and OQ ⋅ ^i = −2 and the
−
−→ −
−→
magnitude of OP + OQ = 2M (where O is origin). Then the value of M is

Accepted Answers

5
Solution:
7 5 3
y = x − 2x + 5x + 8x + 5

Let the coordinates of given points be P (x 1

, y1 ) and Q(x 2
, y2 )
−
−→
∴ OP = x1 ^
i + y1 ^
j
−
−→
⇒ OP ⋅ ^
i = x1 = 2

Hence, y 1
= 2
7
− 2 ⋅ 2
5
+ 5 ⋅ 2
3
+ 8 ⋅ 2 + 5

= 128 − 64 + 40 + 16 + 5
= 125
−
−→
Similarly, OQ = x 2
^
i + y2 ^
j
−
−→
⇒ OQ ⋅ ^
i = x2 = −2

Hence, y 2
= (−2)
7
− 2(−2)
5
+ 5(−2)
3
+ 8(−2) + 5

= −128 + 64 − 40 − 16 + 5 = −115

−
−→ −
−→
Now, |OP + OQ| = |2^
i + 125^
j − 2^
i − 115^
j|

= |10^
j| = 10 = 2 × 5

Hence, M = 5

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

4. Three distinct points A, B and C are given in the two-dimensional coordinate

plane such that the ratio of the distance of any one of them from the point
1
(1, 0) to the distance from the point (−1, 0) is equal to . Circumcenter of
3

a
the triangle ABC is at the point ( , 0) , a, b ∈ N and coprime. Then a + b is
b

equal to

Accepted Answers

9 9.0 9.00 09
Solution:
Let the point be (h, k)
√(h − 1)2 + k2 1
∴ =
√(h + 1)2 + k2 3

2 2 2 2
⇒ [(h − 1) + k ]9 = (h + 1) + k
2 2 2 2
⇒ 9(h + k + 1 − 2h) = h + k + 1 + 2h
2 2
⇒ 8h + 8k − 20h + 8 = 0
5
2 2
⇒ h + k − h + 1 = 0
2
5 25 25
2 2
⇒ h − h + + k = − 1
2 16 16
2
5 9
2
⇒ (h − ) + k =
4 16

Hence, locus of point A, B, C :

2 2
5 3
2
(x − ) + y = ( )
4 4

5
Thus, the locus will be of circle with centre at ( , 0)
4

∴ The circumcenter of any triangle formed by A, B, C will lie on the centre of

circle.
Hence, a + b = 5 + 4 = 9

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

5. Let H = 1 +
1
+
1
+ ⋯ +
1
and T =
1
. Then the value of
n n
2 3 n (n + 1)Hn Hn+1

T1 + T2 + T3 + … upto ∞ terms is

Accepted Answers

1 1.0 1.00 01
Solution:
1
Tn =
(n + 1)Hn Hn+1

1
As, Hn+1 − Hn =
n + 1
1 1
⇒ Tn = −
Hn Hn+1

1 1
⇒ T1 = −
H1 H2

1 1
T2 = −
H2 H3

:
:
:
1 1
Tn = −
Hn Hn+1

1 1
∴ T1 + T2 + ⋯ + Tn = −
H1 Hn+1

As n → ∞,
T1 + T2 + … upto ∞ terms = 1

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION A)

6.
2
1 − 7 cos x g(x)
Suppose ∫ dx = + C , where C is an arbitrary constant of
7 7
sin x cos2 x sin x

π
integration. Then the value of g (0) + g ′ ′′
( ) is
4

Accepted Answers

5 5.0 5.00 05
Solution:
2
1 7 cos x
Let I = ∫ dx − ∫ dx
7 7
sin cos2 x sin x cos2 x

2
sec 1
I = ∫ xdx − 7 ∫ dx
7 7
sin sin x
 
I I2
1

2
sec x
I1 = ∫ dx
7
sin x
1
Take u = , v = sec
2
x
7
sin x

d(u)
(∵ ∫ uvdx = u ∫ vdx − ∫ ( ∫ vdx) dx)
dx

1 d 1 2
2
∴ I1 = ∫ sec xdx − ∫ ( ( )∫ sec xdx) dx
7 7
sin x dx sin x

1 −7
= tan x − ∫ (cos x) ⋅ tan x dx
7 8
sin x sin x

tan x cos x sin x

= + 7∫ ⋅ dx
7 8 cos x
sin x sin x

Now, I = I1 + I2
tan x 1 1
= + 7∫ dx − 7 ∫ dx
7 7 7
sin x sin x sin x

tan x g(x)
= + C = + C
7 7
sin x sin x

g(x) = tan x
′ 2
g (x) = sec x
′′
g (x) = 2 sec x(sec x tan x)
′
g (0) = 1

π
′′
g ( ) = 2(√2)(√2 ⋅ 1) = 4
4

π
′ ′′
∴ g (0) + g ( ) = 1 + 4 = 5
4

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

Instructions:

This section consists of eight questions of Multiple Correct Type.

For each question, 4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will
be deducted from the total score for any incorrect answer. There is partial marking in this
section. Partial marks of +1 will be awarded for each correct answer if any incorrect answer
is not selected.

πx
1. −
1

Let f (x) = e x
2
+ ∫
2
√1 + sin tdt ∀ x ∈ (0, ∞) . Then
0

A .f exists and is continuous

′
∀ x ∈ (0, ∞)

B .
f
′′
exists ∀ x ∈ (0, ∞)

C .f is bounded in (1, ∞)
′

D .There exists α > 0 such that |f (x)| > |f ′

(x)| ∀ x ∈ (α, ∞)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)
1 πx
−
2 2
f (x) = e x + ∫ √1 + sin t dt ∀ x ∈ (0, ∞)
0

Diff. w.r.t .to x

1
−
2
2 π πx
′
f (x) = e x .( ) + √1 + sin
3
x 2 2

Hence, f (x) exists ∀ x ∈ (0, ∞)

′

(Using Newton lebnitz rule)

πx π
1 1 cos( ). ( )
−
⎛ −
⎞
2 2 3 π 2 2
′′ 2 2
f (x) = .e x ( ) + 2 ⎜e x ⎟ (− ) + ( )
3 3 4
x x x 2 πx
⎝ ⎠
2√1 + sin
2

1 1
−
⎛ −
⎞
2 2 2
4e x − 6x ⎜e x ⎟
π
cos( x)
⎝ ⎠ 2
π 2
= +
6
8 πx
x
1 + sin
2
Clearly f ”(x) doesn’t exist when
x = 3, 7, 11, …or x = (4n − 1), n ∈ I

1
−
2
2 π πx
′
f (x) = e x .( ) + √1 + sin
3
x 2 2

f
′
is bounded in (1, ∞)

∣ ∣
1 πx
∣ ∣
−
∣ 2 2 ∣
f (x) = e x + ∫ √1 + sin tdt
∣  ∣
0
∣ A
1
 ∣
∣ B
1 ∣

∣ ∣
∣ 1 ∣
∣ − 2 π πx ∣
′ 2
f (x) = ∣e x ⋅ + √1 + sin ∣
3
∣ x 2 2 ∣
∣   ∣
A
∣ 2 B2 ∣

On comparing |A |&|A 1 2|

as x ∈ (2, ∞)
So, A > A 1 2

On comparing B &B 1 2

as x ∈ (2, ∞)
So, B > B 1 2

Hence |f (x)| > |f (x)| ′

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

2. Let x, y, z are positive real numbers and l is the least value of 1

4 1
2x
4
+ 2y
4
+ 4z
4
− 8xyz and l is the least value of x
2
4
y + xy
4
+ + + 8 .
2 3 3 2
x y x y

Then

A .l 1
= −1

B .l > −1
2

C .l 2
= 10

D .l > 10
2

For least value of 2x + 2y 4 4

+ 4z
4
− 8xyz

Using A. M . ≥ G. M .,
1
4 4 4
2x + 2y + 4z + 1
4 4 4
≥ (2x × 2y × 4z × 1) 4
4
4 4 4
2x + 2y + 4z + 1
⇒ ≥ 2(xyz)
4
4 4 4
⇒ 2x + 2y + 4z + 1 ≥ 8xyz
4 4 4
⇒ 2x + 2y + 4z − 8xyz ≥ −1

∴ l1 = −1

Again A. M . ≥ G. M .
4 1
4 4 1
x y + xy + + + 8
2 3 3 2
x y x y 4 1
4 4 5
⇒ ≥ (x y × xy × × × 8)
2 3 3 2
5 x y x y

4 1
4 4
x y + xy + + + 8 1
2 3 3 2
x y x y
5
⇒ ≥ (2 ) 5
5
4 1
4 4
⇒ x y + xy + + + 8 ≥ 2 × 5
2 3 3 2
x y x y

4 1
4 4
⇒ x y + xy + + + 8 ≥ 10.
2 3 3 2
x y x y

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

3. If (1 + x + x 2
+ x )
3 100 2
= a0 + a1 x + a2 x +. . . . . . . . . +a300 x
300
, then

A .a 0 + a1 + a2 + a3 +. . . . . . . +a300 is divisible by 1024

B .a + a2 + a4 +. . . . . . . +a300 = a1 + a3+ . . . . . . . +a299
0

C .Coefficients equidistant from beginning and end are equal

D .a 1 = 100

3 100 2 300
(1 + x + x2 + x ) = a0 + a1 x + a2 x + ⋯ + a300 x … (i)

Substituting x = 1 in (i),
100
4 = a0 + a1 + ⋯ + a300

Clearly, a 0 + a1 + ⋯ + a300 is divisible by 2 10

Substituting x = −1 in (i),
0 = a0 − a1 + a2 − ⋯ + a300
⇒ a0 + a2 + a4 + ⋯ + a300 = a1 + a3 + ⋯ + a299

1
In (i) replacing x by we get,
x
3 2 100 300 399
(x + x + x + 1) = a0 x + a1 x + ⋯ + a300 … (ii)

By (i) & (ii),

a0 = a300 , a1 = a299 , …

Diff. (i) w.r.t. x we get,

2 3 99 2
100(1 + x + x + x ) (1 + 2x + 3x )
299
= a1 + 2a2 x + ⋯ + 300x a300

Substituting x = 0 in the above equation, we get,

100 = a1

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

4. If in a ΔABC , a, b, c are in A. P . and P 1, P2 , P3 are the altitudes from the vertices

A, B and C respectively, then

A .
P1 , P2 , P3 are in A. P .

B .P 1, P2 , P3 are in H . P
C . 3R
P1 + P2 + P3 ≤
Δ

D .
1 1 1 3R
+ + ≤
P1 P2 P3 Δ

1 1 1
Δ = aP1 = bp2 = cP3
2 2 2
2Δ 2Δ 2Δ
P1 = , P2 = , P3 =
a b c

⎧ a, b, c, are in A.P ⎫

as ⎨ 1 1 1 ⎬
⎩ So, , , are in H.P ⎭
a b c

⇒ P1 , P2 , P3 are in H . P .

Using sine rule,

2Δ 2Δ 2Δ
P1 = , P2 = , P3 =
2R sin A 2R sin B 2R sin c
R → Circumradius
1 R sin A 1 R sin B 1 R sin c
⇒ = , = ,
P1 Δ P2 Δ P3 Δ

∵ sin A, sin B, sin C are in A.P

∴ sin A + sin C = 2 sin B
1 1 1 R
∴ + + = (sin A + sin B + sin C)
P1 P2 P3 Δ
3R 3R
= sin B ≤
Δ Δ

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

π
5. ⎧
⎪
⎪ cos x , 0 ≤ x <
⎪
2
Consider f : R → R and f (x) = ⎨ 2 such that f is periodic
⎪ π π
⎪
⎩(
⎪ − x) , ≤ x < π
2 2

with fundamental period π. Then

A 2
π
 . The range of f is [0, )
4

B
. f is continuous for all real x, but not differentiable for some real x

C
. f is continuous for all real x

D The area bounded by y = f (x) and the x−axis from x = −nπ to x = nπ is

. π
3

2n (1 + ) for a given n ∈ N
24
π
⎧
⎪ cos x , 0 ≤ x <
⎪
⎪
2
Given f (x) = ⎨ 2 and f is periodic with fundamental period
⎪ π π
⎪
⎩(
⎪ − x) , ≤ x < π
2 2
π
Let's draw the graph of y = f (x)

From the graph,

π
at x = , y = 0
2
2
π
and at x = π, y =
4
2
π
so, range of the function is [0, )
4

At x = 0
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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)
RH L = lim f (x) = 1 = f (0)
+
x→0

Hence, f (x) is continuous at x = 0

π
At x =
2
LH L = lim f (x) = lim cos x = 0
− −
x→π/2 x→π/2

2
π
RH L = lim f (x) = lim ( − x) = 0
x→π/2
+
x→π/2
−
2

π
We get LH L = RH L = f ( )
2
π
Hence, f (x) is continuous at x =
2

At x = π
RH L = lim f (x) = lim cos x = −1
+ +
x→π x→π
2 2
π π
LH L = lim f (x) = lim ( − x) = ​
x→π
−
x→π
−
2 4

We get LH L ≠ RH L
Hence, the function,f is not continuous for all real point x

Now, area bounded by y = f (x) and the x−axis from −nπ to nπ for n ∈ N,
π

A = 2n ∫ f (x)dx
0

π
2
⎡ π ⎤
π
2
= 2n ⎢∫ cos xdx + ∫ π ( − x) dx⎥
0
2
⎣ ⎦
2

π
⎡ 3
π ⎤

1 π
2
= 2n ⎢[sin x] − [ ( − x) ] ⎥
⎢ 0 ⎥
3 2 π
⎣ ⎦
2
3
π 1 π π π
= 2n [(sin( ) − sin(0)) − {( − π) − { − }}]
2 3 2 2 2

3
1 −π
= 2n [(1 − 0) − {( ) − 0}]
3 2

3
π
= 2n (1 + )
24

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

6. αβ αγ βγ
If α, β, γ are roots of x 3
+ 2x
2
− 3x + 1 = 0, then value of + + is
α + β α + γ β + γ

less than

A .2

B .3

C .4

D .5
If α, β, γ are roots of x 3
+ 2x
2
− 3x + 1 = 0

1 1 1
Then , , are roots of x 3
− 3x
2
+ 2x + 1 = 0
α β γ

αβ 1
Now, ⇒
α + β 1 1
( + )
α β

1 1 1 1 1 1 1
We know , { + + = 3, + + = 2, = −1}
α β γ αβ βγ γα αβγ

1 1 1
+ = (3 − )
α β γ

1 1 1 1 1 1
Similarly + = (3 − )&( + ) = (3 − )
γ β α α γ β

Put values in given expression,

⎡ ⎤

⎢ 1 1 1 ⎥
⎢ + + ⎥
⎢ ⎥
⎢ 1 1 1⎥
3 − 3 − 3 +
⎣ ⎦
γ β α

1 1
∑ (3 − ) (3 − )
γ β
=
1 1 1
(3 − ) (3 − ) (3 − )
α β γ

1 1 1 1 1 1
27 − 6 [ + + ] + ( + + )
α β γ αβ βγ γα
=
1 1 1
(3 − ) (3 − ) (3 − )
γ β γ

27 − 6 × 3 + 2
=
27 − 9 × 3 + 3 × 2 − (−1)

29 − 18 11
= =
28 − 27 + 6 7

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

7. For any positive integer n, let S n : (0, ∞) → R be defined by

2
n 1 + k(k + 1)x
Sn (x) = ∑ cot
−1
( ) where for any cot −1
(x) ∈ (0, π) and
k=1
x

π π
−1
tan (x) ∈ (− , )
2 2

Then which of the following statements is(are) TRUE ?

A .S
2
π 1 + 11x
10
(x) = − tan
−1
( ) , for all x > 0
2 10x

B . lim n→∞
cot(Sn (x)) = x , for all x > 0

C .The equation S (x) =

π
has a root in (0, ∞)
3
4

D . 1
tan(Sn (x)) ≤ , for all n ≥ 1 and x > 0
2
n
x
−1
Sn (x) = ∑ tan [ ]
k=1 1 + (kx)(k + 1)x

n (k + 1)x − kx
−1
= ∑ tan [ ]
k=1 1 + (kx)(k + 1)x

n
−1 −1
= ∑ [tan ((k + 1)x) − tan (kx)]
k=1

−1 −1 −1 −1 −1 −1
= [tan 2x − tan x] + [tan 3x − tan 2x] + [tan 4x − tan 3x] + ⋯

−1 −1
+ [tan (n + 1)x − tan nx]
−1 −1
Sn (x) = tan (n + 1)x − tan x

Now, S 10 (x) = tan

−1
x(11x) − tan
−1
x

10x
−1
= tan [ ]
1 + (11x)(x)

10x
−1
= tan [ ]
2
1 + 11x

π 10x
−1
= − cot ( )
2
2 1 + 11x
2
π 1 + 11x
−1
= − tan ( )(x > 0)
2 10x

(n + 1)x − x
lim cot[Sn (x)] = lim cot(tan[ ])
n→∞ n→∞ 2
1 + (n + 1)x

2
1 + (n + 1)x
−1
= lim cot[cot ( )]
n→∞ nx

2
1 + (n + 1)x
= lim = x
n→∞
(nx)

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

−1 −1
Sn (x) = tan (n + 1)x − tan x
−1 −1
S3 (x) = tan (4x) − tan x

3x π
⇒ tan
−1
[
2
] = (given)
1 + 4x 4

3x
⇒ = 1
2
1 + 4x
2
⇒ 1 + 4x = 3x
2
⇒ 4x − 3x + 1 = 0
D = 9 − 16 < 0

No real roots

1
tan(Sn (x)) ≤
2

−1
nx nx
tan[tan ( )] =
1 + (n + 1)x2 1 + (n + 1)x2

For large value of n

nx 1
lim =
n→∞ 2
1 + (n + 1)x x

1
and ∈ (0, ∞) for x > 0
x

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER
SOLUTIONS MATHEMATICS (SECTION B)

8. The solution of differential equation 3

dx
=
x
is x l n
= mx y + c , Then which of
3
dy x − y

the following is/are CORRECT ? {c is any arbitrary constant}

A .l + m + n = 11

B .l + n = 9

C .l + 2m = 10
D .
m + n = 4

dx x
3 =
3
dy x − y

Multiplying x both sides 2

3
dx x
2
3x = … (1)
3
dy x − y

Let x 3
= t
dx dt
2
3x =
dy dy

From (1)
dt t
⇒ =
dy t − y

dy t − y
⇒ =
dt t
dy y
⇒ + = 1
dt t
1
∫ dt

I.F. e = e = t
t ln t

Now general solution is

yt = ∫ tdt

2
t
⇒ yt = + c1
2
3 6
⇒ 2yx = x + 2c1
6 3
⇒ x = 2x y + c (2c1 = c)

Compare with x = mx y + c l n

we get l = 6, m = 2, n = 3

l + m + n = 11
l + n = 9
l + 2m = 10
m + n = 5

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER SOLUTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

Instructions:

This section consists of four questions of Single Correct Type.

For each question, 3 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark will be deducted for any incorrect
answer.

1. Match List I with the List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I List - II

→ → →
(A) If a = t^
i − 3^ ^
j + 2tk; b = ^
i − 2^ ^ and c = 3^
j + 2k i + t^ ^ then the value of
j − k, (P) 1

2
→ → →
(∫ a ⋅ ( b × c ) dt + 2) equal to
1

→ →
(B) The value of t ∈ R for which the vectors a = (1, −2, 3), b = (−2, 3, −4), c = (1, −1, t) (Q) 2

form a linearly dependent system

(C) If the area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are 3^

i + ^ ^ and ^
j − 2k i − 3^ ^ is
j + 4k (R) 3

μ√3 sq. unit, then the value of μ is

→ → → →
(D) Let p = ^
i + ^
j, q = ^
i − ^
j and r = ^
i + 2^ ^ If x is an unit vector such that
j + 3k. (S) 4

→ → → → ∣→ →∣
p ⋅ x = 0 and q ⋅ x = 0, then r ⋅ x is equal to
∣ ∣

(T) 5

Which of the following combination is CORRECT ?

 A. A → Q, B → P

 B. A → P, B → R

 C. A → R, B → S

 D. A → S, B → T

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER SOLUTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)
→
a = t^
i − 3^ ^
j + 2tk
→
b = ^
i − 2^ ^
j + 2k
→
c = 3^
i + t^ ^
j − k
2
→ → →
to find ∫ a ⋅ ( b × c )dt + 2
1

∣ t −3 2t ∣
→ → → ∣ ∣
a ⋅ ( b × c ) = 1 −2 2
∣ ∣
∣3 t −1 ∣

= (2 − 2t)t + 3(−7) + 2t(t + 6)

2 2
= 2t − 2t − 21 + 2t + 12t
= 14t − 21

Now
2 2
→ → →
∫ a ⋅ ( b × c )dt + 2 = ∫ (14t − 21)dt + 2
1 1
2
2
t
= [14 × − 21t] + 2
2
1

⇒ [7(4) − 21(2)] − [7 − 21] + 2

= 28 − 42 − 7 + 21 + 2
= 2

It is given that it forms linearly dependent system

∣ 1 −2 3 ∣
∣ ∣
−2 3 −4 = 0
∣ ∣
∣ 1 −1 t ∣

⇒ 1(3t − 4) + 2(−2t + 4) + 3(2 − 3) = 0

⇒ 3t − 4 − 4t + 8 − 3 = 0
⇒ −t + 1 = 0
⇒ t = 1

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER SOLUTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

2. Match List I with the List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I List - II

π/4
3 3 −1
(A) If I = ∫ sin x ⋅ cos xdx, then the value of I is (P) 4
0

2π

(B) If I = ∫ [2 sin x]dx, then the value of |[ I ]| is ([. ] is GIF) (Q) 24

0

(C) If I = ∫ sgn(x − 1)dx, then the value of I is (sgn(.) is signum function) (R) 2
−2

1 3
x − 1
(D) If I = ∫ dx, then the value of [3I − ln 64] is ([. ]is GIF) (S) −2
0
x + 1

Which of the following combinations is CORRECT ?

 A. A → Q, B → P

 B. A → R, B → S

 C. A → S, B → Q

 D. A → P, B → Q

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER SOLUTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)
π/4
3 3
I = ∫ sin x. cos xdx
0
π/4
1 3
= ∫ (2 sin x. cos x) dx
0
8
π/4
1
3
= ∫ (sin 2x) dx
8 0

dt
Put 2x = t ⇒ 2dx = dt ⇒ dx =
2
π/2
1 3
= ∫ (sin t) dt
16 0
π/2
1 3 sin t − sin 3t
= ∫ ( ) dt
16 0
4
π/2
1 cos 3t
= [−3 cos t + ]
64 3
0

1 1
= [(0 + 0) − (−3 + )]
64 3

1 8 1
I = ( ) =
64 3 24
−1
∴ I = 24

2π

I = ∫ [2 sin x]dx
0

From the above graph of y = 2 sin x, we get

π/6 5π/6 π 7π/6 11π/6 2π

I = ∫ 0 ⋅ dx + ∫ 1 ⋅ dx + ∫ 0 ⋅ dx + ∫ (−1)dx + ∫ −2dx + ∫ (−1)dx

0 π/6 5π/6 π 7π/6 11π/6

5π/6 7x/6 11π/6 2π

= 0 + (x) + 0 − (x) − (2x) − (x)
π/6 π 7π/6 11π/6

5π π 7π 2 ⋅ 11π 2 ⋅ 7π 11π
= 0 + ( − ) − ( − π) − ( − ) − (2π − )
6 6 6 6 6 6

4π π 8π π 6π
I = − − − = − = −π
6 6 6 6 6
[ I ] = [−π] = [−3.14] = −4

Now, |[I ]| = | − 4| = 4

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER SOLUTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

3. Match List I with the List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I List - II

→ → →
(A) If a = t^
i − 3^ ^
j + 2tk; b = ^
i − 2^ ^ and c = 3^
j + 2k i + t^ ^ then the value of
j − k, (P) 1

2
→ → →
(∫ a ⋅ ( b × c ) dt + 2) equal to
1

→ →
(B) The value of t ∈ R for which the vectors a = (1, −2, 3), b = (−2, 3, −4), c = (1, −1, t) (Q) 2

form a linearly dependent system

(C) If the area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are 3^

i + ^ ^ and ^
j − 2k i − 3^ ^ is
j + 4k (R) 3

μ√3 sq. unit, then the value of μ is

→ → → →
(D) Let p = ^
i + ^
j, q = ^
i − ^
j and r = ^
i + 2^ ^ If x is an unit vector such that
j + 3k. (S) 4

→ → → → ∣→ →∣
p ⋅ x = 0 and q ⋅ x = 0, then r ⋅ x is equal to
∣ ∣

(T) 5

Which of the following combination is CORRECT ?

 A. C → R, D → T

 B. C → S, D → R

 C. C → T, D → R

 D. C → P, D → Q

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER SOLUTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)
→
d 1 = 3^
i + ^ ^
j − 2k
→
d 2 = ^
i + −3^ ^
j + 4k

Given area = μ√3

1∣→ → ∣
Area of parallelogram = ∣d 1 × d 2∣
2∣ ∣

∣^i ^
j ^
k ∣
→ → ∣ ∣
d 1 × d 2 = ∣3 1 −2 ∣
∣ ∣
∣1 −3 4 ∣

= ^
i (4 − 6) − ^ ^
j(12 + 2) + k(−9 − 1)

= −2^
i − 14^ ^
j − 10k

∣→ → ∣
∣ d 1 × d 2 ∣ = √(−2)2 + (−14)2 + (−10)2
∣ ∣

= √4 + 196 + 100

= √300 = 10√13
1
Area = × 10 × √3 = 5√3,
2
So, μ = 5

Given
→ → →
p = ^
i + ^
j, q = ^
i − ^
j, r = ^
i + 2^ ^
j + 3k
→ → → →
We have p ⋅ x = 0 and q ⋅ x = 0

It means x ⊥ P and x ⊥ q
→ →
→ p × q
x = ±
→ →
∣ ∣
p × q
∣ ∣
→ →
p × q = (^
i + ^
j) × (^
i − ^ ^
j) = ±2k
→
^
∴ x = ±k
→ →∣
Hence, ∣∣ r ⋅ x
∣
= ∣ ^ ^ ^ ^ ∣
∣( i + 2 j + 3k) ⋅ (±k)∣

= 3

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 JEE ADVANCED - SAMPLE PAPER SOLUTIONS
MATHEMATICS (SECTION C)

4. Match List I with the List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I List - II

π/4
3 3 −1
(A) If I = ∫ sin x ⋅ cos xdx, then the value of I is (P) 4
0

2π

(B) If I = ∫ [2 sin x]dx, then the value of |[ I ]| is ([. ] is GIF) (Q) 24

0

(C) If I = ∫ sgn(x − 1)dx, then the value of I is (sgn(.) is signum function) (R) 2
−2

1 3
x − 1
(D) If I = ∫ dx, then the value of [3I + ln 64] is ([. ]is GIF) (S) −2
0
x + 1

Which of the following combinations is CORRECT ?

 A. C → R, D → S

 B. C → S, D → R

 C. C → P, D → Q

 D. C → Q, D → P

I = ∫ sgn(x − 1)dx
−2

⎧ −1, x < 1
⎪

So, sgn(x − 1) = ⎨ 0, x = 1
⎩
⎪
1, x > 1
1 2

I = ∫ (−1)dx + ∫ 1dx
−2 1
1 2
= −(x) + (x)
−2 1

= −(1 + 2) + (2 − 1)

I = −2

1 3
x − 1
I = ∫ dx
0
x + 1
1 3
x + 1 − 2
I = ∫ dx
0
x + 1

2
2
= ∫ (x − x + 1 − ) dx
0
x + 1
1
3 2
x x
= [ − + x − 2 ln(x + 1)]
3 2
0

1 1
= [ − + 1 − 2 ln 2 − 0]
3 2

5
I = [ − 2 ln 2]
6

5
⇒ 3I = [ − ln 64]
2

5
∴ [3I + ln 64] = [ − ln 64 + ln 64]
2

5
= [ ] = [2.5] = 2
2

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