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FAM pyqs

The document is an examination question booklet for the BCA (Second Semester) Financial Accounting & Management course for the academic year 2022-23. It contains instructions for examinees, a total of 100 questions from which 75 must be answered, and covers various topics related to financial accounting principles and practices. The questions assess knowledge on financial statements, accounting standards, and the role of accounting in business.
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
12 views

FAM pyqs

The document is an examination question booklet for the BCA (Second Semester) Financial Accounting & Management course for the academic year 2022-23. It contains instructions for examinees, a total of 100 questions from which 75 must be answered, and covers various topics related to financial accounting principles and practices. The questions assess knowledge on financial statements, accounting standards, and the role of accounting in business.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Roll No. ....................................

Question Booklet Number

O. M. R. Serial No.

B. C. A. (Second Semester) (B. P.)


EXAMINATION, 2022-23
FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING & MANAGEMENT
Questions Booklet
Paper Code Series

B C A 2 0 4 N A
Time : 1:30 Hours ] [ Maximum Marks : 75

Instructions to the Examinee : ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ’k %

1. Do not open the booklet unless you are 1. iz’u&iqfLrdk dks rc rd u [kksyas tc rd vkils dgk
asked to do so. u tk,A
2. The booklet contains 100 questions. 2. iz’u&iqfLrdk esa 100 iz’u gSaA ijh{kkFkhZ dks 75 iz’uksa
Examinee is required to answer 75 dks dsoy nh xbZ OMR vkUlj&’khV ij gh gy djuk
questions in the OMR Answer-Sheet
gS iz’u&iqfLrdk ij ughaA lHkh iz’uksa ds vad leku
provided and not in the question booklet.
All questions carry equal marks. gSaA

3. Examine the Booklet and the OMR Answer- 3. iz’uksa ds mŸkj vafdr djus ls iwoZ iz’u&iqfLrdk rFkk
Sheet very carefully before you proceed. OMR vkUlj&’khV dks lko/kkuhiwod
Z ns[k ysAa nks”kiw.kZ
Faulty question booklet due to missing or
iz’u&iqfLrdk ftlesa dqN Hkkx Nius ls NwV x, gksa ;k
duplicate pages/questions or having any
iz’u ,d ls vf/kd ckj Ni x, gksa ;k mlesa fdlh
other discrepancy should be got
immediately replaced. vU; izdkj dh deh gks rks mls rqjUr cny ysAa

(Remaining instructions on the last page) ¼’ks”k funs’Z k vfUre i`”B ij½
(Only for Rough Work)

(Remaining instructions on the last page) ¼’ks”k funs’Z k vfUre i`”B ij½
1. What is the purpose of the statement of 4. Financial accounting focuses on :

cash flows ? (A) Internal decision-making

(A) To report the financial position of a (B) External reporting to stakeholders

company at a specific point in time. (C) Cost analysis for management

(B) To present information about a (D) Budgeting and forecasting

company’s cash flows during a 5. The primary objective of financial


specific period. accounting is to :

(C) To provide details about a (A) Maximize profits for the company

company’s revenues and expenses (B) Provide information for internal

during a specific period. decision-making

(D) To show changes in the company’s (C) Facilitate the efficient allocation of

equity accounts over a period of resources


(D) Provide accurate and reliable
time.
financial information to external
2. Which of the following is an example of
users
a non-current liability ?
6. Management accounting primarily
(A) Accounts payable
involves :
(B) Salaries payable
(A) Preparing financial statements
(C) Long-term debt
(B) Reporting to external stakeholders
(D) Prepaid expenses
(C) Analyzing financial data for

3. Which financial statement reports the internal decision-making

financial position of a company at a (D) Auditing financial records

specific point in time ? 7. Cost of goods sold is an example of a :


(A) Income statement (A) Variable cost
(B) Statement of cash flows (B) Fixed cost
(C) Balance sheet (C) Mixed cost

(D) Statement of retained earnings (D) Step cost

BCA-204(N) (3) Set-A


8. Which of the following is a financial 12. The scope of financial accounting
ratio used to assess a company’s includes the recording and reporting of :
liquidity ? (A) Non-financial information such as
customer satisfaction ratings
(A) Return on Investment (ROl)
(B) Future projections and forecasts
(B) Current ratio
(C) Historical financial transactions
(C) Price-earnings ratio (P/E ratio)
and events
(D) Debt-to-equity ratio
(D) Non-monetary assets such as
9. The process of allocating the cost of an human resources

intangible asset over its useful life is 13. Financial accounting focuses on
known as : providing information to :
(A) Depreciation (A) Shareholders and investors
(B) Amortization (B) Internal managers and employees

(C) Depetion (C) Suppliers and vendors


(D) Competitors and industry analysts
(D) Impairment
14. Which of the following is considered an
10. Financial accounting primarily deals with
integral part of financial accounting ?
the :
(A) Management decision-making
(A) Preparation of budgets and
(B) Budgeting and forecasting
forecasts
(C) Risk assessment and management
(B) Analysis of cost behavior
(D) Compliance with accounting
(C) Reporting of financial information standards and regulations
to external stakeholders
15. Which organization is responsible for
(D) Evaluation of investment
formulating and issuing Accounting
opportunities Standards in India ?

11. Which of the following is within the (A) Institute of Chartered Accountants

scope of financial accounting ? of India (ICAI)


(B) Securities and Exchange Board of
(A) Internal management reporting
India (SEBI)
(B) Tax planning and compliance
(C) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(C) Cost analysis for decision-making (D) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(D) Preparation of financial statements (MCA)

BCA-204(N) (4) Set-A


16. Which accounting standard in India 19. Which regulatory body in India has the
governs the treatment of revenue authority to modify or adopt accounting

recognition ? standards issued by ICAI ?

(A) AS 6 - Depreciation Accounting (A) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

(B) AS 9 - Revenue Recognition (MCA)

(C) AS 10 - Accounting for Fixed (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Assets (C) Securities and Exchange Board of


India (SEBI)
(D) AS 16 - Borrowing Costs
(D) National Financial Reporting
17. Accounting Standards in India are
Authority (NFRA)
primarily based on which international
20. Which of the following tasks can be
accounting framework ?
automated using computer applications
(A) International Financial Reporting
in financial accounting ?
Standards (IFRS)
(A) Interpreting financial statements
(B) Generally Accepted Accounting
(B) Decision-making for management
Principles (GAAP)
(C) Preparation of tax returns
(C) Indian Accounting Standards (Ind
(D) Monitoring cash flows and budgets
AS)
(D) International Public Sector 21. Which of the following is a key benefit

Accounting Standards (IPSAS) of using computer applications in


financial accounting ?
18. Which accounting standard in India deals
(A) Reduction in the need for financial
with the presentation of financial
statements
statements ?
(B) Elimination of the need for external
(A) AS 1 - Disclosure of Accounting audits
Policies (C) Increased speed and accuracy of
(B) AS 3 - Cash Flow Statements financial calculations
(C) AS 17 - Segment Reporting (D) Decreased reliance on accounting
(D) AS 18 - Related Party Disclosures principles and standards

BCA-204(N) (5) Set-A


22. The use of computerized accounting 25. Which of the following statements about
software allows for : a journal is correct ?

(A) Manual recording and processing (A) It records only debit entries.

of financial transactions (B) It summarizes all financial

(B) Real-time access to financial transactions of a specific account.

information (C) It is used to post closing entries at

(C) Limited storage capacity for the end of an accounting period.

financial data (D) It provides a chronological record


of all financial transactions.
(D) Inflexibility in generating financial
reports 26. The process of transferring journal
entries to the respective accounts in the
23. Which computer application is
ledger is known as :
commonly used to record and process
(A) Posting
financial transactions in an organization ?
(B) Balancing
(A) Word processing software
(C) Journalizing
(B) Spreadsheet software
(D) Adjusting
(C) Presentation software

(D) Accounting software 27. Which of the following statements about


a ledger is true ?
24. How can computer applications enhance
(A) It is also known as the book of
data security in financial accounting ?
original entry.
(A) By eliminating the need for backup
(B) It is used to record only the
procedures
summary totals of financial
(B) By allowing access to financial transactions.
data from any location
(C) It provides a chronological record
(C) By implementing encryption and of financial transactions.
password protection (D) It contains separate accounts for
(D) By reducing the need for user each category of assets, liabilities,
authentication equity, revenue, and expenses.

BCA-204(N) (6) Set-A


28. Which type of account is typically found 31. The primary purpose of a trial balance is
in the general ledger ? to :

(A) Sales account (A) Identify errors and correct them


(B) Cash account before financial statements are
(C) Purchase account prepared
(D) Retained earnings account (B) Determine the closing entries

29. In a ledger, debits and credits are required at the end of an

recorded on which sides of the account, accounting period

respectively ? (C) Calculate the balance of retained


(A) Debits on the left, credits on the earnings
right (D) Determine the net profit or loss for
(B) Debits on the right, credits on the the period
left
32. Which of the following statements about
(C) Debits on the top, credits on the
a trial balance is true ?
bottom

(D) Debits on the bottom, credits on the (A) A trial balance ensures that all

top accounts have been closed

properly.
30. A trial balance is prepared to :
(B) A trial balance guarantees that
(A) Determine the net income or loss
financial statements will be error-
of a business
free.
(B) Verify the accuracy of the
accounting records (C) A trial balance ensures that debits

equal credits in the ledger


(C) Calculate the tax liability of a
company accounts.

(D) Determine the financial position of (D) A trial balance is prepared at the

a company end of the accounting period.

BCA-204(N) (7) Set-A


33. If a trial balance doesn’t balance, it 36. Which of the following items would
indicates that : typically be included in the expenses

(A) There are no errors in the section of a Profit and Loss Account ?

accounting records. (A) Accounts receivable

(B) There may be errors in the (B) Sales revenue

accounting records. (C) Rent expense

(C) The financial statements cannot be (D) Share capital

prepared. 37. Gross profit is calculated as :


(D) The trial balance is not necessary
(A) Total revenue minus total expenses
for small businesses.
(B) Net profit plus operating expenses
34. Which of the following errors will cause (C) Sales revenue minus cost of goods
a trial balance to be imbalanced ? sold

(A) Omission of a transaction from the (D) Total assets minus total liabilities

journal and ledger 38. Which of the following is true regarding


(B) Recording a transaction in the the format of a Profit and Loss Account ?
wrong account (A) Expenses are listed before revenues
(C) Incorrectly totaling the debits and (B) Revenues are listed before
credits of an account expenses
(D) All of the above (C) Assets are listed before liabilities

35. The Profit and Loss Account is prepared (D) Liabilities are listed before assets

to determine : 39. Which financial statement is commonly


(A) The net worth of the business prepared first, before the Profit and Loss
(B) The financial position of the Account ?

business (A) Balance Sheet


(C) The profitability of the business for (B) Cash Flow Statement
a specific period (C) Statement of Retained Earnings
(D) The liquidity of the business (D) Trial Balance

BCA-204(N) (8) Set-A


40. The Balance Sheet provides information 43. Which of the following is true regarding
about : the format of a Balance Sheet ?
(A) Liabilities are listed before assets.
(A) Revenues and expenses of a
(B) Assets are listed before liabilities.
business
(C) Current assets are listed before
(B) Cash inflows and outflows of a non-current assets.
business (D) Non-current liabilities are listed

(C) The financial position of a business before current liabilities.

at a specific point in time 44. Which financial statement is commonly

(D) The profitability of a business for a prepared first, before the Balance Sheet ?
(A) Income Statement
specific period
(B) Cash Flow Statement
41. Which of the following is a liability that (C) Statement of Retained Earnings
is typically included in the Balance (D) Trial Balance

Sheet ? 45. The quick ratio is a measure of a

(A) Accounts receivable company’s :


(A) Liquidity
(B) Prepaid expenses
(B) Profitability
(C) Long-term loans
(C) Efficiency
(D) Inventory (D) Solvency

42. The formula for calculating total assets in 46. The debt-to-equity ratio measures :
a Balance Sheet is : (A) The profitability of a company
(B) The liquidity of a company
(A) Total assets = Total liabilities –
(C) The solvency of a company
Owner’s equity
(D) The efficiency of a company
(B) Total assets = Current assets –
47. The inventory turnover ratio is used to
Current liabilities
assess a company’s :
(C) Total assets = Owner’s equity +
(A) Profitability
Total liabilities
(B) Liquidity
(D) Total assets = Total liabilities + (C) Efficiency
Owner’s equity (D) Solvency

BCA-204(N) (9) Set-A


48. Fund flow analysis is used to analyze 51. The primary objective of fund flow
analysis is to :
the :
(A) Determine the profitability of a
(A) Profitability of a company
company
(B) Liquidity position of a company (B) Assess the solvency of a company

(C) Sources and uses of funds over a (C) Identify the sources and
applications of funds
period of time
(D) Evaluate the efficiency of a
(D) Debt structure of a company company’s operations

49. A positive net increase in working capital 52. In a Fund Flow Statement, a positive
value in the “Sources of Funds” section
indicates that :
indicates :
(A) The company’s liquidity has (A) Cash inflow from financing

improved activities
(B) Cash outflow from operating
(B) The company’s profitability has
activities
improved
(C) Cash inflow from investing
(C) The company’s debt has increased activities
(D) Cash inflow from operating
(D) The company’s cash flow has
activities
decreased
53. Which of the following items is
50. In fund flow analysis, sources of funds considered a use of funds in a Fund Flow
Statement ?
include :
(A) Proceeds from the sale of fixed
(A) Payment of dividends assets

(B) Increase in long-term debt (B) Increase in accounts payable


(C) Payment of dividends to
(C) Purchase of fixed assets
shareholders
(D) Increase in accounts payable
(D) Decrease in long-term debt

BCA-204(N) ( 10 ) Set-A
54. Cash flow from operating activities 57. Cash flow from operating activities
includes : includes :

(A) Cash inflows from the sale of (A) Cash inflows from the sale of long-
term investments
investments
(B) Cash inflows from the issuance of
(B) Cash inflows from borrowing
common stock
(C) Cash inflows from the sale of fixed (C) Cash inflows from the sale of
assets inventory
(D) Cash inflows from sales revenue (D) Cash inflows from the repayment
of long-term debt
55. Which of the following items is
58. Which of the following items is
considered a financing cash flow in the
considered a financing cash flow in the
Cash Flow Statement ?
Cash Flow Statement ?
(A) Cash inflows from the sale of
(A) Cash inflows from the purchase of
investments property, plant, and equipment
(B) Cash inflows from the issuance of (B) Cash inflows from the issuance of
common stock bonds payable

(C) Cash inflows from the purchase of (C) Cash inflows from the payment of
dividends
inventory
(D) Cash inflows from the sale of
(D) Cash inflows from the sale of fixed
marketable securities
assets
59. Break-even analysis is a tool used to
56. The Cash Flow Statement is prepared to determine :
provide information about : (A) The point where a business starts
(A) The profitability of a company making a profit

(B) The liquidity of a company (B) The total revenue generated by a


business
(C) The financial position of a
(C) The optimal pricing strategy for a
company
product or service
(D) The sources and uses of cash by a
(D) The fixed costs incurred by a
company business

BCA-204(N) ( 11 ) Set-A
60. The break-even point is calculated by 63. The process of assessing and managing

dividing : the financial risks faced by a company is

(A) Fixed costs by variable costs per known as :

unit (A) Financial analysis

(B) Fixed costs by total revenue (B) Financial forecasting

(C) Variable costs per unit by total (C) Financial planning

revenue (D) Risk management

(D) Total revenue by total costs 64. The term “working capital” refers to :

61. The margin of safety in break-even (A) The funds invested in long-term

assets
analysis represents :
(B) The difference between current
(A) The excess of sales revenue over
assets and current liabilities
the break-even point
(C) The funds borrowed from financial
(B) The difference between fixed costs
institutions
and variable costs
(D) The profits generated by a
(C) The profit generated by the
company
business
65. The cost of capital is the :
(D) The level of sales necessary to

cover all costs (A) interest rate on a loan obtained by a

company
62. The primary goal of financial
(B) Total expenses incurred by a
management in a business is to :
company
(A) Maximize shareholder wealth
(C) Rate of return required by investors
(B) Maximize revenue generation to invest in a company
(C) Minimize expenses (D) Total market value of a company’s
(D) Minimize risk shares

BCA-204(N) ( 12 ) Set-A
66. Financial leverage refers to a 70. The capital structure decision involves
company’s :
determining :
(A) Ability to generate profits from its
(A) The amount of working capital
operations
(B) Ability to borrow funds at a low needed by a company
interest rate
(B) The optimal level of debt a
(C) Use of debt to finance its
operations and investments company should have
(D) Ability to meet its short-term
(C) The number of shareholders in a
obligations
company
67. Which of the following is an example of
an external source of long-term finance ? (D) The pricing strategy for a
(A) Retained earnings
company’s products or services
(B) Trade credit
(C) Venture capital 71. The term “leverage’ in capital structure

(D) Bank overdraft refers to :

68. Bonds and debentures are examples of :


(A) The ability of a company to meet
(A) Equity financing
its short-term obligations
(B) Short-term loans
(C) Trade credit (B) The use of debt financing by a
(D) Debt financing
company
69. Which of the following is a characteristic
of long-term loans ? (C) The ability of a company to

(A) Repayment within one year generate profits from its


(B) Higher interest rates compared to
operations
short-term loans
(C) Flexibility in repayment terms (D) The profitability of a company’s
(D) Typically secured by short-term
investments
assets

BCA-204(N) ( 13 ) Set-A
72. The term “capital structure’ refers to : 75. The cost of debt is typically measured

(A) The total assets owned by a using :


company (A) Weighted Average Cost of Capital
(B) The mix of debt and equity (WACC)
financing used by a company (B) Dividend Discount Model (DDM)
(C) The profitability of a company’s
(C) Capital Asset Pricing Model
operations
(CAPM)
(D) The ability of a company to
(D) Yield to Maturity (YTM)
generate cash flows
76. The cost of equity is generally estimated
73. Which of the following is an example of
using :
an implicit cost ?

(A) Rent paid for office space (A) Net Present Value (NPV)

(B) Wages paid to employees calculation

(C) Interest paid on a bank loan (B) Cost of Debt divided by Equity

(D) Foregone salary when starting your Multiplier

own business (C) Dividend Growth Model (DGM)


(D) Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
74. The difference between explicit and
analysis
implicit costs is that :

(A) Explicit costs are incurred by all 77. The Weighted Average Cost of Capital
businesses, while implicit costs are (WACC) is computed as the weighted
specific to certain industries average of the :
(B) Explicit costs are monetary
(A) Cost of equity and cost of debt
expenses, while implicit costs are
(B) Cost of equity and cost of retained
non-monetary opportunity costs
earnings
(C) Explicit costs are incurred by
(C) Cost of equity, cost of debt, and
established businesses, while
implicit costs are incurred by cost of preferred stock

startups (D) Cost of equity, cost of debt, cost of

(D) Explicit costs are tax-deductible, preferred stock, and cost of internal
while implicit costs are not equity

BCA-204(N) ( 14 ) Set-A
78. The cost of debt is typically calculated 81. Which of the following is considered a
as :
current liability in working capital
(A) The interest rate on the most recent
management ?
loan obtained by the company
(B) The weighted average interest rate (A) Long-term debt

of all outstanding debt (B) Accounts payable


(C) The coupon rate of a company’s
(C) Property, plant, and equipment
bonds
(D) Retained earnings
(D) The current market value of the
company’s debt
82. An increase in working capital can be
79. Which of the following factors affects
achieved by :
the cost of debt ?
(A) Increasing accounts payable
(A) The company’s credit rating

(B) The maturity date of the debt (B) Decreasing accounts receivable

(C) The company’s industry sector (C) Decreasing inventory levels


(D) The dividend payments made by
(D) Decreasing short-term borrowing
the company

83. The cash conversion cycle measures :


80. The cost of debt is typically expressed
as : (A) The time it takes to collect

(A) A percentage of the company’s


accounts receivable
total assets
(B) The time it takes to pay accounts
(B) A percentage of the company’s
total revenue payable

(C) A percentage of the company’s net (C) The time it takes to convert
income
inventory into cash
(D) A percentage above the risk-free
(D) All of the above
rate

BCA-204(N) ( 15 ) Set-A
84. Working capital management aims 87. Which of the following ratios is used to

to : measure a company’s liquidity ?

(A) Minimize profitability (A) Return on Equity (ROE)

(B) Current Ratio


(B) Maximize long-term debt
(C) Gross Profit Margin
(C) Minimize cash flow
(D) Debt-to-Equity Ratio
(D) Optimize the balance between

88. Profitability refers to a company’s ability


liquidity and profitability
to :
85. Working capital is defined as :
(A) Generate revenue from its
(A) The total assets of a company operations

(B) The total liabilities of a company (B) Meet its long-term obligations

(C) The difference between current (C) Maximize shareholder wealth

assets and current liabilities (D) Minimize risk

(D) The amount of cash held by a 89. The Net Profit Margin is calculated

company as :

(A) Net Profit divided by Total


86. Liquidity refers to a company’s ability
Revenue
to :
(B) Gross Profit divided by Total
(A) Generate profits from its operations
Revenue
(B) Meet its short-term obligations
(C) Net Profit divided by Total Assets
(C) Maximize shareholder wealth
(D) Gross Profit divided by Total

(D) Minimize expenses Equity

BCA-204(N) ( 16 ) Set-A
90. The relationship between liquidity and 93. Cash forecasting is a tool used in cash
profitability is : management to :

(A) Inverse, meaning that higher (A) Determine the optimal level of cash

liquidity leads to lower profitability to hold


(B) Identify potential cash inflows and
(B) Direct, meaning that higher
outflows
liquidity leads to higher
(C) Assess the profitability of cash
profitability
investments
(C) Unrelated, as they are independent
(D) Minimize the risk of cash shortages
of each other

(D) Cyclical, with liquidity and 94. A cash budget is a financial plan that

profitability fluctuating together outlines :

(A) The company’s overall financial


91. Which of the following is a cash
performance
management technique used to accelerate
(B) The company’s investment
cash inflows ?
portfolio
(A) Delaying payments to suppliers (C) The company’s cash inflows and
(B) Offering cash discounts to outflows over a specific period
customers (D) The company’s capital structure

(C) Increasing accounts payable 95. Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is a


(D) Decreasing accounts receivable model used in inventory management to
turnover determine :

(A) The optimal reorder point for


92. The objective of cash management is to
inventory
maintain a balance between :
(B) The minimum level of safety stock
(A) Cash inflows and outflows
required
(B) Liquidity and profitability
(C) The optimal order quantity that
(C) Cash and non-cash assets minimizes total inventory costs
(D) Short-term and long-term (D) The maximum level of stock that
investments can be stored in a warehouse

BCA-204(N) ( 17 ) Set-A
96. ABC analysis categorizes inventory 99. The credit policy of a company outlines :
items based on :
(A) The procedure for collecting
(A) Their sales volume
(B) Their unit cost accounts payable
(C) Their lead time
(B) The procedure for assessing credit
(D) Their contribution to total
inventory value worthiness of potential customers

97. The purpose of safety stock in inventory (C) The procedure for handling
management is to :
inventory management
(A) Ensure sufficient stock is available
during peak demand periods (D) The procedure for monitoring cash

(B) Minimize the risk of stockouts due flow


to unexpected fluctuations in
demand or supply 100. The primary objective of a conservative
(C) Reduce the carrying costs
working capital policy is to :
associated with excess inventory
(D) Maximize the utilization of (A) Maximize profitability by
warehouse space
minimizing cash conversion cycle
98. A company uses the average collection
(B) Minimize the risk of liquidity
period to evaluate its receivable
management. Which of the following shortages by maintaining high
formule correctly calculates the average levels of current assets
collection period ?
(C) Minimize borrowing costs by
(A) 365 days divided by the accounts
receivable turnover ratio relying on long-term financing
(B) Accounts receivable turnover ratio
sources
divided by 365 days
(C) Accounts receivable turnover ratio (D) Maximize the return on investment
multiplied by 365 days by optimizing the utilization of
(D) Accounts receivable multiplied by
working capital
365 days

BCA-204(N) ( 18 ) Set-A
(Only for Rough Work)

(Remaining instructions on the last page) ¼’ks”k funs’Z k vfUre i`”B ij½
4. Four alternative answers are mentioned for 4. iz’u&iqfLrdk esa izR;sd iz’u ds pkj lEHkkfor mŸkj
each question as—A, B, C & D in the booklet. A, B, C ,oa D gSaA ijh{kkFkhZ dks mu pkjksa fodYiksa esa ls
The candidate has to choose the correct
answer and mark the same in the OMR
lgh mŸkj Nk¡Vuk gSA mŸkj dks OMR vkUlj&’khV esa
Answer-Sheet as per the direction : lEcfU/kr iz’u la[;k esa fuEu izdkj Hkjuk gS %
Example : mnkgj.k %
Question : iz’u %
Q. 1 iz’u 1
Q. 2 iz’u 2
Q. 3 iz’u 3
Illegible answers with cutting and viBuh; mŸkj ;k ,sls mŸkj ftUgsa dkVk ;k cnyk x;k
over-writing or half filled circle will be gS ;k xksys esa vk/kk Hkjdj fn;k x;k mUgsa fujLr dj
cancelled.
fn;k tk,xkA
5. Each question carries equal marks. Marks 5. izR;sd iz’u ds vad leku gSaA vkids ftrus mŸkj
will be awarded according to the number of lgh gksxa ]s mUgha ds vuqlkj vad iznku fd;s tk;saxAs
correct answers you have.
6. All answers are to be given on OMR Answer 6. lHkh mŸkj dsoy vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj&i=d (OMR
sheet only. Answers given anywhere other Answer Sheet) ij gh fn;s tkus gSaA mŸkj&i=d esa
than the place specified in the answer sheet fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vykok vU;= dgha ij fn;k x;k
will not be considered valid.
mŸkj ekU; ugha gksxkA
7. Before writing anything on the OMR Answer 7. vks- ,e- vkj- mŸkj&i=d (OMR Answer Sheet) ij
Sheet, all the instructions given in it should dqN Hkh fy[kus ls iwoZ mlesa fn;s x;s lHkh vuqns’kksa dks
be read carefully. lko/kkuhiwoZd i<+ fy;k tk;sA
8. After the completion of the examination 8. ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr ijh{kkFkhZ d{k fujh{kd dks
candidates should leave the examination hall viuh OMR Answer Sheet miyC/k djkus ds ckn
only after providing their OMR Answer gh ijh{kk d{k ls izLFkku djsaA ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk
Sheet to the invigilator. Candidate can carry
their Question Booklet.
iz’u&iqfLrdk ys tk ldrs gSaA
9. There will be no negative marking. 9. fuxsfVo ekfd±x ugha gSA
10. Rough work, if any, should be done on the 10. dksbZ Hkh jQ dk;Z iz’u&iqfLrdk ds vUr esa jQ&dk;Z
blank pages provided for the purpose in the
booklet.
ds fy, fn, [kkyh ist ij gh fd;k tkuk pkfg,A
11. To bring and use of log-book, calculator, 11. ijh{kk&d{k esa ykWx&cqd] dSydqysVj] istj rFkk lsY;qyj
pager and cellular phone in examination hall Qksu ys tkuk rFkk mldk mi;ksx djuk oftZr gSA
is prohibited.
12. In case of any difference found in English 12. iz’u ds fgUnh ,oa vaxszth :ikUrj.k esa fHkUurk gksus dh
and Hindi version of the question, the n’kk esa iz’u dk vaxst
z h :ikUrj.k gh ekU; gksxkA
English version of the question will be held
authentic.
Impt. : On opening the question booklet, first egRoiw.kZ % iz’uiqfLrdk [kksyus ij izFker% tk¡p dj ns[k ysa
check that all the pages of the question fd iz’u&iqfLrdk ds lHkh i`”B HkyhHkk¡fr Nis gq, gSaA
booklet are printed properly. If there is ny ;fn iz’uiqfLrdk esa dksbZ deh gks] rks d{kfujh{kd dks
discrepancy in the question Booklet, then
after showing it to the invigilator, get
fn[kkdj mlh fljht dh nwljh iz’u&iqfLrdk izkIr
another question Booklet of the same series. dj ysaA

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