1. The P2Y12 ADP receptor agonist procedures? 16.

A physician wants to obtain a

assay may be used to monitor platelet a. 1:4 b. 1:5 c. 1:9 d. 1:10 measure of a patient’s iron stores.
aggregation inhibition to which of the Which of the following tests would be
following drugs? 11. Which of the following factors the most suitable?
binds to platelets via the glycoprotein
a. Warfarin b. Heparin a. Serum iron
c. LMWH d. Clopidogrel (Plavix) IIb/IIIa receptor? b. Serum ferritin
a. Von Willebrand factor c. Serum transferrin (TIBC)
2. Which of the following is not b. Factor II d. Transferrin saturation
associated with hereditary c. Fibrinogen
spherocytosis? d. Thrombin 17. Acquired sideroblastic anemia may
a. Increased osmotic fragility be present in all of the following
b. An MCHC greater than 36% 12. The lack of a secondary wave of except:
platelet aggregation in response to ADP
c. Intravascular hemolysis a. Alcoholism
d. Extravascular hemolysis is associated with which of the b. Lead poisoning
following disorders? c. Malabsorption
3. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is a. Bernard-Soulier syndrome d. Myelodysplastic syndromes
characterized by all of the following b. Gray platelet syndrome
except: c. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia 18. Fanconi’s anemia is an inherited
a. Hemorrhage d. ∆-Storage pool disease aplastic anemia with mutations that
b. Thrombocytopenia lead to:
c. Reticulocytopenia 13. Which of the following tests is a. Increased chromosome fragility
helpful in differentiating
d. Hemoglobinuria b. Myelophthisic anemia
fibrinogenolysis from DIC? c. Pancreatic issues
4. Which antibody is associated with a. PT b. aPTT d. RBC enzymatic defects
paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria c. Fibrinogen d. D-Dimer
(PCH)? 19. Which of the following is decreased
a. Anti-I b. Anti-i 14. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia is in cases of intravascular hemolytic
c. Anti-M d. Anti-P best described as a: anemia?
a. Platelet deficiency a. Bilirubin b. Urine hemosiderin
5. An autohemolysis test is positive in b. Deficiency of glycoprotein Ib/IX
c. Haptoglobin d. Plasma hemoglobin
all the following conditions except: c. Deficiency of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
a. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase d. Deficiency of dense granules 20. The majority of hospitalizations
(G6PD) deficiency associated with sickle cell anemia are
b. Hereditary spherocytosis (HS) 15. Which of the following accelerates due to:
c. Pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency the activity of antithrombin? a. Cardiomegaly b. Cholelithiasis
d. Paroxysmal nocturnal a. Coumadin b. Heparin c. Pneumonia d. Vasoocclusion
hemoglobinuria (PNH) c. Aspirin d. tPA

6. Which of the following may be seen

in the peripheral blood smear of a
patient with obstructive liver disease?
a. Schistocytes
b. Macrocytes
c. Howell–Jolly bodies
d. Microcytes
7. Which of the following are most
characteristic of the red cell indices
associated with megaloblastic
anemias?
a. MCV 99 fl, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 31%
b. MCV 62 fL, MCH 27 pg, MCHC 30%
c. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34%
d. MCV 78 fL, MCH 23 pg, MCHC 30%
8. Which of the morphological findings
are characteristic of reactive
lymphocytes?
a. High nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio
b. Prominent nucleoli
c. Basophilic cytoplasm
d. All of these options
9. What would be the most likely
designation by the WHO for the FAB
AML M2 by the French–American–
British classification?
a. AML with t(15;17)
b. AML with mixed lineage
c. AML with t(8;21)
d. AML with inv(16)
10. Which ratio of anticoagulant-to-
blood is correct for coagulation