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QP-Socialscience-10-Practice Paper -1

The document outlines the structure and instructions for a Class 10 Social Science practice paper, consisting of 37 questions divided into six sections: multiple-choice questions, very short answer questions, short answer questions, long answer questions, case-based questions, and a map-based question. Each section has specific guidelines regarding the number of questions, marks, and word limits for answers. The paper emphasizes the importance of following the instructions carefully, including the requirement for all questions to be attempted and the provision of internal choices in some questions.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
12 views

QP-Socialscience-10-Practice Paper -1

The document outlines the structure and instructions for a Class 10 Social Science practice paper, consisting of 37 questions divided into six sections: multiple-choice questions, very short answer questions, short answer questions, long answer questions, case-based questions, and a map-based question. Each section has specific guidelines regarding the number of questions, marks, and word limits for answers. The paper emphasizes the importance of following the instructions carefully, including the requirement for all questions to be attempted and the provision of internal choices in some questions.

Uploaded by

v.tarunshriram
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 10

CHENNAI SAHODAYA SCHOOLS COMPLEX

General Instructions:
 Please check that this question paper contains 10 printed pages.
 Please check that this question paper contains 37 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question before attempting it.
 Reading time of 15 minutes is given to read the question paper alone. No writing during this
time.
 The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
 Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
 Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
 Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
 Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
 Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and
are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
 Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2
marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
 There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
 In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

COMMON EXAMINATION (2023-24)


Class - 10
SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE – 087)
PRACTICE PAPER
Roll No.: Maximum Marks: 80
Date: __/__/____ Time allowed: 3 hours

SECTION A
MCQs (1X20=20)
1 The period 1990 saw the rise of the Coalition Government. Which one of the following 1
options defines Coalition Government?
a. Power sharing among different organs of the government.
b. Power sharing by different communities.
c. Power sharing by two or more political parties.
d. Power sharing within the government at different levels

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2 Which of the following is not the key feature of federalism? 1
a. There are two or more levels of government.
b. The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the
constitution.
c. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level
of government.
d. The central government can pass on orders to the provincial or the local government.

3 Until 18th century, which two countries were considered as the richest in the world? 1
a. China and Japan
b. England and Britain
c. Italy and France
d. India and China
4 Which of the following is an advantage of the local government in India? 1
a. It has deepened the democracy in our country.
b. It has uprooted democracy at the local level in our country.
c. It has failed in conducting the regular elections of local bodies.
d. It has given more power to the local government when compared to the Centre.
5 Find the odd one out from the following options: 1
a. Agriculture, manufacturing, banking
b. Agriculture, dairy, fishing
c. Transport, banking, communication
d. Teachers, lawyers, doctors
6 Which one of the following states has the largest area under permanent forests? 1
a. Bihar b. Kerala c. Madhya Pradesh d. Uttar Pradesh
7 Which of the following statements is not true with regard to democracy? 1
a. In a democracy, the majority and minority opinions are not permanent.
b. In a democracy, it is also necessary that rule by the majority become rule by the majority
community in terms of religion or race or linguistic group.
c. Democracy remains democracy only as long as every citizen has a chance of being in the
majority at some point in time.
d. Democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion
8 Consider these statements about the image given below 1
1. The title of this caricature is “The Club of Thinkers”.
2. The plaque on the left bears the inscription: ‘The most important question of today’s
meeting: How long will thinking be allowed to us?”
3. This was a caricature of a meeting called by Napoleon.
4. This caricature dates back to 1820.

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Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a. only 1 b. only 2 c. Both 1 and 2 d. 1, 2 and 4
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of the
above question
Which one of the following places, in the year 1871, was the head of the German Empire
crowned?
a. Nuremberg Parliament
b. Palace of Versailles
c. Frankfurt parliament
d. Church of St Paul
9 The Indian masses willingly participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement, despite the 1
challenges faced during the Non-Cooperation Movement. Accordingly, which of the
following quotes BEST reflects the outlook of the masses?

a. 'The greatest glory in living lies not in never falling, but in rising every time we fall'
b. 'An eye for an eye only ends up making the whole world blind'
c. 'Injustice anywhere is a threat to justice everywhere'
d. 'Obedience is the key to a peaceful society'

10 In the following question given below there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R) Read the statements and choose the correct option

Assertion (A): Copper is mainly used in electrical cables and electronics industries.
Reason (R): Copper is malleable, ductile and a good conductor.
Options
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true
11 Arrange the following options in the correct sequence and choose the correct option 1

1. Between 1450 and 1550, printing presses were set up in most countries of Europe.
2. Offset press was developed.
3. Gutenberg perfected the system of printing press.
4. China first introduced hand-printing technology into Japan.
Options:
a. 2, 4, 3, 1 b. 4, 3, 1, 2 c. 3, 4, 1, 2 d. 2, 3, 1, 4

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12 Which of the following statements about India as a secular state is incorrect? 1
a. Allows freedom to practice any religion.
b. There is no official religion.
c. Prohibits discrimination on religious grounds.
d. Restricts minorities from contesting elections.
13 Which one of the following industries has received an immense boost after the introduction of 1
the Green Revolution?
a. Automobile Industry c. Textile Industry
b. Chemical Industry d. Fertilizer Industry
14 Which of the following statements will be considered by a political party while forming a
government? 1
Statement i: Representatives of different castes.
Statement ii: Representatives of different tribes.
Statement iii: Representatives of the elite.
Statement iv: Representatives of the Non-residents of Indians
Options:
a. Statements i and ii are right.
b. Statements i, ii and iii are right.
c. Statement iii is right.
d. Only statement iv is right.
15 Name the crop from the following features given. 1

(i) It is a crop which is used both as food and fodder.


(ii) It is a kharif crop which requires temperature between 21°C to 27°C.
a. Rice b. Wheat
c. Maize d. Millets.
16 Read the given data and answer the following question. 1

Identify the country that MOST PROBABLY has a well-developed healthcare

system but lesser average education than India.

a. Sri Lanka

b. Myanmar

c. Pakistan

d. Nepal

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Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of the
above question
What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer?
a. Expansion of rural banking
b. More days of work and better wages
c. Better roads for transportation
d. Establishment of a high school
17 Which of the following statements validates the idea of power sharing? 1
a. Imposing the will of majority community over others
b. Having dominance over government by virtue of majority
c. Consulting only with the majority community for decision making.
d. Ensuring participation of all the citizens, to acquire a stake in the system
18 In the following question given below there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and 1
Reason (R) Read the statements and choose the correct option
Assertion (A) A country that was extremely rich in natural resources has mainly relied on oil
extraction for revenue generation for several centuries. However, the scientists predict that the
country may become poor in the future if other means of income generation are not devised.
Reason (R) Oil is a non-renewable resource, and it is likely to get exhausted if not used

judiciously.

Options

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true
19 Rahul has a sack of cotton but he is in need of wheat and Anush has a sack of wheat and is in 1
need of cotton, under this situation both will be able to exchange their goods. In case of
absence of such coincidence of wants, they may not exchange their goods. Which one of the
following would be the best option that describes the mutual exchange of goods and eliminate
the exchange of goods?

Options:
a. Double coincidence of want, Loan on commodity
b. Double Coincidence of want, Credit on Commodity
c. Double coincidence of want, Exchanging commodity for commodity
d. Double coincidence of want, Exchanging money for commodity

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20 Identify the political party using the given picture – 1

a. Nationalist Congress Party


b. Indian National Congress
c. Bharatiya Janata Party
d. All India Trinamool Congress
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of the
above question

Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?


LIST I LIST II
A. Bharatiya Janata Party National Democratic Alliance
B. Congress Party Left front
C. Communist Party of India Regional Party
D Mizo National Front National Party

SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (24=8)
21 Provide evidence to support the claim that print culture had a significant impact on the social 2
lives of women in India.
OR
How did the scientists and philosophers in the 18th century Europe find it easier to reach out
to people? Explain.
22 Describe the three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union government and 2
State governments.

23 2

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What is the cartoon trying to depict? Explain.
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of the
above question
“Gender division is not based on Biology but on social expectations and stereotypes’. Support
the statement with suitable arguments.

24 “What may be development for one may not be development for the other.” Justify the 2
statement with suitable examples.

SECTION C

SHORT ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (3x5=15)

25 Suggest and explain any three ways to reform Political Parties in India. 3

26 “Whether credit would be useful or not, depends upon the situation”. Support this statement 3
with two different examples.

OR

A farmer has borrowed money from a money lender at a high rate of interest, as he could not
pay the interest; he was forced to borrow from another landlord to settle the amount for the
interest borrowed to the money lender. State the consequences he may face in this situation.
Suggest some measures to solve his problem.

27 List down any three features of the civil code of 1804 usually known as Napoleonic code. 3

28 “Wheat and rice farming in India is fairly different from each other.” Support the statement 3
with suitable illustrations.

29 How do MNCs set up production across nations? 3

SECTION D

LONG ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (5X4=20)

30 How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups develop a 5
sense of collective belonging in the nineteenth century India? Explain.

OR

Explain the meaning and notion of ‘Swaraj’ as perceived by the plantation workers. How did
they respond to the call of ‘the Non-Cooperation movement’?

31 Minerals occur in various forms". Support this statement with examples. 5


OR
“Non-conventional resources are the best option to conserve the natural resources”
Substantiate this statement with examples.

32 “A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of 5


democracy”. Justify the statement.

Page 7 of 10
OR
Why is democracy considered much superior to any other form of government in promoting
dignity and freedom of the individuals? Give any three reasons.
33 Workers are exploited in the unorganized sector. Do you agree with this view? Give reasons 5
in support of your answer.
OR
Explain the reasons for the rising importance of the tertiary sector in India.

SECTION E

CASE-BASED QUESTIONS ( 4X3=12)

34 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:

Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of
conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and
society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family –should
be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-
revolutionary days. Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that
modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could
make state power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a
dynamic economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic
monarchies of Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively
defeated Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was
hosted by the Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of
Vienna of 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe
during the Napoleonic wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the
French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under
Napoleon. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French
expansion in future.

34.1 Define ‘Conservatism’. 1

34.2 What was the purpose behind convening the Congress of Vienna in 1815? 1

34.3 Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary 2
days. Why?
35 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:

Let us consider another situation where water is sufficiently available to meet the needs of the
people, but, the area still suffers from water scarcity. This scarcity may be due to bad quality
of water. Lately, there has been a growing concern that even if there is ample water to meet
the needs of the people, much of it may be polluted by domestic and industrial wastes,
chemicals, pesticides and fertilisers used in agriculture, thus, making it hazardous for human
use. Government of India has accorded highest priority to improve the quality of life and
enhance ease of living of people especially those living in rural areas by announcing the Jal

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Jeevan Mission (JJM). The Goal of JJM is to enable every rural household get assured supply
of potable piped water at a service level of 55 litres per capita per day regularly on long-term
basis by ensuring functionality of the tap water connections.

35.1 Mention any two quantitative reasons for water scarcity. 1

35.2 India’s rivers, especially the smaller ones, have all turned into toxic streams. Give reasons. 1

35.3 Explain the goal of Jal Jeevan Mission. 2

36 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:

For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important
attributes. Countries with higher income are more developed than others with less income.
This is based on the understanding that more income means more of all things that human
beings need. Whatever people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater
income. So, greater income itself is considered to be one important goal. However, for
comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries
have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is
likely to earn. Are people in one country better off than others in a different country? Hence,
we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total
population. The average income is also called per capita income.

36.1 Why is the total income of countries not used to make comparisons between them? 1

36.2 What is average income or per capita income? 1

36.3 In what respect, is the criterion used by the UNDP for measuring development different from 2
the one used by the World Bank?

SECTION F

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)

37a Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and 2
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

A The Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920.


B The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke Salt Law.
37b On the same outline political map of India locate and label any 3 of the following with
suitable symbols.
3
i. A Nuclear Power Plant in Tamil Nādu
ii. A dam built on river Narmada in India.
iii. A major seaport located at Odisha
iv. Pune software technology park

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Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 37 a & b.
37 a.
i. Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in September
1920.
ii. Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi Broke the salt law.
Answer any 3 of the following.
37. b.
i. Name the Nuclear Power Plant in Tamil Nadu
ii. Name the dam built on the river Narmada.
iii. Name a major seaport located at Odisha.
iv. Mention the state where Pune software technology park is located.
** End of Paper **

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