X Pre Board Examinations Social Science

PRE BOARD - 1 EXAMINATION

Class: X MARKING SCHEME Maximum Marks: 80
Subject: Social Science (087) SET - A Time Allotted: 3 Hours

General Instructions :
i) Question paper comprises six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii) Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii) Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv) Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
v) Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi) Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each.
vii) Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from
History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix) A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions
having visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired
students only. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.

SECTION A
MCQs (1M × 20 = 20M)
1. Why did the pre-modern world shrank greatly in the sixteenth century? 1
A) The Portuguese and Spanish conquered and colonised the parts of America.
B) The vast lands and abundant crops and minerals of America began to transform trade and lives
everywhere.
C) European sailors found a sea route to Asia and also successfully crossed the western ocean to
America.
D) China and India were among the world’s richest countries. They were also pre-eminent in
Asian trade.
Ans. C

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2. Interpret the following pie diagrams of ‘General land use categories: 1960-61 and 2014-15’
and choose the correct option for the following question? 1

Find out why the net sown area and the land under forests have changed from 1960-61 to
2014-15 very marginally.
i) The post-independence era demand for more land to expand agriculture, mainly after Green
Revolution.
ii) Planting of shelter belts of plants, control on over grazing, stabilisation of sand dunes by
growing thorny bushes are some of the methods decreased the netsown area.
iii) Expansion of developmental works and infrastructural facilities, led to clearance of forests
areas.
iv) The policy of deindustrialization and urbanization also decreased the forest area during the
colonial rule.
Choose the correct option from the following. 1
A) (i), (ii) are correct and (iii), (iv) are incorrect
B) (i), (iii) are correct and (ii), (iv) are incorrect
C) (iii), (iv) are correct and (i), (ii) are incorrect
D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Ans. B
3. Read the following table about ‘Swapna’ and answer the question that follows.
Why did she need credit? To meet the expenses of cultivation.
What was the risk? Failure of crop due to either poor rainfall (climate problem) or
attack on the crop by pests.

Identify the outcome associated with the need and risk involved in the above case. 1
A) Pesticides will reduce or eliminate the attack by pests.
B) Good rainfall will eliminate the risk due to climate.
C) The harvest on the crop helped her to repay the loan.
D) She pays high interest rate to the money lender and has to sell a part of the land to pay off
the debt.
Ans. D
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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
4. Match list I and II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: 1
List I List II
1. Bajra a. Grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils.
2. Tea b. Grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil.
3. Maize c. Grows well in old alluvial soil.
4. Ragi d. Grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep
and fertile well-drained soil.
A) 1 - (a), 2 - (b), 3 - (d), 4 - (c) B) 1 - (b), 2 - (d), 3 - (c), 4 - (a)
C) 1 - (a), 2 - (b), 3 - (c), 4 - (d) D) 1 - (b), 2 - (d), 3 - (a), 4 - (c)
Ans. B
5. Every litre of waste water discharged by our industry pollutes eight times the quantity of freshwater.
Identify the correct information related to reduce the industrial pollution of fresh water.1
A) Particulate matter can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks to factories with electrostatic
precipitators, fabric filters,scrubbers and inertial separators.
B) Almost all machinery can be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise.
Noise absorbing material may be used apart from personal use of earplugs and earphones.
C) Treatment by mechanical, biological, chemical and physical processes which involves
screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation, and recycling of wastewater
D) Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories. Machinery and
equipment can be used and generators should be fitted with silencers.
Ans. C
6. Assertion (A) : Scandinavian countries, such as Sweden, Norway and Finland, the participation
of women in public life is very high. In our country, women still lag much
behind men despite some improvement since Independence. 1
Reason (R) : The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha has touched 14.36
per cent of its total strength for the first time in 2019.
A) Assertion is false and reason is true.
B) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Ans. B
7. Observe the cartoon about “The rise of money and muscle power - Threat to democracy”.

Identify the measures introduced by the Supreme Court of India to tackle this issue. 1
i) The candidates must file an affidavit of their personal ideology.
ii) The candidates must file an affidavit of their criminal record.
iii) The candidates must file an affidavit of their educational qualifications.
iv) The candidates must file an affidavit of their property assets.
A) i and ii B) Only ii C) ii, iii and iv D) ii and iv
Ans. D
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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
8. A news magazine published for London readers is to be designed and printed in Delhi. The text of
the magazine is sent through Internet to the Delhi office. The designers in the Delhi office get
orders on how to design the magazine from the office in London. After printing, the magazines are
sent by air to London. the payment of money for designing and printing from a bank in London to
a bank in Delhi is done.
Which of the below given option plays a major role in the given context. 1
A) Using IT in Globalisation
B) Using transport technology in Globalisation
C) Using telecommunication technology in Globalisation
D) None of the above
Ans. A
9. Consider the cartoon about ‘Poor Kids’.

“Arguments about democracy tend to be very passionate.” Which of the statements about
the economic outcomes of democracy are correct. 1
i) Economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation,
cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc.
ii) An average dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record of economic growth.
iii) But when we compare their record only in poor countries, there is virtually no difference.
iv) Overall, we cannot say that democracy is a guarantee of economic development.
A) i and ii B) ii and iii C) i, ii and iii D) i, ii, iii and iv
Ans. D
10. Which of the following factors significantly contribute to the process of globalisation? 1
i) Rapid improvement in transportation and communication technology.
ii) Movement of the people from one country to another in search of better income, better jobs
or better education.
iii) Expansion of Multinational Corporations.
iv) The liberalisation of trade restrictions and foreign investment.
Choose the correct option:
A) Statements (i), (iii) and (iv) are relevant. B) Statements (ii), (iii) (iv) are relevant.
C) Statements (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) are relevant. D) Statements (i) and (iv) are relevant.
Ans. A
11. Assertion (A) : Communalism involve religious prejudices, stereotypes of religious communities
and belief in the superiority of one’s religion over other religions. 1
Reason (R) : A communal mind often leads to a quest for political dominance of one’s own
religious community.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true
Ans. A

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
12. Consider the following image and information about ‘Jikji’ of Korea.

i) The Jikji of Korea is among the world’s oldest existing books printed with movable metal
type.
ii) It was printed in late 14th century.
iii) This work marked an important technical change in the print culture.
The essential features printed in Jikji from which school of Bhuddism? 1
A) Theravada Bhuddism B) Mahayana Bhuddism
C) Tantric Bhuddism D) Zen Bhuddism
Ans. D
13. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order and choose the correct
option. 1
I) An active coastal trade linked the Indus valley civilisations with present-day West Asia. (As
early as 3000 BCE)
II) The Portuguese and Spanish conquered the areas of Americal and made them their colonies.
(mid-sixteenth century)
III) During the Great Irish Potato Famine, around 1,000,000 people died of starvation in Ireland,
and double the number emigrated in search of work. (1845 to 1849)
IV) Many of our common foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies,
sweet potatoes were introduced in Europe and Asia after Christopher Columbus accidentally
discovered the vast continent. (1492)
A) I - IV - III - II B) I - IV - II - III C) I - II - IV - III D) I - III - II - IV
Ans. B
14. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as
members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative
has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members.
For which of the below given purposes Krishak Cooperative provide loans? 1
A) To meet the daily expenses.
B) For the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery
loans.
C) Holiday or Family tour loans.
D) Expenses on sudden illnesses or functions in the family.
Ans. B

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15. Identify the person by considering the information:

• She was a Bengali woman who is identified as the author of first full-fledged autobiography
in modern Bengali literature.
• She secretly studied the alphabet from her family member's books in the flickering light of
candles at night.
• In 1876, her autobiography ‘My Life’ was published. The book is in two parts, the first of
which, consisting of sixteen shorter compositions narrated her autobiography. The second
part, published in 1906, contained fifteen shorter compositions, each preceded by a dedicatory
poem.
Select the appropriate option from the following. 1
A) Krishnabhabini Das B) Pandita Ramabai
C) Kailashbashini Debi D) Rashsundari Debi
Ans. D
16. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. 1
Column I Column II
(Challenges to Political Parties) (Issue)
i) Lack of Internal Democracy a) Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties
tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of
the party.
ii) Dynastic Succession b) The leaders as sume greater power to make decisions in
the name of the party. Since one or few leaders exercise
paramount power in the party.
iii) Money and Muscle Power c) People cannot even elect very different leaders either,
because the same set of leaders keep shifting from one
party to another.
iv) No Meaingful Choice d) People who do not have adequate experience or popular
support come to occupy positions of power.

Options:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A) b d a c
B) b d c a
C) b a d c
D) b c a d
Ans. A

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
17. “People living in democracies expect that the system should produce a harmonious social life.
Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility
of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.”
Which of the below given statement supports the given context. 1
A) Democracies can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups.
B) Dictatorships can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups.
C) No regime or society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups.
D) All governments in the world can relsove all kinds of conflicts among the people.
Ans. C
18. “Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is what is known as liberalisation.”
This does not happen when liberalisation of trade takes place 1
A) Businesses are allowed to make decisions freely.
B) Businesses are free to import or export on their wish.
C) Government imposes much less restrictions than before.
D) Government imposes more restriction on trade.
Ans. D
19. Consider the picture.

Which of the below given statements explains the best about ‘DEMOCRACY’ with regard
to the above given picture. 1
A) Democratic government develops mechanisms for citizens to hold the government accountable
and mechanisms for citizens to take part in decision making whenever they think fit.
B) Democracy is often described as a system that recognizes and attempts to balance the various
interests, demands, and pressures within a society.
C) Democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the
possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.
D) The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy. Democracies throughout
the world have recognised this, at least in principle.
Ans. B

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
20. Mr. X has taken credit to make candles during the festive season. Choose the correct options
that defines the importance of credit from the given options: 1
i) It plays a vital and positive role in meeting his target and accelerating his income.
ii) The credit helps him to meet the ongoing expenses of production.
iii) The credit helps him complete the production on time.
iv) It helps him in exercising restraint and get into the habit of taking more credit.
A) Only (iv) B) (iii) and (iv) C) (i), (ii) and (iii) D) Only (ii)
Ans. C

SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2M × 4 = 8M)
21. Write any two features of laterite soil. 2
A. i) The laterite soil develops under tropical and subtropical climate with alternate wet and dry
season.
ii) This soil is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain.
iii) Lateritic soils are mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH<6.0), generally deficient in plant nutrients
22. “Until the nineteenth century, poverty and hunger were common in Europe.” Analyse the
statement. 2
A. i) Cities were crowded and deadly diseases were widespread.
ii) Religious conflicts were common, and religious dissenters were persecuted.
iii) Thousands therefore fled Europe for America. Here, by the eighteenth century, plantations
worked by slaves captured in Africa were growing cotton and sugar for European markets.
OR
What was the powerful weapons were used by the Spanish Conquerors to colonise America
during mid 17th century?
A. i) The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors was not a conventional military weapon
but it was the germs like smallpox that they carried on their person.
ii) Because of their long isolation, America’s original inhabitants had no immunity against
these diseases that came from Europe.
iii) Smallpox in particular proved a deadly killer.
23. Explain the role of Election Commission regarding recognition of Political Parties in India.2
A. The Election Commission has laid down detailed criteria of the proportion of votes and seats that
a party must get in order to be a recognised party.
i) A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative
Assembly of a State and wins at least two seats is recognised as a State party.
ii) A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly
elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a
national party.
24. The Indian government, after independence, has put many such barriers on foreign trade
and foreign investment.” Why was this considered necessary? 2
A. i) To protect the producers within the country from foreign competition : Industries were
just coming up in the 1950s and the 1960s’ and competition from imports at that stage
would not have allowed these industries to come up. Thus, India allowed imports of only
essential items such as machinery fertilisers, etc.
ii) To establish basic industries : Some restrictions were levied to provide boost to basic
industries like iron and steel.
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SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3M × 5 = 15M)

25. “Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand “. Explain the statement in the
light of silk route. 3
A. i) The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between
distant parts of the world.
ii) The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes along
this route.
iii) Precious metals gold and silver flowed from Europe to Asia. Chinese potteries, textiles from
China and spices from India were traded. Various food items offer very good examples of
long distance cultural exchanges.
iv) Christian missionaries, Muslim preachers and Buddhist monks travelled through this route.
26. “Democracy ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.”
Analyse the statement with examples. 3
A. Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored. Because
i) Democratic government is legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient, not always
very responsive or clean.
ii) A democratic government is people’s own government. That is why, there is an overwhelming
support for the idea of democracy all over the world.
iii) People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them. They also believe that democracy
is suitable for their country.
27. Study the given flowchart and answer the questions that follow : 3

1. Which is the basic material required for garment manufacturing?

A. i) High-quality fabrics, textiles, buttons, and zippers are essential. Ensure these materials
from reliable suppliers.
ii) The process of manufacturing includes designing, pattern making, sampling, cutting,
sewing, and finishing. Understanding each stage is crucial for smooth operation.
2. Give one example of value addition in the textile industry.
A. i) One example of value addition in textile industry is the use of advanced dyeing
techniques and technologies to create unique and customized fabric designs.
ii) This adds value to the basic textile material and allows textile companies to differentiate
themselves from competitors and charge a premium for their products.
28. Analyse the role of political parties in shaping public opinion. 3
A. i) They raise and highlight issues. Parties have lakhs of members and activists spread all over
the country.
ii) Many of the pressure groups are the extensions of political parties among different sections
of society.
iii) Parties sometimes also launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people.
iv) Often opinions in the society crystallise on the lines parties take.

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations

29. Study the following picture / cartoon and answer the question that follow: 3

"Be careful! That’s our world you are playing with! Some day you’ll have to pay a price!”
How would you prioritize the facts behind this warning?
A. i) This indicates that Globalisation is a process of earning huge profit by the MNCs. The main
motive the MNCs to earn huge profit. To ac hieve this motive, these MNCs exploit the
resources of earth without caring environment.
ii) MNCs put pressure on the governments of the develop ing countries to mend their policies
according to them.
iii) Some critics said globalisation is a form of neo-colonialism .
iv) The manufacturing units of the MNCs are the major cause of spreading pollution in the
environment.
v) Globalisation widens the gap between rich and poor. One day all the effects of globalisation
bring disa ster in the world. The people of the whole world will suffer from it.
OR
“Technology is the vital force in the modern form of globalisation.” Explain the statement
with suitable example.
A. i) Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the
globalisation process. For instance, the past fifty years have seen several improvements in
transportation technology. This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances
possible at lower costs.
ii) In recent times, technology in the areas of telecommunications, computers, Internet has
been changing rapidly.
iii) Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones, fax) are used
to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate
from remote areas.

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SECTION - D
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5M × 4 = 20M)

30. “Promotion of energy conservation is important plank of sustainable energy.” Explain the
statement with examples. 5
A. Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy,
agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic, needs inputs of energy.
i) The economic development plans implemented since Independence necessarily required
increasing amounts of energy to remain operational.
ii) As a result, consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily rising all over the country.
iii) We gate energy from natural resources like coal , Petroleum etc. But now a days due to
heavy use of these natural resources they became limited and go on decreasing .
iv) They may even disappear in the near future. Because they are non renewable resources and
requires 1000 years for their production.
v) In this background, there is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy
development.
vi) Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the
twin planks of sustainable energy.
So we have to minimise the use of these products and store them for our next generations.
vi) The scientists say that the renewable energy is the best alternative source to maintain our
energy requirements. These sources are water energy, Air energy and solar energy.
These resources are present in the earth in large amount and these are renewable resources .
(Any Five Releavant Points)
OR
Explain the various forms in which minerals occur.
A. Rocks are combinations of homogenous substances called minerals. Some rocks, for instance
limestone, consist of a single mineral only, but majority of the rock consist of several minerals in
varying proportions.
i) Minerals in Igneous and Metamorphic Rocks: In igneous and metamorphic rocks, the
minerals are found in crevices, faults or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and
the larger ones are called as lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid /
molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface.
They cool and solidify as they rise. Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc, lead, etc.
are obtained from veins and lodes.
ii) Minerals in Decomposed Rocks: Another mode of formation involves the decomposition
of surface rocks and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered
material containing ores. Bauxite is formed in this way.
iii) Minerals in Alluvial Deposits: Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of
valley floors and the base of hills. These deposits are called ‘placer deposits’, and generally
contain minerals, which are not corroded by water. Gold, silver, tin and platinum are most
important among such minerals.
iv) Minerals in Sedimentary Rocks: In sedimentary rocks, a number of minerals occur in
beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and
concentration in horizontal strata. Coal and some forms of iron ore have been concentrated
as a result of long periods under great heat and pressure. Another group of sedimentary
minerals include gypsum, potash, salt and sodium salt. These are formed as a result of
evaporation, especially in arid regions.

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations

31. ‘‘Issues of caste discrimination began to be written about in many printed tracts and essays
in India in the late nineteenth century.’’ Support the statement with two suitable examples.
5
A. Public libraries: The print reached to the poor in the 19th century. Publishers started producing
small and cheap books. These books were sold at crossroads. Public libraries were set up by the
Christian missionaries and the rich people.
Highlighting the issue of class discrimination: From the late 19th century, many writers started
writing about the issue of class distinction.
i) Jyotiba Phule was a social reformer. He wrote about the poor condition of “low caste”. In
his book Gulamgiri (1871). he wrote about the injustices of the caste system.
ii) In the 20th century, B.R. Ambedkar also wrote powerfully against the caste system. He also
wrote against untouchability.
iii) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, also known as Periyar too wrote about the caste system prevailing
in Madras (Chennai).
The writings of these writers were read by people all over India. Local protest movements and
sects also created a lot of popular journals and tracts criticising ancient scriptures with a view of
creating new and just future.
Poor workers and the print:
i) Workers in factories were too overworked, and thus, lacked the education to write about
their expectations and experiences. But Keshibaba, a Kanpur mill worker, wrote and
published Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal in 1938 to depict the links between caste and class
exploitation.
ii) The poems of another Kanpur mill worker, who wrote under the name of Sudarshan Chakra
between 1935 and 1955 were brought together, and published in a collection called Sacchi
Kauitayain.
iii) By the 1930s, Bangalore cotton mill workers set up libraries to educate themselves. By
doing so, they were following the example of Bombay workers.
iv) These libraries were sponsored by social reformers who tried to restrict excessive drinking
among the poor, to bring literacy and sometimes, to propagate the message of nationalism.
OR
What did the spread of print culture in the 19th century Europe mean to:
a) Women b) Workers.
A. Women:
i) Women as readers: Lives and feelings of women began to be written in intense ways. So
women became important as readers. Penny magazines were especially meant for women,
as were manuals teaching proper behaviour and housekeeping.
ii) Women as writers: Many women novelist like Jane Austin, Bronte Sisters, George Eliot
wrote about women. Novels and other journals began exploring the world of women - their
emotions, identities, their experiences and problems. The writings of women became
important in defining a new type of women - a person with will, strength of personality,
determination and the power to think.
iii) Novels and books on women: As the readership of women was increasing publishers started
producing novels and journals for women. Many journals began carrying writings by women,
and explained why women should be educated.
Workers:
i) Lending Libraries: Lending libraries had been in existence from the seventeenth century

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onwards. In the nineteenth century, lending libraries in England became instruments for
educating the white-collar workers, artisans and lower-middle-class people.
ii) Autobiographies: Sometimes, self-educated working class people wrote for themselves. After
the working day was gradually shortened from the mid-nineteenth century, workers had
some time for self-improvement and self-expression. They wrote political tracts and
autobiographies in large numbers.
iii) Novels on the lives of the workers: In the 19th century, Europe entered the industrial age.
Factories came up, profits increased and the economy grew. But at the same time, workers
faced problems of unemployment, low wages, poor working conditions. Many novelists
such as Charles Dickens and Thomas Hardy wrote about the adverse impact of
industrialisation on the lives of workers.
32. Describe the different ways through which women face discrimination and oppression in
India. 5
A. In our country women still lag much behind men despite some improvements since Independence.
Women face disadvantage discrimination and oppression in various ways:
i) The literacy rate among women is only 54 percent as compared with 76 percent among
men.
ii) Similarly a smaller proportion of girl student go for higher studies. Girls are performing as
well as boys in school. But they drop out because parents prefer to spend their resources for
their boys education rather than spending equally on their sons and daughters.
iii) The proportion of if women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very small. On an
average an Indian woman works one hour more than an average man everyday.
iv) The Equal Wages Act provides that equal wages should be paid to equal work. However in
almost all areas of work from sports and cinema to factories and fields women are paid less
than men/ even when both do exactly the same work.
v) In many parts of India parents prefer to have sons and find ways to have the girl child
aborted before she is born. Such sex-selective abortion led to a decline in child sex ratio.
vi) Woman face harassment exploitation and violence on the domestic front.
OR
What is communalism ? What are the major beliefs of communal people ?
A. Communalism is a situation when a particular community tries to promote its own interest at the
cost of other communities.
Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community.
Communalism involves thinking along the following lines:
i) The followers of a particular religion must belong to one community.
ii) Their fundamental interests should be the same. Any difference that they may have is
irrelevant or trivial for community life.
iii) Communalism also follows that people who follow different religions cannot belong to the
same social community. If the followers of different religions have some commonalities,
these are superficial and immaterial. Their interests are bound to be different and involve a
conflict.
iv) Sometimes, communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to different religions
cannot live as equal citizens within one nation. Either one of them has to dominate the rest,
or they have to form different nations.

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33. Why is it necessary for banks and co-operatives to extend their lending activities in rural
areas? Explain. 5
A. i) Most loans from informal lenders carry a very high interest rate and do little to increase the
income of the borrowers.
ii) Hence it is necessary that banks and cooperatives increase their lending particularly in the
rural areas so that the dependence on informal sources of credit reduces.
iii) While formal sector loans need to expand it is also necessary that everyone receives these
loans.
iv) At present it is the richer households who receive formal credit whereas the poor have to
depend on the informal sources.
v) So it is important that the formal credit is distributed more equally so that the poor can
benefit from the cheaper loans.
OR
Study the given pie charts carefully, and answer the questions that follow.

i) What percentage of the loans are taken from informal sources by the poor households
in urban areas? 1
A. 54 per cent of the loans taken by poor households in the urban areas are from informal
sources.
ii) Which category of urban households take the highest percentage of loan from the
formal sector? Why? 2
A. i) Wealthy households ake the highest percentage of loan from the formal sector in urban
areas.
ii) Compared to unofficial sources of lending, loans have lower interest rates. Because
wealthier households are better able to provide collateral and other necessary
documentation that banks and co-operatives require, the share of formal sector credit
is higher for wealthy households.
iii) Why do you think that the share of formal sector credit is higher for the richer
households compared to the poorer households? 2
A. i) Formal sources of credit in India need to be expanded for the development of the
nation. Increase in cheap and affordable credit for poor households is a necessity for
the development of the nation.
ii) It will increase the income and savings of the poor households. Helps in enhancement
of the purchasing power of the poor, also increase the ability of them to invest more
and more in the markets.
iii) A strong vicious cycle been created which helps in economic growth rate of the
economy.

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SECTION E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4M × 3 = 12M)

34 Read the following source and answer the questions that follow.
Printed Words
This is how Mercier describes the impact of the printed word, and the power of reading in one of
his books : ‘Anyone who had seen me reading would have compared me to a man dying of thirst
who was gulping down some fresh, pure water.... Lighting my lamp with extraordinary caution, I
threw myself hungrily into the reading. An easy eloquence, effortless and animated, carried me
from one page to the next without my noticing it. A clock struck off the hours in the silence of the
shadows, and I heard nothing. My lamp began to run out of oil and produced only a pale light, but
still I read on. I could not even take out time to raise the wick for fear of interrupting my pleasure.
How those new ideas rushed into my brain! How my intelligence adopted them! ’
34.1 How does the passage reflect the immersive nature of reading of Mercier? [1]
A. The passage highlights Mercier's immersive nature of reading through its emphasis on the
deep emotional and intellectual engagement that reading evokes in him.
34.2 Why did Mercier describe himself as a virtual writer? [1]
A. Mercier described himself as a virtual writer because he vividly imagined and internalized
the content he read, as if he was experiencing it firsthand. The ideas from the books became
a part of his own thinking and understanding.
34.3 How did reading influence Mercier’s intellectual capacity and his engagement with
new concepts ? Explain in any two points. [2]
A. i) Through reading, Mercier encountered a diverse range of ideas, perspectives, and
viewpoints that expanded his intellectual horizons.
ii) He engaged with a variety of topics, genres, and authors, gaining insights into different
cultures, historical periods, and philosophical schools of thought.
35. Read the given extract and answer following questions: 4
The physical diversities and plurality of cultures in India are also reflected in agricultural practices
and cropping patterns in the country. Various types of food and fibre crops, vegetables and fruits,
spices and condiments, etc. constitute some of the important crops grown in the country. India has
three cropping seasons — rabi, kharif and zaid.
35.1 What helps in success of rabi season crops grown in the states of north and north-
western parts of India? [1]
A. Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones
helps in the success of these crops in the states of north and north-western parts of India.
35.2 Name the three crops of paddy grown in a year in states like Assam, West Bengal and
Odisha. [1]
A. Aus, Aman and Boro.
35.3 Write the period of kharif crop season. Mention the important crops grown during
this season. [2]
A. i) Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and
these are harvested in September-October.
ii) Important crops grown during this season are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar),
moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean.

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
36. Read the given extract and answer following questions. 4
Loans from Cooperatives
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies
(or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas.
There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives
and industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far
away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits rom its members. With
these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds
are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can
take place.
36.1 ‘Cooperative society’ is an example of which souce of ‘credit’? [1]
A. ‘Cooperative society’ is an example of a formal sector credit.
36.2 Explain the contribution of Cooperative Societies in rural development. [1]
A. i) The primary purpose of cooperatives in rural development is to empower communities
economically and socially.
ii) Cooperatives achieve this by promoting collective action, shared ownership, and
democratic decision-making to address various challenges faced by rural populations.
36.3 Mention any two sources of capital for Self-Help Groups. [2]
A. i) Member Contribtions: Members of the self-help group pool their savings and
contribute funds to the group's collective savings account. ...
ii) Bank Loans: Self-help groups can also access capital through loans from formal
financial institutions such as banks or microfinance institutions.

SECTION F
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)
37. a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 2
A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920.
B) The place where the most infamous Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.
b. On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with
suitable Symbols. 3
a) Sardar Sarovar Dam - The Largest water conservation project of India.
b) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport.
c) Talcher - A coal mine located in the state of Odisha.
d) Salem - Iron and Steel Plant in the state of Tamil Nadu.
Note:The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No.37.
Attempt any FIVE questions.
37.1 The place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920. 1
37.2 The place where the most infamous Jallianwalabagh incident took place. 1
37.3 The Largest water conservation project of India. 1
37.4 An International Airport in Punjab 1
37.5 A coal mine located in the state of Odisha. 1
37.6 An Iron and Steel Plant in the state of Tamil Nadu. 1

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science

For the Question No 37

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science

PRE BOARD - 1 EXAMINATION

Class: X MARKING SCHEME Maximum Marks: 80
Subject: Social Science (087) SET - B Time Allotted: 3 Hours

General Instructions :
i) Question paper comprises six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii) Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii) Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv) Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
v) Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi) Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each.
vii) Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from
History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix) A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions
having visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired
students only. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.
SECTION A
MCQs (1M × 20=20)
1. In which of the following states overgrazing is responsible for land degradation? [B ]
A) Jharkhand and Orissa B) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
C) Punjab and Haryana D) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
2. Which of the following is true with reference to the climatic and soil conditions required for
the cultivation of sugarcane? [A ]
i) It grows well in hot and humid climate
ii) It needs temperature of 21°C - 27°C
iii) It can be grown on variety of soils
iv) It needs an annual rainfall between 100-200 cm
A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) B) Only (ii) and (iii)
C) Only (iii) and (iv) D) All the above
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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
3. Two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read the statements and
choose the correct option given below. [A ]
Assertion (A) : Most of the jute mills are located in West Bengal, mainly along the banks of the
Hugli river, in a narrow belt.
Reason (R) : After Partition in 1947, the jute mills remained in India but three-fourth of the
jute producing area went to Bangladesh.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) Both assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C) Assertion is true but Reason is false
D) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
4. Which of the following statement regarding silk route is not correct? [C ]
A) The name 'silk routes' points to the importance of West-bound Chinese silk cargoes.
B) Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia travelled through the route.
C) Silk route is used for conquering Nations.
D) Through silk route precious metals - gold and silver - flowed from Europe to Asia.
5. Consider the statements related to "Food Travels" and identify the correct ones. [D ]
Statement I : Food offers many examples of long-distance cultural exchange.
Statement II : Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the lands they travelled. Even
'ready' foodstuff in distant parts of the world might share common origins.
A) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
B) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
6. MATCH THE FOLLOWING.
Column A Column B [C ]
a) Balgangadhar Tilak i) Kashibaba
b) Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal ii) Sacchi Kavitayan
c) SudarshanChakr iii) Amar Jiban
d) Jyotiba Phule iv) Gulamgiri
e) Rashsundari Debi v) Kesari
a b c d e
A) v iv iii i ii
B) iv ii iv iii i
C) v i ii iv iii
D) v iii ii iv i
7. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option. [B ]
I. Rammohun Roy published the Sambad Kaumudi.
II. Marco Polo brought the knowledge of producing books with woodblocks to Europe.
III. Johann Gutenberg developed the printing press.
IV. The first Japanese book 'The Diamond Sutra' was printed.
Options:
A) I-II-III-IV B) IV-II-III-I C) IV-II-I-III D) III-IV-II-I

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
8. In 2023, Nari shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Womens' Reservation Act, 2023) has been passed
which will give 33 percent reservation of seats for women. Choose the options where this
reservation will not be applicable? [C ]
I) Lok Sabha II) Rajya Sabha
III) State Legislative Assemblies IV) Delhi Assembly
Options:
A) I, and II B) II, and III C) Only II D) III, IV and I
9. Which of the following is not a reason that lead to the breakdown of caste hierarchy?
A) Large-scale urbanisation B) Land Reforms [B ]
C) Occupational mobility D) Growth of literacy and education
10. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? [B ]

A) Rashtriya Janata Dal (RJD) -

B) Shiromani Akali Dal -

C) Telugu Desam Party -

D) Shiv Sena -

11. 'The party wants to build a strong and modern India by drawing inspiration from India's
ancient culture and values.' Identify the party. [A ]
A) Bharatiya Janata Party B) Bahujan Samaj Party
C) Communist Party of India Marxist D) Indian National Congress
12. Why there is a delay in decision-making and implementation in a democracy? [C ]
Choose the correct option from the following.
A) The government is afraid of taking decisions
B) The government is hesitant in taking decisions
C) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation
D) A democratic government is not interested in taking quick decisions
13. ‘Democratic government is a legitimate government.’ Which of the following is true with
reference to this. [B ]
A) It accommodates social diversities
B) It is people’s own government elected by the people
C) It leads to peaceful harmonious life
D) It gives equal chances in employment to all the people
14. Economic development of a country depends upon several factors. Which of the following
is/are not a factor? [C ]
a) Size of the population of the country b) Territory or area of the country
c) Global scenario or situation d) Co-operation from other countries
A) a and b B) b and c C) Only b D) a, b, c and d

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
15. Look at the given image. The work done in the image comes under which one of the following
sectors? [D ]

A) Organized sector B) Primary sector C) Public sector D) Unorganized sector

16. Two statements as Statement I and Statement II are given below. Read the statements and
choose the correct option given below. [A ]
Statement I : Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns (such as land, building, vehicle,
deposits with banks) and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is
repaid.
Statement II : If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or
collateral to obtain payment.
A) Both the Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I
B) Both the Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
17. MATCH THE FOLLOWING. [D ]
Column A Column B
a) Collateral i) Positive and negative impact
b) Formal sector ii) To sell part of land
c) Informal sector iii) Urban household
d) Credit iv) Lack of collateral
e) Deb trap v) Vehicle
a b c d e
A) v iv iii i ii
B) iv ii iv iii i
C) v i ii iv iii
D) v iii iv i ii
18. One major factor that has stimulated the globalisation process is ............... [C ]
A) Effective utilisation of resources B) Increase in income and wealth
C) Rapid improvement in technology D) Willingness to cooperate
19. In the past few decades, there has not been much increase in the movement of ...........................
between countries due to various restrictions. [C ]
A) investments B) goods C) people D) technology
20. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as [D ]
A) Globalisation B) Disinvestment C) Privatisation D) Liberalisation

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SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2M × 4=8)
21. Describe any three main features of 'Alluvial soil' found in India. 2
A. i) The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
ii) Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which
are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops.
iii) According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new
alluvial (Khadar).
22. How did the 'small pox' prove as the most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors in
the mid-sixteenth century? Explain. 2
A. i) The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors was not a conventional military
weapon but it was the germs like smallpox that they carried on their person.
ii) Because of their long isolation, America's original inhabitants had no immunity against
these diseases that came from Europe. Smallpox in particular proved a deadly killer.
(OR)
Describe the significance of silk route in the pre-modern period in the field of trade cultural
exchange and religion.
A. The significance of silk routes:
i) The silk routes are good examples of pre-modern trade and cultural links between the distant
parts of the world, i.e. linking Asia with Europe and North Africa.
ii) Along the silk routes, the silk cargoes from China, Indian spices and textiles, gold and silver
from Europe were carried to different parts of the world.
23. Differentiate between ruling and opposition parties. 2
A. i) Ruling Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country.
ii) Opposition parties voicing different views and criticising government for its failures or wrong
policies. Opposition parties also mobilise opposition to the government.
24. Mention the factors that have enabled Globalisation. 2
A. i) Information and Communication Technology
ii) Liberalisation of foreign trade (Removing trade barriers).

SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3M × 5=15)
25. Describe the role of industries in the development of agriculture. 3
A. i) There are various industries which require the inputs from the agricultural sector.
ii) Agriculture sector requires various input for its modernization which are provided by the
industrial sector.
iii) The agriculture sector provides a market to the industrial sector's goods.
iv) The excess labour from the agricultural sector gets absorbed in the industrial sector.
26. “The new crops in olden days could make the difference between life and death.” Discuss
with examples. 3
A. Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between life and death.
i) Europe's poor began to eat better and live longer with the introduction of the humble potato.
ii) Ireland's poorest peasants became so dependent on potatoes that when disease destroyed the
potato crop in the mid-1840s, hundreds of thousands died of starvation.
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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
Ex-The Great Irish Potato Famine.
27. Analyse the need of political parties in democracy. 3
A. i) Without political parties every candidate in the elections will be independent.
ii) No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes.
iii) The government may be formed, but its utility will remain ever uncertain No one will be
responsible for how the country will be run.
28. "Democracy is better form of government than any other forms of governments." Justify
the statement. 3
A. We feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form of government because:
i) Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
ii) It enhances dignity of individual. It promotes dignity of women and strengthens the claims
of the disadvantaged.
iii) It improves the quality of decision making. There is transparency in a democracy.
iv) It provides methods to resolve conflicts.
v) Democracy allows room to correct mistakes.
(Any three valid points can be considered)
29. How have the developments in information and communication technology been the major
factor to enable globalisation? Explain. 3
A. i) The developments in information and communication technology has made much faster
delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
ii) Even more remarkable have been the developments in information and communication
technology. Technology in the areas of telecommunications, computers, Internet has been
changing rapidly.
iii) Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones, fax) are used
to contact one another around the world, to access information instantly, and to communicate
from remote areas. This has been facilitated by satellite communication devices.
(OR)
Why had the Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments
after independence? Analyse the reasons.
A. The Indian government after independence had put barriers to foreign trade and investment because:
i) To protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.
ii) Indian Industries were just coming up in the 1950s and 1960s and competition from imports
at that stage would not have allowed these industries to develop and grow.
iii) Foreign infiltration in industries affecting the economic growth of the country as planned.

SECTION D
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5M × 4=20)
30. Explain the classification of minerals. 5
A. i) Metallic minerals: We get metals from these minerals. Ores of iron, copper, gold, silver,
lead, aluminium, tin, etc., are important examples of metallic minerals. Metallic minerals can
further be divided into ferrous and non-ferrous.
a) Ferrous Minerals: The minerals which contain iron are known as ferrous minerals.
Iron ore, manganese, nickel, cobalt, etc.
b) Non-ferrous Minerals: Minerals containing metals other than iron are known as
nonferrous minerals. Gold, silver, platinum, etc.

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science

c) Precious Minerals: The minerals which have very high economic value are known as
precious minerals for example gold, silver, platinum, etc.
ii) Non-Metallic Minerals: The minerals which do not contain metals are known as non metallic
minerals.
a) Coal, petroleum, mica, manganese, etc., are some important non-metallic minerals.
b) Energy Minerals: The minerals which provide energy or power are known as energy
minerals. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are the most important energy minerals.
(OR)
Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? What are its three major forms?
Write its main features.
A. Coal is the abundantly available fossil fuel in India.
i) Peat has low carbon and high moisture content and low heating capacity.
ii) Lignite- is a low-grade brown coal which is soft with high moisture content. It is used for
generating electricity.
iii) Bituminous- is the most popular coal of commercial use. It has a special value for smelting
iron in blast furnaces.
iv) Anthracite- is the highest quality hard coal.
31. Explain how the print culture assisted the growth of nationalism in India. 5
A. Print culture played a crucial role in growth and spread of nationalism in India:
i) In the 19th century, huge quantity of national literature was created. It revolutionised minds
of people and inspired them to throw away the British rule.
ii) Indian newspapers India Mirror, Bombay Samachar, The Hindu, Kesari - exerted deep
imprint on the minds of people.
iii) Nationalist press reported on colonial misrule and encouraged nationalist activities. For
Example, in 1907, Bal Gangadhar Tilak winds with great sympathy about them.
iv) Gandhiji spread his ideas of Swadeshi in a powerful way through newspapers Many
vernacular newspapers came up in India to spread nationalism.
(OR)
Who was Johann Gutenberg? Explain his role in the history of printing.
A. i) Johann Gutenberg was a German goldsmith and inventor, credited with the inventing of the
movable type printing in Europe.
ii) Gutenberg was the son of a merchant, and his childhood was spent on a large agricultural
estate. From his childhood, he had seen wine and olive presses. By and by, he learnt the art
of polishing stones, became a master goldsmith, and also acquired the expertise to create
lead moulds used for making trinkets. (Trinket-A small item of jewellery that is cheap or of
low quality).
iii) Using this knowledge, Gutenberg adapted the existing technology to design his innovation.
The olive press became the base model for the printing press and moulds were used for
casting the metal types for the letters of the alphabet.
iv) By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system. In 1455, Gutenberg published his 42-lines Bible,
commonly known as the Gutenberg Bible. About 180 copies were printed most on paper
and some on vellum..
32. Define the term 'secularism.' Explain any four features of secularism in India. 5
A. Secularism: It is the idea or the principle of the separation of the state from the religious institutions
i) There is no official religion for the Indian state.
ii) Freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion, or not.

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
iii) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
iv) The Constitution can intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within
religious groups.
(OR)
Describe the different ways through which women face discrimination and oppression in
India.
A. i) In many parts of India, parents prefer to have sons and find ways to have the girl child
aborted before she is born.
ii) There are reports of various kinds of harassment, exploitation and violence against women.
iii) Urban areas have become particularly unsafe for women.
iv) They are not safe even within their own home from beating, harassment and other forms of
domestic violence.
33. How do banks play an important role in the economy of India? Explain. 5
A. i) Banks help people to save their money and keep their money in safe custody.
ii) Banks also grant loans to people for a variety of purposes. In times of need individuals,
business houses and industries can borrow money from the banks.
iii) Credit provided by banks is crucial for the country's growth and economic development.
iv) Banks also help people in obtaining cheap and affordable loans. This can help people to
grow crops, do business, set up small-scale industries or trade in goods and also help indirectly
in the country's development.
v) They should do so, so that relatively poor people do not have to depend on informal sources
of credit (money-lenders).
(OR)
Which government body supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India?
Explain its functioning.
A. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.
Functions of Reserve Bank of India.
i) RBI requires commercial banks to maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits
they receive. The RBI monitors that the banks actually maintain the cash balance.
ii) RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also
to small cultivators, small-scale industries, small borrowers, SHGs, etc.
iii) RBI issues guidelines for fixing rate of interest on deposits and lending by commercial
banks.
iv) Periodically, banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to
whom, at what interest rate, etc.

SECTION E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4 × 3=12)
34 Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: 4
CROPPING PATTERN
India has three cropping seasons - rabi, kharif and zaid. Rabi crops are sown in winter from
October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Though, the rabi crops are
grown in large parts of India, states from the north and north-western parts such as Punjab, Haryana,
Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the
production of wheat and other rabi crops. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a
short season during the summer months known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops produced
during 'zaid' are watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops.

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34.1 Which crops are grown in Rabi season? [1]
A. Wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard are the important crops grown in Rabi season.
34.2 Mention the factor on which the success of the rabi crop depend. [1]
A. Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones
helps in the success of these crops.
34.3 Describe about the crop season in between the Rabi and the Kharif? [2]
A. In between the rabi and the kharif seasons, there is a short season during the summer months
known as the Zaid season. Some of the crops produced during 'Zaid' are watermelon,
muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops. Sugarcane takes almost a year to grow.
35. Read the given source and answer the following questions. 4
FEAR OF THE BOOK
Erasmus, a Latin scholar and a Catholic reformer, who criticised the excesses of Catholicism but
kept his distance from Luther, expressed a deep anxiety about printing. He wrote in Adages (1508):
'To what corner of the world do they not fly, these swarms of new books? It may be that one here
and there contributes something worth knowing, but the very multitude of them is hurtful to
scholarship, because it creates a glut, and even in good things satiety is most harmful ... [printers]
fill the world with books, not just trifling things (such as I write, perhaps), but stupid, ignorant,
slanderous, scandalous, raving, irreligious and seditious books, and the number of them is such
that even the valuable publications lose their value.'
35.1 Which Latin scholar expressed deep anxiety about printed books? [1]
A. Erasmus, a Latin scholar and a Catholic reformer expressed a deep anxiety about printed
books.
35.2 What was the Erasmus idea of printed books? [1]
A. Erasmus criticized the printing of books. He thought that most of the books are stupid,
ignorant, scandalous, raving, irreligious and seditious.
35.3 Why did Erasmus criticized the catholic church? [2]
A. Erasmus was not an extreme critic of the catholic church, he believed that the church that the
church needed to be reformed. Erasmus criticized church corruption and abuses of power.
Many of the criticisms that Erasmus levied at the church were reasons that provoked the
Protestant Reformation.
36. Read the given source and answer the following questions.
SELF-HELP GROUPS FOR THE POOR
In recent years, people have tried out some newer ways of providing loans to the poor. The idea is
to organise rural poor, in particular women, into small Self Help Groups (SHGs) and pool (collect)
their savings. A typical SHG has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who
meet and save regularly. Saving per member varies from Rs 25 to Rs 100 or more, depending on
the ability of the people to save. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their
needs.
36.1 What are the new ways of providing loans to the poor?
A. SHGs are the newer ways of providing loans to the poor particularly women. SHGs are
small groups of 15-20 members, primarily belonging to one neighbourhood, who meet and
save regularly
36.2 What are the purposes for which the Self Help Group gives loans?
A. Income generation, social needs like housing, education marriage.to recover from debt trap.

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
36.3 What are the advantages of SHG?
A. Promote gender equality. SHGs act as pressure groups through which pressure can be
mounted on the government to act on important issues.

SECTION F
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)
37.
a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them
and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 2
A) The place where Gandhiji broke Salt Law.
B) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
b. On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable
Symbols. 3
a) Forest soils-The soils are loamy and silty in valley sides.
b) Digboi - an oil field in Assom
c) Indore-a major center for cotton textile industry.
d) Kerala - A major Rubber producing state
Note:The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No.37.
Attempt any FIVE questions.
37.1 The place where Gandhiji broke Salt Law. 1
37.2 The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927. 1
37.3 The soils are loamy and silty in valley sides. 1
37.4 An oil field in Assom 1
37.5 A major center for cotton textile industry. 1
37.6 A major Rubber producing state 1

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For the Question No 37

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science

PRE BOARD - 2 EXAMINATION

Class: X MARKING SCHEME Maximum Marks: 80
Subject: Social Science (087) SET - 1 Time Allotted: 3 Hours

General Instructions :
i) Question paper comprises six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii) Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii) Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv) Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
v) Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi) Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each.
vii) Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from
History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix) A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions
having visual inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired
students only. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.

SECTION A
MCQs (1M × 20 = 20M)

1. "The revolutionaries of France declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French
nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism".
What did it mean? 1
A) They wanted to defeat Napoleon
B) They wanted to establish conservative rule in Europe
C) They wanted to help other peoples of Europe to become nations
D) They wanted to help Greece to get liberated from Turkey
Ans: C

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
2. Which among the following best signifies the idea of liberal nationalism of nineteenth century
Europe? 1
A) State planned socio-economic system
B) Freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law
C) Emphasis on social justice
D) Supremacy of state oriented nationalism
Ans: B
3. Arrange the following events in the chronological order and choose the correct option. 1
i) Restarting of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
ii) Taking the Independence Day Pledge after the Lahore Congress session.
iii) Simon Commission was greeted with the slogan 'Go back, Simon'.
iv) Bhagat Singh and Batukeswar Dutta threw a bomb in the Legislative Assembly.
Options:
A) iv, iii, i, ii B) iii, ii, i, iv C) iv, ii, i, iii D) iii, iv, ii, i
Ans: D
4. Which among the following statements are not related to the power-driven cylindrical press
perfected by W Richard M. Hoe by the mid-nineteenth century? 1
i) This could print up to six colours at a time.
ii) This was capable of printing 8,000 sheets per hour.
iii) This press was particularly useful for printing newspapers.
iv) This was an electrically operated press, accelerated printing operations.
Options:
A) i, ii and iii B) i and iv C) ii and iii D) ii, iii and iv
Ans: B
5. Match List I (forms of power sharing) with List II (forms of government) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below in the lists: 1
List I List II
Power shared among different organs of
a i. Community government
government
Power shared among governments at
b ii. Separation of powers
different levels
c Power shared by different social groups iii. Coalition government
Power shared by two or more political
d iv. Federal government
parties
a b c d
A) iv i ii iii
B) ii iii iv i
C) ii iv i iii
D) iii iv i ii
Ans: C

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
6. Which of the following elements was not included in the Sri Lankan model? 1
A) Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language
B) The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university
positions and government jobs.
C) The constitution and government policies denied the Sinhalese equal political rights
D) A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
Ans: C
7. Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct
option. 1
Statement-I : Power can be shared among governments at different levels-a general
government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional
level.
Statement-II : Different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different
powers.
A) Both Statement-I and II are true, II is the correct explanation of I
B) Both Statement-I and II are true, II is not the correct explanation of I
C) Statement-I is true but II is wrong
D) Statement-I is wrong but II is correct
Ans: B
8. Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option. 1
Column I Column II
a) Communications i) Came up after the constitution was made
b) Trade unions ii) The State Governments alone can make laws
c) Trade iii) Central government legislates on new subjects
d) Computer software iv) Subject under jurisdiction of Union and State
Governments
e) Residuary subjects v) For uniformity Central government legislates on it
a b c d e
A) v iv ii i iii
B) iv ii iii v i
C) ii iv v iii i
D) v iii iv i ii
Ans: A
9. Which of the options best signifies this cartoon? 1

A) Showing the fine Prussian engineering.

B) Problems of running the Germany's grand coalition Government that includes the two major
parties of the country.
C) The two parties of the country are historically partners to each other.
D) Smoothly the German Government is running
Ans: B
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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
10. The ..............-prohibited any caste-based discrimination and laid the foundations of policies
to reverse the injustices of the caste system. 1
A) Supreme Court of India B) Election Commission of India
C) Parliament of India D) Constitution of India
Ans: D
11. Identify the incorrectly matched pair from the below given pairs. 1
A) Patriarchy- values men more over women
B) Family laws - equal rights for women and men
C) Urbanisation - Shift of population from rural areas to urban
D) Occupational mobility- Shift from one profession to another
Ans: B
12. Which among the following statements is not related to the Bhairodev Dakav 'Sonchuri'?
a) It includes 1,200 hectares of forestland. 1
b) The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared this
sonchuri.
c) They do not allow hunting, and are protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments.
d) The members of these committee are entitled to intermediary benefits like non-timber forest
produces and share in the timber harvested by 'successful protection'.
A) b and c B) b, c, and d C) a, c, and d D) Only d
Ans: D
13. Which of the following is one of the key aspects of Atal Jal ? 1
A) To protective irrigation for all agricultural farms in the country, thus bringing much desired
rural prosperity.
B) To reduce downstream flow in different states with adverse consequences for agriculture and
industry.
C) To bring in behavioural changes in the community, from the prevailing attitude of consumption
to conservation and smart water management.
D) To provide irrigation facilities to the drought prone districts of Gujarat, strategic desert districts
of Rajasthan and the tribal hilly tract of Maharashtra through lift.
Ans: C
14. Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada River in Gujarat is one of the largest
water resource projects of India covering four states. Which among the following states is not
covered under this water resource project? 1
A) Chhattisgarh B) Madhya Pradesh C) Gujarat D) Rajasthan.
Ans: A
15. Read the following data and answer the question that follow: 1
Some comparative data on Haryana, Kerala and Bihar Economic Survey 2020-21

How much is the Net Absence Ratio of Haryana? Choose the appropriate option from the
following:
A) 27 B) 61 C) 38 D) 39
Ans: D
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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
16. Which among the following are the developmental goals of a prosperous farmer? 1
i) Better wages
ii) Assured a high family income
iii) Higher support prices for crops
iv) More days of work
Options:
A) Only i and ii are correct. B) Only ii and iv are correct.
C) Only ii and iii are correct. D) Only i and iv are correct
Ans: C
17. Read the given data in the table and find the difference between the average monthly income
of country A: and country B. Choose the correct option. 1

Monthly incomes of citizens (in Rupees)

Country
1 II III IV V Average

Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200

Country B 500 500 500 500 38000

A) 3000 B) 2000 C) 4000 D) No difference

Ans: B
18. Study the data given below in the table and answer the question by selecting the correct
option. 1
Which is the most important sector that provides maximum jobs to the people?
Workers in different sectors (in millions)
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 1 231 232
Secondary 41 74 115
Tertiary 40 88 128
Total 82 393 475
Total in Percentage 100%
A) Primary sector, especially organised sector B) Secondary sector, especially organised sector
C) Tertiary sector, especially organised sector D) Primary sector, especially unorganised sector
Ans: D
19. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A) Primary - Priest
B) Secondary - Milk Vendor
C) Tertiary -Astronaut
D) Manufacturing -Bee Keeper
Ans: C

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
20. In the given questions, there are sentences marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the statements and choose the correct option from the following: 1
Assertion (A) : The central government in India made a law implementing the Right to Work in
about 625 districts of India.
Reason (R) : If the government fails, it will give unemployment allowances to the people.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Assertion is false and reason are true.
Ans: A

SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2M × 4 = 8M)

21. What did the Englishmen do to clamp down on the 'native' press? 2
A. i) As vernacular newspapers became assertively nationalist, the colonial government began
debating measures of stringent control.
ii) In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed, modelled on the Irish Press Laws which
provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the
vernacular press.
iii) The government kept regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different
provinces. When a report was judged as seditious either the newspaper was warned or the
press was liable to be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.
22. Examine the role of the Supreme Court in the Federal System of India in two points. 2
A. i) The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional
provisions and procedures.
ii) In case of any dispute about the division of powers, the High Courts and the Supreme Court
make a decision.
(OR)
Examine the role of the Constitution in the Federal System of India in two points.
A. i) According to the constitution it is not easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
The Parliament cannot on its own change this arrangement.
ii) Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least two-
thirds majority.
iii) Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total States.
23. How the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana want to attain the much desired rural
prosperity? Mention the major objectives of the programme. 2
A. i) The objectives of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana are to enhance the physical access
of water on the farm and expand cultivable area under assured irrigation (har khet ko pani).
ii) To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability both in
duration and extent, irrigation and other water saving technologies (per drop more crop) and
introduce sustainable water conservation practices, etc.
24. How can employment be created in semi-rural areas? Suggest some ways. 2
A. To promote and locate industries and services in semi-rural areas where a large number of people
may be employed
i) Setting up a dal mill to procure and process these and sell in the cities, opening a cold
storage.
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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
ii) In villages near forest areas, honey collection centres can be established. To set up industries
that process vegetables and agricultural produce like potato, sweet potato, rice, wheat, tomato,
fruits, which can be sold in outside markets.
This will provide employment in industries located in semi-rural areas and not necessarily in large
urban centres.

SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3M × 5 = 15M)

25. Explain the role of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement, with examples. 3
A. Thousands of women came out of their homes to listen to Gandhiji during the Civil Disobedience
Movement.
i) They participated in protest marches, manufactured salt, and picketed foreign cloth and
liquor shops. Many went to jail.
ii) In urban areas these women were from high-caste families; in rural areas they came from
rich peasant households.
iii) Moved by Gandhiji's call, they began to see service to the nation as a sacred duty of women.
(Any other relevant points can be considered)
26. State few steps taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural
diversities. 3
A. Steps taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences :
i) Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be
equal in the central government.
ii) Many powers of the Central Government have been given to State Governments of the two
regions of the country.
iii) Brusselshasaseparategovernment in which both the communities have equal representation.
iv) Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government.
27. "1990 was the beginning of the era of coalition government at the Centre'. Justify the
statement." 3
A. 1990 was the beginning of the era of coalition government at the Centre
i) This period saw the rise of regional political parties in many States of the country.
ii) This was also the beginning of the era of coalition governments at the Centre.
iii) Since no single party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the major national parties had to
enter into an alliance with many parties including several regional parties to form a government
at the Centre.
iv) This led to a new culture of power sharing and respect for the autonomy of State Governments.
This trend was supported by a major judgement of the Supreme Court that made it difficult
for the Central Government to dismiss state governments in an arbitrary manner.
28. What steps have been taken by the government for the conservation of forest and wildlife in
India? Explain. 3
Steps taken by the Government:
1) National parks, biosphere and wildlife sanctuaries: To protect the biodiversity, the Indian
government has established 105 national parks, 543 sanctuaries and 18 biosphere reserves.
2) The Indian Wildlife Protection Act: The Indian Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in
1972, with various provisions for protecting habitats. The was to protect the remaining
population of certain endangered species by banning hunting, giving legal protection.

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
3) Projects for protecting specific animals: The central government has also announced several
projects for protecting specific animals which were gravely threatened
4) Forest Policy: India is one of the few countries which has a forest policy since 1894. The
main plank of the forest policy is protection, conservation and development of forests.
29. Average income is useful for comparison but it may hide disparities." Support the statement
with suitable arguments. 3
A. Total income is not a useful measure for comparison between countries. Since countries have
different populations, comparing, total income does not tell what an average person is likely to
earn. Hence, we use average income which is total income of the country divided by total population.
i) The defect of average as a measure is that it does not show the distribution of income between
the rich and the poor.
ii) Per capita income doesn.t tell us anything about the distribution of income.
iii) Per capita income doesn.t measure various facilities and services that influence quality of
life, For e.g. health facilities, education facilities, equal treatment, etc.
iv) Two countries may have the same average income but in one country almost every family
may enjoy more or less the same kind of income, whereas in the other, some may be very
rich and others very poor. The disparity between rich and poor is an important feature that
the average measure does not consider.
(OR)
Why is the sustainability important for development? 3
A. i) Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
ii) The issue of sustainability is important for development because if the natural resources are
not used carefully, they may not be available for future generations.
iii) The depleting resources of a country may ultimately result in a lack of development of the
country.

SECTION - D
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5M × 4 = 20M)

30. "The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence
amongst the Greeks". Explain with suitable arguments. 5
A. i) Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century.
ii) Since 1821nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from
many West Europeans who had sympathies for ancient Greek culture.
iii) Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public
opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim empire.
iv) The English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to fight in the war, where he
died of fever in 1824.
v) Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.
(Any other relevant points can be considered)
(OR)
"The formation of Britain as a nation-state was the result of a long, drawn-out process".
Justify.
A. i) Prior to 18th century there was no British nation. People who inhabited British islands were
identified by ethnic groups to which they belonged such as English, Welsh, Scots or Irish
and had their cultural and political traditions.
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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
ii) Out of these the English nation steadily grew in importance, wealth and power and was able
to extend its influence over other nations of the island.
iii) The English Parliament which had seized power from monarchy in 1688 was the instrument
through which a nation-state with England at the centre came to be forged.
iv) The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of Great
Britain.
v) In effect it meant that Scotland came under the influence of England. The British Parliament
from now was dominated by the English Members.
(Any other relevant points can be considered)
31. Why was a model of 'secular state' chosen for India? What Constitutional Provisions make
India a secular state? 5
A. The reasons for choosing a model of 'secular state'.
i) Communalism was and continues to be one of the major challenges to democracy in our
country.
ii) The makers of our Constitution were aware of this challenge.
That is why, they chose the model of a secular state.
Constitutional Provisions
i) There is no official religion for the Indian state. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri Lanka,
that of Islam in Pakistan and that of Christianity in England, our Constitution does not give
a special status to any religion.
ii) The Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice
and propagate any religion, or not to follow any.
iii) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
iv) At the same time, the Constitution allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in
order to ensure equality within religious communities. For example, it bans untouchability.
(OR0
Women face disadvantage, discrimination and oppression in various ways even today. Assess
the statement by giving five suitable arguments.
A. 1) Literacy rate: The literacy rate among women is only 54 per cent as compared to 76 per cent
among men. Similarly, a smaller proportion of girl students go for higher studies because
parents prefer to spend their resources for their boys' education than spending equally on
their daughters.
2) Unpaid work: The proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very
small. Though on an average, the Indian woman works one hour more than an average man
every day, but most of them are not paid equally and therefore, their work is often not
valued.
3) Sex ratio: In many parts of India, parents prefer to have sons, and find ways to have the girl
child aborted before she is born. This has led to a decline in the child sex ratio (the number
of girl children per thousand boys) in the country is merely 919.
4) Domestic violence: There are reports of various kinds of harassment, exploitation and violence
against women. Both urban as well as rural areas have become unsafe for women. They are
not safe even within their own home from beating and other forms of domestic violence.
32. How has the growing population, industrialisation and urbanisation led to water scarcity?
Explain. 5
A. 1) Growing population: Growing population is one of the basic factors which is responsible
for the scarcity of water. Most of our cities are facing this problem due to overpopulation. A
large population means more water not only for domestic use but also to produce more food.

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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
2) Commercialisation of agriculture: After the success of green revolution, our farmers are
producing commercial crops. The commercial crops need more water and other inputs.
Assured means of irrigation like tube wells and wells are responsible for the falling
groundwater levels.
3) Industrialisation: The post independent India witnessed intensive industrialisation and
urbanisation. Today, large industrial houses are common in the form of industrial units of
many MNCs (Multinational Corporations). The ever increasing number of industries has
made matters worse by exerting pressure on the existing freshwater resources. Industries
apart from being heavy users of water, also require power to run them. Much of this energy
comes from the hydroelectric power.
4) Urbanisation: Urbanisation has also aggravated the problem of water scarcity. Most of our
cities are over-populated. Overpopulation leads to over-utilisation of the water resources,
and also pollutes the existing resources.
(OR)
"Water harvesting is an effective measure to reduce the problem of water scarcity." Justify
the statement.
A. Water harvesting system is a viable alternative, both for socio-economically and environmentally.
People harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local
ecological conditions and their water needs.
i) In hill and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the 'guls' or 'kuls' of the
Western Himalayas for agriculture.
ii) Rooftop rainwater harvesting' was commonly practised in many parts of the country.
iii) In the flood plains of Bengal, people developed inundation channels to irrigate their fields.
iv) In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain fed storage structure.
v) In the semi-arid and arid regions of Rajasthan, particularly in Bikaner, Phalodi and Barmer,
almost all the houses traditionally had underground tanks or tankas for storing drinking
water.
vi) In Gendathur, a remote backward village in Mysuru, Karnataka, villagers have installed, in
their household's rooftop, rainwater harvesting system to meet their water needs.
vii) Tamil Nadu is the first state in India which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure
compulsory to all the houses across the state.
Fortunately, in many parts of rural and urban India, rooftop rainwater harvesting is being successfully
adapted to store and conserve water. Hence, water harvesting is an effective measure to reduce the
problem of water scarcity.

33. Highlight the contribution of public sector in the economic development of a country. 5
A. The public sector plays a crucial role in the economic development of a country.
i) Healthcare: The public sector provides healthcare services to the population, ensuring that
even lower-income groups have access to medical care.
ii) Education: Investment in public education ensures a skilled and educated labour force, which
is vital for innovation and economic development. The public sector also provides vocational
training programs that help develop human capital for various sectors of the economy.
iii) Social Security and Welfare: Programs such as unemployment insurance, pensions, and
food assistance programs help reduce poverty, stabilize the economy, and maintain social
peace.
iv) Public Goods and Services: The public sector is primarily responsible for providing essential
infrastructure such as transportation networks (roads, bridges, railways), utilities (water,

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
electricity, gas), and communication systems. These are necessary for economic activity
and facilitate private sector growth.
v) Investment in Infrastructure: Governments often undertake large-scale projects that the
private sector cannot.
(OR)
"There is a need for protection and support of the workers in the unorganised sector."
Examine the statement with examples.
A. The workers in the unorganised sector often face precarious working conditions, lack of legal
safeguards, and limited access to social benefits so there is a need for protection to them
i) Legal Reforms: There is a pressing need for the enactment of laws that extend labor rights
and protections to workers in the unorganised sector. Some countries have started recognizing
the rights of informal workers.
ii) Social Security Act : India aims to provide social security benefits to workers in the
unorganised sector. However, the implementation remains a challenge.““Social Security
Programs: Government initiatives such as universal health care, old-age pensions, and
disability insurance should be extended to informal workers to reduce their economic
vulnerability. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) in India, which
guarantees 100 days of work per year at a minimum wage, is an example of a social safety
net for unorganised workers.
iii) Skill Development and Education: Workers in the unorganised sector often lack formal
education and training, which limits their job prospects and earning potential. Skill
development programs can help them gain new qualifications, leading to better employment
opportunities. For instance, the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) in India
aims to provide skill training to workers, enhancing their employability.
iv) Trade Union Representation: Workers in the unorganised sector should be allowed to form
unions or associations to collectively bargain for their rights. Many unorganised workers
lack the power to negotiate wages or working conditions. Collective bargaining could improve
wages and job security for these workers.

SECTION E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4M × 3 = 12M)

34 Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: 4
Women and Print
In 1926, Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossein, a noted educationist and literary figure, strongly
condemned men for withholding education from women in the name of religion as she addressed
the Bengal Women's Education Conference: 'The opponents of female education say that women
will become unruly … Fie! They call themselves Muslims and yet go against the basic tenet of
Islam which gives Women an equal right to education. If men are not led astray once educated,
why should women?'
34.1 What was the belief of Conservative Hindus and fear of Muslims regarding women's
education? [1]
A. Conservative Hindus believed that a literate girl would be widowed and Muslims feared
that educated women would be corrupted by reading Urdu romances.
34.2 What was the first full-length autobiography written by any women in India, who
was she and how did she learnt to read? [1]
A. Amar Jiban was the first full-length autobiography written by any women in India. She was
Rashsundari Debi, a young married girl in a very orthodox household, learnt to read secretly
in her kitchen.
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Social Science X Pre Board Examinations
34.3 Who was Kailashbashini Debi? What did she write about women? [2]
A. Kailashbashini Debi was a Bengali woman writer. She wrote books highlighting the
experiences of women - about how women were imprisoned at home, kept in ignorance,
forced to do hard domestic labour and treated unjustly by the very people they served.
35. Read the given extract and answer following questions: 4
PROJECT TIGER
"Project Tiger", one of the well-publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, was launched in
1973. Tiger conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save an endangered species, but
with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude. Corbett National
Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National Park in
Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and
Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some of the tiger reserves of India.
35.1 Why was Project Tiger considered as a significant step for Tiger conservation? [1]
A. The primary objective of Project Tiger is to ensure the survival and maintenance of the tiger
population in their natural habitats by creating dedicated Tiger Reserves.
35.2 What role did India play in the global tiger population? [1]
A. India along with Nepal provide habitat to about two-thirds of the surviving tiger population
in the world. India is now home to more than 70% of the world's wild tiger population.
35.3 Mention any two major threats to the wildlife species. [2]
A. i) Habitat destruction -As human populations expand, habitats are being rapidly converted
for urbanization, human infrastructure, and agriculture, depletion of prey base species,
lead to isolated animal populations, result in reduced genetic diversity and a higher
risk of inbreeding.
ii) Poaching and illegal trading- The trade of tiger skins and the use of their bones in
traditional medicines, especially in the Asian countries left the tiger population on the
verge of extinction.
36. Read the given extract and answer following questions. 4
Body Mass Index
One way to find out if we are properly nourished is to calculate what nutrition scientists call Body
Mass Index (BMI). This is easy to calculate. Let each student in the class find out his or her weight
and height. A student's BMI could be within the normal range or less than that (underweight) or
more (obesity). For example, if a girl student is 14 years and 8 months old and the BMI is 15.2,
then she is undernourished. Similarly, if the BMI of a boy aged 15 years and 6 months is 28, then
he is overweight. The life situation, food and exercise habits of students, in general, without body
shaming anyone also to be taken in to consideration.
36.1 How BMI of a student in a class can be calculated? [1]
A. Take the weight of the student in kilograms (kg). Then, take the height by drawing up a
scale on the wall and measuring accurately with the head straight. Convert the height recorded
in centimetres into meters. Divide the weight in kg by the square of the height.
36.2 Mahi is 28 years of age, has 65 kg of body weight and is 1.4 meters tall. Calculate his
BMI. Find out whether he is under nourished or over weight. [1]

A.

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X Pre Board Examinations Social Science
His BMI is 33.16
He is over weight
Because his BMI is more than 25.
36.3 What do you mean by malnourished and overweight? [2]
A. Malnutrition -Malnutrition is a state of the body in which due to insufficient supply or incorrect
absorption of essential nutrients, the body composition changes and the body's functions are
impaired.
Overweight- A common condition marked by weighing more than what is thought to be
healthy for one's height.

SECTION F
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2+3=5M)

37. a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 2
A) The place where Gandhiji inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive
plantation system. (Champaran)
B) The place where Gandhiji participated Satyagraha in 1918. (Ahmedabad)
b. On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with
suitable Symbols. 3
i) A dam on river Chambal.
ii) An iron ore mine in Odisha.
iii) A cotton textile industry in MP.
iv) The largest port in terms of handling cargo.
Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q.No.37. Attempt any FIVE questions.
37.1 The place where Gandhiji inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation
system. 1
37.2 The place where Gandhiji participated Satyagraha in 1918. 1
37.3 A dam on river Chambal. 1
37.4 An iron ore mine in Odisha. 1
37.5 A cotton textile industry in MP. 1
37.6 The largest port in terms of handling cargo. 1

No.1 School in India 13 Sri Chaitanya School

Social Science X Pre Board Examinations

Map for Question No. 37

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 PRE BOARD EXAMINATION - 2
Class : X (CBSE) SET - 2 (MS) Max. Marks : 80
Sub : Social Science (087) 2024-25 Time : 3 Hrs.
General Instructions :
i) Question paper comprises six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in
the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii) Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii) Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv) Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
v) Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi) Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each.
vii) Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from
History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

SECTION A
MCQs (1M × 20 = 20M)

1. Consider the following painting and choose the most appropriate explanation from the
given options. 1

A) It was painted by an English painter and depicts the sufferings of Greeks

B) It was painted by an English painter and depicts the sufferings of Turks
C) It was painted by a French painter and depicts the sufferings of Greeks
D) It was painted by a French painter and depicts the sufferings of Turks
Ans: C
Sri Chaitanya School 1 No.1 School in India
2. Arrange the following events in the chronological order and choose the correct option. 1
i) Bhagat Singh and Batukeswar Dutta threw a bomb in the Legislative Assembly.(1929)
ii) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. (Apr-1919)
iii) Bardoli Satyagraha (1928)
iv) Withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement. (1922)
Options:
A) i, ii, iii, iv B) iv, ii, iii, i C) i, ii, iv, iii D) ii, iv, iii, i
Ans: (D) ADD SCORE
3. Identify the newspaper related to Bal gangadhar Tilak from the following. 1
A) Nava Bharat B) Kesari C) Free India D) India Samachar
Ans. B
4. Identify the incorrect statement with respect to the ‘ethnic composition of Sri Lanka’. 1
A) The Sinhala speakers constitute 74%
B) The Tamil speakers constitute 18%
C) Sri Lankan Tamils migrated from India and constitute 8%
D) The rest, whose forefathers came from India as plantation workers during colonial period,
are called ‘Indian Tamils’.
Ans: C
5. Match List I (Lists in the Constitution) with List II (Subjects) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below in the lists: 1
Column-I Column-II
I) Union List a) Succession
II) State List b) Currency
III) Concurrent List c) Trade
IV) Residuary List d) Internet
I II III IV
A) d a c b
B) b c a d
C) a b d c
D) c d b a
Ans: B
6. The followers of a particular religion must belong to one community. Their fundamental
interests are the same. Any difference that they may have is irrelevant or trivial for community
life. It also follows that people who follow different religions cannot belong to the same social
community.
The given statements are related to............................................ 1
A) Nationalism B) Communism C) Communalism D) Secularism
Ans:C
7. Which of the following states have bulk of its area under Reserved Forests? 1
A) North-eastern States B) Madhya Pradesh
C) West Bengal D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans:C
Sri Chaitanya School 2 No.1 School in India
8. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Jal Jeevan Mission’. 1
i) It focuses only on urban areas.
ii) It assures supply of potable piped water.
iii) It ensures 55 litres per capita per day regularly.
iv) It also aims functional tap water connections.
Choose the correct option from the following.
A) Only i, ii and iv are true B) Only ii, iii and iv are true
C) Only i, iii and iv are true D) All are true
Ans: B
9. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements
and choose the most appropriate option : 1
Assertion (A) : Kerala has low Infant Mortality Rate.
Reason (R) : Kerala has adequate provision of basic health and education facilities.
A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Ans. A
10. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 is an Indian social
welfare measure that aims to guarantee................... 1
A) Right to Life B) Right to Freedom C) Right to Work D) Right to Equality
Ans:C
11. ‘A district collector ordered for clearing of a slum to construct a pharmaceutical industry. The
High Court of the State intervened in the issue and issued a notice to the collector to present in
the court with all the details of the project.’
Identify the type of power sharing mentioned in the given context. 1
A) Horizontal B) Vertical C) Communal D) Federal
Ans:A
12. Match the following attributes of allegory of Germania with its significance and choose
the correct option:
Attributes Significance
a) Broken Chains i) Heroism
b) Breast-Plate with eagle ii) Readiness to fight
c) Crown of oak leaves iii) Strength
d) Sword iv) Being free
Options:
a b c d
A) i ii iii iv
B) iv iii i ii
C) ii i iv iii
D) iii iv ii i
Ans: B

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13. Which of the following languages is a Scheduled Language? 1
A) Santali B) Magadhi C) Bhojpuri D) Rajasthani
Ans:A
14. Which one of the following definitions is most suitable for the ‘Literacy Rate’ ? 1
A) The literate population at the global level
B) The proportion of literate population in the seven years and above
C) The total number of children attending school in a region
D) The average number of schools in a region
Ans:B
15. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Share of sectors in employment’in
India. 1
Statement I: The problem of underemployment is exists only in the primary sector.
Statement II: The primary sector continues to be the largest employer even now.
Choose the correct option.
A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
C) Both the statements are true
D) Both the statements are false
Ans: B
16. Read the arguments given in the favour of power sharing and choose the correct
option.
I) Reduces partiality in decision making. 1
II) Obstructs the decision-making process.
III) Accommodates diversities.
IV) Increases the participation of people in power.
Options :
A) Only I, II and III are correct. B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
C) Only I, III and IV are correct. D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Ans: C
17. “The focus on caste in politics can sometimes give an impression that elections are all about
caste and nothing else. That is far from true.” 1
Consider the following statements in the context of the given statement.
i) No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste or community.
ii) Some political parties are known to favour some castes and are seen as their representatives.
iii) No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste.
iv) Mobilising and securing political support has brought new consciousness among the
lower castes.
Which of the given statements does not supports the given context?
A) i and ii B) i and iii C) ii and iii D) ii and iv
Ans:D
18. In how many states, the Atal Bhujal Yojana is being implemented? 1
A) Five B) Seven C) Nine D) Ten
Ans: B

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19. Which one of the following organizations prepares the ‘World Development Report’? 1
A) World Bank B) International Monetary Fund
C) World Health Organisation D) International Labour Organisation
Ans: A
20. Study the following picture. The work done in the picture comes under which one of the
following sectors of the economy? 1

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary

Ans: C

SECTION - B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2M × 4 = 8M)

21. Mention any two difficulties of ‘manuscripts’? 2

A. i) Manuscripts were highly expensive and fragile.
ii) They had to be handled carefully, and they could not be read easily as the script was
written in different styles.
iii) So manuscripts were not widely used in everyday life.
22. List out any two features of ‘federalism’. 2
A. Features of federalism:
i) There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
ii) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction
in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration
iii) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial
autonomy.
iv) Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of
government.
(OR)
Mention any two problems faced by the local governments in India.
A. Problems faced by the local governments in India:
i) While elections are held regularly and enthusiastically, gram sabhas are not held regularly.
ii) Most state governments have not transferred significant powers to the local governments.
Nor have they given adequate resources.

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23. “The Sardar Sarovar project would meet the requirement of water in drought-prone and
desert areas.” Support the statement with two arguments. 2
A. i) Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada River in Gujarat. It would meet the
requirement of water in drought-prone and desert areas.
ii) Sardar Sarovar Project will provide irrigation facilities to 18.45 lakh hectare of land,
covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat and it will also irrigate 2,46,000 hectare
of land in the strategic desert districts of Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan.
iii) About 75 per cent of the command area in Gujarat is drought prone while entire command
in Rajasthan is drought prone. Assured water supply will soon make this area drought
proof.
24. What is Gross Domestic Product (GDP)? Why are final goods and services included in the
calculation of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)? 2
A. Gross Domestic Product (GDP):
i) It is the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country’s
borders over a specific period, typically a year or a quarter. It is a key measure of a
country’s economic performance and reflects the size and health of its economy.
Calculation of GDP:
ii) Final goods and services are included in GDP calculation because they represent the end
products that are purchased and consumed by the final user. Including only final goods
avoids double counting, ensuring that the value of intermediate goods (which are part of
the production process) is not counted multiple times.

SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3M × 5 = 15M)

25. Describe the main features of the ‘Salt March’. 3

A. The Salt March, also known as the Dandi March, was a significant event in India’s struggle for
independence led by Mahatma Gandhi. It took place in 1930 as part of the Civil Disobedience
Movement. Here are its main features:
i) The march aimed to challenge the British monopoly on salt production and the oppressive
salt tax, which affected every Indian, especially the poor.
ii) The march began on March 12, 1930, and ended on April 6, 1930.
Gandhi, accompanied by 78 followers, marched approximately 240 miles from Sabarmati
Ashram in Ahmedabad to the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat.
iii) The Salt March was an example of Satyagraha (nonviolent resistance), Gandhi’s
philosophy of peaceful protest. Participants adhered strictly to nonviolence despite facing
arrests and crackdowns by British authorities.
26. Describe the elements of Belgian model for accommodating diversities. 3
A. i) The Belgian Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking
ministers shall be equal in the central government.
ii) Under the proper power sharing arrangement, many powers of the central government
were given to state governments for the two regions of the country. The state governments
were not subordinate to the central government.
iii) A separate government has been set up at Brussels in which both the communities have
equal representation.
iv) Apart from the central and the state government, there is third kind of government,
i.e., ‘community government’. This ‘community government’ is elected by the people
Sri Chaitanya School 6 No.1 School in India
 belonging to one language community - Dutch, French and German speaking - no matter
where they live.
27. “The sharing of power between the Union government and the State governments is basic
to the nature of the Indian Constitution’. How? 3
A. As India is a holding together type of federation, the powers are shared between the central and
the State governments as per the written Constitution.
i) This sharing of power between the Union Government and the State Governments is
basic to the structure of the Constitution.
ii) It is not easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement. The Parliament cannot
on its own change this arrangement.
iii) Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least two-
thirds majority. Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total
States.
28. “The conservation projects are now focusing on biodiversity rather than on a few of its
components.” Why? Give an example. 3
i) Biodiversity encompasses the variety of life on Earth, including all plants, animals, and
micro organisms, as well as the genetic diversity of species and their habitats.
ii) A species can be protected when its habitat is also protected. Efforts to protect a species
without preserving its natural habitat may not be successful. So, it’s very much needed to
focus on conserving biodiversity.
Eg:
iii) The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act: Included animals and small insects. In a notification
under the Act in 1980 and 1986, several hundred butterflies, moths, beetles, and one
dragonfly added to protected species.
iv) In 1991, for the first time, six species plants were added.
29. Why could different persons have different notions of a country’s development ? Explain
with examples. 3
A. i) Different people can have varying notions of a country’s development because
development is a multidimensional concept that depends on individuals’ priorities, values,
and circumstances.
ii) These differences stem from variations in personal experiences, socio-economic status,
cultural backgrounds, and professional interests.
iii) So, different persons could have different as well as conflicting notions of a country’s
development.
Eg: Wealthy individuals might prioritize technological advancements and luxury facilities
whereas the low-income groups might value affordable healthcare, education, and housing
more.
(OR)
‘‘Suppose the average income of a country is not being increased over time but the records
of the National Income show a rise.’’ What does this situation signify ?
A. If a country’s average income remains stagnant over time, but its National Income shows a rise,
this situation signifies an increase in population without a proportional rise in the overall wealth
or resources available to individuals.
Population Growth Outpacing National Income:
i) If the population increases significantly, the total National Income may grow, but the

Sri Chaitanya School 7 No.1 School in India

 per capita (average) income could remain stagnant because the income is distributed
among more people.
Eg: If a country’s National Income rises from $1 trillion to $1.2 trillion but its
population grows from 100 million to 120 million, the average income stays at $10,000.
Economic Growth Without Improved Living Standards:
ii) A rise in National Income without an increase in average income suggests that economic
growth is not translating into higher living standards for individuals.

SECTION D
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5M × 4 = 20M)

30. Explain the process of Unification of Italy. 5

A. The unification of Italy, or Risorgimento, was a complex process that spanned much of the 19th
century. It culminated in 1861 with the establishment of the Kingdom of Italy, but the journey
involved multiple key events and figures.
Early 19th Century - Fragmentation:
i) Before unification, Italy was divided into numerous states and kingdoms, many of which
were controlled by foreign powers like Austria and Spain. The Congress of Vienna (1815)
had left Italy fragmented, with the Austrian Empire holding power in the north and the
Papal States in central Italy.
Revolutionary Movements (1820s-1830s):
ii) Inspired by the French Revolution and nationalism, various uprisings and secret societies
(like the Carbonari) sought to liberate Italy from foreign control. Though these movements
were suppressed, they laid the groundwork for future unification efforts.
Rise of Key Figures:
Giuseppe Mazzini:
iii) A leading figure in the early phases of Italian nationalism, Mazzini founded Young Italy
in 1831, advocating for a republic and a united Italian nation.
Count Camillo di Cavour:
iv) Prime Minister of the Kingdom of Sardinia, Cavour played a crucial role in diplomatic
efforts to unite Italy under a constitutional monarchy. He sought alliances with France
and used strategic wars to weaken Austria’s control over northern Italy.
Giuseppe Garibaldi:
v) A nationalist and military leader, Garibaldi led successful campaigns in southern Italy,
notably his famous Expedition of the Thousand (1860), which helped conquer the
Kingdom of the Two Sicilies.
War and Diplomacy:
Second Italian War of Independence (1859):
vi) Cavour allied with France to fight Austria, leading to the annexation of Lombardy and
paving the way for further unification in northern Italy.
Garibaldi’s Campaign (1860):
vii) Garibaldi’s forces captured Sicily and Naples, which were later handed over to the
Kingdom of Sardinia, strengthening the movement for unification.
Unification of Italy (1861):
viii) The Kingdom of Italy was officially proclaimed on March 17, 1861, with Victor Emmanuel
II of Sardinia as its first king. However, not all of Italy was unified at this point—Rome
and Venetia remained outside the kingdom.

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 Completion of Unification:
Venetia (1866):
ix) Following Italy’s alliance with Prussia in the Austro-Prussian War, Venetia was ceded to
Italy.
Rome (1870):
x) After the Franco-Prussian War, France withdrew its troops from Rome, allowing Italy
to capture the city and make it the capital, thus completing the unification process. The
unification of Italy was a blend of diplomacy, war, and popular support, driven by key
figures and a growing sense of national identity. By 1871, Italy had become a unified
nation-state.
(Any other relevant points can be considered)
(OR)
Briefly trace the process of German Unification.
A. The unification of Germany was a key event in 19th-century European history, culminating in
the creation of the German Empire in 1871. The process involved both diplomacy and war, led
primarily by Otto von Bismarck, the Prime Minister of Prussia. Here’s a brief outline of the
process:
Pre-Unification Fragmentation:
i) Before unification, Germany was not a unified country but a collection of independent
states and principalities, known as the German Confederation, which was established
after the Congress of Vienna (1815).
Rise of Nationalism (1830s-1840s):
ii) Inspired by the wave of revolutions in Europe and the rise of nationalist sentiment, the
idea of a united Germany gained traction, particularly among liberals and intellectuals.
However, earlier attempts at unification, such as the 1848 revolutions, failed to achieve
lasting results.
Otto von Bismarck’s Leadership:
iii) Bismarck, appointed Prime Minister of Prussia in 1862, was the key architect of German
unification. He believed in using pragmatism, diplomacy, and military force (realpolitik)
to achieve his goals.
The Danish War (1864):
iv) Bismarck allied with Austria to defeat Denmark and gain control of the duchies of
Schleswig and Holstein. While Prussia gained Schleswig, Austria controlled Holstein,
which set the stage for conflict between the two.
The Austro-Prussian War (1866):
v) Bismarck manipulated tensions between Austria and Prussia over the administration of
the duchies. He provoked a war with Austria, which resulted in a swift Prussian victory.
Austria was excluded from German affairs, and Prussia took control of most of northern
Germany, forming the North German Confederation (1867), a federal state dominated by
Prussia.
The Franco-Prussian War (1870-1871):
vi) Bismarck used diplomatic tensions with France to stir up nationalist sentiment in the
southern German states. After manipulating the Ems Dispatch (a diplomatic message),
Bismarck provoked France into declaring war on Prussia. The war united the northern
German states with the southern states in defense against France.

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 vii) The Franco-Prussian War was a success for Prussia, and after defeating France, the
southern German states agreed to join the North German Confederation, creating the
German Empire in 1871.
Creation of the German Empire (1871):
viii) On January 18, 1871, King Wilhelm I of Prussia was crowned Emperor (Kaiser) of the
newly unified German Empire in the Hall of Mirrors at the Palace of Versailles. The
unification was completed with Prussia at its core, and the new empire included most
of the Germanspeaking states. Through a combination of war, diplomacy, and strategic
alliances, Bismarck was able to unite Germany under Prussian leadership, transforming
the balance of power in Europe.
(Any other relevant points can be considered)
31. Define the term ‘secularism.’ Explain any four features of secularism in India. 5
A. i) The principle of separation of the state from religious institutions is called secularism.
Constitutional Provisions:
ii) There is no official religion for the Indian state. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri
Lanka, that of Islam in Pakistan and that of Christianity in England, our Constitution does
not give a special status to any religion.
iii) The Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice
and propagate any religion, or not to follow any.
vi) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
v) At the same time, the Constitution allows the state to intervene in the matters of religion in
order to ensure equality within religious communities. For example, it bans untouchability.
(OR)
Explain any five aspects of our day-to-day life in which women are discriminated in India.
A. Literacy rate:
i) The literacy rate among women is only 54 per cent as compared to 76 per cent among
men. Similarly, a smaller proportion of girl students go for higher studies because parents
prefer to spend their resources for their boys’ education than spending equally on their
daughters.
Unpaid work:
ii) The proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very small.
Though on an average, the Indian woman works one hour more than an average man
every day, but most of them are not paid equally and therefore, their work is often not
valued.
Sex ratio:
iii) In many parts of India, parents prefer to have sons, and find ways to have the girl child
aborted before she is born. This has led to a decline in the child sex ratio (the number of
girl children per thousand boys) in the country is merely 919.
Domestic violence:
iv) There are reports of various kinds of harassment, exploitation and violence against
women. Both urban as well as rural areas have become unsafe for women. They are not
safe even within their own home from beating and other forms of domestic violence.

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32. Explain the ‘Bamboo drip irrigation system’ of Meghalaya. 5
A. i) In Meghalaya, a 200-year-old system of tapping stream and spring water by using
bamboo pipes, is prevalent. About 18-20 litres of water enters the bamboo pipe system,
gets transported over hundreds of metres, and finally reduces to 20-80 drops per minute
at the site of the plant.
ii) Bamboo pipes are used to divert perennial springs on the hilltops to the lower reaches by
gravity.
iii) The channel sections, made of bamboo, divert water to the plant site where it is distributed
into branches, again made and laid out with different forms of bamboo pipes.
iv) The flow of water into the pipes is controlled by manipulating the pipe positions. If the
pipes pass a road, they are taken high above the land.
v) Reduced channel sections and diversion units are used at the last stage of water application.
The last channel section enables water to be dropped near the roots of the plant.
(OR)
“In recent years, multi purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny
and opposition.” Support the statement.
A. i) Adverse effect on the fertility of the soil: Due to the construction of dams, there are no
annual floods in the river. And because of this, the soil of the downstream region does not
get nutrient rich “silt”. This decreases the fertility of the soil.
ii) Adverse impact on aquatic life: Due to the construction of dams on the rivers, the fish
in the downstream area do not get sufficient nutrient material. Regulating and damming
of rivers affect the natural flow of water causing poor sediment flow downward, and
excessive sedimentation at the bottom of reservoir, resulting in rockier stream beds and
poorer habitats for the rivers’ aquatic life. Dams also fragment rivers making it difficult
for aquatic fauna to migrate for spawning i.e., to produce eggs.
iii) Displacement of local communities: The building of large dams results in displacement,of
local communities. The local people often have to give up their land and livelihood and
their meager access and control over resources for the greater food of the nation.
iv) Change in the cropping pattern: The multi-purpose projects are responsible for providing
assured means of irrigation to farmers. Due to this, most of the farmers have changed
the cropping pattern shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. This has led to
salinisation of soil leading to ecological imbalance.
33. Highlight the contribution of public sector in the economic development of a country. 5
The public sector plays a pivotal role in the economic development of a country, contributing in
multiple ways to ensure sustainable growth, equitable resource distribution, and social welfare.
Here are some key contributions:
Infrastructure Development:
i) Transportation and Communication: The public sector often invests in large-scale
infrastructure projects such as roads, railways, ports, airports, and communication networks.
These form the backbone of economic activity, facilitating trade and connectivity.
ii) Energy and Utilities: Public enterprises ensure the supply of essential utilities like
electricity, water, and sanitation, which are vital for industries and households.
Employment Generation:
iii) Public sector enterprises are significant employers, especially in developing countries.
They provide jobs in industries, education, healthcare, and administrative sectors,
reducing unemployment and supporting household incomes.

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 Economic Stabilization:
iv) During economic downturns, the public sector plays a stabilizing role by maintaining
public spending on essential services, creating jobs, and investing in infrastructure to
stimulate demand.
Provision of Public Goods and Services:
v) The public sector ensures access to goods and services like education, healthcare,
and security, which are crucial for human capital development and overall economic
productivity.
Promotion of Industrial Growth:
vi) By establishing industries in key sectors like steel, energy, and transportation, the public
sector lays the foundation for industrialization and economic diversification.
vii) It also supports small and medium enterprises (SMEs) through subsidies, training, and
access to credit.
The public sector acts as a catalyst for economic development by creating infrastructure,
providing essential services, reducing inequalities, and stabilizing the economy. A robust and
efficient public sector complements private sector activities, ensuring a balanced and inclusive
economic growth trajectory.
(OR)
Explain the differences between the organised and unorganised sector of economic
activities.
A.

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 SECTION E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4M × 3 = 12M)

34. Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: 4
Print and Dissent
Print and popular religious literature stimulated many distinctive individual interpretations of
faith even among little-educated working people. In the sixteenth century, Menocchio, a miller
in Italy, began to read books that were available in his locality. He reinterpreted the message of
the Bible and formulated a view of God and Creation that enraged the Roman Catholic Church.
When the Roman Church began its inquisition to repress heretical ideas, Menocchio was hauled
up twice and ultimately executed. The Roman Church, troubled by such effects of popular
readings and questionings of faith, imposed severe controls over publishers and booksellers and
began to maintain an Index of Prohibited Books from 1558.
34.1 Why individual interpretations of faith developed in the sixteenth century Europe?[1]
A. As more amount of religious literature is available, distinctive interpretations were
developed.
34.2 What was the reason behind maintaining Index of Prohibited Books from 1558?[1]
A. The catholic church thought if there was no control on what was orinted and read,
irreligious and rebellious thoughts might spread.
34.3 Why Menocchio was executed? [2]
A. Menochhio’s view of God and Creation enraged the Roman Catholic Church.
35. Read the given extract and answer following questions: 4
Project Tiger
“Project Tiger”, one of the well-publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, was launched in
1973. Tiger conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save an endangered species,
but with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude. Corbett
National Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh National
Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in
Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some of the tiger reserves of India.
35.1 “In 1973, the authorities realised that the tiger population had dwindled to 1,827
from an estimated 55,000 at the turn of the century.” Why? [1]
A. The major threats to tiger population are numerous, such as poaching for trade, shrinking
habitat, depletion of prey base species, growing human population, etc. The trade of tiger
skins and the use of their bones in traditional medicines, especially in the Asian countries
left the tiger population on the verge of extinction.
35.2 Name any two tiger reserves of India along with their respective States. [1]
A. i) Corbett National Park - Uttarakhand
ii) Sundarbans National Park - West Bengal
35.3 Why tiger is considered as one of the key wildlife species in the faunal web? Mention
a campaign started by Government of India for its protection. [2]
A. i) The tiger is a unique animal which plays a pivotal role in the health and diversity of
an ecosystem. It is a top predator which is at the apex of the food chain and keeps
the population of wild ungulates in check, thereby maintaining the balance between
herbivores and the vegetation upon which they feed.
ii) “Project Tiger”, one of the well-publicised wildlife campaigns in the world, was
launched in 1973 by the Government of India. Tiger conservation has been viewed
not only as an effort to save an endangered species, but with equal importance as a
means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude.
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36. Read the given extract and answer following questions. 4
Body Mass Index
One way to find out if we are properly nourished is to calculate what nutrition scientists call
it BMI. This is easy to calculate. Let each student in the class find out his or her weight and
height. Take the weight of each student in kilograms (kg) . Then, take the height by drawing
up a scale on the wall and measuring accurately with the head straight. Convert the height
recorded in centimeters into meters. Divide the weight in kg by the square of the height. The
number you get is called BMI. Then, look at the BMI-for-Age tables given on pages 90–91.
A student’s BMI could be within the normal range or less than that (underweight) or more
(obesity) . For example, if a girl student is 14 years and 8 month old and the BMI is 15.2, then
she is undernourished. Similarly, if the BMI of a boy aged 15 years and 6 months is 28, then
he is overweight. Discuss the life situation, food and exercise habits of students, in general,
without body shaming anyone.
36.1 What is BMI? [1]
A. BMI, or Body Mass Index, is a measure used to assess whether a person’s body weight
is appropriate for their height. It is commonly used as an indicator of body fatness and
a simple screening tool for categorizing individuals into weight categories such as
underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese.
36.2 What is the correct formula to calculate the BMI? [1]
A. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI),Take the weight of the person in kg. Then take
the height in metres. Divide the weight by the square of the height.

36.3 Rahul is 6 ft tall and he weighs 82 kilos. Calculate his BMI. [2]
A. Step 1: Take weight in Kgs = 82
Step 2 : Take height in meters = 1.8 meters (6ft)

Step 3 :
BMI = 82 / (1.8)2 = 25
: Rahul is healthy.

SECTION E
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2+3=5M)

37. a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 2
A) The place where the Jallianwala Bagh incident took place. (Amritsar)
B) The place where the INC Session was conducted in Dec-1920. (Nagpur)
b. On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with
suitable Symbols. 3
i) Tungabhadra - A Multipurpose Project in Karnataka.
ii) Kalol - An Oil Filed in Gujarat.
iii) Bokaro - An Iron and Steel Plant in Jharkhand.
iv) Kochi - A Major Sea Port in Kerala.

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 Note:The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No.37.
Attempt any FIVE questions.
37.1 The place where the Jallianwala Bagh incident took place. 1
37.2 The place where the INC Session was conducted in Dec-1920. 1
37.3 Tungabhadra - A Multipurpose Project in Karnataka. 1
37.4 Kalol - An Oil Filed in Gujarat. 1
37.5 Bokaro - An Iron and Steel Plant in Jharkhand. 1
37.6 Kochi - A Major Sea Port in Kerala. 1

Map for Question No. 37

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 PRE BOARD EXAMINATION - 2
Class : X (CBSE) SET - 3 (MS) Max. Marks : 80
Sub : Social Science (087) 2024-25 Time : 3 Hrs.
General Instructions :
i) Question paper comprises six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in
the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii) Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii) Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv) Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
v) Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi) Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each.
vii) Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from
History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

SECTION A
MCQs (1M × 20 = 20M)

1. What the ‘sword’ in the hand of Germania represents? 1

A) Heroism B) Readiness to fight C) Being freed D) Beginning of a new era

Ans: B

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2. Arrange the following events in the chronological order and choose the correct option. 1
i) Ahmedabad Satyagraha (1918)
ii) Kheda Satyagraha (1917)
iii) Formation of Khilafat Committee in Bombay (Mar-1919)
iv) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (Apr-1919)
Options:
A) iv, iii, i, ii B) iii, iv, i, ii C) ii, i, iii, iv D) i, ii, iii, iv
Ans: C
3. Which of the following newspaers/journals is related to Raja Rammohan Roy? 1
A) Samachar Chandrika B) Sambad kaumudi
C) Bombay Samacahr D) Bengal Gazette
Ans. B
4. Which of the following steps was not a majoritarian measure implemented by the Sri
Lankan Government? 1
A) An Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language
B) The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for
university positions and government jobs.
C) An autonomous government established in the regions where the Sri Lankan Tamils were
living.
D) A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
Ans: C
5. Match List I (Lists in the Constitution) with List II (Subjects) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below in the lists: 1
Column-I Column-II
I) Union List a) Marriage
II) State List b) Communication
III) Concurrent List c) Agriculture
IV) Residuary List d) Software
I II III IV
A) d a c b
B) b c a d
C) a b d c
D) c d b a
Ans: B
6. “The makers of our Constitution chose the model of a secular state. This choice was reflected
in several constitutional provisions.” 1
Consider the following statements in the context of the given statement.
i) Our Constitution does not give a special status to any religion.
ii) The Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice
and propagate any religion.
iii) The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
iv) Every person need to follow any one religion.
Which of the given statements are supporting the given context?
A) i, ii and iii B) ii, iii and iv C) i, iii and iv D) i, ii and iv
Ans:A
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7. Which of the following states have bulk of its area under protected forests? 1
A) Gujarat B) Madhya Pradesh C) Tamil Nadu D) Haryana
Ans:D
8. Identify the incorrectly matched pair from the following. 1
A) Palar Pani - Rainwater B) Kuls - Inundation Channels
C) Tankas - Underground Tanks D) Matkas - Eathen Pots
Ans: B
9. With a per capita of US$ 6700 in 2019, India comes in the category of 1
A) High income countries B) Low-income countries
C) High middle income countries D) Low middle income countries
Ans: D
10. The Planning Commission says every year we can give additional employment to more
than 35 lakh, if we improve that sector. What is the sector? 1
A) Tourism B) IT C) Health D) Communication
Ans:A
11. “The Union Cabinet Minister for Information and technology introduced a bill on ‘cyber crimes’
in the Parliament of India. The bill sent to a joint committee of the Parliament for more scrutiny.
This type of procedure is possible when the power is shared between............... 1
A) Different organs B) Different levels
C) Different political aprties D) Different social groups
Ans:A
12. Match the following and choose the correct option: 1
Attributes Significance
a) Karol Karpunski i) France
b) Grimm Brothers ii) Austria
c) Napoleon iii) Poland
d) Metternich iv) Germany
Options:
a b c d
A) iv iii ii i
B) iv iii i ii
C) iii iv i ii
D) iii iv ii i
Ans: C
13. Along with Hindi, how many Scheduled Languages are there in the Constitution of
India? 1
A) 20 B) 21 C) 22 D) 23
Ans:C
14. Which one of the following organizations publishes the ‘Human Development Report’?
1
A) World Bank B) International Monetary Fund
C) World Health Organisation D) United Nations Development Programme
Ans: D

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15. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Historical Change in Sectors’. 1
Statement I : In countries that at initial stages of development, primary sector was the
most important sector of economic activity.
Statement II : In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift from secondary to
tertiary sector in developed countries.
Choose the correct option.
A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
C) Both the statements are true
D) Both the statements are false
Ans: C
16. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Road the statements
and choose the most appropriate option : 1
Assertion (A) : Power sharing is good.
Reason (R) : It helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between social groups.
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) not correctly explains (A).
C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: A
17. Which one of the following matters do NOT deal with the ‘Family Laws’? 1
A) Marriage B) Adoption C) Inheritance D) Finance
Ans:D
18. Identify the incorrect statement from the following with respect to the Sardar Sarovar
Dam. 1
A) It has been built over Narmada river in Maharashtra.
B) It covers four states, namely - Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan.
C) It would meet the requirement of water in drought-prone and desert areas.
D) It will irrigate 2,46,000 hectare of land in the strategic desert districts of Barmer and Jalore
in Rajasthan
Ans: A
19. Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements
and choose the most appropriate option : 1
Assertion (A) : It is very important to keep in mind that different persons could have different
as well as conflicting notions of a country’s development.
Reason (R) : For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most
important attributes.
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) not correctly explains (A).
C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: B

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20. Study the following picture. The work done in the picture comes under which one of the
following sectors of the economy? 1

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary

Ans: C

SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2M × 4 = 8M)

21. Which was the first book printed by Johann Gutenberg? How many copies were printed
in how many years? 2
A. i) By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system. The first book he printed was the Bible.
ii) About 180 copies were printed and it took three years to produce them. By the standards
of the time this was fast production.
22. Examine the role of the Supreme Court in the Federal System of India in two points. 2
A. i) The Supreme Court ensures the distribution of powers between the Union and State
governments remains in harmony with the Constitution. It adjudicates disputes between
the Union and States or among States.
ii) Supreme Court of India is often referred to as the Guardian of the Constitution because of
its crucial role in upholding the constitutional framework by upholding the Fundamental
Rights and Judicial Review.
(OR)
What is federalism? In how many types can the federal goverments be created? Give
examples.
A. i) Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central
authority and various constituent units of the country.
ii) There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.
a) Coming together federations. Eg: USA, Switzerland and Australia.
b) Holding together federations. Eg; India, Spain and Belgium.
23. Mention the major objectives of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana. 2
A. i) It is a national mission (launched in 2015) to improve farm productivity and ensure better
utilization of the resources in the country.
ii) Some of the broad objectives of this programme are__
a) To enhance the physical access of water on the farm and expand cultivable area
under assured irrigation (har khet ko pani).
b) To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability
both in duration and extent, irrigation and other water saving technologies (per drop
more crop) and introduce sustainable water conservation practices, etc.

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24. What are intermediate goods?
A. i) Intermediate goods are goods that are used as inputs in the production of other goods or
services. They are not final products consumed directly by end users but are essential for
creating finished goods.
ii) These goods may undergo further transformation, assembly, or processing before
becoming part of a final product.
Eg: Goods such as wheat and wheat flour are intermediate goods which are used in producing
final goods such as biscuits.

SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3M × 5 = 15M)

25. What were the factors responsible for the gradual slow down of the Non Cooperation
Movement? 3
A. The movement in the cities gradually slowed down for variety of reasons:
Expensive Khadi :
i) The Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass-produced mill cloth and poor people
could not afford to buy it. So, they couldn’t boycott the mill clothes for long time.
No alternatives :
ii) The boycott British institutions posed a problem for the movement to be successful,
alternate Indian institutions, had to be set up so they could be used in place of the British
institutions but these were slow to come up.
ii) So students and teachers had no option except joining back government schools, and
lawyers joined back work in government courts.
26. What led to the ethnic tensions in Belgium? Why was it more acute in Brussels? 3
A. i) The ethnic composition of this small country is very complex. Of the country’s total
population. 59 per cent lives in the Flemish region and speak Dutch language. Another
40 per cent people live in the Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining 1 per cent of
the Belgians speak German. In the capital city, Brussels, 80 per cent people speak French
while 20 per cent are Dutch-speaking.
ii) The minority French speaking community was relatively rich and powerful. So the
Dutch speaking community, who got the benefit of economic development and education
much later showed the resentment between the Dutch-speaking and the French-speaking
communities during the 1950s and the 1960s.
iii) The conflict between the two communities was more severe in Brussels because the Dutch
speaking people constituted a majority in the country, but a minority in the capital.
27. Write any three points on the ‘Project Tiger’. 3
i) Project Tiger was launched in 1973 by the Government of India to prevent the declining
population of tigers and ensure a viable population in their natural habitats. It aimed
to protect tigers from threats like poaching, habitat destruction, and human-wildlife
conflicts.
ii) The project involves habitat restoration, relocation of villages from core areas, anti-
poaching operations, and monitoring tiger populations using scientific methods like
camera traps and genetic analysis.
iii) India has seen a significant recovery in tiger numbers since the project’s inception. Corbett
National Park in Uttarakhand, Sunderbans National Park in West Bengal, Bandhavgarh
National Park in Madhya Pradesh, Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger
Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some of the tiger reserves of
India.
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28. Differentiate between the ‘Federal form of government’ and the ‘Unitary form of
government’. 3
A.

29. On what basis is the criterion used by the United Nations Development Programme
(UNDP) for measuring development different from the one used by the World Bank?
Explain. 3
A. Criterion used by the World Bank:
i) The World Bank defined low and high income countries according to per capita income
(PCI).
ii) Countries with per capita income of US$ 49,300 per annum and above in 2019, are called
high income or rich countries.
iii) Countries with percapita income of US$ 2500 or less are called low-income countries.
Criterion used by the UNDP:
iv) Over the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widelyus ed
along with income as a measure of development.
v) Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the
educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.
(OR)
Why has the issue of sustainablity become essential for development in present times?
Explain with example.
A. i) Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
ii) The issue of sustainability is important for development because if the natural resources
are not used carefully, they may not be available for future generations.

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 iii) The depleting resources of a country may ultimately result in a lack of development of the
country.
Eg:
iv) Overfishing has depleted fish stocks in oceans, threatening marine ecosystems and the
livelihoods of fishing communities.
v) Agricultural dependence on chemical fertilizers and pesticides can degrade soil health,
reducing productivity and increasing food insecurity.

SECTION - D

LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5M × 4 = 20M)

30. Explain the process of Unification of Italy. 5

A. The unification of Italy, or Risorgimento, was a complex process that spanned much of the 19th
century. It culminated in 1861 with the establishment of the Kingdom of Italy, but the journey
involved multiple key events and figures.
Early 19th Century - Fragmentation:
i) Before unification, Italy was divided into numerous states and kingdoms, many of which
were controlled by foreign powers like Austria and Spain. The Congress of Vienna (1815)
had left Italy fragmented, with the Austrian Empire holding power in the north and the
Papal States in central Italy.
Revolutionary Movements (1820s-1830s):
ii) Inspired by the French Revolution and nationalism, various uprisings and secret societies
(like the Carbonari) sought to liberate Italy from foreign control. Though these movements
were suppressed, they laid the groundwork for future unification efforts.
Rise of Key Figures:
Giuseppe Mazzini:
iii) A leading figure in the early phases of Italian nationalism, Mazzini founded Young Italy
in 1831, advocating for a republic and a united Italian nation.
Count Camillo di Cavour:
iv) Prime Minister of the Kingdom of Sardinia, Cavour played a crucial role in diplomatic
efforts to unite Italy under a constitutional monarchy. He sought alliances with France
and used strategic wars to weaken Austria’s control over northern Italy.
Giuseppe Garibaldi:
v) A nationalist and military leader, Garibaldi led successful campaigns in southern Italy,
notably his famous Expedition of the Thousand (1860), which helped conquer the
Kingdom of the Two Sicilies.
War and Diplomacy:
Second Italian War of Independence (1859):
vi) Cavour allied with France to fight Austria, leading to the annexation of Lombardy and
paving the way for further unification in northern Italy.
Garibaldi’s Campaign (1860):
vii) Garibaldi’s forces captured Sicily and Naples, which were later handed over to the
Kingdom of Sardinia, strengthening the movement for unification.
Unification of Italy (1861):
viii) The Kingdom of Italy was officially proclaimed on March 17, 1861, with Victor Emmanuel
II of Sardinia as its first king. However, not all of Italy was unified at this point—Rome
and Venetia remained outside the kingdom.

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 Completion of Unification:
Venetia (1866):
ix) Following Italy’s alliance with Prussia in the Austro-Prussian War, Venetia was ceded to
Italy.
Rome (1870):
x) After the Franco-Prussian War, France withdrew its troops from Rome, allowing Italy
to capture the city and make it the capital, thus completing the unification process. The
unification of Italy was a blend of diplomacy, war, and popular support, driven by key
figures and a growing sense of national identity. By 1871, Italy had become a unified
nation-state.
(Any other relevant points can be considered)
(OR)
Briefly trace the process of German Unification.
A. The unification of Germany was a key event in 19th-century European history, culminating in
the creation of the German Empire in 1871. The process involved both diplomacy and war, led
primarily by Otto von Bismarck, the Prime Minister of Prussia. Here’s a brief outline of the
process:
Pre-Unification Fragmentation:
i) Before unification, Germany was not a unified country but a collection of independent
states and principalities, known as the German Confederation, which was established
after the Congress of Vienna (1815).
Rise of Nationalism (1830s-1840s):
ii) Inspired by the wave of revolutions in Europe and the rise of nationalist sentiment, the
idea of a united Germany gained traction, particularly among liberals and intellectuals.
However, earlier attempts at unification, such as the 1848 revolutions, failed to achieve
lasting results.
Otto von Bismarck’s Leadership:
iii) Bismarck, appointed Prime Minister of Prussia in 1862, was the key architect of German
unification. He believed in using pragmatism, diplomacy, and military force (realpolitik)
to achieve his goals.
The Danish War (1864):
iv) Bismarck allied with Austria to defeat Denmark and gain control of the duchies of
Schleswig and Holstein. While Prussia gained Schleswig, Austria controlled Holstein,
which set the stage for conflict between the two.
The Austro-Prussian War (1866):
v) Bismarck manipulated tensions between Austria and Prussia over the administration of
the duchies. He provoked a war with Austria, which resulted in a swift Prussian victory.
Austria was excluded from German affairs, and Prussia took control of most of northern
Germany, forming the North German Confederation (1867), a federal state dominated by
Prussia.
The Franco-Prussian War (1870-1871):
vi) Bismarck used diplomatic tensions with France to stir up nationalist sentiment in the
southern German states. After manipulating the Ems Dispatch (a diplomatic message),
Bismarck provoked France into declaring war on Prussia. The war united the northern
German states with the southern states in defense against France.

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 vii) The Franco-Prussian War was a success for Prussia, and after defeating France, the
southern German states agreed to join the North German Confederation, creating the
German Empire in 1871.
Creation of the German Empire (1871):
viii) On January 18, 1871, King Wilhelm I of Prussia was crowned Emperor (Kaiser) of the
newly unified German Empire in the Hall of Mirrors at the Palace of Versailles. The
unification was completed with Prussia at its core, and the new empire included most
of the Germanspeaking states. Through a combination of war, diplomacy, and strategic
alliances, Bismarck was able to unite Germany under Prussian leadership, transforming
the balance of power in Europe.
31. “Communalism can take various forms in politics.” Explain. 5
A. Communalism can take several forms in politics - in everyday beliefs, formation of parties
based on communities, campaigning or asking for votes, formation of government, etc.
Communalism in daily beliefs:
i) The most common expression of communalism is in everyday life. These routinely
involve religious prejudices, stereotypes of religious communities and the belief in the
superiority of one religion over the other religions. This is so common that we often fail
to notice it, even when we believe in it.
Formation of political parties on the basis of communities:
ii) All the communities of the world have a quest for political dominance of one’s own
religious community. For those belonging to the majority community, this takes the form
of majoritarian dominance. For those belonging to the minority community, it can take
the form of a desire to form a separate political unit.
Political mobilisation on communal lines :
iii) It is another frequent form of communalism. Parties based on a particular community
make use of sacred symbols, religious leaders, emotional appeal and plain fear in order
to bring the followers of one religion together in the political arena. In electoral politics,
this often involves a special appeal to the interests or emotions of voters of one religion
in preference to others..
Communal riots :
iv) Sometimes, communalism takes the most ugly form of communal violence, riots and
massacre. India has suffered some of the worst communal riots at the time of partition.
The post-independence period has also seen large-scale communal violence.
(OR)
Explain any five aspects of our day-to-day life in which women are discriminated in
India.
A. Literacy rate:
i) The literacy rate among women is only 54 per cent as compared to 76 per cent among
men. Similarly, a smaller proportion of girl students go for higher studies because parents
prefer to spend their resources for their boys’ education than spending equally on their
daughters.
Unpaid work:
ii) The proportion of women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very small.
Though on an average, the Indian woman works one hour more than an average man
every day, but most of them are not paid equally and therefore, their work is often not
valued.
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 Sex ratio:
iii) In many parts of India, parents prefer to have sons, and find ways to have the girl child
aborted before she is born. This has led to a decline in the child sex ratio (the number of
girl children per thousand boys) in the country is merely 919.
Domestic violence:
iv) There are reports of various kinds of harassment, exploitation and violence against
women. Both urban as well as rural areas have become unsafe for women. They are not
safe even within their own home from beating and other forms of domestic violence.
32. “In recent years, multi purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny
and opposition.” Support the statement. 5
A. i) Adverse effect on the fertility of the soil: Due to the construction of dams, there are no
annual floods in the river. And because of this, the soil of the downstream region does not
get nutrient rich “silt”. This decreases the fertility of the soil.
ii) Adverse impact on aquatic life: Due to the construction of dams on the rivers, the fish
in the downstream area do not get sufficient nutrient material. Regulating and damming
of rivers affect the natural flow of water causing poor sediment flow downward, and
excessive sedimentation at the bottom of reservoir, resulting in rockier stream beds and
poorer habitats for the rivers’ aquatic life. Dams also fragment rivers making it difficult
for aquatic fauna to migrate for spawning i.e., to produce eggs.
iii) Displacement of local communities: The building of large dams results in displacement
,of local communities. The local people often have to give up their land and livelihood
and their meager access and control over resources for the greater food of the nation.
iv) Change in the cropping pattern: The multi-purpose projects are responsible for providing
assured means of irrigation to farmers. Due to this, most of the farmers have changed
the cropping pattern shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. This has led to
salinisation of soil leading to ecological imbalance.
(OR)
Explain the ‘Bamboo drip irrigation system’ of Meghalaya.
A. i) In Meghalaya, a 200-year-old system of tapping stream and spring water by using
bamboo pipes, is prevalent. About 18-20 litres of water enters the bamboo pipe system,
gets transported over hundreds of metres, and finally reduces to 20-80 drops per minute
at the site of the plant.
ii) Bamboo pipes are used to divert perennial springs on the hilltops to the lower reaches by
gravity.
iii) The channel sections, made of bamboo, divert water to the plant site where it is distributed
into branches, again made and laid out with different forms of bamboo pipes.
iv) The flow of water into the pipes is controlled by manipulating the pipe positions. If the
pipes pass a road, they are taken high above the land.
v) Reduced channel sections and diversion units are used at the last stage of water application.
The last channel section enables water to be dropped near the roots of the plant.

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33. Distinguish between Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Sectors? 5

(OR)

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 Compare the economic activities of the private sector with that of the public sector.
A.

SECTION E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4M × 3 = 12M)

34. Read the source given below and answer the question that follows: 4
Printers and publishers continuously developed new strategies to sell their product. Nineteenth-
century periodicals serialised important novels, which gave birth to a particular way of writing
novels. In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap series, called the Shilling
Series. The dust cover or the book jacket is also a twentieth-century innovation. With the onset
of the Great Depression in the 1930s, publishers feared a decline in book purchases. To sustain
buying, they brought out cheap paperback editions.
34.1 How the publishers overcame the fear of decline in book purchases during Great
Depression? [1]
A. With the onset of the Great Depression in the 1930s, publishers feared a decline in book
purchases. To sustain buying, they brought out cheap paperback editions.
34.2 Mention the twentieth-century innovation in publishing/marketing the books? [1]
A. Printers and publishers continuously developed new strategies to sell their product.The
twentieth-century innovation in publishing/marketing the books is the Dust cover/Book
jacket.

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 34.3 What was ‘Shilling Series’? [2]
A. In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap series, called the Shilling
Series.
35. Read the given extract and answer following questions: 4
The famous Chipko movement in the Himalayas has not only successfully resisted
deforestation in several areas but has also shown that community afforestation with indigenous
species can be enormously successful. Attempts to revive the traditional conservation methods
or developing new methods of ecological farming are now widespread. Farmers and citizen’s
groups like the Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya have shown that adequate
levels of diversified crop production without the use of synthetic chemicals are possible and
economically viable.
35.1 Name the programme that involves local communities in the management and
restoration of degraded forests. [1]
A. Joint forest management (JFM) programme is the one that involves local communities in
the management and restoration of degraded forests. It was first started in Odisha.
35.2 Name any two movement that were initiated to promote traditional agricultural
practices. [1]
A. The Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya Andolan initiated diversified crop
production without the use of synthetic chemicals
35.3 What is Chipko Movement and who initiated this movement? [2]
A. Chipko movement, also called Chipko andolan, nonviolent social and ecological movement
by rural villagers, particularly women, in India in the 1970s, aimed at protecting trees and
forests slated for government-backed logging. It was initiated by Sundar Lal Bahuguna.
36. Read the given extract and answer following questions. 4
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes.
Countries with higher income are more developed than others with less income. This is based on
the understanding that more incomemeans more of all things that human beings need. Whatever
people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income
itself is considered to be one important goal. The rich countries, excluding countries of the
Middle East and certain other small countries, are generally called developed countries.
36.1 Which country can be considered as a developed country in the modern world?[1]
A. Countries which are among the highest in the Human Development Index’ are considered
to be the developed countries.
36.2 What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare
countries at the level of development? [1]
A. Income is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare
countries at the level of development. But, it is not the only factor that decides the status
of development in a country.
36.3 “The Middle East countries even though are rich countries; but they are not
considered as a developed country.” Why? [2]
A. Middle East countries, despite being rich in natural resources like oil and gas, are not
universally considered “developed countries” because of the following factors.
i) Many Middle Eastern economies, such as Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, and Iraq, are
heavily reliant on oil exports. While this brings substantial wealth, it makes their
economies vulnerable to global oil price fluctuations.
ii) Development is not measured solely by wealth but also by metrics like education,
healthcare, and quality of life. Several Middle Eastern nations face challenges in
literacy rates, gender equality
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 SECTION E
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2+3=5M)

37. a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 2
A) The place where Gandhiji organised a satyagraha to support the peasants in 1917.
(Champaran)
B) The place where the INC Session was conducted in Sep-1920. (Calcutta)
b. On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with
suitable Symbols. 3
i) Rana Pratap Sagar - A Multi Purpose Project on river Chambal.
ii) Kudremukh - An Iron Ore Mine in Karnataka.
iii) Talcher- A Coal Mine in Odisha.
iv) Kochi - A Major Sea Port in Kerala.
Note:The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No.37.
Attempt any FIVE questions.
37.1 The place where Gandhiji organised a satyagraha to support the peasants in 1917. 1
37.2 The place where the INC Session was conducted in Sep-1920. 1
37.3 Rana Pratap Sagar - A Multi Purpose Project on river Chambal. 1
37.4 Kudremukh - An Iron Ore Mine in Karnataka. 1
37.5 Talcher- A Coal Mine in Odisha. 1
37.6 Kochi - A Major Sea Port in Kerala. 1

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 Map for Question No. 37

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 DESCRIPTIVE TEST
Class : X (CBSE) MS Max. Marks : 40
Sub : Social Science 2024-25 Time : 90 Min.

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C and D. There are 13 questions in the Ques-
tion paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – Question no. 1 to 5 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section B - contain no. 6 to 10 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer
to each question should not exceed 60 words
5. Section C – Question no. 11 and 12 is long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks. Answer to
the question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-D - Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 5 markss with two parts, 13(a) Identification
type (2 mark) and 13(b) Locate and Labelling type (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper.

SECTION - A
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2M × 5 = 10M)

1. Define Sustainable Development. 2

A. i) Sustainable development refers to development of resources without damaging the
environment and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the
future generation.
ii) An equitable distribution of resources is essential for sustained quality of life and global
peace. If the present trend of resource depletion by few individuals and countries continues,
the future of our planet is in danger.
2. State the importance of Rio Convention. 2
A. In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for the first International
Earth Summit.
i) The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and
socioeconomic development at the global level. The assembled leaders signed the Declaration
on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity.
ii) The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for
achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.

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3. Suggest any two ways to solve the problem of land degradation. 2
A. Ways to solve the problems of land degradation:
a) Afforestation.
b) Proper management of grazing.
i) Afforestation and proper management of grazing can help to some extent. Planting of shelter
belts of plants, control on over grazing, stabilisation of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes
are some of the methods to check land degradation in arid areas.
ii) Proper management of waste lands, control of mining activities, proper discharge and disposal
of industrial effluents and wastes after treatment can reduce land and water degradation in
industrial and suburban areas.
4. What is JFM? 2
A. i) Joint Forest Management is a programme in which local communities are involved in the
management and restoration of degraded forests.
ii) The major purpose of the JFM is to protect the forests from encroachments, grazing, theft
and fire and also to improve the forests in accordance with an approved Joint Forest
Management plan.
iii) In return, the member of these communities are entitled to intermediary benefits like non
timber forest produces.
5. What are permanent forests? 2
A. i) Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as permanent forest estates maintained for
the purpose of producing timber and other forest produce, and for protective reasons.
ii) More than half of the total forest land has been declared reserved forests. Reserved forests
are regarded as the most valuable as far as the conservation of forest and wildlife resources
are concerned.

SECTION - B
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3M × 5 = 15M)

6. Explain the role of human beings in resource development. 3

A. i) The process of transformation of things into resource involves an inter-dependent relationship
between nature, technology and institutions.
ii) Human beings interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate
the pace of economic development.
iii) Human beings are essential components of resources as they transform materials in the
environment into resources and use them.
7. "Resource Planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life.'' Support the
statement with examples. 3
A. Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
i) An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life
and global peace.
ii) If the present trend of resource depletion by a few individuals and countries continues, the
future of our planet is in danger.
iii) Therefore, resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life.
Sustainable existence is a component of sustainable development.
8. Describe any three characteristics of 'Black soil' found in India. 3
A. i) Extremely fine i.e., clayey material
ii) Rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime
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 iii) Develop deep cracks during hot weather
iv) High moisture retentive capacity
9. Write a brief note on 'Project Tiger'. 3
A. i) 'Project Tiger' was one of the well published wildlife campaigns in the world launched in
1973.
ii) In 1973, the authorities realised that the tiger population had dwindled to 1,827 from an
estimated 55,000 at the turn of the century.
iii) Tiger conservation has been viewed not only as an effort to save an endangered species but
with equal importance as a means of preserving biotypes of sizeable magnitude.
For example, Corbett National Park, (Uttaranchal), Sundarbans (West Bengal), Bandhavgarh
National Park (Madhya Pradesh), Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary (Rajasthan), Manas Tiger Reserve
(Assam), Periyar Tiger Reserve (Kerala) are some of the tiger reserves in India.
10. What is importance of forests? 3
A. “Forests are crucial to the environment and human well-being, serving many important roles:
i) Biodiversity Conservation: Forests are home to a vast array of plant and animal species.
They provide habitats for wildlife, helping to conserve biodiversity and maintaining ecosystem
balance.
ii) Climate Regulation: Forests play a critical role in regulating the Earth's climate by absorbing
carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere, thus helping to mitigate climate change. They
also help in maintaining the water cycle.
iii) Air and Water Purification: Forests help purify the air by absorbing pollutants and releasing
oxygen. They also filter and regulate water, contributing to clean water supplies and reducing
the risk of floods and droughts.
iv) Soil Protection: Forests prevent soil erosion by stabilizing the soil with their root systems.
This is essential for maintaining fertile soil for agriculture and preventing landslides.
v) Livelihood Support: Millions of people, especially in rural areas, depend on forests for their
livelihood through activities such as logging, gathering forest products, and ecotourism.
(Any three relavent point to be considered)

SECTION - C
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5M × 2 = 10M)
11. Analyse proper farming techniques which can be used for soil conservation. 5
A i) Crop rotation: If the same crop is sown in the same field, year after year, this consumes
certain nutrients from the soil making it infertile. Crop rotation can check this type of erosion.
ii) Settled agriculture: Checking and reducing shifting agriculture by persuading the tribal
people to switch over to settled agriculture.
iii) Terracing and contour bunding: Terracing and contour bunding across the hill slopes is
a very effective, and one of the oldest methods of soil conservation. Hill slope is cut into a
number of terraces having horizontal top and steep slopes on the back and front. Contour
bunding involves the construction of bank along the contour.
iv) Strip cropping: Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow
between the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind. This method is known as strip
cropping.
v) Shelter Belts: Planting lines of trees to create shelter also works in a similar way. Rows of
such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have contributed significantly to the
stabilisation of sand dunes and in establishing the desert in western India.

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12. What is biodiversity? Why is biodiversity important for human lives? 5
A. Biodiversity is the sum total of all the varieties of species of plants, animals and microorganisms
living on the earth. It also includes the habitat in which they live. Some scientists estimate that
more than 10 million species live on our earth and some believe that this number can be more than
100 million.
Importance of biodiversity:Planet for all: The planet earth is not only for human beings alone.
All living beings share this planet with millions of other living beings, starting from the
microorganism to blue whale. There are different kinds of animals, plants and other living as well
as non living things.
Complex web: We, humans along with all other living organisms form a complex web of ecological
system in which we are only a part and very much dependent on this system of our own existence.
There is a multiple network of interdependence, i.e., all the organisms depend upon each other for
their survival. For example, the plants, animals and micro organisms recreate the quality of the air
we breathe, the water we drink and the soil that is used to produce food.

SECTION- D
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)
13. a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 2
A) A dam river Mahandai (Hirakud)
B) Identify the soil. (Forese Soil)
b. On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable Symbols.
3
i) Tungabhadra dam
ii) Cotton Textile in Industry in Maharashtra.
iii) Arid Soil

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No.1 School in India 5 Sri Chaitanya School