Animal Science Review Questions

1. What is the primary purpose of the rumen in ruminant animals?

a. Digestion of fats
b. Digestion of cellulose
c. Digestion of proteins
d. Digestion of vitamins
Answer: b

2. Which of the following is a micronutrient required for livestock?

a. Calcium
b. Magnesium
c. Zinc
d. Protein
Answer: c

3. Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk letdown in dairy cows?

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Oxytocin
d. Insulin
Answer: c

4. What is the gestation period for a sow?

a. 90 days
b. 114 days
c. 150 days
d. 180 days
Answer: b

5. Which breed of cattle is known for high milk production?

a. Angus
b. Brahman
c. Jersey
d. Holstein
Answer: d

6. What is the main component of an egg’s shell?

a. Calcium phosphate
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Calcium sulfate
d. Calcium chloride
Answer: b

7. Which vitamin is synthesized by ruminants in their rumen?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
Answer: d

8. Which part of the digestive system is primarily involved in water absorption?

a. Stomach
b. Small intestine
c. Large intestine
d. Esophagus
Answer: c

9. What is the term for a young female cow that has not borne a calf?

a. Steer
b. Heifer
c. Cow
d. Calf
Answer: b

10. What is the primary feed ingredient for poultry?

a. Corn
b. Soybean meal
c. Barley
d. Fishmeal
Answer: a

11. Which disease is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D?

a. Rickets
b. Scurvy
c. Anemia
d. Beriberi
Answer: a

12. What is the primary function of red blood cells?

a. Fight infection
b. Carry oxygen
c. Digest food
d. Produce hormones
Answer: b

13. Which species of livestock is most commonly associated with the production of wool?

a. Goats
b. Sheep
c. Alpacas
d. Cattle
Answer: b

14. What is the term for the process of giving birth in swine?

a. Kidding
b. Lambing
c. Farrowing
d. Calving
Answer: c

15. What is the primary carbohydrate found in milk?

a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Lactose
d. Sucrose
Answer: c

16. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?

a. Mastitis
b. Foot-and-mouth disease
c. Rabies
d. Newcastle disease
Answer: c

17. Which amino acid is essential for poultry and cannot be synthesized by their bodies?

a. Glycine
b. Alanine
c. Lysine
d. Serine
Answer: c
18. What is the main purpose of silage in animal feeding?

a. Supplement minerals
b. Provide roughage
c. Preserve forage
d. Enhance flavor
Answer: c

19. Which of the following is a characteristic of Brahman cattle?

a. High milk production

b. Heat tolerance
c. Early maturity
d. Heavy muscling
Answer: b

20. What is the scientific name for the domestic pig?

a. Bos taurus
b. Ovis aries
c. Sus scrofa domesticus
d. Gallus gallus domesticus
Answer: c

21. Which of the following feeds is high in protein?

a. Corn
b. Barley
c. Alfalfa
d. Molasses
Answer: c

22. Which part of the cow’s stomach is analogous to the human stomach?

a. Rumen
b. Reticulum
c. Omasum
d. Abomasum
Answer: d

23. What is colostrum?

a. The first milk produced after calving

b. A type of feed additive
c. A breed of dairy cattle
d. A digestive enzyme
Answer: a

24. Which mineral is most important for bone development?

a. Iron
b. Iodine
c. Calcium
d. Potassium
Answer: c

25. What is the typical weaning age for beef calves?

a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 8 months
Answer: c

26. Which breed of chicken is known for high egg production?

a. Leghorn
b. Cornish
c. Rhode Island Red
d. Orpington
Answer: a

27. What is the primary benefit of using artificial insemination in livestock breeding?

a. Improved milk production

b. Reduced labor costs
c. Genetic improvement
d. Faster weight gain
Answer: c

28. What is the main function of the pancreas in animals?

a. Secretes bile
b. Produces digestive enzymes
c. Filters blood
d. Stores glycogen
Answer: b

29. Which of the following diseases is caused by a prion?

a. Foot-and-mouth disease
b. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)
c. Swine flu
d. Marek's disease
Answer: b

30. What is the term for a castrated male sheep?

a. Ram
b. Wether
c. Buck
d. Billy
Answer: b

31. What is the ideal protein source for monogastric animals?

a. Roughage
b. Soybean meal
c. Corn
d. Hay
Answer: b

32. Which of the following is a viral disease affecting poultry?

a. Mastitis
b. Newcastle disease
c. Foot rot
d. Blackleg
Answer: b

33. What is the main cause of bloat in ruminants?

a. Overfeeding grain
b. Lack of exercise
c. Excessive roughage
d. Blocked esophagus
Answer: a

34. Which nutrient deficiency causes anemia in pigs?

a. Calcium
b. Vitamin A
c. Iron
d. Phosphorus
Answer: c
35. What is a pedigree?

a. A type of feed
b. A record of an animal's ancestry
c. A disease prevention plan
d. A breeding method
Answer: b

36. Which part of the chicken's digestive system grinds up feed particles?

a. Crop
b. Proventriculus
c. Gizzard
d. Cloaca
Answer: c

37. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism in animals?

a. Insulin
b. Thyroxine
c. Estrogen
d. Testosterone
Answer: b

38. What is the primary purpose of vaccination in livestock?

a. Increase growth rate

b. Prevent diseases
c. Improve feed efficiency
d. Enhance reproduction
Answer: b

39. What is the term for a young goat?

a. Kid
b. Lamb
c. Calf
d. Foal
Answer: a

40. Which of the following is a common internal parasite in livestock?

a. Lice
b. Ticks
c. Roundworms
d. Mites
Answer: c

41. What is the term for a mature female sheep?

a. Ewe
b. Doe
c. Cow
d. Sow
Answer: a

42. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
Answer: d

43. What is the main function of the liver in animals?

a. Produces bile
b. Filters blood
c. Stores glycogen
d. All of the above
Answer: d

44. Which breed of swine is known for its excellent mothering ability?

a. Duroc
b. Hampshire
c. Yorkshire
d. Berkshire
Answer: c

45. What is the primary cause of mastitis in dairy cows?

a. Poor nutrition
b. Bacterial infection
c. Genetic factors
d. Environmental stress
Answer: b

46. Which of the following is a trace mineral required for animal health?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Selenium
d. Potassium
Answer: c

47. What is the term for the removal of an animal’s reproductive organs?

a. Neutering
b. Vaccination
c. Euthanasia
d. Dehorning
Answer: a

48. Which of the following is a benefit of rotational grazing?

a. Increased parasite load

b. Improved pasture health
c. Reduced animal productivity
d. Increased feed costs
Answer: b

49. What is the primary purpose of creep feeding in young livestock?

a. Increase forage intake

b. Provide supplemental nutrients
c. Improve water consumption
d. Reduce weaning stress
Answer: b

50. What is the term for the process of removing an animal's tail?

a. Castration
b. Docking
c. Shearing
d. Debeaking
Answer: b

51. Which of the following is a respiratory disease in cattle?

a. Brucellosis
b. Foot rot
c. Pneumonia
d. Mastitis
Answer: c
52. Which breed of goat is known for high milk production?

a. Boer
b. Kiko
c. Nubian
d. Angora
Answer: c

53. What is the term for a mature male chicken?

a. Hen
b. Pullet
c. Cockerel
d. Rooster
Answer: d

54. Which mineral is crucial for the prevention of goiter in livestock?

a. Iron
b. Iodine
c. Calcium
d. Zinc
Answer: b

55. What is the typical lactation period for dairy cows?

a. 150 days
b. 305 days
c. 365 days
d. 450 days
Answer: b

56. Which of the following is an external parasite that affects livestock?

a. Roundworms
b. Coccidia
c. Flukes
d. Lice
Answer: d

57. What is the primary benefit of crossbreeding in livestock?

a. Increased feed intake

b. Improved disease resistance
c. Higher feed costs
d. Reduced fertility
Answer: b

58. Which part of the chicken's body is used to produce eggs?

a. Cloaca
b. Ovary
c. Gizzard
d. Proventriculus
Answer: b

59. Which hormone stimulates milk production in dairy animals?

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Prolactin
d. Oxytocin
Answer: c

60. What is the term for a castrated male pig?

a. Boar
b. Barrow
c. Stag
d. Gilt
Answer: b

61. What is the term for the process of artificially feeding young animals with milk or milk
replacer?

a. Creep feeding
b. Weaning
c. Hand rearing
d. Colostrum feeding
Answer: c

62. Which of the following is a symptom of foot-and-mouth disease in cattle?

a. Diarrhea
b. Blisters on the mouth and feet
c. Coughing
d. Hair loss
Answer: b

63. What is the primary component of a chicken egg's yolk?

a. Protein
b. Fat
c. Carbohydrate
d. Water
Answer: b

64. Which breed of sheep is known for its fine wool?

a. Dorset
b. Suffolk
c. Merino
d. Hampshire
Answer: c

65. What is the term for the digestive process in which ruminants regurgitate and rechew
their food?

a. Fermentation
b. Eructation
c. Rumination
d. Deglutition
Answer: c

66. Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination in cattle?

a. Foot rot
b. Pinkeye
c. Brucellosis
d. Johne's disease
Answer: c

67. What is the primary purpose of ear tagging in livestock?

a. Identification
b. Medication
c. Nutrition
d. Breeding
Answer: a

68. What is the term for the practice of selectively breeding animals for desired traits?

a. Crossbreeding
b. Inbreeding
c. Genetic modification
d. Artificial selection
Answer: d
69. Which vitamin is important for vision in animals?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: a

70. What is the main purpose of deworming livestock?

a. Increase feed intake

b. Prevent parasitic infections
c. Enhance reproduction
d. Improve water consumption
Answer: b

71. What is the primary function of the gizzard in poultry?

a. Protein digestion
b. Fat digestion
c. Grinding food
d. Absorbing nutrients
Answer: c

72. Which mineral is essential for oxygen transport in blood?

a. Calcium
b. Potassium
c. Iron
d. Sodium
Answer: c

73. What is the term for a mature female pig?

a. Gilt
b. Sow
c. Ewe
d. Doe
Answer: b

74. Which of the following is a common cause of diarrhea in young livestock?

a. Overfeeding
b. Viral infection
c. Heat stress
d. Vaccination
Answer: b

75. What is the term for the process of an animal giving birth?

a. Weaning
b. Breeding
c. Parturition
d. Lactation
Answer: c

76. What is the primary benefit of using growth hormones in livestock?

a. Improved fertility
b. Increased growth rate
c. Enhanced disease resistance
d. Reduced feed intake
Answer: b

77. Which of the following is a common nutritional disorder in dairy cattle?

a. Milk fever
b. Bloat
c. Rickets
d. Anemia
Answer: a

78. What is the term for an animal that eats both plants and animals?

a. Herbivore
b. Carnivore
c. Omnivore
d. Insectivore
Answer: c

79. Which of the following is a characteristic of Holstein cattle?

a. High milk production

b. Heat tolerance
c. Early maturity
d. Heavy muscling
Answer: a

80. What is the term for the surgical removal of an animal's horns?
a. Docking
b. Dehorning
c. Neutering
d. Shearing
Answer: b

81. Which of the following is a benefit of using artificial insemination in livestock breeding?

a. Increased labor costs

b. Reduced genetic diversity
c. Disease control
d. Faster weight gain
Answer: c

82. What is the primary purpose of colostrum feeding in newborn animals?

a. Provide energy
b. Prevent dehydration
c. Boost immunity
d. Enhance growth
Answer: c

83. Which of the following is a symptom of mastitis in dairy cows?

a. Lameness
b. Coughing
c. Swollen udder
d. Diarrhea
Answer: c

84. What is the term for the area where animals are kept and fed?

a. Pasture
b. Feedlot
c. Barn
d. Paddock
Answer: b

85. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by ticks in livestock?

a. Mastitis
b. Anaplasmosis
c. Foot rot
d. Pneumonia
Answer: b
86. What is the primary benefit of using probiotics in animal feed?

a. Increase weight gain

b. Improve digestion
c. Enhance fertility
d. Reduce feed costs
Answer: b

87. What is the term for a young female chicken that has not yet started laying eggs?

a. Hen
b. Rooster
c. Pullet
d. Cockerel
Answer: c

88. Which of the following minerals is important for bone development in animals?

a. Iron
b. Zinc
c. Calcium
d. Iodine
Answer: c

89. What is the main function of white blood cells in animals?

a. Transport oxygen
b. Fight infections
c. Digest food
d. Produce hormones
Answer: b

90. What is the term for a mature male horse?

a. Mare
b. Stallion
c. Foal
d. Colt
Answer: b

91. Which of the following is a symptom of bloat in ruminants?

a. Excessive salivation
b. Swollen abdomen
c. Coughing
d. Hair loss
Answer: b

92. What is the primary benefit of using antibiotics in livestock production?

a. Increase weight gain

b. Prevent diseases
c. Enhance reproduction
d. Improve feed efficiency
Answer: b

93. What is the term for the process of removing wool from sheep?

a. Docking
b. Shearing
c. Dehorning
d. Castrating
Answer: b

94. Which of the following is a common external parasite that affects poultry?

a. Flukes
b. Lice
c. Roundworms
d. Tapeworms
Answer: b

95. What is the primary function of the cecum in herbivores?

a. Protein digestion
b. Water absorption
c. Fiber fermentation
d. Nutrient absorption
Answer: c

96. Which breed of cattle is known for its high-quality beef?

a. Jersey
b. Holstein
c. Angus
d. Guernsey
Answer: c

97. What is the main purpose of using a feed additive in animal diets?
a. Improve palatability
b. Reduce feed costs
c. Enhance nutrient absorption
d. All of the above
Answer: d

98. What is the term for the surgical procedure to prevent animals from reproducing?

a. Vaccination
b. Dehorning
c. Neutering
d. Shearing
Answer: c

99. Which of the following is a benefit of using genetic selection in livestock breeding?

a. Increased feed costs

b. Improved disease resistance
c. Reduced growth rate
d. Decreased fertility
Answer: b

100. What is the primary component of a chicken egg's white?

a. Fat
b. Protein
c. Carbohydrate
d. Water
Answer: b

Answer Key

1. b
2. c
3. c
4. b
5. d
6. b
7. d
8. c
9. b
10. a
11. a
12. b
13. b
14. c
15. c
16. c
17. c
18. c
19. b
20. c
21. c
22. d
23. a
24. c
25. c
26. a
27. c
28. b
29. b
30. b
31. b
32. b
33. a
34. c
35. b
36. c
37. b
38. b
39. a
40. c
41. a
42. d
43. d
44. c
45. b
46. c
47. a
48. b
49. b
50. b
51. c
52. c
53. d
54. b
55. b
56. d
57. b
58. b
59. c
60. b
61. c
62. b
63. b
64. c
65. c
66. c
67. a
68. d
69. a
70. b
71. c
72. c
73. b
74. b
75. c
76. b
77. a
78. c
79. a
80. b
81. c
82. c
83. c
84. b
85. b
86. b
87. c
88. c
89. b
90. b
91. b
92. b
93. b
94. b
95. c
96. c
97. d
98. c
99. b
100. b
Animal Science - Nutrition and Pharmacology Review Questions

1. What is the primary energy source in animal diets?

a. Proteins
b. Fats
c. Carbohydrates
d. Vitamins
Answer: c

2. Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption in animals?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: d

3. Which mineral is critical for oxygen transport in the blood?

a. Calcium
b. Potassium
c. Iron
d. Magnesium
Answer: c

4. What is the primary function of lipids in animal diets?

a. Provide energy
b. Build muscle
c. Enhance flavor
d. Supply fiber
Answer: a

5. Which amino acid is considered essential for monogastric animals?

a. Glycine
b. Methionine
c. Alanine
d. Proline
Answer: b

6. What is the main role of dietary fiber in ruminant nutrition?

a. Provide energy
b. Aid in digestion
c. Build muscle
d. Increase palatability
Answer: b

7. Which vitamin is an antioxidant and helps in preventing cell damage?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
Answer: c

8. What is the primary benefit of feeding probiotics to livestock?

a. Increase weight gain

b. Improve gut health
c. Enhance reproduction
d. Reduce feed costs
Answer: b

9. Which mineral is most important for bone formation?

a. Sodium
b. Chloride
c. Calcium
d. Zinc
Answer: c

10. Which fatty acid is essential and must be included in animal diets?

a. Palmitic acid
b. Stearic acid
c. Linoleic acid
d. Oleic acid
Answer: c

11. What is the function of the rumen in ruminant animals?

a. Protein digestion
b. Fermentation of fibrous feeds
c. Absorption of nutrients
d. Digestion of fats
Answer: b

12. What is the role of water in animal nutrition?

a. Provide energy
b. Build muscle
c. Maintain hydration and bodily functions
d. Supply vitamins
Answer: c

13. Which vitamin is necessary for blood clotting?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
Answer: d

14. Which feed additive is used to prevent coccidiosis in poultry?

a. Antibiotics
b. Anthelmintics
c. Coccidiostats
d. Probiotics
Answer: c

15. What is the primary function of proteins in animal diets?

a. Provide energy
b. Build and repair tissues
c. Supply vitamins
d. Enhance flavor
Answer: b

16. Which mineral is important for thyroid function?

a. Iron
b. Iodine
c. Calcium
d. Phosphorus
Answer: b

17. Which vitamin is synthesized by ruminants in their rumen?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin B12
Answer: d
18. Which vitamin deficiency can lead to rickets in young animals?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b

19. What is the purpose of anthelmintics in animal health?

a. Treat bacterial infections

b. Control internal parasites
c. Improve growth rates
d. Enhance milk production
Answer: b

20. Which amino acid is most limiting in corn-based diets for swine?

a. Lysine
b. Methionine
c. Tryptophan
d. Threonine
Answer: a

21. What is the primary use of ionophores in cattle diets?

a. Improve fiber digestion

b. Enhance milk production
c. Control parasites
d. Increase growth rate
Answer: a

22. Which mineral is a component of hemoglobin?

a. Zinc
b. Iron
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium
Answer: b

23. What is the role of vitamin E in animal diets?

a. Bone formation
b. Blood clotting
c. Antioxidant protection
d. Protein synthesis
Answer: c

24. Which fatty acid is essential for brain development in young animals?

a. Arachidonic acid
b. Linoleic acid
c. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
d. Palmitic acid
Answer: c

25. What is the main function of the abomasum in ruminants?

a. Fiber fermentation
b. Nutrient absorption
c. Enzymatic digestion of proteins
d. Water absorption
Answer: c

26. Which vitamin deficiency can cause scurvy in guinea pigs?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b

27. Which mineral is important for enzyme function and immune response?

a. Selenium
b. Calcium
c. Phosphorus
d. Sodium
Answer: a

28. Which vitamin is crucial for vision and skin health?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: a

29. What is the primary purpose of feeding roughage to ruminants?

a. Increase protein intake
b. Provide bulk for digestion
c. Enhance fat absorption
d. Supply vitamins
Answer: b

30. Which vitamin is essential for the synthesis of DNA and RNA?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid)
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: b

31. Which mineral is necessary for proper nerve function and muscle contraction?

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Sodium
Answer: b

32. Which nutrient is primarily responsible for providing the structure of cell membranes?

a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Lipids
d. Vitamins
Answer: c

33. What is the main effect of aflatoxins in animal feed?

a. Promote growth
b. Cause toxicity and disease
c. Improve feed efficiency
d. Enhance reproduction
Answer: b

34. Which mineral is required for the formation of ATP, the energy currency of cells?

a. Calcium
b. Phosphorus
c. Magnesium
d. Potassium
Answer: b
35. Which vitamin is water-soluble and must be provided daily in the diet?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b

36. What is the function of choline in animal diets?

a. Enhance milk production

b. Aid in fat metabolism
c. Improve muscle growth
d. Increase fiber digestion
Answer: b

37. Which mineral is important for antioxidant enzyme systems in animals?

a. Selenium
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Iron
Answer: a

38. What is the primary function of dietary calcium in poultry?

a. Enhance feather growth

b. Prevent rickets
c. Improve egg shell quality
d. Increase muscle mass
Answer: c

39. Which vitamin is important for collagen synthesis and wound healing?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: c

40. Which feed ingredient is commonly used as a protein supplement in animal diets?

a. Corn
b. Soybean meal
c. Barley
d. Oats
Answer: b

41. What is the role of taurine in cat nutrition?

a. Prevent blindness and heart disease

b. Improve coat quality
c. Enhance digestion
d. Increase appetite
Answer: a

42. Which mineral is essential for the formation of hemoglobin and myoglobin?

a. Calcium
b. Iron
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
Answer: b

43. Which vitamin is crucial for preventing neural tube defects during fetal development?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid)
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: b

44. What is the primary purpose of using prebiotics in animal diets?

a. Enhance nutrient absorption

b. Stimulate growth of beneficial gut bacteria
c. Provide energy
d. Supply protein
Answer: b

45. Which mineral deficiency can lead to goiter in animals?

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Phosphorus
d. Iodine
Answer: d

46. Which vitamin helps in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the gut?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: d

47. What is the main function of selenium in animal diets?

a. Bone formation
b. Antioxidant protection
c. Muscle growth
d. Energy production
Answer: b

48. Which feed ingredient is high in energy and commonly used in animal diets?

a. Barley
b. Oats
c. Corn
d. Wheat
Answer: c

49. What is the role of B-complex vitamins in animal nutrition?

a. Provide energy
b. Build muscle
c. Support metabolic processes
d. Enhance flavor
Answer: c

50. Which mineral is critical for maintaining fluid balance in animals?

a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Magnesium
Answer: b

51. What is the primary benefit of using probiotics in livestock feed?

a. Increase growth rate

b. Improve gut health
c. Enhance muscle growth
d. Reduce feed costs
Answer: b
52. Which vitamin is known for its role in bone health and preventing rickets?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: d

53. Which mineral is an essential component of thyroid hormones?

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Iodine
d. Magnesium
Answer: c

54. What is the function of lipids in animal diets?

a. Provide energy
b. Build muscle
c. Supply fiber
d. Increase palatability
Answer: a

55. Which amino acid is often the first limiting in poultry diets?

a. Lysine
b. Methionine
c. Threonine
d. Tryptophan
Answer: b

56. What is the main role of fiber in ruminant nutrition?

a. Provide energy
b. Aid in digestion
c. Build muscle
d. Increase palatability
Answer: b

57. Which vitamin is necessary for normal blood clotting?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
Answer: d

58. Which feed additive is used to promote growth and feed efficiency in livestock?

a. Antibiotics
b. Anthelmintics
c. Probiotics
d. Ionophores
Answer: d

59. What is the primary function of proteins in animal diets?

a. Provide energy
b. Build and repair tissues
c. Supply vitamins
d. Enhance flavor
Answer: b

60. Which mineral is important for muscle contraction and nerve function?

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Sodium
Answer: b

61. What is the role of vitamin A in animal nutrition?

a. Vision and skin health

b. Bone formation
c. Blood clotting
d. Protein synthesis
Answer: a

62. Which fatty acid is essential for brain development in young animals?

a. Linoleic acid
b. Palmitic acid
c. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
d. Stearic acid
Answer: c

63. What is the main function of the small intestine in animals?

a. Fiber fermentation
b. Enzymatic digestion of nutrients
c. Water absorption
d. Storage of waste
Answer: b

64. Which vitamin deficiency can lead to scurvy in guinea pigs?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b

65. Which mineral is important for immune function and enzyme activation?

a. Selenium
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Iron
Answer: c

66. What is the primary purpose of feeding roughage to ruminants?

a. Increase protein intake

b. Provide bulk for digestion
c. Enhance fat absorption
d. Supply vitamins
Answer: b

67. Which vitamin is necessary for the synthesis of DNA and RNA?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid)
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: b

68. Which mineral is necessary for proper nerve function and muscle contraction?

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Sodium
Answer: b
69. What is the main effect of aflatoxins in animal feed?

a. Promote growth
b. Cause toxicity and disease
c. Improve feed efficiency
d. Enhance reproduction
Answer: b

70. Which mineral is required for the formation of ATP, the energy currency of cells?

a. Calcium
b. Phosphorus
c. Magnesium
d. Potassium
Answer: b

71. Which vitamin is water-soluble and must be provided daily in the diet?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b

72. What is the function of choline in animal diets?

a. Enhance milk production

b. Aid in fat metabolism
c. Improve muscle growth
d. Increase fiber digestion
Answer: b

73. Which mineral is important for antioxidant enzyme systems in animals?

a. Selenium
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Iron
Answer: a

74. What is the primary function of dietary calcium in poultry?

a. Enhance feather growth

b. Prevent rickets
c. Improve egg shell quality
d. Increase muscle mass
Answer: c

75. Which vitamin is important for collagen synthesis and wound healing?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: c

76. Which feed ingredient is commonly used as a protein supplement in animal diets?

a. Corn
b. Soybean meal
c. Barley
d. Oats
Answer: b

77. What is the role of taurine in cat nutrition?

a. Prevent blindness and heart disease

b. Improve coat quality
c. Enhance digestion
d. Increase appetite
Answer: a

78. Which mineral is essential for the formation of hemoglobin and myoglobin?

a. Calcium
b. Iron
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
Answer: b

79. Which vitamin is crucial for preventing neural tube defects during fetal development?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid)
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: b

80. What is the primary purpose of using prebiotics in animal diets?

a. Enhance nutrient absorption
b. Stimulate growth of beneficial gut bacteria
c. Provide energy
d. Supply protein
Answer: b

81. Which mineral deficiency can lead to goiter in animals?

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Phosphorus
d. Iodine
Answer: d

82. Which vitamin helps in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the gut?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: d

83. What is the main function of selenium in animal diets?

a. Bone formation
b. Antioxidant protection
c. Muscle growth
d. Energy production
Answer: b

84. Which feed ingredient is high in energy and commonly used in animal diets?

a. Barley
b. Oats
c. Corn
d. Wheat
Answer: c

85. What is the role of B-complex vitamins in animal nutrition?

a. Provide energy
b. Build muscle
c. Support metabolic processes
d. Enhance flavor
Answer: c
86. Which mineral is critical for maintaining fluid balance in animals?

a. Calcium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Magnesium
Answer: b

87. What is the primary benefit of using probiotics in livestock feed?

a. Increase growth rate

b. Improve gut health
c. Enhance muscle growth
d. Reduce feed costs
Answer: b

88. Which vitamin is known for its role in bone health and preventing rickets?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Answer: d

89. Which mineral is an essential component of thyroid hormones?

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Iodine
d. Magnesium
Answer: c

90. What is the function of lipids in animal diets?

a. Provide energy
b. Build muscle
c. Supply fiber
d. Increase palatability
Answer: a

91. Which amino acid is often the first limiting in poultry diets?

a. Lysine
b. Methionine
c. Threonine
d. Tryptophan
Answer: b

92. What is the main role of fiber in ruminant nutrition?

a. Provide energy
b. Aid in digestion
c. Build muscle
d. Increase palatability
Answer: b

93. Which vitamin is necessary for normal blood clotting?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
Answer: d

94. Which feed additive is used to promote growth and feed efficiency in livestock?

a. Antibiotics
b. Anthelmintics
c. Probiotics
d. Ionophores
Answer: d

95. What is the primary function of proteins in animal diets?

a. Provide energy
b. Build and repair tissues
c. Supply vitamins
d. Enhance flavor
Answer: b

96. Which mineral is important for muscle contraction and nerve function?

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Zinc
d. Sodium
Answer: b

97. What is the role of vitamin A in animal nutrition?

a. Vision and skin health
b. Bone formation
c. Blood clotting
d. Protein synthesis
Answer: a

98. Which fatty acid is essential for brain development in young animals?

a. Linoleic acid
b. Palmitic acid
c. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
d. Stearic acid
Answer: c

99. What is the main function of the small intestine in animals?

a. Fiber fermentation
b. Enzymatic digestion of nutrients
c. Water absorption
d. Storage of waste
Answer: b

100. Which vitamin deficiency can lead to scurvy in guinea pigs?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
Answer: b

Answer Key

1. c
2. d
3. c
4. a
5. b
6. b
7. c
8. b
9. c
10. c
11. b
12. c
13. d
14. c
15. b
16. b
17. d
18. b
19. b
20. a
21. a
22. b
23. c
24. c
25. c
26. b
27. a
28. a
29. b
30. b
31. b
32. c
33. b
34. b
35. b
36. b
37. a
38. c
39. c
40. b
41. a
42. b
43. b
44. b
45. d
46. d
47. b
48. c
49. c
50. b
51. b
52. d
53. c
54. a
55. b
56. b
57. d
58. d
59. b
60. b
61. a
62. c
63. b
64. b
65. c
66. b
67. b
68. b
69. b
70. b
71. b
72. b
73. a
74. c
75. c
76. b
77. a
78. b
79. b
80. b
81. d
82. d
83. b
84. c
85. c
86. b
87. b
88. d
89. c
90. a
91. b
92. b
93. d
94. d
95. b
96. b
97. a
98. c
99. b
100. b
Animal Science - Management Review Questions

1. What is the primary purpose of rotational grazing in livestock management?

a. Increase parasite load

b. Improve pasture health
c. Reduce animal productivity
d. Increase feed costs
Answer: b

2. What is the typical weaning age for beef calves?

a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 8 months
Answer: c

3. Which breed of cattle is known for high milk production?

a. Angus
b. Brahman
c. Jersey
d. Holstein
Answer: d

4. What is colostrum?

a. The first milk produced after calving

b. A type of feed additive
c. A breed of dairy cattle
d. A digestive enzyme
Answer: a

5. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?

a. Mastitis
b. Foot-and-mouth disease
c. Rabies
d. Newcastle disease
Answer: c

6. What is the primary benefit of using artificial insemination in livestock breeding?

a. Improved milk production

b. Reduced labor costs
c. Genetic improvement
d. Faster weight gain
Answer: c

7. What is the term for the process of giving birth in swine?

a. Kidding
b. Lambing
c. Farrowing
d. Calving
Answer: c

8. Which breed of sheep is known for its fine wool?

a. Dorset
b. Suffolk
c. Merino
d. Hampshire
Answer: c

9. Which of the following is a common external parasite that affects livestock?

a. Roundworms
b. Coccidia
c. Flukes
d. Lice
Answer: d

10. What is the main component of an egg’s shell?

a. Calcium phosphate
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Calcium sulfate
d. Calcium chloride
Answer: b

11. What is the primary purpose of ear tagging in livestock?

a. Identification
b. Medication
c. Nutrition
d. Breeding
Answer: a

12. What is the gestation period for a sow?

a. 90 days
b. 114 days
c. 150 days
d. 180 days
Answer: b

13. What is the term for a young female cow that has not borne a calf?

a. Steer
b. Heifer
c. Cow
d. Calf
Answer: b

14. Which of the following is a respiratory disease in cattle?

a. Brucellosis
b. Foot rot
c. Pneumonia
d. Mastitis
Answer: c

15. What is the main purpose of silage in animal feeding?

a. Supplement minerals
b. Provide roughage
c. Preserve forage
d. Enhance flavor
Answer: c

16. What is the term for a castrated male sheep?

a. Ram
b. Wether
c. Buck
d. Billy
Answer: b

17. Which breed of goat is known for high milk production?

a. Boer
b. Kiko
c. Nubian
d. Angora
Answer: c
18. What is the term for the process of removing an animal's tail?

a. Castration
b. Docking
c. Shearing
d. Debeaking
Answer: b

19. Which of the following is a common nutritional disorder in dairy cattle?

a. Milk fever
b. Bloat
c. Rickets
d. Anemia
Answer: a

20. What is the term for a mature female pig?

a. Gilt
b. Sow
c. Ewe
d. Doe
Answer: b

21. Which breed of chicken is known for high egg production?

a. Leghorn
b. Cornish
c. Rhode Island Red
d. Orpington
Answer: a

22. What is the primary feed ingredient for poultry?

a. Corn
b. Soybean meal
c. Barley
d. Fishmeal
Answer: a

23. Which of the following is a viral disease affecting poultry?

a. Mastitis
b. Newcastle disease
c. Foot rot
d. Blackleg
Answer: b

24. What is the term for a young goat?

a. Kid
b. Lamb
c. Calf
d. Foal
Answer: a

25. What is the primary function of the rumen in ruminant animals?

a. Digestion of fats
b. Digestion of cellulose
c. Digestion of proteins
d. Digestion of vitamins
Answer: b

26. What is the term for the process of removing wool from sheep?

a. Docking
b. Shearing
c. Dehorning
d. Castrating
Answer: b

27. Which breed of cattle is known for its high-quality beef?

a. Jersey
b. Holstein
c. Angus
d. Guernsey
Answer: c

28. What is the term for a mature male chicken?

a. Hen
b. Pullet
c. Cockerel
d. Rooster
Answer: d

29. What is the main cause of bloat in ruminants?

a. Overfeeding grain
b. Lack of exercise
c. Excessive roughage
d. Blocked esophagus
Answer: a

30. Which of the following is a respiratory disease in swine?

a. Swine flu
b. Foot rot
c. Mastitis
d. Johne's disease
Answer: a

31. What is the term for the practice of selectively breeding animals for desired traits?

a. Crossbreeding
b. Inbreeding
c. Genetic modification
d. Artificial selection
Answer: d

32. Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk letdown in dairy cows?

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Oxytocin
d. Insulin
Answer: c

33. What is the primary carbohydrate found in milk?

a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Lactose
d. Sucrose
Answer: c

34. Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination in cattle?

a. Foot rot
b. Pinkeye
c. Brucellosis
d. Johne's disease
Answer: c
35. What is the primary purpose of creep feeding in young livestock?

a. Increase forage intake

b. Provide supplemental nutrients
c. Improve water consumption
d. Reduce weaning stress
Answer: b

36. What is the term for a castrated male pig?

a. Boar
b. Barrow
c. Stag
d. Gilt
Answer: b

37. Which of the following is a trace mineral required for animal health?

a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Selenium
d. Potassium
Answer: c

38. What is the primary purpose of vaccination in livestock?

a. Increase growth rate

b. Prevent diseases
c. Improve feed efficiency
d. Enhance reproduction
Answer: b

39. What is the term for the surgical removal of an animal’s reproductive organs?

a. Neutering
b. Vaccination
c. Euthanasia
d. Dehorning
Answer: a

40. Which of the following is a common internal parasite in livestock?

a. Lice
b. Ticks
c. Roundworms
d. Mites
Answer: c

41. What is the primary feed ingredient for dairy cattle to ensure high milk production?

a. Barley
b. Corn silage
c. Alfalfa
d. Soybean meal
Answer: c

42. What is the main benefit of crossbreeding in livestock?

a. Increased feed intake

b. Improved disease resistance
c. Higher feed costs
d. Reduced fertility
Answer: b

43. What is the typical lactation period for dairy cows?

a. 150 days
b. 305 days
c. 365 days
d. 450 days
Answer: b

44. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease that can be transmitted from livestock to
humans?

a. Mastitis
b. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)
c. Swine flu
d. Newcastle disease
Answer: c

45. What is the term for a mature female sheep?

a. Ewe
b. Doe
c. Cow
d. Sow
Answer: a

46. Which breed of swine is known for its excellent mothering ability?
a. Duroc
b. Hampshire
c. Yorkshire
d. Berkshire
Answer: c

47. What is the primary benefit of using antibiotics in livestock production?

a. Increase weight gain

b. Prevent diseases
c. Enhance reproduction
d. Improve feed efficiency
Answer: b

1-10

1. What is the primary protein found in meat?

o A) Myoglobin
o B) Collagen
o C) Myosin
o D) Hemoglobin
o Answer: C
2. Which vitamin is commonly associated with meat products?
o A) Vitamin A
o B) Vitamin B12
o C) Vitamin C
o D) Vitamin D
o Answer: B
3. What is the term for the process of aging meat to improve tenderness?
o A) Curing
o B) Brining
o C) Fermenting
o D) Dry aging
o Answer: D
4. Which muscle is most tender in beef carcasses?
o A) Sirloin
o B) Tenderloin
o C) Brisket
o D) Flank
o Answer: B
5. What is the main purpose of marbling in meat?
o A) To enhance flavor and tenderness
o B) To increase shelf life
o C) To improve color
o D) To reduce cooking time
o Answer: A
 6. Which meat processing method uses smoke to preserve and flavor the meat?
o A) Canning
o B) Smoking
o C) Freezing
o D) Drying
o Answer: B
7. What is the ideal pH level for meat to ensure good quality?
o A) 3.5
o B) 5.5
o C) 6.5
o D) 8.5
o Answer: B
8. What is the primary concern regarding the consumption of raw or undercooked meat?
o A) High fat content
o B) Vitamin deficiency
o C) Bacterial contamination
o D) Poor taste
o Answer: C
9. What enzyme is responsible for meat tenderization during aging?
o A) Amylase
o B) Protease
o C) Lipase
o D) Catalase
o Answer: B
10. Which livestock animal produces the most tender meat due to low connective tissue
content?
o A) Chicken
o B) Beef
o C) Pork
o D) Lamb
o Answer: A

11-20

11. What is the common name for the process of breaking down muscle fibers and
connective tissues in meat?
o A) Fermentation
o B) Denaturation
o C) Proteolysis
o D) Hydrolysis
o Answer: C
12. Which of the following is not a method of meat preservation?
o A) Salting
o B) Freezing
o C) Baking
 o D) Canning
o Answer: C
13. What is the term for the red pigment found in meat?
o A) Hemoglobin
o B) Myoglobin
o C) Carotene
o D) Anthocyanin
o Answer: B
14. What does the term "yield grade" refer to in meat science?
o A) The flavor of the meat
o B) The amount of usable meat
o C) The fat content
o D) The color of the meat
o Answer: B
15. Which process involves adding beneficial bacteria to meat products?
o A) Smoking
o B) Brining
o C) Fermentation
o D) Marinating
o Answer: C
16. What is the primary component of meat that determines its nutritional value?
o A) Fat
o B) Protein
o C) Carbohydrates
o D) Water
o Answer: B
17. Which part of the chicken is most commonly used for producing chicken nuggets?
o A) Breast
o B) Thigh
o C) Wing
o D) Drumstick
o Answer: A
18. What is the purpose of "resting" meat after cooking?
o A) To reduce fat content
o B) To enhance flavor
o C) To allow juices to redistribute
o D) To cool down the meat
o Answer: C
19. Which method of meat processing uses low temperatures to slow microbial growth?
o A) Curing
o B) Smoking
o C) Freezing
o D) Drying
o Answer: C
20. What is the main advantage of vacuum packaging meat?
 o A) Improved color
o B) Increased tenderness
o C) Extended shelf life
o D) Enhanced flavor
o Answer: C

21-30

21. Which meat cut is typically used for making bacon?

o A) Pork belly
o B) Pork shoulder
o C) Pork loin
o D) Pork leg
o Answer: A
22. What is the most significant factor affecting meat color?
o A) Fat content
o B) Protein content
o C) Myoglobin concentration
o D) Water content
o Answer: C
23. What does "cold shortening" refer to in meat science?
o A) Meat freezing during transportation
o B) Muscle contraction due to rapid chilling
o C) Reduction in meat size during cooking
o D) Shrinkage during thawing
o Answer: B
24. Which type of meat is known for its high omega-3 fatty acid content?
o A) Beef
o B) Pork
o C) Lamb
o D) Fish
o Answer: D
25. What is the primary purpose of curing meat?
o A) To tenderize the meat
o B) To preserve the meat
o C) To enhance color
o D) To reduce cooking time
o Answer: B
26. Which of the following is not a method of stunning animals before slaughter?
o A) Electrical stunning
o B) Captive bolt stunning
o C) Carbon dioxide stunning
o D) Lactic acid stunning
o Answer: D
27. What is the main concern with meat from animals treated with antibiotics?
 o A) Increased fat content
o B) Antibiotic resistance
o C) Poor flavor
o D) Low protein content
o Answer: B
28. What is the purpose of "blooming" in meat?
o A) To improve tenderness
o B) To enhance flavor
o C) To allow the meat to develop its full red color
o D) To increase shelf life
o Answer: C
29. Which term describes the storage of meat at temperatures just above freezing?
o A) Refrigeration
o B) Chilling
o C) Cryogenic storage
o D) Freezing
o Answer: B
30. What is the main cause of "freezer burn" in meat?
o A) Overcooking
o B) Bacterial contamination
o C) Dehydration due to improper packaging
o D) High fat content
o Answer: C

31-40

31. Which cut of beef is commonly used for making ground beef?
o A) Ribeye
o B) Sirloin
o C) Chuck
o D) Tenderloin
o Answer: C
32. What is the most common method of tenderizing meat using mechanical means?
o A) Marinating
o B) Pounding
o C) Aging
o D) Smoking
o Answer: B
33. Which of the following is not a benefit of marinating meat?
o A) Enhanced flavor
o B) Increased tenderness
o C) Extended shelf life
o D) Improved moisture retention
o Answer: C
34. What is the primary difference between white meat and dark meat in poultry?
 o A) Fat content
o B) Myoglobin content
o C) Water content
o D) Protein content
o Answer: B
35. What is the term for meat from sheep that is older than one year?
o A) Lamb
o B) Mutton
o C) Ewe
o D) Ram
o Answer: B
36. Which meat cut is commonly used for making ham?
o A) Pork shoulder
o B) Pork leg
o C) Pork belly
o D) Pork loin
o Answer: B
37. What is a common characteristic of meat from older animals?
o A) Higher tenderness
o B) Lower fat content
o C) Increased toughness
o D) Brighter color
o Answer: C
38. What does the term "kosher" signify in meat processing?
o A) Meat is free from antibiotics
o B) Meat is certified organic
o C) Meat is prepared according to Jewish dietary laws
o D) Meat is certified humane
o Answer: C
39. What is the main advantage of wet aging meat?
o A) Reduced microbial growth
o B) Enhanced flavor and tenderness
o C) Extended shelf life
o D) Improved color retention
o Answer: B
40. What is the effect of excessive heat on meat proteins during cooking?
o A) Denaturation and toughening
o B) Increased water retention
o C) Improved flavor
o D) Reduced fat content
o Answer: A

41-50

41. Which type of meat is known for having the highest protein content?
 o A) Pork
o B) Beef
o C) Chicken
o D) Fish
o Answer: B
42. What is the purpose of adding nitrites to cured meats?
o A) To enhance flavor
o B) To preserve color and prevent bacterial growth
o C) To increase tenderness
o D) To improve shelf life
o Answer: B
43. Which term refers to the small white specks of fat within the muscle of meat?
o A) Gristle
o B) Marbling
o C) Connective tissue
o D) Cartilage
o Answer: B
44. What is the primary method used to measure the tenderness of meat?
o A) Sensory evaluation
o B) pH measurement
o C) Warner-Bratzler shear force test
o D) Colorimetry
o Answer: C
45. What is the primary purpose of brining meat?
o A) To increase tenderness
o B) To add flavor and retain moisture
o C) To preserve color
o D) To extend shelf life
o Answer: B
46. What is the primary reason for using antioxidants in meat products?
o A) To enhance flavor
o B) To prevent fat oxidation
o C) To increase tenderness
o D) To improve color
o Answer: B
47. Which muscle in cattle is most commonly used for steaks?
o A) Brisket
o B) Tenderloin
o C) Flank
o D) Round
o Answer: B
48. What is the main factor that influences the color of meat?
o A) Water content
o B) Fat content
o C) Myoglobin concentration
 o D) pH level
o Answer: C
49. What is the primary concern with consuming undercooked poultry?
o A) High fat content
o B) Salmonella infection
o C) Poor flavor
o D) Low protein content
o Answer: B
50. Which term describes the process of separating meat from the bones?
o A) Trimming
o B) Boning
o C) Slicing
o D) Carving
o Answer: B

51-60

51. What is the ideal internal temperature for cooking ground beef to ensure safety?
o A) 140°F (60°C)
o B) 160°F (71°C)
o C) 170°F (77°C)
o D) 180°F (82°C)
o Answer: B
52. Which of the following is a common indicator of meat spoilage?
o A) Bright red color
o B) Slimy texture
o C) Firm texture
o D) Mild odor
o Answer: B
53. What is the primary benefit of using sous-vide cooking for meat?
o A) Enhanced flavor
o B) Improved tenderness and precise temperature control
o C) Extended shelf life
o D) Reduced cooking time
o Answer: B
54. What does the term "yield grade" refer to in meat science?
o A) The flavor of the meat
o B) The amount of usable meat
o C) The fat content
o D) The color of the meat
o Answer: B
55. Which cut of pork is typically used for making pulled pork?
o A) Pork shoulder
o B) Pork loin
o C) Pork belly
 o D) Pork leg
o Answer: A
56. What is the effect of adding salt to meat during processing?
o A) It increases fat content
o B) It enhances flavor and acts as a preservative
o C) It reduces protein content
o D) It decreases tenderness
o Answer: B
57. What is the main component of connective tissue in meat?
o A) Collagen
o B) Myoglobin
o C) Hemoglobin
o D) Elastin
o Answer: A
58. Which of the following is a characteristic of meat from grass-fed animals?
o A) Higher fat content
o B) Lower omega-3 fatty acids
o C) Richer flavor and higher omega-3 fatty acids
o D) Higher water content
o Answer: C
59. What is the primary purpose of using phosphates in meat processing?
o A) To enhance flavor
o B) To retain moisture and improve texture
o C) To increase shelf life
o D) To improve color
o Answer: B
60. Which method of meat processing uses low temperatures to slow microbial growth?
o A) Curing
o B) Smoking
o C) Freezing
o D) Drying
o Answer: C

61-70

61. What is the primary cause of meat discoloration during storage?

o A) Lipid oxidation
o B) Protein degradation
o C) Myoglobin oxidation
o D) Water loss
o Answer: C
62. Which term describes the edible parts of animals other than muscle meat?
o A) Offal
o B) Trim
o C) Gristle
 o D) Carcass
o Answer: A
63. What is the effect of marbling on meat quality?
o A) It reduces tenderness
o B) It enhances flavor and tenderness
o C) It decreases shelf life
o D) It increases cooking time
o Answer: B
64. Which type of meat is typically higher in saturated fat?
o A) Chicken
o B) Beef
o C) Fish
o D) Rabbit
o Answer: B
65. What is the main concern regarding the consumption of meat from animals treated with
growth hormones?
o A) Increased fat content
o B) Antibiotic resistance
o C) Health risks to consumers
o D) Poor flavor
o Answer: C
66. What is the primary function of myoglobin in meat?
o A) To provide flavor
o B) To bind oxygen
o C) To increase tenderness
o D) To retain moisture
o Answer: B
67. Which of the following is not a method of meat preservation?
o A) Salting
o B) Freezing
o C) Baking
o D) Canning
o Answer: C
68. What is the term for the process of reducing microbial contamination on meat surfaces?
o A) Sterilization
o B) Sanitization
o C) Decontamination
o D) Pasteurization
o Answer: C
69. Which muscle is most tender in beef carcasses?
o A) Sirloin
o B) Tenderloin
o C) Brisket
o D) Flank
o Answer: B
 70. What is the ideal pH level for meat to ensure good quality?
o A) 3.5
o B) 5.5
o C) 6.5
o D) 8.5
o Answer: B

71-80

71. What is the primary role of packaging in meat science?

o A) Increasing production
o B) Protecting the product and extending shelf life
o C) Decreasing transportation costs
o D) Reducing marketing margins
o Answer: B
72. What is one benefit of standardized product grades in meat?
o A) Reduced operational efficiency
o B) Increased marketing costs
o C) Enhanced price transparency
o D) Increased market risk
o Answer: C
73. Which type of marketing margin is expressed in terms of absolute pesos?
o A) Absolute constant margins
o B) Percentage margins
o C) Variable margins
o D) Fixed margins
o Answer: A
74. What is one factor that affects the choice of marketing channels in meat products?
o A) Government policies
o B) Perishability of the product
o C) Technological advancements
o D) Global trade agreements
o Answer: B
75. What is one effect of a lack of competition at the retail level in the meat market?
o A) Decrease in market prices
o B) Increase in marketing margins
o C) Improvement in product quality
o D) Enhancement of market information flow
o Answer: B
76. What does "standardization" in grading and standardization refer to?
o A) The practice of making quality specifications uniform
o B) The reduction of operational efficiency
o C) The increase in marketing costs
o D) The decrease in precision of the price formation process
o Answer: A
 77. What is the term for the difference between the selling price and the purchase price of a
meat product?
o A) Marketing cost
o B) Marketing margin
o C) Marketing channel
o D) Marketing function
o Answer: B
78. Which marketing function involves determining consumer wants and needs?
o A) Grading
o B) Advertising
o C) Market research
o D) Standardization
o Answer: C
79. Which term describes the practice of selling goods in smaller units?
o A) Buena mano
o B) Tawad
o C) Tingi
o D) Paluwagan
o Answer: C
80. What does "inelastic demand" mean for meat products?
o A) Demand that changes significantly with price changes
o B) Demand that remains relatively constant despite price changes
o C) Demand that is influenced by advertising
o D) Demand that varies greatly based on emotional appeal
o Answer: B

81-90

81. What is one factor that contributes to excessive marketing costs for wholesalers and
retailers?
o A) Adequate transport and handling facilities
o B) High levels of marketing training and organization
o C) Lack of price and quality information on the part of consumers
o D) Effective competition at the retail level
o Answer: C
82. Which of the following describes a "functional subsystem" in meat marketing?
o A) Deals with intermediaries
o B) Includes government policies
o C) Involves consumer preferences
o D) Handles production processes
o Answer: C
83. What is one problem with using grades in meat marketing?
o A) It decreases operational efficiency
o B) It reduces marketing costs
o C) The number of grades or classes can be confusing
 o D) It increases the precision of the price formation process
o Answer: C
84. What is the primary purpose of standardization in grading and standardization?
o A) Reducing operational efficiency
o B) Making quality specifications uniform
o C) Increasing marketing costs
o D) Decreasing the precision of price formation
o Answer: B
85. Which type of meat is typically used for making sausages?
o A) Beef
o B) Pork
o C) Chicken
o D) Lamb
o Answer: B
86. What is the common name for the process of breaking down muscle fibers and
connective tissues in meat?
o A) Fermentation
o B) Denaturation
o C) Proteolysis
o D) Hydrolysis
o Answer: C
87. Which of the following is not a method of meat preservation?
o A) Salting
o B) Freezing
o C) Baking
o D) Canning
o Answer: C
88. What is the term for the red pigment found in meat?
o A) Hemoglobin
o B) Myoglobin
o C) Carotene
o D) Anthocyanin
o Answer: B
89. What does the term "yield grade" refer to in meat science?
o A) The flavor of the meat
o B) The amount of usable meat
o C) The fat content
o D) The color of the meat
o Answer: B
90. Which process involves adding beneficial bacteria to meat products?
o A) Smoking
o B) Brining
o C) Fermentation
o D) Marinating
o Answer: C
91-100

91. What is the primary component of meat that determines its nutritional value?
o A) Fat
o B) Protein
o C) Carbohydrates
o D) Water
o Answer: B
92. Which part of the chicken is most commonly used for producing chicken nuggets?
o A) Breast
o B) Thigh
o C) Wing
o D) Drumstick
o Answer: A
93. What is the purpose of "resting" meat after cooking?
o A) To reduce fat content
o B) To enhance flavor
o C) To allow juices to redistribute
o D) To cool down the meat
o Answer: C
94. Which method of meat processing uses low temperatures to slow microbial growth?
o A) Curing
o B) Smoking
o C) Freezing
o D) Drying
o Answer: C
95. What is the main advantage of vacuum packaging meat?
o A) Improved color
o B) Increased tenderness
o C) Extended shelf life
o D) Enhanced flavor
o Answer: C
96. Which cut of beef is commonly used for making ground beef?
o A) Ribeye
o B) Sirloin
o C) Chuck
o D) Tenderloin
o Answer: C
97. What is the most common method of tenderizing meat using mechanical means?
o A) Marinating
o B) Pounding
o C) Aging
o D) Smoking
o Answer: B
98. Which of the following is not a benefit of marinating meat?
 o A) Enhanced flavor
o B) Increased tenderness
o C) Extended shelf life
o D) Improved moisture retention
o Answer: C
99. What is the primary difference between white meat and dark meat in poultry?
o A) Fat content
o B) Myoglobin content
o C) Water content
o D) Protein content
o Answer: B
100. What is the term for meat from sheep that is older than one year? - A) Lamb - B)
Mutton - C) Ewe - D) Ram - Answer: B

1. What hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of the estrous cycle in female
animals?
o A) Estrogen
o B) Testosterone
o C) Progesterone
o D) Oxytocin
o Answer: C
2. In which part of the female reproductive system does fertilization typically occur?
o A) Ovary
o B) Uterus
o C) Oviduct
o D) Cervix
o Answer: C
3. What is the term for the process of sperm production in males?
o A) Oogenesis
o B) Spermatogenesis
o C) Folliculogenesis
o D) Embryogenesis
o Answer: B
4. Which hormone triggers ovulation in female animals?
o A) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
o B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
o C) Prolactin
o D) Cortisol
o Answer: A
5. What structure in the male reproductive system is responsible for storing and maturing
sperm?
o A) Testis
o B) Vas deferens
o C) Epididymis
o D) Prostate gland
 o Answer: C
6. Which phase of the estrous cycle is characterized by sexual receptivity and ovulation?
o A) Proestrus
o B) Estrus
o C) Metestrus
o D) Diestrus
o Answer: B
7. What is the primary function of the placenta during pregnancy?
o A) To produce hormones
o B) To nourish and protect the developing fetus
o C) To initiate labor
o D) To stimulate lactation
o Answer: B
8. Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk letdown during lactation?
o A) Prolactin
o B) Oxytocin
o C) Estrogen
o D) Progesterone
o Answer: B
9. What is the term for the release of an egg from the ovary?
o A) Fertilization
o B) Ovulation
o C) Implantation
o D) Conception
o Answer: B
10. In which part of the reproductive system do sperm gain the ability to swim and fertilize
an egg?
o A) Testis
o B) Epididymis
o C) Vas deferens
o D) Seminal vesicles
o Answer: B

11-20

11. What is the function of the corpus luteum in the female reproductive system?
o A) To produce estrogen
o B) To produce progesterone
o C) To release oocytes
o D) To initiate labor
o Answer: B
12. Which hormone is detected in pregnancy tests for most mammals?
o A) Estrogen
o B) Progesterone
o C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
 o D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
o Answer: C
13. What is the term for the first milk produced by a mammal after giving birth?
o A) Lactose
o B) Colostrum
o C) Casein
o D) Whey
o Answer: B
14. Which structure is responsible for the transport of sperm from the epididymis to the
urethra?
o A) Ureter
o B) Vas deferens
o C) Seminal vesicle
o D) Prostate gland
o Answer: B
15. What is the average duration of the estrous cycle in cows?
o A) 21 days
o B) 28 days
o C) 14 days
o D) 7 days
o Answer: A
16. During which stage of the reproductive cycle does the corpus luteum form?
o A) Estrus
o B) Proestrus
o C) Metestrus
o D) Diestrus
o Answer: C
17. Which reproductive technology involves the transfer of embryos from a donor female to
a recipient female?
o A) Artificial insemination
o B) In vitro fertilization
o C) Embryo transfer
o D) Cloning
o Answer: C
18. What is the main function of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in females?
o A) To trigger ovulation
o B) To stimulate follicle development
o C) To maintain pregnancy
o D) To induce milk production
o Answer: B
19. What is the term for the male sex cells that are capable of fertilizing an egg?
o A) Oocytes
o B) Zygotes
o C) Spermatids
o D) Spermatozoa
 o Answer: D
20. Which part of the female reproductive system serves as the site of implantation and fetal
development?
o A) Ovary
o B) Oviduct
o C) Uterus
o D) Cervix
o Answer: C

21-30

21. What is the term for the phase of the estrous cycle when the female is not sexually
receptive and the corpus luteum is regressing?
o A) Proestrus
o B) Estrus
o C) Metestrus
o D) Diestrus
o Answer: D
22. Which hormone is primarily involved in the initiation and maintenance of lactation?
o A) Oxytocin
o B) Prolactin
o C) Estrogen
o D) Progesterone
o Answer: B
23. What is the main role of the Leydig cells in the testes?
o A) To produce sperm
o B) To produce testosterone
o C) To nourish developing sperm
o D) To secrete inhibin
o Answer: B
24. Which stage of parturition involves the actual delivery of the fetus?
o A) Dilation stage
o B) Expulsion stage
o C) Placental stage
o D) Postpartum stage
o Answer: B
25. What is the term for the time period from conception to birth in animals?
o A) Estrous cycle
o B) Gestation
o C) Lactation
o D) Parturition
o Answer: B
26. Which reproductive hormone is primarily responsible for secondary sexual characteristics
in males?
o A) Estrogen
 o B) Progesterone
o C) Testosterone
o D) Oxytocin
o Answer: C
27. What is the primary function of the acrosome in a sperm cell?
o A) To provide energy for movement
o B) To carry genetic material
o C) To penetrate the egg during fertilization
o D) To regulate pH balance
o Answer: C
28. During which phase of the estrous cycle does the endometrium prepare for potential
pregnancy?
o A) Proestrus
o B) Estrus
o C) Metestrus
o D) Diestrus
o Answer: D
29. What is the term for the period of sexual inactivity between breeding seasons in seasonal
breeders?
o A) Anestrus
o B) Diestrus
o C) Metestrus
o D) Proestrus
o Answer: A
30. Which part of the brain is responsible for releasing gonadotropin-releasing hormone
(GnRH)?
o A) Hypothalamus
o B) Pituitary gland
o C) Pineal gland
o D) Adrenal gland
o Answer: A

31-40

31. What is the primary function of the Sertoli cells in the testes?
o A) To produce testosterone
o B) To nourish and support developing sperm
o C) To store sperm
o D) To secrete seminal fluid
o Answer: B
32. What is the term for the first estrous cycle that a female experiences?
o A) Menarche
o B) Puberty
o C) Estrus
o D) Metestrus
 o Answer: A
33. Which reproductive technology involves fertilizing an egg outside the female body?
o A) Artificial insemination
o B) In vitro fertilization
o C) Embryo transfer
o D) Cloning
o Answer: B
34. What is the main role of progesterone during pregnancy?
o A) To stimulate uterine contractions
o B) To maintain the uterine lining for fetal development
o C) To promote lactation
o D) To induce ovulation
o Answer: B

Animal Science - Physiology MCQs

Questions 1-25

1. What is the primary function of the respiratory system in animals?

o a) To circulate blood
o b) To exchange gases
o c) To digest food
o d) To eliminate waste
o Answer: b
2. The main organ responsible for filtering blood in animals is:
o a) Heart
o b) Liver
o c) Kidney
o d) Lung
o Answer: c
3. The process by which animals maintain a stable internal environment is called:
o a) Homeostasis
o b) Metabolism
o c) Catabolism
o d) Anabolism
o Answer: a
4. Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels in animals?
o a) Thyroxine
o b) Insulin
o c) Adrenaline
o d) Glucagon
o Answer: b
5. What type of muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach and
intestines?
o a) Skeletal muscle
o b) Cardiac muscle
o c) Smooth muscle
o d) Voluntary muscle
o Answer: c
6. In mammals, the site of fertilization typically occurs in the:
o a) Ovary
o b) Uterus
o c) Fallopian tube
o d) Vagina
o Answer: c
7. Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating vital functions such as heartbeat and
breathing?
o a) Cerebrum
o b) Cerebellum
o c) Medulla oblongata
o d) Thalamus
o Answer: c
8. Red blood cells are primarily responsible for:
o a) Fighting infections
o b) Clotting blood
o c) Transporting oxygen
o d) Producing hormones
o Answer: c
9. What is the main function of white blood cells in animals?
o a) Oxygen transport
o b) Nutrient absorption
o c) Immune response
o d) Hormone production
o Answer: c
10. Which gland produces the hormone responsible for regulating metabolism?
o a) Pituitary gland
o b) Thyroid gland
o c) Adrenal gland
o d) Pancreas
o Answer: b
11. What is the main function of the small intestine in animals?
o a) Water absorption
o b) Protein digestion
o c) Nutrient absorption
o d) Fat storage
o Answer: c
12. The term "myocardium" refers to:
 o a) The outer layer of the heart
o b) The muscle tissue of the heart
o c) The inner lining of the heart
o d) The valve structures in the heart
o Answer: b
13. What is the role of hemoglobin in the blood?
o a) To regulate body temperature
o b) To transport oxygen
o c) To aid in digestion
o d) To fight infections
o Answer: b
14. Which of the following is a function of the liver in animals?
o a) Blood filtration
o b) Bile production
o c) Protein synthesis
o d) All of the above
o Answer: d
15. The primary site for gas exchange in the lungs is:
o a) Bronchi
o b) Alveoli
o c) Trachea
o d) Bronchioles
o Answer: b
16. Which hormone is responsible for the fight-or-flight response in animals?
o a) Insulin
o b) Cortisol
o c) Adrenaline
o d) Thyroxine
o Answer: c
17. What structure in the cell is known as the "powerhouse" due to its role in energy
production?
o a) Nucleus
o b) Mitochondrion
o c) Ribosome
o d) Endoplasmic reticulum
o Answer: b
18. Which part of the brain is involved in coordinating voluntary movements and balance?
o a) Cerebrum
o b) Cerebellum
o c) Medulla oblongata
o d) Hypothalamus
o Answer: b
19. The term "peristalsis" refers to:
o a) The process of chewing food
o b) The wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract
 o c) The secretion of digestive enzymes
o d) The absorption of nutrients
o Answer: b
20. Which component of blood is primarily involved in clotting?
o a) Red blood cells
o b) White blood cells
o c) Platelets
o d) Plasma
o Answer: c
21. What is the function of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system?
o a) Producing insulin
o b) Regulating hormone release from the pituitary gland
o c) Stimulating muscle contractions
o d) Producing digestive enzymes
o Answer: b
22. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system in animals?
o a) Providing structure and support
o b) Protecting internal organs
o c) Producing red and white blood cells
o d) Regulating body temperature
o Answer: d
23. The term "endocrine glands" refers to glands that:
o a) Produce digestive enzymes
o b) Secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream
o c) Release sweat and oil
o d) Filter waste products from the blood
o Answer: b
24. Which of the following is a type of connective tissue?
o a) Skin
o b) Bone
o c) Muscle
o d) Neuron
o Answer: b
25. The main function of the large intestine is to:
o a) Absorb nutrients
o b) Absorb water and electrolytes
o c) Digest proteins
o d) Store bile
o Answer: b

Questions 26-50

26. What type of immunity is provided by antibodies produced outside the body?
o a) Innate immunity
o b) Active immunity
 o c) Passive immunity
o d) Cell-mediated immunity
o Answer: c
27. The structure responsible for producing sperm in male animals is the:
o a) Prostate gland
o b) Testes
o c) Epididymis
o d) Vas deferens
o Answer: b
28. Which hormone is primarily involved in the regulation of calcium levels in the blood?
o a) Thyroxine
o b) Insulin
o c) Parathyroid hormone
o d) Adrenaline
o Answer: c
29. The process of converting glucose into energy within the cell is known as:
o a) Photosynthesis
o b) Glycolysis
o c) Fermentation
o d) Lipolysis
o Answer: b
30. The functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood and forming urine is
called:
o a) Neuron
o b) Alveolus
o c) Nephron
o d) Osteon
o Answer: c
31. Which of the following is a primary function of the spleen?
o a) Producing hormones
o b) Filtering blood and recycling old red blood cells
o c) Storing bile
o d) Secreting digestive enzymes
o Answer: b
32. Which part of the brain regulates body temperature, hunger, and thirst?
o a) Cerebrum
o b) Cerebellum
o c) Medulla oblongata
o d) Hypothalamus
o Answer: d
33. The hormone oxytocin is known for its role in:
o a) Regulating blood sugar
o b) Stimulating milk ejection during lactation and uterine contractions during labor
o c) Controlling metabolism
o d) Managing stress response
 o Answer: b
34. What is the primary purpose of the lymphatic system in animals?
o a) Oxygen transport
o b) Nutrient digestion
o c) Fluid balance and immune defense
o d) Waste elimination
o Answer: c
35. Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?
o a) Veins
o b) Arteries
o c) Capillaries
o d) Venules
o Answer: b
36. Which gland is known as the "master gland" because it regulates other endocrine glands?
o a) Thyroid gland
o b) Pituitary gland
o c) Adrenal gland
o d) Pineal gland
o Answer: b
37. The basic unit of contraction in a muscle fiber is the:
o a) Sarcomere
o b) Neuron
o c) Osteon
o d) Alveolus
o Answer: a
38. What type of tissue connects muscles to bones?
o a) Ligaments
o b) Cartilage
o c) Tendons
o d) Fascia
o Answer: c
39. The main function of the cerebrum in the brain is to:
o a) Control balance and coordination
o b) Regulate vital functions like heartbeat and breathing
o c) Process sensory information and coordinate voluntary movements
o d) Produce hormones
o Answer: c
40. Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption and bone health?
o a) Vitamin A
o b) Vitamin B12
o c) Vitamin C
o d) Vitamin D
o Answer: d
41. What is the primary role of the pancreas in the digestive system?
o a) Producing bile
 o b) Secreting digestive enzymes and hormones like insulin
o c) Filtering toxins from the blood
o d) Storing glycogen
o Answer: b
42. Which structure in the ear is responsible for maintaining balance and equilibrium?
o a) Cochlea
o b) Tympanic membrane
o c) Semicircular canals
o d) Eustachian tube
o Answer: c
43. The hormone prolactin is primarily associated with:
o a) Stress response
o b) Growth and development
o c) Milk production in mammals
o d) Regulation of blood sugar
o Answer: c
44. What is the function of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?
o a) Protecting neurons from injury
o b) Insulating nerve fibers and speeding up signal transmission
o c) Producing neurotransmitters
o d) Regulating blood flow to the brain
o Answer: b
45. Which part of the digestive system is primarily responsible for water absorption?
o a) Stomach
o b) Small intestine
o c) Large intestine
o d) Esophagus
o Answer: c
46. What is the main component of the extracellular matrix in connective tissue?
o a) Keratin
o b) Collagen
o c) Actin
o d) Myosin
o Answer: b
47. Which organ in the male reproductive system stores and matures sperm cells?
o a) Testes
o b) Epididymis
o c) Vas deferens
o d) Seminal vesicle
o Answer: b
48. The hormone aldosterone is involved in regulating:
o a) Blood glucose levels
o b) Water and salt balance
o c) Immune response
o d) Metabolic rate
 o Answer: b
49. What type of joint is found in the human knee?
o a) Ball-and-socket joint
o b) Hinge joint
o c) Pivot joint
o d) Saddle joint
o Answer: b
50. Which part of the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing water and essential nutrients
back into the blood?
o a) Glomerulus
o b) Proximal convoluted tubule
o c) Loop of Henle
o d) Collecting duct
o Answer: b

Questions 51-75

51. What is the role of the hormone glucagon in the body?

o a) Lowering blood sugar levels
o b) Increasing blood sugar levels
o c) Regulating calcium levels
o d) Stimulating growth
o Answer: b
52. Which component of the blood is responsible for transporting nutrients, hormones, and
waste products?
o a) Red blood cells
o b) White blood cells
o c) Plasma
o d) Platelets
o Answer: c
53. The hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production, is produced
primarily by which organ?
o a) Liver
o b) Kidney
o c) Spleen
o d) Pancreas
o Answer: b
54. The process of breaking down food into molecules that can be absorbed is called:
o a) Ingestion
o b) Digestion
o c) Absorption
o d) Excretion
o Answer: b
55. What is the function of melanin in the skin?
o a) Providing elasticity
 o b) Protecting against UV radiation
o c) Producing sweat
o d) Regulating temperature
o Answer: b
56. Which hormone is primarily involved in the regulation of the menstrual cycle in females?
o a) Testosterone
o b) Estrogen
o c) Insulin
o d) Thyroxine
o Answer: b
57. The structure responsible for producing and secreting bile is the:
o a) Stomach
o b) Liver
o c) Pancreas
o d) Gallbladder
o Answer: b
58. Which type of white blood cell is involved in the specific immune response?
o a) Neutrophil
o b) Lymphocyte
o c) Monocyte
o d) Eosinophil
o Answer: b
59. The part of the brain that controls voluntary muscle movements is the:
o a) Medulla oblongata
o b) Cerebrum
o c) Cerebellum
o d) Thalamus
o Answer: b
60. The main function of the gallbladder is to:
o a) Produce bile
o b) Store and concentrate bile
o c) Digest fats
o d) Absorb nutrients
o Answer: b
61. Which structure in the respiratory system is the site of vocal production?
o a) Trachea
o b) Larynx
o c) Pharynx
o d) Bronchi
o Answer: b
62. Which hormone is known for regulating the sleep-wake cycle in animals?
o a) Melatonin
o b) Serotonin
o c) Dopamine
o d) Oxytocin
 o Answer: a
63. What is the primary function of the rib cage?
o a) Protecting the heart and lungs
o b) Supporting the head
o c) Assisting in digestion
o d) Enabling movement
o Answer: a
64. The functional unit of the nervous system is the:
o a) Neuron
o b) Axon
o c) Dendrite
o d) Synapse
o Answer: a
65. The hormone responsible for lowering blood calcium levels is:
o a) Parathyroid hormone
o b) Calcitonin
o c) Aldosterone
o d) Glucagon
o Answer: b
66. Which type of muscle tissue is under voluntary control?
o a) Cardiac muscle
o b) Smooth muscle
o c) Skeletal muscle
o d) All of the above
o Answer: c
67. What is the primary function of the mitochondria in animal cells?
o a) Protein synthesis
o b) Energy production
o c) Waste disposal
o d) Genetic information storage
o Answer: b
68. The hormone responsible for regulating blood pressure by controlling sodium and water
balance is:
o a) Insulin
o b) Aldosterone
o c) Glucagon
o d) Cortisol
o Answer: b
69. What is the main purpose of the circulatory system in animals?
o a) Digesting food
o b) Eliminating waste
o c) Transporting nutrients, gases, and wastes
o d) Producing hormones
o Answer: c
70. The part of the brain that acts as a relay station for sensory information is the:
 o a) Hypothalamus
o b) Thalamus
o c) Cerebellum
o d) Medulla oblongata
o Answer: b
71. Which hormone is produced by the adrenal glands and helps the body respond to stress?
o a) Insulin
o b) Thyroxine
o c) Cortisol
o d) Estrogen
o Answer: c
72. The main structural component of cell membranes is:
o a) Proteins
o b) Carbohydrates
o c) Lipids
o d) Nucleic acids
o Answer: c
73. Which gland in the neck regulates metabolic rate and calcium levels in the blood?
o a) Adrenal gland
o b) Thyroid gland
o c) Pituitary gland
o d) Pineal gland
o Answer: b
74. The process by which cells convert glucose and oxygen into energy, carbon dioxide, and
water is called:
o a) Photosynthesis
o b) Glycolysis
o c) Cellular respiration
o d) Fermentation
o Answer: c
75. What is the primary function of red bone marrow?
o a) Storing fat
o b) Producing red and white blood cells
o c) Storing calcium
o d) Protecting organs
o Answer: b

Questions 76-100

76. Which part of the digestive system is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption?
o a) Stomach
o b) Small intestine
o c) Large intestine
o d) Esophagus
o Answer: b
77. The hormone insulin is produced by which cells in the pancreas?
o a) Alpha cells
o b) Beta cells
o c) Delta cells
o d) Acinar cells
o Answer: b
78. The primary role of the hormone progesterone is to:
o a) Regulate blood sugar levels
o b) Prepare the uterus for pregnancy
o c) Stimulate milk production
o d) Control metabolic rate
o Answer: b
79. What is the main function of the lymph nodes in the lymphatic system?
o a) Producing red blood cells
o b) Filtering lymph and housing immune cells
o c) Storing fat
o d) Producing hormones
o Answer: b
80. Which of the following structures connects bones to other bones?
o a) Tendons
o b) Ligaments
o c) Cartilage
o d) Muscles
o Answer: b
81. The primary function of hemoglobin in the blood is to:
o a) Fight infections
o b) Clot blood
o c) Transport oxygen
o d) Regulate blood pressure
o Answer: c
82. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
o a) Detoxifying chemicals
o b) Producing bile
o c) Storing glycogen
o d) Producing red blood cells
o Answer: d
83. The hormone testosterone is produced by which organ in male animals?
o a) Pituitary gland
o b) Testes
o c) Adrenal gland
o d) Prostate gland
o Answer: b
84. The term "action potential" refers to:
o a) The process of muscle contraction
o b) A temporary reversal of the electrical potential across a nerve cell membrane
 o c) The formation of new blood cells
o d) The absorption of nutrients in the intestine
o Answer: b
85. Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for the filtration of blood?
o a) Loop of Henle
o b) Proximal convoluted tubule
o c) Glomerulus
o d) Collecting duct
o Answer: c
86. The hormone responsible for stimulating the production of breast milk is:
o a) Prolactin
o b) Oxytocin
o c) Estrogen
o d) Progesterone
o Answer: a
87. Which of the following is a function of the skin?
o a) Protecting internal organs
o b) Regulating body temperature
o c) Preventing water loss
o d) All of the above
o Answer: d
88. The structure in the ear that converts sound waves into electrical signals is the:
o a) Tympanic membrane
o b) Cochlea
o c) Semicircular canals
o d) Eustachian tube
o Answer: b
89. The hormone that regulates the production of red blood cells is:
o a) Insulin
o b) Erythropoietin
o c) Glucagon
o d) Cortisol
o Answer: b
90. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for regulating emotions and memory?
o a) Cerebrum
o b) Cerebellum
o c) Limbic system
o d) Brainstem
o Answer: c
91. The main function of the hormone antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is to:
o a) Increase urine production
o b) Decrease urine production by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys
o c) Stimulate digestion
o d) Regulate blood sugar levels
o Answer: b
92. The primary structural component of hair and nails is:
o a) Collagen
o b) Keratin
o c) Myosin
o d) Elastin
o Answer: b
93. Which type of cell is responsible for breaking down bone tissue?
o a) Osteoblast
o b) Osteoclast
o c) Chondrocyte
o d) Fibroblast
o Answer: b
94. What is the main function of the hormone leptin?
o a) Regulating blood sugar levels
o b) Controlling appetite and energy balance
o c) Stimulating growth
o d) Increasing heart rate
o Answer: b
95. The primary function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells is to:
o a) Store calcium ions
o b) Generate energy
o c) Synthesize proteins
o d) Transport nutrients
o Answer: a
96. Which of the following is a role of the kidneys?
o a) Filtering waste from the blood
o b) Regulating electrolyte balance
o c) Maintaining fluid balance
o d) All of the above
o Answer: d
97. The term "synapse" refers to:
o a) A muscle contraction
o b) The junction between two nerve cells where neurotransmitters are released
o c) The production of red blood cells
o d) The absorption of nutrients in the intestine
o Answer: b
98. Which part of the eye is responsible for focusing light on the retina?
o a) Cornea
o b) Lens
o c) Iris
o d) Pupil
o Answer: b
99. The hormone responsible for the "fight or flight" response is:
o a) Insulin
o b) Adrenaline (epinephrine)
 o c) Thyroxine
o d) Melatonin
o Answer: b
100. Which structure in the female reproductive system is the site of fertilization? - a)
Ovary - b) Uterus - c) Fallopian tube (oviduct) - d) Cervix - Answer: c

Agriculture Crops

1. What is the top agricultural crop produced in the Philippines? a) Corn b) Rice c)
Sugarcane d) Coconut
2. Which region in the Philippines is known as the "Rice Granary of the Philippines"?
a) Ilocos Region b) Central Luzon c) Western Visayas d) Bicol Region
3. What is the major export product of the Philippine coconut industry? a) Coconut
water b) Desiccated coconut c) Virgin coconut oil d) Copra
4. Which crop is the Philippines the largest producer of in the world? a) Rice b)
Bananas c) Pineapples d) Mangoes
5. What percentage of the total agricultural area in the Philippines is devoted to rice
production? a) 20% b) 30% c) 40% d) 50%
6. Which province is the leading producer of sugarcane in the Philippines? a) Negros
Occidental b) Batangas c) Bukidnon d) Tarlac
7. Which crop has the highest value of production among all fruit crops in the
Philippines? a) Mango b) Banana c) Pineapple d) Papaya
8. What is the main pest affecting rice production in the Philippines? a) Rice bug b)
Rice black bug c) Golden apple snail d) Brown planthopper
9. What government agency is responsible for agricultural research in the Philippines?
a) Department of Agriculture (DA) b) Bureau of Plant Industry (BPI) c) Philippine Rice
Research Institute (PhilRice) d) National Food Authority (NFA)
10. What is the primary method of irrigation used in Philippine rice paddies? a)
Sprinkler irrigation b) Drip irrigation c) Surface irrigation d) Subsurface irrigation
11. Which fruit is the Philippines the second-largest producer of in the world? a) Banana
b) Mango c) Pineapple d) Papaya
12. What is the primary export market for Philippine bananas? a) United States b) Japan
c) China d) South Korea
13. Which province is the leading producer of corn in the Philippines? a) Isabela b)
Bukidnon c) Cagayan d) Pangasinan
14. What disease is a significant threat to banana plantations in the Philippines? a)
Bunchy top virus b) Fusarium wilt c) Sigatoka d) Moko disease
15. What is the main advantage of using hybrid rice varieties? a) Higher yield b) Pest
resistance c) Drought tolerance d) Lower cost
16. Which crop is the main source of livelihood for many Filipino farmers in
Mindanao? a) Rice b) Coconut c) Coffee d) Rubber
 17. What is the primary purpose of the Philippine Carabao Center (PCC)? a) Improve
carabao milk production b) Enhance carabao meat quality c) Develop carabao-based farm
mechanization d) Promote carabao breeding
18. Which island in the Philippines is the largest producer of rubber? a) Luzon b)
Visayas c) Mindanao d) Palawan
19. Which region in the Philippines is known for its high-quality coffee production? a)
Cordillera Administrative Region b) CALABARZON c) Davao Region d) Northern
Mindanao
20. Which agricultural product is primarily grown in the Bicol Region? a) Corn b) Rice
c) Abaca d) Coffee

Livestock

21. What is the leading livestock commodity produced in the Philippines? a) Cattle b)
Swine c) Goats d) Poultry
22. Which region in the Philippines is the top producer of hogs? a) Central Luzon b)
Western Visayas c) CALABARZON d) Northern Mindanao
23. What is the most common breed of chicken raised for meat production in the
Philippines? a) Rhode Island Red b) White Leghorn c) Cornish Cross d) Plymouth Rock
24. Which province is the largest producer of cattle in the Philippines? a) Batangas b)
Ilocos Norte c) Bohol d) Negros Occidental
25. What is the main challenge facing the Philippine poultry industry? a) High feed costs
b) Disease outbreaks c) Import competition d) Labor shortages
26. Which breed of pig is most commonly raised in the Philippines? a) Berkshire b)
Landrace c) Duroc d) Large White
27. Which region is known for its significant goat production in the Philippines? a)
Ilocos Region b) Central Visayas c) Western Mindanao d) Cagayan Valley
28. What is the main product derived from Philippine carabaos? a) Meat b) Milk c)
Leather d) Wool
29. Which of the following diseases is a major concern for swine production in the
Philippines? a) Foot-and-mouth disease b) African swine fever c) Avian influenza d)
Newcastle disease
30. What is the primary focus of the National Dairy Authority (NDA) in the
Philippines? a) Promoting beef production b) Enhancing dairy production c) Supporting
poultry farming d) Improving swine health
31. Which livestock product has seen the highest growth in consumption in the
Philippines in recent years? a) Pork b) Beef c) Chicken d) Goat
32. What is the most significant advantage of raising native pigs in the Philippines? a)
Faster growth rate b) Better disease resistance c) Higher meat quality d) Lower feed cost
33. Which province is the leading producer of chicken eggs in the Philippines? a)
Pampanga b) Batangas c) Bulacan d) Nueva Ecija
34. What is the common term for backyard swine farming in the Philippines? a)
Commercial farming b) Subsistence farming c) Family farming d) Small-scale farming
35. Which animal is primarily used for draft power in Philippine agriculture? a) Horse
b) Carabao c) Mule d) Camel
36. What is the most common disease affecting poultry in the Philippines? a) Newcastle
disease b) Avian influenza c) Marek's disease d) Fowl pox
37. Which organization provides technical and financial support to livestock farmers in
the Philippines? a) Department of Agriculture (DA) b) Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI)
c) Philippine Carabao Center (PCC) d) National Livestock Program (NLP)
38. What is the primary feed ingredient used in swine diets in the Philippines? a)
Soybean meal b) Corn c) Fish meal d) Rice bran
39. Which breed of goat is most popular for milk production in the Philippines? a)
Anglo-Nubian b) Boer c) Saanen d) Toggenburg
40. What is the major constraint to increasing dairy production in the Philippines? a)
Lack of quality feed b) Poor breeding practices c) Inadequate processing facilities d) Low
demand for milk
41. Which animal is primarily raised for its meat and milk in the Philippines? a) Cattle
b) Goat c) Carabao d) Sheep
42. Which region in the Philippines is known for duck egg production? a) Central Luzon
b) Ilocos Region c) Bicol Region d) Eastern Visayas
43. What is the most common method of raising poultry in the Philippines? a) Free-
range b) Battery cage system c) Backyard farming d) Deep litter system
44. Which disease is a major concern for cattle farmers in the Philippines? a) Brucellosis
b) Foot-and-mouth disease c) Bovine tuberculosis d) Rinderpest
45. What is the main challenge in increasing goat meat production in the Philippines? a)
Lack of quality breeds b) High cost of feed c) Poor marketing infrastructure d) Limited
grazing land
46. Which agency oversees animal health programs in the Philippines? a) Department of
Agriculture (DA) b) Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI) c) Philippine Carabao Center
(PCC) d) National Meat Inspection Service (NMIS)
47. Which livestock sector has the highest demand for imported feed ingredients in the
Philippines? a) Swine b) Poultry c) Cattle d) Goat
48. What is the primary market for Philippine beef exports? a) United States b) Japan c)
South Korea d) Hong Kong
49. Which province is the leading producer of ducks in the Philippines? a) Pampanga b)
Nueva Ecija c) Tarlac d) Bulacan
50. What is the common term for small-scale poultry farms in the Philippines? a)
Broiler farms b) Layer farms c) Backyard farms d) Commercial farms
51. Which organization is responsible for the development of the Philippine dairy
industry? a) National Dairy Authority (NDA) b) Philippine Carabao Center (PCC) c)
Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI) d) Department of Agriculture (DA)
52. What is the primary reason for the decline in carabao population in the Philippines?
a) Increasing mechanization b) Disease outbreaks c) High cost of maintenance d) Lack of
breeding programs
53. Which livestock product is most commonly imported into the Philippines? a) Pork b)
Beef c) Chicken d) Goat
54. Which breed of cattle is most popular for beef production in the Philippines? a)
Brahman b) Angus c) Hereford d) Holstein
55. What is the main factor affecting the profitability of poultry farming in the
Philippines? a) Feed cost b) Labor availability c) Disease management d) Market
demand
56. Which region in the Philippines is known for its carabao dairy farms? a) Central
Luzon b) Northern Mindanao c) Western Visayas d) CALABARZON
57. Which livestock disease is transmitted by ticks in the Philippines? a) Brucellosis b)
Trypanosomiasis c) Anaplasmosis d) Foot-and-mouth disease
58. What is the primary feed ingredient for poultry in the Philippines? a) Corn b)
Soybean meal c) Rice bran d) Fish meal
59. Which province is the leading producer of goat milk in the Philippines? a) Batangas
b) Cebu c) Nueva Ecija d) Ilocos Norte
60. What is the major problem faced by the Philippine beef industry? a) High production
cost b) Limited grazing land c) Low market prices d) Poor breeding practices
61. What is the main advantage of raising native chickens in the Philippines? a) Higher
egg production b) Better disease resistance c) Faster growth rate d) Higher meat yield
62. Which region in the Philippines is the top producer of carabao milk? a) Central
Luzon b) Northern Mindanao c) Western Visayas d) CALABARZON
63. Which livestock product has the highest consumption rate in the Philippines? a)
Pork b) Beef c) Chicken d) Goat
64. What is the primary challenge in increasing poultry egg production in the
Philippines? a) High feed cost b) Disease management c) Market competition d) Lack of
quality breeds
65. Which agency is responsible for the inspection and regulation of meat products in
the Philippines? a) Department of Agriculture (DA) b) Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI)
c) National Meat Inspection Service (NMIS) d) Philippine Carabao Center (PCC)
66. What is the main reason for the increasing demand for goat meat in the
Philippines? a) Higher meat quality b) Cultural preferences c) Lower cost d) Better
availability
67. Which province is the largest producer of sheep in the Philippines? a) Batangas b)
Ilocos Norte c) Bohol d) Negros Occidental
68. What is the primary method of raising swine in the Philippines? a) Intensive farming
b) Extensive farming c) Backyard farming d) Free-range farming
69. Which livestock product is most affected by import competition in the Philippines?
a) Pork b) Beef c) Chicken d) Goat
70. What is the main focus of the Philippine Carabao Center (PCC)? a) Carabao milk
production b) Carabao meat production c) Carabao draft power d) Carabao breeding and
genetics
71. Which region in the Philippines is known for its duck egg production, specifically
balut? a) Central Luzon b) Ilocos Region c) Bicol Region d) Eastern Visayas
72. What is the primary feed ingredient for cattle in the Philippines? a) Corn silage b)
Rice straw c) Soybean meal d) Alfalfa
73. Which livestock product is the primary source of income for many Filipino
farmers? a) Pork b) Beef c) Chicken d) Goat
74. Which region in the Philippines has the highest number of poultry farms? a) Central
Luzon b) CALABARZON c) Western Visayas d) Northern Mindanao
75. What is the main advantage of raising free-range chickens in the Philippines? a)
Higher egg production b) Better meat quality c) Faster growth rate d) Lower feed cost
76. Which livestock disease is a major concern for poultry farmers in the Philippines?
a) Avian influenza b) Foot-and-mouth disease c) Bovine tuberculosis d) Rinderpest
77. Which organization provides financial assistance to livestock farmers in the
Philippines? a) Department of Agriculture (DA) b) Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI) c)
Philippine Carabao Center (PCC) d) Agricultural Credit Policy Council (ACPC)
78. Which province is the leading producer of pork in the Philippines? a) Batangas b)
Ilocos Norte c) Bohol d) Negros Occidental
79. What is the main factor affecting the profitability of goat farming in the
Philippines? a) Feed cost b) Disease management c) Market demand d) Labor
availability
80. Which region in the Philippines is known for its dairy cattle farms? a) Central Luzon
b) Northern Mindanao c) Western Visayas d) CALABARZON
81. What is the primary use of carabaos in Philippine agriculture? a) Meat production b)
Milk production c) Draft power d) Leather production
82. Which livestock product has the highest export potential for the Philippines? a) Pork
b) Beef c) Chicken d) Goat
83. Which region in the Philippines is the top producer of broiler chickens? a) Central
Luzon b) CALABARZON c) Western Visayas d) Northern Mindanao
84. What is the main challenge in increasing sheep production in the Philippines? a)
Lack of quality breeds b) High cost of feed c) Poor market infrastructure d) Limited
grazing land
85. Which agency is responsible for promoting sustainable livestock farming practices
in the Philippines? a) Department of Agriculture (DA) b) Bureau of Animal Industry
(BAI) c) Philippine Carabao Center (PCC) d) National Livestock Program (NLP)
86. Which livestock product has the highest market price in the Philippines? a) Pork b)
Beef c) Chicken d) Goat
87. Which province is the leading producer of beef in the Philippines? a) Batangas b)
Ilocos Norte c) Bohol d) Negros Occidental
88. What is the primary challenge in increasing carabao milk production in the
Philippines? a) Lack of quality feed b) Poor breeding practices c) Inadequate processing
facilities d) Low market demand
89. Which livestock sector has the highest demand for veterinary services in the
Philippines? a) Swine b) Poultry c) Cattle d) Goat
90. What is the main advantage of raising native goats in the Philippines? a) Higher milk
production b) Better disease resistance c) Faster growth rate d) Higher meat quality
91. Which region in the Philippines is the top producer of pork? a) Central Luzon b)
CALABARZON c) Western Visayas d) Northern Mindanao
92. Which livestock product has the highest growth potential in the Philippine market?
a) Pork b) Beef c) Chicken d) Goat
93. Which agency is responsible for the promotion of the dairy industry in the
Philippines? a) Department of Agriculture (DA) b) National Dairy Authority (NDA) c)
Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI) d) Philippine Carabao Center (PCC)
 94. Which livestock disease is a major concern for goat farmers in the Philippines? a)
Brucellosis b) Foot-and-mouth disease c) Bovine tuberculosis d) Peste des petits
ruminants
95. Which livestock product is most commonly consumed in the Philippines? a) Pork b)
Beef c) Chicken d) Goat
96. Which region in the Philippines is known for its significant production of chicken
eggs? a) Central Luzon b) CALABARZON c) Western Visayas d) Northern Mindanao
97. What is the primary challenge in increasing beef production in the Philippines? a)
Lack of quality feed b) Poor breeding practices c) High production cost d) Limited
grazing land
98. Which agency is responsible for animal health surveillance in the Philippines? a)
Department of Agriculture (DA) b) Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI) c) Philippine
Carabao Center (PCC) d) National Meat Inspection Service (NMIS)
99. What is the main advantage of raising free-range goats in the Philippines? a) Higher
milk production b) Better disease resistance c) Lower feed cost d) Higher meat quality
100. Which livestock product has the highest market demand in the Philippines?
a) Pork b) Beef c) Chicken d) Goat

Answer Key

1. b) Rice
2. b) Central Luzon
3. d) Copra
4. b) Bananas
5. c) 40%
6. a) Negros Occidental
7. b) Banana
8. d) Brown planthopper
9. c) Philippine Rice Research Institute (PhilRice)
10. c) Surface irrigation
11. c) Pineapple
12. b) Japan
13. a) Isabela
14. b) Fusarium wilt
15. a) Higher yield
16. b) Coconut
17. a) Improve carabao milk production
18. c) Mindanao
19. a) Cordillera Administrative Region
20. c) Abaca
21. b) Swine
22. c) CALABARZON
23. c) Cornish Cross
24. a) Batangas
25. b) Disease outbreaks
26. d) Large White
27. d) Cagayan Valley
28. b) Milk
29. b) African swine fever
30. b) Enhancing dairy production
31. c) Chicken
32. b) Better disease resistance
33. a) Pampanga
34. c) Family farming
35. b) Carabao
36. a) Newcastle disease
37. b) Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI)
38. b) Corn
39. c) Saanen
40. c) Inadequate processing facilities
41. b) Goat
42. a) Central Luzon
43. d) Deep litter system
44. b) Foot-and-mouth disease
45. d) Limited grazing land
46. b) Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI)
47. b) Poultry
48. d) Hong Kong
49. d) Bulacan
50. c) Backyard farms
51. a) National Dairy Authority (NDA)
52. a) Increasing mechanization
53. b) Beef
54. a) Brahman
55. a) Feed cost
56. a) Central Luzon
57. c) Anaplasmosis
58. a) Corn
59. d) Ilocos Norte
60. b) Limited grazing land
61. b) Better disease resistance
62. a) Central Luzon
63. a) Pork
64. a) High feed cost
65. c) National Meat Inspection Service (NMIS)
66. b) Cultural preferences
67. a) Batangas
68. c) Backyard farming
69. c) Chicken
70. d) Carabao breeding and genetics
71. a) Central Luzon
72. b) Rice straw
 73. a) Pork
74. a) Central Luzon
75. d) Lower feed cost
76. a) Avian influenza
77. d) Agricultural Credit Policy Council (ACPC)
78. a) Batangas
79. c) Market demand
80. a) Central Luzon
81. c) Draft power
82. b) Beef
83. a) Central Luzon
84. d) Limited grazing land
85. b) Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI)
86. b) Beef
87. d) Negros Occidental
88. c) Inadequate processing facilities
89. b) Poultry
90. b) Better disease resistance
91. a) Central Luzon
92. c) Chicken
93. b) National Dairy Authority (NDA)
94. d) Peste des petits ruminants
95. a) Pork
96. a) Central Luzon
97. d) Limited grazing land
98. b) Bureau of Animal Industry (BAI)
99. c) Lower feed cost
100. a) Pork

Multiple Choice Questions on Small Ruminants

1. Which of the following is a common breed of sheep used for wool production?
o a) Dorper
o b) Merino
o c) Boer
o d) Kiko
2. What is the gestation period of a goat?
o a) 90 days
o b) 150 days
o c) 180 days
o d) 200 days
3. Which mineral is most important for preventing urinary calculi in male goats?
o a) Calcium
o b) Phosphorus
o c) Magnesium
o d) Sodium
4. Which disease is caused by a deficiency of selenium in small ruminants?
o a) White muscle disease
o b) Foot rot
o c) Scrapie
o d) Johne's disease
5. What is the primary purpose of FAMACHA scoring in sheep and goats?
o a) Determine age
o b) Assess body condition
o c) Check for anemia caused by parasites
o d) Evaluate wool quality
6. Which of the following is a sign of parasitic infestation in small ruminants?
o a) Excessive wool growth
o b) Weight gain
o c) Diarrhea
o d) Increased appetite
7. What is the average lifespan of a domesticated goat?
o a) 5-7 years
o b) 8-12 years
o c) 15-20 years
o d) 25-30 years
8. Which breed of goat is known for its high milk production?
o a) Boer
o b) Nubian
o c) LaMancha
o d) Kiko
9. Which of the following is a dual-purpose breed of sheep?
o a) Dorset
o b) Suffolk
o c) Lincoln
o d) Hampshire
10. What is the main purpose of a creep feeder in sheep farming?
o a) To feed adult sheep
o b) To prevent disease
o c) To feed lambs
o d) To provide water
11. Which condition in goats is characterized by swelling under the jaw?
o a) Enterotoxemia
o b) Bloat
o c) Bottle jaw
o d) Mastitis
12. Which breed of sheep is most commonly used for meat production in the United
States?
o a) Merino
o b) Dorset
o c) Suffolk
o d) Rambouillet
13. What is the primary cause of foot rot in sheep and goats?
o a) Viral infection
o b) Bacterial infection
o c) Fungal infection
o d) Nutritional deficiency
14. Which vaccination is essential for preventing clostridial diseases in small
ruminants?
o a) Rabies vaccine
o b) CDT vaccine
o c) Brucellosis vaccine
o d) Foot rot vaccine
15. Which term describes a female goat?
o a) Ewe
o b) Nanny
o c) Doe
o d) Kid
16. What is the most common method of castration in young male goats?
o a) Surgical castration
o b) Banding
o c) Chemical castration
o d) Burdizzo
17. Which of the following breeds is known for its long, lustrous wool?
o a) Dorper
o b) Lincoln
o c) Katahdin
o d) Boer
18. Which condition is commonly referred to as "overeating disease" in small
ruminants?
o a) Enterotoxemia
o b) Foot rot
o c) Blue tongue
o d) Scrapie
19. Which nutrient is essential for preventing anemia in lambs and kids?
o a) Iron
 o b) Calcium
o c) Vitamin D
o d) Zinc
20. Which internal parasite is most commonly found in small ruminants and can cause
severe anemia?
o a) Tapeworms
o b) Liver flukes
o c) Lungworms
o d) Barber pole worm
21. What is the purpose of shearing sheep?
o a) To collect milk
o b) To harvest wool
o c) To prevent disease
o d) To improve meat quality
22. Which of the following is a common external parasite of goats?
o a) Liver flukes
o b) Coccidia
o c) Lice
o d) Tapeworms
23. What is a common sign of mastitis in goats?
o a) Swollen joints
o b) Lameness
o c) Swollen udder
o d) Hair loss
24. Which breed of sheep is known for its prolificacy, often producing multiple lambs
per birth?
o a) Suffolk
o b) Finnsheep
o c) Lincoln
o d) Merino
25. What is the main advantage of rotational grazing for small ruminants?
o a) Increases meat quality
o b) Reduces feed costs
o c) Enhances parasite control
o d) Improves wool quality
26. Which mineral is particularly important for preventing white muscle disease in
lambs?
o a) Calcium
o b) Selenium
o c) Phosphorus
o d) Magnesium
27. What is the main function of the rumen in small ruminants?
o a) Milk production
o b) Wool growth
o c) Fermentation of feed
 o d) Oxygen transport
28. Which breed of goat is primarily raised for meat production?
o a) Saanen
o b) Toggenburg
o c) Boer
o d) Alpine
29. Which of the following is a common cause of respiratory issues in small ruminants?
o a) Foot rot
o b) Pneumonia
o c) Mastitis
o d) Bloat
30. What is the most common method of identifying individual sheep and goats on a
farm?
o a) Branding
o b) Tattooing
o c) Ear tagging
o d) Microchipping
31. Which of the following can cause bloat in small ruminants?
o a) High-fiber diet
o b) Grazing on legumes
o c) Salt deficiency
o d) Overeating grain
32. What is a primary sign of scrapie in sheep?
o a) Weight gain
o b) Excessive wool growth
o c) Intense itching and wool loss
o d) Increased milk production
33. Which breed of sheep is known for its resistance to parasites?
o a) Suffolk
o b) Katahdin
o c) Merino
o d) Dorset
34. What is the purpose of tail docking in lambs?
o a) Improve wool quality
o b) Prevent fly strike
o c) Enhance meat quality
o d) Reduce aggression
35. Which breed of goat is known for its minimal or no external ears?
o a) Nubian
o b) LaMancha
o c) Boer
o d) Alpine
36. What is the primary reason for providing salt blocks to goats?
o a) Enhance wool growth
o b) Improve meat quality
 o c) Supplement mineral intake
o d) Reduce parasite load
37. Which disease in small ruminants is characterized by diarrhea and wasting?
o a) Johne's disease
o b) Scrapie
o c) Foot rot
o d) Blue tongue
38. What is the common name for the condition caused by Haemonchus contortus in
sheep and goats?
o a) Foot rot
o b) Bloat
o c) Barber pole worm infection
o d) Mastitis
39. Which of the following is a common hoof problem in sheep?
o a) Blue tongue
o b) Foot scald
o c) Scrapie
o d) Mastitis
40. What is a key benefit of crossbreeding in sheep?
o a) Improved wool quality
o b) Enhanced meat flavor
o c) Increased genetic diversity
o d) Better parasite resistance
41. Which body condition score (BCS) is considered ideal for breeding goats?
o a) 1-2
o b) 2-3
o c) 3-4
o d) 4-5
42. What is a common practice to prevent coccidiosis in young goats?
o a) Regular deworming
o b) Providing medicated feed
o c) Tail docking
o d) Castration
43. Which of the following is a wool breed of sheep?
o a) Boer
o b) Katahdin
o c) Romney
o d) Nubian
44. Which condition is also known as "pulpy kidney" in small ruminants?
o a) Bloat
o b) Enterotoxemia
o c) Johne's disease
o d) Mastitis
45. What is the primary reason for disbudding young goats?
o a) Improve meat quality
 o b) Prevent horn growth
o c) Enhance wool quality
o d) Increase milk production
46. Which breed of sheep is known for its high-quality meat?
o a) Rambouillet
o b) Suffolk
o c) Lincoln
o d) Merino
47. Which of the following is a common external parasite in sheep?
o a) Liver fluke
o b) Coccidia
o c) Mites
o d) Lungworm
48. What is the primary purpose of a lambing jug?
o a) To feed lambs
o b) To separate sick animals
o c) To house ewes and newborn lambs
o d) To store feed
49. Which mineral is crucial for the prevention of grass tetany in sheep?
o a) Magnesium
o b) Calcium
o c) Selenium
o d) Phosphorus
50. What is a common method for controlling external parasites in goats?
o a) Oral medication
o b) Insecticidal sprays
o c) Salt licks
o d) Antibiotics
51. Which of the following is a milk breed of goat?
o a) Boer
o b) Angora
o c) Saanen
o d) Dorper
52. What is the main symptom of blue tongue disease in sheep?
o a) Wool loss
o b) Fever and swelling of the face
o c) Diarrhea
o d) Lameness
53. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease that can be transmitted from sheep to
humans?
o a) Foot rot
o b) Scrapie
o c) Orf
o d) Barber pole worm infection
54. What is the primary reason for providing colostrum to newborn lambs and kids?
 o a) Enhance wool growth
o b) Provide antibodies
o c) Increase weight gain
o d) Prevent foot rot
55. Which breed of goat is known for its fiber production?
o a) Nubian
o b) Angora
o c) Boer
o d) Alpine
56. What is the main advantage of using electric fencing for small ruminants?
o a) Enhances wool quality
o b) Provides better parasite control
o c) Prevents predators
o d) Reduces feed costs
57. Which condition in small ruminants is caused by a deficiency of vitamin E?
o a) Foot rot
o b) Blue tongue
o c) White muscle disease
o d) Scrapie
58. What is the common name for parturition in goats?
o a) Farrowing
o b) Kidding
o c) Calving
o d) Foaling
59. Which of the following is a hair sheep breed?
o a) Suffolk
o b) Dorset
o c) Katahdin
o d) Merino
60. Which mineral is essential for preventing goiter in small ruminants?
o a) Iodine
o b) Selenium
o c) Magnesium
o d) Calcium
61. What is the primary purpose of drenching in small ruminants?
o a) Increase milk production
o b) Administer medication
o c) Improve wool quality
o d) Enhance meat flavor
62. Which breed of sheep is known for its excellent maternal traits?
o a) Suffolk
o b) Dorset
o c) Lincoln
o d) Merino
63. What is a common symptom of listeriosis in goats?
 o a) Wool loss
o b) Diarrhea
o c) Neurological signs
o d) Increased appetite
64. Which of the following is a common cause of abortion in sheep?
o a) Pneumonia
o b) Scrapie
o c) Toxoplasmosis
o d) Mastitis
65. What is the primary purpose of hoof trimming in goats?
o a) Enhance meat quality
o b) Prevent foot problems
o c) Increase milk production
o d) Improve wool quality
66. Which breed of sheep is known for its adaptability to harsh climates?
o a) Merino
o b) Suffolk
o c) Dorset
o d) Lincoln
67. What is the main cause of bloat in small ruminants?
o a) Overeating grain
o b) Grazing on wet pasture
o c) Salt deficiency
o d) High-fiber diet
68. Which breed of goat is known for its long, floppy ears?
o a) Saanen
o b) Toggenburg
o c) Nubian
o d) Alpine
69. What is the primary purpose of providing creep feed to lambs?
o a) Prevent disease
o b) Increase weight gain
o c) Improve wool quality
o d) Enhance milk production
70. Which of the following is a common internal parasite in sheep?
o a) Lice
o b) Coccidia
o c) Mites
o d) Flies
71. Which disease in small ruminants is characterized by a high fever and swelling of
the face?
o a) Blue tongue
o b) Foot rot
o c) Scrapie
o d) Johne's disease
72. Which mineral is crucial for preventing anemia in small ruminants?
o a) Zinc
o b) Iron
o c) Calcium
o d) Magnesium
73. What is the primary purpose of docking lambs' tails?
o a) Improve meat quality
o b) Prevent fly strike
o c) Enhance wool growth
o d) Increase weight gain
74. Which breed of sheep is known for its high-quality fleece?
o a) Suffolk
o b) Merino
o c) Dorset
o d) Katahdin
75. Which of the following is a common cause of pneumonia in goats?
o a) Bacterial infection
o b) Nutritional deficiency
o c) External parasites
o d) Excessive wool
76. Which condition is also known as "milk fever" in small ruminants?
o a) Ketosis
o b) Hypocalcemia
o c) Acidosis
o d) Bloat
77. What is the primary function of the abomasum in small ruminants?
o a) Fiber fermentation
o b) Milk production
o c) Enzymatic digestion
o d) Oxygen transport
78. Which breed of goat is primarily used for fiber production?
o a) Alpine
o b) Nubian
o c) Angora
o d) Boer
79. What is the common name for the condition caused by Clostridium perfringens type
D in small ruminants?
o a) Foot rot
o b) Blue tongue
o c) Enterotoxemia
o d) Scrapie
80. Which of the following is a common sign of internal parasites in goats?
o a) Weight gain
o b) Increased appetite
o c) Anemia
 o d) Excessive wool growth
81. Which breed of sheep is known for its good mothering abilities?
o a) Suffolk
o b) Rambouillet
o c) Dorset
o d) Lincoln
82. Which of the following is a common external parasite in goats?
o a) Liver fluke
o b) Lungworm
o c) Lice
o d) Coccidia
83. What is the primary purpose of flushing in sheep breeding?
o a) Improve wool quality
o b) Increase lambing rates
o c) Enhance meat flavor
o d) Prevent foot rot
84. Which mineral is essential for preventing white muscle disease in small ruminants?
o a) Selenium
o b) Calcium
o c) Phosphorus
o d) Magnesium
85. Which breed of goat is known for its high butterfat content in milk?
o a) Saanen
o b) Toggenburg
o c) Nubian
o d) Alpine
86. What is a common symptom of Johne's disease in goats?
o a) Swollen joints
o b) Diarrhea and weight loss
o c) Lameness
o d) Hair loss
87. Which of the following is a wool breed of sheep?
o a) Boer
o b) Katahdin
o c) Romney
o d) Nubian
88. Which condition is also known as "pregnancy toxemia" in small ruminants?
o a) Ketosis
o b) Hypocalcemia
o c) Acidosis
o d) Bloat
89. What is the primary reason for providing a balanced diet to small ruminants?
o a) Enhance wool growth
o b) Improve meat quality
o c) Maintain overall health
 o d) Increase milk production
90. Which breed of sheep is known for its excellent meat quality?
o a) Merino
o b) Suffolk
o c) Lincoln
o d) Rambouillet
91. Which of the following is a common sign of external parasites in sheep?
o a) Excessive wool growth
o b) Hair loss and itching
o c) Increased appetite
o d) Weight gain
92. What is the main purpose of providing shade for small ruminants in hot climates?
o a) Enhance wool growth
o b) Prevent heat stress
o c) Improve meat quality
o d) Increase weight gain
93. Which mineral is crucial for preventing goiter in small ruminants?
o a) Iodine
o b) Selenium
o c) Magnesium
o d) Calcium
94. What is the primary purpose of a footbath in sheep farming?
o a) Improve wool quality
o b) Prevent foot rot
o c) Increase milk production
o d) Enhance meat flavor
95. Which breed of goat is known for its high milk production?
o a) Boer
o b) Nubian
o c) LaMancha
o d) Kiko
96. Which condition in small ruminants is characterized by neurological signs and
circling?
o a) Blue tongue
o b) Listeriosis
o c) Foot rot
o d) Johne's disease
97. What is the common term for a castrated male sheep?
o a) Ram
o b) Wether
o c) Ewe
o d) Buck
98. Which mineral is essential for preventing grass tetany in small ruminants?
o a) Magnesium
o b) Calcium
 o c) Selenium
o d) Phosphorus
99. What is the primary purpose of shearing sheep?
o a) Collect wool
o b) Increase milk production
o c) Enhance meat quality
o d) Prevent disease
100. Which breed of sheep is known for its resistance to cold climates? - a) Merino
- b) Suffolk - c) Dorset - d) Lincoln

Answer Key

1. b) Merino
2. b) 150 days
3. b) Phosphorus
4. a) White muscle disease
5. c) Check for anemia caused by parasites
6. c) Diarrhea
7. b) 8-12 years
8. b) Nubian
9. a) Dorset
10. c) To feed lambs
11. c) Bottle jaw
12. c) Suffolk
13. b) Bacterial infection
14. b) CDT vaccine
15. c) Doe
16. b) Banding
17. b) Lincoln
18. a) Enterotoxemia
19. a) Iron
20. d) Barber pole worm
21. b) To harvest wool
22. c) Lice
23. c) Swollen udder
24. b) Finnsheep
25. c) Enhances parasite control
26. b) Selenium
27. c) Fermentation of feed
28. c) Boer
29. b) Pneumonia
30. c) Ear tagging
31. b) Grazing on legumes
32. c) Intense itching and wool loss
33. b) Katahdin
34. b) Prevent fly strike
35. b) LaMancha
36. c) Supplement mineral intake
37. a) Johne's disease
38. c) Barber pole worm infection
39. b) Foot scald
40. c) Increased genetic diversity
41. c) 3-4
42. b) Providing medicated feed
43. c) Romney
44. b) Enterotoxemia
45. b) Prevent horn growth
46. b) Suffolk
47. c) Mites
48. c) To house ewes and newborn lambs
49. a) Magnesium
50. b) Insecticidal sprays
51. c) Saanen
52. b) Fever and swelling of the face
53. c) Orf
54. b) Provide antibodies
55. b) Angora
56. c) Prevents predators
57. c) White muscle disease
58. b) Kidding
59. c) Katahdin
60. a) Iodine
61. b) Administer medication
62. b) Dorset
63. c) Neurological signs
64. c) Toxoplasmosis
65. b) Prevent foot problems
66. a) Merino
67. a) Overeating grain
68. c) Nubian
69. b) Increase weight gain
70. b) Coccidia
71. a) Blue tongue
72. b) Iron
73. b) Prevent fly strike
74. b) Merino
75. a) Bacterial infection
76. b) Hypocalcemia
77. c) Enzymatic digestion
78. c) Angora
79. c) Enterotoxemia
80. c) Anemia
 81. c) Dorset
82. c) Lice
83. b) Increase lambing rates
84. a) Selenium
85. c) Nubian
86. b) Diarrhea and weight loss
87. c) Romney
88. a) Ketosis
89. c) Maintain overall health
90. b) Suffolk
91. b) Hair loss and itching
92. b) Prevent heat stress
93. a) Iodine
94. b) Prevent foot rot
95. b) Nubian
96. b) Listeriosis
97. b) Wether
98. a) Magnesium
99. a) Collect wool
100. a) Merino

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which disease in cattle is caused by Mycobacterium bovis?

o a) Brucellosis
o b) Tuberculosis
o c) Johne's disease
o d) Leptospirosis
2. Which parasite is responsible for causing coccidiosis in poultry?
o a) Ascaridia galli
o b) Eimeria spp.
o c) Haemonchus contortus
o d) Trichuris suis
3. What is the causative agent of foot-and-mouth disease?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Virus
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
4. Which condition is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani?
o a) Tetanus
o b) Anthrax
o c) Botulism
 o d) Blackleg
5. Which drug is commonly used to treat mastitis in dairy cattle?
o a) Penicillin
o b) Aspirin
o c) Ivermectin
o d) Amoxicillin
6. What is the primary symptom of canine parvovirus infection?
o a) Respiratory distress
o b) Hemorrhagic diarrhea
o c) Skin lesions
o d) Neurological signs
7. Which disease in pigs is caused by Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome
Virus (PRRSV)?
o a) Swine influenza
o b) PRRS
o c) Foot-and-mouth disease
o d) Aujeszky's disease (Pseudorabies)
8. Which antibiotic is used to treat bacterial pneumonia in sheep?
o a) Penicillin
o b) Tetracycline
o c) Acyclovir
o d) Ketamine
9. What is the main transmission route for rabies virus?
o a) Inhalation of spores
o b) Ingestion of contaminated food
o c) Bite from an infected animal
o d) Skin contact with infected soil
10. Which disease in horses is characterized by fever, nasal discharge, and swollen
lymph nodes?
o a) Equine infectious anemia (EIA)
o b) Strangles (Streptococcus equi)
o c) Equine herpesvirus
o d) Laminitis
11. Which of the following drugs is an anti-inflammatory used in animals?
o a) Ivermectin
o b) Enrofloxacin
o c) Flunixin meglumine
o d) Praziquantel
12. Which condition is also known as "milk fever" in dairy cows?
o a) Ketosis
o b) Hypocalcemia
o c) Mastitis
o d) Acidosis
13. Which pathogen causes avian influenza in poultry?
o a) Bacterium
 o b) Fungus
o c) Virus
o d) Protozoa
14. What is the primary treatment for heartworm in dogs?
o a) Fenbendazole
o b) Ivermectin
o c) Metronidazole
o d) Amoxicillin
15. Which disease in cattle is caused by Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV)?
o a) Blackleg (Clostridium chauvoei)
o b) Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)
o c) Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis)
o d) Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)
16. Which medication is used to control external parasites in livestock?
o a) Albendazole
o b) Flunixin meglumine
o c) Ivermectin
o d) Oxytetracycline
17. Which disease in sheep and goats is caused by Clostridium perfringens type D?
o a) Foot rot
o b) Blue tongue (Bluetongue virus)
o c) Enterotoxemia (Pulpy kidney disease)
o d) Scrapie
18. Which of the following drugs is an antibiotic used in veterinary medicine?
o a) Ketamine
o b) Enrofloxacin
o c) Furosemide
o d) Meloxicam
19. Which disease in dogs is characterized by severe vomiting, diarrhea, and
dehydration?
o a) Rabies (Rabies virus)
o b) Canine distemper (Canine distemper virus)
o c) Canine parvovirus (Parvovirus)
o d) Leptospirosis (Leptospira spp.)
20. What is the primary cause of colic in horses?
o a) Respiratory infection
o b) Gastrointestinal blockage
o c) Neurological disease
o d) Dermatological condition
21. Which disease in cattle is caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis?
o a) Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis)
o b) Anthrax
o c) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
o d) Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)
22. Which of the following is a broad-spectrum anthelmintic used in livestock?
 o a) Metronidazole
o b) Ivermectin
o c) Acyclovir
o d) Furosemide
23. Which virus causes Newcastle disease in poultry?
o a) Avian influenza virus
o b) Paramyxovirus
o c) Coronavirus
o d) Parvovirus
24. What is the primary symptom of feline leukemia virus (FeLV) infection?
o a) Neurological signs
o b) Respiratory distress
o c) Immunosuppression
o d) Skin lesions
25. Which disease in cattle is known for causing abortion and infertility?
o a) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
o b) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
o c) Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis)
o d) Johne's disease (Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis)
26. Which drug is used to treat urinary tract infections in small animals?
o a) Metronidazole
o b) Amoxicillin
o c) Ivermectin
o d) Ketamine
27. What is the causative agent of African swine fever?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Virus
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
28. Which condition is commonly treated with glucocorticoids in animals?
o a) Diabetes
o b) Inflammatory diseases
o c) Bacterial infections
o d) Parasitic infections
29. Which pathogen causes Lyme disease in dogs?
o a) Virus
o b) Borrelia burgdorferi (Bacterium)
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
30. Which of the following is a common symptom of kennel cough in dogs?
o a) Diarrhea
o b) Coughing
o c) Vomiting
o d) Skin rash
31. Which disease in pigs is caused by the bacterium Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae?
 o a) Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae)
o b) Porcine pleuropneumonia
o c) Erysipelas (Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae)
o d) PRRS (Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus)
32. Which drug is commonly used as a sedative in veterinary medicine?
o a) Meloxicam
o b) Furosemide
o c) Xylazine
o d) Enrofloxacin
33. Which disease in poultry is caused by Salmonella Pullorum?
o a) Coccidiosis (Eimeria spp.)
o b) Pullorum disease
o c) Marek's disease (Gallid herpesvirus 2)
o d) Newcastle disease (Paramyxovirus)
34. What is the primary symptom of chronic wasting disease in deer?
o a) Coughing
o b) Diarrhea
o c) Weight loss
o d) Skin lesions
35. Which disease in dogs is caused by the bacterium Leptospira?
o a) Parvovirus (Parvovirus)
o b) Distemper (Canine distemper virus)
o c) Leptospirosis
o d) Rabies (Rabies virus)
36. Which of the following drugs is used as an anti-inflammatory in veterinary
practice?
o a) Furosemide
o b) Ketamine
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Ivermectin
37. Which disease in cattle is also known as "red water" disease?
o a) Babesiosis (Babesia bovis)
o b) Anaplasmosis (Anaplasma marginale)
o c) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
o d) Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)
38. Which pathogen causes infectious bronchitis in poultry?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Fungus
o c) Infectious bronchitis virus (IBV)
o d) Protozoa
39. What is the main symptom of canine distemper virus infection?
o a) Neurological signs
o b) Diarrhea
o c) Vomiting
o d) Skin rash
40. Which disease in sheep is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii?
o a) Foot rot (Fusobacterium necrophorum)
o b) Blue tongue (Bluetongue virus)
o c) Q fever
o d) Scrapie (Prion)
41. Which of the following is an antiparasitic drug used in animals?
o a) Enrofloxacin
o b) Fenbendazole
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Amoxicillin
42. What is the causative agent of Marek's disease in poultry?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Virus
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
43. Which condition in horses is caused by Clostridium botulinum?
o a) Tetanus (Clostridium tetani)
o b) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
o c) Botulism
o d) Blackleg (Clostridium chauvoei)
44. Which drug is used to treat protozoal infections in animals?
o a) Ivermectin
o b) Metronidazole
o c) Penicillin
o d) Ketamine
45. Which pathogen causes infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) in cattle?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Virus (Bovine herpesvirus 1)
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
46. What is the primary symptom of feline panleukopenia virus (FPV) infection?
o a) Neurological signs
o b) Diarrhea
o c) Vomiting
o d) Immunosuppression
47. Which disease in sheep is characterized by pruritus and wool loss?
o a) Foot rot (Fusobacterium necrophorum)
o b) Blue tongue (Bluetongue virus)
o c) Scrapie
o d) Enterotoxemia (Clostridium perfringens type D)
48. Which of the following drugs is a diuretic used in veterinary practice?
o a) Furosemide
o b) Ketamine
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Ivermectin
49. Which disease in cattle is caused by the bacterium Anaplasma marginale?
o a) Babesiosis (Babesia bovis)
o b) Anaplasmosis
o c) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
o d) Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)
50. Which pathogen causes contagious ecthyma (orf) in sheep and goats?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Virus (Parapoxvirus)
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
51. Which of the following is a common symptom of swine dysentery in pigs?
o a) Respiratory distress
o b) Diarrhea with blood and mucus
o c) Skin lesions
o d) Neurological signs
52. Which disease in cattle is caused by Brucella abortus?
o a) Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis)
o b) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
o c) Brucellosis
o d) Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)
53. Which drug is commonly used to treat fungal infections in animals?
o a) Penicillin
o b) Ketoconazole
o c) Ivermectin
o d) Amoxicillin
54. Which pathogen causes infectious laryngotracheitis (ILT) in poultry?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Virus (Gallid herpesvirus 1)
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
55. What is the primary symptom of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)?
o a) Diarrhea
o b) Respiratory distress
o c) Neurological signs
o d) Skin lesions
56. Which disease in dogs is characterized by severe liver damage?
o a) Parvovirus (Parvovirus)
o b) Distemper (Canine distemper virus)
o c) Leptospirosis (Leptospira spp.)
o d) Hepatitis (Canine adenovirus)
57. Which of the following drugs is an antiparasitic used in livestock?
o a) Enrofloxacin
o b) Praziquantel
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Amoxicillin
58. Which pathogen causes contagious bovine pleuropneumonia (CBPP) in cattle?
o a) Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides
o b) Bacillus anthracis
o c) Brucella abortus
o d) Leptospira interrogans
59. Which drug is used to treat mange in animals?
o a) Ivermectin
o b) Metronidazole
o c) Penicillin
o d) Ketamine
60. Which disease in poultry is caused by the bacterium Pasteurella multocida?
o a) Coccidiosis (Eimeria spp.)
o b) Fowl cholera
o c) Marek's disease (Gallid herpesvirus 2)
o d) Newcastle disease (Paramyxovirus)
61. What is the primary symptom of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) in
cattle?
o a) Diarrhea
o b) Neurological signs
o c) Respiratory distress
o d) Skin lesions
62. Which disease in sheep is caused by the bacterium Dichelobacter nodosus?
o a) Foot rot
o b) Blue tongue (Bluetongue virus)
o c) Scrapie (Prion)
o d) Enterotoxemia (Clostridium perfringens type D)
63. Which of the following drugs is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
used in animals?
o a) Furosemide
o b) Ketamine
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Ivermectin
64. Which disease in cattle is caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans?
o a) Babesiosis (Babesia bovis)
o b) Anaplasmosis (Anaplasma marginale)
o c) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
o d) Leptospirosis
65. Which pathogen causes infectious bursal disease (IBD) in poultry?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Virus (Birnavirus)
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
66. What is the primary symptom of feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)?
o a) Diarrhea
o b) Respiratory distress
 o c) Abdominal effusion
o d) Skin lesions
67. Which disease in pigs is characterized by diamond-shaped skin lesions?
o a) Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae)
o b) Porcine pleuropneumonia (Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae)
o c) Erysipelas
o d) PRRS (Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus)
68. Which of the following drugs is used to treat bacterial infections in animals?
o a) Ivermectin
o b) Enrofloxacin
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Ketamine
69. Which pathogen causes contagious caprine pleuropneumonia (CCPP) in goats?
o a) Mycoplasma capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae
o b) Bacillus anthracis
o c) Brucella melitensis
o d) Leptospira interrogans
70. Which disease in cattle is characterized by the formation of granulomas in various
tissues?
o a) Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis)
o b) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
o c) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
o d) Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)
71. Which of the following is an anti-inflammatory drug used in veterinary practice?
o a) Furosemide
o b) Ketamine
o c) Flunixin meglumine
o d) Ivermectin
72. Which disease in dogs is caused by the bacterium Bordetella bronchiseptica?
o a) Parvovirus (Parvovirus)
o b) Distemper (Canine distemper virus)
o c) Kennel cough
o d) Rabies (Rabies virus)
73. Which pathogen causes contagious agalactia in sheep and goats?
o a) Mycoplasma agalactiae
o b) Bacillus anthracis
o c) Brucella melitensis
o d) Leptospira interrogans
74. What is the primary symptom of canine heartworm disease?
o a) Diarrhea
o b) Respiratory distress
o c) Skin lesions
o d) Neurological signs
75. Which disease in pigs is characterized by high fever and sudden death?
o a) Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae)
 o b) Porcine pleuropneumonia (Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae)
o c) African swine fever
o d) PRRS (Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus)
76. Which of the following drugs is a sedative used in veterinary practice?
o a) Furosemide
o b) Ketamine
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Xylazine
77. Which disease in poultry is caused by the bacterium Gallibacterium anatis?
o a) Coccidiosis (Eimeria spp.)
o b) Fowl cholera (Pasteurella multocida)
o c) Gallibacteriosis
o d) Newcastle disease (Paramyxovirus)
78. What is the primary symptom of bovine viral diarrhea (BVD) in cattle?
o a) Diarrhea
o b) Respiratory distress
o c) Neurological signs
o d) Skin lesions
79. Which disease in horses is caused by the bacterium Streptococcus equi?
o a) Tetanus (Clostridium tetani)
o b) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
o c) Strangles
o d) Botulism (Clostridium botulinum)
80. Which of the following drugs is an antibiotic used in veterinary practice?
o a) Furosemide
o b) Ketamine
o c) Enrofloxacin
o d) Ivermectin
81. Which disease in cattle is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium avium subspecies
paratuberculosis?
o a) Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis)
o b) Johne's disease
o c) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
o d) Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)
82. Which pathogen causes contagious ecthyma (orf) in sheep and goats?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Virus (Parapoxvirus)
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
83. What is the primary symptom of feline leukemia virus (FeLV) infection?
o a) Neurological signs
o b) Respiratory distress
o c) Immunosuppression
o d) Skin lesions
84. Which disease in dogs is characterized by severe liver damage?
 o a) Parvovirus (Parvovirus)
o b) Distemper (Canine distemper virus)
o c) Leptospirosis (Leptospira spp.)
o d) Hepatitis (Canine adenovirus)
85. Which of the following drugs is an antiparasitic used in livestock?
o a) Enrofloxacin
o b) Praziquantel
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Amoxicillin
86. Which pathogen causes contagious bovine pleuropneumonia (CBPP) in cattle?
o a) Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides
o b) Bacillus anthracis
o c) Brucella abortus
o d) Leptospira interrogans
87. Which drug is used to treat mange in animals?
o a) Ivermectin
o b) Metronidazole
o c) Penicillin
o d) Ketamine
88. Which disease in poultry is caused by the bacterium Pasteurella multocida?
o a) Coccidiosis (Eimeria spp.)
o b) Fowl cholera
o c) Marek's disease (Gallid herpesvirus 2)
o d) Newcastle disease (Paramyxovirus)
89. What is the primary symptom of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) in
cattle?
o a) Diarrhea
o b) Neurological signs
o c) Respiratory distress
o d) Skin lesions
90. Which disease in sheep is caused by the bacterium Dichelobacter nodosus?
o a) Foot rot
o b) Blue tongue (Bluetongue virus)
o c) Scrapie (Prion)
o d) Enterotoxemia (Clostridium perfringens type D)
91. Which of the following drugs is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
used in animals?
o a) Furosemide
o b) Ketamine
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Ivermectin
92. Which disease in cattle is caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans?
o a) Babesiosis (Babesia bovis)
o b) Anaplasmosis (Anaplasma marginale)
o c) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
 o d) Leptospirosis
93. Which pathogen causes infectious bursal disease (IBD) in poultry?
o a) Bacterium
o b) Virus (Birnavirus)
o c) Fungus
o d) Protozoa
94. What is the primary symptom of feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)?
o a) Diarrhea
o b) Respiratory distress
o c) Abdominal effusion
o d) Skin lesions
95. Which disease in pigs is characterized by diamond-shaped skin lesions?
o a) Swine dysentery (Brachyspira hyodysenteriae)
o b) Porcine pleuropneumonia (Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae)
o c) Erysipelas
o d) PRRS (Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus)
96. Which of the following drugs is used to treat bacterial infections in animals?
o a) Ivermectin
o b) Enrofloxacin
o c) Meloxicam
o d) Ketamine
97. Which pathogen causes contagious caprine pleuropneumonia (CCPP) in goats?
o a) Mycoplasma capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae
o b) Bacillus anthracis
o c) Brucella melitensis
o d) Leptospira interrogans
98. Which disease in cattle is characterized by the formation of granulomas in various
tissues?
o a) Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis)
o b) Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
o c) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
o d) Leptospirosis (Leptospira interrogans)
99. Which of the following is an anti-inflammatory drug used in veterinary practice?
o a) Furosemide
o b) Ketamine
o c) Flunixin meglumine
o d) Ivermectin
100. Which disease in dogs is caused by the bacterium Bordetella bronchiseptica?
- a) Parvovirus (Parvovirus) - b) Distemper (Canine distemper virus) - c) Kennel cough -
d) Rabies (Rabies virus)

Answer Key

1. b) Tuberculosis
2. b) Eimeria spp.
3. b) Virus
4. a) Tetanus
5. a) Penicillin
6. b) Hemorrhagic diarrhea
7. b) PRRS
8. b) Tetracycline
9. c) Bite from an infected animal
10. b) Strangles (Streptococcus equi)
11. c) Flunixin meglumine
12. b) Hypocalcemia
13. c) Virus
14. b) Ivermectin
15. b) Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)
16. c) Ivermectin
17. c) Enterotoxemia (Pulpy kidney disease)
18. b) Enrofloxacin
19. c) Canine adenovirus
20. d) Xylazine
21. a) Foot and mouth disease
22. b) Hemorrhagic diarrhea
23. c) Rickettsia rickettsii
24. b) Virus
25. d) Neurological signs
26. a) Blue tongue
27. b) Furosemide
28. c) Brucellosis (Brucella abortus)
29. c) Ketoconazole
30. b) Flunixin meglumine
31. b) PRRS (Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus)
32. b) Virus
33. a) Swine dysentery
34. b) Anaplasmosis
35. c) Virus
36. b) Meloxicam
37. a) Babesiosis (Babesia bovis)
38. c) Infectious bronchitis virus (IBV)
39. a) Neurological signs
40. c) Q fever
41. b) Fenbendazole
42. b) Virus
43. c) Botulism
44. b) Metronidazole
45. b) Virus (Bovine herpesvirus 1)
46. d) Immunosuppression
47. c) Scrapie
48. a) Furosemide
49. b) Anaplasmosis
50. b) Virus (Parapoxvirus)
51. b) Diarrhea with blood and mucus
52. c) Brucellosis
53. b) Ketoconazole
54. b) Virus (Gallid herpesvirus 1)
55. c) Neurological signs
56. d) Hepatitis
57. b) Praziquantel
58. a) Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides
59. a) Ivermectin
60. b) Fowl cholera
61. b) Neurological signs
62. a) Foot rot
63. c) Meloxicam
64. d) Leptospirosis
65. b) Virus (Birnavirus)
66. c) Abdominal effusion
67. c) Erysipelas
68. b) Enrofloxacin
69. a) Mycoplasma capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae
70. a) Tuberculosis
71. c) Flunixin meglumine
72. c) Kennel cough
73. a) Mycoplasma agalactiae
74. b) Respiratory distress
75. c) African swine fever
76. d) Xylazine
77. c) Gallibacteriosis
78. a) Diarrhea
79. c) Strangles
80. c) Enrofloxacin
81. b) Johne's disease
82. b) Virus (Parapoxvirus)
83. c) Immunosuppression
84. d) Hepatitis
85. b) Praziquantel
86. a) Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides
87. a) Ivermectin
88. b) Fowl cholera
89. b) Neurological signs
90. a) Foot rot
91. c) Meloxicam
92. d) Leptospirosis
93. b) Virus (Birnavirus)
94. c) Abdominal effusion
95. c) Erysipelas
96. b) Enrofloxacin
97. a) Mycoplasma capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae
98. a) Tuberculosis
99. c) Flunixin meglumine
100. c) Kennel cough