MOCK TEST 1

GAT
M Marks:-600 Time:-21/2hrs
PART A
ENGLISH
Directions for the following 10(ten) questions. Read the passages given below and
answer the questions that follow.
Passage-I
India‘s growing obsession with vehicles and failure to develop roads has increased air pollution in most
cities, the country pollution watchdog has revealed. In the past two decades, the carrying capacity of
roads increased by less than 2.5 percent, where as the number of vehicles grew at annual rate over 10
percent. In 2008, in India, 12 million vehicles were plying on the 3.5 million km road network. For
people, its visible impact was increased congestion on roads, but what one didn‘t see was higher air
pollution. The high concentration of pollutants like carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons cause lung
cancer and asthma, besides routine breathing problems. The sudden jump in air pollution is a recent
phenomenon with Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) finding that half of two wheelers and cars
running on Indian roads have been registered in the last five to seven years. The growth phenomenon
in case of heavy vehicles has been less impressive. The new vehicles, however, are not the sole cause
of air pollution. The CPCB said vehicles older than 10 years caused 60 percent of vehicular air
pollution. And the reason is poor maintenance and no norms in India for the expiry of a vehicle,
especially the private ones. Adulteration of fuel has been stated as another reason for high vehicular
pollution.
(1) Increase in air pollution is due to__________.
(a) increase in the number of vehicles on roads.
(b) increase in population.
(c) bad roads.
(d) inefficiency of Pollution Control Board
(2) The dangerous pollutant __________.
(a) is hydrocarbon.
(b) is nitrogen.
(c) is carbon monoxide.
(d) are both (i) and (iii).
(3) The pollutants cause ___________ .
(a) routine breathing problems
(b) asthma
(c) lung cancer
(d) all of the above.
Passage-II
The cross cultural spread of English is unprecedented in other ways. It is more widely used than any of
the other colonial languages like French, Portuguese or Spanish. It even has a wider use than some of
the languages associated with international non-western religious traditions, like Arabic or Sanskrit. In
countries like India and Nigeria English is used at all levels of society: in local English language
newspapers and broadcasting, in public administration, in university education, in major industries, the
courts and the civil service. Indeed with nearly 200 languages, India needs English to unify the country.
Professor Lal a champion of Indian English who runs a well known writers‟ workshop claims that in
simple numerical terms, in a country of 840 million,‟ more Indians speak English and write English than
in England itself.. You know what Malcolm Muggeridge said; “The last Englishman left will be an
Indian”.
(4) The way English is spreading is ____________.
(a) normal

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 (b) quite uncertain
(c) absolutely unusual
(d) unpredictable
(5)The use of English is ____________.
(a) as frequent as that of other colonial languages
(b) less frequent than of other colonial languages
(c) more frequent than that of other colonial languages
(d) hardly as much as that of other colonial languages
(6) In India and Nigeria, English ____________.
(a) has a general use
(b) is used only in the streets
(c) is used by newspapers and the people who read it
(d) in courts and civil service

Passage-III

The world dismisses curiosity by calling it idle or mere idle curiosity even though curious persons are
not at all idle. Parents do their best to extinguish curiosity in their children because it makes life difficult
to be faced everyday with a string of unanswerable questions about what makes fire hot or why grass
grows. Children whose curiosity survives parental discipline are invited to join our university. With the
university they go on asking their questions trying to find the answers. In the eyes of a scholar, that is
what a university is for. Some of the questions which the scholars ask seem to the world to be scarcely
worth asking, let alone answering. They ask questions too minute and specialised for me and you to
understand without years of explanation. If the world inquires of one of them why he wants to know the
answer to a particular question he may say especially, if he is a scientist, that the answer will in some
obscure way make possible a new machine or weapon or gadget. Similarly a historian asked by an
outsider why he studies history may come out with the argument that he has learnt to repeat on such
occasions, something about knowledge of the past making it possible to understand the present and
mould the future. But if you want to know why a historian studies the past, the answer is much simpler,
something happened and he would like to know that.

(7) According to the passage, children make life difficult for their parents_________.
(a) by their carefree curiosity
(b) by continuous bombardment of questions
(c) by asking irrelevant questions
(d) by posing profound questions
(8) The common people consider some of the questions that the scholars ask unimportant because
_________.
(a) they are too lazy and idle
(b) they are too modest
(c) it is beyond their comprehension
(d) it is considered a waste of time
(9) A historian really studies the past _________.
(a) to understand the present and to think about the future
(b ) to explain the present and plan the future
(c) to understand the present and make fortune
(d) to understand the present and mould the future
(10) Parents do their best to discourage curiosity in their children

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(a) they have no time
(b) they have no patience to answer them
(c) they feel that their children ask stupid questions
(d) they are unable to answer all their questions

Directions (11 to 20): Select the word or group of words that is most dissimilar in meaning to the
word in capital letters.
11. SLUGGISH
(a) Aggressive (b) Optimistic (c) Vigorous (d) Budding
12. DETRIMENTAL
(a) Demolition (b) Aversion (c) Beneficial (d) Bad
13. INTRICATE
(a) Complicated (b) Simple (c) Colorful (d) Good
14. EXPOSTULATE
(a) Protest (b) Agree (c) Follow (d) Argue
15. GRUDGING
(a) Wholehearted (b)Reluctant (c) Convincing (d) Secretive
16. Some of their customs are BARBAROUS
(a) Civilized (b) modern (c) polite (d) praiseworthy
17. They decided to EMBELLISH the dress with imported ribbons.
(a) Dishonor (b) demolish (c) spoil (d) Suffice
18. They were not ready to DIVULGE the matter.
(a) Reveal (b) hide (c) Tell (d) Inform
19. The dictator QUELLED the uprising.
(a) Foster (b) Defendant (c) Supported (d) Fomented
20. People tend to avoid LOQUACIOUS persons
(a) Garrulous (b) Reticent (c) Fluent (d) Glib
Directions (21 to 30): Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word
in capital letters.
21. Politicians often FLOUT rules with impunity.
(a) Follow (b) Show off (c) Avoid (d) Criticize
22. His LACONIC answer failed to reveal his emotions
(a) Dull (b) Concise (c) Lengthy (d) Emotional
23. The EUPHORIA soon gave way to disappointment.
(a) Seriousness (b) Excitement (c) Elation (d) Gloom
24. His death has left the family in utter PENURY.
(a) Impoverished (b) Misery (c) Solitude (d) Mystery
25. The graduates must find their own NICHE in the society.
(a) House (b) Strength (c) Position (d) weakness
26 The VENERABLE minister is chairing the all party meeting.
(a) Aged (b) Corrupt (c) Democratic(d) Chosen unopposed
27. Who will certify the VERACITY of your claims?
(a) Truthfulness (b) Falseness (c) Rationale (d) Consequence
28. His bad behaviour EVOKED punishment.
(a) Escaped (b) called for (c) produced (d) summoned
29. He was court appointed lawyer for fifty-six INDIGENT defendants
(a) Indian men (b) poor (c) guilty (d) untried
30. The boy said that the pain had ABATED

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 (a) Reduced (b) vanished (c) increased (d) stabilized
Spot the error(31 to 40)
31. O n e o f t h e f o r m e r / ( a ) s t u d e n t d o n a t e d a l a r g e s u m / ( b ) o f m o n e y t o t h e
school./(c) No error/(d)
32. C a n y o u b o r r o w / ( a ) m e y o u r b o o k / ( b ) f o r a f e w d a y s ? / ( c ) N o e r r o r / ( d )
33. U n l e s s y o u f i n i s h / ( a ) a l l y o u r h o m e w o r k / ( b ) , y o u c a n w a t c h t e l e v i s i o n . / ( c )
No error/(d)
34. I f I know it/(a)was going to rain like this,/(b)I would have stayed
at home./(c) No error/(d)
35. M r s S a l m a h b o u g h t / ( a ) a l o t o f f u r n i t u r e s a t / ( b ) t h e s a l e f o r h e r
new house./(c) No error/(d).
36. I went to the United States in 1969. But I did not stay /(a) there long. I /(b)return soon after
to resume duties in Singapore./(c) No error/(d)
37. The cattle grazing in the field /(a) belongs to the farmer who works hard / (b) day and night in
order to raise them fast. ./(c) No error/(d)
38. Never before /(a) I have seen anybody who /(b) can do the job as well as Robert. /(c) No
error/(d)
39. I'm enclosing a 500-dollars cheque/(a) in payment of the books ordered. Please
/(b) acknowledge receipt at your earliest convenience. /(c) No error/(d)
40. A person should always keep one's word /(a) if he hopes to be trusted. On the other hand,/(b)
nobody will have any respect for him if he breaks his promises too often. /(c) No error/(d)
Directions:- In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/ phrases are suggested one of
which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth century disappeared when the Mughal
Empire ___(41)___ apart. The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious
intolerance, which led to the open rebellion. It was to ___(42)___ these revolts that the bigot
ruler spent ___(43)___ years in the field, with immense armies consuming the revenues of the
country. There were, however, more deep-seated ___(44)___ The corruption of officials and
the oppression of the masses steadily ___(45)___ away the empire’s life blood. For sometime,
there had been a noticeable deterioration in the character of the ruling class. Wars of
succession ___(46)___ wiped out the leading families, and new blood from central Asia was no
___(47)___ recruited for the higher governmental posts. Finally, the Mughal Empire was an
alien regime. It continues to be so ___(48)___ Akbar’s policy of conciliation was abandoned,
and it wore itself out trying to maintain its power ___(49)___ the ceaseless opposition, only now
and then overt but always present, of the ___(50)___ citizens.
41. (1) Joined(2)Broke(3)Dashed(4)Banged(5)Became
42. (1) Run out(2)Crash(3)Crush(4)Cajole(5)Motivate
43. (1) No(2)Hardly(3) Many(4)Inexpensive(5) Most
44. (1) Variables(2)Attributes(3)Characteristics(4)Causes(5)Affect
45. (1) Drained(2)Gone(3)Sucked(4)Released(5)Went
46. (1) Has(2)Have(3)Was(4)Did(5)Had
47. (1) Longer(2)Pumped(3)Far(4)Candidate(5)Shorter
48. (1) At (2)Into (3)Over(4)After(5)Before
49. (1) Far (2) At(3)Against(4) Favouring (5)For
50. (1) Discontented (2)Weeping (3)Ruling(4)Calm(5)Contented

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 PART B
Q51. A student heated some sulphure in a spatula and collected the gas ‘ X’. Which one
Among the following is correct about ‘X’ ?
A) ‘X’ is SO2 and turns moist litmus to blue.
B) ‘X’ is SO3 and its turns to red
C) ‘X’ is SO2 and it turns moist litmus to red.
D) ‘X’ is SO3 and it turns dry litmus to blue.
Q52. Which one among the following is the main ingredient in cement ?
A) Gypsum B) Lime stone C) Clay D) Ash
Q53. Glass is actually: A) A crystalline solid. B) An ionic solid C) An elastic D) A vitrified liquid.
Q54. Solutions in test tubes containing H2O and aqueous NaOH can be differentiated
With the help of: A) Red litmus B) Blue litmus C) Na2CO3 D) HCl aq.
Q55. When conc. H2SO4 spills on the surface, it should be immediately cleaned.
A) With a piece of cloth. B) By adding solid Na2CO3.
C)By adding cold water. D) By adding solid BaCl2
Q56. A bee-sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. The
Injected acid is : A) Acetic acid B) H2SO4 C) Citric acid D) Formic acid.
Q57. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of soluble.
A) Chloride of Calcium. B) Bicarbonate of Calcium.
C)Sulphate of magnesium. D) Bicarbonate of magnesium.
Q58. A student by chance mixed with alcohol. This mixture of acetone
and alcohol can be separated by:
A) Filtration B) Separating funnel C) Fractional crystallization.
D)Fractional distillation.
Q59. Which of the following statements about diamond are correct ?
1. It is used as a gem in jwellery because of its ability to reflect light.
2. It is a good conductor of electricity.
3. It is used for cutting glass marble stones and other hard materials.
4. It is used for drilling of rocks (select the right answer)
A) 1, 3 and 4 B) 2, 3 and 4 C) 1, 2 and 3 D) 2, and 4 only.
Q60. Which one among the following methods is not effective in removing arsenic from
Contaminated ground water ? A) Boiling B) Reverse osmosis C) Ion-exchange
D)Coagulation-adsorption.
Q61. Bank ATM cards contain information in .
A) Semiconductors B) Metals C) Plastic D) Magnetic materials.
Q62. Which one among the following is correct regarding 20Ne ,23Na+, 19F-, and 24Mg2+ ?
A) They are isomers of each other B) They are isotopes of each other
C)They are isoelectronic with each other D) All of the above .
Q63. Which one among the following is the major constituent of soda lime glass ?
A) Sodium oxide B) Calcium oxide C) Calcium carbonate D) Silica.
Q64. Which one among the following nitrogen compounds has the least percentage
Of nitrogen by mass ?

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A) (NH4)3PO4 B) NH3 C) NH4OH D) NH4NO3
Q65. Which of the statements about glass are correct ?
1. Glass is a super-cooled liquid having infinite viscocity.
2. Violet coloured glass is obtained by adding MnO2.
3. Glass is a man-made silicate.
4. Glass is a crystalline substance.
Select the right answer
A) 1, 2 and 4 B) 2, 3 and 4 C) 1, 2 and 3 D) 1 and 3 only.
Q66. Calcium ammonium nitrate is (CAN) a popular nitrogen fertilizer because it is
A) Slow supplier of nitrogen B) Having more percentage of Nitrogen in it.
C)Fixing the nitrogen in soil. D) Capable of making the soil acid.
Q67. Chromium oxide is used as an ingredient in paints to obtained.
A) Green B) Blue C) Red colour D) Violet colour.
68. The displacement of a body is given to be proportional to the cube of time elapsed. The magnitude of
acceleration is
a. Increasing with time b. Decreasing with time c. Constant but non-zero d. Zero.
69. A lift is moving upward with increasing speed with an acceleration a. The apparent weight will be
a. Less than the actual one
b. More than the actual weight and have a fixed value
c. More than the actual weight which increases as long as velocity increases. d. Zero
70. Power to a particle varies with time as P= (3t2-2t+1)watt, where t is in second. Find the change in its kinetic
energy from t=2s and t=4s.
a. 32j b. 46j c. 61j d. 102j
71. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is
a.1/2 b. 1/3 c. 2 d. -1/2
72. When water is heated from 00C to 100C, its volume:
a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains unchanged d. First decreases, then increases
73. A body executing simple harmonic motion passes through its equilibrium position. At this instant it has:
a. Maximum potential b. Maximum kinetic energy c. Minimum kinetic energy
d. Maximum acceleration
74. The velocity of sound in air is not affected by change in:
a. Moisture contents of the air
b. The temperature of the air
c. The atmospheric pressure
d. The composition of air.
75. In an open organ pipe the fundamental note is produced when its length is:
a. b. c. d.
76. The magnetic susceptibility of a substance is found to be negative, which element it is?
(a)Fe (b) Al (c) Sn (d) Zn.
77. When light passes from water to glass, which characteristic of light remains unchanged?
(a) Wavelength (b) speed (c) frequency (d) amplitude
78. The length of a wire is doubled and the area is halved, what is the effect on its resistivity?

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(a) Doubled (b) halved (c) remains same (d) ¼ times
79. There is a hemispherical bowl of radius R. A ball of mass m slides from the rim of the bowl to the bottom.
The velocity of the block at the bottom will be:
a. (RG)1/2 b. (2RG)1/2 c. (3RG) d. 2Rg
80. As a bubble comes from the bottom of a lake to the top, its radius:
a. Increases b. Decreases c. Does not change d. Becomes zero
81. The blue colour of the sky is due to the phenomena of
a. scattering b. dispersion c. reflection d. refraction.
82. The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is
a. virtual and diminished
b. real and diminished
c. real and enlarged
d. virtual and enlarged
83. Velocity vs. time graph for a body projected vertically upward is:
a. parabola b. ellipse c. hyperbola d. straight line
84. The power of an electrical bulb marked as 40W and 200V used in a circuit of supply 100V will be
(a) 100W (b) 40W (c) 20W (d) 10W
85. In human digestion of protein starts in a. Stomach b. Mouth c. Duodenum d. illium
86. Clotting of blood does not occur inside blood vessels due to presence of a. Oxalic acid b. Heparin c.
Prothrombin d. hirudin
87. Which one is anabolic process a. Respiration b. Digestion c. Photosynthesis d. ascent of sap
88. glycolysis occurs in a. Cytoplasma b. Mitochondria c. Chloroplast d. ascent of sap
89. emulsification of fat is carried out by a. Pectin b. Bile c. Gastric juice d. intestinal juice
90. part of brain that controls respiration heart beat and peristalsis is a. Medulla oblongata b. Frontal lobe c.
Occipital lobe d. cerebellum
91. thinking part of brain is a. Diencephlon b. Hind brain c. Mid brain d. fore brain
92. Thigmotroism is best seen in a.tendrils b. Leaves of sensitive plant c. Stem apex d. root apex
93. According to the evolutionary theory, formation of new species is generally due to a. Sudden creation of
nature b. Accumulation of variation over several generation c. Clones formed during asexual reproduction d.
movement of individuals from one habit to another
94. For showing stomata a leaf peel is obtained from a. Upper surface b. Lower surface c. Any surface d. whole
leaf
95. Ion responsible for opening and closing stomata is a. Ca++ b. Na+ c. K+ d. None
96. Which of the endocrine gland is unpaired? A. Adrenal b. Testes c. Pituitary d. ovary
97. Which of the following is not an involuntary action ? a. Vomiting b. Salivation c. Heart beat d. chewing
98. An IUCD device is a. Copper T b. Condom c. Cervical cap d. vasectomy
99. Seed is formed from a. Unfertilised b. Fertilised ovary c. Fertilised ovule d. unfertilised ovule
100. Ovary has a. Chamber b. Ovules c. Fruit d. anthers

* Note for Statement I & Statement II Choose option :-

(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

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(c) statement I is true but statement II is False.
(d) statement I is False but statement II is True.
101. List-I(Name of shipyard) Location
A. Hindustan shipyard limited 1. Kolkata
B. Garden Reach shipyards & Engineers limited 2. Vasco-da-gama
C. Goa shipyard limited 3. Mumbai
D. Mazagon Dock limited 4. Visakhapatnam
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 2 1 4
102. Sirocco is a name used to mean
(a) a local wind (b) a volcano (c) an island (d) an ocean current
103. Which of the following is the chief characteristics of commercial grain farming of the middle latitude
grasslands?
1. The size of farms are generally large.
2. Cultivation is highly mechanized
3. It is a type of extensive farming.
Correct code:- (a) 1 and 2 only (b)2 only (c) 1,2 and 3 (d)1 and 3 only
104. List-I(Desert) List-II(country)
A. Kalahari 1. Angola
B. Namib 2. Sudan
C. Nubian 3. Botswana
D. Atacama 4. chile
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
105. Statement related to an Anticyclone is correct?
a) Anticyclone is a wind system with a high pressure centre.
B) In anticyclone the movement of wind is inward.
c) The contribution of an anticyclone towards determining weather of an area is quite significant.
d) The movement of wind is clockwise in an anticyclone of southern hemisphere.
106. The phenomenon of “trade winds” takes place due to
(a) conduction of heat (b) convection of heat (c) radiation (d)None of the above
107. Correct sequence of the Indian Ports from north to south
(a) Haldia-Kandla-Paradeep-kochi
(b) Kandla- Haldia- Paradeep-kochi
(c) Kandla- Haldia- kochi- Paradeep
(d) kochi- Kandla- Haldia- Paradeep
108.Which one among the following is a correct sequence of production of Coal in the Indian states in
descending order?
a) Jharkhand-M.P-W.B-Meghalaya
b) W.B-M.P-Jharkhand-Meghalaya
c) Jharkhand-W.B-Meghalaya-M.P
d) M.P-Jharkhand-W.B-Meghalaya

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109. List-I(Mineral) List-II(State)
A.Bauxite 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Mica 2. Orissa
C. Copper 3. M.P
D. Zinc 4. Rajasthan
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 2
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
110. The western Coasts of India receive very high rainfall in summer mainly due to
(a) Tropical location (b) Nearness to sea (c) Western Ghats (d) Himalayas
111. The current produced by upwelling of cold water off the coast of chile and peru is known as
(a) El Nino (b) Humboldt current (c) Agulhas current (d)Canary current
112. World Pneumonia Day was observed on
(a) 12 October (b) 14 November (c) 12 November (d) 14 October

113. List-I(Current) List-II(Feature)

A. Kuroshio Current 1. Warm Current in the Atlantic Ocean
B. Peru Current 2. Cold Current in the Atlantic Ocean
C. Labrador Current 3. Warm Current in the Pacific Ocean
D. Florida Current 4. Cold Current in the Pacific Ocean
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 1 2 4 3
114. Which country will host 2018 Men’s Hockey World Cup
(a) Australia (b) Netherlands (c) India (d) South Korea
115. Statement
1. The major constituent mineral of granite rock is quartz
2. The major constituent mineral of sandstone rock is Feldspar
3. The major constituent mineral of limestone rock is dolomite
Correct code:-(a) 1,2 and3 (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
116. Which one among the following is the largest temperate desert of the world?
(a) Patagonian desert (b)Taklamakan desert (c)Iranian desert (d) Turkmen desert
117. Doldrum is a
(a) Tropical wind belt (b) Tropical wind deflection belt (c) Sub-Tropical wind belt (d) Tropical no-wind
belt
118. JN Chaudhary has been appointed as the Head of
(a) CID (b) NSG (c) CRPF (d) CBI
119. The river with higest tidal bore in India is
(a) Cauvery (b) Mahanadi (c) Hoogli (d) Krishna
120. Statement I: Mahatma Gandhi launched the Rowlatt Satyagraha as an all-India mass protest.
Statement II: Rowlatt Act was passed by the British Government in 1919 to authorize the Government to
imprison any person without trial.
121. Statement I: The private trade of the East India Company’s officials in the 18th century had flowered with
the indirect. the authorities of the Company.

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 Statement II: The extra-legal power enjoyed by the foreign merchants and the duty-free nature of their
privatevirtually edged the indigenous merchants out of competition
122. Tipu Sultan’s major interest in building ships was to
(a) Fight the English at sea
(b) Promote trade and commerce
(c) Maintain diplomatic relations with Muscat(Oman)
(d) Establish an overseas settlement at port Basra (Iraq), which would be under his control, on lines of the
European companies
123. which among the following. Is/are the impact/impacts of industrial revolution in England?
1. Cottage industry was replaced by the factory system of production using machines.
2. It led to the overpopulation of villages.
3. It led to the emergence of working class movements.
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only
124. Identify the correct sequence of the following events of Indian history:
1. Foundation of the Indian Muslim League 2. Surat split 3. Partition of Bengal
4. Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-3-4-1 (c) 3-1-2-4 (d) 4-3-2-1
125. Neel Darpan is a play based on the story of Indigo Rebellion of Bengal of 1860-61. Who authored it?
(a) Dinabandhu Mitra (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(c) Sisir kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh jointly (d) Madhusudan Dutta
126. which one among the following is not the characteristic feature of the Harappan settlement?
(a) Doorways and windows generally faced the side lanes and rarely opened on to the main streets
(b) Houses generally had separate bathing areas and toilets
(c) The citadel was walled but the lower town was not walled
(d) Drains and water chutes from the second storey were often built inside the wall
127. which one among the following is not true with regard to Rig Veda Samhita?
(a) There are about 300 non-Indo-European words in Rig Veda
(b) There is a reference to dasarajna (battle of ten kings) in the Rig Veda
(c) It is mentioned in the Rig Veda that the Bharata chief Sudas fought against a confederacy of ten
tribes
(d) Purus sided with Bharata in the battle of ten kings
128. The first Anglo-Burmese war was concluded by a treaty. which one among the following is that?
(a) Treaty of Bharma (b) Treaty of Tamu (c) Treaty of Bhamo (d) Treaty of Yandadoo
129. which of the following statements regarding Mughal paintings is/are correct?
1. The paintings of Akbar’s time were mostly confined to book illustrations and portraits.
2. Mir Sayyid Ali of Herat and Khwaja Abdus Samud formed the nucleus of the Mughal School of
painting which . fused together the non-Islamic and Islamic elements.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
130. which of the following statements regarding consolidation of British power in 18th century Bengal is/are
correct?
1. The Nawab granted the Company the Nizamat powers in 1765.
2. The duties of collecting revenues and administration of justice were entrusted with the European
officials of the India Company.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
131. which of the following statements about industrial revolution in Europe is not correct?
(a) Britain was the first country to experience the industrial revolution
(b) England was fortunate as coal and iron resources were plentifully available, as were other minerals-
lead copper and tin – that were used in industry

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 (c) From the 1780s, the iron industry symbolized the British industrial revolution
(d) In England, the movement of goods between markets was helped by a good network of rivers and an
indented coastline.
132. The themes of the murals of the Ajanta Caves are
1. Decorative designs which include a variety of animals, trees and flowers.
2. Portraits of various Buddhas and Bodhisattvas.
3. Narrative scenes portraying Jataka stories.
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
133. Statement I: A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy indicates the success of the democratic
project: it transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen..
Statement II: The fact that people are complaining is itself an affirmation of the success of democracy: it
shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to look critically at the government.
134. The international body which was formed in Europe ( in 1889) to coordinate the efforts of socialists all over
Europe was called
(a) Social Democratic Party (b) Commune (c) Second International (d) Labour Party
135. Which of the following statements with regard to the Federal system is/are correct?
1. In a Federation, two sets of governments co-exist and there is distribution of power.
2. There is a written constitution.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
136. In a democracy, individual differences are encouraged because
(a) individuals will place the good of the nation ahead of their own preferences
(b) individuals will tend to act and think alike in the long run
(c) individual differences make for diverse beneficial contributions to the common cause
(d) the Constitution guarantees the right of the individual to act as he pleases
137. The Supreme Court of India has expanded the meaning of the Right to Life to include the following
derivative rights. Which one among the following is not included in the Court’s definition?
(a) Right to food and adequate livelihood
(b) Right to education
(c) Right to live in a healthy environment
(d) Right to health and information
138. which one among the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Union List : Banking
(b) State List : Agriculture
(c) Concurrent List : Marriage
(d) Residuary List : Education
139. Which of the following statements relating to the Government of India Act of 1935 are correct?
1. It introduced provincial autonomy.
2. It proposed a federation of India.
3. It proposed for the establishment of a Federal Court.
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
140. The Rowlatt Act was passed to :
(a) bring about agrarian reforms. (b) curtail the nationalist and revolutionary activities.
(c) have a favourable balance of trade. (d) put second world war criminals on trial.
141. consider the following statements:
1. The Buddhists in Deccan excavated rock-cut Chaityas and the Vaishnavas,Shaivas and Jainas imitated
these in later centuries.
2.The Vaishnavas,Shaivas and Jainas excavated temples at sites far distant from rock-cut Chaityas.
Correct code:-

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 (a) 1only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
142. consider the following statements:
1. The Champaran Satyagraha marked Gandhiji’s second appearance in Indian politics as a leader of the masses.
2. The Champaran Satyagraha was launched to address the problems faced by Indigo plantation workers.
Correct code:-
(a) 1only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
143. consider the following statements:
1. Charles Wood’s Despatch of 1854 laid exclusive emphasis on the development of higher education in India
and neglected primary and secondary education
2. The Carlyle Circular issued by R.W. Carlyle sought to check the spread of revolutionary institutions
Correct code:-
(a) 1only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
144. Consider the following statements about Gandhiji’s thinking on environment:
1.His environmental thinking is rooted in his larger philosophical and moral thinking
2. He preferred sustainable environmental practices to nourish the soil and the natural world
3. He laid emphasis on the rigorous ethic of non-injury in our treatment of animals
Correct code:-
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
145. when an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be
passed by a:
(a) simple majority of the total number of members of both the houses present and voting.
(b) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the houses.
(c) simple majority of the total number of members of both the houses.
(d) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the houses present and voting.
146. Which one among the following features of the constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real
executive . power is vested in the council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister?
(a) Federalism (b) Representative Legislature (c) universal Adult Franchise (d) Parliamentary Democracy
147. In Which among the following cases the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament can be summoned?
1. To amend the constitution.
2. When a bill has been pending with one House for more than six months after it was passed by the other
3. When both the Houses disagree on the amendments to be made in a bill
4. When a bill is passed by one house and is rejected by the other
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2,3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4
148. The ‘Bombay Plan’ drafted by G.D. Birla and J.R.D. Tata emphasized:
(a) that the economy should be left to the dynamic investments by the private sector in heavy industries etc.
(b) the public sector investment in infrastructure and heavy industries.
(c) annual planning.
(d) that the private sector should foot the bill for intensive and low return investments in the industrial sector.
149. Statement about Comets
1. Cyclone is a low pressure system
2. The wind movement is clockwise in the cyclone of northern hemisphere
Correct code:- (a) 1only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
150. Govt of India approved Free trade Agreement with
(a) NAM (b) GATT (c) ASEAN (d) None of the above

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