INTELLIGENCE & LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (questions 1-6) : Answer these questions independent of each other.

Q1. The extent to which a society is really free can be gauged by its attitude towards artistic
expression. Freedom of expression can easily be violated in even the most outwardly
democratic of societies. When a government arts council withholds funding from a dance
performance that its members deem “obscene”, the voices of a few bureaucrats have in
fact censored the real obscenity of repression.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the argument above?

(1) Failing to provide financial support for a performance is not the same as
actively preventing or inhibiting it.
(2) The t e r m obscenity h a s s e v e r a l d i f f e r e n t definitions that should not be used
interchangeably for rhetorical effect.
(3) Members of government arts councils are screened to ensure that their beliefs reflect
those of the majority.
(4) The council’s decision could be reversed if the performance were altered to conform
to public standards of appropriateness.
Q2. Techniques to increase productivity in the performance of discrete tasks, by requiring less
human labor in each step of the production process, are widely utilized. Consultants on
productivity enhancement point out, however, that although these techniques achieve their
specific goal, the are not without drawbacks. They often instill enough resentment in the
workforce eventually to lead to a slowdown in the production process as a whole.

Which of the following can be reasonably inferred from the statements above?
(1) If p r o d u c t i v i t y consultants continue to utilize these techniques, complete
work stoppages will eventually result.
(2) The fact that productivity enhancement techniques are so widely employed has led to a
decline in the ability of American business to complete abroad.
(3) Productivity enhancement techniques do not attain their intended purpose and should
not be employed in the workplace.
(4) Ironically, an increase in the productivity of discrete tasks may result in a decrease in
the productivity of the whole production process.

Q3. The increase in the number of newspaper articles exposed as fabrications serves to bolster the
contention that publishers are more increased in boosting circulation than in printing the
truth. Even minor publications have staff to check such obvious fraud.
The argument above assumes that
(1) fact checking is more comprehensive for minor publications than for major ones.
(2) everything a newspaper prints must be factually verifiable.
(3) newspaper stories exposed as fabrications are a recent phenomenon.
(4) only recently have newspaper admitted to publishing fraudulent stories intentionally.

Q4. All German Philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists. From which of the following can the
statement, above be most properly inferred?
(1) If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or she is not
Marx.
(2) Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist.
(3) Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist philosopher, then he or she is German.
(4) Aside from the philosopher Marx, if someone is a German philosopher, then he or she is
an idealist.

Q5. Recent surveys show that many people who have left medical school before graduating suffer
from depression. Clearly, depression is likely to cause withdrawal from medical school.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion above?
(1) Depression is very common among management consultants who have a similarly
difficult work schedule to those of many young doctors.
(2) About half of those who leaves medical school report felling depressed after the
decision to leave.
(3) Many medical schools provide psychological counseling for their students.
(4) Medical students who have sought depression counseling due to family problems leave at
a higher rate than the national average.
Q6. A brochures for City X highlights the reasons why residents should move there rather than to
other cities in the state. One reason that the brochure mentions is the relative ease of
finding a job in City X, where the unemployment rate is 4.7 percent.

Which of the following statements, if true, casts the maximum doubt on the validity of the
reason to move to City X mentioned above?
(1) Other reasons to move City X include the schools system and easy access to recreational
activities.
(2) The state where City X is located has an average unemployment rate of 3.9 percent.
(3) Most of the Jobs in City X are hourly rather than salary jobs.
(4) The national unemployment rate, calculated during the last census, is 4.3 percent.

Directions (Questions 7-9) : Study the following information carefully to answer these
questions.

At an Electronic Data Processing Unit, five out of the eight program sets P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W
are to be operated daily. On any one day, except for the first day of a month, only three of the
program sets must be the ones that were operated on the previous day. The program operating must
also satisfy the following conditions:
(i) If program P is to be operated on a day, V cannot be operated on that day.
(ii) If Q is to be operated on a day, T must be one of the programs to be operated after Q.
(iii) If R is to be operated on a day, V must be one of the programs to be operated after R.
(iv) the last program to be operated on any day must be either S or U.

Q7. Which of the following could be the set of programs to be operated on the first day of a
month?
(1) T, U, R, V, S (2) U, Q, S, T, W
(3) V, Q, R, T, S (4) Q, S, R, V, U

Q8. Which of the following is true of any day’s valid program set operation?
(1) R cannot be operated at fourth place.
(2) Q cannot be operated at third place.
(3) P cannot be operated at third place.
(4) T cannot be operated at third place.

Q9. If R is operated at third place in a sequence, which of the following cannot be the second
program in that sequence?
(1) T (2) S (3) Q (4) U

Directions (Questions 10-11) : In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is
given. These characters follow a certain trend, row-wise or column-wise. Find out this trend and
choose the missing character.

Q10.
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
120 126 320

(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 16

Q11.
7B 5C 6B
3C 9B 19A
15A 17A ?

(1) 14B (2) 12C (3) 10C (4) 16C

Directions (Questions 12-14): Read the following information to answer these questions.

The Director of a Management Institute has announced that six guest lectures on different areas
like Leadership, Decision Making, Quality Circle, Motivation, Assessment Centre and Group Discussion
are to organized, one on each day from Monday to Sunday.

(i) Motivation should be organized immediately after Assessment Centre.

(ii) Quality Circle should be organized on Wednesday and should be followed by Grope Discussion.
(iii) Decision Making should be organized on Friday and there should be a gap of two days between
Leadership and Group Discussion.
(iv) One day there will be no lecture (Saturday is not that day), just before that day Group
Discussion will be organized.

Q12. Which of the pairs of lectures were organized on the first and the last day?
(1) Group Discussion and Decision Making
(2) Group Discussion and Quality Circle
(3) Quality Circle and Motivation
(4) None of these

Q13. How many lectures are organized between Motivation and Quality Circle?
(1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Four

Q14. Which day will the lectures on Leadership be organized?

(1) Friday (2) Wednesday (3) Tuesday (4) None of these

Directions (Questions 15-18) : These questions are based on the context given below.

Following are the conditions of promotion from Junior Officer’s Cadre to Senior Officer’s Cadre in
an organization. The Candidate must
(1) have completed at least 5 years in the organization.
(2) have secured 65% marks in the written test for promotion.
(3) have secured 60% marks in the Group Discussion.
(4) have secured 70% marks in the interview.
(5) have good record of his work performance.
(6) have good communication skill and get along well with his colleagues.
(7) not be more than 40 years and less than 30 years as on 1-9-2003.
(8) have good academic record with an average of at least 65% marks.

However, in the case of a candidate who

(9) satisfies all other conditions except (4) above but has secured 75% marks in the written test and
65% marks in the Group Discussion, the case is to be referred to the General Manager (Personnel)-
GM (P) for the decision.
(10) satisfies all other criteria except (8) above but secured an average of more than 60% marks,
the case is to be referred to the Managing Director (MD) of the organization.

Now read the information provided in the case of each candidate in each of the questions given
below and decide on the basis of the information provided and based on the above conditions, which
of the courses of action you would suggest. These cases are given to you as on 5.9.2003. You are not
to assume anything.
(1) if the case is to be referred to MD.
(2) if the candidate is not to be promoted.
(3) if the candidate is to be promoted.
(4) if the case is to be referred to GM(P).

Q15. 33 years old Renu has a good academic record with an average of 68% marks and has good
communication skill. She has completed six years in the organization. She has secured 63%
marks in Group Discussion, 71% marks in interview and 68% marks in written test for
promotion. She gets along well with her colleagues and has good record of her work
performance.

Q16. Venkatesh, who is 38 years old, has good academic record with an average of 61% marks.
He has secured 65% marks in the written test for promotion, 72% marks in interview and
63% marks in Group discussion. He has good communication skill and gets along well with
his colleagues. He has good record of his work performance and has completed 7 years in
the organization.
Q17. 34 years old Madhu has secured 60% marks in written promotion test, 72% marks in
interview and 69% marks in Group Discussion. She has good communication skill and gets
along well with her colleagues. Her record of work performance is good and she has
completed 6 ½ years in the organization.

Q18. Tarun has completed 6 years in the organization. He is 34 years old and has a good
academic record with an average of 68% marks. He has secured 66% marks in Group
Discussion, 67% marks in interview and 76% marks in the written test for promotion. He has
good communication skill, gets along well with his colleagues and his work performance is
good.

Directions (Questions 19-21) : Refer to the following data and answer the questions that follow.

There is an empty three-self bookcase. T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seven objects to be placed either
on the lower middle or top shelf of the bookcase with the following conditions:
(i) At least two objects should be on the top shelf.
(ii) There should be no more than four objects on any shelf.
(iii) T and U should be on different shelves.
(iv) V is to be either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf where X is placed.
(v) W is to be either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf that X is on.

Q19. If V and w are the only two objects on one of the shelves and four objects are on the
middle shelf, which of the following must be true?
(1) Y is on the top shelf.
(2) U is on the bottom shelf
(3) T is on the middle shelf
(4) Z is on the middle shelf

Q20. If all the seven objects are on two shelves, which of the following must be true?
(1) T, V and W are on the top shelf.
(2) No more than three objects are on the middle shelf.
(3) At least three objects are on the top shelf.
(4) U is on the top shelf.

Q21. If V and T are the only objects on one of the shelves, which of the following must be true?
(1) U is either on the middle or top shelf.
(2) X is on the bottom shelf.
(3) W is on the top shelf.
(4) If Y is on the bottom shelf, Z is on the middle shelf.

Directions (Questions 22-23) : In each of these questions select the alternative which will come in
place of (?)

Q22. Computer : fqprxvht : : Language : ?

(1) ocqixcjg (2) ocqicyig
(3) oxpixdig (4) ocqixcig

Q23. BLOCKED : YOLXPVW : : ? : OZFMXS

(1) LABOR (2) RESULT
(3) DEVATE (4) LAUNCH

Directions (Questions 24-26) : In each of these questions, there is a statement followed by

three courses of action numbered I, II and III. Assuming everything in the statement to be true,
which of the three courses of action is logical to follow?

Q24. Statement : Lack if coordination University, it colleges and various authorities has resulted
in students ousted from one college seeking migration to another.
Course of action :
I. If a student is ousted from a college, the information should be sent to all other colleges
of the University.
II. The admission to all colleges of the University should be centralized at the University.
III. A separate section should be created for taking action against students indulging in anti-
social activities.

(1) Only III follows (2) Only II follows

(3) Only I follows (4) Only II and III follow
Q25. Statement : Faced with a source crunch and a depression overall economic scenario, State
Y is unlikely to achieve the targeted per cent compound growth rate during the 9th Plan.
Course of action :
I. The targeted growth plan should be reduced for the 10th plan.
II. The reasons for the failure should be studied.
III. The performance of State ‘Y’ should be compared with other states.

(1) Only II and III follow (2) Only I and II follow

(3) Only I follows (4) All follow

Q26. Statement : The weather bureau has through a recent bulletin forecast heavy rainfall
during the next week which may cause water logging in several parts of the city.
Course of action :
I. The bulletin should be widely publicized.
II. The civic authority should be kept in readiness for removal of water from waterlogged
parts.
III. The people should be advised to stay indoors during the period.

(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only II and III follow

(3) Only II follow (4) None follows

Directions (Questions 27-28) : In each of these questions, there are four choices. Three of them
are alike in some respect and one is different. Find the odd one out.

Q27. (1) 41, 5, 3, 47 (2) 37, 14, 19, 7

(3) 11, 3, 3, 17 (4) 67, 71, 3, 5

Q28. (1) G T I R E (2) B R T B I A

(3) S H E O R (4) C C K P O E A

Directions (Question 29) : Study the graph given below to answer the question.

A company manufacturing air-conditions has set a monthly target. The target and realized values
are shown in the bar chart.

Air Conditioners

100 95

90 85
80
80 75
70
70 65

60 55
50 50 Target Sales
50 45
40 40 Actual Sales
40

30 2525
20
20
10
10

0
J F M A M J J A

Consider the following statements based on the chart.

A. The target sales on the monthly basis have been achieved.
B. The overall target value has been exceeded by 7.5%.
C. The sales department deserves a pat on the back.
Q29. Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(1) A and B (2) B alone
(3) A alone (4) B and C

Directions (Questions 30-31) : Study the information given below and answer the questions that
follow

The BSNL announced a cut in the STD rates on 27 December 2003. The new rates and slabs
are given in the table below and are to be implemented from the 14 January 2004.
Rates (Rs./min)
Distance Peak Rates Off Peak
(km) Old New Old New
50-200 4.8 2.4 1.2 1.2
200-500 11.6 4.8 3 2.4
500-1000 17.56 9.00 4.5 4.5
1000+ 17.56 9.00 6 4.5

Q30. The maximum percentage reduction in costs will be experienced for calls over which of the
following distances?
(1) 1000+ (2) 500-1000 (3) 50-200 (4) 200-500

Q31. The percentage difference in the cost of a set of telephone cells made on the 13th and 14th
January having durations of 4 minutes over a distance of 350 km, 3 minutes for a distance
of 700 km and 3 minutes for a distance of 1050 km is (if all the three cells are made in peak
times)
(1) 59.8% (2) 51.76% (3) 41.2% (4 ) Cannot be determined

Directions (Questions 32-33) : Study the following and answer the questions that follow :

A gas cylinder can discharge gas at the rate of 1 cc/minute from burner A and at the rate of 2
cc/minute from burner B (maximum rates of discharge). The capacity of the gas cylinder is 1000 cc
of gas. The amount of heat generated is equal to 1 kcal/cc of gas. However, there is wastage of the
heat as per the following table :
Gas discharge @ Loss of heat
0-0.5 cc/minute 10%
0.5-1 cc/minute 20%
1-1.5 cc/minute 25%
1.5 + cc/minute 30%
(include higher extremes)

Q32. If both burners are opened simultaneously such that the first is opened to 90% of its
capacity and the second is opened to 80% of its capacity, the amount of time in which the
gas cylinder, the amount of time in which the gas cylinder will be empty (if it was half full
at the start) will be

(1) 200 minutes (2) 400 minutes (3) 250 minutes (4) None of these

Q33. The maximum amount of heat with the fastest speed of cooking that can be utilized for
cooking will be when
(1) the first burner is opened upto 50% of it’s aperture
(2) the second burner is opened upto 25% of it’s aperture
(3) Either (1) or (2) (4) None of these
Direction for (Questions 34 and 35) : Study the following information and answer the questions
given below it.

The admission ticket for an exhibition bears a password which is changed after every clock hour
based on a set of words chosen for each day. The following is an illustration of the code and steps
of rearrangement for subsequent clock hours. The time is 9 am. To 3 PM.

Day’s first password : First Batch – 9 a.m. to 10 a.m. is not ready cloth simple harmony burning
Second Bath – 10 a.m. to 11 a.m. ready not is cloth burning harmony simple
Third Batch – 11 a.m. to 12 noon cloth is not ready simply harmony burring
Fourth Batch – 12 noon to 1 p.m. not is cloth ready burning harmony simple
Fifth Batch – 1 p.m. to 2 p.m. ready cloth is not simple harmony burning and so on.

Q34. If the password for the first batch was – “rate go long top we let have’, which batch will
have the password-“go rate top long have let we”?
(1) Fourth (2) Third (3) Second (4) Fifth

Q35. Day’s first password – “camel road no toy say me not”. What will be the password for the
fourth batch i.e. 12 noon to 1 p.m.
(1) toy no road camel not me say
(2) no road camel toy not me say
(3) road camel toy no not me say
(4) toy camel road no say me not

Directions (Questions 36-37) : Study the information given below carefully and answer the
questions that follow.

On a playing ground, Dinesh, Kunal, Nitin, Atul and Prashant are standing as described below facing
the North.
(i) Kunal is 40 metres to the right of Atul.
(ii) Dinesh is 60 metres to the south of Kunal.
(iii) Nitin is 25 metres to the west of Atul.
(iv) Prashant is 90 metres to the north of Dinesh.

Q36. Who is to the north-east of the person who is to the left of Kunal?
(1) Atul (2) Nitin (3) Dinesh (4) None of these

Q37. If a boy walks from Nitin, meets Atul followed by Kunal, Dinesh and then Prashant, now
many metres has he walked if he has traveled the straight distance all through?
(1) 215 metres (2) 185 metres (3) 155 metres (4) 245 metres

Directions (Questions 38-40) : Answer these questions independent of each other.

Q38. If MACHINE is coded as 19-7-9-14-15-20-11, now will you code DANGER?

(1) 13-7-20-9-11-25 (2) 11-7-20-16-11-24
(3) 10-7-20-13-11-24 (4) 13-7-20-10-11-25

Q39. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tell Pramod, “I am the only daughter of this lady and her
son is your maternal uncle.” How is the speaker related to Pramod’s father?
(1) Sister-in-law (2) Wife (3) Either (1) to (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

Q40. If P + Q means P is the husband of Q; P ÷ Q means P is the sister of Q and P × Q means P is

the son of Q, which of the following shows A is the daughter of B?
(1) D × B + C ÷ A (2) B + C × A (3) C × B ÷ A (4) A ÷ D × B