SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (SERIES-1) DATE: 27.01.

2025
Time: 3.00 Hrs NEET GRAND TEST-08 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
(a) Duration of the Exam is 3 Hours.
(b) The question paper consists of 180 questions, comprising of 45 questions in each subject.
(c) Each question carries four marks. One mark will be deducted for every incorrect response from
the total score. Maximum marks are 720.
PHYSICS
1. The circular divisions of the given screw gauge are 50. It moves 0.5 mm on main scale in one
rotation. The diameter of the ball is

1) 2 . 25 m m 2)2 . 20 m m 3)1 . 20 m m 4) 1 . 25 m m
2. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms A and B as shown. Pick out the correct output
waveform.

1) 2)

3) 4)
3. In SHM match the following
Column-I Column-II
a) Maximum velocity e) 1/ 2 M  2 A 2
b) Maximum acceleration f) 1/ 4 M  2 A 2
c) Maximum force g)
d) maximum total energy h)  2 A
i) m  2 A
1) a-g, b- h , c-i, d-e 2) a- h , b-g, c-i, d-e
3) a-g, b- h , c-f, d-e 4) a-g, b-i, c- h , d-f
4. T he coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.25. The maximum speed with which a
car can be driven round a curve of radius 40m without skidding is (Take g  10ms 2 )
1) 40 2) 20 3) 15 4) 10
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5. The ratio of speed of an electron in ground state in Bohr’s first orbit of hydrogen atom to velocity of
light in air(c) is
e2 2e 2 0 e3 2 hc
1) 2) 3) 4) 02
2 0 hc hc 2 0 hc e
6. A block of mass Lies on a smooth horizontal table and is connected to another freely hanging block
of mass By light inextensible string passing over a smooth fixed pulley situated at the edge of the
table as shown in the figure. Initially the system is at rest with At a distance d from the pulley. The
time taken for To reach the pulley is

m2 g 2d ( m1  m2 ) 2 m2 d 2 m1 d
1) 2) 3) 4)
m1  m2 m2 g ( m1  m 2 ) g ( m1  m 2 ) g
7. A neutron travelling with velocity v, kinetic energy E collides elastically head-on with a stationary
nucleus of mass number A. The fraction of the total energy retained by the neutron is
2 2

1)
1  A2 2)
4A  A 1 
3) 
 A 
4) 
 
1  A2 1  A2
 A   A 1
8. Choose the correct statement:
1) current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is inversely proportional to the magnetic
induction.
2) To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, a high resistance is connected in series.
3) To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter, a low resistance is connected in parallel.
4) Voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is directly proportional to the magnetic
induction.
9. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 200cm and an eye piece with focal length 2cm, if this
telescope is used to see a 50 meter tall building at a distance of 2 km, what is the height of the image
of the building formed by the objective lens?
1)5cm 2) 10 3) 1 4) 2
10. A beam of neutral light falls on a system of 5 polaroids, which are arranged in succession such that the
pass axis of each polaroid is turned through 60 With respect to the preceding one. The fraction of the
incident unpolarised light intensity that passes through the system is.
1) 1/64 2) 1/32 3) 1/256 4) 1/512
11. A simple pendulum of length l is set up on a trolley which slides down a frictionless inclined plane
making an angle with horizontal. The time period of pendulum is.
l l cos  l l
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
g g g cos  g (l  cos  )
12. An assembly of infinite number of charges + , − , + , − , … … …. are placed at distances x=1cm,
x=2m, x=4m, x=8m,......, from the origin, in a plane, the potential at x=0 due to the charges would be
q q q q
1)  2)  3) 4)
4 0 6 0 6 0 4 0
13. In a magnetic hysteresis loop, at the point of coercivity,
1) ≠ 0, ≠ 0 2) = 0, ≠ 0 3) ≠ 0, = 0 4) = 0, =0

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14. Which graph correctly represents the variation of capillary rise h with the diameter of the capillary
tube?

1) 2) 3) 4)
15. A hot liquid kept in a beaker cools from 80 70 in two minutes. If the surrounding
temperature is 30 C, then the time of cooling of the same liquid from 60 50 is
1) 240s 2) 360s 3) 480s 4) 216s
16. A wire of natural length , Young’s modulus Y and area of cross-section A is extended by x. Then the
energy stored in the wire is given by.
1 YA 2 1 Yl 2 1 YA 2 1 A 2
1) x 2) x 3) 2
x 4) x
2 l 2 A 2 l 2 Yl
17. A projectile is fired vertically upwards from the surface of earth with a velocity of kve , where ve is the
escape velocity and k<1. Neglecting air resistance, the maximum height to which it will rise, measured
from the centre of earth, is (R= radius of earth)
R R 1 k2 k2
1) 2) 3) 4)
1 k 2 k2 R R
18. In series LCR circuit, the voltages across R, L and C shown in figure. The voltage of applied source is
1) 110 volt
2) 10 volt
3) 50 volt
4) 70 volt

19. The rms speed of helium molecules at 24 0 C and 1 atm pressure is 450ms1 . Then the rms speed of
the helium molecules at 24 0 C and 2 atm pressure is
1) 450ms1 2) 1800 ms 1 3) 900 ms1 4) 750 ms 1
20. Two tuning forks having frequencies 460Hz and 454Hz are tuned together. The time interval
between successive maximum intensity will be
1) 2) 3) 1 4) 4
21. The two coherent sources with intensity ratio produce interference. The fringe visibility will be.
2  2 
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
1  (1   ) 1 
22. Assertion (A):- Induced emf will always occur whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
Reason (R):- Current always induces whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

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23. A gas is taken through a cyclic process ABCA as shown in the figure. The magnitude of work done by
the gas in the cyclic process is.
1) 4.20 J
2) 10 J
3) 12 J
4) 15 J

24. The effective capacity between A and B of the given network is

1) 3C
2) 2 C
3) C
4)

25. A wire is bent in the form shown here in the figure. Segments and are of length 1
each while the semi-circular loop is of radius 1 . A current of 5 flows from towards the end
and the whole wire is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 directed out of the page. The force acting on
the wire is.

1) 40 N 2) 5 N 3) 10 N 4) 20 N
26. In the shown arrangement of the experiment of the meter bridge if corresponding to null deflection
of galvanometer is , what would be its value if the radius of the wire is doubled?
1)
2)
3) 4
4) 2

27. Equal volume of two immiscible liquids of densities  and 2  are filled in a vessel as shown in
figure. Two small holes are punched at depths From the surface of lighter liquid. If
Are the velocities of efflux at these two holes, then Is.

1)
√

2)
3)
4)
√

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28. Two conducting plates and with large surface area are placed as shown in the figure. charge
is given to plate . The electric field between the plates at any point is
q q
1) 2)
3 A 0 2 A 0
q 2q
3) 4)
A 0 A 0

29. Find the charge on the capacitor C in the following circuit

1) 12
2) 14
3) 20
4) 18

30. A galvanometer coil has a resistance at 15Ω and the meter shows full scale deflection for a current of
4 . To convert the galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0 to 6 , the shunt required is
1) 2 Ω 2) 4 Ω 3) 6 Ω 4) 10 Ω
31. Switch is closed at = 0. After sufficiently long time, an iron rod is inserted into the
Inductor L. Then, the light bulb.
1) glows more brightly
2) gets dimmer
3) glows with the same brightness
4) gets momentarily dimmer and then glows more brightly.

32. What is the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron, accelerated through a potential
difference of 100 volts?
1) 0.123nm 2) 0.133nm 3) 0.143nm 4) 0.153nm
33. The graphs show the variation of current I (y-axis) in two photocell A and B as a function of the applied
voltage V (x-axis) when light is incident on the cell. Which of the following is the correct conclusion
drawn from the data?
1) Cathodes of the two cells are made from the same substance, the
intensity of light used are different.
2) Cathodes are made from different substances and the intensity of light
is the same.
3) Cathodes substances as well as intensity of light are different.
4) No conclusion can be drawn.
34. When a light ray enters a refracting medium, it is found that the magnitude of the angle of refraction
is equal to half the angle of reflection. If is the refractive index of the medium, then the angle of
incidence is.
   
1) 2 sin 1   2) 2 cos 1   3) cos 1   4) sin 1  
2 2 2 2
35. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 travels in tree space along the x- direction. At a

particular point in space and time, E  6.3 ˆjVm . At this point ⃗ Is equal to.
 1

1) 8.33  10 8 k̂T 2) 18.9  108 k̂T 3) 2.1  108 k̂T 4) 2.1  10 8 iˆT

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36. A bar magnet of length and magnetic dipole moment is bent in the form of an arc as shown in the
figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be
1) M 2) M
3) M 4)

37. A ball is dropped on to a horizontal plate from a height ℎ = 9 above it. If the coefficient of
restitution is = , the total distance travelled in single collision is
1) 10 m 2) 15 m 3) 20 m 4) 25 m
38. For any two vectors ⃗ ⃗, ⃗. ⃗ = ⃗ × ⃗ , the magnitude of ⃗ = ⃗ + ⃗ is
AB
1) A2  B 2 2) A+B 3) A2  B 2  4) A2  B 2  2 AB
2
39. Plane angle and solid angle have
1) Units but no dimensions 2) Dimensions but no units
3) No units and no dimensions 4) Both units and dimensions
40. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure
below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents
the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

41. A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index √3, at an angle 600 . The angle between the
refracted and reflected rays would be
1) 300 2) 600 3) 900 4) 1200
42. In a young’s double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when
a monochromatic light of 600nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength flight is changed to 400nm,
then the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is.
1) 6 2) 8 3) 9 4) 12
43. In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be
1) Zero 2) 30 Hz 3) 60 Hz 4) 120 Hz
44. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
5
A. Moment of inertia of solid sphere of radius R about any tangent I) MR 2
3
7
B. Moment of inertia of hollow sphere of radius (R) about any tangent II) MR 2
5
1
C. Moment of inertia of circular ring of radius (R) about its diameter. III) MR 2
4
1
D. Moment of inertia of circular disc of radius (R) about any diameter. IV) MR 2
2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

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45. Two particles of masses 2kg and 3kg are moving in perpendicular directions with velocities
4 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. The magnitude of velocity of centre of mass of two particles is
1) 1 m/s 2) 2.8 m/s 3) 0.4 m/s 4) 2 m/s
CHEMISTRY
 1
46. The slope of Arrhenius plot ln Kvs  of first order reaction is 5 103 . The value of Ea of the
 T
reaction is
1) 41.5 KJ mol-1 2) -83 KJ mol-1 3) 83.0 KJ mol-1 4) 166 KJ mol-1
47. In the following reaction

Product [C] is

1) 2)

3) 4)
48. Select the correct statements from the following
A) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed B) GeX4 (x=F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than GeX2
C) SnF4 is ionic in nature D) PbF4 is covalent in nature
1) A, B and C only
2) B, C and D only
3) A and C only
4) A and B only
49. 0.2 moles of H2SO4 reacts with 0.2 moles of KOH in aqueous solution. Heat liberated during the
process is
1) 2.865 KJ 2) 22.92 KJ 3) 5.73 KJ 4) 11.46 KJ
50. Choose the correct reaction
Br2
1) CH 3CH 2CONH 2  NaOH
 CH 3CH 2CH 2 NH 2
Br2
2) CH 3  CH  CH 2 
UV light
CH 3  CHBr  CH 2 Br

3)
CHCl3  KOH
4) CH 3CH 2 NH 2  
 CH 3CH 2 NC
51. Assertion (A): Specific conductivity of electrolytes decreases on dilution
Reason (R): On dilution number of ions per unit volume decreases
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3) A is not correct but R is correct
4) A is correct but R is not correct
0
52. For a cell involving one electron transfer Ecell  ' X ' at 298K. The equilibrium constant for the cell
reaction is 1010 ‘X’ is
1) 0.0295 V 2) 0.295 V 3) 0.0591 V 4) 0.591 V
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53. Consider the following reaction
H2
C6 H 5  COCl 
Pd  BaSO4
A
The product A is
1) C6 H 5CHO 2) C6 H 5OH 3) C6 H 5COCH 3 4) C6 H 5Cl
2
54. The spin only magnetic momentum of complex ion  NiCl4  is
1) 1.732 B.M 2) 2.82 B.M 3) 0 4) 3.87 B.M
55. A gas undergoes isothermal irreversible expansion at 300K from 1 lit to 10 lit against an external
pressure of one atomsphere. Work done by the gas is
1) 1381.8 K cals 2) 909 J 3) 5803.6 J 4) 1010 KJ
56. The correct order of decreasing acid strenght of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B),
acetic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is
1) B > A > D > C 2) B > D > C > A 3) A > B > C > D 4) A > C > B > D
1% HgSO4  3
i CH MgBr
57. In the reaction CH 3  C  CH 
30% H 2 SO4
  A 
 ii  H 2O C  Major product
Major produt [C] is
1) Isobutyl alcohol 2) Tertiary butyl alcohol
3) Acetone 4) Secondary butyl alcohol
58. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease
1) Convulsions 2) Beri-Beri 3) Cheilosis 4) Sterility
59. Which one of the following is a meta directing group
O
||
1) -OH 2) O  C  R 3) -NO2 4) -NH2
60. Which one of the following is ionic
1) PF3 2) BiF3 3) NF3 4) AsF3
+ - 0
61. If the ionic radii of A and B are nearly same (i.e. 1.34 A ). Then atomic radii of A and B
respectivley are
1) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å 2) 0.72 Å, 1.96 Å 3) 1.96 Å, 0.72 Å 4) 1.96 Å, 1.96 Å

62. Number of possible isomers for the complex with the formula Co  en  2 Cl2  will be
1) 1 2) 3 3) 4 4) 2
63. Aniline reacts with bromine water to give ‘X’ as major product. ‘X’ is
1) o-bormoaniline 2) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
3) m-bromoaniline 4) p-bromoaniline
64. Which of the following complex shows linkage isomerism?
1) CO  NH 3 5 Cl  Br 2) CO  NH 3 5  ONO   Cl2

3) K 3 Cr  OX  2 Cl2  4)  Ni  gly  2 

65. Volume of CO2 obtained by the complete decomposition of 9.85 g of BaCO3 is (molecular weight of
BaCO3 = 197
1) 2.24 L 2) 11.2 L 3) 0.84 L 4) 0.56 L
-1
66. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m sec with an accuracy of 0.005% Certainity
with which the position of the electron can be located is  h  6.6 10 34 kgm 2 s 1  mass of electron
 9.11031 kg )
1) 1.52 104 m 2) 5.110 3 m 3) 1.92 103 m 4) 3.84 103 m
67. Oxidation state of chromium is +6 in
1) Cr2O3 2) CrO3 3) CrO5 4) 2 & 3

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68. In Dumas method, ‘x’ grams of an organic compound containing nitrogen liberated 23.4cc of N2 at
STP. If the mass percentage of nitrogen in the compound is 46.8 then the value of ‘x’ is
1 1 1 1
1) gram 2) gram 3) gram 4) gram
8 12 16 4
69. Statement-I: Rate constant is not influenced by catalyst

I
Statement-II: 2 H 2O2 
OH 
 2 H 2O  O2 isan example of first order reaction
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
70. Correct incrasing order for the wavelenghts of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of
Co3+ is
3 3 3
1) Co  H 2O  6  , Co  en 3  , Co  NH 3 6 
3 3 3
2) Co  NH 3  6  , Co  H 2O 6  , Co  en 3 
3 3 3
3) Co  NH 3  6  , Co  en 3  , Co  H 2O 6 
3 3 3
4) Co  en 3  , Co  NH 3  6  , Co  H 2O 6 
71. Select the incorrect statement from the following
1) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided
2) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than lanthanoid contraction
3) Most basic hydroxide of lanthanoids is formed by Lutecium
4) Ce+4 solutions are widely used as oxidizing agents in volumetric analysis
72. Number of hybrid orbitals involved in bonding in benzene molecule is
1) 12 2) 16 3) 18 4) 20
73. Select the essential amino acid that has hetero cyclic ring
1) Valine 2) Glutamic acid 3) Tryptophan 4) Phenyl alanine
74. Which 3d element has the greatest tendency to convert from +3 state to +2 state in aqueous solution
1) Cobalt 2) Manganese 3) Chromium 4) Titanium
75. Match column-I with column-II
Column-I Column-II
(reagents) (Radicals)
a) Dil HCl i) Pb2+
b) NH 4Cl  NH 4OH   NH 4 2 CO3 ii) Al 3
c) NH 4Cl  NH 4OH  H 2 S iii) Mn 2
d) NH 4Cl  NH 4OH iv) Sr 2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
a b c d a b c d
1) i iii iv ii 2) iii ii iv i
3) i iv iii ii 4) iii iv ii i
1
76. Which among the following compound will be more reactive for SN reaction

1) 2) 3) 4)

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 NH3 /  P2 O5 LiAlH 4
77. CH 3CH 2COOH   A 
 B   C ,functional isomer of ‘C’ is
NH 2
|
1) CH 3  CH  CH 3 2) CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  NH 2
3) CH 3  CH 2  NH 2 4) CH 3  CH 2  NH  CH 3
78. Statement-I: Fluorine oxidizes water to oxygen whereas chlorine react with water to form
corresponding. hydrohalic and hypohalous acids
Statement-II: Oxidizing power of halogens increases down the group
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
79. The most suitable reagent for the following conversion is

1) Hg 2 / H  , H 2O 2) Na / liquid NH3 3) H2, Pd-BaSO4 4) Zn / HCl

80. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest boiling point
1) KCl 2) C6H12O6 3) Al2  SO4 3 4) K2SO4
81. Which of the following carbocation is expected to be most stable

1) 2) 3) 4)
82. The ratio of shortest wave lengths is Lyman and Balmer series for H-atom
1) 1:4 2) 4:1 3) 1:2 4) 2:1
83. Identify the incorrect match
Symbol IUPAC official name
A) Unu i) Mendelevium
B) Unq ii) Rutherfordium
C) Uns iii) Bohrium
D) Une iv) Darmstatium
1) A-i 2) B-ii 3) C-iii 4) D-iv
84. The correct bond order in the following species is
1) O2  O2  O22 2) O2  O2  O22 3) O22  O2  O2 4) O22  O2  O2
85. Assertion (A): Noble gases have very low boiling points
Reason (R): Noble gases being monoatomic have no interatomic forces except weak dispersion
forces
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3) A is not correct but R is correct
4) A is correct but R is not correct

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86. 8 moles of a gas AB3 are introduced into a 1.0 dm3 vessel. It dissociates as
2 AB3 g   A2 g   3B2 g 
At equilibrium 2 mole of A2 are found to be present. The equlibrium constant of the reaction is
1) 2mol 2 L2 2) 3mol 2 L2 3) 27mol 2 L2 4) 36mol 2 L2
87. The 13th group element with least melting point is
1) Tl 2) Ga 3) Al 4) B
88. In the reaciton

The correct match for the above reaction

A B C D
1) C6H5I CH3ONa C6H5OH CH3I
2) C6H5ONa CH3I C6H5OH CH3I
3) C6H5I CH3OH C6H5I CH3OH
4) C6H5ONa CH3I C6H5I CH3I

KMnO4 / H
89. C4 H10O  X    C4 H 8O2 . ‘X’ can be
A) n-butyl alcohol B) 20 butyl alcohol C) Isobutyl alcohol D) 30 butyl alcohol
1) A, B, C and D 2) A and B only 3) A and C only 4) A, B and C only
90. Concentration of Ag ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 104 molL1 . The solubility
+

product of Ag2C2O4 is
1) 2.6 102 2) 4.5 109 3) 5.3 1012 4) 2.42 108
BOTANY
91. Read the following statements w.r.t. imperfect fungi and select correct option
(A) They are important decomposers of litter
(B) Mycelium is aseptate and branched
(C) Sexual phase is absent
(1) All are correct
(2) (B) is incorrect
(3) (A) and (C) are incorrect
(4) Only (C) is correct
92. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option w.r.t. Whittaker’s five kingdom classification:

(1) A – Polysaccharide and amino acid, C – Multicellular/Loose tissue

(2) B – Present in some, D – Tissue/Organ/Organ system
(3) A – Present (Noncellulosic), B – Absent
(4) C – Cellular/Organ system , D – Tissue/Organ

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93. Identify the incorrect match. Organism Feature
(1) Spirogyra – Non-flagellated isogametes
(2) Ectocarpus – Filamentous form
(3) Porphyra – Unicellular algae used to grow microbes
(4) Chlamydomonas – Microscopic unicellular form
94. Which of the following features correctly belong to the concerned plant?
A – Plant with protonema stage.
B – Presence of heterospory.
C – Ovules remain exposed both before and after fertilisation.
A B C
(1) Marchantia Salvinia Wolfia
(2) Funaria Equisetum Eucalyptus
(3) Pteris Polytrichum Pinus
(4) Sphagnum Selaginella Sequoia
95. Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundles are found in
(1) Dicot root (2) Monocot root (3) Monocot stem (4) Dicot stem
96. Read the following statements carefully and mark them as true (T) or false (F) and choose the correct
option
I. The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm.
II. In the chromoplast water soluble carotenoid pigments like carotene and xanthophyll are present.
III. Basal body of bacterial flagellum has 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules.
(1) T, F, F (2) F, T, T (3) T, F, T (4) T, T, T
97. The prokaryotic cell structure exemplified by both of the statements A and B, is
(A) Not bounded by any membrane and lie free in the cytoplasm.
(B) Stores reserve material in the cytoplasm.
(1) Ribosomes (2) Mesosome
(3) Chromatophores (4) Inclusion bodies
98. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) Lysosomes (i) Elongated tubular structures made up of special protein
(b) Kinetochore (ii) Formed by process of packaging in Golgi bodies
(c) Centrosome (iii) Long, elongated structure which helps in locomotion
(d) Pili (iv) Contains two cylindrical structures, perpendicular to each other
(v) Disc shaped structure present at primary constriction
(1) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
99. Which phase of Meiosis chromosomes number reduction occurs?
(1) Anaphase – II (2) Metaphase – II
(3) Anaphase – I (4) Telophase – II
100. The significances of mitotic division
a. Growth of multicellular organism
b. Induces genetic variability
c. Restores nucleocytoplasmic ratio
d. Replacement of worn out and old cells.
(1) a, b & d (2) b & c (3) Only b (4) a, c & d

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101. Mark the correctly matched combination w.r.t. A, B & C.

102. How many ATP are produced in mitochondria by substrate level phosphorylation only if two
molecules of pyruvate oxidised completely?
(1) Two (2) Four (3) One (4) Six
103. The PGR which causes apical hook formation in dicot seedlings also helps in
a. Overcoming the apical dominance. b. Widely used as herbicides.
c. Delays senescence. d. Induces flowering in mango.
e. Also known as antigibberellin. f. Causes thinning of cotton, cherry and walnut.
(1) a, c & f (2) b & d (3) d & f (4) d, e & f
104. Pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release in
(1) Solanaceae (2) Rosaceae (3) Poaceae (4) Leguminoseae
105. Which of the following is not an outbreeding device?
(1) Presence of dioecy
(2) Synchronisation in pollen release and stigma receptivity
(3) Presence of self incompatibility
(4) Presence of unisexual flowers
106. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option.
(I) Embryo develops at the __A__ end of embryo sac
(II) __B__ discovered during the archeological excavation at King Herod’s palace near the dead sea
(III) __C__ is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
(IV) Pollen-pistil interaction is a __D__ process.
(1) A – Chalazal B – Lupinus
(2) B – Phoenix C – Amphimixis
(3) C – Apomixis D – Dynamic
(4) A – Micropylar B – Lupine
107. Given below is a cross in Drosophila between yellow bodied and white eyed females to brown bodied
red eyed males. After intercrossing the F1 progeny what will be the recombination percentage in F2-
generation?

(1) 98.7% (2) 1.3% (3) 26.8% (4) 37.2%

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108. (i) __A__ is the predominant genetic material.
(ii) __B__ performs the dynamic functions of messenger and adapter.
(1) A – DNA B – RNA (2) A – RNA B – Protein
(3) A – DNA B – Protein (4) A – Protein B – Lipid
109. A transcription unit does not consist of
(1) Structural genes (2) Promoter (3) Terminator (4) UTR’s
110. Isolated protoplasts from two different plant cells can be fused to obtain
(1) Monoclonal cultures (2) Somatic hybrids
(3) Purelines (4) Hybrid vigour
111. Which of the following are the effective biocontrol agent of several plant pathogens and biocontrol
agent for controlling butterfly catterpillers respectively?
(1) Ladybird; Dragonfly (2) Trichoderma; Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Baculoviruses; Phytophthora (4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus; Trichoderma
112. Which among the following cannot be a feature of given diagram?

(1) It is a long cylindrical tube-like structure (2) Having lignified walls

(3) Having large central cavity (4) Having protoplasm
113. The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope marks the
(1) Early prophase (2) Start of second phase of mitosis
(3) First phase of mitosis (4) End of second phase of mitosis
114. In fermentation
(1) Partial breakdown of glucose take place
(2) One molecule of glucose will produce 8 ATP
(3) NADH is oxidized to NAD in vigorous way
(4) More than one option is correct
115. If pollen grain is having 12 chromosomes then what would be the chromosomes number in endosperm
of gymnosperm and angiosperm respectively?
(1) 24 and 36 (2) 36 and 36 (3) 12 and 36 (4) 24 and 24
116. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

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 (1) a-Hind II, b-blunt end, c-non-recombinant DNA
(2) a-BamH I, b-sticky end, c-recombinant DNA
(3) a-EcoR I, b-sticky end, c-non-recombinant DNA
(4) a-EcoR I, b-sticky end, c-recombinant DNA
117. Assertion: Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in the
DNA.
Reason: The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands when
orientation of reading kept the same.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
118. Which is the correct match?
(1) Cry I Ab-Cotton bollworms (2) Cry I Ac-Cotton bollworms
(3) Cry I Ac-Corn borer (4) Cry II Ab-Corn borer
119. Enzyme catalyst differ from inorganic catalysts as
(1) Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high temperatures and high pressures, while enzymes get
damaged at high temperatures (above 40° C)
(2) Enzyme increases the activation energy while organic catalyst decreases
(3) Enzyme are used in a reaction while inorganic catalyst remain unchanged
(4) All of the above
120. Assertion: Competitive inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens.
Reason: When the inhibitor closely resembles the enzyme in its molecular structure is known as
competitive inhibitor.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
121. In pBR 322 ampR and tetR genes are present. When we ligate a foreign DNA at Pst-I site, then
recombinant plasmids will lose the resistance to the
(1) Ampicillin (2) Tetracycline (3) Both (4) None
122. The correct representation of scientific name of tiger is;
(1) panthera tigris. (2) Panthera tigris. (3) panthera tigris. (4) Panthera tigris.
123. Identify the region of the root that give rise to the root hairs.
(1) Root cap (2) Region of meristematic activity
(3) Region of maturation (4) Region of elongation
124. Identify the correct statement w.r.t epidermal tissue system.
(1) The epidermis is the innermost layer of the primary plant body.
(2) The outside of the epidermis is often covered with a waxy thick layer called the cuticle which
prevents the loss of water.
(3) Cuticle is absent in stems.
(4) Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of roots.
125. Statement I: All gibberellins are basic in nature.
Statement II: Gibberellins are used to increase the length of grapes stalks.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
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126. Generally, the number of embryo sacs in each ovule within the ovary in angiosperms is;
(1) one. (2) two. (3) three. (4) four.
127. All of the following are the machinery and enzymes necessary for DNA replication, except;
(1) DNA ligase. (2) DNA polymerase. (3) RNA polymerase. (4) replication fork.
128. Identify the correct match w.r.t the given microbes and their respective products.
(1) Aspergillus niger - Lactic acid (2) Acetobacter aceti - Citric acid
(3) Lactobacillus - Acetic acid (4) Clostridium butylicum - Butyric acid
129. The respiratory quotient of tripalmitin is;
(1) 0.7. (2) 1. (3) 0.9. (4) 1.2.
130. What is the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation when plants true breeding for contrasting flower colours
of pea plants were crossed?
(1) 1:2:1 (2) 3:1 (3) 2:1 (4) 1:1
131. All of the following are the stop codons, except;
(1) UAA. (2) UAG. (3) AUG. (4) UGA.
132. The grain size during starch synthesis in pea seeds is a good example of;
(1) incomplete dominance. (2) co-dominance.
(3) multiple allelism. (4) complete dominance.
133. Identify the correct sequence of steps of transcription in bacteria.
(1) Initiation → Termination → Elongation
(2) Elongation → Initiation → Termination
(3) Initiation → Elongation → Termination
(4) Termination → Initiation → Elongation
134. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct option.
List-I List-II
(I) Palmately compound leaves (A) Calotropis
(II) Alternate phyllotaxy (B) Silk cotton
(III) Opposite phyllotaxy (C) Alstonia
(IV) Whorled phyllotaxy (D) China rose
I II III IV I II III IV
(1) B D C A (2) B D A C
(3) A D C B (4) A D B C
135. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed as;
(1) Selectable marker. (2) Recognition site.
(3) Palindromic sequences. (4) Ori.
ZOOLOGY
136. Although estrogen levels vary through the menstrual cycle, the highest level will be seen
1) In middle of the follicular phase after the appearance of LH.
2) Near the end of follicular phase just before ovulation
3) In middle of secretory phase when corpus luteum is most developed
4) Near the end of secretory phase just before onset of next menstrual cycle
137. In chordates
I. Heart is dorsal
II. Central nervous system is ventral
III. A post anal tail is present
1) Only I & II are correct. 2) Only III is correct
3) Only II is correct 4) Only I & III are correct

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138. Given below are true statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as reason (R):
Assertion (A): Oxytocin help in parturition and causes milk ejection from mammary glands.
Reason (R): Oxytocin act on smooth muscles of our body and stimulates their contraction.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
3) (A) is True but (R) is False
4) Both (A) and (R) are False
139. The economist whose book ‘Essay on principle of populations’ influenced Darwins was:-
1) Georges cuvier 2) Alfred lyell
3) T.R. malthus 3) A.R Wallace
140. With regard to insulin, choose correct statements?
a) C-peptide is present in mature insulin
b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide
c) The proinsulin has C-peptide
d) A-peptide & B- peptide of insulin are inter connected by disulphide bridges
1) a, c & d only 2) c & d only 3) b & d only 4) b & c only
141. An amino acid is important in biosynthesis of iodothyronines and catecholamines which amino acid
is this?
1) Tryptophan 2) Tyrosine 3) Methionine 4) Glycine
142. Read the following four statements A, B, C and D which are descriptions of some events in life cycle
of plasmodium and select correct option having a set of correct statements.
A. Parasite reproduce sexually in red blood cells.
B. The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a toxic substance, haemozoin which is
responsible for chills & high fever
C. Sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in intestine of man
D. Female mosquito take up the gametocytes with blood meal.
1) A & B 2) B & D 3) B & C 4) C & D
143. The two cerebral hemispheres in human brain are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called?
1) Corpus striatum 2) Corpus luteum
3) Corpus callosum 4) Corpus quadrigemina
144. According to extreme estimates, which say that there is 20 to 50 million global species diversity is
based on :
1) Species richness of insects
2) Species richness of Arthropods
3) Species richness of crustacean
4) Species evenness of Arthropod
145. Consider the following four statements (A – D) select correct option stating which ones are true (T)
& which ones are false (F)
A) Organism at each trophic level depends on those at higher trophic level for their energy demands
B) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called standing crop
C) The amount of inorganic matter present in an ecosystem at a given time called standing state.
D) The number of trophic levels in a grazing food chain is not restricted.
A B C D
1) T T F F
2) F T F T
3) T F T F
4) F T T F

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146. Correctly identify the match for A-F labelled in the given figure:

A B C D E F
1) Atrial natriuretic Vasoconstric Increase Decrease Decrease in Diuresis
peptide tion in blood in renin Angiotensin II and
pressure aldosterone

2) EPO Vasodilation Decrease Decrease Decrease in Concentrati

(erythropoietin) in blood in renin Angiotensin II and on of urine
pressure aldosterone

3) Atrial natriuretic Vasodilation Decrease Decrease Decrease in Diuresis

peptide in blood in renin angiotensin II and
pressure aldosterone

4) EPO Vasoconstric Increase Decrease Decrease in Concentrati

(erythropoietin) tion in blood in renin Angiotensin II and on of urine
pressure aldosterone

147. The largely tropical amazonian rain forest in south America

1) Produce 20% of total O2 in earth’s atmosphere
2) Has 3000 species of birds
3) Has 378 species of fishes
4) Is home to 4000 species of plants
148. In the molecule shown in the given diagram, ATPase activity is present in:

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
149. The increase of level of which of following in sarcoplasm of a skeletal muscle fibre will lead to
contraction of a muscle?
1) Acetylcholine 2) ATP 3) Calcium ions 4) Troponin C

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150. A person has the following values of respiratory volumes:
Tidal Volume 400 ml
Expiratory reserve volume 1000 ml
Inspiratory reserve volume 2500 ml
Residual volume 1000 ml
His functional residual capacity and vital capacity respectively are:
1) 2000 ml and 3900 ml 2) 2000 ml and 4900 ml
3) 1400 ml and 3900 ml 4) 1400 ml and 4900 ml
151. Consider the given two statements : -
I. Sexually transmitted infections can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease
II. Pelvic inflammatory disease increase risk of ectopic pregnancy
1) only I is correct 2) Both I & II are correct
3) only II is correct 4) Both I & II are incorrect
152. There are certain limitations of ecological Pyramids including all of following except:-
1) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic level.
2) It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exist in nature.
3) It does not accommodate food web
4) Saprophytes are given multiple levels in ecological pyramid
153. Typhoid is
1) Caused by a bacterium which infects only small intestine by means of food & water that is
contaminated
2) caused by protozoan which infects small intestine by means of contaminated water & food and
walar and then migrate to other organs through food.
3) Caused by bacterium that affects respiratory tract
4) Caused by a virus
154. The coxal bone in human skeleton :-
1) is a part of pectoral girdle, has a glenoid cavity that articulates with head of femur
2) is a part of pelvic girdle, has an acetabulum that articulates with head of humerus
3) is a part of pelvic girdle & is formed by fusion of three bones.
4) is a part of pectoral girdle and is formed by fusion of three bones
155. The trachea is surrounded by 16 to 20 incomplete & C – shaped ring of :-
1) Hyaline cartilage 2) Fibrous cartilage
3) Elastic cartilage 4) Calcified cartilage
156. The decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to introduction of clarias gariepeneus in
river Yamuna can be categorised as:-
1) Co – extinction 2) Habitat Fragmentation
3) Over exploitation 4) Alien species invasion
157. Which part of nephron plays a significant role in maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary
interestitial fluid?
1) Proximal convoluted tubule 2) Bowman‘s capsule
3) loop of henle 4) Distal convoluted tubule
158. Regarding the stages in life cycle of plasmodium
I. Sporozoite is infectious stage of man
II. In human body it first reproduces asexually in cell
III. Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut
1) Only I & II are correct 2) Only I & III are correct
3) Only II & III are correct 4) I, II & III are correct

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159. Select correct statements with respect to pleiotropism
1) A gene is said to be pleiotropy if it effect more than one trait.
2) Phenylketonurea is an example of pleiotropy
3) A condition where one gene have several alleles is referred to as pleiotropism
4) A trait is said to be pleiotropic if several genes control it.
Choose correct answer from options given below:-
1) a & b only 2) a & d only
3) a, b & c only 4) b, c & d only
160. Assertion (A):- Transgenic animals can be specifically desgined to allow study of how genes are
regulated and how they affect normal function of body & its development , eg :- study of complex
factor involved in growth such as insulin like growth factor
Reason (R):- By introducing genes form other species that alter formation of factor & studying
biological effects that result, information is obtained about biological role of factor in the body
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
3) (A) is True but (R) is False
4) Both (A) and (R) are False
161. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the best match from the codes giv
Column I Column II
A Comb plates P Cnidaria
B Metagenesis Q Mollusca
C Canal system R Sponges
D Radula S Ctenophora
A B C D A B C D
1) S P R Q 2) P S R Q
3) P S Q R 4) S P Q R
162. Karl Ernst von baer
1) Conducted a control experiments to disprove spontaneous generation
2) Proposed pangenesis concept as physical basis of heredity
3) Disapproved proposal of Ernst haeckel (Biogenetic law)
4) Was one of rediscoverer of Mendel’s laws
163. The number of cranial nerves in frogs are
1) 8 pairs 2) 12 pairs 3) 10 pairs 4) 31 pairs
164. If N is Population density at time t, then its density at time t + 1 is
(B is births, I is immigration, D is deaths E is emigration)
1) Nt+1 = Nt + [( B +I ) – (D + E)]
2) Nt+1 = Nt + [ (B+I) + (D + E)]
3) Nt+1 = Nt + [( B + I) ( D + E)
4) Nt+I = Nt + [ (B + I) / (D + E)]
165. All of the following are related to limbic system in human brain except:-
1) Amygdala 2) hippocampus 3) Olfactory bulb 4) Corpus callosum
166. Which of following hormone is not a steroid and does not act on target cell through a second
messenger?
1) Corticotropin 2) Cortisol 3) Iodothyronines 4) Estrogen

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167. Which relationship given in column I is not correctly matched with the partner apparently not
deriving any benefit out of the relationship column II?
Column I Column II
1) Orchid growing on a mango branch Mango
2) Barnacles growing on back of a whale Whale
3) Sea anemone and clown fish Sea anemone
4) Lichen Algal partner
168. Match each item regarding Periplaneta Americana in Column I with one in Column II and select the
correct match from the codes given:
Morphological feature Location
A Sternites P Ventral sclerites
B Tegmina Q Dorsal sclerites
C Tergites R Mesothorax
D Hind wings S Metathorax
A B C D
1) Q S P R
2) S Q R P
3) P R Q S
4) R P S Q
169. Consider given two Statements:-
Assertion (A):- Regarding Down’s syndrome parents of affected individuals are usually genetically
normal.
Reason (R): The probability increase from low in 20 year old mother to higher in those of age 45.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
3) (A) is True but (R) is False
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
170. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1) Ciliated epithelium – Fallopian tubes
2) Dense irregular connective tissue – Skin
3) Nissl’s granules – Neuron
4) Smooth muscle – Intercalated disc
171. Blood doping is the use of synthetic EPO (erythropoietin) by some athletes to boost their:-
1) Blood calcium levels 2) Secretion of growth hormone
3) Blood oxygen levels 4) Muscle mass
172. Identify hominids who were cave dwellers, used hides to protect their bodies & buried their dead:-
1) Ramapithecus 2) Homo neanderthalensis
3) Homo erectus 4) Homo habilis
173. Which of the following is not correct regarding the decomposition of wastes?
a) Low temperature inhibits decomposition
b) Warm & moist environment favour the process
c) The process is anaerobic
d) It is slower if detritus is rich in protein & carbohydrates
e) Detritus is degraded into simple inorganic substance by fungal & bacterial enzyme
choose the correct answer from the options given below:-
1) b & c only 2) c, a & d only 3) c & d only 4) c, d & e only

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174. The world summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg, south Africa pledged
for:-
1) A significant reduction in current rate of biodiversity loss
2) Declaration of agricultural production
3) Increase in agricultural production
4) Collection & preservation of seeds of different genetic & preservation of seeds of different genetic
strains of commercially important plants.
175. Mood swings, increased aggressiveness and reduced fertility in males can be result of long term
abuse of:-
1) Narcotic analgesic 2) Diuretics 3) Anabolic steroids 4) Cannabinoids
176. Consider the two statements:
I : During pregnancy, there is no menstruation.
II : Corpus luteum degenerates early in the event of fertilization
1) Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2) Both I and are correct but II does not explain I
3) I is correct but II is incorrect
4) I is incorrect but II is correct
177. The relaxation of muscle after contraction is related to:-
1) hydrolysis of ATP by myosin head
2) Binding of calcium ions to troponin C.
3) Pumping of calcium ions back to sarcoplasmic cisternae
4) Release of acetylcholine at neuro muscular junction.
178. Assertion:- Competition can be avoided even if two species compete for same resource
Reason:- The competition species can partition their resource to avoid competition
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
3) (A) is True but (R) is False
4) Both (A) and (R) are False
179. Which class of vertebrates bear jaw but does not bear limbs?
1) Cyclostomata 2) Chondricthyes
3) Amphibia 4) Reptilia
180. Diminished ability of kidney to concentrate urine leading to dehydration can be due to:-
1) Increased secretion of ADH
2) Decreased secretion of ADH
3) Increased secretion of insulin
4) Decreased secretion of ANF

* * All the Best * *

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