Reasoning English

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Content Page no.

1. Test of Directions and Distance 1-11

2. Tabular Form 12-21

3. Blood Relation 22-28

4. (a) Sequence 29-43

4. (b) Sequence (day/Months/Year/Box Based Puzzal 44-54

4. (c) Sequence: 55-75

5. Alphabet 76-84

6. Coding-Decoding and Word Formation 85-97

7. Machine Input 98-115

8. Decision Making 116-125

9. Syllogism 126-141

10. Data Sufficiency 142-147

11. Binary Operations 148-150

12. Cause and Effect 151-157

13. Statement and Course of Action 158-165

14. Statement and Arguments 166-171

15. Statement and Assumption 172-178

16. Statement and Conclusion 179-185

17. Passage Inference 186-193

18. Logic Mixed Question 194-200

19. Analogy or Similarity 201-205

20. Symbol & Notation 206-207

21. Classification 208-211

22. Scheduled Date & Time 212-216

23. Series Test 217-221

24. Arrangement of words 222-223

25. Cube & Dice 224-230

26. Missing Number 231-233

27. Venn Diagram 234-236

28. Counting Figures 237–243

29. Mirror & Water Image 244–248

30. Paper Cutting & Folding 249–253

31. Complition of Figures 254–257

32. Embeded Figures 258–262

33. Matrix 263–265

34. Analogy and Similarity [Non-Verbal] 266–269

35. Classification [Non-Verbal] 270–273

36. Series [Non-Verbal] 274–277

 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE

01
CHAPTER
Directions (01-04) : Find out the angular 7. If the clocks read 6:20 and if the minute hand
distance at : points North-East, in which direction will the
hour hand point?
1. 07:30 A.M.?
(a) West (b) South-East
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
(c) East (d) North-West
(e) 56°
(e) None of these
2. 10:10
8. A man took 3 times right and two times left from
(a) 245° (b) 115° (c) 60° (d) 35° his residence, then he found himself going in
(e) None of these North direction, in which direction was he
3. 05:40 started his journey from his residence?
(a) North (b) East
(a) – 70° (b) 45°
(c) South (d) West
(c) 70° (d) 90°
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
9. Rashmi goes towards east from a point P and
4. 6.39 then turns left. She walks some distance and
(a) – 34.5° (b) 199.5° then turns her right. Which direction is she
facing now?
(c) 19.5° (d) 34.5°
(a) North (b) East
(e) 160.5°
(c) West (d) South
5. Ruchi starts walking straight towards east. And
She walking 75 meters, she turns to the left (e) None of these
and walks 25 meters. Again the turns to the left, 10. RRRLLLRLRRR___South
walks a distance of 40 meters, again she turns
(a) East (b) North
to the right and walks a distance of 25 meters.
Which direction is she facing now ? (c) West (d) South
a) North b) South (e) None of these
c) East d) West 11. LRRLRR___East
e) None of these (a) North (b) East
6. At 12.30 the hour hand of a clock faces North (c) West (d) South (e) None of these
and the minute hand faces South. At 2.45 the 12. Mohan walked 30 meters towards east, took a
minute hand will be in which direction? right turn and walked 40 metres. Then he took
(a) North-West (b) West a left turn and walked 30 metres. In which
direction he is now from the starting point ?
(c) South-East (d) East
(a) North-east (b) East
(e) None of these
(c) South-east (d) South
(e) None of these

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 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE
13. Sita walks 14 metres towards west, then turns (a) North (b) East
to her right and walks 14 metres and then turns (c) West (d) South
to her left and walks 10 metres. Again turning
to her left she walks 14 metres. What is the 18. Sanjay walks 10 metres towards the South.
shortest distance (in metres) between her Turning to the left, he walks 20 metres and then
starting point and the present position? moves to his right. After moving a distance of
20 metres, he turns to the right and walks 20
(a) 10 (b) 24 metres. Finally, he turns to the right and moves
(c) 28 (d) 38 a distance of 10 metres. How far and in which
(e) None of these direction is he from the starting point ?

14. One morning at 8:00 am, Ravi and Umesh are (a) 10 metres, North (b) 20 metres, South
standing at a crossing with their fronts towards (c) 20 metres, North (d) 10 metres, South
each other in bright sunny day. Ravi’s shadow (e) None of these
fell exactly towards Umesh’s right hand side. In
which direction is Ravi facing? 19. City D is to the west of city M. City R is to the
south of city D. If city K is to the east of city R,
(a) North (b) East then in which direction is city K located in
(c) South (d) West respect of city D?
(e) None of these (a) North (b)East
15. One afternoon, Manisha and Madhuri were (c)North-East (d)South-East
talking to each other face to face in Bhopal on (e)None of these
M.G. Road. If Manisha’s shadow was exactly to
the left of Madhuri, which direction was Manisha 20. Shreedhar is facing South. He turns 145° in the
facing? clockwise direction, then again 120° in
clockwise direction, then 175° in anti-clockwise
(a) North (b) South direction, again 60° in clockwise direction and
(c) East (d) Data Inadequate finally 235° in anticlockwise direction. Find out
(e) None of these in which direction is he facing now and what is
his resultant angular movement.
16. A man walks 30 m. to the North from point A
then turns left walks 10 metres. Again turns left (a) 275° North-East (b) 85° South-East
and walks 6 m, then again turns left and walks (c) 135° North (d) 75° South-West
3 m and reaches at point B. Find distance and (e) None of these
direction from A to B ?
21. Vineet wants to go to school from his house.
(a) 20 m. (South-West) First of all he goes to the crossing; from there
(b) 30 m. (South-East) he turns to right and reaches to the bus-stand
(c) 25 m. (North-East) which is opposite to the library. In which direction
is the school locate?
(d) 25 m. (North-West)
(a) North (b) East
(e) None of these
(c) West
17. One morning after sunrise P and Q are standing
on a road facing towards each other. P’s (d) Cannot be determined
shadow fell exactly towards Q’s right. In which (e) None of these
direction is P facing?

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 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE
22. Suramyam Krishnan is facing East. She turns her right, he went 20 meters before turning to
100° in right hand side and then 145° in left hand her right again to look for her father at her uncle’s
side, again she turns 180° in right hand side place 30 meters from this point. Her father was
and finally turns 135° in left hand side. What is not there. From here she went 100 metres to
her resultant angular movement and in which her North before meeting her father in a street.
direction is he facing now? How far did the daughter Nitara meet her father
(a) 180° west (b) 270° south Akshay from the starting point?

(c) 0° east (d) 75° east (a) 80 m (b) 100 m

(e) None of these (c) 260 m (d) 140 m

23. Rajni and Sarika started from a place X. Rajni (e) None of these
went West and Sarika went North, both Directions (27 - 28): Study the information given
travelling with the same speed. After sometime, below carefully and answer tghe question that follow:
both turned their left and walked a few steps, if Reeta drives 10 km to the north, turns left and drives
they again turned to their left, in which directions 4 km, and then turned right and cover another 5 km,
the faces of Rajni and Sarika will be with respect and then again turned right and travels another 4
to point X? km.
(a) North and East (b) North and West 27. How far is she from her starting point ?
(c) West and North (d) East and South a) 10 km b) 12 km
(e) None of these c) 15 km d) 5 km
24. Ravi walks 100 meter towards South from his e) 20 km
home, then he turns his left and moves 100
meter to reach his friend B’s home. From there 28. Which direction is she looking at now ?
they both move 100 2 meter North-East to a) East b) West
reach the market. If market is to the east of c) South d) South-east
Ravi’s residence then what is the distance
e) North
between Ravi’s residence and Market?
Directions (29- 30): Study the information given
(a) 175 mt (b) 200 mt
below carefully and answer tghe question that follow:
(c) 150 mt (d) 100 mt
Mohan starts walking from point A. After walking 6
(e) None of these km in east direction he reached to point B. From
25. In a square shaped hostel, there are 8 rooms there he turns 450 in clockwise direction and walks
on each side at every floor. Room No. 101 is 4km to reach point C. Then he turns to west direction
the first room facing north at the first floor. The and walks 4 2 km to reach point D. then he turns
room numbers are continued clockwise. Which
1350 in clockwise direction and again walks 4 km to
direction does Room No. 125 face?
reach point B. Then he continues walking in same
(a) North (b) West
direction and walks another 4 km. Now he reached
(c) East (d) South to point E, from there he starts walking in east
(e) None of these direction and walks 4 km to reach point F. Finally, he
26. Little Nitara is looking for his father Akshay. She took a right turn and reached to point G after walking
went 90 meters in the East before turning to 10 km.

3
 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE
29. What will be the shortest distance between Point d) South- east e) None of these
E and C ? 34. What is the total distance travelled by Ram?

a) 6 2 km b) 3 3 km c) 7 5 km a) 38 kmb) 42 km c) 35 km
d) Can’t be determined
d) 4 3 km e) 4 2 km
e) None of these
30. What will be the approximate total longest route, Directions (35 – 38) : Read the following information
travelled by Mohan, from point B to point G ? and answer the questions that follow:

a) 34 km b) 25 km c) 45 km ‘A’ walks 10 km north from point Q to reach point H.

d) 36 km e) 31 km He takes a left turn and walks 9 km to reach point S.
on the other side, ‘B’ walks 5 km north from point Y
31. A person walks 15 m towards east from point A
to reach point J. Point Y is 9 km either east or west
to point B and takes 1200 left turn and walks
from point Q. Next ‘B’ turns to his right and walks 4
15m reached point C. After that he takes 120 0
km to reach point D. Also ‘A’ turned left from point S
left turn and cross one of the given points. Then
and reached point M after walking 5 km. M is in west
find the shortest distance of point C from point
direction from J.
A?
35. What is the shortest distance between points
a) 10 m b) 15 2 m c) 15m
M and J?
d) 5 5 m e) None of these a) 10 km b) 26 km c) 18 km
Direction (32– 34) : Study the following information d) 12 km e) Cannot be Determined
carfully and answer the question given below: 36. If ‘B’ walks 4 km east from point Y, then he is in
which direction with respect to point D?
Ram walks 5 km towards East and he turn 900 anti
clock wise direction and walks 6 km. He again turns a) South b) North-west
1350 Clock wise and walks 7 km. Then he turns 900 c) North-East d) North
Clock wise and stops after walking 6 km. He then e) South – West
turns 1350 anti clock-wise and walks 5 km. Again, 37. What is the shortest distance between points
he turns 450 anti clock wise and walks 6 km. At last Q and D ?
he takes a final 450 anti clock wise turn and stops
a) 194 km b) 198 km c) 197 km
after walking 7 km.
d) 196 km e) 195 km
32. What is the distance travelled from the point
38. What is the direction of J with respect to Q ?
he took his third turn to the point where he took
his last turn ? a) South b) North-West
a) 17 km b) 22 km c) 14 km c) North-East d) North
d) Can’t be determined e) South – West
e) None of these Directions (39– 40): Read the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
33. In which direction is Ram facing now with
respect to his starting position ? Ruchi starts walking from Point M and walks 20m
towards south. She then takes a right turn and walks
a) East b) North c) North-east

4
 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE
for 30m. She takes a left turn and stops at point O and Q is half of distance between point Q and R.
after walking for 15m. Point R is 10 m to the east of Bus B starts moving in west direction and move by
point O. Point J is 35 m to the north of point R. Point 2 km more than the distance between point Q and
S is 5m to the west of Point J. R from depot and reach point W, than from point W
it takes a right turn and walk 18 km to reach point U.
39. If Ruchi is standing at point W which is 10 m to U, V and W lies in the same line as distance between
the north of point S then, in which direction will point V and W is double of the distance between
she have to walk in order to reach Point O ? point U and V. From point U, bus B take right turn
a) Northeast b) West c) Southwest and reach point S. Point T lies between U and S in
exact midway.
d) South e) Southeast
40. How far and in which direction is Point S with 42. What is the total distance between U and S ?
respect to Point M ?
a) 29 km b) 32 km c) 36 km
a) 25 m towards west d) 30 km e) 28 km
b) 20 m towards east 43. In which direction is point T with respect to point
c) 25 m towards east W?
d) 20 m towards west
a) North b) South c) North West
e) 25 m towards north
d) North East e) South West
41. Rohan started his journey from point P in the
44. A boy want to go to the bus depot so he starts
south direction and after walking 4 km he reach
walking towards north from point W after
point X from there he takes 900 left turn and then
reaching point V he suddenly realize that he is
he walks for 3 km to reach point E, from there
going in the wrong direction. So, what is the
he takes a 450 left turn and walks 7 km to reach
shortest route from point V to the bus Depot ?
point M. Now again he takes a 1350 right turn
a) Back to point W then go to depot from there.
and walks for 5 km to reach point N (which is in
straight line with point E), then what is the b) From point V he should go in the east direction
distance (shortest) between point N and the point 20 km than move toward south to reach point
at which Rohan takes his first turn ? Q and then reach P and then to the depot.
c) From point V he should go towards north to
a) 5 6 km b) 4 6 km c) 6 6 km reach point U from there, he should reach point
S than point R than P depot.
d) 2 6 km e) None of these
d) Both a) and b)
Direction (42-46): Read the given information
e) Can’t be determine.
carefully and answer the given questions.
45. What is the distance between T and S ?
Two buses A and B starts their journey from same
depot but not necessary in the same order. Bus A a) 14 km b) 12 km c) 16 km
starts moving in north direction and covers a d) 18 km e) 6 km
distance of 6 km to reach point P then take a right 46. Bus A is moving in which direction currently ?
turn and move 18 km to reach point R, then it takes
a left turn and move 12 km to reach point S. Point P, a) West b) North-east c) South
Q and R lies in a same line. Distance between P d) North e) East

5
 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE
Directions (47– 49): Study the follwoign information and the 3rd cars is 6 m and between 1st and 4th cars
and answer the questions given below : is 9 m and so on.)

There are AB axis in such a way that A is in north Information regarding all the cars :
and B is in south direction. There is XY axis in such
 The distance between ‘A’ and ‘B’ is 33 m
a way that X is in west direction and Y is in east
and car ‘A’ is to the immediate left of car ‘B’.
direction. AB axis and XY axis intersect at a point Q
in such a way that AQ is 15m, QB is 17m, QX is  The distance between the cars ‘E’ and ‘F’ is
12m, QY is 24 m. 99 m. the distance between ‘E’ and ‘D’ is a
multiple of ‘2’.
Mehul starts from point X and walks 20m in south
 The car ‘B’ is 75 m away from car ‘C’. Car
direction and then he turns his left and walks 32 m.
‘D’ is at one of the position to the left of car
Arun starts from point A and walks 20m in east
‘C’; but not to the immediate left of ‘C’.
direction. Raju starts from point Y and walks 5m in
north direction and then he turns his left and walk 4  Car ‘F’ starts moving towards north and after
m and again he turns his left and walks 22m. going 18 m, it turns right, then it moves 63m
and then it goes another 7 m to its right turn
47. Point B is in which direction with respect to and stops at point ‘Z’
Arun’s current position ?
 Car ‘C’ moves 33 m towards south direction,
and then takes a right turn and goes 75 m
a) South b) South-East
straight. Then it turns again to its right
c) South-West d) West direction and moves another 17 m and halts
e) North-west at point ‘X’.
48. Point Y is in which direction with respect to  An another car ‘M’ is parked at 13 m to the
Mehul’s current position ? west of point ‘Z’, Now ‘M’ starts moving
towards further west and covers 77m and
a) North b) East reached point ‘Y’.
c) North –East
50. How many cars are parked there in between
d) North – West e) South
cars ‘D’ and ‘F’ ?
49. What is distance between Raju’s current
position and Mehul’s current position ? a) Two b) None
c) More than three
a) 3 m b) 5 m c) 13 m
d) One e) Three
d) 22 m e) 27 m
Directions (50– 54) : Read the following information 51. What is the distance between point ‘Z’ and point
carefully ans answer the questions given below: ‘X’ ?

There are six cars – A, B, C, D, E, F – parked in a a) 25 m b) 18 m

row facing north direction, but not necessarily in the
c) They don’t align in the same straight line
same order. The distances between two adjacent
cars are successive multiples of three (i.e., if the d) 32 m e) 27 m
distance between the 1st and the 2nd car is 3 m, 1st

6
 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE
52. What is the distance and direction of current point P which is 5 m in north from Car F. Car G
position of Car ‘M’ with respect to the Car ‘F’ ? moves 12 m in north-east direction till point Q. Point
Q and Car D are in line vertically. Car D moves 4 m
a) 5 34 m towards north-west in the north direction and stops at point R. Car A
b) 50 m towards south-east moves in the direction to point R.
c) 10 17 m towards north-east 55. Car A at which of the following point after moving
d) 5 m towards south-east from its starting position ?
e) None of these
a) point R b) point P
53. Which car will be met first, if ‘M’ moves through
c) Between point P and Car F
the shortest distance from point ‘Y’?
d) Can’t be deteremined
a) E b) F c) C e) point D
d) D e) None of these 56. What is the shortest distance between Car D’s
54. What is the position of car ‘A’ with respect to new position and Car F’s position ?
car ‘E’?
a) 41 m b) 52 m c) 12 m
a) 75 m towards right
d) 21 m e) None of these
b) to the immediate right
57. What is the distance between Car G’s new
c) 36 m towards left position and Car D’s old position ?
d) 69 m towards left
e) None of these a) 41 m b) 21 m
Direction (55– 57): Study the following information c) 6 3 + 5m d) 5 3 m
carefully and answer the questions that follow. e) None of these
There are five cars – A, B, C, D, F – parked in a row Directions (58 -60): Study the information carefully
facing north direction, but not necessarily in the same answer the questions given below.
order. The distances between two adjacent Car are
@ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 8
successive multiples of three (i.e. if the distance
between the 1st and the 2nd Car is 3 m, 1st and the # means either hour hand or minute hand is at 5
3rd Car is 6m and between 1st and 4th Car is 9 m and $ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 4
so on.) % means either hour hand or minute hand is at 12
& means either hour hand or minute hand is at 2
(i.e. suppose Car A is left end of the line at point R
then the remaining people will stands at a distance £ mean either hour hand or minute hand is at 3
as follows – 3m, 6m, 9m ……………….. from the Note : If two symbols are given than by default first
end) symbol is consider as hour hand and second one is
consider as minute hand. And all time are consider
Car A is standing at the left end of the line. Two cars at PM.
are standing between Car A and Car B. Car C stand
second to the left of Car B. Car F is an immediate For eg. @#  8 : 25 pm
neighbor of Car C. only one Car stands between
Car F and Car D. Car G which starts moving from

7
 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE
58. If A takes 25 min to reach railway station and P#$Q – Q or P is in the northeast direction of P or Q.
his train is scheduled at #& then at what time P#&Q – Q or P is in the northwest direction of P or
should he leave to reach the station 5 minute Q.
earlier ?
61. If S#&T#U$V are related to each other such that
a) $% b) $& c) &$ V and S are inline horizontally and VU > VS then
d) $@ e) £$ what is the possible shortes distance between
59. If a train departed from a station at &£ and it V and T ?
takes 2 hours to reach the destination then when a) 89 m b) 71 m c) 61 m
it will reach to the destination?
d) 62 m e) None of these
a) $£ b) $% c) #$
62. If M#$N#T&Z@W are related to each other such
d) $# e) £$
that M is on the line of ZT and T is in south of N
60. A person has to catch a train that is scheduled then N is in which direction with respect to W ?
to depart at ‘@%’. It takes the person 4 hours
a) West b) South-west
and 15 minutes to reach the railway station from
c) North-east d) Can’t be determined
his home. At what time should he leave from
e) None of these
his home for the railway station to arrive at the
station at least 25 minutes before the departure 63. If M#$N#T&Z@W are related to each other such
of the train ? that M is on the line ZT and T is in south of N
then What is the distance between W and T?
a) %@ b) £$ c) % +
d) +@ e) None of these a) 12 m b) 11 m c) 65 m

Directions (61 – 65): In the following questions, the d) 62 m e) None of these

symbosl #, &, @ and $ are used with the following
64. If G$H#I@$j are related to each other such that
meanings as illustrated below. Study the following
J is inline either with H or G vertically then what
information and answer the given questions.
is the distance between K and J when K is the
Note : The directions which are given indicates exact midpoint of GH ?
directions. a) 10 m b) 61 c) 65 m

P@Q – Q or P is in the south direction of P or Q at d) 71 m e) Can’t be determined

distance of 4m.
65. If G$H#I@$J are related to each other such that
P#Q – Q or P is in the north direction of P or Q at J is inline either with H or G vertically then what
distance of 5m is the area of the triangle which is formed by G,
P$Q – Q or P is in the east direction of P or Q at H and I ?
distance of 8 m a) 20m2 b) 40m2 c) 64m2
P&Q – Q or Pis in the west direction of P or Q at d) 24m2 e) Can’t be determined
distance of 7 m. Direction (66– 70): In the following questions, the
P@$Q – Q or P is in the southeast direction of P or symbols #, &, @ and $ are used with the following
Q. meanings as illustrated below. Study the following
P@&Q – Q or P is in the southwest direction of P or information and answer the given questions.
Q.

8
 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE
Note : The direction which are given indicates exact vertically when MT > SK then what is the
directions. distance between S and Z when KZ = 12 m?
a) 24 m b) 18 m c) 15 m
P#Q – Q is in the south direction of P.
d) Either a) or b) e) N.O.T
P@Q – Q is in the north direction of P.
70. K#&T$M#&S&K&Z are related to each other
P&Q – Q is in the east direction of P at distance of
such that K is in north of M. M and K are in line
either 12m or 6 m
vertically when MT>SK then what is the sum of
P$Q – Q is in the west direction of P at distance of SK and MT ?
either 15 m or 3 m.
a) 27 m b) 21 m c) 15 m
P#&Q – Q or P is in the southeast direction of P or d) Either a) or b) e) Either b) or c)
Q.
Direction (71 - 72): Each of the questions below
P@&Q – P or Q is in the northeast direction of P or consists of a question and two statements numbered
Q. I and II given below it. You have to decide whether
66. If A&B#&C$D&E@F are related to each other the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
such that F is placed exactly between A and B answer the question. Read both the statements and
on line AB. Similarly D and A are vertically inline give answer:
then what is the possible shortest distance
between F and B when DE (length of segment a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
DE) < DC/2 and EC < 10 m ? answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
a) 12m b) 5 m c) 4 m
b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
d) 6 m e) None of these
answer the question, while the data in statement
67. If A&B#&C$D&E@F are realted to each other
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question;
such that D, A are inline, DE = 6 m and a
perpendicular drawn from E on AB divides AB c) If the data either in statement I alone or in
in two equal parts and D@&B then what si the statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
probable direction of A with respect to F ? quesiton;

a) North-Weast b) West d) If the data given in both statements I and II

c) South-West together are not sufficient to answer the
d) East e) Can’t be determined question;

68. K#&T$M#&S&K&Z are related to each other e) If the data in both statement I and II together are
such that K is in north of M then what is the necessary to answer the question.
probable direction of Z with respect to M ?
71. Which village is to the North-east of village A ?
a) North-east b) West
c) South-West I. Village B is to the North of village A, village C
and D are to the East and West of village B
d) East e) Can’t be determined
respectively.
69. K#&T$M#&S&K&Z are related to each other
such that K is in north of M. M and K are inline

9
 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE
II. Village P is to the South of village A and village (b) East
E is to the east of village P, village K is to the (c) SouthWest
North of village P. (d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
72. In which direction is Q from of P. Direction (77-81): Study the following data
Statements: carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
M * N (30) - M is 13m to the east of N.
I. Q is towards north of O, which is towards the M % N (44) - M is 27m to the west of N.
east of P. M @ N (37) - M is 20m to the north of N.
M # N (40) - M is 23m to the south of N.
II. R is towards east of M and P is towards the C % D (23), F # D (28), E % F (32), G * E (27), H %
west of T. G (39), P # H (42)
Directions (73-76): Study the information and 77. C is in which direction with respect to H?
answer the questons: (a) North (b) South-East
N!O (10)- N is 13 m in north of O (c) North-East (d) North-West
N@O (15)- N is 18 m in south of O (e) South-West
N#O (8)- N is 11 m in east of O 78. E is in which direction with respect to C and
N$O (12)- N is 15 m in west of O what is the shortest distance between them?
M#L (17), B$C (9), C@M(11), R!B(6), L$X(5), (a) South-East, Root 117
Q#R(16) (b)South-West, Root 202
73. What is the shortest distance of point Q and (c) North-East, Root 176
C? (d) North-West, Root 227
(a) 1 m (b) 5 m (c) 12 m (e) None of these
(d) 13 m (e) None of these 79. G is in which direction with respect to F?
74. What is the direction of point B with respect to (a) East (b) West
point X? (c) North (d) South
(a) East (b) NorthEast (c) South (e) None of these
(d) NorthWest (e) None of these 80. According to the given code language, what is
75. If T!Q(2) then what is the shortest distance the distance between H and F?
between L and T? (a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 10
(a) 30 m (b) 29 m (c) 25 m (d) 16 (e) None of these
(d) 27 m (e) None of these 81. H is in which direction with respect to D
76. If point Z is 8 m south of point L then what is the (a) West (b) South-East
direction of point Z with respect to point R? (c) South-West (d) North-East
(a) North (e) North-West

10
 TEST OF DIRECTIONS AND DISTANCE

ANSWERS
1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (d) 20 (b)
21 (d) 22 (c) 23 (e) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (c) 28 (a) 29 (e) 30 (e)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (a) 37 (a) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (a)
41 (e) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (a) (b) 45 (c) 46 (d) 47 (c) 48 (c) 49 (a) 50 (b)
51 (e) 52 (a) 53 (d) 54 (d) 55 (d) 56 (b) 57 (c) 58 (d) 59 (a) 60 (b)
61 (a) 62 (c) 63 (c) 64 (e) 65 (a) 66 (d) 67 (e) 68 (a) 69 (d) 70 (d)
71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (e) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (c)

81. (c)

11
 02
CHAPTER
Tabular Form
1. Four friends Amish, Vikalp, Tejas and Dhruv are (ii) The person having white shoes does not
Engineer, Doctor, Professor and Manager, but have white socks.
not in the same order. (iii) Prem does not have white shoes or blue
Amish and Vikalp is not an Engineer. Tejas is socks.
neither an Engineer nor a Professor. Vikalp is (iv) Naresh does not have white shoes.
not a Manager. Tejas is not a Doctor. Vikalp is
(v) The person having blue socks does not
not a doctor
have black or red shoes.
(i) Who is Doctor? (vi) Madan neither has white or red shoes or
(ii) What is the profession of Vikalp? blue or yellow socks.
Directions (02-03) : Refer the case-let below. 4. [B] Six teachers A, B, C, D, E, and F are
present in a school. Each of them teaches
There are teams of 3 and 4 to be chosen from a
two subjects one compulsory and other
group of seven (M, N, O, P, Q, R and S) such that
optional. D’s optional subject is History
(A) No member is in both teams while three others have it as there
(B) If M is one team, N will be in other compulsory subject.
(i) E and F have Physics as one of their
(C) M and Q are in same team.
subject. F’s compulsory subject is
(D) Q and S are in opposite teams. Mathematics which is an optional subject
(E) R will always be present in the group of 4. of both C and E.
2. If M is in one team, who can’t be in the same (ii) History and English are A’s subject but in
team? terms of compulsory and optional subject,
(a) Q (b) S they are just reverse of those of D’s.

(c) R (d) O (iii) Chemistry is an optional subject of only

one of them.
(e) None of these
(iv) The only lady teacher in the school has
3. If M and P are in the group of 4, then which of English as her compulsory subject.
the following will be in the group of three?
Direction (05-09) : Read the information carefully
(a) R (b) R & Q and answers the questions given below.
(c) Q (d) S A, B, C, D, E, G, and I are seven friends who
(e) None of these study in three different standards, namely 5 th, 6th
and 7th, such that not less than two friends study in
4. [A] Four friends Madan, Naresh, Om, and
the same standard. Each friend has a different
Prem have brown, black, white and red
favourite subject, namely History, Civics, English,
shoes and blue, yellow, white and green
Marathi, Hindi, Maths and Economics also but not
socks.
in the same order.
(i) Om neither has black or brown shoes nor
A likes Maths and studies in the 5 th std. with
blue or yellow socks.
only one other friend who likes Marathi. I studies

12
with two other friends. Both the friends who study and green colours. Nobody wore shirt and trousersof
with I like languages [Here languages refers to same color.
HINDI, ENGLISH AND MARATHI ONLY]. D
D wore blue shirt and C wore green trousers.
studies in the 6th standard with only one person and
does not like Civics. E studies with only one friend. The one who wore green shirt, wore black
The one who likes History does not study in the 5th trousers and the one who wore blue trouser,
or 6th standard. E does not like languages. C does wore red shirt.
not like English, Hindi or Civics. A wore white trousers and pink shirt.
5. Which combination represents E’s favourite E did not wear red shirt.
subject and the standard in which he studies?
10. Which colour shirt did C wear?
(a) Civics and 7th (b) Economics and 5th
(a) Yellow (b) Blue
(c) Civics and 6th (d) History and 7th
(e) Economics and 7th (c) Green (d) Pink

6. Which of the following is I’s favourite subject? (e) Data Inadequate

(a) History 11. Which colour trousers did B wear?

(b) Civics (a) Grey (b) Blue
(c) Marathi (c) White (d) Black (e) Green
(d) Either English or Marathi 12. Who wore white tousers?
(e) Either English or Hindi (a) E (b) B
7. Who among the following studies in 7 th (c) C (d) A
standard?
(e) Data Inadequate
(a) G (b) C
13. Who wore black trousers?
(c) E (d) D
(e) Either D or B (a) C (b) E

8. Which of the following combinations is definitely (c) B (d) D

correct? (e) A
(a) I and Hindi (b) G and English Directions (14-18): Study the following information
(c) C and Marathi (d) B and Hindi carefully to answer the given questions :
(e) E and Economics Madan and Rohit are in the same team of
9. Which of the following subjects does G like? hockey. Parth defeated Rohit in badminton but lost
to Sachin in tennis. Nitin teams with Sagar in football
(a) Either Maths or Marathi
and with Sachin in hockey. Rohit defeated Sachin in
(b) Either Hindi or English chess. Those who play cr icket do not play
(c) Either Hindi or Civics badminton, volleyball or tennis. Madan and Parth
are in opposite teams of basketball. Nitin represents
(d) Either Hindi or Marathi
his state in cricket while Sagar does so at the district
(e) Either Civics or Economics level. Boys who play chess do not play football,
Directions (10-13) : Five friends A, B, C, D basketball or volleyball. Madan and Parth are
and E wore shirts of green, yellow, pink, red, and together in the volleyball team. Boys who play football
blue colours and trousers of black, white, grey, blue also play hockey.

13
14. Name the boys who do not play football. (vi) P is an executive but not from Marketing and is
(a) Sachin, Nitin (b) Rohit, Sagar flying to one of the destinations but not to
Bangalore or Kolkata.
(c) Rohit, Sachin (d) Rohit, Nitin
19. The one who is going to fly to Chennai is?
(e) None of these
(a) Not an executive (b) from Administration
15. Who plays both hockey and tennis?
(c) S (d) from Finance
(a) Sachin (b) Rohit
(e) None of these
(c) Nitin (d) Parth
20. Who among the following specializes in
(e) None of these Marketing?
16. Which is the most popular game with this group? (a) S (b) P
(a) Cricket (b) Hockey (c) U (d) Data Inadequate
(c) Football (d) Badminton (e) None of these
(e) None of these 21. R has specialization in which of the following
17. Who plays the largest number of games? fields?
(a) Sagar (b) Rohit (a) Finance
(c) Parth (d) Nitin (b) Marketing
(e) None of these (c) Either Marketing or Finance
18. Which boy plays both badminton and hockey? (d) Administration
(a) Sachin (b) Rohit (e) None of these
(c) Nitin (d) Parth 22. Who is going to fly to Bangalore?
(e) None of these (a) Data Inadequate (b) R
Directions (19-22) : Read the following (c) S (d) P
information and answer the questions given below : (e) None of these
(i) Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and W have Directions (23-27) : Study the following information
gathered at the Mumbai Airport. Five of them carefully and answer the questions given below :
are scheduled to go to five different places
(i) Five friends Pawan, Qureshi, Rajan, Sultan and
Delhi, Chennai, Lucknow, Bangalore, and
Tango ar e Musician, Architect, Doctor,
Kolkata.
Engineer and Artist by profession and like
(ii) Five of them are executives, each specializing White, Blue, Red, Yellow and Green colour but
in viz. Administration, Human Resource not necessarily in that order.
Management, Marketing, System Management
(ii) Their hobbies are Net Surfing, Gardening,
and Finance.
Reading, Painting and Dancing but not
(iii) T, an executive, is going to Chennai and is necessarily in the same order.
neither from Finance nor Marketing.
(iii) The person whose hobby is dancing preferred
(iv) W is a system specialist and is leaving for Delhi, lemonade to cola while others preferred cola.
U is an executive but is not going to any of the
(iv) The four friends who took cola were Pawan,
five places.
the one who is an Engineer, the person whose
(v) Q is an executive from HRM but has come at favourite colour is Green and the one whose
the airport to see his friends. hobby is net surfing.

14
(v) Sultan did not take lemonade and his favourite (c) Qureshi-Engineer-Blue-Reading-Cola
colour is White.
(d) Pawan-Doctor-Red-Painting-Cola
(vi) Qureshi‘s favourite colour is Blue. He did not
(e) None of these
like lemonade.
(vii) Tango‘s hobby is not painting, reading or Direction [28-30] Read the information carefully
gardening. and answers the questions given below.

(viii) Sultan clicks a picture of his friend who is an (i) There is a group of five persons A,B, C, D, and
Engineer. E.
(ix) The person whose favourite colour is Red likes (ii) One of them is a Horticulturist, one is Physicist,
painting and the person who is artist likes one is Journalist, one is an Industrialist and one
gardening. is Advocate.
(x) Sultan is not a doctor. The person who is a (iii) Three of them, A, C and Advocate prefer tea to
doctor takes cola. The person who is an coffee and two of them-B and the Journalist
Engineer likes Blue colour. prefer coffee to tea.
(xi) The musician‘s favourite colour is not Yellow. (iv) The Industrialist, D and A are friends of one
Rajan‘s favourite colour is Green. another but two of them prefer coffee to tea.
23. Who among the following is a Doctor? (v) The Horticulturist is C’s brother.
(a) Rajan (b) Pawan 28. Who is an Industrialist?
(c) Sultan (d) Can‘t say
(a) A (b) B
(e) None of these
(c) C (d) D
24. Qureshi‘s hobby is?
(e) None of these
(a) Reading (b) Painting
29. Which of the following groups include a person
(c) Gardening (d) Can‘t say
who likes tea but is not an Advocate?
(e) None of these
(a) ACE (b) BCE
25. The person who likes Blue colour is a/an?
(c) DE (d) BD
(a) Architect (b) Musician
(e) None of these
(c) Engineer (d) Can‘t say
30. Who is the person who likes coffee but not the
(e) None of these
Journalist?
26. Whose favourite colour is Yellow?
(a) A (b) B
(a) Tango
(c) C (d) D
(b) Rajan
(e) E
(c) The one who is an artist
(d) Can‘t say Direction (31-36) : Read the information carefully
and answers the questions given below.
(e) None of these
6 professors A, B, C, D, E, and F teach at 6
27. Which of the following combinations is not
different institutions-XLRI, MDI, FMS, IIM-A, IIM-B,
correctly matched?
IIM-L not necessarily in the same order. They teach
(a) Tango-Architect-Yellow-Dancing-Cola 6 different subjects, HRM, Business Strategy,
(b) Rajan-Artist-Green-Gardening-Cola Accounts, Financial Management, Marketing and

15
Taxation. They are graduated from 6 different 36. Who has graduated from Sloan and in which
Business-Schools- Wharton, Harvard, Stanford, subject?
Sloan, Kellogg and AIM. (a) A-Marketing (b) C-Accounts
Following additional information is given : (c) E-Harvard (d) None of these
(i) None of the IIM professors are from Stanford or (e) Can't be determined
Harvard.
Direct ion (37- 41) : Read the following
(ii) One, who teaches Accounts, has graduated information and answer the questions that follow:
from Wharton.
(1) There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and
(iii) B and C teach Business Strategy and HRM G based in Delhi. Each of them is from a
respectively. different state, has a different profession, and
(iv) D and E teach at XLRI and FMS respectively, plays a different instrument.
but do not teach Accounts. (2) C, a doctor, is from Bihar.
(v) Kellogg and Stanford are known for Business (3) E and F play mandolin and violin, though not
Strategies and Financial Management necessarily in that order.
respectively. (4) A is not from Kerala.
(vi) Marketing is taught by D. (5) The person from Kerala is an engineer and
(vii) Taxation is taught at MDI. plays guitar.
31. If the professor at IIM-A teaches Accounts, then (6) The lawyer plays sitar.
F could be a Graduate from? (7) The businessman from UP plays violin.
(a) Sloan (b) Kellogg (8) The teacher and the cricketer play flute and
(c) Wharton (d) Stanford piano, though not necessarily in that order.
(e) None of these (9) F is a pilot.
32. Financial Management is taught at? (10) The Maharashtrian is a teacher.
(a) XLRI (b) FMS (11) The Gujarati plays piano.
(c) MDI (d) IIM-A (12) G, a Punjabi, does not play sarod.
(e) None of these (13) B is a cricketer.
33. B can teach at? 37. Which state does A belong to?
(a) IIM-B (b) MDI (a) Gujarat (b) Kerala
(c) IIM-A (d) a or c (c) Maharashtra (d) Can’t say
(e) None of these (e) None of these
34. E has graduated from? 38. Which instrument does B play?
(a) Stanford (b) Harvard (a) flute (b) piano
(c) Wharton (d) AIM (c) sarod (d) Can’t say
(e) None of these (e) sitar
35. Accounts faculty has graduated from? 39. Which instrument does C play?
(a) Wharton (b) Harvard (a) mandolin (b) sitar
(c) Sloan (d) Kellogg (c) violin (d) None of these
(e) None of these (e) sarod

16
40. What is D’s profession? One of the persons coming from same state is
PG and unmarried while the other one is
(a) Engineer (b) Lawyer
married.
(c) Teacher (d) Can’t say
Among married persons two are 1 st class
(e) Cricketer graduate and one is PG. B is a first class
41. Which state does E belong to? student. One of the persons coming from same
state works in Accounts while the other one
(a) Gujarat (b) Kerala works in Public Relation. E is married and
(c) UP (d) Can’t say works in Public Relation.
Directions (44-50): Study the following information
(e) None of these
carefully and answer the question given below.
Direction (42-43) : Read the following case-
W, X, Y, Z, M, N and O belong to three different
lets carefully and attempt to draw the rational table.
department R & D, Marketing and HR with at least 2
42. Of the six sportsmen ABCDEF three are of them in any of these department. Each of them
Commerce graduate, two are Science graduates has a favourite colour such viz. Green, Blue, Red,
and one is Arts graduate. All the six play the Pink, Black, Violet and Purple but not necessarily in
games of Cricket, Hockey and Football. Two the same order. X works in department Marketing
persons come from Kolkata, two from Mumbai, with M. M’s favourite Colour is Purple. Those who
one from Delhi and one from Chennai. work in department R & D do not like Green and
Pink. The one who likes Blue works only with O in
 The Arts graduate from Mumbai plays only
department HR. The one whose favourite Colour is
Cricket whereas other Mumbai player plays
Black does not work in the same department with
Cricket, Hockey and Football.
either M or O. W does not work in department
 One player from Delhi and one from Kolkata Marketing. W likes Violet. Z and N work in the same
are both Commerce graduates. The former department. N does not like Red. The one whose
plays Hockey and Football only, whereas the favourite Colour is Pink does not work in department
latter plays Cricket and Hockey only. Marketing.
 The player from Chennai is a Science graduate 44. In which department W, Z and N work ?
and play only Cricket. a) Cannot be determined b) R & D
 A is an Arts graduate, B plays only Football, C c) Marketing d) HR
belongs to Mumbai and D is a Commerce e) None of these
graduate. E plays Cricket and Hockey only and
45. Whose favourite Colour is Green ?
F plays only Cricket.
a) X b) W c) Y
43. A, B, C, D, and E are working in an organisation.
d) Z e) None of these
One of them works in Accounts, one in Public
Relation, two in Personal and one in Legal 46. Which of the following is M’s favourite Colour ?
sections. Two persons are 1 st class post- a) Violet b) Pink c) Purple
graduate, two are 1st class graduates and one d) Black e) None of these
is 2nd class graduate.
47. Which of the following combination is right ?
Three persons come from three different states a) W – HR : Blue b) O – R & D : Black
while two belongs to the same one. Only three
c) N – HR : Pink d) Z – R & D : Red
persons are married. B and C work in same
e) None of these
section. A is PG and work in legal section.

17
48. Y works in which department ? 55. Who is the Doctor ?
a) R & D b) Marketing c) HR a) D b) B c) C
d) Cannot be determined d) B or C e) None of these
e) None of these Directions (56– 60): Study the following information
49. Whose favourite colour is Pink ? to answer the given questions:
a) X b) W c) O Seven persons namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V not in the
same order in a organization working as AM
d) Z e) None of these
(Assistant Manager), MG(Manager), DGM (Deputy
50. In which department M works ? General Manager), GM (General Manager), CGM
a) Cannot be determined b) R & D (Chief General Manager), ED (Executive Director),
c) Marketing d) HR CEO (Chief Executive Officer). And likes different
e) None of these cities namely Mumbai, Jaipur, Ranchi, Chandigarh,
Directions (51 – 55): Seven professionals A, B, C, Agra, Patna, Bhopal not in same order.
D, E, F and G are practicing their professions in NOTE: position has been increasing order of their
different cities Chennai, Banglore, Hyderabad, experience. CEO is most experienced person and
Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and Bhuvaneshwar not Assistant manager least experienced.
necessarily in the same order. Each has a different  R is junior to only two persons. S does not like
profession Doctor, Engineer, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Ranchi.
Counsellor, Professor and Artist not necessarily in
 Person who likes Chandigarh is junior to T but
the same order. A is a Pharmacist and practices in
not a least junior.
BHuvaneshwar. D practices in Banglore but is not
a Doctor or an Artist. The one who practices in  Person who likes Patna is senior to ED.
Hyderabad is a Professor. G is a counselor and  Person who likes Ranchi senior to U but junior
does not practices in Mumbai or Chennai. E is a to T.
Lawyer and practices in Ahmedabad. F practices in  T is junior to CGM but senior to V.
Chennai but is not an artist. C practices in Mumbai.
 U junior to V and likes Agra.
51. What is D’ sprofession ?  Q is senior to T but not a most senior.
a) Doctor b) Professor c) Engineer  CGM does not like Bhopal.
d) Cannot be determined  V is junior to P but not to S.
e) None of these  CGM is senior to one who likes Jaipur
52. Who is professor ? 56. Which of the following post is preferred by T ?
a) B b) C c) D a) CEO b) GM c) AM
d) E e) None of these d) ED e) DGM
53. Which of the following combinations of profession 57. How many person sit between R and CEO ?
and place is correct ?
a) Three b) Five c) Two
a) Pharmacist – Jaipur b) Engineer –
d) One e) None of these
Chennai
58. If Q related to GM in the same way as T related
c) Doctor – Banglore d) Artist – Mumbai
to MGR. Which of the following is P related to,
e) None of these
following the same pattern ?
54. Which of the following persons work in Jaipur ?
a) CGM b) DGM c) AM
a) B b) G c) C
d) CEO e) None of these
d) B or G e) None of these

18
59. ED is going which of the following city ? a) Mark b) Simon
a) Mumbai b) Agrac) Ranchi c) Albert d) Can’t be determined
d) Bhopal e) Patna e) None of these
60. Four of the following five are alike in a certain 65. Who among the following works on floor II ?
way and hence they form a group. Which one a) Simon b) Starc
of the following does not belong to that group? c) Mark d) Joe
a) CEO b) CGM c) DGM e) None of these
d) ED e) AM Dirctions (66– 70): Study the following information
Directions (61 – 65): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
carefully and answer the questions given below: P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members
Mark, John, Starc, Albert, Mickle, Simon and Joe of a club. Each of them has a favourite sport from –
are employees of different company. Each of them Chess, Table Tennis, Lawn Tennis, Volley ball,
works on different floors numbered from I to VII, but Badminton, Basketball and Carrom, not necessarily
not necessarily in the same order. Each of them in the same order. Each of them also has a specific
like different serial, viz Diya aur Bati, Ye hain choice of colour from – Blue, Red, Green, Yellow,
mohabatein, Parvarish, Naagin, Siya ke ram, Tere Grey, Black and White, note necessarily in the same
liye and Sasural simar ka but not necessarily in the order. R likes Green and his favourite sport is
same order. Badminton. V’s choice of colour is neither Red nor
Black. T’s favourite sport is neither Table Tennis
John works on floor IV but he does not like Siya nor Basketball. The one who likes Blue does not
ke ram and Naagin. Starc like Diya aur Bati but he like Carrom. The one who likes Volleyball does not
does not work on floor II and VI. Mickle works on like Yellow and Grey. Q’s favourite sport is Lawn
floor V and he like Tere liye. The one who likes Ye Tennis and he likes Black. S likes White. W likes
hain mohabatein works on floor VII. Albert works on Basketball. P likes Volleyball. T likes Blue. The one
floor I. Joe like Sasural simar ka. Mark does not who likes Basketball does not like Grey.
work on floor VII. The one who likes Naagin works
66. What is V’s coice of colour ?
on floor II.
a) Black b) Grey c) Yellow
61. Joe works on which of the following Floors ?
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
a) II b) III c) VI
67. What is T’s favourite sport ?
d) VII e) None of these
a) Basketball b) Volleyball c) Chess
62. Mark likes which of the following serial ?
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
a) Naagin b) Diya aur Bati
68. whose favourite sport is Carrom ?
c) Siya ke ram
a) S b) R c) W
d) Parvarish e) None of these
63. Which of the following combinations is/are true? d) Data inadequate e) None of these
a) Simon – Parvarish – VII 69. Whose favourite sport is basketball ?
b) Albert – Siya ke ram – I a) S b) T c) W
c) Mark – ye hain mohabatein – I d) R e) Data inadequate
d) Both a) and c) 70. What is W’s choice of colour ?
e) None of these a) Green b) White c) Black
64. Who among the following likes “Ye hain d) Data inadequate e) None of these
mohabatein” serial ?

19
Directions (71 – 75): Study the following information Directions (76– 80): Study the following information
carefully and answer the question given below: carefully and answer the questions given below:
i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven persons wearing B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train
a different colour shirt – white, red, black, green, compartment with III tier sleeper berth. Each of them
yellow, blue and violet and a different colour has a different profession of Engineer, doctor,
trousers – blue, red, white, black, cream, yellow Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist and
and indigo. The persons, colour of the shirt and Pathologist. They occupied two lower berths, three
colour of the trousers above are not necessarily middle berths and two upper berths. B, the Engineer
in the same order. No person is wearing shirt is not on the upper berth. The architect is the only
and trousers of the same colour. other person who occupies the same type of berth
ii) B is wearing red colour shirt and is not wearing as that of B. M and H are not on the middle berth
cream or yellow colour trousers. D is wearing and their professions are Pathologist and Lawyer
green colour shirt and indigo colour trousers. respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is neither a
Colour of A’s shirt and F’s trousers is same. journalist nor an Architet. K occupies same type of
Colour of E’s shirt and C’s trousers is same. G is berth as that of the Doctor.
wearing blue shirt and E is wearing blue trousers. 76. What is D’s profession ?
F is not wearing any yellow dress. A is not
a) Doctor b) Engineer c) Lawyer
wearing a white shirt. Red and blue is not the
combination of shirt and trousers of any of the d) Pharmacist e) None of these
persons. 77. Which of the following group occupies middle
71. Who wears violet colour shirt ? berth ?
a) DKR b) DHT c) HKT
a) C b) F c) C or F
d) DKT e) None of these
d) Data inadequate
78. Which of following combination of person-berth-
e) None of these
profession is correct ?
72. What is the colour of B’s trousers ?
a) R – Lower – Journalist
a) white b) Blue c) Red b) R – Lower – Architect
d) Data inadequate c) D – Upper – Doctor
e) None of these d) K – Upper – Lawyer
73. What is the colour of A’s trousers ? e) None of these
a) Cream b) Blue c) White 79. Which of the following pairs occupy the lower
d) Data inadequate berth ?

e) None of these a) BD b) BK c) BT
d) BR e) None of these
74. What is the colour of F’s shirt ?
80. Who is the Architect ?
a) Green b) Blue c) Violet
a) D b) H c) R
d) Data inadequate
d) Data inadequate e) None of these
e) None of these
Directions (81– 85): Study the following information
75. What is the colour of G’s trousers ?
carefully to answer the given questions.
a) Indigo b) White c) Cream
Eight person P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are working
d) Red e) None of these in a company. Three of them works in Accounts and
IT each and two of them in Administration. Each of

20
them has a different salary package. The highest 83. Who among the following pairs work in
salaried person does not work in administration and administration ?
the lowest salaried person does not work in accounts. a) T, S b) P, S c) T, P
U has higher salary package than P and S, but less
d) U, S e) Can’t be determined
than W and Q. T, who does not work in accounts
84. Who among the following groups of persons
has higher salary package than Q and he has second
work in accounts ?
highest salary package. V has lesser salary than S
but higher than P. W, who is fourth from the top in a) R, P, H b) R, Q, V c) U, Q, V
salary package, work in IT department along with S. d) R, U, Q e) None of these
V does not work in accounts or administration. Q 85. In which of the following department does V
does not work in administration. works ?
81. Who has highest salary package ? a) Accounts b) IT
a) W b) R c) Q c) Administration
d) T e) None of these d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
82. Who among the following has lesser salary
package than S ?
a) V b) U c) T
d) Q e) None of these

1( ) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4( ) 5 (c) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (a)

11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (e) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (e) 30 (b)
31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (a) 35 (a) 36 (d) 37 (c) 38 (b) 39 (e) 40 (a)
41 (c) 42 ( ) 43 ( ) 44 (b) (b 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (c) 49 (c) 50 (c)
51 (c) 52 (a) 53 (d) 54 (b) 55 (e) 56 (b) 57 (d) 58 (a) 59 (d) 60 (d)
61 (c) 62 (a) 63 (b) 64 (b) 65 (c) 66 (b) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (c) 70 (e)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (e) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (d) 85 (b)

21
 03
CHAPTER
Blood Relation
1. A and B are both the children of C. If C is the 7. A is D’s brother is B’s father. B and C are sisters.
mother of A and A is the son of C but B is not How is C related to A?
the daughter of C then how A and B are mutually (a) Cousin (b) Niece
related?
(c) Aunt (d) Nephew
(a) Sister (b) Brother
(e) None of these
(c) Wife (d) Son
8. If X is the brother of the son of Y’s son., then
(e) None of these how is X related to Y?
2. C is brother of A. B is the daughter of A. E is (a) Son (b) Brother
the sister of C. D is the brother of B. Who is the
(c) Nephew (d) Grandson
uncle of D?
(e) None of these
(a) A (b) B
9. A and B form a married couple. X and Y are the
(c) C (d) E
brothers. X is the brother of A. How is Y related
(e) None to B?
3. K is brother of N and X. Y is the mother of N (a) Brother (b) Cousin
and Z is the father of K. Which of the following
(c) Son-in-law (d) Brother-in-law
statement is not true?
(e) None of these
(a) K is the son of Z (b) Y is the wife of Z
10. P is the brother of Q and R. S is R’s mother. T
(c) K is the son of Y (d) K is the father of X
is P’s father. Which of the following statements
(e) N is the brother of X can’t be definitely true?
4. (a) R is spouse of K (b) T is mother of M (a) Q is T’s son (b) T is Q’s father
(c) S is the sister of R (d) K is the son of T (c) S is P’s mother (d) P is S’s son
(e) L is the father of M (e) T is S’s husband
(i) How is R related to L? 11. The son of M is the father of N and grandfather
(ii) For answer of Question (i) which statement (Mother’s father) of R. S is the daughter of N
is superfluous? and sister of B. On the basis of this information,
5. (a) A is brother of B (b) Q is mother of Z how is M related to B?

(c) B is son of T (d) (a) Grandfather (b) Grandmother

(i) How is T related to C? (c) Data Inadequate (d)

(ii) Which is sufficient? (e) Grandmother’s father

6. How is Pratibha related to Suresh? 12. A is the brother of B, C is the brother of A. To

establish a relationship between B and C, which
(i) Suresh’s Mother is Pratibha’s Mother-in- of the following information is required?
law
(I) Sex of C (II) Sex of B
(ii) Suresh is the only son of Sushila, who is
Pratibha’s Mother-in-law. (a) Only I is required

22
 (b) Only II is required (b) Grandmother
(c) Both are required (c) Sister of Father-in-law
(d) Neither I nor II is required (d) Mother-in-law (e) Maternal-aunt
(e) None of these 19. Neelima, who is Rohan’s daughter, says to
13. Pointing towards a girl in the picture, Sunita said, Bindu, “Your mother Reena is the younger sister
“She is the mother of Renu whose father is my of my father, who is the third child of Mohan Lal
son.” How Sunita is related to that girl in the Ji.”.
picture? How is Mohan Lal Ji related to Bindu?
(a) Mother (b) Aunt (a) Maternal-uncle (b) Father
(c) Cousin (d) Data inadequate (c) Grandfather (d) Father-in-law
(e) None of the above (e) None of these
14. A man said to a woman, “Your only brother’s 20. A woman introduces a man as the son of the
son is my wife’s brother.” How is the woman brother of her mother. How is the man related
related to the man’s wife? to the woman?
(a) Aunt (b) Sister (a) Nephew (b) Son
(c) Mother (d) Brother (c) Cousin (d) Uncle
(e) None of these (e) Grandson
15. Amit said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson 21. Poornima said to her friend, “Yesterday, I
of my mother”. How is Amit related to the girl? attended the birthday party of the son of the
(a) Father (b) Father-in-law only son-in-law of my mother’s mother.”
(c) (d) Data Inadequate How is Poornima related to the man, whose
birthday party she attended?
(e) None of these
(a) Niece (b) Daughter
16. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, a boy said
‘Her mother’s brother’s wife is sister-in-law of (c) Sister (d) Mother
my father’s daughter’s mother.’’ How is the girl (e) None of these
related to the boy? Direction (22-24) :
(a) Mother (b) Daughter If POQ — Q is the son of P
(c) Aunt (d) Sister P Q — P is the mother of Q
(e) Sister-in-law P Q — Q is the daughter of P
17. Pointing to a woman in a photograph a man P Q — P is the father of Q
says, “This woman is the mother-in-law of the
22. K O TR
only daughter of my mother-in-law.” How is the
man related to the woman? How is K related to R ?
(a) Son (b) Husband 23. S Z O F
(c) Brother (d) Father-in-law How is F related to S ?
(e) None of these 24. R L Z
18. Pointing to a lady, a man said, “The son of her How is Z’s spouse related to L?
only brother is the brother of my wife.” How is 25. If A + B — A is father of B
the lady related to the man? A * B — A is mother of B
(a) Mother’s Sister A @ B — A is brother of B

23
 Which of the following equation show that K is (e) P is the niece of Q
Z's maternal uncle? 30. If P |\| R \/ Q, which of the following is true?
(a) Z @ R * K (b) K @ R + Z (a) P is the uncle of Q
(c) T * K * R @ Z (d) T + K @ R * S @ Z (b) P is the father of Q
(e) T + K @ R +S * Z (c) P is the brother of Q
26. A + B means A is the son of B, A – B means A (d) P is the son of Q
is the wife of B, A * B means A is the brother of
(e) None of these
B, A % B means A is the mother of B, A = B
means A is the sister of B. Which of the following 31. If P |\| R – Q, which of the following is true?
represents P is the maternal-uncle of Q? (a) P is brother-in-law of Q
(a) R * P % Q (b) P * R % Q (b) P is the brother of Q
(c) P + R % Q (d) P + R * Q (c) P is the uncle of Q
(e) None of these (d) P is the father of Q
27. A + B means A is the father of B, A – B means (e) None of these
A is the wife of B, A # B means A is the brother Directions (32 – 33) : Read the following information
of B, A ^ B means A is the daughter of B. Which carefully and answer the question given below it.
of the following means “P is the aunt of Q”?
‘M + N’ means ‘M is the sister of N’.
(a) P + R – S + Q (b) P + R – S + Q
‘M = N’ means ‘M is the father of N’.
(c) P – R # S + Q (d) P – R + S ^ Q
‘M – N’ means ‘M is the mother of N’.
(e) None of these
‘M x N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’.
Directions (28-31) : Read the following
instructions carefully and answer the questions given ‘M ÷ N’ means ‘M is the daughter of N’.
below: ‘M @ N’ means ‘M is the husband of N’.
(i) A + B means A is the father of B 32. Which of the following means L is the paternal
(ii) A – B means A is the wife of B uncle of F ?

(iii) A |\| B means A is the brother of B a) L x M + N ÷ P @ Q – J – T = F

(iv) A \/ B means A is the daughter of B b) L x M + N ÷ P @ Q – J x T = F
28. If P \/ R + S + Q, which of the following is true? c) F x M + N ÷ P @ Q – J x T = L
(a) P is the daughter of Q d) L + M + N ÷ P @ Q – J x T = F
(b) Q is the aunt of P e) None of these
(c) P is the aunt of Q 33. How is K related to N according to the given
sequence ?
(d) P is the mother of Q
H–NxG+P÷T÷R@K
(e) None of these
a) Can’t say
29. If P – R + Q, which of the following statement is
true? b) Grandfather
(a) P is the mother of Q c) Grandmother
(b) Q is the daughter of P d) Great-grandmother
(c) P is the aunt of Q e) None of these
(d) P is the sister of Q Direction (34– 36): Read the following information
carefully to answer the following questions.

24
‘1#9’ means ‘1 is the daughter of 9’ 37. If A@B*D&G%E$F#D then how is F related to
‘1©9’ means ‘9 is the brother of 1’ A?
‘1$9’ means ‘9 is the sister of 1’ a) Grandfather b) Grandson
‘1&9’ means ‘1 is the son of 9’ c) Daughter d) Wife
‘1*9’ means ‘1 is the father of 9’ e) None of these
‘1@9’ means ‘1 is the mother of 9’ 38. If H*M©O$N#M, the age of N is 20 years and
age of H is 40 years then what is the probable
34. Which of the following indicates that ‘A is the
age of O ?
maternal uncle of S’ ?
a) 17 years b) 15 years
a) A @ M # P @ K © S
c) 23 years d) 45 years
b) A # M & K @ P © S
e) 12 years
c) S & K & P @ M © A
39. ABCDE and F are members of a family. There
d) S & P # M @ K © A
are two married couples. C, the unmarried
e) None of these member is a doctor. F’s son is the father of B
35. What does the expression ‘A @ M $ L © D & and is a lawyer. E is a teacher and married with
N’? A. D, the grandmother of C is a housewife. B is
a) N is the wife of A studying in a college and is fond of his retired
grandfather. C is sister of B.
b) M is the son of N
40. A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a family.
c) M is the daughter fo N
There are three married couples among them.
d) N is the husband of A
There are two lawyers, two doctors and two
e) None of these engineers. In every profession there is a male
36. Which of the following indicates ‘M is the and a female but the professions of husband
daughter of S’ ? and wife are not same.
a) M * A # R @ S @ T F has two sons. Engineer’s mother is an
b) S * A # R @ M @ T engineer. B is brother of a lawyer. A is mother-
in-law of C. D is a lady doctor.
c) Y @ S # O * M
41. Pankaj Gupta has two sons, Rakesh and
d) Y © M $ T # S
Kamlesh and one daughter Rekha.
e) None of these
Mohan Kapoor has two daughters Taruna and
Direction (37 – 38) : In the following questions, the Karuna and one son Mukesh.
symbols #, &, @, *, $, % and © are used with the
Hari Om Chaurasiya has one son Chetan and
following meanings as illustrated below. Study the
one daughter Manya.
following information and answer the given
questions: They all are married to some way mutually.
Husband and wife’s name do not begin with the
P#Q – P is son of Q.
same letter. Brothers and sisters are not got
P@Q – Q is the child of P.
married mutually. Chetan is not married with
P©Q – P is the parent of Q. Taruna.
P$Q – P is elder than Q. (i) If Guddi is the daughter of Rakesh then
P*Q – P is the husband of Q. who is Guddi’s mother?
P&Q – Q is the daughter-in-law of P. (ii) If Sunny is the son of Karuna then who is
P%Q – P is the wife of Q. Sunny’s grandfather?

25
 (iii) If Hari Om Chaurasiya is the grandfather Direction (46– 48) : Read the following information
of Naveen then who is Naveen’s maternal carefully and answer the questions given below:
grandfather?
Nine family members A, C, D, G, I, K, L, M and W
Directions (42– 43): Study the information carefully are going for a lunch. A and her husband reached
and answer the questions given below. there by car. C’s sister-in-law, L’s wife and M’s father
P is the husband of Q. R is the grandchild of P. P are already waiting in a restaurant. K is the sister of
has only one child (son) who is married to T’s child. M and likes Chinese. C who is the son of the
T has only two children one son and one daughter. husband of I ordered Indian food. The grandson of L
X is grandson of T. S is brother in law of son of T. U likes chocolate ice-cream. D who is the mother-in-
and V are children of T. W is married to the son of T. law of C does not like the food of that restaurant. K’s
X is son of U’s brother. father L whose only son M came one hour late for
42. If T is married to Y than how is T related to R ? the lunch. G is not the youngest member in the family.
46. If M is married to V, how A is related to V ?
a) Grandfather b) Grandmother
a) Cousin b) Father-in-law
c) Maternal Grandfather
c) Sister-in-law d) Niece
d) Maternal Grandmother
e) Can’t be determine
e) Either c) or d)
47. Who among the following is the father of C ?
43. How is X related to V ?
a) M b) G c) D
a) Son b) Daughter
d) I e) Can’t be determined
c) Son in law
48. How W is related to K ?
d) Daughter in law e) Husband
a) Niece b) Nephew c) Sister
Directions (44 – 45): Study the following information
d) Brother e) Can’t be determine
and answer the given question.
Directions (49– 50): Study the following information
In a family of ten persons, T is the mother of J. Y is
carefully and answer the questions given below.
the father of U. U is the daughter of T. T is the sister
of D. D is married to P. P is the son of M. Q is the In a family there are three fathers, two brothers, two
son D. L is brother-in-law of X. Y has only one son sisters, one husband, one wife, two brothers-in-law,
and only one daughter. Q is the grandson of X, who two daughters, three sons, three cousins, two
is the oldest female in the family. nephews, one grandfather and a niece.

44. If K is married to U, then how is K related to T ? 49. What is the minimum possible number of
persons in the family ?
a) Son b) Cannot be determined
a) 22 b) 7 c) 9
c) Son-in-law d) Cousin Brother
d) 30 e) None of these
e) Uncle
45. How is X related to D ? 50. How many female members are there in the
family ?
a) Father-in-law b) Uncle
a) Two b) Three c) Four
c) Mother-in-law d) Nephew
d) One e) None of these
e) None of these
Directions (51-56) : Refer the information given
below and answer the questions that follow:

26
 There are six women, Shalini, Divya, Ritu, (d) None of these
Rashmi, Nisha and Renu in a family of 12 members. (e) Data insufficient
There are few married couples in the family and
Directions (57-61) : Refer the information given
none of the grand-children are married. Sunil is
below and answer the questions that follow:
married into the family. Rohan, Mahesh and Jatin
M, K, J, T, R, D and W are seven members of a
have a nephew Dipesh who is the only son of
Rashmi. Ravi is the paternal grandfather of Nisha. family. There are two married couples among them
Ritu is daughter-in-law of Shalini. Renu is the first– belonging to two different generations. Each of them
has a different choice of cuisine - Chinese,
cousin of Dipesh. Mahesh has only two brothers and
only one sister Rashmi and a sister-in-law Divya. Continental, Thai, Punjabi, South India, Gujarati and
Malwani. The grandfather in the family likes Gujarati
Dipesh’s only unmarried uncle, Jatin is the brother-
food. None of the ladies likes Continental or Thai
in-law of Sunil. Rohan is the paternal uncle of Nisha.
Ritu has two daughters one of whom is Nisha. food. T is the son of M, who likes Chinese food. W is
J’s daughter-in-law and she likes South Indian food.
51. How many married couples are there in second K is grandfather of D, who likes Punjabi food. J is
generation? mother of R, who likes Continental food.
(a) 1(b) 2 57. How is R related to D?
(c) 3(d) 4 (a) Father (b) Brother
(e) None of these (c) Uncle (d) Data inadequate
52. Dipesh is: (e) None of these
(a) Mahesh’s son (b) Ravi’s grandson 58. How many male members are there in the
family?
(c) Rohan’s son (d) Sunil’s nephew
(a) 3(b) 4
(d) Data Inadequate
(c) 5(d) Data inadequate
53. Nisha is:
(e) None of these
(a) Rohan’s daughter (b) Jatin’s mother
59. Which of the following group contains one each
(c) Renu’s Cousin (d) None of these from the same generations?
(e) Data Inadequate (a) JRT (b) JRW
54. Which one of the following is married couple? (c) MRD (d) MWT
(a) Rohan and Ritu (b) Shalini and Mahesh (e) None of these
(c) Renu and Sunil (d) Mahesh and Ritu 60. Which food does T like ?
(a) Gujarati (b) Thai
(e) None of these
(c) Malwani (d) Data inadequate
55. Rashmi is:
(e) None of these
(a) Mahesh’s Wife (b) Renu’s Aunt
61. Which of the following combinations represents
(c) Nisha’s Mother (d) None of these favourite food of the two married ladies ?
(e) Data Inadequate (a) Malwani, South Indian
56. Which of the following is true? (b) South Indian, Punjabi
(a) Dipesh is Mahesh’s son (c) Punjabi, Malwani
(b) Ravi has only two married children (d) Data inadequate
(c) Ravi is the paternal grandfather of Renu (e) None of these

27
 Direction (62–65) : Study the following 63. What does equation A + B C × D  E represent?
information carefully and answer the questions given (i) C is sister of E
below :– (ii) B is in North-east direction with respect to D.
(i) 'P × Q' means 'P is sister of Q' and 'P is 1m to the (iii) Minimum distance between D and B is 2
left of Q' meter.
(ii) 'P + Q' means 'P is mother of Q' and 'P is 1m to (a) Only I (b) Only II
the right of Q' (c) Only III (d) Both I & III
(iii) 'P – Q' means 'P is father of Q' and 'P' is 1m to the (e) Both II & III
north of Q' 64. Which if the following represents 'M is the niece
(iv) 'P  Q' means 'P is brother of Q' and 'P is 1m to of R'?
the south of Q' (a) M  T – R (b) R  T – M
62. Find the relation and direction of W with A in (c) R × T + M ×J (d) R  T – M J
given equation. "W + Q – B × M × Z  A" (e) None of these
(First person starting from left is facing in North 65. Which if the following represents 'W is the
direction.) grandfather of H'?
(a) 1m North, Grandfather (a) W  T – H (b) W  T – H
(b) 1m South, Grandmother (c) W × T + H (d) W  T + H
(c) 1m East, Grandfather (e) None of these
(d) 1m West, Grandmother
(e) None of these

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. ( ) 5. ( ) 6. ( ) 7. (e) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)

11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (e) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19 (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. ( ) 23. ( ) 24. ( ) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. ( ) 40. ( )
41. ( ) 42. (e) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (e) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (e)

28
 Order, Ranking and
Sequence Vertical Sequence
CHAPTER
1. In a classroom Ram is at 10th position from top (a) 10 (b) 11
and 15 th position from bottom. What is the
(c) 12 (d) Can't be determined
strength of class room?
(e) None of these
2. Thirty five students present in the class. In which
10. In a row of girls facing North, Tanu is 10th to the
position of Geeta is 15 from top. What is rank
left of Priyanka, who is 21st from the right end. If
from Bottom.
Twinkle, who is 17th from the left end, is 4th to
3. In a classroom, Ravi is at 9th position from top the right of Tanu, how many girls are there in
and Geeta is at 5th position from bottom. There the row?
are two students between them. What is the
strength of the class? (a) Data Inadequate (b) 43

4. Fifty five people stand in the row. Ramesh (c) 44 (d) None
stands from right is 25th position. What is the 11. In a queue of girls, Deepa is 18th from the front
position from left in the row? while Priya is 16th from the back. If Neha is 25th
5. Geeta is fifteen from Bottom and Puja is twenty from the front and is exactly in the middle of
rank from top. If fifty students present in the Deepa and Priya, then how many girls are there
class. How many students between Geeta and in the queue?
Puja ?
(a) 46 (b) 47
6. In a line, Gita is at 7th position from top and
Babita is at 4th position from bottom and both (c) 48 (d) None
are neighbours. What is the strength of the 12. Rajesh is 7th to the left of Rohit in a row of boys
class? facing North. Vijay who is 20th from the left end
7. In a row, A is 9th from top and B is 6th from of the row, is 7th to the right of Rohit. If Bhavesh,
bottom. What is the strength of the class? who is 3rd to the right of Rajesh, is 20th from the
right end of the row, how many boys are there
8. In a row, Ravi is at 15th position from left and
in the row?
Sita is at 20th position from right. Both of them
interchanges their position, then Ravi goes to (a) 30 (b) Can’t be determined
22nd from left, then
(c) 28 (d) None of these
(i) How many persons are there in this row?
13. Three persons Amit, Prakash and Vikas are
(ii) How many students are there in between standing in a queue. There are five persons
them? between Amit & Prakash and eight persons
(iii) In new arrangement what is the position of between Prakash and Vikas. If there are three
Sita from Right Hand Side. persons ahead of Vikas and 21 behind Amit,
9. Mohan is 15th position from left and Suresh's then what could be the minimum number of
position 18th position from right in the row. If persons in the que?
20th students present in the row. How many (a) 26 (b) 27
students present between Mohan and
(c) 29 (d) 28
Suresh?

29
14. In a class among the passed students Nitu is ii) Reeta is 12th from beginning in that class. Rajiv
22nd from the top and Aparna, who is 5 ranks is 23rd from beginning.
below Nitu, is 34th from bottom. All the students iii) Reeta is 5th from beginning in Hindi-studying
from the class appeared for the examinations. students, Rajiv is 13th from beginning in English-
If the ratio of the students who passed in the stydying students and 10th from last in English
examination to those who failed is 4:1 for the styding students.
class, how many students were there in the
iv) Reeta is 16th in the girls from last and 20th in
class?
Hindi-stydying students.
(a) Data Inadequate (b) 75
v) Reeta is 8th in the girls from beginning and Rajiv
(c) 60 (d) None is 12th from beginning in boys.
15. In a queue I am the last person while my friend 20. The total no. of students in the class is?
is 7th from the front. If the person exactly between
a) 49 b) 47 c) 46
me and my friend is on the 23rd position from
the front, what is my position in the que? d) Cannot be determined e) None of these

(a) 37 (b) 36 21. How many girls are there in between Reeta and
Rajiv ?
(c) 38 (d) 39
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
Directions (16-19): In a class of boys & girls, Ruchi’s
rank is 6th from top and Sohan’s rank is 12th from d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
top. 22. How many boys are there in between Reeta
Ruchi rank among the girls in that class is 4 from th and Rajiv ?
the top and 16th from bottom and Sohan’s rank a) 6 b) 7 c) 3
among the boys is 7th from top and 22nd from bottom. d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
16. In order of rank how many girls are there 23. The total no. of boys is ?
between Ruchi and Sohan ?
a) 25 b) 24 c) 23
a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
d) Can’t be determined e) None of these
24. What is the number of English studying students
17. What is the ratio of girls and boys in the class ? ?
a) 3 : 2 b) 2 : 1 c) 3 : 1 a) 25 b) 24 c) 23
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these d) cannot be determined e) None of these
18. How many boys are there between Ruchi & 25. The total no. of English-studying students in
Sohan ? between Rajiv and Reeta ?
a) Six b) Four c) Three a) 05 b) 04 c) 06
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
19. How many students are there in the class ? 26. The no. of Hindi-Studying students ?
a) 19 b) 28 c) 41 a) 25 b) 24 c) 23
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
Directions (20– 27): Read the following 27. The no. of English-studying students after
statements and answer the following questions Reeta?
– a) 15 b) 14 c) 16
i) Boys and girls are either Hindi studying or
d) Cannot be determined e) None of these
English studying students in the class.

30
28. A is taller than B who is taller than C and D is 6 people A, B, C, D, E and F have the following
shorter to C. attributes:
(i) Who is the tallest? (i) A is richer than B but shorter than F
(ii) Who is the shortest? (ii) B is richer than E but taller than F
29. Ranchi is bigger than Jamshedpur but smaller (iii) C is poorer than D and taller than A
to Patna. Allahabad is bigger than Kanpur but (iv) D is poorer as well as shorter than E
smaller to Lucknow. Patna is bigger than (v) E is poorer as well as shorter than A
Allahabad and Agra is smaller to Jamshedpur.
(vi) F is richer than A and taller than C
(i) Which is the biggest city?
34. Who is the richest?
(ii) Which is the smallest city?
(a) A (b) B
30. Amar is taller than Gopal. Pankaj is not as tall
(c) F(d) Insufficient data
as Sohan. Hari is taller than Mohan. Kamal is
shorter to Chetan who is not as tall as Mohan. 35. Who is the shortest?
Niraj is taller than Sohan but not as tall as Gopal. (a) A (b) D
Jayant is taller than Mohan and Mohan is taller (c) E (d) Insufficient data
than Amar.
36. When arranged in ascending order of riches and
(i) Who is the tallest? descending order of height, who has the same
(ii) Who is the shortest? rank?
31. Among five brothers Amar is elder to Mohan (a) A (b) E
but shorter to Sohan. Kamal is taller than Sohan (c) B (d) None of these
but shorter to Hari. 37. In order to rank according to riches, which of
(i) Who is the tallest? the given statements is redundant?
(ii) Who is the shortest? (a) II(b) III
32. Among five boys, Vasant is taller than Manohar, (c) V (d) All are required
but not as tall as Raju. Jayant is taller than Dutta, 38. If the ranks obtained after arranging in
but shorter than Manohar. Who is the tallest in descending order of height and riches are added
the group? up for each person, which has the highest total?
(a) Raju (b) Manohar (a) E (b) C
(c) Vasant (d) Can’t be determined (c) D (d) A
(e) None of these Direction (39– 43): Study the following information
33. Harish is taller than Manish but shorter than and answer the questions given below:
Suresh. Manish is shorter than Anil but taller P, Q, R, S, T and V are six students studying in a
than Raghu. Who among them is the shortest class. Each of them has a different height and weight.
having regard to height? The tallest is not the heaviest. T is taller than only P
(a) Anil (b) Manish but lighter than R. Q is taller than S and P and heavier
than only T and V. P is lighter than only S. T is heavier
(c) Raghu (d) Can’t be determined
than V. S is taller, than V and Q is not the tallest.
(e) None
39. How many of them are heavier than T ?
Directions (34-38): Refer the data below and
a) One b) Two c) Three
answer the questions that below:
d) Five e) None of these

31
40. How many of them are shorter than Q ? a) Seocnd in height b) Second in weight
a) Two b) Four c) Three c) Third in height d) third in weight
d) Five e) None of these e) Can’t be determined
41. Who among them is the tallest ? 47. Which of the following is definitely true regarding
the given informations?
a) V b) P c) T
a) The person, who is ranked second in age, is
d) R e) None of these ranked fourth in weight and third in height.
42. Who among them is third from top if arranged b) The person, who is ranked second in weight,
in descending order of height ? is ranked fourth in terms of height and third in
a) Q b) V c) S terms of age.
d) Data inadequate c) The person, who is ranked fourth in height,
has the lest weight and is ranked third in age.
e) None of these
d) The person, who is ranked fourth in height,
43. Who among them is the lightest ? is ranked third in weight and second in age
a) V b) T c) P e) None of them is true
d) R e) None of these 48. What is false about B ?
Directions (44– 48): Read the following information a) All the remaining people are lighter than B
carefully and answer the questions given below. b) B is youngest among all the persons
Five person A, B, C, D and E all of different heights, c) B exactly between E and A when they are
different weights and different ages, are ranked in standing according to their heights
the decreasing order of their height, weight and age. d) When arranged in ascending order of their
The tallest person is rankded first and shortest weights, B is at the last position
person is ranked fifth and so on. No person has the
e) None of these
same rank in any of the two categories. The tallest
person is ranked fourth in weight and second in age. Directions (49-53) : Read the following
The person who is ranked third in weight in the information and choose the right alternate for the
shortest as well as the oldest. D is second eldest given questions.
and E is ranked third in the age. B is not the shortest. The sports week of an institute was organised
The person, who is the heaviest is the third tallest from 19th to 26th of a month. 19th being a Wednesday.
and is the youngest. A, who is the second tallest, is During that period six games- Cricket, Badminton,
the last in weight. Table-Tennis, Kho-Kho, Hockey and Football were
44. What were the ranking of C in height, weight played, one game on each day. Further information
and age respectively ? is:
a) third-fifth-first b) fifth-third-first (i) Hockey was not played on the closing day, i.e.,
on 26th
c) third-fourth-first d) first-third-fifth
(ii) Table-Tennis was played on the previous day
e) third-first-fifth
of Cricket
45. Who is fourth heaviest in the group ?
(iii) Football was not played either on Wednesday
a) B b) D c) C or Saturday.
d) E e) Can’t be determined (iv) No game was played on Thursday and Sunday.
46. The highest rank of E is? (v) Kho-Kho was played on Monday

32
(vi) There was a gap of two days between Cricket (iv) Course should end with Mechanics subject.
and Football (v) Philosophy should be immediately after holiday.
49. The sports week starts with which game ? (vi) There should be a gap of one day between
(a) Table-Tennis (b) Cricket Economics and Engineering.
(c) Kho-Kho (d) Hockey (vii) There should be a gap of two days between
(e) None Sociology and Economics.

50. How many days’ gap is there between Hockey 54. The refresher course will start with which one
and Football? of the following subjects?

(a) 03 (b) 04 (a) Psychology (b) Mechanics

(c) 05 (d) 02 . (c) Philosophy (d) Economics

(e) None of these (e) Can’t be determined

51. Which pair of games was played on 55. Which subject will be on Tuesday?
Wednesday? (a) Mechanics (b) Engineering
(a) Hockey and Badminton (c) Economics (d) Psychology
(b) Hockey and Cricket (e) None of these
(c) Cricket and Tennis 56. Which subject is followed by Science?
(d) Cannot be determined (a) Psychology (b) Philosophy
(e) None (c) Economics (d) Engineering
52. Which game exactly precedes Kho-Kho? (e) Can’t be determined
(a) Hockey (b) Football 57. Which subject preceded mechanics ?
(c) Cricket (d) Table-Tennis (a) Economics (b) Engineering
(e) None (c) Philosophy (d) Psychology
53. Table-Tennis follows which game? (e) None
(a) Hockey (b) Cricket 58. How many days’ gap is there in between
(c) Tennis (d) None of these Science and Philosophy?

(e) cannot be determined (a) One (b) Two

Direction (54-58) : Read the given information (c) Three (d) No gap
and select the correct alternative for each question. (e) None of these
A training college has to conduct a refresher 59. Star Sports had decided to celebrate sports
course for teachers of seven different subjects – programme week by telecasting programmes
Mechanics, Psychology, Philosophy, Sociology, on Badminton, Cricket, Football, Hockey,
Economics, Science and Engineering from 22nd July Tennis and Volleyball in a week starting from
to 29th July. Wednesday.
(i) Course should start with Psychology. (i) Sixth day of the programme was holiday
(ii) 23rd July, being Sunday should be a holiday. (ii) Tennis was telecasted immediately after
(iii) Science subject should be on the previous day Hockey and Football was telecasted on
of the Engineering subject. fifth day of the programme.

33
 (iii) Badminton was telecasted on the third day 63. Examination for which of the following subjects
after Saturday and Hockey was telecasted is on the last day?
on fourth day before the holiday. (a) HE (b) DB
(iv) Volleyball was not telecasted on the first (c) FD (d) Data Inadequate
day. (e) None of these
60. In five days five teachers teaches five different 64. Examination for which of the following subjects
subjects. Before History there are as many is on the next day of D?
subjects taught as after History. Hindi is (a) B (b) E
immediately after Geography but Geography (c) J (d) Data Inadequate
is not at the first day. A teaches Chemistry and
(e) None of these
C teaches just before him. E teaches
65. Examination for which of the following subjects
immediately after B but E does not teach Hindi
is on the last day?
or English.
(a) B (b) E
61. Six plays had been organised in six different
(c) J (d) Data Inadequate
days from Monday to Saturday. A is
immediately before E. C is not on Tuesday. B (e) None
is immediately after F. E is not on the last day. 66. Which of the following subject’s examination is
D is on Friday and B is not immediately before on the same day, as that of F?
D. (a) E (b) D
62. Six books are kept one above other. There are (c) I (d) B
three books between History and Geography (e) None
but Geography is not at bottom. There are two Direction (67- 75) : Read the following
books between Maths and English but English information carefully and answer the questions given
is not at the top. Hindi and History are not below it—
neighbours. What is the position of Science
book from bottom? Nine people A, B. C, D, E, F, G, H and J stay in
a building but not necessary in the same order. The
Direction (63-66) : Read the given information building has 09 floors and only one person stays on
and select the correct alternative for each question. one floor. All of them own one car each, and each
(a) An examination board has organised car is of different colour, i.e. Blue, Grey, White,
examinations for ten subjects viz. A, B, C, D, Black, Yellow, Green, Red, Orange and pink, but
E, F, G, H, I and J on six days of the week with not necessarily in the same order.
a holiday on Sunday, not having more than two The ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above
papers on any of the days. it is numbered 2 and so on, and the topmost floor is
(b) Exams beings on Wednesday with subject F. numbered 9.
(c) D is accompanied by some other subject but H owns a black coloured car and stays on an
not on Thursday. ‘A’ and ‘G’ are on the same even numbered floor. A stays on any even numbered
day immediately after holiday. floor below the floor on which H stays. The one who
(d) There is only one paper on last day and owns an orange coloured car stays on the fourth
Saturday. B is immediately followed by H, which floor. E stays on the second floor and owns a white-
is immediately followed by I. coloured car. The one who owns a pink coloured
car stays on the third floor. A does not owns a green
(e) C is on Saturday. H is not on the same day as
coloured car. There are two floors between the floors
J.
on which the people owning the red and the black

34
coloured cars stay. C owns a grey coloured car. (b) G stays on a floor immediately above the
There are three floors between the floors on which floor on which A stays.
C and G stay. D stays on a floor immediately above (c) F stays on the eighth floor.
J’s floor. There is one floor between the floors on
(d) D owns the orange coloured car.
which F and G stay. F does not own the pink
(e) None is true
coloured car. The one who owns the blue car stays
on the top-most floor. F does not stay on the ground 73. On which of the following floors does G stay?
floor. (a) 1st (b) 6th
67. Who amongst the following owns the green (c) 5th (d) 7th
coloured car? (e) None of these
(a) D (b) J 74. B is related to C in the same way as H is related
(c) G (d) F to E as per the given information. Following the
same pattern, F is related to which of the
(e) None of these
following?
68. Who amongst the following stays on the topmost (a) J(b) D
floor?
(c) A (d) G
(a) F (b) G
(e) None of these
(c) D (d) C 75. What is the colour of the car of the person who
(e) None of these stays on the ground floor?
69. A owns a car of which of the following colours? (a) Red (b) Green
(a) Orange (b) Pink (c) Yellow (d) Grey
(c) Yellow (d) Blue (e) None of these

(e) None of these Direction (76- 80) : Read the following

information carefully and answer the questions given
70. Who stays on the floor which is exactly between below it—
the floor on which H stays and the floor on which
Six exams Maths, science, History, Economics,
A stays?
English and Hindi are to be scheduled starting from
(a) B (b) G 2nd March and ending on 8th march Sunday being
(c) C (d) F an off day, not necessarily in the same order. Each
(e) None of these of the exams has different time duration: 40 minutes,
50 minutes, 60 minutes, 75 minutes, 90 minutes and
71. How many floors are there between the floor 100 minutes, again not necessarily in the same order.
on which J stays and the floor on which C 8th march is not Sunday and an exam of 40 minutes
stays? is scheduled on that day. Maths exam is for less
(a) One (b) Two than 60 minutes and is scheduled immediately before
(c) None (d) Three English exam. There are two exams scheduled
between Hindi exam which is for 100 minutes and
(e) More than three
History exam which is for 60 minutes. English exam
72. Which of the following is true as per the given is before Sunday and there are two days between
information? Sunday and maths exam. Economics exam which is
(a) B stays on a floor immediately below the for 75 minutes is not scheduled on 2ndmarch. The
floor on which H stays. exam schedules on Saturday is of 100 minutes.

35
76. How many exams are scheduled before 81. who among the following person lives on floor
Sunday? number Eight ?
(a) Two (b) One a) R b) P c) S
(c) Five (d) Three d) T e) Q
(e) None of these 82. Who lives immediate below P ?
a) S b) V c) T
77. Which of the following combinations of exam -
Day - Time Duration is correct? d) Q e) None of these
(a) English - Wednesday - 75 minutes 83. Who lives on floor number Seven ?
(b) Maths - Thursday - 50 minutes a) S b) The floor is vacant.
c) The person, who is immediate above vacant
(c) History - Thursday – 60 minutes
floor.
(d) Hindi - Tuesday - 100 minutes
d) T e) None of these
(e) None is correct
84. How many persons live between Q and R ?
78. What is the time duration of science exam? a) None b) Three c) Two
(a) 90 minutes (b) 75 minutes d) Four e) None of these
(c) 50 minutes (d) 40 minutes 85. If U is related to T in a certain way and P is
(e) None of these related to S in the same way, then which of the
following is related to R ?
79. On which day is Economics exam scheduled?
a) V b) Q
(a) Monday (b) Saturday
c) None of these
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday
d) U e) Vacant floor
(e) Cannot be determined
Direction (86– 90): Study the following information
80. Which day is Sunday? carefully to answer the given questions.
(a) 3rd march (b) 2nd march Seven person viz. O, P, Q, R, S, T, U visit different
(c) 5th march (d) 6th march cities viz. Chandigarh, dehradun, Jaipur, Meerut,
Pune, Shimla, Sikkim on different days starting from
(e) Cannot be determined
Monday to Sunday. And each of the city is famous
Directions (81-85): Study the following information for different industries viz. Coal, Cotton, clothes,
carefully and answer the question given below. Paper, Plastic, Tourism and Steel & Iron. Also each
Seven Persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on eight of them is of different ages. Neither S nor T is
different floors of a building, but not necessarily in youngest. The one who visits Jaipur is 6th youngest.
the same order. The lowermost floor of the building Only three persons visit the cities in between the
in numbered one; the one above it is number two one who visits the city which is famous for Paper
and so on till the topmost floor is number eight and and the one who visits Dehradun. The one who is
one floor is vacant. youngest, visit Chandigarh on Monday. Pune is
V lives on fifth floor. P lives below U. Two person famous for Paper. O visits the city which is famous
lives between V and T. Neither R nor U lives on for tourism. Only three persons are older than U.
sixth number floor. Q does not live on third number The one who is 6th oldest visits Sikkim but not on
floor. S lives immediate below T. R lives above U. Q Friday. R visits the city on Thursday and is just older
does not live on even numbered floor. More than than S. The one who visits the city which is famous
one person lives between U and R. for Steel & Iron visit the city after maximum number
of Persons. P is older than only two people. Dehradun

36
is not famous for steel & Iron and is not being visited on any odd numbered floor below the one who likes
on Tuesday. O is older than both Q and T but not Pink. Only two persons live between J and the
the oldest. The one who visits Shimla which is famous person who likes Grey. Only one person lives
for tourism, visits it immediately after the one who between K and O. O lives on an even numbered
visits Pune. The city which famous for Clothes is floor and does not like Pink. Only three persons live
being visited immediately after the city which is being between the persons who like Black and Blue
famous for Cotton but not on Friday. The one who is respectively. The person who likes Black lives on
youngest visits the city which is being famous for any floor above the K’s floor. The person who likes
Coal but not immediately after S. U neither visits Black does not live on the topmost floor. P lives on
Dehradun nor Shimla. an even numbered floor but neither immediately
86. Which among the following city is famous for above nor immediately below the floor of J. L does
plastic Industry ? not like Black or Blue. Only two persons live between
M and the one who likes Pink. The person who likes
a) Pune b) Shimla c) Sikkim
Red lives on the floor immediately above the floor of
d) Jaipur e) Meerut
the person who likes Purple.
87. Who among the follwign is 3rd oldest ?
91. How many persons live between the floors on
a) Q b) S c) O which P and M live ?
d) T e) U a) Three b) Two c) Four
88. S visits the city on which of the following day ? d) Five e) No one
a) Thursday b) Sunday 92. Which of the following statements is/are true
c) Tuesday d) Friday according to the given information ?
e) Monday a) N lives on floor numbered 5 and he does not
89. Who among the following visits Sikkim ? like Pink
a) Q b) S c) O b) J likes Red and he does not live on floor
d) T e) U numbered 4
90. Which among the following is true regarding Q? c) L likes White and he lives on the topmost
a) Chandigarh – Coal – Youngest floor

b) Jaipur – Cotton – 2nd oldest d) Only two persons live between the floors of
N and O
c) Dehradun-Clothes - 4th youngest
e) All the statements are true.
d) Pune – Paper – 6th oldest
93. Who among the following lives on the floor
e) Merrut – Plastic – 6th youngest
immediately above the floor of J ?
Directions (91– 95): Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions a) K b) O c) P
d) L e) No one
Seven Persons – J, K, L, M, N, O and P – live on
separate floors fo a seven storied building, but not 94. Who among the following lives exactly between
in the same order. The ground floor of the building is the floors on which P and K live ?
numbered 1, the floor above it 2 and so on until the a) M b) O c) J
topmost floor is numbered 7. Each person likes d) N e) No one
different Colours – Black, White, Blue, Pink, Red, 95. Who among the following does like Blue brand
Purple, Grey, but not necessarily in the same order. Colours?
The person who likes Pink lives on floor numbered
a) O b) M c) K
four. J does not live on the lowermost floor. J lives
d) N e) P

37
Direction (96– 100): Study the given information a) More than G. b) 1520 km
carefully to answer the given question. c) 1368 km
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven cars which are d) Less than 1456 km
running on tracks and travelling and covering
e) None of these
different distance but not necessarily in the same
order. Each car has different colours i.e. Red, 100. What is the colour of Car F ?
Orange, Green, Black, Yellow, White and Blue but a) White b) Blue c) Green
not necessarily in the same order. d) Orange e) Red
Car A is in odd number ranking and is not 3rd lowest
Directions (101– 105); Read the given information
in covering distance. Car which is of yellow colour
carefully and answer the given questions.
is immediate more than in covering distance than
Car A. There are only two cars between car A and Ten people G, H, I, J, K, L, W, X, Y and Z live in a
the one which is of green colour in covering distance. building with four floors. Each floor has 3 flats – flat
The Car which is of orange colour is in odd number 1, flat 2 and flat 3 in the same order from left to right.
ranking but greater than Car D in travelling. D is Ground floor is numbered floor 1 and top most floor
covering third lowest distance. Third lowest car in is floor 4. Each flat is built in such a way that Flat 1
travelling covers a distance of 1218 km. Only three of floor 2 is just above Flat 1 of floor 1 and so on.
cars are between car C and the one which is of The two flats in which no one lives are on even
orange colour. The one which is of green colour is numbered floor and in even number flat respectively.
immediate more than in covering distance than car G does not live on even numbered floor and even
C. E covers a distance of 1456 km. The car which numberd flat. W lives in the flat which is just above
is of red colour is immediate more than in covering H’s flat. The only flat which is between K and X is
distance than car which is of blue colour. Car G is vacant and K lives in one of the flat above X. L lives
in odd number ranking. Only one car is in between in an odd numbered flat which is in the left of X on
car B and E. Car B covers more distance than car the same floor. Z and Y lives on the same floor and
E. Neither can C nor A is of black colour. Car E is no one else is living with them on that floor. G lives
not of green colour. on a floor and flat just above W’s floor and flat I live
on one of the floor on which one flat is vacant. Z and
96. Car A is of which colour ?
I both live in the flat which is numbered 1.
a) White b) Blue c) Green
101. Who is living just above X ?
d) Orange e) Red
a) K b) G c) J
97. Which of the following combinations is true with
respect to the given arrangement ? d) Z e) No one

a) White – C b) Orange – F 102. Which of the following statement is true about

G?
c) Blue – G d) Yellow – D
e) Black – B a) G lives on an even numbered flat
98. Which car is second highest in covering b) K is the immediate neighbor of G
distance ? c) G lives on a floor on which one flat is vacant
a) B d) None is true
b) Car which si of red colour e) G and W lives on the same floor
c) Car which is of blue colour 103. Which of the following lives on the ground floor?
d) D e) F a) G b) I c) L
99. If B + F cover a distance of 3216 km, then what d) W e) Both a) & c)
is the possible score of A ?

38
104. Which of the following does not belong to a 109. who among the following person stay on 5 th
certain group ? floor?
a) G b) L c) W a) S b) U c) No one
d) H e) Y d) T e) R

105. Who is living in flat 1 on floor 4 ? 110. How many persons stay between S and R ?
a) No one b) One c) Two
a) Z b) Y c) No
one d) Three e) Four
d) G e) W Direct ion (111-135) : In these questions,
relationship between different elements is shown
Directions (106– 110): Study the information
in the statements. These statements are followed
carefully and answer the questions given below.
by two conclusions.
7 friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V stay on 9 floor Give Answer
building ground floor is numbered one and above
the number one is floor number 2 and so on. But not (A) If only Conclusion I is true
necessary in the same order. Each one of them likes (B) If only Conclusion II is true
different colour viz. Black, Brown, Green, Yellow, (C) If either Conclusion I or II is true
Pink, Red and Grey but not necessary in the same
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true
order. There are two floors which are vacant. U stay
on an odd numbered floor but not above the floor (E) If both conclusions I and II is true
number 6 and likes black colour. There is a gap of 111. Statements : H  I = J > K  L
one floor between U and both of the vacant floors.
Conclusions : I. K < H II. L  I
Neither P nor Q is an immediate neighbor of both
vacant floors and they does not like Yellow and pink 112. Statements : S > C  O, P < C
colour. The person who likes Grey colour stay on Conclusions : I. O < P II. S > P
the 2nd floor. Q stays on an odd numbered floor which 113. Statements : A = B  C, A > R
is above P. There is one floor between P and R who
likes Green colour. There are three floors between Conclusions : I. B > R II. R < C
P and S who does not likes yellow colour. The 114. Statements : D > E  F, J < F
person who likes brown colour stay on just above V. Conclusions : I. D > JII. E < J
106. Who among the follwoign stay between vacant 115. Statements : P < Q > T, R  Q
floor and U?
Conclusions : I. R > P II. T < R
a) S b) T c) R 116. Statements :
d) Either a) or b) e) Both a and b K = D G = N O , P  A = O, G > L
107. How many persons stay between P and Q ? Conclusions :I. K > L II. D  A
a) None b) One c) Two 117. Statements :
d) Three e) None of these G = T  B < C > E, E  F > I ; G < L = O

108. which of the following floor belongs to V ? Conclusions :I. C > I II. B  O

a) 8th b) 9th c) 7th 118. Statements :

T > R  Q = P; M < R  N ; B = N  D
d) Can’t be determined
Conclusions :I. Q  DII. T > B
e) None of these

39
119. Statements : R=QI M = E, I > Z
T  S < Q < A = P  M = K; R = D  A C > S < Conclusions :I. Q = M II. Q M
B=C 131. Statements :
Conclusions :I. K < Q II. D > T B C, G = K M, O = R, G D = C,
120. Statements :
O M
K > Z  I > H = G, F > I = E  X ; H > W  N
Conclusions :I. B G II. K > R
Conclusions :I. F > W II. K > N
132. Statements :
121. Statements :
M = T, P  Q = G, A H G, T N = O, O
F > B  A > J = G; H > A = I  C ; B > D  E P
I. H  E II. H < E Conclusions :I. M < O II. P < H
122. Statements : 133. Statements :
R  S = T, G < O, B  A, G  T, M  K = O, A < A=B CD
M
Conclusions :I. A > D II. A < D
Conclusions :I. R > GII. K < B
134. Statements :
123.Statements :
A = B  C T, R = M  P  T
M  A = S, L = R = O, K = G  P, K > T = S, P
Conclusions :I. A > R II. B = M
 O
135. Statements :
Conclusions :I. S < G II. G  R
A B C=D>E=F
124. Statements :
M > T, A  C, G > P  O, A > B < T, C = K > G Conclusions : I. A > E II. A  F

Conclusions :I. B < K II. C < P DIRECTIONS (136-140) : In the following questions
the symbol @, $, =, Q, and #, are used with following
125. Statements :
meaning:
S = K > R, O > G  B, A = D < E, O = N = R,
B<A P @ Q means P is greater than Q.
Conclusions :I. S > O II. G < D P $ Q means P is either greater than or equal
126. Statements : to Q.

A B K T<RM P = Q means P is equal to Q.

Conclusions :I. A > M II. K < M P  Q means P is smaller than Q.
127. Statements : P # Q means P is either smaller than or equal
to Q.
R KT V GL
Now in each of the following questions assuming
Conclusions :I. R > L II. K < L that the given statements to be true, find which of
128. Statements : the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are
M K=T R V P definitely true. Give answer
Conclusions :I. M = P II. P > M (a) If only conclusion I is true
129. Statements : (b) If only conclusion II is true
A  B < C, A D; C F (c) If either I or II is true
Conclusions : I) D < C II. F  D (d) If neither I nor II is true.
130.Statements : (e) If both I and II are true

40
136. Statements: B @ V, K C, C # B 145. Statements: A @ B, C # A, C + D
Conclusions: I. V @ C II. B @ K Conclusions: I. C @ B II. C + D
137. Statements: K @ T, S = K, T # R Directions (146-150) : In the following
Conclusions: I. S @ R II. T = R questions, the symbols @. $, #, O and % are used
with the following meanings as illustrated below.
138. Statements: U = M, P # U, M $ B
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’
Conclusions: I. P = B II. P @ B
‘P O Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to
139. Statements: L $ N, J # P, P $ L
Q’
Conclusions: I. J = L II. P = N
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to
140. Statements: H $ G, D @ E, H = E Q’
Conclusions: I. D @ H II. G  D ‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’
Direcetions (141-145) : In the following ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller
questions the symbols +, * , =, @ , and #, are used than Q’
with following meaning:
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming
A+ B means A is greater than B. the given statements to be true, find which of the
A * B means A is either greater than or equal to four conclusions I, II, III, IV given below them is/are
B. definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
A = B means A is equal to B. 146. Statements : R # J, J $ D, D @ K, K % T

A @ B means A is smaller than B. Conclusions :

A # B means A is either smaller than or equal I. T#D II. T @ D

to B. III. R # K IV. J $ T
Now in each of the following questions assuming (a) Only either I or II is true
that the given statements to be true, find which of (b) Only III is true
the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are (c) Only III and IV are true
definitely true. Give answer
(d) Only either I or II and III are true
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(e) None of these
(b) If only conclusion II is true
147. Statements : T % R, R $ M, M @ D, D O H
(c) If either I or II is true
Conclusions :
(d) If neither I nor II is true.
I. D % R II. H # R
(e) If both I and II are true III. T O M IV. T % D
141. Statements : J @ K, J @ L, L + M (a) Only I is true
Conclusions : I. J @ M II. L = J (b) Only I and IV are true
142. Statements: G # H, H # J, L @ G (c) Only I and III are true
Conclusions: I. L @ H II. H + L (d) Only II and IV are true
143. Statements: M + N, M + P, O = N (e) None of these
Conclusions: I. N + M II. O @ M 148. Statements : M @ B, B # N, N $ R, R O K
144. Statements : T = U, U = V, V @ W Conclusions :
Conclusions : I. W + T II. V = U I. K # B II. R O B

41
 III. M $ R IV. N O M Now, in each of the following questions, assuming
(a) Only I and III are true the given statements to be true, find which of the
two conclusions I, and II given below them is/are
(b) Only I and II are true definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
(c) Only II and IV are true Give answer A] if only conclusion I is true
(d) Only II, III & IV are true Give answer B] if only conclusion II is true
(e) None of these Give answer C] if either conclusion I or II is true
149. Statements : F # H, H @ M, M O E, E $ J Give answer D] if neither conclusion I nor II is true
Conclusions : Give answer E] if both conclusion I and II are true
I. J OM II. E # H 151. Statements : M O D, D # F, F @ B
III. M O F IV. F # E Conclusions : I. B O D II. F # M
(a) Only I and II are true 152. Statements : W $ K, K O H, H @ R
(b) Only II and III are true Conclusions : I. R $ K II. H % W
(c) Only I, II, and III are true 153. Statements : K @ R, R % T, T # J
(d) Only II, III and IV are true Conclusions : I. J $ RII. T $ K
(e) None of these 154. Statements : H $ T, T % W, W @ K
150. Statements : D % A, A @ B, B O K, K % M Conclusions : I. W $ H II. W @ H
Conclusions : 155. Statements: B % E, E @ F, F O M
I. B $ D II. K # A Conclusions: I. M % E II. B @ F
III. M # B IV. A O M 156. Which of the following pair of symbols should
(a) Only I is true (b) Only II is true replace the question marks in the given
expression in order to make the expression ‘D
(c) Only III and IV are true
> F’ and H E definitely true ?
(d) All are true (e) None is true
C  D?E=F?G=H
Directions (151-155) : In the following
questions, the symbols @. $, #, O and % are used a) ,  b) , 
with the following meanings as illustrated below. c) ,  d) =, 
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor
e) None of these
equal to Q’
157. Which of the following symbols should be placed
‘P O Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal
in the blank spaces respectively (in the same
to Q’
order from left to right) in order to complete the
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor given expression in such a manner that ‘P < M’
smaller than Q’ is definitely true ?
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor M __ N __ O __ P
equal to Q’
a) >, ,< b)  , < , =
‘ P @ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal
c)  , = , > d) =, <, 
to Q’
e) None of these

42
 Sequence:- (Day/Month/Year/Box/Based
CHAPTER
Puzzle)
Directions (1-5): Study the following information D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are eight students who
carefully and answer the question given below. attend competitive exams in different months of the
There are seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V year viz. January, April, May and September, such
who were born on the same date of the same month that not more than two students attend their exams
of different year i.e. 1984, 1946, 1967, 1972, 1982, in each of the months. The exams can be held on 8th
1989 and 1992 but not necessarily in the same and 22th date of the month. No two exams can be
order. held on 8th and 22th date of the month. No two exams
can be held on the same day.
Note : Their age are considered as on the same
month and date of 2017 as their date of births. There are only four students attending exqam
between D and G. J and I attend their exams in the
The difference between the ages of Q and R is twice
same month. J attends exam before the date in
the square root of the age of one of the any seven
which I attends exam. K does not attend his exam in
persons. Difference between the ages of R and S is
May. The number of students who attend their exams
the same as the number obtained by dividing ages
between the exams of F and D is the same as the
of any two among the other five persons. Age of P is
number of students who attend their exams between
greatest amongst those whose age is a multiple of
the exams of F and K. J and I attend the exam in the
five. T is older than V who is not the youngest. Q is
month which has 30 days. G does not attend his
not youngest person.
exam in January. H attends his exam immediately
1. Who amongst the following person is the after that date in which F attends his exam. E does
oldest ? not attend his exam just before that date in which F
a) P b) V c) U attends his exam.
d) T e) None of these 6. H attends his exam on which of the following
2. What is the age of R ? date ?
a) 33 years b) 35 years c) 25 years a) 8th May b) 22th September
d) 45 years e) 50 years c) 8th September d) 8th January
3. How many persons are younger than U ? e) None of these
a) One b) Two c) Three 7. Who among the following students attends his
d) Four e) No one exam on 8th January ?

4. What is the age of S ? a) K b) E c) D

a) 45 years b) 35 years c) 33 years d) H e) None of these
d) 50 years e) 28 years 8. Who among the following students attends his
5. Who was born on 1989 ? exam on 22nd April ?

a) V b) U c) T a) K b) D c) I
d) P e) Q d) J e)None of these
Directions (6 – 10): Study the following information 9. How many students attend exam between G
carefully and answer the question given below: and J ?
a) 5 b) 4 c) 6

44
 d) 3 e) None of these a) C b) A c) D
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain d) B e) E
way and hence they form a group. Which one 15. Who among the following likes red colour ?
of the following does not belong to that group ?
a) A b) B c) H
a) E b) F c) H
d) C e) D
d) J e) D
Directions (16– 21): Study the following information
Directions (11– 15): Read the following information
carefully and answer the question given below:
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born Eight persons M, N, O, V, W, X, Y and Z attend
on 7th, 9th, 16th and 19th in March & July persons who seminars on different months of the year viz. March,
likes colours were born on that date which is a perfect June, October and Novemeber, such that not more
square and the colour they like are : - Yellow, Green, than two persons attend their seminars in each of
Red and Blue. The persons who were born on the the months. Seminars can be held on either 10 th or
date which denotes a prime numbers like fruits – 27th day of the month. No two seminars can be held
Apple, Cherry, Mango and Banana. on the same day. W and N attend the seminars on
the same month. There are three seminars between
The one who likes yellow colour was born in a
the seminars of X and O. W does not attend his
day which is a perfect square in the month of march.
seminar in November. Z attends his seminar
No person was born between D and the one who
immediately after N. V attends his seminar in the
likes yellow. D doesn’t like colours. Three persons
month of November. The number of persons who
were born between D and the one who likes Mango.
attend their seminars between the seminars of Y and
There is no person born between the one who likes
Z respectively is the same as the number of persons
Mango and Blue colour. The number of people born
who attend their seminars between the seminars of
after the one who likes blue colour is one less than
N and V respectively. X does not attend the seminar
the number of persons born before A. The one who
on Ocotber. W attends his seminar before N. Y does
likes Apple was born immediately before B. B do not
not attend his seminar on November.
like Mango. The number of people born before B is
same as the number of persons born after G. Three 16. M attends his seminar on which of the following
persons were born between the one who likes Green dates ?
and H. H and the one who likes Cherry were born in a) 10th October b) 27th November
the same month but not in March. C was born after c) 10th November d) 10th March
the one who likes Blue colour. E doesn’t like any
e) None of these
colour. F doesn’t like Apple.
17. Which of the following persons attends his
11. Who among the following likes green colour ?
seminar on 27th March ?
a) B b) A c) G
a) W b) N c) M
d) H e) C
d) X e) None of these
12. Who was born on 16th March ?
a) D b) A c) G 18. How many persons attend the seminar after W?
d) F e) E a) 5 b) 4 c) 6
13. Who among the following likes cherry ? d) 3 e) None of these
a) F b) G c) H 19. Who among the following persons attends the
d) A e) B seminar on 10th October ?
th
14. Who was born on 19 July ? a) W b) M c) V

45
 d) Z e) None of these V and S. Y gives lecture in the month which is after
20. How many persons attended seminar after V ? the month in which V gives lecture. The total number
of students who attned class in five months is 714.
a) 5 b) 4 c) 7
The sum of number of students who attend class on
d) No one e) None of these 7th may and 7th June is 147. Students who attend
21. How many persons attend the seminar before class on 7th June is less than 90. The difference of
Y? the number of students who attend class of lecturer
a) 5 b) No one Y and R is 4. X gives lecture after P and the number
c) 7 d) 4 of students who attend his lecture is greater than 70
and less than 80 and is not divisible by 4. The number
e) None of these
of students who attend class on 7th December is
Directions (22– 26): Study the following information multiple of 11. The number of students who attend
carefully and answer the questions given below: the lecture of W is greater than 60 but less than 70.
Ten lecturers P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y 22. Who among the following lecturer gives lecture
teach in the same college. They give lectures in five on 21st June ?
months (April, M ay, June, September and
a) T b) P c) Y
December). They give lectures in each month on 7th
and 21st date. Only two lectures held in a month. d) V e) None of these
The lectures are attended by different number of 23. Which among the following is the number of
students. The total strength of students is 100 in students who attend class only 7th December?
each class and 50% attendance is compulsory for a) 67 b) 80 c) 68
each class. The number of students will be even in d) 77 e) 55
the month of 30 days and odd in the month of 31
24. How many lecturers give lectures between P
days. Only one lecturer give licture on one date of a
and Q ?
motnh. Different number of students attends class
on different days. No lecturer can give the lecture a) Three b) Two c) Four
after W. U gives lecture in the month which has 30 d) One e) None
days. T and Q lectures after U on the 7th of different 25. Who among the following gives lecture which is
months respectively. Number of students who attend attended by 80 students ?
class on 7th September is a whole square (two digit a) S b) T c) R
number). R does not give the lecture in the month in
d) U e) None of these
which Y and Q gives lecture. The sum of number of
students who attend class on the 7th of two month is 26. Four of the follwoign five are alike in a certain
152. Only three lecturers give lecture between U and way and hence they form a group. Which one
the lecturer whose class is attended by 68 students. of the following does not belong to that group ?
The difference of number of students who attned a) R b) 67 c) V
class on 7th September and the sum of number of d) T e) 64
students who attend class on May, is 58. Q gives
Directions (27– 31): Read the given information
lecture in the month which has 30 days. The average
carefully and answer the given questions.
of number of students who attend class on 21st April
and 21st June is 76. P gives lecture in the month J, K, L, M, S, T, U and V are eight employees of
which has 31 days. T gives lecture in one of the day an organization and they will attend a meeting in the
before Q. Total 55 students attend V’s lecture. V four motnhs (March, June, October & November).
does not give lecture in the month in which W gives. The meeting held in each month on 13th and 22nd
There are four persons who give lectures between date. Only two meetings held in a month. No person
can attend the meeting after L. M attends the meeting

46
in the month which has less than 31 days. S and U Pune with Q, but does not go with X. X goes on that
attends meeting after M on date 22nd of different city in which most of the person are going. V does
months, while J & K attends before M and K attends not go with S and Z but go with another person. Z
after J in the same month. V does not attend the goes to Pune. T does not go with U. W does not go
meeting in the month in which either S attends or L on 9th and 2nd of the month. X goes on an odd number
attends. date of the month and no any person go on that
27. How many people attends meeting between S date on which X goes in that city. One of the person,
and L ? who goes to Pune go on even number date of the
month. S goes on an odd number date fo the month.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
32. Who among the following person goes to
d) 4 e) None of these
Chandigarh ?
28. Four of the following follow a same pattern find
a) R b) V c) X
the one which does not follow ?
d) T e) Q
a) J – March b) S – 13
c) U – October 33. In which of the following city most of the persons
are going?
d) U – 22 e) T – November
a) Chandigarh b) Pune
29. Who attends meeting in November ?
c) Kochi
a) T, L b) M, T c) S, T
d) Both Kochi and Pune
d) S, U e) None of these
e) Patna
30. Who attends meeting immediately after M ?
34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
a) U b) S c) V way based on their positions in the above
d) T e) L arrangement and so form a group. Who among
31. S attends meeting in the month of ? the one that does not belong to that group ?
a) June b) October c) November a) S b) R c) Y
d) March e) None of these d) X e) T
Directions (32– 36): Study the following information 35. Which of the following statement is true
carefully and answer the given questions. regarding U ?
Ten persons Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are a) Only U goes to Chandigarh.
going to four cities on four different dates i.e. 2nd, 4th, b) U goes on 7th of the month
7th and 9th of the month. Each person goes on different c) None of the option is true
cities on different dates. Four cities are namely Pune,
d) U goes to that city in which most of the person
Chandigarh, Kochi and Patna, but not necessarily in
is going.
the same order. At least one person goes on each
e) U goes with Z.
date. No person goes to Pune on 4th of the month. R
does not go to any city on 2nd and 7th of the month. 36. Who among the following person goes on 2dn
The persons, who go on 7th go the every city. Y goes of the month ?
to Kochi only with that person who goes on 7th of the a) Z b) Q c) W
month. Maximum four persons can go on the same d) Y e) S
date. Only one person goes to Chandigarh. Z does
Directions (37 – 41): Read the following information
not go on 7th of the month. S does not go to Pune
carefully and answer the following questions.
but go with U, who goes on 9th of the month. One of
the person, who goes to Kochi, goes on even number Eight boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are place
date of the month, which is more than 3. R goes to one above the other in any particular order. Box no.

47
1 is at the bottom and box no. 8 is at the top. Three the box which is of orange colour and the box which
boxes are placed between A and B. Box H is placed is of green colour. The box which is of green colour
immediately below A. There are two boxes between is placed at the bottom. Not more than two boxes
H and G. There are as many boxes between C and are placed in between box V and box S. Box R is
D as between H and B. Box C is kept above D. Box placed just above the box of blue colour. Box V is
E is kept immediately below box D. Three boxes are not an immediate neighbor of Box S and Box P.
there between E and F. 42. How many boxes are there in the arrangement?
37. How many boxes are there above box D ? a) Ten b) Eleven c) Fourteen
a) 4 b) 3 c) 6 d) Twelve e) None of these
d) 2 e) None of these 43. How many boxes are there between box R and
38. Which of the following boxes is kept at the top? box U ?
a) B b) A c) D a) Five b) One c) Four
d) E e) None of these d) Two e) None of these
39. Choose the odd one out ? 44. Which box is immediately above Orange box ?
a) B b) G c) A a) S b) R c) Purple box
d) D e) E d) V e) Green box
40. Which of the follwoign boxes is kept between F Directions (45– 50): Read the given information
and A ? carefully and answer the given questions
a) B b) G c) C There are five units i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Each unit
d) H has a different height. Also each unit contains books
and boxes. Unit 2 is above unit 1 and unit 3 is above
e) None as box F is immediately above box A
unit 2 and so on. Every unit belongs to different
41. How many boxes are there between C and A.
country i.e. Beijing, Paris, London, Sydney and
a) Less than 2 b) 4 c) 5 Zurich. The total height of all five units is equal to
d) 6 e) None of these 252" ft.
Directions (42 – 44): Study the following information * Total Height of each Unit is equal to the total
carefully to answer the given question. height of books plus total height of boxes.
There are some boxes which are arranged one * Height of books is not equal to the height of
above another such that one box is placed at the boxes.
bottom and another box is placed just above that Unless the are specified..
box and all are arranged in the same order. The unit belongs to London is an even unit. The
Only two boxes are there in between Orange box total height of unit 1 is 75" ft. Sydney does not belong
and box U and Orange box is above box U. There is to unit 1. The total height of unit, which belongs to
only one box in between box P and box S. Box S is Sydney is 55" ft. There is only one unit between the
of Purple colour and is placed above box R. There units which belongs to London and Paris. The height
are three boxes in between Orange box and Green of books and height of boxes in unit 3 are equal.
box. Green box is placed below U, which is not of The height of books in unit 2 is not less than 30" ft.
blue colour. Only one box is placed in between box The height of books in unit 4 is 4" ft more than height
R and Orange box. More than four boxes are placed of books which is in unit 3. The total height of unit
in between box P and Orange box. There are as which belongs to London is not 37" ft. Unit which
many as boxes placed between box S and the box has 37" ft will not be immediate above to unit which
which is of Orange colour and as many as between has 20" ft more height than unit which belongs to

48
Sydney. The height of boxes in unit 2 is 23" ft. Unit colour is above M but not immediately above M.
belongs to Zurich does not equal height of books There are only three boxes between L and the box
and boxes. The total height of unit 2 is an odd number which is of Silvercolour. The box which is of Green
and more than 50" ft and less than 55"ft. Height of colour is immediately above L. The box which is of
boxes in unit 1 is 23" ft more than unit 4. Height of Pink colour is immediately above the box G. Only
books in unit 5 is 7" ft less than the height of books one box is there between K and N. Box K is above
of unit 1. N. Neither box K nor J is of Yellow colour. J is not of
45. What is the total height in unit 3 ? orange colour.
a) 37" ft b) None of these 51. How many box is/are there between M and G?
c) 32" ft d) 53" ft a) One b) Two c) Three
e) 75" ft d) Four e) None
46. Unit 3 belongs to which country ? 52. What is the colour of ‘O’ ?
a) Paris b) Zurich c) Sydney a) Green b) Brown c) Silver
d) Beijing e) London d) Pink e) Can’t be determined
47. If ‘Sydney’ is related to 37" ft in the same way 53. Find the pair of colour and boxes which is not
as ‘Beijing’ is related to 53" ft. Which of the correct ?
following is ‘Paris’ related to, following the same a) K – Pink b) O – Silver c) J – white
pattern ?
d) G – Brown e) None of these
a) 53" ft b) 37" ft c) 75" ft
54. Which of the following condition is correct
d) None of these e) 32" ft regarding yellow colour with respect to N ?
48. Four of the following five are alike in a certain a) There is one box between N and the Yellow
way and hence they form a group. Which one colour box
of the follwoign does not belong to that group ? b) N is immediately above of yellow colour box
a) Sydneyb) 32" ft c) 75" ft c) The Yellow colour box is related to the box
d) Paris e) Beijing which is immediately above N
49. What is the height of box in unit 4 ? d) All of the above is true
a) 23" ft b) 17" ft c) 27" ft e) None of the above is true
d) 40" ft e) 20" ft 55. Which of the following colour belongs to ‘J’ ?
50. Which unit contains 30" ft book ? a) Brown b) Pink c) Yeloow
a) None of these b) Unit 2 c) Unit 3 d) Orangee) None of these
d) Unit 1 e) Unit 5 Directions (56– 60): Read the following information
Direction (51– 55): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions;
carefully to answer the given question. There are six boxes M, N, O, P, Q and S in a
J, K, L, M, N, O and G are seven different boxes room, and placed one above another, each having
of different colours i.e. Brown, Orange, Silver, Pink, different number of toffees i.e. 10, 15, 18, 21, 24
Yellow, White and Green but not necessarily in the and 32, also they are of different colours i.e. Red,
same order. Yellow, Pink, Green, White, and Blue (but not
The Box which is of Brown colour is immediately necessarily in the same order).
above J. There are only two boxes between M and Only three boxes are placed between box M and
box which is of Brown colour and Box M is above P, which has odd number of toffees. There is only
the Brown colour box. The Box which is of Silver one box is placed between P and N, which is of yellow

49
colour. Box Q is of red colour and doesn’t place just glass slabs and photo frames. There is at least one
above and below box N, but placed one of the boxes glass slab in each photo frames. There is at least
above box N. The box which is placed just above P one glass slab in each shelf. The length of each
is of white colour. The box which is placed at top glass slab is 15 cm and that of each photo frame is
has 11 toffees more than box P. Box S’s colour is 6 cm.
not white. Green coloured box has 18 toffees. At The shelf 3 has length 33 cm. There is one shelf
least two boxes are placed below M, which has odd between shelf 3 and yellow shelf. The yellow shelf
number of toffees. Box P is not of blue colour and contains 1 glass slab and 6 photo frames more than
box O doesn’t have 24 toffees. that in shelf 3. The silver shelf is just above the yellow
56. What si the colour of the Box which has 10 shelf. The silver shelf contains same number of glass
toffees ? slabs as yellow shelf and 1 photo frame. There are
a) White b) Yellow c) Green 2 shelves between silver and green slabs. The length
of green shelf is 3 cm greater than the silver shelf.
d) Blue e) None of these
The blue shelf is immediate next in number to green
57. Which of the following box is placed at top and shelf. The blue shelf contains 1 glass slab more than
how many toffees are therein it ? that in silver shelf and 1 photo frame less than that
a) N, 32 b) Q, 24 c) O, 18 in green shelf. There is one shelf between blue and
d) Q, 32 e) None of these orange shelves. The white shelf is just below the
58. How many boxes are placed between Q and orange shelf. There is one shelf between white and
the box which is of pink colour ? red shelf. Black shelf is in row 2. The pink shelf is
just below the black shelf. The black shelf has same
a) One b) Three c) Two
numer of photo frames and glass slabs. The orange
d) More than three shelf has 1 glass slab more than black shelf. The
e) None of these length of orange shelf is 24 cm more than the length
59. Which box is placed just above box N ? of pink shelf. The length of violet shelf is half the
length of yellow shelf. The red shelf has greater than
a) S b) P c) M
or equal to four glass slabs. The length of pink shelf
d) Q e) None of these is 6 cm less than the shelf immediate next in number.
60. Which of the following box has maximum The length of row 1 is 267 cm and that of row 2 is
number of toffees ? 249 cm. Blue shelf is not next to Black shelf.
a) The box which is placed just above M 61. How many more photo frames can the row 2
b) N c) Both a) and d) adjust ?
d) Red coloured e) None of these a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
Directions (61– 65): Study the following d) None e) 4
information carefully and answers the questions 62. The colour of shelf 2 is ?
given below. There are 10 shelves numbered 1, a) Cannot be determined b) Violet
2…..10. They are arragned in two rows one above
c) Red d) White
the other. The shelves 1, 2………5 are in row 1 and
rest in row 2 which is above row 1. The shelves are e) Pink
arranged in increasing order of number given to them. 63. How many total glass slabs do the silver, black
Like the shelf number 1 is placed on extreme left of and red shelves contain ?
row 1, then shelf number 2 and so on. Similarly the
a) 7 b) 9 c) 10
shelf number 6 is placed on extreme left of row 2,
and so on. Each shelf contaisn a certain number of d) other than those given in options e) 12

50
64. What is the total length of the Pink, orange and 67. Which of the following represents the people
blue shelves ? who attned ceremony in January and June
a) 146 cm b) 134 cm c) 141 cm respectively ?

d) 133 cm e) 126 cm a) V, S b) U, S c) Q, T

65. If all the photo frames of silver and white shelves d) U, R e) V, R

are removed and added in black shelf then what 68. How many persons attend ceremony between
will be the total length of black shelf now ?
the months in which V and R attend ceremony?
a) 67 cm b) 66 cm c) 61 cm
a) None b) Three c) Two
d) 69 cm e) 62 cm
d) One e) More than three
Directions (66– 70): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below: 69. As per the given arrangement, R is related to
Seven persons, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are going to Banana and P is related to Orange following a
attend marriage ceremony but not necessarily in the certain pattern, which of the follwoign is U
same order, in seven different months (of the same related to following the same pattern ?
year) namely January, February, March, June, a) Mango b) Litchi c) Apple
August, October and December but not necessarily
in the same order. Each of them also likes a different d) Papayae) None of these
fruit namely Banana, Grapes, Papaya, Orange, 70. which of the follwoign represents the fruit in
Mango, Litchi and Apple but not necessarily in the which U attends marriage ceremony ?
same order. R is going to attend marriage in month
which has less than 31 days. Only two persons are a) Papayab) Mango c) Litchi
going to attned marriage ceremony between the d) Grapes e) Apple
month in which R and S attend marriage ceremony.
Directions (71– 75); Read the following information
The one who likes Banana is going to attend
carefully and answer the questions given below.
marriage ceremony immediately before T. Only one
person attends ceremony before the one who likes L, M, N, O, P, R and Q are seven employees who
Papaya. Q attends ceremony immediately after the are working in the same company. They attend
one who likes Papaya. Only three persons attend meeting in different department viz; administrative,
marriage ceremony between Q and the one who Security, Finance and HR department on different
likes mango. T likes neither Mango nor Papaya. P days from Monday to Sunday but not necessarily in
attends ceremony immediately before T. V likes the same order. One employee attends only one
Apple. The one who likes Grapes attends ceremony meeting and only one meeting is held on each day.
in the month, which has less than 31 days. The one There are two employees who attend meeting in
who attends ceremony in March does not like orange. administrative. Security, HR department and only
66. Which of the following represents the month in one employee attends meeting in Finance
department.
which S attends marriage ceremony ?
L attends meeting on Thursday. There are two
a) January
persons who attend meeting between L and the
b) Cannot be determined person who attends meeting in HR department. There
c) October are three persons who attend meeting between the
persons who attend meeting in Administrative
d) December
department and the one who attends meeting in
e) June Finance department. The one who attends meeting

51
in administrative department attends before the one d) HR e) Sunday
who attends in finance department. The one who
75. How many persons attend meeting between P
attends meeting in finance department does not
and O ?
attend on Saturday. The number of persons who
attend meeting between L and the one who attend a) 3 b) 4 c) 2
meeting in finance department is same as the d) 1 e) None of these
number of persons who attend meeting between O
and the one who attends meeting in security Directions (76– 80): Study the following
department. The one who attends meeting in security information carefully to answer the given questions.
department attend before O. O does not attend Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, P, Q, R, S and T
meeting in HR department. Q attends meeting on attend seminar on different days of the week. Only
the day immediately before the day on which L two persons attend seminar on a day in the morning
attends meeting. O does not attend meeting on the and in the evening. There are two times on a day in
day just after the day on which L attends meeting. which seminars are organized i.e. 10 a.m. and 3 p.m.
The number of persons who attend meeting between The days are starting from Monday to Friday.
L and P is same as the number of persons who attend
P attends seminar on Wednesday on 3 p.m. A
meeting between L and R. P attends meeting in one
attends seminar before P but not immediate before
of the day before the day on which R attends meeting.
and he does not attend seminar on 3 p.m. C does
N attends meeting in administrative department. R
not attend seminar on Tuesday. T does not attend
does not attend meeting in security department.
seminar on 3 p.m. Only four persons attend seminar
71. Who among the following person attend between C and R. C attends seminar before R. Only
meeting on Friday ? three persons attend seminar between Q and C. Q
attends seminar in the morning. There are only four
a) O b) M c) P
seminars were held between T and D. T attends
d) N e) R seminar before D who does not attend seminar on
72. Which of the following combinations of “Person Monday. There are two days gap between S and
– Day” is true with respect to the given E. S attends seminar in the evening, but before E
arrangement ? 76. Who attend seminar on the Tuesday evening ?
a) R – Friday b) M – Saturday a) D b) T c) A
c) Q – Thursday d) P – Friday d) None of these e) B
e) P – Tuesday 77. How many seminar are held between Monday
73. L attends meeting in which of the following evening seminar and Thursday evening
department ? seminar?
a) Security b) HR a) Two b) Five c) Four
c) Administrative d) Finance d) Six e) None of these
e) Either a) or b) 78. If Q is related to D in the same way as C is
74. In this arrangement. Q is related to Monday, L related to B. then which of the follwoign is T
is related to Security then N is related to ? related to, following the same pattern ?

a) Thursday b) Wednesday a) E b) P c) A

c) None of the given options is true d) S e) None of these

52
79. How many days are there between A’s seminar I. If outcome of the string is between 45 and 90,
and D’s seminar ? the Yellow bulb blinks.
a) Two b) Five c) Four II. If outcome of the string is between 105 and 145,
the Pink bulb blinks.
d) Three e) None of these
III. If outcome of the string is between 175 and 225,
80. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
the Red bulb blinks.
way and thus form a group. Which is the one
IV. If outcome of the string is between 250 and 325,
that does not belong to that group?
the Green bulb blinks.
a) AB b) QD c) CD V. If outcome of the string is between 350 and 475,
d) TC e) TP the Blue bulb blinks.
Directions (81-85) Study the following VI. If none of the above condition follows then, no
information carefully and answer the below bulb blinks.
questions. For outcome of the string:-
There is a 7x5 matrix which can produce I. If all the numbers of the string is an even number
frequency signals which help in illumination of some then, resultant frequency can be obtained by
bulbs. The rows of the matrix are denoted by @, #, multiplying tenth’s place digit of two digit
%, ^, &, £ and ¥ from bottom to top and the columns numbers.
are denoted by I, II, III, IV and V from left to right: II. If a second number is a prime number and
First row (¥) contains numbers which are second last number is a multiple of ‘4’ then,
consecutive multiple of ‘7’ starting from ‘21’. resultant frequency can be obtained by sum of
Second row (£) contains numbers which are all two digits number.
consecutive number following given equation n III. If a prime number is preceded by a perfect square
(n +1)/2 starting from n = 2. then, resultant frequency can be obtained by
Third row (&) contains numbers which are multiplying one’s place digits.
consecutive multiple of ‘13’ from ‘26’. IV. If all the numbers in the string is an odd number
Fourth row (^) contains numbers which are then, resultant frequency can be obtained by
consecutive multiple of ‘9’ from ’27’. square of the difference of second highest and
Fifth row (%) contains numbers which are second lowest number.
consecutive multiple of ‘6’ from ‘18’. V. If perfect cube number is followed by a perfect
Sixth row (#) contains numbers which are square number then, resultant frequency can be
consecutive number following given equation (3n2 obtained by product of sum of digits of highest
+ 4) starting from n = 1. and lowest number.
Seventh row (@) contains numbers which are VI. If none of the above condition follows then,
consecutive multiple of ‘3’ from ‘9’. resultant frequency can be obtained by difference
The matrix helps in producing frequency which of highest and lowest number.
is a string of numbers. There are five bulbs Red, VII. If more than one strings are given then, resultant
Green, Yellow, Blue and Pink. Based on the frequency can be obtained by sum of results of
outcome of the string frequency one of the bulb individual strings.
blinks. 81. If A = %I £V ^IV &II, B = @II &III ¥II #IV, C =
Condition for blink:- %II ^II £I ¥II, then which of the following bulb
blinks?

53
 a) Red b) Pink 84. Which of the following statement is not true?
c) Blue d) Yellow a) T = %II #III &IV @III blinks Yellow bulb.
e) None blinks b) K = ¥II @I #I ¥I blinks Red bulb.
82. If X = £IV #III ¥II @II, Y = ¥II &V ^II #III, Z = ¥IV c) F = &III @IV %II %IV none of the bulb blinks.
^I #II @V, then which of the following bulb d) H = ^I %IV ¥II &V blinks Pink bulb.
blinks? e) More than one statements are not true.
a) Blue b) Red 85. If F = %II #III #IV @II and H = £I ^I &II ^V, then
c) Green d) Red which of the following bulb blinks?
e) None blinks a) Blue b) Red
83. What is the possible cell number for the c) Green d) Red
missing value of given string P = #V__¥I__, e) None blinks
such that Green bulb blinks?
a) #III and &II b) ¥I and %V
c) ^V and ^III d) #IV and £V
e) None of these

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (e) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (e) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19 (d) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (e) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (e) 40. (e)
41. (e) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (e) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (e) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (e) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (e) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (e) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (e) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (d)
81. (e) 82. (e) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (c)

54
 SEQUENCE

Horizontal and
CHAPTER
Sequence Circular Sequence
Directions (01-05) : Read the following (d) 3rd to the left of D
information and answer the questions given below: (e) None of these
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a circle Directions (06-10) : Read the following
facing the centre and playing cards. information and answer the questions given below:
(ii) E is the neighbour of A and D. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
(iii) G is not between F and C sitting around a rectangular table in such a way that,
(iv) F is on the immediate right of A. two persons sit on each of the four sides of the table
facing the centre. Persons sitting on opposite sides
1. Which pair given below has the second person
are exactly opposite to each other.
sitting immediately on the right of the first?
D faces North and sits exactly opposite to H. E
(a) CB (b) DG
is in the immediate left of H. A and G sit on the same
(c) EA (d) AB side. G is exactly opposite of B, who is on the
(e) None immediate right of C. A is next to the left of D.

2. Which of the following has the persons sitting 6. Who is sitting opposite to A?
adjacent to each other from right to left in order (a) G (b) D
as given?
(c) E (d) C
(a) CDG (b) EDG
(e) None
(c) BGC (d) FBC
7. Who is next to E in clockwise direction?
(e) None
(a) G (b) B
3. Who are the neighbours of B?
(c) F(d) A or F
(a) CD (b) GC
(e) None
(c) AF (d) Data Inadequate
8. Which of the following pairs of persons has both
(e) None the persons sitting on the same side with the
4. Which of the following does not have the pair first person sitting on the right of the second
sitting adjacent to each other? person?

(a) BA (b) CB (a) DF (b) CB

(c) DE (d) GD (c) FC (d) AG

(e) All are sitting adjacent to each other (e) None

5. What is the position of F? 9. Who is sitting opposite of E?

(a) On the immediate left of A (a) D (b) A

(b) On the immediate right of B (c) F(d) A or D

(c) 2nd to the right of C (e) None

55
 SEQUENCE
10. Which of the following statement is definitely 11. Who among the following sits diagonally
true? opposite the one who likes Mathematics?
(a) A is facing North (a) The one who likes Hindi
(b) E is sitting opposite to F (b) Dolly
(c) F is on the left of G (c) Arti
(d) C is on the left of A (d) The one who likes English
(e) None (e) The one who likes Biology
Directions (11-17) : Read the following information 12. Who among the following represent the
and answer the questions given below: immediate neighbours of the one who likes
Arti, Baby, Chandni, Dolly, Esha, Falguni, Gopi Chemistry?
and Himani are sitting around a square table in such (a) Baby, Falguni (b) Chandni, Esha
a way that four of them sit at four corners of the (c) Baby, Esha (d) Dolly, Falguni
square while four sit in the middle of each of the
(e) Falguni, Himani
foursides. The one who sits at the four corners face
the centre of the table while those who sit in the 13. Who among the followings select exactly
middle of the sides faces outside. between Himani and Baby?
Each of them likes a different subject - (a) Chandni
Mathematics, Hindi, English, Biology, Chemistry, (b) The one who likes Hindi
Physics,History and Geography. (None of the
(c) The one who likes Biology
information given is necessarily in the same order)
(d) Gopi
Chandni sits third to the left of the person who
likes Geography. The one who likes Geography (e) Arti
faces outside. There are only two persons sit 14. Which of the following is true regarding Baby?
between Chandni and Himani (a) Baby is one of the immediate neighbours
Dolly sits on the immediate left of the one who of Dolly
likes Physics. Gopi does not likes Physics. (b) The one who likes Geography is an
Esha likes History. Esha is not immediate immediate neighbour of Baby
neighbour of Arti. (c) Baby sits second to the left of Himani
The person who likes Hindi is an immediate (d) Baby likes History
neighbour of Esha.
(e) Baby is the immediate neighbour of the one
The person who likes Biology is an immediate who like Mathematics.
neighbour of Falguni. 15. What is the position of the one who likes Physics
The one who likes Mathematics sits in the with respect to Gopi?
immediate right of Himani. The one who likes (a) Second to the Left
Chemistry sits second to the right of Gopi. Gopi
(b) Third to the right
is neither an immediate neighbour of Himani nor
Chandni. Gopi does not like Geography. (c) Fourth to the left
There is only one person sits between Arti and (d) Second to the right
the one who likes Chemistry. (e) Third to the left

56
 SEQUENCE
16. Which of the following subjects does Dolly like? (c) Anil and Ramesh
(a) Biology (b) Mathematics. (d) Abhishek and Rahul
(c) Hindi (d) Chemistry (e) Rohit and Abhijeet
(e) English 20. Which of the following pair is true?
17. Who among the following likes Geography? (a) Romil – Bhopal (b) Anil – Bengaluru
(a) Baby (b) Faguni (c) Rohit – Delhi (d) Abhijeet – Delhi
(c) Himani (d) Arti (e) Abhishek – Patna
(e) Dolly 21. What is the position of Ramesh with respect to
Directions (18- 22) : Study the information carefully Rahul?
and answer the following questions: (a) Third to the right (b) Fourth to the left
Eight friends – Romil, Ramesh, Rakesh, Rohit, (c) Fifth to the right (d) Second to the right
Rahul, Abhijit, Abhishek and Anil – are sitting around (e) Third to the left
a circular table, not necessarily in the same order.
22. If Rohit and Anil interchange their positions and
Four of them are facing inside others are facing
similarly Abhishek and Rakesh interchange their
outside. They are belong to eight different cities –
positions then what is the position of Romil with
Bhopal, Patna, Kolkata, Delhi, Gwalior, Bengaluru,
respect to Rakesh?
Chennai and Rajkot, but not necessarily in the same
order. (a) Third to the left (b) Third to the right
Abhijit faces the Centre and sits third to the right (c) Second to the left (d) Immediate left
of Rakesh. Rohit belongs to Kolkata and faces the (e) None of these
person who belongs to Bengaluru. Abhishesk sits Directions (23 – 27): study the following information
third to the right of Ramesh, who stays in Bhopal. carefully and answer the given questions.
The persons who belong to Delhi and Gwalior There are eight members i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and
are facing to the same direction (inside or outside). H in a family having three generation and all are
Rahul is sitting between the person who belongs to related to C in a certain way. They all are sittign
Kolkata and the one from Rajkot respectively. Romil around a circular table such that all are facing
belongs to Gwalior and Rakesh belongs to Patna. towards the centre. Father of C sits second to the
The person who belongs to Chennai is facing outward left of Father-in-law of C. A is married to H. C sits
and immediate neighbour of Rajkot. Anil is immediate third to the left of his father-in-law. G is the only girl
neighbour of the persons who belong to Gwalior and child of E. E is the daughter in law of D, who is the
father of C. H is mother of B, who is uncle of F. C’s
Chennai. Rahul is immediate left of Rohit.
wife sits either second to the right or second to the
18. Who belongs to Bengaluru? left of C. Brother-in-law of C sits third to the right fo
(a) Romil (b) Rohit C’s daughter. F and G are sibling. Mother-in-law of
C sits third to the right of C’s son. C’s Son and
(c) Anil (d) Abhishek
brother-in-law are not immediate neighbours.
(e) Rahul 23. How D is related to F ?
19. Immediate neighbors of Romil? a) Fathter b) Mother
(a) Ramesh and Rakesh c) Grand Father d) Sister
(b) Rahul and Rohit e) None of these

57
 SEQUENCE
24. Who among the following sits on the immediate sitting next to W like neither news channel nor
right of G ? entertainment channel. T is not sitting opposite to
a) Father of B b) Mother-in-law of C female. One of the sons of V is sitting on the
immediate left of V. Only one person is sitting
c) Sister of B d) Father fo G
between U and T but that person is not Y.
e) None of these
28. The only male who is sitting opposite a female
25. Who among the following is the daughter of C? likes which of the follwoign channel ?
a) A b) D c) F
a) News channel
d) H e) G
b) Entertainment channel
26. How is C related to H ?
c) Sports channel
a) Daughter-in-law b) Father-in-law
d) Cartoon channel
c) brother-in-law d) Son-in-law
e) None of these
e) None of these
29. The only person who is sittign between T and U
27. Who among the follwoign sits third to the right
likes which of the following channel ?
of father –in – law of C ?
a) News channel
a) Wife of C b) Brother-in-law of C
b) Entertainment channel
c) Father of C d) Son of C
c) Sports channel
e) Daughter of C
d) Cartoon channel
Directions (28– 32): Read the follwoign information
and answer the questions that follow: e) None of these
Eight persons S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z of a 30. The two females who are sitting adjacent to
family are sitting around a round dinning table. There each other are ?
are three married couples in the family. They are a) U and W b) U and V
from three generations. There are no unmarried
c) W and X
females in the family. T and S are the only offspring’s
of V while Y and Z are offspring of W and U d) Can’t be determined
respectively. X is the wife of V. U is one of the females e) None of these
and she is not the wife of S. Among them, three
31. Who among the following female likes sports
members like entertainment channel, two members
channel ?
like news channel, two members like sports channel
and one member likes cartoon channel. Each person a) X b) W c) T
likes only one television channel. They are all d) V e) None of these
watching television and discussing their views on 32. Y is sitting between whom among the following
different news channel. None of the member of the persons ?
third generation is married.
a) S and U b) U and T
They sit in such a manner that only one of the
grandson of V is sitting between U and S, while only c) S and X d) W and V
W is sitting between T and X. The Persons who are e) None of these
sitting on the immediate left of Y and immediate right Directions (33– 37): Study the following information
of T do not like entertainement channel while Z likes carefully and answer the given questions.
cartoon channel. Z, who is not sitting next to T, is
There are eight members of the family i.e. J, Z, L, M,
also not sitting opposite to V. The persons, who are
N, O, P and Q. They all are going in a restaurant for

58
 SEQUENCE
dinner. All of them like different types of pens i.e. Directions (38– 42): Study the following information
Motex, Renold, Getter, Parker, Cello, Natraj, Gel and carefully to answer the given questions.
Kevin. Among them, four are males and four are Eight members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W of a
females. There are three husbands, three wife, two family are sitting around a circular table with all of
daughters, and two sons in the family. They all are them facing outwards. Each one of them like different
sitting around a circular table, facing the cnetre. Breakfasts viz. Burger, Pizza, Sandwich, Roll,
J is father of L and O, who is a male and likes Paratha, Poha, Pasta and Maggie. Three married
Natraj pen. All females sit together. M likes Kevin couples are there in the family. S is the mother of P
pen and is sitting second to the left of her father. No and T and sits second to the left of T. W is the only
male like Getter pen. Q likes Cello pen and married sister-in-law of P whereas Q likes Poha and is
to the one who likes Natraj pen. M is daughter of L, daughter-in-law of R. The two youngest members
who is second to the right of her son. The one who sit next to each other. The one likes the pizza
likes Gel pen is married to the one who likes Parker Breakfast sits between V and the one who likes
Pen. Neither J nor Z likes Parker Pen. N likes Getter Paratha. V is third to the left of S. U is an immediate
pen and is sitting between the one who likes Renold neighbor of her aunty W who does not sit next to S.
pen and the one who likes Gel pen. P is father of Z R does not like Maggie or Pasta. V does not like
and is sitting between two male members. J and Z Sandwich or Pasta. The one who likes Poha sits
cannot sit adjacent to each other. between the(a) persons who like Pasta and Maggie
33. Who among the following person likes Kevin Respectively. S’s husband and son sit next to her.
pen ? Roll Breakfast is not liked by V’s father. P who is the
father of U and uncle of V sits immediate to the left
a) Z b) L c) O
of the person who likes Burger.
d) P e) None of these
38. Which of the following statements is true
34. How is P related to Z ? regarding the family ?
a) Mother b) Uncle a) P is the brother of W
c) Father d) Brother-in-law
b) R is the father-in-law of P
e) None of these
35. Which of the following pen is liked by J ? c) Q is the aunty of V

a) Gel pen b) Motex pen d) U and V are married couple

c) Natraj pen d) Cello pen e) None of these
e) None of these 39. Who among the following sits between Q and
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain the one who likes pizza Breakfast ?
way and hence they form a group. Which one a) P b) T c) S
of the following does not belong to that group ? d) V e) W
a) Gel Pen b) Parker pen 40. What is the position of the person who likes Roll
c) J’s wife d) Q e) Z’s Breakfast with respect to the one who likes
sister Poha Breakfast ?
37. Who sits third to the right of P ? a) Third to the right b) Second to the left
a) The Person like Getter pen c) Immediate left d) Third to the left
b) N e) Fourth to the left
c) Both a) and d) 41. Who among the following likes Sandwich ?
d) The Person like Cello pen a) W b) U c) V
e) None of these d) X e) T

59
 SEQUENCE
42. Which of the follwoign options represent a pair? a) The one who likes Lucy b) C
a) Y, X b) W, T c) The one who likes Sultan d) A
c) W, R d) S, U e) None of these
e) None of these 44. Who among the following likes Lucy movie ?
Direction (43– 47): Study the information carefully a) E b) A’s brother
and answer the questions given below. c) C’s sister d) H
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight family members e) None of these
who are sitting around a circular table. They are from 45. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
three generations. Three of them are facing outside way and hence they form a group. Which one
the center and rests are facing to the centre. They of the following does not belong to that group ?
are divide into two groups. There are three members a) C’s daughter b) Dangal c) G
who like different Bollywood movie while the others
d) A’s nephew e) Raees
like different Hollywood movies. The Bollywood
movies are Sultan, Dangals, Raees but not 46. Which of the following statement is true about
necessarily in the same order and The Hollywood the given information ?
movies are Wonder women, Transformer, Mission a) D’s father – Lucy
impossible, Lucy and Salt but not necessarily in the b) H’s daughter-in-law-Salt
same order.
c) A’s mother-Raees
i. A and B are a married couple, A is the male
d) C’s sister-Salt
member.
e) None of these
ii. E’s grandmother sits opposite to D, who likes
Salt movie and exactly one of them is facing 47. Which among the following does not belong to
the centre. C’s brother likes Wonder women and the same group ?
sits third to the right of the one who likes Mission a) Transformer b) Mission impossible
impossible. Both face the same direction. c) Lucy d) Sultan
iii. The one who likes Lucy sits second to the left e) Wonder Women
of C, who is facing to the cnetre. Direction (48– 52): Study the following information
iv. D is the only son of the one who likes Dangal, to answer the given questions.
who is the brother of A. there is only one person Eight students M, N, O, P, U, V, W and X are sittign
A sits between the one who likes Salt movie around a square table in such a way four of them sit
and D’s grandfather, who likes transformer at four corners while four sit in the middle of each of
movie. E is the sister of D. F is third to the left of the four sides. The one who sit at the 4 corners face
B’s sister-in-law, who likes Sultan movie. the centre and others facing outside.
v. The one who likes wonder women is facing M who faces the centre sits third to the left of V. U
outside. B is the daughter-in-law of F. who faces the centre is not an immediate neighbor
vi. The neighbours of the one who likes Lucy movie of V. Only one person sits between V and W. P sits
are facing the same direction. B likes neither second to right of N. N faces the centre. O is not an
Lucy nor Raees. H is the mother of G, who is immediate neighbor of M.
sister of A. 48. Which one does not belong to that group out of
43. Who among the following sits third to the right five ?
of the E’s grandmother ? a) N b) O c) U
d) P e) M

60
 SEQUENCE
49. Which will come in the place of ? a) T is an immediate neighbor of the person
NOU UXM MWP ? from Agra.
a) PVN b) PWM b) T is the person from Lucknow.
c) POW d) POV e ) c) The person from Agra is an immediate
None of these neighbor of X.
50. What is the position of W with respect to O ? d) The person from Pune sits between X and
a) Third to the right b) Secodn to the left the person from Goa.
c) Secodn to the right d) Fourth to the right e) M sits second to the right of S.
e) None of these 54. W belongs to which of the following city ?
51. Who sits third to the left of N ? a) Agra b) Jaipur
c) Delhi d) Kolkata
a) X b) M c) W
e) Pune
d) V e) None of these
55. What is the position of the person from Kolkata
52. Which if true from the given arrangement ?
with respect to the person from Chennai ?
a) W faces the centre
a) Immediately to the left
b) N faces outside
b) Third to the left
c) X faces inside
c) Second to the left
d) M faces the centre d) Fourth to the left
e) None of these e) Second to the right
Directions (53-57): Read the following information
56. Who sits exactly between the person from
carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Lucknow and M ?
In a meeting eight persons P, Q, M, S, T, X, Z and a) W
W of different cities are sittign around a square table
b) The person from Jaipur
facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same
order. Each one of them belongs to different cities c) The person from Goa
i.e. Agra, Lucknow, Jaipur, Delhi, Kolkata, Goa, d) Cannot be determined
Chennai and Pune, but not necessarily in the same e) X
order. X sits second to the right of the person from
57. What is the position of the person from Jaipur
Delhi. Two people sit between the person from
when counted anti-clockwise direction from M?
Chennai and Q. M and T are immediate neighbors
a) Immediately to the left
of each other. The person from Chennai is an
immediate neighbor of the person from Delhi. The b) Third to the left
person from Jaipur sits second to the right of S, Who c) Second to the left
belongs to Lucknow. Z and the person from Agra d) Fourth to the left
are immediate neighbours of each other. Q is not
e) None of these
the person from Agra. Only one person sits between
M and S. W sits third to left of the person from Pune. Direction (58– 62): Study the following information
The person from Goa sits second to left of the person carefully and answer the given questions.
of Kolkata. Neither M nor T is an immediate neighbor Eight members of a family A, B, C, D, E, F, G and
of either Q or person from Delhi. Q does not face H are sitting around a square table. Four of them
the person from delhi. sitting at the corner side whereas remaining four each
53. Which of the following is true with respect to of the middle of the side and facing the Centre but
the given seating arrangement ? not necessarily in the same order.

61
 SEQUENCE
 B sits second to left of H’s husband. No female same sequence. The persons who are on the sides
is an immediate neighbor of B. of larger park facing center and The persons who
 D’s daughter sits second to right of F. F is the are at side of smaller park facing outside such that
sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbor of inner sides persons and outer sides persons are
H’s husband. facing each other. There is one person standing
 Only one person sits between A and F. A is the between B and D. C faces B. A is to the immediate
father of G. H’s brother D sits to the immediate right of C. G is not the immediate neighbor of D. G
left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between faces neither D nor F. One person is standing
H’s mother and E. between H and F. E is facing the center.
 Only one person sits between H and G. G is 63.Which of the following persons are facing to each
the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbor other ?
of E. a) BD b) EB c) FH
58. What is the position of A with respect to his d) DE e) AH
mother-in-law ?
64. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
a) Immediate left b) Third to the right
way based from a group which one of the
c) Third to the leftd) Second to the right following does not belong to that group ?
e) Fourth to the left
a) EF b) CH c) DA
59. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter ?
d) FC e) BH
a) B b) C c) E
Directions (65 – 69): Read the following information
d) G e) H
carefully to find given questions.
60. What is the position of A with respect to his
grandchild ? 8 persons namely P, Q, R, S, W, X, Y and Z are
a) Immediate right b) Third to the right sitting around a square table facing towards center.
4 of the persons are sitting in 4 corners while 4 of
c) Third to the leftd) Second to the right
the persons are sitting in the middle of the sides.
e) Fourth to the left They have different ages. Those who sit in the
61. How many people sit between G and her uncle corners having the ages multiple of 3. Those who sit
? at the middle of the sides having the ages multiple
a) One b) Two c) Three of 2.
d) Four e) More than four P sits 2nd to the right of the one who has the age
62. Four of the following five are alike in a certain of 44. P is an immediate neighbor of the one who is
way based on the given information and so form 39 years old. Two persons sit between Q and having
a group. Which is the one that does not belong the age of 39. Q has not the age of 44. W sits 2nd to
to that group ? the left of Q. S is immediate right of the person having
a) F b) C c) E age of 15. Three persons sit between Z and the one
d) H e) G having age of 15. The difference between the ages
Directions (63– 64): Study the information carefully of Z and the one who is 2nd to the left of Z is 6. S is
and answer the questions given below. older than Z. Immediate neighbours of S are younger
than S. Person having age 22 sits 2nd to the right of
There are two square fields of different size such the person having age 10. Age of P is not 10. Y sits
that the larger one is surrounding smaller field. Four immediate left of the person having age of 22. Age
gates are there for each field in the middle of the of Y is 51. Age of R is greater than 20. Age of R is
sides. Eight people A, B. C, D, E, F, G and H are 24 years more than X. Age of X is 3 years more than
standing at different gates but not necessary in the age of P.

62
 SEQUENCE
65. Who among the following is of 9 years old ? 72. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
a) P b) S c) W way based on their seating positions in the
above line and so form a group. Which is the
d) X e) No one
one that does not belong to the group?
66. Who sits 2nd right of the one who sits immediate
left of the one whose age is 51 years old ? (a) UW (b) XV

a) R b) S c) Y (c) ZT (d) YV

d) Q e) W (e) WX
67. How many persons sit between the one who is 73. If all the seven friends are made to sit
of 15 years old and the one who is of 12 years alphabetically from right to left, positions of how
old, when counted anticlockwise from the one many will remain unchanged?
who is of 15 years old ? (a) None (b) One
a) One b) Two c) Three (c) Two (d) Three
d) More than three e) N.O.T
(e) Four
68. Who among the following sits diagonally
Directions (74-77) : Read the following
opposite to Z ?
information and answer the questions given below:
a) X b) T c) S
(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows and three on
d) P e) W each row, facing North and South are allotted
69. Who among the following sits immediate right to P, Q, R, S, T and U.
of S ?
(ii) Q gets a North facing flat and is not next to S.
a) P b) W c) Y
(iii) S and U are diagonally opposite flats.
d) R e) Z
(iv) R next to U gets a South facing flat and T gets
Directions (70-73) : Read the following information a North facing flat.
and answer the given questions:
74. Whose flat is between Q and S?
Seven friends T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting
(a) T (b) U
in a straight line facing north. W sits fifth to the right
of T. W does not sit at any of the extreme ends. Two (c) R (d) P
people sit between Z and X. Y sits third to the left of (e) Data Inadequate
U. Y sits exactly in the middle. Z is not an immediate
75. The flats of which of the other pairs than SU is
neighbour of Y.
diagonally opposite to each other?
70. What is Z’s position with respect to w?
(a) PT (b) QP
(a) Second to the left (b) Third to the right
(c) QR (d) TS
(c) Fourth to the left (d) Third to the left
(e) None
(e) Fourth to the right
76. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whose
71. Who is second to the right of T? flat will be next to that of U?
(a) Y (b) X (a) Q (b) T
(c) U (d) V (c) P (d) R
(e) None of these (e) None

63
 SEQUENCE
77. Which of the combinations get South facing the following is T related to, following the same
flats? pattern?
(a) URP (b) UPT (a) C (b) D
(c) QTS (d) Data Inadequate
(c) E (d) F
(e) None
(e) Can’t be determined
Directions (78-83) : Study the following information
to answer the given questions: 82. Which of the following is true regarding T?

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows (a) F faces T

containing six people each such that they are (b) V is an immediate neighbour of T
equidistant from each other. In row 1st: P, Q, R, S, T (c) F faces the one who is second to the right
and V are seated and all of them are facing south. In of T
row 2nd: A, B, C, D, E, and F are seated and all of
(d) T sits at one of the extreme ends of the
them are facing North. Thus people of one row is
line.
facing the people other row.
(e) Q sits second to the right of T
S sits third to the right of Q. Either S or Q sits at
an extreme end of the line. The one who faces Q 83. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
sits second to the right of E. Two people sit between way based on the given arrangement and so
B and F. Neither B nor F sits at an extreme end of form a group. Which is the one that does not
the line. The immediate neighbour of B faces the belong to that group?
person who sits third to the left of P. R and T are (a) A-T (b) B-T
immediate neighbours. C sits second to the left of A.
(c) F-P (d) C-V
T does not face the immediate neighbour of D.
(e) E-Q
78. Who amongst the following sit at the extreme
ends of the rows? Directions (84-86) : Study the following
information to answer the given questions:
(a) S, D (b) Q, A
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting in a straight
(c) V, C (d) P, D
line facing north. Each one of them lives in different
(e) Q, F floor in the same building which is numbered from
79. Who amongst the following faces S? one to seven.
(a) A (b) B Q sits fourth to the left of the person living on
the 6th floor. Either Q or the person living on the 6 th
(c) C (d) D
floor sits at the extreme ends of the line.
(e) F
Only one person sits between Q and W. W lives
80. How many persons are seated between V and on the 3rd floor. The person living on the 1st floor sits
R? third to the right of S. S is not an immediate neighbour
(a) 1(b) 2 of W. Only one person lives between T and the
person who lives on the 2nd floor.
(c) 3(d) 4
P and R are immediate neighbours of each
(e) None of these
other. P does not live on the 6th floor. One who lives
81. P is related to A in the same way as S is related on the 5th floor sits third to the right of one who lives
to B based on the given arrangement. Which of on the 7th floor.

64
 SEQUENCE
84. Who amongst the following lives on the 4th floor? PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of
(a) P (b) Q Maharashtra.

(c) R (d) S Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one
who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
(e) V
B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the
85. On which of the following floors does T live?
line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra
(a) 1st (b) 2nd does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
(c) 5th (d) 6th 87. Which of the following is true regarding A?
(e) 7th (a) The person from UCO Bank faces A
86. How many floors are there between the floors (b) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an
on which V and P live? immediate neighbour of A
(a) 1(b) 2 (c) A faces the person who sits second to the
(c) 3(d) 4 right of R
(e) None (d) A is from OBC
Directions (87-89) : Read the following (e) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
information carefully to answer the given 88. Who is seated between R and the person from
questions PNB?
Eight persons from different banks, viz. UCO (a) The person from OBC
Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena
(b) P
Bank, OBC, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra,
are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people (c) Q
each, in such a way that there is an equal distance (d) The person from Syndicate Bank
between adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C and D (e) S
are seated and all of them are facing north. In row 2
89. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends
P, Q, R and S are seated all of them facing south.
of the rows?
Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each
member seated in a row faces another member of (a) D and the person from PNB
the other row. (All the information given does not (b) The person from Indian Bank and UCO Bank
necessarily represent the order of seating as in the
(c) The persons from Dena Bank and P
final arrangement.)
(d) The persons from Syndicate Bank and D
C sits second to right of the person from Bank
of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour (e) C, Q
of the person who faces the person from Bank Direction (90- 94) : Read the following
of Maharashtra information carefully and answer the given questions
Only one person sits between R and the person carefully.
from PNB. The immediate neighbour of the Seven people A,B,C,D,E,F and G are sitting in
person from PNB faces the person from Canara a straight line with equal distance between them,
Bank. but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them
The person from UCO bank faces the person are facing North and some are facing South. Only
from OBC. R is not from OBC. P is not from two people are sitting to the left of G. Only two people

65
 SEQUENCE
sit between G and B. A sits second to the left of B. Directions (95– 99): Study the given information
The immediate neighbours of A face opposite carefully and answer the given questions.
directions. Only one person sits between A and C. F Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows
sits third to the left of C. D is not an immediate containing five people each, in such a way that there
neighbour of B. Both the immediate neighbours of C is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In
face the same direction. A faces the same direction Row – 1-A, B, C, D and E are seated (not necessarily
as that of C. E faces North. B sits to the immediate in the same order). In Row – 2 – P, Q, R, S and T
left of E. are seated (not necessarily in the same order). Some
90. Who among the following sits exactly between members are facing south and some members are
G and the one who is sitting to the immediate facing north. Therefore, in the given seated
left of B ? arrangement each member seated in a row sits
opposite to another member of the other row either
(a) F (b) A
facing to north or south.
(c) C (d) B Q is sitting extreme end of the row. P is third to
(e) None of these the right of Q. D is an immediate left of E. Q faces
north. R is not an immediate neighbor of P. T faces
91. Who among the following sits exactly in the
opposite direction to R. D sits immediate left of the
middle of the line ?
person, who sits opposite to Q. Only one person sits
(a) A (b) C between D and A. B is an immediate left of A. T is
(c) D (d) E second to the left of S. Two persons sit between A
and C. E does not sit opposite to T. D and P faces
(e) F
opposite directions. T is an immediate right of P. E
92. Which of the statement is true as per the given sits second to the left of B. T is third to the left of R.
information ?
95. Who amongst the following sits opposite to E?
(a) F sits to the immediate right of A a) T b) Q c) R
(b) D sits exactly between A and C d) S e) P
(c) G sits third to the left of B 96. Which of the following statements is true
regarding D ?
(d) S faces south.
a) D sits opposite to S.
(e) None of these b) D faces south and sits immediate left of C.
93. Who is sitting second to the right of D ? c) None of the given statements is true
(a) A (b) B d) Q sits opposite to the one, who sits immediate
left of D.
(c) F(d) G
e) Only two person sits between D and A.
(e)None of these 97. Who amongst the following sits opposite to C ?
94. Which of the following pairs represents the a) R b) S c) Q
immediate neighbour of B ? d) T e) P
(a) AB (b) AC 98. What is the position of S with respect to T ?
a) Third to the right b) Second to the right
(c) EG (d)FG
c) Immediate left d) Immediate right
(e) EF
e) Second to the left

66
 SEQUENCE
99. Four of the given five are alike in a certain way d) S e) None of these
based on the given arrangement and hence form
103. If P is related to 16 yr in the same way as B is
a group. Which of them does not belong to that
related to 26 yr, then which of the following is R
group ?
related to, following the same pattern ?
a) D b) T c) R
a) 19 yr b) 17 yr c) 14 yr
d) C e) S
d) 31 yr e) None of these
Directions (100-104): Study the following information
104. What is the age difference of A’s immediate
carefully and answer the question given below.
neighbours ?
Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are
a) Three b) Seven c) Five
sitting in a straight line. They all are facign north.
Each one of them has a different age i.e. 14, 16, 17, d) Six e) None of these
19, 21, 23, 26 and 31 year, but not necessarily in
Directions (105– 109): Study the following
the same order.
information carefully and answer the question given
B sits at one of the extreme end of the row. There below.
are three persons sitting between C and Q. Q is
Ten people are sittign in two parallel rows
neither 14 nor 19yr old. There are two persons sitting
containing five people each, in such a way that there
between D and the person whose age is 23 yr.
is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row I-
Neither Q nor D is the oldest person. Age difference
J, K, L, M and N are seated and all of them are facing
of immediate neighbours of D is 5 yr. A sits right to
south. In row II – V, W, X, Y and Z are seated and all
the R, but not immediate right. There are three
of them are facing north. Therefore in the given seating
persons sitting between B and the one whose age is
arrangement each member seated in a row faces
16 yr. The one whose age is 19yr sits third to the
another member of the other row. Each person
right of C. R sits to the right of B. Q sits second to
belongs to different cities i.e. Agra, Kanpur, Jaipur,
the right of the person whose age is 23yr. P sits
Patna, Bangalore, Pune, Raipur, Delhi, Kolkata and
immediate left of the person whose age is 14 yr. Q
Ranchi, but not necessarily in the same order.
is not youngest person. The one, whose age is 31 yr
in not immediate neigbour of the youngest person, Z sits third to the right of W, who faces the
C is not the fourth oldest person. immediate right of the person, who belongs to Raipur.
V sits second to the left of Z. Person belongs to
100. Who sits second to the right of D ? Delhi sits diagonally opposite to the peson, who
a) A b) S c) P belongs to Ranchi. K does not belong to Kanpur.
The persons facing V sits to theimmediate left of K.
d) R e) None of these The person belongs to Pune faces the person
belongs to Bangalore. Only one person sits between
101. How many person sits between the person
K and M. J is not an immediate neighbor of K. Only
whose age is 31 yr. and S ?
two people sit between J and L. Neither K nor J faces
a) Four b) Five c) Three Y. Person belongs to Pune sits second right of W.
The person belongs to Kolkata faces the person
d) One e) N.O.T belongs to Jaipur, who sits immediate right of J. The
102. Who among the following person is 26 yr old ? person belongs to Patna faces to the person belongs
to Delhi and sits third to the right of V.
a) R b) D c) C

67
 SEQUENCE
105. Who amongst the following is facing N ? in a row faces another member of the other row.
Also any row’s six members are related to each other
a) Y
in a family tree of three generation. There are two
b) The person belongs to Kolkata married couple in the family.
c) V V sits third to right of S. S faces Z’s sister and Z’s
sister does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the
d) The person belongs to Kanpur line. Z, who is the grandson of O, sits third to right of
e) W O. R faces M’s wife. The one facing N’s husband
sits third to right of P. N and P do not sit at the
106. Which of the following statements is true extreme ends of the line. M is the father-in-law of X.
regarding M ? T is not an immediate neighbor of V and N’s father
a) M faces one fo the immediate neigbhours of is not an immediate neighbor of O, who has only
X one child who is girl.
b) K is one of the immediate neighbours of M. 110.Who amongst the following represent the people
c) None of the given statements is true sitting at extreme ends of the rows ?

d) L sits to the immediate right of M. a) RY b) TM c) ZR

e) Only One person sits between M and N. d) OQ e) SM
107. Which of the following city does V belong ? 111.How is Y related to the one, who sits immediate
right of X?
a) Kanpur b) Bangalore c) Delhi
a) Son b) Granddaughter
d) Ranchi e) Patna
c) Son-in-law d) Grandson
108. What is the position of Z with respect to Y ?
e) None of these
a) Third to the right b) Second to
112.Who amongst the following faces N’s son ?
the right
a) T b) P c) Q
c) Immediate left d) Immediate right
d) R e) None of these
e) Second to the left
113. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
109. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and thus form a group, which is the one
way based on the given arrangement and hence
that does not belong to that group ?
form a group. Which of them does not belong
to that group ? a) Z b) S c) V
a) M b) J c) N d) T e) N’s father
d) W e) Y 114. How many persons are sitting between R and
T?
Directions (110-114): Study the following information
carefully and answer the question given below. a) One b) Four c) Three
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows d) Two e) None of these
containing six people each, in such a way that there Directions (115– 119): These questions are based
is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In on the following information.
row – 1 M, N, O, Z, X and Y are seated and all of
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting
them are facing south. In row – 2 P, Q, R, S, T and V
in a row. Some persons are facing to North and the
are seated all of them are facing north. Therefore, in
remaining are facing to South. The following
the given seating arrangement each member seated
information is known about them. D sits third to the

68
 SEQUENCE
left of E, neither of them sit at any end. Two persons some are facing south and not more than two
sit between E and H. B sits to the immediate left of adjacent students face the same direction. All of them
H and both of them face the same direction. A, who got different marks in an examination i.e. 400, 371,
is sister of D and mother of E sits second to the left 525, 325, 153, 424, 225 and 261 but not necessarily
of G, both of them face different directions. D is in the same order. They all have different heights
married to B. C is not adjacent to D, but C and D but not necessarily in the same order.
face the same direction as G, who is daughter of A, Note : - The one who got highest marks is the tallest
F who is father of G sits second to the right of C, among them.
who is son of D and F face north. B, who is son of H
C got 225 marks and he is the 5th tallest Student.
and F are not adjacent to each other. No three
A is taller than N and B but shorter than P and M.
pesons sitting in consecutive positions face the same
The immediate neighbor of P faces opposite
direction. F has only one son and only one daughter.
directions, B sits one of the extreme end and does
115. What is the relationship between the persons not get 325 in the exam. Only three students are
who is immediate left and right of B? taller than O. the students sitting on the extreme
a) Father & Son ends faces opposite directions. P got an odd
b) Grandfather & Grandson palindromic number and sits 3rd to the right of B. C
sits 3rd to the left of A, who is an immediate neighbor
c) Grandmother & Grandson
of the student who got an Armstrong number and P.
d) Cannot be determined A faces south direction. D got a palindromic number
e) None of these and sits immediate right of C. N got 261 marks sits
116. How many persons sit between B and F ? immediate left of M, who got an Armstrong number
and N is taller than B. D is third smallest student. N
a) three b) One c) two
does not faces south direction. O got the lowest
d) four e) None of these number in the exam. O and D faces the same
117. Which of the following statements is true ? direction as N. D sits 3rd to the right of P. C faces
a) H and G face the same direction. south direction. M faces south direction.
b) D and F face different directions. 120. Who among them got 371 marks in the exam ?
c) H and G sit at the ends. a) M b) N c) B
d) B and E face North
d) D e) A
e) None of these
121. The one, who sits immediate right of P got how
118. Who among the following person sits third to
many marks in the exam ?
the right of A ?
a) 525 b) 371 c) 325
a) B b) E c) D
d) C e) None of these d) 225 e) None of these
119. Who among them are facing to South ? 122. How many students faces south direction ?
a) C and G b) D and C c) A and B a) One b) Two
d) A and C e) None of these c) More than Three
Directions (120– 124): Study the following d) Data inadequate e) Three
information carefully and answer the questions
below. 123. Who among the following is the 6 th tallest
student ?
Eight Students A, B, C, D, M, N, O and P are
sitting in a straight line but not necessarily in the a) A b) B c) D
same order. Some of them are facing north while

69
 SEQUENCE
d) M e) N  The person who likes Red colour and Grey
124. If A’s height is 172 cm then what will be the colour are adjacent to each other.
possible height of M ?  Vacant seat of row – 1 is not an immediate
a) 170 cm b) 171 cm neighbor of D.
c) 168 cm d) 175 cm  Q sits at one of the extreme ends.
e) 171.5 cm  R does not like Red and Grey Colour.
Directions (125– 129): Study the information  Vacant seat of row – 1 does not face S also
carefully and answer the questions given below. does not sit at any of the extreme ends.
Ten persons are sitting in twelve seats in two 125. Who sits second to right fo the one, who faces
parallel rows containing five people each, in such a vacant seat of Row-2 ?
way that there is an equal distance between adjacent
persons. In row 1, A, B, C, D and E are seated and a) S b) B c) T
all of them are facing south, and in row 2, P, Q, R, S d) E e) None of these
and T are sitting and all of them are facing north.
One seat is vacant in each row. Therefore, in the 126. Which of the following colour does T like ?
given seating arrangement each member seated in a) Yellow b) Green c) Pink
a row faces another member of the other row. All of
d) Grey e) Red
them like a different colour i.e. Red, Green, Pink,
Blue, Purple, White, Black, Grey, Violet and Yellow. 127. E is related to vacant seat of row – 1 in the
same way as T is related to P. So, following the
 S sits third to the right of R and likes Blue colour.
same pattern vacant seat of row – 2 is related
 Only two people sit between Q and Vacant seat. to which of the following ?
 Q does not like Purple and Pink colour. a) Q b) D c) R
 E is not an immediate neighbor of C. d) P e) None of these
 B likes yellow colour. The one who likes Pink 128. Who sits diagonally opposite to the one, who
colour faces the one who likes Grey colour. likes white colour ?
 The one who likes Pink colour sits opposite to a) C b) B c) T
the one, who sits third right of the one, who sits
opposite to S. d) E e) None of these
129. Which of the following is true regarding P ?
 C is not an immediate neighbor of D.
a) P sits second to right of T.
 T, who likes neither Purple nor White colour,
does not face vacant seat. b) P is not an immediate neighbor of S.
 Neither S nor R sits at an extreme ends. D faces c) P sits third to left of R.
R. d) P sits at one of the extreme ends of the row
 Vacant seats are not opposite to each other. e) P faces vacant seat of row – 1.
 Two persons sit between C and B, who sits Directions (130– 134): Read the given information
third right of the one, who likes Black colour. carefully and answer the given questions.
 The one who likes Violet colour faces the one, Twelve friends are sitting in two parallel rows
who likes Blue colour.
containing six people each in such a way that there

70
 SEQUENCE
is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row c) Person sits one of the extreme left end.
1A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are d) E’s mother-in-law
facing north and in row 2P, Q, R, S, T and U, are
e) All are true
seated and are facing south, but not necessarily in
the same order. 132. Who sits second to the left of the one, who faces
the person, who sits second to the left of P ?
There are four persons sits to the right of R. R’s
daughter is immediate neighbor of the one, who faces a) R’s brother b) Q
R. There are one person sits between R’s son and c) None are true d) A
R’s daughter. Q is married to F. R’s son-in-law sits e) S’s husband
third to the left fo the one, who faces the person,
133. who is the niece of P ?
who is immediate left of A’s brother. R has only two
children. Two persons sit between S and T. R’s a) B b) T’s son
brother sits second to the right of R’s sister. S does c) Q’s wife
not sit one of the extreme ends. A is brother-in-law d) Q’s sister-in-law e) Q
of B. A’s father sits second to the right of A’s brother.
134. If P related to A’s sister-in-law in the same way
E is married to S. Only one person sits between A’s
as Q related to R’s daughter. Which of the
brother and R’s mother. R’s son-in-law does not sit
following is U related to, following the same
one of the extreme ends. A’s sister-in-law faces S.
pattern ?
A’s sister-in-law sits third to the left of R’s daughter.
F and S are the females. P faces E, who sits one of a) R’s brother b) C’s brother
the extreme left end. B sits third to the right of E. Q c) F d)A
sits immediate right of the person, who faces R’s e) None of these
wife. R’s mother sits third to the left of the one, who Directions (135- 139): Read the following information
faces the one, who sits immediate right of R’s son- and answer the given questions.
in-law. R’s brother-in-law sits fourth to the left of R’s
Four persons viz. B, C, E and F are sitting in a
wife. C sits diagonally opposite to the one, who is
restaurant having 13 seats.
immediate right of U. A is son-in-law of D.
Eight seats are arranged around a circular table
130. Who sits immediate left of the one, who is sister-
equidistant from their immediate neighbors. While
in-law of A ?
five more seats have been arranged along the walls
a) B b) C’s brother of the restaurant. The seats which are arranged along
c) Q’s brother d) E’s brother-in-law the wall of the restaurant are facing towards the
e) Q center of the circular table. The seats which are
arranged along the circular table are facing opposite
131. Who is grandmother of B ?
to the center.
a) T
Refer the figure below
b) D’s mother-in-law

71
 SEQUENCE
and C
C (Empty seats) (e) None of these
Directions (140-144): Read the following infor
mation and answer the given questions:
B
Fourteen persons are standing in four different
queue at four counters viz. A, B, C and D. All the
F
counter are in the same line. All the persons are
facing towards south. The distance between two
persons standing in a queue is same for all the
E queue. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 denotes position in even number
block or in odd number blocks.
After some time four more persons A, G, H and D
enter the restaurant and sit in the following manner. South
Only two of the four persons who just entered the 5
restaurant sit around the circulate table. Only C and


E is not facing an empty chair. A is sitting third to the 4
right of H. D is an immediate neighbor of E. G sits
second to the left of D. 3
135. Who is sitting to end immediate right of E? 2
(a) A (b) D (c) G Position
1
(d) H (e) None of these
Counters A B C D
136. Who is sitting third to the left of B?
(a) C (b) The one who face G
Among those fourteen persons there are seven boys
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) D viz. E, J, K, T, Y, P and Q. Rest of them are girls. E is
(e) None of these the only male in his queue. Only one girls is standing
137. Who is facing the chair which is to the between Y and P in the same queue. Q does not
immediate left of D? have any girls behind him. K is not standing in the
(a) No one (b) The one who face A queue for counter D. P is not standing at the end of
(c) E (d) G the queue. No queue has more than two girls. J is
(e) None of these standing to the immediate right of Q. Y and T are the
138. Who is sitting third to the right of the person only two boys who are standing together in the queue.
who is facing D? Y has three persons ahead him in the same queue.
(a) A (b) C (c) B Q is not standing at an odd position. The number of
(d) F (e) There is no such person persons standing ahead E is not same as the num-
139. How many empty chairs are there between ber of persons standing ahead P or T. No girl is stand-
H and C when counted in anticlockwise ing ahead to P.
directions from H? 140. Who is standing at the first position of the
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three queue on counter C?
(a) Q (b) J (c) T
(d) No empty chiars are there between H
(d) E (e) None of these

72
 SEQUENCE
141. How many persons are standing ahead E in (c) 5 (d) 7
his queue? (e) None of these
(a) One (b) Two
147. Which of the following statements is true?
(c) Three
(d) Four (e) No one (a) V sits third to the left of Q
142. The queue for which of the following counters (b) W sits third to the right of Q
has the most number of boys? (c) X sits fifth to the left of U
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) S sits to the immediate left of Y
(d) D (e) Both counter B and D
143. How many girls are standing at an odd (e) None is true
position? 148. In certain way U is related to Y and P is related
(a) One (b) Two to O and in same way that, who among the
(c) Three following person is related to Y?
(d) Four (e) More than four (a) W (b) S
144. Who among the following is standing at the (c) X (d) V
first position in his que?
(e) T
(a) J (b) Q (c) P
(d) E (e) Y 149. If one more person C is seated immediate right
of T than what is the position of C with respect
Directions (145-149): Study the information
to R?
carefully and answer the questions given below.
(a) Second Right (b) Third Right
There are more than ten people sitting in a circle.
(c) Fourth Right (d) Fifth Right
Each of the seats occupied by one person. Each of
them is facing inside the circle. O is sitting third to (e) Immediate Right
the left of P. Q is sitting second to the left of R. There Directions (150-154): Study the information
are two people sitting between R and S. T is an carefully and answer the questions given below
immediate neighbor of both U and V, but not sitting A few persons were seated around a circular
second to the right of Q. W and Y are sitting second table facing the centre. The chairs were kept at equal
distance and the number of persons sitting in the
to the left and third to the right of Q respectively. X is
circle was odd number but not more than 20. Number
sitting second to the left of S, But not second to the of person between B and E when counted from the
right of Y. S is sitting third to the right of V. R is right of B was thrice as that of the number of persons
seated between B and N when counted from the left
sitting third to the left of U.
of B. E and N were neighbouring each other. U was
145. How many people are sitting in the circle? seated to the immediate left of Q. Two person
between Q and H. E was 3rd to the right of H. C was
(a) 9 (b) 16 2nd to the right of J and 2nd to the left of U. E is to the
(c) 11 (d) 10 immediate left of N.
(e) None 150. How many people can sits in the Circle?
146. How many people are sitting between S and V, (a) 19 (b) 17 (c) Cannot be determine
when counted from left of V? (d) 18 (e) 15
(a) 4 (b) 6

73
 SEQUENCE
151. How many known people are sitting between H (e) E
and B, when counted from left of H? 156. Who sits between F and D ?
(a) Three (b) One (a) G (b) E
(c) Two (d) Four (c) B (d) F
(e) None of these
(e) Five
157. How many persons sitting in a row?
152. What is the position of N with respect to Q?
(a) 20 (b) 19
(a) Third to the left (b) Third to the right (c) 23 (d) 14
(c) Fifth to the left (d) Seventh to the right (e) None of these
(e) Eight to right 158.Who among the following person sits sixth to
the right of G?
153. How many more person can sit between U and
(a) F (b) B
J when counted to the right of J?
(c) D (d) C
(a) 5 (b) 1
(e) None of these
(c) 2 (d) 3 159. How many persons are sitting between D and
(e) 4 C?
154. What is the position of H with respect to E? (a) 9 (b) 13
(c) 10 (d) 12
(a) Third to the right (b) Fifth to the left
(e) 11
(c) Seventh to the right (d) Third to the left Directions (160-164): Study the following
(e) Eight to right information carefully and answer the questions
Directions (155-159): Study the following below.
information carefully and answer the questions A certain number of persons are sitting in the
below. row. All of them are facing towards south. Q sits
A certain number of people are sitting in a row sixth from the right of S. T sits forth to left of Q. Only
facing North. C sits at one of the ends and there are two persons sit between Q and P. Six persons sit
two people between C and B.There are as many between W and V. R sits forth to the left of S. U sits
people to the right of G as there are to the left of G. between S and T. V sits second to the right of U. W
F is third to the left of B who sits fourth from one of is third from any of the end. S is eight from the left
the extreme ends of the row. A sits at one of the end of the row.
extreme ends of the row. F does not sit at any of the 160. How many persons sitting in a row?
extreme ends of the row. There are five persons (a) 20 (b) 17
sitting between A and D. E sits exactly in the middle (c) 23 (d) 18
of A and D. Two persons sit between D and G. There (e) None of these
are as many persons sitting between F and C as 161. Who is to the third to the right of Q ?
many are sitting between F and D. (a) W (b) V
155. Who is sitting third to the right of F? (c) P (d) S
(a) D (b) C (e) None of these
(c) A (d) B

74
 05
CHAPTER
Alphabet
Directions (01-10) : How many pairs of letters (a) 4 (b) 5
are these in the below words having the same (c) 3(d) 2
distance as they are in the English Alphabet.
(e) None of thse
1. ALPHABET
14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from
2. ELEPHANT the fifth seventh, eighth, ninth and thirteenth
3. MOTHER letters of the word ‘EXTRAORDINARY’ using
4. ANT each letter only once, write the second letter of
that word as your answer. if no such word can
5. SCHOOL be formed write ‘X’ as your answer and if more
6. COACHING than one such word can be formed, write ‘M’ as
7. FATHER your answer.

8. TRAVEL (a) A (b) I

9. BUS (c) R (d) M

10. PENCIL (e) X

11. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from 15. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from
the second, the third, the fourth, the fifth and the second, fourth, tenth and twelfth letters of
the eighth letters of the word MANGROVES, the word ADVERTISEMENT, using each letter
the first letter of the word is your answer, if more only once, write the last letter of the word as
than one such word can be formed, your answer your answer. If more than one such word can
is X, and if no such word can be formed, your be formed, write ‘P’ as your answer and if no
answer is Z. such word can be formed write ‘X’ as your
answer.
(a) A (b) R
(a) P (b) X
(c) G (d) X
(c) N (d) M
(e) Z
(e) D
12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the
Directions (16-20) : These questions are based on
word ENTHUSIASTIC each of which has as
the following arrangement. Study the arrangement
many letters between them in the word as there
carefully to answer these questions.
are between them in English alphabet?
5DEF6*I4BMA7$J#HLO@PTU2RQ
(a) 2(b) 3
16. How many such vowels are there in the above
(c) 4(d) More than 4 arrangement each of which is immediately
(e) None of these followed by a numeral and also immediately
13. How many such pairs of letters are there in the preceded by a consonant?
word DISTURB, each of which has as many (a) None (b) One
letters between them in the word as there are (c) Two (d) Three
between them in English alphabet?
(e) None of these

76
17. Which of the following is exactly midway (a) 9 (b) B
between the sixth element from the right end
(c) G (d) #
and the eighth element from the left end of the
arrangement? (e) None of these
(a) #(b) J 22. How many symbols are there which are
(c) $(d) H immediately preceded by a number and
immediately followed by a letter?
(e) None of these
(a) 2(b) 3
18. The position of the first and the fourteenth
elements in the arrangement are interchanged. (c) 4(d) 5
Similarly, the second and the fifteenth elements (e) None of these
are interchanged, and so on, up to the twelfth
and twenty fifth elements. Which element will 23. If all the symbols are dropped from the series,
be second to the right of eighth element from which letter/ number will be seventh to the left
the right end after the rearrangement? of eighteenth letter/number from your left?

(a) P (b) @ (a) 2(b) G

(c) * (d) I (c) M (d) N
(e) None of these (e) None of these
19. How many such symbols are there in the above Directions (24-28) : Answer these questions
arrangement, each of which is immediately referring to the letter sequence given below:
preceded by a numeral and also immediately
NOPQYBZARSHIJKLMTUVGFEWXDC
followed by a consonant?
24. If letters of the above given series are written
(a) None (b) One
in reverse order then which letter will be third to
(c) Two (d) Three the left of eighteenth letter from your right?
(e) More than three
(a) Z (b) F
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
(c) I (d) L
way on the basis of their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the (e) None of these
one that does not belong to the group? 25. What will come in place of question mark (?) in
(a) I4 : MA (b) HL : @P the following series?
(c) 6* : 4B (d) PT : 2R NDP QWB ZFR ?
(e) 7A : #J (a) SVJ (b) AFS
Directions (21-23) : Study the following letter – (c) IVS (d) SFA
symbol-number series and answer the question
given below: (e) None of these
@58 # BFL} 4*MJ9GN2W3+S4? $PQ6R7I% 26. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of
thirteenth letter from your left?
21. If the positions of the first and the sixteenth
element, second and seventeenth element and (a) U (b) J
so on up to the fifteenth and the last element
(c) S (d) Z
are interchanged, which letter/number/ symbol
will be sixteenth to the right of twentieth letter / (e) None of these
number/ symbol from the right?

77
27. If every alternate letter starting from O is 31. If the letters, the digits and the symbols from
replaced with odd numbers starting from 1, each series are counted separately, which of
which letter or number will be third to the left of the following is lowest in count?
tenth letter from your right ? (a) Symbols in series I
(a) 15 (b) L (b) Letters in Series I
(c) K (d) 13 (c) Digits in series II
(e) None of these (d) Symbols in series II
28. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from (e) None of these
the eighth sixteenth, seventeenth and twenty-
Directions (32-34) : These questions are based on
second letters from your left in the given series,
the following set of numbers.
which will be the first letter of that word? If no
such word can be formed, your answer would 386 752 961 573 839
be X, and if more than one such word can be 32. If 1 is added to the middle digit of each number
formed, answer is P. and then the first and the second digits are
(a) M (b) T interchanged, which of the following will be the
third digit of the smallest number?
(c) X (d) E
(a) 6(b) 2
(e) P
(c) 1(d) 3
Directions (29-31) : Study the following series I and
(e) 9
II comprising letters/digits/ symbols and answer the
question given below. 33. If in each number the first and the third digits
are interchanged, which number will be the
Series I : NPQ*54BZ$#37D9AF8GH1+DK6
second largest?
Series II : 74fJM1@YP8QRSTN62UA39@IS (a) 386 (b) 752
29. What is the total number of symbols in series I (c) 961 (d) 573
each of which is immediately followed by a digit
(e) 839
and immediately preceded by a letter together
with the number of letters in series II which are 34. If in each number the second and the third digits
immediately preceded by a symbol and are interchanged, what will be the sum of the
immediately followed by a letter? first and third digits of the largest number?
(a) 5 (b) 4 (a) 12 (b) 17

(c) 1 (d) 3 (c) 15 (d) 11

(e) None of these (e) None of these

35. The positions of the first and” the sixth digit
30. If the first ten elements of series I are picked up
number 3597280164 are interchanged.
and written in reverse order followed by last ten
Similarly, the positions of the second and the
elements of series II without changing the order,
seventh digits are interchanged, and so on.
which of the following pairs of elements will
Which of the following will be the fourth digit
indicate sixteenth element from left and the
form the right end after the rearrangement?
eighth element to its left respectively?
(a) 5 (b) 3
(a) A, Q (b) 3, Q
(c) 9 (d) 4
(c) 3, Z (d) A, Z
(e) None of these
(e) None of these

78
36. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in e) More than three
the number 89153427 are interchanged. 41. How many such pairs of digits are there in the
Similarly the positions of the second and the number 8429516 each of which has as many
sixth digits are interchanged. And so on. Which digits between them in the number as when the
of the following will be the third to the left of the digits are arranged in ascending order within
seventh digit from the left end after the the number ?
rearrangement?
a) None b) One
(a) 9(b) 5
c) Two d) Three
(c) 3(d) 1
(e) None of these e) More than three

37. If 2 is added to the middle digit of each of the 42. If each of the twelve digits on a watch is
following numbers and the position of the represented by English vowels a, e, i, o, u in
remaining two digits in ‘each number is sequence (1 by a, 2 by e, and so on the hour
interchanged, which of the following will be the hand will be which pairs of vowels at 9:30 A.M.?
second number from the top after they are ar- (a) ae (b) ei
ranged in the ascending order? (c) io (d) ou
843 219 325 437 562
(e) None of these
(a) 843 (b) 219
43. How many such pairs of digits are there in the
(c) 325 (d) 562 number 531468 each of which has as many
38. How many such digits are there in the number digits between them in the number as when the
64382179 each of which is as far away from digits are rearranged in descending order within
the beginning of the number as when the digits the number ?
are arranged in ascending order within the
a) None b) One
number?
c) Two d) Three
(a) None (b) one
(c) two (d) three e) More than three

(e) more than three Directions (44 – 45) : First 12 even numbers are
written from top to bottom. The letters of word
39. If the second half of the following alphabets is
‘SACRED’ are written in alphabetical order from top
arranged in the reverse order, which letter will
be ninth letter to the right of the ninth letter to bottom against each multiple of 4 (one letter
counting from the left end? against one number). There are 2 numbers between
N and S. There are as many letters between E and
N as between P and D. P is not against number 14.
(a) I (b) F
There are 5 letters between U and T. U is above T. I
(c) V (d) W
is written against number 6. (No letter is repeated
(e) None against any number)
40. How many such digits are there in the number
6837941 each of which is far away from the 44. Which is the second letter of meaningful word
beginning in the number as when the digits are formed by letters against numbers 6, 12, 14 and
arranged in descending order within the 20 ?
number?
a) T b) D c) N
a) None b) One
c) Two d) Three d) I e) R

79
45. If there are 3 alphabets in English alphabetical Directions (48– 50): Study the following
series between alphabets written against alphanumeric series carefully and answer the
numbers 10 and 22. Then how many alphabets questions given below:
in English alphabetical series are there between
7A6P&R$4YQ%T@39SIO99JLEU*K
the alphabets written against numbers 18 and
#3
22 ?
Step I: The letters which are immediately preceded
a) Three b) Five c) One
and immediately followed by a symbol are
d) Four e) Cannot be determined arranged in the end of the series in the
Directions (46– 47): Study the information carefully alphabetical order. (They are arranged just
and answer the questions given below. after 3)
Step II: The numbers which are immediately
First 14 odd numbers are written from bottom to top.
preceded by the letter and immediately
The letters of word ‘CRAZY’ are written in given order
followed by the symbol are arranged
of numbers each multiple of 3 in ascending order of
between 9 and S in the increasing order.
numbers (One letter against one number). No letter
is repeated against any number. Step III: The numbers which are immediately
followed by letter are interchanged its position
There are 3 numbers between M and B. X is against with respect to the element just after it.
number 13. There are two letters between I and F
(STEP II is applied after STEP I and STEP III is
and both letters are below R. B is neither below R
applied after STEP II)
and nor immediate above A. There is one letter
between F and D, which is not against number 11. 48. How many letters are arranged at the end of
There are as many numbers between D and X as the series in the step – 1 ?
between Y and E. a) one b) Three c) Four
46. Which is the third letter in meaningful word d) Five e) More than five
formed by letters against numbers 19, 5, 15, 49. Which among the following are the elements of
and 17, if more than one word is formed than it the series which are second position from the
is written as X ? left end and fifth position from the right end in
step – III ?
a) M b) E c) D
d) X e) None fo these a) 63 b) 7# c) P#

47. If there are 4 alphabets in English alphabetical d) AK e) 6#

series between alphabets written against 50. How many symbols are immediately followed
numbers 17 and 11. Then how many alphabets by numbers in step – III ?
in English alphabetical series are there between
a) one b) Three c) four
the alphabets written against numbers 25 and
11 ? d) five e) Two
directions (51– 53): Study the following
a) Five b) Six c) Eight alphanumeric series carefully and answer the
d) Four e) Cannot be determined questions given below:

12AIFR 42WBOL 63EOCN 15TVMR 75GYTR

80
51. How many meaningful words can be formed 1) For triangle [1] – if the total letter between given
from the letters of the words which are attached two letters in the triangle [1] is less than three
with the numbers in which At least one digits is then change each letter to previous letter
even digit in the given alphanumeric series ? according to English alphabetical series.

a) one b) two c) three 2) For triangle [2] – if the difference between given
d) four e) More than four two digit is less than 5 then change the each
digit to previous digit.
52. The words are arranged according to the
descending order of the numbers which are 3) For triangle [3] – if the total letters between given
attached to them from left to right, then how two letters is more than 5 then change the each
many alphabets in english alphabetical series letter to previous letter according to English
are there between the letters of second letter alpbahetical series.
from the left end and seventh letter from the
right end ? 4) For triangle [4] – if the difference between given
two digits is more than 2 then change each digits
a) one b) two c) three to previous digit.
d) four e) More than five
Note: If the above condition are not applied then we
53. The letters which are attached with the numbers write the digit and letters as it is in solution part.
in which at least one is odd digit are arranged
according to the ascending orders of their Based on the above example solve the given
numbers from left to right and then all letters of question.
the words together are arranged in the
alphabetical order, then which of the following
is the 9th letter from the right end ?

a) M b) O c) N
d) R e) None of these
Directions (54– 56): Study the following information
54. How many meaningful words are formed by
and answer the questions given below:
letter combining from triangle 1 and triangle 3 ?
There is four triangles given in question on which
a) None b) Two c) Three
we apply some operation individually on each triangle
and then convert it into solution. We have to answer d) One e) Four
the questions from the triangle which comes after 55. What is the sum of each digits which is obtained
the operation applied on the given triangle. in triangle 2 and triangle 4?
For example – a) 17 b) 18 c) 19
d) 20 e) 16
56. Which of the following letter is obtained in
triangle 3 ?

a) d,f b) t,c c) d,t

d) d,v e) t, b

81
Directions (57 – 61): Study the following diagram If the no. with them is greater than 5 then replace
and convert it into other diagrams by implementing both the consonant with its opposite letter
the instructions which is given in each step to get according to alphabetical series.
next step.
If the no. with them is less than or equal to 5
Input then replace both the consonant with its next
letter according to alphabetical series.

For step – 1: Interchange the opposite alphabets if

it contains the no. which is perfect square. For step – 3:

Step 3 is coded in some special pattern.

For step – 2:

i) If the alphabet contains two vowel – As per the rules followed in the above step, find out
the appropriate steps for the input given below. And
Then replace both vowels with its previous letter answer the following questions
according to alphabetical series.

ii) if the alphabet contains one vowel –

Then replace the vowel with its previous letter

(if it’s the first letter i.e. A, then Z will be
considered at its previous alphabet) and replace
the consonant with its next letter according to
alphabetical series.

iii) If the alphabet contains two consonant –

Note: If the above condition are not applied then we
write the digit and letters as it is in solution part.

82
57. which of the following element is placed For diagram 1- if the sum of the place value of the
opposite to the element ‘KJ8’ in step 2 ? letters is divisible by 2,then write the
square of the result obtained on
a) YP11 b) HN 16 c) DA13 division.
For diagram 2- if the sum of the place value of the
d) MT3 e) None fo these
letters is divisible by 3,then write the
58. Which of the following element is placed cube of the result obtained on
immediate next to the element of ‘XU2’ in step division.
3 in anticlock-wise direction ? For diagram 3- if the sum of the 1st and 3rd letter
is divisible by 4 ,then multiply the
a) ML8 b) JP16 c) LR3 sum of 1st and 3rd letter with 9.
d) BY13 e) None fo these For diagram 4- if the place value of the middle
letters is odd, then multiply it with
59. Which of the following replaces ‘YP11’ from Step 3.
– 2 to step – 3 ? Note- If the above condition are not applied then
you have to write the digit which is divisor in the
a) ML8 b) WN11 c) WB4 diagram as it is in solution part. Based on the
d) ZN11 e) None fo these above example solve the given question.
60. Which of the following number is placed with
the alphabets ML in step 3 ?

a) 4 b) 8 c) 9
d) 11 e) None fo these
61. Which of the following alphabet in step 3 will be
at place of ‘DA’ which is in step – 2, after the
applied operation ?

a) FR b) WB c) ML
d) BY e) None fo these 62. What is the sum of all the numbers obtained in
resultant diagram?
Direct ions (62-66): Study the following
(a) 1443 (b) 1445
information and answer the questions given below:—
(c) 1446 (d) 1442
There are four diagrams given in question on
(e) None of these
which some operations are applied individually on
63. Which alphabet represents the the number
each diagram and then it is converted into solution.
obtained in 3rd diagram according to English
You have to answer the questions from the diagram
dictionary?
which comes after the operation applied on the given
(a) f (b) b
diagram. For example-
(c) d (d) z
(e) None of these
64. In how many diagrams can a meaning full word
be formed from the letters of question part by
rearrangement?
(a) none (b) three
(c) two (d) one
(e) four
65. How many perfect cubes are there in the
numbers obtained?

83
 (a) none (b) one Both were written against prime numbers. There are
(c) two (d) three 5 places (numbers) between H and A, B and R were
(e) four written on consecutive places. There are 2 places
66. What is the difference between the value which between F and I, E and C were not on consecutive
is obtained from the addition of 1st and 4th positions. No alphabet was written between F and
diagrams and the one which is obtained from G. Only one alphabet was written between A and G.
the addition of 2nd and 3rd diagrams? Only one alphabet was written between R and E.
(a) 1381 (b) 411 67. How many alphabets were written between A
(c) 365 (d) 341 and E?
(e) None of these (a) 1 (b) 2
Directions (67–68] : First 20 natural numbers (c) 3 (d) 4
are written from the bottom to top. The letters of the (e) None of these
word ‘TRIP’ are written in alphabetical order against 68. How many alphabets were written above B?
the successive multiples of 5(one letter against one (a) 1 (b) 2
number from the bottom to top). Letters A, B, C, D, (c) 3 (d) 4
E, F, G and H not necessarily in the same order are (e) None of these
written against 8 or the numbers and the nothing is
written against rest of the numbers.
C was written against a number that was 6 times
the number against which G was written. H was
above D. There was one letter between H and D.

ANSWER

1() 2() 3() 4() 5() 6() 7() 8() 9() 10 ( )

11 (d) 12 (b) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (e) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (d) 19 (b) 20 (e)
21 (e) 22 (b) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (e) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (e) 29 (a) 30 (b)
31 (d) 32 (e) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (e) 37(a) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (c)
41 (d) 42 (d) 43 (e) 44 (d) 45 (c) 46 (d) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (b) 50 (a)
51 (e) 52 (b) 53 (c) 54 (e) 55 (b) 56 (c) 57 (b) 58 (e) 59 (b) 60 (b)
61 (d) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65 (c) 66 (b) 67 (b) 68 (b)

84
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION

Coding-Decoding and
06
CHAPTER
Word Formation
1. If red is called yellow, yellow is called blue, blue 6. If CAT– 3120 then HORSE – ?
is called white, white is called green, green is 7. If CAT – 24267, then Horse–?
called pink and pink is called purple, then what
8. If CAT – 24, then CLOCK – ?
is the colour of clear sky?
9. If CAT – 06, then CLOCK – ?
(a) Blue (b) Yellow
10. If CAT – 06, then CLOCK – ?
(c) Pink (d) White
11. If CAT – 03, then CLOCK – ?
(e) Purple
12. If CAT – 1/2, Then HORSE – ?
2. If bright is called dark, dark is called green,
13. If CAT – 2116, the MOTHER – ?
green is called blue, is called red, red is called
white and white is called yellow, then what is 14. If CAT – 8, then FATHER – ?
the colour of blood? 15. If CAT – 72, then MOTHER – ?
(a) Red (b) Dark 16. If CAT – 60, then HORSE – ?
(c) White (d) Yellow 17. If CAT – 0, then HORSE – ?
(e) None of these 18. I – Run 2 – sit 3 – Sleep
3. If black means white, white means red, red Order 12222112332112 3222211321
means yellow, yellow means blue, blue means How many times subordinate sits (?)
green, green means purple and purple means
19. If 354687 is cased as 445596, then 623865 – ?
orange, then. What is the colour of clear sky?
20. If 71536 – 82645, then 3894 – ?
(a) Green (b) Purple
21. If 658767 – 878967, then 254163 – ?
(c) Orange (d) Yellow
22. If 42596 – 26, then 78314 – ?
(e) Blue
23. If 259 – 90, then 316 – ?
4. If sky is called bright, bright is called rain, rain is
24. If 3178 – 412, then 5693 – ?
called green, green is called air, air is called
blue and blue is called water, then where does 25. If 5278 – 5610, then 3492 – ?
a bird fly? 26. If 4567 – 16253649, then 3591 – ?
(a) Air (b) Sky 27. If 4263 – 32, then 5183 – ?
(c) Bright (d) Rain 28. If GLOBE  !M5K, WORLD  <> M#!4 then
GROW  (?)
(e) Blue
29. If TEA  fg, MOB  HQT then BOAT  (?)
5. If orange is called ghee, ghee is called soap,
soap is called ink, ink is called honey, honey is 30. In a certain code 'TEACHER' is written as
called orange, then which of the following is VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN written in that
used for washing clothes code:
(a) Honey (b) Ghee a) EJKNEGTP b) EGKNFITP

(c) Orange (d) Soap c) EJKNFGTO d) EJKNFTGP

(e) None of these e) None of these

85
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
31. In a certain code HEALING is written as c) BDJE d) B3J4
BFIKHOJ. How is BEDTIME written in that e) None of these
code ?
38. In a certain code COMPUTER is written as
a) EFCSJNF b) EFCSFNJ RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written in the
c) EFCUFNS d) CFESFNJ code ?
e) None of these a) EOJDEJFM b) EOJDJEFM
32. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as c) MFEDJJOE d) MFEJDJOE
BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in e) None of these
that code ? 39. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as
a) PSHBMCDRH b) BHSPMCDRH PKBNXSHQ. How is SANCTION written is that
c) BHSPOCDRH d) BHSPNHRDC code ?

e) None of these a) TBODMNHS b) DOBTMNHS

c) TBODSHNM d) DOBTOPJU
33. In a certain code CONFUSED is written as
EMNBEFTV. How is SECLUDED written in that e) None of these
code ? 40. If the word PORTER can be coded as
a) RDBKEFEV b) KBDRCDCT MBNZQN, how can REPORT be written?
(a) NQMNBZ (b) NQMBNZ
c) KBDREFEV d) MDFTCDCT
(c) NBQMNZ (d) NQBMNZ
e) None of these
(e) None of these
34. In a certain code OPERATION is written as
41. In a code language, STARK is written as
NODQBUJPO. How is INVISIBLE written in that
LBFMG and MOBILE is written as TNRSPJ.
code ?
How is BLAME written in that code ?
a) JOWJXTJCMF b) JOWJTHAKD
(a) TSFRJ (b) RPFTJ
c) HMUHTJCMF d) HMUHTHAKD
(c) NJFTP (d) TSFGJ
e) None of these
(e) None of these
35. In a certain code POETRY is written as
42. If HENERY is written as ‘jgpgta', then how would
QONDSQX and OVER is written as PNUDQ.
COUNTRY be written in the same code?
How is MORE written in that code language ?
(a) eqwpata (b) eqwvpte
a) LNNQD b) NNNQD
(c) eqwpvta (d) eqwvpta
c) NLNQD d) NLPQD (e) None of these
e) None of these 43. If MONKEY is written as XDJMNL, then how would
36. In a certain code GERMINATION is written as TIGER be written in the same code?
IMGRENNOAIT. How is ESTABLISHED written (a) SHFDQ (b) QDFHS
in that code ? (c) SDFHS (d) QDHJS
a) BEATSLDEIHS b) BAETSLEDIHS (e) None of these
c) BATESLDEIHS d) BAETSLDEIHS 44. If NOIDA is written as STNIF, then how would
MEERUT be written in the same code?
e) None of these
(a) QIIVYX (b) RJJWZV
37. If REQUEST is written as S2R52TU, then how (c) RJJWZY (d) RIIVYX
will ACID be written ?
(e) None of these
a) 1394 b) IC94

86
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
45. If SAND is written as VDQG, BIRD is written as ELUG (e) None of these
then how would LOVE be written in the same 53. In a certain code, TROLLS is written as RULPSM.
code? How would GROWNS be written in that code
(a) PRYG (b) ORTG language?
(c) ORYH (d) NPOH (a) SORHWP (b) RHPSOW
(e) None of these (c) RHWPSO (d) PSOWHR
46. If JAPAN is coded as KCSES, then code JPGMF will (e) None of these
be written for which word? 54. In a certain code, GREAT is written as IPGYV and
(a) INIDA (b) INDAI BOOKS is written as DMQIU. How would TRACK
(b) NIDIA (d) INDIA be written in that code language?
(e) None of these (a) CMAVP (b) PVAMC
47. If in a certain language FASHION is coded as (c) CNMPV (d) VPCAM
FOIHSAN, how is PROBLEM coded in that code? (e) None of these
(a) ROBLEMP (b) PELBORM 55. In a certain code, GUJARAT is written as DRGXOXQ
(c) PRBOELM (d) RPBOELM and MIZORAM is written as JFWLOXJ. How would
(e) PELBROM KERALA be written in that code language?
48. In a code language, ORIENTAL is coded (a) BOXXIH (b) BOHXXI
DHQNMBUO, then how is SCHOOLED written in (c) HBOXIX (d) XXIOBH
that language? (d) Cannot be determined
(a) RBNFEMPF (b) NGBREFMP 56. In a certain code, BRAIN is written as %
(c) GBRFMEPS (d) None of these and TIER is written as $%. How is RENT
49. If CONTRIBUTE is coded as ETBUIRNTOC, what will written in that code ?
be 6 th left letter of POPULARISE in that code (a) %$ (b) $
language? (c) $ (d) $
(a) L (b) A 57. In a certain code language, STRING is written
as % = $ and PRAISE as ? @. How
(c) I (d) R
will the word GRAPES be written in that code
(e) None of these
language?
50. In a code languages, SATELLITE is coded FUBTLDSHK,
(a)   @  ?  (b)  @  ?  
then how is LAUNCHING written in that language?
(c)   @ ?   (d)    ?  
(a) OVBMCFMHG (b) OVBMMCFHG 58. In a certain code, ORDER is written as   $ 
(c) OVBMMCFGH (d) OVBMMCFHG  and BOARD is written as     $. How is
(e) None of these ABODE written in that code ?
51. In a certain code language if the word ‘RHOMBUS’ (a)    $  (b)   $  
is coded as TJQODWU, then how is the word (c)    $  (d)    $ 
‘RECTANGLE’ in that language? 59. In a certain code, ‘R’ is ‘%’, ‘E’ is ‘#’, ‘D’ is @,
(a) TGVECPING (b) TGEVCPING and ‘A’ is ‘$’. How is ‘DARE’ written in that
(c) TGFWEPING (d) TGEWDPING code?
52. In a certain code, PACKING is written as GPNAICK. (a) @ % $ # (b) @ $ % #
How would BOWLING be written in that code (c) # % $ @ (d) % $ # @
language? 60. In a certain code, ‘P’ is ‘#’, ‘A’ is ‘%’, ‘C’ is ‘&’,
(a) BNOGWL (b) NOIGBWL and ‘E’ is ‘@’. How is PACE written in that
code ?
(c) GBNOIWL (d) IWLGBNO
(a) # & # % (b) & % @ %

87
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
(c) # % & @ (d) % @ # & 69. If M = 10 and MAN = 25 then POT =?
61. If ‘Z’ = 52, ‘ACT’ = 48, then ‘BAT’ =?
(a) 51 (b) 48
(a) 39 (b) 41
(c) 44 (d) 47
(c) 44 (d) 46
70. If O = 16, FOR = 42, then what is the code of FRONT
62. If ‘BOY’ = 51, ‘GIRL’ = 58 then ‘WOMAN’ =? =?

(a) 44 (b) 66 (a) 78 (b) 73

(c) 75 (d) 81 (c) 65 (d) 61

63. If ‘E’ = 5, ‘HOTEL’= 60 then ‘LAMB’ =? Directions (71-75) : Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
(a) 28 (b) 56 below it: Digits in the numbers are to be coded as
follows:
(c) 32 (d) 44
Digit 4 6 8 0 9 1 3 7 2 5
64. If ‘LONG’ = 3, ‘NOT’ = 4 then ‘NAME’ =? Code B Q L P F D R H S T
(a) 3 (b) 4 Following conditions are to be observed:
(i) If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd
(c) 5 (d) 6 they are to be coded as # and * respectively.
65. If ‘GO’ = 32, ‘SHE’ = 49 then ‘SOME’ =? (ii) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even
they are to be code as $ and  respectively
(a) 52 (b) 56 (iii) If 0 is preceded as well as followed by an odd
digit then 0 is to be coded as @
(c) 58 (d) 64
(iv) If 0 is preceded as well as followed by an even
66. In a certain code, ‘A+B’ = C, D – C’ =A, ‘E - B’ = C. How digit then 0 is to be coded as 
is ‘D + F’ written in that code? (v) 0 is not considered as either even or odd.
71. What will be the code for 1602487?
(a) J (b) A (a) #QLSBL (b) #QSBLH
(c) C (d) Q (c) DQPSBLH (d) DQSBLH
(e) None of these
67. If 44 + 12 = 30, 77 + 14 = 61, 84 +16 = 66 then what 72. #HRJD@T* is the code for which of the
should be for following: 44 + 22 = ? following numbers?
(a) 8736035 (b) 8765033
(a) 20 (b) 32
(c) 6771051 (d) 6730539
(c) 24 (d) 28 (e) Data inadequate
73. QDSLBP is the code for which of the following
68. If ‘MAP’ = 25 and ‘MAT’ = 29 then ‘LAMP’ =?
numbers?
(a) 27 (b) 36 (a) 6120830 (b) 6102840
(c) 6128040 (d) Data inadequate
(c) 37 (d) 45
(e) None of these

88
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
74. What will be the code for 9630584? 79. Which of the following will be the code for
(a) $RQ@LT (b) #QRQTL 4318767?

(c) FQRPTLB (d) FQR@TLB (a) SNPWMUV (b) SMPWVUV

(e) None of these (c) SMPWNUN (d) SMPWNUV

75. What will be the code for 46250097? (e) None of these

(a) #QSTP (b) #QSTPPF* 80. The code of 7735628 is same as the code of
which number?
(c) BQSTPPFH (d) #QSTSPF*
(a) 3735626 (b) 5735623
(e) None of these
(c) 17356 23 (d) 4735626
Directions (76-80) : Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions (e) None of these
given below : Directions (81-86) : In each of the following
Number code: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 questions two rows of numbers are given. The
resultant number in each row is to be worked out
Letter code: P Q R S T U V W X Y
separately based on the following rules and the
(i) If a number starts with an odd number the that questions below the rows of numbers are to be
odd number should be codified as ‘B’. answered. The operations of numbers prograss
(ii) If a number ends with an even number then from the left to the right
that even number should be codified as ‘K’. Rules:
(iii) Numbers 3 and 7 should always be codified as (i) If an odd number is followed by another
‘M’ and ‘N’ respectively whenever they are composite odd number, they are to be added.
neither at the beginning nor at the end.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number
Excluding cases given at (i),(ii) and (iii), the they are to be added.
numbers should be codified as per letter codes
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number
given above.
which is the perfect square, the even number
76. Which of the following “ will be the code for is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
274310?
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd
(a) KNSRPY (b) QNSMPY number, the first number is to be divided by the
(c) KNSMPY (d) QVSRPY second number.
(e) None of these (v) If an odd number is followed by an even number,
the second one is to be subtracted from the
77. Which of the following will be the code for
first number.
737896?
81. 15 8 21
(a) BMNWXK (b) NRNWXK
p 3 27
(c) VRNWXK (d) VRVWXK
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row what will be
(e) None of these
the resultant of the second row?
78. Which of the following will be the code of
(a) 58 (b) 76
3670421?
(c) 27 (d) 82
(a) RUNYSQP (b) BUVYSQP
(e) None of these
(c) BUNYSQP (d) BTNYSQP
(e) None of these

89
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
82. 12 64 17 Directions (87-92) : In each question below is
20 m 16 given a group of letters followed by four combinations
of digits/ symbols numbered 1), 2), 3) and 4). You
If m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be
have to find out which of the combination correctly
the resultant of the second row?
represents the group of letters based on the following
(a) 69 (b) 85 coding system and if none of the combinations
(c) 101 (d) 121 correctly represents the group of letters, give 5), i.e.
‘None of these ‘ as your answer.
(e) None of these
83. 85 17 35 M R I T J P Q E U D A F H W

16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be CODE : 8 4 9 5 1 # @ 2 6 © 3 $ * 7
the resultant of the second row?
Conditions:
(a) 175 (b) – 5
(c) 75 (d) 210 (i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter
is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.
(e) None of these
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a
84. 24 15 3
consonant, both are to be coded as %
d 6 15 (iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels,
If d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be both are to be codes as the code for the first
the resultant of the second row? letter.
(a) 37 (b) 8 87. UMQJPA
(c) 22 (d) 29 (a) 38@1#6 (b) 68@1#3
(e) None of these (c) 68@1#6 (d) 6@81#C
85. 28 49 15 (e) None of these
h 3 12 88. RPJWQE
If h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be (a) 2#17@4 (b) 4#17@2
the resultant of the second row? (c) 2#17@2 (d) 4#17@4
(a) 13 (b) 15 (e) None of these
(c) 19 (d) 27 89. FTMQEW
(e) None of these (a) $85@27 (b) 758@2$
86. 36 15 3 (c) $58@2$ (d) 758@27
12 3 n
(e) None of these
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first now, what will be
90. IREDHP
the resultant of the second row?
(a) %42©*% (b) 942©*#
15
(a) (b) 32 (c) #42©*9 (d) 942©*9
17
(e) None of these
12 91 AMQDHI
(c) (d) 36
17 (a) 38@ © * 9 (b) 98@ ©*9
(e) None of these (c) 98@ ©*3 (d) 38@ ©*3
(e) None of these

90
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
92. JDWPUH 98. Which of the following means ‘people ‘ in that
(a) 17©#6* (b) 1©7#6* code language?
(c) *1©7#6 (d) *©7#61 (a) ho (b) pit
(e) None of these (c) la (d) od
Directions (93-97) : In the following questions (e) Data inadequate
word is coded in number 99. Which of the following means ‘very’ in that code
Letter Z X Y Q J N D W F A language?
No. code 4 6 2 7 9 0 8 5 3 1 (a) na (b) da
You have to find out which letter code inscribed in (c) pa (d) Data inadequate
options a, b, c and d is correct. If the letter code is (e) None of these
not present in the given alternatives give answer e.
100. Which of the following statements is/are
93. Y W Q N F redundant to answer the above two questions?
(a) 75203 (b) 25703 (a) None (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) 27503 (d) 25793 (c) (ii) or (iv) (d) (i) or (iv)
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
94. X J F D Z
Direction (101-103): In each questions a
(a) 23476 (b) 69284 word is written in capital letters with one letter
(c) 69384 (d) 67384 underlined. For each letter of that word there is
(e) None of these code written in small letters that code is the
95. Y F Z Q X noted by a,b,c,d or e though note in the same
order. You have to find the exact code for the
(a) 23476 (b) 23467
underlined letter of the word.
(c) 73846 (d) 23596
101. FIEL D
(e) None of these (a) h (b) o
96. J W N D A (c) i (d) l
(a) 90583 (b) 93058 (e) g
(c) 75083 (d) 95083 102. PLA T E
(e) None of these (a) f (b) q
97. W Q A D N (c) b (d) s
(a) 57801 (b) 50718 (e) k
(c) 47180 (d) 59180 103. F LUID
(e) None of these (a) m (b) v
Directions (98-100) : In a certain code language (c) j (d) g
meanings of some words are as follows: (e) e
(i) ‘pit na sa’ means ‘you are welcome’ Directions (104-108) : Study the following
(ii) ‘na ho pa la’ means ‘ they are very good’ information to answer the given questions:
(iii) ‘ka da la’ means ‘who is good’ In a certain code ‘had to look’ is written as ‘ti re
(iv) ‘od ho pit la’ means ‘they welcome good people. zi’ ‘look for me’ is written as ‘di re ha’ and ‘for help’ is
written as ‘di na’

91
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
104. Which of these cab be coded as, ‘ha di na re’? 111. What is the code for ‘run’?
(a) had to help for (b) help me look for (a) 3(b) 8
(c) to look help for (d) had look help me (c) 1(d) 9
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
105. Which of the following is the code for ‘look’?
112. Which of the following may represent ‘Good to
(a) di (b) re see away’?
(c) ti (d) zi (a) 7 4 8 5 (b) 3 1 4 9
(e) ha (c) 5 4 3 9 (d) 7 4 5 9
106. How will, ‘had to help’ be written in this code? (e) 2 4 7 9
(a) zi re na (b) na ti di 113. What does ‘4’ represent in this code?
(c) di ha na (d) zi ti ha (a) Very (b) fast
(e) ti zi na (c) run (d) see
107. Which of the following may represent ‘had’? (e) None of these
(a) Only ‘di’ (b) Either ‘ti’ or ‘ye’ Directions (114-118) : Study the following
information and answer the given questions.
(c) Only ‘ti’ (d) Either ‘zi or ‘ti’
In a certain code language- ‘make good finance
(e) Only ‘zi’ plans’ is written as ‘zt mn lo xy’. ‘good economy helps
108. What does ‘na’ represent in the code? finance’ is written as ‘dn oj mn zt’. ‘make good
progress now’ is written as ‘xy fs zt br’. ‘progress
(a) look (b) to
helps develop country’ is written as ‘oj rt cl br’ (All
(c) for (d) me codes are two letter codes only)
(e) help 114. Which of the following represents the code for
‘make plans now’ in the given code language?
Directions (109-113) : Study the following
information to answer the given questions: (a) oj xy zt (b) lo fs xy
(c) lo oj mn (d) fs oj xy
In a certain code ‘3 1 8’ means ‘run very fast;,
‘2 8 9’ means ‘to run away’, ‘97’ means ‘to see’ and (e) xy lo mn
‘4 3’ means ‘very good’ 115. Which of the following represents the code for
109. What is the code for ‘see’? ‘helps progress’ in the given code language?
(a) dn oj (b) oj mn
(a) 3 (b) 1
(c) zt mn (d) dn br
(c) 4 (d) 9
(e) br oj
(e) 7
116. What is the code for ‘finance’ in the given code
110. Which of the following represents ‘see good run language?
away’? (a) lo (b) xy
(a) 8 4 7 2 (b) 7 9 1 4 (c) dn (d) mn
(c) 7 3 1 9 (d) 3 2 8 9 (e) zt
(e) 7 9 3 4

92
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
117. What is the code for ‘good’ in the given code 123. What is the code of ‘Nishi’?
language? (a) 2MR (b) 2SH
(a) mn (b) oj (c) 2RM (d) Either a or b
(b) zt (d) br (e) CBD
(e) xy Direction (124-128): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions
118. What does the code ‘cl’ stand for in the given
which follow—
code language?
In a certain code language, some
(a) Either ‘country’ or helps’ statements are coded as follow:
(b) develop ‘give solution for problem’ ‘*N8 #R3 %M7 @E4’
(c) Either ‘develop’ or ‘country’ ‘pure fruit sell plants’ ‘#T5 %E4 *L4 %S6’
(d) helps ‘pet sensed ghostly farm’ ‘#M4 *D6 @Y7 %T3’
(e) country ‘spa guards picked flake’ %D6 @S6 #E5 *A3’.

Directions (119-123): Study the following 124. Which of the following will be the code for ‘fruit
picked teach game’?
information carefully and answer the questions given
below: (a) @T5 %D5 #H4 *E4
In a certain code language, (b) @T5 %D6 @H5 *E4
[Aryan Sonam Prashant Priyanka] 2GK 2NH 3ZK 2MZ (c) @T5 #H4 *E4 %D6

[Himanshu Vibha Sumit Abhishek] 3F S

(d) #T5 ©H5 @E4 %D6
(e) @T5 #H4 *E4 %D6
[Rupa Abhinav Nitish Jyoti] 2SM 2RQ 2ZI 3EZ
125. What will be the code for ‘ghostly’?
4ZX 2RX 3EH 3ZH
(a) #Y6 (b) @Y7
119. What is the code of ‘Ashish’?
(c) %D7 (d) *E4
(a) 2ZS (b) 2SZ
(e) %D6
(c) Either a or b (d) CBD
126. Which of the following will be the code for ‘pure
(e) 2ZT water spa tune’?
120. What is the code of ‘Pooja Pradeep’? (a) *A3 %E4 @R5 *E4
(a) 3ZL 3LL (b) 3ZK 3KK (b) @R5 *E3 %A4 #E4
(c) Either a or b (d) CBD (c) %A4 #E4 @R4 *E4
(e) 3LL 3ZZ (d) %E4 @R4 #E4 *A3
121. What is the code of ‘Naleen’? (e) *A3 %E4 $R5 ©E4
(a) 3MN (b) 3NM 127. If ‘solution farm grain seem’ is coded as ‘*N8
*M4 @N5 #M4’. Then what is code for ‘plants
(c) 3MM (d) 3NN
means grain seem’?
(e) CBD
(a) #S6 *S5 %M4 #N5
122. What is the code of ‘Jyotsna Archita’?
(b) %A4 #E4 @R4 *E4
(a) 2ZZ 3ZQ (b) 3QQ 2ZQ (c) @N5 %S6 ?S5 *M4
(c) CBD (d) Either a or b (d) *S5 %M4 #N5 @S6
(e) 2ZQ 3ZZ (e) None of these

93
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
128. What will be the code for ‘problem good’? 134. Which of the following is the code for ‘Each’?
(a) #Y6 #D4 (b) %M7 @D4
(a) 6om2 (b) 6kj2
(c) @M7 %D4 (d) %S7 @D4
(e) @D4 %D6 (c) 6ut2 (d) 8ut4
Directions (129-132): Study the information and
(e) None of these
answer the following questions: In a certain code
language 135. What can be the code for ‘Enjoy morality’?
“Entire Money Board Perfect” is written as “ Q7
N5 F6 C5 “, “Sleeve Washing World Stories” is written (a) 20dt8 25dl5 (b) 20dt3 25dl25
as “ X7 T6 T7 X5 “, “Moving Partly Falls Objects” is (c) 20dt3 25dl5 (d) 20bu3 25dl5
written as “ N6 P7 G5 Q6 “,
129. What is the code for ‘Radio’ in the given code (e) 20dt3 25lo5
language?
136. What can be the code for ‘Cooperation’?
(a) S5 (b) R5 (c) S4
(d) R6 (e) None of these (a) 25dl5 (b) 60ov50
130. What is the code for the word ‘Rising Normal’
(c) 60ov5 (d) 16ov5
in the given code language?
(a) S5 O6 (b) O5 S6 (c) O6 S6 (e) 20dt8
(d) O5 S5 (e) None of these
137. 10 What can be the code for ‘Creative’?
131. If the code for the words ‘they forward _____’
is coded as ‘U4 G7 T5’ in the coded language a) 25dl5 b) 60ov50 c) 60ov5
then what will be the missing word?
d) 24xv4 e) 20xv4
(a) South (b) Mount
(c) Stone (d) Climb Directions (138 – 142): In a certain code, the letters
(e) Both a and c of English alphabet (consonants and vowels) are
132. What is the code for ‘Elegant’ in the given coded for some words. The numerical code for each
code language? letter is given in bracket in coded form and
(a) G7 (b) D7 (c) F6 corresponds to the letter in the word in the same
(d) F7 (e) None of these serial order. Study the coded forms of the given words
and find out the rules for their coding. Applying these
Directions (133-137) : Study the information and
rules, answer the questions that follow in the two
answer the following questions: In a certain code
sets.
language In a certain code language
‘Handling procession with morality’ is coded as Words Coded Forms
‘25dl5 44oi6 10vq6 9ub3’ , ‘morality procession
very grave’ is coded as ‘25dl5 5dc3 6xr3 44oi6’ , REST [10] [30] [10] [10]
‘grave with every individual’ is coded as ‘6xr3 KEEN [10] [25] [25] [10]
10dt3 9ub3 49qp5’ , ‘Handling individual every TAX [10] [1] [10]
day’ is coded as ‘10vq6 49qp5 1du2 10dt3’ DUE [10] [3] [3]
133. The code ‘1du2’ is stand for ? PAY [10] [1] [10]
(a) every (b) with GAPS [10] [30] [10] [10]
(c) grave (d) individual SAME [10] [15] [10] [15]
(e) day
94
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
ANY [1] [10] [10] Directions (143– 145) : A code language has been
MUCH [10] [30] [10] [10] used to written the words in capital letters in English
OVER [30] [10] [30] [10] in column I as Greek letters in column II, Greek letters
BUT [10] [1] [10] in column II do not appear in the same order as
letters in column I. Decode the language and choose
STEP [10] [10] [30] [10]
the correct code for the word given in each question,
Find out the coded form of each of the words printed
from amongst the alternatives provided.
in bold ;
COLUMN - I COLUMN - II
138. Have
a) (10) (15) (10) (10) CLEAR
b) (10) (30) (15) (30) VIEW V
c) (30) (15) (10) (10)
TURN
d) (10) (15) (10) (15)
BUTTER
e) Other than the given options.
OILY
139. REIN
WRITE
a) (10) (25) (15) (10)
VOWEL V
b) (10) (25) (25) (10)
c) (15) (10) (10) (25) 143. LIVER

e) (10) (1) (15) (15) a) b) £ c)

e) Other than the given options. d)
140. LED 144. TROUBLE
a) (15) (10) (1) a) b)
b) (1) (10) (10)
c) d)
c) (10) (1) (10)
145. BROWN
d) (10) (3) (10)
e) Other than the given options. a) b) c)

141. COST d)
a) (15) (10) (1) Directions ( 146–149): Study the following
b) (10) (30) (10) (10) information and answer the given questions;
c) (15) (25) (10) (10) In alphabetical series A-Z each letter except vowels
d) (10) (25) (15) (15) is assigned a different number from 1-8 (for ex-B is
e) Other than the given options. coded as 1, C-2 ………. K – 8) and again those
142. BEE numbers get repeated (for ex – L-1, M-2 … so on).

a) (10) (1) (1) b) (10) (5) (5) Also each vowel is assigned a different symbol viz.
c) (15) (1) (1) d) (10) (3) (3) #, $, %, @, &
e) Other than the given options. For example –
In coded language –

95
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
“She is girl” is coded as – 76% #7 5#61 codes for the different letters in each word have also
“What did you like” is coded as – 26$8 3#3 4@& not been given in the same order as these letter
1#8% occur in the original word. Study the two columns
carefully and then of the four alternatives given in
“It is Opinion” is coded as - #8#7 @4#3#@3
each question, find the one that has the code
i) If both first and last letter of a word is vowel
equivealents of the letters of the word given in the
then the codes of both the vowels are
question. This si your answer.
interchanged.
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
ii) If first letter of a word is vowel and last letter is
DELIBERATION aemrqs
consonant then both are to be coded as *.
CONSIDERATE ccehlmo
(if the word does not satisfy the conditions given
GHOSTLIKE cfhmoqqrx
above then the letters of that word are to be coded
WORLDLY cdgmqrsxz
as per the directions given above)
KNOWLEDGE adefmopqqsz
146. What can be the code of ‘Nothing perfect’ ? ROCKET cefkmopqqszz
a) 3@86#53 4%64%28 150. SOLACE
b) 3@68#35 4%64%28 a) aedpqr b) acemoq c) acdmpq
c) 3@86#35 4%64%38 d) demopq
d) 3@86#35 4%64%28 151. KNIGHT
a) fgrsxz b) gprsxz c) fhmpqr
e) None of these
d) ghrxyz
147. What can be the code of ‘Exam was easy’ ?
152. WORDY
a) *3$* 2$7 *$7* b) *3$* 2$7 %$74
a) fhlnq b) ehlmo c) efhlm
c) %3$2 2$7 *$7* d) *3$* 2$7 $74%
d) adeop
e) None of these 153. NOTICE
148. What can be the code of ‘Create style’? a) acdeqs b) afmqsz c) efhpqs
a) 2#6$8% 7841% b) 26%$8% 7814% d) fghpqr
c) 26%$8% 7841% d) 26%$6% 7841% 154. BLOAT
e) None of these a) lkqpz b) hmpqz c) cmpqs
149. What can be the code of ‘Strength of god’ ? d) ckmps
a) 768%3586 4@5@3 Directions (155-159): In each of the following
questions, two rows of numbers are given. The
b) 786%3586**5@3
resultant number in each row is to be worked
c) 786%3586@*5@3 out sperartely based on the following rules and
d) 786%3856 4@5@3 the questions below the rows of numbers are to
e) None of these be answered. The oeprations of numbers
progress from the left to the right.
Directions (150– 154): Below, in column I, are given
Rules:
some words. These have been translated into a (i) If an even number is followed by another even
code language. The code equivalents of the words number they are to be addd.
in column I given in column II are not necessarily (ii) If an even number is followed by a prime num-
opposite to the corresponding words, Morever, the ber they are to be multiplied

96
 CODING-DECODING AND WORD FORMATION
(iii) If an odd nubmer is followed by an even II. 79 28 15
number, the even number is to be sbtracted What is the difference between the
from the odd number resultants of the second row and the first
(iv) If an odd number is follwed by another odd row?
number the first number is to be added to the (a) 276 (b) 176 (c) 100
square of the second number (d) 156 (e) None of the above
(v) If an even number is followed by a composite 158. I. 36 13 39
odd number, the even number is to be divided II. 77 30 7
by the odd number. What will be the outcome if the resultant
155. I. 84 21 13 of the second row is divided by the
II. 15 11 44 resultant of the first row?
What is the half of the sum of the result (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8
ants of the two rows? (d) 6 (e) None of the above
(a) 116 (b) 132 (c) 232 159. I. 65 11 12
(d) 236 (e) None of the above II. 15 3 11
156. I. 45 18 12 What is the sum of the resultants of the
II. 22 14 9 two rows?
What is the product of the resultants of (a) 366 (b) 66 (c) 264
the two rows? (d) 462 (e) None of the above
(a) 75 (b) 48 (c) 45
(d) 64 (e) None of the above
157. I. 12 7 16

ANSWER
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (e) 6. ( ) 7.( ) 8.( ) 9.( ) 10.( )
11. ( ) 12.( ) 13. ( ) 14. ( ) 15.( ) 16.( ) 17.( ) 18.( ) 19.( ) 20.( )
21. ( ) 22. ( ) 23. ( ) 24.( ) 25.( ) 26.( ) 27.( ) 28.( ) 29.( ) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (e) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (e) 73. (e) 74. (e) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (e) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89. (e) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (e) 97. (e) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (e)
101. (e) 102. (d) 103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (b) 106. (e) 107. (d) 108. (e) 109. (e) 110. (a)
111. (b) 112. (e) 113. (e) 114. (b) 115. (e) 116. (d) 117. (c) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (c) 122. (e) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (b) 126. (e) 127. (c) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (c)
131. (e) 132. (d) 133. (e) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (c) 137. (d) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (c)
141. (b) 142. (d) 143. (b) 144. (d) 145. (c) 146. (d) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (b) 150. (c)
151. (a) 152. (b) 153. (b) 154. (d) 155. (a) 156. (e) 157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (d)

97
 MACHINE INPUT

07
CHAPTER
Machine Input
Directions (01-05): Study the following 4. How many steps will be required to get the final
information carefully and answer the questions given output from the following input?
below: Input: where do you go out of way
Input : top the name good for is there
(a) One (b) Three
Step I: is top the name good for there
(c) Four (d) Eight
Step II: is for top the name good there
(e) None of these
Step III: is for the top name good there
5. If step I of an input is ‘If there was no good
Step IV: is for the top good name there
man’ what step would be ‘if no man there was
(Last Step) good’?
Step II : is to for while they were going day (a) Second (b) Third
1. Step IV: (?) (c) Fourth (d) Can’t be determined
(a) is to day for they while were going (e) None of these
(b) is to day for while they were going Directions (06-10) : Read the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
(c) is to for day while they were going
below:
(d) Can’t be determined
A word and number arrangement machine when
(e) None of these given an input line of word and numbers rearranges
2. If following is the third step of an input, what will them following a particular rule and generates
be its first step? stepwise outputs till the arrangement is complete
following that rule. Following is an illustration of input
Step III : no dog was first five forest dense
and steps of rearrangement till the last step.
(a) no was dog first five forest dense
Input : tree cut 92 51 food 17 garden 32
(b) no first was dog five forest dense
Step I : cut tree 92 51 food 17 garden 32
(c) no dog first was forest five dense Step II : cut food tree 92 51 17 garden 32
(d) Can’t be determined Step III : cut food 92 tree 5117 garden 32
(e) None of these Step IV : cut food 92 51 tree 17 garden 32
3. Which of the following is the third step for the Step V : cut food 92 51 garden tree 17 32
following Step VI : cut food 92 51 garden tree 32 17
Input : lack of a common safe in the And Step VI is the last step of the input.
(a) a of in the lack common safe As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out
(b) a of in lack common safe the the answer to each of the questions given below:

(c) a in of lack common safe the 6. Step IV of an input is: earn more 82 63 12 31
quite new
(d) a in of the lack common safe
Which of the following will definitely be Step II
(e) None of these
of the output?

98
 MACHINE INPUT
(a) earn more 12 63 82 31 quite new particular rule in each step. the following is an
(b) Earn more new 82 63 12 31 quite illustration of input and rearrangement.

(c) earn more quite new 82 12 63 31 Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65

Step I : 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
(d) Cannot be determined
Step II : 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
(e) None of these
Step III :65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
7. Input : bring home 42 73 15 goal 32 type
Step IV : 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Which of the following steps will be the last?
Step V : 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
(a) V (b) VI
Step VI : 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
(c) IV (d) VII
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
(e) None of these
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out
8. Input : bench 47 63 advance 13 29 again in each of the following questions the appropriate
between step for the given input.
Which of the following is the step III of the 11. Input : show 51 36 new far 81 46 goal
output?
Which of the following steps will be the last but
(a) (advance again 63 47 bench 13 29 between one?
(b) advance again 63 47 bench between 13 29 (a) VII (b) VII
(c) advance again 63 47 bench between 29 13 (c) VI (d) V
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
(e) None of these 12. Input : home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over
9. Step II of an input is : Desk eagle 12 28 41 69 Which of the following steps will be the last?
foreign land (a) X (b) IX
How many more steps will be required to (c) VIII (d) VII
complete the rearrangement?
(e) None of these
(a) 4(b) 6 13. Step II of an input is: 76 ask 12 32 begin over
(c) 5(d) 3 join 42.
(e) None of these How many more steps will be required to
10. Step III of an input is: Again dark 83 sour 19 21 complete the rearrangement?
prey 39 (a) Four (b) Five
Which of the following steps will be the last but (c) Six (d) Three
one ? (e) None of these
(a) V (b) VI 14. Step IV of an input is : 58 box 47 dew 15 21
(c) VIII (d) VII town pot.
(e) None of these Which of the following steps will be the last?

Directions (11-16) : A word and number (a) VII (b) VI

arrangement machine when given an input line of (c) VIII (d) IX
words and numbers rearranges them following a (e) None of these

99
 MACHINE INPUT
15. Step III of an input is 94 car 86 window shut 52 (b) nor it lay is so cd rom
31 house. (c) lay so cd it rom is not
Which of the following is definitely the input? (d) Data inadequate
(a) 94 car window 86 shut 52 31 house (e) None of these
(b) 80 window 94 car shut 52 31 house 19. If the Step III of an input is "lo men chi from yet
(c) car shut window 86 52 31 house 94 as know" which of the following would be its
(d) Cannot be determined input?

(e) None of these (a) Data inadequate

16. Input : buy win task 52 38 43 door 12. (b) from lo men know chi yet as

Which of the following will be step IV? (c) men chi yet lo as know from

(a) 52 buy 43 door 3 8 task 12 win (d) chi as know men know from lo

(b)52 buy 43 door 3 8 task win 12 (e) None of these

(c) 52 buy 43 door task win 38 12 20. Which of the following correctly describes the
machine logic in generating various steps based
(d) There will be no such step
on the given input?
(e) None of these
(a) Each step is generate on random basis
Directions (17-21) : Study the following
(b) words/letters are finally arranged in
information carefully to answer the questions given
dictionary order.
below. In a toy exhibition, a machine processes a
given input by the following rule. Participant is shown (c) The seventh letter interchanges with the
one by one till it reaches its last step. Following is an fourth every time.
illustration of the working of this machine. (d) Data inadequate
Input : sui me ato fe zen u no (e) None of these
Step I : fe sui me no ato zen u 21. What will be the step IV for the following input?
Step II : no fe sui u me ato zen Input : may sen to cry if not hell

Step III : u no fe zen sui me ato (a) cry may sen to if not hell

Step IV : zen u no ato fe sui me (b) if not hell to cry may sen

Step V : ato zen u me no fe sui and so on. (c) sen to if may not hell cry

Now attempt the questions given below. (d) not hell cry if may sen to

17. Which of the following steps would read as "not (e) None of these
you only say wise yet" are for the input "say Directions (22-24) : Given an input a coding
not you are only wise yet" ? machine generates pass codes for six batches every
(a) III (b) V day as follows:

(c) VI (d) VII Input : you should know about type of questions

(e) None of these Pass Code:

18. If the Step V of an input is ‘so cd rom lay is not Batch I : you questions should of know type about
it’, which of the following would be its Step II? Batch II : about you type questions know should of
(a) is not it rom lay so cd Batch III : about of you should type know questions

100
 MACHINE INPUT
And so on till the sixth batch. (d) your answer number mark serial appropriate
The first batch begins work at 10.00 a.m. each batch against
works for one hour. There is a rest period (e) None of these
of one hour after the fourth batch’s work is over. Directions (25-31) : Study the following &
22. Ajay was to attend the batch at 4.00 p.m on a answer the questions:
day with a pass code "sentence awarded by Input 48 245 182 26 99 542 378 297
high court was executed". However he was Step I : 542 48 245 182 26 99 378 297
compelled to work in the batch at 12 noon on
Step II : 542 26 48 245 182 99 378 297
that day. What was his pass code then?
Step III :542 26 378 48 245 182 99 297
(a) awarded sentence executed high by court
Step IV :542 26 378 48 297 245 182 99
was
Step V : 542 26 378 48 297 99 245 182
(b) was executed by awarded court high
sentence This is the final arrangement and step V is the last
Step for this input.
(c) by high was sentence court awarded
executed 25. What will the fourth step for an input whose
second step is given below?
(d) high sentence awarded executed court was
by Step : 765 42 183 289 542 65 110 350

(e) None of these (a) 765 42 542 350 183 289 65 110
(b) 765 42 542 65 110 183 289 350
23. What will be the input on a day on which pass
code for the immediate per rest hour batch is (c) 765 42 542 65 183 289 110 350
"answer sheet information your the on fill up"? (d) Cannot be determined
(a) fill up your information on the answer sheet (e) None of these
(b) fill answer sheet up the your o information 26. What should be the third step of the following
(c) information your up on the fill answer sheet input?
your Input : 239 123 58 361 495 37
(d) information up on the fill answer sheet your (a) 495 37 361 123 239 58
(e) None of these (b) 495 37 58 361 123 239
24. The pass code for the 6th batch on a day was (c) 495 37 58 123 361 239
"mark your answer against approptiate serial (d) 495 37 361 239 123 58
number" what was the input provided to the (e) None of these
machine on that day?
27. How many steps will be required to get the final
(a) number against appropriate serial answer
output from the following input?
mark your
Input : 39 88 162 450 386 72 29
(b) number your against mark appropriate
answer serial (a) Two (b) Three
(c) number against serial appropriate answer (c) Four (d) Six
mark your
(e) None of these

101
 MACHINE INPUT
28. What should be the last step of the following numbers are arranged in particular order. Given
input? below is an illustration of this arrangement:
Input : 158 279 348 28 326 236 Input : 39 121 48 18 76 112 14 45 63 96
(a) 348 28 326 158 279 236 Step I : 14 39 121 48 18 76 112 45 63 96
(b) 348 28 326 236 158 279 Step II : 14 39 48 18 76 112 45 63 96 121
(c) 348 28 236 158 279 326 Step III :14 18 39 48 76 112 45 63 96 121
(d) 348 28 158 326 236 279 Step IV :14 18 39 48 76 45 63 96 112 121
(e) None of these Step V :14 18 39 45 48 76 63 96 112 121
29. If the first step of an input is Step VI :14 18 39 45 48 63 76 96 112 121
“785 198 32 426 373 96 49”,
(This is the final arrangement and Step VI is the last
Then which of the following steps will be step for this input)
“785 32 426 49 198 373 96”? 32. If following is the fifth step of an input what will
(a) Third (b) Fourth be the third step?
(c) Fifth (d) Second Step V: 17 32 43 82 69 93 49 56 99 106
(e) None of these (a)17 32 83 82 69 93 49 56 99 106
30. Below is given the second step of an input. (b) 17 32 82 69 43 93 49 56 99 106
What will be its fourth step? (c) 17 32 82 69 93 43 49 56 99 106
Step II : 298 12 128 36 212 185 (d) 17 32 82 69 43 96 56 49 99 106
(a) 298 12 212 128 36 185 (e) Can’t be determined
(b) 298 12 212 36 128 185 33. How many steps will be required for getting the
(c) 298 12 36 212 128 185 final output for the following input?
(d) Can’t be determined Input : 101 85 66 49 73 39 142 25 115 74
(e) None of these (a) 5(b) 6
31. Below is given the third step of an input. What (c) 7(d) 8
will be its second step?
(e) None of these
Step III : 387 42 236 185 92 64
34. Which of the following will be the third step for
(a) 387 42 185 236 92 64 the following input?
(b) 387 42 92 185 236 64 Input : 45 78 97 132 28 16 146 54 99 112
(c) 387 42 185 92 236 64 (a) 16 28 45 78 97 146 54 99 112 132
(d) Cannot be determined
(b) 16 28 45 97 78 54 99 112 132 146
(e) None of these
(c) 16 28 45 78 97 132 54 99 112 146
Directions (32-36) : Study the following
(d) 16 28 45 97 78 132 99 54 112 146
information carefully to answer the questions given
below. (e) None of these
A number sorting machine when given an input 35. If the second step for an input is as given below
of numbers rearranges the numbers in a particular what will be the fifth step for the same input ?
manner step by step as indicated below till all the Step II : 22 49 32 88 69 132 101 185

102
 MACHINE INPUT
(a) 22 32 49 88 69 101 132 185 Input : 113 18 48 225 462 175 288
(b) 22 32 69 49 88 101 132 185 (a) 462 288 48 225 113 175 18
(c) 22 32 49 69 101 88 132 185 (b) 462 288 225 175 113 48 18
(d) 22 32 49 88 69 132 101 185 (c) 462 225 288 48 113 175 18
(e) None of these (d) 462 288 225 48 113 175 18
36. What will be the Step II for the following input? (e) None of these
Input : 47 62 17 92 86 42 24 79 40. If following is the first step for an input, what will
(a) 17 24 47 62 86 42 79 92 be the fourth step?

(b) 17 47 62 86 42 24 79 92 Step I: 498 175 292 96 79 387 158

(c) 17 24 47 62 92 86 42 79 (a) 498 387 292 175 158 79 96

(d) 17 47 62 86 24 42 79 92 (b) 498 387 292 175 96 158 79

(e) None of these (c) 498 387 292 175 158 96 79

Directions (37-43) : Study the following (d) 498 387 292 175 79 158 96
information to answer the given questions. (e) None of these
A number arrangement machine when given an 41. Following is the step II for an input. What will
input of numbers, rearranges them following a be the first step for the input?
particular rule in each step. the following is an Step II : 595 438 28 142 38 65 289
illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.
(a) 595 28 438 142 38 65 289
Input 25 280 345 36 93 147 550
(b) 595 438 142 28 38 65 289
Step I 550 280 345 36 93 147 25
Step II 550 345 280 36 93 147 25 (c) 595 28 142 438 38 65 289
Step III 550 345 280 147 93 36 25 (d) Can’t be determined
This is the final arrangement and Step III is the last (e) None of these
step for this input. 42. What will be the second step for the following
37. If 842 485 68 358 236 123 93’ is the second input?
step of an input, which of the following steps Input : 158 294 22 89 142 385 463
will be ‘842 485 358 236 123 68 93’? (a) 463 385 294 22 89 142 158
(a) Fourth (b) Fifth (b) 463 385 89 22 142 294 158
(c) Sixth (d) Can’t be determined (c) 463 385 22 89 142 158 294
(e) None of these (d) 463 385 22 142 89 158 294
38. How many steps will required to get the final (e) None of these
output from the following input?
43. Which of the following is the last step for the
Input : 78 293 585 740 64 132 26 following input?
(a) 4 (b) 5 Input: 145 227 900 49 116 243 356
(c) 3 (d) 5 (a) 900 356 243 227 49 145 116
(e) None of these (b) 900 356 243 227 145 116 49
39. What will be the third step for the following (c) 900 356 227 243 145 116 49
input?

103
 MACHINE INPUT
(d) 900 356 243 227 116 145 49 (c) 61 (d) nice
(e) None of these (e) 17
Directions (44-48) : Study the given information 46. Which of the following is step III of the given
and answer the following questions: input?

When a word and number arrangement machine (a) proud 72 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 55
is given an input line of words and numbers, it 97 rich 61 nice life.
arranges them following a particular rule. The (b) Life 55 girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud
following is an illustration of input and rearrangement 97 rich 61 72 nice
(All the numbers are two-digit numbers). (c) girl 48 family 32 beautiful 17 proud 55 97
Input : 40 made butter 23 37 cookies salt extra rich 61 72 nice life
52 86 92 fell now 19 (d) family 32 beautiful 17 proud girl 48 55 97
Step I : butter 19 40 made 23 37 cookies salt extra rich 61 72 nice life
52 86 92 fell now
(e) girl 48 life 55 family 32 beautiful 17 proud
Step II : cookies 23 butter 19 40 made 37 salt extra 97 rich 61 72 nice
52 86 92 fell now
47. What is the position of ‘nice’ from the left end in
Step III : extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 40 made salt
the final step?
52 86 92 fell now.
(a) Fifth (b) Sixth
Step IV : fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter 19 made
salt 52 86 92 now. (c) Seventh (d) Eighth
Step V : made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies 23 butter (e) Ninth
19 salt 86 92 now. 48. Which element is third to the right of ‘family’ in
Step VI : now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37 cookies Step V?
23 butter 19 salt 92
(a) beautiful (b) 17
Step VII : Salt 92 now 86 made 52 fell 40 extra 37
cookies 23 butter 19 (c) proud (d) 97
Step VII is the last step of the above (e) 32
arrangement as the intended arrangement Directions (49-54): Read the given information
is obtained. and answer the questions.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out When a word and number arrangement machine is
the appropriate steps for the given input. given an input line of words and numbers it arranges
Input : 32 proud girl beautiful 48 55 97 rich family them following a particular rule. The following is an
61 72 17 nice life. illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the
numbers are two-digit numbers)
44. How many steps will be required to complete
the given input? Input : left 46 burn 82 95 part 72 vibe bold 49
mint 59
(a) Five (b) Six
Step I. 95 left 46 burn 82 part 72 vi be 49 mint 59
(c) Seven (d) Eight
bold
(e) Nine
Step II. 82 95 left 46 part 72 vibe 49 mint 59 bold
45. Which of the following is the third element from burn
the left end of step VI?
Step III. 72 82 95 46 part vibe 49 mint 59 bold burn
(a) beautiful (b) life left

104
 MACHINE INPUT
Step IV. 59 72 82 95 46 part vibe 49 bold bum left 54. Which of the following represents the first two
mint and the last two elements in the third-last step?
Step V. 49 59 72 82 95 46 vibe bold burn left mint (a) 32, 39, pale, weld (b) 39, 42, fear, pale
part (c) 29, 32, pale, turn (d) 29,32, pale, weld
Step VI. 46 49 59 72 82 95 bold bum left mint part (e) 32, 39, fear, pale
vibe
Direction (55-58) : A word and number
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as arrangement machine when given an input line of
the intended output of arrangement is obtained. words and numbers rearrange them following a
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the particular rule. The following is an illustration of input
appropriate steps for the given input. and rearrangement.
Input : 29 cone 42 pale fear 39 67 fame 32 weld (Single digit numbers are preceded by a zero. All
77 turn. other numbers are two digit numbers)
49. Which step number is the following output? Input : whether 15 wish you 08 being 48 come
77 29 42 pale fear 39 67 fame 32 weld turn 68 hour 124 86
cone Step I. : being whether 15 wish you 08 48 come 68
(a) I (b) III hour 124 86

(c) VI (d) IV Step II. being 08 whether 15 wish you 48 come 68

hour 124 86
(e) There is no such step
Step III. being 08 come whether 15 wish you 48 68
50. What is the position of ‘fame’ from the right of
hour 124 86
‘67’ in the second-last step?
Step IV. being 08 come 15 whether wish you 48 68
(a) Eighth (b) Third
hour 124 86
(c) Fifth (d) Ninth
Step V. being 08 come 15 hour whether wish you
(e) Seventh 48 68 124 86
51. Which of the following is the fifth element to the Step VI. being 08 come 15 hour 48 whether wish
right of “29” in Step II? you 68 124 86
(a) cone (b) turn Step VII. being 08 come 15 hour 48 whether 68 wish
(c) fame (d) 39 you 124 86
(e) 32 Step VIII. being 08 come 15 hour 48 whether 68
wish 86 you 124
52. How many elements are there between ‘77’ and
‘weld’ in the last step? Step VIII is the last step of the arrangement of the
above input as the intended arrangement is obtained.
(a) Five (b) Three
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out
(c) One (d) Four
in each of the following questions the appropriate
(e) Two steps for the given input.
53. In step II, which element(s) appear(s) exactly Input: new 59 personnel 68 28 teacher 10 price
between ‘pale’ and ‘32’? grievance 32
(a) Only ‘weld’ (b) Both ‘weld’ and ‘42’ 55. How many steps would be needed to complete
(c) Both ‘fear’ and ‘39’ (d) Only ‘fear’ the arrangement?
(e) Only ‘39’ (a) V (b) VI

105
 MACHINE INPUT
(c) VIII (d) VII Step – 2: 23 37 Nashik 60 Chennai 63 Bhopal 42
(e) Cannot be Determined Raipur Surat
56. Which of the following would be the final Step – 3: 23 37 40 60 Chennai 63 Bhopal Nashik
arrangement? Raipur Surat
(a) grievance 10 new 28 personnel 32 price Step – 4: 23 37 40 58 63 Bhopal Chennai Nashik
59 68 teacher Raipur Surat
(b) grievance new personnel price teacher 10 Step – 5: 23 37 40 58 65 Bhopal Chennai Nashik
28 32 59 68 Raipur Surat
(c) grievance 10 new 28 personnel 32 price Step – 6: 23 Bhopal 37 Chennai 40 Nashik 58 Raipur
59 teacher 68 65 Surat
(d) grievance 68 new 59 price 32 personnel Step – 7: 23 14 37 12 40 25 58 36 65 39
28 new 10 Step – 8: 12 14 23 25 36 37 39 40 58 65
(e) None of these Step – 9: 3 5 5 7 9 10 12 4 13 11
57. Which of the following would be step I? This is the final arrqangement and step 9 is the last
(a) grievance new 59 68 personnel 28 teacher step for this input.
10 price 32 Input : Karnal 17 42 Gurgaon Delhi 57 23 Pune
(b) 10 grievance new 59 personnel 68 28 58 Jaipur
teacher price 32 59. Which element is 6th from the right end in step
(c) grievance 10 new 59 personnel 68 28 7?
teacher price 32 a) 25 b) 28 c) 21
(d) 10 grievance new 59 personnel 68 28 d) 40 e) None of these
teacher price 32
60. How many numbers/ words are there between
(e) grievance new 59 personnel 68 28 teacher Delhi and 40 in step 6 ?
10 price 32
a) None b) One c) Two
58. Which word/number would be the sixth position d) Three e) More than three
from the left end in step III ?
61. If in a certain way ‘40’ is related to ‘57’ in step 3
(a) personnel (b) price
and ‘Delhi’ is related to ‘Karnal’ in step 5, then
(c) 68 (d) 32 in the same way ‘25’ is related to what in step 8
(e) teacher ?
Dirction (59– 63) : Answer the questions on the a) 32 b) 56 c) 59
basis of the information given below: d) 21 e) 38
A number arrangement machine when given an input
of words/numbers, rearranges them following a 62. What is the difference in the number which is
particular rule in each step. The following is an 4th from left end in step – 7 and which is 5th from
illustration of input and steps of rearrangement. the right end in last step ?

Input : 21 Nashik 35 60 Chennai Surat 63 Bhopal a) 13 b) 15 c) 16

42 Raipur d) 14 e) 18
Step – 1: 23 Nashik 35 60 Chennai 63 Bhopal 42 63. what is the addition of one digit numbers in last
Raipur Surat step ?

106
 MACHINE INPUT
a)23 b) 25 c) 28 66. Find the multiplication of number which are 4th
d) 27 e) 26 from left and 6th from right in step 8 ?
a) 9 b) 28 c) 36
Directions (64– 68): Answer the questions on the
d) 81 e) 35
basis of the information given below.
A number arrangement machine when given an input 67. What is the sum of the numbers which are fourth
of numbers/ words, rearranges them following a from left end and third from right end in step – 6
particular rule in each step. The following is an ?
illustration of input and steps of rarrangement . a) 48 b )47 c) 52
Input : better 12 47 point 24 39 team follow 63 d) 49 e) 51
simple
68. what word/number is 4th from left end in step –
Step – 1:teaing 14 better 47 point 24 39 follow 63 3?
simple
a) before b) 54 c) thinking
Step – 2: 26 simpling teaing 14 better 47 point 39
d) woring e) 18
follow 63
Step – 3: Poining 37 26 simpling teaing 14 better 47 Directions (69– 71): Study the following information
follow 63 carefully and answer the given questions.
Step – 4: 45 following poining 37 26 simpling teaing A word and number arrangement machine when
14 better 63 given an input line of words and numbers rearranges
Step – 5: betteing 61 45 following poining 37 26 them following a particular rle in each step. The
simpling teaing 14 following is an illustration of input and
Step – 6: 61 45 37 26 14 20 19 16 6 2 rearrangement.

Step – 7: 4 36 49 1 4 25 64 1 81 49 Input : 23 56 price 59 terrific 72 unit situation 86

information
Step – 8: 13 9 1 10 7 4 1 13 9 4
Step I : 88 informatioish 23 56 price 59 terrific 72
Step – 9: 22 11 11 14 13
unit situation
This is the final arrangement and step 9 is the last
Step II: Pricish 74 88 informatioish 23 56 59 terrific
step for this input .
unit situation
Input : 16 before 33 shows 28 work think 54 come
Step III: 57 situatioish pricish 74 88 informatioish 23
67
56 terrific unit
64. Which word/number is third to right of seventh
Step IV : terrifiish 58 57 situatioish pricish 74 88
element from right end in step 6 ?
informatioish 23 unit
a) 23 b) 20 c) 6
Step V : 21 uniish terrifiish 58 57 situatioish pricish
d) 19 e) None of these 74 88 informatioish
65. In step 4, If ‘coming’ interchanges position with Step V is the last step of the above arrangement.
‘30’ and ‘thinking’ with ‘before’, then how many
words are there in between ‘coming’ and ‘before’ As per the rules followed in the steps given above,
? find out in each of the following questions the
a) None b) One c) two appropriate step for the given input.
d) three e) More than three Input : 22 39 since 12 growth sector 76 future
demand 25

107
 MACHINE INPUT
69. Which step number would be the following c) Step III – jvsu 42 qnrw uegm 96 146 9 bdgv
output ? futurish 37 78 demanish 22 since 12 d) Step III – jvsu 42 qnrw 96 uegm 146 9 bdgv
sector growth 25
e) None of these
a) Step IV b) Step V c) Step VI 74. Which of the following word/number will be
d) Step VII e) There will be no such step fourth to the left of sixth from the left end in step
II?
70. How many elements (words or numbers) are
there between ‘futurish’ and ‘24’ as they appear a) 96 b) 146 c) zegm
in the last step of the output ? d) bdgv e) None of these
a) One b) Three c) Four 75. What will be the twice of the difference of sixth
number from the left end of step I and fifth
d) Five e) None of these
number from right end of step IV ?
71. What is sum of the numbers which is second a) 14 b) 12 c) 28
from the right and fourth from the left in the third
d) 44 e) None of these
step ?
Directions (76– 80): Study the following information
a) 37 b) 39 c) 33 carefully to answer the given questions:
d) 49 e) None of these A word and number arrangement machine when
Direction (72 – 75) : A word and number given an input line of words and numbers rearranges
arrangement machine when given an input line of them following a particular rule. The following is an
words and numbers rearrangement following a illustration a particular rule. The following is an
particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
illustration of input and rearrangement. Input : 97 nosy 21 snow cold 32 asian 46 65 viral
Input – njes glfu 53 18 31 44 wird dect 83 high
Step I : yktf 106 njes glfu 18 31 44 dect Stpe I : 211 97 nosy snow cold asian 46 65 viral 83
Step II: plgu 88 yktf 106 glfu 18 31 dect high 322
Step III : inhw 62 plgu 88 yktf 106 18 dect Step II: asian 211 97 nosy snow 46 65 viral 83 high
Step IV : fgev 36 inhw 62 plgu 88 yktf 106 322 cold
Step IV is the last step of the above arrangement. Step III: 463 asian 211 97 nosy snow viral 83 high
322 cold 654
Answer the following questions based on the Step IV : high 463 asian 211 97 snow viral 83 322
following input : - cold 654 nosy
Input – olpu htqs 21 73 48 9 scek bdgv Step V: 835 high 463 asian 211 snow viral 322 cold
72. What will be the resultant if fifth number from 654 nosy 976
the left end of step I is added to fifth number Step VI: snow 835 high 463 asian 211 322 cold 654
from right end of step III? nosy 976 viral
a) 153 b) 106 c) 117
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per
d) 98 e) None of these
the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each
73. What will be the third step of the given input ?
of the following questions the appropriate steps for
a) Step III – 42 jvsu qnrw 96 uegm 146 9 bdgv the given input.
b) Step III – jvsu 42 qnrw 96 uegm 146 bdgv 9

108
 MACHINE INPUT
Input : peak 18 utility 76 emerge 27 beautiful 37 Step V, is the last step of the above arrangement as
51 visible 86 know the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps find out
76. How many steps would be needed to complete the appropriate steps for the given input.
the arrangement ?
Input : 24 alliance 91 92 little forward 53 routine
a) X b) VIII c) V test 37.
d) VI e) None of these 81. In which of the following step the elements ‘litt
77. What will addition of the numbers which is fifth 53 forw 91’ found in the same order ?
from the left end in step in step II and 5 th from a) Step I b) Step IV c) Step V
the right end in step IV ?
d) Step II e) None of these
a) 312 b) 210 c) 162
82. What is the difference between the element
d) 165 e) None of these which is fourth from left in Step III and first from
78. Which of the following would be the difference left in Step IV ?
of the numbers which is 2nd from left end in step a) 12 b) 31 c) 11
IV and 2nd from right end in Step II ?
d) 13 e) None of these
a) 290 b) 83 c) 193
83. In step V, ‘92’ is related to ‘tes’ and ‘all’ is related
d) 101 e) None of these to ‘24’. In the same way ‘53’ is related to ?
79. Which of the following element will be 6th from a) 37 b) for c) lit
the left of 3rd from the right end in step V ?
d) routi e) None of these
a) 181 b) beautiful c) 373
84. Which element is exactly between ‘test’ and ‘91’
d) know e) None of these in step IV of the given arrangement ?
80. In Step – IV, which of the following word/number a) litt b) 92 c) forw
would be on 4th position (from the left end)?
d) 41 e) routin
a) visible b) 181 c) 97
85. Which of the following is the fourth step of the
d) utility e) None of these arrangement based on the given input ?
Directions (81 – 85): Study the given information a) 24 test routin 37 litt 53 forw 92 alli 91.
and answer the questions: b) 24 test routine 37 litt 53 forw 91 alli 92.
When a word and number arrangement machine is c) 24 test routin 37 littl 53 forw 91 alli 92.
given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges
d) 24 test routin 37 litt 53 forwa 91 alli 92.
them following a particular rule. The following is an
illustration of input and its rearrangement. e) 24 test routin 37 litt 53 forw 91 alli 92.
Input : 34 97 depend 67 sabha groups 69 limited Direction (86 to 90): A number arrangement
85 might. machine, when given a particular input,
rearranges it following a particular rule. The
Step I : 34 67 sabha groups 69 limited 85 might
following is the illustration of the input and the
depen 97.
steps of arrangement:
Step II: 34 67 sabha 69 limited might group 85 depe
Input : 12, 17, 14, 23, 22, 19, 25, 29
97.
Step I : 6, 16, 10, 10, 8, 20, 14, 22
Step III: 34 67 sabha might limite 69 grou 85 dep
97. Step II; 9, 64, 25, 25, 16, 100, 49, 121
Step IV : 34 sabha migh 67 limit 69 gro 85 de 97. Step III; 15, 20, 17, 26, 25, 22, 28, 32
Step V : sabh 34 mig 67 limi 69 gr 85 d 97. Step IV: 19, 29, 23, 41, 39, 33, 45, 53

109
 MACHINE INPUT
Step V: 3, 8, 5, 5, 4, 10, 7, 11 d) 16, 4, 100, 64, 36, 9, 81, 121
Step VI; 22, 19, 12, 17, 25, 29, 14, 23 e) None of these
Direction (91 to 94): A number arrangement
86. What will be the sixth step of the following input?
machine, when given a particular input,
Input : 52, 78, 43, 39, 47, 36, 57, 19 rearranges it following a particular rule. The
a) 78, 43, 52, 39, 47, 57, 36, 19 following is the illustration of the input and the
b) 47, 36, 52, 78, 57, 19, 43, 39 steps of arrangement:
c) 39, 43, 47, 78, 36, 57, 52, 19 Input : 25 45 32 84 75 65 12 28
d) 47, 36, 43, 39, 57, 19, 52, 78 Step 1: 03 25 45 32 75 65 28 04
e) None of these Step 2: 07 03 45 32 65 28 04 02
87. if the fouth step of a given input is 13, 17, 9, 7, Step 3: 10 07 03 45 32 04 02 01
21, 15, 19 what will be the input ? Step 4: 05 10 07 03 04 02 01 01
a) 11, 7, 13, 10, 9, 12, 6 Input : 78 37 59 18 48 97 63 47
b) 7, 9, 13, 8, 11, 6, 19 91. In step 3, which number comes to the left fo 59
c) 21, 7, 10, 6, 12, 9, 5 ?
d) 9, 11, 7, 6, 13, 10, 12 a) 09 b) 10
e) None of these c) 11 d) 48
88. If the first step of a given input is 22, 30, 26, e) None of these
38, 42, 38, 72, 28, what will be step V for the 92. In step 1, if 63 is related to 02 and in a similar
input ? way 48 is related to 01 in step 3. Then in step 4,
a) 4, 11, 7, 10, 11, 9, 5 how 10 is related to ?
b) 9, 13, 11, 7, 15, 19, 5, 28 a) 01 b) 02 c) 03
c) 15, 9, 7, 19, 11, 14, 8, 9 d) 12 e) None of these
93. Find the average of numbers of the first no from
d) 11, 15, 13, 19, 21, 19, 36, 14
right end in step 1, second no. from right end in
e) None of these
step 2, third no from right end in step 3 and
89. What will be the third step of the following fourth no from right end in step 4.
input?
a) 03 b) 04 c) 02
Input : 26, 29, 32, 35, 38, 41, 44, 47 d) 05 e) None of these
a) 27, 31, 35, 39, 43, 47, 51, 55 94. Find the difference between the number.
b) 29, 32, 35, 38, 41, 44, 47, 50 In step 2, third no. from right end and in step 3
c) 23, 26, 29, 30, 33, 36, 40, 45 foruth no. from the left end.
d) 25, 28, 34, 38, 40, 45, 48, 50 a) 12 b) 13 c) 15
e) None of these d) 10 e) None of these
90. What will be the second step of the following Directions (95– 97): Study the given information
input ? carefully and answer the given questions.
Input : 13, 11, 19, 17, 24, 21, 27, 29 An input – output is given in different steps. Some
a) 69, 81, 72, 85, 96, 63, 54, 87 mathematical operations are done in each step. No
mathematical operation is repeated in next step.
b) 11, 18, 15, 23, 29, 13, 9, 17
c) 8, 5, 25, 16, 81, 36, 64, 49

110
 MACHINE INPUT

As per the rules followed in the steps given above, 98. If the value ‘6’ is added to the final output then
find out in each of the following questions the what will be the resultant value ?
appropriate step for the given input. a) 21 b) 23 c) 18
d) 24 e) None of these
99. If in the first step the second digit of every
95. Find the addition of the two numbers obtained number is added and divided by 3 then which
in step III ? will be the resultant value ?
a) 1.5 b) 3 c) 7 a) 5 b) 6 c) 2
d) 3.5 e) None of these d) 4 e) None of these
96. Find the difference between sum of numbers 100. which of the follwoign combinations represent
which obtained in 1st step and sum of numbers the first digit of the third value and the second
obtained in all other steps ? digit of the first value in step I of the given input?
a) 232 b) 186 c) 188 a) 5,4 b) 4,5 c) 5,6
d) 6,5 e) 4,4
d) 183.5 e) None of these
101. which of the following represents the sum of
97. Find the multiplication of the numbers obtained
the second digit of the second value and the
in step II ? first digit of the first value in step II of the given
a) 426 b) 462 c) 188 input ?
d) 98 e) None of these a) 8 b) 7 c) 6
d) 2 e) 9

Directions (98-102): A number arrangement 102. Which of the following represents the difference
between the first value and the second value of
machine arranges two digit numbers into a typical
step III of the given input ?
manner. Each step takes gives output taking input
a) 1 b) 2 c) 7
from the previous step. The following is an illustration
d) 4 e) 5
of input and rearrangement. Using the illustration
answer the question given below. Directions (103 – 104) : Study the following diagram
and convert it into other diagrams by implementing
111
 MACHINE INPUT
the instructions which is given in each step to get And answer the following questions.
next step.

Interchange the Alphabets to get step 1 as arrows 103. Which element comes in step – 2 in the second
mention in the above figure. column of third row ?
a) LM7 b) KL7 c) ZU3
d) AB8 e) None of these
104. Which element replaces AB8 in step – 3 ?
a) PQ7 b) ZU3 c) FT5
d) MO2 e) None of these
step - 1 Direction (105 - 109): The following is an
For Step – 2: illustration of input and rearrangement. Using the
illustration answer the question given below.
(i) If the alphabets contain one consonant and one
vowel and the number with them is greater than Step – I: Interchagne the Alphabets/Numbers (follow
3, then subtract 3 from the given number. the same pattern as shown in Figure.)
(ii) If the alphabets are two consonant and the Step – II:
number with them is greater than 5, then change a) If both letters are Vowel and number is less than
the letters with the previous letter in alphabetical 6, then vowels change to next letter in English
series. alphabetical series and add 2 to the number
b) If both letters are consonant and number is
greater than 6 or equal to, then consonants
change to the previous letter in English
alphabetical series and subtract 3 from the
number.
c) If both letters are vowel and number is greater
Step - 2 than 6 or equal to, then vowels change to the
For Step – 3 : Step 3 is coded in some special pattern. previous letter in English alphabetical series and
subtract 3 from the number
d) If both letters are consonant and number is less
than 6, then consonants change to next letter in
English alphabetical series and add 3 to the
number
e) If there are one vowel and one consonant, then
step - 3 vowel change to next letter and consonant
As per the rules followed in the above step, find out change to the previous letter and add 2 to the
the appropriate steps for the given input. number.

112
 MACHINE INPUT
f) If there is single consonant, then consonant 107. In step II, what is the product of the sum of
change to the previous letter and subtract 3 from numbers in the first column and the sum of
the number. numbers in the third column ?
g) If there is a single vowel, then vowel change to a) 245 b) 285 c) 275
next letter and add 3 to the number. d) 255 e) 235
Step – III : follow both Steps I and II 108. In step II, if the sum fo the numbers in the third
Example : row is dividied by the sum of numbers in the
second row then what will be the resultant ?
a) 8 b) 7 c) 6
d) 4 e) 2
109. In step I, which of the following letter/number
occur more than twice ?
a) E b) U c) 7
d) 4 e) 8
Directions (110 – 114): Study the following diagram
and convert it into other diagrams by implementing
the instructions which is given in each step to get
next step.

For step – 1 :
(i) In the arrangement, opposite numbers are
interchanged if opposite numbers are in odd-
even combination.
(ii) In the arrangement, alphabets are interchanged
if opposite numbers are in odd-odd or even-even
105. In step III, what is the sum of numbers in the combination.
first row ?
a) 15 b) 11 c) 12
d) 13 e) None of these

106. In step III, what is the difference between the

sum of numbers in the first row and the sum of
numbers in the third row ?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 3
d) 4 e) None of these

113
 MACHINE INPUT
For step – 2:
(i) If the alphabets contain at least one vowel and
one consonant or two vowels -
If the number with them is a whole square
(except 1), then replace consonant with the
previous letter in alphabetical series and replace
vowel with the next letter in alphabetical series.
If the number with them is not a whole square,
110. Which of the following element is placed
then subtract 2 from the given number.
immediate next to the element of NS22’ in step
And if number with them is less than 2, than it’s 3 in clock-wise direction ?
same as it is in previous step. a) OT22 b) HW14 c) PO10
(ii) If the alphabets are two consonant – d) VF13 e) None of these
If the number with them is a whole square, then 111. Which of the following element is placed just
replace consonant with the next letter in opposite to ‘EI4’ in step 2 ?
alphabetical series. a) VS4 b) KL10 c) DH4
If the number with them is not a whole suqre, d) BN19 e) None of these
then add 2 in the given number. 112. Which of the following element in step 3 will be
at place of ‘OT’ which is in step – 2, after the
applied operation ?
a) KL b) NS c) VF
d) GL e) None of these
113. Which of the following number is placed with
the alphabets which is immediate element in
anticlockwise direction, which replaces ‘VS4’
from step 2 to step 3 ?
For Step – 3 : Step 3 is coded in some special pattern a) 4 b) 19 c) 9
d) 10 e) None of these
114. Which fo the following replaces ‘KL6’ from input
in step – 1 ?
a) E16 b) BN17 c) OT8
d) EI8 e) None of these
Direction (115–119) : There are certain defense
exercise that are presented by same code. Answer
the given questions which are based on the following
As per the rules followed in the above step, find out information.
the appropriate steps for the given input. Exercise Name Step-I Step-II Code Name
And answer the following questions. SAMPRITI IAMPRITS PR20# NP10
INDRA ANDRI AI14@ CK7
DHANUSH HHANUSD HD8@ FB4

114
 DECISION MAKING

08
CHAPTER
Decision Making
Question (01-07) : An international Bank (a) Refer to Managing Director
decided to recruit management Trainee for its foreign (b) Refer to General Manager
exchange department. The following criteria were
(c) Refer to Chairman
laid down.
(d) Candidate is to be selected
(a) B. Com with minimum 65% mark
(e) Candidate is not to be selected
(b) CAIIB with minimum 50% mark.
2. Ahutosh, a commerce graduate with 73%
(c) Having work experience of minimum one year marks, has completed CAIIB part I securing
in foreign exchange department of any bank. 64% marks and will be appearing for CAIIB part
II examination. His date of birth is 29.6-1991.
(d) Age between 24 years and 30 years as on 01-
He joined a cooperative bank in 2012 and
07-2016
continues to work there. He was posted in the
(e) Ready to keep a deposit of Rs 25,000 with the foreign exchange department in 2013 and is
bank. working in the same department at present. He
can keep the required amount of deposit with
However if the candidate fulfils all other criteria except
the bank.’
(A) (ii) above, but has completed CAIIB part I with (a) Refer to Chairman
minimum 60% marks his case may be
(b) Refer to General Manager
referred to the General Manager.
(c) Data inadequate
(B) (iii) above but has 4 years experience of
(d) Candidate is to be selected
working in a bank, his case may be referred
to the Chairman. (e) Candidate is not to be selected

(C) (i) above but has obtained minimum 60% 3. Manisha is an employee of a private bank in
marks at B.Com. as well as CAIIB, his case Clerical cadre for past 6 years in its foreign
may be referred to the Managing Director. exchange department. She is B.Com. with 70%
marks and CAIIB with 60% marks. Her date of
Based on the above criteria and the information birth is 15.6-1988. She is willing to keep a
given in each of the following questions, you deposit of any amount up to Rs 50,000 with the
have to take the decision in regard of each case. bank,
You are not to assume anything.
(a) Refer to Chairman
st
These cases are given to you as on 1 July 2015 (b) Refer to General Manager
1. Niranjan’s father is an industrialist of the city (c) Refer to managing Director
and Niranjan has no problem in Keeping any
(d) Candidate is to be selected
amount as deposit with the Bank. He has
completed B.Sc. with 68% marks and CAIIB with (e) None of these
60% marks. He is working in a Public Sector 4. Rajshekhar, a youth of 26 years age, has
Bank as an officer in the foreign exchange completed B.Com securing 68% marks and is
department since last two years. His date of working in a nationalized bank for past two years
birth is 24-04-1990 in its foreign exchange department. He will be

116
 DECISION MAKING
appearing for CAIIB part II examination in the (b) Refer to General Manager
next month. He has no problem in depositing (c) Data inadequate
Rs 25,000 with the bank.
(d) Candidate is to be selected Candidate is not
(a) Refer to General Manager to be selected
(b) Refer to Managing Director (e) None of these
(c) Candidate is to be selected Directions (08-14) : Study the following
(d) Candidate is not to be selected information carefully to answer the questions given
(e) Data inadequate. below

5. Abhijit Kaul is a commerce graduate with 72% The Institute of Technology runs BC college of
marks in graduation and 59% marks at. CAIIB Engineering. It applies following criteria for selection
examination. He is 28 years old and is working of students for admission to the BC College. The
in a bank since 2010 till date. He can keep a student should
deposit of Rs 25,000 with the Bank. (a) have been born before 1.3.1996 and after
(a) Refer to managing Director 28.2.1973

(b) Refer to General Manager (b) have obtained minimum 80% marks in
aggregate and minimum 90% marks in Math’s
(c) Refer to Chairman
and Science at HSC
(d) Candidate is to be selected
(c) have passed Intermediate drawing examination
(e) Candidate is not to be selected conducted by the State government.
6. Ranjna, a 25-year-old commerce graduate, is (d) willing to pay a deposit of Rs. 15,000 as
working in a public sector bank since 2012 in laboratory security.
its foreign ex-change department. She is
(e) be found physically fit in the medical exemptions
B.Com. with 75% marks and CAIIB with 58%
being conducted by the Institute
marks. She has done a diploma course in
computer programming. She is willing to keep However, if the student fulfills all other criteria except
a deposit of minimum Rs 25,000 with the Bank. (A) criteria (b) but has obtained minimum 85%
(a) Refer to Chairman marks in aggregate as well as in Math’s and
Science his case may be referred to the Vice-
(b) Refer to General Manager
President of the Institute.
(c) Data inadequate
(B) criteria (c), but has won award in inter school
(d) Candidate is to be selected drawing competition, his case may be referred
(e) Candidate is not to be selected to the Principal of the college.
7. Mr Subhash Rao has passed his B.Com (C) Criteria (d), but is a relative of a member of
examination and CAIIB examination with 62% Board of Trustees of the Institute, his case may
and 65% marks respectively. He has recently be referred to, the chairman of the admission
completed 25 years of age in June 2015. He committee.
has joined a foreign bank in 2013 and was Based on the above criteria and the information
placed in its foreign exchange department in given in each case, you have to take a decision.
January 2014. He continues’ to work with the You are not to assume anything. These cases
Bank till date. He is ready to keep a deposit of are given to you as on 28.2.2014
Rs. 25,000. Mark Answer If
(a) Refer to Managing Director

117
 DECISION MAKING
(a) the student is to be admitted team of doctors. He has passed intermediate
drawing examination of the state. However, he
(b) the student is to be referred to Vice President
could never win a prize in any of the inter-school
of the Institute
drawing competitions.
(c) the student is to be referred to the principal of
12. Ravi, an 18-year- old boy, is the nephew of an
College
industrialist who is trustee of the institute.
(d) the student is to be referred to the chairman of Although he did not appear in the drawing
the admission committee examination of state he has won gold medal in
(e) the student is not to be admitted an interschool drawing competition. His
aggregate marks in HSC are 81% and the marks
8. Ninad, the only son of a chartered Accountant
in Math’s and Science are 91%. He is found to
who is also trustee of the Institute has passed be physically fit by the team appointed by the
the drawing examination of state and has just institute. He is not in a position to pay any
passed HSC examination securing more than amount against deposit.
90% marks in aggregate as well as in Math’s
and Science. His date of birth is 15.6.1995. He 13. Sujit , a 20-year-old boy, has passed his HSC
is physically fit as per the medical examination examination securing 87% marks in aggregate
report of the Institute. He cannot pay more than and 88% marks in Math’s and Science. He is
Rs 10,000 against the security deposit. He has willing to deposit Rs 15,000 as Lab Security
passed the state level intermediate drawing deposit and is found fit by the team of doctors
examination with grade B. conducting medical examination, he has passed
the intermediate drawing examination of the
9. Narendra, whose date of birth is 21.4.94, is a state.
student of Electrical Engineering diploma
course. He has scored 85% marks in aggregate 14. Asmita is a 19-year-old girl who has passed her
and 89% marks in Math’s and Science at HSC HSC in 2009 with 88% aggregate marks and
examination. He has done a part – time course 93% marks in Math’s and Science. She is
in computer operating. He is medically fit as studying in FY B.Sc and has secured distraction
reported by the Institute’s team. He has passed in the first semester. She had participated in
the state level intermediate drawing examination inter- school drawing competitions and has won
in 2009, obtaining ‘A’ grade. He has no problem the awards on two occasions. She is found fit
is paying the amount of deposit. by the medical examiners appointed by the
institute. She is the daughter of an industrialist
10. Smita has passed HSC examination with 82% and can pay any amount as deposit.
marks in aggregate and 92% marks in Maths
and Science. She is found fit in the medical Directions (15-20) : Read the information
examination and can pay the required amount carefully and answer the questions given below:
of deposit. Her date of birth is 1.3.1996. she Leading English daily of India, ABC News,
has passed the state level intermediate drawing invites applications for the post of sub – editors in its
examination. company. The candidates are required to fulfill, apart
11. Virendra, born on 19th January 1995, has passed from at least three of the following conditions for his/
the HSC examination with 91% marks in Maths her selection
and Science and an aggregate score of 84%. (a) He/she must be between 21-30 yrs.
He will manage to pay the amount of Rs. 15,000
(b) He/she first class degree in his / her graduation.
as security deposit to the institute. He is
medically fit as per the report of the institute’s (c) He/she has diploma in journalism with at least
55% marks.
118
 DECISION MAKING
(d) He/ she has an experience of at least 2 years 18. Rohit Sen has won many awards for his articles
in a news–paper. at state level and he has been working with The
(e) He/she has won prize at state level for his / her Telegraph, Calcutta since 2008. He did his B
articles published in state- level English daily. Com with 77% marks from University of
Calcutta and jitter that he finished his diploma
If, however, he / she does fulfill all conditions except in journalism from Jadhavpur University with
(A) (e) above, but he/ she has 5 yrs. Experience 53%. His date of birth is 15-10-1987
in a news agency, then refer to the editor 19. Swastika Gupta is an English Hons, graduate
of ABC News. from Bangalore University with 63% marks. She
(B) (b) above, but he / she has diploma in also holds diploma in journalism from the same
journalism with 75% then refer to the university with 56% marks. Her date of birth is
chairman of ABC News 22-09-71. She has been working with The
(C) (c) above, but he / she has completed Economic Times, Bangalore for the last one
graduation with 75% then refer to the year.
managing director of ABC News. 20. Tamisha Singh Rajput holds both B.Sc and
All the information are given to you on 1-10-2013. diploma in journalism degree with 64% and 60%
Now ,you have to take decision in regard to each marks respectively from University of
case given below. You are not to assume any Ahmadabad. She is working with The Tribune,
Information, Give answer Ahmadabad for last 7 years and she has won
many prizes at state level for her articles. She
(a) if the candidate is not to be selected.
is very hardworking and professional.
(b) if the candidate is to be selected
Directions (21-30) : Study the following in –
(c) if the candidate is to be referred to the chairman. formation and answer the questions below.
(d) if the candidate is to be referred to the managing To be ad –mitted to IIFT course, a candidate must
director. fulfill the following eligibility criteria.
(e) if the candidate is to be referred to the editor (i) He should be between 18-25 years of age on
15. Niharika Chawla, a 26-year- old graduate from 1st August, 2010.
Delhi University with 66% marks, has also done (ii) He must have at least 60% in graduation.
her diploma in journalism from Jamia with 75%
(iii) His marks in entrance test should not be less
marks. She has been working with The Hindu,
than 60% out of a total of 900 and he must have
Delhi for the last 3 years.
got at least 50% in the Interview out of 100.
16. Shriya Singh, a first class gradute from Patna
(iv) He should be able to pay Rs 50,000 per annum
University, has done diploma in journalism from
as tuition fee.
the same university with 72% marks. She has
won several prizes for his articles at state level However if the candidate
and has been working with the Hindustan Times (A) belongs to SC or ST category, condition (iv)
Patna from 20-07-2011 will be exempted if his / her score in the entrance
17. Akanksha Mathur, who hails from Mumbai is a test is more than 70% and in the interview more
graduate from University of Mumbai with 50% than 55%
marks, she also holds a degree in journalism (B) is less than 18 years of age but has scored
with 76% marks. She has been working with more than 80% in the entrance test as well as
Mid-Day Mumbai for the last 4 years. Her date the interview; he should be referred to the
of birth is 29.07.1989 Director.

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 DECISION MAKING
(C) has less than 60% but more than 50% in 26. Jayesh was born on 20-12-1989. He secured
graduation but can pay an amount of Rs 720 marks in the entrance examination and 80
1,00,000/ per annum as tuition fee, he will be marks in the interview. He has got 60% marks
admitted. in graduation but is not able to pay Rs 50,000
(D) is between 25 and 30 years and has p.a. as tuition – fee.
represented state in sports; he / she will be 27. Sohan secured 70% in graduation and was born
referred to Dean of students’ Welfare. on 14th April, 1988. Sohan can afford the tuition-
(E) gets more than 70% in entrance test and fee. His marks in the entrance test was 525 and
interview but is unable to pay Rs 50,000 per in interview 80.
annum as tuition-fee, his case will be referred 28. Girish is an economics graduate with 60%
to the Director. marks. He secured 573 marks in the entrance
Give answer test and 65 marks in the interview. He is 28
(a) if the candidate is to be admitted years of age and has represented his state in
badminton.
(b) if the candidate is not to be admitted
29. Ritesh is a scheduled tribe candidate and was
(c) if the candidate s case is to be referred to the
born on 15th November 1987. He secured 60%
Director
in the entrance test as well as interview. He is
(d) if the candidate’s case is to be referred to the unable to pay the tuition fee.
Dean of Students Welfare
30. Priya is 21 years of age and is a science
(e) if data are inadequate. graduate.
21. Sujeet is a commerce graduate with 61% marks
She got more than 70% in the entrance test
and is 21 years of age. He got 560 marks in the
and the interview. She can pay an amount of
entrance test and 55 marks in the interview. Rs 1,00,000 p.a. as tuition fee
He is able to pay Rs 50,000 per annum as
tuition- fee. Directions (31-37) : Read the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
22. Borm on 12th of July 1988, Ramesh is a Science
below.
graduate with 65% marks. He scored more than
60% in entrance test as well as interview. He XYZ Institute of Science and Medicine provides
is unable to pay Rs 50,000 p.a. scholarships to meritorious students so that they are
23. Satish is a SC candidate and is a graduate with able to get postgraduate degree in US.
65% marks. His age is 20 yrs and he got 640 For this following criteria have been set:
marks in the entrance test and 60 marks in the
interview. He is unable to pay tuition – fee. (i) The candidate must be an MBBS graduate with
minimum 60% marks,
24. Rajendra was born on 31st March, 1984 and is
a graduate with 60% marks. He has (ii) He/ she must have practiced at least for 2yrs in
represented his state in football and is able to government hospital after completion of his/ her
pay Rs 50,000 p.a. as tuition fee. MBBS courses,
25. Manoj is a commerce graduate with 60% marks. (iii) He/ she must have passed Medical Aptitude
He got more than 80% in the entr ance Test (MAT) with at least 90% marks,
examination as well as interview. He was born
(iv) He /she must be between 23 and 26 years of
on 20th August 1992 and is able to pay Rs
age on 31.01.2015.
50,000 p.a. as tuition- fee.

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 DECISION MAKING
However, if the candidate fulfils all the criteria hospital. He did MAT but got only 87.5 marks.
except at He has also got published his research paper
(A) (i) above but has secured at least 54% marks as a medicine journalist.
in MBBS along with Diploma in some specialized 33. Dr SN Luthra is not known for his academic
branches of Medicine, his /her case to be excellence but he is a hardworking and
referred to Director, XYZ Institute. enterprising person. He has got 86%, 92%, 65%
(B) (iii) above, but has secured at least 70% marks and 96% marks in ASC, HSC MBBS and MAT
in MBBS and at least 85% marks in MAT, his/ respectively. He has wor ked with the
her case to be referred to President, XYZ government hospital for the last three years. His
Institute date of birth is Jan 11, 1990. He wants to settle
(C) (ii) above, but has an MD degree, his/ her case in USA after his study.
to be referred to Vice President, XYZ Institute. 34. Dr Alok Agarwal has had an outstanding career
and he has got at least 80 and above percentage
Based on the above criteria and the information
given below, you have to take decision in regard of marks from SSC to MBBS. He was born on
to each case. You are not to assume any June 27.1992. He has got 96% marks in MAT.
information. If the given information in not He has completed his MD with 65% marks while
adequat e, then your answer should be working with a private hospital for nearly two
‘scholarship not to be given ‘All the information’s years. After coming back from New York wants
are being given to you on 31.01.2015. to open ‘Rural Hospital in his village.

Give answer: 35. After completing his MBBS degree with 58%
marks, Dr Ashok Kumar Verma has worked with
(a) if the candidate is to be given scholarship
the city government hospital for two- and –a –
(b) if the case is to be referred to Director half years. He has got 92% marks in MAT. His
(c) if the case is to be referred to vice President date of birth is Dec 13, 1991. He has
successfully got a diploma in pediatrics. He has
(d) if the case is to be referred to president
already enrolled himself in USA.
(e) if the scholarship not to be president 36. Dr Mridula Garg has got 93% marks in MAT.
31. Dr BK Das has got MBBS and MD degree from She has passed 3 years in a private hospital
Patna. He also received the award of best after completion of her MBBS with 69% marks.
medical student. He has completed his MD at She wants to be a child specialist and has done
the age of 24 yrs. As per the demand he has special diploma in pediatrics. She has attained
also got experience of working with the Lucknow the age of 25 years in Oct’2014. She has got
government hospital. He has got nearly 95% admission for her study in America.
and 68% marks in MAT and MBBS respectively.
37. Dr Sonia Apte is a dedicated doctor at the age
He has already enrolled himself in USA.
of 25 years and has worked with Thane
32. Dr Ranjan Kumar is working with ‘Herbal Drugs’. government hospital for nearly 3 years. She has
He comes from a doctor’s family. He received
got 90.40% and 63.5% marks in MAT and MBBS
MBBS degree with 73.5% marks at the age of
respectively she wants to reside permanently
21 yrs in 2011. He has earned a good name
in USA after her study.
during his 3 yrs’ tenure at Jaunpur Government

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 DECISION MAKING
Directions (38-42) : Study the following in HRM. He secured 65 percent marks in
information carefully and answer the questions given Entrance Exam and 60 percent in HSS Exam.
below: He completed his graduation with 62 percent
Followings are conditions for selecting Human marks
Resources (HR) Manager in a company: (a) Can be recruited as Head HR of the
The candidate must company

(i) Have secured at least 55 percent marks in the (b) Can be recruited as Manager HR of the
Entrance Examination. company

(ii) Have a Graduate Degree with at least 60 per (c) Data are insufficient to take a decision
cent marks. (d) Can be recruited as CEO of the company
(iii) Have a postgraduate Degree/ Diploma in (e) Can’t be recruited in the company.
Human Resource Management/ Business 39. Rahil Khan is a postgraduate in Business
Management System. Management System. He was born on April 9,
(iv) Be less than 30 years of age on 01.09.2013 1988. He secur ed 64 percent marks in
(v) Have secured at least 55 percent marks in HSS Graduation and 70 percent marks in the Higher
Exams. Secondary School Examination.

In the case of candidate who satisfies all conditions (a) Can be recruited as Head HR of the
except company

(a) (i) above, but has secured 65 percent marks in (b) Can be recruited as Manager HR of the
the final semester in Management and 45 company
percent marks in the Entrance Exam, will be (c) Data are insufficient to take a decision
recruited as Head HR (d) Can be recruited as CEO of the company
(b) (v) above, but has post-qualification work (e) Can’t be recruited in the company.
experience of one year in a company and has
40. Nakul Bhatnagar was born on May 17, 1985
50 percent marks in the Higher Secondary
and is a PG in Business Management System.
School Exam will be recruited as CEO of the
He secured 71 percent marks in the final
company.
semester and 50 percent marks in the Entrance
In each question below are given details of one Examination. He secured 60 percent marks in
candidate. You have to take one of the following the HSS Examination. He completed
courses of action based on the information provided Graduation with 63 percent marks.
and the conditions and sub-conditions given above
(a) Can be recruited as Head HR of the
and mark the appropriate alternative as your answer.
company
You are not to assume anything. All these cases are
given to you as on 01.09.2013 (b) Can be recruited as Manager HR of the
company
38. Shiva Kumar Kamath was born on August 13,
1987 and he has completed his postgraduate (c) Data are insufficient to take a decision

122
 DECISION MAKING
(d) Can be recruited as CEO of the company

(e) Can’t be recruited in the company.

41. Manohar Tambe, a graduate with 58 percent

marks, was born on March 3, 1984. He holds a
PG Diploma in HRM. He has been working in a
company for the past two years and has 60
percent marks in HSS Exam. He secured 60
percent marks in the Entrance Examination.

(a) Can be recruited as Head HR of the

company

(b) Can be recruited as Manager HR of the

company

(c) Data are insufficient to take a decision

(d) Can be recruited as CEO of the company

(e) Can’t be recruited in the company.

42. Swati Shinde was born on January 01, 1986.

She has a work experience of five years in HR
Customer 'X' has decided to do online shoping.
Team of Law. She secured 60 percent marks in
So, different conditions are given in Data flow
the Higher Secondary School Examination and diagram. So after analyzing above DFD diagram
65 percent marks in the Entrance Examination. you have to answr the given questions:
She secured 58 percent marks in graduation. 43. Which of the following step shows that cus-
She has completed her diploma in Management tomer receives order confirmation and de-
livery date of item ?
with distinction.
a) When customer is ready to payment.
(a) Can be recruited as Head HR of the b) When bank verify debit/credit cards.
company c) When customer selects COD (Cash on de-
livery) and order is shipped.
(b) Can be recruited as Manager HR of the d) When verification is done net-banking.
company e) None of these
44. What may not be the possible cause for
(c) Data are insufficient to take a decision
failure of any person's payment ?
(d) Can be recruited as CEO of the company a) E-com sites do not provide delivery facility
in that address, which is provided by the
(e) Can’t be recruited in the company.
customer.
Direction (43 - 47): See the following struc- b) The Payment which is done by the customer is
ture carefully and answer the given questions. not accepted by the bank.

123
 DECISION MAKING
c) There is server issue in E-Com sites.
d) In debit cards details, customer has not pro-
vided CVV code.
e) The Cards details which is provided by the
customer are wrong.
45. If 'Flipkart' does not proivde Net-banking
feature, then what should be the possible
step for customer's product payment before
receiving the product ?
a) Customer can pay with debit card.
b) Customer can pay directly to retailer shop
c) Cusotmer can pay with Net-banking after
filling all details.
d) At the time of payment, customer can
choose option of COD (Cash on delivery)
e) Both (a) and (d)
46. What should be the follwoing step which
shows customer Item is ready for shipment
?
a) When customer fills address details.
b) wehn customer wants to pay with Net-bank-
ing, but there is insufficient balance in his
account.
c) when Customer pay with Credit card or Patient 'Z' wants to admit in hospital. So, differ-
Debit card after verifying by the bank. ent conditions are given in Data flow diagram.
d) When customer pay with Net-banking after So after analyzing above DFD diagram you have
verifying by the bank. to answer the given questions :
e) Both c) and d) 48. If a patient wants to submit eight thousand
47. If customer visits to Paytm site and start rupees in the reception, then what will be
shoping and buy two or more item in one the next scene ?
payment, then which of the following would a) Patient will be admintted in hospital and he
be the first step that had done by the cus- will be checked by the doctor.
tomer ? b) After submitting eight thousand rupees, pa-
a) Fill Account details and then select the item tient will receive a receipt of bill.
and buy. c) There will no such step.
b) Select item and Buy now. d) Receptionist will refuse to take money from
c) Select one item then buy and again select the patient.
another item then buy. e) After submitting the money patient will col-
d) Select one item and add to cart then again lect the report.
select another item and add to cart and so 49. Which condition is sufficient to make sure
on. that patient is discharged from the hospi-
e) None of these tal?
Directions (48 - 52): See the following struc- a) If patient submit seven thousand rupees in
ture carefully and answer the given questions. the reception.

124
 DECISION MAKING
b) If patient report is negative. mit two thousand more money.
c) If required treatment facility is not available b) To complete treatment of patient doctors
in the hospital. should go for two-three checkups.
d) If the operation of the patient become suc- c) Before admitting in hospital, patient should
cessful. inform their relatives.
e) Both b) and d) e) None of these
50. Which oen of the following is the previous 52. Which of the following condition shows that
step before the collection of report ? patient will not be admitted in hospital ?
a) Patient report is negative. a) When patient is checked by the doctor and
b) In ICU, patient operation is successful. he does not find any disease.
c) Patient has no disease and report is gener- b) When doctor suggest for operation adn Pa-
ated for no disease. tient refuses the doctor suggestion.
d) All of the above c) If patient will not submit required money as
e) None of these demanded by the hospital.
51. Which of the following step is logically miss- d) When patient has no disease.
ing in Data flow diagram ? e) If treatment for patient's disease is not avail-
a) If only eight thousand rupees is submitted able in the hospital.
by the patient then receptionist said to sub-

1 (e) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (e)
11 (a) 12 (e) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (b) 23 (a) 24 (e) 25 (c) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (e) 29 (b) 30 (e)
31 (e) 32 (d) 33 (a) 34 (e) 35 (b) 36 (e) 37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (a)
41 (e) 42 (e) 43 (c) 44 (c) 45 (e) 46 (e) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (e) 50 (d)

51 (c) 52 (c)

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 SYLLOGISM

09
CHAPTER
Syllogism
Directions (01-05) : Statements I and II are Directions (6-10) : In each question below are
followed conclusions I and II. you have to take the given two statements followed by two conclusions
two given statements to be true even if they seem numbered I and II. You have to take the two given
to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read statements to be true even if they seem to be at
the conclusions and then decide which of the given variance with commonly known facts and then decide
conclusions logically follows from the two which of the given conclusions logically follows from
statements. tick mark your answer: the two given statements, disregarding commonly
(a) if only I follows from the statements known facts.
(b) if only II follows from the statements Give answer
(c) if both I & II follow from the statements (a) if only conclusion I follows;
(d) if either I or II follows from the statements (b) if only conclusion II follows;
(e) if neither I nor II follows from the (c) if either I or II follows;
statements (d) if neither I nor II follows; and
1. Statements : I. Some books are soaps. (e) if both I and II follow.
II. Some towels are soaps. 6. Statements : Some boys are Indians.
Conclusions : I. Some books are towels. Some Indians are pillars.
II. No book is a towel. Conclusions : I. Some boys are pillars.
2. Statements: I. All chairs are locks
II. No boys are pillars.
II. All locks are doors
7. Statements : Some Princes are Kings.
Conclusions : I. All doors are chairs
Some queens are princes.
II. All chairs are doors
Conclusions : I. Some princes are kings.
3. Statements : I. All trees are flowers
II. Some princes are queens.
II. Some flowers are rounds
8. Statements : Some pencils are pens
Conclusions : I. Some trees are round
All pens are books.
II. No tree is round
4. Statements: I. Some soldiers are short Conclusions : I. Some pencils are books.
II. All short people are fair II. No pencils are books.
Conclusions : I. Some soldiers are fair. 9. Statements : All Indians are Asians.
II. No tall soldier is fair. All Americans are Indians.
5. Statements : I. Mangoes are sweeter Conclusions : I. All Americans are Asians.
than Bananas but not as II. All Asians are Americans.
sweet as Lemons 10. Statements : No book is a paper.
II. Oranges are not as sweet
All papers are baskets.
Mangoes but are sweeter
then Bananas. Conclusions : I. Som e books are not
baskets.
Conclusions : I. Bananas are the least
sweet. II. Some baskets are not
books.
II. Lemons are the sweetest.

126
 SYLLOGISM
Directions (11-12) : Below is given a pair of Conclusions : I. Some globes are not
statements followed by some conclusions. You have gems.
to consider the statements and then decide which II. Some globes are gems.
of the conclusions follow (s) from it. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they III. Som e gem s are not
globes.
appear to be at variance with commonly known facts.
11. Statements : All books are watches. IV. Some gems are globes.
(a) Either I or II follows
All pens are watches.
(b) Either III or IV follows
Conclusions : I. Some books are pens.
II. Some pens are books. (c) I and either III or IV follow

III. All books are pens. (d) III and either I or II follow

IV. All pens are books (e) I and III follow

15. Statements : Some watches are books.
(a) I and III follow (b) Only I follow
Some books are animals.
(c) II and IV follow (d) Only II follows
(e) None of these Conclusions : I. Some watches are
animals.
12. Statements : All magazines are books.
II. Some anim als are
All books are pens watches.
Conclusions : I. All magazines are pens. III. Some books are watches.
II. Som e pens are IV. Some books are not
magazines watches.
III. Som e pens ar e not (a) I and II follow
magazines
(b) Either III or IV follows
IV. Some pens are books.
(c) I and either III or IV follow
(a) I and IV follow (b) I and II follow
(d) II and either I or III follow
(c) II and IV follow (d) Either II or III follows
(e) Only III follows
(e) I, II and IV follow
Directions (16-20) : In the following questions
13. Statements: Some gardens are mangoes. two statements ar e given followed by four
No mango is a purse. conclusions. Read the statements carefully and
Conclusions : I. Some gardens are not then decide which of the conclusions follow as a
purses result of the given statements.
II. All gardens are purses. (You have to take the given statements as wholly
true, even if they appear to be at variance with
III. Some purses are not
commonly known facts.)
gardens.
16. Statements : All books are hooks.
IV. All purses are gardens.
Some books are ducks.
(a) Either I or II follows
Conclusions : I. Some books are hooks.
(b) Eithe III or IV follows
II. Some ducks are hooks.
(c) I and either III or IV follow
III. Some ducks are not
(d) III and either I or II follow
hooks.
(e) I and III follow
IV. All hooks are books.
14. Statements : All boxes are globes.
(a) Only I follow
No boxes are gems.

127
 SYLLOGISM
(b) Only I and II follows All big are beautiful
(c) Only I and III follow Conclusions : I. All big are not beautiful
(d) Only IV follows II. Some small are beautiful.
(e) I and either II or III follows III. Some beautiful are small.
17. Statements : Some roses are pens. IV. Some beautiful are not
No pens are pencils. small.
Conclusions: I. Some pens are roses. (a) Either III or IV follows
II. Some pencils are not (b) Either I or III follows
roses. (c) II and III follow
III. Some roses are pencils. (d) II and either III or IV follow
IV. Some roses are not (e) II, III and IV follows
pencils 21. Statements : (a) All blackboards are
(a) I and II follow (b) Only I follow cardboards.
(c) I and IV follow (d) Only IV follows (b) No whiteboar d is a
(e) II and IV follow cardboard.
18. Statements : All tops are docks. (c) Some whiteboards are
boxes.
All docks are flops.
Conclusions : I. No blackboar d is a
Conclusions : I. Some tops are flops.
cardboard.
II. Some tops are not flops.
II. Some boxes are not
III. All flops are tops. cardboards.
IV. Some flops are not tops. III. Some blackboards are
(a) Either I or II follow whiteboards
(b) Either III or IV follows IV. Some boxes are
(c) I and either III or IV follow blackboards.
(d) III and either I or II follow (a) Only I and II follow
(e) Any two of I, II, III, IV follow (b) Only II follows
19. Statements : No comb is a tomb (c) Only I and III follow
Some tombs are bombs. (d) Only I, III and IV follow
Conclusions : I. Some combs are not (e) None of these
bombs. 22. Statements : (a) Some items are parts.
II. Some bom bs are not (b) Som e segments are
combs items.
III. All combs are bombs (c) No segments are portions.
IV. No combs are bombs. Conclusions : I. Some items are portions.
(a) Only I follow II. Some portions are not
(b) Only IV follows items.
(c) I and IV follow III. Some parts are segments
(d) Either I or III and II follow IV. Some items are not
portions.
(e) Only II follows
(a) Only III and IV follow
20. Statements : Some big are small.

128
 SYLLOGISM
(b) Only I and II follow IV. All fights are cargos.
(c) Only II follows (a) Only II follows (b) Either I or II follows
(d) Only IV follows (c) Only IV follows (d) Only III follows
(e) Either I or IV and II follow (e) Either I or III follows
23. Statements : a. Some stories are fictions. Directions (26-30) : In each question below are
b. All fictions are shades. given two statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the three
c. Some shades are points.
given statements to be true even if they seem to be
Conclusions : I. Some fictions are shades. at variance with commonly known facts. Read all
II. Some stories are shades. the conclusions and then decide which of the given
III. Some stories are points conclusions logically follows from the three given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
IV. Some stories are not
points. 26. Statements : Some bulbs are tubes.
(a) Only I, II and III follow All tubes are telephones.
(b) Only I, II and IV follow No telephones are fans.
(c) Only II and III follow Conclusions : I. Some bulbs are not fans.
(d) Only II and either III or IV follow II. Some telephones are
bulbs.
(e) Only I, II and either III or IV follow
III. No fans are tubes
24. Statements : a. Some mysteries are films.
IV. Some bulbs are not
b. No toys are plays. telephones.
c. Some toys are mysteries. (a) I, II and III follow
Conclusions : I. Some toys are films. (b) I, II and IV follow
II. Some mysteries are plays. (c) II, III and IV follow
III. Some toys are not films. (d) I, III and IV follow
IV. Some mysteries are not (e) None of these
plays.
27. Statements : No bulb is a train.
(a) Either I or III and II follow
All streets are bulbs.
(b) Either II or IV and III follow
Some sockets are streets
(c) Either II or IV and III follow
Conclusions : I. Some sockets are bulbs.
(d) Either II or Iv and either I or III follow
II. Some bulbs are streets.
(e) Either I or III and Iv follow
III. Some sockets are not
25. Statements : a. Some manuals are not trains.
flights.
IV. No train is a street.
b. All flights are lands.
(a) I, II and III follow
c. Some lands are cargos. (b) II, III and IV follow
Conclusions : I. Some cargos are manuals (c) I, III and IV follow
II. Some manuals are not (d) I, II and IV follow
cargos (e) All follow
III. Some manuals are not 28. Statements : Some trees are elephants.
lands. All elephants are animals
Some animals are birds.

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 SYLLOGISM
Conclusions : I. Some animals are 31. Statements : Some Boys are Girls.
elephants. All Boys are Madam.
II. Some elephants are birds.
Conclusions : I. Those Boys which are not
III. Some trees are birds. Girls are also Madam.
IV. Some trees are elephants. II. Those Boys which are not
(a) I and II follow (b) II and III follow Girls are not necessarily
(c) I and III follow (d) II and IV follow Madam.
(e) Only I follows (a) Only Conclusion I follow.

29. Statements: All books are birds. (b) Only Conclusion II follows.
(c) Both I & II follow.
Some birds are plugs.
(d) Either I or II follow.
All plugs are keys.
Conclusions : I. Some books are plugs. (e) None follows.

II. All books are plugs 32. Statements : All Cows are Milk.

III. Some birds are keys. No Milk is White.

Conclusions : I. Some Cows are White.
IV. Some birds are not keys
II. No Cow is White.
(a) I and III follow
(b) Only I follows (a) Either I or II follow.

(c) Either I or II follows (b) Only Conclusion I follows.

(d) Only III follows (c) Both I & II follow.

(e) Either III or IV follows (d) Only Conclusion II follows.

30. Statements : Some watches are pencils. (e) None follows.

No pencils are mats. 33. Statements : Some Pens are Pen-drive.

All Printers are Pen-drive.
All pencils are books
Conclusions: I. Some watches are not Conclusions: I. All Pens being Printers is
a possibility.
mats.
II. Some mats ar e not II. No Printer is a Pen.
watches. (a) Only Conclusion II follows.
III. Some mats are not books. (b) Both I & II follow.
IV. Some books are not mats. (c) Only Conclusion I follows.
(a) I and II follow (b) I and III follow (d) Either I or II follow.
(c) II and IV follow (d) III and IV follow (e) None follows.
(e) I and IV follow 34. Statements : No Stone is a Metal.
Direction (31-35) : In each question below are Some Metals are Paper.
given two or three statements followed by two or All Papers are Glass.
three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
Conclusions : I. All Stones being Glass
take the given statements to be true even if they
being is a possibility.
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts
and then decide which of the given conclusions II. No Stone is a Paper.
logically follows from the given statements, (a) Only Conclusion I follows.
disregarding commonly known facts. Give Answer. (b) Only Conclusion II follows.

130
 SYLLOGISM
(c) Both I & II follow. (c) All logics being discussion is a possibility.
(d) Either I or II follow. (d) All reasons are fights.
(e) None follows. (e) No reason is a discussion
35. Statements : Some Apples are Cake. 38. Statements : All references are mails.
Some Cakes are Candle. All mentions are references.
Conclusions : I. All Cakes are Apple. All comments are mentions.
II. Some Apples are Candle. No mail is a declaration.
III. No Apple is a Candle. Conclusions :
(a) Either II or III follow. (a) No reference is a declaration.
(b) Only Conclusion I follows. (b) All comments are mails.
(c) Both I & II follow. (c) No mention is a declaration.
(d) Only Conclusion II follows. (d) All declarations being comments is a
(e) None follows. possibility.
Directions (36-41) : In this question are given (e) At least some mails are mentions.
four statements followed by five conclusions, one 39. Statements : Some moments are flashes.
of which definitely does not logically follow (or is not All moments are seconds.
a possibility of occurrence) from the given
All flashes are instances.
statements. That conclusion is your answer. (Note:
You have to take the four given statements to be No instance is an hour.
true even if they seem to be at variance with Conclusions :
commonly known facts and then decide which of (a) All hours being seconds is a possibility.
the given conclusions logically does not follow from
the given statements disregarding commonly known (b) No second is a flash.
facts.) (c) No hour is a flash.
36. Statements : No toy is a doll. (d) At least some moments are instances.
All guns are toys. (e) At least some seconds are jnstances.
All houses are dolls. 40. Statements : All circles are spheres.
All dolls are baskets. All spheres are rectangles.
Conclusions : No rectangle is a pyramid.
(a) All baskets are toys. No pyramid is a triangle.
(b) No gun is a house. Conclusions :
(c) All guns being baskets is a possibility. (a) At least some circles are pyramids.
(d) All houses are baskets. (b) All triangles being circles is a possibility.
(e) No doll is a gun. (c) All rectangles being triangles is a possibility.
37. Statements : Some logics are reasons. (d) At least some rectangles are circles.
All reasons are arguments. (e) No pyramid is a sphere.
All arguments are fights. 41. Statements : No hotel is a motel.
No fight is a discussion. All motels are apartments.
Conclusions : All apartments are inns.
(a) All discussions being logic is a possibility. No inn is a guesthouse.
(b) No discussion is an argument.

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 SYLLOGISM
Conclusions : Conclusion : I. Some brasses are grasses
(a) All hotels being inns is a possibility. II. Some wickets are grasses
(b) No motel is a guesthouse. III. Some grasses are not
(c) All hotels being apartments is a possibility. wickets
(d) No motel is an inn. IV. All wickets are brasses.
(e) No guesthouse is an apartment. (a) Only I and II follow
Directions (42-50) : In each question below, (b) Only II and III follow
there are two or three statements followed by four (c) Only I and III follow
conclusions numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to (d) Only I and IV follow
take the given statements to be true even if they
(e) All follow
seem to at variance with commonly known facts
and then decide which of the given conclusions 45. Statements : All teachers are students.
logically follow((s) from the given statements. Some students are gypsies
42. Statements : Some singers are rockers. Conclusions : I. All teachers are gypsies.
All rockers are westerners. II. Some gypsies are
Conclusions : I. Some rockers are singers teachers.
II. Some wester ners are III. Some gypsies are
rockers students.
III. Some singers are IV. All students are teachers.
westerners. (a) Only I follows
IV. Some singers are not (b) Only I, II and III follow
westerners. (c) Only III follows
(a) I, II, and III follow (d) Only II and III follow
(b) I, II and IV follow (e) None of these
(c) II, III, IV follow 46. Statements : All books are pens
(d) I, III and IV follow Some pens are pencils.
(e) All follow Conclusions : I. Some pens are books
43. Statements : All dogs are lions II. No pens are books
No dogs are foxes. III. Some books are pencils
Conclusions : I. Some foxes are not dogs. IV. No books are pencils
II. Some dogs are not foxes. (a) I and III are follow
III. Some lions are not foxes (b) Only I follow
IV. Some foxes are not lions. (c) Either I or II follows
(a) I, II and III follow (d) Either III or IV and I follow
(b) I, II and IV follow (e) Either I or II and III follow.
(c) I, III and IV follow 47. Statements : No girl is an Indian
(d) II, III and IV follow No American is an Indian
(e) All follow Conclusion : I. Some girls are American
44. Statements : All grasses are brasses II. Some girls are not
All brasses are wickets American

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 SYLLOGISM
III. All girls are Americans Directions (51-55) : In the following questions,
IV. No girls are Americans each question has three statements followed by
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume
(a) Only II follow
everything in the statements as true even if they
(b) Only IV follow seem to be at variance in usual way and then decide
(c) Either I or II follows your answer based on the conclusions logically
(d) Either III or IV follows followed by the logical information.
(e) None of these 51. Statements : No bottle is a jar.
48. Statements : Only red are blues All cans are jars.
All reds are yellows All cans are tumblers.
Conclusions : I. Some blues are yellows Conclusions : I. At least some cans are
II. No blues are yellows bottles.
III. Some yellows are reds II. No tumbler is a bottle
IV. Some yellows are not reds (a) neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(a) Only I follows
(b) both conclusions I and II are true.
(b) Only III follows
(c) only conclusion II is true.
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) Either III or IV follows
(e) I and III follows (e) only conclusion I is true.
49. Statements : No Killer is a sweater 52. Statements : Some prints are designs.
No Denim is a sweater All designs are copies.
Some Denims are trousers All copies are motifs.
Conclusions : I. Some trousers are Conclusions : I. At least some copies are
sweaters prints.
II. Some trousers are not II. All motifs being prints is a
sweaters possibility
III. No Killer is a Denim (a) either conclusion I or II is true.
IV. Some Denims are Killer (b) only conclusion II is true.
(a) Either I or II and III follow (c) only conclusion I is true.
(b) Either III or IV and II follow (d) neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(c) Either II or III follow (e) both conclusions I and II are true.
(d) Either I or II and either III or IV follow
53. Statements : No bottle is a jar.
(e) None of the above is true.
All cans are jars.
50. Statements : Some bricks are not sockets.
All cans are tumblers.
No socket is a pouch
Conclusions : I. All tumblers are jars
Conclusions : I. No brick is a pouch
II. Some bricks are not II. All bottles being tumblers
pouches is a possibility.
III. Some sockets are bricks (a) neither conclusion I nor II is true.
IV. No socket is a brick. (b) both conclusions I and II are true.
(a) Only either III or IV follows.
(b) Only II and III follow (c) only conclusion II is true.
(c) Only I and III follow (d) either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) All follow (e) only conclusion I is true.
(e) None follows
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 SYLLOGISM
54. Statements : Some prints are designs. Statements: No star is an actor.
All designs are copies. Some actors are models.
All copies are motifs. All models are heroes.
Conclusions : I. At least some prints are 57 Conclusions: I. No hero is an actor.
motifs
II. At least some heroes are
II. All designs are motifs actors.
(a) only conclusion I is true. 58. Conclusions : I. All stars being hero is a
(b) both conclusions I and II are true. possibility.
(c) either conclusion I or II is true. II. No star is a model.
(d) neither conclusion I nor II is true. For (59-60):
(e) only conclusion II is true. Statements : All clerks are assistants.
55. Statements : All clouds are vapours. No assistant is an officer.
No vapours are a gas. All officers are managers.
All gases are rains. 59. Conclusions: I. No manager is a clerk.
Conclusions : I. All vapours being rains is II. All assistants being
a possibility. managers is a possibility.
II. All vapours are clouds 60. Conclusions: I. No clerk is an officer
(a) either conclusion I or II is true. II. All clerks being managers
(b) both conclusions I and II are true. is a possibility.
(c) only conclusion I is true. Directions (61-66) : In each of the following
questions two/three statements are given and these
(d) only conclusion II is true.
statements are followed by two conclusions
(e) neither conclusion I nor II is true. numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given
Directions (56-60) : In each question below are statements to be true even if they seem to be at
two/three Statements followed by two conclusions variance from commonly known facts. Read the
numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three conclusions and then decide which of the given
given statements to be true even if they seem to be conclusions logically follows from the two given
at variance from commonly known facts and then statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
decide which of the given conclusions logically Give answer:
follows from the given statements disregarding (a) If only (1) conclusion follows
commonly known facts. Give answers:
(b) If sonly (2) conclusion follows
(a) if only conclusion I follows
(c) If either (1) or (2) follows
(b) if only conclusion II follows.
(d) If neither (1) nor (2) follows
(c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
(e) If both (1) and (2) follow
(d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
61 Statements : Some mobiles are pagers.
(e) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
No mobile is a laptop.
56. Statements : I. Some roses are flowers.
Conclusions : 1. No laptop is a pager.
II. All thorns are flowers.
2. Some pagers are definitely
Conclusions : I. All thorns being roses is a not mobiles
possibility
For (62-63):
II. No thorn is a rose.
Statements : All tables are chairs.
For (57-58)
All chairs are beds.

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 SYLLOGISM
No bed is sofa. Statements : I. No ball is toy
62. Conclusions : 1. Some tables are definitely II. Some toys are grapes
not beds. 68. Conclusion : 1. Some students are not
2. No sofa is a table Rajeev
63. Conclusions : 1. No chair is sofa. 2. Some students are Rajeev
is a possibility
2. Some tables being sofa is
Statements : I. Any Rajeev is a boy
a possibility.
II. 26% boys are students
For (64-65):
Directions (69-73) : Each question consists of
Statements : No fan is a cooler. some conclusion followed by five statements.
Some coolers are heaters. Consider the given conclusion to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.
All tubes are fans.
Read the conclusions and then decide from which
64. Conclusions : 1. No cooler is a tube. statement, the conclusion can be possible.
2. All tubes being heaters is 69. Conclusion : Some wheels are trees,
a possibility. Some trees are flowers,
65. Conclusions : 1. No heater is a tube. Some House are trees.
2. All fans are tubes Statements :
66. Statements : Some stones are shells. (a) All wheels are flowers, Some flower are
tree, All trees are houses
All shells are pearls.
(b) All wheels are flowers. Some flowers are
No stone is fish tree. Some trees are house.
Conclusions : 1. No fish is a shell. (c) All flowers are trees. Some trees are
2. All shells being fish is a houses. All houses are wheels.
possibility. (d) All trees are wheels. Some wheels are
Directions: (67-68) : In each of the following flower. All flowers are houses.
questions two conclusion are given and these (e) None of these
conclusions are followed by statement. Read the 70. Conclusions : Some buses are mobile.
statements and then decide which of the given Some buses are pencils.
conclusion logically related with the given statement,
Some trees are buses.
disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements :
Give answer:
(a) All buses ar e m obile. Some
(a) If only (1) conclusion relates mobile are pencils. All pencils are tree.
(b) If only (2) conclusion relates (b) All buses are mobile. Some mobile are tree.
(c) If either (1) or (2) relates All tree are pencils.
(c) Some pencils are mobile. All mobile are
(d) If neither (1) nor (2) relates
buses. Some buses are tree.
(e) If both (1) and (2) relate
(d) Some buses are mobile. Some mobile
67. Conclusion : 1. Some toys are bat is a are tree. Some tree are pencils.
possibility (e) None of these
2. Some grapes are ball is a 71. Conclusions : Some rats are chairs.
possibility Some rats are pens.

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 SYLLOGISM
Statements: the statements to be true even if they seem to be at
(a) All chairs are pens. Some pens are knives. variance with commonly known facts adn then decide
All knives are rat. which of the given statements logically follows.
74. Conclusions:
(b) Some chairs are pen. All pens are knives.
Some knives are rat. Some mouse is not monitor.
(c) Some knives ar e chair. Some Some keyboards are monitor.
chairs are rats. All rats are pens. a) Statements I: Some screen is monitor. No
(d) Some chairs are knives. All knives are monitor is keyboard. all keyboards are mouse.
pens. Some pens are rats. b) Statements II: All screens are monitor. No
(e) None of these monitor is keyboard. Some keyboard is mouse

72. Conclusions : Some dogs are trees. c) Statements III: No screen is monitor. No
monitors are keyboard. No keyboard is mouse
Some bricks are trees.
d) Statements IV: All screens are monitor. All
Statements : monitors are keyboard. No keyboard is mouse
(a) All trees are stone. Some stone are bricks. e) Statements V: Some keyboards are mouse.
All bricks are dog. All monitor is screen. No keyboard is a screen.
(b) All dogs are bricks. Some brick is tree. 75. Conclusions:
Some tree is stone.
Some walls are not brick.
(c) All bricks are dogs. Some dogs are tree.
Some cement is water.
Some trees are stone.
a) Statements I: Some brick are cement. No
(d) Some dogs are tree. Some trees are brick. cement is wall. All walls are water.
Some brick are stone.
b) Statements II: All bricks are cement. Some
(e) None of these cement is wall. All walls are water.
73. Conclusion : Some cars are locks. c) Statements III: No brick is cement. All cement
Some bangles are keys. is wall. All walls are water.
Some car are keys. d) Statements IV: No brick is cement. No cement
is wall. All walls are water.
Statements:
e) None of these
(a) Some Bangles are keys. Some keys are
locks. Some locks are car. 76. Conclusions:

(b) All cars are locks. Some locks are keys. Some silver are platinum.
All keys are bangles. Some diamonds are silver
(c) Some keys are locks. All locks are bangles. a) Statements I: All silver are gold. Some gold
All bangles are cars. are diamond. No diamond is platinum.
(d) All cars are locks. All locks are bangles. b) Statements II: Some silver are gold. All gold
Some bangles are keys. are diamond. All diamond is platinum.
(e) None of these c) Statements III: All silver are diamond. No gold
is silver. Some diamond is platinum.
Directions (74-83) : In the following questions, only
one conclusion is given and five statements are given d) Statements IV: All silvers are gold. No gold is
as a), b), c), d) and e). From this you have to take diamond. All diamond is platinum

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 SYLLOGISM
e) Statements V: All platinum are silver. some gold e) Statements V: No Jerry is Tom. Some Donald
is silver. No gold is diamond. is Tom. No Micky is Donald.
77. Conclusions: 80. Conclusions:
Some crows are not parrot. All dogs being monkeys is a possibility
Some crows are owl. Some Monkeys are Cats is a possibility
a) Statements I: All parrot are owl. No owl is crow. Statements:
Some crows are Dove.
a) Statements: All dogs are cats. No cat is Pig.
b) Statements II: Some parrots are owl. Some All Pigs are Monkeys.
owls are crow. All crows are dove.
b) Statements: No Cat is dog. No dog is Monkey.
c) Statements III: No parrot is owl. All owls are No Monkey is pig.
crow. Some crows are dove.
c) Statements: All dogs are cats. No dog is Pig.
d) Statements IV: All parrots are owl. Some owl No cat is monkey.
is Dove. Some crows are dove.
d) Statements: All Cats are dogs. No cat is Pig.
e) Statements V: All owls are Parrots are crow.
No dog is Monkey.
All crows are dove.
e) Statements: All dogs are cats. No cat is
78. Conclusions:
Monkey. All Pigs are Monkeys.
Some white are not brown.
81. Conclusions:
Some maroon is brown.
No teacher is a lawyer.
a) Statements I: All white are black. All black is
All doctors are students.
brown. No brown is maroon.
b) Statements II: Some white are black. All black a) Statements: All students are teachers. All
is brown. All brown is maroon. teachers are doctros. No doctors is a lawyer.

c) Statements III: Some black are white. No black b) Statements: All doctros are teachers. All
is brown. No brown is maroon. teachers are students. Some students are
lawyers.
d) Statements IV: All white is black. No black is
brown. All brown is maroon c) Statements: All doctors are teachers. No
teachers is students. Some students are
e) Statements V: No white is black. No black is
lawyers.
brown. No brown is maroon.
79. Conclusions: d) Statements: All doctors are teachers. All
teachers are students. No student is a lawyer.
All Donald being Micky is a possibility.
e) Statements: All doctors are teachers. No
All Tom being Jerry is a possibility.
teachers is student. No student is a lawyer.
a) Statements I: All Donald is Jerry. All Jerry is
82. Conclusions:
Micky. No Micky is Tom.
All Donkeys being Tigers is a possibility
b) Statements II: Some Donald is Jerry. No Jerry
is Micky. Some Micky is Tom. All Monkeys being Tigers is a possibility
c) Statements III: Some Donald is Jerry. Some a) Statements : All monkeys are Donkeys. No
Jerry is Micky. No Micky is Tom. Donkey is Tiger. All elephants are Tigers
d) Statements IV: All Donald is Jerry. No Jerry is b) Statements: All monkeys are Donkeys. No
Micky. All Micky is Tom. Donkey is elephant. All elephants are Tigers

137
 SYLLOGISM
c) Statements: Some monkeys are Donkeys. No v. Some Soft is Hard.
Donkey is Tiger. All elephants are Tigers vi. Some leone is Tense.
d) Statements: No monkey is Tiger. No Donkey a) [iv, ii, i] b) [iii, vi, i]
is elephant. All elephants are Tigers. c) [iv, ii, v] d) [iii, i, vi]
e) Statements : Some monkeys are Donkeys. No e) None is correct.
Donkey is elephant. No monkey is Tiger.
86. i. Some water are tea.
83. Conclusions: ii. All water are coffee.
Some elephants are being cats is a possibility iii. No Pepsi are coffee.
Some tigers are being elephants is a possibility iv. No tea is coffee.
a) Statements : All cats are dogs; Some v. All Pepsi are tea.
elephants are dogs. No tiger is elephant. vi. Some Pepsi are water.
b) Statements : All cats are dogs; No elephant is a) [i, vi, v] b) [iv, v, iii]
dog. All tigers are cats c) [ii, vi, iv] d) [iii, iv, v]
c) Statements : Some cats are dogs; Some e) None is correct
elephants are dogs. No tiger is elephant.
87. I. All S are T
d) Statements : Some cats are dogs; Some II. Some T are A
elephants are dogs. No tiger is elephant
III. No A is P
e) Statements : Some cats are dogs; Some
IV. Some P are R
elephants are dogs. All tigers are cats
V. All R are X
Directions (84- 87): Each of the following questions
VI. Some X are P
consists of six statements followed by options
consisting of three statements put together in a a) V, VI, IV b) I, II, V
specific order. Choose the options that indicate a c) II, III, VI d) VI, V, IV
combination where the third statements can be e) None of these
logically deduced from the first two statements and Directions (88- 91): In each question, a set of six
that option will be your answer. statements is given, followed by five answer choice.
84. i. Some America are Russia. Each of the answer choices has a combination of
ii. All China are Russia. three statements from the given set of six statements.
You are required to identify the answer choice in
iii. A few America are China.
which the statements are logically related.
iv. All Russia are India. 88. Statements:
v. All China are India. i. No Bottle is paper
vi. Some America are India. ii. Some Paper are not pen
a) [iv, v, ii] b) [i, iii, v] iii. Some paper are white
c) [ii, v, iv] d) [iii, v, vi] iv. Some glass are bulb
e) None is correct v. Some bulb are not paper
85. i. All Syria are leone. vi. Some light are pen
ii. All Tense are Hard. a) i, ii, iv b) ii, vi, iv

iii. Some Tense are Syria. c) iv, vi, i d) i, iii, vi

iv. No Soft is Tense e) None of these

138
 SYLLOGISM
89. i. All potato is tomato. conclusions logically does not follows from the
ii. All pumpkin is pudina. A*B - All A is B.
iii. Some tomato is ginger. A%B - Some A is B.
iv. Some tomato is not ginger. A#B - No A is B.
A$B - Some A is not B.
v. No potato is pumkin.
?- possibility case
vi. Some ginger is not tomato.
Note: If ? is placed after any of the symbols
a) i, ii, vi b) i, iii, ii
mentioned above then it will be considered as
c) i, ii, v d) iii, iv, vi
possibility case of the symbol. E.g. A%?B means
e) i, ii, iv some A being B is a possibility.
90. i. All bottles are caps. 92. Statements: Cold * water % ice $ cube
ii. All caps are boxes. Conclusion:
iii. No caps are bottles. (a) Cube $ water (b) ice % water
iv. No caps are boxes. (c) cold * ? cube (d) Water * ? cold
v. All pen are mat (e) cube % ? Ice
vi. All boxes are bottles. 93. Statement: Sea$waves*tide %moon
Conclusions:
a) vi, i, ii b) i, ii, v
(a) moon% tide (b) tide * ? wave
c) ii, v, iv d) i, vi, iii
(c) tide $ wave (d) wave * ? moon
e) None of these
(e) sea % ? wave
91. I. All cool are pool
94. Statements: lashes % eyes # spects* lens
II. All wet are swim Conclusions:
III. Some pool are suit (a) lens $ eyes (b) spects # eyes
IV. Some pool are not suit (c) eyes % lashes (d) lashes $ spects
V. No cool is Wet (e) lashes % spects
VI. Some suit are not pool 95. Statements: sea $ waves*tide % moon
a) I, II, VI b) I, III, II Conclusions:
c) I, II, IV d) I, II, V (a) wave % tide (b) sea $? wave
(c) moon %? wave (d) wave *?sea
e) III, IV, VI
(e) wave *? lashes
Directon (92-96): In the following question, the
96. Statements: lashes % eyes # spects * lens
symbols *, %, $, ? and # are used with the following
Conclusions:
meanings as illustrated below. Study the following
(a) lens $ eyes (b) lens * spects
information and answer the given questions. In each
(c) lens *? spects (d) spects $ eyes
of the questions given below statements are followed
(e) eyes * ? lashes
by some conclusions. You have to take the given
Directions (97-106) : In each of the following
statements to be true even if they seem to be at
questions two/three statements are given and these
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the statements are followed by two conclusions
conclusions and then decide which of the numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the given

139
 SYLLOGISM
statements to be true even if they seem to be at Conclusions:
variance from commonly known facts. Read the I. All Professot being Principal is a possibility
conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the two given II. All Student being Lecturer is a possibility
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. 102. Statements:
Give answer: All Men is Women
(a) If only (I) conclusion follows Some Child is women
(b) If sonly (II) conclusion follows No Men is Boy
(c) If either (I) or (II) follows Conclusions:
(d) If neither (I) nor (II) follows I. Some Women can never be Boy
(e) If both (I) and (II) follow
II. All Boys can be child
97. Statements: Only a few dogs are cats.
103. Statements:
No cat is a wolf.
All Home is Office
Some wolf are dogs.
Only a few Palace is Home
Conclusions: I. All wolf are cats.
No Office is Building
II. Some dogs are not wolves.
Conclusions:
98. Statements: Some Pins are syringes
I. Some Home is Building
Only a few sypringes are needles
II. Some Office can never be Palace
No needle is a pin.
104. Statements:
Conclusions:
Only a few Palace is Home.
I. All needles being syringes is a possibility.
All Home is Office.
II. Some syringes are not pins.
No Office is Building
99. Statements:
Conclusions:
Only a few chemicals are pesticides.
I. All Place being Home is a possibility.
Some pesticides are medicines.
II. Some Palace can never be Building.
Some medicines are Computer
105. Statements:
Conclusions:
Only a few Pink are Yellow
I. All chemicals can never be medicines.
Only a few yellow are Red
II. At least some chemicals are Computer.
Only a few Red are White
100. Statements:
Only a few juices are beverages Conclusions
No beverage is a drink I. Some White are Pink is a possibility
Some drinks are teas II. All White are Yellow
Conclusions: 106. Statements:
I. All juices are teas Only a few Pink are Yellow
II. Some teas are not beverages Only a few yellow are Red
101. Statements: Only a few Red are White
No Professor is Student Conclusions:
Only a few Student is Lecturer I. All Red being Yellow is a possibility
All Lecturer is Principal II. Some Red Can never be Pink

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 DATA SUFFICIENCY

10
CHAPTER
Data Sufficiency
Directions (01-05) : Each of the questions I. you must see’ is written as ‘la pa ni and
below consists of a question and two statements ‘did you see’ is written as ‘jo ni pa’ in that
numbered I and II are given below it you have to code language.
decide whether the data provided in the statements II. ‘you did that is written as ‘pa si jo’ in that
are sufficient to answer the question Read both the code language.
statements and 5. On which day of the week does Arti’s birthday
Give answer (a) if the data in statement I alone are fall?
sufficient to answer the question, I. Sonu correctly remembers that Arti ‘s
while the data in Statement II birthday falls after Wednesday but before
alone are not sufficient to answer Sunday.
the question II. Raj correctly remembers that Arti’s birthday
Given answer (b) if the data in Statement II alone falls before Friday but after Tuesday.
ar e sufficient to answer the Directions (06-10) : Each of the questions
question, while the data in below consists of a question and two or three
statement I alone are not sufficient statements given below it You have to decide
to answer the question. whether the data provided in the statements are
Given answer (c) if the data in statement I alone or sufficient to answer the question.
in statement II alone are sufficient 6. Who is the uncle of L?
to answer the question.
(A) P, brother of M, is father of L;
Given answer (d) if the data in both the statements
M is father of S.
I and II even together are not
sufficient to answer the question. (B) R is father of L’s cousin.
Given answer (e) if the data in both the Statements (a) A alone is sufficient
I and II together are necessary to (b) B alone is sufficient
answer the question. (c) Either A alone or B alone is sufficient
1. How is A related to B? (d) Both A and B together are not sufficient
I. A is the sister- in- law of C, who is the (e) Both A and B together are necessary
daughter- in- law of B, who is the wife of D. 7. Who is to the North –East of R?
II. B is the mother of A’s son’s only uncle’s (A) S is to the South–East of N, who is the
2. Amongst A,B,C,D,E and F, each are having a south- West of P, who is to North of Q
different height. Who is the shortest? (B) T is to the North- West of Q, who is to the
South of P.
I. C is shorter than only B.
(C) R, who is to the North of S, is midway
II. A is taller than only D and F.
between N and Q, N being to the West of
3. Point X is in which direction with respect to Y? R.
I. Point Z is at equal distance from both point (a) All A,B,C together are required
X and point Y. (b) Only A and C together are sufficient
II. Walking 5 km to the East of point X and (c) Only B and C together are sufficient
taking two consecutive right turns after
(d) Either A and C together or B and C together
walking 5 kms before each turn leads to
are sufficient
point Y.
(e) None of these
4. How is ‘must’ written in a code language?

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 DATA SUFFICIENCY
8. In which direction is village 'P' with respect to below it you have to decide whether the data given
village 'Q'? in the statements are sufficient to answer the
I. P is to the south of S, which is to the west of questions. Read both the statements and choose
R. S is to the east of Z. the most appropriate option.
II. Q is between S and R. Select answers for the questions from below
III. Q is to the north-west of Z. mentioned options
1) Only I and II 2) Only I (a) The data in both statements I and II together
3) Only II and III 4) Only I and III are necessary to answer the question
5) Only I and either II or III
(b) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to
9. What is the rank of Suneel in a class of 17
answer the question, while the data in statement
students?
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(A) Nitin, having 13th rank from the bottom is
(c) The data even in both statements I and II
six ranks ahead of Bipin, who is two ranks
together are not sufficient to answer the
behind Suneel.
question
(B) Bipin is two ranks ahead of Ankur. (d) The data either in statement I alone or statement
(C) Bipin is two ranks behind Suneel and II alone are sufficient to answer the question
Ankur‘s ranks is 15. (e) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement
(a) Only A alone is sufficient II alone are not
(b) Either A alone or B and C together are 11. How is ‘life’ written in the code language?
sufficient I. life on other planets‘ is written as 9648 and
(c) Only B and C together are sufficient planets on other side‘ is written as 4596
(d) Only A and C together are sufficient II. Documentary on actor‘s life‘ is written as
(e) None of these 2981’ and living life on edge‘ is written as
10. Which code represents ‘Them’ in the given code 9837
language? 12. Among P, Q, R, S and T, seated in a straight
line facing north, who sits second from the right
(A) In the code language, ‘Se Me Ye’ means
end of the line?
‘Tell Them Young’ and ‘Me Ya Na Ye’
means ‘Wise Young Sharp Tell’. I. T sits second to left of R. Only one person
sits between T and Q. S is an immediate
(B) In the code language ‘Na ki pa le’ means
neighbour of T
‘Clever Sharp Come Tomorrow’ and ‘Ki po
se Yo’ means ‘Bring Clever Young Them’ II. Q sits at one of the extreme ends of the
line. Only one person sits between S and
(C) In the code language, ‘Pa Na Se Ki Te’ P. P is an immediate neighbour of T
means ‘Clever Sharp Come Them No’ and
13. Out of A, B, C, D and E. each driving a different
‘Ki Ni Pa Be Te Na’ means ‘Yellow Come
distance, did A drive more than 23 kms?
Sharp Run Clever No’.
I. A drove more than only C and D. B did not
(a) Only A alone is sufficient drive the maximum number of kms. C
(b) Either A alone or B and C together are drove 15 kms
sufficient II. C drove more than only D. B drove more
than A and D but not the highest number
(c) Only B and C together are sufficient of kms. The one who drove the maximum
(d) Only C alone is sufficient number of kms drove 11 kms more than C
(e) Either A alone or C alone is sufficient 14. A five storey building (consisting of a ground
floor and four floors on top of it such that the
Direction (11-15) : This question consists of a
ground floor is numbered 1 the floor above it,
question and two statements numbered I and II given

143
 DATA SUFFICIENCY
number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is I. Tarun is 6 years older than Robin
numbered 5) houses different people viz C, D, II. Robin’s brother was born in 1982
E, F and G. Who lives on floor no 3?
III. Tarun’s brother is two years younger than
I. G lives on an even numbered floor. Only
him.
one person lives between G and C. F lives
on the topmost floor. (a) I and III only (b) II and III only
II. E lives on the lowermost floor. Only two (c) All I, II, III (d) I and II only
people live between E and G. Only one (e) None of these
person lives between F and D.
19. Who among GirijaNath, Parashuram,
15. Among the six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U, sitting Kamlakant and Jayprakash is the youngest?
around a circular table facing the centre, who
sits to immediate right of T ? I. Kamlakant is younger than Jayprakash but
older than GirijaNath and Parashuram
I. Q sits third to left of T. P sits second to
right of T. S is an immediate neighbour of II. Jayprakash is the oldest.
R. III. GirijaNath is older than Parashuram.
II. T sits second to right of R. Only one person (a) I and II only (b) I and III only
sits between T and P. U is not an immediate
neighbour of R. (c) II and III only (d) I only
Directions (16-20) : Each of the problems below (e) None of these
consists of a question and three statements I, II, III 20. Who among P, Q, R, S, and T is in the middle
given below it. Read all the statements carefully and while standing in a line?
seek all the possible combinations which could be
I. Q is to the right of T
sufficient for answering the question. A single
statement or statements with least combinations II. S is in between P and T
which could be sufficient for answering the question III. Q is in between T and R
would be your answer. (a) I and II only (b) II and III only
16. How many sons D has? (c) I and III only (d) All I, II, III
I. B and F are brothers of A
(e) None of these
II. C is the sister of A and F
Directions (21-33) : Each of the following
III. C and E, are daughter of D questions contains a question and two statements
(a) All I, II and III giving certain information. Decide whether the
(b) II and III only information given in the statements are sufficient for
(c) I and II only answering the questions.
(d) All I, II and III not sufficient to answer Indicate your answer as :
(e) None of these (a) If statement I alone is sufficient to answer
17. What does ‘come’ represent in a code (b) If statement II alone is needed
language? (c) If both statements I and II are needed
I. ‘pit na tac’ means ‘come and go’
(d) If both statements I and II are not sufficient
II. ‘ja ta da’ means ‘you are good’
(e) None of these
III. ‘na da rac’ means ‘you can come’
21. How many rooms does your house have?
(a) II and III only (b) I and III only
(c) Either II or III (d) All I, II and III I. The number of rooms is the same as in
our house
(e) None of these
II. The number is sufficient to accommodate
18. In which year was Tarun born? our family members.

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 DATA SUFFICIENCY
22. Who is the best salesman in the company? 31. Can a demographic system operate without
I. Rohit sold maximum num ber of air effective opposition?
conditioners this year. I. The opposition is indispensable.
II. The company made the highest profit this II. A good politician always learns from his
year. fervent supporters.
23. What is the color of the curtains on the stage? 32. Has decline in infant mortality rate increased
I. The curtains have the same color as the the life span of human beings?
walls of the hall. I. The average life span of tribal is 85 years
II. The color of curtains is quite apeealing II. Women outlive men in younger age
24. Who is a better artist? – Anubhuti or Deepshikha groups.
I. Anubhuti had more art exhibitions. 33. A, B, C, D four persons show their work on four
II. The number of paintings sold by consecutive days by different persons. It is not
Deepshikha is more. necessary that the order is same. On which day
‘C’ will show his work?
25. Does T.V. viewing affect the performance of
students? I. Show start on 23rd day and D does the
shown on next day.
I. The number of failure in class XII is more
this year II. A does not show his work on 25th. One of
them shows between A and B.
II. T.V. watching is harmful to the eyes.
26. Is cigarette smoking is injurious to health? 34. How is 'Sheena' related to 'Tina'?
I. Non-smokers has a longer life span. I. tina is grand-daughter of Adam.
II. The incidence of heart attack is more in II. 'Sheena' is the only daughter of Lina, who
smokers is wife of Peter.
27. Is the number of girl students more in the B.Ed. III. Adam is Peter's best friend.
course? a) Only I and II b) Only I and III
I. The girl’s performance in the annual c) Only II and III d) All the three
examination is better than boys. e) The question can't be answered even after
II. The number of female teachers has been combining all three statements.
increasing over the last two years.
35. How many students are sitting in a row of stu-
28. Are women more emotional?
dents?
I. Women believe that men’s way of thinking
I. Seema is fourth to the left of Vimal, who is
can’t help them solve the problem.
twelth from the right end.
II. The reality confronted by women is entirely
II. Guarav is seventh from the left end.
different from the reality men have to
struggle with. III. Gaurav's sister Seema is seventh to the
right of Gaurav.
29. Do habits make men’s life rigid?
I. It is out of habit that people envy others. a) Only I and II b) Only II and III
II. Men become slave of habits. c) Only I and III d) All I, II and III
30. Does intelligence predict the child’s ability to e) The question can't be answered.
learn? 36. How is the girl in the photography named Kanika
I. Intelligence is unaffected by bad teaching realted to Aakash?
or dull home environment. I. Pointing to the photograph, Aakash said,
II. Children from poor home background don’t "She is the mother of my father's only
do well in their social work. granddaughter.

145
 DATA SUFFICIENCY
II. Aakash has no siblings. I. C is taller than B but not as tall as E.
III. Pointing to a photograph, Aakash said, II. A is taller than B but not as tall as D.
"She is the only daughter-in-law of my III. E is not the tallest.
mother." a) Only I and II b) Only II and III
a) Only I and II b) Only II and III c) Only I and III d) Can't be determined
c) Only I and III d) Either only III or only e) None of these
I and 41. How is M related to N?
e) None of these I. L is the only daughter of S, who is the
37. Among A, B, C, D, and E, A is the second tallest only brother
and of his sister.
D is immediately taller than the shortest. Who II. T is the only grand-daughter of U, who
among them is in the middle when they stand has two children S and N.
according to their heights? III. T is the cousin of L and only daughter of
I. E is not the shortest. M.
II. C is taller than D but shorter than B. a) Only I and II b) Only II and III
III. A ranks third in height above D when all are c) All, I II and III d) Data Inadequate
arranged according to their heigths. e) None of these
a) Only II and III b) Either II only or III 42. What does 'are' represent in a code language?
only I. 'pit na tac' means 'come and go' in that
c) Only I and II d) Only II code lanugage.
e) None of these II. 'ja ti da' means 'we like tea' in that code
38. On which day of the week did Mayank visit Pune? language.
I. Mayank took a leave on Friday. III. 'na da ra' means 'we are go' in that code
II. Mayank visited Pune the day after his language.
mother's visit to his home. a) Only I and II b) Only II and III
III. Mayank's mother visited Mayank's house c) Only I and III d) All I, II and III
neither on wednesday nor on Saturday. e) None of these
a) Only I and II b) Only II 43. How many sons does P have?
c) Only I and III d) Only II and III I. I and G are daughters of P.
e) None of these II. J and F are brothers of G.
39. Are P, Q, R, S and T facing outward from the III. I is sister of K and F.
centre? a) Only I and II b) Only II and III
(All are sitting in a circle.) c) Only I and III d) All, I, II and III
I. P is sitting second to the left of S. R is facing e) None of these
outward from the centre and is not an 44. How is S related to U?
immediate neighbour of S. I. S is the only brother of his sister and father
II. Q, who is sitting between R and S, is of V.
second to the left of T, who is not an II. U is grandfather of I and has three
immediate neighbour of R. Q and P are children.
facing outward. Q is sitting second to the III. I is sister of V.
left of P. a) Only I and III b) Only II and III
III. S is sitting on the immediate right of Q, who c) All I, II and III d) Data inadequate
is not sitting on the immediate right of P. T e) None of these
is sitting on the immediate left of S. 45. Among A, B, C, D and E sitting around a circle,
a) Only I and III b) Only I and II who is second to the right of C?
c) Either I and II or III d) Any two of three I. A is second to the left of C and on the
e) None of these immediate right of D.
40. Among A, B, C, D and E, who is the tallest? II. D is second to the right of E.
III. C is not facing the centre.

146
 DATA SUFFICIENCY
a) Only I and II 47. What is the distance between A and B?
b) Only II and III c) All I, II and III I. Varun walks 5 km to the south from a point A.
d) All I, II and III are not sufficient He turns left and walks 5 km. Again he turns
e) None of these left at an angle of 45o and reaches the same
46. Who is daughter-in-law of B? point A. Then he turns right at an angle of 45o
I. I is brother of D. S is wife of J's nephew. and walks 6 km and reaches the point B.
II. R is brother of N. T is son of N. S is mother II. Varun starts walking towards south from a
of T. point A. He takes 3 consecutive left turns,
III. B is wife of D. D is father of N. D has two covering equal distances before each turn,
children. and finally stops at point B.
a) Only I and III III. Both points A and B fall on the same straight
b) All I, II and III are required to answer the line, while point C divides the line into two
question equal parts of 4 metres.
c) Only II and III 48. What does 'Match' represent in code language?
d) Question cannot be answered even with I. 'match is crucial' means 'ne jo mi' in that code
all I, II and III language.
e) Only I and II II. 'crucial point for india' means 'pe le jee kee'
Directions (Q. 47-50): Each of the questions be- in that code language.
low consists of a question and two statements III. 'favour to india' means 'ja me le' in that code
numbered I and II given below it. You hae to de- language.
cide whether the data provided in the statements 49. Who is brother-in-law of Kiran?
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both I. Kiran is married to brother of Rakhi. Priya is
the statements and give answer daughter of Krian.
a) if the data in statement I and II are sufficient II. Priyank and Kabir are the two brothers of
to asnwer the question, while the data in Rakhi.
statement III are not required to answer the III. Only Priyank has no child.
question. 50. What is the distance between a garden and a
b) if the data in statement I, II and III are not market?
sufficient to answer the question. I. Starting from the garden, Rahul walks 10 km
c) if the data in statement II and III are sufficient in a straight line in south direction. He then
to answer the question while the data in state turns to his left and covers a distance of 5
ment I are not required to answer the ques- km. He again turns to his left and covers a
tion. distance of 10 km. He finally turns to his right
d) if the data in statement I alone or in state- and covers a certain distance and reaches
ment II alone or in statement III alone are the market.
sufficient to answer the question. II. The market and the garden are not in a
e) if the data in all the statements I, II and III to- straight line.
gether are necessary to answer the question. III. Starting from the market, Rahul walks in
north-east direction. He then takes two right
turns one by one after covering equal dis-
tances.
ANSWER
1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (e) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) 9 (b) 10 (e)
11 (e ) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (e) 19 (b) 20 (d)
21 (d) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (d)
31 (c) 32 (d) 33 (c) 34 (e) 35 (d) 36 (d) 37 (d) 38 (e) 39 (d) 40 (e)
41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (d) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (b) 49 (e) 50 (b)

147
 BINARY OPERATIONS

11
CHAPTER
Binary Operations
Directions (01-05): Study the following Directions (06-10) : Study the following
information and answer the questions given below: in­formation carefully and answer the questions
given below.
In a certain code, the symbol for 0 (zero) is @.
and for 1 is $. There are no other symbols for all In a certain code, the symbol for 0 (zero) is 'O'
other numbers greater than one. The numbers and 1 for is $. There is no other symbol for all other
greater than 1 are to be written only by using the numbers greater than 1. The numbers greater than
two symbols given above. The value of the symbol 1 are to be written using only the two symbols given
for 1. doubles itself every time it shifts one place to above. The value of symbol for 1 doubles itself
the left. Study the following example: everytime it shifts one place to the left. Study the
following example.
‘0’ is written as @ ‘ 1’ is written as $
‘0’ is written as O
‘2’ is written as $@ ‘3’ is written as $$
‘ 1’ is written as $
‘4’ is written as $@@ and so on
‘2’ is written as $O
1. Which of the following will represent 11?
‘3’ is written as $$
(a) $@$$ (b) @$$@
‘4’ is written as $OO and so on.
(c) $S@@ (d) $@$@@
6. Which of the following will represent
(e) None of these
7 x (1 + 4 ÷ 2) ?
2. Which of the following will represent 8?
(a) $O$$ (b) $$O$O
(a) $$@@ (b) @$$@
(c) $OO$$ (d) $OO$O
(c)$$@@ (d) $) @.@$$
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
7. Which of the following symbol arrangement will
3. Which of the following numbers will be
represent ‘9’?
represented by $$@$?
(a) O$$$ (b) $O$O
(a) 8 (b) 11
(c) $OO$ (d) $$OO
(c) 13 (d) 12
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
8. The symbol arrangement $OO$$ represents
4. Which of the following will represent the value
which of the following numbers?
of the product 3x3 + 1?
(a) 18 (b) 15
(a) $$@$ (b) $@$@
(c) 17 (d) 16
(c) $@@$$ (d) $$$
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
9. The symbol arrangement $$OO$O represents
5. Which of the following numbers will be
which of the following? .
represented by $@@@$?
(a) 28 (b) 48
(a) 22 (b) 3l
(c) 26 (d)50
(c) 14 (d) 17
(e) None of these
(e) None of these

148
 BINARY OPERATIONS
10. Which of the following represents the number (e) None of these
24?
15. Which of the following numbers will be
(a) $OO$O (b) $$OOO represented by *$*$*$?
(c) $$$OO (d) $OO$$ (a) 32 (b) 23
(e) None of these (c) 26 (d) 42
11. 0 $
(e) None of these
1 
16. Which of the following will represent the value
of 15 + 26 ÷ 2 – 15 ÷ 3
(i) 66  (ii)
(a) *$$** (b) **$$*
(iii) 136  (iv) $$$  (c) *$*** (d) *$***$
(v)  (vi) $$$$  (e) None of these
Directions (17-21) : Study the following information
(vii) $$ + (viii) 36 + $$  carefully to answer these questions.
(ix) 68 + $$$  (x) $$$$$  In a certain code, the symbols for 0 (zero) is #
Directions (12-16) : Read the following and for 1 is $ There are no other symbols for all
information carefully and answer the questions given other number greater than the one. The numbers
below: than 1 are to be written only by using the two symbols
given above. The value of the symbol for 1 doubles
In a certain code, the symbol for 0 is $ and for 1
itself every time it shifts one place to the left. Study
is *. There are no other symbols for all other numbers
greater than one. The numbers greater than 1 are to the following examples.
be written only by using the two symbols given '0' is written as #
above. The value of the symbol for 1 doubles itself
every time it shifts one place to the left. Study the '1' is written as $
following examples: '2' is written as $#
0 is written as $ 1 is written as * '3' is written as $$
2 is written as *$ 3 is written as **
'4' is written as ## and so on.
4 is written as *$$ and so on.
17. Which of the following numbers will be
12. Which of the following numbers will be represented by $##$#$$ ?
represented by *$*$?
a) 52 b) 75 c) 74
(a) 12 (b) 6
(c) 10 (d) 14 d) 71 e) None of these
(e) None of these 18. Which of the following will represent 39 ?
13. Which of the following will be the code of 28? a) $##$$$ b) #$$##$$ c) $$$##$
(a) ***$$ (b) *$*$** d) $###$$ e) None of these
(c) **$$$ (d) *$$$* 19. Which of the following will represent 100 ?
(e) None of these
a) $#$##$# b) #$$#$$
14. Which of the following will represent 17?
c) $$$###$$ d) $$##$##
(a) **$$$ (b) *$$$*
(c) *$*$$ (d) $**** e) None of these

149
 CAUSE AND EFFECT

12
CHAPTER
CAUSE AND EFFECT
Directions (01-05) : Below in each question are 5. A. Heavy showers are expected in the city
given two statements A. and B.. These statements area during the next forty-eight hours.
may be either independent causes or may be effects B. The inter -club cr icket tournament
of independent causes or a common cause. One of scheduled for the week was called off.
these statements may be the effect of the other Directions (06-10) : Below in each question
statement Read both the statements and decide are given two statements A. and B.. These
which of the following answer choices correctly statements may be either independent causes or
depicts the relationship between these two may be effects of independent causes or a common
statements. cause. One of these statements may be the effect
Mark answer (a) if statement (A) is (the cause of the other statement Read both the statements
and statement (B) is its effect. and decide which of the following answer choices
Mark answer (b) if statement (B) is the cause correctly depicts the relationship between these two
and statement (A) is its effect. statements.
Mark answer (c) if both the statements (A) and Mark answer (a) if statement (A) is the cause and
(B) are independent causes. statement (B) is its effect.
Mark answer (d) if both the statements (A) and Mark answer (b) if statement (B) is the cause and
(B) are effects of independent statement (A) is its effect.
causes. Mark answer (c) if both the statements (A) and
Mark answer (e) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(B) are effects of some Mark answer (d) if both the statements (A) and
common cause. (B) are effects of independent
1. A. Govt has decided to distribute part of the causes.
food grain stock through Public Distribution Mark answer (e) if both the statements (A) and
System to people below poverty line. (B) are effects of some common
B. There has been bumper kharif crop for the cause.
last two seasons. 6. A. Many elderly people are continuously
2. A. Most of the students enrolled themselves harassed by the youngsters in the locality.
for the educational tour scheduled for next B. Many children living in the locality play till
month. late in the evening.
B. The school authority cancelled the 7. A. The state govt has decided to change the
educational tour scheduled for next month. syllabus of mathematics for Std IX from
3. A. The pr ices of fruits have dropped the next academic year.
substantially during the last few days. B. Many students from the state could not
B. The prices of food grains have increased secure admission to the colleges of their
substantially during the last few days. choice.
4. A. The road traffic between the two towns in 8. A. Majority of the employees of the
the state has been disrupted since last manufacturing company received a hefty
week. bonus at the end of the current financial
B. The rail traffic between the two towns in year.
the state has been disrupted since last B. The manufacturing company has made
week considerable profit in the current financial
year

151
 CAUSE AND EFFECT
9. A. The municipal authority decided to carry B. Many wounded people were brought to the
out repair work of the pipeline under the nearby hospitals from the affected areas
main arterial road of the city. of the city.
B. Vehicular movement has been diverted 14. A. Many people left from the city for their
through alternate roads for a period of native places during the summer months.
fifteen days.
B. Many tourists gathered in the city during
10. A. There is a significant drop in the number summer months.
of people travelling by air during the last
quarter. 15. A. All the schools declared holiday on the next
day of the major festival.
B. There is a significant drop in the number
of people travelling by long- d i s t a n c e B. All the colleges declared holiday on the
trains during the last quarter. next day of the major festival.
Directions (11-15) : Below; in each question Directions (16-20) : Read both the statements
are given two statements (A) and (B). These and decide which of the following answer choices
statements may be either independent causes or correctly depicts the relationship between these two
may be effects of independent causes or a common statements.
cause. One-of these statements may be the effect Mark answer(a) if statement (A) is the cause
of the other statement. Read both the statements and statement. (B) is its effect.
and decide which of the following answer choices
correctly depicts the relationship between these two Mark answer (b) if statement (B) is the cause and
statements. statement (A) is its effect.
Mark answer (a) if statement (A) is the cause and Mark answer (c) if both the statements (A) and
statement (B) is its effect. (B) are independent causes.
Mark answer (b) if statement (B) is the cause Mark answer (d) if both the statements (A) and
and statement (A) is its (B) are effect? of independent
effect. causes.
Mark answer (c) if both the statements (A) and Mark answer (e) if both the statements (A) and
(B) are independent causes. (B) are effects of some common
Mark answer (d) if both the statements (A) and cause.
(B) are effects of independent 16. A. There have been heavy rains in the
causes. catchment area of the lakes supplying
Mark answer (e) if both the statements (A) and drinking water to the city.
(B) ar e effects of some
B. The municipal authority has suspended the
common cause.
proposed cut in water supply to the city.
11. A. The residents reported of increased
criminal activities in the area to the local 17. A. Many pilgrims used Government transport
police station, to travel to the holy shrine.
B. Many criminals were arrested by searching B. The cost of travel by private transport is
the residence of the suspected individuals. very high.
12. A. Govt has awarded a high-stake reward 18. A. The prices of vegetables have increased
scheme for such persons as may provide substantially during the past few weeks.
any information about the suspect. B. Consumer price index at the end of the
B. Four members of a family were brutally previous week increased by 2 per cent.
murdered by unidentified gunmen.
19. A. Many anti-social elements have been
13. A. There have been sporadic events of stone- caught by the police from the locality.
pelting throughout the day in the affected
areas of the city. B. Many people in the locality have been

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 CAUSE AND EFFECT
detained by the police for questioning. adequate stock of medicines during
20. A. Many employees of the company monsoon.
proceeded on a day’s leave on Friday. 25. A. The Government has made it compulsory
B. Both Thursday and Saturday were to wear a helmet for the riders of two-
declared holiday by the company. wheelers.
Directions (21-25) : Below in each question B. The number of cases of road accident
are given two statements A. and B.. These involving two-wheelers has been increasing
statements may be either independent causes or every year.
may be effects of independent causes or a common Directions (26-29): Given below are pairs of
cause. One of these statements may be the effect events ‘A’ and ‘B You have to read both the events
of the other statement Read both the statements and decide their nature of relationship. You have to
and decide which of the following answer choices assume that the information given in ‘A’ and ‘B’ is
correctly depicts the relationship between these two true and you are not to assume anything beyond the
statements. given information in deciding the answer. Mark
Mark answer (a) if statement (A) is the cause and answer
statement (B) is its effect. (a) if ‘A’ is the effect and ‘B’ is its immediate and
Mark answer (b) if statement (B) is the cause principal cause;
and statement (A) is its effect. (b) if ‘A’ is the immediate and principal cause and
Mark answer (c) if both the statements (A) and ‘B’ is its effect;
(B) are independent causes. (c) if ‘A’; is an effect but ‘B’ is not its immediate and
Mark answer (d) if both the statements (A) and principal cause;
(B) are effects of independent (d) if ‘B’ is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and
causes. principal cause; and
Mark answer (e) if both the statements (A) and (e) None of these
(B) ar e effects of some 26. A. The interview panel has recommended 5
common cause. candidates for 3 vacancies which are to be
21. A. The State Education Board has decided filled in immediately in Company Z.
to do away with preparingmerit lists for B. The 5 candidates have been asked to
SSC and HSC examinations. contact Company Z next week to know their
B. A large number of students scored very result and accordingly to collect
high marks in the recently held SSC appointment letters.
examination. 27. A. The sensex crosses 4000-point mark in the
22. A. The State Government decided to grant stock exchange, the highest mark in last
permission for opening more junior colleges 12 weeks.
in the state. B. The government announces its credit policy
B. Percentage of qualified students in SSC for agriculture.
examination was higher this year compared 28. A. At last, yesterday night Shirin could get the
to the past few years. medicines prescribed by the doctor for her
23. A. Increase in rainfall and rising flood ailing father.
situations are regular phenomena for past B. The doctor has conducted some tests on
few years. Shirin’s father who has been suffering from
B. People avoid going out in heavy rains. high fever.
24. A. The health department has advised people 29. A. The sales of cars has dropped in the state
to drink boiled and filtered water and ‘X’ since last Monday.
maintain hygiene during the monsoon. B. The state ‘X’ has suspended registration
B. The health department has instructed the of cars which do not confirm to the emission
civic hospitals to equip themselves with norms stipulated recently.

153
 CAUSE AND EFFECT
Directions (30-33) : Given below are pairs of Event B. Public cooperation is imperative
events A and B You have to read both the events A” in controlling the criminal activities
and ‘B’ and decide their nature of relationship. You in state.
have to assume that the information given in ‘A’ and 34. The lucury car manifacturer phantom has in-
‘B’ is true and you will not assume anything beyond creased the price of its stunning, fastest limou-
the given information in deciding the answer. Mark sine car be about 45% which of the follwoing
answer can be the best possible reason for the above
(a) If ‘A’ is the effect and ‘B’ is its immediate and step taken by the car manufacturer ?
principal cause.
a) The government is planning to review taxes on
(b) If ’A’ is the immediate and principal cause and
‘B’ is its effect. the raw materials for manufacturing cars.
(c) If ‘A’ is an effect but ‘B’ is not its immediate and b) The car sales market is going through a jubilant
principal cause. phase as the volume of sales has picked up
’
(d) If ‘B’ is an effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and cnsiderably in the recent past.
principal cause. c) The limousine car is its segment and no other
(e) None of these
car is posing any challenge to this car.
30. Event A. The revised entry fee for
internationally known Taj Mahal d) Car buyers prefer to buy limousine car as it pro-
monument has been increased to vide efficient after sales service.
Rs 50 and Rs 500 for Indians and
foreigners respectively. e) N.O.TNone of these
Event B. There has been adequate 35. A technical snag in the signal disrupted the ser-
increase in the number of foreign vices of Indian Railway for the whole day. Which
tourists visiting India in view of the of the following can be possible effect of the
improved infrastructure facilities. above case ?
31. Event A. The financial position of the
Electricity Division of state XYZ a) people are now used to these technical snags.
has weakened and it has made. b) There was a strike of the Railways trade Union
demand to the government for
more subsidies. a couple of days ago.
Event B. While the Electricity Division of c) Majority of the coaches and engines are in a
state XYZ has revised the pay and ruined state.
perks of its employees, several
subscribers and farmers have d) These were lots of people who could not reach
refused to pay long pending dues. their workplaces at the stipulated time.
32. Event A. Rickshaw, taxi, tempo and other
means of general communication e) None of these
of city X are on an indefinite strike 36. At least 25 people were seriously injured while
since last week. going for a picinic on a weekend. Which of the
Event B. The prices of vegetables and other following can be probable cause of the above
food articles in city X have effect ?
increased.
I) The bus in which people were travellin met with
33. Event A. The state government ABC has
proposed to start a project “alert an accident while taking a trun on the highway.
citizen” to curb possible crimes II) The state government has banned all picnic for
and nab the criminals.
the next six months with immediate effect.

154
 CAUSE AND EFFECT
III) The driver of the bus in which the people were 39. According budget 2016-17, 28.5 lakh hectares
travelling did not report after reachign the halt- will be brought under irrigation under Pradhant
ing place of their journey. Mantri Krishi sinchai Yojana. What will be the
effect of above announcement ?
a) Only I b) Only II
c) Only III d) Only I and II a) Ther government increase the food production
e) Only II and III of our country.
37. Most of pre-poll surveys show that in this dection b) By increase irrigation programm, the farmer can
congress led UPA alliance will get maximum of increase their in come.
100 seats. which of the following is the best rea-
c) Agriculture sector will boost by this step at par-
son for the above assertion ?
ticular significance improvement
a) This election will have cor ruption and
misgovernance as major issues and people will d) All may be effect
vote against the last 10 years of misgovernance
e) None of these
by the congress.
40. Targeted Delivery of Government subsidies adn
b) People will vote for the UPA as they claimed benefits to ensure that they reach the poor and
they have doen tremendous work in the last 10 the deserving. what will be the cause of above
years. govenment budget ?
c) Congress gradually forgot the aam aadmi a) Some portion are until untouched from new sub-
andmoved towards safegurading the interests
sidies and other scheme.
of the corporate world.
b) Some urban sector can get subsity scheme
d) The congress could not control corruption in the
profit.
last 10 years.
c) DBT ensures related information about the poor
e) Inflation could not be controlled by the UPA gov-
people for subsidies.
ernment in the last years and that impacted aam
d) The trans parency and clearance will be in-
aadmi very badly.
creased.
38. Marking a major initiative for urban development
in the country, Prime minister launched the smart e) None of these
cities Mission. A budget of Rs. 3 lakh crore has
41. Finance minister announced the fiscal deficit
been allocated, which will be spent on the project
target of 3.5% of GDP in 2016-17 which is less
in the next 5 years. Which of the following will
than previous year. What will be the possible
be an effect of the initiative taken by the gov-
cause behind this less fiscal deficit ?
ernment ?
a) Due to economy decline, the government col-
a) Quality of life will improve in rural and urban
lect higher taxes.
areas.
b) Due to Indian rupees positive growth against
b) Millions of jobs will be created in rural areas.
dollar the deficit decrease.
c) Scarcity of house will be removed. c) Government announced new taxes scheme and

d) All the villages will have pucca house. e-scheme by which deficit of revenue decrease.
d) Indian economy boost by FDI adn investment
e) None of these policies and it collect higher export collection.

155
 CAUSE AND EFFECT

e) all except a) 45. Sukanya Samridhi Account Scheme is a small

deposit scheme for girl child, as part of Beti
42. The U.S Greenhouse gas emission rates in- Bachao Beti Padhao' comapign, which would
crease with 0.2% in comparison with last year. fetch yearly interest rate of 9.1% and provide
what will be possible effect of above phenom- income tax deduction under section 80 C of the
ena ? Income Tax Act, 1961 ?
What will be possible cause to implement this
a) Increase in Co2 levels have made the world's scheme.
oceans 30% more a acidic. a) Deposite Sincere efforts from Gol, sex ratio in
b) Co2 and other gases will be higher amounts in India is still a grave concern and it shows the
the air and it effect the growth and nutrition in backwoardness of the country.
plants. b) GOI is taking steps to change the mindset of
people towards girl child.
c) The U.S. government banned on old industries
c) Government of India has given a lot of flexibility
which gives bad effect on environment.
in terms of taxations so public may be interested
d) All a), b), c) in this scheme.
e) None of these d) All a), b), c)
e) None of these
43. Fresh data from china has confirmed its
economy is continuing to lose steam. What will 46. Enhanced mobile payments technology along
be the possible effect of above statement? with 4 G introduction will prove to be a game
changes, facilitating for implemention of
1. The china currency will be slow down in com- government's social sector schemes in a faster
parison to international currency like dollar. and more secure manner. what will be the pos-
2. The factory activity, production will be increased. sible cause of above survey result ?
1. Mobiles can't only transfer money quickly and
3. China's slowing growth has been dragging the
securely but also improve the quality and con-
global economy.
venience of service delivery.
a) Only 1 b) Only 1 and 2 2. the growth of telecommunications is one of key
c) Only 3 d) Only 1 and 3 drivers of socio economic development and the
performace.
e) None of these 3. Rural sector doesn't facilitate by new mobile
44. The government has taken "one step forward" technology.
to resolve the retrospective tax cases by put- a) Only 3 b) Only 1 and 3
ting in a place a statutory mechanism for end- c) Only 1 and 2 d) All 1, 2, 3
ing such disputes. What will be effect of above e) None of these
government announcement ?
47. "GST will applied from 1st April 2016 in whole
1. Government has brought in an amendment in country" as per newspaper headlines. what will
Income tax act and made it effective from a be effect of GST on business firms ?
backdate. a) Prices of certain goods and services might be
2. The tax payers including non resident compa- lower.
nies clearly felt cheated and let down because b) It will increase gross domestic product.
what they did at any point of law was in accor- c) It makes our export more competitive as exports
dance with law. ar to be zero-rate.
d) It will be reduce cash flow problems, credit off-
a) Only 1 b) Only 2
set mechanism in business firms.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None
e) None of these e) All of the above

156
 STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION

13
CHAPTER
Statement and Course of Action
Directions (01-0(e) : In each question given 4. Statement: There is an audio-boom in the
below a statement is followed by two courses of country. Tape-recorders and systems are
action numbered I and II. A course of action is a selling like hot cakes. But this has given impetus
step or administrative decision to be taken for to consumerism which has reduced the rate of
improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to savings so vital for our national growth.
the problems, policy etc on the basis of the Courses of action :
information given in the statement. You have to I. Audio sales should be restricted.
assume everything given in the statement to be true, II. People should be advised to buy cheaper
and then decide which of the given suggested audio sets.
courses of action logically follows. 5. Statement: In a gripping match, Indian hockey
Give answer team crushed holders Pakistan to clinch the
(a) if only I follows trophy.
(b) if only II follows Courses of action :
(c) if either I or II follows I. The government should declare a “national
(d) if neither I nor II follows rejoicing day” to celebrate the occasion.
((e) if both I and II follow II. The winning team should be rewarded.
1. Statement : The recent festival in the college Directions (06-09) : In each question below is
was marred by incidents of eveteasing, given a statement followed by three courses of
hooliganism and violence. action numbered I, II and III. A course of action is a
step or administrative decision to be taken for
Courses of action :
improvement, follow-up etc. You have to assume
I. The college authorities should stop holding
everything in the statement to be true, then decide
the festival.
which of the given suggested courses of action
II. The college authorities should seek the help logically follow(s) for pursuing.
of police in holding the festival.
6. Statement : Poverty is increasing because the
2. Statement : The company has reported a people who are deciding how to tackle it know
consistent drop in performance although its absolutely nothing about the poor.
work force has increased.
Courses of Action:
Courses of action:
I. The decision-makers should go to the
I. The company should reduce its work force. grassroots.
II. The company should shift to some more II. The decision-makers should come from
profitable business. the poorer sections of the society.
3. Statement: Our defence capabilities need a III. A new set of decision-makers should
review in view of the rising incidents of terrorism replace the existing one.
and border infiltration.
(a) Only either I or III follows
Courses of action : (b) Only I follow
I. The defence ministry should review the (c) All follow
existing scenario at the earliest.
(d) Only II follows
II. Special emphasis and training programmes (e) None of these
should be launched in anti terrorism

158
 STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION
7. Statement : The exodus from villages to cities policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in
is detrimental to both. the statement, you have to assume everything in
Courses of Action : the statement to be true, then decide which of the
I. Rural postings should be made mandatory suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
for government servants as well as pursuing. Give answer
professionals. (a) if only I follows.
II. There should be fewer trains linking cities (b) if only II follows.
to smaller places. (c) if either 1 or II follows.
III. Employment generation schemes should (d) if neither I nor II follows.
be launched in rural areas. (e) if both I and II follow.
(a) Only II and III follow 10. Statement: The cinema halls are incurring
(b) Only III follows heavy loss these days as people prefer to
(c) Only I and III follow watch movies in home on TV than to visit
(d) Only II follows cinema halls.
((e) None of these Courses of action:
8. Statement: Though we talk of liberalisation, the I. The cinema halls should be demolished
real control still lies in the hands of bureaucrats. and residential multistory buildings should
Courses of Action: be constructed there.
I. Bureaucrats should not be chosen through II. The cinema halls should be converted into
the present rigorous mode. shopping malls.
II. The masses need to be made conscious 11. Statement: It is necessary to adopt suitable
of the post-liberalization era. measures to prevent repetition of bad debts by
learning from the past experiences of mounting
III. We should step talking of liberalization.
non-performing assets of banks.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows
Courses of action:
(c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows
I. Before granting loan to customers their
(e) None of these
eligibility for loan should be evaluated
9. Statement : Nuclear power cannot make a
strictly.
country secure.
II. To ensure the payment of installments of
Courses of Action: loan, the work, for which loan was granted,
I. We m ust stop further expenses on should be supervised minutely on a regular
increasing our nuclear power. basis.
II. We must destroy our nuclear capability. 12. Statement: Many private sector banks have
III. We must concentrate on improving our reduced interest rate on housing loans in
diplomatic relations. comparison to public sector banks.
(a) Only I and III follow Courses of action:
(b) Only III follows I. The case should be raised before the
(c) None follows regulatory authority for investigation by the
(d) Only I follows public sector banks as they cannot follow
(e) None of these such reduction.
Directions (10-13) : In each question below is II. Public sector banks must adopt such
given a statement followed by two courses of action policy to remain in competition.
numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or 13. Statement: In order to maintain its dignity every
administrative decision to be taken for improvement, nation should prosper economically and ensure
follow -up or further action in regard to the problem, development.
159
 STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION
Courses of action: complained to the Ward Officer that for last three
I. The banks and financial institutions must days the tap water in the ward is contaminated
make people aware of the importance of and no action is being initiated by the municipal
economic growth and development in staff.
every country. Courses of action:
II. People should be encouraged to lead life I. The Ward Officer of North Ward should
with dignity. initiate action against residents who have
14. Statement: The chairman of the car company lodged complaints against municipal staff.
announced in the meeting that all trial of its first
II. The Ward Officer should ask his junior
product the new car model ‘M’ are over and
officer to visit Model Colony to asses the
company plans to launch its car in the marked
actual condition of water with his staff and
after six months.
to get samples of water tested from
Courses of action: laboratories.
I. The network of dealers is to be finalized
III. The Ward Officer should ask Ward
and all legal, financial and other matters in
Engineer to check water installation and
this connection will have to be finalized
pipelines in the Model Colony area.
shortly.
II. The company will have to make plan for (a) Only I and II
product other than car. (b) Only II and III
III. Material, managerial and other re­sources (c) Only either I or III and II
will have to be in fine tune to maintain (d) Only I and III
production schedule.
(e) None of these
(a) I and III only (b) Only I
(c) All the three (d) Only II 17. Statement: The Deputy Mayor of city ‘Z’ has
proposed to install a plant of mineral water and
(e) None of these
to supply citizens mineral water bottles at Rs 6
15. Statement : The Company ‘X’ has rejected first
per liter as against Rs 10 per liter being sold by
lot of valves supplied by Company ‘A’ and has
local private companies.
cancelled its entire huge order quoting use of
inferior quality material and poor craftsmanship. Courses of action:
Courses of action: I. The local private companies of city ‘Z’ will
I. The Company “A’ needs to investigate have to close their operation.
functioning of its purchase, production and II. The Corporation of city Z will have to
quality control departments. provide for losses in this project in its
II. The Company ‘A’ should inspect all the budget.
valves rejected by Company ‘X’. III. The tap water scheme of city Z will have to
III. The Company ‘A’ should inform Company be stopped.
‘X’ that steps have been taken for (a) None of these (b) Only I and III
improvement and renegotiate schedule of
(c) Only I and II (d) Only II & III
supply.
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II (e) All the three
(c) All I, II and III (d) II and either I or III 18. Statement: The Management of School ‘M’ has
(e) None of these decided to give free breakfast from next
academic year to all the students in its primary
16. Statement: Residents from Model Colony
section through its canteen even though they
coming under North Ward of City ‘X’ have
will not set any government grant.

160
 STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION
Courses of action : II. The govt, should compensate with
I. The school will have to admit many poor reasonable amounts from the targeted
students who will seek admission for the houses.
next academic year. 22. Statement : Since the new building is ready.
II. The canteen facilities and utensils will have the Chairman of bank XYZ has directed its
to be checked and new purchases to be administrative section to plan for shifting its
made to equip it property . headquarters to the new building .
III. Funds will have to be raised, to support Course of Action:
the scheme for years to come I. Administrative department should deliver
(a) Only either I or II (b) Only II and III infrastructural facilities for the new building
(c) Only I (d) None of these immediately
(e) All the three II. Administrative department should invite
Direction (19-29) : Mark Your Answer quotations from Movers it Packers.
(a) Only COA (I) follow 23. Statement: ABC. Ltd. Company has decided
to launch free education up to class 10 from
(b) Only COA (II) follows
the children of its employee than June 2000
(c) Either (I) or (II) follows
Course Of Action:
(d) Neither (I) and (II) follows
I. The company should reduce Its other
(e) Both (I) and (II) follows
expenditures to save money for the plan.
19. Statement : According to the public health
II. The company will have so prepare details
department of Stale X , Use Supply—of
for the execution of the plan.
Contaminates water by the municipality is the
24. Statement : Severe drought is reported to have
main reason of the speed of-the disease ‘A’ in
set in several parts of the country.
the state .
Course Of Action:
Course Of Action
I. government should immediately make
I. State govts should replace the hear of the
arrangements for providing financial
water supply department immediately
assistance to those affected
II. State govts, should provide free water
II. Food, Water and fodder- .should
filters to it residents
immediately be sent to all. those areas to
20. Statement : The proposed strike by the
save the people and cattle.
transporters would paralyzed day to day life of
25. Statement: A large number of lower - ranked
the people.
politicians are murdered by antisocial elements
Course Of Action:
in city “A”
I. City Administrators should engage the
Course Of Action:
transporters successfully negotiations in
I. All those in the city with criminal records
their strike.
should immediately be arrested.
II. City administrators should arrange for the
II. The city police should keep a close vigil
alternative public transportation system
on the movements of the anti-social
during the strike.
elements so, as to prevent future attack.
21. Statement : The govt, of stale ‘Y’ has decided
26. Statement: It is reported that through. Vitamin
to remove hutments and buildings that have
E present in fresh fruits and fresh vegetables
come up beside roads to broaden them in city’
is beneficial for human body; capsuled vitamin
Course Of Action :
E does not have same effect on human body.
I. The govt of state Y” should rehabilitate ‘he
Course of Action:
affected residents of hutments / buildings

161
 STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION
I. The sale of capsuled Vitamin E should be 30. Statement: About 30% to 40% of children, who
banned. are enrolled, do not attend the school on any
II. People should be encouraged to take fresh given day.
fruits and fresh vegetables to meet the Course of Action:
body requirement of vitamin E. I. More schools should be started.
27. Statement : Indians have been continuously II. Reason for this absenteeism should be
experiencing militar y threats from its found out.
neighboring countries. 31. Statement: Although the Indian economy is still
Course of Action : heavily dependent on agriculture, its share in
I. Indians should engage in an all out war to global agriculture trade is less than the share
stop the nagging threats. of agriculture exports to total exports.
II. Indian should get the neighbors into a Course of Action:
serious dialogue to reduce the tension at I. Efforts should be made to increase our
its borders. agricultural production.
28. Statement : India has now been recognized II. The export of non-agricultural commodities
by the western world as a vast resource of should be reduced.
knowledge and the latter is eager to tie same. 32. Statement : There are more than 200 villages
Course of Action : in the hill area of Uttarakhand which are
I. India- should exploit this opportunity-to- severely damaged due to cyclone and it causes
hasten its economic growth. an extra burden of Rs. 200 Crore on State
II. India should bargain effectively- with the Government for relief and rehabilitation work.
western world and become a superpower Course of Action:
in South Asia. I. People of hill area should be shifted to other
29. Statement : It is estimated that about 20 lakh safer places.
people will visit the city during festival. II. State government should ask for more
Course of Action : financial support from Central
l. The civil authority should make adequate Government.
arrangements to tackle the situation . 33. Statement: Experts Committee on Industrial
II. All the hospitals in the city should be put Relations has revealed in their recent reports
on high alert in case of any eventuality. that not only the inter nal pr oblems of
Directions (30-38) : In each question below is organizations were successfully managed
given a statement followed by two courses of action. through quality circles but also employees’
On the basis of the information given in the motivation level was increased significantly.
statement , you have to assume everything in the Course of Action :
statement to be true, then decide which of the given I. Organization should organize orientation
suggested course of action logically follows for programmes for their
pursuing. II. Employees should be encouraged to join
Give answer : quality circle programmes.
(a) If only I follows 34. Statement : The minister said the teachers are
(b) If only II follows still not familiarized with need, importance and
(c) If either I or II follows meaning of population education in the higher
(d) If neither I nor II follows education system. They are not even clearly
aware about their role and responsibilities in the
(e) If both I and II follow.
population education programme.

162
 STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION
Courses of Action: Courses of Action:
I. Population education programme should be I. A thorough investigation should be ordered
included in the college curriculum by the State Govt. to bring out all those
II. Orientation programme should be who are involved into the illegal sale of
conducted for teachers on population arms.
education.
II. State police armoury should be kept under
35. Statement : Researchers are feeling agitated
Central Govt.’s control.
as libraries are not equipped to provide the right
information to the right users at the right time in 39. Statement : The weather bureau has through a
the required format. Even the users are not recent bulletin forecast heavy rainfall during the
aware about the various services available for next week which may cause water logging in
them. several parts of the city.
Courses of Action: Course of Action:
I. All the information available in the libraries
I. The bulletin should be given wide publicity
should be computerized to provide faster
through the mass media.
services to the users.
36. Statement : The chairman stressed the need II. The civic authority should deep in readiness the
for making education system more flexible and pumping system for removal of water from these
regretted that the curriculum has not been parts.
revised in keeping with the pace of the changes III. The people should be advised to stay indoors
taking place. during the period.
Course of Action :
a) None follows
I. Curriculum should be reviewed and
revised periodically. b) Only I and II follow
II. System of education should be more c) Only II and III follow
flexible.
e) N.O.T
37. Statement : Reports of steep and continued
decline in the inflows into the Gobindsagar 40. Statement: A train derailed near a station while
reservoir of the Bhakra Dam, coupled with a moving over a bridge and fell into a river, result-
depleted stock of steam coal with the thermal ing in the death of 65 people.
power plants in the north, may lead to a serious Course of Action:
power crisis in the region.
I. The Railway Authorities should clarify the rea-
Courses of Action: son of the accident to the Government.
I. The supply of steam coal to the thermal
II. The Govrnment should allocate funds to com-
power plants needs to be immediately
pensate the destruction caused.
stepped up by the Govt.
III. The protection walls of the bridge should be
II. The Govt. should set up hydraulic power
made strong enough to avoid such accidents.
plants on other rivers in the region.
38. Statement : The police department has come a) Only I and II follow
under a cloud with recent revelations that at b) Only II and III follow
least two senior police officials are suspected c) Only III follows
to have been involved in the illegal sale of a
d) All follow
large quantity of weapons from the State police
armoury. e) None of these

163
 STATEMENT AND COURSE OF ACTION
41. Statements: Poverty is increasing because the proper rehabilitation of bonded labourers should
people, who are deciding how to tackle it, know be removed.
absoulutely nothing about th epoor.
a) None follows b) Only I follows
Course of Action:
c) Only II follows d) Only III follows
I. The decision makers should go to the grass root
levels. e) Only II and III follow
II. The decision makers should come from the 44. Statements : There has been unprecedented
poorer sections of the society. increase in the prices of essential commodities
during the past few days due to the strike call
III. A new set of decision makers should replace
given by the transporters association.
the existing one.
Course of Action:
a) Only I follows b) Only II follows
c) Only either I or III follows I. The transporters associaton should be ordered
by the government to immediately withdraw
d) All follow e) None of these strike call or else they will face severe conse-
42. Statements: A large number of students are quences.
reported to be dropping out of school in villages
II. The government should immeidately make al-
as theri parents want their chilren to help them
ternative arrangements to ensure adequate
in farms.
supply of essential commodities in the market.
Course of Action:
III. The government should immediately declare
I. The government should immediately launch a the strike illegal adn put all those responsible
programme to create awareness among the for the strike behind the bars.
farmers about the value of education.
a) Only I and II follow
II. The government should offer incetives to those
farmers whose children remain in schools. b) Only II and III follow
III. Education should be made compulsory for all c) Only I and III follow
children up to the age of 14 and adn their d) All follow
employement banned.
e) None fo these
a) Only I and II follow
45. Statements: A large number of students study-
b) Only II and III follow
ing in municipal schools could not pass the Xth
c) Only I adn III follow Std. Board examination causing frustration
d) All follow among the students adn their parents.
e) None of these Course of Action:
43. Statements: Over 27,000 bonded labourers I. The Municipal authority should mmediately re-
identified adn freed are still awaiting rehabilita- view the position and intitiate measures to im-
tion. prove the situation.
Course of Action: II. The municipal authority should immediately fill
I. More cases of bonded labourers should be iden- up the teacher's vacancies in the municipal
tified. schools.
II. Till the proper rehabilitation facilities are III. The municipal authority should close down some
availabel, the bonded labourers should not be of their schools and concentrate their attention
freed. on remaining schools to improve the conditions.
III. The impediments in the way of speedy and a) Only I and II follow

164
 STATEMENT AND ARGUMENTS

14
CHAPTER
Statement and Arguments
Directions (01-05) : In making decisions about III. Yes, young persons are more prone to get
important questions, it is desirable to be able to affected by the viral infection and hence
distinguish between “Strong” arguments and “Weak” they should remain indoors.
arguments “Strong” arguments must be both (a) None is strong
important and directly related to the question “Weak (b) Only I is strong
arguments may not directly related to the question (c) Only III is strong
and may be of minor importance or may be related (d) Only I and II are strong
to the trivial aspects of the question.
(e) All I, II and III are strong
Each question below is followed by three
3. Should the Govt ban export of all types of food
arguments numbers I, II, and III. You have to decide
grains for the next one year to tide over the
which of the arguments is/are “Strong” and indicate
unpredicted drought situation in the country ?
your answers accordingly.
Arguments:
I. Yes, there is no other way to provide food
1. Should the Govt. restrict use of electricity for
to its citizens during the year.
each household depending upon the
requirement (?) II. No, the Govt does not have its jurisdiction
over private expor ters for banning
Arguments :
exporters.
I. Yes, this will help government tide over the
III. Yes, the Govt should not allow the
problem of inadequate generation of
exporters to export food grains and
electricity.
procure all the food grains held by such
II. No, every citizen has the right to consume exporters and make it available for home
electricity as per their requirement as they consumption.
pay for using electricity.
(a) Only I and II are strong
III. No, the Govt does not have the machinery
(b) Only II and III are strong
to put such a restriction on the use of
electricity. (c) Only I and III are strong
(a) Only I is strong (d) All I, II and III are strong
(b) Only II is strong (e) None of these
(c) Only I and II are strong 4. Should there be a common syllabus for all
subjects in graduate courses in all the
(d) Only II and III are strong
universities across the country?
(e) All I, II and III are strong
Arguments :
2. Should the Govt order closure of all educational
I. Yes, this is the only way to spring in
institutions for a month to avoid fast spreading
uniformity in the education system in the
of the contagious viral infection?
country.
Arguments:
II. Yes, it will help standardise the quality of
I. No, the closure of educational institutions graduation certificates being given by
alone is not the solution for curbing the different universities in the country.
spread of the viral infection.
III. No, each university should have the
II. No, students will visit crowded places like autonomy to decide its syllabus based on
malls, markets, playgrounds etc in more the specific requirement of the university.
numbers and spread the disease, as they
(a) None is strong
will have a lot of spare time at their disposal.

166
 STATEMENT AND ARGUMENTS
(b) Only I is strong II. Yes, it is a sign of British legacy, why should
(c) Only II is strong we carry it further?
(d) Only I and II are strong 8. Statements : Should the practice of transfers
(e) Only II and III are strong of clerical cadre employees from one city to
5. Should all those students who failed in one or another govt. office be stopped?
two subjects in HSC be-allowed to take Argument :
admission in degree courses and continue their I. No, transfer of employees is a routine
study, subject to their successfully passing in administrative matter and we must continue
the supplementary examination’? it.
Arguments: II. Yes, is involves lot of governmental
I. Yes, this will help the students to complete expenditure and inconvenience to may
their education without a break of one year. compare to the benefits it yields
II. Yes, this is a forward-looking strategy to 9. Statements : Should higher qualification be the
help the students and motivate them for only criteria for internal promotions in any
higher studies. organization?
III. No, such students do not choose to Argument :
continue their studies without having I. Yes, why not ? In fact only higher
passed in all the subjects in HSC. education is more important than other
(a) Only I is strong factors.
(b) Only II is strong II. No, quality of performance and other
(c) Only III is strong factors are more important than more
higher qualification in case of internal
(d) Only either II or III and I are strong
promotion.
(e) None of these
10. Statements : Should Indian Scientists working
Ques. (06-16) : Mark the answers:
abroad be called back to India?
(a) if only argument I is strong
Argument :
(b) if only argument II is strong
I. Yes, they must serve the motherland first
(c) if Either I or II is strong and forget about discoveries, honors,
(d) if Neither I nor II is strong and facilities and all.
(e) if both I and II are strong II. No, we have enough talent, let them stay
6. Statements : Should government established where they want.
higher level Institutes of Technology (IITs) be 11. Statements : Should military training of 3 years
privatized? be made compulsory to all able-bodies youths
Argument : in India?
I. Yes, Privatization will make these institutes Argument :
financially healthy, competitive and quality I. Yes, Similar practice is being followed in
conscious. some developed countries.
II. Yes, privatization is the key of the new era II. No, compulsion spoils the best in
– can we Survive without is? everything.
7. Statements : Should vacations of count judges 12. Statements : Should Government Standardize
be reduced? rent for rented houses in big cities in India?
Argument : Argument :
I. Yes, it will speed up judicial process and I. No, it is an interference in the relationship
many people are likely to get justice in between landlord and tenant.
reasonable time. II. Yes, Govt. can do it, provided it has
political will to do it.

167
 STATEMENT AND ARGUMENTS
13. Statements : Should old and poorly maintained Give answer (b): if only argument II is strong.
petrol/diesel vehicles like auto rickshaws and Give answer (c): if either I or II is strong.
taxis which generate heavy pollution be banned Give answer (d): if neither I nor II is strong.
for public services in big cities? Give answer (e): if both I and II are strong.
Argument : 17. Should there be a restriction on the number of
I. Yes, it will reduce pollution level in these one-day international cricket matches to be
cities which will enhance health of citizen. played by a country within a calendar year?
II. No, what will the poor auto rickshaw/taxi Arguments:
drivers do for their Survival? I. “No, each countr y should have the
14. Statements : Should Govt. dependent loss freedom to play as many matches as they
making academic institutes like universities/ want.
colleges be closed down in India? II. Yes, otherwise the top-ranking players will
Argument : burn out in quick time.
I. Yes, they are only creating batches of 18. Should there be only one type of schools up to
unemployable young graduates. matricu­lation in the entire country?
II. Yes, none of the developed countries Arguments :
support universities by such massive I. Yes, this exists in some of the western
financing. countries.
15. Statements : Should the system of paying II. No, schools in rural and urban areas need
minimum purchase price for farmers for wheat, to be different.
rice and the like be scrapes in India?
19. Should all the small shops selling household
Argument : commodities be closed down in big cities in
I. No, farmers who produce our staple food India?
must get decent return on their investment Arguments :
and labour in a welfare state like India.
I. No, all those people engaged in running
II. Yes, it is an outdated practice which we these small shops will be jobless and will
must discard. be left with no earning to manage their
16. Statements : Should the age of voting be livelihood.
raised to 20 years in India? II. Yes, people prefer to carry out all their
Argument : purchases under one roof in big shopping
I. No it is difficult to change any practices. malls in the big cities and hence these small
II. Yes by that age people develop the sense shops may not get customers to survive.
of responsibility. 20. Should there be a complete ban on the use of
Directions (17-20) : In making decisions about pesticides for maintaining fruit-growing plants
important questions, it is desirable to be able to and trees?
distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ Arguments:
arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are I. No, all these plants and trees will get
both important and directly related to the question. destroyed by the attacks of the pests,
‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor causing severe financial loss to the
importance and also may not be directly related to farmers.
the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of II. Yes, the hazardous chemicals used in the
the question. pesticides find their way into the fruits,
Each question below is followed by two causing serious health hazard to all those
arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide who consume these fruits.
which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and Directions (21-25) : In making decisions about
which is a ‘weak’ argument. important questions, it is desirable to be able to
Give answer (a): if only argument I is strong. distinguish between “Strong” arguments and “Weak”

168
 STATEMENT AND ARGUMENTS
arguments in so far as they relate to the question. Arguments :
“Strong” arguments are those which are both I. Yes, it will bring in com mer cial
important and directly related to the question. “Weak” management and citizens would expect
arguments are those which are of minor importance good service at reasonable rates.
and also may not be directly related to the question II. No, it will end the local elections because
or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. there will be no elected corporator.
Instructions: Each question below is followed by two 25. Statements: Should the joining of college
arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide students in National Cadet Corps (NCC) be
which of the arguments is a strong argument and made mandatory?
which is a weak argument. Arguments:
Give answer ((a) if only argument I is strong. I. Yes, it is in vogue in many countries.
Give answer ((b) if only argument II is strong. II. No, it will distract attention and those who
are weak in Audio will fail.
Give answer ((c) if either I or II is strong.
Directions (26-46) : In making decisions about
Give answer ((d) if neither I nor II is strong; and
important questions, it is desirable to be able to
Give answer ((e) if both I and II are strong. distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’
21. Statement: Should India switch over to arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are
capitalist economy from the present mixed one? both important and directly related to the question.
Arguments: ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor
I. No, for this to happen there will be a need importance and also may not be directly related to
of constitutional amendments and our the questions or may be related to a trivial aspect of
prestige will lower. the question.
Each question below is followed by two
II. Yes, this is the only way out adopted by
arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide
developing countries.
which argument is a ‘strong’ argument and which is
22. Statements: Should admission in schools be a ‘weak’ argument.
controlled by the state government concerned? Give answer :
Arguments: (a) if only argument I is strong.
I. Yes, it will reduce the importance of the (b) if only argument II is strong.
members of the school management. (c) if either I or II is strong.
II. No, this will result in delays, compromise (c) if neither I nor II is strong.
with the quality of schools, and give rise to (d) if both I and II are strong.
corruption. 26. Should there be capital punishment for those
23. Statements : Should corporal punishment be who are found guilty of rape charges?
fully restricted in schools? Arguments:
Arguments : I. Yes, this is the only way to eliminate such
I. No, in low age and formative years atrocities on women.
punishment helps develop the standard of II. No, this will lead to more violence as culprits
discipline and values. may even kill the rape victims.
II. Yes, physical punishment hurts the self- 27. Should all the non-performing employees in the
respect of an individual and such person public sector be compulsorily retrenched from
turns to violent ways of life. service?
24. Statements : Should metropolitan corporations Arguments:
be changed to public limited companies to I. No, this will give an unjust handle to the
enhance their efficiency and reduce management and they m ay use it
expenditure? indiscriminately.

169
 STATEMENT AND ARGUMENTS
II. Yes, this will help increase the level of I. Yes, some of the political parties are
efficiency of these organizations and these creating a situation that demand elections.
organizations will become profitable II. No, our Prime Minister is a strong man,
establishments. has a good majority and will complete his
28. Should there be com pulsory medical term.
examination of both the man and the woman 33. Statement : Should Government-aided loss-
before they marry each other? making academic-institutions like university/
collages be closed down in India?
Arguments:
Arguments :
I. No, this is an intrusion into the privacy of
I. Yes, they are only creating batches of
an individual and hence cannot be
unemployed young graduates.
tolerated.
II. Yes, none of the developed countries
II. Yes, this will substantially reduce the risk support universities by such massive
of giving birth to children with serious financing.
ailments. 34. Statement: Should Indian cities build more
29. Should all the drugs patented and manufactured flyovers rather than underground rails?
in western countries be first tried out on sample Arguments :
basis before giving license for sale to general I. Yes, flyovers are much less expensive as
public in India? compared to underground rails.
Arguments : II. No, flyover cannot divert as much traffic as
I. Yes, many such drugs require different can be done with the help of underground
doses and duration for Indian population rails.
and hence it is neces­sary. 35. Statement : Should the union cabinet consent
to go-ahead to the defence forces to cross the
II. No, this is just not feasible and hence
LOC?
cannot be implemented.
Argument :
30. Should all the foreign banks immediately be I. Yes, it is one of the ways to capture
asked to close down their operations in India? intruders.
Arguments : II. No, it will be the violation of law according
I. No, this will have an adverse impact on to the Shimla agreement between the two
Indian economy. countries
II. Yes, this is the only way to make the Indian 36. Statement : Should the private companies be
banks survive and prospects. allowed to operate passenger train services in
India?
31. Statement: Will the Cauvery river water dispute
Arguments :
be settled down at last
I. Yes, This will improve quality of service in
Arguments: Indian Railways as it will have to face severe
I. Yes, the politicians of Karnataka and Tamil competition.
Nadu will come to some satisfactory II. No, the private companies may not agree
political settlement. to operate in the non-profitable sectors.
II. No, both the States have their own 37. Statements : Should India become a perma-
interests; hence the dispute will be nent member of Un's Security Council ?
prolonged. Arguments:
32. Statement : Is India going to have elections in I. Yes, India has emerged as a country which loves
near future? peace and amity.
Arguments : II. No, Let us first solve problems of our own people
like poverty, malnutrition.

170
 STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION

15
CHAPTER
Statement and Assumption
Directions (01-05) : In each question below is Assumptions :
given a statement followed by two assumptions I. Most of the defaulting housing societies
numbered I and II. An assumption is something may now opt for the amnesty scheme and
supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider pay up their dues.
the statement and the following assumptions and II. Other housing societies which have been
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the paying their taxes regularly may file case
statement. against the govt for discriminatory
Give answer (a) if only Assumption I is implicit. practices.
Give answer (b) if only Assumption II is implicit. 4. Statement : The r ailway author ity has
Give answer (c) if either Assumption I or II is implicit. announced suspension of movements of train
on the main track within the city limit for carrying
Give answer (d) if neither Assumption I nor II is
out major repair works on Saturday and Sunday
implicit.
and advised the commuters to plan their journey
Give answer (e) if both Assumptions I are II are accordingly.
implicit. Assumptions:
1. Statement: Mr. X started at 9.00 am from his I. The commuters may protest against the
residence to attend a meeting scheduled to be decision of the railway authority and may
held at 11.00 am and instructed his assistant to disrupt other transport services.
meet him at the venue of the meeting and hand II. The municipal authority may be able to
over the relevant documents. deploy additional buses during Saturday
Assumptions : and Sunday to help the commuters.
I. Mr. X may arrive at the meeting place 5. Statement : “If you are a first-class graduate
before 11.00 am. with good communication skills and also have
II. Mr. X’s assistant may be able to arrive at work experience of at least two years in sales-
the venue before commencement of the related activities, you are welcome in our
meeting. organization.” —An employment advertisement.
2. Statement : The city transport corporation has Assumptions :
introduced air-conditioned buses on various I. Many with good communication skills may
routes to attract people travelling to their work not respond to the advertisement.
places by car and hence reduce congestion on II. All the first-class graduates may possess
the roads. good communication skills.
Assumptions : Directions (06-10) : In each question below is
I. Majority of the people may still prefer to given a statement followed by two assumptions
travel to their work places in their o w n numbered I and II. An assumption is something
cars. supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider
the statement and the following assumptions and
II. Many people may now opt for these buses
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
for travelling to their work places.
statement.
3. Statement : The state Govt. has announced Give answer (a) if only assumption I is implicit.
an amnesty scheme for all the housing societies
Give answer (b) if only assumption II is implicit.
defaulting on payment of municipal taxes asking Give answer (c) if either assumption I or II is implicit.
these societies to pay up front six per cent of Give answer (d) if neither assumption I nor II is
the dues and regularize their status without any
implicit.
penalty.

172
 STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION
Give answer (e) if both assumptions I and II are decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
implicit. statement.
6. Statement : Even though the number of sugar Give answer (a) if only Assumption I is implicit.
factories is increasing at a fast rate in India, we Give answer (b) if only Assumption II is implicit.
still continue to import it from other countries. Give answer (c) if either I or II is implicit.
Assumptions:
Give answer (d) if neither I nor II is implicit.
I. Even the increased number of factories
Give answer (e) if both I and II are implicit.
may not be able to meet the demand of
sugar in India. 11. Statement: The General Administration
II. The demand for sugar may increase Department has issued a circular to all the
substantially in future. employees inform­ing them that henceforth the
7. Statement : The government announced a employees can avail their lunch break at any of
heavy compensation package for all the victims the half-hour slots between 1.00 pm and 2.30
of the terrorist attacks. pm.
Assumptions: Assumptions:
I. Such incidents of terror may not occur in I. The employees may welcome the
near future. deci­sion and avail lunch break at different
II. Compensation may mitigate the anger time slots.
among the citizens against the current II. There may not be any break in the work of
government. the organization as the employees will have
8. Statement : Many organizations have switched their lunch break at different time slots.
over to online mode of examinations. 12. Statement : The Government has decided
Assumptions: against reduction of prices of petroleum
I. Candidates from all parts of the country products though there is a significant drop in
may be well-versed using computers. the crude oil prices in the international market.
II. Online mode of examinations helps in Assumptions :
recruiting more capable personnel. I. The prices of crude oil in the international
9. Statement: Government has decided to market may again increase in the near
relocate all the factories from the city with future.
immediate effect to reduce pollution.
II. The present price difference of petroleum
Assumptions :
products will help the government to
I. Pollution in the city is being caused only
withstand any possible price rise in future.
because of the factories existing there.
13. Statement : The Govt. has made an appeal to
II. People may be able to manage travelling
all the citizens to honestly pay income tax and
daily to the relocated factories.
file re­turns reflecting the true income level to
10. Statement : Gambling through lotteries is
help the Government to carry out developmental
banned by the Central Government in all the
activities.
states with immediate effect.
Assumptions : Assumptions :
I. This may save innocent citizens from I. People may now start paying more taxes
getting cheated of their hard-earned in response to the appeal.
money. II. The total income tax collection may
II. The citizens may not gamble in any other consider­ably increase in the near future.
way if the lotteries are banned. 14. Statement : The state government has decided
Directions (11-15) : In each question below is to appoint four thousand primary school
given a statement followed by two assumptions teachers during the next financial year.
numbered I and II. An assumption is something Assumptions :
supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider I. There are enough schools in the state to
the statement and the following assumptions and accommodate four thousand additional

173
 STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION
primary school teachers. 18. Statement : “Invest in our regular scheme and
II. The eligible candidates may not be earn an interest of at least 10%.” —
interested to apply as the Government may Advertisement by a Finan­cial Institution
not finally appoint such a large number of Assumptions :
primary school teachers. I. 10% interest may attract a good number of
15. Statement : The school authority has decided investors.
to increase i the number of students in each II. No other scheme offers interest as high
classroom to seventy from the next academic as 10%.
session to bridge the gap between income and 19. Statement : “Make use of computers to
expenditure to a larger extent. maintain your data and get rid of the hassle”—
Assumptions : An advice to the administrative staff by the
management
I. The income generated by way of fees of
Assumptions :
the additional students will be sufficient
I. Members of the administrative staff are
enough to bridge the gap.
conversant in operating computers.
II. The school will get all the additional
II. Maintaining administrative data is an
students in each class from the next
important activity for any organization.
academic session.
20. Statement : “For easier and faster
Directions (16-20) : In each question below is comm unication, use our broadband
given a statement followed by two assumptions connections.” — An advertisement.
numbered I and II. An assumption is something Assumptions :
supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider I. Many people are looking up for best
the statement and the following as­sumptions and communication facilities.
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the II. Broadband connections are preferred
statement. Give answer mode of communication.
(a) if only assumption I is implicit, Directions (21-30) : In each question below
(b) if only assumption II is implicit, is given a statement followed by two assumptions
(c) if either I or II is implicit, numbered 1 and II An assumption is something
(d) if neither I nor II is implicit, supposed or taken for granted You have to consider
(e) if both I and II are implicit. the statement and the following assumptions and
16. Statement : “We should revise the wage decides. which of the assumptions is implicit in the
structure in order to retain our good employees.” statement.
— Comment of a member of the Management Give answer (a) if only assumption I is implicit.
Committee of a company Give answer (b) if only assumption it is implicit
Give answer (c) if either I or II is Implicit.
Assumptions :
Give answer (d) if neither t nor II is implicit, and
I. Wage structures of other companies
Give answer (e) if both I and II arc implicit.
involved in parallel activities are better.
21. Statement: ‘Country A would explore all
II. Wage structure is one of the most important channels in diffuse current tensions with
factors for the employees of the company. country B and bring peace on its borders ‘ -
17. Statement : “Do not indulge in unfair practices Statement of spokesperson of country A
or else you will be sacked from the college.” — Assumption :
Warning to the students from the principal of a I Country A is desirous to diffuse current
college. tension and restore peace with country 13
Assumptions : II. It is desirable lo use more than one
I. Some of the students were found using channel when complex issues are to be
unfair practices. settled amicably.
II. The principal’s warning may deter the 22. Statement : Two months ago, it was announced
students from using unfair practices. that Central government pensioners would get

174
 STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION
dearness relief with Immediate effect but till 27. Statement : “In our report published last week,
date, banks have not credited the arrears ‘ - A the name of the author as misspelt. We regret
statement from a Pensioners’ Forum the error”- A magazine editor.
Assumption : Assumptions:
I. Most of the banks normally take care of I. The name of author was not easy to spell.
the pensioners. II. Publishing correct names of authors is not
II. Two months’ time is sufficient for the as important as the quality of the article.
government machinery to move and give III. Publishing correct names of authors is
effect to pensioners. desirable.
23. Statement : ’The bridge was built at the cost (a) Only I is implicit (b) Only II is implicit
of” Rs 128 corers and even civil bus service is (c) Only III is implicit (d) I and III are implicit.
not utilizing it What a pity to see it grossly (e) II and III are implicit.
underutilised!’ - A citizen’s view on a new 28. Statement : The telephone company informed
flyover linking east and’ west sides of h suburb the subscribers through a notification that those,
Assumption : who don’t pay their bills by the due date, will be
I. The building of such bridges does not serve charged penalty for every defaulting day.
any public objective. Assumptions :
II. There has to be some accountability and I. Majority of the people may pay their bills
utility of money spent on public projects. by the due date to avoid penalty.
24. Statement : ‘Use our product to improve II. The money collected as penalty may set
memory of your child: it is based or natural off the losses due to delayed payment.
herbs and has no harmful side effects.’ - III. People generally pay heed to such notices.
Advertisement of a pharmaceutical company. (a) None is implicit.
Assumption : (b) Only I and III are implicit.
I. People generally opt for a medical product (c) Only II is implicit
which is useful and has no harmful side (d) Only II and III are implicit.
effects. (e) None of these
II. Improving memory of child is considered 29. Statement : “I want to present him a book on
as important by many parents. techniques of yoga on his birthday” – A tells B.
25. Statement : The traders of State K would Assumptions :
observe a statewide bandh as the state has I. A and B will be invited for birthday
failed to meet their demand to resolve sales tax celebrations.
and other issues. II. The person, to whom the book is to be
Assumption : presented, is not keeping good health.
I. The traders of State K have earlier tried III. Book is the best gift for birthdays.
other usual procedures to get their (a) Only I and II are implicit.
problems solved (b) Only II and III are implicit.
II. State K is not keen to solve the problem of (c) Only I and III are implicit.
traders. (d) None is implicit.
26. Statement : “Buy ‘Y’ T.V. for better sound (e) All are implicit.
quality.” – An advertisement. 30. Statement : “Use Pond’s cold cream for fair
Assumptions : complexion.” – An advertisement.
I. ‘Y’ T.V. is the only T.V. in the market. Assumptions :
II. ‘Y’ T.V. is the costliest I. People like to use cream for fair
III. People generally ignor e such complexion.
advertisements. II. People are easily fooled
(a) Only I implicit (b) Only II implicit III. People respond to the advertisement.
(c) Only III implicit (d) All are implicit Directions (31-45) : In each question below is
(e) None is implicit. given a statement followed by two assumptions I

175
 STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION
and II. You have to consider the statement and the II. People are generally aware about the need for
following assumptions and decide which of the vaccination.
assumption is implicit in the statement.
37. Statements: Shalini made an application to the
Give answer:
bank for a loan of Rs. 1,80,000 by mortaging
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
her house to the bank and promised to repay it
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
within five years.
(c) If either I or II is implicit.
(d) If neither I nor II is implicit Assumptions:
(e) If both I and II are implicit. I. The bank has a practice of granting loans for
31. Statement: “Come and join my political Rs. 1,00,000 and above.
campaign” – A political leader to film stars.
Assumption: II. The bank accepts house as collateral security
I. People have a strong faith on the film stars. against such loans.
II. Film stars attract a huge crowd. 38. Statements: The concession in rail fares for
32. Statement : “There should be no screening of the journey to hill stations has been cancelled
film ‘XYZ’ until further decision.” – A High Court because it is not needed for people who can
order. spend their holidays there.
Assumptions :
I. People abide by the decision of High Court. Assumptions:
II. Film ‘XYZ’ is an objectionable movie I. Railways should give concession only to needy
33. Statement : KL Production Ltd has decided to persons.
issue debentures to mop up resources.
II. Railways should not encourage people to spend
Assumptions :
their holidays at hill stations.
I. Company has already explored other
sources to collect resources. 39. Statements : "The bridge was built at the cost
II. There are very few competitions in the of Rs. 128 crores adn even civil bus service is
market for the product of Company. not utilizing it, what a pity to see it grossly
34. Statement : “Tenders are invited from reputed underutilized." - A citizen's view on a new
contractors for pre-qualification.” – The tender flyover linking east and west sides of a suburb.
notice of a public sector company. Assumptions:
Assumptions :
I. The Company seeks to do quality I. The building of such bridge does not serve any
business. public objective.
II. The company expects contractual and II. There has to be some accountability and utility
competition rates for its work. of moneyspent on public projects.
35. Statement : He teaches behavioral science but
see how he behaves with others? 40. Statements: The education of a students at col-
Assumptions : legiate level, not taking into account mainte-
I. Our behavior is controlled by others. nance expenses, costs four hundred ruppes a
II. One is expected to follow what he year. Collegiate education is thus drawing
preaches. heavely upon the national resources of an
impoversihed community. So college education
36. Statements : As a measure to avoid occur- should be restricted to a brillient few.
rence of the epidemics dut to monsoon the civic
authorities have organized free vaccination Assumption
camps all over the city. I. Our resources are very limited.
Assumptions: II. Only a few students should be admitted to the
I. There may be a good respone to the camps colleges.
organized by civic authorities.

176
 STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTION
41. Statements: All existing inequalities can be re- promise!" - an advertisement
duced, if not utterly eradicated, by action of gov-
Assumptions
ernments or by revolutionary change of
governmment. I. Most of the people need delicious cup of tea or
coffee with a change in taste.
Assumption:
II. Every peson is addicted to either tea or coffee.
I. Inequality is a man-made phenomenon.
45. Statements : "If you ask me about the dauntign
II. No person would voluntarily part with what he
challenges that I face, I would say that my
possesses.
governmnet's first priority is to improve the ex-
42. Statements: "In case you are suffering from isting law and order situation. then follows the
high fever with joint & muscular pain, nausea, issue of prices of commodities." - Mr. Y, a newly
skin rash, fatigue .... it could be Dengue. con- appointed PM to country X.
sult the nearest health centre/hospital immedi-
Assumptions:
ately."
I. If a citizen of country X can sleep peacefully,
* A notice issued in public interest by the minis-
he/ she can then think of providing food to his/
try of health and family welfare
her family, ponder over education and move
Assumption: about freely in the country.
I. People will read the notice adn adhere to it. II. Prices of the commodities affect the common
man greatly.
II. People may not be well aware of the symptoms
of Dengue. 46. The Government has appealed to all citizens to
use potable water judiciously as there is an
43. Statements: Instead of burning the leaves, bury
acutre shortage in supply. Excessive use may
them in compost pits, by which it gets converted
lead to huge scarcity in future months.
to natural manure, making it beneficial for the
soil. __ A notice issued in public interest by Which of the assumptions is implicit in the above
Department of Environment. statement?
Assumption: An assumption is something supposed or taken
for granted.
I. Whenever leaves are burnt in the open, the air
gets laden with tiny particulate matter which a) People may ignore the appeal and continue
raises air pollution to alarming levels, which using water as per their consideration
cause severe respiratory disorders and eye
b) Government may be able to tap those who do
infections to those exposed to it.
not respond to the appeal.
II. Benefits gained from ashes of leaves burnt are
c) Government may be able to put in place alter-
not as much as the benefits gained from the
nate sources of water in the event of a crisis
natural manure obtained from leaves by burn-
situation.
ing it.
d) Large number of people may positively respond
44. Statements: "A tempting cup of garmagarma
to the Government's appeal and help tide over
Georgia now awaits you at every street corner.
the crisis.
So, no matter who you are or where you go, a
Georgia Vending Machine will hand you the e) Only poor are going to suffer from this shortage
same clean, delicious cup of tea in Regular, of water supply.
Adrak, Elaichi and Masala adn if you're looking 47. The US President has downsized his country's
for a change try the Regular, Mocha and nuclear arsenal, helped to negotiate a deal to
Cappuccino coffee. One sip will make you re- halt Iran's nuclear-weapons programme and led
alize why every other alternative is a mere com- a global initiative to secure radioactive materi-

177
 STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION

16
CHAPTER
Statement and Conclusion
Directions (01-05) : In each question below is Conclusions :
given a statement followed by two conclusions I. Candidates not fulfilling these criteria will
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything not be considered.
in the statement to be true, then consider the two II. It is possible to decide clearly who is
conclusions together and decide which of them talented and motivated.
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from 5. Statement : Book your flat before 15th June
the information given in the statement. Give answer and avail of interest-free loan from the builders.
(a) If only conclusion I follows, — An advertisement.
(b) If only conclusion II follows, Conclusions :
(c) If either I or II follows, I. No flat will be booked afterwards.
(d) If neither I nor II follows, and II. After 15th June, no loan will be provided.
(e) If both I and II follow. Directions (06-09) : In each question below is
1. Statement : An advertisement—Interest rate given a statement followed by two conclusions
will be fixed on the basis of our bank’s rate numbered I and II. You have to assume everything
prevailing on the date of deposit and reaffixed in the statement to be true, then consider the two
every quarter there after. conclusions together and decide which of them
Conclusions : logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from
I. the information given in the statement.
II. The bank’s interest rates are subject to Give answer (a): If only conclusion I follows
change on a day-to-day basis depending Give answer (b): If only conclusion II follows
on market position. Given answer (c): If either I or II follows
2. Statement : In order to enforce discipline on Give answer (d): If neither I nor II follows and
transport operators, the state government has Give answer (e): If both I and II follow
decided to impose a fine of Rs 5,000 for the 6. Statement: The eligibility for admission to the
first excess tone loaded in transport vehicle course is minimum second class master’s
and Rs 1,000 for each subsequent tone. degree. However, the candidates who have
Conclusions : appeared for the final year examination of
I. People will follow some discipline when master’s degree can also apply.
severe fine is imposed. Conclusions :
II. The state government has failed to I. All candidates who have yet to get their
understand the problem of transport master’s degree will be there in the list of
operators. selected candidates.
3. Statement: Research has proved that people II. All candidates having obtained second
eating high fat diets coupled with decreased class master’s degree will be there in the
level of exercises are prone to heart diseases. list of selected candidates.
Conclusions : 7. Statement : The government-run company had
I. People should reduce their high-fat diet as asked its employees to declare their income
a preventive method. and assets but it has been strongly resisted by
II. People must have sufficient level of employees union and no employee is going to
exercise to reduce their chances of having declare his income.
heart disease. Conclusions :
4. Statement : Only those candidates with I. The employees of this company do not
exceptional talent and strong motivation should seem to have any additional undisclosed
apply. — An advertisement. income besides their salary.

179
 STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION
II. The employees’ union wants all senior II. The present Commissioner has worked in
officers to declare their income first. city ‘X’ and ‘ Y’ and has good experience
8. Statement : The ‘Official Secrets Act’ (OSA) of beautifying cities.
enacted by the XYZ government during the war 12. Statement : Women’s organizations in India
seems to be the source of much corruption in have welcomed the amendment of the Industrial
the country ‘P’. Employment Rules 1946 to curb sexual
Conclusions : harassment at the workplace.
I. The Official Secrets Act has to be Conclusion :
abolished immediately to stop corruption I. Sexual har assment of women at
in country ‘P’. workplace is more prevalent in India as
II. The XYZ government wanted to encourage compared to other developed countries.
corruption in the government offices. II. Many organizations in India will stop
9. Statement : After collision of two vessels in recruiting women to avoid such problems.
the sea all 1, the crewmen and passengers are 13. Statements: It has been decided by the
declared as missing. - A news report Government to withdraw 33% of the subsidy
Conclusions : on cooking gas from the beginning of next
I. No one from the two vessels has survived month—A spokesman of the Government.
after the collision. Conclusion :
II. A few persons from the two vessels may I. People now no more desire or need such
have survived and are missing. subsidy from government as they can
Directions (10-20) : In each question below is af­ford increased price of the cooking gas.
given a statement followed by two conclusions II. The price of the cooking gas will increase
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything at least by 33% from the next month.
in the statement to be true, then consider the two 14. Statement : “The Government will review the
conclusions together and decide which of them present policy of the diesel price in view of
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from further spurt in the international oil prices”.—A
the information given in the statement. Give answer spokesman of the Government. !
(1) if only conclusion I follows, Give answer (2) if Conclusion :
only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either I I. The Government will increase the price of
or II follows, Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows, the diesel after the imminent spurt in the
and Give answer (5) if both I and II follow. international oil prices.
10. Statement : The cabinet of State ‘X 1 took II. The Government will not increase the price
certain steps to tackle the milk glut in the state of the diesel even after the imminent spurt
as the cooperatives and Government dairies in the international oil prices.
failed to use the available milk. — A news report 15. Statement : In the Art Gallery, paintings of a
Conclusions : artist are displayed for the public. The prices of
I. The milk production of State is more than the paintings are too high for a common man.
its need. Conclusions :
II. The Government and co-operative dairies I. Common man purchases paintings from
in State ‘X’ are not equipped in terms of other places.
resources and technology to handle such II. Costly paintings are generally displayed
excess milk. at the art gallery.
11. 16. Statement : Doctors have comprehensive
knowledge of human structure.
Conclusions :
I. Anatomy is one of their subjects in
Conclusion : curriculum.
I. The people of city ‘Z’ are not aware about II. Other subjects also deal with human
the present state of ugliness of their city. structure.

180
 STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION
17. Statement : State Government has agreed in (A) Statement II : The production of Kharif
principle to sanction more numbers of posts of crops this season has surpassed the
primary school teachers in rural and urban production level of all the earlier year.
areas to reduce the teacher-student ratio. (C) Statement II : The production of Kharif
Conclusions : crops has declined considerably from that
I. Student-teacher ratio in urban areas is of the previous year.
higher than that of rural areas. (C) Statement II : The production of Kharif
II. Student-teacher ratio in rural areas is crops this year has remained unchanged
higher than that of urban areas. in comparison with those of the previous
18. Statement : These apples are too expensive year.
to be bad. (a) Only (A)
Conclusions : (b) Only (B)
I. When apples are in short supply, the prices (c) Only (C)
go up. (d) Any one of the above statements will fit
II. The higher the selling price, the superior (e) No additional statement is required to draw
is the quality of the commodity. the conclusion
19. Statement : Of all the television sets 22. Statement I : A very large number of students
manufactured in India, the ‘Solar’ brand has the of this college have secured more than 99
largest sale. percent aggregate marks in the final degree
Conclusions : examination conducted recently.
I. Volume of sales of all the brands of Blank space : .................................................
television sets manufactured in India is .........................................................................
known. Conclusion: The question papers set by the
II. The production of no other television set university this year for all the colleges under
in India is as large as that of’ Solar’. its jurisdiction were comparatively much easier
20. Statement : Cases of bride-burning for dowry than the earlier years.
are not uncommon. (A) Statement II : Students from other
Conclusions : colleges under the university also have
I. In spite of anti-dowry law, the ill practice secured unusually higher percentage of
still continues. marks.
II. The punishment inflicted on the party (B) Statement II : The university does not
concerned is not hard enough. have required number of teachers to
Directions for (21-24) : In each of the evaluate the answer sheets.
questions below one statement in followed by blank (C) Statement I I: Those students who
spaces which are followed by a conclusion which appeared in the previous years’
can be drawn from either the statements given in examination secured comparatively less
the question or from the statement given in the marks.
question and an additional statement which may fit (a) Only (A)
in the blank space. You have to study the question (b) Only (B)
and the alternatives which provide a statement and (c) Only (C)
decide which of the answers best fit between the (d) Any one of the above statements will fit
given statement and conclusion. (e) No additional statement is required to draw
21. Statement I : The Government has decided to the conclusion
affect a significant increase in the procurement 23. Statement I: The agitating workers had taken
price of Kharif crops with immediate effect. out a peaceful procession in front of the factory
Blank space : ................................................. gate to register their protest.
......................................................................... Blank space : .................................................
Conclusion : The farmers’ income will not get .........................................................................
adversely affected this Kharif season.

181
 STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION
Conclusion : The Government has suspended be derived without supposing anything else, i.e.
the police officer in charge of the picket and without adding anything extra to the statement (s) is
initiated an inquiry into this incidence of police your answer.
atrocity. 25. Statement: The Education Secretary said that
(A) Statement II : The workers had applied it was extremely necessary that the
for a mass casual leave on the day of the professional researchers along with practical
incidence. school teachers conduct the practical
(B) Statement II : The agitating workers did research.
not allow the policemen to enter the factory Conclusions :
premises. (a) Practicing teachers know the technique of
(C) Statement II : The police resorted to research.
indiscriminate lathi-charge on the agitating (b) Professional researchers are quite aware
workers of the local factory. of the problems related to the school
(a) Only (A) education.
(b) Only (B) (c) Educational Secretary was speaking to the
(c) Only (C) school students.
(d) Any one of the above statements will fit. (d) There is a communication gap between
(e) No additional statement is required to draw researchers and the practicing school
the conclusion. teachers.
24. Statement I : The foreign direct investment in (e) School education is quite a specialized
India has remained very low particularly in the field and so long as teacher is not trained,
infrastructure sector comparative to that in the standard of education can’t be
China. qualitatively better.
Blank space : ................................................. 26. Statement: Vehicular source contributes 60%
......................................................................... to the total pollution level of Delhi, as informed
Conclusion : The Government has now setup in the Rajya-Sabha today.
a board of experts which has been given full Conclusions :
authority to approve proposals of foreign direct (a) The court has ordered that the main source
investment in the infrastructure sector within of pollution should be identified.
reasonable time frame. (b)
(A) Statement II : The delay in approvals by (c) In the other cities also, vehicular source
the Government for the foreign direct contributes around the same percentage
investment proposals is inordinate level of pollution.
because of complex approval system. (d) This matter was raised first in the Lok-
(B) Statement II : The people engaged so far Sabha.
in the approval system did not have the (e) Not many towns in India face the problem
expertise to take quick decisions. of pollution.
(C) Statement II : The processing time in 27. Statements: Every man should have his iden-
China to approve the foreign direct tity card with him. That card should mention his
investment proposal is comparatively very blood group, complete address and telephone
low. number for contact, in case, some serious ac-
(a) Only (A) (b) Only (B) cident take place.
(c) Only (C)
(d) Any one of the above statements will fit Conclusions:
(e) No additional statement is required to draw a) Blood cannot be transfused until its group it
the conclusion mentioned in the card.
Directions (25-26) : In each question given
b) The police needs this information specially when
below, one or more statement is/are followed by
the accident is fatal.
inferential conclusions. The conclusion, which can

182
 STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION
c) In case of emergency, he may forget his ad- e) The Indian software market is well equipped to
dress and may need the card to contact th send programmers to other countries.
ehouse.
30. Statements : I. None but the rich can af-
d) None is supposed to forget his phone number ford air travel.
under any circumstances.
II. Some of those who travel by air become sick.
e) When the seriosly injured person is helpless to
III. Some of those who become sick require
tell his blood group, this information would suf-
treatment.
fice to indicate the required blood group.
Conclusions:
28. Statements: All the books, written by
Prabhakar, are textbooks. Some of his books a) all the rich persons trael by air
published by ABC Publishing Company. b) Those who travel by air become sick
Conclusions: c) all the rich persons become sick.
a) ABC Publishing company publishesh textbooks d) All those who travel by air are rich.
only.
e) None of these
b) Some textbooks written by prabhakar are pub-
lished by publishers other than ABC Publishing 31. Statements: I. Processed meat is a per-
Company. ishable food.

c) ABC Publishing Company publishes some criti- II. All perishable foods ar epacked in sealed
cal essays written by Prabhakar. tins.

d) All the books published by ABC Publishing com- III. Sealed tins sometimes to do not contain
pany have been written by Prabhakar. processed meat.

e) None of these Conclusions:

29. Statemetns: The data given by the U.S. a) Non-perishable foods are never packed in
Labour Ministry indicate that till the year 2016, sealed tins.
there will be a shortage of 1,00,000 program- b) processed meat is always packed in sealed
mers. A spokesman from the industry said. "We tins.
should understand this throughly america
needs indian programmers. This is not only the c) Processed meat is sometimes not packed in
question of investement but also of the talent sealed tins
with which the Indian programmers are d) None of these
equipped".
32. Statements: All watches sold in that shop
Conclusions: are of high standard; some of the HMT watches
a) In other sectors also, there will be shortage of are sold in that shop.
the talented labour till the year 2016. Conclusions:
b) Indian programmers are among the most tal- I. all watches of high standard were manufactured
ented in the world. by HMT.
c) Indian programmes are available on compara- II. some of the HMT watches are of high standard.
tively less salary in comparison to the program-
III. None of the HMT watches is of high standard.
mers from other countries.
IV. Some of the HMT watches of high standard are
d) In spite of entering with huge capital in the soft-
sold in that shop.
ware Training, U.S. could not be able to meet
its own needs fully. The conclusion(s) correctly draown is/are

183
 STATEMENT AND CONCLUSION
a) III and IV b) I and III b) Ghosts live on peepal trees.
c) I and IV d) II and IV c) Hitesh perhaps believed in the stories of ghosts.
e) None of these d) Mohit must be afraid of ghosts.
33. Statements: Mosquitoes and cockroaches die e) None of these
by Baygon whether it is in the form of power or
36. Statements: Television convinces viewers that
liquid. However, it was found that more of the
the likelihood of their becoming the victim of a
cockroaches died instantly by eating Baygon
violent crime is extremely high; at the same time
power while more mosquitoes died after Baygon
by its very nature, TV persuades viewers to
liquid was sprayed.
passively accept whatever happens to them.
Conclusions: I. Mosquitoes do not die by
Conclusions:
Baygon Powder.
a) TV viewing promotes criminal behaviour
II. Baygon liquid has little effect on cockroaches.
b) TV viewers are most likely to be victimized than
III. Baygon powder has more concentration of
others.
killing insects.
c) People should not watch TV.
The conclusions correctly drawn is/are
d) TV promotes a feeling of helpless vulnerability
a) I and II b) I and III
in viewers.
c) II and IV d) III and IV
e) None of these
e) None of these
37. Statements: During the 'Puja days', people visit
34. Statements : Foreigners in Jordan without those houses where 'Puja' is performed. They
a valid work permit will be deported. A few In- make it a point to go even if they are not invited.
dian employees in the building industry in Jor- Manmohan visited the house of Keshav, his
dan do not possess valid work permits. office colleague, during 'puja days'.
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. All indians engaged in building Industry in Jor- a) Keshav had invited Manmohan for some other
dan will be deported to India. functions
II. A few Indians in building industry in Jordan will b) Manmohan, being a religious man, went to
be deported. keshav's house uninvited in keshav's house,
'puja' was performed.
III. A bulk of Indians in Jordan will be deported to
India. c) In Keshav's house, 'Puja' was performed.
IV. Indian employees in building industry without d) Manmohan was invited by Keshav.
work permit will be deported from Jordan.
e) None of these
The conslusion(s) correctly drawn is/are
38. Statements: I. All members of Mohan's family
a) I and II b) I and III are honest.
c) II and IV d) III and IV II. Some members of Mohan's family are not
employed.
e) None of these
III. Some emploiyed persons are not honest.
35. Statements: Hitesh told Mohit a ghost lived by
the peepal tree on the outskirts of the village. IV. Some honest persons are not employed
Conclusions: Conclusions:
a) Peepal trees grow on the outskirts of th evillage. a) All members of Mohan's family are employed.

184
 PASSAGE INFERENCE

17
CHAPTER
Passage Inference
Directions (01 - 5) : Below is given a passage (a) Probably true (b) Probably false
followed by several possible inferences which can
(c) Definitely false (d) Data inadequate
be drawn from the facts stated In the passage. You
have to examine each inference separately in the (e) Definitely true
context of the passage and decide upon its degree
4. The production of castor oil has become a
of truth or falsity.
profitable business proposition.
Mark answer “Definitely True” if you think the
(a) Probably false (b) Data inadequate
inference property follows from the statement of facts
given; “Probably True” If you think the inference may (c) Definitely false (d) Probably true
be true in the light of the given facts but not definitely
(e) Definitely true
true; “Data inadequate” if you think from the facts it
cannot be said whether the inference Is likely to be 5. Manufacturing castor oil guarantees more
true or false; “Probably False” if you think the surplus than selling castor seeds.
inference is probably false in the light of the facts
(a) Probably false (b) Probably true
given though not definitely false; “Definitely False” if
you think the inference cannot possibly be drawn (c) Definitely true (d) Data inadequate
from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
(e) Definitely false
The explosive growth in demand for castor oil
Directions (06-10) : Below is given a passage
abroad is bringing about a silent change in the castor
fol­lowed by several possible inferences which can
seed economy of Gujarat. The State is well on its
be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You
way to emerge as a strong manufacturing centre
have to examine each inference separately in the
for castor oil relegating to background its current
context of the passage and decide upon its degree
status as a big trading centre. The business
of truth or falsity.
prospects for export of castor oil which is converted
into value-added derivatives are so good that a Mark answer (a) : if the inference is ‘definitely true’,
number of castor- seed crushing units have already ie it properly follows from the
come up and others are on the anvil. statement of facts given.
1. Gujarat used to supply castor seeds to the Mark answer (b) : if the inference is ‘probably true’
manufacturing units in the past. though not ‘definitely true’ in the
(a) Definitely true (b) Probably true light of the facts given.

(c) Definitely false (d) Probably false Mark answer (c) : if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie
from the facts given you cannot
(e) Data inadequate say whether the inference is
2. Gujarat is the only State in India which produces likely to be true or false.
castor seed. Mark answer (d) : if the inference is ‘probably false’,
(a) Definitely false (b) Data Inadequate though not ‘definitely false’ in the
light of the facts given.
(c) Probably false (d) Definitely true
Mark answer (e) : if the inference is ‘definitely false’,
(e) Probably true
ie it cannot possibly be drawn
3. India can produce enough castor oil to export from the facts given or it
after meeting the domestic demand. contradicts the given facts.

186
 PASSAGE INFERENCE
Growth through acquisitions and alliances has though not ‘definitely true’ in the
become a critical part of creating value for pharma light of the facts given.
and biotech manu­facturers and their shareholders.
Mark answer (c) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie
However, companies and their investors may risk
from the facts given you cannot
value destruction if they acquire rights to a drug that
say whether the inference is likely
suddenly poses unanticipated safety risks for
to be true or false.
patients.
Mark answer (d) if the inference is ‘probably false’,
Similarly, safety-related compliance violations
though not ‘definitely false’ in the
com­ mitted by an acquired company could
light of the facts given.
significantly impair the ultimate value of the
transaction and the reputation of the acquirer. The Mark answer (e) if the inference is ‘definitely false’,
pace of deal-making between pharma and biotech ie it cannot possibly be drawn
companies continued to accelerate in 2006, from the facts given or it
increas­ing 17% to about $ 18 billion. Pharma contradicts the given facts.
companies were typi­cally the buyers, and the
In the commodities business size does matter.
premiums they paid increased sub­stantially as
This is common wisdom. The Indian sugar industry,
competition intensified to secure access to novel
the second largest in the world after Brazil, has
drugs and biologics. The stakes increase everyday
traditionally been fragm ented, which led to
as com­petition pushes up prices and drives deal-
widespread sickness and large number of mills going
making to earlier development stages with greater
bankrupt, a situation exacerbated by a slew of
uncertainty and less time to complete thorough due
government controls - which are, meaningfully,
diligence.
getting diluted since August 1998. It’s now been more
6. Pharmaceutical companies at times may incur than seven-and-a-half years since the industry was
loss after acquisition of biotech companies delicensed. No official permission is required either
7. Acquisitions of biotech companies were to build a new factory or for Brownfield expansion
preferred among pharmaceutical companies in plan, except that there must not be any violation of
the recent past. command area norms. Even then, there aren’t many
who have the capacity to play the volumes game at
8. Stiff competitions among the prospective buyers the cyclic sugar business.
have resulted into erosion of value of the biotech
companies. 11. India has not yet been able to consolidate its
firm stand in the international sugar market.
9. Biotech companies are not capable of acquiring
pharmaceutical companies 12. At present the Indian sugar industry has been
made considerably free from Government
10. Safety-related issues are prime concerns for controls.
the pharmaceutical companies while negotiating
acquisition of biotech companies. 13. Prior to 1998, Indian sugar industry was
considerably lower in the world ranking of large
Directions (11-15) : Below is given a passage nations.
followed by several possible inferences which can
be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You 14. Most of the bankrupt sugar mills in India are
have to examine each inference separately in the funded by the Govt. to revive their units.
context of the passage and decide upon its degree 15. The Indian sugar industry has comparatively
of truth or falsity. smaller units in comparison to other major sugar
Mark answer (a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, producing nations.
ie it properly follows from the
Directions (16-20) : Below is given a passage
statement of facts given.
followed by several possible inferences which can
Mark answer (b) if the inference is ‘probably true’ be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You

187
 PASSAGE INFERENCE
have to examine each inference separately in the Directions (21-25) : Below is given a passage
context of the passage and decide upon its degree followed by several possible inferences which can
of truth or falsity. be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You
have to examine each inference separately in the
Mark answer (a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’,
context of the passage and decide upon its degree
ie it properly follows from the
of truth or falsity.
statement of facts given.
Mark answer (a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’,
Mark answer (b) if the inference is ‘probably true’
ie it properly follows from the
though not ‘definitely true’ in the
statement of facts given.
light of the facts given.
Mark answer (b) if the inference is ‘probably true’
Mark answer (c) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie from
though not ‘definitely true’ in the
the facts given you cannot say
light of the facts given.
whether the inference is likely to
be true or false. Mark answer (c) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie
from the facts given you cannot
Mark answer (d) if the inference is ‘probably false’,
say whether the inference is likely
though not ‘definitely false’ in the
to be true or false.
light of the facts given.
Mark answer (d) if the inference is ‘probably false’,
Mark answer (e) if the inference is ‘definitely false’,
though not ‘definitely false’ in the
ie it cannot possibly be drawn
light of the facts given.
from the facts given or it
contradicts the given facts. Mark answer (e) if the inference is ‘definitely false’,
ie it cannot possibly be drawn
The average product of the education system
from the facts given or it
in country X is of poor quality that it is almost
contradicts the given facts.
unemployable and until for any contribution to nation
– building. What the country has today is thousand A sum of rupees 142 billion being spent by the
of frustrates youth joining the ranks of the educates people of state ‘A’ on health care. It has been
unemployed every year, clearly the poor education observe that the poor are spending the maximum
standard of the society is adding to the social tension proportion of their earning on health care. The poor
and economic turmoil. Illiteracy and lack of education spend 8% of their income on health care while the
is also playing havoc with their rate of population middle income groups spend about 4% and the rich
growth health and nutrition. Civic hygiene and spend only 2-3%. The expenditure on each duration
environment protection expert warn that it is a illness is about Rs. 108 to a household. About 70%
dangerous long – term disease for any country to children under the age of 4 were found to have stunts
live with. growth as a result of malnutrition.
16. If the quality of education of ‘X’ is improves 21. The budget of govt. of state ‘A’ on medical and
youth are likely to get some employment. health care appears to be inadequate.
17. Youth of country ‘X’ show little desire to take 22. The rich families are spending maximum portion
up a job or earn their livelihood. of their money on health care.
18. Economic problem is the main and only reason 23. Malnutrition among adults seems to be on
for increased social tension of country ‘X’. higher side as compared to children.
19. The rate of population growth of the country
24. As income increase the families health often
appears to be inversely proportional to level of
shows improvement.
literacy and quality of education
25. The rich people in state ‘A’ seem to enjoy better
20. The only way to get rid of world’s problems of
health than poor people.
health of hygiene is to enhance it economy.

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 PASSAGE INFERENCE
Directions (26-30) : Below is given a passage Directions (31 - 35): Given below is a passage
followed by several possible inferences which can followed by several inferences. Examine the
be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You inferences separately in the context of the
have to examine each inference separately in the passagte, and determine whether they are true or
context of the passage and decide upon its degree false.
of truth or falsity. Mark
Mark answer (a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, a) If the inference is definitely true, i.e. it directily
ie it properly follows from the follows from the statement of facts given.
statement of facts given.
b) If the inference is probably true, though not
Mark answer (b) if the inference is ‘probably true’ diretily true, in the light of the statement of facts
though not ‘definitely true’ in the given.
light of the facts given.
c) If the inference is uncertain, i.e. data is insuffi-
Mark answer (c) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie cient to decide whether the inference is true or
from the facts given you cannot false.
say whether the inference is likely
to be true or false. d) If the inference is probably false, though not
definitely false, in the light o fthe statement of
Mark answer (d) if the inference is ‘probably false’, facts given.
though not ‘definitely false’ in the
light of the facts given. e) If the inference is definitely false, i.e. it canno
possibly be inferred from statement of facts
Mark answer (e) if the inference is ‘definitely false’, given.
ie it cannot possibly be drawn
from the facts given or it Plastic pollution affects every waterway, sea and
contradicts the given facts. ocean in the world. When we damage our water
system, we're putting our own well-being at risk. The
During the decade of 70’s the growth rate of
pollution also has huge costs for taxpayers and local
population in India was 2.22 percent. From mid 80’s
through 90’s there is a change in the growth rate governemnts that must clean this trash off of beaches
and for 1996-2001. It is expected at 1.62%. This is and streets to protect public health, prevent flooding
expected to reach 1.5% during 2006-2011. Similarly from trash-blocked storm drains, adn avoid lost
the expectation of life, which at present is about 65 tourism revenue from filthy beaches. NRDC analyzed
for female and 62 for male population will grow to 68 a survey of 95 California communities and found their
for female and 66 for male. In absolute terms, the total reported annual costs for preventing litter from
population of India will cross a billion mark by the becoming pollution is $428 million per year.
turn of the century and will increase to 1179 million
by year 2011. 31. Household waste water is main cause of plastic
pollution.
26. The economic activities in India will grow and
the income will rise in future decades. 32. New technologies and equipment of cleaning
pollution are so expensive.
27. The rate of growth of the population in India has
already become negative. 33. Tourist tourism income affected by filthy
beaches, storm drains etc.
28. From 2001 to next 10 years the population will
continue to grow at the rate 1.79% per year. 34. NRDC easily and used cheap treatments to
29. The proportion of older people in the population clean plastic pollution.
of India will increase in the coming year. 35. Plastic pollution involves the accumulation of
30. The growth rate of female population in India is plastic products in the environment that
expected to continue to decline till 2011. adversely affects wildlife, habitat or humans.

189
 PASSAGE INFERENCE
Direction (36 - 40) : Which one statement infer from c) Industry and policy makers are never
given passage: pressnrised govt. bodies, and financial
institution.
36. As next step towards attaining air quality
standards, since the NCR is a contiguous area d) Only a) and b) e) None of these
with similarities in emitting sources, it is
38. Important changes have been made to both
pr oposed that the control options are
direct and indirect taxes. The purpose of the
implemented for the entire NCR. With the
tax announcement has been to enhance the
implementation of control options in Delhi as well
ease of doing business and make the industry
as NCR, the overall air quality in Delhi will
more competitive. In an encouraging message
improve significantly and expected mean PM10
to investors in creating a more robust taxation
levels will be 120 ug/cu.m and PM2.5 will be 72
regime, the General Anti Avoidance Rule (GAAR)
ug/cu.m. In addition to the above control options,
has been postponed by two years. It has also
some local efforts will be required to ensure that
been decided that when implemented, GAAR
city of Delhi and NCR attain the air quality
would apply prospectively to investments made
standards all through the year and possibly for
on or after April 2017.
many years to come," states the report.
a) For a effective & efficient business and improve
a) PM 10 and PM 2.5 methods are measure the
economy in India taxation plays a vital role.
amount and stage of air pollution.
b) GAAR practically control anty dumping duties
b) NCR can free from high air pollution by only
and other relevant policies.
some local efforts.
c) Robust taxation regime will maintain a clear and
c) Entire NCR are not affected from the lowest air
pure competition in between companies.
quality.
d) All are inference follow.
d) By some local area method, Green technologies
and renewable energy we can remove air e) None of these
pollution from Delhi & NCR.
39. India's economic history since it attained
e) None of these independence can be divided into two distinct
phases the 45-year period to 1991 when it was
37. The RBI, which has been under immense from largely a closed economy, and the period after
both the industry and policymakers to ease 1991 when economic reforms led to revitalization
monetary policy, finally cut rates by 25 basis and rapid growth. India faced a host of daunting
points in January. A consistent fall in inflation, challages when it became an in independent
the government's effort to stick to its fiscal sovereign nation in 1947, ranging from religious
targets, and the continning fall in global comodity riots and war to rampant poverty, low literacy
price prompted the RBI to cut rates to boost and a shattered economy.
economic performance. It was also announced
that any further easing would be contingent on a) After independence the indian economy boost
the government's fiscal consolidation efforts and with a sovereign rate.
inflation data. b) In 1989, indian economy does not interact with
a) By cut the rates basis points RBI can reach on the economy of any other country.
required GDP estimation rates. c) All excepted)
b) RBI can change in new policies, rates and d) Only By Revitalization and new industries an
efforts of India. economy growth possible

190
 PASSAGE INFERENCE
e) Low literacy, shattered economy and religions c) Transport sector adn new Industries of grid are
riots affects major steamrolled on Indian havign more profit in upcoming years.
economy. d) Both a) and c)
40. Food is an important and fundamental economic e) None of these
product, but only a handful of ............. excel at
42. Based on this revised GDP, the IMF forecasts
food production. Most agricultural commodities
growth will strengthen to 7.2 percent in 2014/
require a lot of land, which only the largest
15 and rise to 7.5 percent in 2015/16, driven by
countries have in abundance. In fact, the world's
stronger investment following improvements to
four dominant food-producing countries all rank
the business climate. "The revised growth
in the top five for total geographic size. The
figures support our view that economic
United States has long been a countries all rank
recovery in India is under way, albeit pointing to
in the top five for total geographic size. The
a somewhat faster pace than we, and others,
United States has long been a superpower in
previously believed," Cashin says. "These GDP
food markets - and it is still the world's largest
revisions portray a more resilient performance
food exporter-but it falls to third place when
of the services and manufacturing sectors of
measuring total output. China and India produce
the economy."
more food than the U.S., but they end up
consuming much more of their own products. a) In year 2016 Myanmar get 7.2% GDP.
a) Only U.S. can produce more alacrity food in all b) 2017 India may be lend with 7.8% of GDP.
over world. c) Manufacture sector industries having more
b) United states produce less food in compose speed growth and new jobs for upcoming years.
china. d) Only B.
c) In Flourishing prodcution of food a big e) None of these
geographic size matter at nation and
43. Oil prices have dropped by over 60 percent
international level.
since June 2014. A commonly held view in the
d) Only a) and b) oil industry is that "the best cure for low oil prices
e) None of these is low oil prices." The reasoning behind this
Directions (41 - 50): Which one statement infer from adage is that low oil prices discourage
given passage: investment in new production capacity,
eventually shifting the oil supply cirve backward
41. The Indian economy is the bright spot in the
and bringing prices back up as existing oil fields
global landscape, becoming one of the fastest-
- which can be tapped at relatively low marginal
growing big emerging market economies in the
cost - are depleted.
world. "Growth numbers are now higher and the
current account deficit is comfortable, in part due a) The crashing crude oil prices is making it harder
to the fall in gold imports and lower oil prices, for India to cut its dependence on imports.
"said Paul Cashin, IMF Mission Chief for India. b) Oil price decrement are due to closing down of
"New investment project announcements have oil companies of largest producer countries.
started to pick up, particularly in the power and
c) New production always generate average oil
transprot sectors."
prices in market.
a) Foreign companies have better chance to invest
d) High price of oil give economy boost to all over
in Indian market due to fastest growing market.
world.
b) Accordign to the IMF, India have low comfortable
e) None of these
account deficit and low growth rate.

191
 PASSAGE INFERENCE
44. Greek sciety is not commensurate with an early European banking system, impeding economic
improvement of productivity and sustained high growth. This issue remains a key challenge for
growth. Thus, assuming that Greece can policy makers. Current inefficiencies-long
simply grow out of its debt problem without debt foreclosure times and insolvency procedures-
relief-by rapidly transitioning from the lowest to are a reason for the gap between the value of
the highest productivity growth within the euro loans on bank balance sheets and the price
zone - is not credible. Similarly, the very limited investors are willing to pay. A reliable legal
success in combating Greece's notorious tax environment and an efficient judicial system
evasion-to make the will-off pay their fair share- maximize the value of nonperforming loans
means that pension reforms cannot be avoided (NPLs), reduce the value gap and give banks
by simply assuming higher tax collections in greater incentive to get NPLs off the books.
the future. a) Current inefficiencies can fill up the gap
a) The international society now doesn't have between values of bank and price investors.
believe to increment in GDP of Greek. b) Minimizing the NPAs judicial system can
b) Euro zone can help out to come in low to high divergent in the economy.
economy to the Greek c) Saudi Arabia, the most influential country all
c) Higher tax collection not only a single factor to over NPAs.
reform any country growth d) The no. of stock is slow down adn
d) All follows uncomfortable to the European growth
e) None of these e) None of these
45. Shanghai will welcome finance ministers and 47. SINGAPORE'S services sector posted flat
central governors for the first ministerial meeting turnover growth in the fourth quarter of 2015,
under China's Group of Twenty presidency this registering a measly 0.2 per cent increase in
weekend. The meeting comes at a critical time business receipts year on year. Against the
for the global economy. A note by IMF staff previous quarter, however, business receipts
prepared as background for the G20 meeting rose 3.2 per cent - with all segments except
Global Prospects and Policy Challenges, points education recording higher turnover.
to a rapid recovery, and warns that weaker global The result was mixed in year-on-years, through.
growth might well be in the cards. This calls for Segments enjoyed turnover growth were health
a strong policy response, both national and & social services (6.6 per cent), financial &
multilateral, including from the G20. insurance (3.5 per cent), information &
a) By this G20 Summit the minister and governors communications (2.5 per cent), and education
take optimum decision for their economy growth. (1.5 per cent).

b) Weak economics are having best place in the a) Singapore economy have to boost their serivce
meeting. sector to boost their economy.
b) Singapore's govt. doesn't follow new plan to
c) Global economy will never prepared for this
meeting. optimese the financial adn information sector.

d) Both a) adn c) c) Social services can also gain a negative rate

by the decision of Singapore government.
e) None of these
d) None of these
46. A stock in excess of Euro 900 billion of 48. The Singapore Exchange (SGX) is consulting
nonperforming loans continues to clutter the the public on plans to impose a 10 per cent

192
 LOGIC MIXED QUESTION

18
CHAPTER
Logic Mixed Question
Directions (01-05) : In each of the questions reviewing the petrol and diesel prices in
below is given a statement followed by a question. order to decide future market prices.
Read the statement carefully and answer the 3. Statement : The prices of vegetables and other
question that follows. food articles have decreased in the recent
1. Statement : The state government granted months raising hope among policy planners that
special status to the seminar on the importance the RBI’s tight grip on supply of liquid money in
of protecting the environment around us, the market for controlling inflation may be eased.
organized by the local academic body to create Which of the following may be a possible
awareness among the citizens. action for the above situation?
Which of the following may be a possible (a) The RBI may not reduce its key interest
reason for the State Govt.’s decision? rates in near future.
(a) The central government has accorded (b) The government may step in and make
highest priority to issues related to certain concessions to the common people
protection of environment over all other on various issues.
issues. (c) The RBI may consider lowering certain
(b) In the past, the State Govt. had granted rates to bring in more liquidity in the market.
special status to such seminars. (d) The RBI may wait for at least another year
(c) The state govt. has failed to implement before taking any step.
measures for protecting the environment. (e) The RBI may collect more data from the
(d) The local academic body made a fervent market and wait for another four months to
appeal for the special status. ensure they take the correct step.
(e) None of these 4. Statement : A severe cyclonic storm hit the
2. Statement: Most car manufacturers have eastern coastline last month, resulting in huge
marginally reduced the price of their products loss of life and property on the entire east coast,
despite higher input cost and increased Govt. and the governm ent had to disburse a
duties and have promised to keep the prices at considerable amount for relief activities through
the present level for at least the next couple of the district administration machineries.
months. Which of the following may possibly be a follow-
Which of the following can be the best possible up measure to be taken up by the government?
(a) The government may set up a task force
reason for the above step by the car
to review the post-relief scenario in all
manufacturers?
districts and also to confirm proper end
(a) Car manufacturers have not been able to
user receipt of the relief supplies.
meet their sales target for the current year
(b) The government may set up a committee
so far.
for proper disbursement of relief supplies
(b) The government is planning to review taxes
in future.
on the raw materials for manufacturing cars.
(c) The government may empower the District
(c) The car sales market is going through a
Magistrate to make all future disbursements
jubilant phase as the volume of sales has
of relief.
picked up considerably in the recent past
(d) The government may send relief supplies
and profit per car has also grown up.
to the affected people in future only after
(d) Car buyers are still hesitant making
proper assessment of the damage caused
purchases and may postpone for another
by such calamities.
few months.
(e) The government may not need to activate
(e) Oil marketing companies are contemplating
any follow up measure.
194
 LOGIC MIXED QUESTION
5. Statement : It has been reported in a recent Which of the following statements would
study that intake of moderate quantity of milk strengthen the argument given in the above
chocolate reduces the risk of suffering from statement?
Central Nervous System related illness. (a) A recent study shows no link of past
Which of the following would weaken the performance with the performance in
findings of the study reported in the above recruitment exams.
statement? (b) The graduate/ post graduate exams are
(a) People generally prefer to eat chocolate considered to be severely deficient in
when they are young. training in job related environment.
(b) Majority of those not diagnosed with (c) Organizations which had undertaken
diseases related to central nervous system recruitment on the basis of graduate/ post
have stayed away from eating chocolates graduate exams report a significant drop
in their lives. in the quality of the recruited employees.
(c) Chocolates contain certain elements which (d) Such policies would add to unemployment
strengthen the functions of CNS. among students having below average
(d) Majority of those suffering from CNS performance in graduation or post
related diseases are middle-aged. graduation.
(e) Many of those who suffer from diabetes (e) Such policies could save time, money and
also suffer from other major ailments. resources of the organization which are
Direction (06-08) : Read the following wasted in the conduct of recruitment
statements carefully and answer the questions which exams.
follow. 8. According to the recent government directive,
6. The ministry of sports has been advised by a all bank branches in rural areas should be
committee to take the highest award in the field computerized.
of sports back from two players who were Which of the following statements would weaken
allegedly involved in match fixing. Which of the the government’s argument?
following statements would weaken the (a) Computerization of bank branches in urban
argument put forward by the committee to the areas has helped in making their
sports ministry? performance more efficient and fast.
(a) A good conduct in the past and a lack of (b) Lack of skilled and qualified manpower has
evidence against the players make the been suitably substituted by computers in
case against them very weak. banks.
(b) The ministry of sport has never declined (c) Non-computerized bank branches in the
the r ecomm endation m ade by the rural areas have been proved to be as
committee earlier. efficient as their com puterized
(c) Taking the award back from the players counterparts.
would set a good example to other players (d) The government has introduced a special
for avoiding such actions in the future. test for computer knowledge in all
(d) recruitment exams for banks.
(e) Unemployment in rural areas could be
controlled by training more and more
(e) The committee is constituted of some of professionals in computers.
the most respected and esteemed Direction (09- 10) : Read the following
members from the fields of sports and information carefully and answer the given questions.
politics. The convenience of online shopping is what I
7. Many organizations have been resorting to like best about it. Where else can you shop even at
recruitment based upon the performance t midnight wearing your night suit? You do not have
graduate/ post graduate level exams rather than to wait in a line or wait till the shop assistant is ready
conducting exams for the same purpose. to help you with your purchases. It is much better

195
 LOGIC MIXED QUESTION
experience as compared to going to a retail store – (e) The number of people migrating from rural
A consumer’s view. to urban areas in search of jobs may
9. Which of the following can be a strong reduce.
argument in favor of retail store owners? 12. Read the following information carefully and
(a) Online shopping portals offer a great deal answer the given questions:
of discounts which retail store offer only ‘Pets are not allowed in the park premises.’ – A
during the sale season notice put up at the park entrance by the
(b) One can compare variety of products online authority that is responsible for maintenance of
which can’t be done on online stores. the park.
(c) Many online shopping portals offer the ‘cash Which of the following can be an assumption
on delivery’ feature which is for those who according to the given information?
are sceptical about online payments. (a) At least some people who visit the park
(d) Many consumers prefer shopping at retail have pets.
stores which are nearer to their houses. (b) This is the only park which does not allow
(e) In online shopping the customer may be pets.
deceived as he can’t touch the product he (c) People who ignored this notice were fined.
is paying for. (d) There are more than one entrance to the
10. Which of the following can be inferred from the park.
given information? (e) Many people have now stopped visiting the
(a) One can shop online only at night. park.
(b) Those who are not comfortable using Directions (13-15) : Read the following
computers can never enjoy the experience information carefully and answer the given questions:
of online shopping. Despite repeated announcements that the
(c) All retail stores provide shopping assistants mobile phones were not allowed in the examination
to each and every customer. hall, three students were caught with their mobile
(d) The consumer whose view is presented has phones.
shopped at retail stores as well as online. (A) Mobile phones nowadays have a lot of features
(e) The consumer whose view is presented and it is easy to cheat with their help.
does not have any retail stores in his (B) The invigilator must immediately confiscate the
vicinity. mobile phones and ask the students to leave
11. Read the following information carefully and the exam hall immediately.
answer the given question: (C) Mobile phones are very expensive and leaving
Many manufacturing companies are now shifting them in bags outside the exam hall is not safe.
base to the rural areas of the country as there (D) There have been incidents where students who
is scarcity of space in urban areas. Analysts left the exam hall early stole the mobile phones
say that this shift will not have a huge impact kept in the bags of students who were writing
on the prices of the products manufactured by the exam.
these companies as only about 30% consumers (E) The school authorities must ask the students to
live in urban areas. leave their phones in custody of their invigilator
Which of the following may be a consequence before the exam in order to avoid thefts.
of the given information? (F) None of the other students were carrying their
(a) The prices of such products will decrease phones in the exam hall.
drastically in the urban areas. 13. Which of the following among (A), (B), (C) and
(b) People living in urban areas will not be (D) may be a strong argument in favor of the
allowed to work in such manufacturing three students who were caught with their
companies. mobile phones?
(c) These manufacturing companies had set- (a) Only A (b) Both A and B
ups in the urban areas before shifting base. (c) Both C and D (d) Only C
(d) Those who had already migrated to the (e) Both B and D
urban areas will not shift back to rural areas.
196
 LOGIC MIXED QUESTION
14. Which of the following among (A), (B), (E) and institutions in the country.
(F) may be the reason behind the school making Which of the following statem ents
such announcements before the exam? substantiates the facts expressed in the above
(a) Only B (b) Both B and E statement?
(c) Only F (d) Only A (a) A large number of students of IIM-A find
(e) Both E and F better placement after completing their
15. Which of the following among (A), (B), (D) and course.
(F) can be an immediate course of action for (b) There are many institutes which have
the invigilator? better infrastructure than IIM-A
(a) Only B (b) Both A and D (c) The rate of enrollment in IIM-A has come
(c) Only A (d) Both D and F down in recent years.
(e) Only F (d) Majority of the institutes have contradicted
16. Many sociologists have argued that there is a the findings of the magazine Pulse.
functional relationship between educational and (e) None of these.
economic systems. They point to the fact that 19. According to a survey, innumerable diseases
mass formal education began in industrial and unhealthy habits from the recent pandemic
society and is an established part of all industrial to cancer, AIDS and obesity have plagued
societies. mankind.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn Which of the following may be the most
from the above statements? plausible cause of the situation given in the
(a) Formal education has suffered a setback above statements?
due to industrial society. (a) The lifestyle and food habits of people are
(b) Industrial society is responsible for responsible for this state.
expansion of education at the mass level. (b) Environmental degradation has led to the
(c) Formal education can be traced to industrial present situation.
society. (c) People remain ignorant about their health.
(d) Industrial society changed the pattern of (d) Technological advancement and fast pace
education. of life are contributing to the spread of
(e) None of these. diseases.
17. A country X has no national gun act. There is (e) None of these
no firearms control and licensing mechanism in 20. The ‘X’ finance company has launched a new
the country. The general public is free to acquire tractor loan scheme. It has brought prosperity
gun. The people require arms for their safety. among the farmers.
This has ultimately increased the crime rate Which of the following Statement is implicit in
considerably in the country. the above statements?
Which of the following inferences can be drawn (a) The prosperity of farmers solely depends
from the above statements? upon the tractor loan scheme.
(a) It is not necessary to license guns or (b) Tractor is an important input for farmers to
firearms. enhance the farm activities.
(b) The guns or the firearms act is opposed by (c) Earlier there was no tractor loan scheme
the people of the country. for farmers.
(c) The Government should m ake all (d) Farmers do not prefer to take loans for
necessary arrangements to enact firearms buying tractors.
act. (e) None of these.
(d) Many countries in the world have no 21. Statement : By asking five prominent hospitals
firearms act. in the national capital to deposit nearly Rs. 600
(e) None of these Crore to compensate for their failure to treat
18. According to a survey conducted by a magazine poor patients, the Delhi government has drawn
Pulse, IIM-A ranked best among all the MBA attention to the social obligation of healthcare

197
 LOGIC MIXED QUESTION
providers in the corporate sector as well as the diet of the ancients Nubians which could
need for timely enforcement of applicable have contained tetracycline.
regulations. According to the Delhi government, V. Typhus is generally fatal.
trusts and registered societies to which public (a) Only II follows
land was allotted to establish hospitals were (b) Only III & V follow
required to earmark a percentage of their (c) Only III follows
medical facilities and services for indigent (d) Only II, III, IV and V follow
patients. (e) None of these
Assumptions : 23. It is not often that professional footballers retire
I. This strengthens the case for private from internationals at the peak of their game.
hospitals to dedicate a part of their services When the 29-year-old Lionel Messi, widely
to those who cannot afford treatment. reckoned to be the most skilled footballer today,
II. Social responsibility of hospitals must be announced after the 2016 Copa America Final
monitored and central government should against Chile that he would not wear the
ensure compliance by the corporate Argentinian shirt again, he took everyone by
hospitals. surprise. It is not clear if he has made the
III. There is a great need for the government retirement call in the heat of the moment. It came
to monitor and enforce “health services” so after Messi failed, yet again, to win a major title
that the poor who cannot afford modern with the Argentinian team; he also missed a
health facilities that are extremely costly- crucial penalty in the shootout against Chile after
are able to be benefited. efficient but goal-less play in regulation and
(a) All are implicit extra time. In fact, Messi’s overall international
(b) Only III is implicit record with Argentina has been good, if not
(c) Only I and III are implicit spectacular.
(d) Only I and II are implicit With him, the team has reached the finals of
(e) None is implicit four important tournaments: the World Cup in
22. The ancient Nubians inhabited an area in which 2014 and the Copa America in 2007, 2015 and
typhus occurs, yet surprisingly few of their 2016.
skeletons show the usual evidence of this According to the given question, you have to
disease. The skeletons do show deposits of decide which of the statement is/are strong on
tetracycline, an antibiotics produced by a the basis of the given passage:-
bacterium common in Nubian soil. This After defeating in Copa America Final, Should
bacterium can flourish on the dried grain used Messi continues his international career for two
for making two staples of Nubian diet, beer and years more?
bread. Thus, tetracycline in their food probably I. Yes, because it is the only way he can prove
explains the low incidence of typhus among himself to the world as a challenging
ancient Nubians. person.
Which of the following is an assumption can II. No, It is his personal decision to play no
be drawn from the passage? more for Argentina and as a player he gave
I. Infectious diseases other than typhus to a lot of contribution to his nation. So we
which the ancient Nubians were exposed should respect his decision.
are unaffected by tetracycline. III. No, because Messi’s record as a player of
II. Tetracycline is not rendered ineffective as Barcelona is quite better than as a player
an antibiotic by exposure to the process of Argentina. So he should focus on one
involved in making bread and beer. side rather than playing for both of them.
III. Typhus cannot be transmitted by ingesting (a) Only II & III are strong
bread or beer contaminated with the (b) Only I & III are strong
infectious agents of this disease. (c) Only II is strong
IV. Bread and beer were the only items in the (d) Only III is strong

198
 LOGIC MIXED QUESTION
(e) None is strong (e) None of these.
24. Statement : The government is set to overhaul 26. Statement : By fixing a deadline of one year
annual targets for public sector lenders, ending from the date of framing of charges for the
a focus on size that has long encouraged banks completion of trial involving the members of
to inflate their loans and deposits at the year- parliament and legislative assemblies, the
end to hit growth objectives. Banking and Supreme Court has once again intervened
government sources said that the new targets, effectively to give some credibility to the idea of
to be discussed at meeting with top state bank cleaning the polity. It gave a jolt to the political
officials, would focus on efficiency, with class by striking down a provision that protected
objectives set around return on assets, or return sitting legislators from immediate disqualification
on equity, and controlling bad debts. on conviction.
Which of the following points can be inferred Which of the following can be concluded from
from the given information? the above statement?
(a) Loans and deposits of the banks will go (a) To implement the guidelines, the
up. government must set up more speedy trial
(b) Some short term loans will be discouraged courts, which will help them deliver justice
by the banks. in time.
(c) Credit ratings of the banks will be boosted (b) The steps taken by the apex court will help
up. choose the best people fr om their
(d) Financial stability of the banks will be lost. constituency and make the Indian
(e) All can be inferred. democratic system free from
25. Statement : Google, which dominates much of criminalization.
life on the Internet, has been trying to expand (c) This will help in reducing the scourge of
beyond computers and telephones to living criminalization of politics.
rooms, cars and bodies. It made its way a bit (d) The latest order will help address this
further into people’s homes when it agreed to problem by empowering the trial court to
pay $3.2 billion in cash for Nest Labs, which refuse routine adjournments.
makes Internet-connected devices like (e) None of these.
thermostats and smoke alarms. But it has 27. The question given below consists of a
agreed that Nest’s privacy policies are going to statement, followed by three arguments
be well-respected. For Google, gaining visibility numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which
into people’s habits beyond computers and of the arguments is/are ‘strong’ (arguments) and
phones — whether watching television using which is/are ‘weak’ (arguments) and accordingly
Chrome cast, taking a walk wearing Google choose your answer from the alternatives given
Glass or managing their homes using Nest below each question.
products — will provide a fuller picture of users. Statement : Sociologists and political observers
Which of the following arguments would most are of the opinion that making education
weaken Nest’s beliefs? qualification mandatory for election candidates
(a) Google products can easily be integrated would be discriminatory since that would
into Nest. naturally deprive citizens of India the right to
(b) Unlike many of Silicon Valley’s most popular represent their people. Institutional qualification,
companies that make software that costs as they say, is different from political acumen
very little to build, Nest is capital-intensive and wisdom. In a country like India where about
because it builds hardware. a quarter of 815 million eligible voters are
(c) To follow the terms and condition, Google illiterate, it would not be prudent to deny a
make some changes in Nest’s privacy politically aware and socially conscious
policies. individual the election ticket just because he/
(d) The deal between two companies has not she doesn’t have a minimum qualification.
yet closed. Should “literacy” be the minimum criterion for

199
 LOGIC MIXED QUESTION
becoming a voter in India? I. Introduction of bio-fuel and solar energy in
Arguments : train operation.
I. No, Mere literacy is no guarantee of political II. Installation of rain water harvesting facilities
maturity of an individual. at major stations.
II. Yes, Illiterate people are less likely to make III. Waste water recycling plant is also being
politically wiser decisions of voting for a planned in which recycled water will be
right candidate or party. used for washing and horticulture purpose.
III. No, Voting is the constitutional right of every IV. Initiatives such as LED light fittings to
citizen. reduce power consumption and use of five
(a) None is strong percent bio-diesel in diesel locos.
(b) Only I and II are strong V. Introduction of water audit to assess
(c) Only III is strong consumption and wastage at major
(d) Only II and III are strong stations.
(e) All are strong Which of the following points will strengthen
28. Statement : Reinforcing its commitment to the decision taken by the Railways?
green initiatives, railways will explore its future (a) All of the above
course of action to prevent pollution. Issues (b) All except I
related to environment like solid waste (c) All except I and V
management, pollution contr ol, water (d) All except V
management and energy management will be (e) None of these
discussed at a workshop on ‘Environmental
challenges before Indian Railways and
solutions’.

1 (e) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (a) 7 (e) 8 (c) 9 (e) 10 (d)
11 (e) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (b) 27 (e) 28 (d)

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 ANALOGY

19
CHAPTER
ANALOGY OR SIMILARITY
Type-I (Question based on Words) 12. Enough : Sufficiency : : Excess : ?
Directions (1-25) : Select the related word from a) Adequacy b) Surplus
the given alternatives. c) Competency d) Import
1. Train : Passenger :: Aeroplane : ? 13. Shark : Fish : : Vavender : ?
a) Aeronaut b) Astronaut a) Shrub b) Tree
c) Pilot d) Air hostess c) Herb d) Climber
2. College : Dean : : Museum : ? 14. Car : Petrol : : Television : ?
a) Curator b) Warden a) Electicity b) Transmission
c) Custodian d) Supervisor c) Entertainment d) Antenna
3. India : New Delhi : : Pakistan : ? 15. Seismograph : Earthquakes : : Taseometer : ?
a) Rawalpindi b) Peshawar a) Volcanoes b) Resistances
c) Lahore d) Islamabad c) Landslides d) Strains
4. Carpenter : Saw : : Tailor : ? 16. Foresight : Anticipation : : Insomnia : ?
a) Measurement b) Sewing a) Treatment b) Disease
c) Cloth d) Needle c) Sleeplesness d) Unrest
5. Election : Manifesto : : Meeting : ? 17. USA : Congress : : Iran : ?
a) Circular b) Agenda a) Althing b) Parliament
c) Preface d) Report c) Majlis d) Cortes
6. Antiseptic : Germs : : Antidote : ? 18. Karnataka : Gold : : Madhya Pradesh : ?
a) Allergy b) Poison a) Diamond b) Iron
c) Wound d) Infection c) Copper d) Gems
7. Lion : Deer : : Mongoose : ? 19. Carbon : Diamond : : Corundum : ?
a) Rat b) Snake a) Pearl b) Pukhraj/
c) Garnet d) Ruby
c) Lizard d) Squirrel
20. Funk : Vitamins : : Curie : ?
8. Moth : Insect : : Mouse : ?
a) Uranium b) Radium
a) Cat b) Mole
c) Radioactivity d) Photography
c) Rodent d) Rat
21. Legend : Story : : Merlin : ?
9. Plant : Tree : : Girl : ?
a) Wife b) Mother a) Hawk b) Eagle
c) Women d) Sister c) Crow d) Parakeet
10. Clock : Time : : Thermometer : ? 22. Annihilation : Fire : : Cataclysm : ?
a) Heat b) Radiation a) Earthquake b) Flood
c) Energy d) Temperature c) Emergency d) Steam
11. Teheran : Iran : : Beijing : ? 23. Lemur : Monkey :: Rook : ?
a) China b) Japan a) Cat b) Crow
c) Turkey d) Malaysia c) Vulture d) Owl

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 ANALOGY

24. Vestry : Church : : Dispensary : ? 36. (4, 24, 214)

(a) (5, 35, 341) (b) (8, 81, 721)
a) Laboratory b) Hospital
(c) (2, 26, 125) (d) (3, 27, 81)
c) School d) Monastery
37. ( 25, 144, 47)
25. Visitor : Invitation : : Witness : ? (a) ( 16, 82, 23) (b) (19,78,20)
a) Subpoena b) Permission (c) (9,72,8) (d) (15,96,340)
c) Assent d) Document 38. (3, 24, 4)
TYPE-II (a) (6, 35, 11) (b) (2, 30, 8)
Direction (26–40) : Select the set of (c) (12, 84, 4) (d) (4, 72, 9)
numbers that is similar to the following set. 39. (10, 18, 38)
26. (10, 19, 32} (a) (4, 12, 22) (b) (14, 12, 8)
(a) {16, 25, 32} (b) {15, 24, 33} (c) (12, 22, 46) (d) (18, 6, 14)
(c) {7, 13, 23} (d) {4, 9, 16} 40. (9,15,27)
27. {9,15,24} (a) (6,9,18) (b) (15,25,35)
(a) {21,33,55} (b) {12,20,30} (c) (21,35,56) (d) (12,20,36)
(c) {6,10,16} (d) {15,25,35} Direction (41-75) : Select the related number
from the given alternatives.
28. {8, 19, 30}
41. 6 : 2 : : 8 : ?
(a) {11,24,38} (b) {9,20,35}
a) 1 b) 3
(c) {12,25,38} (d) {6,21,32}
c) 7 d) 5
29. {7,16,34}
42. 3 : 27 : : 4 : ?
(a)(10,19,28) (b)(23,31,48)
a) 16 b) 64
(c)(29,57,96) (d)(49,58,76)
c) 28 d) 32
30. {3,5,7}
43. 18 : 52 : : 12 : ?
(a)(29,35,41) (b)(23,29,31)
(c)(19,21,31) (d)(11,13,19) a) 34 b) 48
31. (3,15,123) c) 60 d) 72
(a) (8,63,998) (b) (5,36,341) 44. 8 : 9 :: 64 : ?
(c) (2,26,125) (d) (4,24,214) a) 16 b) 20
32. (13, 40, 121) c) 25 d) 36
(a) (5, 16, 49) (b) (3, 12, 39) 45. 9 : 7: : 80 : ?
a) 48 b) 50
(c) (7, 24, 73) (d) (9, 28, 83)
c) 69 d) 82
33. (20, 42, 72)
46. 841 : 29 : : 289 : ?
(a) (10, 22, 52) (b) (16, 40, 70)
a) 23 b) 21
(c) (2, 12, 20) (d) (18, 38, 68)
c) 17 d) 13
34. (11, 16, 31)
47. 8 : 28 : : 27 : ?
(a) (17,22,37) (b) (29,34,41)
a) 85 b) 28
(c) (19,24,31) (d) (23,28,31) c) 8 d) 64
35. (4, 3, 19) 48. 72 : 18 : : 56 : ?
(a) (8,5,96) (b) (6,4,40) a) 63 b) 66
(c) (5,9,28) (d) (3,5,25) c) 22 d) 124

202
 ANALOGY
49. 8 : 28 : : 15 : ? 62. 6 : 222 : : 7 : ?
a) 63 b) 65 a) 210 b) 465
c) 126 d) 124 c) 350 d) 3125
50. 3 : 27 : : 5 : ? 63. 25 : 125 : : 36 : ?
a) 9 b) 125 a) 180 b) 206
c) 29 d) 51 c) 216 d) 318
51. 11 : 38 : : 13 : ? 64. 14 : 9 : : 26 : ?
a) 44 b) 47 a) 12 b) 13
c) 43 d) 46 c) 15 d) 31
52. 8 : 20 :: 14 : ? 65. 1 : 1 : : 25 : ?
a) 35 b) 30 a) 26 b) 125
c) 28 d) 20 c) 240 d) 625
53. 5.5 : 30.25 : : 11.0 : ? 66. 7584 : 5362 : : 4673 : ?
a) 22.0 b) 30 a) 2451 b) 3562
c) 55 d) 121.00 c) 5487 d) 5784
54. 10 : 99 : : 09 : ? 67. 8 : 81 : : 64 : ?
a) 49 b) 80 a) 125 b) 137
c) 69 d) 79 c) 525 d) 625
55. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ? 68. 1 : 8 : : 27 : ?
a) 41 b) 56 a) 37 b) 47
c) 60 d) 65 c) 57 d) 64
56. 763 : 856 : : 637 : ? 69. 24 : 126 : : 48 : ?
a) 866 b) 730 a) 433 b) 192
c) 737 d) 637 c) 240 d) 344
57. 49 : 81 : : 64 : ? 70. 2 : 7 : : 6 : ?
a) 36 b) 100 a) 40 b) 39
c) 121 d) 144 c) 50 d) 72
58. 21 : 3 : : 574 : ? 71. 6 : 35 : : 7 : ?
a) 23 b) 82 a) 48 b) 42
c) 64 d) 66 c) 34 d) 13
59. 18 : 30 : : 36 : ? 72. 4 : 24 : : 17 : ?
a) 54 b) 62 a) 37 b) 47
c) 64 d) 66 c) 57 d) 67
60. 17 : 52 : : 1 : ? 73. 365 : 90 : : 623 : ?
a) 3 b) 4 a) 36 b) 45
c) 5 d) 51 c) 123 d) 634
61. 3 : 243 : : 5 : ? 74. 248 : 3 : 328 : ?
a) 425 b) 465 a) 7 b) 5
c) 546 d) 3125 c) 4 d) 6
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 ANALOGY
75. 212 : 436 : 560 : ? 87. DOG : Z : : CAT : ?
a) 786 b) 682 a) X b) Y 5
c) 784 d) 688 c) V d) W
TYPE-III 88. DLOC : ECI : : TOH : ?
Direction (76-100) : Select the related letter from a) EET b) EAT
the given alternatives. c) AET d) ETA
76. FILM : ADGH : : MILK : ? 89. DILATE : CONTRACT : : ENLARGE : ?
a) ADGF b) HGDE a) EXPAND b) SHRINK
c) WIDEN d) CRUCIAL
c) HDGF d) HEGF
90. YAD : NUS : : ? : NOOM
77. QPRS : TUWV : : JIKL : ?
a) NTHIG b) GHTIN
a) MNOP b) MNPO
c) HIGIN d) THGIN
c) NMOP d) NMPO 91. HCM : FAK : : SGD : ?
78. FJUL : BOQQ : : LHRX : ? a) QEB b) QIB
a) BKPR b) MNCC c) ESQ d) GFS
c) HRYY d) HMNC 92. AHOP : CKSU ; : BJMF : ?
79. MAD : JXA : : RUN : ? a) EZUQ b) DMQK
a) ORK b) OSQ c) DQKM d) CJWM
c) PRJ d) UXQ 93. EVFU : TGSH : : IRJQ : ?
a) KWL b) PKOL
80. CAT : DDY : : BIG : ?
c) OLPK d) PKLO
a) CLL b) CLM
94. L x M : 12 x 13 : : U x W : ?
c) CML d) CEP
a) 21 × 22 b) 24 × 26
81. KMF : LLH : : RMS : ?
c) 9 × 11 d) 21 × 23
a) SLR b) SLU 95. MOUSE : KPSTC : : Light : ?
c) SSU d) SUS a) JJEIR b) MJHIU
82. BIGE : JQOM : : RYWU : ? c) MGHFU d) JGEFR
a) AGFD b) ZFDB 96. FILM : ADGH : : MILK : ?
c) ZGEC d) ZYVX a) ADGF b) HDGE
83. EJOT : VQLG : : BGLQ : ? c) HEGF d) HDGF
a) AEIM b) AFKP 97. DCAB : ZYWX : : HGEF : ?
a) DEBC b) UVTS
c) YTOJ d) ZUPK
c) VUST d) WXUV
84. PALE : LEAP : : POSH : ?
98. BOQD : ERTG : : ANPC : ?
a) HSOP b) POHS
a) DQSF b) FSHU
c) SHOP d) None of these
c) SFHU d) DSQF
85. MUMBAI : LTLAZH : : DELHI : ? 99. AFKP : ZUPK : : BGLQ : ?
a) CDKGG b) DNRWJ a) YUMQ b) XURO
c) CDKGH d) OPEN c) YXMV d) YTOJ
86. CLOSE : DNRWJ : : OPEN : ? 100. PASS : QBTT : : FAIL : ?
a) PRHR b) PRJQ a) GJBM b) GBJM
c) RPJB d) RZWR c) MBJG d) MJBG

204
 ANALOGY

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (a)
81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (b)

205
 SYMBOL AND NOTATION

20
CHAPTER
SYMBOL & NOTATION
TYPE: I (QUESTIONS BASED ON AN (a) 5 @ 8 Υ 4 K 3 $ 9
IMAGINARY MATHEMATICAL OPERATION) (b) 8 Υ 4 ß 2 @ 3 K 8 δ 4
Directions : In the following questions you have (c) 4 @ 3 K 6 Υ 2 δ 15
to identify the correct response from the given
premises stated according to following symbols:- (d) 4 ß 3 K 6 Υ 2 @ 3 $ 12

1. If ‘’ means ‘’, ‘’ means ‘’, ‘’ means ‘’ and ‘’ 7. If  = 8,  = 4,  = 3,  = 6,  = 7, then ( 
means ‘’ then 2662  ? )  (  ) = ?

(a) 1 (b) 0 (a)  (b) 

(c) 10 (d) 5 (c) (d) 
2. If ‘’ stands for division, ‘’ stands for 8. If ‘P’ stands for multiplication, ‘Q’ stands for
multiplication, ‘’ stands for subtraction and ‘’ addition, ‘R’ stands for division, and ‘S’ stands
stands for addition, which one of the following for equal then which of the following is true?
is correct? (a) 5 P 7 Q 42 R 6 S 42
(a) 18  6  7 5  2  20 (b) 6 Q 2 R 16 P 5 S 53
(b) 18  6  7  5  2  18 (c) 2 Q 15 R 5 Q 10 S 32
(c) 18  6  7  5  2  16
(d) 64 S 8 P 2 Q 2 R 8
(d) 18  6  7  5  2  22
9. If ‘’ means ‘’, ‘’ means ‘’, ‘’ means ‘’, ‘’
3. If ‘’ stands for ‘’ , ‘’ stands for ‘’, ‘’ for ‘’ and means ‘’, then the value of
‘’ for ‘+’, which one of the following equations
(4  20  25)  5  6  ?
in correct?
(a) 105 (b) 21
(a) 30  6  5  4  2  27
(b) 30  6  5  4  2  30 (c) 15 (d) 18
(c) 30  6  5  4  2  32 10. If  stands for addition,  stands for
(d) 30  6  5  4  2  40 subtraction,  stands for division,  stands for
multiplication,  stands for equal to then which
4. If ‘A’ denotes ‘’, ‘B’ denotes ‘’, ‘C’ denotes ‘’,
of the following alternatives is correct ?
‘D’ denotes ‘’, then
(a) 2  5  6  2  6
5 B 39 A 3 C 16 D 8  ?
(a) 81 (b) 65 (b) 5  7  3  2  4
(c) 89 (d) 73 (c) 3  6  2  3  6  5
5. If ‘P’ denotes ‘’, ‘Q’ denotes ‘’, ‘R’ denotes ‘’, (d) 7  43  6  1  4
and ‘S’ denotes ‘’ then ,
11. If B = 2, A = 1, M = 3, R = 5, E = 6, O = 7, the
25 P 5 Q 6 R 8 S 4 = ? sum of the letters of which of the following words
(a) 30 (b) 34 (c) 38 (d) 40 will give the highest number ?
6. If ,,,, and  are replaced as K,ß,@,Υ,δ (a) BORE (b) ROOM
and $ respectively, then which of the following
is not correct? (c) MORE (d) RARE

206
 SYMBOL AND NOTATION

12. If E = 5 and TEA = 26 then TEACHER = ? (a) , ,  (b) , , 

(a) 75 (b) 59 (c) , ,  (d) , , 
(c) 60 (d) 57 TYPE: III (Question based on determining
13. If rectangle = 12, triangle = 15, square = 6, result after interchanging symbols/nations/
parallelogram = 4 and circle = 3, solve the numbers
equation using the above values and answer in 21. After interchanging  and , 12 and 18, which
figures. one of the following equations becomes
rec tan gle square correct ?
4 3 triangle 6 2 (a) (90  18)  18  60 (b) (18  6)  12  2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 3
14. If   ,   , ^  ,   ,   ,   , and   (c) (72  18)  18  72 (d) (12  6)  18  36
 22. Which interchange of signs or numbers will
(a) 6  3  2 ^ 4  8  13 make the followings equation correct ?

(b) 6 ^ 3  2  4  8  13 (7  2)  3  4  1  20

(c) 6  3 ^ 2  4  8  13 (a) 2 and 3 (b)  and 

(d) 6  3  2  4 ^ 8  13 (c) 7 and 3 (d)  and 

15. If 8 + 8 = 72, 5 + 5 = 30, and 7 + 7 = 56, what is 23. Which of the following interchange of sign/
6+6=? numbers would make the given equation
correct.?
(a) 40 (b) 42 (c) 30 (d) 36
6  4  2  16
16. If 8  2 = 61, 8  5 = 04, what is 8  10 = ?
(a)  and , 16 and 4 (b)  and , 2 and 4
(a) 80 (b) 08 (c) 8 (d) 0
(c)  and , 4 and 6 (d) None of these
TYPE : II (Which one of the following is correct)
24. Which of the following interchange of sign would
17. 6 * 3 * 4 * 45 make the given equation correct?
(a) , ,  (b) , ,  10  10  10  10  10  10
(c) , ,  (d) , , 
(a)  and  (b)  and 
18.          (c)  and  (d)  and 
(a) , , ,  (b) , , , 
25. Which of the following interchange of signs or
(c) , , ,  (d) , , ,  numbers would make the given equations
19. (31 * 1) * 2 * 1  16 correct ?
(a) , , ,  (b) , , ,  (18  9)  3  5  45
(c) , , ,  (d) , , ,  (a)  and  (b)  and 
20. 28 * 4 * 9 * 16 (c) 18 and 5 (d) 3 and 9

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b)

207
 Classification

21
CHAPTER
CLASSIFICATION
Type–1 13. (a) Ballot (b) Manifesto
Directions (1–20) : In each of the following (c) Election (d) Vote
questions, four words have been given, out of which 14. (a) Commander (b) Commodore
three are alike in some manner and the fourth one
is different. Choose out the odd one. (c) Brigadier (d) Admiral

1. (a) Malaria (b) Plague 15. (a) Piano (b) Typewriter

(c) Dengue (d) Tetanus (c) Computer (d) Calculator

2. (a) Eye (b) Tongue 16. (a) Microscope (b) Telescope

(c) Nose (d) Brain (c) Periscope (d) Stethoscope

3. (a) Gallon (b) Ton 17. (a) Rhea (b) Trout

(c) Quintal (d) Kilogram (c) Lamprey (d) Salmon

4. (a) Bangalore (b) Nagpur 18. (a) Volt (b) Power

(c) Bhopal (d) Ranchi (e) Volume (d) Force

5. (a) Cry (b) Sob 19. (a) Microscope (b) Microphone

(c) Weep (d) Lauhg (c) Microfilm (d) Microbe

6. (a) Iron (b) Nickel 20. (a) Mercury (b) Acetone

(c) Cobalt (d) Aluminium (c) Petrol (d) Kerosene

7. (a) Sailor (b) Tailor Direction (21-25): In each of the following

questions, four numbers are given out of which three
(c) Goldsmith (d) Blacksmith are like in some manner while one is different.
8. (a) Copper (b) Silver Choose the one which is different from the rest three.
(c) Gold (d) Platinum 21. (a) Car : Road
9. (a) Brass (b) Bronze (b) Ship : Sea
(c) Steel (d) German Silver (c) Rocket : Space
10. (a) Coal (b) Petroleum (d) Aeroplane : Pilot
(c) Natural Gas (d) Biogas 22. (a) Beautician : Parlor
11. (a) Tempest (b) Hurricane (b) Chemist : Medicine
(b) Cyclone (d) Monsoon (c) Lawyer : Court
12. (a) Cheras (b) Chandelas (d) Engineer : Site
(c) Pallavas (d) Cholas 23. (a) Fish : Piciculture
(b) Birds : Horticulture
208
 Classification
(c) Bees : Apiculture (c) 72 (d) 18
(d) Silkworm : Sericulture 36. (a) 49 (b) 63

24. (a) Tree : Stem (c) 77 (d) 81

(b) Face : Eye 37. (a) 140 (b) 240

(c) Chair : Sofa (c) 360 (d) 480

(d) Plant : Flower 38. (a) 6895 (b) 6958

25. (a) Beans : Pulses (c) 7948 (d) 9786

(b) Rice : Cereals 39. (a) 119 (b) 136

(b) 147 (d) 156
(c) Tea : Beverages
40. (a) 246 (b) 356
(d) Legumes : Nodules
(c) 527 (d) 639
TYPE-II
41. (a) 150 (b) 175
Direction (26-51): In each of the following
questions, four numbers are given out of which three (c) 200 (d) 250
are like in some manner while one is different. 42. (a) 25631 (b) 33442
Choose the one which is different from the rest three.
(c) 34424 (d) 52163
26. (a) 27 (b) 64
43. (a) 28 (b) 65
(c) 125 (d) 144
(c) 126 (d) 215
27. (a) 11 (b) 13
44. (a) 2345 (b) 3456
(c) 15 (d) 17
(c) 5467 (d) 5678
28. (a) 1236 (b) 2346
45. (a) 369 (b) 462
(c) 4566 (d) 5686
(c) 761 (d) 862
29. (a) 10 (b) 11
46. (a) 361 (b) 484
(c) 15 (d) 16
30. (a) 7 (b) 15 (c) 566 (d) 529

(c) 31 (d) 57 47. (a) 392 (b) 326

31. (a) 144 (b) 168 (c) 414 (d) 248

(b) 196 (d) 256 48. (a) 2468 (b) 2648

32. (a) 2 (b) 16 (c) 4826 (d) 6482
(c) 56 (d) 128 49. (a) 9611 (b) 7324
33. (a) 37 (b) 49 (c) 2690 (d) 1754
(c) 132 (d) 154 50. (a) 21 (b) 69
34. (a) 21 (b) 69 (c) 81 (d) 83
(c) 81 (d) 83 51. (a) 5788 (b) 5878
35. (a) 28 (b) 45 (c) 6482 (d) 9748

209
 Classification
Direction (52–75) : In this type of questions, cer- 67. (a) 6243 (b) 2643
tain pairs, groups of numbers are given out of which (c) 8465 (d) 4867
all except one are similar in some manner while one
68. (a) 206 (b) 125
is different.
Choose the odd number pair group in each of the (c) 27 (d) 8
following questions. 69. (a) 357 (b) 581
52. (a) 34—43 (b) 55 —62
(c) 698 (d) 784
(c) 62 —71 (d) 83—92
70. (a) 392—21 (b) 483—15
53. (a) 2—8 (b) 3—27
(c) 962—42 (d) 917—35
(c) 4—32 (d) 5—125
71. (a) 49 (b) 140
54. (a) 80—9 (b) 64—8
(c) 112 (d) 97
(c) 36—6 (d) 49—7
72. (a) 15 (b) 27
55. (a) 3—5 (b) 5—3
(c) 37 (d) 39
(c) 6—2 (d) 7—3
73. (a) 119 (b) 154
56. (a) 1—0 (b) 3—8
(c) 84 (d) 51
(c) 6—35 (d) 7—50
74. (a) 064 (b) 208
57. (a) 22—3 (b) 28—4
(c) 316 (d) 118
(c) 36—5 (d) 43—6
75. (a) 36 (b) 61
58. (a) 12—144 (b) 13—156
(c) 84 (d) 108
(b) 15—180 (d) 16—176
Direction (76–100) : Question based on odd
59. (a) 23—29 (b) 19—25 english alphabet)
(c) 13—17 (d) 3—5
76. (a) ABJNM (b) QRTUZ
60. (a) 1975—1579 (b) 3152—5321 (c) LXYOQ (d) WFGOP
(c) 4283—8432 (d) 7319—9731
77. (a) RNMP (d) JFEH
61. (a) 73—61 (b) 57—69
(c) RPOQ (d) HDCF
(c) 42—29 (d) 35—47
78. (a) BDGK (b) PRUY
62. (a) 343 : 7 (b) 343 : 9
(c) FGJK (d) KMPT
(c) 512 : 8 (d) 216 : 6
79. (a) BADC (b) JILK
63. (a) 21 : 24 (b) 28 : 32 (c) NMPO (d) VUWX
(c) 54 : 62 (d) 54 : 63
80. (a) EGKQ (b) CEIO
64. (a) 13—21 (b) 19—27
(c) LNQW (d) PRVB
(c) 15—23 (d) 16—24
81. (a) EDHG (b) LKON
65. (a) 2 : 4 (b) 4 : 8
(c) UVWX (d) QPTS
(c) 6 : 18 (d) 8 : 32
82. (a) MKO (b) QSO
66. (a) 25, 36 (b) 144, 169 (c) VTX (d) DBF
(c) 100, 121 (d) 9, 64

210
 Classification
83. (a) XRMKL (b) XRMIF (b) ILQX (d) ADIP
(c) XRNLJ (d) XSNLJ 93. (a) GOD (b) RAT
84. (a) MLNO (b) KJPQ (c) WAR (d) PAPER
(c) IHRS (d) GFTV 94. (a) MTF (b) SLE
85. (a) CBCD (b) IHIJ (c) RKD (d) UNG
(c) ONOP (d) UTUW 95. (a) CENT (b) JLOS
86. (a) PQSU (b) BCQN (b) MORV (d) CEHL
(c) ABDF (d) MNPR 96. (a) ZYX (b) FED
87. (a) PRSU (b) SUWY (b) NML (d) GHI
(c) HJLN (d) CEGI 97. (a) XZY (b) MON
88. (a) DHLP (b) TXBF (b) PRQ (d) EAC
(c) JNRV (d) YBEH 98. (a) XWVU (b) SRQP
89. (a) DFIMR (b) CEHLQ (b) NMLK (d) EDCA
(c) GILPU (d) HJMPT 99. (a) QWBS (b) MPTD
90. (a) KJML (b) GFIH (b) UIAE (d) RVGW
(b) TSVU (d) ZABY 100. (a) Man = 13114 (b) Ram = 18113
91. (a) BYCX (d) EVFU (c) Jug = 10217 (d) Hub = 82110
(b) GTHS (d) LOIR
92. (a) GIOV (b) CFKR

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (b)
71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (d) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (d)

211
 SCHEDULED DATE & TIME

22
CHAPTER
CLOCK & CALENDER
TYPE : I (Questions based on clock) 11. If time in a clock is 9 : 11, then at what time
1. What angle is made by minute hand in 29 sec.? will appear in water?
(a) 1740 o
(b) 2.9 o (a) 9 : 19 (b) 8 : 11
(c) 290 (d) 2600 (c) 8 : 19 (d) 9 : 30
2. What angle is made by minute hand in 59 sec ? 12. What angle is made by minute and hour hand at 4 :
(a) 6 o
(b) 5o 12?
(c) 5.9 o
(d) 4.9 o (a) 66o (b) 44o
o
3. What angle is made by second hand in 15 sec.? (c) 54 (d) 60.5o
(a) 15o (b) 1.5o 13.What is the angle between minute and hour hand at
o 9 : 53?
1
(c)   (d) 90 o (a) 121.5o (b) 21.5o
8
 
(c) 130o (d) 68.5o
4. What time is shown by the mirror if the real time is 14. What is the angle between minute and hour hand
9 : 27 at 7 : 09?
(a) 3 : 33 (b) 2 : 33 (a) 120.5o (b) 160.5o
(c) 3 : 27 (d) 2 : 00 (c) 49.5 o
(d) 19.5o
5. Time appears in the mirror 11 : 09. then what time 15. What is the angle between minute and hour hand
will be appear in clock? at 3 : 56?
(a) 1 : 51 (b) 12 : 09 (a) 152o (b) 228o
(c) 12 : 51 (d) 1 : 09 (c) 360o (d) 142o
6. If reflecting time is 3 : 43 then the real time of 16.What is the angle between minute and hour hand at
clock is? 12 : 20?
(a) 3 : 17 (b) 7 : 17 (a) 260o (b) 110o
(c) 8 : 17 (d) 8 : 43 (c) 120o (d) 20o
7. If the time in clock is 12 : 23. What is the time in 17. At what time between 6 to 7 O' clock minute and
the mirror? hour hand will coincide?
(a) 12 : 33 (b) 11 : 37
2 7
(c) 12 : 37 (d) 1 : 23 (a) 6 : 38 11 (b) 6 : 43 11
8. Time in a clock is 3 : 13, what time will be appear 8 5
in water? (c) 6 : 32 11 (d) 6 : 5 11
(a) 3 : 17 (b) 2 : 17 18. At what time between 10 to 11 O' clock minute
(c) 3 : 23 (d) 2 : 13 and hour hand will coincide or makes 0o angle?
9. Time appears in water is 5 : 47, what will be 7 2
correct time in watch. (a) 10 : 43 11 (b) 10 : 38 11
(a) 12 : 47 (b) 12 : 43 6 10
(c) 1 : 47 (d) 1 : 43 (c) 10 : 54 11 (d) 10 : 10 11
10. If time in a clock is 7 : 35 then at what time will be 19. At what time between 2 to 3 O' clock minute and
appear in water? hour hand will be at right angle to each other or
(a) 11 : 35 (b) 10 : 35 makes 90o angle
(c) 10 : 05 (d) 10 : 55

212
 SCHEDULED DATE & TIME

(a) 2 : 32 11
8
(b) 2 : 27 11
3 (b) 6 P.M Wednesday

(c) 2 : 10
10
(d) 2 : 16
4 (c) 1 A.M Wednesday
11 11
20. At what time between 6 to 7 O' clock minute (d) 6 P.M
and hour hand will be a right angle or makes 26. A watch which loses uniformaly is 3 minute fast
90o angle? at 6 A.M on Thursday and is d3 minute 12 sec.
2
(a) 6 : 38 11 , 6 : 43 11
7 slow at 5P.M on upcoming Wednesday. When
7 1 was it correct?
(b) 6 : 43 11 , 6 : 49 11
1 4 (a) 9 P.M on Sunday
(c) 6 : 49 11
, 6 : 16 11
4 6 (b) 9 A.M on Monday
(d) 6 : 16 11 , 6: 54 11
(c) 9 A.M on Sunday
21. At what time between 3 to 4 O' clock minute
and hour hand are opposite to each other? (d) 8 A.M on Sunday
7 2 27. A watch reads 7:30. If the minute hand points
(a) 3 : 43 11 (b) 3 : 38 11
1 5 west, then in which direction will the hour hand
(c) 3 : 49 11 (d) 3 : 54 11
point ?
22. When did the minute and hour hand makes 180o
(a) North (b) North-east
angle between 6 to 7 O' clock?
6 (c) North west (d) South-west
(a) 6 : 54 11
(b) 6 : 60
5 28. A clock only with dots marking 3, 6, 9, 12
(c) 6 : 00 (d) 7 : 5 11
o’clock position has been kept upside down in
23. At what time between 8 to 9 O' clock the minute front of a mirror. A person reads the time in the
and hour will apart 7 minutes to each other? reflection of the clock as 10:20. What is the
3
(a) 8 : 42, 8 : 51 11 actual time?
3
(b) 8 : 36, 8 : 51 11 (a) 07:10 (b) 02:40 (c) 04:50 (d) 10:20
4
(c) 8 : 09, 8 : 47 11 29. Reaching the place of meeting 20 minutes
9 before 8:50 hrs Satish found himself thirty
(d) 8 : 17, 8 : 28 11
minutes earlier than the man who came 40
24. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour
minutes late. What was the scheduled time of
hand at intervals of 66 minute of correct time.
the meeting?
How much a day does the clock gain or lose?
109 (a) 08:20 (b) 08:10 (c) 08:05 (d) 08:00
(a) 11 121 minute gain
109
(b) 11 121 minute loss
117 30. What was the day of week on 19 th June 1440?
(c) 11 121 minute gain
117 (a) Thursday (b) Wednesday
(d) 11 121 minute loss
(c) Friday (d) Saturday
25. A watch which gains uniformaly is 4 minute slow at
9 A. M on Sunday, and is 4 minute 15 sec, fast at 31. What was the day of week on 2nd October 1869?
9 P.M on upcoming Friday. When was it correct? (a) Friday (b) Saturday
(a) 2 A.M Thursday (c) Sunday (d) Monday

213
 SCHEDULED DATE & TIME
32. What was the day of week on 26th. November (a) Friday (b) Saturday
2008? (c) Sudnay (d) Monday
(a) Tuesday (b) Monday 41. If Tuesday fall on 19 July 2019, what will be
(c) Thrusday (d) Wednesday the day of 16 Feb, 2019?
33. On what dates of May 1993 did Sunday fall? (a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday
(a) 1, 8, 15, 22, 29 (b) 2, 9, 16, 23, 30 (c) Thursday (b) Monday
(c) 3, 10, 17, 24, 31 (d) 4, 11, 18, 25 42. It was Saturday on 12 December, 1342. What
34. On what dates of March, 2013 did Wednesday was the day of week on 24 August 1342?
fall? (a) Tuesday (b) Monday
(a) 6, 13, 20, 27 (b) 5, 12, 19, 26 (c) Sunday (d) Friday
(c) 4, 11, 18, 25 (d) 7, 14, 21, 28 43. If two days before yesterday was Sunday. What
35. If the 3rd day of a month is Tuesday, which of the day will be 3 days after tomorrow?
following will be the 6th day from 23rd of that (a) Saturday (b) Monday
month? (c) Sunday (d) Tuesday
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday 44. If 26 March falls 3 days after tomorrow, that is
(c) Thursday (d) Friday Tuesday, on what day will the 8th of the month
36. If the 27th day of a month is Friday, which of the fall?
following will be the 4th day of that month? (a) Sunday (b) Friday
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday (c) Tuesday (d) Wendesday
(c) Wednesday (d) Friday 45. Ravi remembers that his mother's birthday is
37. 1.11.93 is Frist Monday. Which is the 4th Friday between thirteenth and nineteenth April. His
of November 1993? Brother remembers that their mothers birthday is
between seventeenth and 23rd April. If both of
(a) 26-11-93 (b) 24-11-93
them remember correctly and on which day is their
(c) 25-11-93 (d) 27-11-93 mothers birth day?
38. If the 6th day of Month is three days earlier then (a) 17th (b) 18th
Saturday, what day will it be on 21st day of the
(c) 17th or 18th (d) 19th
month
46. Sunday falls on 4th May, 1886 what will be the
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday
day on 4th may, 1887?
(c) Monday (d) Thursday
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
39. If Friday fall on 15th sep 1992, what will be the
(c) Thursday (d) Saturday
day of 26 Dec 1992?
47. Thursday falls on 16th April 1679, what will be
(a) Tuesday (b) Monday
the day on 16th April 1675?
(c) Thursday (d) Wednesday
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
40. If Friday fall on 26 January, 1904, What will be
(c) Saturday (d) Friday
the day of 9 June 1904?

214
 SCHEDULED DATE & TIME
48. Saturday falls on 9th Sep. 2011, what was the (a) 200 (b) 202
day of week on 9th Sep. 2007? (c) 194 (d) 197
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday 57. Sonu's brother Monu 536 days older to him while
(c) Monday (d) Tuesday his sister Tonu 75 weeks older to Monu. If Tonu
49. It was Wednesday on 6th March 1949. What was born on Wednesday, on which day was Sonu
was the day of week on 7th March 1952? born?
(a) Sunday (b) Monday (a) Saturday (b) Sudnay
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday (c) Friday (d) Monday
50. The calendar of 1971 used just after in the year? 58. I shall go Mumbai after 129 days of my brothers
birthday. If my brother birth day falls 3 days earlier
(a) 1977 (b) 1981
to Sunday. When shall I go to Mumbai?
(c) 19761 (d) 1982
(a) Saturday (b) Sunday
51. In which year the calender of 2011 will be used
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday
again?
59. Which of the following is odd?
(a) 2017 (b) 2018
(a) April (b) July
(c) 2020 (d) 2022
(c) November (d) March
52. Mr. Ravi and Priyanka celebrated their anniversary
on Friday, 4 February 2005. When would they 60. If the day before yesterday was Thursday,
celebrate their next anniversary on the same day when will Sunday be?

(a) 2009 (b) 2011 (a) Today (b)

(c) 2015 (d) 2010 (c) Tomorrow (d)

53. Manoj celebrated his birthday on Saturday, 7th 61. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday, I
March, 2004. When will he celebrated his next found that I was two days earlier than the
birthday on same day? scheduled day. If I had reached on the following
Wednesday, how many days late would I have
(a) 2009 (b) 2010
been?
(c) 2011 (d) 2012
(a) One day (b) Two days
54. In the year 1966, the republic day was celebrated
(c) Three days (d) Four days
on Sunday, when will it celebrated again on
Sunday 62. If the day after tomorrow is Tuesday what day
will two days after the day after tomorrow be?
(a) 1972 (b) 1982
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday
(c) 1977 (d) 1971
(c) Saturday (d) Thursday
55. In the year 1979 X-mas day was celebrated on
Tuesday. When will it be celebrated on same day? 63. Anil reached a place on Friday. He came to
know that he was three days earlier than the
(a) 1985 (b) 1984
scheduled day. If he had reached there on the
(c) 1990 (d) 1986 following Sunday, how many days late / earlier
56. How many Leep Years in 800 years? he would have been?

215
 SCHEDULED DATE & TIME
68. Hari remembers that his father’s birthday is
(a) One day earlier (b) One day late
between 13 th and 16th of June, whereas his
(c) Two days late (d) Two days earlier
sister remembers that their father’s birthday is
64. Day after tomorrow is Kiran’s birthday. On the between 14th and 18th of June. On which day is
same day next week falls ‘Shivratri’. Today is their father’s birthday. Which both agree?
Monday. What will be the day after ‘Shivratri’ ?
(a) 14th June (b) 15th June
(a) Wednesday (b) Thursday
(c) 16th June (d) 17th June
(c) Friday (d) Saturday
69. If Friday falls on 15th of September 2000, what
th
65. If the third Friday of a month is 16 what date is will be the day of 15th of September 2001?
the forth Tuesday of that month ?
(a) Friday (b) Saturday
(a) 20th (b) 22nd (c) 27th (d) 29th
(c) Thursday (d) SundayTYPE : III
66. If 8th of April falls on Monday. What would be
70. Which among the following is a leap year?
the 30th day of that Month ?
(a) 1600 (b) 1900
(a) Sunday (b) Monday
(c) 1800 (d) All of the above
(c) Tuesday (d) Wednesday
71. Which of the following years did not have 29
67. Saturday comes after 3 days on 4th of a month.
days in February month?
Find out the day on 27th of that month.
(a) 2000 (b) 2004 (c) 1996 (d) 1966
(a) Monday (b) Thursday
(c) Friday (d) Saturday

Answer
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5 (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15 (d)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (a)
30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c)
44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (d) 51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (b)
58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (c) 61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (a) 71. (d)

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 SERIES TEST

23
CHAPTER
SERIES TEST
TYPE : I (Question based on missing number) 10. 1, 4, 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, ?
Direction (1–32) : Which number will replace (a) 20 (b) 22
the question mark (?) in the following series? (c) 31 (d) 21
1. 3, 5, 7, 8, 15, ?, 31, 26
11. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ?, 65, 82, 101
(a) 24 (b) 14
(a) 48 (b) 42
(c) 21 (d) 18
(c) 50 (d) 49
2. 4, 10, 18, 38, ?, 150
12. 2, 3, 6, 10, 17, 28, ?
(a) 78 (b) 74 (a) 45 (b) 39
(c) 84 d) 70
(c) 43 (d) 46
3. 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, ?
13. 7 , 11 , 19 , 31 , ? , 67
(a) 22 (b) 25
(a) 45 (b) 51
(c) 29 (d) 31
(c) 43 (d) 47
4. 3, 7, 13, 27, ?, 107, 213 14. 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 10, 11, 12, 15, ?
(a) 63 (b)53
(a) 16 (b) 17
(c) 58 (d) 49
(c) 14 (d) 18
5. 1, 2, 6, 12, ?, 72, 216
15. 115, ?, 134, 145, 157, 170
(a)24 (b)32
(a) 124 (b) 122
(c)36 (d)48
(c) 125 (d) 127
6. 3, 5, 10, 18, 29, ?, 60
16. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, __ , 65, 82, 101
(a) 46 (b) 37 (a) 54 (b) 48
(c) 45 (d) 43
(c) 50 (d) 51
7. 7 9 13 15 ? 21 25
17. 11 , 13 , 17 , 23 , 31 , 41 , 53 , 67 , 83 , ?
(a) 18 (b) 20
(a) 101 (b) 97
(c) 17 (d) 19
(c) 110 (d) 100
8. 5 7 11 14 23 ? 43 48
18. 0 , 7, 26 , 63 , 124 , 215 , 342 , 511 , 728, __
(a) 27 (b) 39 (a) 996 (b) 1001
(c) 31 (d) 26
(c) 999 (d) 1000
9. 9, 196, 25, 169, 49, 144, 81, __
19. 2 , 4 , 16 , 52 , 132 , 282 , ?
(a) 121 (b) 100
(a) 512 (b) 527
(c) 64 (d) 36
(c) 534 (d) 572

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 SERIES TEST

20. 3, 14, 29, 38, 51, 58, 69, ? 31. 7, 22, 52, 97, 157, ?
(a) 74 (b) 37 (a) 232 (b) 222
(c) 73 (d) 47 (c) 257 (d) 254
21. 16 , 30 , 62 , 122 , 246 , ? 32. 1, 3, 9, 31, __, 651
(a) 490 (b) 488 (a) 109 (b) 97
(c) 492 (d) 494 (c) 127 (d) 129
22. 15, 43, 83, 137, 207, ? TYPE : II (Questions based on wrong number in
(a) 297 (b) 292 the given series)

(c) 295 (d) 294 Direction : ( 33 – 50 ) : Which number is wrong

in the given series?
23. 230, 246, 271, 307, ?
33. 3,7,7,11,9,13,13,17,15,23
(a) 412 (b) 518
(a) 9 (b) 23
(c) 324 (d) 356
(c) 13 (d)17
24. 36, 49, 51, 39, 53, 54, 42, 57, 57, 45, ?, ?
34. 3, 7, 15, 27, 53, 63
(a) 71, 60 (b) 60, 63
(a) 53 (b) 63
(c) 60, 61 (d) 61, 60
(c) 27 (d) 7
25. 16,17,23,18,19,26,20,21,29,22,?,?
35. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 216
(a) 23,32 (b) 25,36
(a) 120 (b) 216
(c) 32,23 (d) 36,25
(c) 6 (d) 60
26. 11, 14, 31, 14, 16, 34, 17, 18, 37, ?, 20, ?
36. 2, 6, 6, 10, 8, 12, 12, 15, 14, 18
(a) 21, 41 (b) 20, 41
(a) 15 (b) 8
(c) 21, 40 (d) 20, 40
(c) 18 (d) 12
27. –1, 5, 23, 59, 119, 209,?
37. 5, 9, 17, 29, 55, 65
(a) 409 (b) 309
(a) 55 (b) 29
(c) 335 (d) 289
(c) 9 (d) 5
28. 1, 4, 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, ?
38. 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 344, 512, 729
(a) 20 (b) 22
(a) 344 (b) 729
(c) 31 (d) 21
(c) 64 (d) 512
29. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ?, 65, 82, 101
39. 120, 143, 168, 196, 224
(a) 48 (b) 42
(a) 224 (b) 196
(c) 50 (d) 49
(c) 168 (d) 120
30. 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 10, 11, 12, 15, ?
40. 15, 17, 22, 32, 49, 76
(a) 16 (b) 17
(a) 49 (b) 32
(c) 14 (d) 18
(c) 22 (d) 76

218
 SERIES TEST

41. 34, 32, 35, 33, 36, 37 51. BZD, DXF, GUI, ?, PLR
(a) 33 (b) 37 (a) KQM (b) MOQ

(c) 32 (d) 34 (c) KPN (d) LRT

52. BECD, FIGH, KNLM, ?, XAYZ
42. 80, 70, 55, 35, 10, -20, -50
(a) PSQR (b) QWSU
(a) 70 (b) -20
(c) QTRS (d) ORPQ
(c) 10 (d) -50
53. CGE, HJI, LPN, SUT, ?
43. 17, 22, 29, 36, 49, 62
(a) XBZ (b) YAZ
(a) 22 (b) 49
(c) YCA (d) XZY
(c) 29 (d) 36 54. HKNQ, JIPO, KHQN, MFSL, ?
44. 2,4,8,14,20,32 (a) ODUJ (b) NGRM
(a) 32 (b) 14 (c) NEKT (d) NETK
(c) 8 (d) 20 55. DEY, FFW, IGT, KHR, NIO, ?
45. 17, 19, 23, 30, 47, 79 (a) QJM (b) PJM
(a) 79 (b) 23 (c) QJN (d) PJN
(c) 30 (d) 47 56. GXB, JVD, MTF, PRH,?
46. 81, 54, 36, 27, 22 (a) SQJ (b) RPJ
(a) 54 (b) 27 (c) RQI (d) SPJ
57. CFZ, EGX, HIU, JLS, MPP, ?
(c) 36 (d) 22
(a) NTO (b) OUN
47. 2, 6, 14, 30, 62, 126, 250
(c) MSN (d) OTN
(a)14 (b) 126
58. ACEGI, BDFHJ, KMOQS, ? , UWYAC,
(c) 250 (d) 62 VXZBD
48. 3, 5, 7, 6, 10, 14, 12, 24, 28, 24, (a) PQRTV (b) LPRTV
40, 56 (c) TUVWX (d) LNPRT
(a) 28 (b) 24 59. CATCH, DATCH, DCTCH, DCWCH, ?,
(c) 12 (d) 1 DCWGM
49. 16, 16, 17, 21, 27, 46, 71 (a) DCWHH (b) DCWGH
(a) 27 (b) 46 (c) DCWDH (d) DCWGI
(c) 16 (d) 71 60. QKR, UOV, YSZ, CWD, ?
50. 9, 19, 40, 83, 170, 340 (a) GAH (b) FZG
(a) 83 (b) 40 (c) GAI (d) FBH
(c) 340 (d) 170 61. PTX, AEI, LPT, ?

TYPE : III (Qustion based on missing english (a) XAE (b) WZE
alphabet) (c) XAD (d) WAE
Direction : (51–70) Which letter-cluster will 62. MONG, RUUL, WABT, BGIB, ?
replace the question mark (?) in the following (a) HNQJ (b) HNPS
series?
(c) GMPJ (d) GMQJ
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 SERIES TEST

63. ROB, URE, XUH, ?, DAN 74. _c_bd_cbcda_a_db_a

(a) BYL (b) AYK (a) bdbcba (b) adabcd
(c) AXK (d) BXL (c) cdcbad (d) acbcad
64. POND, UVSK, ZCXR, EJCY, ? 75. abc_dab_ _ d_b_cdab_c _
(a) JQHF (b) KQHF (a) cacacdc (b) acacdcc
(c) JQHE (d) KQHE (c) ccaacdc (d) cccaccd
76. ab_ba_babd_acb_bdba_b
65. MRT, TYA, AFH, HMO, ?
(a) cdabc (b) dcbac
(a) PUV (b) PUU
(c) acbcd (d) dcabc
(c) OTV (d) OTU
77. ab_bcab_b_ab_bcab_bc
66. LVD, OTF, RRH, ?, XNL
(a) dcdcd (b) ccdcc
(a) UQI (b) TPJ (c) ddcdd (d) cdcdc
(c) TQJ (d) UPJ 78. ab_ba_db_bd_ac_ba_db_cdbabd_
67. PSV, UXA, ZCF, EHK,? (a) dcadbbab (b) dcabdbab
(a) JMO (b) IMP (c) cdabdbba (d) dcdabbab
(c) JMP (d) JNP 79. a_b_aad_ca_dbc_adb_a
68. CFZ, EGX, HIU, JLS, MPP, ? (a) dcabca (b) dbcaca
(a) NTO (b) OUN (c) dcbaac (d) dcabac
80. _ _ Q D PC _ _ Q C Q _ _ C P D Q C
(c) MSN (d) OTN
_DP_PD
69. ZKA, CHX, FEU, ? BR, L ? O
(a) QCPCPPQC (b) PCPDDPDC
(a) D and Y (b) J and Z (c) QCDDDPQD (d) QCPDDPQC
(c) H and Z (d) I and Y 81. H_ _ EPCK_ _ CDE P_ KFHC _ EPC_ F
70. ZBQS, WXLM, ? ,QPBA, NLWU (a) DCFHFDD (b) CDHHDCK
(a) TTGG (b) STGG (c) CDFHCDK (d) CCFHKDK
(c) TSHG (d) TTHG. 82. TC _ M B C _ N T _ Q M _ C D _ T _ Q M
B_DN
Type 4
(a) TDCBNCD (b) QDDBCCN
Direction (71—100) : Select the combination
(c) QDCBNCC (d) QBCDNNC.
of the letters that when sequentially placed in
the gaps of the given letter series will complete 83. U _ _ R P K Q _ U K D _ P K _ R _ K
the series. D R_K_R
71. db_cbd_ba_bd_bac_d (a) KQPRQUPQ (b) KDRRUURQ
(c) KDRRQUPQ (d) KDRRQPPR
(a) adbcd (b) adcdb
84. s_ _m r q c t_p d m _ q _ t s _ _ m r q c t
(c) bdcbd (d) dacdb
(a) pdsrcrd (b) pdsrcpd
72. cd_ab_cd_abb_dda_b
(c) rdsrcrd (d) pdsrbpd
(a) bbcdb (b) dbdcb 85. g _ k m _ s k m _ g k m _ s k m g g k
(c) dbcbc (d) cbdab _ p s_m
73. ca_bab_ad_ab_ad_ab (a) gspgkm (b) gpgpmk
(a) bcdcb (b) cdbcd (c) gpgskm (d) gpgpkm
(c) dcbcb (d) dcabc
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 SERIES TEST

86. xq _ _ m c c _ _ q p f m _ _ b x_ _ f m 93. a _ cdb _ dac _ abd _ b _

c _b
(a) abccd (b) bcdac
(a) pfbxccqpc (b) sfbcccqpc
(c) bbddc (d) adcab
(c) qfbxccqpc (d) pfbxcxqpc
94. c _ efg _ _ gfed _ cdef _ _ hgfedc
87. t s m _ _ n q _ _ s m m n _ _ s t _ m
m n _qs (a) ghhdch (b) dhhcgh
(a) mnstnqmn (b) mmstmqtn (c) dhcchg (d) cchghd
(c) mnstnqsn (d) nmstnqns 95. stu _ wt _ vwx _ vw _ yv _ xy _
88. u _ _ m p m _ _ u u c m _ m m j _ u c (a) vuuxwz (b) vuvxwz
_ pmm_ (c) stuvwz (d) vuxwuz
(a) u c u j p m m j (b) u c m j u u m m 96. P _ MP _ MMP _ M _ PP _ MP
(c) u c m j p u m j (d) p c j m p u m j
(a) MPMPM (b) MPPMM
89. x _ _ y q _ _ t x z _ _ q s q t x _ _ y
(c) PMMPM (d) MMPPM
q s _ t
(a) z y s q y y z y q (b) y y s q z y z y q 97. ab _ ca _ cc _ bc _ abc _ ab

(c) z y q s y z z y q (d) z y s q y y y z (a) cbbac (b) cabcc

90. cc_ _ plop c_ _ rplo_ c _ c _ p l _ p c (c) cbacc (d) cbaac
(a) c r c c p c r o (b) c r p c p r r o 98. NM _ N _ MMN _ M _ NNM _ N
(c) p r c c p c r r (d) c r p c p c r o (a) MMNMN (b) MNNMM
91. ZX _ TR _ NLJ _ FD _ (c) MMNNM (d) NMMNM
(a) V P H B (b) V R H B 99. xy _ zy _ x _ zz _ x _ yz _ yx
(c) U P J B (d) U P J D (a) zyxzyx (b) yyxzzx
92. _ X _ YW _ XYXWZ _ Z _ WY _ Z. (c) zxyyxz (d) xzyyxy
(a) ZWZYXW (b) ZYWZXW 100. r _ se _ os _ ro _ er _ se
(c) YZXYZX (d) WZZXYW (a) o r e s o (b) r o r e s
(c) o e s r s (d) r o e s o

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (a)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (a)

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 ARRANGEMENT OF WORDS

24
CHAPTER
ARRANGEMENT OF WORDS
TYPE : I (Qustions based on arrange these (c) e, b, c, d, a (d) d, b, a, c, e
words in meaningful/logical order in ascending/ 7. (a) Paper (b) Library
decending)
(c) Author (d) Book
Directions (1–10) : Which one of the given
(e) Pen
responses would be a meaningful order of the
following words? (a) b, d, c, e, a (b) c, b, a, e, d

1. (a) Honey (b) Flower (c) c, e, a, d, b (d) e, a, c, d, b

(c) Bee (d) Wax 8. (a) Major (b) Captain

(a) b, a, d, c (b) b, c, a, d (c) Colonel (d) Brigadier

(c) d, c, b, a (d) a, c, d, b (e) Lt. General

2. (a) Accident (b) Judge (a) e, d, c, a, b (b) e, a, d, b, c

(c) Doctor (d) Lawyer (c) d, e, a, c, b (d) c, d, b, e, a

(e) Police 9. (a) Police (b) Punishment

(a) a, c, d, b, e (b) a, c, e, d, b (c) Crime (d) Justice

(c) a, b, c, d, e (d) a, b, e, d, c (e) Judgement

3. (a) Amoeba (b) Oyster (a) c, a, b, d, e (b) a, b, d, c, e

(c) Worm (d) Cow (c) e, d, c, b, a (d) c, a, d, e, b

(a) a, c, b, d (b) a, b, c, d 10. (a) Red (b) Green

(c) d, c, b, a (d) c, b, d, a (c) Violet (d) Yellow

4. (a) Letter (b) Phrase (e) Orange

(c) Word (d) Sentence (a) c, b, d, e, a (b) d, c, b, e, a

(a) a, c, d, b (b) a, c, b, d (c) c, d, b, a, e (d) b, e, d, a, c

(c) b, c, a, d (d) d, c, a, b TYPE : II (Question based on arrange the given

words in the sequence in which they occur in
5. (a) Electricity (b) Dam
the dictionary and locate first/last word.)
(c) Lights (d) River
Directions (11-20) : Arrange the following
(e) Power House words according to dictionary arrangement.
(a) d, b, a, c, e (b) d, b, e, c, a 11. (a) Elect (b) Electric
(c) d, b, c, a, e (d) d, b, e, a, c (c) Elector (d) Elastic
6. (a) Ocean (b) Rivulet (a) d, a, c, b (b) d, a, b, c
(c) Sea (d) Glacier (c) b, c, d, a (d) d, b, a, c
(e) River 12. (1) Motive (2) Mother
(a) e, b, c, a, d (b) d, b, e, c, a

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 ARRANGEMENT OF WORDS

(3) Meal (4) Milk (c) c, d, a, b (d) d, c, a, b

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1 Directions : Which of the following words will
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 come last if they are arranged according to English
dictionary.
13. (1) Composite (2) Complex
16. (a) Count (b) Cough
(3) Complain (4) Commerce
(c) Council (d) Counsel
(5) Complete
17. (a) Litter (b) Littoral
(a) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 5, 2, 1
(c) Literature (d) Little
(c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 (d) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
18. (a) Intellect (b) Intense
14. (a) Tortoise (b) Toronto
(c) Intelligent (d) Intend
(c) Torped (d) Torus
19. (a) Frankenstein (b) Frankincense
(e) Torsel
(c) Frankalmoign (d) Frauendienst
(a) b, e, c, a, d (b) b, e, c, d, a
20. (a) Proposition (b) Prosody
(c) b, c, e, a, d (d) b, c, e, d, a
(c) Proposal (d) Prosecute
15. (a) Critical (b) Criterion
(c) Crisis (d) Crisp
(a) c, d, b, a (b) a, c, d, b

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)

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 DICE & CUBE

25
CHAPTER
DICE AND CUBE
1. In the number of dots is three on top then how many 5. If the number of dots is 3 at bottom then what will
will be at bottom ? be the number of dots on top?

a) 2 b) 1 c) 4 d) 6
a) 1 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
6. A dice has been shown below in two positions. If
2. If 4 dots are at bottom then what will be the number the number of dots on top is 4 then what will be the
of dots on top ? number of dots at bottom ?

a) 3 b) 2 c) 5 d) 6
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6
3. A dice has been shown in two positions as given
7. A dice has been shown below in two positions. If
below. If the number of dots is at bottom. Then what
the number of dots at bottom is 2 then what will be
will be the number of dots on top of it ?
the number of dots on top ?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
a) 1 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
4. A dice has been given below in two positions. If
number of dots on top is 1 then what will be the 8. A dice has been given below in two positions. If the
number of dots at bottom ? number of dots at bottom is three then what will be
the number of dots on top?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6

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 DICE & CUBE
9. If the bottom of the dice shown 2 dots, then what 14. Four positions of a dice are given below. Identify
would be the number of dots on its top ? the number at the bottom when top is 2.

a) 6 b) 5 c) 1 d) 4
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6
15. Four views of one cube are given below. Each of
10. In the dice given below which number will be on the the six faces of cube is numbered. In figure 3 which
opposite side to 3 ? number will be opposite to the face with number 3.

a) 1 b) 6 c) 5 d) 4 a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 6

11. What will be the digit opposite to 2 ? 16. Which of the following is not a standard dice.

a) 1 b) 4 c) 5 17. Four forms of a dice are shown below. In this dice

which digit will be on the surface opp digit ‘4’ ?
d) can’t be determine

12. Which number will appear at the bottom face in the

last cube ?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5

18. A dice is thrown four times and its four different

a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 1 positions are given below. Find the number on the
face opposite the face showing 2.
13. If a cube is made using the given arrangements,
which colour will be opposite the colour green.

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 3.

a) Orange c) Silver c) Silver d) Violet

225
 DICE & CUBE
19. Four positions of a dice are given below. Identify a) 5 b) 4 c) 2 d) 6
the number at the bottom when the number on the
top is 2. 24. In the dice given below which number will be on the
opposite side to 6 ?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 3 d) 5
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
20. If a cube is made using the given arrangements,
25. In the dice given below which number will be on the
which colour will be opposite the colour Violet ?
opposite side to 3 ?

a) Orange b) Red c) Green d) White

21. Four forms of a dice are shown below. In this dice a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

which word will be on the surface opposite to the
26. In the dice given below which number will be on the
word D ?
opposite side to 3 ?

a) D b) A c) B d) C

22. Four forms of a dice are shown below in this dice a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

which digit will be on the surface opposite to the
27. Dice given below has been shown in four positions
digit 4 ?
on which digit 1 to 6 has been shown. What will be
opposite to digit 2 on this dice ?

a) 6 b) 3 c) 1 d) 5
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
23. Four forms of a dice are shown below in this dice
which digit will be on the surface opposite to the 28. Four different positions of a dice are as shown below.
digit 3 ? What number is opposite to face 3 ?

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 6

226
 DICE & CUBE
29. What will be the number of dots opposite to the Questions Figures :
surface of 2 dots ?

a) 1 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Answer figure

30. Which figure are we can make the given figure

33. In a given figure of open dice. Which dice we can

make ?

Question figure
Answer figure

31. Which figure are we can make the given figure?

Answer figure
Question figure

a) Only a) and c) b) Only b) and d)

c) Only c) d) Only a) and d)

Answer figure 34. Three views of the same cube are given. All the
faces of the cube are numbered from 1 to 6. Select
one figure which will result when the cube is
unfolded.

Questions Figures :

32. In a given figure of open dice. Which dice we can

make ?

227
 DICE & CUBE

Answer Figures:

35. Which of the following cubes can be created by

folding the given figure ?

Questions Figure :

38. Which alphabet will come in place of question mark?

Answer Figures:

a) S b) D c) U d) W

39. Which alphabet can come in place of question

36. From the given options, which figure can be formed marks ?
by folding the figure in the question ?

a) D b) F c) E

d) Can’t be determined

40. Study the figure and identify the correct dice formed
by that figure.

37. Below are given explanatory figures of a single dice

shown in two positions, determine the correct
explanatory figure .

228
 DICE & CUBE
a) 129 b) 127 c) 126 d) 125

Directions (48–52) : A cube of 5 cm has been

painted on its surface in such a way that two opposite
surface have been painted red colour and other two
opposite surface have been painted blue colour. Two
remaining surface have been left unpainted. Now the
cube is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm each.

48. How many smaller cubes will have none of the sides
painted ?

a) 10 b) 15 c) 9 d) 45
CUBE
49. How many cubes will have only two surfaces painted
41. A cube is coloured red on all of its faces. It is then with red and blue colours respectively ?
cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. Then how
a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 17
many smaller cubes have three surfaces painted
with red colour ? 50. How many cubes will have three surfaces coloured?
a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 10 a) 0 b) 4 c) 8 d) 5
42. A cube is coloured red on all of its faces. It is then 51. How many cubes will have only one surface painted
cut into 27 smaller cubes of equal size. The smaller with red and no colour on remaining surfaces ?
cubes so obtained are now separated. Then how
many smaller cubes have no surface coloured? a) 50 b) 40 c) 30 d) 60

a) 0 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4 52. If cubes having only red colour are removed then

how many cubes will left ?
43. A cube of 6cm length coloured yellow all of its faces.
Then it cut 1 cm length cubes. How many smaller a) 100 b) 110 c) 105 d) 75
cubes have two surfaces painted with yellow colour?
Directions (53–58) : A cube has been painted on
a) 50 b) 54 c) 48 d) 52 its surface in such a way that two opposite surfaces
have been painted black and white, other two opposite
Direction : (44–47) : There are 343 same size of surfaces have been painted green and rosy. One surface
wood cubes from all these cubes a solid cube was made is blue and one surface is purple. It is then cut into 216
then it coloured red on all of its faces then answer the smaller cubes of equal size.
following quetion.
53. How many cubes will have only two surfaces painted
44. How many smaller cubes have only three surfaces green and white and remaining side without colour?
painted with red colour ?
a) 12 c) 16 c) 20 d) 4
a) 8 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
54. How many cubes will have atleast blue colour on
45. How many smaller cubes have two surfaces painted its surface and remaining sides without any colour?
with red colour ?
a) 16 b) 20 c) 8 d) 10
a) 40 b) 60 c) 44 d) 80
55. How many such cubes are there which one surface
46. How many smaller cubes have only one surfce is rosy and one surface is either blue or purple and
painted with red colour ? other surface there is no colour ?
a) 200 b) 175 c) 150 d) 125 a) 8 b) 12 c) 10 d) 25
47. How many smaller cubes have no surface coloured?

229
 DICE & CUBE
56. How many cubes will have only two surfaces painted
with blue and black, respectively and there is no
colour of there surface ?

a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 64

57. How many cubes will have of the sides painted ?

a) 16 b) 20 c) 64 d) 28

58. How many cubes will bave three surfaces coloured?

a) 8 b) 16 c) 32 d) NOT

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d ) 5. ( d) 6. (b ) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)

11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19 (d) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a ) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b ) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a ) 45. ( b) 46. (c ) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (a)

230
 MISSING NUMBER

26
CHAPTER
Missing Number
Type-1 : Question based on the missing number
from the given responses in each of the following 10.
questions.
(A) 30 (B) 75 (C) 45 (D) 60
1.
11.
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 4
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 64 (D) 6

2. 12.
(A) 2250 (B) 8100 (C) 11036 (D) 1216
(A) 240 (B) 230 (C) 232 (D) 251

3. 13.

(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 10 (D) 12

(A) 68 (B) 65 (C) 86 (D) 52

4.
14.
(A) 35 (B) 37 (C) 45 (D) 47
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D)9

5.
15.
(A) 62 (B) 37 (C) 73 (D) 19 (A) 35 (B) 36 (C) 37 (D) 38
Type : 2 : Questions based on the missing number
from the regular pattern
6.

(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 18 16.

(A) 40 (B) 38 (C) 39 (D) 44

7.
(A) 45 (B) 48 (C) 51 (D) 54
17.

8.
(A) 9 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5
(A) 19 (B) 29 (C) 78 (D) 48

9. 18.

(A) 160 (B) 25 (C) 32 (D) 52 (A) 72 (B) 26 (C) 27 (D) 73

231
19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.
 MISSING NUMBER
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 14 (D) 16
5 4 9 6
7 5 2 4
33. 1 3 4 5
35 60 72 ?
(A) 116 (B) 136 (C) 120 (D) 126
9 5 6
7 6 7
34. 4 8 ?
252 240 210
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3

35.

(A) 330 (B) 336 (C) 428 (D) 420

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (c) 35. (b) 35. (b)

233
 Logical Venn Diagrams

27
CHAPTER
LOGICAL VENN DIAGRAMS
Type - 1 11. Tennis fans, Cricket Players, Students
Directions (1–10): Each of the questions below 12. Flowers, Clothes, White
contains three elements. These three elements may or 13. Smokers, Lawyers, Non-smokers
may not have some linkage. Each group of the elements 14. Human beings, Teachers, Graduates
may fit into one of the diagrams at (a), (b), (c), (d) and
15. Males, Fathers, Doctors
(e). You have to indicate groups of elements in each of
the questions fit into which of the diagrams given below. 16. Fathers, Uncles, Men
The letter indicating the diagram is the answer. 17. Musicians, Men, Women
18. Whales, Fishes, Crocodiles
(a) (b) 19. Anti-social elements, Pickpockets, Blackmailers
20. Tall men, Black haired people, Indians
21. Which are the numbers that make their presence
(c) (d) felt in only one of the geometric figures?

(e)

1. Vegetable, Potato, Cabbage

2. Table, Chair, Furniture
3. Week, Day, Year
4. Judge, Thief, Criminal (a) 4, 6, 7 (b) 1, 2, 9
5. Husband, Wife, Family (c) 3, 7, 9 (d) 2, 3, 8
6. Square, Rectangle, Polygon 22. Which number is present only in one geometrical
7. Bus, Car, Vehicle figure ?
8. Anxiety, Intelligence, Bathroom
9. House, Bedroom, Bthroom
10. Mustard, Barley, Potato
Directions (11–20): Each of these questions below
contains three groups of things. You are to choose from
the following five lettered diagrams, the one that depicts
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 4
the correct relationship among the groups of things in
each question. 23. In the following diagram, the triangle represents
doctors the circle represents players and the
rectangle represents singers which region
(a) (b) represents doctors who are signers but not players?

(c) (d)

(e) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

234
 Logical Venn Diagrams
24. Study the diagram given below and identify the 29. In the following diagram, police officer represents
region representign girls who are employed but circle, corrupt represents triangle, poet represents
unmarried. square and married represents rectangle

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

25. In the following figure, the triangle represents The area representing unmarried police officers who
teachers, the circle represents students and the are not corrupt but are poets is ?
rectangle represents actors. Which number
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 2 (d) 4
represents teachers who are also students and
30. In the given figure, how many people like cricket
actors ?
and tennis both ?

(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 2

(a) 17 (b) 32 (c) 15 (d) 27
26. How many Educated people are employed ?
31. In the given figure, how many prople study only 2
subjects ?

(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 26

27. How many players are neither Teachers nor
Singers? (a) 11 (b) 23 (c) 12 (d) 40
32. In the given figure, how many people speak Italian
and French language ?

(a) 17 (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 5

28. In the following figure, hwo many Educated people
are employed ? (a) 21 (b) 16 (c) 27 (d) 20
33. In the given figure, how many cardboard boxes are
not white ?

(a) 6 (b) 13 (c) 7 (d) 9

(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 9

235
 Logical Venn Diagrams

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. ( e) 5. (b ) 6. (a ) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)

11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (e) 15. (d) 16. (e) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19 (e) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b ) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (a)

236
 Counting Figure

28
CHAPTER
Counting Figure
NUMBER OF STRAIGHT LINES NUMBER OF TRIANGLES
Directions (1–5) : How many straight lines in Directions (6–35) : How many triangles are there
the given figure in the following figure.

1. 6.

(a) 10 (b) 12
(a) 11 (b) 13
(c) 13 (d) 17
(c) 9 (d) 15

2.

7.
(a) 16 (b) 15
(c) 18 (d) 19
(a) 20 (b) 24
(c) 28 (d) 32

3.

8.
(a) 13 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 11
(a) 29 (b) 27
(c) 23 (d) 30

4.
9.
(a) 11 (b) 13
(c) 17 (d) 19 (a) 29 (b) 38
(c) 35 (d) 42

5.
10.

(a) 9 (b) 12
(a) 36 (b) 38
(c) 15 (d) 48
(c) 40 (d) 42

237
 Counting Figure

11. 17.

(a) 6 (b) 7
(a) 24 (b) 25
(c) 8 (d) 9
(c) 26 (d) 28

18.
12.
(a) 12 (b) 14
(a) 28 (b) 26 (c) 16 (d) 18
(c) 32 (d) 35

19.
13.
(a) 13 (b) 15
(a) 27 (b) 23
(c) 16 (d) 17
(c) 31 (d) 29

20.

14. (a) 44 (b) 16

(c) 18 (d) 28

(a) 17 (b) 15
21.
(c) 13 (d) 9

(a) 48 (b) 60
(c) 56 (d) 52
15.

22.
(a) 24 (b) 26
(c) 28 (d) 20 (a) 11 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 6

16.
23.
(a) 7 (b) 10
(c) 8 (d) 9 (a) 16 (b) 6
(c) 22 (d) 24

238
 Counting Figure

24.

(a) 24 (b) 22
(c) 28 (d) 20 31.

25. (a) 21 (b) 22

(c) 20 (d) 25
(a) 13 (b) 14
(c) None (d) 17
32.

26. (a) 16 (b) 15

(c) 14 (d) 13

(a) 18 (b) 28
(c) 20 (d) 24
33.
27.

(a) 7 (b) 8 (a) 5 (b) 6

(c) 9 (d) 11 (c) 8 (d) 10

28.

34.
(a) 11 (b) 14
(c) 16 (d) 22
(a) 55 (b) 44
29. (c) 51 (d) 57

(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7

35.

30.

(a) 64 (b) 44
(a) 69 (b) 72 (c) 70 (d) 74
(c) 70 (d) 68

239
 Counting Figure
NUMBER OF SQUARES
Directions (36–45): How many squares are
there in the given figure. 42.

(a) 16 (b) 7
36. (c) 25 (d) 30

(a) 10 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 14 43.

(a) 88 (b) 85
37.
(c) 94 (d) 56

(a) 7 (b) 12
(c) 8 (d) 10
44.

38.
(a) 24 (b) 27
(c) 21 (d) 30
(a) 19 (b) 7
(c) 17 (d) 21

45.
39.
(a) 20 (b) 17
(a) 26 (b) 30 (c) 16 (d) 21
(c) 35 (d) 38
NUMBER OF RECTANGLES
Directions (46–55) : How many rectangles are
there in the question figure.
40.

(a) 13 (b) 14
46.
(c) 17 (d) 18

(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
41.
47

(a) 22 (b) 20 (a) 4 (b) 7

(c) 18 (d) 14 (c) 19 (d) 18

240
 Counting Figure

48.
54.

(a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 9 (d) 10 (a) 146 (b) 141
(c) 154 (d) 136

49.
55.

(a) 24 (b) 16
(c) 21 (d) 14 (a) 38 (b) 35
(c) 37 (d) 36
NUMBER OF CIRCLES
Directions (56–59): How many circles are there
50.
in this figure.

(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 11 (d) 12 56.

(a) 19 (b) 18
(c) 17 (d) 21
51.

57.
(a) 21 (b) 18
(c) 16 (d) 15
(a) 12 (b) 13
(c) 14 (d) 11
52.

(a) 10 (b) 9 58.

(c) 8 (d) 7
(a) 14 (b) 16
(c) 17 (d) 18
53.
59.

(a) 8 (b) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19

(c) 18 (d) 20 (c) 16 (d) 20

241
 Counting Figure
NUMBER OF CUBES
Directions (60–69): How many cubes are there
in this. 65.

(a) 5 (b) 6
60. (c) 10 (d) 15

(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 6
66.

61. (a) 6 (b) 7

(c) 8 (d) 9
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 12

67.
62.

(a) 69 (b) 180 (a) 81 (b) 87

(c) 88 (d) 89
(c) 144 (d) 84

63.
68.
(a) 28 (b) 10
(c) 32 (d) 24 (a) 25 (b) 30
(c) 32 (d) 34

64.

69.
(a) 20 (b) 10
(c) 16 (d) 18
(a) 80 (b) 87
(c) 89 (d) 90

242
 Counting Figure

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b ) 5. (b ) 6. (b ) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19 (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (c ) 23. (a ) 24. ( b) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c ) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (c)

243
 Mirror and Water Image

29
CHAPTER
MIRROR & WATER IMAGE
Direction (1-10) : In all the qeutions one or the
b)
other letter or number show its reflected image.
Which A, B, C & D. Choose the figure that show the c)
correct mirror image of the questions figure given
above. d)
1. WHITE 8. B R 4 A Q 1 6 H I

a) b) a)

b)
c) d)
c)
2. BRISK
d)
a) b)
9. U T Z F Y 6 K H
c) d) a)
3. PAINTED
b)
a) b)
c)
c) d)
d)
4. NATIONAL
10. T A R A I N 1 0 1 4 A
a) b)
a)
c) d) b)
5. SUPERVISOR c)
a)
d)
b) Direction (11-30) : Select the figure which show
the correct the mirror image of the question figure
c)
given above :—

d)
11.
6. A N S 4 3 Q 1 2
a)
b)
12.
c)

d)
7. D L 9 C G 4 7 28
13.
a)

244
 Mirror and Water Image

14. 24.

15. 25.

16. 26.

17. 27.

18.
28.

19. 29.

20.
30.

WATER IMAGES
21. Direction (31-40) : In all the qeutions one or the
other letter or number show its reflected image.
Which A, B, C & D. Choose the figure that show the
correct water images of the questions figure given
above.
22.
31. D I S C
a) b)
c) d)
23. 32. F R O G
a) b)
c) d)

245
 Mirror and Water Image
33. R E C R U I T
a) b) 43.
c) d)
34. A C O U S T I C
a) b)
c) d)
35. FAMILY
a) b)
c) d) 44.
36. V A Y U 8 4 3 6
a) b)
c) d)
37. B K 5 0 R P 6 2
a) b)
c) d)
45.
38. 9 6 F S H 5 2
a) b)
c) d)
39. R A J 5 8 9 D 8
a) b)
c) d)
46.
40. G R 9 8 A P 7 6 E S
a) b)
c) d)
Direction (41-60) : Select the figure which show
the correct the water image of the question figure
given above :—
47.

41.

48.

42.

246
 Mirror and Water Image

55. .
49.

56. .
50.

51. 57. .

52.

58. .

53.
59. .

54.
60. .

247
 Mirror and Water Image

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b ) 5. (a ) 6. (b ) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)

11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19 (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (d ) 24. ( a) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a ) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d)

248
 Paper Cutting & Folding

30 PAPER CUTTING & FOLDING

CHAPTER
Direction : (1–30) : In all these questions three
figures X, Y & Z have been cut out of a paper sheet
after folding and below four options are given in the 5.
answer from show tell correctly represent the
question figure.

1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

249
 Paper Cutting & Folding

10.
15.

11.
16.

12.

17.

13.

18.

14.

19.

250
 Paper Cutting & Folding

25.
20.

21.
26.

22.
27.

23.
28.

24.
29.

251
 Paper Cutting & Folding

39.

40.
30.

41.

42.
PAPER FOLDING
Direction : (31–50) : In each of these problems
a square paper sheet is given. And that paper has
been folded same way. So tell me after opening that 43.
paper sheet questions shape which shape will be
fromed :—
44.
31.

45.
32.

33. 46.

34. 47.

35.
48.

36.
49.

37.
50.

38.

252
 Paper Cutting & Folding

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d ) 5. (d ) 6. (b ) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)

11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19 (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c ) 24. ( d) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d ) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (c)

253
 Completion of Figure

31
CHAPTER
COMPLETION OF FIGURE
Direction : (1-25) : Which of the following answer 4. Question figure :
figures will complete the question figure ?
1. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

5. Question figure :

2. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

6. Question figure :
3. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

254
 Completion of Figure
7. Question figure : 10. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

8. Question figure :
11. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

9. Question figure :

12. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

255
 Completion of Figure
13. Question figure : Answer figures :

Answer figures :
17. Question figure :

14. Question figure : Answer figures :

Answer figures :
18. Question figure :

15. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :
19. Question figure :

16. Question figure :

Answer figures :

256
 Completion of Figure
20. Question figure : 23. Question figure :

Answer figures : Answer figures :

21. Question figure : 24. Question figure :

Answer figures : Answer figures :

22. Question figure :

25. Question figure :

Answer figures : Answer figures :

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b ) 5. (c ) 6. (d ) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)

11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19 (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b ) 24. ( a) 25. (c)

257
 Embedded Figure

32
CHAPTER
Embedded Figure
Direction (1-30) : In which answer figure are 5. Question figure :
question figures embedded ?
1. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

(a) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d)

6. Question figure :

(c) (d)

2. Question figure :
Answer figures :

Answer figures :
(a) (b)

(a) (b)

(c) (d) (c) (d)

7. Question figure :
3. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Question figure : 8. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

258
 Embedded Figure
9. Question figure : 13. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

(a) (b)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
14. Question figure :

(c) (d)

10. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

15. Question figure :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d) 16. Question figure :
12. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

259
 Embedded Figure
17. Question figure : Answer figures :

(a) (b)

Answer figures :
(c) (d)

22. Question figure :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

18. Question figure :
Answer figures :

Answer figures :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23. Question figure :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

19. Question figure : Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer figures :
24. Question figure :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer figures :
20. Question figure :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

25. Question figure :
Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer figures :

21. Question figure :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

260
 Embedded Figure
26. Question figure : Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Answer figures : 29. Question figure :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

27. Question figure : Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

30. Question figure :
Answer figures :

Answer figures :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
28. Question figure :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

261
 Embedded Figure

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a ) 6. (c ) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (d)

11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19 (d) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (d ) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)

262
 MATRIX

33
CHACHA
PTERPTER
Chapter
MATRIX
4. VAST
Directions : (1–10) : Given below are two
(a) 89, 01, 22, 56 (b) 89, 23, 22, 75
matrices of twenty five cells each containing two (c) 56, 41, 44, 57 (d) 56, 23, 22, 75
classes of alphabets. The columns and row of matrix 5. FRANK
I are numbered 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to (a) 04, 78, 01, 58, 66 (b) 21, 78, 41, 85, 65
9. A letter from these matrices can be represented (c) 21, 66, 01, 85, 56 (d) 04, 66, 10, 58, 65
first by its row number and next by the column 6. EAST
(a) 12, 41, 30, 57 (b) 12, 14, 44, 79
number. If ‘A’ can be represented by ‘01’, ‘41’ etc.
(c) 12, 14, 22, 98 (d) 00, 41, 03, 75
similarly ‘R’ can be represented by ‘59’, ‘78’ etc. In
7. RAEB
each of the following questions. Identify one set of (a) 59, 01, 21, 40 (b) 59, 01, 21, 04
number pairs out of (1),(2),(3) and (4) which (c) 59, 01, 12, 24 (d) 59, 10, 12, 24
represents the given word. 8. DRAW
Matrix I (a) 34, 78, 10, 88 (b) 34, 78, 01, 75
(c) 34, 87, 01, 88 (d) 34, 87, 01, 75
0 1 2 3 4 9. XRVG
(a) 69, 78, 65, 13 (b) 96, 87, 56, 31
0 E A C S F (c) 96, 87, 56, 24 (d) 69, 78, 56, 42
1 J D E G I 10. REMD
2 G F S A B (a) 59, 12, 87, 34 (b) 78, 21, 58, 11
3 S C H J D (c) 87, 21, 85, 11 (d) 78, 12, 85, 43
Directions : (11) : Given below are two matrices of
4 B A G I S
twenty five cells each containing two classes of
Matrix II alphabets. The columns and row of matrix I are
numbered 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A
5 6 7 8 9 letter from these matrices can be represented first
5 P V T M R by its column number and next by the row. If ‘Q’ can
be represented by ‘20’, ‘01’ etc. similarly ‘C’ can be
6 K R Q Z X
represented by ‘65’, ‘69’ etc. In each of the following
7 W P Y R T
questions. Identify one set of number pairs out of
8 N Z M W V
(1),(2),(3) and (4) which represents the given word
9 L X P T O "TREAT".
Matrix I
1. FAKE
(a) 04, 01, 66, 12 (b) 21, 41, 65, 00
(c) 21, 14, 65, 00 (d) 01, 14, 56, 00 0 1 2 3 4
2. PHGW 0 P R Q T S
(a) 55, 32, 24, 88 (b) 56, 32, 24, 87 1 Q P T S R
(c) 97, 23, 42, 88 (d) 76, 32, 42, 75
2 S Q P R T
3. STEM
(a) 03, 57, 12, 87 (b) 22, 79, 41, 58 3 T S R P Q
(c) 22, 57, 21, 85 (d) 22, 57, 21, 58 4 R T S Q P

263
 MATRIX
Matrix II Directions : (13) : Given below are two matrices of
twenty five cells each containing two classes of
5 6 7 8 9 alphabets. The columns and row of matrix I are
5 A C E D B numbered 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A
6 E D A B C letter from these matrices can be represented first
7 E B C A D by its column number and next by the row. If ‘T’ can
8 D A B C E be represented by ‘30’, ‘41’ etc. similarly ‘K’ can be
9 B C D E A represented by ‘76’, ‘68’ etc. In each of the following
questions. Identify one set of number pairs out of
(a) 30, 41, 57, 76, 14 (b) 13, 01, 57, 86, 24 (1),(2),(3) and (4) which represents the given word
(c) 13, 01, 95, 86, 24 (d) 30, 01, 57, 77, 24 "MILK".
Directions : (12) : Given below are two matrices of Matrix I
twenty five cells each containing two classes of
alphabets. The columns and row of matrix I are 0 1 2 3 4
numbered 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A 0 L F E T M
letter from these matrices can be represented first 1 E L M F T
by its column number and next by the row. If ‘A’ can 2 M T F L E
be represented by ‘10’, ‘31’ etc. similarly ‘U’ can be
3 T M L E F
represented by ‘85’, ‘96’ etc. In each of the following
4 F E T M L
questions. Identify one set of number pairs out of
(1),(2),(3) and (4) which represents the given word Matrix II
"TRAP".
Matrix I 5 6 7 8 9
5 K W Z I X
0 1 2 3 4
6 W X K Z I
0 O A D T L
7 X I W K Z
1 L O T A D
8 Z K I X W
2 T D L O A
9 I Z X W K
3 D L O A T
4 A T D L O (a) 20, 76, 00, 78 (b) 21, 78, 32, 76
(c) 20, 76, 00, 74 (d) 21, 78, 23, 76
Matrix II Directions : (14) : Given below are two matrices of
twenty five cells each containing two classes of
5 6 7 8 9 alphabets. The columns and row of matrix I are
5 C P R U E numbered 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A
6 R E P C U letter from these matrices can be represented first
7 U C E R P by its column number and next by the row. If ‘D’ can
8 E R C P U be represented by ‘41’, ‘04’ etc. similarly ‘F’ can be
9 P R U E C represented by ‘57’, ‘76’ etc. In each of the following
questions. Identify one set of number pairs out of
(a) 34, 57, 13, 56 (b) 21, 87, 04, 96 (1),(2),(3) and (4) which represents the given word
(c) 21, 87, 04, 97 (d) 34, 57, 13, 58 "LIFE".

264
 MATRIX

Matrix I by its column number and next by the row. If ‘A’ can
be represented by ‘40’, ‘32’ etc. similarly ‘T’ can be
0 1 2 3 4 represented by ‘75’, ‘89’ etc. In each of the following
0 H D L I O questions. Identify one set of number pairs out of
1 I H O L D (1),(2),(3) and (4) which represents the given word
2 O L D H I "COAT".
3 L O I D H Matrix I
4 D I H O L
0 1 2 3 4
Matrix II 0 C E L Y A
1 E L A C Y
5 6 7 8 9 2 L C Y A E
5 E F K C J 3 A Y C E L
6 K J F E C 4 E A Y L C
7 F E C J K
8 C K J F E Matrix II
9 J C E K F
5 6 7 8 9
(a) 21, 24, 57, 89 (b) 21, 24, 56, 89 5 O X T G D
(c) 31, 23, 76, 79 (d) 32, 23, 76, 79 6 T G O D X
Directions : (15) : Given below are two matrices of 7 D A G X O
twenty five cells each containing two classes of 8 G D X O T
alphabets. The columns and row of matrix I are
9 X O D T G
numbered 0 to 4 and that of matrix II from 5 to 9. A
letter from these matrices can be represented first (a) 00, 96, 12, 89 (b) 31, 76, 32, 75
(c) 31, 76, 31, 75 (d) 00, 97, 12, 89

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c ) 5. ( b) 6. (a ) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a)

11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b)

265
 Analogy (Non-Verbal)

34
CHAPTER
ANALOGY
Direction (1-25) : Select the related figure from the
answer figures.
1. Question figure :

. 5. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

2. Question figure :
6. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

3. Question figure :
7. Question figure :
.

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

8. Question figure :
4. Question figure :

Answer figures :

266
 Analogy (Non-Verbal)
Answer figures : 13. Question figure :

Answer figures :
9. Question figure :

14. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

10. Question figure :

15. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

11. Question figure :

16. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

12. Question figure :

17. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

267
 Analogy (Non-Verbal)
18. Question figure : 22. Question figure :

Answer figures : Answer figures :

23. Question figure :

19. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

20. Question figure : 24. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

25. Question figure :

21. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

268
 Analogy (Non-Verbal)

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a ) 5. (a ) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)

11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19 (b) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. ( a) 25. (d)

269
 Classification(Non-Verbal)

35
CHAPTER
CLASSIFICATION
Instruction : (1-2) : Odd one out from the given
option choose the shape :—

1.
5.

2.

Instruction : (3-8) : Given below is a sequence

of figures which can be grouped into classes. Select
the group into which the shapes can be classified.

6.
(a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3
2, 5, 9 4, 5, 6
6, 7, 8 7, 8, 9
(c) 1, 5, 9 (d) 3, 7, 8
2, 4, 7 1, 6, 5
3, 6, 8 4, 2, 9

4.

7.

270
 Classification(Non-Verbal)

8.

13.

9. Choose the odd shape :

14. Choose the odd shape :

Instruction : (10) : Given below is a sequence
of figures which can be grouped into classes. Select
the group into which the shapes can be classified.

15. Choose the odd shape :

Instruction : (16) : Given below is a sequence

of figures which can be grouped into classes. Select
the group into which the shapes can be classified.

11. Choose the odd shape :

Instruction : (12-13) : Given below is a

sequence of figures which can be grouped into
classes. Select the group into which the shapes can
be classified.

12.

271
 Classification(Non-Verbal)
17. Choose the one which is different from the 22. Dirction (22-24) : Given below is a sequence
other three options. in which one figure is missing. Out of the
four given option choose the option that
will complete the sequence.

Instruction : (18) : Given below is a sequence

of figures which can be grouped into classes. Select
the group into which the shapes can be classified.

23.
19. Choose the odd shape :

Instruction : (20-21) : Given below is a

sequence of figures which can be grouped into
classes. Select the group into which the shapes can
be classified. 24. Question figure :
20. Question figure :

.
.
Answer figures :
Answer figures :

21. Choose the odd shape : 25. Choose the odd shape :

272
 Classification(Non-Verbal)

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c ) 5. (d ) 6. (a ) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)

11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19 (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c ) 24. ( b) 25. (b)

273
 Series (Non-Verbal)

36
CHAPTER
SERIES [Non-Verbal]
Direction (1-25) : Select the figure that will come 4. Question figure :
next in the following figure series :—
1. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

5. Question figure :

2. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

6. Question figure :

3. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

7. Question figure :

274
 Series (Non-Verbal)
Answer figures :

Answer figures :

8. Question figure :

Instruction :
Answer figures : 12. Question figure :

Answer figures :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9. Question figure :

13. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

10. Question figure :

14. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

11. Question figure :

:

275
 Series (Non-Verbal)
15. Question figure : 19. Question figure :

Answer figures :
Answer figures :

16. Question figure :

(a) (b) (c) (d)
20. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

17. Question figure :

21. Question figure :

Answer figures :

Answer figures :

18. Question figure :

22. Question figure :

Answer figures :

276
 Series (Non-Verbal)
Answer figures : 25. Question figure :

Answer figures :
23. Question figure :

Answer figures :

24. Question figure :

Answer figures :

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a ) 5. (c ) 6. (a ) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)

11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19 (a) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a ) 24. ( b) 25. (d)

277