JNU BIOTECHNOLOGY 2019 IFAS

BIOTECHNOLOGY -2019
PART-A (d) 1.97 x 105 radian/s
1. Which of the following is true about the linear 6. A researcher intends to study the structure of a
velocity of Earth around the sun? (For northern virus using a microscope. Considering the fact
hemisphere). that a wave having less energy will cause less
(1) Larger in summer, smaller in winter damage to the virus under investigation, to
(2) Larger in winter, smaller in summer study the structure of a virus of size 50 nm, the
(3) Equal across the whole year researcher should use which of the following?
(4) Equal across the whole year, except in winter [Mass of electron: 9.11x10-31 kg, h=6.63 x 10-34
and summer solstices J.s, hc = 1.24 x 10-6 eV.m]
(a) Electrons of 5 nm wavelength
2. Match the following:
(b) Electrons of 10 nm wavelength
Time intervals (in seconds) Measurements
(c) Electro-magnetic waves of 10 nm wavelength
(A) Lifetime of the proton (i) 1 x 10-3
(d) Electro-magnetic waves of 5 nm wavelength
(B) Age of the Universe (ii) 3 x 1040
(C) Time for sound to (iii) 1 x 10-9 7. The growth of a population of mycobacterium is
travel 0.35 m being observed under ideal laboratory
(D) Time for light to travel (iv) 5 x 1017 conditions (i.e. their population is increasing
0.3 m exponentially). It is found that this population
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii) consists of 1,000 bacteria at the end of 2 hours
(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv) and 8,000 bacteria at the end of 5 hours.
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii) Calculate the number of bacteria present in the
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) population at the beginning of this experiment
3. A pumpkin (1 kg) and a watermelon (2 kg) are (a) 125
lying on the floor. Considering the position of (b) 250
pumpkin as the origin of a coordinate system, (c) 500
watermelon lies at a point (2.0, 1.0) m. At t=0, (d) 750
two forces ⃗𝑭𝒑 = (𝟑. 𝟎𝒊̂ + 𝟒. 𝟎𝒋̂) and ⃗𝑭𝒘 =
(−𝟒. 𝟎𝒊̂ − 𝟑. 𝟎𝒋̂) start acting on pumpkin and 8. For a reliable detection of a cancerous tumor, it
watermelon respectively. With respect to the should consist of approximately 1012 cells. If one
position at t=0 s, what is the displacement of cell becomes cancerous on a particular day and
the centre of the mass of pumpkin-watermelon the doubling time of the cell is 4 days, after how
system at time == 3.0 s (in unit-vector notation). many days this tumor may be detected?
(1) (1.5m)𝑖̂ − (1.5m)𝑗̂ (a) 320 (b) 80
(2) (−3.0m)𝑖̂ + (3.0m)𝑗̂ (c) 160 (d) 40
(3) (3.0m)𝑖̂ − (3.0m)𝑗̂
(4) (−1.5m)𝑖̂ + (1.5m)𝑗̂ 9. Rice is boiled in a pressure cooker. If it gets
cooled from 95 °C to 85 °C in 1 minute time, in
4. A magnetic field around the chest (that is how much time will it cool from 73 °C to 67 °C?
generated due to small currents in the heart) of [Consider the room temperature to be 30 °C]
a person is measured to be 4 𝝁 Gauss. Assuming (a) 54 sec
the entire current is generated due to a long (b) 42 sec
straight wire inside the heart and the surface of (C) 30 sec
the chest to be at a distance of 4 cm from that (d) 10 sec
hypothetical wire, calculate the heart current.
[𝛍𝟎 = 𝟒𝛑 𝐱 𝟏𝟎−𝟕 𝐓. 𝐦/𝐀, 𝟏𝐆𝐚𝐮𝐬𝐬 = 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝐓] 10. If the hydroxyl ion (OH') concentration in a
(1) 80 μA (2) 40 μA dilute aqueous solution is 10-6 gm ion / litre, the
(3) 125.6 μA (4) 62.8 μA pH of the solution will be
5. Considering the fact that the eardrum (a) 5.0
membrane has to vibrate with the same (b) 6.0
frequency as of the incident sound wave, if the (c) 7.0
highest pitch a human can hear is of 50 𝛍𝐬, what (d) 8.0
will be the corresponding angular frequency of
the vibrating eardrum? 11 How many optical isomers does isoleucine
(a) 1.26 x 105 radian/s have?
(b) 2.52 x 105 radian/s (1) 2 (2) 4
(C) 3.96 x 105 radian/s (3) 8 (4) 16

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12. In the following reaction, reaction I is ________ 17. Arrange the following intermediates according
and reaction II is ______. to increasing order of stability

(1) II < III < I < IV

(1) Oxidation, reduction
(2) III > I > II > IV
(2) Oxidation, Oxidation
(3) III > II > I > IV
(3) reduction, reduction
(4) II > I > III > IV
(4) reduction, Oxidation
18. In the following transformation the role of
13. An aqueous solution of sodium chloride shall
H2SO4 is
boil at
(1) 99.9 °C
(2) > 100 °C
(3) < 100 °C
(4) 100 °C
(1) To remove water
14. Which of the following statement is true for (2) To generate nitronium ion
alcohols (3) To oxidise benzene
(1) It is a weak Bronsted base and weak Bronsted (4) To protonate benzene
acid
(2) It is a strong Bronsted base but weak 19. Walking at 3/5th of his usual pace, a man
Bronsted acid reaches his office 30 minutes late. Find his usual
(3) It is a weak Bronsted base but strong time to reach office
Bronsted acid (1) 30 minutes
(4) It is a strong Bronsted base and strong (2) 40 minutes
Bronsted acid (3) 60 minutes
(4) 90 minutes
15. When an electron withdrawing group (EWG) is
in the Para-position of phenol, the phenol 20. A 25 m long ladder is placed against a vertical
becomes more acidic. This is because wall inside a room such that the foot of the
(1) the EWG destabilizes phenoxide through ladder is 7 m from the foot of the wall. If the top
resonance effect of the ladder slides down 4 m downwards, then
(2) the EWG stabilizes phenoxide through the foot of the ladder will slide by
resonance effect (1) 8 m (2) 3 m
(3) the EWG stabilizes phenoxide through (3) 15 m (4) 16 m
inductive effect only
(4) the EWG stabilizes phenoxide through 21. In a cricket tournament, there were 78 matches
delocalization and through inductive effect played. Every two teams played one match with
each other. The number of teams that
16. Arrange the following compounds according to participated in the tournament were
decreasing order of basic strength (1) 13 (2) 15
(3) 17 (4) 19

22. Solve the following equation for values of x:

𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
𝒂+𝒃+𝒙
= 𝒂+𝒃+𝒙
(1) 𝑥 = −𝑎, −𝑏
(1) II > I > III > IV (2) 𝑥 = (𝑎 + 𝑏), (𝑎 − 𝑏)
(2) І > II > III > IV (3) 𝑥 = −(𝑎 + 𝑏), (𝑎 − 𝑏)
(3) III > I > II > IV (4) 𝑥 = 𝑎, 𝑏
(4) III > II > I > IV
23. What is the area bounded by the curve 𝒚 =
𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝒙 between 𝒙 = −𝝅⁄𝟐 to 𝒙 = 𝟑𝝅⁄𝟐?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

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24. The maximum value of 𝟑𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝐱 + 𝟒𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝐱 is PART-B
(1) -5 𝟏
31. Consider the function 𝒇(𝒙) = 𝒙𝟑 𝐬𝐢𝐧 (𝒙) , 𝒙 ≠
(2) 5.5
𝟎, 𝒇(𝟎) = 𝟎 .Which one of the following
(3) 3
assertions is true?
(4) 5
(1) 𝑓 is differentiable at 0
(2) 𝑓 is continuous at 0 but not differentiable at 0
25. Most of the glucose that is filtered through the
(3) 𝑓 is an one-one function
glomerulus undergoes reabsorption in the
(4) 𝑓 has finitely many real roots
(1) Distal tube
(2) Collecting duct
32. For a polynomial with x as independent
(3) Proximal tubule
variable, which of the following assertions is
(4) Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
always true?
(1) A polynomial of odd degree has a global
26. The phylum arthropoda is characterized by the
maximum or a global minimum
presence of
(2) A polynomial of even degree has no global
(1) chitinous exoskelet on external segmentation
maximum or global minimum
and paired joined appendages
(3) The graph of polynomial of even degree
(2) chitinous exoskelet on, external segmentation
always cuts the x-axis
and paired appendages
(4) The graph of polynomial of odd degree always
(3) chitinous exoskelet on and antennae
cuts the x-axis
(4) chitinous exoskelet on, antennae and
compound eyes
33. the function 𝒚 = 𝒆−𝟓𝒙 is a solution of which of
the following differential equations?
27. O2 is likely to diffuse across the cell membrane 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
more readily than Na+ because it is: (1) + + 10𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
(1) Smaller 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
(2) +4 − 5𝑦 = 0
(2) Hydrophilic 𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
(3) Charged (3) − + 5𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
(4) Nonpolar 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
(4) 𝑑𝑥 2 − 4 𝑑𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 0
28. In a ligand-enzyme interaction study, it was
observed that the ligand concentration was 9 34. A car owner buys petrol at Rs. 75, 80 and 85 per
times the dissociation constant, Kd. The litre for three successive years. What
percentage of the enzyme in the complex from approximately is the average cost per litre of
will be petrol if he spends Rs. 5000 each year?
(1) 10% (1) 78.21
(2) 90% (2) 79.79
(3) 99% (3) 81.40
(4) 100% (4) 82.22

29. The recent Nobel prize in medicine 2018 was 35. If the sum of n terms of a sequence is given by
awarded to James Allison of the University of the expression 𝑺𝒏 = 𝟑𝒏𝟐 − 𝟒𝒏 Then what is the
Texas, and Tasuku Honjo of Kyoto University, in 𝒏𝒕𝒉 term of the sequence?
Japan. The prize was awards for a new type of (1) 3𝑛 − 1
cancer treatments which targeted: (2) 2𝑛 − 1
(1) Telomeres (3) 6𝑛 − 7
(2) Receptor kinase (4) 6𝑛 − 5
(3) Immune checkpoint
(4) Tumor antigen 36. If 𝒂 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝜽 − 𝒃 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝜽 = 𝒄, then what is the value
of 𝒂 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝜽 + 𝒃 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝜽?
30. A bacterial culture growing exponentially (1) ±√𝑎2 + 𝑏2 − 𝑐 2
increases 10 fold in 10 hours. The doubling time (2) ±√𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑐 2
of the bacteria is approximately (3) ±√𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐
(1) 1 hour (4) ±√𝑎 + 𝑏 − 𝑐
(2) 2 hour
(3) 3 hour
(4) 4 hour

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37. The equation of the straight line that passes 43. Consider a planet having radius 90% to that of
through the point of intersection of the lines the earth and mass 81% to that of the earth. If a
𝒚 = 𝟑𝒙– 𝟏 and 𝒙 − 𝟐𝒚 + 𝟑 = 𝟎 and is also rock weight 80 N on earth, what would it weigh
parallel to the line 𝟑𝒙 − 𝟐𝒚 + 𝟕 = 𝟎 is given by at the surface of this planet?
(1) 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 2 = 0 (1) 40 N (2) 80 N
(2) 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 − 1 = 0 (3) 60 N (4) 160 N
(3) 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 3 = 0
(4) 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 1 = 0 44. Two electrons fall from a height of 2 cm in a
uniform electric field. First electron (e1)
38. Which of the following statements is necessarily experiences a field of 1.5 x 104 NC-1 whereas the
true? second electron (e2) experiences a field of 6 x
(1) Every relation is onto 104 NC-1 If times taken by these two electrons
(2) Every function is a reflexive relation are te1, and te2 respectively, calculate the ratio
(3) only one function is an equivalence relation of these two time durations (te1/te2). [Assume
(4) No function is an equivalence relation this is gravitation-less free fall system.)
(1) 2 (2) 1
39. If a DNA pentamer is composed by randomly (3) 2 (4) 14
selecting all the four nucleotides A,T,G and C
with equal likelihood, what is the probability of 45. In a double slit experiment, if the two slits are
finding the sequence 5'-TATAA- 3' by a random placed 500 𝛍𝐦 apart and the screen is kept 500
chance? cm away, calculate the fringe separation when a
(1) 0.00097 red light of 640 nm is used?
(2) 0.10242 (1) 640 μm
(3) 0.06256 (2) 0.064 mm
(4) 0.01563 (3) 0.6 cm
(4) 6 x 10-6m
𝟒 𝟐 𝟑
40. Consider the matrix 𝑨 = [𝟎 𝟐𝒌 − 𝟏 𝟏]. For 46. Calculate the minimum limit of resolution that
𝟎 𝟎 𝒌 can be achieved using a visible light in optical
what value of k is the matrix A singular?
microscopy?
(1) 𝑘 = 2,4. (1) 160 nm
(2) 𝑘 = 1⁄2 , 0. (2) 0.004 μm
(3) 𝑘 = 0, 1. (3)160 μm
(4) 𝑘 = 1⁄2 , 1⁄4 (4) 1.6 cm

41. A parachuter of weight 64 kg jumps from a 47. A 10 𝛍𝐅 capacitor is connected to a 10 V battery

plane at a height of 400 m and is coming and charged fully. In another case, a weight of
downwards with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 If the 10 kg is taken to the height of 200 m. If the
parachute weighs 6 kg, calculate the downward energy stored in capacitor is E1 and the potential
force exerted by the person on the parachute. energy of the weight is E2, then which of the
[g=10 m/s2] following statement is correct? [g = 10 m/s2]
1
(1) 240 N (1) 𝐸1 = 2 × 102 𝐸2
(2) 48 N 1
(2) 𝐸1 = 2 × 108 𝐸2
(3) 512 N 1
(4) 560 N (3) 𝐸1 = 2 × 10−2 𝐸2
1
(4) 𝐸1 = 2 × 10−8 𝐸2
42. Two stones of masses m1 and m2 are being
dropped from a height of 100 meter one after 48. For a resistive thermometer, if the wire shows a
the other. Consider the first stone (m1 =m2) is resistance of 3 𝛀 at ice point and 3.4 𝛀 at the
dropped at t=0 and the second stone (m2 = 2m) steam point then the temperature of an oil bath
is dropped at t= 100 ms. Calculate the location having resistance of 3.9𝛀 will be given by,
of centre of mass of this combined system (1) 900 °C
consisting of these two stones from the release (2) 400 °C
point after time t=200 ms? (3) 225 °C
(1) 0.05 meter (2) 0.1 meter (4) 125 °C
(3) 0.15 meter (4) 0.2 meter

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49. A metal block of mass 2 kg is fastened to a 55. In Zea mays, the enzyme which fixes CO2 into
spring on a frictionless surface that has a spring malic acid is
constant 100 Nm-1 If the block is pulled to a (1) Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase
distance of 10 cm from the equilibrium position (2) Fructose phosphatase
at x=0 at t=0, calculate the kinetic energy at a (3) Ribulose phosphate kinase
distance of 5cm away from the mean position (4) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
(1) 0.19 J (2) 0.38 J
(3) 0.095 J (4) 0.019 J 56. Which of the following can be observed after
shift of an E. coli culture from aerobic to
50. A man is standing 420 m apart from his friend. If anaerobic condition?
the first person wants to communicate with the I. Superoxide dismutase gene will be
second man and shouts loudly, calculate what upregulated.
will be the time lapse between the speaking of II. Lactate dehydrogenase gene will be
the first man and the listening of the second upregulated
man at standard temperature. [The mass of 1 III. ATP to ADP ratio decreases
mole of air is 29 x 10-3Kg, if the Laplace IV. Generation time of E. coli decreases
correction is not applied] The correct combination is
(1) 2 s (1) I and II
(2) 1.5 s (2) II and III
(3) 3s (3) III and IV
(4) 1.225 s (4) I and III

51. Molecular chaperones are proteins employed by 57. Statement (S): Photophosphorylation occurs
nature that assist in the proper folding of only in thylakoid membranes, but not in the
proteins to their native state by preventing their mitochondrial cristae.
misfolding and aggregation predominantly by Reason (R): In mitochondria ATP synthase is
interacting with the target proteins through responsible for phosphorylation of ADP.
(1) Ionic Interactions (1) (S) and (R) are true. (R) is the right explanation
(2) Hydrogen bonding interactions of (S)
(3) Hydrophilic interactions (2) (S) and (R) are true. But (R) is not the correct
(4) Hydrophobic interactions explanation of (S)
(3) (S) is true, but (R) is false
52. Chromatography is a powerful technique for the (4) (S) is false, but (R) is true
separation of biomolecules from their crude
mixtures isolated from natural sources. 58. Read the following graph related to the rate of
Alkalaine phosphatase which has a pl of 5.0 can enzymatic reaction
be best separated from such a mixture of
proteins in a pH 7.0 buffer by using
(1) Anion-exchange chromatography
(2) Cation-exchange chromatography
(3) Gel-filtration chromatography
(4) Reverse phase chromatography
Identify the combination of alphabets with
correct labels
53. Denaturation of proteins by 8 M urea does NOT
I. ‘A’-substrate concentration
involve
II. 'B' - substrate concentration at half of the
(1) Breaking of hydrogen bonds
maximum velocity
(2) Breaking of hydrophobic interactions
III. 'C'- substrate concentration at half of the
(3) Breaking of electrostatic interactions
maximum velocity
(4) Breaking of peptide bonds
IV. 'A'-enzyme velocity
(1) I and II
54. Which of the following amino acid has a side
(2) I and III
chain hydroxyl group?
(3) II and III
(1) Glycine
(4) III and IV
(2) Aspartic acid
(3) Threonine
(4) Lysine

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59. Identify incorrect statement from the following. 64. Adaptive radiation refers to
(1) Photophosphorylation takes place in both (1) evolution of different species from a common
chloroplast and mitochondria ancestor
(2) Both chloroplast and mitochondria contain (2) migration of members of a species to different
DNA geographical areas
(3) Chloroplasts are generally much larger than (3) power of adaptation in an individual to a
mitochondria variety of environments
(4) Both chloroplast and mitochondria contain (4) adaptations due to geographical isolation
inner and outer membrane
65. Deficiency of thymus results in increased
60. Which of the following statements is incorrect? infections in humans. Such a condition is called
(1) Membrane fluidity increases with an increase (1) Thymectomy
in saturated to unsaturated fatty acid ratio (2) Graves disease
(2) Membrane fluidity increases with a decrease (3) Di Georges syndrome
in saturated to unsaturated fatty acid ratio (4) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Membrane fluidity increases with an increase
in the number of cis-double bonds in a 66. The inheritance of shell-coiling direction in the
biological membrane snail is an example of maternal inheritance. A
(4) Membrane fluidity decreases with an increase snail produced by a cross between two
in the number of trans double bonds in individuals has a shell with a dextral coiling. This
membrane fatty acids. snail produces only sinistral progeny on selfing.
What is the genotype of female (mother) in F1
61. Read the following statements and identify the snail and its mother.
correct combination. (1) dd and Dd
I. Kranz anatomy pertains to leaf of C4 plant (2) DD and dd
II. ATP formation during photosynthesis is (3) Dd and Dd
termed as photophosphorylation (4) dd and DD
III. Reduction of NADP to NADPH occurs during
Calvin cycle
67. Some of the E. coli bacteria that were originally
IV. Manganese is associated with photosystem I
isolated from a contaminated salad were
(1) I and II
tetracycline resistant. When these tetracycline-
(2) I and III
resistant bacteria were incubated along with
(3) II and III
other tetracycline susceptible E. coli strains, all
(4) III and IV
of them became tetracycline resistant. Which of
the following is responsible for the transfer of
62. Read the following statements
resistance?
I. Cytokinins suppress the synthesis of
(1) Donor cell lysis and the release of DNA from
chlorophyll
donor bacteria
II. Auxins control apical dominance
(2) Competent E.coli cells
III. Gibberellins promote shoot elongation
(3) Presence of conjugative plasmids in
IV. Abscisic acid enables seeds to withstand
tetracycline resistant cells
desiccation
(4) Recombinase enzymes
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) I, II and IV
(2) I, III and IV 68. Which of the following is an example of
(3) II, III and IV substrate-level phosphorylation?
(4) I, II and III (1) The phosphorylation of glucose by glucokinase
(2) The reduction of NAD+ by triosphosphate
63. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between dehydrogenase
aminoacyl tRNA and mRNAtranslation complex (3) The removal of a phosphate group from
during bacterial protein synthesis? glucose 6-phosphate by glucose 6-
(1) Erythromycin phosphatase
(2) Tetracycline (4) The addition of an inorganic phosphate to
(3) Puromycin ADP by pyruvate kinase.
(4) Streptomycin

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69. The DNA fragment with a sequence to be 75. A bacterial strain can grow on agar
amplified is shown below. Assuming that the supplemented with arginine (Arg), tryptophan
primer attaches exactly to the end of the (Trp) and histidine (His). It fails to grow on agar
fragment, which of the following is most likely containing (I) only Arg and Trp or (II) only His
the primer? (Note: The N stands for any and Trp. It will grow if (III) only Arg and His are
nucleotide.) present. What is the genotype of the bacterium
5-ATGNNNN NNN NNNGCT-3' with respect to these three amino acids?
(1) 5'-GCT-3' (1) 𝐴𝑟𝑔+ 𝐻𝑖𝑠 + 𝑇𝑟𝑝 −
(2) 5-TAC-3 (2) 𝐴𝑟𝑔− 𝐻𝑖𝑠 − 𝑇𝑟𝑝 +
(3) 5-TCG-3' (3) 𝐴𝑟𝑔+ 𝐻𝑖𝑠 − 𝑇𝑟𝑝 +
(4) 5-AGC-3 (4) 𝐴𝑟𝑔− 𝐻𝑖𝑠 + 𝑇𝑟𝑝 +

70. A person was tested for his blood group. 76. Which of the following graphs represents the
Surprisingly the person was found to be positive phenomenon of cooperativity in a protein
for the presence of A, B, and H antigen-specific function?
antibodies. Based on the observation, what will
be the blood group of the person?
(1) O
(2) B
(3) AB
(4) Oh

71. The coreceptor for HIV entry into the cell is

(1) CD8 (1) I (2) II
(2) CD4 (3) III (4) IV
(3) CXCR4
(4) CCL5 77. Which of the following statements about a
receptor protein signal cascade is WRONG?
72. If you block B7.1 and B7.2 on antigen presenting (1) External signals can cause changes in gene
cells expression via receptor protein signal cascade
(1) You will disrupt the formation of antigen- (2) Multiple steps are required for the response
antibody complex. of the cell resulting from activation of a
(2) You will stimulate T cells to produce pro- receptor tyrosine kinase
inflammatory cytokines. (3) A stimulated response can be generated by
(3) T cell will not receive co-stimulatory signals. mutation in more than one protein in the
(4) It will lead to Th1 polarization. cascade
(4) Multiple steps allow the same response in all
73. Two patients from London and Berlin have been cells from the same ligand
in news recently for having cleared the HIV
infection achieved through a breakthrough 78. Mark the CORRECT statement about the
strategy. The strategy employed was integration of F plasmid into E. coli
(1) Highly Active Antiretroviral therapy (HAART) chromosome.
treatment intensification (1) The site where F integrates is unique
(2) Consumption of probiotics with ART (2) Integration always occurs in clockwise
(3) Alternative medicine direction
(4) Bone marrow transplantation from healthy (3) Integration always occurs in anticlockwise
donor with CCR5 mutation. direction
(4) Both clockwise or anticlockwise direction
74. What is the turnover rate of 10-6 M solution of depending on the orientation of IS elements
carbonic anhydrase that catalyses conversion of
0.6M H2CO3 per sec. 79. Molecular target of Colicin E3, a ribonuclease
(1) 0.6 x 10-5 per sec produced by Col plasmid is
(2) 6 x 105 per sec (1) tRNA
(3) 0.6 x 10-6 per sec (2) 16S rRNA
(4) 6 x 106 per sec (3) 5S rRNA
(4) 23S rRNA

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80. E. coli uses alternative sigma factors for 85. Low activity of the acyltransferase enzyme,
transcription besides the standard 𝝈𝟕𝟎 under involved in synthesis of fat and phospholipid,
special circumstances. Sigma factor 𝝈𝟑𝟖 also would result in accumulation of the following
known as RpoS recognizes consensus sequence intermediates
found in promoters of which of the following (1) diacylglycerol phosphate
genes? (2) triglyceride
(1) Genes expressed during stationary phase (3) glycerol-3-phosphate
(2) Gene expressed in response to heat shock (4) phosphatidyl serine
(3) Genes involved in flagellar synthesis
(4) Gene expressed in response to misfolded 86. During the elucidation of genetic code, when
proteins in periplasm synthetic mRNA of 5’AUAUAUAUAUA......3’
sequence was used, the amino acid components
81. Alterative splicing of an mRNA encoding two of the polypeptide were isoleucine and tyrosine,
different proteins, would likely while the other synthetic mRNA of 5'
(1) have identical functions. AUUAUUAUUAUU....3' resulted in a polypeptide
(2) have completely different functions. containing isoleucine, leucine and tyrosine. A
(3) have different functions under similar third synthetic mRNA 5' UAAUAAUAA....3
mechanism of regulation. resulted in a polypeptide that contained
(4) have similar functions under different forms asparagine and isoluecine. Based on these data,
of regulation. “UAU" codon will encode for
(1) isoleucine (2) tyrosine
82. Which of the following enzyme is not involved in (3) leucine (4) asparagine
the normal pathway for breakdown of amino
87. Which of the following double stranded DNA is
acids in the liver?
NOT a substrate of DNA polymerase I ?
(1) aminotransferases
(2) glutamate dehydrogenase
(3) carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
(4) ∝ ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

83. Thermogenin protein, involved in the

production of heat in brown adipose tissue,
(1) I (2) II
produces heat by
(3) III (4) IV
(1) storing excess NADH for the use in electron
transport chain 88. Which of the following is NOT performed by
(2) increasing the membrane potential of the RecA?
inner mitochondrial membrane (1) stimulation of autocleavage of LexA
(3) uncoupling of the electron transport chain (2) recombinational repair of double-strand
from ATP synthase breaks, using homologous chromosomal DNA
(4) enhancing the use of 𝛽-oxidation in a fed to repair the break
state. (3) protection of the free single-stranded 5'end
generated by RecB CD from exonucleolytic
84. The catabolite activator protein acts on the lac degradation
promoter through: (4) assist error-prone DNA polymerase to
(1) binding of monomer to the promoter and synthesize across DNA lesions
stimulating the interaction of RNA polymerase
(2) blocking of the binding of the C-terminal 89. A mutation resulting in inactivation of the Shine-
domain of RNA polymerase Dalgarno sequence in the trp leader would
(3) binding of the CAP-cAMP complex to the affect the expression of the trp operon in the
activator site and facilitating interaction of following way.
RNA-polymerase to the lac promoter. (1) in the presence of high level of tryptophan,
(4) binding of the CAP-cAMP complex to the expression would increase
activator site and blocking the interaction of (2) in the presence of low level of tryptophan,
RNA-polymerase to the lac promoter. expression would increase
(3) expression becomes independent of mutation
in Shine-Dalgarno sequence
(4) in the presence of low level of tryptophan,
expression would decrease

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90. What is the methyl donor in the reaction leading 96. In a particular plant, the monoploid number of
from DUMP to dTMP? chromosomes is 𝟏⁄𝟒 of the total number in
(1) N5-N10-Methylenetetrahydrofolate gametes. This plant is
(2) S-adenosylmethionine (1) Tetraploid
(3) N10-formyl tetrahydrofolate (2) Octoploid
(4) N5-methylformamide (3) Hexaploid
(4) Decaploid
91. Which of the following elements are required
for the synthesis of chlorophyll in plants? 97. The "one gene - one enzyme” hypothesis was
(1) Calcium and Potassium proposed on the basis of work with
(2) Sodium and Copper (1) Neurospora crassa
(3) Magnesium and Iron (2) Drosophila melanogaster
(4) Manganese and Calcium (3) Escherichia coli
(4) Bacteriophage T4
92. Which of the following is the correct sequence
of events in a plant transformation experiment? 98. The genotype of an individual showing a
(1) Explants, Callusing, Shoot formation, dominant phenotype is determined by crossing
Agrobacterium infection, Callus formation, it with a recessive individual. Such a cross is
Plantlets called
(2) Cocultivation, Callus formation, Shoot (1) back cross
development, Preculture, Plantlets (2) test cross
(3) Preculture, Shoot development, Cocultivation, (3) reciprocal cross
Callus formation, Plantlets (4) out cross
(4) Preculture, Cocultivation, Callus formation,
Shoot development, Plantlets 99. Larval stages very different from the adult stage
are NOT found in development of
93. Which of the following Vir proteins facilitate (1) insects
transfer of T-DNA from Agrobacterium to plant (2) reptiles
cell? (3) molluscs
(1) Vir A &Vir G (4) echinoderms
(2) Vir G &Vir D2
(3) Vir D2 and Vir E2 100. A harmless, palatable species of butterfly has
(4) Vir G and Vir E2 evolved the coloration pattern of a different
species of toxic/unpalatable/noxious butterfly.
94. a b and c are recessive to their respective wild This is known as
type alleles A, B and C. If individuals (1) Cryptic coloration
heterozygous at all 3 loci are crossed among (2) Aposematic coloration
themselves, the proportion of progeny showing (3) BaTesian mimicry
all three wild type characters will be (4) Mullerian mimicry
(1) 1/16
(2) 1/64 101. Insulin and thyroxine arrive at an organ at the
(3) 9/16 same time. Thyroxine elicits a response in the
(4) 27/64 organ but insulin does not. Why?
(1) Thyroxine is a lipid-soluble hormone and
95. In a certain genetic condition, two different insulin is not
versions of a gene are expressed, leading to the (2) Thyroxine is a local hormone and insulin is a
synthesis of two slightly different proteins. In circulating hormone
such a situation, both the variants (alleles) (3) Thyroxine inhibits the action of insulin
determine the outcome of phenotypic (4) The organ's cells have receptors for
presentation. Such an inheritance pattern is thyroxine but not for insulin
called
(1) autosomal dominant 102. In an angiospermic plant, with diploid
(2) co-dominant chromosome number 20, the number of
(3) X-linked recessive chromosomes in endosperm cells would be:
(4) mitochondrial inheritance (1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 30 (4) 40

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103. Which of the following receptors are formed 108. What is the effect of GnRH produced by
by somatic recombination of gene hypothalamus?
I. Toll like receptor (1) stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
II. T-cell receptor androgens
III. B-cell receptor (2) stimulates secretion of milk in mammary
IV. Mannose receptors glands
Answer options (3) stimulates foetal ejection reflex
(1) I and II (4) stimulates synthesis of carbohydrates from
(2) II and III non-carbohydrates in liver
(3) II and IV
(4) I and III 109. During excitement or fear, which of the
following hormones signals the increase of
104. The lampush chromosomes of amphibian blood glucose levels:
oocytes differ from the polytene chromosomes (1) Insulin
of Drosophila salivary glands in that the former (2) Glucagon
are ______ while the latter are _________. (3) Epinephrine
(1) condensed, relaxed (4) Thyroid stimulating hormone
(2) banded, unbanded
(3) multiple copies, single pair 110. What will be the effect on endocytic vesicle
(4) transcriptionally active, transcriptionally formation from the plasma membrane if
inactive dynamin protein is inactive?
(1) Endocytic vesicles will not form at all
105. Which one of the following statements is (2) There will be no detachment of endocytic
CORRECT for protandry? vesicles from the plasma membrane
(1) Individuals start as female and later become (3) There will be no effect on endocytic vesicles
male (4) Endocytic vesicles will not attach to clathrin
(2) It produces eggs at one time and sperm at a coat
different time, rather than both together
(3) Individuals start as male and later become 111. The viscosity of a dilute aqueous solution of a
female polymer was determined to be 1.8 cp at 25 °C
(4) They exhibit hermaphroditism in early life using an Ostwald's viscometer. If the time
but not in adults. required for the flow of water from designated
one point to another in the viscometer was
106. Find out the WRONGLY matched pair 100 seconds, the time required for the flow of
(1) Ciliated epithelium-bronchioles the aqueous polymer solution between the
(2) Stratified cuboidal -oesophagus epithelium same points would be : (Viscosity of water at
(3) Columnar epithelium - peritoneum of body 25°C =0.9 cp and the density of aqueous
cavity polymer solution=1.1 g cm-3)
(4) Squamous epithelium - skin of frog (1) 150 seconds (2) 180 seconds
(3) 200 seconds (4) 220 seconds
107. Match the items in column I with column II and
choose the correct option from the codes 112. 𝛗, 𝚿 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝛚 are known as dihedral angles that
given below: define the conformation of polypeptides. The
Column I Column II dihedral angle 𝛗 represents rotation around
A. Neuron i. Antibodies (1) N − C ∝ bond
(2) C∝ − C′ bond
B. Bone matrix ii. Nissl bodies
(3) C′ − N bond
C. RBC of man iii. Ossein (4) C − H bond
D. Lymphocytes iv. Non-nucleated
113. One mg of the following peptide was dissolved
(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii).
in 10 ml of de-ionized water and its spectrum
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv).
was taken in a UV-Visible spectrophotometer
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i).
using a quartz cuvette of 1 cm path length Gly-
(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii).
Ala-Val-Ser-Gly-Ala The peptide would show
absorption maximum at
(1) 220 mm (2) 260 nm
(3) 280 nm (4) 595 nm

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114. In a centrifugation experiment, the rotor 120. Which of the following statement is true for
speed was set at 42,000 rpm. The angular tartaric acid?
velocity of the rotor in radians/sec when it (1) It has two stereogenic centres, three
reaches maximum speed would be stereoisomers all of them optically active
(1) 4200 (2) 4400 (2) It has two stereogenic centres and three
(3) 2,64,000 (4) 100,000 stereoisomers, one of them optically inactive
(3) It has two stereogenic centres and four
115. Identify the molecule(s) in which sp hybridized stereoisomers, all of them optically active
atoms are not present (4) It has two stereogenic centres and four
(I) CH3CN (II) C2H2 stereoisomers, one of them optically inactive
+
(III) NO2 (IV) C6H6
(1) I only 121. For a chemical reaction, it was observed that
(2) IV only every 10 °C rise in temperature doubles the
(3) III and IV rate of the reaction. If the temperature is
(4) I, III and IV raised by 40 °C how much will be the increase?
(1) 40 times
116. In an aroma factory, one operator who was (2) 20 times
assigned to purify eucalyptus oil (obtained (3) 4 times
from the plant leaf and barks), accidentally (4) 16 times
mixed eucalyptus oil with aniline (obtained
from another process). He should now 122. For the reaction A + 2B → 2C which of the
separate the oil from aniline. Which of the following statement is false?
following would be the most efficient process? (1) Order of the reaction changes with
(1) Double distillation temperature
(2) Chromatography (2) Molecularity of the reaction changes with
(3) Steam distillation temperature or concentration
(4) Azeotropic distillation (3) Order of the reaction changes with
temperature
117. A carboxamide can be converted to an amine (4) Order of the reaction can be experimentally
with same number of carbon atoms by determined
(1) Sodium borohydride (NaBH4)
(2) Lithium aluminum hydride (LiAlH4) 123. In which of the following case does the
(3) Br2 and NaOH entropy decrease?
(4) Sodium cyanoborohydride (NaBH3CN) (1) Polymerization
(2) Melting of ice
118. Toluene was treated with hot KMnO4 to give (3) Boiling of water
compound A. This was then treated with (4) Dissolution of sodium chloride in water
thionyl chloride to give compound B. This
compound turns moist blue litmus paper to 124. In ethanol fermentation, one glucose molecule
pink. Compound B on treatment with is converted into
hydrogen in the presence of Pd/BaSO4 gave (1) 3 ethanol molecules
compound C. Compound A, B and C are (2) 2 ethanol and 2 CO2 molecules
respectively (3) 2 ethanol and 2 CO molecule
(1) Benzoic acid, benzyl chloride, benzaldehyde (4) 1 ethanol and 4 CO2 molecule
(2) Benzoic acid, benzoyl chloride, benzyl
alcohol 125. In the citric acid cycle (I) conversion of citrate
(3) Benzoic acid, benzyl chloride, benzyl alcohol to cis-aconitate and (II) conversion of fumarate
(4) Benzoic acid, benzoyl chloride, to malate are respectively
benzaldehyde (1) (I) and (II) hydration reactions
(2) (I) and (II) dehydration reactions
119. Which of the following spectroscopic (3) (I) hydration (II) dehydration reactions
techniques cannot be used to differentiate the (4) (I) dehydration (II) hydration reactions
isomers of hydroxy benzoic acid
(1) Nuclear magnetic resonance
(2) Ultra-violet spectroscopy
(3) Infra-red spectroscopy
(4) Mass spectroscopy

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126. In the Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction, it is
generally observed that rearrangement (shift
of hydride or alkyl group) is a side reaction. To
prepare alkyl substituted aromatic compounds
using Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction, it is a
better practice to avoid the rearrangement
(1) Use acylation and then carryout reduction of
carbonyl group
(2) Run the reaction at lower temperature
(3) Run the reaction at lower concentration of
alkyl halide
(4) Run the reaction with lower concentration
of Lewis acid

127. In the Grignard reaction, which of the

following statement is true for R-MgX?
(1) It is easily soluble in benzene
(2) The alkyl carbon is electrophilic
(3) It is a non-polar covalent compound
(4) The alkyl carbon is nucleophilic

128. Identify the product formed in the following

transformation

(1) I only
(2) I and II
(3) II only
(4) Insufficient data to predict

129. In the following transformation which product

are formed

(1) I to V
(2) I and II only
(3) III, IV and V only
(4) I, III and IV only

130. Identify the absolute configuration of the

following compound

(1) 2S, 3S (2) 2R, 3R

(3) 2S, 3R (4) 2R, 3S

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