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If a company has an IT investment prioritization process, the
company is more likely to achieve IT- Business alignment?
a
a. True
b. False
If there is a failure of IT governance, it is likely that:
a. The board needs new directors with superior IT competence
c
b. The CIO/CTO may be replaced
c. Both a and b
The alignment between IT and business is a key IT management
issue?
a
a. True
b. False
What is(are) key IT Governance decision(s)?
a. What are the key IT goals for the organization?
b. Which business processes should be standardized across the
organization?
e
c. What IT infrastructure services should be centralized across the
organization?
d. How much should the organization invest in IT?
e. All of the above.
The CIO most commonly reports to
the_____________________.
a
a. CEO
b. CFO
Business/IT Relationship Managers are used to?
a. Make IT architecture decisions
b. Define business process requirements b
c. Make IT investment decisions
d. All of the above
In the coordination operating model, firms standardize their busi-
ness processes?
b
a. True
b. False
A key feature of the application silo stage of the enterprise IT
architecture is:
a. Standardized infrastructure across the organization
b
b. IT applications to meet specific users' needs
c. Standardized business processes across the organization
d. Experiments to meet local needs.
The standardized technology stage of the enterprise IT architec-
ture would be appropriate for a firm in the coordination operating
model? b
a. True
b. False
A key governance mechanism in the business silo stage of enter-
prise IT architecture is:
a. Business case a
b. IT standards committee
c. Enterprise-wide process owners
The cost of implementing an ERP system is about 1% of annual
revenue. This is what type of estimate?
a. Order of Magnitude a
b. Budget Estimate
c. Definitive
Which of the following costs is an example of operation and
maintenance cost?
b
a. Cost of developing the bid specification
b. Cost of running the air conditioning system
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c. Cost of transferring the data to another system once the old
system is sunset
d. All of the above
The use case point method is used to estimate
the___________cost of a system?
a. Hardware b
b. Software
c. Total cost of ownership
The use case point method of estimating the cost of software
considers?
a. Unadjusted actor weight
b. Unadjusted use case weight e
c. Technical complexity factor
d. Environmental complexity factor
e. All of the above
In calculating the technical complexity factor, if a factor (e.g., ease
of use) has higher assigned value then that factor increases the
technical complexity factor: a
a. True
b. False
IT systems often create operational benefits. Operational benefits
are generally______________________
. a
a. Tangible
b. Intangible
Can the IS department develop the system that users' want? This
is____________________ type of risk.
a. Development a
b. Organizational
c. Market
Can the organization make the changes required to implement a
new system? This is an example of____________________risk.
a. Development b
b. Organizational
c. Market
An IT project can be divided into segments, and a seg-
ment can be implemented based on the outcome of
implementation of prior segment(s). This is an example
of_________________________? b
a. Deferral
b. Staging
c. Growth option
If managerial flexibility is high and the project faces significant
uncertainty about costs and benefits, then the real options ap-
proach to IT investment is the appropriate approach to eveluate
a
the investment.
a. True
b. False
IT porfolio management is concerned with evaluating individual IT
investment opportunities.
b
a. True
b. False
Transactional systems are about?
a. Proving aggregated information for decision making.
b. Performing core business processes of the firm cost effectively. b
c. Providing customers with a differentiated service.
d. All of the above.

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Information systems are about?
a. Proving aggregated information for decision making.
b. Performing core business processes of the firm cost effectively. a
c. Providing customers with a differentiated service.
d. All of the above.
Investments in strategic systems are like R&D investments.
a. True a
b. False
A cost focused firm spends more on________________com-
pared to the average firm.
a. Firm wide infrastructure
b
b. Transactional systems
c. Informational systems
d. Strategic systems
IT Portfolio management means that the IT investment portfolio of
a fiem must be continously evolving with time.
a
a. True
b. False
In the cost center approach to IT chargeback, IT units offer
services for a price and user organizations choose consumption
levels. b
a. True
b. False
The main advantage of the cost center approach to IT chargeback
is________________.
a. The simplicity of the approach.
a
b. The incentives for users to consume IT services prudently.
c. The incentives for the IT unit to be as efficient as possible.
d. All of the above
The main advantage of the profit center approach to IT charge-
back is________________.
a. The incentives for users to consume IT services prudently. c
b. The incentives for the IT unit to be as efficient as possible.
c. Both of the above
Prior research suggests that is the user organizations are pre-
sented with an IT service that has a proce associated with it, it
reduces the demand for the IT service. a
a. True
b. False
If users fear losing their status in the organization due to the
implementation of a new information system, they are likely to
resist the implementation of the system. a
a. True
b. False
From the status quo bias perspective, if a new systems is very
easy to learn and use, it will face less resistance to adoption.
a
a. True
b. False
In the demand driven model of user adoption, is users believe that
the new system is likely to lead to improvement in their individual
performance, they are more likely to adopt the new system? a
a. True
b. False
User training is more important for low complexity information
systems than for high complexity information systems.
b
a. True
b. False

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Top management support is important in increasing user adoption
as top management support provides legitimacy to a new system.
a
a. True
b. False
A(n)______________________approach to implementing a new
information system is appropriate for implrmenting a system that
improves processes for performing specific activities but is con-
sistent with the current values, norms, skills, structures and in- a
centive systems.
a. Evolutionary
b. Revolutionary
Broad communication and user involment are a significant feature
of ________________________approach to change manage-
ment. a
a. Evolutionary
b. Revolutionary
Change management in the evolutionary approach to implement-
ing a new system is a recursive adaptive process.
a
a. True
b. False
The key difference between the project management and the
learning approach to change management is that in the project
management approach the organization thinks of implementing a
a
nnew system as a one-time effort.
a. True
b. False
In the learning approach to implementing a new system, users
learn to use the new systems from ____________?
b
a. Training Programs
b. Actual Use
What is the mechanism through which IT governance affects firm
performance?
a. IT governances impacts IT-Business Alignment, and IT-Busi-
ness Alignment impacts Firm Performance.
a
b. IT-Business Alignment influences IT Governance, and IT Gov-
ernance influences Firm Performance.
c. IT-Business Alignment influences Firm Performance, and Firm
Performance influences IT Governance.
If a company has a well functioning IT steering committee, the
company is more likely to achieve IT-Business alignment?
a
a. True
b. False
IT governance leads to?
a. IT and business alignment about the new products to introduce.
b. IT and business alignment about how business processes
d
should work.
c. IT and business alignment about which new markets to enter.
d. All of the above.
IT governance includes choices about?
a. What key IT decisions need to be made.
b. Who makes these decisions? d
c. How these decisions are made?
d. All of the above.

If a company is primarily interested in IT-enabled innovation and

differentiation, the _________ is the most appropriate decision
making structure. c
a. Business Monarchy
b. IT Monarchy

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c. Feudal
d. All of the above.
An IT investment approval process is used to describe:
a. The business and IT alignment of a new project.
b. The financial cost-benefit analysis for a new project. d
c. The risk associated with a new project.
d. All of the above.
What is a key managerial IT governance decision?
a. IT Infrastructure strategy
c
b. IT Architecture
c. IT Principle
If a company competes on the basis of differentiation, then the
CIO should ideally report to the ____________.
a. CEO
a
b. CFO
c. COO
d. None of the above.
The IT steering committee is a key IT governance decision making
structure. The primary role of this decision making structure is to:
a. Define IT architecture standards.
b
b. Define IT principles.
c. Specify the Service Level Agreements for the IT organization.
d. All of the above.
In the replication operating model, firms share data across differ-
ent business units?
b
a.True
b.False
The rationalized data/optimized core stage of the enterprise IT
architecture would be appropriate for a firm operating with the
replication model? a
a.True
b.False
A distinctive feature of the rationalized data/optimized core stage
of the enterprise IT architecture is:
a. Standardized infrastructure across the organization.
c
b. IT applications to meet specific users' needs.
c. Standardized business processes across the organization.
d. Experiments to meet local needs.
A distinctive governance mechanism in the rationalized data /op-
timized core stage of enterprise IT architecture is:
a. Business case. c
b. IT standards committee.
c. Enterprise-wide process owners.
In which operating model do firms standardize business process-
es and share data across business units?
a. Diversification.
b
b. Unification.
c. Coordination.
d. Replication.
The evolution of enterprise IT architecture follows this sequence.
a. Application Silo, Standardized Technology, Rationalized
Data/Optimized Core, Modular Architecture.
b. Application Silo, Rationalized Data/Optimized Core, Standard-
ized Technology, Modular Architecture. a
c. Application Silo, Standardized Technology, Modular Architec-
ture, Rationalized Data/Optimized Core.
d. Application Silo, Modular Architecture, Standardized Technolo-
gy, Rationalized Data/Optimized Core.

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A distinctive feature of the modularity stage of the enterprise IT
architecture is:
a. Standardized infrastructure across the organization.
d
b. IT applications to meet specific users' needs.
c. Standardized business processes across the organization.
d. Experiments to meet local needs.
The key strategic implication of the rationalized data / optimized
core stage of enterprise IT architecture is?
a. Local optimization.
b
b. Operational efficiency.
c. Speed to market.
d. All of the above.
This type of estimate requires understanding of the work pack-
ages (units of work) that have to be executed to complete the
project.
c
a. Order of Magnitude Estimate.
b. Budget Estimate.
c. Definitive.
In calculating the environmental complexity factor, if a factor (e.g.,
stability of requirements) has higher assigned value then that
factor increases the environmental complexity factor: b
a. True
b. False
IT systems often create strategic benefits. Strategic benefits are
generally ________.
b
a. Tangible.
b. Intangible.
In the use case method a complex actor has higher impact on the
final use case point compared to a less complex use case.
a
a.True
b.False
In the use case point method of software cost estimation, a high-
er/larger number for the productivity factor means the developer
takes more time to code one use case point, thus the developer
a
is less productive:
a.True
b.False
IT systems often create intangible benefits. These intangible ben-
efits are reflected in the __________ of the firm?
b
a. Balance sheet.
b. Market value.
An IT system is implemented, even when it has a negative NPV,
because the system allows other follow on projects. This is an
example of _________ ?
c
a. Deferral.
b. Staging.
c. Growth option.
Process improvement projects are appropriately evaluated using
__________ .
a
a. NPV based business case.
b. Real Options analysis.
Large system implementations often require cooperation cus-
tomers and/or supplier? This is an example of _______________
risk.
c
a. Development.
b. Organizational.
c. Market.

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An IT system is being implemented as it has a positive NPV.
However, during system development, regulations change and the
project no longer has a positive NPV. The real options approach
would suggest _________ ?
b
a. Continue with the project, as project termination may hurt the
morale of the project team.
b. Terminate the project and reallocate resources to a more prof-
itable project.
Transformation projects are appropriately evaluated using
__________ .
b
a. NPV based business case.
b. Real Options analysis.
Project Management is about doing the right projects, whereas
Portfolio Management is about doing projects right.
b
a. True
b. False
An innovation focused firm spends more on __________ com-
pared to the average firm.
a. Firm wide infrastructure
d
b. Transactional systems
c. Informational systems
d. Strategic systems
Information Technology Portfolio Management is more important
for firms that:
b
a. Execute one large project every year.
b. Execute multiple projects in a given year.
Strategic systems are about?
a. Providing aggregated information for decision making.
b. Performing core business processes of the firm cost effectively.
c
c. Providing competitive advantage or reducing competitive dis-
advantage.
d. All of the above.
Which element of the IT investment portfolio is about the long-term
strategy of the firm?
a. Firm wide infrastructure
a
b. Transactional systems
c. Informational systems
d. Strategic systems
In the service center approach to IT chargeback, IT units offer
services for a price where the price is set to recover the IT unit's
costs of providing the service. a
a. True
b. False
The main advantage of the service center approach to IT charge-
back is __________.
a. The simplicity of the approach.
b
b. The incentives for users to consume IT services prudently.
c. The incentives for the IT unit to be as efficient as possible.
d. All of the above.
If the IT and the user organizations understand IT costs because
of the IT chargeback system in place, then the IT chargeback
system is likely to lead to better IT decisions. a
a. True
b. False
In the profit center approach to IT chargeback, IT units offer
services for a price where the price is set based on the market
price for the same service. a
a. True
b. False
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If the IT chargeback system suggests that the IT organization has
been continuously reducing the price for an IT service and the
price charged compares favorably with the market price for the
service, then the IT chargeback system is likely to lead to a higher a
reputation for competence for the IT organization.
a. True
b. False
If users believe that leaning to use the new information system is
going to cost significant time and effort on their part, it is rational
on their part to resist the implementation of the new system. a
a. True
b. False
In the demand driven model of user adoption, if a user believes
that many other users are adopting the new system, they are less
likely to themselves adopt the new system. b
a. True
b. False
Top management support is more important in information sys-
tems implementations when task interdependence is low than
when task interdependence is high. b
a. True
b. False
If users have invested significant time and effort to learn and
master using the current system, they are more likely to resist the
implementation of a new system: a
a. True
b. False
In the supply driven model of user adoption, institutions that
remove knowledge barriers reduce the adoption of new systems.
b
a. True
b. False
Users find it easier to learn from and solve problems with the help
of peers and coworkers than with help form external consultants
and the internal help desk. a
a. True
b. False
The evolutionary approach uses ______ to implement a new
system.
b
a. Firm milestone
b. Flexible milestones
The role of management in the learning approach to implementing
a new system emphasizes:
a. Providing clear purpose, scope, and resources to implement
b
the new system.
b. Creating an environment where new capabilities are developed
and knowledge is shared.
In the learning approach to implementing a new system,
users are more likely to learn to use the new system from
____________________. b
a. External consultants and power users.
b. Self discovery and from peers.
The use of outsiders and new management team is more appro-
priate for the implementation of ___________.
b
a. Evolutionary change.
b. Revolutionary change.
In what deliverable does a PM identify phases & deliverables,
create WBS, estimate tasks, create dependencies, and assign
people to tasks?
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a. Work Plan
b. Triple Constraint a
c. Critical Path
Which of the following diagrams can be used to document a
business process?
a. Swim-lane diagram c
b. Flow charts
c. All of the above
What diagram includes a system, external entities, processes,
boundaries, inputs, and outputs?
b
a. Swim-lane diagram
b. Context diagram
What are the four phases of SDLC methodology in order?
a. Analyze, Plan, Design, Implement
b
b. Plan, Analyze, Design, Implement
c. Plan ,Design, Analyze, Implement
What differentiates RAD from Waterfall?
a. Prototyping b
b. Iteration
What differentiates Agile from Waterfall?
a. Iteratively delivers features via sprints a
b. Clearly defined phases with deliverables
In what phase(s) of SDLC does an ideal Business Analyst con-
tribute?
a. Plan
b. Analyze e
c. Design
d. Implement
e. All of the above
In what phase(s) is a System Request document introduced?
a. Plan
b. Analyze
a
c. Design
d. Implement
e. All of the abovebute
What does a feasibility analysis focus on?
a. Time
b. Money
e
c. Quality
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
In what phase of SDLC methodology does Organizational Readi-
ness occur?
a. Plan
b. Analyze e
c. Design
d. Implement
e. All of the above
What phase of the SDLC results in a System Proposal?
a. Plan
b. Analyze b
c. Design
d. Implement
Which of the following is NOT a desirable quality of a good re-
quirement?
a. Necessary c
b. Consistent
c. Multiple

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Which of the following is a good sample syntax for writing a good
requirement.
a
a. [Condition] [Subject] [Action] [Object] [Constraint]
b. [Subject] [Condition] [Action] [Object] [Constraint]
Which of the following is a good sample syntax for writing a good
requirement.
b
a. [Subject] [Action] [Subject] [Value]
b. [Condition] [Action or Constraint] [Value]
Functional requirements are usually discussed with subject-mat-
ter experts.
a
a. True
b. False
Non-functional requirements are usually discussed with develop-
ers.
a
a. True
b. False
Which traceability method identifies the gold-plating example giv-
en at the beginning of the module video?
a
a. Forward Traceability
b. Backward Traceability
In what phase of SDLC methodology do we write use cases?
a. Plan
b. Analyze b
c. Design
d. Implement
In a use case, what level of detail has exhaustive, numbered steps
with data flows?
a. Fully-dressed a
b. Casual
c. Briefs
What are the two major types of relationships among use cases?
a. <<extend>> <<include>> a
b. <<exclude>> <<include>>
When balancing DFDs and ERDs, what will data stores & some
external entities become in an ERD?
a
a. Entities
b. Attributes
When balancing DFDs and ERDs, what will data flows become in
an ERD?
b
a. Entities
b. Attributes
What are the elements of a DFD?
a. Process, data flow, data store, external entity a
b. Actor, boundary, data
What differentiates a context diagram from a process flow dia-
gram?
a. Context diagram depicts data flows, sequences of events are
not depicted. Process flow depicts the process. Non-data ele-
a
ments are included. Sequence matters.
b. Process flow diagram depicts data flows, sequences of events
are not depicted. Context diagram depicts the process. Non-data
elements are included. Sequence matters.
What DFD type focuses on the business and business activities?
a. Physical DFD b
b. Logical DFD

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How can a DFD be decomposed into a primitive?
a. Through structured english, decision tree, or decision table
b. Through structured english, decision tree, or context table
Business Process Model and Notation includes which of the fol-
lowing components?
a. A start event, sequence flow, task, gateway "decision", and end a
event
b. A boundary, external entities, inputs, and outputs
What refers to the maximum number of times an instance in one
entity can be associated with instances in the related entity?
b
a. Modularity
b. Cardinality
What type of entity instances store attributes that are common to
one or more entity subtypes?
a
a. Supertype
b. Subtype
What type of entity instances may inherit common attributes from
its entity supertype?
b
a. Supertype
b.Subtype
In Object-Oriented Programming, an object is kind of person,
place, event, or thing about which we want to capture.
b
a. True
b. False
An application for a fast food chain models each user with a class.
Any user can apply a 5% off coupon code when ordering a meal
above $10 (represented by a class labelled User), however users
that pay a monthly fee can also apply a 10% off coupon code
when ordering any menu item from the store and are represented a
by a subclass of User labeled specialUser. Is this an example of
inheritance?
a. Yes
b. No
Which of the following is false?
a. It is usually much easier to restructure a UML diagram than
restructure code.
b. In a sequence diagram, the program is represented visually by
c
an 'actor' that sends 'messages' to the objects throughout the time
of the interaction.
c. In a state machine diagram, various states of an object in a
program are represented by arrows throughout the diagram.
Which of the following is true about acquisition strategies?
a. If a firm does not fully understand how to develop or implement a
software system, it is often more effective to outsource that system
to a vendor.
b. In the long run, it is usually more cost-effective to develop new c
software in-house.
c. One of the drawbacks to outsourcing software development is
that it is harder to control the quality of the design and ensure that
it meets the necessary requirements.

Which is the best way to describe an Alternative Matrix?

a. Since it considers every technical criteria for a system with a
corresponding weight, the resulting scores of an Alternative Matrix
for a given system determine which alternative is objectively the
b
best decision for the firm to make as it is comprehensive of every
factor going into that system's development.
b. The scores of an Alternative Matrix should only be considered
as a factor in the decision-making process for a firm, and should

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be weighed against other external criteria by an experienced
leader responsible for the system's development.
Online retailers frequently implement systems that recommend
other products to customers based on their previous purchase
history, what time of year they made the purchase, what other cus-
tomers frequently bought in addition to the customers purchase, a
and other data relating to the purchase. This is an example of:
a. Business Intelligence Architecture
b. Operational Architecture
The best implementation might be a human implementation of a
physical process.
a
a. True
b. False
Which of the following is the definition of "scope creep"?
a. When ERP management locks a firm into one ecosystem,
resulting in all data being managed under the same vendor.
b
b. When additional features are requested during the implementa-
tion phase of a project, thus increasing the cost and time required
to complete said project.
The Business Analyst is involved with preparing the technology
during the migration plan.
b
a. True
b. False
The Maintenance phase in the SDLC described in this course is
the longest and costliest phase.
a
a. True
b. False
What are some of the roles of the Project Manager during ERP
implementation?
a. Assess the risks of the implementation in terms of cost and
duration d
b. Secure resources for the implementation team
c. Purchase and select the right ERP system
d. A and B only
All Fortune 1000 companies use some form of ERP systems.
a. True a
b. False
Business processes are activities that businesses do in their daily
operations.
a
a. True
b. False
What are some difficulties faced when executing business
processes?
a. A big company should not face any difficulties in their business
process, only small companies face such issues
b. Information does not flow between business units, leading to d
bad decisions being made
c. There are multiple business units, which makes coordination of
effort difficult
d. B and C only
Why do silo effect arise?
a. Workers become highly specialized in their work area, and do
not know about the capabilities and objectives of other depart-
ments
b. Workers in each department have different incentives schemes d
and do not optimize their efforts towards the overall good of the
company
c. Workers are not paid enough for their work
d. A and B only
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What are the two definitions of Enterprise System mentioned in
the class?
a. ERP is an expensive systems used by large companies
b. ERP is a system that supports end-to-end business processes
e
c. ERP is a technology strategy in which operational business
transactions are linked to financial transactions
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
'R' in SAP R/3 stands for 'real-time'.
a. True a
b. False
What are the three layers in SAP R/3?
a. Database, Security, Presentation
b. Database, Application, Network c
c. Database, Application, Presentation
d. Database, Security, Network
Data created in SAP can be deleted easily.
a. True b
b. False
Users can access SAP via the following devices:
a. PC desktops
b. Mobile phones d
c. Tablet computers
d. All of above
Which of the following are organizational data?
a. Storage location
b. Client d
c. Sales Organization
d. All of the above
Fields of master data change frequently.
a. True b
b. False
Fields of master data can be different across organizational units
(e.g., plants).
a
a. True
b. False
Within SAP, how many main types of data are there?
a. 2
b. 3 b
c. 4
d. 5
A unique sale area is made up by a combination of
a. Sales organization, distribution channel, Division
b. Sale organization, Material Master, Customer Master a
c. Company, distribution channel, Sales organization
d. Company, distribution channel, Division
Why would companies want to have different sales areas in SAP?
a. This is to allow companies to account for different product
considerations when serving their customers
b. This is to allow companies to account for the regional differ-
d
ences when serving their customers
c. This is to allow companies to account for different characteristics
of distribution channels when serving their customers
d. All of above

What are instances of master data seen in the class?

a. Company b
b. Customer

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c. Factory
d. All of the above
Purchase order is an example of a master data.
a. True b
b. False
The good issue step is performed to indicate that a focal company
has fulfilled their part of the transaction by shipping goods to the
customer. a
a. True
b. False
What are possible scenarios in which delivery and billing docu-
ments are combined?
a. Two separate deliveries to the same customer made on different
days are consolidated into one billing document
b. Two separate deliveries to different customers made on different d
days are consolidated into one billing document
c. A delivery to a customer is being split into two billing documents
to be paid by different departments of the customer company
d. A and C only
The SAP All-in-One ERP solution is good for large enterprises.
a. True b
b. False
What is true of the SAP By-Design ERP?
a. It is meant for small-mid size enterprises
b. It is meant for large size enterprises d
c. It is provided as a software-as-a-service (cloud ERP)
d. A and C only
Which of the following are offerings provided by Oracle?
a. Sage ERP
b. JD Edwards d
c. Peoplesoft ERP
d. B and C only
According to the Clash of Titan report presented in the video,
which ERP vendor has the market share?
a. Oracle
d
b. Infor
c. Microsoft Dynamics
d. SAP
Completion of vision in the magic quadrant refers to whether a
ERP vendor/provider has a good understanding of the industry to
provide ERP features that meets their future needs. a
a. True
b. False
If my company has many specialized and sophisticated business
processes, and is operating in a business environment causes
rapid changes to business needs, what type of ERP should I
shortlist based on the magic quadrant?
a
a. Leaders
b. Challengers
c. Visionaries
d. Niche Players
If I run a simple business that does not have complicated business
processes and is not subjected to rapid changes in the business
environment, I should shortlist ERPs from the _________ quad-
rant.
d
a. Leaders
b. Challengers
c. Visionaries
d. Niche Players
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If a company buys all its ERP module from a single vendor, it is
said to be pursuing a
a. Best of Suite Strategy a
b. Best of Breed Strategy
c. All of the above
What are the advantages of using a Best of Suite Strategy?
a. Less risks in term of system integration as the modules are from
the same vendor
b. Less costly implementation cost as there is less integration d
complexity
c. It provides the best features across all ERP offerings
d. A and B only
What are the advantages of using a Best of Breed Strategy?
a. Less risks in term of system integration as the modules are from
the same vendor
b. Less costly implementation cost as there is less integration c
complexity
c. It provides the best features across all ERP offerings
d. B and C only
In the opening case of Target's ERP implementation, what were
the bad managerial decisions made that led to a failed outcome?
a. Top management decided to pursue an aggressive and tight
implementation timeline.
b. When populating the ERP system, mid-managers utilized the
d
benchmark figures from the US operations to forecast the sales
demand in Canada
c. Appropriate checks and balances are not in place, leading store
managers to turn off auto-replenishment feature in the system.
d. All of above
Change Management is:
a. People side of technology project
b. A systematic approach to dealing with change d
c. Only appropriate for ERP-related projects
d. A and B only
When assessing the possible areas of changes during an ERP
implementation, it is important to consider elements of
a. People
d
b. Process
c. Technology
d. All of above
Constant communication of project benefits to the users and a
clear illustration of milestones are useful change management
techniques for keeping motivation levels high during ERP imple-
a
mentation.
a. True
b.False
Workers do not need time to adjust to newly implemented ERP if
they are well-trained to use the new system prior to its launch.
b
a. True
b. False
What are indicators of ERP implementation success?
a. On time implementation
b. On budget implementation d
c. On scope implementation
d. All of above.
A small company with small amount of capital that has finished
implementing a small scale ERP system. The consulting team
concludes that there are little risk of of go-live problems as the
system does not involve complex interdependencies due to its
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small scale. What might be a good approach in the rollout of this
system?
a
a. Big Bang
b. Phased Approach
A large company with operations in multiple countries has just
finished upgrading its legacy system to an Oracle ERP system.
The consultant team believes that the risk of go-live problems
can be subtantial, given that there are multiple interdependencies
b
across business units. What might be a good approach in the roll
out of this system?
a. Big Bang
b. Phased Approach
A retail company has zero experience with ERP implementation.
They have hired an external consultant to help them with the
implementation of SAP. The retail company is very amendable
to the recommendations provided by their consultants. What role
b
should the consultants take on, in general?
a. Foot soldiers
b. Commanders
c. Diplomats
A client company wanted to implement a large scale ERP system.
The project scope appears to be highly uncertain and the client
does not seem to know what features are to be included in the
final deliverable. What would be a good pricing model to use here b
when charging the client?
a. Fixed Price
b. Time and Material
Businesses can use virtualization technology to:
a. Improve efficiency
b. Lower cost d
c. Provide faster maintenance
d. All of the above
Why does the opex model (such as pay-as-you-go) work for the
cloud providers?
a. It allows them to generate a steady source of revenue over time
from their clients
b. It allows them to offer freemium model to potential clients who d
can try out the service without significant commitment
c. It allows them to offer any available resources on-demand and
charge based on usage
d. All of the above
Which of the following is used to distribute incoming requests
among various servers that form a computer cluster?
a. Hypervisor
b
b. Load balancer
c. Database
d. None of the above
Which of the following statements is NOT true for web applica-
tions?
a. Software runs on the web app provider's server
b. They can be accesses using a client's web browser d
c. Even if client machines can fail, the data and applications can
be still accessed from another client device
d. Requires virtualization of the client's machine
Which of the following is an example of a hypervisor?
a. VMware ESXi
b. Citrix Xenserver d
c. Microsoft Hyper-V
d. All of the above

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Which is the core technology behind "cloud computing"?
a. HTTP
b. Virtualization b
c. Thin clients
d. Remote Desktop
Google's cloud platform offering is a:
a. Public cloud
b. Private cloud a
c. Hybrid cloud
d. None of the above
Which kind of infrastructure will you prefer if you are operating a
business in which some applications have to comply with strict
regulatory compliance requirements on data security, while others
require automated scalability and load balancing?
d
a. Fog computing
b. Private Cloud
c. Public Cloud
d. Hybrid Cloud
You are the CIO of a company that wants to create a new software
application that would require customizing the operating system
for optimal performance. What kind of cloud service are you ba-
sically looking for? c
a. SaaS
b. PaaS
c. IaaS
Which of the following statements is true for data centers?
a.Datacenters with fully connected topology improves
host-to-host capacity
b. Blade servers in a rack are interconnected using the TOR switch
d
c. Hardware maintenance on a server in a datacenter can be
performed without interrupting the software applications because
of virtualization
d. All of the above
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Different wireless technologies occupy different frequency
bands.
b. WiFi is a wireless technology that offers higher data speed but
c
lower coverage area than cellular network technology
c. Wireless technologies that offer high data speed/rate also offer
greater coverage area
d. None of the above
Which of the following statements is true about base stations in a
cellular network?
a. Base stations provide coverage over the area of a cell
b. Base stations will use different frequencies in adjacent sectors d
c. Adjacent base stations participate in the handover process of
ongoing mobile conversations
d. All of the above
Suppose an airport is using RFID tags on ventilation units for
monitoring and reporting of their functional status, PDAs for tech-
nicians, and SAP Mobile Asset Management software. Which of
the following activities can be achieved using these solutions?
a. Inspectors can easily check the status of the units from the
ground without having to get up and manually inspect them, thus d
increasing operational efficiency.
b. Automatic reporting from the ventilation units will improve er-
ror-free reporting and safety of the building.
c. Automatic reporting also serves as evidence for genuine repairs
d. All of the above

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Which of the following will be most useful for enabling wider usage
of QR codes?
a. Include built-in QR scanner app in the smartphones
b. Encourage creation of ad-supported third-party apps for QR
a
code scanners
c. Encourage creation of QR code scanning app by individual
vendors
d. None of the above
Which of the following statements is NOT true about WiFi net-
works?
a. WiFi operates in an unlicensed spectrum band
b
b. WiFi and cellular networks use the same set of frequencies
c. WiFi is an example of Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN)
d. All of the above
Which of the following statements is NOT true about femtocells?
a. When registered mobile phone users arrive under coverage
area of a femtocell, they switch over from the cellular network to
femtocell automatically
b. When mobile phone users leave the coverage area of a fem-
c
tocell, they switch over from the femtocell to a cellular network
seamlessly
c. Existing WiFi or DSL routers can be upgraded to a femtocell
without the need for any new hardware
d. All of the above
Which of the following pairing of technology to its coverage area
is mismatched?
a. Bluetooth - Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN)
c
b. GSM - Wireless Wide Area Network (WWAN)
c. WiFi - Wirelss Metropolitan Area Network (WMAN)
d. CDMA - Wireless Wide Area Network (WWAN)
Which of the following is the primary technology used in a mobile
payment system like Apple Pay?
a. Near Field Communication (NFC)
a
b. QR code
c. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
d. None of the above
A shopping mall plans to send targeted offers to customers
connected to their WiFi network. Which type of data about the
customer will be most valuable to send these offers?
a. Time of day b
b. Geolocation
c. Weather
d. None of the above
Which of the following issues cannot be addressed effectively with
flat rate pricing of network bandwidth?
a. There is a large differential between peak and off-peak hour
demand
b. Some users are consuming a disproportionate amount of band- d
width in peak time
c. Some applications are poorly designed and consume too much
bandwidth
d. All of the above
Denial of service (DOS) security attacks are intended to compro-
mise a system's _______.
a. Confidentiality
b
b. Availability
c. Integrity
d. Authenticity

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Which of the following statements is true for malwares?
a. They are computer programs that can infect other programs
b. Many of them can propagate by attaching themselves to files
d
and emails
c. They may not always do outright damage
d. All of the above
Which of the following techniques system administrators use to
reduce the risk of password hacking?
a. Preventing users from using alphanumeric passwords
b. Enforcing a cap on the number of password retries at login
b
before the account gets locked
c. Encouraging usage of easy to remember dictionary words as
passwords
d. All of the above
Which of the following statements about basic encryption tech-
niques NOT true?
a. The key used in Caesar cipher should be kept private between
the sender and the receiver
b. The key used in Caesar cipher should be made publicly avail-
b
able to allow the receiver to decrypt the message
c. The keys used in one-time pads need to be kept private between
the sender and the receiver
d. The keys used in one-time pads are a pre-selected sequence
of random numbers
Which of the following statements about private key cryptography
is true?
a. The same key is used by both the sender and the receiver to
encrypt and decrypt a message
b. The sender uses one key to encrypt a message and the receiver a
uses another key to decrypt it.
c. The sender and the receiver do not have to agree upon a shared
key in advance
d. All of the above
Which of the following statements is true for public key cryptosys-
tem?
a. A secret message should be encrypted using the public key of
the sender and decrypted using the private key of the receiver
b. A secret message should be encrypted using the private key of
d
the sender and decrypted using the public key of the receiver
c. A secret message should be encrypted using the private key of
the sender and decrypted using the public key of the receiver
d. A secret message should be encrypted using the public key of
the receiver and decrypted using the private key of the receiver
In case of digital signatures, which of the following statements will
be true? (Digital signatures are not meant to be secret messages,
instead they are used to demonstrate that the message must have
originated from a particular sender who signed it).
a. The message will need to be encrypted using the sender's pri-
vate key. Anyone can then use the sender's public key to decrypt
it, and thereby verify that it must have been encrypted (signed) by
that particular sender.
b. The message will need to be encrypted using the sender's pub-
a
lic key. Anyone can then use the sender's private key to decrypt
it, and thereby verify that it must have been encrypted (signed) by
that particular sender
c. The message will need to be encrypted using the sender's
private key. Anyone can then use the sender's private key to
decrypt it, and thereby verify that it must have been encrypted
(signed) by that particular sender.
d. The message will need to be encrypted using the sender's
public key. Anyone can then use the sender's public key to decrypt
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it, and thereby verify that it must have been encrypted (signed) by
that particular sender.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about these cyber
defense systems?
a. Honeypots are legitimate parts of the site that are actually
isolated and monitored, and act as traps for attackers
b. Honeypots can be used to learn about organization's security c
weaknesses
c. Intrusion detection systems cannot look inside the contents of
the data packets, and therefore only use traffic filtering rules.
d. None of the above
Which of the following should be practiced to prevent confidential
data loss from cyberattacks?
a. Store the encrypted data and the encryption key at different
locations d
b. Use a two-factor access control
c. Limit third-party access to the internal network
d. All of the above
The type of disclosure process in which a new bug discovery is
first reported to the software vendor whose product contains the
bug is known as:
a. Responsible Disclosure a
b. Full Disclosure
c. Market Disclosure
d. None of the above
Which of the following statements regarding Blockchain is NOT
true?
a. Blockchain is a list of records, called blocks, which are linked
using cryptography and are accessible for verification by the pub-
lic.
b. Blockchain is a distributed digital ledger in which transactions
can be recorded chronologically and publicly. d
c. Traditional databases also store transaction information
chronologically. But secure databases are kept under the central-
ized control of a host organization and maintained by IT adminis-
trators.
d. Blockchain is designed as a centralized solution so that a single
entity can control it and validate all transactions.
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Ethereum is an example of a blockchain
b. The cryptocurrency used in Ethereum are called Bitcoins b
c. Hyperledger is an example of open-source blockchain
d. The cryptocurrency used in Ethereum are called Ethers
Which of the following statements is true?
a. In blockchains, any change or new transactions can be realized
only by adding a new block of information to the historical trans-
action records.
b. In blockchains, one doesn't erase or override the past records,
d
it adds transactions in a chronological order to a growing list.
c. Unlike the ledgers maintained by banks, Bitcoin's blockchain is
replicated on networked machines around the world; hence it is
called a "Distributed Ledger".
d. All of the above.

Which of the following is NOT true for Bitcoin mining?

a. The technology uses a pair of keys for encryption
b. The private key is used by the sender to encrypt the payment
d
message
c. Miners use the sender's public key to validate that the payment
request was indeed made by the sender

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d. Miners will use the public key to compute the private key of the
sender
Which of the following statement is true?
a. The process of adding blocks to a blockchain is computationally
expensive, and even more so to change blocks further back in the
chain.
b. Any miner trying to add a new block of data is required to provide
a cryptographic proof called Proof of Work. d
c. To produce the Proof of Work, a miner will have to perform
multiple rounds of hashing with the data of the previous block such
that the resultant hash value begins with a specified number of
zeros.
d. All of the above.
Which of the following is an application area for smart contracts?
a. Supply chains are often inefficient because of paper-based sys-
tems and need for multi-party approvals, validation cost, potential
for loss and fraud. Smart contracts can provide a secure, acces-
sible digital version to all parties on the blockchain to automate
contracts and payment.
b. Peer-to-peer buying and selling of goods and services (e.g., in d
electricity smart grids and ridesharing services) can benefit from
smart contracts executed between various parties participating in
the blockchain.
c. Buyers and sellers of insurance can agree on and claim repa-
ration compensation using smart contracts.
d. All of the above.
Suppose your organization needs multiple people to store and
update transaction records while ensuring immutability. Which one
should you choose? b
a. Traditional database
b. Blockchain
Suppose the requirements that your organization has in regards to
storing transaction information can be met with either a traditional
database or a blockchain. Which one should you choose? a
a. Traditional database
b. Blockchain
Suppose your organization needs to store transaction data that
should be kept private, immutable, verifiable, but also control who
can read and write to it in order to maintain scalability. What should
you choose?
b
a. Traditional database
b. Permissioned blockchain
c. Public blockchain
d. None of the above
Which of the following statements is true?
a. A blockchain's technology and process ensure truthful-report-
ing and provides incentives for participation.
b. Cryptography principles implement validation of digital signa-
d
tures, security, and immutability in a blockchain.
c. A blockchain's distributed realization and public accessibility
helps overcome censorship.
d. All of the above.
Can you use a swim-lane diagram to document a business
process?
a
a. Yes
b. No
External entities are included in the context diagram.
a. True a
b. False

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What are the four phases (in order) of SDLC methodology?
a.Analyze, Plan, Design, Implement
b
b.Plan, Analyze, Design, Implement
c.Plan, Design, Analyze, Implement
What key characteristic differentiates RAD from previous method-
ologies?
b
a. Prototypes
b. Iterations
Agile and Waterfall are complementary methodologies that are
best used together.
b
a. True
b. False
In SDLC phases, where does an ideal BA contribute?
a. Plan
b. Analyze
e
c. Design
d. Implement
e. All of the above
The System Request is introduced in which of the following SDLC
phases?
a. Plan
b. Analyze a
c. Design
d. Implement
e. All of the above
What are the three dimensions of a feasibility analysis?
a. Time, Money, Quality b
b. Technical, Economic, Organizational
Which SDLC phases include organizational readiness activities?
a. Plan
b. Analyze
e
c. Design
d. Implement
e. All of the above
Which of the following roles handles the project's work plan, triple
constraint, risk, communication, and critical path?
a. Business Analyst b
b. Project Manager
c. Systems Analyst
What characteristics should a well-formed requirements have?
a. Can be verified
b. Has to be met or possessed by a system to solve a stakeholder
problem e
c. Measurable
d. Defines the performance and capabiity of the system
e. All of the above
Which of the following is a good sample syntax for writing a good
requirement
a. [Condition] [Subject] [Action] [Object] [Constraint]
d
b.[Condition] [Action or Constraint] [Value]
c. [Subject] [Action] [Value]
d. All of the above
Nonfuctional requirements are usually discussed with sub-
ject-matter experts.
b
a. True
b. False
Which of these is a structured interview requirement?
a. Gathering information about the interview subject
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b. Identifying the business problem
c. Clarifying the user environment
d. Testing potential solutions f
e. Identifying non-functional requirements
f. All of the above
Which traceability method identifies the gold-plating example at
the beginning of this video?
a
a. Forward Traceability
b. Backward Traceability
In what phase of the SDLC methodology do we create use cases?
a. Plan
b. Analyze b
c. Design
d. Implement
In what phase of SDLC methodology do we write initial test cases?
a. Plan
b. Analyze b
c. Design
d. Implement
What are the components of a data flow diagram?
a. process, data flow, data store, external entity a
b. actor, boundary, data
What is the key difference between context diagram and process
flow diagram?
a. Context diagram depicts data flows, sequences of events are
not depicted. Process flow depicts the process. Non-data ele-
a
ments are included. Sequence matters.
b. Process flow diagram depicts data flows, sequences of events
are not depicted. Context diagram depicts the process. Non-data
elements are included. Sequence matters.
What type of DFD focuses on the business and business activi-
ties?
a
a. Logical DFD
b. Physical DFD
How can a DFD be decomposed into a primitive?
a. Through structured English, decision tree, or context table b
b. Through structured English, decision tree, or decision table
What are example components of BPMN?
a. A start event, sequence flow, task, gateway "decision", and end
a
event
b. A boundary, external entities, inputs, and outputs
What is used to describe a person, place, object, event or concept
about which data are to be maintained?
a
a. Entity
b. Crow's foot
What refers to the maximum number of times an instance in one
entity can be associated with instances in the related entity?
a
a. Cardinality
b. Modularity
What are the main constructs of an ERD?
a. Actors, Relationships, Data Flow b
b. Entities, Relationships, Attributes.
What shows that one entity inherits from another entity?
a. Specialization b
b. Generalization
When balancing DFDs and ERDs, what will data stores & some
a
external entities be represented as in an ERD?
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a. Entities
b. Attributes
A video game is programmed to offer 3 different membership
options based on different monthly subscriptions: Gold, Silver, and
Bronze members. In Object-Oriented Programming, each type of
a
member would be considered instances of a:
a. Class
b. Method
Suppose we wanted to use inheritance to store different types
of vehicles for a program being used by a car dealership. If Car,
Truck, and Van were subclasses in the program, with Audi and
Chevrolet being subclasses of the Car class, what should be the
b
superclass?
a. Car Dealership
b. Vehicle
c. Customer
Suppose a program for ordering shoes online is represented by
a sequence diagram. If a customer wanted to select a different
color of the shoes (which is a variable stored in the shoe class,
accessible by a method also in the class), would this be an
b
instance of a(n):
a. Actor
b. Message
c. Object
Which of the following is an advantage of ERP over the
Best-of-Breed strategy?
a. ERP does not lock the firm's data into one ecosystem managed
by a single vendor.
b
b. Best-of-Breed requires custom integration into the firm to be
functional, which requires more resources to complete. Mean-
while ERP needs much less customization as it is all from one
vendor.
The financial health of an external software developer does not
need to be considered in an Alternative Matrix.
b
a. True
b. False
Which of the following is NOT true about Business Intelligence
Architecture?
a. It is better suited to answer questions regarding the trends of
purchases, i.e. referencing data over a period of time. b
b. It supports daily transactions, but not data modeling or analysis.
c. It is mostly used for analysts, but not suited well for automated
input.
What represents a system's design by referencing physical ele-
ments of the software, such as writing functions?
b
a. Data Flow Diagram
b. Program Specifications
A program for ordering food online on a restaurant's website is
currently being tested. The project leader wants to test an instance
where a customer wants to know what appetizers pair well with a
a
given entree. This is an example of a Use Case.
a.True
b. False
Which of the three dimensions do Business Analysts focus on
during the migration plan (mark all that apply)?
a. Preparing the Business
d
b. Preparing the Technology
c. Preparing the People
d. A and C only

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The Maintenance phase is not included in the SDLC described in
this course but it is equally important.
a
a. True
b. False
What are some work positions that are available in companies that
develops and sells ERP Systems?
a. Sales Associate
b. Functional Consultant e
c. System Architect
d. Project Management
e. All of above
If my company does not develop or sell ERP systems, it is likely
that I do not need to learn or use ERP systems?
b
a. True
b. False
Having seen the various potential issues related to the completion
of an order fulfillment process, which of the following is a good
reason why ERP systems might help companies in this business
process?
a. ERP systems are expensive systems. By owning an ERP,
companies can show their customers that they have good financial
b
health
b. ERP systems can help sales associates make better decisions
by presenting information on stock availability and the credit-wor-
thiness of customers
c. Since most other companies are using ERPs, it will look bad if
a company does not own an ERP
In this class, we would learn to program and code ERP software.
a. True b
b. False
When workers work in a department within the company, they get
to specialize in one area of work. This style of working is adopted
by many companies, and it does not bear any issues. b
a. True
b. False
A process-oriented view of the organization
_________________.
a
a. allows information to flow seamlessly across departments
b. causes different departments to work in silos
The layers that SAP R/3 have are:
You may choose more than one answer.
a. Database Layer
b. Project Layer
f
c. Application Layer
d. Process Layer
e. Presentation Layer
f. A, C and E
The full name of SAP company is Systems, Applications,
Processes.
b
a. True
b. False
When users use SAP, where is their data stored?
a. Their own computer b
b. The server where the system is hosted
What is the purpose of the procurement business process?
a. To acquire needed materials externally. a
b. To acquire needed materials internally.

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What is the purpose of the production process?
a. To acquire needed material internally. a
b. To acquire needed material externally.
Based on these two business processes, we see that a business
process is initiated based on a trigger event.
a
a. True
b. False
Within SAP, the company is the highest organization level.
a. True b
b. False
Plants in SAP can be used to represent:
a. Retail Stores
b. Factories d
c. Distribution Centers
d. B and C only
Storage locations are the places where stock is physically kept
within a plant.
a
a. True
b. False
What is true with regards to sales organizations?
a. They are the top organizational level for summarizing sales data
b. They are an organization unit responsible for the distribution of c
goods and services
c. All of above
What are common types of Distribution Channels within SAP?
a. Wholesale
b. Retail d
c. Internet
d. All of Above
What types of data might be involved in the creation of transaction
data?
a. Customer Master Data
d
b. Material Master Data
c. Situational Data
d. All of above
A quotation is a legally binding document, while an inquiry is not
legally binding.
a
a. True
b. False
Which are the top three ERP vendors? Check all that apply.
a. Oracle
b. Microsoft Dynamics
e
c. Sage
d. SAP
e. A, B and D
Which ERP offerings are provided by SAP? Check all that apply.
a. Business All-In-One
b. Business One d
c. By Design
d. All of the above
Which ERP offerings are provided by MS Dynamics? Check all
that apply
a. GP a
b. NAV
c. AX
According to the Clash of the Titans article, what are important
factors to consider when selecting a ERP system?
a. Market share
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b. Country of ERP company
c. Cost of Ownership d
d. A and C only
What is the biggest shortcoming of SAP?
a. Largest market share
b. Highest selection rate when short-listed c
c. Largest delta between planned and actual implementation du-
ration
The magic quadrant can be used to shortlist viable options for
companies.
a
a. True
b. False
Ability to execute in the magic quadrant refers whether an ERP
system bears certain features for addressing specific business
needs of operating in an industry. a
a. True
b. False
What are the four types of ERPs under the Magic Quadrant?
Check all that apply.
a. Leaders, Visionaries, Niche Players, Challengers
a
b. Leaders, Visionaries, Masters, Defenders
c. Leaders, Strategists, Niche Players, Challengers
d. Leaders, Masters, Defenders, Strategists
What might be an industry that would find ERPs falling in the
Visionary quadrant to be most appropriate?
a
a. Online platforms that offer home-sharing features (e.g., Airbnb)
b. Large retail business (e.g. Walmart)
The CRM module is not redundant because it can handle sophisti-
cated fulfillment tasks that are not provided by the basic fulfillment
feature offered by the core ERP module. a
a. True
b. False
What are the important components to consider within change
management with respect to ERP implementation? Check all that
apply.
a. Communication
e
b. Money
c. Training
d. Process Change
e. A, C and D
Companies tend to underestimate the amount of change that is
involved with ERP implementation. To help companies consider
the various possible types of changes that are involved, we have
just talked about 4 levels of change. In particular, which level of
change does structure and culture belong to? c
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
Leadership support towards ERP implementation is essential to
the change management, because a lack of support signals to
the rest of the company that tasks involved in implementing the
system are not as important as their daily tasks. This can lead
a
to lack of interest and cooperation with the ERP implementation
team.
a. True
b. False
A good approach to utilize leadership support is to utilize a com-
munication protocol that explains the importance of the ERP and
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describes the implementation needs to the senior management,
so that they can motivate the rest of organization in committing
their time to the ERP implementation project. a
a. True
b. False
Leadership support and commitment is needed
a. During ERP implementation
c
b. After ERP implementation
c. All of above
Companies typically do not experience disruption to their produc-
tivity after ERP implementation, if they do a good job with change
management. b
a. True
b. False
Over the last 5 minutes, what are some of the discussed tech-
niques that can help to increase the likelihood of ERP implemen-
tation success?
a. Rigourous Scope Management
e
b. Early exposure to User Interface/System
c. Use of Agile Methodology in Implementation
d. Selecting the right ERP system using the Magic Quadrant
e. A, B and C
What are the approaches in rolling out the ERP systems? Check
all that applies.
a. Slow and steady rollout
d
b. Big Bang
c. Phase rollout
d. B and C only
What are some advantages of using a single instance ERP?
Check all that applies.
a. Allows data and business activities to be consolidated across
different business units d
b. Lower maintenance cost
c. Enable Strategic Vision
d. All of the above
What are various types of partnership roles that implementation
partners could play?
a. Foot soldiers
b. Service providers e
c. Commanders
d. Diplomats
e. A, C and D
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Cloud?
a. Resources can be purchased on-demand
b. Additional resources can be added relatively quickly
d
c. Cloud resources can be accessed from a range of network
devices and platforms
d. Users must pay a high flat-fee irrespective of their usage.
Virtualization can be used to create a layer of separation between
the hardware and the operating system and software running on
it. a
a. True
b. False
Which of the following issues can have a negative impact if a com-
pany moves its services to the cloud without full considerations?
a. The company did not pay attention to data format compatibility
d
issues before choosing a cloud provider
b. The company has private data assets but has not addressed
data ownership issues with the chosen cloud provider
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c. The company has not considered whether their cloud provider
will be able to grow and scale up at the same pace as that of the
company's growth over a long-term horizon.
d. All of the above.
HTML stands for?
a. Home Tool Markup Language
b
b. Hyper Text Markup Language
c. Hyperlinks and Text Markup Language
Which of the following is NOT an example of a web application?
a. HTML
b. Google Docs a
c. Dropbox
d. Youtube
Which of the following is NOT true for thin client solutions?
(a) It needs to validate with the server after data capture
(b) Increases portability in that all applications are on the server
that can be accessed from any workstation c
(c) More expensive to deploy and more work for IT to deploy
(d) Provides an opportunity to use older, outdated PCs as the thin
clients
All these VMs are sharing the resources provided by the actual
host machine.
a
a. True
b. False
For a client with limited IT expertise, a Type 2 hypervisor will be
easier to install than a Type 1 hypervisor.
a. True a

b. False
You are the CIO of a company that wants to create a new software
application without having to worry about purchasing and main-
taining all the required underlying hardware infrastructure (e.g.,
network, storage, processor, bandwidth) and operating system
support software (e.g., OS updates, antivirus) etc. What are you b
basically looking for?
a SaaS
b PaaS
c IaaS
Which of the following is an example of SaaS?
a Cisco Webex
b Google Docs d
c Citrix GoToMeeting
d All of the above
In which of the scenarios is IaaS NOT applicable:
(a) When regulatory compliance prohibits offshoring data storage
and processing
a
(b) When the demand is very volatile or the organization is growing
(c) When there is limited capital to be spent on infrastructure
(d) When there is temporary infrastructural need
A public cloud option may be more suitable for an organization
than using a private cloud when it needs:
a Greater control
c
b Lower latency
c Higher elasticity
d Better performance
Which of the following is true for data centers?
a Data centers have rows of interconnected servers
d
b Data centers maintain backup of the data stored on each server
c If one server fails, another server in the data center can take
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over its role without interruption
d All of the above
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a Fog computing introduces computational power in the edge
routers to which IoT devices connect
b Datacenters with fully connected topology improves host-to-host
d
capacity
c Blade servers in a rack are interconnected using the TOR switch
d Fog computing is a technology that is intended to replace Cloud
computing
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Visible light is not a part of the electromagnetic spectrum
(b) All wireless technologies use the same frequency
c
(c) There is a trade-off between the mobility range and data speed
that different technologies offer
(d) None of the above
Which of the following statement is NOT true?
(a) Human voice produce analog signals
(b) Voice signals can be digitized to a binary representation, which
can then be sent over wireless signals through techniques like d
signal modulation.
(c) FM stands for frequency modulation
(d) None of the above
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) The term "Cellular" in cellular networks comes from honey-
comb shape of areas for a coverage region
(b) Adjacent parts of cells in a cellular network operate on different
d
frequencies to minimize interference in wireless data transmission
(c) Base stations of adjacent cells participate in the handover
process to minimize call drop rates
(d) All of the above
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Mobile CRM modules can help employees in remote locations
have real-time access to customer data
(b) RFID technology can be used to monitor and get reports on
d
equipment status without the need for physical examination.
(c) Using WiFi and other wireless technologies to connect smart
home appliances can help realize green buildings
(d) All of the above
Barcode was intenved in?
a. 1948
b. 1967 a
c. 1946
d. 1964
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
(a) RFID is less expensive than bar codes and QR codes
(b) RFID stands for Radio Frequency Identification
a
(c) RFID readers can read multiple RFID tags at the same time
(d) The size of the antenna that can be used inside an RFID tag
affects the distance from which it can be scanned.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about WiFi net-
works?
(a) WiFi operates in an unlicensed spectrum band
b
(b) WiFi and cellular networks use the same set of frequencies
(c) WiFi is an example of Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN)
(d) All of the above
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
(a) 1G cellular networks support voice and data services
(b) 2G cellular networks support both voice and messaging ser-
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vices
(c) 3G and 4G cellular networks support both voice and data
services a
(d) 5G cellular networks will support Internet of Things and other
data heavy services
Which of the following pairing of technology to its coverage area
is mismatched?
(a) Bluetooth - Wireless Metropolitan Area Network (WMAN)
a
(b) WiFi - Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)
(c) CDMA - Wireless Wide Area Network (WWAN)
(d) None of the above
The mobile phones we carry today have more computing power
than the computers used for the Apollo 11 to land on the moon.
a
a. True
b. False
Which of the following technology can be used inside a store to
track which aisle a customer is in?
(a) Barcode on each product
c
(b) QR code on each product
(c) RFID tag on a shopping cart
(d) Geolocation data from cell phone
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Usage based pricing for data is a way to charge based on the
volume of data consumed
(b) Time dependent pricing for data is a way to charge based on
d
the time of day at which data is consumed
(c) Location based pricing for data is a way to charge based on
the location at which data is consumed
(d) All of the above
Which of these are characteristics of secure communication?
(a) Confidentiality
(b) Data Integrity d
(c) Authentication
(d) All of the above
A Trojan horse refers to a computer program that...
(a) has the intent to slow down a machine through self-replication
and using up all the available resources
(b) has the intent to open a backdoor on a machine for an attacker
b
to gain remote access
(c) has the intent to create an additional layer of protection against
viruses on a machine
(d) none of the above
Which of the following is an example of attack involving imperson-
ation or spying on ongoing data exchanges?
(a) IP Spoofing
d
(b) Packet Sniffing
(c) Man-in-the-Middle
(d) All of the above

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Which of the following statement about cipher based encryption
is NOT true?
Which of the following statement about cipher based encryption
is NOT true? c
(a) Caesar ciphers shift the alphabetical letters by a number (key)
that is known only to the sender and the receiver of a message.
(b) A key challenge with Caesar cipher and its variants is the need
to share the key in advance in a trusted environment
(c) Caesar cipher is a stronger encryption technique than one-time

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pads
(d) Perfect one time pads can be unbreakable because of the
computational power needed
Which of the following private key based data encryption system
is the strongest?
(a) DES
c
(b) 3DES
(c) AES
(d) All of them are of similar strength
Which of the following statements about public key cryptosystem
is NOT true?
(a) Message can be encoded with one key (either of the two) and
decoded with the other
(b) Message can only be encoded with the private key and decod-
b
ed with the public key, not vice versa
(c) Someone can know the public key, but that should not allow
him or her to deduce the private key
(d) It can be used for encryption as well as in authentication and
digital signatures
Which of the following suggested usage of cyber defense system
is correct:
(a) Encryption is used to protect sensitive information and data
(b) Host-based Intrusion Detection Systems are used to monitor
d
and protect individual machines and systems.
(c) Network-based Intrusion Detection Systems are used to mon-
itor and protect organization's network
(d) All of the above
Which of the following should be AVOIDED to prevent confidential
data loss from cyberattacks?
(a) Store the encrypted data and the encryption key at different
locations
b
(b) Store the encrypted data and the encryption key at the same
location
(c) Use a two-factor access control
(d) Limit third-party access to the internal network
The type of disclosure process in which a new bug discovery is
reported right away to the public is known as:
(a) Responsible Disclosure
b
(b) Full Disclosure
(c) Market Disclosure
(d) None of the above
Attackers can exploit gaps in cross-organizational processes
more easily when algorithmic decision-making is involved. Which
of the following technology may best help to address some of
these concerns?
a
(a) Blockchain
(b) Cloud computing
(c) Internet of Things
(d) None of the above
Which of the following statements about blockchain is NOT true?
(a) It is a distributed ledger that records transactions
(b) It has a centralized validation system b
(c) It uses cryptographic codes for securing transaction records
(d) It is the technology behind Bitcoin

Which of the following statements provides a valid reason in favor

of blockchains over traditional databases?
(a) Traditional databases are not capable of storing transaction
information
(b) Transaction data stored in a traditional database can be vali-

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dated by anyone but blockchains offer a more closed solution that
increases security.
(c) Transaction data are stored in a traditional database under the
control of a single administrator who needs to be trusted, whereas c
blockchains create a distributed ledger that can be validated by
anyone.
(d) All of the above
Which of the following statements is true about Bitcoins?
(a) Bitcoin is the world's first digital currency based on the
blockchain technology that was launched in 2009 as an alternative
to traditional currency.
(b) In Bitcoins, there is no need to have an actual physical currency
because its blockchain keeps an entire transaction history on who
owned each bitcoin at different times in the past. d
(c) Transaction records in banking are centrally controlled and
closed to the public for security reasons, whereas bitcoin brings
in the public to validate every ownership and transaction, thus
adding transparency.
(d) All of the above
Skip
Which of the following statements is NOT true about Bitcoins?
(a) Bitcoin uses cryptography to maintain security and immutabil-
ity of transactions.
(b) Bitcoin miners use private key cryptography for encrypting
transactions.
(c) Miners in Bitcoin blockchain collect and validate transaction b
requests.
(d) When a miner successfully validates and adds a new block of
transaction records to the chain, they earn bitcoins in lieu of their
computational power spent in this process.
Skip
Which of the following statements about the steps of Bitcoin
mining is NOT true?
(a) Bitcoin miners scoop up a whole bunch of transaction requests
that they process
(b) Bitcoin miners check to ensure that the digital signatures are
valid and that there are enough bitcoins in the wallet for a valid
d
transaction.
(c) Miners compete globally to produce blocks of validated trans-
actions. The first miner to produce a valid block of transactions
earns bitcoins and their block is added to end of the blockchain.
(d) All the miners participated in mining will get an equal share of
the bitcoins for participating in the computation process.
In the context of the irreversibility of blockchains, which of the
following statement is NOT true?
(a) The process of adding blocks to a blockchain is such that it
is very expensive - in terms of computational power, and hence,
electricity - to add new blocks and even more so to change blocks
further back in the chain.
(b) Any miner trying to add a new block of data is required to
d
provide a cryptographic proof called Proof of Work.
(c) To produce the Proof of Work, a miner will have to perform
multiple rounds of hashing with the data of the previous block such
that the resultant hash value begins with a specified number of
zeros.
(d) A miner predicts what hash values will be produced and
adjusts the data used in the hashing process.
Which of the following is true for smart contracts?
(a) They are software code outlining contracts associated with
transactions, which remain unaltered, accessible and publicly ver-
ifiable for the blockchain's lifespan.
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(b) Smart contracts often interface with external applications that
reside outside the blockchain
(c) Smart contracts can be used for peer-to-peer transactions, d
e.g., smart electricity grid, ridesharing services, etc
(d) All of the above
College diplomas, transcripts, and other educational records are
being tracked and stored in Blockchains because they provide
easy accessibility, verifiability and immutability of data. a
a. True
b. False
Suppose your organization has data needs to be secured and
stored centrally. What technology option should you use?
a
(a) Traditional Database
(b) Blockchain
Suppose multiple stakeholders in a supply chain need to update
some records in a dynamic manner but they all want verifiability
and immutability of the data. What technology option should you
b
use?
(a) Traditional Database
(b) Blockchain
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Cheap land, cheap electricity, and easy access to advanced
hardware vendors for customization are beneficial for blockchain
mining.
(b) As applications of Blockchains continue to grow, the energy
consumption for the computation will be a key factor for enterpris- d
es to consider.
(c) Smaller scale permissioned blockchain that limit participation
to trusted miners can reduce computational overhead and energy
needs.
(d) All of the above.
Informational systems are about?
a. Providing aggregated information for decision making.
b. Performing core business processes of the firm cost effectively. A
c. Providing customers with a differentiated service.
d. All of the above.
IT Portfolio management means that the IT investment portfolio of
a firm must be continuously evolving with time.
a
a. True
b. False
Prior research suggests that if the user organizations are present-
ed with an IT service that has a price associated with it, it reduces
the demand for the IT service. a
a. True
b. False

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