SUBJECT: PHYSICS CLASS: SS 1

Instruction: Attempt all questions in this section

PART A: OBJECTIVE TEST

1. Physics studies the nature of what in relation to energy and nature

(a). matter. (b). life (c). human (d). molecules
2. That substance that has weight and occupies space is termed
(a) molecule (b) particle (c) liquid (d) matter.
3. Fundamental and what other unit are the types of units in physics
(a) derived. (b) quantity (c) basic (d) quality
4. Length, Time and what other quantity are regarded as the basic quantities in physics
(a) force (b) mass. (c) velocity (d) acceleration
5. The kind of units that are independent on all other units are called…….
(a) fundamental. (b) derived (c) foundational (d) simple
6. The unit abbreviation of the following quantities (Temperature, electric current and force)
are:
(a) T, E and F. (b) K, A and N (c) S, Kg and J (d) N, A and K
7. What is the derived unit for volume and velocity
(a) ms-1 and m3 (b) m3 and ms-1. (c) Nm and ms-2 (d) m2 and Js-1
8. What instrument is used to measure lengths of solid objects that are in a cylindrical form
(a) calipers. (b) meter rule (c) cylindrical flask (d) chemical balance
9. The term that describe the change in position of a body from one point to another is
(a) random motion (b) motion. (c) measurement (d) direction
10. The motion that describe the movement of a body in a tro and fro pattern is called
(a) translational (b) evolutional (c) vibrational. (d) relative
11. The force that opposes the relative motion between two bodies is called
(a) viscosity (b) friction (c) capillarity (d) tension
12. The following are instruments used to measure time except
(a) stop-watch (b) pendulum clock (c) wattmeter (d) ticker tape timer
13. Which of the following is correct?
I Displacement is a scalar quantity
II Both distance and displacement are measured in meter (m).
III Displacement shows direction.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I, II, III (d) I and III
14. Which of the following is not correct about displacement?
 a) Displacement is a scalar quantity. b) Displacement direction can be measured using
compass and grid.
c) Displacement is distance moved in a specified direction. d) Distance has direction while
displacement has magnitude only.
15. Which of the following statements is correct?
i) Distance and displacement have magnitude.
ii) Distance has direction and displacement has magnitude only.
iii) They are both measured in meters.
a) I and iii b) ii and iii c) i, ii and iv d) i, iv, and iii
16. Which of the following is not Basic unit? a) m b)NM c) kg d) k
17. Which of the following is a fundamental quantity? a) Pressure b) heat c) luminous
intensity d) Density
18. The following are Derived units except a) kgms-2 b) Mol. c) Nm d) ms-2
19. The motion of the prongs of a sounding turning fork is
a) Vibration b) translation c)random d) vibratory and rotational
20. Which of the following is not true about motion?
a) Motion are caused by a force
b) Motion is the change of position of a body with time
c) All motion are relative motion
d) It is not practicable for an object to combine two of the motion together
21. Which of the following are random motions?
i) It is haphazardly or disorderly with no direction
ii) It is non-linear manner and changes direction continuously.
iii) Brownian motion is a random motion.
iii) The example of random is a horse running from one two to another
a) I, II& IV only b) I, II & III only c) IV, III and I d) IV, III and II only
22. A fully test-tube that floats upright in the water is carefully and slightly depressed, and the
then released. Which of the following best explains the subsequent motion of the test tube?
a) Rotational b) Translational c) Circular d) Random
23. A proof of the particle nature of matter is the
a) Oscillatory b) Brownian motion c) Orbital motion d) Translational
motion
24. An object moves with uniform speed around a circle. Its acceleration has:
(a) Varying magnitude and varying direction (b) Constant magnitude and constant
direction
(c) Varying magnitude and constant direction (d) Constant magnitude and varying
direction
25. The frictional force between two bodies
(a) Have all these characteristics
(b) Exists only when there is relative motion or tendency to motion.
(c) Acts so as to oppose the motion.
 (d) Depends on the proper reaction between the two surfaces.

26. A wooden block of mass 1.4kg rests on a rough horizontal surface. If the surface is 9N,
calculate the coefficient of friction g = 10m/s2
(a) 0.65 (b) 0.54 (c) 0.64 (d) 0.70

27. Which of the following correctly gives the relationship between linear speed and angular
speed w of a body moving uniformly in a circle of radius r?
(a) v = w^2r (b) v = wr^2 (c) v = w /r (d) v = wr

28. The magnitude of the force required to make an object of mass m move with speed v in a
circular path of radius r is given by the expression (a) mv^2/r (b) mr2/v (c) mv/r^2
(d) mv/r

29. Which of the following is not a consequence of a force field?

(a) Magnetic force (b) gravitational pull c) electric force d) surface tension
30. Which of the following is not correct about friction?
a) friction can be increased using volleys, lubricants
b) friction resists the resistance motion between two surfaces in contact
c) it reduces the efficiency of machines
d) the coefficient of friction has no unit
31. What is the unit of frictional force? a) Rad/sec b) Newton c) N/S d) radian
32. Which of the following are contact forces?
(i) Force of tension (ii) Force of reaction (iii) Force of friction (iv) Magnetic force
(A) i, ii and iv only (B) i, ii and iii only (C) ii iii and iv only (D) i, ii only.
33. A body at the weight of 100N moves with a speed of 5mls in a horizontal circular path of
the radius. Calculate the magnitude of the centripetal force acting on the body g = 10m/s2
(A) 50N (B) 100N (C) 75N (D) 10N
34. The area under the curve of a velocity-time graph represents.
(A) Instantaneous speed (B) Time spent (C) Distance (D) Acceleration
35. Which of the following statement is correct about speed and velocity?
(A) Velocity relates to translational motion while speed relates to circular motion
(B) Speed and velocity have the same units
(C) Velocity and speed cannot be represented graphically
(D) Speed and velocity are vector quantities
36. The distance travelled by train may be calculated from the area under its
(A) Distance – graph (B) Acceleration – time graph
(C) Displacement – time graph (D) Velocity – time graph
37. A body accelerates uniformly from rest at 2m/s2. Find its velocity after travelling 9m.
(A) 4.5m/s (B) 24m/s (C) 6m/s (D) 16m/s
 38. An object of mass 60kg is released from the height of 3m from the height of 3m. Find the
kinetic energy just before it strikes the ground (g =10mls2. (a) 1.8 J
(b)180J (c)18000J (d)1800J
39. A stone of mass Mkg is held H meters above the floor for 40s. The work done in Joules
over this period is
(a) mgh (b)O (c) mgh/40 (d) mg
40. Under which of the following conditions is a work done
a) A bag of Cocoa stands on a platform b) A woman holds a pot of water
c) A girl climbs onto a table d) A man pushes against a stationary petrol tanker

SECTION B; THEORY

INSTRUCTION; answer any two questions from this section.

SHOW YOUR WORKINGS CLEARLY.

1. (a) Define physics 1mrk

(b) List two types of motion and explain them (1+2)mrks
(c) A body of mass 5kg is placed on the horizontal plane. It is found that a force of 10N applied horizontally to the
body is just about to move it. Calculate the coefficient of the friction between the body and the plane
1mrk
2. (a) Differentiated between fundamental quantity and derived quantity 2mrks
(b) a ball is thrown up vertically with a velocity of 40ms-1.calculate (i) the maximum height (ii) the time to reach
the maximum height 2mrks
(c) List two advantages of friction 1mrk
3. (a) Define friction 1mrk
(b) a ball of mass 2kg falls from rest from a height of 200m.calculate its kinetic energy after falling a
distance of 50m.(g=10ms-1). 2mrks
(c) State Archimedes principle and list two applications of floatation 2mrk
4. (a) Define density 1 mrk
(b) A relative density bottle weighs 20g,80g when filled with water and 100g when filled with liquid. Find
the relative density of the liquid 2mrks
(c) State the principle of floatation 2mrks
5. (a)Define viscosity 1mrk
(b) List two similarities between viscosity and friction 2mrks
(c) An object of mass 5kg is moving at a constant velocity of 15ms-1.
Calculate its kinetic energy 1mrk
(d) Define kinetic energy 1mrk
6. (a) Define work done 1mrk
(b) State the law of conservation of energy 2mrks
(c) A boy of mass 10kg climbs up 10 steps each of height 0.2m in 20seconds. Calculate the power of the boy
1mrk
THE CHILD LEGACY INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL
CRECHE NURSERY PRIMARY COLLEGE
AFA ROAD, IGBE LAARA, IGBOGBO-IKORODU, LAGOS STATE
Tel: 07036331085, 08023088798, 09068609046.
 Email: [email protected]
PART A

SUBJECT: PHYSICS CLASS: SSS2

INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

1. The dimensions of momentum are A. MLT. B. ML-1T-1. C. MLT-1 D. ML-1T.

2. The SI unit of power is A. N B. P C. W D. J.

3. The time rate of change of displacement is known as A. speed B. velocity C. impulse D. distance

4. Which of the following units is derived? (A). Kg (B). M (C). K (D). N.

5. The slope of a straight line velocity-time graph represents

A. uniform acceleration B. uniform speed C. total distance travelled D. work done.

6. A car moves with a speed of 30ms-1. Calculate the distance travelled in in 30s.

A. 30m B 60m C. 450m D.900m

7. Which of the following sets of quantities is fundamental?

A. Length, mass and time B. Speed, length and time

C. Speed, mass and distance D. Distance, speed and time

8. What type of motion does the skin of ‘talking’ drum perform when it is struck with a drum stick? A.
Random B. Rotational C. Translational D. Vibratory

9. The slope of a linear distance-time graph represents

A. acceleration B. displacement C. speed D. velocity.

10. Which of the following is a fundamental quantity? A. Speed B. Density C. Length D. Energy

11. Which of the following is a derived unit? A. Ampere B. Kilogramme C. Second D. Watt

12. Which of the following substances is the moist at room temperature?

A. Water B. Diesel C. Petrol D. Crude Oil

13. Find the distance between A (2, 2) and B (10, 8). A. 10 B. 8 C. 100 D. 5

14. The slope of velocity-time graph gives A. displacement B. work done C. acceleration D. distance.
15. A car travels an average speed of 100kmh-1, what distance does it cover in 5minutes. A.8.333m
B. 8333.3m C. 83.33m D. 833.3m

16. If no net force acts on an object, the object maintains a state of rest or constant speed in a straight
line. The above is a statement of Newton’s

A. first law of motion B. second law of motion

C. law of universal gravitation D. third law of motion

17. Which of the following instrument is used to measure relative humidity?

A. Hydrometer B. Barometer C. Hypsometer D. Hygrometer.

18. The time of flight for a projectile motion is given by the expression A. B. C.D.

19. A car starts from rest and covers a distance of 40m in 10s. Calculate the magnitude of its
acceleration.

A.0.25 ms-2 B. 0.8 ms-2 C. 3.20 ms-2 D. 4.00 ms-2

20. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities is made of vectors?

A. speed and displacement B. mass and force C. displacement and acceleration D. momentum and
length.

21. The SI unit of heat is A. Joule B. Kevin C. watt D. ampere

22. The slope of a linear distance-time graph represents A. acceleration B. displacement C. speed D.
velocity.

23. The tendency for a stationary body to continue to remain at rest when a force is applied to it is
known as A. friction B. impulse C. inertia D. momentum.

24. The S.I units of frequency, period and amplitude of a wave are respectively

A. hertz, second and centimetre B. second, metre and hertz C. metre, hertz and second D. hertz,
second and metre.

25. The time rate of change of displacement is known as A. speed B. velocity C. impulse D.
acceleration

26. Which of the following surface will radiate heat energy best? A. red surface B. white surface C
black surface D. yellow surface.

27. Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived? I. Area II. Volume III. Mass IV.
Force A. I, II, III and IV B. I, II and IV only C. IV only D.I and IV only.
28. A force that opposes the relative motion between two surfaces in contact is A. Upthrust B. Weight
C. Friction D. Density

29. Find the distance between A (2, 2) and B (10, 8). A. 10 B. 8 C. 100 D. 5

30. The slope of velocity-time graph gives A. displacement B. work done C. acceleration D. distance.

31. Newton’s second law of motion states that

(a) the force on a body is inversely proportional to its mass

(b) when two or more bodies act upon one another, their total momentum remains constant when an
external force acts on it.

(c) the time rate of change of linear momentum of a body is proportional to the impressed force and
takes place in the direction of the applied force

(d) the force acting on a body in motion is proportional to its kinetic energy.

32. A boy sits in a train moving with a uniform speed in a straight track. If from his outstretched palm, he
tossed a coin vertically upwards, the coin will fall

(a) in front of his palm (b) behind his plan (c) besides his plan (d) into his palm

33. The property of a body to remain at rest or to continue to move in straight line is known as

(a) force (b) impulse (c) momentum (d) inertia

34. The motion of a body is simple harmonic if the

(a) acceleration is always directed towards a fixed point (b) path of the motion is a straight line

(c) acceleration is directed towards a fixed point and proportional to its distance from the point

(d) acceleration is constant and directed towards a fixed point

35. When the energy of the vibrating skin of a talking drum is decreased, the sound waves emanating
from the drum would have a corresponding decrease in their

(a) wavelength (b) amplitude (c) quality (d) speed

36. The amplitude of the motion of a body performing simple harmonic motion decreases with time
because

(a) frictional force dissipate the energy of the motion (b) the energy is supplied by some external
force (c) the frequency of oscillation varies with time (d) the period of oscillation varies with
time
37. Which of the following will reduce frequency of oscillation of a simple pendulum

(a) increasing the mass of the bob (b) decreasing the mass of the bob

(c) increasing the length of the string (d) decreasing the length of the string

38. Which of the following statements about a machine is not correct?

(a) it is a device for doing work more conveniently

(b) all machines are made of gear, wheels, levers, pulleys and screws

(c) a machine often does work faster than a man

(d) a fishing rod is a machine

39. The lubricants used in reducing friction

(a) decrease the MA (b) increase the MA (c) increase the VR (d) decrease the VR

40. In practice, a machine can never be 100% efficient. This statement implies that;

(a) the mechanical advantage of any machine is always less than 1

(b) the velocity ratio of a machine is always greater than 1

(c) the velocity ratio of a machine is never greater than the mechanical advantage

(d) the useful work obtained from a machine is always less than the work done by it.

Theory Questions

1a) Define the period, T of a simple harmonic motion and state its unit.
1b) A uniform beam 6m long and weighing 40N rests on supports at P and Q placed left and right 1m from
each end of the beam. Weights of 100N and 80N are placed near P and Q respectively on each end of the
beam, calculate the reaction at P and Q. 5mrks

2a) Define and Give two examples of simple harmonic motion.

b) A body of mass 0.02kg is suspended from the end of a spiral spring whose force constant is 0.4 Nm-1,
an angular velocity of 4.46 rads-1 and an amplitude of 0.2m. calculate:
i) The total energy
ii) Maximum velocity of the motion
iii) Maximum acceleration 5mrks

3a) What is momentum?

b) A body of mass 5kg moves with a velocity of 5ms-1, what is its momentum.
c) State the two conditions necessary for equilibrium of parallel coplanar forces. 5mrks

4a) A mass of 2kg is supported by two cords which makes angles of 300 and 500 with the vertical. Find the
forces on the two cords.
b) Give one example of application of couple. 5mrks

5 (a) Distinguish between scalar and vector quantities.(b) Which of the following are scalars and which are
vectors? Speed, velocity, mass, density, force, displacement, weight, acceleration, momentum.

(c) A stone shot out from a catapult with an a initial velocity of 30m/s at an elevation of 60 0. Find i) time of
flight ii) maximum height attained iii) Range 5mrks

6. Two forces with magnitude of 25N and 18N respectively are inclined at an angle of 120 to each other.
Calculate the resultant force and the angle it makes with the 18N force.

(b). A machine of velocity ratio 6 requires a effort of 400N to raise a load of 800N through 1m. Find the
efficiency of the machine. 5mrks

THE CHILD LEGACY INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

CRECHE NURSERY PRIMARY COLLEGE
AFA ROAD, IGBE LAARA, IGBOGBO-IKORODU, LAGOS STATE
Tel: 07036331085, 08023088798, 09068609046.
 Email: [email protected]
SUBJECT: PHYSICS CLASS: SSS3 TIME: 1hr 30minutes

INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in this section

PART A

1. The S.I units of frequency, period and amplitude of a wave are respectively A. hertz, second and
centimetre B. second, metre and hertz C. metre, hertz and second D. hertz, second and metre.

2. The time rate of change of displacement is known as A. speed B. velocity C. impulse D. acceleration

3. Which of the following surface will radiate heat energy best? A. red surface B. white surface C black
surface D. yellow surface.

4. Which of the units of the following physical quantities are derived? I. Area II. Volume III. Mass IV.
Force A. I, II, III and IV B. I, II and IV only C. IV only D.I and IV only.

5. A force that opposes the relative motion between two surfaces in contact is A. Upthrust B. Weight C.
Friction D. Density

6. Find the distance between A (2, 2) and B (10, 8). A. 10 B. 8 C. 100 D. 5

7. The slope of velocity-time graph gives A. displacement B. work done C. acceleration D. distance

8. A charge of 1.6 ×C is placed in a uniform electric field of intensity 2.0 ×. What is the magnitude of
the electric force exerted on the charges? A. 3.2 ×N B. 1.8 ×N C. 3.2 ×N D. 4 ×N

9. In a uniform electric field, the magnitude of the force is on a charge of 0.2C is 4N. Calculate the
electric filed intensity A. B. C. D. .

10. Which of the following sets of quantities is fundamental? A. Length, mass and time B. Speed,
length and time C. Speed, mass and distance D. Distance, speed and time

11. What type of motion does the skin of ‘talking’ drum perform when it is struck with a drum stick? A.
Random B. Rotational C. Translational D. Vibratory

12. The slope of a linear distance-time graph represents A. acceleration B. displacement C. speed D.
velocity.

13. Which of the following is a fundamental quantity? A. Speed B. Density C. Length D. Energy

14. Which of the following is a derived unit? A. Ampere B. Kilogramme C. Second D. Watt

15. Which of the following substances is the most volatile at room temperature? A. Water B. Diesel C.
Petrol
16. Find the distance between A (2, 2) and B (10, 8). A. 10 B. 8 C. 100 D. 5

17. The slope of velocity-time graph gives A. displacement B. work done C. acceleration D. distance.

18. If no net force acts on an object, the object maintains a state of rest or constant speed in a straight
line. The above is a statement of Newton’s A. first law of motion B. second law of motion C. law of
universal gravitation D. third law of motion

19. A car starts from rest and covers a distance of 40m in 10s. Calculate the magnitude of its
acceleration. A.0.25 ms-2 B. 0.8 ms-2 C. 3.20 ms-2 D. 4.00 ms-2

20. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities is made of vectors? A. speed and displacement B.
mass and force C. displacement and acceleration D. momentum and length.

21. The SI unit of heat is A. Joule B. Kevin C. watt D. ampere

22. The slope of a linear distance-time graph represents A. acceleration B. displacement C. speed D.
velocity.

23. The tendency for a stationary body to continue to remain at rest when a force is applied to it is known
as A. friction B. impulse C. inertia D. momentum.

24. The S.I units of frequency, period and amplitude of a wave are respectively A. hertz, second and
centimetre B. second, metre and hertz C. metre, hertz and second D. hertz, second and metre.

25. The time rate of change of displacement is known as A. speed B. velocity C. impulse D. acceleration

26. Which of the following surface will radiate heat energy best? A. red surface B. white surface C black
surface D. yellow surface.

27. The unit of capacitance is A. Coulomb B. Henry C. Farad D. Ampere

28. A force that opposes the relative motion between two surfaces in contact is A. Upthrust B. Weight C.
Friction D. Density

29. Find the distance between A (2, 2) and B (10, 8). A. 10 B. 8 C. 100 D. 5

30. The slope of velocity-time graph gives A. displacement B. work done C. acceleration D. distance

31. Which of the following is not true about waves?

(a) All wave require a material medium for their propagation

(b) waves transfer energy from one place to another

(c) electromagnetic waves have the same velocity in the same medium
 (d) particle of a medium vibrate if there is a wave motion in the medium.

32. Which of the following is true of sound and light waves?

(a) they both transmit energy (b) they both material medium for their propagation

(c) they are both transverse wave (d) their velocities in air are equal

33. Which of the following type of wave needs a material medium for propagation?

(a) Radio wave (b) X-ray (c) sound wave (d) light wave

34. What is the total energy consumed by using an electric cooker rated 1000W for 5hours

(a) 5.3 x 103J (b) 6.3 x 103J (c) 1.8 x 107J (d) 2.3 x 107J

35. Which of the following is true of magnetism?

(a) Iron filling cling mainly round the ends of a bar magnet (b) the freely suspended bar
magnet comes to rest in the geographic N-S direction. (c) like poles attract (d) iodestone is
non-magnetic oxide.

36. If the south poles of two magnet stroke a steel bar, the polarities at the ends T and V of the steel will
respectively be (a) N and N. (b) N and S (c) S and N (d) S and S

37. What is the best method of demagnetizing a steel bar magnet?

(a) Solenoid method. (b) Hammering (c) heating it (d) rough handling it

38. The point at which the resultant magnetic flux density is zero is called?

(a) zero point (b) flux point (c) neutral point (d) magnetic point

39. The total energy required to send a unit positive charge round a complete electrical circuit is the

(a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy (c) electromotive force. (d) electrical energy

40. Which of the following is an electrolyte? (a) sugar solution (b) alcohol (c) paraffin
(d) grape juice.

PART B

INSTRUCTION: Answer Any THREE questions

1a. What do you understand by a gravitational field?

b. State Newton’s law of universal gravitation.

c. Determine the force of attraction between the sun (ms =1.99 x1030 kg) and the earth
(me = 5.98 x 1024 kg). Assume the sun is 1.50 x108 km from the earth. G= 6.67 X 10-11Nm2kg-2).
5mrks

2a. State Coulombs’ law.

b. What is an electric field?

c. Find the force of repulsion between two protons of 1.6 x10-19C each if the distance between
them is 5.3 x10-11 m. (Take = 9.0 x 109 Nm2C-2) 5mrks

3a. What is a capacitor? b. Four capacitors of capacitances C1, C2, C3 and C4 are connected in series.
Write down the expression for equivalent capacitance C. If they are connected in parallel, what is
the equivalent capacitance?

c. A capacitor of charge, 5 x 108 coulomb has a potential of 100volts. What is the capacitance of the
capacitor? 5mrks

4. (a) Distinguish between .(i) distance and displacement, (ii) speed and velocity

(b) A car starting from rest accelerates uniformly and attains a speed of 80ms -1 in 30seconds. It
maintains this steady for another 30 seconds. It then slows down uniformly until it comes to rest in the
next 40 seconds. Sketch the velocity-time graph for the motion of this car. Obtain from the graph: (i)
uniform acceleration during the first stage of the journey, (ii) the retardation during the last stage of the
journey, (iii) the total distance travelled by the car. 5mrks

5. a. Explain the meaning of the following terms: electrolysis, voltammeter, electrode, electrolyte, anode
and cathode.

b. Find the mass of copper deposited on the cathode of a copper voltammeter if a current of 0.53A is
passed through it for 30 minutes (electrochemical equivalent of copper = 3.3 x 10-4 gC-1) 5mrks

6. a. A household fridge consumes electrical energy at the rate of 200W. If electricity costs 5k per kWh,
calculate the cost of operating the appliance for 30days.

b. State Kepler’s laws of planetary motion hence, list and define four properties of waves. 5mrks

THE CHILD LEGACY INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

CRECHE NURSERY PRIMARY COLLEGE
AFA ROAD, IGBE LAARA, IGBOGBO-IKORODU, LAGOS STATE
Tel: 07036331085, 08023088798, 09068609046.
 Email: [email protected]

SUBJECT:CHEMISTRY CLASS: SS2

Instruction: Answer all questions in this section

1. In the Periodic Table , elements are arranged according to their A. atomic masses B. mass
numbers C. atomic numbers D. valence electrons

2. S-block elements of the periodic table are made up for A. groups 1, 2, 3 . B. groups 1 and 2 C.
group 3. D. groups 3 to 7

3. The oxidation state of sulphur in tetraoxosulphate (VI) is A. +5 B +6 C. +4 D -2

4. In the above reaction, the oxidation number of hydrogen changes from A +2 to +1 B 0 to +2 C 0

to +1 D. +4 to +1

5. Consider the following reaction equation: CuO(s) + H2 (g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l) Which substance is
oxidized ? A. Cu B. CuO C. H2 D. H2O

6. Which of the following gases is monoatomic? A. Argon B. Chlorine C. Nitrogen D. Oxygen

7. The negatively charged particle in an atom is the A. electron B. neutron C. positron D. proton

8. To which group and period respectively does an element with 15 electrons belong? A. 3 and 3 B. 3
and 5 C. 5 and 3 D. 5 and 5

9. Which of the following arrangements is in the decreasing atomic radius ? A. Li > Be > C > B B.
Li > B > Be > C C. Li > Be > B > C D. C > B > Be > Li

10. The two elements 11X and 19 Y are in the same group because they have the same A. valence
electrons B. ionization energy C. number of shell D. atomic size

11. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Atomic size decreases down the group B. Atomic
size increases across the period C. Anion are smaller than the parent atom D. Cations are smaller
than the parent atom.

12. The element with electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 belongs to A. s- block, period 3, group
1 B. p- block, period 3, group 2 C. s- block, period 3, group 3 D. p- block, period 3, group 3

13. In which of the series are the atoms arranged in order of increasing ionization energy? A. Li, Na, K
B. B, Be, Li C. O,F, Ne D. Be, Mg , Ca

14. In the periodic table, alkaline earth metals can be found in group A. I B. II C. VI D. VII
15. Which of the following halogens is liquid at room temperatures? A. Iodine B. Chlorine C.
Bromine D. Fluorine

16. Rare gases are stable because they A. are chemically active B. contain equal number of protons
and neutrons C. contain more electrons than neutrons D. have octet structures

17. The formula of mercury(I) dioxonitrate (III) is A. HgNO3 B. Hg2NO2 C. Hg(NO2)2 D.

Hg(NO3)2

18. The energy change which accompanies the addition of an electron to a gaseous atom is A.
atomization B. electron affinity C. electronegativity D. ionization

19. Calculate the quantity of electricity passed when 0.4A flows for 1 hour 20 minutes through an
electrolytic cell. A. 4800 C B. 3840 C C. 1920 C D. 32 C

20. A mixture of kerosene and diesel oil can be separated by A. crystallisation B. distillation C.
precipitation D.sublimation

21. What is the oxidation number of chromium K2CrO4 ? A +1 B. + 2 C. +4 D. +6

22. Electrolysis is applied in the following processes except A. electroplating B. extraction of

aluminium C. extraction of iron D. purification of copper

23. The oxidation number of iodine in iodate ion (IO3- ) is A. -5 B. -1 C. +3 D. +5

24. What is the mass number of an element having 20 neutrons, 15 protons and 15 electrons? A. 15 B.
30 C. 35 D. 50

25. How many electrons are in the L shell of ? A. 2 B. 5 C. 8 D. 16

26. Elements in the same group of the periodic table have A. similar electronic configuration B.
similar orbital configuration C. the same number of valence electrons D. the same number of
electrons.

27. Which of the following decreases across the period? A. Atomic size B. Electron affinity C.
Electronegativity D. Inert tendencies

28. From C(s) + ZnO (s) CO2 (g) + 2Zn (s). The oxidation free carbon is A.-4 B. +4
C. zero D. +2

29. Which of the following does not define oxidation? A. Removal of hydrogen B. Addition of oxygen
C. Removal of electronegative elements D. Removal of electron(s).

30. Cl2 + 2KBr 2KCl + Br2

 In the above equation chlorine is A. an oxidizing agent B. a reducing agent C. an electron donor
D. an acid

31. An atom with the electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2 is that of a/an --------

(A) alkali metal (B) alkaline-earth metal (C) halogen (D) noble gas

32. An element M with electronic configuration of 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 has an oxidation states of?

(A) +2 only (B) +1 and +2 (C) +2, +3 and +6 (D) +3 and +4

33. Which is NOT a property of metals? (A) ductile (B) malleable (C) conduct heat and electricity

(D) having many oxidation states

34. The position of an element in the Periodic Table is determined by (A) its atomic radius (B) its
density (C) its relative atomic mass (D) the number of protons in its atom

35. Faraday’s first law of electrolysis can be expressed mathematically as ------------

(A) m = 1 (B) m = It (C) Q = It (D) Q = 1 (E) Q = It

36. Rusting is an example of what kind of reaction.

(A) combination (B) combustion (C) decomposition (D) redox

37. Which of the following substances will evolve hydrogen when it reacts with dilute hydrochloric
acid? (A) Ag (B) Ca2+ (C) Cu (D) Fe (E) Na+

38. When a metallic oxide reacts with both acids and bases, the oxide is said to be ------

(A) acidic (B) amphoteric (C) basic (D) complex (E) neutral

39. The energy change which accompanies the addition of an electron to a gaseous atom is

(A) atomization (B) electron affinity (C) electronegativity (D) ionization

40. Which of the following metals exists as liquid at ordinary temperature?

(A) Copper (B) Gold (C) Mercury (D) Silver (E) Magnesium

PART B

Instruction: Answer question number 1 and any other two.

1 (a) Consider the following table.

 Element Atomic number Mass number

J 9 19

Q 13 27

R 16 32

X 19 39

Y 24 52

Which of the elements: I. is a halogen? II. is most likely to be attracted by a magnet? III. belongs to group
I IV. would readily form an ion with a double negative charge?

V. What type of bond would exist between J and X when they combine?

VI. How many neutrons are there in Q?

VII. Write the formula of the compound formed when R combines with X.

VIII. State the element which exists as diatomic molecule.

IX. Select the element which belongs to the d-block of the periodic table.

(b) Define briefly the following terms: (i) the Periodic Law of elements (ii) atomic radius (iii) first
ionization energy (iv) electronegativity.

(c) State the trends of b(ii) to (iv) above across the periods and down the groups in the Periodic Table.

2(a) Define the following: (i) oxidation (ii) reduction (iii) oxidizing agent (iv) reducing agent

(b) Show that the following reactions are oxidation- reduction reactions, indicating with reasons the
oxidizing and reducing agents.

(i) 2H2S (g) + SO2 (g) 2H2O (l) + 3S(s)

(ii) C(s) + ZnO (s) CO2 (g) + 2Zn (s)

3(a) Balance the following reactions by half-cell reaction methods.

Na (s) + H+ (aq) Na+(aq) + H2 (g)

Fe2+ (aq) + Br2(g) Fe3+ (aq) + Br – (aq)

 (b) Balance the following equation for a reaction occurring in acidic medium using ion electron
method.

MnO4 - (aq) + Sn2+ (aq) Mn2+ (aq) + Sn4+ (aq)

4(a) Define the following terms: (i) electrolysis (ii) electrolyte (iii) electrodes (iv) ionic theory

(b) (i) State Faraday’s first law of electrolysis (ii) Calculate the mass of silver deposited when 0.2A of
electricity is passed through a silver chloride solution for 2 hours. Given that the chemical
equivalent of silver is 0.000098 g/C.
 THE CHILD LEGACY INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL
CRECHE NURSERY PRIMARY COLLEGE
AFA ROAD, IGBE LAARA, IGBOGBO-IKORODU, LAGOS STATE
Tel: 07036331085, 08023088798, 09068609046.
Email: [email protected]

PART A

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY CLASS: SS1

Instruction: Answer all question in this section

1. _________ is not a state of matter (a) liquid (b) gas (c) solid (d) element

2. Who stated theories about atoms (a) Newton (b) Pascal (c) Dalton (d) Clinton

3. Mixed sand and water is separated by (a) filtration (b) sieving (c) distillation (d) magnetism

4. What accounts for isotopy of an element (a) nucleus (b) electron (c) proton (d) neutron

5. Solids that moves directly to gas are called (a) compounds(b) sublimates (c) mixtures (d)
elements

6. Which of these is not a first twenty element (a) hydrogen (b) calcium (c) lead (d)
boron

7. Separate mixed sand and beans by (a) sublimation (b) sieving (c) boiling (d) melting

8. _____ is not a scientific method (a) hypothesis (b) observation (c) cooking (d) law

9. What revolves round the nucleus (a) nucleus (b) neutron (c) electron (d) proton

10. Filtration is NOT used in ______ industries (a) textile (b) water (c) mining (d) garri

11. What accounts for mass number (a) nucleus (b) proton (c) neutron (d) electron

12. _______ is at the center of an atom (a) nucleus (b) neutron (c) proton (d) electron

13. Which of these substances sublimes (a) water (b) kerosene (c) sand (d) sulphur
14. Solids becomes liquids by (a) condensing (b) subliming (c) melting (d) freezing

15. ______ is a mono-atomic element (a) hydrogen (b) lead (c) silver (d) gold

16. Proton number equals ______ number (a) nucleus (b) neutron (c) electron (d) atom

17. _______ is not a chemical change (a) fermentation (b) rusting (c) boiling (d) decay

18. Atoms does not make up (a) molecules (b) elements (c) compounds (d) market

19. _______ are physically combined (a) elements (b) compounds (c) solids (d) mixtures

20. All these are elements except (a) tin (b) sand (c) hydrogen (d) argon

21. ______ is not a separating technique (a) sieving (b) cooling (c) decantation (d) filtration

22. The principle that states that two electrons in the same orbital of an electron cannot have the same
values for all quantum numbers is ______(a) Pauli’s principle (b) Hund’s principle(c) Aufbau’s
principle(d) Borh’s principle

23. Chemical changes are (a) reversible (b) filtered (c) irreversible(d) sublimate

24. Charged particles are otherwise called ______(a) molecules (b) ions (c) atoms (d)
current

25. _____ is not a metallic element (a) gold (b) silver (c) tin (d) hydrogen

26. Gases moves to liquids by (a) boiling(b) melting (c) freezing (d) condensing

27. The relative molecular mass of Lead II trioxonitrate V is ____ (pb=108, N=14, O=16) (a)170
(b) 222(c) 232(d) 132

28. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change? (a) dissolution of salt in water
(b) rusting of iron (c) melting of ice (d) separating a mixture by distillation.

29. Which of the following is a physical change? (a) freezing ice cream (b) dissolving calcium in
water (c) burning kerosene (d) exposing white phosphorus in air.

30. A chemical reaction is always associated with _____(a) an increase in the composition of one of the
substances (b) a change in the volume of the reactants (c) a change in the nature of the
reactants (d) the formation of new substances.

31. Which of these is not a first twenty element (a) hydrogen (b) calcium (c) lead (d) boron

32. Separate mixed sand and beans by (a) sublimation (b) sieving (c) boiling (d) melting

33. _____ is not a scientific method (a) hypothesis (b) observation (c) cooking (d) law
34. What revolves round the nucleus (a) nucleus (b) neutron (c) electron (d) proton

35. Filtration is NOT used in ______ industries (a) textile (b) water (c) mining (d) garri

36. What accounts for mass number (a) nucleus (b) proton (c) neutron (d) electron

37. _______ is at the center of an atom (a) nucleus (b) neutron (c) proton (d) electron

38. Which of these substances sublimes (a) water (b) kerosene (c) sand (d) sulphur

39. Solids becomes liquids by (a) condensing (b) subliming (c) melting (d) freezing

40. ______ is a mono-atomic element (a) hydrogen (b) lead (c) silver (d) gold

THEORY

Answer Any Three Questions

1(a) An element ‘X’ has two isotopes of 35X and 37X in the ratio 1:3. What is the relative atomic mass of
X?

(b) What is Isotopy? (c) Give two examples of elements that exhibit Isotopy.

2(a) In tabular form, write the atomic number, name and symbol of the first twenty elements

(b) Mention three (3) examples each of physical change and chemical change

3(a) In a tabular form, give three (3) differences between physical and chemical changes (b) Explain
briefly five (5) separating techniques and industries that makes use of each

(b) State three (3) Dalton’s atomic theories and three (3) modification (b) calculate the percentage by
mass of nitrogen in trioxonitrate V. (H=1, N=14, O=16)

4(a) Define the terms elements, compounds and mixture and give five examples of each

(b) List ten (10) chemical laboratory apparatus and explain briefly the use of five (5) of them
 THE CHILD LEGACY INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL
CRECHE NURSERY PRIMARY COLLEGE
AFA ROAD, IGBE LAARA, IGBOGBO-IKORODU, LAGOS STATE
Tel: 07036331085, 08023088798, 09068609046.
Email: [email protected]

PART A

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY CLASS:SS3

Instruction: Answer all question in this section

1. Functional group of carboxylic acid is (a) OH (b) COH (c) COOH (d) OOH

2. Alkanoic acid do not undergo (a) reduction (b) oxidation (c) combination (d) ionization

3. First alkane member is (a) methyl (b) methane (c) methane (d) methyne

4. Detergents do not _______ (a) harden water (b) bleach (c) fume (d) acidify

5. Pick out the odd one (a) anode (b) groups (c) electrolysis (d)electrons

6. Natural polymers are found mostly in (a) plastics (b) wood (c) living things (d) oil

7. Derivatives of carboxylic acids are (a) fats (b) alkanols (c) oils (d) amino acids

8. ______ is a state of matter (a) ions (b) crystals (c) liquid (d) molecules

9. Synthetic polymers are also called (a) fat (b) oil (c) wood (d) plastic

10. CnH2n+2 is general formula for (a) alkanes (b) alkenes (c) alkyl (d) alkyne

11. Starch is mainly used as (a) color (b) food (c) cloth (d) plastic

12. Which of these is a conductor(a) plastic (b) paper (c) zinc (d) oxygen

13. Molecular formula for butane is (a) C2H5 (b) C3H6 (c) C4H9 (d) C4H10

14. CnH2n is general formula for (a) alkanes (b) alkenes (c) alkyl (d) alkyne
15. _____ is associated with irons (a) fermentation (b) rusting (c) bonding
(d) decay

16. CnH2n is general formula for (a) alkanes (b) alkenes (c) alkyl (d) alkyne

17. Which family makes use of double dash (=) (a) alkane (b) alkene (c) alkyl
(d) alkyne

18. A major source of glucose is_________ (a) fat/oil (b) acids (c) metals (d) sucrose

19. Which family makes use of single dash (-) (a) alkane (b) alkene (c) alkyl (d) alkyne

20. Fats/oils are used to make (a) soaps (b) paper (c) plastic (d) wood

21. Pick out the odd one (a) butane (b) propyl (c) octane (d) pentane

22. Which is related to electrolysis (a) ionization (b) filtration (c) covalent (d) ions

23. Pick out the odd one (a) butane (b) butyl (c) octene (d) butyne

24. One property of metals is (a) decaying (b) fermenting (c) conducting (d) falling

25. A class of fatty acids is _____ (a) saturated (b) electrolytes (c) organic (d)
metallic

26. _____ is not related to electrolysis (a) ionization (b) electrolyte (c) covalent (d) electrodes

27. The last member of alkane is (a) nonane (b) octyne (c) decane (d) propyl

28. _____ is a protein property (a) oxidation (b) hydrolysis (c) reduction (d) melting

29. General formula for alkanes family is (a) C2nHn (b) CnH2n (c) CnH2n+2 (d)
CnH2n+1

30. Which of these is an electrolyte (a) ether (b) water (c) benzene (d) paper

31. Organic molecules that have suffix-ene are unsaturated hydrocarbons that have

(a) a single bond (b) a double bond (c) a triple bond (d) an ionic bond

32. Coffee stains can best be removed by (a) kerosene (b) a solution of borax in water (c) turpentine
(d) ammonia solution

33. A substance that is used as a ripening agent for fruits is (a) ethene (b) propene (c) methane (d)
butane

34. Tartaric acid is used industrially to (a) make fruit juices (b) dry substances (c) make baking powder
(d) remove rust
35. Which of the following substances is not a salt? (a) KHSO4 (b) ZnCl2 (c) MgO (d) NaCl

36. Which of the allotrope of carbon is a constituent of a lead pencil? (a) diamond (b) lampblack
(c) graphite (d) soot

37. The basicity of ethanoic acid, CH3COOH is (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3

38. Which of the following acid is used in making fruit juice? (a) tartaric acid (b) ethanoic acid
(c) citric acid (d) boric acid

39. The simplest branched-chain hydrocarbon is (a) ethane (b) ethene (c) butane (d) propane

40. Organic molecules that have suffix-ene are unsaturated hydrocarbons that have (a) a single bond
(b) a triple bond (c) a double bond (d) an ionic bond

THEORY

Answer any three (3) questions

1a) List and explain briefly two (2) types of protein test

b) Define the following terms (i) monomers (ii) polymers (iii) natural polymers (iv) synthetic
polymers

2a) Mention three (3) general properties of alkanoic acids resulting from their molar mass

b) Explain briefly three (3) reactions of alkanoic acids with their agents

3a) Define the following terms (i) esterification (ii) polymerization (iii) neutralization

b) In tabular form, write the names and molecular formula for members of alkanoic acid

4a) List and briefly explain two (2) chemical properties of fat/oil.

b) Mention one (1) use and one (1) physical property of esters, and two (2) uses and two (2) physical
properties of fat/oil
5a) state two physical and chemical properties of: (i) calcium (ii) aluminium.

b) List and explain briefly two (2) types of fatty acids

6a) Define (i) Saturated Compound (ii) Unsaturated Compound, hence list 3 example each.

b) List two uses of the following (i) Fats and oil (ii) Ethene (iii) Ethanoic Acid