PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

8. The acceleration due to gravity at a distance of 2R (1) only on length l

from the center of Earth is: (g is acceleration due to (2) only on width w
gravity on the surface of the Earth) (3) on both length l and width w
g g (4) on neither length l nor width w
(1) (2)
9 2
g g 13. An object is projected from earth’s surface with a
(3) (4)
3 4 velocity that is equal to the escape velocity on earth
surface. The sum of its kinetic energy and potential
9. A capillary tube is immersed in a liquid, the shape energy will be:
of meniscus is shown below. Choose the correct (1) Positive (2) Negative
statement. (3) Zero (4) Infinite

14. Two hot bodies A and B of same surface area have

temperature in the ratio 2 : 1 respectively. If their
emissivity is in the ratio of 1 : 4, then rate of heat
emission will be in the ratio:
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 4 : 1
(1) Pressure at point A = Pressure at point B (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
(2) Pressure at point A > Pressure at point B
(3) Pressure at point A < Pressure at point B 15. A container filled with hot water cools from 60°C to
(4) Data insufficient 50°C in 4 minutes and 40°C to 30°C in 8 minutes.
The approximate temperature of surrounding is :
(use newton’s law of cooling)
10. Equal masses of two substances of densities 2 and
4 are mixed together. The density of the mixture (1) 10°C (2) 15°C
would be: (3) 20°C (4) 30°C

(1) 3 (2) 2 2
16. Statement I: The gravitational field everywhere
8 3 inside a uniform solid sphere is zero.
(3) (4)
3 2
Statement II: The gravitational potential at the
centre of a uniform solid sphere (VC) and at the
11. For a system to be in rotational equilibrium, the net 3
torque acting on it must be zero when the torques surface (VS ) are related as VC = VS .
2
are taken (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(1) only about any point outside the system (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) only about the centre of mass of the system incorrect.
(3) only about any point inside the system (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) about any point inside or outside the system correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
12. The moment of inertia of a rectangular plate of fixed
mass M about an axis passing through its centre and 17. When temperature of a rod increases from T to
perpendicular to its plane as shown below depends: T + T , its moment of inertia increases from I to
I + I . If  is coefficient of linear expansion of rod,
I
then is:
I
(1) 2T (2) T
T T
(3) (4)
2 3

[3] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

18. If the wavelength corresponding to maximum 23. Two particles A and B are moving in opposite sense
emission of radiation is m and T is absolute on concentric circles with equal angular speed  as
temperature then; shown below. What is the magnitude of relative
(1) m  T linear velocity of B w.r.t A at the instant shown?

1
(2)  m 
T
(3)  m  T 2
1
(4)  m 
T2

19. What is the slope of tangent to the curve y = cos2x

 (1) R
at x = ?
4 (2) 3R
(1) –2
(3) 2R
(2) 2
(4) zero
(3) –1
(4) 1
24. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows 0.1%
decrease in its volume at the bottom of lake.
20. The instantaneous power of gravitational force on What is the compressibility of the material of
the projectile when it is at its maximum height is: ball? (take g = 10 m/s2 )
(1) zero (1) 2 × 10–9 m2 /N
(2) positive (2) 2 × 10–10 m2 /N
(3) negative (3) 5 × 10–10 m2 /N
(4) may be positive, zero or negative (4) 1 × 10–10 m2 /N

21. The Young’s modulus of a wire depends on 25. A bomb of mass 10 kg at rest is exploded into two
(1) the length of the wire piece of masses 6 kg and 4 kg. If velocity of 6 kg
(2) the area of cross-section of the wire mass is 4 m s–1 , then kinetic energy of 4 kg mass is :
(3) the material of the wire (1) 72 J (2) 36 J
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) 18 J (4) 9 J

22. A ball of mass 1 kg is released from rest from point 26. An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal
P at a height of 10 m above a horizontal surface. If tube as shown in the following figure. The speed (v3)
work done by gravitational force on the ball from P of the fluid in tube 3 is: (A represents area of cross-
to Q is W1 and from Q to R is W2 then section)

(1) W1 > W2
(2) W1 < W2 (1) 3 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) W1 = W2 (3) 7 m/s (4) 1 m/s
(4) Data insufficient

[4] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

27. A faulty thermometer reads 5°C as melting point of (1) A, B, C only

ice and 99°C as steam point. The correct (2) B, C, D only
temperature in °F when this faulty thermometer
(3) A, B, D only
reads 52°C is:
(4) A, B, C and D
(1) 142°F (2) 130°F
(3) 117°F (4) 122°F
33. A block of mass m is released from rest on the top
28. The colour of a distant star in sky is an indication of of a fixed rough inclined plane as shown. What is
(1) Size of the star the speed of the ball at the bottom of the inclined
plane? (g = 10 m/s2 )
(2) Density of the star
(3) Mass of the star
(4) Temperature of the star

29. A uniform copper rod rotates freely about its

perpendicular bisector. If it is heated uniformly,
then
(1) its speed of rotation increases
(2) its speed of rotation decrease
(3) its speed of rotation remains same (1) 10 m/s
(4) its speed of rotation first decrease then increase (2) 2 5 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
30. A pendulum clock keeps correct time at s ome
(4) 5 2 m/s
temperature T. If the temperature of the
pendulum is increased then the time period;
(1) will decrease 34. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction
(2) will remain same between earth and a satellite revolving around it
(3) will increase becomes zero then the satellite will (neglect
(4) data insufficient gravitational force due to other celestial bodies)
(1) Continue to move in its orbit with same
31. The area under acceleration-time graph for a particle velocity
moving on a straight line gives: (2) Move tangentially to the original orbit with the
(1) displacement covered. same speed
(2) distance covered. (3) Become stationary in its orbit
(3) average acceleration (4) Move towards the earth
(4) change in velocity
35. A spherical ball is dropped in a deep viscous liquid.
32. Choose the option containing correct statements: Which among the following curve correctly
A. There is always loss in kinetic energy in an represents the speed of ball (v) as a function of time
inelastic head-on collision. (t)?
B. The center of mass of the two particle system
lies closer to the heavier of the two masses.
(1) (2)
C. For a particle moving in vertical circle using an
inextensible string, the tension in the string is
maximum when the particle is at its maximum
height. (3) (4)
D. Potential energy can only be defined for
conservative forces.

[5] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

Physics : Section-B (Q. No. 36 to 50) 39. Two equal masses m are placed at the two adjacent
corners of a square of side l as shown. The
36. Statement I: The maximum speed vmax of a body magnitude of net gravitational field at the center O
moving on a horizontal circular path of radius R with of the square is:
coefficient of static friction s is vmax = s gR .
Statement II: The angular momentum of a particle
moving in xy plane on a straight line about origin
always remains constant.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
2Gm
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1)
correct. l2
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. 2Gm
(2)
l2
37. Time periods of revolutions of two satellites are 4Gm
4 hours and 32 hours. The ratio of their orbital radii (3)
l2
will be:
2 2Gm
1 (4)
(1) l2
16
(2) 8
(3) 24 40. The two block system shown below is released
from rest. What is the time taken by block B to
1
(4) reach the ground? (assume smooth light fixed
4
pulley, g = 10 m/s2 )

38. Two blocks are suspended using wires of different

materials as shown below. S represents area of
cross-section of wire, L represents length of the wire
and Y represent the Young’s modulus, then net
elongation in wire 1 and wire 2 respectively are:

(1) 2 s
(2) 1 s
(3) 4 s
3mgL mgL (4) 8 s
(1) ,
SY 4SY
3mgL mgL 41. A vector has magnitude of l. It is rotated by 60° and
(2) ,
SY 3SY its magnitude is also doubled. What is the
mgL 2mgL magnitude of net change in the rotated vector
(3) , formed and initial vector?
SY SY
mgL mgL (1) zero (2) 3l
(4) ,
SY 4SY (3) 2l (4) l

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 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

42. A steel rod is held between two rigid supports at 0°C 47. A slab consist of two rods of different materials of
such that the rod fits perfectly without any same thickness and equal length joined end to end
deforming forces. Now the temperature of the rod is and having the thermal conductivities K and 2K
increased by 20°C. Determine the pressure due to respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of
the forces provided by rigid support. (Young’s the slab is:
modulus of the rod is 2.0 × 1011 N/m2 and coefficient (1) 3K
of linear expansion of the rod is 1.2 × 10–5 /°C) 3K
(1) 48 × 106 N/m2 (2)
2
(2) 24 × 106 N/m2 2K
(3)
(3) 12 × 106 N/m2 3
(4) 60 × 106 N/m2 4K
(4)
3
43. If the apparent weight of a solid body having
density 1200 kg/m3 in a liquid is 75% of its weight 48. A uniform rod having mass M and length L is
in air, then what is the relative density of the suspended vertically as shown below. The variation
liquid? (g = 10 m/s2 ) of normal stress () with x is given by:
(1) 0.30 (2) 3.33
(3) 4.00 (4) 0.25

44. Assertion R: Viscosity of liquids decreases with

rise in temperature.
Reason R: Cohesive forces in liquid increases with
a rise in temperature. (1) (2)
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. (3) (4)
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.

49. A body is projected vertically upwards from the

45. Heat required to convert 10 g of ice at – 10°C to 1
water at 20°C at 1 atm pressure is: surface of the earth with a speed equal to th of
4
(1) 250 cal escape velocity on earth surface. Maximum height
(2) 2916 cal attained by the body from the surface of the earth
(3) 850 cal will be: (R is radius of earth)
(4) 1050 cal 16 R
(1) R (2)
15 4
46. Three vessels shown in the figure, have same base 4R R
(3) (4)
area. Equal volumes of a liquid are poured in the 15 15
three vessels. The force on the base due to liquid
will be: 50. Two spheres of mass m and M are situated in air and
the gravitational force between them is 2F. The
space around the masses is now filled with a liquid
of specific gravity 4. If the distance between the
(1) Maximum in vessel A masses remains same in liquid, the gravitational
force between them will now be;
(2) Maximum in vessel B
(1) F (2) 4F
(3) Maximum in vessel C
F
(4) Equal in all the vessels (3) (4) 2F
8
[7] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET
Equilibrium, P-block Element (Group 13 and 14), Organic Chemistry: IUPAC Nomenclature, Organic Chemistry: Isomerism + AITS-2

Chemistry : Section-A (Q. No. 51 to 85) (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
51. If solubility product of BaSO4 is Ksp and its molar (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
solubility is S, then which of the following relation (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
between S and Ksp is correct?
(1) S = (Ksp)2 (2) S = Ksp 56. Which among the following is the correct order of
1 1 negative electron gain enthalpy?
(3) S = (4) S = (1) S > Se > Te > O
Ksp (Ksp )2
(2) S > Se > O > Te
(3) O > S > Se > Te
52. The maximum number of electrons that can be (4) S > O > Se > Te
occupied in an orbital having quantum number
−1
n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = is; 57. Geometrical isomerism is not shown by:
2 (1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
(1) 1 (2) CH3–CH2–CH=CH–COOH
(2) 2 (3) CH3–CH=C(CH3)2
(3) 3 (4) HOOC–CH=CH–COOH
(4) 6
58. Match the List-I with List-II.
53. The ion that act as strong oxidising agent is; List-I List-II
(1) B3+ (Molecules) (Bond order)
(2) Al3+ A O2− I 3
2
(3) Ga3+
(4) Tl3+ B NO+ II 1
C C2 III 0
54. Which of the following IUPAC name is correct?
(1) CH3CH2COOC2H5: Propylethanoate D Ne2 IV 2
(2) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below;
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

59. Consider the equilibrium reaction:

H+ + H2 A−
K1
H3 A
55. Match the List-I with List-II.
H2 A− H+ + HA2−
K2
List-I List-II
(Reaction)  Kp  HA2− 3
H+ + A3−
K
 
 Kc  The equilibrium constant ‘K’ for the following
A 2NO(g) + Cl2 (g) 2NOCl(g) I 1 reaction is:
(RT)2 H3A 3H+ + A3−
B PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) II RT (1) K1K2K3
1
C N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) 1 III (2)
RT K1K 2 K3
D 1 IV 1 K1
SO2 (g) + O2 (g) SO3 (g) (3)
2 RT K 2 K3
Choose the correct answer from the options given K3
(4)
below; K1K 2

[8] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

60. Match the List-I with List-II. 64. Which of the following is a functional isomer of
List-I List-II methylacetate?
A Number of significant I 8 NA (1) CH3COOH
figure in 0.6 (2) CH3COCH3
B Atoms in 1 molecule of II 1 (3) CH3CH2COOH
O2(g) (4) CH2CH2CHO
C Electrons in 22.4 L of III 2
H2(g) at STP 65. What is the molarity of NaOH in the solution
D Neutrons in 1 mole of IV 2 NA prepared by dissolving its 10 g in water to form 500
H2O(g) mL of the solution?
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) 0.1 M
below; (2) 0.4 M
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) 0.2 M
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) 0.5 M
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 66. Which of the following species has largest size?
(1) Mg (2) Al3+
61. The amphoteric oxide among the following is; (3) Al (4) Mg2+
(1) SnO (2) CO
(3) SiO2 (4) CO2 67. The conjugate base of HClO3 is:
(1) HClO2 (2) HClO4
62. Match the List-I with List-II. (3) ClO– (4) ClO3−
List-I List-II
A I tert-Butyl 68. Match the List-I with List-II.
group List-I List-II
(Group prefix) (Functional group)
B II Neopentyl A Carbamoyl I –NH2
group B Amino II –COOH
C Alkoxycarbonyl III –COOR
C III sec-Butyl group D Carboxy IV –CONH2
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below;
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
D IV Isobutyl group
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

69. Given below are two statements:

Choose the correct answer from the options given
Statement I: PbF4 is ionic in nature.
below;
Statement II: In graphite, each carbon atom in
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
hexagonal ring undergoes sp3 hybridisation.
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
63. The salt of strong acid and weak base among the
incorrect.
following is:
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) CH3COONa
correct.
(2) NH4Cl
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) CH3COONH4
incorrect.
(4) NaCl

[9] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

70. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 75. Keto-enol tautomerism is possible in:
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Pent-1-yne and 3-Methylbut-1-yne
(1)
are chain isomers.
Reason R: Pent-1-yne and 3-Methylbut-1-yne
differs in the arrangement of carbon atom
constituting the parent chain. (2)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (3)
explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (4) All of these
(4) A is false but R is true.
76. General formula of aldehydes is:
71. Given below are two statements: (1) CnH2n+2O
Statement I: For a reversible reaction, if G is (2) CnH2nO
negative then the reaction proceeds in backward (3) CnH2n+1O
direction. (4) CnH2nO2
Statement II: Hydroxyl ion is hydrated to give
H3O2− ion in aqueous medium. 77. Compound containing more than one chiral centre
In the light of the above statements, choose the most is:
appropriate answer from the options given below: (1) Butan-2,3-diol
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) 2-Chloropentane
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) 3-Hydroxybutanal
incorrect. (4) 2,2-Dichlorobutane
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. 78. The outer electronic configuration of group 13
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are elements is:
incorrect. (1) ns2np3 (2) ns2np1
2 2
(3) ns np (4) ns2np4
72. The correct order of ionization enthalpy is;
(1) Na < Mg < Al < Si
79. An increase in pressure would favour the forward
(2) Na < Al < Mg < Si
reaction in:
(3) Na < Mg < Si < Al
(4) Mg < Na < Al < Si (1) 2SO3 (g) 2SO2 (g) + O2 ( g)
(2) CS2 (g)+ 4H2 (g) CH4 (g) + 2H2S(g)
73. The chemical formula of cryolite is: (3) N2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g)
(1) Al2O3.2H2O
(2) H3BO3 (4) PCl5 (g) PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(3) Na3AlF6
(4) Na2B4O7.10H2O 80. For which process, the relation q = 0 is correct?
(1) Isothermal process
74. IUPAC name of given compound is; (2) Adiabatic process
(3) Isochoric process
(4) Isobaric process

(1) 1-Chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene 81. Metamer of Methylpropylamine is:

(2) 4-Chloro-1,3-dinitrobenzene (1) C2H5NHC2H5
(3) 2-Chloro-1,5-dinitrobenzene (2) CH3NHCH3
(4) 4-Chloro-1,5-dinitrobenzene (3) C3H7NHC3H7
(4) (CH3)3N

[10] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

82. Match the List-I with List-II. 88. The correct structure of 3,3-Dimethylpentanoic
List-I List-II acid is:
(Species) (Hybridisation)
A NH+4 I sp
(1)
B BeCl2 II sp3d

C BrF5 III sp3

(2)
D SCl4 IV sp3d2
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below;
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (3)
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4)

83. The correct order of atomic radii of group 13

89. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
element is:
(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(2) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl Assertion A: Number of radial nodes in 5d orbital
(3) B < Al < Ga < Tl < In is three.
(4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In Reason R: The radial nodes for any orbital is given
by n-l-1.
84. For the given reaction, In the light of the above statements, choose the
CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g) , the unit of Kp of correct answer from the options given below:
the reaction is: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) atm–1
explanation of A.
(2) atm
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(3) atm–2
(4) atm2 explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
85. But-1-ene and But-2-ene are: (4) A is false but R is true.
(1) Functional isomers
(2) Position isomers 90. Which of the following mixture does not forms an
(3) Geometrical isomers acidic buffer solution?
(4) Chain isomers
(1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
Chemistry : Section-B (Q. No. 86 to 100)
(2) H2SO4 + Na 2SO4

86. For which of the following value of Kc, a reversible (3) HCOOH + HCOONa
reaction will go to completion? (4) HCN + NaCN
(1) Kc =10–3
(2) Kc =10–12 91. IUPAC name of the given compound is:
(3) Kc =1
(4) Kc =1012

87. Mass of NH3(g) produced by the reaction of 3 moles (1) 4-Methylhexa-1, 3, 5-triene
of N2(g) and 1 mole of H2(g) is: (2) 3-Methylhex-1, 3, 5-triene
(1) 4.2 g (2) 11.3 g (3) 3-Methylhexa-1, 3, 5-triene
(3) 8.1 g (4) 7.3 g (4) 4-Methylhex-1, 3, 5-triene

[11] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

92. Disproportionation reaction is not shown by which Choose the correct answer from the options given
compound? below;
(1) HNO2 (2) HClO4 (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) H3PO3 (4) H2SO3 (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
93. Given below are two statements: (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Statement I: SiO only exists at low temperature.
Statement II: Carbon cannot exceeds its covalency 96. Molecule having highest dipole moment is:
more than four. (1) H2
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (2) CCl4
appropriate answer from the options given below: (3) HF
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) NF3
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect. 97. IUPAC name of the given compound is:
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) 4-Chloro-8-formyl-6-methoxyoct-3-en-2-ol
incorrect.
(2) 5-Chloro-7-hydroxy-3-methoxyoct-5-en-1-al
(3) 5-Chloro-1-formyl-3-methoxyoct-5-en-7-ol
94. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(4) 4-Chloro-2- hydroxy -6-methoxyoct-3-en-8-al
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Staggered conformation of ethane is
98. The correct order of acidic strength is:
less stable than the eclipsed conformation.
(1) CH4 < H2O < HF < NH3
Reason R: Of all the conformations of ethane, the
(2) CH4 < NH3 < H2O < HF
staggered form has the least torsional strain and the
(3) HF < H2O < NH3 < CH4
eclipsed form has the maximum torsional strain.
(4) HF < NH3 < H2O < CH4
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
99. Standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
zero for;
explanation of A.
(1) C(graphite)
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(2) S(rhombic)
explanation of A.
(3) O2(g)
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) All of these
(4) A is false but R is true.

100. The incorrect statement among the following is:

95. Match the List-I with List-II.
(1) Aluminium dissolves in dilute HCl
List-I List-II
(2) Amorphous boron on heating in air forms B2O3
__
A Oxidation state of central I 1
(3) Boron does not react with acid at moderate
C in C3O2
temperature.
B Oxidation state of II 0 (4) Aluminium does not react with aqueous alkali.
oxygen in Na2O2
C Average oxidation state III +2
of S in S4O62−
D Oxidation state of IV +2.5
oxygen in OF2

[12] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET
AITS 02 + Morphology of Flowering Plants; Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Botany : Section-A (Q. No. 101 to 135) Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.
101. The most important vegetative organs for
(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
photosynthesis are the;
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(1) leaves. (2) stems.
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) roots. (4) flowers.
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

102. The meristem that occurs in grasses and regenerate

parts removed by the grazing herbivores, is; 107. Given below are two statements:
(1) apical meristem. Statement I: The stem is the ascending part of the
axis bearing branches, leaves, flowers and fruits.
(2) intercalary meristem.
Statement II: Stem develops from the plumule of
(3) lateral meristem.
the embryo of a germinating seed.
(4) secondary meristem.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
103. In plants like _____ a slender lateral branch arises
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
from the base of the main axis and after growing
incorrect.
aerially for some time arch downwards to touch the
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
ground.
correct.
(1) Chrysanthemum and mint
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) mint and jasmine
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) jasmine and Chrysanthemum
incorrect.
(4) pineapple and jasmine

108. Water-containing cavities are present within the

104. When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one vascular bundles in;
another at the margin, without overlapping, the
(1) dicot leaf.
aestivation is said to be;
(2) dicot stem.
(1) valvate. (2) imbricate.
(3) monocot leaf.
(3) twisted. (4) vexillary.
(4) monocot stem.

105. In which of the following certain adaxial epidermal

109. The outermost layer is called the epiblema in;
cells along the veins modify themselves into large,
empty, colourless cells? (1) dicot stem.
(1) Grasses (2) Dorsiventral leaf (2) monocot stem.
(3) Dicot leaf (4) All types of leaves (3) dicot root.
(4) monocot leaf.
106. Match List-I with List-II.
110. Stem tendrils are formed from axillary buds, in;
List-I List-II
(1) Oxalis sp.
(A) Stomata are present on (I) Dicot root
(2) grapevine.
both the surfaces of the
epidermis (3) Bougainvillea.
(4) potato.
(B) Secondary growth occurs (II) Monocot
from the cells of pericycle leaf
111. A lateral, generally flattened structure borne on the
(C) Polyarch xylem bundles (III) Monocot
stem that develops at the node and bears a bud in
stem
its axil is;
(D) Phloem parenchyma is (IV) Monocot (1) leaf. (2) flower.
absent root
(3) stipule. (4) internode.
[13] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

112. The tissue that forms major components within 117. Given below are two statements:
organs in plants is; Statement I: The first formed primary xylem
(1) parenchyma. elements are called protoxylem.
(2) sclerenchyma. Statement II: The later formed primary xylem is
(3) xylem. called metaxylem.
(4) phloem. In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
113. Identify the true statement.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) Mitosis usually results in the production of
incorrect.
haploid daughter cells with identical genetic
complement. (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(2) The growth of multicellular organisms is due
to mitosis. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Cell growth results in restoring the ratio (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. incorrect.
(4) A very significant contribution of meiosis is
cell repair. 118. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
114. Match List-I with List-II. (A) Metacentric (I) Middle centromere
List-I List-II chromosome
(A) Tap root gets swollen (I) Banyan tree (B) Sub-metacentric (II) Centromere slightly
and store food chromosome away from middle
(B) Adventitious root gets (II) Maize (C) Acrocentric (III) Centromere close to
swollen and store food chromosome its end
(C) Prop root (III) Carrot (D) Telocentric (IV) Terminal centromere
chromosome
(D) Stilt roots (IV) Sweet potato
Choose the correct answer from the option given
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
below:
options given below.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

119. Roots come out of the ground and grow vertically

115. The number of species that are known and
upwards, and help to get oxygen for respiration in;
described range between;
(1) turnip.
(1) 1.7-1.8 million.
(2) Rhizophora.
(2) 17-18 million.
(3) Asparagus.
(3) 1.7-1.8 billion.
(4) pumpkin.
(4) 17-18 billion.

120. The phase that corresponds to the interval between

116. Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual
mitosis and initiation of DNA replication is;
organisms with fundamental similarities as a/an;
(1) G0 phase.
(1) order.
(2) G1 phase.
(2) class.
(3) G2 phase.
(3) species.
(4) S phase.
(4) genus.

[14] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

121. Identify the fungi that belong to class ascomycetes. 125. Identify the gymnosperm among the following.
A. Penicillium (1) Cycas
B. Yeast (2) Chlamydomonas
C. Ustilago (3) Funaria
D. Puccinia (4) Selaginella
E. Agaricus
(1) A and B 126. The _____ store(s) food material and other
(2) B and C substances like resins, latex and mucilage.
(3) A and E (1) xylem tracheids
(4) D and E (2) xylem fibres
(3) phloem parenchyma
122. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (4) companion cells
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: The cells of the permanent tissues in
127. Inferior ovary is present in;
plants do not generally divide further.
(1) guava.
Reason R: In plants, permanent tissues having all
cells similar in structure and function are called (2) china rose.
simple tissues. (3) brinjal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) plum.
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false. 128. In monocot roots, pith is;
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) large and well developed.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) absent.
explanation of A. (3) small.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) inconspicuous.
correct explanation of A.

129. Identify the incorrect statement for algae.

123. A simple plant tissue that consists of long, narrow
cells with thick and lignified cell walls having a (1) At least a half of the total carbon dioxide
few or numerous pits is; fixation on earth is carried out by algae
through photosynthesis.
(1) parenchyma.
(2) Being photosynthetic they increase the level
(2) collenchyma.
of dissolved oxygen in their immediate
(3) sclerenchyma.
environment.
(4) phloem.
(3) Many species of Porphyra, Laminaria and
Sargassum are among the 70 species of
124. Identify the type of placentation in the given marine algae used as food.
image.
(4) Chlorella, a multicellular alga rich in proteins,
is used as a food supplement even by space
travellers.

130. The cells that are responsible for the growth of the
root in length are present in;
(1) region of elongation.
(1) Axile (2) root hairs.
(2) Parietal (3) region of meristematic activity.
(3) Free central (4) region of maturation.
(4) Basal
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 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

131. A sclerenchymatous hypodermis, large number of 137. In mustard, ____ roots are present.
conjoint and closed scattered vascular bundles, (1) fibrous
surrounded by bundle sheath cells, and a large, (2) adventitious
conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue are the
(3) tap
characteristics of;
(4) respiratory
(1) monocot root.
(2) monocot stem.
138. The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a
(3) dicot stem.
characteristic of;
(4) monocot leaf.
(1) dicot stem.
(2) monocot leaf and monocot stem.
132. The embryo is made up of a radicle, an embryonal
axis and one cotyledon, in; (3) dicot leaf and monocot leaf.

(1) wheat and pea. (4) monocot root.

(2) wheat and maize.
(3) maize and gram. 139. Axile placentation is seen in;
(4) gram and pea. (1) Argemone.
(2) lemon.
133. A pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite (3) marigold.
to each other in; (4) sunflower.
(1) guava.
(2) sunflower. 140. In gynoecium, when more than one carpel is
(3) Alstonia. present, they may be free as in;
(4) mustard. (1) lotus and rose.
(2) mustard and tomato.
134. The saprophytic protists are; (3) mustard and rose.
(1) slime moulds. (4) lotus and tomato.
(2) protozoans.
(3) dinoflagellates. 141. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) chrysophytes.
List-I List-II
(Type of organism) (Disease caused)
135. In flowering plants, ______ are the main water
(A) Viroid (I) Potato spindle tuber
transporting elements.
(1) xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres (B) Prion (II) Bovine spongiform
(2) vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres encephalopathy

(3) albuminous cells and sieve cells (C) Virus (III) Citrus canker
(4) tracheids and vessels (D) Bacterium (IV) Herpes
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Botany : Section-B (Q. No. 136 to 150)
below:
136. Epiphyllous stamens are present in the flowers of; (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) pea. (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(2) brinjal. (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) lily. (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) mustard.

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 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

142. Given below are two statements: 146. In racemose inflorescence, the;
Statement I: Unicellular organisms are capable of (1) main axis terminates in a flower.
independent existence. (2) main axis is limited in growth.
Statement II: Unicellular organisms are capable (3) flowers are borne in a basipetal order.
of performing the essential functions of life. (4) flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal
In the light of the above statements, choose the succession.
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: 147. Radial vascular bundles are present in;
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) roots. (2) dicot stems.
incorrect. (3) leaves. (4) monocot stems.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. 148. Read the following statements.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. A. All tissues except epidermis and vascular
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are bundles constitute the ground tissue.
incorrect. B. Ground tissue consists of tissues such as
parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.
143. Ribosomes are the granular structures first C. Collenchymatous cells are usually present in
observed under the electron microscope as dense cortex, pericycle, pith and medullary rays, in
particles by; the primary stems and roots.
(1) George Palade. D. In leaves, the ground tissue consists of thin-
(2) Schwann. walled chloroplast containing cells.
(3) Robert Brown. E. Trichomes are a part of ground tissue system.
The number of incorrect statements is;
(4) Leeuwenhoek.
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 3
144. Ulothrix;
(1) forms massive plant bodies which may reach a
149. Match List-I with List-II.
height of 100 metres.
(2) is a filamentous alga. List-I List-II
(3) is a member of class phaeophyceae. (Organism) (Family)
(4) shows oogamous type of sexual reproduction. (A) Man (I) Poaceae
(B) Housefly (II) Anacardiaceae
145. Given below are two statements: (C) Mango (III) Muscidae
Statement I: Cell division is a very important (D) Wheat (IV) Hominidae
process in all living organisms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Statement II: During the division of a cell, DNA below:
replication and cell growth also take place.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
below:
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
150. Which of the following functions as a conducting
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
tissue for water and minerals from roots to the stem
correct.
and leaves?
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) Phloem (2) Collenchyma
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Xylem
incorrect.

[17] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET
AITS-02 +Locomotion and movement, Neural control and coordination

Zoology : Section-A (Q. No. 151 to 185) 156. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Coordination is the process through
151. Some specialised cells in our body like which two or more organs interact and complement
macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit: the functions of one another.
(1) Amoeboid movement Statement II: The neural system provides an
(2) Ciliary movement organised network of point-to-point connections for
(3) Muscular movement a quick coordination.
(4) Locomotion In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
152. Which of the following diseases affects the vessels (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
that supply blood to the heart muscle? (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) Atherosclerosis incorrect.
(2) Asthma (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(3) Emphysema
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(4) Hypertension
157. Read the following statements carefully.
153. Which of the following maintains the resting A. Increase in pulmonary volume.
membrane potential in a neuron? B. Decrease in intra-pulmonary pressure.
(1) Diffusion of sodium ions into the cell. C. Increase in thoracic volume.
(2) Diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell. D. Relaxation of diaphragm.
(3) Active transport by sodium-potassium pump. Which of the above statements are related to
(4) Permeability of the membrane to negatively inspiration?
charged proteins. (1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
154. After repeated activity, muscular fatigue occurs due (3) A, B and C only
to: (4) A, B, C and D
(1) Excessive ATP production.
158. Type of muscles which are involuntary and striated
(2) Accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic
is:
glycolysis.
(1) Skeletal muscles
(3) Breakdown of myoglobin.
(2) Smooth muscles
(4) High levels of calcium ions in sarcoplasmic
(3) Cardiac muscles
reticulum. (4) Both (2) and (3)

155. Match List-I with List-II w.r.t cockroach. 159. Which of the following helps in regulation of kidney
List-I List-II function?
A. Testes I. Storage of sperms (1) Renin
B. Mushroom II. 6th to 7th abdominal (2) Antidiuretic hormone
shaped gland segments (3) Aldosterone
C. Ovaries III. 2nd to 6th abdominal (4) All of these
segments
160. Which of the following describes the state of a
D. Seminal vesicles IV. 4th to 6th abdominal
neuron's membrane during depolarization?
segments
(1) The membrane becomes impermeable to Na⁺
Choose the correct answer from the options given ions.
below: (2) The inner surface of the membrane becomes
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV positively charged.
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) The outer surface of the membrane becomes
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II positively charged.
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (4) The membrane is restored to its resting potential.
[18] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

161. The connective tissue layer that holds muscle 168. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
bundles together in skeletal muscles is: (1) Human heart is myogenic.
(1) Sarcolemma (2) Endothelium (2) A special neural centre in the medulla
(3) Fascia (4) Z-line oblongata can moderate the cardiac function
through autonomic nervous system (ANS).
162. Inspiratory reserve volume is: (3) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves
(1) The additional volume of air, a person can can decrease the rate of heart beat.
inspire by a forcible inspiration. (4) Parasympathetic neural signals decrease the
(2) The additional volume of air, a person can rate of heart beat.
expire by a forcible expiration.
(3) Total volume of air a person can inspire after a 169. What happens to potassium ions (K⁺) during the
normal expiration. repolarization phase of a nerve impulse?
(4) Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after (1) K⁺ ions enter the cell to restore resting
a normal expiration. potential.
(2) K⁺ ions diffuse out of the cell to restore resting
163. What distinguishes the neural organisation in potential.
insects from that in Hydra? (3) K⁺ ions remain in equilibrium across the
(1) Presence of a brain and ganglia membrane.
(2) Absence of neural tissues (4) K⁺ ions are actively transported into the cell.
(3) Neural organisation is less complex in insects
(4) Both have equally simple neural systems 170. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
164. During muscle contraction, which of the following A. M-line I. Functional unit of
remains constant in length? contraction
(1) I band (2) A band B. Sarcomere II. Polymer of G-actins
(3) H zone (4) Z line C. H-zone III. Central part of thick
filament not overlapped
by thin filament
165. Which of the given statements is true?
D. F-actin IV. Present in middle of A-
(1) Aquatic amphibians are ureotelic in nature.
band
(2) Marine fishes are ammonotelic.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) Ammonia is the most toxic nitrogenous waste.
below:
(4) Land snails are ureotelic.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
166. The ______ nerve fibres transmit impulses from
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
tissues/organs to the CNS and the _____ fibres
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
transmit regulatory impulses from the CNS to the
concerned peripheral tissues/organs.
171. Choose the incorrectly matched option.
Choose the option correctly filling the blanks.
(1) Somatic neural system → Relays impulses
(1) Afferent, efferent
from the CNS to skeletal muscles
(2) Efferent, afferent (2) Autonomic neural system → Transmits
(3) Motor, sensory impulses from the CNS to the voluntary organs
(4) Autonomic, somatic (3) Multipolar neurons → Neuron with one axon
and two or more dendrites
167. Which of the following statements is true about the (4) Myelinated nerve fibres → Found in spinal and
I-band in a myofibril? cranial nerves
(1) It contains myosin filaments and is called the
anisotropic band. 172. The majority of carbon dioxide transported in the
(2) It contains actin filaments and is called the blood as:
isotropic band. (1) Dissolved in plasma.
(3) It contains both actin and myosin filaments and (2) Bound to hemoglobin in RBCs.
is called the H-zone. (3) Bicarbonate ions.
(4) It contains the M-line at the center of the band. (4) Attached to oxygen molecules.
[19] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

173. Which of the following correctly describes 179. Choose the incorrectly matched option.
pulmonary circulation? (1) Skull bones → 22
(1) Blood is pumped by the left ventricle into the (2) Vertebrae → 24
pulmonary artery, then to the lungs, and back (3) Ribs → 24
to the right atrium via the pulmonary veins. (4) Sternum →1
(2) Blood is pumped by the right ventricle into the
pulmonary artery, then to the lungs, and back 180. The ionic gradients across the resting membrane are
to the left atrium via the pulmonary veins. maintained by the active transport of ions by the
(3) Blood is pumped by the left ventricle into the sodium-potassium pump which transports:
aorta, then to the body, and returns to the right (1) 3 Na+ outwards for 2 K+ into the cell.
atrium. (2) 2 Na+ outwards for 3 K+ into the cell.
(4) Blood is pumped by the right ventricle into the (3) 3 Na+ inwards for 2 K+ outwards the cell.
aorta, then to the lungs, and back to the right
(4) 2 Na+ inwards for 3 K+ outwards the cell.
atrium via the pulmonary veins.
181. Which of the following structures together form the
174. Which of the following statement is true about
Malpighian body or renal corpuscle?
myosin filament?
(1) Loop of Henle and Glomerulus
(1) It is made up of actin monomers.
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule and Bowman’s
(2) The globular head of myosin has binding sites
for calcium ions and ATP. capsule
(3) Each myosin filament consists of (3) Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
meromyosins, with a globular head, a (4) Glomerulus and Distal convoluted tubule
short arm and a tail.
(4) The tail of myosin contains active sites for ATP 182. Which of the followings is a large triangular flat
and actin. bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax
between the second and the seventh ribs?
175. The action potential in a nerve fibre is characterized (1) Scapula (2) Clavicle
by: (3) Humerus (4) Pubis
(1) The electrical potential difference across the
resting membrane. 183. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(2) The rapid influx of Na⁺ followed by reversal of Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
membrane polarity. Assertion A: A nerve impulse is transmitted from
(3) The active transport of Na⁺ and K⁺ by the one neuron to another through junctions called
sodium-potassium pump. synapses.
(4) The movement of K⁺ ions to restore resting Reason R: A synapse is a junction formed by the
potential. membranes of a pre-synaptic neuron and a post-
synaptic neuron, facilitating the transmission of the
176. Which of the following represents a cranial bone? nerve impulse.
(1) Occipital (2) Femur In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Coxal (4) Humerus correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
177. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. connective tissue. explanation of A.
(1) Areolar tissue (2) Blood
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
(3) Cartilage (4) Neuroglia
explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
178. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. structure of
(4) A is false but R is true.
neuron.
(1) A neuron is composed of three major parts,
184. Which of the following statements is not true
namely, cell body, dendrites and axon.
(2) The cell body contains cytoplasm with typical regarding simple cuboidal epithelium?
cell organelles. (1) It is composed of single layer of cube-like
(3) Certain granular bodies called Nissl’s granules cells.
are present in cell body and dendrites. (2) It is found in the tubular part of nephron.
(4) Dendrites helps to transmit impulses away (3) It contains cells with irregular boundaries.
from the cell body. (4) Its main functions are secretion and absorption.
[20] [Contd...
 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

185. A bone of pelvic girdle formed by the fusion of three 191. Given below are two statements:
bones - ilium, ischium and pubis, is: Statement I: Bone and cartilage are specialised
(1) Femur connective tissues.
(2) Tibia Statement II: In human beings, skeletal system is
made up of 226 bones and a few cartilages.
(3) Coxal
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(4) Fibula
appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
Zoology : Section-B (Q. No. 186 to 200) (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
186. In a standard ECG, the QRS complex represents:
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) Repolarisation of atria
correct.
(2) Depolarisation of ventricles (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(4) Depolarisation of atria 192. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
187. Match List-I with List-II. A. Asthma I. Decrease in respiratory
List-I List-II surface
A. Carpal I. 5 in number B. Emphysema II. Inflammation of
bronchioles
B. Meta carpal II. 14 in number
C. Occupational III. Pons region of the brain
C. Phalanges III. Made of 30 bones respiratory
D. Each limb IV. 8 in number disorder
Choose the correct answer from the options given D. Pneumotaxic IV. Prevented by wearing
below: centre protective mask
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III below:
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
188. Which part of human brain receives and integrates
visual, tactile and auditory inputs? 193. Which of the following cranial meninges is in
(1) Midbrain contact with the brain tissue?
(2) Forebrain (1) Dura mater
(3) Hindbrain (2) Pia mater
(4) Hypothalamus (3) Arachnoid
(4) Both (1) and (2)

189. Which of the following is not a characteristic of red

194. Which of the following is/are functions of proximal
muscle fibers? convoluted tubules in a nephron?
(1) High myoglobin content A. Reabsorption of nearly all the essential
(2) Dependence on anaerobic energy production nutrients.
(3) Abundance of mitochondria B. Reabsorption of all the electrolytes and water.
(4) Adaptation for sustained activity C. Helps to maintain the pH and ionic balance of
the body fluids.
D. Selective secretion of hydrogen ions and
190. The part of brain which consists of fibre tracts that
ammonia into the filtrate.
interconnect different regions of the brain is:
E. Absorption of HCO3– from filtrate.
(1) Pons (1) A, B and C only
(2) Cerebellum (2) A, B and D only
(3) Medulla (3) A, C, D and E only
(4) Cerebrum (4) All of these

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 PHYSICS WALLAH All India Test Series [03] 11th NEET

195. Bipolar neurons are found in: (1) B (2) A

(1) Retina of eye (2) Cerebral cortex (3) D (4) C
(3) Embryonic stage (4) Spinal cord
199. Which of the following disease is characterized by
196. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: due to genetic disorder?
Assertion A: Joints are essential for all types of (1) Myasthenia gravis
movements involving the bony parts of the body. (2) Muscular dystrophy
Reason R: Pivot joint is present between humerus (3) Tetany
and pectoral girdle. (4) Arthritis
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 200. Match List-I with List-II w.r.t. frog.
(1) A is true but R is false. List-I List-II
(2) A is false but R is true. A. Webbed digits I. Fore limbs
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct B. Four digits II. Hind limbs
explanation of A. C. Sound producing III. Protects eyes in
(4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct vocal sacs water
explanation of A. D. Nictitating membrane IV. Present in male
Choose the correct answer from the options given
197. Which of the following are primarily involved in the below:
transmission of impulses at chemical synapses? (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(1) Neurotransmitters (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) Nissl’s granule (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) Myelin sheath (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) Potassium ions

198. Which of the following labelled part of a neuron

show the gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths?

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