Madras School of Economics

(Recognized as Institute of Special Importance by the Government of TN)

(Included by UGC in the list of Institutions established under State Legislature Act)
Admission to B.A. Program: Academic Year 2024-25

MADRAS SCHOOL OF ECONOMICS B.A. (HONOURS) ECONOMICS ENTRANCE TEST – MSEET-2024

INFORMATION HANDOUT
This handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the exam you are going to undertake and important
instructions about related matters. You are advised to study the handout carefully as it will help you in preparing for the
examination.
The candidates must make sure that they fulfil all eligibility criteria – MSE reserves the right to reject the application if a
candidate does not satisfy eligibility criteria.
The examination will comprise the following objective type multiple choice tests as stated below :
Structure of the test for BA Entrance

Number of
Sr. No. Name of Test Marks Version Duration
Questions
1 Mathematics 40 40
2 Descriptive Statistics 20 20
English 120 Minutes
3 Language Skill (English) 20 20
4 Aptitude Test 20 20
TOTAL 100 100

The time for the test is 120 minutes; however you may have to be at the venue for approximately 180 minutes including
the time required for logging in, collection of the Admit cards, going through the instructions etc. All questions will be
made available in English only. All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the four answers to a question only
one will be the correct answer. You have to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative
which you feel is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that you have clicked on will be treated as your
answer to that question. There will be no penalty for wrong answers marked by you. However, you are advised,
not to mark answers by random guessing.
Cut-off will be applied on Total corrected score.

Some sample questions are given below. Kindly note that these questions are for illustrative purposes only and not
exhaustive. In the actual examination, you will find questions of a higher level on some or all of the types and also questions
on the types not mentioned here.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

MATHEMATICS

Q.1. Six solid spheres of the same size are made by melting a solid metallic cylinder of base Diameter 4 cm and
height 16 cm. The diameter of each sphere is ___
(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 4.5 cm
Q.2. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability that the number on the first die is an odd number and
that on the second die is a prime number is ______
12 9 15 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
36 36 36 36
Q.3. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142
1
Q.4. 20 × = ?
2
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 20 (4) Other than those given as options

1
Q.5. 0.7 x 0.5 = ?
(1) 35 (2) 0.35 (3) 0.0035 (4) 0.035
Q.6. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 610
Q.7. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286
Q.8. The interest on a certain deposit at 9% per annum is Rs.405 in one year. How much will be the additional
interest in one year on the same deposit at 10% per annum ?
(1) Rs. 40.50 (2) Rs. 450 (3) Rs. 855 (4) Rs.45
Q.9. A, B, C, D are 4 points, three of which are collinear. How many circles can be drawn through these points,
selecting 3 points at a time ?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 5 (5) 2
Q.10. The radius of a circle is 7c.m. What will be the area of the circle ?
(1) 44 cm2 (2) 308 cm2 (3) 44 cm2 (4) 154 cm2 (5) None of these

DESCRIPTIVE STATISTICS

Q.1. If the sum of squared deviations of the observations from its mean is 200 and the variance of them is 8, then the
number of observations is _____
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 20 (4) 25
Q.2. For the following distribution :

Class 0-5 5 – 10 10 - 15 15 - 20 20 - 25
Frequency 5 10 12 15 10
The sum of lower limits of median class and modal class is ____
(1) 25 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 12

LANGUAGE SKILL (ENGLISH)

Given in Questions 1 & 2 are sentences in which a word or a phrase is highlighted. From the alternatives given,
select the one that is closest in meaning to the bold portion.
Q.1. She was very popular in the office because of her magnanimous nature.
(1) Polite (2) Smart (3) Nice (4) Generous
Q.2. Raju did many things to malign his friend.
(1) Accuse (2) Disbelieve (3) Trouble (4) Slander
Q.3-4.Select from among the choices given below each question, the appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Q.3. His desire to listen to music was so _______, that he played records all day.
(1) Insinuate (2) Insatiable (3) Inherent (4) Incongruous
Q.4. The changes in his appearance had been almost ________, but when she came across a photograph of how
he had looked a year ago, she realised how different he was.
(1) Non-existent (2) Small (3) Imperceptible (4) Inadvertent
Q.5. From the alternatives, select the word that is farthest in meaning to the highlighted portion.
He is totally interested in your personal affairs.
(1) Keen (2) Indifferent (3) Curious (4) Attentive
Q.6-7. Directions : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to
complete it meaningfully.
Q.6. He quickly glanced .............................. the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to
Q.7. The counsel urged the court to ........................... down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike

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Q.8-10. Directions : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will
be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no error,
the answer is No error
Q.8. I am twenty two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.9. To the Hindus / the Ganga is holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Q.10. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4)

APTITUDE TEST
Q.1. In a code language ‘pla te lo’ means ‘Children like playing’; ‘te wo de’ means ‘Children hate studying’ and ‘fa al
lo’ means ‘All like flowers’. So which word stands for ‘playing’ in that language ?
(1) de (2) wo (3) fa (4) Other than those given as options
Q.2. Sohanlal purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The expenditure on transport was Rs.480. He had
to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs.60. What should be the selling price
of each ream if he wants a profit of 20% ?
(1) Rs.126 (2) Rs.115.50 (3) Rs.105 (4) Other than those given as options
Q.3-7. Read the information given below and answer the questions.
Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged one on each day from
Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to be in accordance with the following.
(1) A must be on the previous day of the day on which E is staged.
(2) C must not be staged on Tuesday.
(3) B must be on a day which follows the day on which F is staged.
(4) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B.
(5) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
Q.3. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday ?
(1) E A B F D C (2) A F B E D C (3) A F B C D E
(4) F A B E D C (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. Play C cannot definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday ?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday (5) Saturday
Q.5. Play D is between which of the following pairs of plays ?
(1) C and E (2) E and F (3) A and E (4) B and E (5) C and F
Q.6. Which of the following plays is on Monday ?
(1) E (2) A (3) F (4) B (5) C
Q.7. Which of the following plays immediately follows B ?
(1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) A
Q.8. If the first and the second letters in the word ‘DEPRESSION’ were interchanged, also the third and the fourth
letters, the fifth and sixth letters and so on, which of the following would be the seventh letter from the right ?
(1) R (2) O (3) S (4) I (5) Other than those given as options
Q.9. If the letters of the following alphabet interchange positions, so that A takes the place of Z and Z takes the place
of A; B takes the place of Y and Y takes the place of B and so on, what will be the 13th letter from the right ?
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(1) M (2) N (3) O (4) L (5) Other than those given as options
Q.10. In a row of girls, if Seeta who is 10th from the left and Lina who is 9th from the right interchange their seats,
Seeta becomes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 19 (4) 22 (5) Other than those given as options

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(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern
(1) The examination will be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2) All tests will be in English.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the four answers to a question only one will be the correct answer.
The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which he/ she feels
is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked on will be treated as the answer to that question.
Answer to any question will be considered for final evaluation, only when candidates have submitted the
answers by clicking on “Save & Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will display the
time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are not
required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the
following symbols:

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a
question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will be considered in the evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered question
directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to go to the
next question in sequence.

(7) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.

(8) To change your answer, click another desired option button.

(9) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.

(10) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.

(11) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a question that is
Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.

(12) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option followed by a
click on the Save & Next button.

(13) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for evaluation.

(14) Sections will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the
section name. The section you will view will be highlighted.

(15) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be taken to the first
question of the next section.

(16) You can move the mouse cursor over the section names to view the status of the questions for that section.

(17) You can shuffle between sections and questions anytime during the examination as per your convenience.

(18) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any candidate does
not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption of unfair means and such a
candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations for a period as decided by MSE.

(19) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the commencement of
the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.

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(20) After the expiry of 120 minutes, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their answers.

(21) Please note :

(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once the exam starts
as this will lock the exam.

B] General Instructions:

(1) Please note Date, Reporting time and Venue address of the examination given in the Admit card.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that you are able to
report on time (as printed in the Admit card) on the day of the examination. Late comers will not be allowed.
(3) The Admit-card must be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent passport size
photograph duly pasted on it. (Preferably the same photograph as was as uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and MSE Representative at the examination
venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked to leave the examination venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones (with or without
camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the examination.
(6) Please bring the Admit card with your recent photograph affixed thereon, photocopy of the ID proof stapled
with Admit card and same currently valid photo identity proof in original. - THIS IS ESSENTIAL. Please hand
over this call-letter alongwith photocopy of photo identity proof duly stapled together to the
invigilator. Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN Card/Passport/Permanent Driving Licence/Voter’s
Card/Bank Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a Gazetted Officer on official letterhead
/Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s Representative on official letterhead/Valid recent Identity Card issued
by a recognised College/University/ Aadhar Card/ E-Aadhar Card with a photograph/Employee ID/Bar Council
Identity card with photograph. Please Note - Ration Card and Learner’s Driving Licence will NOT be
accepted as valid ID proof. Please note that your name as appearing on the Admit card (provided by you during
the process of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo identity proof. Female
candidates who have changed first/last/ middle name post marriage must take special note of this. If there is any
mismatch between the name indicated in the Admit card and Photo Identity Proof you will not be allowed to
appear for the exam. In case of candidates who have changed their name will be allowed only if they produce
Gazette notifications/their marriage certification/affidavit.
(7) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity of right and wrong
answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/concluded that the responses have
been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who is
found copying or receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will not
be considered for assessment. MSE may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
(8) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. Rough sheet will be provided which can be used for rough work or
taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test before submitting your answers.
After the test is over, you MUST hand over this sheet of paper along with the Admit card and photocopy of
photo identity proof to the Test Administrator before leaving the venue.
(9) The possibility of occurrences of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot be ruled out
completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be
made to rectify such problem, which may include the conduct of another examination if considered necessary.
Decision of the test conducting body in this regard shall be final. Candidates not willing to accept such change shall
lose his/her candidature for this exam.
(10) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be equated to adjust for
slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across sessions. More than one session are
required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.
(11) Please note that a candidate is allowed to appear only once in the online examination. Multiple appearance in
online examination will result in cancellation of candidature. In case more than one Admit card has been
generated, candidates are advised to appear only once on the date and at the time mentioned on the respective
Admit card. All other Admit cards are to be surrendered.

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(12) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating transmission and storage
of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part thereof or by any means verbal or written,
electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers supplied in the examination hall or found to be in unauthorised
possession of test content is likely to be prosecuted.
(13) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at any stage of the
selection, process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the selection process and he/she will not be
allowed to appear in any recruitment process of the MSE in the future. If such instances go undetected during the
current selection process but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place with retrospective
effect.
(14) Please read instructions related to Social Distancing given below.

INSTRUCTIONS WITH REGARD TO SOCIAL DISTANCING

1 Candidate is required to report at the exam venue strictly as per the time slot mentioned in the Admit card.
Latecomers will not be allowed to take the test.

2 Mapping of ‘Candidate Roll Number and the Lab Number’ will NOT be displayed outside the exam venue, but the
same will be intimated to the candidates individually at the time of entry of the candidate to the exam venue.

3 Items permitted into the venue for Candidates

Candidates will be permitted to carry only following items with them into the venue.
a. Mask
b. Personal hand sanitizer (50 ml)
c. A simple pen and ink stamp pad (blue/black)
d. Exam related documents (Admit Card and Photocopy of the ID card stapled with it, ID Card in Original)
e. In the case of Scribe Candidates - Scribe form duly filled and signed with Photograph affixed.
No other Items are permitted inside the venue.

4 Candidate should not share any of their personal belonging/material with anyone

5 Candidate should maintain safe social distance with one another.

6 Candidate should stand in the row as per the instructions provided at venue.

7 If a candidate is availing services of a scribe, then scribe also should bring their own Mask.

8 On completion of examination, the candidates should move out in an orderly manner without crowding as
instructed by the venue staff.

WISH YOU GOOD LUCK!

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Entrance Sample Questions
1. f(x) is a continuous function that takes only rational values. If f(0)=3 then f(2) is
equal to:
A) 5
B) 1
C) 0
D) None of these

2.

3.

4.
5.Solution of differential equation x.dy – y.dx = Q represents:

A. a rectangular hyperbola

B. parabola whose vertex is at the origin

C. straight line passing through the origin

D. a circle whose center is at the origin

6.

7. SCD, TEF, UGH, ___,WKL

A) CMN
B) UJI
C) VIJ
D) IJT

8. BINDING : BOOK
A) criminal : gang
B) Display : Museum
C) Artist : carpenter
D) Frame : picture
Q. At a small company, parking spaces are reserved for the top executives: CEO,
president, vice president, secretary, and treasurer with the spaces lined up in that order.
The parking lot guard can tell at a glance if the cars are parked correctly by looking at
the color of the cars. The cars are yellow, green, purple, red, and blue, and the
executives' names are Alice, Bert, Cheryl, David, and Enid.
* The car in the first space is red.
* A blue car is parked between the red car and the green car.
* The car in the last space is purple.
* The secretary drives a yellow car.
* Alice's car is parked next to David's.
* Enid drives a green car.
* Bert's car is parked between Cheryl's and Enid's.
* David's car is parked in the last space.

9. Who is the secretary?

A) Enid
B) David
C) Cheryl
D) Bert
E) Alice

10. Who is the CEO ?

A) Alice
B) Bert
C) Cheryl
D) David
E) Enid

11. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the only son of my
mother." How is Suresh related to that boy?
A) Brother
B) Uncle
C) Cousin
D) Father
12. For 5 pairs of values of x and y,the values of x + y are 24, 28, 30, 33, 35, and
variances of x and y are 6 and 2 respectively. Calculate the correlation coefficient
between x and y.
A) 0.97
B) 0.98
C) 0.99
D) 1.00
13. If the two regression lines are perpendicular, then r is equal to .
A)1
B)-1
C)+-1
D) 0
14. In the method of least squares, the principle is to minimize the.
A) Sum of errors
B) Square of errors
C) Sum of square for errors
D) None of the above

15. Procedural biases arise in .

A) Only complete census
B) Only sample survey
C) Both complete census and sample survey
D) None of the above

16. Total number of possible samples of size 2 each drawn by SRSWR from a
population of 6 members is.
A) 64
B) 15
C) 30
D) 36
17. In SRSWOR the probability that a particular member is included in the selected
sample is.
A) n/N
B) 1/N
C) 1/n
D) N/n

18. Which of the following is a control chart for attribute.

A) X̄ chart
B) R chart
C) np chart
D) None of these

19. LCL and UCL are generally at equal distance from the central line , the common
distance being.
A) 2σ
B) 3σ
C) σ
D) None of the above

20. 12 men can complete a work in 8 days. 16 women can complete the same work in
12 days. 8 men and 8 women started working and worked for 6 days. How many more
men are to be added to complete the remaining work in 1 day?

A) 8
B) 12
C) 16
D) 24
21. If the letters of the word SACHIN are arranged in all possible ways and these words
are written out as in dictionary, then the word ‘SACHIN’ appears at serial number :

A) 601
B) 600
C) 603
D) 602

22. Let U be the universal set, A and B be the subsets of t. If n(U) = 450, n(A) = 200,
n(B) = 205 and n(A n B) = 15, than n(A’ n B’) is equal to:

(A’ and B’ are the complements of A B, respectively)

A) 55
B) 60
C) 65
D) 70
23.

A) Statement Ⅰ alone is sufficient

B) Statement Ⅱ alone is sufficient
C) Either statement Ⅰ alone is sufficient or Statement Ⅱ alone is sufficient
D) Both statements Ⅰ and Ⅱ are needed

24. Statements: All the trucks are flies. Some scooters are flies.

Conclusions: 1) All the trucks are scooters. 2) Some scooters are trucks.

A) Only (1) conclusion follows

B) Only (2) conclusion follows
C) Either (1) or (2) follows
D) Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E) Both (1) and (2) follow
25.

A) Only assumption Ⅰ is implicit

B) Only assumption Ⅱ is implicit
C) Both assumptions Ⅰ and Ⅱ are implicit
D) Neither assumption Ⅰ nor Ⅱ are implicit
Answer:
1. D
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. E
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. B
21. A
22. B
23. B
24. B
25. B
 MSE Full Test Series – Mock Test 18
Maths

1. b

The probability of guessing correctly at least 8 out of 10 answers on a true-false type examination is
(a) 7/64
(b) 7/128
(c) 45/1024
(d) 7/41

2. d

Maximize Z = 4x + 6y, subject to 3x + 2y ≤ 12, x + y ≥ 4, x, y ≥ 0.

(a) 16 at (4, 0)
(b) 24 at (0, 4)
(c) 24 at (6, 0)
(d) 36 at (0, 6)

3. a

The shortest distance between the lines

(x−3)/3 = (y−8)/−1 = (z−3)/1 and
(x+3)/−3 = (y+7)/2 = (z−6)/4 is equal
(a) 3√30
(b) √30
(c) 2√30
(d) None of these

4. a

The vectors
λi^ + j^ + 2k^,
i^ + λj^ − k^ and
2i^ − j^ + λk^ are coplanar if
(a) λ = -2
(b) λ = 0
(c) λ = 1
(d) λ = -1

5. a

Find the area enclosed by the parabola 4y = 3x2 and the line 2y = 3x + 12.
(a) 27 sq. units
(b) 28 sq. units
(c) 54 sq. units
(d) 30 sq. units
6. d

The function f(x) = tan-1 (sin x + cos x) is an increasing function in

(a) (π/4, π/2)
(b) (−π/2, π/2)
(c) (0, π/2)
(d) None of these

7. a

8. c

9. a

10. b

11. b
12. b

13. c

14. c

15. d

16. c

17. d
18. c

19. c

20. a

21. b

22. d
23. 3

A line passes through the point (3, -2). Find the locus of the middle point of the portion of the line
intercepted between the axes.
1. 3y + 2x = 2xy
2. 2y – 3x = 3xy
3. 3y – 2x = 2xy
4. y – 2x = 4xy

24. 6A-18 - b

25. 6B-18 - b

26. 6C-18 - c

27. a

28. 8A-18 - c

29. 8B-18 - b

30. a
31. a

32. a

33. b

34. Ex 8 - 3

35. c

36. Ex-18 - 2

37. c

38. EX-28 - 1
39. c

40. EX-35 - 2

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English

1. D

2. C

3. D

4. A
5. B

6. A

7. B

8. B

9. C

Antonym
10. C

11. C

12. B

13. C

14. B

15. C
16. D

17. D

18. B

19. B
20. C

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Logical Reasoning

1. B

2. D

3. D
4. B

5. B

6. A

7. B

8. D
9. D

10. D

11. D

12. B
13. E

14. B

15. B

16. A
17. D

18. D

19. C

20. C

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 Statistics

1. Which of the following is FALSE?

a) Mean is sensitive outliers
b) Median not sensitive to outliers
c) Mean > Median in Right Skewed Data
d) None of the above
Answer: d) None of the above

2. Which of these statements about Measures of dispersion is FALSE

a) Std. Deviation is sensitive to outliers
b) IQR focuses only the mid 50%
c) Units of Variance is not the same as the data
d) None of the above
Answer: d) None of the above

3. To win a dice game, one can decide how many times to roll. It can be just
once or any number of times. However, one has to get a prime number as
outcome, if rolled once, or a prime number as the sum if rolled twice or
more. How many times should one roll, to maximize the winning chance?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) Beyond 3, more the better.
Answer: b) 1

4. My friend has two children. I met one of them. It was a girl. What is the
probability she has a sister too, given that I have met a girl?
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 3/4
D. 1/3
Answer: 1/3

5. A coin is flipped. A dice is thrown. Winning means heads followed by even

number or tails followed by odd number. The probability of win 3 times in a
row is
a) 1/2 power 3
b) 1/2 power 4
c) 1/4 power 3
d) 1/4 power 4
Answer: a) 1/2 power 3

6. If P(Engine1 Fails) = 0.4 and P(Engine2 Fails) = 0.3, what is the probability
of both events occurring if they are independent?
a) 0.4 x 0.3
b) 0.4 + 0.3
c) 0.4 / 0.3
d) None of the above
Answer: a) 0.4 x 0.3
7. If P (Engine1 Fails) = 0.04 and P (Engine2 Fails) = 0.03, what is the
probability of both engines fail, if they are dependent and P(Engine2
Fails|Engine1 Fails) = 0.05?
a) 0.04 x 0.03
b) 0.05 x 0.03
c) 0.04 x 0.05
d) 0.04 / 0.05
Answer: b) 0.05 x
8. In a certain population, 5% of people have a particular disease. A diagnostic
test is available that correctly identifies the disease 99% of the time. If a
person tests negative for the disease, what is the probability that they
actually do not have the disease?
a) 1%
b) 95% of 99%
c) average of 95% and 99%
d) 5% of 99%
Answer: a) 1%

9. In a certain population, 10% of people have a particular disease. A

diagnostic test is available that correctly identifies the disease 80% of the
time. If a person tests positive for the disease, what is the probability
that they actually have the disease, given that they are male (and males have
a higher likelihood of having the disease)?
a) 31%
b) 69%
c) 92%
d) 08%
Answer: a) 31%

10. In hypothesis testing, the level of significance (alpha) represents:

a) the probability of obtaining a test statistic as extreme or more extreme
than the observed value, assuming the null hypothesis is true
b) the probability of obtaining a test statistic as extreme or more extreme
than the observed value, assuming the alternative hypothesis is true
c) the maximum probability. We are willing to tolerate, for obtaining a test
statistic as extreme or more extreme than the observed value, assuming the
null hypothesis is true
b) the maximum probability, we are willing to tolerate, for obtaining a test
statistic as extreme or more extreme than the observed value, assuming
the alternative hypothesis is true

Answer: C) the maximum probability. We are willing to tolerate, for obtaining

a test statistic as extreme or more extreme than the observed value, assuming
the null hypothesis is true

11. In hypothesis testing,

a) Power of the test is the probability of correctly rejecting the null
hypothesis given that it is false
b) Power of the test is the probability of correctly rejecting the alternate
hypothesis, given it is false
c) 1 – alpha
d) 1 – p value
Answer: a) Power of the test is the probability of correctly rejecting the
null hypothesis given that it is false
12. In a two-sample t-test, the null hypothesis is typically that:
a) the means of the two samples are equal
b) the variances of the two samples are equal
c) the means of the two samples are different) the samples are not normally
distributed
Answer: a) the means of the two samples are equal

13. In a one-way ANOVA, the null hypothesis is typically that:

a) the means of all groups are equal
b) the variances of all groups are equal
c) the means of all groups are different
d) the groups are not normally distributed
Answer: a) the means of all groups are equal

14. What is true

A. When sample size increases sample means form a normal distribution,
regardless of the shape of the population distribution
B. When sample size increases mean of means approaches population mean
C. A & B are true only when large number of samples are taken
D. A & B are true only when population is a normal distribution
Answer: C) A & B are true only when large number of samples are taken

15. Whichis true

A.Type I error is same as alpha risk
B.Type II error is same as beta risk
C.When p value is less than level of significance, we fail to reject
null hypothesis
D. All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

16. Which is true:

A. To Test for means two sample t test can be used, provided large enough
samples are taken and data sets show normality, individually
B. To Test for means two sample t test can be used, provided large enough
samples are taken and data sets show equal variance
C. To Test for means two sample t test can be used, provided large enough
samples are taken and population variance is known
D. To Test for means two sample t test can be used, provided large enough
samples are taken and data sets show normality, combined
Answer: A) To Test for means two sample t test can be used, provided
large enough samples are taken and data sets show normality, individually

17. Which is false?

A. F test is a test of equal variance between two samples
B. Bartlett’s test is a test of equal variance between more than two
samples
C. Both F Test & Bartlett’s Test assume normality
D. None of the above are False
Answer: D) None of the above are False
18. Which is True Statement?
A. Residuals of linear regression model form a normal distribution around
each value of predicted Y
B. Residuals of a linear regression model show no correlation with
predicted Y values
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: (C) Both

19. Which is true

A. R Chart is typically used when sub group size is constant and small,
though varying sub group sizes can be used
B. S chart is typically used when sub group sizes are large and constant,
though it can be used for large, varying sub group sizes
C. P and U chart need constant sample size
D. All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

20. Which is false

A. A change in process or technology or raw material would trigger a
change of control limits
B. Control limits move towards centre line as subgroup size increases and
Control limits move away from centre line as subgroup size decreases
C. An out-of-control event would trigger a change to control limits
immediately
D. None of the above
Answer: (c) An out-of-control event would trigger a change to control
limits immediately

JAI GURUNATH