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UPSC IAS Prelims General Studies Solved Question Paper 2004

The document is a collection of multiple-choice questions from the General Studies (Prelims) Paper of 2004, covering various topics related to Indian history, public finance, and governance. Each question presents several statements, asking the reader to identify which are correct. The questions range from historical events and figures to constitutional provisions and current affairs.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
23 views

UPSC IAS Prelims General Studies Solved Question Paper 2004

The document is a collection of multiple-choice questions from the General Studies (Prelims) Paper of 2004, covering various topics related to Indian history, public finance, and governance. Each question presents several statements, asking the reader to identify which are correct. The questions range from historical events and figures to constitutional provisions and current affairs.

Uploaded by

vikas kumar
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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28/06/2015 General Studies (Prelims) Paper­ 2004

General Studies (Prelims)


Paper­ 2004

General Studies (Prelims) Paper­ 2004

October 6, 2014

Q1 With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following


statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the
Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a
Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for
each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are
subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other
appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2 Consider the following statements:


1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the

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throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.


2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the
throne for himself.
3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother,
Krishnadeva Raya.
4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half­brother, Achyuta
Raya.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q3 Consider the following statements:


Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935
were the:
1. Abolition of diarchy in the Governors’ provinces
2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate
on their own
3. Abolition of the principle of communal representation
Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4 Consider the following statements:


1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in
Calcutta.
2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held
under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji.
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3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their


sessions at Lucknow in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact.
Which of the statements given above is, are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Q5 Which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial
Assemblies in the year 1946.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
were members of the Constituent Assembly of India.
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held
in January, 1947.
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950.

Q6 The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the


Department / Ministry of :
(a) Culture
(b) Tourism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Human Resource Development

Q7 Consider the following statements:


1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and
Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation
with the High Court.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should
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be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an


officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be
confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q8 Consider the following statements:


1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House
sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can
summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term,
there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time,
at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of
dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the
dissolution of the House and until ‘immediately before the first
meeting of the House’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q9 Which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families
Below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg of foodgrains per month per
family at subsidised price.
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(b) Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent senior citizens of 65 years of


age or above, eligible for National Old Age Pension but not getting
pension, can get 10 kg of food grains per person per month free of
cost.
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has a scheme in
which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages
are given 15 kg of food grains per person per month at BPL rates.
(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial
support to Mid­day Meal Scheme for the benefit of class I to V
students in government or government­aided schools

Q10 Consider the following statements:


1. Non­function of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of
deficiency of Vitamin A.
2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart
enlargement.
3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles.
4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q11 The hormone insulin is a:


(a) Glycolipid
(b) Fatty acid
(c) Peptide
(d) Stero

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Q12 Consider the following statements:


1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India.
2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.
Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q13 In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells
formed?
(a) Liver
(b) Long bone
(c) Pancreas
(d) Spleen

Q14 In which one of the following union territories, do the people of


the Onge tribe live?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Lakshadweep

Q15 Consider the following crops :


1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Maize
4. Mustard
Which of the above are Kharif crops?
(a) 1 and 2
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(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q16 Which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) In Lok Sabha, a no­confidence motion has to set out the grounds
on which it is based.
(b) In the case of a no­confidence motion in the Lok Sabha, no
conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules.
(c) A motion of no­confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up
within ten days of the leave being granted.
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no­
confidence.

Q17 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the


Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the
Union and the States.
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal
areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States.

Q18 Who was the last ruler of the Tughluq dynasty of the Delhi
Sultanate?
(a) Firuz Shah Tughluq
(b) Ghiyas­ud­din Tughluq Shah II
(c) Nasir­ud­din Mahmud
(d) Nasrat Shah

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Q19 The great Asian river Mekong does run through :


(a) China
(b) Malaysia
(c) Cambodia
(d) Laos

Q20 Which one of the following was the largest IT software and
services exporter in India during the year 2002­03?
(a) Birlasoft
(b) Infosys Technologies
(c) Tata Consultancy Services
(d) Wipro Technologies

Q21 Which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam.
(b) The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland.
(c) The largest river island in the world is in Assam.
(d) Sikkim is the least­populated state of the Indian Union.

Q22 Consider the following statements :


1. The Oil Pool Account of Government of India was dismantled with
effect from 1.4.2002.
2. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and domestic LPG are borne by
Consolidated Fund of India.
3. An expert committee headed by Dr R. A. Mashelkar to formulate a
national auto fuel policy recommended that Bharat State­II Emission
Norms should be applied throughout the country by April 1, 2004.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
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(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q23 In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors
has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into
India?
(a) Chemicals other than fertilisers
(b) Services sector
(c) Food processing
(d) Telecommunication

Q24 Consider the following statements:


1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa­Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist
Council held by Kanishka.
2. The Chinese pilgrim Huen­Tsangmet Harsha and found him to be
antagonistic to Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q25 How did the dynasty of Nizam Shahis of Ahmadnagar come to


an end?
(a) Ahmadnagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah
was consigned to life imprisonment.
(b) Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and killed Nizam­ul
Mulk of Ahmadnagar.
(c) Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam­ul Mulk.
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(d) Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with Mughals in 1631 and
the entire royal family was killed by the Mughal troops.

Q26 With reference to ancient Jainism, which one of the following


statements is correct?
(a) Jainism was spread in South India under the leadership of
Sthalabahu.
(b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu
were called Shvetambaras after the Council held at Pataliputra.
(c) Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king Kharavela in
the first century BC.
(d) In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jainas worshipped images
unlike Buddhists.

Q27 Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of


magical charms and spells?
(a) Rig­veda
(b) Yajur­veda
(c) Atharva­veda
(d) Sama­veda

Q28 The Montague­Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:


(a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) The Government of India Act, 1919
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935
(d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

Q29 During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who among the following
proposed that Swaraj should be defined as complete independence
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free from all foreign control?


(a) Mazharul Haque
(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(d) Abul Kalam Azad

Q30 Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct


chronological order?
(a) Shankaracharya—Ramanuja—Chaitanya
(b) Ramanuja—Shankaracharya—Chaitanya
(c) Ramanuja—Chaitanya—Shankaracharya
(d) Shankaracharya—Chaitanya—Ramanuja

Q31 Consider the following Princely States of the British rule in


India:
1. Jhansi
2. Sambalpur
3. Satara
The correct chronological order in which ; they were annexed by the
British is:
(a) 1­2­3
(b) 1­3­2
(c) 3­2­1
(d) 3­1­2

Q32 The name of the famous person of India who returned the
Knighthood conferred on him by the British Government as a token
of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was:
(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
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(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore


(d) Syed Ahmad Khan

Q33 The resolution for removing the Vice­President of India can be


moved in the:
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone

Q34 With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the


following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Saving Bank : Union List
(d) Public Health : State List

Q35 Consider the following tasks:


1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections.
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament,
State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice­
President.
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election
symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes.
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of
India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
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(d) 1, 2 and 4

Q36 Which of the following is a recommendation of the task force on


direct taxes under the chairmanship of Dr Vijay L. Kelkar in the year
2002?
(a) Abolition of Wealth Tax
(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs 1.20
lakh for widows
(c) Elimination of standard deduction
(d) Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from the listed
equity

Q37 Match List­I (Books) with List­II (Authors) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II
(Books) (Authors)
A. My Presidential Years 1. S. Radhakrishnan
B. The Hindu View of Life 2. V. V. Giri
C. Voice of Conscience 3. N. Sanjiva Reddy
D. Without Fear or Favour 4. R. Venkataraman

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3

Q38 Consider the following statements:


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1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer.


2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q39 What was the reason for 5 lakh people of Hong Kong to make a
demonstration around the middle of 2003?
(a) They were demanding tax relief.
(b) They were against the Hong Kong Government’s plan to impose
an internal security law.
(c) They were the members of Falun Gong group who were
demanding religious freedom.
(d) They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong.

Q40 Consider the following statements:


1. National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into
hydropower sector.
2. Power Grid Corporation of India has diversified into telecom
sector.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q41 The Ramon Magsaysay Award winner Shanta Sinha is known


as:
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(a) A campaigner for urban sanitation


(b) An anti­child labour activist
(c) An organiser of rain­water harvesting schemes
(d) An activist for the welfare of poor rural women

Q42 Consider the following statements:


1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first multipurpose river valley
project of independent India.
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power
stations.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q43 Match List­I (Persons) with List­II (Positions) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II
(Persons) (Positions)
(A) B.P. Mishra 1. Executive Director, IMF
(B) Suresh 2. Chairman, Steel Authority of India Ltd.
Kalamadi
(C) PrafulPatel 3. President, Indian Olympic Association
(D) V. S. Jain 4. Vice­President, South Asian Region, World
Bank

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 4 2 1 3
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(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3

Q44 Who among the following is well known as an exponent of


flute?
(a) Debu Choudhuri
(b) Madhup Mudgal
(c) Ronu Mazumdar
(d) Shafaat Ahmad

Q45 Consider the following statements:


Among the Indian States
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q46 Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near


Alwar (Rajasthan), has become famous because of:
(a) Cultivation of genetically modified cotton
(b) Rehabilitation of women victims of AIDS
(c) Livelihood projects for destitute rural women
(d) Rain­water harvesting

Q47 Consider the following statements:


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1. The National Housing Bank, the apex institution of housing


finance in India, was set up as a wholly­ owned subsidiary of the
Reserve Bank of India.
2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established
as a wholly­owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q48 Param Padma, which was in the news recently, is:


(a) A new Civilian Award instituted by the Government of India
(b) The name of a supercomputer developed by India
(c) The name given to a proposed network of canals linking northern
and southern rivers of India
(d) A software programme to facilitate e­governance in Madhya
Pradesh

Q49 Consider the following statements:


1. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society,
India.
2. Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film
Certification of India.
3. Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Dev Anand have all been recipients
of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
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(d) 3 only
Q50 Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which one of the
following countries?
(a) Fiji
(b) Mauritius
(c) Malaysia
(d) Kenya

Q51 Latvia does share its borders with which one of the following
countries?
(a) Russia
(b) Estonia
(c) Lithuania
(d) Poland

Q52 Consider the following statements:


1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning
Commission of India.
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the
Secretary of National Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the
Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

Q53 Match List­I (Minerals) with List­II (Location) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
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List­I List­II
(Minerals) (Location)
A. Coal 1. Giridih
B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam
C. Manganese 3. Alwar
D. Lignite 4. Dharwar

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1

Q54 Which among the following National Highway routes is the


longest?
(a) Agra­Mumbai
(b) Chennai­Thane
(c) Kolkata­Hajira
(d) Pune­Machilipatnam

Q55 Which of the following institutes have been recognised as the


Institutes of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?
1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai.
2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research,
Mohali.
3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology,
Thiruvananthapuram.
4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q56 Consider the following statements:


1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.
3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q57 With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following


is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both Houses of
Parliament before it can be enacted into law.
(b) No money shall be withdrawn form the Consolidated Fund of
India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act.
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another
Bill/ Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which
are already under operation.
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation
of the President.

Q58 Match List­I (Sea) with List­ II (Country) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists :
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List­I List­II
(Sea) (Country)
A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria
B. Red Sea 2. China
C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea
D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3

Q59 Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India


says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised
as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of
the Union ?
(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 356

Q60 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?


List­I List­II
(Period) (Wars)
1. AD 1767­69 First Anglo Maratha War
2. AD 1790­92 Third Mysore War
3. AD 1824­26 First Anglo­Burmese War

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4. AD 1845­46 Second Sikh War

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Q61 Consider the following:


1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
3. Satpura Range
What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the
south?
(a) 1­2­3
(b) 2­1­3
(c) 1­3­2
(d) 2­3­1

Q62 Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the following cities of


Rajasthan?
(a) Bharatpur
(b) Jaipur
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Udaipur

Q63 Match List­I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List­II


(Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
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List­I List­II
((Articles of (Provision)
the
Constitution of
India)
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen
on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of
birth or any of them.
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality
before the law or the equal protection of laws within the
territory of India.
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any
form is forbidden.
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens
in matters relating to employment or appointment to any
office under the State.

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

Q64 Which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals.
(b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of
rising domes.
(c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and form delicate patches
and give a fibrous and feathery appearance.
(d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds.
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Q65 Match List­I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List­II (state) and


select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II
(National Park Sanctuary) (State)
A. Kanger Ghati National Park 1. Chhattisgarh
B. Nagerhole National Park 2. Haryana
C. Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary 3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary 4. Karnataka

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4

Q66 Which one of the following statements is correct?


(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides.
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open
sea by a narrow channel.
(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow
estuary of a river.
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooghly is of crucial
importance to Kolkata as port.

Q67 Consider the following statements:


1. The Islamic Calendar is twelve days shorter than the Gregorian
Calendar.
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2. The Islamic Calendar began in AD 632.


3. The Gregorian Calendar is a solar calendar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Q68 Assertion (A):


Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of
Mangalore.
Reason (R):
Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from south­west
and north­east monsoons.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q69 Assertion (A):


The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to
improve the quality of life of rural people in India.
Reason (R) :
Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution
of India.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
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(c) A is true but R is false


(d) A is false but R is true

Q70 Assertion (A):


West­flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.
Reason (R):
These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q71 Assertion (A):


The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator.
Reason (R):
High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the
Equator.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q72 Assertion (A):


In our houses, the current in AC electricity line changes direction 60
times per second.
Reason (R):
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The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.


(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q73 Assertion (A):


Fatty acids should be apart of the balanced human diet.
Reason (R):
The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q74 Assertion (A):


India does not export natural rubber.
Reason (R) :
About 97% of India’s demand for natural rubber is met from
domestic production.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

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Q75 Assertion (A):


For the first time, India had no trade deficit in the year 2002­ 2003.
Reason (R):
For the first time, India’s exports crossed worth $ 50 billion in the
year 2002­03.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Q76 Consider the following statements:


1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme
are covered under Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance
Corporation of India.
2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident
insurance of Rs 50,000 for accidental death and Rs 25,000 for
permanent disability.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q77 Consider the following statements:


1. Regarding the procurement of food grains, Government of India
follows a procurement target rather than an open­ended
procurement policy.
2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for
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cereals.
3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System
(TPDS), wheat and rice are issued by the Government of India at
uniform Central issue prices to the States/ Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Q78 Consider the following statements:


India continues to be dependent on imports to meet the requirement
of oilseeds in the country because:
1. Farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative
support prices.
2. Most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent
on rainfall.
3. Oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice bran have remained
unexploited.
4. It is far cheaper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed
crops.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q79 World’s longest ruling head of government is from:


(a) Switzerland
(b) Cuba
(c) Zimbabwe
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(d) New Zealand

Q80 Liberia was in the international news in the recent times for:
(a) Harbouring terrorists associated with religious fundamentalism
(b) Supplying raw uranium to North Korea
(c) Its long­running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people
(d) Cultivation of drug­yielding crops and smuggling of drugs

Q81 Consider the following statements:


1. P. V. Narasimha Rao’s government established diplomatic
relations between India and Israel.
2. Ariel Sharon is the second Prime Minister of Israel to have visited
India.
Which of the statements give above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q82 The reason for Chechnya to be in the news recently is:


(a) Discovery of huge reserves of oil
(b) Separatist rebellious activities by the local people
(c) Continuous conflict between the government troops and the
narcotic mafia resulting in a great loss of human life
(d) Intense cold wave killing hundreds of people

Q83 The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries was
assassinated in the year 2003?
(a) Czech Republic
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(b) Romania
(c) Serbia
(d) Slovenia

Q84 Consider the following companies:


1. Voltas
2. Titan Industries
3. Rallis India
4. Indian Hotels
Which of the above companies are in the Tata Group of Industries?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q85 In which one of the following countries did an ethnic violence


between the communities of Hema and Lendu result in the death of
hundreds of people?
(a) Democratic Republic of Congo
(b) Indonesia
(c) Nigeria
(d) Zambia

Q86 More than 40 Heads of States/Governments were invited by


Vladimir Putin in May 2003 to:
(a) Discuss the issues related to the rehabilitation of Iraq
(b) Celebrate the tricentenary of the city of St Petersburg
(c) Convene a meeting of European and CIS countries to discuss
the issue of missile shield for European and CIS countries
(d) Develop the strategies for containing global terrorism
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\
Q87 Consider the following geological phenomena :
1. Development of a fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q88 Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below
the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or
mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368

Q89 According to the National Human Rights Commission Act,


1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of High Court

Q90 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?


(a) Pitt’s India Act : Warren Hastings
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(b) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie


(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon
(d) Ilbert Bill : Ripon

Q91 Match List­I (Institute) with List­II (Located At) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List­I List­II
(Institute) (Located At)
A. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism 1. Coimbatore
Institute
B. International Research Centre for Powder 2. Mumbai
Metallurgy and New Materials Advanced
C. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural 3. Jabalpur
History
D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute 4. Hyderabad

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 1 3 2 4

Q92 Consider the following statements:


1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor
technology.
2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is
engaged in heavy water production.
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of
Zircon for India’s Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth
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products.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Q93 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?


(a) Reinhold Messner : Computer Technology
(b) Harlow Shapley : Astronomy
(c) Gregor Mendel: Hereditary Theory
(d) Godfrey Hounsfield : CT Scan

Q94 Consider the following international languages :


1. Arabic
2. French
3. Spanish
The correct sequence of the languages given above in the
decreasing order of the number of their speakers is :
(a) 3­1­2
(b) 1­3­2
(c) 3­2­1
(d) 1­2­3

Q95 Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
(a) K. V. K. Sundaram
(b) G. S. Dhillon
(c) Baliram Bhagat
(d) Hukum Singh

Q96 Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively
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which are 700 km apart at 9 a.m. Both the cars run at an average
speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11
a.m. while the other­car Y continues to run without stopping. When
do the two cars cross each other?
(a) 2 : 40 p.m.
(b) 3 : 20 p.m.
(c) 4 : 10 p.m.
(d) 4 : 20 p.m.

Q97 In a Q of a test paper, there are five items each under List­A
and List­B. The examinees are required to match each item under
List­A with its corresponding correct item under List­B. Further, it is
given that:
(i) no examinee has given the correct answer
(ii) answers of no two examinees are identical
What is the maximum number of examinees who took this test?
(a) 24
(b) 26
(c) 119
(d) 129
The details given below relate to the FOUR items that follow:
Amit wishes to buy a magazine. Four magazines—one each on
politics, sports, science and films are available to choose from. They
are edited by Feroz, Gurbaksh, Swami and Ila (not necessarily in
that order) and published by Aryan, Bharat, Charan and Dev
Publishers (not necessarily in that order). Further, it is given that
(i) Dev Publishers have published the magazine edited by Feroz.
(ii) The magazine on politics is published by Aryan Publishers.
(iii) The magazine on films is edited by Swami and is not published
by Charan Publishers.
(iv) The magazine on science is edited by Ila.
For the following four items, select the correct answer:
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Q98 The magazine on science is published by:


(a) Aryan Publishers
(b) Bharat Publishers
(c) Charan Publishers
(d) Dev Publishers

Q99The magazine on sports is:


(a) Edited by Feroz
(b) Edited by Gurbaksh
(c) Published by Bharat Publishers
(d) Published by Charan Publishers

Q100The magazine on films is:


(a) Published by Dev Publishers
(b) Published by Bharat Publishers
(c) Edited by Gurbaksh
(d) Published by Charan Publishers

Q101 The magazine on politics is :


(a) Edited by Ila
(b) Edited by Gurbaksh
(c) Published by Dev Publishers
(d) Published by Charan Publishers

Q102 Match List­I (Distinguished Ladies) with List­II (Area of Work)


and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II
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(Distinguished Ladies) (Area of Work)


A. Jhumpa Lahiri 1. Science and environment
B. Sunita Narain 2. Novel­writing
C. Naina Lal Kidwai 3. Film industry
D. Ravina Raj Kohli 4. Banking
5. Television media

Codes :
ABCD
(a) 4 5 3 1
(b) 2 1 4 5
(c) 4 1 3 5
(d) 2 5 4 1

Q103 Which one of the following does not border Panama?


(a) Costa Rica
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Colombia
(d) Venezuela

Q104 A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at
7 a.m. to walk around a rectangular field 400 m x 300 m. A and B
walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many
times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 12 : 30
p.m?
(a) Not even once
(b) Once
(c) Twice
(d) Thrice

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Q105 Match List­I (Beaches in India) with List­II (States) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II
(Beaches in India) (States)
A. Gopnath Beach 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Lawsons Bay Beach 2. Kerala
C. Devbagh Beach 3. Gujarat
D. Sinquerim Beach 4. Goa
5. Karnataka

Codes :
ABCD
(a) 5 4 2 1
(b) 3 1 5 4
(c) 5 1 2 4
(d) 3 4 5 1

Q106 A car is running on a road at a uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The


net resultant force on the car is:
(a) Driving force in the direction of car’s motion
(b) Resistance force opposite to the direction of car’s motion
(c) An inclined force
(d) Equal to zero

Q107 Match List­I (Biosphere Reserves) with List­II (States) and


select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II
(Biosphere Reserves) (States)

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A. Similipal 1. Sikkim
B. Dehong 2. Uttaranchal Deband
C. Nokrek 3. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Kanchenjunga 4. Orissa
5 . Meghalaya

Codes :
ABCD
(a) 1 3 5 4
(b) 4 5 2 1
(c) 1 5 2 4
(d) 4 3 5 1

Q108 The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the
Nobel Prize winners for Medicine in 2003, relates to:
(a) Control of AIDS
(b) Magnetic resonance imaging
(c) Respiratory diseases
(d) Genetic engineering

Q109 In 2003, Alison Richard took over as the first­ever woman


Vice­Chancellor of:
(a) Oxford University
(b) Cambridge University
(c) Harvard University
(d) Purdue University

Q110 Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter


boxes. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 27

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(b) 39
(c) 93
(d) 39 ­ 3

Q111 George W. Bush, the President of America, comes from which


of the following American States?
(a) California
(b) Texas
(c) Virginia
(d) Indiana

Q112 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?


Department Ministry of the Government
of India
1. Department of : Women and Child Ministry of Health and
Development Family
2. Department of : Official Language Ministry of Human Resource
3. Department of : Drinking Water Supply Ministry of Water Resources

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Codes:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Q113 Match List­I (Agency) with List­II (Headquarters) and select


the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II

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(Agency) (Headquarters)
A. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) 1. Nairobi
B. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) 2. Vienna
C. United Nations Industrial Development Organization 3. Berne
(UNIDO)
D. Universal Postal Union (UPU) 4. New York

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1

Q114 Which of the following authors won the Booker Prize twice?
(a) Margaret Atwood
(b) J. M. Coetzee
(c) Graham Swift
(d) Ian McEwan

Q115 In the well­known Lawn Tennis doubles team, Max Mirnyi—


the partner of Mahesh Bhupati, comes from which of the following
countries?
(a) Italy
(b) Sweden
(c) Belarus
(d) Croatia

Q116 Which of the following cricketers holds , the record for the

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highest score in a Cricket Test Match innings by an Indian?


(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Vinoo Mankad
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) Virendar Sehwag

Q117 INS Trishul acquired by the Indian Navy in 2003 has been
built by:
(a) Israel
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) France

Q118 INSAT­3E, India’s communication satellite, was launched in


2003 from:
(a) French Guyana
(b) Seychelles
(c) Mauritius
(d) Mauritania

Q119 Match List­I (Person) with List­II: (Position) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II
(Person) (Position)
A. Anil Kakodar 1. Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff
B. Raman Puri 2. Chairman, 17th Law Commission
C. M. Jagannatha Rao 3. Chairman, ISRO
D. G. Madhavan Nair 4. Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission

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Codes:
ABCD
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3

Q120 Consider the following statements about Sikh Gurus:


1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military leader of the Sikhs
by Guru Tegh Bahadur.
2. Guru Arjan Dev became the Sikh Guru after Guru Ram Das.
3. Guru Arjan Dev gave to Sikhs their own script—Gurumukhi.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Q121 Consider the following Viceroys of India during the British rule:
1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord lrwin
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their
tenure?
(a) 1­3­2­4
(b) 2­4­1­3
(c) 1­4­2­3
(d) 2­3­1­4

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Q122 Consider the following events during India’s freedom struggle:


1. Chauri­Chaura Outrage
2. Minto­Morley Reforms
3. Dandi March
4. Montague­Chelmsford Reforms
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the
events given above?
(a) 1­3­2­4
(b) 2­4­1­3
(c) 1­4­2­3
(d) 2­3­1­4

Q123 Consider the following events:


1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the
above?
(a) 2­1­4­3
(b) 4­3­2­1
(c) 2­3­4­1
(d) 4­1­2­3

Q124 Match List­I (Fuel Gases) with List­II (Major Constituents) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II
(Fuel Gases) (Major Constituents)
A. CNG 1. Carbonmonoxide, Hydrogen
B. Coal gas 2. Butane, Propane

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C. LPG 3. Methane, Ethane


D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbonmonoxide

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4

Q125 A spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity


around a circular path of radius r. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
(a) The body has no acceleration
(b) The body has a radial acceleration 2r directed towards the centre
of the path.
(c) The body has a radial acceleration 2/5 2r directed away from the
centre of the path.
(d) The body has an acceleration 2r tangential to its path

Q126 Which one of the following statements is correct? ‘Deccan


Odyssey’ is:
(a) A book on Chatrapati Shivaji
(b) A warship recently acquired by the Indian Navy
(c) A recently started air service between Mumbai and Colombo
(d) A luxury train which travels through Maharashtra and includes
Goa in its journey

Q127 Standard 18­carat gold sold in the market contains:


(a) 82 parts gold and 18 parts other metals
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(b) 18 parts gold and 82 parts other metals


(c) 18 parts gold and 6 parts other metals
(d) 9 parts gold and 15 parts other metals

Q128 A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its


weight in water is equal to:
(a) (9.8/5) N
(b) (9.8/10) N
(c) (9.8/2) N
(d) zero

Q129 Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to


fireworks?
(a) Zinc and sulphur
(b) Potassium and mercury
(c) Strontium and barium
(d) Chromium and nickel

Q130 Consider the following statements:


1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised on 26 January, 1950.
2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled
by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q131 Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence


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in terms of the value (in rupees) of the minerals produced in India in


the year 2002­03?
(a) Metallic minerals—Fuel minerals— Non­metallic minerals
(b) Fuel minerals—Metallic minerals— Non­metallic minerals
(c) Metallic minerals—Non­metallic minerals—Fuel minerals
(d) Fuel minerals—Non­metallic minerals—Metallic minerals

Q132 Which one of the following cities (they were in the news in
recent times) is not correctly matched with its country?
(a) Salamanca : Spain
(b) Cannes : Italy
(c) Cancun : Mexico
(d) Bruges : Belgium

Q133 Consider the following statements:


As per 2001 Census
1. The two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab.
2. The two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are
Meghalaya and Mizoram.
3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3

Q134 Consider the following statements:


1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated
Ibrahim Lodi.
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo­Mysore War.
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3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of
Nawab Siraj­ud­daulah in the Battle of Plassey.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None

Q135 Amongst the following Indian States which one has the
minimum total forest cover?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Goa
(c) Haryana
(d) Kerala
Q136 How many three­digit even numbers are there such that 9
comes as a succeeding digit in any number only when 7 is the
preceding digit and 7 is the preceding digit only when 9 is the
succeeding digit?
(a) 120
(b) 210
(c) 365
(d) 405

Q137 Match List­I (Sports­person) with List­II (Sport/Game) and


select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List­I List­II
(Sports­person) (Sport/Game)
A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton
B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming
C. Pankaj Advani 3. Lawn Tennis

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D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker


5. Hockey

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 3 5 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 5 4 3

Q138 The record for the highest score in an innings in Test Cricket
is now being held by Brian Lara. Immediately prior to him, the three
record holders were:
(a) Don Bradman, Sunil Gavaskar and Colin Cowdrey
(b) Len Hutton, Peter May and Vivian Richards
(c) Hayden, Lara, Sobers
(d) Bob Cowper, Bill Lawry and Brian Lara

Q139 In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a


line such that two of them, Ajit and Mukherjee, are never together?
(a) 120
(b) 240
(c) 360
(d) 480

Q140 Match List­I (State / Province / Overseas Territory), with List­II


(Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the Lists:
List­I List­II

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(State/Province/ Overseas Territory) (Country)


A. British Colombia 1. USA
B. Bavaria 2. UK
C. Gibraltar 3. Canada
D. Rhode Island 4. Germany
5. Denmark

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 1 2 5 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 2 5 1

Q141 Consider the following statements:


1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q142 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in , 50 days. A


contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work, but after
every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the
work is completed. The work is completed in:
(a) 45 days
(b) 50 days
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(c) 54 days
(d) 62 days

Q143 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?


Unit of Indian Railway Location
(a) Railway Staff College Vadodra
(b) Central Organization for Railway Electrification Varanasi
(c) Wheel and Axle Plant Bangalore
(d) Rail­coach Factory Kapurthala

Q144 Consider the following statements:


1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.
2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical
communication medium such as satellite and fibre optics
transmission.
3. A digital library is a collection of documents in an organised
electronic form available on the Internet only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q145 Match List­I (New Names of the Countries) with List­II (Old
Names of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List­I List­II
(New Names of the Countries) (Old Names of the Countries)
A. Benin 1. Nyasaland

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B. Belize 2. Basutoland
C. Botswana 3. Bechuanaland
D. Malawi 4. British Honduras
5. Dahomey

Codes:
ABCD
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 5 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 5 1 3 4

Q146 Which on of the following is the correct sequence in the


descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?
(a) Attorney General of India­Judges of the supreme Court ­
Members of Parliament­Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court­Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha­
Attorney General of India­Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India­Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha­
Judges of the Supreme Court­Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court­Attorney General of India­Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha­ Members of Parliament

Q147 Three students are picked at random from a school having a


total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students will
have identical data and month of their birth is:
(a) 3/1000
(b) 3/365
(c) 1/(365)2
(d) 1/(365)2

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Q148 Consider the following statements:


1. Montenegro and Serbia agreed to a new structure for the
Yugoslav Federation.
2. Croatia remained under the Hungarian Administration until the
end of First World War.
3. Claims to Macedonia Territory have long been a source of
contention between Belgium and Greece.
4. In 1991, Slovenia declared independence from Czechoslovakia.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1,3 and 4

Q149 Shirin Ebadi, who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2003, is from:
(a) Iraq
(b) Nigeria
(c) Iran
(d) Libya

Q150 A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which


starts slipping between a vertical wall and the floor of a room, while
continuing to remain in a vertical plane. The path traced by a person
standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is:
(a) A straight line
(b) An elliptical path
(c) A circular path
(d) A parabolic path

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Answers ­ 2004 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General


Studies
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. A
11. C 12. B 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. D 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. D
31. C 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. C
41. B 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. C 46. D 47. B 48. B 49. D 50. A
51. D 52. D 53. A 54. C 55. A 56. D 57. A 58. C 59. A 60. D
61. C 62. B 63. C 64. A 65. B 66. B 67. D 68. A 69. C 70. C
71. D 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. D 76. A 77. C 78. A 79. B 80. C
81. A 82. B 83. C 84. D 85. A 86. B 87. D 88. A 89. C 90. C
91. C 92. C 93. A 94. C 95. A 96. B 97. C 98. C 99. A 100.
B
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
B B D A B D D B B B
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
B D B B C D C A B B
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
A B A B B D C D C D
131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
B B D B C D D C D B
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
B A C B B B B A C C

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