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5 0 1
I NFORMATIONAL
READING
QUESTIONS
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The content in this book has

been reviewed and updated by
the LearningExpress Team
in 2023.

Copyright © 2017 LearningExpress.

All rights reserved under International and Pan­American Copyright Conventions.

Published in the United States by LearningExpress, New York.

Cataloging­in­Publication Data is on file with the Library of Congress.

ISBN 978­1­61103­082­2

Printed in the United States of America

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Contents

Introduction vii
1 U.S. History and Politics 1
2 Arts and Humanities 37
3 Health and Medicine 71
4 Literature and Literary Criticism 103
5 Music 147
6 Science and Nature 171
7 Sports and Leisure 209
8 Social Studies 245

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Introduction

Why Should I Use This Book?

Schools and employers know that students and workers who can analyze
informational reading passages and who can reason critically about what
they read are better students and more valuable employees. That is why
standardized tests almost invariably include a reading comprehension sec­
tion that often includes informational reading passages.
This book is designed to help you be a more successful reader. You are
probably most interested in performing well on a standardized test such as
the SAT®, ACT®, or a vocational or professional exam. By reading and
working through 501 Informational Reading Questions you will become much
more proficient at answering the multiple­choice questions found on those
tests. The benefits you gain from this practice and from your conscious
attention to reasoning skills will extend far beyond any exam and into all
aspects of your life. Reading will become a much more rewarding and
enjoyable experience, and your life will be richer for it!

What Is in This Book?

Each of the chapters in this book focuses on a different subject, so regard­

less of the exact exam you need to prepare for, there will be content simi­

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lar to material you will face on your exam. However, it’s important that you
practice with all the passages, not just the ones in your areas of interest.
Sometimes unfamiliar subjects can teach you the most valuable lessons
about reading.
Each chapter contains short reading passages, similar to the ones found
on many exams, including the SAT.
History and politics are covered in Chapter 1. Chapter 2 passages focus
on the humanities—they are drawn from fields such as mythology, philos­
ophy, and the arts. Chapter 3 has passages that deal with health and medi­
cine. Chapter 4 draws passages from literature. Chapter 5 passages are
drawn from the field of music. Chapter 6 contains material on science and
nature. Chapter 7 covers sports and leisure. And finally, Chapter 8 passages
are based in the social sciences of anthropology and sociology.

STAY ACTIVE
The most important thing to know about reading is that it is an active
endeavor. Keep your mind active and on its analytical toes at all times.
Underline important points as you read, argue with the author, make
notes, and do whatever you need to stay involved with the passage.

Seven Strategies for Success

Make sure you are thoroughly familiar with the following reading strate­
gies. Then feel free to adapt them to suit your needs and preferences. One
word of caution, though: Be sure you actually try each strategy several times
before deciding whether or not it suits you!

1. Get involved with the passage. Reading is an active endeavor, not a

passive one. React to the material, form questions as you read, and
make your own marks on the paper. Write in the margins,
underline important words and sentences—talk back!

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2. Try looking at the questions (but not the answers) before you read the
passage. Make sure you understand what each question is asking.
What are the key words in the questions? Are there phrases you
can look for in the passage? If so, underline them or jot them in
the margin so that you can look for them in the passage. Then,
when you find them, you can either answer the question right away
or mark the area to return to later.

3. After reading the passage, return to the questions and try to answer each
one in your own words before you look at your answer choices. The
reason for this is that the answers will contain distracter choices.
These are choices that are logically plausible but not correct, that
contain words and phrases found in the passage but are not
correct, or that are close to correct but wrong in some detail. If
you can formulate your own answer before looking at your choices,
you are less likely to be lured by an incorrect answer choice.

4. As with all multiple­choice questions, elimination is an important

strategy when you aren’t sure of the answer. Usually you can narrow
down your choices to two or three without too much effort. When
you eliminate an incorrect choice, it’s important to actually cross it
out in your test booklet so that you aren’t distracted by it again as
you focus on the remaining possibilities.

5. Refer back to the passage(s) on virtually every question. Even if you

think you know the answer to a question without looking at the
passage, look anyway, just to confirm your answer and to make
sure you haven’t fallen for a clever distracter.

6. When you encounter a two­passage section, read the passages with their
relationship in mind. Are they opposed or in agreement? If there is
some other type of relationship, how would you describe it? If the
passages have opposing viewpoints, what are the points of
difference? You may want to make notes about these things in the
margin.

7. Don’t be afraid to skip around among the questions, or among the

passages within a section. This is an especially important strategy if
you know from past experience that you often run out of time on
standardized tests. If this is the case, and you encounter a passage
you’re having difficulty with, go on to the next one and come back
to the difficult one later, as time allows.

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Build Your Skills for Success Beyond

the Classroom

Finally, as you work through these 501 questions, think of it as time spent
doing something for yourself. It is extremely important for you to improve
your reading skills, not only for standardized tests, but also for your success
throughout life!

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U.S. History
U.S. and
History
1
and Politics

Questions 1–4 are based on the following passage.

The following passage discusses the Supreme Court’s power of judicial

review, a practice first invoked in the historical 1803 Supreme Court case
Marbury v. Madison.

(1) “It is emphatically the province and duty of the judicial department to
say what the law is,” stated Chief Justice John Marshall in a unanimous
opinion in the 1803 Supreme Court case of Marbury v. Madison. This
landmark case established the doctrine of judicial review, which gives
(5) the court the authority to declare executive actions and laws invalid if
they conflict with the U.S. Constitution. The court’s ruling on the
constitutionality of a law is nearly final—it can only be overcome by
a constitutional amendment or by a new ruling of the court. Through
the power of judicial review, the court shapes the development of law,
(10) assures individual rights, and maintains the Constitution as a “living”
document by applying its broad provisions to complex new situations.
Despite the court’s role in interpreting the Constitution, the doc­
ument itself does not grant this authority to the court. However, it is
clear that several of the founding fathers expected the Court to act in
(15) this way. Alexander Hamilton and James Madison argued for the
importance of judicial review in the Federalist Papers, a series of 85
political essays that urged the adoption of the Constitution. Hamilton

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argued that judicial review protected the will of the people by making
the Constitution supreme over the legislature, which might only
(20) reflect the temporary will of the people. Madison wrote that if a pub­
lic political process determined the constitutionality of laws, the Con­
stitution would become fodder for political interests and partisanship.
However, the practice of judicial review was, and continues to be, a
controversial power because it gives justices—who are appointed
(25) rather than elected by the people—the authority to void legislation
made by Congress and state lawmakers.

1. The passage suggests that the practice of judicial review allows the
court to
a. wield enormous power.
b. determine foreign policy.
c. make laws that reflect the principles of the Constitution.
d. rewrite laws that are unconstitutional.
e. make amendments to the Constitution.

2. The image of the Constitution as a “living” document (lines 10 and

11) implies that
a. the supreme law of the land cannot be altered in any way.
b. it can only be amended through a difficult process.
c. its principles need to be adapted to contemporary life.
d. the original document is fragile and needs to be preserved in
the Library of Congress so that it will not deteriorate.
e. it will die if it is interpreted by the court.

3. In line 5, declare most nearly means

a. narrate.
b. recite.
c. proclaim.
d. predict.
e. acknowledge.

4. The last sentence (lines 23–26) in the passage provides

a. a specific example supporting the argument made earlier.
b. a summary of the points made earlier.
c. an explanation of the positions made earlier.
d. a prediction based on the argument made earlier.
e. a counter-argument to the views referred to earlier.

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Questions 5–8 are based on the following passage.

In the following passage, the author gives an account of the development of the
Emancipation Proclamation, Abraham Lincoln’s 1863 executive order
abolishing slavery in the Confederate States of America.

(1) Almost from the beginning of his administration, Lincoln was pres­
sured by abolitionists and radical Republicans to issue an Emancipa­
tion Proclamation. In principle, Lincoln approved, but he postponed
action against slavery until he believed he had wider support from the
(5) American public. The passage of the Second Confiscation Act by
Congress on July 17, 1862, which freed the slaves of everyone in rebel­
lion against the government, provided the desired signal. Not only had
Congress relieved the Administration of considerable strain with its
limited initiative on emancipation, it demonstrated an increasing pub­
(10) lic abhorrence toward slavery. Lincoln had already drafted what he
termed his “Preliminary Proclamation.” He read his initial draft of the
Emancipation Proclamation to Secretaries William H. Seward and
Gideon Welles on July 13, 1862. For a moment, both secretaries were
speechless. Quickly collecting his thoughts, Seward said something
(15) about anarchy in the South and possible foreign intervention, but with
Welles apparently too confused to respond, Lincoln let the matter
drop.
Nine days later, on July 22, Lincoln raised the issue in a regularly
scheduled Cabinet meeting. The reaction was mixed. Secretary of War
(20) Edwin M. Stanton, correctly interpreting the Proclamation as a mil­
itary measure designed both to deprive the Confederacy of slave labor
and bring additional men into the Union Army, advocated its imme­
diate release. Treasury Secretary Salmon P. Chase was equally sup­
portive, but Montgomery Blair, the Postmaster General, foresaw
(25) defeat in the fall elections. Attorney General Edward Bates, a conser­
vative, opposed civil and political equality for blacks but gave his qual­
ified support. Fortunately, President Lincoln only wanted the advice
of his Cabinet on the style of the Proclamation, not its substance. The
course was set. The Cabinet meeting of September 22, 1862, resulted
(30) in the political and literary refinement of the July draft, and on Janu­
ary 1, 1863, Lincoln composed the final Emancipation Proclamation.
It was the crowning achievement of his administration.

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5. The passage suggests which of the following about Lincoln’s

Emancipation Proclamation?
a. Abolitionists did not support such an executive order.
b. The draft proclamation was unanimously well-received by Lin­
coln’s cabinet.
c. Congressional actions influenced Lincoln and encouraged him
to issue it.
d. The proclamation was not part of a military strategy.
e. The first draft needed to be edited because Lincoln made
numerous grammatical errors.

6. The description of the reaction of Secretaries Seward and Welles

to Lincoln’s draft proclamation in lines 13–16 is used to illustrate
a. Lincoln’s lack of political acumen.
b. that Lincoln’s advisors did not anticipate his plan.
c. the incompetence of Lincoln’s advisors.
d. Seward and Welles’ disappointment that Lincoln did not free all
slaves at that time.
e. that most members of Lincoln’s administration were abolitionists.

7. In lines 26 and 27, qualified most nearly means

a. adept.
b. capable.
c. certified.
d. eligible.
e. limited.

8. The author’s attitude to the issuing of the Emancipation

Proclamation is one of
a. informed appreciation.
b. reluctant admiration.
c. ambiguous acceptance.
d. conflicted disapproval.
e. personal dislike.

Questions 9–12 are based on the following passage.

The following passage describes the medium of political cartoons as a graphic

means of commenting on contemporary social or political issues.

(1) A mainstay of American newspapers since the early nineteenth century,

political cartoons use graphic art to comment on current events in a

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way that will inform, amuse, provoke, poke, and persuade readers. Car­
toons take on the principal issues and leaders of the day, skewering hyp­
(5) ocritical or corrupt politicians and depicting the ridiculous, the ironic,
or the serious nature of a major event in a single, deftly drawn image.
Cartoons use few words, if any, to convey their message. Some use car­
icature, a technique in which a cartoonist exaggerates the features of
well-known people to make fun of them. (Think of renderings of Bill
(10) Clinton with a nose redder than Rudolph’s and swollen out of propor­
tion, or cartoons of George W. Bush’s exaggerated pointy visage sport­
ing a ten-gallon cowboy hat.)
Because they have the ability to evoke an emotional response in
readers, political cartoons can serve as a vehicle for swaying public
(15) opinion and can contribute to reform. Thomas Nast (1840–1902), the
preeminent political cartoonist of the second half of the nineteenth
century, demonstrated the power of his medium when he used his art
to end the corrupt Boss Tweed Ring in New York City. His images,
first drawn for Harper’s Weekly, are still in currency today: Nast created
(20) the tiger as the symbol of Tammany Hall, the elephant for the Repub­
lican Party, and the donkey for the Democratic Party. Created under
tight deadlines for ephemeral, commercial formats like newspapers
and magazines, cartoons still manage to have lasting influence.
Although they tackle the principal issues and leaders of their day, they
(25) often provide a vivid historical picture for generations to come.

9. The author would most likely agree with which statement?

a. Political cartoons are a powerful means of influencing the
public.
b. The more mean-spirited a political cartoon is, the more
effective.
c. Political cartoonists must maintain their objectivity on
controversial subjects.
d. Political cartoons cater to an elite class of intellectuals.
e. Because of their relevance to current affairs, political cartoons
rarely serve as historical documents.

10. In describing the art of political cartooning in the first paragraph,

the author’s tone can be best described as
a. sober.
b. earnest.
c. critical.
d. impartial.
e. playful.

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11. In line 14, vehicle most nearly means

a. automobile.
b. carrier.
c. tunnel.
d. outlet.
e. means.

12. The author cites Thomas Nast’s depiction of an elephant for the
Republican Party (lines 20–21) as an example of
a. an image that is no longer recognized by the public.
b. the saying “the pen is mightier than the sword.”
c. art contributing to political reform.
d. a graphic image that became an enduring symbol.
e. the ephemeral naature of political cartooning.

Questions 13–20 are based on the following passage.

Beginning in the 1880s, southern states and municipalities established statutes

called Jim Crow laws that legalized segregation between blacks and whites. The
following passage is concerned with the fight against racial discrimination and
segregation and the struggle for justice for African Americans in post­World War
II United States.

(1) The post-World War II era marked a period of unprecedented energy

against the second-class citizenship accorded to African Americans in
many parts of the nation. Resistance to racial segregation and dis­
crimination with strategies like those described above—civil disobe­
(5) dience, nonviolent resistance, marches, protests, boycotts, “freedom
rides,” and rallies—received national attention as newspaper, radio,
and television reporters and cameramen documented the struggle to
end racial inequality.
When Rosa Parks refused to give up her seat to a white person in
(10) Montgomery, Alabama, and was arrested in December 1955, she set
off a train of events that generated a momentum the Civil Rights
movement had never before experienced. Local civil rights leaders
were hoping for such an opportunity to test the city’s segregation laws.
Deciding to boycott the buses, the African-American community soon
(15) formed a new organization to supervise the boycott, the Montgomery
Improvement Association (MIA). The young pastor of the Dexter
Avenue Baptist Church, Reverend Martin Luther King, Jr., was cho­
sen as the first MIA leader. The boycott, more successful than anyone

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hoped, led to a 1956 Supreme Court decision banning segregated

(20) buses.
In 1960, four black freshmen from North Carolina Agricultural and
Technical College in Greensboro strolled into the F. W. Woolworth
store and quietly sat down at the lunch counter. They were not served,
but they stayed until closing time. The next morning they came with
(25) 25 more students. Two weeks later similar demonstrations had
spread to several cities; within a year similar peaceful demonstra­
tions took place in over a hundred cities North and South. At Shaw
University in Raleigh, North Carolina, the students formed their own
organization, the Student Non-Violent Coordinating Committee
(30) (SNCC, pronounced “Snick”). The students’ bravery in the face of
verbal and physical abuse led to integration in many stores even before
the passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
The August 28, 1963, March on Washington riveted the nation’s
attention. Rather than the anticipated hundred thousand marchers,
(35) more than twice that number appeared, astonishing even its organiz­
ers. Blacks and whites, side by side, called on President John F.
Kennedy and the Congress to provide equal access to public facilities,
quality education, adequate employment, and decent housing for
African Americans. During the assembly at the Lincoln Memorial, the
(40) young preacher who had led the successful Montgomery, Alabama,
bus boycott, Reverend Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., delivered a stir­
ring message with the refrain “I Have a Dream.”
There were also continuing efforts to legally challenge segregation
through the courts. Success crowned these efforts: The Brown decision
(45) in 1954, the Civil Rights Act of 1964, and the Voting Rights Act in
1965 helped bring about the demise of the entangling web of legisla­
tion that bound blacks to second class citizenship. One hundred years
after the Civil War, blacks and their white allies still pursued the bat­
tle for equal rights in every area of American life. While there is more
(50) to achieve in ending discrimination, major milestones in civil rights
laws are on the books for the purpose of regulating equal access to
public accommodations, equal justice before the law, and equal
employment, education, and housing opportunities. African Ameri­
cans have had unprecedented openings in many fields of learning and
(55) in the arts. The black struggle for civil rights also inspired other lib­
eration and rights movements, including those of Native Americans,
Latinos, and women, and African Americans have lent their support
to liberation struggles in Africa.

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13. The passage is primarily concerned with

a. enumerating the injustices that African Americans faced.
b. describing the strategies used in the struggle for civil rights.
c. showing how effective sit-down strikes can be in creating change.
d. describing the nature of discrimination and second class
citizenship.
e. recounting the legal successes of the civil rights movement.

14. The author cites the example of Rosa Parks (lines 9–10) refusing to
relinquish her bus seat in order to
a. demonstrate the accidental nature of political change.
b. show a conventional response to a common situation.
c. describe a seminal event that influenced a larger movement.
d. portray an outcome instead of a cause.
e. give a detailed account of what life was like in Montgomery,
Alabama in 1955.

15. In line 13, the word test most nearly means

a. analyze.
b. determine.
c. prove.
d. quiz.
e. challenge.

16. The passage suggests that the college students in Greensboro,

North Carolina (lines 21–27)
a. were regulars at the Woolworth lunch counter.
b. wanted to provoke a violent reaction.
c. were part of an ongoing national movement of lunch-counter
demonstrations.
d. inspired other students to protest peacefully against segregation.
e. did not plan to create a stir.

17. The passage implies that the 1963 March on Washington

a. resulted in immediate legislation prohibiting segregation in
public accommodations.
b. was a successful demonstration that drew attention to its causes.
c. was overshadowed by the rousing speech by Dr. Martin Luther
King, Jr.
d. represented only the attitudes of a fringe group.
e. reflected unanimous public opinion that segregation laws
must end.

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18. The term refrain as it is used in line 42 most nearly means

a. song lyric.
b. allegory.
c. recurring phrase.
d. poem stanza.
e. aria.

19. The term second class citizenship (line 47) most nearly refers to
a. native or naturalized people who do not owe allegiance to a
government.
b. foreign-born people who wish to become a citizen of a new
country.
c. those who deny the rights and privileges of a free person.
d. having inferior status and rights in comparison to other citizens.
e. having inferior status and rights under a personal sovereign.

20. All of the following questions can be explicitly answered on the

basis of the passage EXCEPT
a. What are some of the barriers African Americans faced in post­
war America?
b. What tangible achievements did the Civil Rights movement
attain?
c. What judicial rulings are considered milestones in the struggle
for civil rights?
d. What strategies did civil rights protesters use to provoke politi­
cal change?
e. What hurdles remain today for ending racial discrimination in
the United States?

Questions 21–28 are based on the following passage.

The following passage explores the role of Chinese Americans in the nineteenth­
century westward expansion of the United States, specifically their influence on
the development of California.

(1) While the Chinese, in particular those working as sailors, knew the west
coast of North America before the Gold Rush, our story begins in 1850,
as the documentation from the Gold Rush provides the starting point
with which to build a more substantial narrative. Most Chinese immi­
(5) grants entered California through the port of San Francisco. From San
Francisco and other ports, many sought their fortunes in other parts of
California. The Chinese formed part of the diverse gathering of peoples

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from throughout the world who contributed to the economic and pop­
ulation explosion that characterized the early history of the state of Cal­
(10) ifornia. The Chinese who emigrated to the United States at this time
were part of a larger exodus from southeast China searching for better
economic opportunities and fleeing a situation of political corruption and
decline. Most immigrants came from the Pearl River Delta in Guang­
dong (Canton) Province.
(15) Chinese immigrants proved to be productive and resourceful con­
tributors to a multitude of industries and businesses. The initial group
of Chinese argonauts sought their livelihood in the gold mines, call­
ing California Gam Saan, Gold Mountain. For the mining industry,
they built many of the flumes and roads, allowing for easier access and
(20) processing of the minerals being extracted. Chinese immigrants faced
discrimination immediately upon arrival in California. In mining, they
were forced to work older claims, or to work for others. In the 1850s,
the United States Constitution reserved the right of naturalization for
white immigrants to this country. Thus, Chinese immigrants lived at
(25) the whim of local governments with some allowed to become natu­
ralized citizens, but most not. Without this right, it was difficult to
pursue livelihoods. For example, Chinese immigrants were unable to
own land or file mining claims. Also in the 1850s, the California leg­
islature passed a law taxing all foreign miners. Although stated in gen­
(30) eral terms, it was enforced chiefly against the Mexicans and the
Chinese through 1870. This discrimination occurred in spite of the
fact that the Chinese often contributed the crucial labor necessary to
the mining enterprise.
Discriminatory legislation forced many Chinese out of the gold
(35) fields and into low-paying, menial, and often arduous jobs. In many
cases, they took on the most dangerous and least desirable compo­
nents of work available. They worked on reclaiming marshes in the
Central Valley so that the land could become agriculturally produc­
tive. They built the stone bridges and fences, constructed roads, and
(40) excavated storage areas for the wine industry in Napa and Sonoma
counties. The most impressive construction feat of Chinese Americans
was their work on the western section of the transcontinental railroad.
Chinese-American workers laid much of the tracks for the Central
Pacific Railroad through the foothills and over the high Sierra
(45) Nevada, much of which involved hazardous work with explosives to
tunnel through the hills. Their speed, dexterity, and outright perse­
verance, often in brutally cold temperatures and heavy snow through
two record-breaking winters, is a testimony to their outstanding
achievements and contributions to opening up the West.

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21. The first paragraph (lines 1–14) of the passage serves what
function in the development of the passage?
a. provides an expert’s opinion to support the author’s thesis
b. introduces the topic by describing general patterns
c. compares common myths with historical facts
d. draws a conclusion about the impact of Chinese immigration on
the state of California
e. condemns outdated concepts

22. Which of the following best describes the approach of the passage?
a. theoretical analysis
b. historical overview
c. dramatic narrative
d. personal assessment
e. description through metaphor

23. Lines 15–20 portray Chinese immigrants as

a. fortuitous.
b. prideful.
c. vigorous.
d. effusive.
e. revolutionary.

24. The author cites the United States Constitution (lines 23–24) in
order to
a. praise the liberties afforded by the Bill of Rights.
b. show that the government valued the contributions of its
immigrants.
c. imply that all American citizens are equal under the law.
d. emphasize the importance of a system of checks and balances.
e. suggest that it did not protect Chinese immigrants from
discrimination.

25. The word enterprise as it is used in line 33 most nearly means

a. organization.
b. corporation.
c. industry.
d. partnership.
e. occupation.

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26. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a

contribution made by Chinese immigrants?
a. worked land so that it would yield more crops
b. performed dangerous work with explosives
c. built roads and bridges
d. purchased older mining claims and mined them
e. dug storage areas for California wine

27. In line 37 reclaiming most nearly means

a. redeeming.
b. protesting.
c. objecting.
d. approving.
e. extolling.

28. The last sentence (lines 46–49) in the passage provides

a. an example supporting the thesis of the passage.
b. a comparison with other historical viewpoints.
c. a theory explaining historical events.
d. a summary of the passage.
e. an argument refuting the position taken earlier in the passage.

Questions 29–36 are based on the following passage.

The following passage describes the advent of American manufacturing,

imported from England in the 1790s. The Arkwright system mentioned in the
passage refers to a water frame, a water­powered spinning machine that was
used to make cloth.

(1) The mounting conflict between the colonies and England in the 1760s
and 1770s reinforced a growing conviction that Americans should be
less dependent on their mother country for manufactures. Spinning
bees and bounties encouraged the manufacture of homespun cloth as
(5) a substitute for English imports. But manufacturing of cloth outside
the household was associated with relief of the poor. In Boston and
Philadelphia, Houses of Industry employed poor families at spinning
for their daily bread.
Such practices made many pre-Revolutionary Americans dubious
(10) about manufacturing. After independence there were a number of
unsuccessful attempts to establish textile factories. Americans needed
access to the British industrial innovations, but England had passed laws
forbidding the export of machinery or the emigration of those who

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could operate it. Nevertheless it was an English immigrant, Samuel

(15) Slater, who finally introduced British cotton technology to America.
Slater had worked his way up from apprentice to overseer in an
English factory using the Arkwright system. Drawn by American
bounties for the introduction of textile technology, he passed as a
farmer and sailed for America with details of the Arkwright water
(20) frame committed to memory. In December 1790, working for mill
owner Moses Brown, he started up the first permanent American cot­
ton spinning mill in Pawtucket, Rhode Island. Employing a workforce
of nine children between the ages of seven and twelve, Slater success­
fully mechanized the carding and spinning processes.
(25) A generation of millwrights and textile workers trained under Slater
was the catalyst for the rapid proliferation of textile mills in the early
nineteenth century. From Slater’s first mill, the industry spread across
New England to places like North Uxbridge, Massachusetts. For two
decades, before Lowell mills and those modeled after them offered
(30) competition, the “Rhode Island System” of small, rural spinning mills
set the tone for early industrialization.
By 1800 the mill employed more than 100 workers. A decade later
61 cotton mills turning more than 31,000 spindles were operating in
the United States, with Rhode Island and the Philadelphia region the
(35) main manufacturing centers. The textile industry was established,
although factory operations were limited to carding and spinning. It
remained for Francis Cabot Lowell to introduce a workable power
loom and the integrated factory, in which all textile production steps
take place under one roof.
(40) As textile mills proliferated after the turn of the century, a national
debate arose over the place of manufacturing in American society.
Thomas Jefferson spoke for those supporting the “yeoman ideal” of a
rural Republic, at whose heart was the independent, democratic
farmer. He questioned the spread of factories, worrying about factory
(45) workers’ loss of economic independence. Alexander Hamilton led
those who promoted manufacturing and saw prosperity growing out
of industrial development. The debate, largely philosophical in the
1790s, grew more urgent after 1830 as textile factories multiplied and
increasing numbers of Americans worked in them.

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29. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a. account for the decline of rural America.
b. contrast political views held by the British and the Americans.
c. summarize British laws forbidding the export of industrial
machinery.
d. describe the introduction of textile mills in New England.
e. make an argument in support of industrial development.

30. The passage refers to Houses of Industry (line 7) to illustrate

a. a highly successful and early social welfare program.
b. the perception of cloth production outside the home as a social
welfare measure.
c. the preference for the work of individual artisans over that of
spinning machines.
d. the first textile factory in the United States.
e. the utilization of technological advances being made in England
at the time.

31. The first paragraph (lines 1–8) of the passage implies that early
American manufacturing was
a. entirely beneficial.
b. politically and economically necessary.
c. symbolically undemocratic.
d. environmentally destructive.
e. spiritually corrosive.

32. The description of Slater’s immigration to the American colonies

(lines 17–20) serves primarily to
a. demonstrate Slater’s craftiness in evading British export laws.
b. show the attraction of farming opportunities in the American
colonies.
c. explain the details of British manufacturing technologies.
d. illustrate American efforts to block immigration to the colonies.
e. describe the willingness of English factories to share knowledge
with the colonies.

33. Lines 22–24 imply that Slater viewed child labor as

a. an available workforce.
b. a necessary evil.
c. an unpleasant reality.
d. an immoral institution.
e. superior to adult labor.

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34. The author implies that the catalyst (line 26) behind the spread of
American textile mills in the early 1800s was
a. Slater’s invention of a water-powered spinning machine.
b. the decline in the ideal of the self-sufficient American farm
family.
c. the expertise of the workforce trained in Slater’s prototype mill.
d. an increased willingness to employ child laborers.
e. the support of British manufacturers who owned stock in
American mills.

35. In line 29, modeled most nearly means

a. posed.
b. displayed.
c. arranged.
d. illustrated.
e. fashioned.

36. Which of the following techniques is used in the last paragraph of

the passage (lines 40–49)?
a. explanation of terms
b. description of consensus reached by historians
c. contrast of different viewpoints
d. generalized statement
e. illustration by example

Question 37–44 are based on the following passage.

The following passage describes the Great Depression and the relief policies
introduced under President Franklin Delano Roosevelt that aimed to mitigate
the effects of the crisis.

(1) The worst and longest economic crisis in the modern industrial world,
the Great Depression in the United States had devastating conse­
quences for American society. At its lowest depth (1932–33), more
than 16 million people were unemployed, more than 5,000 banks had
(5) closed, and over 85,000 businesses had failed. Millions of Americans
lost their jobs, their savings, and even their homes. The homeless built
shacks for temporary shelter—these emerging shantytowns were nick­
named “Hoovervilles,” a bitter homage to President Herbert Hoover,
who refused to give government assistance to the jobless. Farmers
(10) were hit especially hard. A severe drought coupled with the economic
crisis ruined small farms throughout the Great Plains as productive

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farmland turned to dust and crop prices dropped by 50%. The effects
of the American depression—severe unemployment rates and a sharp
drop in the production and sales of goods—could also be felt abroad,
(15) where many European nations were still struggling to recover from
World War I.
Although the stock market crash of 1929 marked the onset of the
depression, it was not the cause of it: Deep underlying fissures already
existed in the economy of America’s Roaring Twenties. For example,
(20) the tariff and war-debt policies after World War I contributed to the
instability of the banking system. American banks made loans to Euro­
pean countries following World War I. However, the United States
kept high tariffs on goods imported from other nations. These poli­
cies worked against one another: If other countries could not sell
(25) goods in the United States, they could not make enough money to pay
back their loans or to buy American goods.
And while the United States seemed to be enjoying a prosperous
period in the 1920s, the wealth was not evenly distributed. Businesses
made gains in productivity, but only one segment of the population—
(30) the wealthy—reaped large profits. Workers received only a small share
of the wealth they helped produce. At the same time, Americans spent
more than they earned. Advertising encouraged Americans to buy
cars, radios, and household appliances instead of saving or purchasing
only what they could afford. Easy credit polices allowed consumers to
(35) borrow money and accumulate debt. Investors also wildly speculated
on the stock market, often borrowing money on credit to buy shares
of a company. Stocks increased beyond their worth, but investors were
willing to pay inflated prices because they believed stocks would con­
tinue to rise. This bubble burst in the fall of 1929, when investors lost
(40) confidence that stock prices would keep rising. As investors sold off
stocks, the market spiraled downward. The stock market crash
affected the economy in the same way that a stressful event can affect
the human body, lowering its resistance to infection.
The ensuing depression led to the election of President Franklin D.
(45) Roosevelt in 1932. Roosevelt introduced relief measures that would
revive the economy and bring needed relief to Americans who were
suffering the effects of the depression. In his first hundred days in
office, Roosevelt and Congress passed major legislation that saved
banks from closing and regained public confidence. These measures,
(50) called the New Deal, included the Agricultural Adjustment Act, which
paid farmers to slow their production in order to stabilize food prices;
the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, which insured bank
deposits in the case that banks fail; and the Securities and Exchange

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Commission, which regulated the stock market. Although the New

(55) Deal offered relief, it did not end the depression. The economy sagged
until the nation entered World War II. However, the New Deal
changed the relationship between government and American citizens,
by expanding the role of the central government in regulating the
economy and creating social assistance programs.

37. The author’s main point about the Great Depression is that
a. government policies had nothing to do with it.
b. the government immediately stepped in with assistance for the
jobless and homeless.
c. underlying problems in the economy preceded it.
d. the New Deal policies introduced by Franklin D. Roosevelt
ended it.
e. its effects were severe but not far-reaching.

38. The passage is best described as

a. an account of the causes and effects of a major event.
b. a statement supporting the value of federal social policies.
c. a condemnation of outdated beliefs.
d. a polite response to a controversial issue.
e. a comparison of economic conditions in the 1930s and that of
today.

39. The author cites the emergence of “Hoovervilles” (line 8) as an

example of
a. federally sponsored housing programs.
b. the resilience of Americans who lost their jobs, savings,
and homes.
c. the government’s unwillingness to assist citizens in desperate
circumstances.
d. a new paradigm of “safety net” social programs introduced by
the government.
e. the effectiveness of the Hoover administration in dealing with
the crisis.

40. In line 10, coupled most nearly means

a. eloped.
b. allied.
c. centralized.
d. combined.
e. associated.

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41. The term policies as it is used in lines 23–24 most nearly means
a. theories.
b. practices.
c. laws.
d. examples.
e. problems.

42. The passage suggests that the 1920s was a decade that extolled the
value of
a. thrift.
b. prudence.
c. balance.
d. tranquility.
e. extravagance.

42. The example of the human body as a metaphor for the economy
(lines 41–43) suggests that
a. a stressful event like the stock market crash of 1929 probably
made a lot of people sick.
b. the crash weakened the economy’s ability to withstand other
pressures.
c. the crash was an untreatable disease.
d. a single event caused the collapse of the economy.
e. there is no way to “diagnose” the factors that led to the
depression.

44. The content of the last paragraph of the passage (lines 44–59)
would most likely support which of the following statements?
a. The New Deal policies were not radical enough in challenging
capitalism.
b. The economic policies of the New Deal brought about a com­
plete business recovery.
c. The Agricultural Adjustment Act paid farmers to produce sur­
plus crops.
d. The federal government became more involved in caring for
needy members of society.
e. The New Deal measures went too far in turning the country
toward socialism.

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Questions 45–54 are based on the following passage.

In 1804, President Thomas Jefferson sent Army Officers Meriwether Lewis and
William Clark on an expedition to explore the territory of the Louisiana Purchase
and beyond and to look for a waterway that would connect the Atlantic and
Pacific Oceans. This passage describes the collision of cultures that occurred
between Native Americans and the representatives of the United States
government.

(1) When Thomas Jefferson sent Lewis and Clark into the West, he pat­
terned their mission on the methods of Enlightenment science: to
observe, collect, document, and classify. Such strategies were already
in place for the epic voyages made by explorers like Cook and Van­
(5) couver. Like their contemporaries, Lewis and Clark were more than
representatives of European rationalism. They also represented a ris­
ing American empire, one built on aggressive territorial expansion and
commercial gain.
But there was another view of the West: that of the native inhabi­
(10) tants of the land. Their understandings of landscapes, peoples, and
resources formed both a contrast and counterpoint to those of Jeffer­
son’s travelers. One of Lewis and Clark’s missions was to open diplo­
matic relations between the United States and the Native American
nations of the West. As Jefferson told Lewis, “it will now be proper
(15) you should inform those through whose country you will pass . . .
that henceforth we become their fathers and friends.” When Euro-
Americans and Native Americans met, they used ancient diplomatic
protocols that included formal language, ceremonial gifts, and displays
of military power. But behind these symbols and rituals there were
(20) often very different ways of understanding power and authority. Such
differences sometimes made communication across the cultural divide
difficult and open to confusion and misunderstanding.
An important organizing principle in Euro-American society was
hierarchy. Both soldiers and civilians had complex gradations of rank
(25) to define who gave orders and who obeyed. While kinship was impor­
tant in the Euro-American world, it was even more fundamental in
tribal societies. Everyone’s power and place depended on a complex
network of real and symbolic relationships. When the two groups
met—whether for trade or diplomacy—each tried to reshape the other
(30) in their own image. Lewis and Clark sought to impose their own
notions of hierarchy on Native Americans by “making chiefs” with
medals, printed certificates, and gifts. Native people tried to impose
the obligations of kinship on the visitors by means of adoption cere­
monies, shared names, and ritual gifts.

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(35) The American republic began to issue peace medals during the first
Washington administration, continuing a tradition established by the
European nations. Lewis and Clark brought at least 89 medals in five
sizes in order to designate five “ranks” of chief. In the eyes of Ameri­
cans, Native Americans who accepted such medals were also acknowl­
(40) edging American sovereignty as “children” of a new “great father.”
And in a moment of imperial bravado, Lewis hung a peace medal
around the neck of a Piegan Blackfeet warrior killed by the expedition
in late July 1806. As Lewis later explained, he used a peace medal as a
way to let the Blackfeet know “who we were.”
(45) In tribal society, kinship was like a legal system—people depended
on relatives to protect them from crime, war, and misfortune. People
with no kin were outside of society and its rules. To adopt Lewis and
Clark into tribal society, the Plains Indians used a pipe ceremony. The
ritual of smoking and sharing the pipe was at the heart of much Native
(50) American diplomacy. With the pipe the captains accepted sacred obli­
gations to share wealth, aid in war, and revenge injustice. At the end
of the ceremony, the pipe was presented to them so they would never
forget their obligations.
Gift-giving was an essential part of diplomacy. To Native Ameri­
(55) cans, gifts proved the giver’s sincerity and honored the tribe. To Lewis
and Clark, some gifts advertised the technological superiority and oth­
ers encouraged the Native Americans to adopt an agrarian lifestyle.
Like salesmen handing out free samples, Lewis and Clark packed bales
of manufactured goods to open diplomatic relations with Native
(60) American tribes. Jefferson advised Lewis to give out corn mills to
introduce the Native Americans to mechanized agriculture as part of
his plan to “civilize and instruct” them. Clark believed the mills were
“verry Thankfully recived,” but by the next year the Mandan had
demolished theirs to use the metal for weapons.

45. The goals of the Lewis and Clark expedition include all of the
following purposes EXCEPT to
a. expand scientific knowledge.
b. strengthen American claims to western territory.
c. overcome Native American resistance with military force.
d. introduce native inhabitants to the ways of Euro-American
culture.
e. make peaceful contact with native inhabitants.

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46. According to the passage, the United States government primarily

viewed its role in relation to Native Americans as one of
a. creator.
b. master.
c. admirer.
d. collaborator.
e. agitator.

47. The word protocols as it is used in line 17 most nearly means

a. beliefs.
b. tenets.
c. codes.
d. tactics.
e. endeavors.

48. According to the passage, the distribution of peace medals

exemplifies
a. the American republic’s attempt to forge a relationship of equals
with native people.
b. a cultural bridge connecting the Euro-Americans with Native
American tribes.
c. the explorers’ respect for Native American sovereignty.
d. the imposition of societal hierarchy on Native Americans.
e. the acknowledgment of the power and authority of Native
American chiefs.

49. The description of Lewis’s actions in lines 41–43 is used to

a. depict the expedition in a patriotic light.
b. contradict commonly held views of imperialism.
c. make an ironic statement about the meaning of the
peace medals.
d. give an explanation for the killing of a Piegan Blackfeet warrior.
e. provide a balanced report of two opposing points of view.

50. The description of the pipe ceremony in lines 47–53 is used to

illustrate
a. the naiveté of the Plains Native Americans.
b. cultural confusion.
c. the superiority of the native inhabitants.
d. how Plains Native Americans honored low-ranking members of
society.
e. the addictive properties of tobacco.

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51. In line 47, adopt most nearly means

a. advocate.
b. nurture.
c. promote.
d. foster.
e. practice.

52. The author uses the image of salesmen handing out free samples (lines
57–58) in order to
a. depict Lewis and Clark as entrepreneurs.
b. illustrate the generosity Lewis and Clark showed the tribal
people they met.
c. suggest that Lewis and Clark hoped to personally profit from
their travels.
d. imply that everyone likes to get something for free.
e. show the promotional intent behind the explorers’ gift-giving.

53. The passage is developed primarily through

a. the contrast of different abstract principles.
b. quotations from one specific text.
c. the analysis of one extended example.
d. first-person narratives.
e. recurring symbols.

54. The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to

a. describe Lewis and Clark’s expedition into the West.
b. show the clashing views of the Indian nations versus those of
the American republic.
c. explore the tribal system of kinship.
d. make an argument supporting Jefferson’s quest for scientific
knowledge.
e. criticize Lewis and Clark’s use of peace medals to designate the
rank of a chief.

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Questions 55–65 are based on the following passages.

These passages concern themselves with the nineteenth­century arguments

made for and against women’s right to vote in the United States. Passage 1 is
an excerpt from an address by Isabella Beecher Hooker before the
International Council of Women in 1888. Passage 2 is an excerpt from an
1878 report from the Senate’s Committee on Privileges and Elections in
response to a proposed constitutional amendment that would give women
the right to vote.

PASSAGE 1

(1) First let me speak of the constitution of the United States, and assert
that there is not a line in it, nor a word, forbidding women to vote; but,
properly interpreted, that is, interpreted by the Declaration of Inde­
pendence, and by the assertions of the Fathers, it actually guarantees
(5) to women the right to vote in all elections, both state and national.
Listen to the preamble to the constitution, and the preamble you
know, is the key to what follows; it is the concrete, general statement
of the great principles which subsequent articles express in detail. The
preamble says: “We, The People of the United States, in order to form
(10) a more perfect union, establish justice, insure domestic tranquility,
provide for the common defense, promote the general welfare, and
secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and our posterity, do ordain
and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.”
Commit this to memory, friends; learn it by heart as well as by head,
(15) and I should have no need to argue the question before you of my
right to vote. For women are “people” surely, and desire, as much as
men, to say the least, to establish justice and to insure domestic tran­
quility; and, brothers, you will never insure domestic tranquility in the
days to come unless you allow women to vote, who pay taxes and bear
(20) equally with yourselves all the burdens of society; for they do not
mean any longer to submit patiently and quietly to such injustice, and
the sooner men understand this and graciously submit to become the
political equals of their mothers, wives, and daughters—aye, of their
grandmothers, for that is my category, instead of their political mas­
(25) ters, as they now are, the sooner will this precious domestic tranquil­
ity be insured. Women are surely “people,” I said, and were when
these words were written, and were as anxious as men to establish jus­
tice and promote the general welfare, and no one will have the hardi­
hood to deny that our foremothers (have we not talked about our
(30) forefathers alone long enough?) did their full share in the work of

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establishing justice, providing for the common defense, and promot­

ing the general welfare in all those early days.
The truth is, friends, that when liberties had to be gained by the
sword and protected by the sword, men necessarily came to the front
(35) and seemed to be the only creators and defenders of these liberties;
hence all the way down women have been content to do their patri­
otic work silently and through men, who are the fighters by nature
rather than themselves, until the present day; but now at last, when it
is established that ballots instead of bullets are to rule the world . . .
(40) now, it is high time that women ceased to attempt to establish justice
and promote the general welfare, and secure the blessings of liberty to
themselves and their posterity, through the votes of men . . .

PASSAGE 2

(1) This proposed amendment forbids the United States or any State to
deny or abridge the right to vote on account of sex. If adopted, it will
make several millions of female voters, totally inexperienced in politi­
cal affairs, quite generally dependent upon the other sex, all incapable
(5) of performing military duty and without the power to enforce the laws
which their numerical strength may enable them to make, and com­
paratively very few of whom wish to assume the irksome and respon­
sible political duties which this measure thrusts upon them.
An experiment so novel, a change so great, should only be made
(10) slowly and in response to a general public demand, of the existence of
which there is no evidence before your committee. Petitions from var­
ious parts of the country, containing by estimate about 30,000 names,
have been presented to Congress asking for this legislation. They were
procured through the efforts of woman-suffrage societies, thoroughly
(15) organized, with active and zealous managers. The ease with which sig­
natures may be procured to any petition is well known. The small num­
ber of petitioners, when compared with that of the intelligent women
in the country, is striking evidence that there exists among them no
general desire to take up the heavy burden of governing, which so
(20) many men seek to evade. It would be unjust, unwise, and impolitic to
impose that burden on the great mass of women throughout the coun­
try who do not wish for it, to gratify the comparatively few who do.
It has been strongly urged that without the right of suffrage women
are and will be subjected to great oppression and injustice. But every
(25) one who has examined the subject at all knows that without female suf­
frage, legislation for years has improved and is still improving the con­
dition of women. The disabilities imposed upon her by the common

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law have, one by one, been swept away until in most of the States she
has the full right to her property and all, or nearly all the rights which
(30) can be granted without impairing or destroying the marriage relation.
These changes have been wrought by the spirit of the age, and are not,
generally at least, the result of any agitation by women in their own
behalf.
Nor can women justly complain of any partiality in the adminis­
(35) tration of justice. They have the sympathy of judges and particularly
of juries to an extent which would warrant loud complaint on the part
of their adversaries of the sterner sex. Their appeals to legislatures
against injustice are never unheeded, and there is no doubt that when
any considerable part of the women of any State really wish for the
(40) right to vote it will be granted without the intervention of Congress.
Any State may grant the right of suffrage to women. Some of them
have done so to a limited extent, and perhaps with good results. It is
evident that in some States public opinion is much more strongly in
favor of it than it is in others. Your committee regards it as unwise and
(45) inexpedient to enable three-fourths in number of the States, through
an amendment to the National Constitution, to force woman suffrage
upon the other fourth in which the public opinion of both sexes may
be strongly adverse to such a change.
For these reasons, your committee reports back said resolution with
(50) a recommendation that it be indefinitely postponed.

55. The author of Passage 1 supports her argument by

a. providing information about the educational levels achieved
by women.
b. sharing anecdotes about women who fought in the American
Revolution.
c. referring to principles already accepted by her audience.
d. describing her personal experience as a citizen of the
United States.
e. listing the states in the union that had granted women
voting rights.

56. The phrase learn it by heart as well as by head in line Passage 1, line
14 suggests
a. an emotional and intellectual response.
b. rote memorization.
c. learning from experience rather than books.
d. accepting an argument on faith.
e. presupposition of an outcome.

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57. In line 27 of Passage 1, anxious most nearly means

a. irritable.
b. neurotic.
c. apprehensive.
d. hasty.
e. eager.

58. Lines 26–32 of Passage 1 portray American women as

a. rebellious.
b. ambitious.
c. patriotic.
d. uneducated.
e. vulnerable.

59. Which of the following best describes the author’s strategy in

Passage 2?
a. summarizing public perceptions of the issue
b. anticipating opposing viewpoints and then refuting them
c. relating an incident and describing its significance
d. persuading his audience through emotional appeal
e. providing evidence that supports both sides of the issue

60. As used in Passage 2, line 9, novel most nearly means

a. rare.
b. original.
c. untried.
d. brilliant.
e. intellectual.

61. In the third paragraph of Passage 2 (lines 23–33), the author

characterizes the activists of the women’s suffrage movement as
a. ardent.
b. courageous.
c. conformist.
d. modest.
e. genteel.

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62. The author of Passage 2 cites the example of a woman’s right to

her property (lines 29 and 30) in order to
a. show that women are well represented by the legislature even if
they cannot vote.
b. demonstrate that if women can be responsible for property, they
can be responsible voters.
c. prove that unjust laws affect the condition of women.
d. support the belief that political change should happen quickly.
e. argue that political equality strengthens marriages.

63. Which aspect of the topic of women’s voting rights is emphasized

in Passage 2, but not in Passage 1?
a. the interpretation of the Constitution
b. the contributions of American women
c. the tax-paying status of women
d. how the judiciary treats women
e. how ready the country is to allow women the right to vote

64. The two authors would most likely agree with which statement?
a. Most women do not desire the right to vote.
b. Women are not meant to be soldiers.
c. Voting is more of a burden than a privilege.
d. American society is ready for female voters.
e. Men and women should be political equals.

65. The approaches of the two passages to the topic differ in that only
Passage 1
a. describes an incident from the author’s personal experience.
b. gives a point and argues its counterpoint.
c. cites several specific examples of laws that benefit women.
d. addresses its audience in the second person.
e. recommends an action to be taken.

Use the following to answer questions 66 through 68.

(1) Milton Hershey was born near the small village of Derry Church,
Pennsylvania, in 1857. It was a __________ beginning that did not
foretell his later popularity. Milton only attended school through the
fourth grade; at that point, he was apprenticed to a printer in a nearby
(5) town. Fortunately for all chocolate lovers, Milton did not excel as a
printer. After a while, he left the printing business and was apprenticed
to a Lancaster, Pennsylvania, candy maker. It was apparent he had
found his calling in life and, at the age of 18, he opened his own candy

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store in Philadelphia. In spite of his talents as a candy maker, the shop

(10) failed after six years.
It may come as a surprise to Milton Hershey’s fans today that his
first candy success came with the manufacture of caramel. After the
failure of his Philadelphia store, Milton headed for Denver, where he
(15) learned the art of making caramels. There he took a job with a local
manufacturer who insisted on using fresh milk in making his caramels;
Milton saw that this made the caramels especially tasty. After a time in
Denver, Milton once again attempted to open his own candy-making
businesses, in Chicago, New Orleans, and New York City. Finally, in
(20) 1886, he went to Lancaster, Pennsylvania, where he raised the money
necessary to try again. This company—the Lancaster Caramel Com-
pany—made Milton’s reputation as a master candy maker.
In 1893, Milton attended the Chicago International Exposition,
where he saw a display of German chocolate-making implements.
(25) Captivated by the equipment, he purchased it for his Lancaster candy
factory and began producing chocolate, which he used for coating his
caramels. By the next year, production had grown to include cocoa,
sweet chocolate, and baking chocolate. The Hershey Chocolate
Company was born in 1894 as a subsidiary of the Lancaster Caramel
(30) Company. Six years later, Milton sold the caramel company, but
retained the rights, and the equipment, to make chocolate. He
believed that a large market of chocolate consumers was waiting for
someone to produce reasonably priced candy. He was right.
Milton Hershey returned to the village where he had been born, in
(35) the heart of dairy country, and opened his chocolate manufacturing
plant. With access to all the fresh milk he needed, he began produc­
ing fine milk chocolate. The plant that opened in a small Pennsylva­
nia village in 1905 is today the largest chocolate factory in the world.
The confections created at this facility are favorites in the United
(40) States and internationally.
The area where the factory is located is now known as Hershey,
Pennsylvania. Within a few decades, the town of Hershey thrived, as
did the chocolate business. A bank, a school, churches, a department
store, even a park and a trolley system all appeared in short order; the
(45) town soon even had a zoo. Today, a visit to the area reveals the Her­
shey Medical Center, Milton Hershey School, and Hershey’s Choco­
late World, a theme park where visitors are greeted by a giant Reese’s
Peanut Butter Cup. All of these things—and a huge number of happy
chocolate lovers—were made possible because a caramel maker visited
(50) the Chicago Exposition of 1893!

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66. According to information contained in the passage, the reader can

infer which of the following?
a. Chocolate is popular in every country in the world.
b. Reese’s Peanut Butter Cups are manufactured by the Hershey
Chocolate Company.
c. Chocolate had never been manufactured in the U.S. before
Milton Hershey did it.
d. The Hershey Chocolate Company now makes more money
from Hershey’s Chocolate World than from the manufacture
and sale of chocolate.
e. Milton Hershey ate more of his company’s chocolate than any­
one else.

67. According to the passage, Milton Hershey sold his caramel

company in
a. 1894.
b. 1900.
c. 1904.
d. 1905.
e. 1906.

68. Which of the following words best fits in the blank in paragraph
one of the passage?
a. dramatic
b. modest
c. undignified
d. rewarding
e. raucous

Answers

1. a. The fact that judicial review can override decisions made by the
legislative and executive branches implies that it gives the court
great authority.
2. c. To maintain the “life” of the Constitution, the court applies its
broad provisions to complex new situations (line 11) that arise in cur­
rent law.
3. c. To declare means to make known formally or officially. To pro­
claim is its synonym, with a slightly different connotation. It
implies declaring clearly, forcefully, and authoritatively.

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4. e. The last sentence offers a view in opposition to the points made

earlier in the passage supporting the Supreme Court’s power to
interpret the Constitution.
5. c. According to the passage, the Second Confiscation Act passed
by Congress in 1862 provided the desired signal (line 7), encour­
aging him to pursue his plan of a proclamation.
6. b. The speechless (line 14) reaction of Secretaries Seward and
Welles implies that they were surprised by the plan and were
concerned about its political and military consequences.
7. e. One meaning of qualified is fitted by training or experience for a
given purpose (“he is qualified for the job”). Another meaning is
having complied with specific requirements (“she qualified for
the marathon”). In this context, qualified means limited or mod­
ified in some way.
8. a. The author calls the Emancipation Proclamation the crowning
achievement (line 32) of Lincoln’s administration.
9. a. Lines 14–15 state that political cartoons can serve as a vehicle for
swaying public opinion and can contribute to reform.
10. e. The consonance in the string of verbs provoke, poke, and persuade
in line 3, as well as the verb choice skewering in line 4 expresses
a playfulness of tone. The author’s description of the cartoon
images of Bill Clinton and George W. Bush (lines 9–12) also
mirrors the playfulness of the art of caricature.
11. e. One meaning of vehicle is a way of carrying or transporting
something. In this context, vehicle refers to a medium, or the
means by which an idea is expressed.
12. d. The author cites Thomas Nast’s symbols for Tammany Hall
and the Democratic and Republican Parties as examples of
images that have entered the public consciousness and are still
in currency today (line 19).
13. b. The passage illustrates several protest strategies used in the
Civil Rights movement. Choices c and e are true statements but
are too specific to be the primary focus of the passage. Choices
a and d are not described in detail in the passage.
14. c. The passage states that Rosa Parks’s actions and arrest set off a
train of events that generated a momentum the Civil Rights move­
ment had never before experienced (lines 10–12).
15. e. One meaning of to test is to apply a test as a means of analysis or
diagnosis. In this context, test refers to putting something to a
test or challenging something.

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16. d. The protest at the Greensboro Woolworth lunch counter

inspired others. Lines 25–27 state two weeks later similar demon­
strations had spread to several cities; within a year similar peaceful
demonstrations took place in over a hundred cities North and South.
17. b. The passage implies that the 1963 March on Washington was a
very successful demonstration: it attracted more than twice the
number (line 35) of people that organizers expected and riveted
the nation’s attention (lines 33–34), drawing attention to the
issues that the march promoted.
18. c. One meaning of refrain is a regularly recurring verse in a song.
In this context, refrain refers to the recurring phrase “I have a
dream,” that Reverend Martin Luther King, Jr. used in his
famous speech.
19. d. The term second­class citizen is not a legal state of citizenship;
rather it is a descriptive term that refers to a condition in which
citizens of a nation are denied the rights and privileges that
other citizens enjoy.
20. e. The passage does not speculate about the future nor does it
describe the racial discrimination that occurs today in the
United States.
21. b. The first paragraph introduces the passage’s thesis and gives an
overview about who emigrated to California and why they came.
22. b. The passage provides a historical overview supported by facts
and interpreted by the author. The author’s opinion is evi­
denced in the last sentence of the passage (lines 48–49): a testi­
mony to their outstanding achievements and contributions.
23. c. Line 15 states that the Chinese immigrants proved to be productive
and resourceful. Lines 46 and 47 praises their speed, dexterity, and
outright perseverance.
24. e. The passage states that at the time, the U.S. Constitution
reserved the right of naturalization for white immigrants, excluding
Chinese immigrants. Chinese immigrants could become citi­
zens, depending on the whim (line 25) of local governments.
25. c. Enterprise means an undertaking that is especially risky. It could
also mean a unit of economic organization. In this instance,
industry fits best within the context.
26. d. Chinese immigrants faced discriminatory laws that made them
unable to own land or file mining claims (lines 27 and 28).
27. a. One meaning of reclaim is to reform or protest improper con­
duct. Other meanings are to rescue from an undesirable state,
or to make something available for human use—this defini­
tion applies to the context.

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28. a. The last sentence provides an example (Chinese immigrants per­

forming hazardous railroad work in brutal conditions) that supports
the general thesis of the passage—that Chinese immigrants made
major contributions to opening up the West (line 49).
29. d. The passage describes the introduction of British cotton technology to
America (line 15), specifically to New England.
30. b. The passage mentions the Houses of Industry in Boston and
Philadelphia (line 5) as an example of the association of cloth manu­
facturing with relief of the poor (lines 6–7).
31. b. The mounting conflict between the colonies and England described in
line 1 suggests that America had political and/or economic reasons
for developing its own textile industry.
32. a. The description of Samuel Slater’s immigration to America shows
the deceptive measures necessary to evade British export laws and
introduce cotton technology to the colonies. Slater posed as a
farmer in order to emigrate to America and committed to memory
(line 20) the cotton technology he learned in an English factory.
33. a. The author does not offer Slater’s personal viewpoint on child
labor, only the fact that Slater hired nine children between the ages of
seven and twelve (line 23) to work in his Rhode Island mill.
34. c. According to the passage, the knowledge and training acquired in
Slater’s mill of a generation of millwrights and textile workers (line 25)
provided the catalyst for the spread of cotton mills in New England.
35. e. One meaning of to model is to display by means of wearing, using,
or posing. In this context, to model means to construct or fashion
after a pattern.
36. c. The author offers a contrast of different viewpoints exemplified by
the philosophy of Thomas Jefferson, who supported a republic
whose heart was the independent, democratic farmer (lines 43–44) and
that of Alexander Hamilton, who promoted manufacturing (line 46)
and industrial development.
37. c. According to the passage, deep underlying fissures that already existed
in the economy (lines 18–19) led to the Great Depression.
38. a. The passage is primarily an account that describes the causative fac­
tors (for example, tariff and war-debt policies, disproportionate
wealth, and the accumulation of debt) that led to the depression and
its effects (for example, business failures, bank closings, homeless­
ness, federal relief programs).
39. c. Lines 7–8 state that shantytowns were called “Hoovervilles” because
citizens blamed their plight on the Hoover administration’s refusal
to offer assistance. Choice b may be true, but the passage does not
directly support this claim.

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40. d. In this context, coupled means to join for combined effect.

41. b. Although policies can refer to regulations or laws (choice c) or
guiding principles or theories (choice a), in this context policy refers
to a course or method of action of a government or business
intended to influence decisions or actions. Choice b is the only
selection that implies action.
42. e. The passage describes the decade as one in which spending won
out over prudent measures like saving (lines 31–32). The wild stock
market speculation described in lines 35–37 is another example of
the exuberant decade.
43. b. The analogy depicts the stock market crash of 1929 as a weakening
agent to the economy (the way a stressful event may weaken the
body’s resistance to illness), not as the sole cause of the depression.
44. d. Lines 56–59 state that the New Deal expanded the role of the central
government in regulating the economy and creating social assistance pro­
grams. Choices b and c are incorrect and choices a and e require an
opinion; the author does not offer his or her viewpoint about the
New Deal measures.
45. c. The Lewis and Clark expedition did not have a military goal and
did not have any violent encounters except the one described in
lines 41–43.
46. b. Jefferson and his representatives wanted Native Americans to
acknowledge American sovereignty and to see themselves as chil­
dren to his role as their “father.”
47. c. One meaning of protocol is a code that demands strict adherence to
etiquette.
48. d. The passage states that Lewis and Clark sought to impose their own
notions of hierarchy on Native Americans by “making chiefs” with
medals, printed certificates, and gifts (lines 30–33).
49. c. By placing a peace medal around the neck of a man killed by the
expedition makes an ironic statement about the meaning of
“peace.”
50. b. To the Plains Native Americans, the pipe ceremony meant that
those who participated accepted sacred obligations to share wealth, aid
in war, and revenge injustice (lines 50–51). The passage suggests that
Lewis and Clark most likely did not understand the significance of
the ceremony.
51. e. One meaning of adopt is to take by choice into a relationship. In
this context, adopt has another meaning: to take up and practice or
use.

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52. e. By giving manufactured goods to Native Americans, Lewis and

Clark were promoting Euro-American culture. Jefferson hoped
that these free samples would introduce the Native Americans to
mechanized agriculture as part of his plan to “civilize and instruct”
them (lines 58–61).
53. a. The passage compares different abstract principles, or organizing
principles of Euro-American society versus that of tribal societies.
For example, it explores the principles of hierarchy and kinship.
54. b. Choice a is too general to be the primary purpose of the passage,
whereas choices c and e are too specific. Choice d is not sup­
ported by the passage.
55. c. Beecher Hooker invokes the Constitution (line 1) and recites the
preamble (lines 9–13) in order to appeal to and persuade her
audience.
56. a. Beecher Hooker plays on the two meanings suggested by the
phrase learn it by heart as well as by head. She asks her audience to
not only memorize the Constitution’s preamble, but to use both
emotion and intellect to understand its meaning.
57. e. One meaning of anxious is extreme uneasiness or dread. An alter­
native meaning applies to this context—that of ardently or
earnestly wishing.
58. c. Passage 1 argues that the foremothers of the nation were patri­
otic and did their full share (line 30) of contributing to the early
republic.
59. b. The passage anticipates the arguments of those in favor of
women’s right to vote and refutes them.
60. c. Novel means new and not resembling something known or used
in the past. Choice b, original, could fit this definition but its
connotation is too positive for the context.
61. a. Passage 2 describes woman­suffrage societies as thoroughly organized,
with active and zealous managers (lines 14–15). Choice b, coura­
geous, is too positive for the context of the passage.
62. a. Passage 2 states that every one . . . knows that without female suf­
frage, legislation for years has improved and is still improving the con­
dition of women (lines 24–27).
63. d. Passage 2 emphasizes how well women are served by judges in
line 35. Passage 1 does not refer to this issue at all.
64. b. Passage 1 describes men as fighters by nature (line 37), but not
women. Passage 2 describes women as incapable of performing mil­
itary duty (lines 4–5).

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65. d. Passage 1 addresses its audience in the second person, whereas

Passage 2 does not. Passage 1 also refers to its audience as friends
(line 14) and brothers (line 18).
66. b. This is an inference question. Because the writer indicates that
visitors to Hershey’s Chocolate World are greeted by a giant
Reese’s Peanut Butter Cup, it would be logical to assume that
these are manufactured by Hershey.
67. b. Paragraph three states that Hershey sold the caramel company
six years after the founding of the chocolate company in 1894.
68. b. Modest is the word that best fits being born in a small village
and having the unremarkable early life described; it is also a
word that provides a contrast to the mention of Milton’s later
popularity. Choice a: There is nothing inherently dramatic dis­
cussed in Paragraph 1. Choice c: There is nothing inherently
undignified discussed in Paragraph 1. Choice d: There is noth­
ing inherently rewarding discussed in Paragraph 1.

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Arts and
2
Humanities

Questions 69–72 are based on the following passage.

The following paragraph details the design of New York City’s Central Park.
(1) Although it is called Central Park, New York City’s great green space
has no “center”—no formal walkway down the middle of the park, no
central monument or body of water, no single orienting feature. The
paths wind, the landscape constantly shifts and changes, the sections
(5) spill into one another in a seemingly random manner. But this “decen­
tering” was precisely the intent of the park’s innovative design. Made to
look as natural as possible, Frederick Law Olmsted’s 1858 plan for Cen­
tral Park had as its main goal the creation of a democratic playground—
a place with many centers to reflect the multiplicity of its uses and users.
(10) Olmsted designed the park to allow interaction among the various
members of society, without giving preference to one group or class.
Thus, Olmsted’s ideal of a “commonplace civilization” could be realized.

69. In lines 3–5, the author describes specific park features in order to
a. present both sides of an argument.
b. suggest the organization of the rest of the passage.
c. provide evidence that the park has no center.
d. demonstrate how large the park is.
e. show how well the author knows the park.

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70. The main idea of this passage is that

a. New York City is a democratic city.
b. Olmsted was a brilliant designer.
c. More parks should be designed without centers.
d. Central Park is used by many people for many different
purposes.
e. Central Park is democratic by design.

71. The passage suggests that Olmsted’s design

a. was like most other parks being designed at the time.
b. was radically different from other park designs.
c. was initially very unpopular with New Yorkers.
d. was inspired by similar parks in Europe.
e. did not succeed in creating a democratic playground.

72. The word commonplace as used in line 12 most nearly means

a. inclusive.
b. ordinary.
c. mediocre.
d. normal.
e. trite.

Questions 73–76 are based on the following passage.

In this excerpt from Book One of his Nicomachean Ethics, Aristotle expands his
definitions of “good” and “happiness.”

(1) Good things are commonly divided into three classes: (1) external
goods, (2) goods of the soul, and (3) goods of the body. Of these, we
call the goods pertaining to the soul goods in the highest and fullest
sense. But in speaking of “soul,” we refer to our soul’s actions and
(5) activities. Thus, our definition [of good] tallies with this opinion which
has been current for a long time and to which philosophers subscribe.
We are also right in defining the end as consisting of actions and activ­
ities; for in this way the end is included among the goods of the soul
and not among external goods.
(10) Also the view that a happy man lives well and fares well fits in with
our definition: for we have all but defined happiness as a kind of good
life and well­being.
Moreover, the characteristics which one looks for in happiness are
all included in our definition. For some people think that happiness is
(15) a virtue, others that it is practical wisdom, others that it is some kind

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of theoretical wisdom; others again believe it to be all or some of these

accompanied by, or not devoid of, pleasure; and some people also
include external prosperity in its definition.

73. According to the passage, the greatest goods are those that
a. are theoretical.
b. are spiritual.
c. are intellectual.
d. create happiness.
e. create prosperity.

74. The word tallies in line 5 means

a. keeps count.
b. records.
c. labels.
d. corresponds.
e. scores.

75. The author’s definition of happiness in lines 11–12 is related to the

definition of good in that
a. living a good life will bring you happiness.
b. happiness is the same as goodness.
c. happiness is often sacrificed to attain the good.
d. all things that create happiness are good things.
e. happiness is a virtue.

76. In lines 13–18, the author’s main purpose is to

a. show that different people have different definitions of
happiness.
b. define virtue.
c. prove that his definition of happiness is valid.
d. explain the relationship between happiness and goodness.
e. provide guidelines for good behavior.

Questions 77–81 are based on the following passage.

The following passage describes the ethical theory of utilitarianism.

(1) If you have ever made a list of pros and cons to help you make a deci­
sion, you have used the utilitarian method of moral reasoning. One of
the main ethical theories, utilitarianism posits that the key to deciding
what makes an act morally right or wrong is its consequences.

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(5) Whether our intentions are good or bad is irrelevant; what matters is
whether the result of our actions is good or bad. To utilitarians, hap­
piness is the ultimate goal of human beings and the highest moral
good. Thus, if there is great unhappiness because of an act, then that
action can be said to be morally wrong. If, on the other hand, there is
(10) great happiness because of an action, then that act can be said to be
morally right.
Utilitarians believe that we should carefully weigh the potential
consequences of an action before we take it. Will the act lead to things
that will make us, or others, happy? Will it make us, or others,
(15) unhappy? According to utilitarians, we should choose to do that which
creates the greatest amount of good (happiness) for the greatest num­
ber of people. This can be difficult to determine, though, because
sometimes an act can create short­term happiness but misery in the
long term. Another problematic aspect of utilitarianism is that it
(20) deems it acceptable—indeed, even necessary—to use another person
as a means to an end and sacrifice the happiness of one or a few for the
happiness of many.

77. In lines 1–2, the author refers to a list of pros and cons in order to
a. show that there are both positive and negative aspects of
utilitarianism.
b. suggest that making a list of pros and cons is not an effective
way to make a decision.
c. emphasize that utilitarians consider both the good and the bad
before making a decision.
d. indicate that readers will learn how to make decisions using
pro/con lists.
e. show readers that they are probably already familiar with the
principles of utilitarian reasoning.

78. The word posits in line 3 means

a. agrees.
b. asserts.
c. places.
d. chooses.
e. denies.

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79. According to the definition of utilitarianism in lines 3–11, stealing

bread to feed hungry children would be
a. morally right because it has good intentions.
b. morally wrong because of it violates another’s rights.
c. morally right because it has positive consequences.
d. morally wrong because stealing is illegal.
e. neither morally right nor wrong; a neutral action.

80. According to the utilitarian principles described in lines 13–19, we

should
a. do what will bring us the most happiness.
b. always think of others first.
c. make our intentions clear to others.
d. do what will make the most people the most happy.
e. avoid things that will make us unhappy.

81. In lines 19–22, the author’s purpose is to show that

a. using utilitarianism to make a moral decision is not always easy.
b. sacrifice is necessary in life.
c. long­term consequences are more important than short­term
consequences.
d. a pro/con list is the most effective technique for making an
important decision.
e. great good often comes at a great price.

Questions 82–89 are based on the following passage.

Written by John Henry Newman in 1852, the following passage presents

Newman’s idea of the purpose and benefits of a university education.

(1) I have said that all branches of knowledge are connected together,
because the subject­matter of knowledge is intimately united in itself
[ . . . ]. Hence it is that the Sciences, into which our knowledge may
be said to be cast, have multiple bearings on one another, and an inter­
(5) nal sympathy, and admit, or rather demand, comparison and adjust­
ment. They complete, correct, and balance each other. This
consideration, if well­founded, must be taken into account, not only
as regards the attainment of truth, which is their common end, but as
regards the influence which they excise upon those whose education
(10) consists in the study of them. I have already said, that to give undue
prominence to one is to be unjust to another; to neglect or supersede
these is to divert those from their proper object. It is to unsettle the

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boundary lines between science and science, to disturb their action, to

destroy the harmony which binds them together. Such a proceeding
(15) will have a corresponding effect when introduced into a place of edu­
cation. There is no science but tells a different tale, when viewed as a
portion of a whole, from what it is likely to suggest when taken by
itself, without the safeguard, as I may call it, of others.
Let me make use of an illustration. In the combination of colors,
(20) very different effects are produced by a difference in their selection
and juxtaposition; red, green, and white, change their shades, accord­
ing to the contrast to which they are submitted. And, in like manner,
the drift and meaning of a branch of knowledge varies with the com­
pany in which it is introduced to the student. If his reading is confined
(25) simply to one subject, however such division of labor may favor the
advancement of a particular pursuit, a point into which I do not here
enter, certainly it has a tendency to contract his mind. If it is incor­
porated with others, it depends on those others as to the kind of influ­
ence that it exerts upon him. Thus the Classics, which in England are
(30) the means of refining the taste, have in France subserved the spread
of revolutionary and deistical doctrines. [ . . . .] In a like manner, I sup­
pose, Arcesilas would not have handled logic as Aristotle, nor Aristotle
have criticized poets as Plato; yet reasoning and poetry are subject to
scientific rules.
(35) It is a great point then to enlarge the range of studies which a Uni­
versity professes, even for the sake of the students; and, though they
cannot pursue every subject which is open to them, they will be the
gainers by living among those and under those who represent the
whole circle. This I conceive to be the advantage of a seat of univer­
(40) sal learning, considered as a place of education. An assemblage of
learned men, zealous for their own sciences, and rivals of each other,
are brought, by familiar intercourse and for the sake of intellectual
peace, to adjust together the claims and relations of their respective
subjects of investigation. They learn to respect, to consult, to aid each
(45) other. Thus is created a pure and clear atmosphere of thought, which
the student also breathes, though in his own case he only pursues a few
sciences out of the multitude. He profits by an intellectual tradition,
which is independent of particular teachers, which guides him in his
choice of subjects, and duly interprets for him those which he chooses.
(50) He apprehends the great outlines of knowledge, the principles on
which it rests, the scale of its parts, its lights and its shades, its great
points and its little, as he otherwise cannot apprehend them. Hence it
is that his education is called “Liberal.” A habit of mind is formed
which lasts through life, of which the attributes are, freedom, equi­

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(55) tableness, calmness, moderation, and wisdom; or what in a former dis­

course I have ventured to call a philosophical habit. This then I would
assign as the special fruit of the education furnished at a University, as
contrasted with other places of teaching or modes of teaching. This is
the main purpose of a University in its treatment of its students.

82. The main idea of the first paragraph (lines 1–18) is that
a. each science should be studied independently.
b. the sciences are interrelated.
c. the boundary lines between each of the sciences should be
clearer.
d. some sciences are unduly given more emphasis than others at
the university level.
e. it is difficult to attain a proper balance among the sciences.

83. By the Sciences (line 3), the author means

a. the physical sciences only.
b. the social sciences only.
c. the physical and social sciences.
d. all branches of knowledge, including the physical and social
sciences and the humanities.
e. educational methodologies.

84. The word excise in line 9 most nearly means

a. remove.
b. cut.
c. impose.
d. arrange.
e. compete.

85. By using the word safeguard in line 18, the author suggests that
a. it is dangerous to limit one’s education to one field or area of
specialization.
b. it is not safe to study the sciences.
c. the more one knows, the safer one will feel.
d. one should choose a second area of specialization as a backup in
case the first does not work out.
e. each science has its own specific safety guidelines.

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86. The purpose of the second paragraph (lines 19–34) is to

a. introduce a new idea.
b. develop the idea presented in the previous paragraph.
c. state the main idea of the passage.
d. present an alternative point of view.
e. compare and contrast different branches of knowledge.

87. The word apprehends as used in lines 50 and 52 means

a. understands.
b. captures.
c. fears.
d. believes.
e. contains.

88. Which of the following best describes the author’s idea of a liberal
education?
a. in­depth specialization in one area
b. free education for all
c. a broad scope of knowledge in several disciplines
d. training for a scientific career
e. an emphasis on the arts rather than the sciences

89. The author believes that a university should

I. have faculty representing a wide range of subjects and
philosophies
II. teach students how to see the relationships among ideas
III. teach students to understand and respect other points of view
IV. teach students liberal rather than conservative ideals
a. I and II only
b. I, II, and III
c. I and IV
d. IV only
e. all of the above

Questions 90–97 are based on the following passage.

In this passage, the author discusses the problem of maintaining privacy in our
high­tech society.
(1) A recent New York Times “House and Home” article featured the story
of a man who lives in a glass house. Every wall in his home is trans­
parent; he has no walls to hide behind, not even in the bathroom. Of

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course, he lives in an isolated area, so he doesn’t exactly have neigh­

(5) bors peering in and watching his every move. But he has chosen to live
without any physical privacy in a home that allows every action to be
seen. He has created his own panopticon of sorts, a place in which
everything is in full view of others.
The term panopticon was coined by Jeremy Bentham in the late
(10) eighteenth century when he was describing an idea for how prisons
should be designed. The prisoners’ cells would be placed in a circle
with a guard tower in the middle. All walls facing the center of the cir­
cle would be glass. In that way, every prisoner’s cell would be in full
view of the guards. The prisoners could do nothing unobserved, but
(15) the prisoners would not be able to see the guard tower. They would
know they were being watched—or rather, they would know that they
could be being watched—but because they could not see the observer,
they would never know when the guard was actually monitoring their
actions.
(20) It is common knowledge that people behave differently when they
know they are being watched. We act differently when we know some­
one is looking; we act differently when we think someone else might
be looking. In these situations, we are less likely to be ourselves;
instead, we will act the way we think we should act when we are being
(25) observed by others.
In our wired society, many talk of the panopticon as a metaphor for
the future. But in many ways, the panopticon is already here. Surveil­
lance cameras are everywhere, and we often don’t even know our
actions are being recorded. In fact, the surveillance camera industry is
(30) enormous, and these cameras keep getting smaller and smaller to
make surveillance easier and more ubiquitous. In addition, we leave a
record of everything we do online; our cyber­whereabouts can be
tracked and that information used for various purposes. Every time we
use a credit card, make a major purchase, answer a survey, apply for a
(35) loan, or join a mailing list, our actions are observed and recorded. And
most of us have no idea just how much information about us has been
recorded and how much data is available to various sources. The scale
of information gathering and the scale of exchange have both
expanded so rapidly in the last decade that there are now millions of
(40) electronic profiles of individuals existing in cyberspace, profiles that
are bought and sold, traded, and often used for important decisions,
such as whether or not to grant someone a loan. However, that infor­
mation is essentially beyond our control. We can do little to stop the
information gathering and exchange and can only hope to be able to
(45) control the damage if something goes wrong.

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Something went wrong recently for me. Someone obtained my

Social Security number, address, work number and address, and a few
other vital pieces of data. That person then applied for a credit account
in my name. The application was approved, and I soon received a bill
(50) for nearly $5,000 worth of computer­related purchases.
Fraud, of course, is a different issue, but this kind of fraud couldn’t
happen—or at least, couldn’t happen with such ease and frequency—
in a world of paper­based records. With so much information floating
about in cyberspace, and so much technology that can record and
(55) observe, our privacy has been deeply compromised.
I find it truly amazing that someone would want to live in a trans­
parent house at any time, but especially in an age when individual pri­
vacy is becoming increasingly difficult to maintain and defend (against
those who argue that information must be gathered for the social
(60) good). Or perhaps this man’s house is an attempt to call our attention
to the fact that the panopticon is already here, and that we are all just
as exposed as he is.

90. According to the passage, a panopticon is

a. a prison cell.
b. a place in which everything can be seen by others.
c. a tower that provides a panoramic view.
d. a house that is transparent.
e. a place in which surveillance cameras and other monitoring
equipment are in use.

91. The description of how the panopticon would work in a prison

(lines 10–19) implies that the panopticon
a. can be an effective tool for social control.
b. should be used regularly in public places.
c. is not applicable outside of the prison dynamic.
d. is an effective tool for sharing information.
c. will redefine privacy for the twenty­first century.

92. In lines 26–36, the author suggests that the panopticon is a

metaphor for our society because
a. our privacy is transparent.
b. we are all prisoners in our own homes.
c. our actions are constantly observed and recorded.
d. we are always afraid that someone might be watching us.
e. there is rampant exchange of information in cyberspace.

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93. According to the passage, a key difference between the prison

panopticon and the modern technological panopticon is that
a. the prisoners can see their observers, but we can’t.
b. today’s prisons are too crowded for the panopticon to work.
c. prisoners are less informed about privacy issues than technology
users.
d. the prisoners are aware that they may be being watched, but we
often don’t even know we are being monitored.
e. prisoners are more protected in their panopticon than we are in
ours.

94. The passage suggests that all of the following contribute to the
erosion of privacy EXCEPT
a. increased use of credit cards for purchases.
b. buying and selling of electronic profiles.
c. increasingly discreet surveillance equipment.
d. lack of controls over information exchange.
e. easy access to electronic information in cyberspace.

95. The author describes a personal experience with identity theft in

order to
a. show how prevalent identity theft is.
b. show how angry he is about having his privacy invaded.
c. show an example of how private information can be taken and
misused.
d. demonstrate a flaw in the panopticon.
e. demonstrate the vast scale of information exchange.

96. The word compromised in line 55 means

a. conceded.
b. agreed.
c. dishonored.
d. negotiated.
e. jeopardized.

97. Based on the passage, it can be inferred that the author would
support which of the following?
a. widespread construction of glass houses
b. stricter sentencing for perpetrators of fraud
c. greater flexibility in loan approval criteria
d. stricter regulations for information gathering and exchange
e. modeling prisons after Bentham’s panopticon

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Questions 98–105 are based on the following passage.

The following passage tells of the mythological Greek god Prometheus.

(1) Without a doubt, one of the most interesting mythological characters
is the Greek god Prometheus. A complex character with an undying
love for the human beings he created, Prometheus embodies a rich
combination of often contradictory characteristics, including loyalty
(5) and defiance, trickery and trustworthiness. He shows resilience and
resolve in his actions yet weakness in his fondness for humankind.
To reward Prometheus (whose name means “forethought”) and his
brother Epimetheus (“afterthought”) for helping him defeat the
Titans, Zeus, the great ruler of Olympian gods, gave the brothers the
(10) task of creating mortals to populate the land around Mount Olympus.
Prometheus asked Epimetheus to give the creatures their various char­
acteristics, such as cunning, swiftness, and flight. By the time he got
to man, however, there was nothing left to give. So Prometheus
decided to make man in his image: He stood man upright like the gods
(15) and became the benefactor and protector of mankind.
Though Prometheus was particularly fond of his creation, Zeus
didn’t care for mankind and didn’t want men to have the divine gift of
knowledge. But Prometheus took pity on mortal men and gave them
knowledge of the arts and sciences, including the healing arts and agri­
(20) culture.
Always seeking the best for his creation, one day Prometheus con­
spired to trick Zeus to give the best meat of an ox to men instead of
Zeus. He cut up the ox and hid the bones in layers of fat; then he hid
the meat and innards inside the hide. When Prometheus presented the
(25) piles to Zeus, Zeus chose the pile that looked like fat and meat. He was
enraged to find that it was nothing but bones.
To punish Prometheus for his deceit and his fondness for humans,
Zeus forbade men fire—a symbol of creative power, life force, and
divine knowledge. But Prometheus would not let his children be
(30) denied this greatest of gifts. He took a hollow reed, stole fire from
Mount Olympus, and gave it to man. With this divine power, creativ­
ity, ingenuity, and culture flourished in the land of mortals.
Again Zeus punished man for Prometheus’s transgression, this time
by sending the first woman, Pandora, to Earth. Pandora brought with
(35) her a “gift” from Zeus: a jar filled with evils of every kind. Prometheus
knew Zeus to be vengeful and warned Epimetheus not to accept any
gifts from Zeus, but Epimetheus was too taken with Pandora’s beauty
and allowed her to stay. Eventually Pandora opened the jar she’d been
forbidden to open, releasing all manner of evils, including Treachery,

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(40) Sorrow, Villainy, Misfortune, and Plague. At the bottom of the jar was
Hope, but Pandora closed the lid before Hope could escape.
Prometheus drew Zeus’s greatest wrath when he refused to tell Zeus
which of Zeus’s sons would kill him and take over the throne. Believ­
ing he could torture Prometheus into revealing the secret, Zeus bound
(45) Prometheus to a rock where every day an eagle would come to tear at
his flesh and eat his liver, which would regenerate each night. But
Prometheus refused to reveal his knowledge of the future to Zeus and
maintained his silence. Eventually, Prometheus was released by Her­
acles (also known as Hercules), the last mortal son of Zeus and the
(50) strongest of all mortals. Soon afterwards, Prometheus received
immortality from a dying centaur, to take his place forever among the
great gods of Olympus.

98. The main idea of the first paragraph (lines 1–6) is that Prometheus
a. is disrespectful of authority.
b. is the mythological creator of humans.
c. has many admirable characteristics.
d. should not have been so fond of humans.
e. is a fascinating character because of his complexity.

99. The author’s primary purpose in this passage is to

a. demonstrate the vengeful nature of Zeus.
b. show how much Prometheus cared for humans.
c. create in readers an interest in mythology.
d. relate the story of Prometheus.
e. prove that Prometheus, not Zeus, was the creator of man.

100. Based on this passage, it can be inferred that Zeus disliked humans
because
a. Prometheus spent too much time with them.
b. Prometheus cared for humans more than he did for Zeus.
c. humans could not be trusted.
d. humans did not respect Zeus.
e. he did not create them.

101. Zeus becomes angry at Prometheus for all of the following EXCEPT
a. creating man.
b. giving man fire.
c. being excessively fond of humans.
d. refusing to reveal which of his sons would kill him.
e. tricking him into taking the undesirable part of an ox.

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102. Based on the passage, the relationship between Prometheus and

humans can best be described as that of
a. parent and child.
b. close friends.
c. master and servant.
d. bitter enemies.
e. reluctant allies.

103. The word transgression as used in line 33 means

a. villainy.
b. trespass.
c. irregularity.
d. error.
e. disobedience.

104. The fact that Zeus included Hope in Pandora’s jar (lines 38–41)
suggests that
a. Zeus really did love humans as much as Prometheus did.
b. while Zeus was a vengeful god, he did not wish humans to live
in utter despair.
c. Zeus was just playing a trick on humans.
d. Zeus was trying to make amends with Prometheus.
e. Zeus wanted to drive Prometheus away from humans.

105. The content and style of this passage suggest that the intended
audience
a. are experts on Greek mythology.
b. are religious officials.
c. is a general lay audience.
d. are family members and friends.
e. is a scholarly review board.

Questions 106–114 are based on the following passage.

The following passage describes an influential group of nineteenth­century

painters.
(1) When one thinks of student­led rebellions and the changes they can
create, one typically thinks of the struggles of the twentieth century,
such as the Civil Rights movement or anti­war protests of the sixties.
But there have been less dramatic, though no less passionate, rebel­
(5) lions led by young activists in previous centuries—rebellions that had

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lasting impact on the world around us. One such example is the Pre­
Raphaelite Brotherhood.
In the mid­1800s, the art world in England was rattled by the ini­
tials PRB. The PRB (or Pre­Raphaelite Brotherhood) was founded by
(10) William Holman Hunt, John Everett Millais, and Dante Gabriel Ros­
setti. These three burgeoning artists (the oldest of whom was 21) and
their disdain for the artistic conventions of the time would have a dra­
matic influence on the art world for generations to come.
The PRB was formed in response to the brotherhood’s belief that
(15) the current popular art being produced in England was lacking in
meaning and aesthetic honesty. During the era leading up to the PRB,
the Royal Academy dominated British art. The Royal Academy advo­
cated a style that was typically staid and relied heavily upon the use of
dark amber and brown tones to depict overly idealized landscapes,
(20) carefully arranged family portraits and still lifes, and overly dramatic
nature scenes such as a boat caught in stormy seas. By contrast, the
PRB believed that art should present subjects that, by their very
nature, had greater meaning and more accurately depicted reality. The
PRB was committed to bringing greater integrity to art and even went
(25) so far as to publish The Germ, a journal that extolled the virtues of the
PRB’s aesthetic principles.
To develop subjects with greater meaning, the PRB initially turned
to ancient myths and stories from the Bible. Many of the PRB’s bib­
lically themed paintings portrayed the religious figures as regular peo­
(30) ple. This departure from the convention of the time is notable in John
Everett Millais’s Christ in the Home of his Parents. In this painting, Jesus
is portrayed as a young boy in his father’s carpentry shop. Everyone in
the painting, including Christ himself, looks like a common person of
that time period, complete with dirty feet and hands. This realism—
(35) especially as it related to the Biblical figures—was not well received by
many in the art world at the time. Later works done by fellow PRB
members, and those inspired by them, utilized themes from poetry, lit­
erature, and medieval tales, often with the aim of highlighting the
societal and moral challenges of the time.
(40) With the goal of bringing greater honesty to their work, the PRB
ignored the convention of painting an imagined or remembered land­
scape or background. Instead, PRB members would hunt (sometimes
for weeks) for locations to incorporate into their paintings and then
paint them in exacting detail.
(45) One of the most distinctive aspects of PRB works—both in contrast
to the works produced during the early nineteenth century and with
the art of today—is their dramatic use of color. By committing them­

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selves to the accurate depiction of nature, the PRB brought a freshness

and drama to its work through the copious use of color. Further
(50) enhancing their work was a technique they used which involved apply­
ing the colored paint on top of wet white paint previously applied to
their canvasses. The effect was to make the colors even brighter and
more dramatic. Even today, more than 150 years later, PRB paintings
have a luminescence beyond those of other works from the same time
(55) period. It is believed that their paintings have this quality today
because the white layer underneath the colored paint continues to add
brightness and life to the painting.
Originally founded by three upstart young men, the PRB had a
tremendous influence on an entire generation of artists. William Mor­
(60) ris, Ford Maddox Brown, and Edward Burne­Jones are just a few of
the significant artists of the time whose work was dramatically influ­
enced by the PRB.

106. The word upstart in line 58 means

a. well­regarded.
b. conceited.
c. beginning from an advanced position.
d. suddenly raised to a high position.
e. receiving numerous honors.

107. In the opening paragraph (lines 1–7), the author characterizes the
PRB as all of the following EXCEPT
a. young.
b. revolutionary.
c. rebellious.
d. anti­war.
e. passionate.

108. The word burgeoning in line 11 means

a. bursting.
b. developing.
c. flourishing.
d. expanding.
e. prospering.

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109. The PRB believed artists should do all of the following EXCEPT
a. paint meaningful subjects.
b. paint existing rather than imagined landscapes.
c. use vibrant colors.
d. choose subjects that address social issues.
e. portray people and nature in an idealized manner.

110. According to the passage, the art world

a. disliked the PRB’s emphasis on realism.
b. disdained the PRB’s choice of subject matter.
c. appreciated the PRB’s attention to detail.
d. embraced the PRB’s style, especially their use of color.
e. was offended by the PRB’s attempts to change the Royal
Academy’s style.

111. The PRB’s rebellion was rooted in

a. a fascination with religious and mythological subjects.
b. similar artistic rebellions in Europe.
c. a belief that their peers’ work lacked integrity.
d. a distrust of realistic landscapes and poetic themes.
e. a conflict over the use of color in painting.

112. According to the author, the most distinguishing feature of PRB

works is their
a. surrealism.
b. contrast to Royal Academy art.
c. everyday subject matter.
d. stoicism.
e. vibrant colors.

113. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to

a. describe the lives of the founders of the PRB.
b. describe the artistic principles of the PRB.
c. compare and contrast revolutions in art.
d. describe the controversy created by the PRB.
e. describe how the PRB influenced future artists.

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114. It can be inferred that members of the PRB

a. were more socially conscious than members of the Royal
Academy.
b. were more educated than the members of the Royal Academy.
c. were more popular than members of the Royal Academy.
d. were bitter about being excluded from the Royal Academy.
e. had a great deal of influence within the Royal Academy.

Questions 115–123 are based on the following passage.

In the following passage, the author tells of public art and its functions.
(1) In Manhattan’s Eighth Avenue/Fourteenth Street subway station, a
grinning bronze alligator with human hands pops out of a manhole
cover to grab a bronze “baby” whose head is the shape of a moneybag.
In the Bronx General Post Office, a giant 13­panel painting called
(5) Resources of America celebrates the hard work and industrialism of
America in the first half of the twentieth century. And in Brooklyn’s
MetroTech Center just over the Brooklyn Bridge, several installations
of art are on view at any given time—from an iron lasso resembling a
giant charm bracelet to a series of wagons that play recordings of great
(10) American poems to a life­sized Seeing Eye® dog that looks so real
people are constantly stopping to pet it.
There exists in every city a symbiotic relationship between the city
and its art. When we hear the term art, we tend to think of private
art—the kind displayed in private spaces such as museums, concert
(15) halls, and galleries. But there is a growing interest in, and respect for,
public art: the kind of art created for and displayed in public spaces
such as parks, building lobbies, and sidewalks.
Although all art is inherently public—created in order to convey an
idea or emotion to others—“public art,” as opposed to art that is
(20) sequestered in museums and galleries, is art specifically designed for
a public arena where the art will be encountered by people in their
normal day­to­day activities. Public art can be purely ornamental or
highly functional; it can be as subtle as a decorative doorknob or as
conspicuous as the Chicago Picasso. It is also an essential element of
(25) effective urban design.
The more obvious forms of public art include monuments, sculp­
tures, fountains, murals, and gardens. But public art also takes the
form of ornamental benches or streetlights, decorative manhole cov­
ers, and mosaics on trash bins. Many city dwellers would be surprised
(30) to discover just how much public art is really around them and how

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much art they have passed by without noticing, and how much impact
public art has on their day­to­day lives.
Public art fulfills several functions essential to the health of a city
and its citizens. It educates about history and culture—of the artist, the
(35) neighborhood, the city, the nation. Public art is also a “place­making
device” that instantly creates memorable, experiential landmarks, fash­
ioning a unique identity for a public place, personalizing it and giving
it a specific character. It stimulates the public, challenging viewers to
interpret the art and arousing their emotions, and it promotes com­
(40) munity by stimulating interaction among viewers. In serving these
multiple and important functions, public art beautifies the area and
regenerates both the place and the viewer.
One question often debated in public art forums is whether public
art should be created with or by the public rather than for the public.
(45) Increasingly, cities and artists are recognizing the importance of creat­
ing works with meaning for the intended audience, and this generally
requires direct input from the community or from an artist entrenched
in that community. At the same time, however, art created for the com­
munity by an “outsider” often adds fresh perspective. Thus, cities and
(50) their citizens are best served by a combination of public art created by
members of the community, art created with input from members of
the community, and art created by others for the community.

115. The primary purpose of the opening paragraph is to

a. show how entertaining public art can be.
b. introduce readers to the idea of public art.
c. define public art.
d. get readers to pay more attention to public art.
e. show the prevalence and diversity of public art.

116. The word inherently in line 18 most nearly means

a. essentially.
b. complicated.
c. wealthy.
d. snobby.
e. mysteriously.

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117. According to lines 12–25, public art is differentiated from private

art mainly by
a. the kind of ideas or emotions it aims to convey to its audience.
b. its accessibility.
c. its perceived value.
d. its importance to the city.
e. the recognition that artists receive for their work.

118. The use of the word sequestered in line 20 suggests that the author
feels
a. private art is better than public art.
b. private art is too isolated from the public.
c. the admission fees for public art arenas prevent many people
from experiencing the art.
d. private art is more difficult to understand than public art.
e. private art is often controversial in nature.

119. According to lines 33–42, public art serves all of the following
functions EXCEPT
a. beautification.
b. creation of landmarks.
c. the fostering of community.
d. the promotion of good citizenship.
e. education.

120. Which sentence best sums up the main idea of the passage?
a. Public art serves several important functions in the city.
b. Public art is often in direct competition with private art.
c. Public art should be created both by and for members of the
community.
d. In general, public art is more interesting than private art.
e. Few people are aware of how much public art is around them.

121. The author’s goals in this passage include all of the following
EXCEPT
a. to make readers more aware of the public art works.
b. to explain the difference between public art and private art.
c. to explain how public art impacts the city.
d. to inspire readers to become public artists.
e. to argue that public art should be created by artists from both
inside and outside the community.

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122. Which of the following does the author NOT provide in this
passage?
a. an explanation of how the city affects art
b. specific examples of urban art
c. a reason why outsiders should create public art
d. a clear distinction between public and private art
e. an explanation of how public art regenerates the community

123. Given the author’s main purpose, which of the following would
most strengthen the passage?
a. a more detailed discussion of the differences between public and
private art
b. specific examples of art that fulfills each of the functions dis­
cussed in paragraph 5 (lines 33–42)
c. interviews with public artists about how public art should be
created
d. a specific example of public art created by a community mem­
ber versus one created by an outsider to expand paragraph 6
(lines 43–52)
e. a brief lesson in how to interpret art

Use the following to answer questions 124 through 127.

(1) The English language premiere of Samuel Beckett’s play Waiting for
Godot took place in London in August 1955. Godot is an avant­garde
play with only five characters (not including Mr. Godot, who never
arrives) and a minimal setting: one rock and one bare tree. The play
(5) has two acts; the second act repeats what little action occurs in the first
with few changes: the tree, for instance, acquires one leaf. In a state­
ment that was to become famous, the critic Vivian Mercer has
described Godot as “a play in which nothing happens twice.” Opening
night, critics and playgoers greeted the play with bafflement and deri­
(10) sion. The line “Nothing happens, nobody comes, nobody goes. It’s
awful,” was met by a loud rejoinder of “Hear! Hear!” from an audience
member. __________________________________. However, Harold
Hobson’s review in The Sunday Times managed to recognize the play
for what history has proven it to be, a revolutionary moment in the­
(15) ater.

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124. Judging from the information provided in the paragraph, which of

the following statements is accurate?
a. The 1955 production of Waiting for Godot was the play’s first
performance.
b. Waiting for Godot was written by Peter Hall.
c. The sets and characters in Waiting for Godot were typical of
London stage productions in the 1950s.
d. Waiting for Godot was not first performed in English.
e. Waiting for Godot is the most successful play in the English
language.

125. Which sentence, if inserted in the blank space, would make the
best sense in the context of the passage?
a. The director, Peter Hall, had to beg the theater management
not to close the play immediately but to wait for the Sunday
reviews.
b. Despite the audience reaction, the cast and director believed in
the play.
c. It looked as if Waiting for Godot was beginning a long run as the
most controversial play of London’s 1955 season.
d. Waiting for Godot was in danger of closing the first week of its
run and of becoming nothing more than a footnote in the
annals of the English stage.
e. Waiting for Godot quickly became a forgotten and unremarkable
dramatic footnote.

126. Which of the following provides the best definition of the term
“avant­garde” as the author intends it in the passage?
a. innovative
b. unintelligible
c. foreign
d. high­brow
e. expected

127. Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author of
the passage toward the play Waiting for Godot?
a. It was a curiosity in theater history.
b. It is the most important play of the 20th century.
c. It is too repetitious.
d. It represents a turning point in stage history.
e. It was a trivial event in theater history.

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Use the following to answer questions 128 through 132.

William Shakespeare

(1) For a man who has been called the greatest writer in the English lan­
guage, astonishingly little is known about William Shakespeare. We
do know that from about 1590 to 1613, Shakespeare wrote thirty­six
plays. These include the great tragedies, such as Hamlet, Macbeth, and
(5) Romeo and Juliet. They also include the comedies, such as A Midsum­
mer Night’s Dream. He also wrote histories, such as Henry V. Among
his later plays are the romances, including The Tempest, The Winter’s
Tale, and Cymbeline. We also know that Shakespeare was an actor and
a businessman. He was part owner of The Chamberlain’s Men, a
(10) group of actors who performed at the Globe Theater in London.
Shakespeare was born in April, 1564, in Stratford­upon­Avon, War­
wickshire, about one hundred miles northwest of London. According
to the records of Stratford’s Holy Trinity Church, he was baptized on
April 26. As with most sixteenth­century births, the actual day is not
(15) recorded. William was the family’s third child and the first son.
Shakespeare’s father John made leather gloves and when Shake­
speare was a child, his business prospered. He did so well, in fact, that
he was considered a “gentleman,” a title of respect in those days.
There is no record that Shakespeare attended school, but as the son
(20) of a successful merchant, he would have been allowed free tuition at
the local grammar school. Thus, we can take for granted that he
received an education. A great deal was demanded from students in
Shakespeare’s day. Grammar school began at dawn and continued for
most of the day, six days a week. After they learned their alphabet and
(25) Latin, students read the works of challenging Latin writers, including
Virgil, Ovid, Horace, and Seneca. No one knows how long Shake­
speare studied at the Stratford Grammar School. It seems likely that
he was apprenticed to his father’s business in the usual way, perhaps
some time around 1577 when John Shakespeare’s fortunes took a turn
(30) for the worse.
Because William did not go to a university, he would not have been
considered an educated man of the same rank as the writer Ben Jon­
son, who, at the time, was more famous than Shakespeare. Jonson was
quite contemptuous of what he perceived as Shakespeare’s educational
(35) deficiencies: “He [Shakespeare] has small Latin and less Greek,” he
sniffed. By our modern standards, of course, Shakespeare was very
well­educated. Jonson was probably a little jealous because so many
people flocked to see Shakespeare’s plays!

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(40 On November 28, 1582, Shakespeare married Ann Hathaway of his

hometown of Stratford. The couple subsequently had three children,
including a set of twins they named Hamnet and Judith.
For a period of about ten years between his marriage and the
(45) appearance of his first play, little is known about Shakespeare’s life.
According to the most frequently told story, Shakespeare was forced
to flee Stratford to escape arrest for poaching deer on the lands of Sir
Thomas Lucy. At various times, scholars, writers, and Shakespeare afi­
cionados have claimed that during the so­called “Lost Years,” Shake­
(50) speare was a gardener, soldier, and moneylender.
The first written proof of Shakespeare’s rise to popularity in the
London theater appeared in 1592. This is when Robert Greene, a lit­
tle known Elizabethan playwright, insulted Shakespeare by calling him
“an upstart Crow.” Greene said he thought Shakespeare was just an
(55) ambitious, no­talent upstart who covered up his lack of skill with bom­
bastic writing. This insult is important because it proves that Shake­
speare had become successful enough to spark another playwright’s
envy.
English drama came of age during the reign of Elizabeth I, devel­
(60 oping into a sophisticated and very popular art form. From
1594–1599, Shakespeare produced a steady stream of plays of the
highest quality. At the same time, he continued as an actor and man­
ager in the Lord Chamberlain’s Men, blessed with a stable work envi­
ronment in the all­too­unstable world of the theater. The
(65) Chamberlain’s Men performed often. From 1594–1599, they had
become the most popular acting company in London. It appears that
Shakespeare did a great deal of writing as well as acting during this
time. As a result, he prospered financially and created a comfortable
life and a solid estate. In 1599, he became part owner in the most pres­
(70) tigious public theater in London, the Globe.
Shakespeare died on April 23, 1616. He was buried in the space
above the altar in Holy Trinity Church, two days later. No one knows
the cause of Shakespeare’s death. Various sources list more than twenty
possible causes of death. These include an upset stomach, Bright’s dis­
(75) ease, trauma over his daughter Judith’s marriage, and writer’s cramp.

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128. Which of the following sentences expresses an opinion?

a. From about 1590 to 1613, Shakespeare wrote thirty­six plays.
b. Shakespeare is the greatest writer in the English language.
c. Hamlet, Macbeth, and Romeo and Juliet are classified as tragedies.
d. Shakespeare was part owner of The Chamberlain’s Men.
e. Shakespeare was not born or raised in London.

129. From the description of grammar school in Shakespeare’s day, you

can infer that
a. the emphasis was primarily on writing and languages.
b. little was known about math or science at that time.
c. grammar school then was the same as our high school now.
d. girls as well as boys were educated in grammar schools.
e. most children from wealthy families got to skip going to school.

130. Readers can conclude that little is known about Shakespeare’s life
because
a. no one saved documents during that time.
b. almost no documents were created in the 1600s.
c. he deliberately kept the facts of his life a secret.
d. few documents or descriptions of his life survive.
e. his personal life was too mundane to remember.

131. How is the information in this article organized?

a. order of importance
b. chronological order
c. spatial order
d. specific to general
e. no specific order

132. What fact BEST proves that Shakespeare had many talents?
a. “The first . . . evidence of Shakespeare’s rise to prominence in
the London theater appeared in 1592.”
b. “English drama came of age during the reign of Elizabeth I,
developing into a . . . very popular art form.”
c. “In 1599, he became part owner in the most prestigious public
theater in London, the Globe.”
d. “It appears that Shakespeare did a great deal of writing as well
as acting during this time.”
e. From 1594–1599, they had become the most popular acting
company in London.

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Answers

69. c. The description of the winding paths, shifting landscape and

sections that spill into one another support the assertion that the
park lacks a center.
70. e. Line 8 states that Olmsted wanted to create a democratic play­
ground, so he designed the park to have many centers that would
allow interaction among the various members of society (lines 10–11).
71. b. Line 6 states that the park’s design was innovative, suggesting it
was very different from other park designs.
72. a. Olmsted’s goal of creating a democratic park with many cen­
ters that would allow interaction among everyone without giv­
ing preference to one group or class (line 11) shows his philosophy
of inclusion.
73. b. Lines 3–4 state that the goods pertaining to the soul are called
goods in the highest and fullest sense.
74. d. In line 5 Aristotle notes that the definition of good corresponds
with the current opinion about the nature of the soul.
75. a. In the second paragraph, Aristotle states that we have all but
defined happiness as a kind of good life and well­being. Thus, the
definitions of happiness and goodness are intertwined; living a
good life will bring happiness.
76. c. In the third paragraph, Aristotle lists several different ways that
people define happiness to show that they all fit into the broad
definition of a kind of good life and well­being.
77. e. The opening sentence tells readers that making a list of pros and
cons is a technique of utilitarian reasoning. Thus, readers who
have used this technique will realize they are already familiar
with the basic principles of utilitarianism.
78. b. The second sentence explains the main argument of utilitarian­
ism—that we should use consequences to determine our course
of action. Thus posits is used here in the sense of asserts.
79. c. Lines 2–4 explain that according to utilitarianism, only the conse­
quences of our actions are morally relevant. Lines 5–8 explain
that an action is morally good if it creates good (happiness).
80. d. Lines 15–17 state the utilitarian principle of choosing actions
that create the greatest amount of good (happiness) for the greatest
number of people.

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81. a. Lines 17–22 explain two aspects of utilitarianism that complicate

the decision­making process: that it is not always clear what the
consequences of an action will be (whether they will bring short­
or long­term happiness and to what degree), and that sometimes
we must sacrifice the happiness of others.
82. b. In the first sentence, the author states that the subject­matter of
knowledge is intimately united (line 2), while in the second sen­
tence he adds the Sciences [ . . . ] have multiple bearings on one
another (lines 3–4). In line 6 he states that the sciences complete,
correct, balance each other.
83. d. In the first sentence, the author states that all branches of knowl­
edge are connected together (line 1). Then, in the second sentence,
he writes Hence it is that the Sciences, into which our knowledge may
be said to be cast (lines 3–4). Thus, Newman is using the term the
Sciences to refer to all branches of knowledge.
84. c. The word excise here is used in an unusual way to mean impose or
put upon. The main context clue is the word influence, which sug­
gests a giving to rather than a taking away.
85. a. Throughout the first paragraph, the author emphasizes the
interdependence of the branches of knowledge and warns
against focusing on one branch at the neglect of others. He
states that to give undue prominence to one [area of study] is to be
unjust to another; to neglect or supersede these is to divert those from
their proper object (lines 10–12). More importantly, he states that
this action would serve to unsettle the boundary lines between science
and science, to destroy the harmony which binds them together (lines
12–14). Thus the knowledge received would be skewed; it would
tel[l] a different tale when it is not viewed as a portion of a whole
(lines 16–17).
86. b. The first sentence of the second paragraph shows that its pur­
pose is to further develop the idea in the first by way of exam­
ple. Newman writes, Let me make use of an illustration (line
19)—an illustration that further demonstrates how one’s under­
standing of an idea changes in relation to the other ideas
around it.
87. a. Here apprehends is used to mean understands. In this paragraph,
the author describes what it is the university student would
learn from his or her professors.

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88. c. Throughout the passage, Newman argues that the branches of

knowledge are interrelated and should be studied in combina­
tion and in relation to each other. He argues against focusing on
one science or discipline, and he states that the university stu­
dent apprehends the great outlines of knowledge (line 50), suggesting
that he understands the broad issues in many subject areas.
89. b. At the beginning of the third paragraph, Newman states that it
is a great point then to enlarge the range of studies which a University
professes (lines 35–36) and that students would be best served by
living among those and under those who represent the whole circle
(lines 38–39) of knowledge. He argues that students will learn
from the atmosphere created by their professors who adjust
together the claims and relations of their respective subjects and who
learn to respect, to consult, to aid each other (lines 43–45).
90. b. The passage defines panopticon in lines 7–8: a place in which
everything is in full view of others. The second paragraph repeats
this definition in lines 13–14: every prisoner’s cell would be in full
view of the guards.
91. a. In the third paragraph, the author states that people behave differ­
ently when they know they are being watched (lines 20–21)—and
that when we are being watched, or even think we are being
watched, we will act the way we think we should act when we are
being observed by others (lines 24–25). Thus, the panopticon
would be a useful tool for social control. If prisoners know they
may be being watched by guards, it is logical to conclude that
they are less likely to commit any wrongdoings; thus, the
panopticon helps maintain order.
92. c. The author states in line 27 that the panopticon is already here and
then states that surveillance cameras are everywhere and we often
don’t even know our actions are being recorded (lines 27–29). The
rest of the paragraph provides additional examples of how our
cyber­whereabouts are observed and recorded.
93. d. In Bentham’s panopticon, the prisoners would know they were
being watched—or rather, they would know that they could be being
watched (lines 15–17). However, in our modern panopticon, the
author states, we often don’t even know our actions are being
recorded (lines 28–29).
94. a. Although information from our credit card purchases is often
recorded and exchanged, the author makes no mention of an
increased use of credit card purchases contributing to the ero­
sion of privacy. All of the other options, however, are listed in
the fourth and sixth paragraphs.

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95. c. The paragraph describing the author’s experience with identity

theft immediately follows the sentence: We can do little to stop the
information gathering and exchange and can only hope to be able to
control the damage if something goes wrong (lines 43–45) and serves
as an example of something going wrong—the misuse of private
information.
96. e. The example of identity theft makes it clear that in cyberspace,
with so much information floating about [ . . . ] and so much technol­
ogy that can record and observe (lines 53–55), our privacy is in
jeopardy—it is constantly at risk of being exploited.
97. d. Because of the author’s personal experience with identity theft,
and because the author finds it truly amazing that someone
would want to live in a transparent house (lines 56–57), it can be
inferred that the author greatly values privacy. The passage
also expresses great concern for the lack of control over infor­
mation in cyberspace (paragraph 4), stating that we can only
hope to be able to control the damage if something goes wrong (line
44–45). Thus the author would likely support stricter regula­
tions for information gathering and exchange, especially on
the Internet.
98. e. In the second sentence the author states that Prometheus is a
complex character, and in this and the following sentence, the
author lists several specific examples of the rich combination of
often­contradictory characteristics of Prometheus.
99. d. The passage relates the key episodes in the life of Prometheus.
This is the only idea broad enough and relevant enough to be
the main idea of the passage.
100. b. Prometheus’s actions show that he cared for humans more than
he cared for Zeus. He gave man knowledge of the arts and sci­
ences although Zeus wanted men to be kept in ignorance (lines
17–18); he tricked Zeus to give mankind the best meat from an
ox (line 22); and he stole fire from Mount Olympus to give
mortals the fire that Zeus had denied them (lines 30–31).
101. a. Zeus had given Prometheus and his brother the task of creating
humans as a reward for their help in defeating the Titans (lines
7–10).
102. a. Prometheus helped create mortals and then became their bene­
factor and protector (line 15). He is thus most like a parent to
humans.
103. e. The transgression refers back to the previous paragraph, which
describes how Prometheus disobeyed Zeus and stole fire from
Mount Olympus to give it to man.

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104. b. The inclusion of Hope in the jar suggests that Zeus had some
pity on mankind and that he wanted to send something to help
humans battle the numerous evils he unleashed upon them.
105. c. The style is neither formal nor informal but an easy­going in
between to make the material easily understood and interesting
to a lay audience. In addition, the passage does not take for
granted that the reader knows basic information about mythol­
ogy. For example, line 9 states that Zeus was the great ruler of
Olympian gods.
106. d. The members of the PRB were young artists who suddenly
found themselves leading a rebellion that had a dramatic influ­
ence on the art world for generations to come (lines 12–13). The
concluding paragraph repeats this idea, stating that these three
young men had a tremendous influence on an entire generation of
artists (lines 58–59). Because upstart precedes young, we can infer
that these men, like the leaders of other rebellions, were sud­
denly thrown into the spotlight, raised to a high (albeit contro­
versial) position in the art world.
107. d. The author cites the PRB as an example of a rebellion led by
young activists (line 5) and states that the PRB had a dramatic
influence on the art world because of their disdain for the artistic
conventions of the time (line 12). This suggests that their ideas
about art were revolutionary, creating a significant and lasting
change in the art world. That they were passionate about their
beliefs is clear from the fact that they felt strongly enough to
form an association and lead a rebellion.
108. b. Line 11 states that the oldest PRB member was only 21 years
old, so it is clear that the members were young and still devel­
oping their skills as artists.
109. e. In the third paragraph (lines 14–26), the author states that the
PRB believed their peers’ art lack[ed] in meaning and aesthetic
honesty because it often depicted overly idealized landscapes, care­
fully arranged family portraits and still lifes, and overly dramatic
nature scenes. In contrast, the PRB believed art should more accu­
rately depic[t] reality and portray people, places, and things realis­
tically instead of in an idealized way.
110. a. Lines 34–36 state that the PRB’s realism—especially as it related to
the Biblical figures—was not well received by many in the art world
at the time.

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111. c. Lines 14–16 state that the PRB was formed in response to the
brotherhood’s belief that the current popular art being produced in
England was lacking in meaning and aesthetic honesty. In addition,
line 24 states that the PRB was committed to bringing greater
integrity to art, suggesting that their peers’ work did not have
integrity.
112. e. The topic sentence of the sixth paragraph states that one of the
most distinctive aspects of PRB works—both in contrast to the works
produced during the early nineteenth century and with the art of
today—is their dramatic use of color (lines 45–47).
113. b. Throughout the passage, the author describes the principles of
the PRB—why the group was formed (paragraphs 2 and 3) and
how the group attempted to live up to its principles (paragraphs
4–6). There is little or no information offered about the other
answer choices.
114. a. In the third paragraph, the author states that the PRB rejected
the style and subjects of the Royal Academy, seeking instead
subjects that, by their very nature, had greater meaning and more
accurately depicted reality (lines 22–23). In paragraph 4, the
author describes how the PRB chose its subjects and aimed to
portray people more realistically, thus implying that the mem­
bers of the PRB had a greater awareness of social issues. In
addition, in lines 38–39, the author states that the PRB often
chose subjects that highlight[ed] the societal and moral challenges of
the time.
115. e. The three examples in the first paragraph show that there is a
wide range of styles of public art in New York City and that
public art can be found in a variety of places, including more
mundane locations such as the subway and post office.
116. a. Inherently is an adverb that describes the essential nature of
something. The context clue to answer this question is found
in the same sentence. All art is inherently public because it is cre­
ated in order to convey an idea or emotion to others. The author is
saying that an essential characteristic of art is that it is created
for others.
117. b. Line 16 defines public art as the kind of art created for and dis­
played in public spaces, and lines 20–22 state that public art is
specifically designed for a public arena where the art will be encoun­
tered by people in their normal day­to­day activities. This is in con­
trast to private art, which is less accessible because it is kept in
specific, non­public places such as museums and galleries.

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118. b. To sequester is to seclude or isolate. Thus, the use of this word

suggests that the author feels private art is too isolated, and cut
off from the public.
119. d. The seven functions are listed in the fifth paragraph: educating,
place making, stimulating the public, promoting community,
beautifying, and regenerating. While promoting good citizen­
ship may be a side benefit of public art, it is not discussed in the
passage.
120. a. After defining public art, the rest of the passage discusses the
functions of public art and its impact on the city.
121. d. The examples in the first paragraph and the list of different
kinds of public art (e.g., ornamental benches in line 28) will
make readers more aware of public art; paragraphs 2 and 3
explain the difference between public and private art; paragraph
5 explains how public art affects the community; and paragraph
6 discusses how public art should be created. A few readers may
be inspired to create public art after reading this passage, but
that is not one of its goals.
122. a. Although lines 12–13 states that there exists in every city a symbi­
otic relationship between the city and its art and paragraph 5
explains how public art affects the city, there is no discussion of
how the city affects art.
123. b. Because the main purpose is to show what public art is and how
public art affects the city, the passage would be best served by
an expanded discussion of how public art fulfills each of the
important functions in paragraph 5.
124. d. The first line of the passage describes the English language pre­
miere of the play, indicating it had previous performances in a
different language.
125. d. It is logical that a play would close after such a bad first night
reception, and this sentence also uses a metaphor about stage
history that is extended in the next sentence.
126. a. While the other choices are sometimes connotations of the
term avant­garde, the author’s meaning of innovative is sup­
ported by the final judgment of the passage on the play as
revolutionary.
127. d. Although the writer seems amused by the negative criticism of
the play, she does give the opinion that it was revolutionary, a
word which literally means a turning point—the authoritative
backing of history.

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128. b. This is a belief that cannot be proven with facts. Some people
might argue that Jonathan Swift or Samuel Johnson were far
better writers than Shakespeare.
129. a. The boys first studied the “alphabet and Latin,” progressing to
classic Latin writing.
130. d. You can conclude from the second paragraph that there is an
actual record of Shakespeare’s baptism. You can conclude from
the last paragraph that a record of his death survives. Putting
together this information, you can conclude that although a few
documents about his life do exist, not many have survived.
131. b. The information is arranged in time order, starting with Shake­
speare’s birth and progressing to his death.
132. d. This statement includes both of his primary talents—writing
and acting.

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Health and
3
Medicine

Questions 133–136 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is an excerpt from the National Institutes of Health that
describes the effects and potential consequences of sleep deprivation.
(1) Experts say that if you feel drowsy during the day, even during boring
activities, you haven’t had enough sleep. If you routinely fall asleep
within five minutes of lying down, you probably have severe sleep dep­
rivation, possibly even a sleep disorder. Microsleeps, or very brief
(5) episodes of sleep in an otherwise awake person, are another mark of
sleep deprivation. In many cases, people are not aware that they are
experiencing microsleeps. The widespread practice of “burning the
candle at both ends” in Western industrialized societies has created so
much sleep deprivation that what is really abnormal sleepiness is now
(10) almost the norm.
Many studies make it clear that sleep deprivation is dangerous.
Sleep­deprived people who are tested by using a driving simulator or
by performing a hand­eye coordination task perform as badly as or
worse than those who are intoxicated. Sleep deprivation also magni­
(15) fies alcohol’s effects on the body, so a fatigued person who drinks will
become much more impaired than someone who is well rested. Dri­
ver fatigue is responsible for an estimated 100,000 motor vehicle acci­
dents and 1,500 deaths each year, according to the National Highway

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Traffic Safety Administration. Since drowsiness is the brain’s last step

(20) before falling asleep, driving while drowsy can—and often does—lead
to disaster. Caffeine and other stimulants cannot overcome the effects
of severe sleep deprivation. The National Sleep Foundation says that
if you have trouble keeping your eyes focused, if you can’t stop yawn­
ing, or if you can’t remember driving the last few miles, you are prob­
(25) ably too drowsy to drive safely.

133. The passage suggests that falling asleep during a morning class
a. means that the topic does not interest you.
b. is a symptom of sleep deprivation.
c. indicates that you should drink a caffeinated beverage at
breakfast.
d. means that you have a sleep disorder.
e. requires a visit to the doctor.

134. The image of burning the candle at both ends (lines 7–8) most nearly
refers to
a. an unrelenting schedule that affords little rest.
b. an ardent desire to achieve.
c. the unavoidable conflagration that occurs when two forces
oppose each other.
d. a latent period before a conflict or collapse.
e. a state of extreme agitation.

135. In line 16, the term impaired most nearly means

a. sentient.
b. apprehensive.
c. disturbed.
d. blemished.
e. hampered.

136. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a. offer preventive measures for sleep deprivation.
b. explain why sleeplessness has become a common state in West­
ern cultures.
c. recommend the amount of sleep individuals need at different
ages.
d. alert readers to the signs and risks of not getting enough sleep.
e. discuss the effects of alcohol on a sleep­deprived person.

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Questions 137–140 refer to the following passage.

In the following passage, the author gives an account of the scientific

discoveries made by Antoni van Leeuwenhoek in the fifteenth century.

(1) The history of microbiology begins with a Dutch haberdasher named

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek, a man of no formal scientific education. In
the late 1600s, Leeuwenhoek, inspired by the magnifying lenses used
by drapers to examine cloth, assembled some of the first microscopes.
(5) He developed a technique for grinding and polishing tiny, convex
lenses, some of which could magnify an object up to 270 times. After
scraping some plaque from between his teeth and examining it under
a lens, Leeuwenhoek found tiny squirming creatures, which he called
“animalcules.” His observations, which he reported to the Royal Soci­
(10) ety of London, are among the first descriptions of living bacteria.
Leeuwenhoek discovered an entire universe invisible to the naked eye.
He found more animalcules—protozoa and bacteria—in samples of
pond water, rain water, and human saliva. He gave the first description
of red corpuscles, observed plant tissue, examined muscle, and inves­
(15) tigated the life cycle of insects.
Nearly two hundred years later, Leeuwenhoek’s discovery of
microbes aided French chemist and biologist Louis Pasteur to develop
his “germ theory of disease.” This concept suggested that disease derives
from tiny organisms attacking and weakening the body. The germ the­
(20) ory later helped doctors to fight infectious diseases including anthrax,
diphtheria, polio, smallpox, tetanus, and typhoid. Leeuwenhoek did not
foresee this legacy. In a 1716 letter, he described his contribution to sci­
ence this way: “My work, which I’ve done for a long time, was not pur­
sued in order to gain the praise I now enjoy, but chiefly from a craving
(25) after knowledge, which I notice resides in me more than in most other
men. And therewithal, whenever I found out anything remarkable, I
have thought it my duty to put down my discovery on paper, so that all
ingenious people might be informed thereof.”

137. According to the passage, Leeuwenhoek would be best described

as a
a. bored haberdasher who stumbled upon scientific discovery.
b. trained researcher with an interest in microbiology.
c. proficient hobbyist who made microscopic lenses for
entertainment.
d. inquisitive amateur who made pioneer studies of microbes.
e. talented scientist interested in finding a cure for disease.

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138. In line 3, inspired most nearly means

a. introduced.
b. invested.
c. influenced.
d. indulged.
e. inclined.

139. The quotation from Leeuwenhoek (lines 23–28) is used to

illustrate
a. the value he placed on sharing knowledge among scientists.
b. that scientific discoveries often go unrecognized.
c. that much important research is spurred by professional
ambition.
d. the serendipity of scientific progress.
e. the importance of Leeuwenhoek’s discoveries in fighting infec­
tious diseases.

140. The author’s attitude toward Leeuwenhoek’s contribution to

medicine is one of
a. ecstatic reverence.
b. genuine admiration.
c. tepid approval.
d. courteous opposition.
e. antagonistic incredulity.

Questions 141–145 are based on the following passage.

The following passage discusses the findings of several recent health surveys
investigating the physical activity level of American adolescents.
(1) Almost 50% of American teens are not vigorously active on a regular
basis, contributing to a trend of sluggishness among Americans of all
ages, according the U.S. Centers for Disease Control (CDC). Ado­
lescent female students are particularly inactive—29% are inactive
(5) compared with 15% of male students. Unfortunately, the sedentary
habits of young “couch potatoes” often continue into adulthood.
According to the Surgeon General’s Report on Physical Activity and
Health, Americans become increasingly less active with each year of
age. Inactivity can be a serious health risk factor, setting the stage
(10) for obesity and associated chronic illnesses like heart disease or dia­
betes. The benefits of exercise include building bone, muscle, and

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joints, controlling weight, and preventing the development of high

blood pressure.
Some studies suggest that physical activity may have other benefits
(15) as well. One CDC study found that high school students who take part
in team sports or are physically active outside of school are less likely
to engage in risky behaviors, like using drugs or smoking. Physical
activity does not need to be strenuous to be beneficial. The CDC rec­
ommends moderate, daily physical activity for people of all ages, such
(20) as brisk walking for 30 minutes or 15–20 minutes of more intense
exercise. A survey conducted by the National Association for Sport
and Physical Education questioned teens about their attitudes toward
exercise and about what it would take to get them moving. Teens
chose friends (56%) as their most likely motivators for becoming more
(25) active, followed by parents (18%) and professional athletes (11%).

141. The first paragraph (lines 1–13) of the passage serves all of the
following purposes EXCEPT to
a. provide statistical information to support the claim that
teenagers do not exercise enough.
b. list long­term health risks associated with lack of exercise.
c. express skepticism that teenagers can change their exercise
habits.
d. show a correlation between inactive teenagers and inactive
adults.
e. highlight some health benefits of exercise.

142. In line 5, sedentary most nearly means

a. slothful.
b. apathetic.
c. stationary.
d. stabilized.
e. inflexible.

143. Which of the following techniques is used in the last sentence of

the passage (lines 23–25)?
a. explanation of terms
b. comparison of different arguments
c. contrast of opposing views
d. generalized statement
e. illustration by example

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144. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a. refute an argument.
b. make a prediction.
c. praise an outcome.
d. promote a change.
e. justify a conclusion.

Questions 145–152 are based on the following passage.

The following passage discusses the inspiration and career of the first woman
to receive an M.D. degree from an American medical school in the nineteenth
century.
(1) Elizabeth Blackwell was the first woman to receive an M.D. degree
since the Renaissance, graduating from Geneva Medical College, in
New York state, in 1849. She supported women’s medical education
and helped many other women’s careers. By establishing the New York
(5) Infirmary in 1857, she offered a practical solution to one of the prob­
lems facing women who were rejected from internships elsewhere but
determined to expand their skills as physicians. She also published sev­
eral important books on the issue of women in medicine, including
Address on the Medical Education of Women in 1864 and Medicine as a
(10) Profession for Women in 1860.
Elizabeth Blackwell was born in Bristol, England in 1821, to Han­
nah Lane and Samuel Blackwell. Both for financial reasons and
because her father wanted to help abolish slavery, the family moved to
America when Elizabeth was eleven years old. Her father died in 1838.
(15) As adults, his children campaigned for women’s rights and supported
the anti­slavery movement. In her book Pioneer Work in Opening the
Medical Profession to Women, published in 1895, Dr. Blackwell wrote
that she was initially repelled by the idea of studying medicine. She
said she had “hated everything connected with the body, and could not
(20) bear the sight of a medical book . . . My favorite studies were history
and metaphysics, and the very thought of dwelling on the physical
structure of the body and its various ailments filled me with disgust.”
Instead she went into teaching, then considered more suitable for a
woman. She claimed that she turned to medicine after a close friend
(25) who was dying suggested she would have been spared her worst suf­
fering if her physician had been a woman.
Blackwell had no idea how to become a physician, so she consulted
with several physicians known by her family. They told her it was a
fine idea, but impossible; it was too expensive, and such education was

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(30) not available to women. Yet Blackwell reasoned that if the idea were
a good one, there must be some way to do it, and she was attracted by
the challenge. She convinced two physician friends to let her read
medicine with them for a year, and applied to all the medical schools
in New York and Philadelphia. She also applied to twelve more
(35) schools in the northeast states and was accepted by Geneva Medical
College in 1847. The faculty, assuming that the all­male student body
would never agree to a woman joining their ranks, allowed them to
vote on her admission. As a joke, they voted “yes,” and she gained
admittance, despite the reluctance of most students and faculty.
(40) Two years later, in 1849, Elizabeth Blackwell became the first
woman to receive an M.D. degree from an American medical school.
She worked in clinics in London and Paris for two years, and studied
midwifery at La Maternité where she contracted “purulent opthalmia”
from a young patient. When Blackwell lost sight in one eye, she
(45) returned to New York City in 1851, giving up her dream of becom­
ing a surgeon.
Dr. Elizabeth Blackwell established a practice in New York City, but
had few patients and few opportunities for intellectual exchange with
other physicians and “the means of increasing medical knowledge
(50) which dispensary practice affords.” She applied for a job as physician
at the women’s department of a large city dispensary, but was refused.
In 1853, with the help of friends, she opened her own dispensary in a
single rented room, seeing patients three afternoons a week. The dis­
pensary was incorporated in 1854 and moved to a small house she
(55) bought on 15th Street. Her sister, Dr. Emily Blackwell, joined her in
1856 and, together with Dr. Marie Zakrzewska, they opened the New
York Infirmary for Women and Children at 64 Bleecker Street in
1857. This institution and its medical college for women (opened
1867) provided training and experience for women doctors and med­
(60) ical care for the poor.
As her health declined, Blackwell gave up the practice of medicine
in the late 1870s, though she still campaigned for reform.

145. The passage is primarily concerned with

a. the inevitable breaking down of social barriers for women.
b. the effect of adversity in shaping a person’s life.
c. one woman’s determination to open the field of medicine to
females.
d. one woman’s desire to gain prestige.
e. the quality of healthcare available in the 1800s.

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146. The word practical (line 5) most nearly means

a. usable.
b. satisfactory.
c. systematic.
d. professional.
e. adept.

147. The author mentions Samuel Blackwell’s involvement in the anti­

slavery movement (lines 13–14) in order to
a. offer random biographical information about Elizabeth’s
upbringing.
b. suggest that her father’s beliefs greatly influenced Elizabeth.
c. imply a link between financial need and the abhorrence of slavery.
d. describe the political ferment that preceded the American Civil
War.
e. explain Elizabeth’s choice of medicine for a profession.

148. In line 18, the word repelled most nearly means

a. vanquished.
b. discouraged.
c. intimidated.
d. depressed.
e. sickened.

149. According to the passage, Blackwell chose to become a doctor

a. as a result of the encouragement of physicians known to her
family.
b. despite the fact that most considered her goal inappropriate and
unattainable.
c. in order to make healthcare more accessible to the poor.
d. because she hoped to overcome her revulsion of the body and
disease.
e. to fulfill a childhood dream of establishing a medical college for
women.

150. As described in lines 36–39, the actions of the student body of

Geneva Medical College suggest that they
a. admired Blackwell’s ambition.
b. respected the politics of the Blackwell family.
c. doubted Blackwell’s commitment to medicine.
d. feared the influence of Blackwell’s family connections.
e. made light of Blackwell’s goal.

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151. The passage implies that Blackwell’s attitude toward studying and
practicing medicine changed from
a. tenacious to wavering.
b. uninterested to resolute.
c. cynical to committed.
d. idealized to realistic.
e. theoretical to practical.

152. All of the following questions can be explicitly answered on the

basis of the passage EXCEPT
a. What barriers did Blackwell face in her pursuit to become a
physician?
b. What degree of success did women attain in the field of medi­
cine as a result of Blackwell?
c. What contributions did Blackwell make to women interested in
medicine as a profession?
d. What specific steps did Blackwell take to gain admittance to
medical school?
e. What did Blackwell claim was her inspiration for wanting to
become a doctor?

Questions 153–160 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is an excerpt from a recent introduction to the

momentous 1964 Report on Smoking and Health issued by the United States
Surgeon General. It discusses the inspiration behind the report and the report’s
effect on public attitudes toward smoking.

(1) No single issue has preoccupied the Surgeons General of the past four
decades more than smoking. The reports of the Surgeon General have
alerted the nation to the health risk of smoking, and have transformed
the issue from one of individual and consumer choice, to one of epi­
(5) demiology, public health, and risk for smokers and non­smokers alike.
Debate over the hazards and benefits of smoking has divided physi­
cians, scientists, governments, smokers, and non­smokers since
Tobacco nicotiana was first imported to Europe from its native soil in the
Americas in the sixteenth century. A dramatic increase in cigarette
(10) smoking in the United States in the twentieth century called forth
anti­smoking movements. Reformers, hygienists, and public health
officials argued that smoking brought about general malaise, physio­
logical malfunction, and a decline in mental and physical efficiency.

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Evidence of the ill effects of smoking accumulated during the 1930s,

(15) 1940s, and 1950s.
Epidemiologists used statistics and large­scale, long­term, case­
control surveys to link the increase in lung cancer mortality to smok­
ing. Pathologists and laboratory scientists confirmed the statistical
relationship of smoking to lung cancer as well as to other serious dis­
(20) eases, such as bronchitis, emphysema, and coronary heart disease.
Smoking, these studies suggested, and not air pollution, asbestos con­
tamination, or radioactive materials, was the chief cause of the epi­
demic rise of lung cancer in the twentieth century. On June 12, 1957,
Surgeon General Leroy E. Burney declared it the official position of
(25) the U.S. Public Health Service that the evidence pointed to a causal
relationship between smoking and lung cancer.
The impulse for an official report on smoking and health, however,
came from an alliance of prominent private health organizations. In
June 1961, the American Cancer Society, the American Heart Asso­
(30) ciation, the National Tuberculosis Association, and the American Pub­
lic Health Association addressed a letter to President John F. Kennedy,
in which they called for a national commission on smoking, dedicated
to “seeking a solution to this health problem that would interfere least
with the freedom of industry or the happiness of individuals.” The
(35) Kennedy administration responded the following year, after prompt­
ing from a widely circulated critical study on cigarette smoking by the
Royal College of Physicians of London. On June 7, 1962, recently
appointed Surgeon General Luther L. Terry announced that he would
convene a committee of experts to conduct a comprehensive review of
(40) the scientific literature on the smoking question. . . .
Meeting at the National Library of Medicine on the campus of the
National Institutes of Health in Bethesda, Maryland, from November
1962 through January 1964, the committee reviewed more than 7,000
scientific articles with the help of over 150 consultants. Terry issued
(45) the commission’s report on January 11, 1964, choosing a Saturday to
minimize the effect on the stock market and to maximize coverage in
the Sunday papers. As Terry remembered the event, two decades later,
the report “hit the country like a bombshell. It was front page news
and a lead story on every radio and television station in the United
(50) States and many abroad.”
The report highlighted the deleterious health consequences of
tobacco use. Smoking and Health: Report of the Advisory Committee to the
Surgeon General held cigarette smoking responsible for a 70% increase
in the mortality rate of smokers over non­smokers. The report esti­
(55) mated that average smokers had a nine­ to ten­fold risk of developing

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lung cancer compared to non­smokers: heavy smokers had at least a

twenty­fold risk. The risk rose with the duration of smoking and
diminished with the cessation of smoking. The report also named
smoking as the most important cause of chronic bronchitis and
(60) pointed to a correlation between smoking and emphysema, and smok­
ing and coronary heart disease. It noted that smoking during preg­
nancy reduced the average weight of newborns. On one issue the
committee hedged: nicotine addiction. It insisted that the “tobacco
habit should be characterized as an habituation rather than an addic­
(65) tion,” in part because the addictive properties of nicotine were not yet
fully understood, in part because of differences over the meaning of
addiction.
The 1964 report on smoking and health had an impact on public
attitudes and policy. A Gallup Survey conducted in 1958 found that
(70) only 44% of Americans believed smoking caused cancer, while 78%
believed so by 1968. In the course of a decade, it had become common
knowledge that smoking damaged health, and mounting evidence of
health risks gave Terry’s 1964 report public resonance. Yet, while the
report proclaimed that “cigarette smoking is a health hazard of suffi­
(75) cient importance in the United States to warrant appropriate remedial
action,” it remained silent on concrete remedies. That challenge fell
to politicians. In 1965, Congress required all cigarette packages dis­
tributed in the United States to carry a health warning, and since 1970
this warning is made in the name of the Surgeon General. In 1969,
(80) cigarette advertising on television and radio was banned, effective Sep­
tember 1970.

153. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a. show the mounting evidence of the deleterious health conse­
quences of smoking.
b. explain why the Kennedy administration called for a national
commission on smoking.
c. describe the government’s role in protecting public health.
d. show the significance of the 1964 Surgeon General’s report.
e. account for the emergence of anti­smoking movements in
twentieth­century United States.

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154. In line 1, preoccupied most nearly means

a. distressed.
b. beset.
c. absorbed.
d. inconvenienced.
e. fomented.

155. The first sentence of the second paragraph (lines 6–9) is intended
to express the
a. long­standing controversy about the effects of smoking.
b. current consensus of the medical community regarding
smoking.
c. government’s interest in improving public health.
d. ongoing colloquy between physicians, scientists, and
governments.
e. causal relationship between smoking and lung disease.

156. The author implies that the impulse (line 27) to create a
government report on smoking
a. was an overdue response to public demand.
b. would not have been pursued if John F. Kennedy was not
president.
c. came from within the U.S. Public Health Service.
d. would meet with significant opposition from smokers around
the country.
e. was the result of pressure from forces outside of the government.

157. The quotation by Surgeon General Luther L. Terry (lines 48–50)

is used to illustrate the
a. outrage of consumers wanting to protect their right to smoke.
b. disproportionate media coverage of the smoking report.
c. overreaction of a hysterical public.
d. explosive response to the revelation of smoking’s damaging
effects.
e. positive role government can play in people’s lives.

158. In line 63, hedged most nearly means

a. exaggerated.
b. evaded.
c. deceived.
d. speculated.
e. hindered.

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159. The statement that the 1964 Surgeon General’s report remained
silent on concrete remedies (line 76) implies that it
a. served primarily as a manifesto that declared the views of the
Surgeon General.
b. could have recommended banning cigarette advertising but it
did not.
c. was ignorant of possible remedial actions.
d. maintained its objectivity by abstaining from making policy
recommendations.
e. did not deem it necessary to recommend specific actions that
would confront the health problem of smoking.

160. In the last paragraph of the passage, the attitude of the author
toward the legacy of the 1964 Surgeon General’s report is one of
a. unqualified praise.
b. appreciation.
c. wonderment.
d. cynicism.
e. disillusionment.

Questions 161–169 are based on the following passages.

These two passages reflect two different views of the value of cosmetic
plastic surgery. Passage 1 is an account by a physician who has practiced
internal medicine (general medicine) for more than two decades and who has
encountered numerous patients inquiring about cosmetic plastic surgery
procedures. Passage 2 is written by a professional woman in her mid­forties
who has considered cosmetic plastic surgery for herself.

PASSAGE 1

(1) Elective and cosmetic plastic surgery is one of the fastest growing seg­
ments of healthcare, second only to geriatric care. As the “baby
boomers” (those born between 1945 and 1965) age, more Americans
are seeking cosmetic procedures that minimize the visible signs of
(5) aging. The demand for self­improvement has increased as the job
market has become more competitive and a high divorce rate spurs the
search for new personal relationships. Increased discretionary wealth
and a wider acceptance of cosmetic techniques have also contributed
to the spike in cosmetic surgery.
(10) In the 2000s, I was just beginning as an internist, working in a pri­
vate practice. Then in my late twenties, I felt pity for my patients who

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talked to me about a surgical fix for their wrinkles or other signs of

aging. I felt that if they had a developed sense of self­esteem, they
would not feel the need to surgically alter their appearance. I also felt
(15) a certain degree of envy for my cosmetic­surgeon colleagues, some of
whom worked across the hall. To my “green” eye, they looked like
slick salespeople reaping large financial rewards from others’ insecu­
rity and vanity. It was difficult for me to reconcile the fact that patients
were willing to fork over thousands of dollars for cosmetic fixes, while
(20) primary care physicians struggled to keep their practices financially
viable.
Since that time, my attitude has changed. Although cosmetic sur­
gery sometimes produces negative outcomes—the media often high­
lights surgery “disasters”—for the most part, the health risk for
(25) cosmetic procedures is low and patient satisfaction is high. Often, peo­
ple who have been hobbled by poor body image all of their lives, walk
away from cosmetic surgery with confidence and the motivation to
lead healthier lives. In addition, reconstructive surgery for burn and
accident victims or to those disfigured from disease restores self­
(30) esteem and wellbeing in a way that other therapies cannot. I believe
it is time for members of the medical community to examine the ben­
efits and results of cosmetic surgery without prejudice or jealousy.

PASSAGE 2

(1) Beauty is only skin deep, or so goes the old adage. However, in a cul­
ture increasingly fixated on youthfulness and saturated with media
images of “ideal”­looking men and women, cosmetic plastic surgery
seems like the norm instead of the exception. Over 6.6 million Amer­
(5) icans opted for cosmetic surgery in 2016, with women accounting for
85% of cosmetic­surgery patients, according to the American Society
of Plastic Surgeons. Once the province of older women, cosmetic sur­
gery is increasingly an option for 35­ to 50­year­olds, who make up
45% of cosmetic­surgery patients.
(10) Coming of age in the 1990s, I grew up believing in the spirit of
feminism, a ready warrior for equal rights for women in the home and
workplace. I believed that women should be valued for who they are
and what they do, and not for how they look. But as I approach my
mid­forties, I look in the mirror and wonder about the reflection I
(15) see. Although I adhere to a healthy lifestyle, eat well, exercise regu­
larly, and feel energetic, the reality is that I am beginning to look,
well, middle­aged.

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Because I am a successful professional, I have the means to afford

elective surgery. And like Pandora’s Box, once I opened the door to
(20) anti­aging surgical possibilities, it seems almost impossible to close it
again. In 2016, more than 1.1 million Americans had Botox injec­
tions—a procedure that erases wrinkles by paralyzing facial muscles.
I find myself asking: Why not me? Is it time to jump on the band­
wagon? In a competitive culture where looks count, is it almost
(25) impractical not to?
What stops me? Perhaps it is queasiness about the surgeon’s scalpel.
Risks accompany any kind of surgery. Perhaps I find the idea of para­
lyzing my facial muscles somewhat repellent and a betrayal of the
emotions I have experienced—the joys and losses of a lifetime—that
(30) are written in those “crow’s feet” and “worry lines.” Perhaps yet, it is
my earlier feminist fervor and idealism—a remnant of my youth that
I believe is worth preserving more than wrinkle­free skin.

161. The word adage (Passage 2, line 1) most nearly means

a. addition.
b. rumor.
c. saying.
d. era.
e. fib.

162. The argument of Passage 1 would be most effectively strengthened

by which of the following?
a. information about making plastic surgery more affordable
b. anecdotes about incompetent plastic surgeons
c. facts to support the author’s claim that health risks are low for
cosmetic procedures
d. a description of the author’s personal experience with patients
e. a description of the psychological benefits of improved body
image

163. In the second paragraph of Passage 1 (lines 10–21), how would the
author characterize the motivation of cosmetic plastic surgeons?
a. altruistic
b. professional
c. creative
d. thrilling
e. greedy

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164. Which audience is the author of Passage 1 most likely addressing?

a. burn or accident victims
b. women with poor body image
c. plastic surgeons
d. healthcare providers
e. “baby boomers”

165. In Passage 2, line 2 saturated most nearly means

a. animated.
b. decorated.
c. gratified.
d. permeated.
e. tainted.

166. The author of Passage 2 implies that feminists of the 1970s held
which of the following beliefs?
a. All women should have the right to safe, affordable cosmetic
surgery.
b. Looks should not be a factor in determining a person’s worth.
c. Cosmetic surgery is a beneficial tool in that it increases a
woman’s self­esteem.
d. To be fair, men should be judged by their looks, too.
e. Women should do whatever is necessary to compete in the job
market.

167. Which aspect of the cosmetic plastic surgery trend is emphasized

in Passage 1, but not in Passage 2?
a. professional envy among doctors
b. nonsurgical techniques like Botox injections
c. media’s role in promoting plastic surgery
d. surgical risks
e. cost of procedures

168. The two authors would most likely agree with which statement?
a. Cosmetic surgery takes away individuality.
b. Ideals of beauty are not culturally informed.
c. Plastic surgeons prey off of vulnerable patients.
d. American society is highly competitive.
e. The benefits of plastic surgery outweigh the risks.

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169. The approaches of the two passages to the topic are similar in that
they both use
a. first­person experiences.
b. second­person address to the reader.
c. references to other sources on the subject.
d. a summary of types of plastic surgery.
e. statistics on patient satisfaction.

Questions 170–179 are based on the following passage.

This passage describes the public’s growing interest in alternative medicine

practices in twenty­first century United States.

(1) Once people wore garlic around their necks to ward off disease. Today,
most Americans would scoff at the idea of wearing a necklace of garlic
cloves to enhance their wellbeing. However, you might find a number
of Americans willing to ingest capsules of pulverized garlic or other
(5) herbal supplements in the name of health.
Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM), which includes a
range of practices outside of conventional medicine such as herbs,
homeopathy, massage, yoga, and acupuncture, holds increasing
appeal for Americans. In fact, according to one estimate, 42% of
(10) Americans have used alternative therapies. A Harvard Medical School
survey found that young adults (those born between 1965 and 1979)
are the most likely to use alternative treatments, whereas people born
before 1945 are the least likely to use these therapies. Nonetheless, in
all age groups, the use of unconventional healthcare practices has
(15) steadily increased since the 1950s, and the trend is likely to continue.
CAM has become a big business as Americans dip into their wallets
to pay for alternative treatments. A recent American Medical Associ­
ation study estimated that the public spent $21.2 billion for alterna­
tive medicine therapies in that year, more than half of which were
(20) “out­of­pocket” expenditures, meaning they were not covered by
health insurance. Indeed, Americans made more out­of­pocket
expenditures for alternative services than they did for out­of­pocket
payments for hospital stays in 2016. In addition, the number of total
visits to alternative medicine providers (about 629 million) exceeded
(25) the tally of visits to primary care physicians (386 million) in that year.
However, the public has not abandoned conventional medicine for
alternative healthcare. Most Americans seek out alternative therapies
as a complement to their conventional healthcare whereas only a small
percentage of Americans rely primarily on alternative care. Why have

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(30) so many patients turned to alternative therapies? Frustrated by the

time constraints of managed care and alienated by conventional med­
icine’s focus on technology, some feel that a holistic approach to
healthcare better reflects their beliefs and values. Others seek thera­
pies that will relieve symptoms associated with chronic disease, symp­
(35) toms that mainstream medicine cannot treat.
Some alternative therapies have crossed the line into mainstream
medicine as scientific investigation has confirmed their safety and effi­
cacy. For example, today physicians may prescribe acupuncture for
pain management or to control the nausea associated with chemother­
(40) apy. Most U.S. medical schools teach courses in alternative therapies
and many health insurance companies offer some alternative medicine
benefits. Yet, despite their gaining acceptance, the majority of alter­
native therapies have not been researched in controlled studies. New
research efforts aim at testing alternative methods and providing the
(45) public with information about which are safe and effective and which
are a waste of money, or possibly dangerous.
So what about those who swear by the health benefits of the “smelly
rose,” garlic?
Observational studies that track disease incidence in different pop­
(50) ulations suggest that garlic use in the diet may act as a cancer­fighting
agent, particularly for prostate and stomach cancer. However, these
findings have not been confirmed in clinical studies. And yes, reported
side effects include garlic odor.

170. The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to

a. confirm the safety and effectiveness of alternative medicine
approaches.
b. convey the excitement of crossing new medical frontiers.
c. describe the recent increase in the use of alternative therapies.
d. explore the variety of practices that fall into the category of
alternative medicine.
e. criticize the use of alternative therapies that have not been sci­
entifically tested.

171. The author describes wearing garlic (line 1) as an example of

a. an arcane practice considered odd and superstitious today.
b. the ludicrous nature of complementary and alternative
medicine.
c. a scientifically tested medical practice.
d. a socially unacceptable style of jewelry.
e. a safe and reliable means to prevent some forms of cancer.

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172. The word conventional as it is used in line 7 most nearly means

a. appropriate.
b. established.
c. formal.
d. moralistic.
e. reactionary.

173. The author most likely uses the Harvard survey results (lines
10–13) to imply that
a. as people age they always become more conservative.
b. people born before 1945 view alternative therapies with disdain.
c. the survey did not question baby boomers (those born between
1945–1965) on the topic.
d. many young adults are open­minded to alternative therapies.
e. the use of alternative therapies will decline as those born
between 1965 and 1979 age.

174. The statistic comparing total visits to alternative medicine

practitioners with those to primary care physicians (lines 23–25) is
used to illustrate the
a. popularity of alternative medicine.
b. public’s distrust of conventional healthcare.
c. accessibility of alternative medicine.
d. affordability of alternative therapies.
e. ineffectiveness of most primary care physicians.

175. In line 28, complement most nearly means

a. tribute.
b. commendation.
c. replacement.
d. substitute.
e. addition.

176. The information in lines 30–35 indicates that Americans believe

that conventional healthcare
a. offers the best relief from the effects of chronic diseases.
b. should not use technology in treating illness.
c. combines caring for the body with caring for the spirit.
d. falls short of their expectations in some aspects.
e. needs a complete overhaul to become an effective system.

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177. The author suggests that cross[ing] the line into mainstream medicine
(lines 36–37) involves
a. performing stringently controlled research on alternative
therapies.
b. accepting the spiritual dimension of preventing and treating
illness.
c. approving of any treatments that a patient is interested in
trying.
d. recognizing the popularity of alternative therapies.
e. notifying your physician about herbs or alternative therapies
you are using.

178. In lines 49–54, the author refers to garlic use again in order to
a. cite an example of the fraudulent claims of herbal supplements.
b. suggest that claims about some herbs may be legitimate.
c. mock people who take garlic capsules.
d. reason why some Americans are drawn to alternative health
methods.
e. argue that observational studies provide enough evidence.

179. Which of the following best describes the approach of the

passage?
a. matter­of­fact narration
b. historical analysis
c. sarcastic criticism
d. playful reporting
e. impassioned argument

Questions 180–189 are based on the following passage.

In the following article, the author speculates about a connection between

the low­fat, high­carbohydrate diet recommended by the medical
establishment in the last twenty years and the increasing rate of obesity
among Americans.

(1) American dietitians and members of the medical community have

ridiculed low­carbohydrate diets as quackery for the past thirty years,
while extolling a diet that cuts down on fat, limits meat consumption,
and relies on carbohydrates as its staple. Many Americans are famil­
(5) iar with the food pyramid promoted by the U.S. government, with its
foundation of carbohydrates such as breads, rice, and pasta, and its
apex allotted to fats, oils, and sweets. Adhering to the government’s

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anti­fat, pro­carbohydrate gospel, food manufacturers have pumped

out fat­free grain products that lure consumers with the promise of
(10) leaner days. Then, why are Americans getting so fat? Could the
dietary recommendations of the last twenty years be wrong? And
what’s more, could the proponents of diets that push protein and fat
be right?
Fact: Obesity rates have soared throughout the country since the
(15) 1980s. The United States Centers for Disease Control reports that the
number of obese adults has doubled in the last twenty years. The num­
ber of obese children and teenagers has almost tripled, increasing
120% among African­American and Latino children and 50%
among white children. The risk for Type 2 diabetes, which is associ­
(20) ated with obesity, has increased dramatically as well. Disturbingly, the
disease now affects 25% to 30% of children, compared with 3% to 5%
two decades ago.
What is behind this trend? Supersized portions, cheap fast food,
and soft drinks combined with a sedentary lifestyle of TV watching
(25) or Internet surfing have most likely contributed to the rapid rise of
obesity. Yet, there might be more to it: is it a coincidence that obe­
sity rates increased in the last twenty years—the same time period in
which the low­fat dietary doctrine has reigned? Before the 1980s, the
conventional wisdom was that fat and protein created a feeling of
(30) satiation, so that overeating would be less likely. Carbohydrates, on
the other hand, were regarded as a recipe for stoutness. This per­
ception began to change after World War II when coronary heart
disease reached near epidemic proportions among middle­aged men.
A theory that dietary fat might increase cholesterol levels and, in
(35) turn, increase the risk of heart disease emerged in the 1950s and
gained increasing acceptance by the late 1970s. In 1979, the focus of
the food guidelines promoted by the United States Department of
Agriculture (USDA) began to shift away from getting enough nutri­
ents to avoiding excess fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, and sodium—
(40) the components believed to be linked to heart disease. The anti­fat
credo was born.
To date, the studies that have tried to link dietary fat to increased
risk of coronary heart disease have remained ambiguous. Studies have
shown that cholesterol­lowering drugs help reduce the risk of heart
(45) disease, but whether a diet low in cholesterol can do the same is still
questionable. While nutrition experts are debating whether a low­fat,
carbohydrate­based diet is the healthiest diet for Americans, nearly all
agree that the anti­fat message of the last twenty years has been over­
simplified. For example, some fats and oils like those found in olive oil

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(50) and nuts are beneficial to the heart and may deserve a larger propor­
tion in the American diet than their place at the tip of the food pyra­
mid indicates. Likewise, some carbohydrates that form the basis of the
food pyramid, like the “refined” carbohydrates contained in white
bread, pasta, and white rice, are metabolized in the body much the
(55) same way sweets are. According to one Harvard Medical School
researcher, a breakfast of a bagel with low­fat cream cheese is “meta­
bolically indistinguishable from a bowl of sugar.”
So what about those high­fat, protein diets that restrict carbohy­
drates like the popular Atkins diet and others? A small group of nutri­
(60) tion experts within the medical establishment find it hard to ignore the
anecdotal evidence that many lose weight successfully on these diets.
They are arguing that those diets should not be dismissed out of hand,
but researched and tested more closely. Still others fear that Ameri­
cans, hungry to find a weight­loss regimen, may embrace a diet that
(65) has no long­term data about whether it works or is safe. What is clear
is that Americans are awaiting answers and in the meantime, we need
to eat something.

180. The passage is primarily concerned with

a. questioning the dietary advice of the past two decades.
b. contrasting theories of good nutrition.
c. displaying the variety of ways one can interpret scientific
evidence.
d. debunking the value of diets that restrict carbohydrates.
e. isolating the cause of the rising rate of obesity.

181. The author’s attitude toward the medical experts who ridiculed low­
carbohydrate diets as quackery and praised low­fat diets is one of
a. bemused agreement.
b. seeming ambivalence.
c. unconcerned apathy.
d. implicit objection.
e. shocked disbelief.

182. The term gospel (line 8) as it is used in the passage most nearly
means
a. one of the first four New Testament books.
b. a proven principle.
c. a message accepted as truth.
d. American evangelical music.
e. a singular interpretation.

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183. The author uses the word Fact (line 14) in order to
a. draw a conclusion about the USDA’s dietary recommendations.
b. imply that statistical information can be misleading.
c. hypothesize about the health effects of high­fat, protein diets.
d. introduce a theory about the increased rate of obesity.
e. emphasize a statistical reality regardless of its cause.

184. The passage suggests that the obesity trend in the United States is
a. partly a result of inactive lifestyles.
b. the predictable outcome of cutting down on saturated fat.
c. a cyclical event that happens every twenty years.
d. unrelated to a rise in diabetes cases.
e. the unfortunate byproduct of the effort to reduce heart disease.

185. In lines 26–31, the author implies that the government’s 1979
food guidelines
a. relied more on folk wisdom than on scientific study.
b. were based on the theoretical premise that eating less dietary fat
reduces heart disease.
c. were negligent in not responding to the increasing incidence of
heart disease.
d. no longer bothered to mention nutrient objectives.
e. were successful in reducing heart disease rates.

186. The author characterizes the anti­fat message of the last twenty years
(line 48) as
a. elusive.
b. questionable.
c. incoherent.
d. beneficial.
e. inventive.

187. The author cites the example of a breakfast of a bagel with low­fat
cream cheese in order to
a. show that getting a nutritional breakfast can be fast and
convenient.
b. demonstrate that carbohydrates are the ideal nutrient.
c. overturn the notion that a carbohydrate­based breakfast is
necessarily healthy.
d. persuade readers that they should eat eggs and sausage for breakfast.
e. argue that Americans should greatly restrict their carbohydrate
intake.

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188. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which
statement?
a. The federal government knowingly gave the public misleading
advice.
b. Soaring obesity rates are most certainly a result of low­fat diets.
c. Nutritionists should promote high­fat, protein diets like the
Atkins diet.
d. Scientists should investigate every fad diet with equal scrutiny.
e. There is no definitive evidence connecting dietary fat to heart
disease.

189. The tone of the last sentence of the passage (lines 65–67) is
one of
a. optimism.
b. resolve.
c. indulgence.
d. irony.
e. revulsion.

Use the following to answer questions 190 through 192.

(1) The human body can tolerate only a small range of temperature, espe­
cially when the person is engaged in vigorous activity. Heat reactions
usually occur when large amounts of water and/or salt are lost through
excessive sweating following strenuous exercise. When the body
(5) becomes overheated and cannot eliminate this excess heat, heat exhaus­
tion and heat stroke are possible.
Heat exhaustion is generally characterized by clammy skin, fatigue,
nausea, dizziness, profuse perspiration, and sometimes fainting, result­
ing from an inadequate intake of water and the loss of fluids. First aid
(10) treatment for this condition includes having the victim lie down, raising
the feet 8­12 inches, applying cool, wet cloths to the skin, and giving the
victim sips of salt water (1 teaspoon per glass, half a glass every 15 min­
utes), over the period of an hour.
Heat stroke is much more serious; it is an immediately life­threaten­
(15) ing situation. The characteristics of heat stroke are a high body temper­
ature (which may reach 106°F or more); a rapid pulse; hot, dry skin; and
a blocked sweating mechanism. Victims of this condition may be uncon­
scious, and first aid measures should be directed at cooling the body
quickly. The victim should be placed in a tub of cold water or repeatedly
(20) sponged with cool water until his or her temperature is lowered suffi­
ciently. Fans or air conditioners will also help with the cooling process.

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Care should be taken, however, not to over­chill the victim once the tem­
perature is below 102°F.

190. The most immediate concern of a person tending a victim of heat

stroke should be to
a. get salt into the victim’s body
b. raise the victim’s feet
c. lower the victim’s pulse
d. lower the victim’s temperature
e. keep them calm

191. Which of the following is a symptom of heat exhaustion?

a. unconsciousness
b. profuse sweating
c. hot, dry skin
d. a weak pulse
e. an insatiable thirst

192. Symptoms such as nausea and dizziness in a heat exhaustion victim

indicate that the person most likely needs to
a. be immediately taken to a hospital
b. be given more salt water
c. be immersed in a tub of water
d. sweat more
e. placed on a flat, comfortable surface

Use the following to answer questions 193 through 194.

(1) A healthy diet with proper nutrition is essential for maintaining good
overall health. Since vitamins were discovered earlier in this century, peo­
ple have routinely been taking vitamin supplements for this purpose. The
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is a frequently used nutritional
(5) standard for maintaining optimal health. The RDA specifies the recom­
mended amount of a number of nutrients for people in many different
age and sex groups. The National Research Council’s Committee on
Diet and Health has proposed a definition of the RDA to be that amount
of a nutrient which meets the needs of 98% of the population.
(10) The RDA approach ____________________________. First, it is
based on the assumption that it is possible to accurately define nutritional
requirements for a given group. However, individual nutritional
requirements can vary widely within each group. The efficiency with
which a person converts food intake into nutrients can also vary widely.

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(15 Certain foods when eaten in combination actually prevent the absorption
of nutrients. For example, spinach combined with milk reduces the
amount of calcium available to the body from the milk. Also, the RDA
approach specifies a different dietary requirement for each age and sex;
(20) however, it is clearly unrealistic to expect a homemaker to prepare a dif­
ferent menu for each family member. Still, although we cannot rely
solely upon RDA to ensure our overall long­term health, it can be a use­
ful guide so long as its limitations are recognized.

193. Which of the following would best fit in the blank in the first
sentence of paragraph 2?
a. is based on studies by respected nutritionists
b. has a number of shortcomings
c. has been debunked in the last few years
d. is full of holes
e. is undeniably infallible

194. With which of the following would the author most likely agree?
a. The RDA approach should be replaced by a more realistic nutri­
tional guide.
b. The RDA approach should be supplemented with more specific
nutritional guides.
c. In spite of its flaws, the RDA approach is definitely the best guide
to good nutrition.
d. The RDA approach is most suitable for a large family.
e. It would be best if the RDA approach never existed.

Answers

133. b. The passage states that daytime drowsiness, even during boring
activities (lines 1–2), is a sign that a person is not getting enough
sleep.
134. a. This image connotes a state of working hard without adequate
rest.
135. e. The passage claims that lack of sleep magnifies alcohol’s effects on the
body (lines 14–15), implying that it hampers a person’s ability to
function.

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136. d. The first paragraph of this short passage deals with the symptoms
of sleep deprivation and the second paragraph discusses the dan­
gers of not getting enough sleep. Choices b and e are too specific
to be the passage’s primary purpose. Choices a and c are not sup­
ported by the passage.
137. d. Although he was a man of no formal scientific education (line 2),
Leeuwenhoek demonstrated, in his own words, a craving after
knowledge, which I notice resides in me more than in most other men
(lines 24–26), and was the first to describe microorganisms. The
phrase stumbled upon in choice a is too accidental to describe
Leeuwenhoek’s perseverance. The words proficient and entertain­
ment in choice c do not accurately describe Leeuwenhoek’s skill
and drive depicted in the passage. Choices b and e are incorrect;
Leeuwenhoek was not trained nor did he know that his discover­
ies would later help to cure disease.
138. c. Inspired means to exert an animating or enlivening influence on. In
the context of the passage, Leeuwenhoek’s creation of microscope
lenses were influenced by the lenses used by drapers.
139. a. The quotation highlights the value Leeuwenhoek placed on shar­
ing his discoveries with other scientists. He states that he thought it
was my duty to put down my discovery on paper, so that all ingenious
people might be informed thereof (lines 27–28).
140. b. The tone of the passage is positive. However, ecstatic reverence
(choice a) is too positive and tepid approval (choice c) is not
positive enough.
141. c. Nowhere in the passage does the author speculate about whether
teenagers can change their exercise habits.
142. c. One meaning of sedentary is settled; another meaning is doing or
requiring much sitting. Stationary, defined as fixed in a course or
mode, is closest in meaning.
143. e. The last sentence illustrates factors that motivate teenagers to
exercise by using the results of a national survey to provide spe­
cific examples.
144. d. The passage promotes change in teenagers’ exercise habits by
emphasizing the benefits of exercise, the moderate amount of
exercise needed to achieve benefits, and some factors that may
encourage teenagers to exercise.
145. c. The focus of the passage is Blackwell’s efforts to open the profes­
sion of medicine to women. Lines 3–4 state that Blackwell sup­
ported women’s medical education and helped many other women’s
careers.

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146. a. In this context, the word practical refers to the solution’s utility as
opposed to its theoretical or ideal premise.
147. b. The author suggests that Samuel Blackwell’s belief in slaves’ rights
influenced Elizabeth’s struggle for greater rights for women.
148. e. Blackwell wrote that the study of medicne filled me with disgust
(line 22).
149. b. Although Blackwell did overcome her revulsion of the body, pro­
vide healthcare to the poor, and establish a medical college for
women, she did not choose medicine for these reasons according
to the passage. Blackwell was told her goal was impossible (line 29),
too expensive (line 29), and that medical education was not available
to women (line 30).
150. e. The Geneva Medical College student body voted “yes” on Black­
well’s admittance as a joke (line 38).
151. b. Initially Blackwell was interested in teaching (line 23). Subse­
quently, she was attracted by the challenge (lines 31–32) and deter­
mined to succeed in studying and practicing medicine.
152. b. The question calls for an opinion. The passage does not speculate
about what degree of women’s success can be attributed to Black­
well’s influence.
153. d. Choices a, b, and e are too specific to be the primary purpose of
the passage, whereas choice c is too general. The passage focuses
on the importance of the first official report (line 27) to name
smoking a serious health hazard.
154. c. One meaning of preoccupied is lost in thought; another is engaged
or engrossed. In this case, absorbed is nearest in meaning.
155. a. The debate over the hazards and benefits of smoking (line 6) that con­
tinued since the sixteenth century (line 9) points to a long­standing
controversy.
156. e. An alliance of prominent private health organizations (line 28) gave
the push for an official report on smoking.
157. d. The quotation illustrates the response to the report, describing its
effect on the country as a bombshell (line 48).
158. b. Hedged (line 63) can mean hindered or hemmed in, but in this
instance, it most nearly means evaded. The author suggests in
lines 62–67 that the report evaded a risk by calling smoking a
habit rather than an addiction.
159. b. The author’s statement implies that the report could have sug­
gested specific actions to confront the health problem of smoking,
but that it did not.

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160. b. The author describes the influence of the report in positive terms
except to mention that it did not give recommendations for reme­
dial actions.
161. c. An adage is a word used to describe a common observation or say­
ing, like beauty is only skin deep (Passage 2, line 1).
162. c. The author states that the health risk for cosmetic procedures is low
(Passage 1, lines 24–25) but does not give factual information to
back this claim. The statement is important to the author’s argu­
ment because he or she cites it as one of the reasons his or her
attitude toward plastic surgery has changed.
163. e. The author describes cosmetic plastic surgeons as slick salespeople
reaping large financial rewards from others’ insecurity and vanity
(Passage 1, lines 17–18).
164. d. The author of Passage 1 directly invokes the audience he or she
hopes to reach in line 31: members of the medical community.
165. d. One definition of saturate is to satisfy fully; another definition,
which fits the context of the passage, is to fill completely with
something that permeates or pervades.
166. b. The author of Passage 2 claims that she grew up in the spirit of
feminism (lines 10–11), believ[ing] that women should be valued for
who they are and what they do, not for how they look (lines 12–13).
The author implies that this is a belief held by feminists of the
1970s.
167. a. The author of Passage 1, a physician, discusses his or her profes­
sional jealousy in lines 14–21. The author of Passage 2 does not
raise this issue.
168. d. Passage 1 states that the demand for cosmetic surgery has
increased in part because the job market has become more competitive
(line 6). Passage 2 comments on a competitive culture where looks
count (line 24).
169. a. Both passages are first­person accounts that use personal experi­
ence to build an argument.
170. c. Choice d is true, but too specific to be the author’s primary pur­
pose. Choice e can be eliminated because it is too negative and
choices a and b are too positive.
171. a. The author contrasts the public’s dismissal of the arcane practice
of wearing garlic with its increasing acceptance of herbal reme­
dies.
172. b. In this context, conventional refers to the established system of
Western medicine or biomedicine.

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173. d. Choice a is overly general and choice b is too negative to be

inferred from the survey’s findings. Choice c is incorrect—the
author does not mention the “baby boom” age group, but that
does not imply that the survey does not include it. The survey
does not support the prediction in choice e.
174. a. The statistic illustrates the popularity of alternative therapies
without giving any specific information as to why.
175. e. The author states that Americans are not replacing conventional
healthcare but are adding to or supplementing it with alternative
care.
176. d. The shortcomings of conventional healthcare mentioned in lines
30–35 are the time constraints of managed care (line 31), focus on tech­
nology (line 32), and inability to relieve symptoms associated with
chronic disease (line 34).
177. a. The author states that once scientific investigation has confirmed their
safety and efficacy (lines 37–38), alternative therapies may be
accepted by the medical establishment.
178. b. The author gives evidence of observational studies to show that
garlic may be beneficial. Choice e is incorrect, however, because
the author emphasizes that these findings have not been confirmed in
clinical studies (lines 51–52).
179. d. The passage does not offer a criticism or argument about alterna­
tive healthcare, but rather reports on the phenomenon with some
playfulness.
180. a. The article raises the question Could the dietary recommendations of
the last twenty years be wrong? (lines 10–11).
181. d. The author expresses her objection by depicting the medical
experts as extreme, ridicul[ing] (line 2) one diet while extolling
(line 3) another.
182. c. Choices a and d are alternate definitions that do not apply to the
passage. The author uses gospel (line 8) with its religious implica­
tions as an ironic statement, implying that scientists accepted a
premise based on faith instead of on evidence.
183. e. The author begins with Fact (line 14) to introduce and highlight
statistical information. She or he does not speculate about the
meaning of the statistics until the next paragraph.
184. a. The author names a sedentary lifestyle of TV watching and Internet
surfing (lines 24–25) as a contributing factor to the rise in
obesity rates.
185. b. The passage suggests that the 1979 dietary guidelines responded
to a theory that dietary fat (line 34) increases heart disease.

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186. b. The passage describes the anti­fat message as oversimplified (lines

48–49) and goes on to cite the importance of certain beneficial
types of fat found in olive oil and nuts (lines 38–39).
187. c. This example supports the claim that the body uses refined carbo­
hydrates in much the same way (lines 42–43) that it does sweets.
188. e. Lines 42–43 support this statement.
189. d. The last sentence is ironic—it expresses an incongruity between
conflicting dietary advice that targets different types of food as
unhealthy, and the reality that humans need to eat.
190. d. This is stated in the last paragraph (. . . first aid measures should be
directed at cooling the body quickly).
191. b. This is stated in the first sentence of the second paragraph.
192. b. This information is given in the second paragraph: If the victim
still suffers from the symptoms listed in the first sentence of the
paragraph, the victim needs more water and salt to help with the
inadequate intake of water and the loss of fluids that caused those
symptoms.
193. b. The blank is followed by a discussion of the shortcomings of the
RDA approach.
194. b. This statement is indicated by the final sentence, which indicates
that the RDA approach is useful, but has limitations, implying that
a supplemental guide would be a good thing.

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Literature and
4
Literary Criticism

Questions 195–199 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is from Frank McCourt’s 1996 memoir Angela’s Ashes.
The author describes what it was like to go to school as a young boy.
(1) We go to school through lanes and back streets so that we won’t meet
the respectable boys who go to the Christian Brothers’ School or the
rich ones who go to the Jesuit school, Crescent College. The Chris­
tian Brothers’ boys wear tweed jackets, warm woolen sweaters, shirts,
(5) ties, and shiny new boots. We know they’re the ones who will get jobs
in the civil service and help the people who run the world. The Cres­
cent College boys wear blazers and school scarves tossed around their
necks and over their shoulders to show they’re cock o’ the walk. They
have long hair which falls across their foreheads and over their eyes so
(10) that they can toss their quaffs like Englishmen. We know they’re the
ones who will go to university, take over the family business, run the
government, run the world. We’ll be the messenger boys on bicycles
who deliver their groceries or we’ll go to England to work on the
building sites. Our sisters will mind their children and scrub their
(15) floors unless they go off to England, too. We know that. We’re
ashamed of the way we look and if boys from the rich schools pass
remarks we’ll get into a fight and wind up with bloody noses or torn
clothes. Our masters will have no patience with us and our fights

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because their sons go to the rich schools and, Ye have no right to raise
(20) your hands to a better class of people so ye don’t.

195. The “we” the author uses throughout the passage refers to
a. his family.
b. the poor children in his neighborhood.
c. the children who attend rich schools.
d. the author and his brother.
e. the reader and writer.

196. The passage suggests that the author goes to school

a. in shabby clothing.
b. in a taxi cab.
c. in warm sweaters and shorts.
d. on a bicycle.
e. to become a civil servant.

197. The word pass as used in line 16 means to

a. move ahead of.
b. go by without stopping.
c. be approved or adopted.
d. utter.
e. come to an end.

198. The author quotes his school masters saying Ye have no right to raise
your hands to a better class of people so ye don’t (lines 19–20) in order to
a. demonstrate how strict his school masters were.
b. contrast his school to the Christian Brothers’ School and Cres­
cent College.
c. show how his teachers reinforced class lines.
d. prove that the author was meant for greater things.
e. show how people talked.

199. The passage implies that

a. the author was determined to go to England.
b. the author was determined to be someone who will run the
world.
c. the author often got into fights.
d. the author didn’t understand the idea of class and rank in
society.
e. one’s class determined one’s future.

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Questions 200–204 are based on the following passage.

In this excerpt from Toni Morrison’s 1970 novel The Bluest Eye, Pauline tries
to ease her loneliness by going to the movies.

(1) One winter Pauline discovered she was pregnant. When she told
Cholly, he surprised her by being pleased. [ . . . ] They eased back into
a relationship more like the early days of their marriage, when he
asked if she were tired or wanted him to bring her something from the
(5) store. In this state of ease, Pauline stopped doing day work and
returned to her own housekeeping. But the loneliness in those two
rooms had not gone away. When the winter sun hit the peeling green
paint of the kitchen chairs, when the smoked hocks were boiling in the
pot, when all she could hear was the truck delivering furniture down­
(10) stairs, she thought about back home, about how she had been all alone
most of the time then too, but this lonesomeness was different. Then
she stopped staring at the green chairs, at the delivery truck; she went
to the movies instead. There in the dark her memory was refreshed,
and she succumbed to her earlier dreams. Along with the idea of
(15) romantic love, she was introduced to another—physical beauty. Prob­
ably the most destructive ideas in the history of human thought. Both
originated in envy, thrived in insecurity, and ended in disillusion.

200. Pauline and Cholly live

a. in a two-room apartment above a store.
b. in a delivery truck.
c. next to a movie theater.
d. with Pauline’s family.
e. in a housekeeper’s quarters.

201. Lines 1–5 suggest that just prior to Pauline’s pregnancy, Cholly
had
a. loved Pauline dearly.
b. begun to neglect Pauline.
c. worked every day of the week.
d. cared about Pauline’s dreams.
e. graduated from college.

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202. Pauline’s loneliness is different from the loneliness she felt back
home (lines 10–11) because
a. she’s more bored than lonely.
b. her family has abandoned her.
c. she wants Cholly to be more romantic.
d. she’s a mother now.
e. she shouldn’t feel lonely with Cholly.

203. Pauline’s earlier dreams (line 14) were of

a. romance.
b. being beautiful.
c. having many children.
d. being a famous actress.
e. owning her own store.

204. The passage suggests that going to the movies will

a. inspire Pauline to become an actress.
b. inspire Pauline to demand more respect from Cholly.
c. only make Pauline more unhappy with her life.
d. encourage Pauline to study history.
e. create a financial strain on the family.

Questions 205–210 are based on the following passage.

In this excerpt from Sherman Alexie’s novel Reservation Blues, Thomas

struggles with his feelings about his father, Samuel.
(1) Thomas, Chess, and Checkers stayed quiet for a long time. After a
while, Chess and Checkers started to sing a Flathead song of mourn­
ing. For a wake, for a wake. Samuel was still alive, but Thomas sang
along without hesitation. That mourning song was B-7 on every reser­
(5) vation jukebox.
After the song, Thomas stood and walked away from the table
where his father lay flat as a paper plate. He walked outside and cried.
Not because he needed to be alone; not because he was afraid to cry
in front of women. He just wanted his tears to be individual, not tribal.
(10) Those tribal tears collected and fermented in huge BIA [Bureau of
Indian Affairs] barrels. Then the BIA poured those tears into beer and
Pepsi cans and distributed them back onto the reservation. Thomas
wanted his tears to be selfish and fresh.
“Hello,” he said to the night sky. He wanted to say the first word of
(15) a prayer or a joke. A prayer or a joke often sound alike on the reser­
vation.

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“Help,” he said to the ground. He knew the words to a million

songs: Indian, European, African, Mexican, Asian. He sang “Stairway
to Heaven” in four different languages but never knew where that
(20) staircase stood. He sang the same Indian songs continually but never
sang them correctly. He wanted to make his guitar sound like a water­
fall, like a spear striking salmon, but his guitar only sounded like a gui­
tar. He wanted the songs, the stories, to save everybody.

205. Thomas, Chess, and Checkers are

a. Mexican.
b. European.
c. Asian.
d. African.
e. Native American.

206. In line 3, a wake means

a. the turbulence left behind by something moving through water.
b. no longer asleep.
c. a viewing of a dead person before burial.
d. aftermath.
e. celebration.

207. The fact that Thomas, Chess, and Checkers sing a song of
mourning while Samuel is still alive suggests that
a. Samuel is afraid to die.
b. Samuel doesn’t belong on the reservation.
c. Samuel’s life is tragic.
d. they believe the song has healing powers.
e. Samuel is a ghost.

208. Thomas wants his tears to be “selfish and fresh” (line 13) because
a. it is difficult for him to share his feelings with others.
b. he wants to mourn his father as an individual, not just as
another dying Indian.
c. he feels guilty mourning his father before his father has died.
d. he doesn’t think the tribe will mourn his father’s passing.
e. tribal tears were meaningless.

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209. The sentence Then the BIA poured those tears into beer and Pepsi cans
and distributed them back onto the reservation (lines 11–12) is an
example of
a. a paradox.
b. dramatic irony.
c. onomatopoeia.
d. flashback.
e. figurative language.

210. In line 17, Thomas asks for help because

a. he can’t stop crying.
b. he wants to be a better guitar player.
c. he wants to be able to rescue people with his music.
d. he can’t remember the words to the song.
e. no one wants to listen to him play.

Questions 211–218 are based on the following passage.

In this excerpt from John Steinbeck’s 1936 novel In Dubious Battle, Mac and
Doc Burton discuss “the cause” that leads hundreds of migratory farm
workers to unite and strike against landowners.

(1) Mac spoke softly, for the night seemed to be listening. “You’re a mystery
to me, too, Doc.”
“Me? A mystery?”
“Yes, you. You’re not a Party man, but you work with us all the time;
(5) you never get anything for it. I don’t know whether you believe in what
we’re doing or not, you never say, you just work. I’ve been out with you
before, and I’m not sure you believe in the cause at all.”
Dr. Burton laughed softly. “It would be hard to say. I could tell you
some of the things I think; you might not like them. I’m pretty sure you
(10) won’t like them.”
“Well, let’s hear them anyway.”
“Well, you say I don’t believe in the cause. That’s not like not believ­
ing in the moon. There’ve been communes before, and there will be
again. But you people have an idea that if you can establish the thing, the
(15) job’ll be done. Nothing stops, Mac. If you were able to put an idea into
effect tomorrow, it would start changing right away. Establish a com­
mune, and the same gradual flux will continue.”
“Then you don’t think the cause is good?”
Burton sighed. “You see? We’re going to pile up on that old rock
(20) again. That’s why I don’t like to talk very often. Listen to me, Mac. My
senses aren’t above reproach, but they’re all I have. I want to see the

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whole picture—as nearly as I can. I don’t want to put on the blinders of

‘good’ and ‘bad,’ and limit my vision. If I used the term ‘good’ on a thing
I’d lose my license to inspect it, because there might be bad in it. Don’t
(25) you see? I want to be able to look at the whole thing.”
Mac broke in heatedly, “How about social injustice? The profit sys­
tem? You have to say they’re bad.”
Dr. Burton threw back his head and looked at the sky. “Mac,” he said.
“Look at the physiological injustice, the injustice of tetanus [ . . . ], the
(30) gangster methods of amoebic dysentery—that’s my field.”
“Revolution and communism will cure social injustice.”
“Yes, and disinfection and prophylaxis will prevent others.”
“It’s different, though; men are doing one, and germs are doing the
other.”
(35) “I can’t see much difference, Mac.”
[ . . . ] “Why do you hang around with us if you aren’t for us?”
“I want to see,” Burton said. “When you cut your finger, and strepto­
cocci get in the wound, there’s a swelling and a soreness. That swelling
is the fight your body puts up, the pain is the battle. You can’t tell which
(40) one is going to win, but the wound is the first battleground. If the cells
lose the first fight the streptococci invade, and the fight goes on up the
arm. Mac, these little strikes are like the infection. Something has got
into the men; a little fever has started and the lymphatic glands are shoot­
ing in the reinforcements. I want to see, so I go to the seat of the wound.”
(45) “You figure the strike is a wound?”
“Yes. Group-men are always getting some kind of infection. This
seems to be a bad one. I want to see, Mac. I want to watch these
group-men, for they seem to me to be a new individual, not at all
like single men. A man in a group isn’t himself at all, he’s a cell in
(50) an organism that isn’t like him any more than the cells in your body
are like you. I want to watch the group, and see what it’s like. Peo­
ple have said, ‘mobs are crazy, you can’t tell what they’ll do.’ Why
don’t people look at mobs not as men, but as mobs? A mob nearly
always seems to act reasonably, for a mob.”
(55) “Well, what’s this got to do with the cause?”
“It might be like this, Mac: When group-man wants to move, he makes
a standard. ‘God wills that we recapture the Holy Land’; or he says, ‘We
fight to make the world safe for democracy’; or he says, ‘We will wipe out
social injustice with communism.’ But the group doesn’t care about the
(60) Holy Land, or Democracy, or Communism. Maybe the group simply
wants to move, to fight, and uses these words simply to reassure the brains
of individual men. I say it might be like that, Mac.”
“Not with the cause, it isn’t,” Mac cried.

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211. In lines 15–17, Doc Burton argues that

a. even if the cause succeeds, it won’t change anything.
b. the cause is unstoppable.
c. the supporters of the cause should establish a commune.
d. the cause itself is always changing.
e. change can only come about gradually.

212. The cause the men refer to throughout the passage is

a. democracy.
b. communism.
c. capitalism.
d. insurgency.
e. freedom.

213. Doc Burton is best described as

a. an objective observer.
b. a representative of the government.
c. a staunch supporter of the cause.
d. a visionary leader.
e. a reluctant participant.

214. According to Doc Burton, the strikes are like the infection (line 42)
because
a. the strikes are life-threatening.
b. many of the strikers are ill.
c. the size of the group has swollen.
d. the strikes are a reaction to an injury.
e. the strikes are taking place on a battleground.

215. By comparing group­men to a living organism (lines 48–50), Doc

Burton
a. reinforces his idea that individuals are lost in the larger whole.
b. shows that group-men is constantly changing and growing.
c. supports his assertion that the strikers are like an infection.
d. explains why he is with the strikers.
e. reflects his opinion that the strikes’ success depends upon unity
within the group.

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216. According to Doc Burton, the main difference between group­men

and the individual is that
a. individuals can be controlled but groups cannot.
b. individuals do not want to fight but groups do.
c. individuals may believe in a cause but groups do not.
d. groups are often crazy but individuals are not.
e. people in groups can reassure one another.

217. It can be inferred from this passage that Doc Burton believes the
cause
a. is just an excuse for fighting.
b. is reasonable.
c. will fail.
d. will correct social injustice.
e. will make America a more democratic place.

218. Doc Burton repeats the word might in lines 56 and 62 because
a. he doesn’t believe Mac is sincere about the cause.
b. he really wants Mac to consider the possibility that the group is
blind to the cause.
c. he is asking a rhetorical question.
d. he doesn’t want Mac to know the truth about the cause.
e. he wants Mac to see that he isn’t really serious in his criticism of
the cause.

Questions 219–227 are based on the following passage.

In this passage, written in 1925, writer Edith Wharton distinguishes between

subjects suitable for short stories and those suitable for novels.
(1) It is sometimes said that a “good subject” for a short story should
always be capable of being expanded into a novel.
The principle may be defendable in special cases; but it is certainly
a misleading one on which to build any general theory. Every “subject”
(5) (in the novelist’s sense of the term) must necessarily contain within
itself its own dimensions; and one of the fiction-writer’s essential gifts
is that of discerning whether the subject which presents itself to him,
asking for incarnation, is suited to the proportions of a short story or
of a novel. If it appears to be adapted to both the chances are that it is
(10) inadequate to either.
It would be a great mistake, however, to try to base a hard-and-fast
theory on the denial of the rule as on its assertion. Instances of short
stories made out of subjects that could have been expanded into a

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novel, and that are yet typical short stories and not mere stunted nov­
(15) els, will occur to everyone. General rules in art are useful chiefly as a
lamp in a mine, or a handrail down a black stairway; they are neces­
sary for the sake of the guidance they give, but it is a mistake, once
they are formulated, to be too much in awe of them.
There are at least two reasons why a subject should find expression
(20) in novel-form rather than as a tale; but neither is based on the num­
ber of what may be conveniently called incidents, or external hap­
penings, which the narrative contains. There are novels of action
which might be condensed into short stories without the loss of their
distinguishing qualities. The marks of the subject requiring a longer
(25) development are, first, the gradual unfolding of the inner life of its
characters, and secondly the need of producing in the reader’s mind the
sense of the lapse of time. Outward events of the most varied and excit­
ing nature may without loss of probability be crowded into a few hours,
but moral dramas usually have their roots deep in the soul, their rise far
(30) back in time; and the suddenest-seeming clash in which they culminate
should be led up to step by step if it is to explain and justify itself.
There are cases, indeed, when the short story may make use of the
moral drama at its culmination. If the incident dealt with be one which
a single retrospective flash sufficiently lights up, it is qualified for use
(35) as a short story; but if the subject be so complex, and its successive
phases so interesting, as to justify elaboration, the lapse of time must
necessarily be suggested, and the novel-form becomes appropriate.
The effect of compactness and instantaneity sought in the short
story is attained mainly by the observance of two “unities”—the old
(40) traditional one of time, and that other, more modern and complex,
which requires that any rapidly enacted episode shall be seen through
only one pair of eyes . . . .
One thing more is needful for the ultimate effect of probability; and
that is, never let the character who serves as reflector record anything
(45) not naturally within his register. It should be the storyteller’s first care
to choose this reflecting mind deliberately, as one would choose a
building-site, or decide upon the orientation of one’s house, and when
this is done, to live inside the mind chosen, trying to feel, see and react
exactly as the latter would, no more, no less, and, above all, no other­
(50) wise. Only thus can the writer avoid attributing incongruities of
thought and metaphor to his chosen interpreter.

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219. In the opening sentence (lines 1–2), the author

a. states her main idea.
b. states the idea she will disprove.
c. presents an example of the point she will prove.
d. presents an anecdote to capture the reader’s attention.
e. presents evidence for her thesis.

220. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to

a. provide guidelines for choosing the narrator in a novel.
b. provide tips for making short stories and novels more realistic.
c. debunk several myths about writing novels.
d. explain why some tales are better for novels than short stories.
e. provide strategies for writers to develop ideas for short stories
and novels.

221. The author believes that rules for writing

a. should always be strictly adhered to.
b. should only be general guidelines.
c. should be revised regularly.
d. are just good common sense.
e. are too theoretical.

222. In lines 15–18 the author uses

a. analogy.
b. personification.
c. hyperbole.
d. foreshadowing.
e. innuendo.

223. According to the author, which factor(s) determine whether a

subject is suitable for a novel instead of a short story?
III. the number of incidents in the story
III. the need to show the development of the character(s)
III. the need to reflect the passage of time
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. I and III only
e. all of the above

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224. In lines 32–37, the author

a. contradicts the rule established in the previous paragraph.
b. clarifies the rule established in the previous paragraph.
c. shows an example of the rule established in the previous
paragraph.
d. justifies the rule established in the previous paragraph.
e. provides a new rule.

225. According to the author, two defining characteristics of a short

story are
a. complexity and probability.
b. moral dilemmas and sudden clashes.
c. retrospection and justification.
d. metaphor and congruity.
e. limited time and point of view.

226. In line 46, this reflecting mind refers to

a. the author.
b. the narrator.
c. the reader.
d. a story’s translator.
e. a story’s editor.

Questions 227–235 are based on the following passage.

This excerpt is from the final scene of George Bernard Shaw’s 1916 play
Pygmalion, when Professor Higgins learns just how well he taught Liza.
(1) HIGGINS: If you’re going to be a lady, you’ll have to give up feeling
neglected if the men you know don’t spend half their time snivel­
ing over you and the other half giving you black eyes. If you can’t
stand the coldness of my sort of life, and the strain of it, go back to
(5) the gutter. Work ’til you are more a brute than a human being; and
then cuddle and squabble and drink ’til you fall asleep. Oh, it’s a fine
life, the life of the gutter. It’s real: it’s warm: it’s violent: you can feel
it through the thickest skin: you can taste it and smell it without any
training or any work. Not like Science and Literature and Classi­
(10) cal Music and Philosophy and Art. You find me cold, unfeeling, self­
ish, don’t you? Very well: be off with you to the sort of people you
like. Marry some sentimental hog or other with lots of money, and
a thick pair of lips to kiss you with and a thick pair of boots to kick
you with. If you can’t appreciate what you’ve got, you’d better get
(15) what you can appreciate.

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LIZA (desperate): Oh, you are a cruel tyrant. I can’t talk to you: you
turn everything against me: I’m always in the wrong. But you know
very well all the time that you’re nothing but a bully. You know I
can’t go back to the gutter, as you call it, and that I have no real
(20) friends in the world but you and the Colonel. You know well I
couldn’t bear to live with a low common man after you two; and it’s
wicked and cruel of you to insult me by pretending I could. You
think I must go back to Wimpole Street because I have nowhere
else to go but father’s. But don’t you be too sure that you have me
(25) under your feet to be trampled on and talked down. I’ll marry
Freddy, I will, as soon as he’s able to support me.
HIGGINS (sitting down beside her): Rubbish! You shall marry an
ambassador. You shall marry the Governor-General of India or the
Lord-Lieutenant of Ireland, or somebody who wants a deputy-
(30) queen. I’m not going to have my masterpiece thrown away on
Freddy.
LIZA: You think I like you to say that. But I haven’t forgot what you
said a minute ago; and I won’t be coaxed round as if I was a baby or
a puppy. If I can’t have kindness, I’ll have independence.
(35) HIGGINS: Independence? That’s middle class blasphemy. We are all
dependent on one another, every soul of us on earth.
LIZA (rising determinedly): I’ll let you see whether I’m dependent on
you. If you can preach, I can teach. I’ll go and be a teacher.
HIGGINS: What’ll you teach, in heaven’s name?
(40) LIZA: What you taught me. I’ll teach phonetics.
HIGGINS: Ha! ha! ha!
LIZA: I’ll offer myself as an assistant to Professor Nepean.
HIGGINS (rising in a fury): What! That impostor! that humbug! that
toadying ignoramus! Teach him my methods! my discoveries! You
(45) take one step in his direction and I’ll wring your neck. (He lays hands
on her.) Do you hear?
LIZA (defiantly resistant): Wring away. What do I care? I knew you’d
strike me some day. (He lets her go, stamping with rage at having for­
gotten himself, and recoils so hastily that he stumbles back into his seat on
(50) the ottoman.) Aha! Now I know how to deal with you. What a fool
I was not to think of it before! You can’t take away the knowledge
you gave me. You said I had a finer ear than you. And I can be civil
and kind to people, which is more than you can. Aha! That’s done
you, Henry Higgins, it has. Now I don’t care that (snapping her fin­
(55) gers) for your bullying and your big talk. I’ll advertise it in the
papers that your duchess is only a flower girl that you taught, and
that she’ll teach anybody to be a duchess just the same in six months

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for a thousand guineas. Oh, when I think of myself crawling under

your feet and being trampled on and called names, when all the
(60) time I had only to lift up my finger to be as good as you, I could just
kick myself.

227. In lines 1–15, Higgins contrasts the life of the gutter with his sort of
life, which is best described as
a. the life of an ambassador.
b. the life of the rich and famous.
c. the life of a tyrant.
d. the life of a scholar.
e. the life of the working class.

228. Wimpole Street (line 23) is most likely

a. a fashionable area.
b. where Professor Nepean resides.
c. where Higgins teaches.
d. where Freddy lives.
e. where Liza grew up.

229. Liza wants Higgins to

a. appreciate her work.
b. help her find a suitable husband.
c. marry her.
d. teach her everything he knows.
e. treat her with more respect.

230. The word common in line 21 means

a. usual.
b. unrefined.
c. popular.
d. average.
e. shared by two or more.

231. In lines 43–46, Higgins proves that

a. he is a bully.
b. Liza can’t teach with Professor Nepean.
c. Professor Nepean is a fake.
d. he and Liza depend upon each other.
e. he knows better than Liza.

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232. Higgins’ use of the word masterpiece in line 30 implies that

a. he is an artist.
b. he thinks Liza is very beautiful.
c. he thinks of Liza as his creation.
d. he is in love with Liza.
e. Liza is his servant.

233. Which of the following best describes what Higgins has taught
Liza?
a. the history of the English language
b. how to speak and act like someone from the upper class
c. how to be independent of others
d. how to understand literature and philosophy
e. how to appreciate scholarly work

234. In lines 37–61, the main reason Higgins is so upset is because

a. Liza threatens to teach his methods to others.
b. he realizes he has been a bad teacher.
c. he realizes he is as abusive as someone from the gutter.
d. he realizes he cannot control Liza.
e. he realizes Liza does not love him anymore.

235. The passage implies that Liza’s most significant transformation in

the play is from
a. lower class to upper class.
b. ignorant to educated.
c. oppressed to empowered.
d. single to married.
e. cold to compassionate.

Questions 236–243 are based on the following passage.

In this excerpt from Charlotte Bronte’s novel Jane Eyre, the narrator decides to
leave Lowood, the boarding school where she has lived for eight years.
(1) Miss Temple, through all changes, had thus far continued superin­
tendent of the seminary; to her instruction I owed the best part of my
acquirements; her friendship and society had been my continual sol­
ace: she had stood me in the stead of mother, governess, and, latterly,
(5) companion. At this period she married, removed with her husband (a
clergyman, an excellent man, almost worthy of such a wife) to a dis­
tant county, and consequently was lost to me.

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From the day she left I was no longer the same: with her was gone
every settled feeling, every association that had made Lowood in some
(10) degree a home to me. I had imbibed from her something of her nature
and much of her habits: more harmonious thoughts: what seemed bet­
ter-regulated feelings had become inmates of my mind. I had given in
allegiance to duty and order; I was quiet; I believed I was content: to the
eyes of others, usually even to my own, I appeared a disciplined and sub­
(15) dued character.
But destiny, in the shape of the Rev. Mr. Nasmyth, came between me
and Miss Temple: I saw her in her traveling dress step into a post-chaise,
shortly after the marriage ceremony; I watched the chaise mount the hill
and disappear beyond its brow; and then retired to my own room, and
(20) there spent in solitude the greatest part of the half-holiday granted in
honor of the occasion.
I walked about the chamber most of the time. I imagined myself only
to be regretting my loss, and thinking how to repair it; but when my
reflections concluded, and I looked up and found that the afternoon was
(25) gone, and evening far advanced, another discovery dawned on me,
namely, that in the interval I had undergone a transforming process; that
my mind had put off all it had borrowed of Miss Temple—or rather that
she had taken with her the serene atmosphere I had been breathing in
her vicinity—and that now I was left in my natural element, and begin­
(30) ning to feel the stirring of old emotions. It did not seem as if a prop were
withdrawn, but rather as if a motive were gone; it was not the power to
be tranquil which had failed me, but the reason for tranquility was no
more. My world had for some years been in Lowood: my experience
had been of its rules and systems; now I remembered that the real world
(35) was wide, and that a varied field of hopes and fears, of sensations and
excitements, awaited those who had courage to go forth into its expanse,
to seek real knowledge of life amidst its perils.
I went to my window, opened it, and looked out. There were the two
wings of the building; there was the garden; there were the skirts of
(40) Lowood; there was the hilly horizon. My eye passed all other objects to
rest on those most remote, the blue peaks: it was those I longed to sur­
mount; all within their boundary of rock and heath seemed prison-
ground, exile limits. I traced the white road winding round the base of
one mountain, and vanishing in a gorge between two: how I longed to
(45) follow it further! I recalled the time when I had traveled that very road
in a coach; I remembered descending that hill at twilight: an age seemed
to have elapsed since the day which brought me first to Lowood, and I
had never quitted it since. My vacations had all been spent at school:
Mrs. Reed had never sent for me to Gateshead; neither she nor any of

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(50) her family had ever been to visit me. I had had no communication by
letter or message with the outer world: school-rules, school-duties,
school-habits and notions, and voices, and faces, and phrases, and cos­
tumes, and preferences, and antipathies: such was what I knew of exis­
tence. And now I felt that it was not enough: I tired of the routine of
(55) eight years in one afternoon. I desired liberty; for liberty I gasped; for
liberty I uttered a prayer; it seemed scattered on the wind then faintly
blowing. I abandoned it and framed a humbler supplication; for change,
stimulus: that petition, too, seemed swept off into vague space: “Then,”
I cried, half desperate, “grant me at least a new servitude!”

236. Miss Temple was the narrator’s

III. teacher.
III. friend.
III. mother.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I and II
e. all of the above

237. While Miss Temple was at Lowood, the narrator

a. was calm and content.
b. was often alone.
c. had frequent disciplinary problems.
d. longed to leave Lowood.
e. felt as if she were in a prison.

238. The word inmates in line 12 means

a. captives.
b. patients.
c. prisoners.
d. residents.
e. convalescents.

239. Mrs. Reed (line 49) is most likely

a. the narrator’s mother.
b. the head mistress of Lowood.
c. the narrator’s former guardian.
d. the narrator’s friend.
e. a fellow student at Lowood.

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240. It can be inferred from the passage that life at Lowood was
a. very unconventional and modern.
b. very structured and isolated.
c. harsh and demeaning.
d. liberal and carefree.
e. urban and sophisticated.

241. After Miss Temple’s wedding, the narrator

a. realizes she wants to experience the world.
b. decides that she must get married.
c. realizes she can never leave Lowood.
d. decides to return to her family at Gateshead.
e. determines to follow Miss Temple.

242. The passage suggests that the narrator

a. will soon return to Lowood.
b. was sent to Lowood by mistake.
c. is entirely dependent upon Miss Temple.
d. has run away from Lowood before.
e. is naturally curious and rebellious.

243. In lines 60–66, the narrator reduces her petition to simply a new
servitude because she
a. doesn’t believe in prayer.
b. is not in a free country.
c. has been offered a position as a servant.
d. knows so little of the real world.
e. has been treated like a slave at Lowood.

Questions 244–251 are based on the following passage.

In this excerpt from Susan Glaspell’s one­act play Trifles, Mrs. Hale and
Mrs. Peters make an important discovery in Mrs. Wright’s home as their
husbands try to determine who strangled Mr. Wright.
(1) MRS. PETERS: Well, I must get these things wrapped up. They may
be through sooner than we think. [Putting apron and other things
together.] I wonder where I can find a piece of paper, and string.
MRS. HALE: In that cupboard, maybe.
(5) MRS. PETERS [looking in cupboard]: Why, here’s a birdcage. [Holds it
up.] Did she have a bird, Mrs. Hale?
MRS. HALE: Why, I don’t know whether she did or not—I’ve not
been here for so long. There was a man around last year selling

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canaries cheap, but I don’t know as she took one; maybe she did.
(10) She used to sing real pretty herself.
MRS. PETERS [glancing around]: Seems funny to think of a bird here.
But she must have had one, or why would she have a cage? I won­
der what happened to it.
MRS. HALE: I s’pose maybe the cat got it.
(15) MRS. PETERS: No, she didn’t have a cat. She’s got that feeling some
people have about cats—being afraid of them. My cat got in her
room and she was real upset and asked me to take it out.
MRS. HALE: My sister Bessie was like that. Queer, ain’t it?
MRS. PETERS [examining the cage]: Why, look at this door. It’s broke.
(20) One hinge is pulled apart.
MRS. HALE [looking too]: Looks as if someone must have been rough
with it.
MRS. PETERS: Why, yes.
[She brings the cage forward and puts it on the table.]
(25) MRS. HALE: I wish if they’re going to find any evidence they’d be
about it. I don’t like this place.
MRS. PETERS: But I’m awful glad you came with me, Mrs. Hale. It
would be lonesome for me sitting here alone.
MRS. HALE: It would, wouldn’t it? [Dropping her sewing.] But I tell
(30) you what I do wish, Mrs. Peters. I wish I had come over sometimes
when she was here. I—[looking around the room]—wish I had.
MRS. PETERS: But of course you were awful busy, Mrs. Hale—your
house and your children.
MRS. HALE: I could’ve come. I stayed away because it weren’t cheer-
(35) ful—and that’s why I ought to have come. I—I’ve never liked this
place. Maybe because it’s down in a hollow and you don’t see the
road. I dunno what it is but it’s a lonesome place and always was. I
wish I had come over to see Minnie Foster sometimes. I can see
now—
(40) [Shakes her head.]
MRS. PETERS: Well, you mustn’t reproach yourself, Mrs. Hale.
Somehow we just don’t see how it is with other folks until—some­
thing comes up.
MRS. HALE: Not having children makes less work—but it makes a
(45) quiet house, and Wright out to work all day, and no company when
he did come in. Did you know John Wright, Mrs. Peters?
MRS. PETERS: Not to know him; I’ve seen him in town. They say
he was a good man.
MRS. HALE: Yes—good; he didn’t drink, and kept his word as well
(50) as most, I guess, and paid his debts. But he was a hard man, Mrs.

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Peters. Just to pass the time of day with him—[shivers]. Like a raw wind
that gets to the bone. [Pauses, her eye falling on the cage.] I should think
she would’a wanted a bird. But what do you suppose went with it?
MRS. PETERS: I don’t know, unless it got sick and died.
(55) [She reaches over and swings the broken door, swings it again. Both women watch
it.]
MRS. HALE: You weren’t raised round here, were you? [MRS. PETERS
shakes her head.] You didn’t know—her?
MRS. PETERS: Not till they brought her yesterday.
(60) MRS. HALE: She—come to think of it, she was kind of like a bird her-
self—real sweet and pretty, but kind of timid and—fluttery. How—
she—did—change. [Silence; then as if struck by a happy thought and
relieved to get back to every day things.] Tell you what, Mrs. Peters, why
don’t you take the quilt in with you? It might take up her mind.
(65) MRS. PETERS: Why, I think that’s a real nice idea, Mrs. Hale. There
couldn’t possibly be any objection to it, could there? Now, just what
would I take? I wonder if her patches are in here—and her things.
[They look in the sewing basket.]
MRS. HALE: Here’s some red. I expect this has got sewing things in it.
(70) [Brings out a fancy box.] What a pretty box. Looks like something some­
body would give you. Maybe her scissors are in here. [Opens box. Sud­
denly puts her hand to her nose.] Why—[MRS. PETERS bends nearer,
then turns her face away.] There’s something wrapped in this piece of
silk.
(75) MRS. PETERS [lifting the silk]: Why this isn’t her scissors.
MRS. HALE [lifting the silk]: Oh, Mrs. Peters—it’s—
[MRS. PETERS bends closer.]
MRS. PETERS: It’s the bird.
MRS. HALE [jumping up]: But, Mrs. Peters—look at it! Its neck! Look
(80) at its neck! It’s all—to the other side.
MRS. PETERS: Somebody—wrung—its—neck.
[Their eyes meet. A look of growing comprehension, of horror. Steps are heard
outside. MRS. HALE slips box under quilt pieces, and sinks into her chair.
Enter SHERIFF and COUNTY ATTORNEY HALE. MRS.
(85) PETERS rises.]

244. Based on the passage, the reader can conclude that

a. Mrs. Peters and Mrs. Hale are old friends.
b. Mrs. Peters and Mrs. Hale both know Mrs. Wright very well.
c. Mrs. Peters and Mrs. Hale don’t know each other very well.
d. Neither Mrs. Peters nor Mrs. Hale like Mrs. Wright.
e. Neither Mrs. Peters nor Mrs. Hale have children.

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245. Mrs. Hale says she wishes she had come to Mrs. Wright’s house
(lines 29–31 and 37–39) because
a. she realizes that Mrs. Wright must have been lonely.
b. she enjoyed Mr. Wright’s company.
c. she always felt at home in the Wright’s house.
d. she realizes how important it is to keep good relationships with
one’s neighbors.
e. she had a lot in common with Mrs. Wright.

246. According to Mrs. Hale, what sort of man was Mr. Wright?
a. gentle and loving
b. violent and abusive
c. honest and dependable
d. quiet and cold
e. a strict disciplinarian

247. In lines 60–62, Mrs. Hale suggests that Mrs. Wright

a. had become even more like a bird than before.
b. had grown bitter and unhappy over the years.
c. was too shy to maintain an intimate friendship.
d. must have taken excellent care of her bird.
e. was always singing and flitting about.

248. The phrase take up her mind in line 64 means

a. worry her.
b. make her angry.
c. refresh her memory.
d. keep her busy.
e. make her think.

249. It can be inferred that Mrs. Wright

a. got the bird as a present for her husband.
b. was forced into marrying Mr. Wright.
c. loved the bird because it reminded her of how she used to be.
d. had a pet bird as a little girl.
e. fought often with Mr. Wright.

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250. When the women share a look of growing comprehension, of horror

(line 83), they realize that
a. Mrs. Wright killed the bird.
b. Mr. Wright killed the bird, and Mrs. Wright killed him.
c. they would get in trouble if the sheriff found out they were
looking around in the kitchen.
d. there’s a secret message hidden in the quilt.
e. they might be Mrs. Wright’s next victims.

251. The stage directions in lines 83–86 suggest that

a. the women are mistaken in their conclusion.
b. the women will tell the men what they found.
c. the women will confront Mrs. Wright.
d. the women will keep their discovery a secret.
e. the men had been eavesdropping on the women.

Questions 252–260 are based on the following passages.

In Passage 1, an excerpt from Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein, Victor Frankenstein

explains his motive for creating his creature. In Passage 2, an excerpt from
H.G. Wells’ 1896 novel The Island of Dr. Moreau, Dr. Moreau explains to the
narrator why he has been performing experiments on animals to transform
them into humans.

PASSAGE 1

(1) I see by your eagerness, and the wonder and hope which your eyes
express, my friend, that you expect to be informed of the secret with
which I am acquainted; that cannot be: listen patiently until the end
of my story, and you will easily perceive why I am reserved upon that
(5) subject. I will not lead you on, unguarded and ardent as I then was, to
your destruction and infallible misery. Learn from me, if not by my
precepts, at least by my example, how dangerous is the acquirement of
knowledge, and how much happier that man is who believes his native
town to be the world, than he who aspires to become greater than his
(10) nature will allow.
When I found so astonishing a power placed within my hands, I
hesitated a long time concerning the manner in which I should employ
it. Although I possessed the capacity of bestowing animation, yet to
prepare a frame for the reception of it, with all its intricacies of fibers,
(15) muscles, and veins, still remained a work of inconceivable difficulty
and labour. I doubted at first whether I should attempt the creation of

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a being like myself, or one of simpler organization; but my imagina­

tion was too much exalted by my first success to permit me to doubt
of my ability to give life to an animal as complex and wonderful as
(20) man. The materials at present within my command hardly appeared
adequate to so arduous an undertaking; but I doubted not that I should
ultimately succeed. I prepared myself for a multitude of reverses; my
operations might be incessantly baffled, and at last my work be imper­
fect: yet, when I considered the improvement which every day takes
(25) place in science and mechanics, I was encouraged to hope my present
attempts would at least lay the foundations of future success. Nor
could I consider the magnitude and complexity of my plan as any
argument of its impracticability. It was with these feelings that I began
the creation of my human being. As the minuteness of the parts
(30) formed a great hindrance to my speed, I resolved, contrary to my first
intention, to make the being of a gigantic stature; that is to say, about
eight feet in height, and proportionably large. After having formed
this determination, and having spent some months in successfully col­
lecting and arranging my materials, I began.
(35) No one can conceive the variety of feelings which bore me onwards,
like a hurricane, in the first enthusiasm of success. Life and death
appeared to me ideal bounds, which I should first break through, and
pour a torrent of light into our dark world. A new species would bless
me as its creator and source; many happy and excellent natures would
(40) owe their being to me. No father could claim the gratitude of his child
so completely as I should deserve theirs. Pursuing these reflections, I
thought, that if I could bestow animation upon lifeless matter, I might
in process of time (although I now found it impossible) renew life
where death had apparently devoted the body to corruption.
(45) These thoughts supported my spirits, while I pursued my under­
taking with unremitting ardour. My cheek had grown pale with study,
and my person had become emaciated with confinement. Sometimes,
on the very brink of certainty, I failed; yet still I clung to the hope
which the next day or the next hour might realize. One secret which
(50) I alone possessed was the hope to which I had dedicated myself; and
the moon gazed on my midnight labors, while, with unrelaxed and
breathless eagerness, I pursued nature to her hiding-places. Who shall
conceive the horrors of my secret toil, as I dabbled among the unhal­
lowed damps of the grave, or tortured the living animal to animate the
(55) lifeless clay? My limbs now tremble, and my eyes swim with the
remembrance; but then a resistless, and almost frantic, impulse urged
me forward; I seemed to have lost all soul or sensation but for this one
pursuit.

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PASSAGE 2

(1) “Yes. These creatures you have seen are animals carven and wrought
into new shapes. To that—to the study of the plasticity of living
forms—my life has been devoted. I have studied for years, gaining in
knowledge as I go. I see you look horrified, and yet I am telling you
(5) nothing new. It all lay in the surface of practical anatomy years ago,
but no one had the temerity to touch it. It’s not simply the outward
form of an animal I can change. The physiology, the chemical rhythm
of the creature, may also be made to undergo an enduring modifica­
tion, of which vaccination and other methods of inoculation with liv­
(10) ing or dead matter are examples that will, no doubt, be familiar to you.
“A similar operation is the transfusion of blood, with which subject
indeed I began. These are all familiar cases. Less so, and probably far
more extensive, were the operations of those medieval practitioners who
made dwarfs and beggar cripples and show-monsters; some vestiges of
(15) whose art still remain in the preliminary manipulation of the young
mountebank or contortionist. Victor Hugo gives an account of them in
L’Homme qui Rit. . . . But perhaps my meaning grows plain now. You
begin to see that it is a possible thing to transplant tissue from one part
of an animal to another, or from one animal to another, to alter its
(20) chemical reactions and methods of growth, to modify the articulations
of its limbs, and indeed to change it in its most intimate structure?
“And yet this extraordinary branch of knowledge has never been
sought as an end, and systematically, by modern investigators, until I
took it up! Some such things have been hit upon in the last resort of
(25) surgery; most of the kindred evidence that will recur to your mind has
been demonstrated, as it were, by accident—by tyrants, by criminals,
by the breeders of horses and dogs, by all kinds of untrained clumsy-
handed men working for their own immediate ends. I was the first
man to take up this question armed with antiseptic surgery, and with
(30) a really scientific knowledge of the laws of growth.
“Yet one would imagine it must have been practiced in secret before.
Such creatures as Siamese Twins . . . . And in the vaults of the Inquisi­
tion. No doubt their chief aim was artistic torture, but some, at least,
of the inquisitors must have had a touch of scientific curiosity . . . .”
(35) “But,” said I. “These things—these animals talk!”
He said that was so, and proceeded to point out that the possibili­
ties of vivisection do not stop at a mere physical metamorphosis. A pig
may be educated. The mental structure is even less determinate than
the bodily. In our growing science of hypnotism we find the promise

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(40) of a possibility of replacing old inherent instincts by new suggestions,

grafting upon or replacing the inherited fixed ideas. [ . . . ]
But I asked him why he had taken the human form as a model.
There seemed to me then, and there still seems to me now, a strange
wickedness in that choice.
(45) He confessed that he had chosen that form by chance.
“I might just as well have worked to form sheep into llamas, and
llamas into sheep. I suppose there is something in the human form
that appeals to the artistic turn of mind more powerfully than any ani­
mal shape can. But I’ve not confined myself to man-making. Once or
(50) twice . . . .” He was silent, for a minute perhaps. “These years! How
they have slipped by! And here I have wasted a day saving your life,
and am now wasting an hour explaining myself!”
“But,” said I, “I still do not understand. Where is your justification
for inflicting all this pain? The only thing that could excuse vivisection
(55) to me would be some application—”
“Precisely,” said he. “But you see I am differently constituted. We
are on different platforms. You are a materialist.”
“I am not a materialist,” I began hotly.
“In my view—in my view. For it is just this question of pain that
(60) parts us. So long as visible or audible pain turns you sick, so long as
your own pain drives you, so long as pain underlies your propositions
about sin, so long, I tell you, you are an animal, thinking a little less
obscurely what an animal feels. This pain—”
I gave an impatient shrug at such sophistry.
(65) “Oh! But it is such a little thing. A mind truly open to what science
has to teach must see that it is a little thing.”

252. In the first paragraph of Passage 1 (lines 1–10), Frankenstein

reveals that the purpose of his tale is to
a. entertain the reader.
b. explain a scientific principle.
c. teach a moral lesson.
d. share the secret of his research.
e. reveal his true nature.

253. The word baffled in line 23 means

a. hindered.
b. confused.
c. puzzled.
d. eluded.
e. regulated.

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254. During the creation process, Frankenstein could best be

described as
a. calm.
b. horrified.
c. evil.
d. indifferent.
e. obsessed.

255. From Passage 2, it can be inferred that Dr. Moreau is what sort of
scientist?
a. artistic
b. calculating and systematic
c. careless, haphazard
d. famous, renowned
e. materialist

256. These things that the narrator refers to in Passage 2, line 35 are
a. Siamese twins.
b. inquisitors.
c. pigs.
d. creatures Moreau created.
e. tyrants and criminals.

257. From the passage, it can be inferred that Dr. Moreau

a. does not inflict pain upon animals when he experiments on
them.
b. has caused great pain to the creatures he has experimented on.
c. is unable to experience physical pain.
d. is searching for a way to eliminate physical pain.
e. has learned to feel what an animal feels.

258. Based on the information in the passages, Dr. Moreau is like Victor
Frankenstein in that he also
a. used dead bodies in his experiments.
b. wanted his creations to worship him.
c. made remarkable discoveries.
d. kept his experiment a secret from everyone.
e. had a specific justification for his pursuit of knowledge.

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259. Frankenstein would be most upset by Dr. Moreau’s

a. indifference to suffering.
b. arrogance.
c. great achievements.
d. education of animals.
e. choice of the human form.

260. Which of the following best expresses Frankenstein’s and Moreau’s

attitudes toward science?
a. Both believe science can be dangerous.
b. Frankenstein believes science should have a tangible applica­
tion; Moreau believes scientific knowledge should be sought for
its own sake.
c. Frankenstein believes scientists should not harm living crea­
tures in an experiment; Moreau believes it is acceptable to
inflict pain on other creatures.
d. Both men believe scientists should justify their work.
e. Both men believe the greatest discoveries often take place in
secrecy.

Use the following to answer questions 261 through 262.

(1) The fictional world of Nobel Prize winner Toni Morrison’s novel
Sula—the African-American section of Medallion, Ohio, a community
called “the Bottom”—is a place where people, and even natural things,
are apt to go awry, to break from their prescribed boundaries, a place
(5) where bizarre and unnatural happenings and strange reversals of the
ordinary are commonplace. The very naming of the setting of Sula is
a turning-upside-down of the expected; the Bottom is located high up
in the hills. The novel is furthermore filled with images of mutilation,
both psychological and physical. A great part of the lives of the char­
(10) acters, therefore, is taken up with making sense of the world, setting
boundaries and devising methods to control what is essentially uncon­
trollable. One of the major devices used by the people of the Bottom
is the seemingly universal one of creating a ____________, in this case,
the title character Sula upon which to project both the evil they per­
(15) ceive outside themselves and the evil in their own hearts.

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261. Which of the following words would best fit into the blank in the
final sentence of the passage?
a. scapegoat
b. hero
c. leader
d. victim
e. monster

262. Based on the description of the setting of the novel Sula, which of
the following adjectives would most likely describe the behavior of
many of its residents?
a. furtive
b. suspicious
c. unkempt
d. eccentric
e. predictable

Use the following to answer questions 263 through 267.

(1) For perhaps the tenth time since the clock struck two, Sylvia crosses
to the front-facing window of her apartment, pulls back the blue cur­
tain and looks down at the street. People hurry along the sidewalk;
however, although she watches for several long moments, she sees no
(5) one enter her building.
She walks back to the center of the high-ceilinged living room,
where she stands frowning and twisting a silver bracelet around and
around on her wrist. She is an attractive young woman, although per­
haps too thin and with a look that is faintly ascetic; her face is narrow
(10) and delicate, her fine, light-brown hair caught back by a tortoiseshell
comb. She is restless now, because she is being kept waiting. It is
nearly two-thirty—a woman named Lola Parrish was to come at two
o’clock to look at the apartment.
She considers leaving a note and going out. The woman is late, after
(15) all, and besides, Sylvia is certain that Lola Parrish will not be a suit­
able person with whom to share the apartment. On the phone she had
sounded too old, for one thing, her voice oddly flat and as deep as a
man’s. However, the moment for saying the apartment was no longer
available slipped past, and Sylvia found herself agreeing to the two
(20) o’clock appointment. If she leaves now, as she has a perfect right to do,
she can avoid the awkwardness of turning the woman away.
Looking past the blue curtain, however, she sees the sky is not clear
but veiled by a white haze, and the air is oppressively still. She knows

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that the haze and the stillness and heat are conditions that often pre­
(25) cede a summer thunderstorm, one of the abrupt, swiftly descending
electrical storms that have terrified her since she was a child. If a storm
comes, she wants to be at home in her own place.
She walks back to the center of the room, aware now that the idea
(30) of sharing the apartment, never appealing, born of necessity, has actu­
ally begun to repel her. Still, she knows she will have to become accus­
tomed to the notion, because her savings are nearly gone and the small
trust fund left her by her father exhausted. She has a job, but it does
not pay well, and, although she has considered seeking another (per­
(35) haps something connected with music—in her childhood she had
played the flute and people had said she was gifted), lately she has
found herself dragged down by a strange inertia.
Besides, although her job pays poorly, it suits her. She is a typist in
a natural history museum, in an office on the top floor, near the aviary.
(40) The man for whom she works, one of the curators, is rarely in, so
Sylvia has the office to herself. The aviary consists of three enormous
rooms, painted white, each with a high vaulted ceiling. The birds
themselves, so beautifully mounted they seem alive, are displayed in
elaborate dioramas. Behind glass, they perch in trees with leaves of
(45) sculpted metal, appear to soar through painted forests, above painted
rivers and marshes. Everything is rendered in exquisite detail. And in
her office there is a skylight. The location of the office, so near the
open sky, suits her, too, because she is mildly claustrophobic.

263. Which of the following adjectives best describes Sylvia’s mood as

depicted in the story segment?
a. anxious
b. angry
c. meditative
d. serene
e. confident

264. Based on the tone of the passage and the description of Sylvia at
this moment, which of the following is the most likely reason
Sylvia’s job “suits her”?
a. Her office is tastefully decorated.
b. She is fond of her employer, the museum curator.
c. She is musical and enjoys the singing of birds.
d. She is able to work alone in a space that feels open.
e. She is afraid to pursue other job opportunities.

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265. When Sylvia looks out her window, the weather appears
a. gloomy
b. ominous
c. spring-like
d. bracing
e. confusing

266. Based on the story segment, which of the following would most
likely describe Sylvia’s behavior in relationship to other people?
a. distant
b. overbearing
c. dependent
d. malicious
e. generous

267. Which of the following is most likely the author’s purpose in

describing in detail the museum where Sylvia works?
a. Everything in it, though beautiful and tasteful, seems frozen or
removed from life and reflects some aspect of Sylvia’s character.
b. The fact that it is light and airy and filled with beautiful diora­
mas reflects Sylvia’s youth and her wish for something better.
c. Some part of the story, perhaps a love affair between Sylvia and
her boss, will probably take place there.
d. The killing and mounting of the beautiful birds will probably
play an important part in the story.
e. The author wants to remind readers that Sylvia is eager to leave
her job.

Use the following to answer questions 268 through 271.

A Narrow Fellow in the Grass

(1) He likes a boggy acre,

A floor too cool for corn,
Yet when a boy, and barefoot,
I more than once at noon
(5) Have passed, I thought, a whip-lash
Unbraiding in the sun,
When, stooping to secure it,
It wrinkled, and was gone.

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Several of nature’s people

(10) I know and they know me;
I feel for them a transport
Of cordiality;
But never met this fellow,
Attended or alone,
(15) Without a tighter breathing
And zero at the bone.
A narrow fellow in the grass
Occasionally rides;
You may have met him—did you not?
(20) His notice sudden is.
The grass divides as with a comb,
A spotted shaft is seen,
And then it closes at your feet
And opens further on.

268. Who or what is the “fellow” in this poem?

a. a whip-lash
b. a snake
c. a gust of wind
d. a boy
e. a gardener

269. The phrase “Without a tighter breathing / And zero at the bone”
most nearly indicates
a. fright
b. cold
c. grief
d. awe
e. joy

270. The phrase “nature’s people” means

a. nature-lovers
b. children
c. animals
d. neighbors
e. trees

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271. The speaker of this poem is most likely

a. an adult woman
b. an adult man
c. Emily Dickinson, the poet
d. a young boy
e. a young girl

Use the following to answer questions 272 through 276.

(1) In his famous study of myth, The Hero With a Thousand Faces, Joseph
Campbell writes about the archetypal hero who has ventured outside
the boundaries of the village and, after many trials and adventures, has
returned with the boon that will save or enlighten his fellows. Like
(5) Carl Jung, Campbell believes that the story of the hero is part of the
collective unconscious of all humankind. He likens the returning hero
to the sacred or tabooed personage described by James Frazier in The
Golden Bough. Such an individual must, in many instances of myth, be
insulated from the rest of society, “not merely for his own sake but for
(10) the sake of others; for since the virtue of holiness is, so to say, a pow­
erful explosive which the smallest touch can detonate, it is necessary
in the interest of the general safety to keep it within narrow bounds.”
There is __________ between the archetypal hero who has jour­
neyed into the wilderness and the poet who has journeyed into the
(15) realm of imagination. Both places are dangerous and full of wonders,
and both, at their deepest levels, are journeys that take place into the
kingdom of the unconscious mind, a place that, in Campbell’s words,
“goes down into unsuspected Aladdin caves. There not only jewels but
dangerous jinn abide. . . .”

272. The phrase that would most accurately fit into the blank in the
first sentence of the second paragraph is
a. much similarity
b. a wide gulf
c. long-standing conflict
d. an abiding devotion
e. no similarity

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273. Based on the passage, which of the following would best describe
the hero’s journey?
a. wonderful
b. terrifying
c. awesome
d. whimsical
e. insignificant

274. The title of Campbell’s book, The Hero With a Thousand Faces, is
meant to convey
a. the many villagers whose lives are changed by the story the hero
has to tell
b. the fact that the hero journeys into many different imaginary
countries
c. the many languages into which the myth of the hero has been
translated
d. the universality of the myth of the hero who journeys into the
wilderness
e. the notion that the hero is a magical shape-shifter

275. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the
story that will likely be told by Campbell’s returning hero and
Frazier’s sacred or tabooed personage?
a. a radically mind-altering story
b. a story that will terrify people to no good end
c. a warning of catastrophe to come
d. a story based on a dangerous lie
e. a boring recounting of dry facts

276. As depicted in the last sentence of the passage, “Aladdin caves” are
most likely to be found in
a. holy books
b. fairy tales
c. the fantasies of the hero
d. the unconscious mind
e. daydreams

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Answers

195. b. The we go to school, so the reference must be to school-aged chil­

dren. In addition, the passage contrasts the we’s with the respectable
boys and the rich ones (lines 2–3), so the we’s are neither wealthy nor
respected.
196. a. The author and his classmates go to school through lanes and back
streets (line 1) to avoid the students who go to school dressed in
warm and respectable clothing. He also states in lines 15–16 that
they are ashamed of the way we look, implying that they are poorly
dressed.
197. d. The boys would get into fights if the rich boys were to utter
derogatory words or pass remarks.
198. c. While the quote here does show how the author’s school masters
talked, it has a more important function: to show that his school
masters reinforced the class system by telling the author and his
classmates to stay in their place and not challenge the existing
class structure.
199. e. The author “knows,” based only on the fact of which school the
boys attend, what they will be when they grow up—the
respectable boys will have the administrative jobs (lines 5–6) while
the rich boys will run the government, run the world (lines 11–12).
The author and those in his socio-economic class will be laborers
(lines 12–14). The author emphasizes the certainty of this knowl­
edge with the repetition of the phrase we know and the sentence
We know that (line 15). Thus he demonstrates that their future was
already set based upon their socio-economic standing.
200. a. Lines 6-7 reveal that there are two rooms and lines 9–10 describe
the truck delivering furniture downstairs.
201. b. Lines 1–5 state that after Pauline became pregnant, Cholly had
acted like the early days of their marriage when he would ask if she
were tired or wanted him to bring her something from the store. This
statement suggests that Cholly had not done that for a while, and
therefore had begun to neglect Pauline.
202. e. Although there is a state of ease (line 5) in the relationship between
Pauline and Cholly, there is intense loneliness for Pauline. There
may be less tension in this state of ease, but there does not appear
to be more intimacy, because the loneliness prevails. We can infer
that back home she was living with her family, not Cholly, and that
Pauline would expect her husband to fulfill her need for compan­
ionship.

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203. a. At the end of the passage, Pauline rediscovers her dreams of

romance. Line 14 tells us she succumbed to her earlier dreams, and
the following sentence tells us what whose dreams were about:
romantic love.
204. c. Because the narrator states that romantic love and physical beauty
are probably the most destructive ideas in the history of human thought
(lines 15–16) because they both originated in envy, thrived in insecu­
rity, and ended in disillusion, and because these are the two ideas
Pauline was introduced to in the theater, we can infer that she will
only become more unhappy as a result of going to the movies.
205. e. Lines 4–5 refer to the reservation jukebox, and line 12 refers to the
reservation as well. If Thomas, Chess, and Checkers live on a
reservation, they are most likely Native American.
206. c. Because their song is one of mourning, c is the most logical
choice. In addition, the context clue Samuel was still alive, but tells
us that the song is traditionally reserved for the dead.
207. c. To sing a mourning song for someone who is still alive suggests
that that person’s life is mournful—full of grief, sadness, or sorrow.
208. b. In line 9, the narrator states that Thomas wanted his tears to be indi­
vidual, not tribal, suggesting too that he felt his father deserved to
be mourned as an individual.
209. e. The author is speaking figuratively here—the BIA does not liter­
ally collect and ferment Indian tears and return them to the reser­
vation in beer and Pepsi cans.
210. c. In line 23, the narrator states that Thomas wanted the songs, the sto­
ries, to save everybody. The paragraph tells readers how many songs
Thomas knew but how something seemed to be missing (e.g., he
never sang them correctly); how Thomas wanted to play the guitar
but how his guitar only sounded like a guitar (lines 22–23). He
wanted his songs to do more, to rescue others.
211. d. In lines 15–17, Doc Burton emphasizes change. He tells Mac that
nothing stops and that as soon as an idea (such as the cause) is put
into effect, it [the idea] would start changing right away. Then he
specifically states that once a commune is established, the same
gradual flux will continue. Thus, the cause itself is in flux and is
always changing.
212. b. The several references to communes suggest that the cause is
communism, and this is made clear in line 31, when Mac says Rev­
olution and communism will cure social injustice.

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213. a. In lines 21–25, Doc Burton describes his desire to see the whole pic­
ture, to look at the whole thing. He tells Mac he doesn’t want to
judge the cause as good or bad so that he doesn’t limit his vision.
Thus, he is best described as an objective observer.
214. d. In the first part of his analogy, Doc Burton says that infections are
a reaction to a wound—the wound is the first battleground (line 40).
Without a wound, there is no place for the infection to fester. The
strikes, then, are like the infection in that they are a reaction to a
wound (social injustice).
215. a. By comparing an individual in a group to a cell within the body
(line 50), Doc Burton emphasizes the idea that the individual is
really not an individual at all but rather part of a whole.
216. c. In lines 59–62, Doc Burton argues that the group doesn’t care
about the standard or cause it has created because the group simply
wants to move, to fight. Individuals such as Mac, however, believe in
a cause (or at least think they do).
217. a. Doc Burton seems to feel quite strongly that group-man simply
wants to move, to fight, without needing a real cause—in fact, he
states that the group uses the cause simply to reassure the brains of
individual men (lines 61–62).
218. b. Doc Burton knows how deeply Mac believes in the cause and
knows that if he outright says the group doesn’t really believe in the
cause that Mac would not listen. Thus he says “It might be like this,”
emphasizing the possibility. Still Mac reacts hotly.
219. b. In lines 3–4, Wharton makes it clear that she will be refuting the
statement in the first two lines: but it is certainly a misleading
[premise] on which to build any general theory. In lines 8–9, she states
that a subject is suited to a short story or a novel, and in lines 9–10,
if it appears to be adapted to both the chances are that it is inadequate in
either. This firmly refutes the opening statement.
220. d. After making it clear that subjects are not equally suitable for
short stories and novels, Wharton explains what makes a particu­
lar subject suitable for the novel form (paragraphs 4 and 5) and
how the elements of time and length are different in the short
story (paragraph 6).
221. b. In lines 15–18, Wharton writes that rules in art are useful mainly
for the sake of the guidance they give, but it is a mistake [ . . . ] to be too
much in awe of them. Thus, they should be used only as a general
guide.
222. a. Wharton compares general rules in art to both a lamp in a mine and
a handrail down a black stairwell.

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223. c. In paragraph 4, Wharton states the two chief reasons a subject

should find expression in novel­form: first, the gradual unfolding of the
inner life of its characters and second the need of producing in the
reader’s mind the sense of the lapse of time (lines 25–27).
224. b. Wharton uses this paragraph to clarify the “rules” she established
in the previous paragraph by describing more specifically that if a
subject can be dealt with in a single retrospective flash it is suitable
for a short story while those that justify elaboration or need to sug­
gest the lapse of time require the novel form.
225. e. In lines 39–42, Wharton writes that short stories observe two ‘uni­
ties’: that of time, which is limited to achieve the effect of compactness
and instantaneity, and that of point of view, telling the story through
only one pair of eyes.
226. b. This paragraph expands on the final idea of the previous para­
graph, that of the limited point of view. In line 44, Wharton refers
to the character who serves as reflector—thus in line 46, this reflecting
mind is that same person, the one who tells the story.
227. d. As the introduction states, Higgins is a professor, and he contrasts
the life of the gutter with Science and Literature and Classical Music
and Philosophy and Art (lines 9–10). Thus, his life is best described
as the life of a scholar.
228. e. The answer to this question is found in Liza’s statement in lines
22–24: You think I must go back to Wimpole Street because I have
nowhere else to go but father’s. This statement indicates that Wim­
pole Street is probably where Liza grew up.
229. e. Liza’s reply to Higgins suggests that she wants more respect. She
criticizes him for always turning everything against her, bullying
her, and insulting her. She tells him not to be too sure that you have
me under your feet to be trampled on and talked down (lines 24-25).
Clearly he does not treat her with respect, and as her actions in
the rest of the excerpt reveal, she is determined to get it.
230. b. Liza is from the gutter, but she can’t go back there after being with
Higgins and living the life of the scholar, a refined, educated,
upper-class life. Thus the best definition of common here is
unrefined.
231. a. In these lines Higgins threatens Liza and lays hands on her, thus
proving that he is a bully.
232. c. Higgins refers to Liza as my masterpiece, indicating that he thinks
of Liza as his creation—that he made her what she is today.

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233. b. The excerpt opens with Higgins telling Liza “If you’re going to be a
lady” and comparing her past—the life of the gutter—with her pres­
ent—a cultured life of literature and art. We also know that Hig­
gins taught Liza phonetics (line 40) and that Liza was once only a
flower girl but is now a duchess (lines 55–56). Thus, we can con­
clude that Higgins taught Liza how to speak and act like someone
from the upper class.
234. d. Higgins realizes that Liza—with the knowledge that he gave
her—now has the power to stand up to him, that she will not just
let herself be trampled on and called names (line 59). He realizes that
she has other options and she is indifferent to his bullying and big
talk (line 55).
235. c. Liza’s final lines express her joy at realizing that she has the power
to change her situation and that she is not Higgins’ inferior but
his equal; she can’t believe that all the time I had only to lift up my
finger to be as good as you (lines 59–60). She realizes that she can be
an assistant to someone else, that she doesn’t have to be depend­
ent on Higgins.
236. d. In the first few lines, the narrator states that Miss Temple was the
superintendent of the seminary and that she received both instruction
and friendship from Miss Temple, who was also like a mother to
her: she had stood me in the stead of mother.
237. a. The narrator states that with Miss Temple, I had given in allegiance
to duty and order; I was quiet; I believed I was content (lines 12–13).
238. d. The context here suggests existence or habitation, not captivity or
illness.
239. c. We can assume that the narrator would go home during vacations,
but she spent all of her vacations at school because Mrs. Reed had
never sent for me to Gateshead (lines 50–51). Thus we can infer that
Mrs. Reed was her guardian, the one who sent the narrator to
Lowood in the first place.
240. b. The narrator describes her experience with school­rules and
school­duties (line 53) and how she tired of the routine (line 56)
after Miss Temple left. She also contrasts Lowood with the real
world of hopes and fears, of sensations and excitements (lines 35–36)
and that the view from her window seemed a prison­ground, exile
limits (line 44). Thus, it can be inferred that Lowood is both a
structured and isolated place.

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241. a. The narrator states in lines 26–27 that she had undergone a
transforming process and that now she again felt the stirring of
old emotions (line 30) and remembered that the real world was
wide and awaited those who had courage to go forth (lines 36–37).
She also looks at the road from Lowood and states how [she]
longed to follow it further! More importantly, she repeats her
desire for liberty and prays for a new servitude—something
beyond Lowood.
242. e. In lines 13–15, the narrator states that with Miss Temple at
Lowood, she believed she was content, that to the eyes of others,
usually even to my own, I appeared a disciplined and subdued charac­
ter. This suggests that in her natural element (lines 29–30) she is
not so disciplined or subdued. Her desire for freedom and to
explore the world are also evident in this passage; she longs to
follow the road that leads away from Lowood (line 46) and she
is half desperate in her cry for something new, something beyond
Lowood and the rules and systems she tired of [ . . . ] in one after­
noon (line 56).
243. d. Because Lowood had been the narrator’s home for eight years
and all she knew of existence was school rules, duties, habits,
faces, etc. (lines 53–55)—because she had had no communication
[ . . . ] with the outer world (lines 52–53), it is likely that she feels
her initial prayers were unrealistic. At least a new servitude
would provide some familiar territory, and it therefore seems
more realistic and attainable than liberty or change.
244. c. The women refer to each other as “Mrs.”, and their conversa­
tion reveals that they don’t know much about each other. Mrs.
Hale, for example, asks Mrs. Peters if she knew Mr. Wright
(line 46) and if she were raised round here (line 58).
245. a. Mrs. Peters says It would be lonesome for me sitting here alone
(lines 27–28)—to which Mrs. Hale replies, It would, wouldn’t it?
and then expresses her wish that she’d come to see Mrs.
Wright. She says it’s a lonesome place and always was in line 37
and then says I can see now—(lines 38–39) suggesting that she
can understand now how Mrs. Wright must have felt.
246. d. Mrs. Hale describes Mr. Wright as a hard man who was like a
raw wind that gets to the bone (lines 51–52). Mrs. Wright’s loneli­
ness would be deepened by living with a man who was quiet
and cold.

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247. b. The punctuation here—the dashes between each word—sug­

gest that Mrs. Wright changed from the sweet, fluttery woman
she was to a bitter, unhappy person over the years. The
emphasis on her loneliness and the dead husband and bird add
to this impression.
248. d. The women decide to take the quilt to Mrs. Wright to keep her
busy; it would give her something to do, something familiar and
comforting
249. c. Because her house was so lonely, Mrs. Wright would have
wanted the company of a pet—and a pet that shared some
qualities with her (or with her younger self) would have been
particularly appealing. She would have liked the bird’s singing
to ease the quiet in the house, and she also used to sing real
pretty herself (line 10) and would have felt a real connection
with the bird.
250. b. The clues in the passage—the violently broken bird cage, the
dead bird lovingly wrapped in silk and put in a pretty box, the
description of John Wright as a hard and cold man—suggest that
he killed the bird and that Mrs. Wright in turn killed him for
destroying her companion.
251. d. The fact that Mrs. Hale slips box under quilt pieces suggests that she
will not share her discovery with the men.
252. c. Frankenstein asks his listener to [l]earn from me [ . . . ] how danger­
ous is the acquirement of knowledge (lines 6–8). He is telling his tale
as a warning and does not want to lead his listener into the same
kind of destruction and infallible misery (line 6).
253. a. The context reveals that Frankenstein was prepared for a
multitude of reverses or setbacks that would hinder his
operations.
254. e. Frankenstein describes himself as pursuing his undertaking with
unremitting ardour and that his cheek had grown pale with study,
and [his] person had become emaciated with confinement (lines
45–47). He also says that a resistless, and almost frantic, impulse
urged me forward; I seemed to have lost all soul or sensation but for
this one pursuit (lines 56–58). These are the marks of a man
obsessed.

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255. b. Moreau states in lines 22–24 that this extraordinary branch of knowl­
edge has never been sought as an end, [ . . . ] until I took it up!, and in
lines 28–30, he states that he was the first man to take up this ques­
tion armed with antiseptic surgery, and with a really scientific knowledge
of the laws of growth. This, and the detail with which he explains
the background of his investigations, reveals that he is a calculat­
ing and systematic scientist. (Although he confesses that he chose
the human form by chance (line 45), it is likely that Moreau did not
just happen upon this choice but that he found the human form,
as he later states, more appealing to the artistic turn of mind [ . . . ]
than any animal shape (lines 48–49).
256. d. Right after he says these things, the narrator says these animals to
clarify that he is referring to the creatures that Moreau created.
An additional context clue is provided by Moreau’s response, in
which he explains how animals may be educated so that they
may talk.
257. b. The narrator asks Moreau to justify all this pain (line 54), implying
that he has inflicted great pain on the animals he has used in his
experiments.
258. c. Both men make remarkable discoveries in their fields; in the
other aspects the men are different. Dr. Moreau uses live ani­
mals to change their form, and there is no evidence in the pas­
sage that he wants his creatures to worship him or that he has
kept his experiment a secret (though these facts are evident in
other passages in the book). Passage 2 also suggests that
Moreau did not have a specific application or justification for
his work; he responds to the narrator’s request for a justification
by philosophizing about pain.
259. a. Frankenstein confesses that he was horrified by the torture of
living animals and that he trembled just remembering the pain
he inflicted (lines 52–55). He also characterizes himself as having
lost all soul or sensation (line 57) in his quest. In addition, he is
telling this tale as a warning. Thus it is likely that he would be
most offended by Moreau’s indifference to the suffering of other
creatures.

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260. b. In lines 29–35, Frankenstein cites specific goals for his pursuit of
knowledge: he wanted to pour a torrent of light into our dark world
by making important new discoveries; he wanted to create a new
species that would bless [him] as its creator and source; and he wanted
to renew life. Moreau, on the other hand, does not offer any appli­
cation or justification; he seems motivated only by the acquisition
of knowledge. He states that he has devoted his life to the study of
the plasticity of living forms (lines 2–3) and seems more interested in
what science has to teach (lines 65–66) than in what can be done with
that knowledge. This is reinforced by the fact that he does not
offer a justification for his experiments.
261. a. A scapegoat is one who is forced to bear the blame for others or
upon whom the sins of a community are heaped.
262. d. The passage says of the people who live in “the Bottom” that
they are apt to go awry, to break from their prescribed bound­
aries. A person who is eccentric is quirky or odd.
263. a. In paragraph 2, Sylvia is described as restless and in paragraph 4
she is fearful of the impending storm; therefore her mood is
most likely anxious.
264. d. In the final sentence, Sylvia is described as mildly claustrophobic,
and this reason states that she works in a space that feels open,
which is ideal for a person who does not like enclosed spaces.
265. b. In paragraph four, Sylvia does not want to go outside because
an electrical storm is coming, and she has always been fright­
ened of storms. Ominous and frightening have similar meanings.
266. a. Sylvia’s job suits her partly because her boss is usually gone and
she’s alone at work; she is mildly fearful of meeting the new per­
son, Lola Parrish, and even thinks of leaving before their
appointment. These details point to a distant kind of person.
267. a. Sylvia does seem distant and her life seems somewhat cold, so
this explanation is the most logical choice.
268. b. The fellow frightens the speaker. People are often afraid of
snakes.
269. a. “Tighter breathing” indicates fear, as does zero at the bone (one
is sometimes said to be cold with fear). Also, the subject is a
snake, which is a generally feared animal.
270. c. The speaker seems to be referring to animals when he says
“nature’s people,” because he follows with his contrasting atti­
tude toward the fellow, which is a snake.
271. b. Stanza two contains the phrase when a boy implying the speaker
was a boy in the past and is now, therefore, an adult man.

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272. a. This sentence describes an archetypal hero and a poet who both
take journeys, which makes them similar.
273. c. The word awe implies mingled reverence, dread, and wonder,
so the adjective awesome is the best of all the choices to describe
a place that is dangerous and full of wonders (line 15).
274. d. The first sentence of the passage describes Campbell’s hero as
archetypal. An archetype is a personage or pattern that occurs in
literature and human thought often enough to be considered
universal. Also, in the second sentence, the author of the pas­
sage mentions the collective unconscious of all humankind.
275. a. The passage states that the hero’s tale will enlighten his fellows,
but that it will also be dangerous. Such a story would surely be
radically mind-altering.
276. d. The second sentence in the second paragraph says that the
kingdom of the unconscious mind goes down into unsuspected
Aladdin caves.

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5
Music

Questions 277–281 are based on the following passage.

The following passage describes the transition from the swing era to bebop in the
history of jazz music.

(1) Jazz, from its early roots in slave spirituals and the marching bands of
New Orleans, had developed into the predominant American musical
style by the 1930s. In this era, jazz musicians played a lush, orchestrated
style known as swing. Played in large ensembles, also called big bands,
(5) swing filled the dance halls and nightclubs. Jazz, once considered risqué,
was made more accessible to the masses with the vibrant, swinging
sounds of these big bands. Then came bebop. In the mid­1940s, jazz
musicians strayed from the swing style and developed a more improvi­
sational method of playing known as bebop. Jazz was transformed from
(10) popular music to an elite art form.
The soloists in the big bands improvised from the melody. The
young musicians who ushered in bebop, notably trumpeter Dizzy Gille­
spie and saxophonist Charlie Parker, expanded on the improvisational
elements of the big bands. They played with advanced harmonies,
(15) changed chord structures, and made chord substitutions. These young
musicians got their starts with the leading big bands of the day, but dur­
ing World War II—as older musicians were drafted and dance halls
made cutbacks—they started to play together in smaller groups.

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These pared­down bands helped foster the bebop style. Rhythm is

(20) the distinguishing feature of bebop, and in small groups the drums
became more prominent. Setting a driving beat, the drummer inter­
acted with the bass, piano, and the soloists, and together the musicians
created fast, complex melodies. Jazz aficionados flocked to such clubs as
Minton’s Playhouse in Harlem to soak in the new style. For the young
(25) musicians and their fans this was a thrilling turning point in jazz history.
However, for the majority of Americans, who just wanted some swing­
ing music to dance to, the advent of bebop was the end of jazz as main­
stream music.

277. The swing style can be most accurately characterized as

a. complex and inaccessible.
b. appealing to an elite audience.
c. lively and melodic.
d. lacking in improvisation.
e. played in small groups.

278. According to the passage, in the 1940s you would most likely find
bebop being played where?
a. church
b. a large concert hall
c. in music schools
d. small clubs
e. parades

279. According to the passage, one of the most significant innovations of

the bebop musicians was
a. to shun older musicians.
b. to emphasize rhythm.
c. to use melodic improvisation.
d. to play in small clubs.
e. to ban dancing.

280. In the context of this passage, aficionados (line 23) can most
accurately be described as
a. fans of bebop.
b. residents of Harlem.
c. innovative musicians.
d. awkward dancers.
e. fickle audience members.

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281. The main purpose of the passage is to

a. mourn the passing of an era.
b. condemn bebop for making jazz inaccessible.
c. explain the development of the bebop style.
d. celebrate the end of the conventional swing style of jazz.
e. instruct in the method of playing bebop.

Questions 282–288 are based on the following passage.

The selection that follows is based on an excerpt from the biography of a music
legend.
(1) Although Dick Dale is best known for his contributions to surf music,
and has been called “King of the Surf Guitar,” he has also been referred
to as the “Father of Heavy Metal.” While this title is more often associ­
ated with Ozzy Osbourne or Tony Iossa, Dale earned it from Guitar
(5) Player Magazine for his unique playing style and pioneering use of Fender
guitars and amplifiers.
In the mid­1950s, Dale was playing guitar at a club in California, where
his one­of­a­kind music turned it from a jazz club into a rock nightspot.
After a 1956 concert there, guitar and amplifier maker Leo Fender
(10) approached the guitarist and gave him the first Fender Stratocaster to try
before the guitar was mass marketed. Fender thought that Dale’s way of
playing, a virtual assault on the instrument, would be a good test of its
durability. However, the guitar was right­handed and Dale played left­
handed. Unfazed, Dale held and played it upside down and backwards (a
(15) feat that later strongly influenced Jimi Hendrix).
The test proved too much for Fender’s equipment. Dale loved the gui­
tar, but blew out the amplifier that came with it. It had worked well for
most other musicians, who at that time were playing country and blues.
Rock didn’t exist, and no one played the guitar as fiercely as Dale. Fender
(20) improved the amplifier, and Dale blew it out again. Before Fender came
up with a winner, legend has it that Dale blew up between 40 and 60
amplifiers. Finally, Fender created a special amp just for Dale, known as
the “Showman.” It had more than 100 watts of power. The two men then
made an agreement that Dale would “road test” prototypes of Fender’s
(25) new amplification equipment before they would be manufactured for the
general public. But they still had problems with the speakers—every
speaker Dale used it with blew up (some even caught fire) because of the
intense power of his volume coupled with a staccato playing style.
Fender and Dale approached the James B. Lansing speaker company,
(30) asking for a fifteen­inch speaker built to their specifications. The com­

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pany responded with the fifteen­inch JBL­D130F speaker, and it

worked. Dale was able to play through the Showman Amp with the vol­
ume turned all the way up. With the help of Leo Fender and the design­
ers at Lansing, Dick Dale was able to break through the limits of existing
(35) electronics and play the music his way—loud.
But it wasn’t enough. As Dale’s popularity increased, his shows got
larger. He wanted even more sound to fill the larger halls he now
played in. Fender had the Triad Company craft an amp tube that
peaked at 180 watts, creating another new amplifier for Dale. Dale
(40) designed a cabinet to house it along with two Lansing speakers. He
called it the Dick Dale Transformer, and it was a scream machine. Dick
Dale made music history by playing a new kind of music, and helping
to invent the means by which that music could be played. Not only was
this the start of the electric movement, but it may also be considered
(45) the dawning of heavy metal.

282. In line 25, the word prototype most nearly means

a. an original model.
b. a Fender guitar.
c. an amplifier­speaker combination.
d. a computerized amplifier.
e. top of the line equipment.

283. Lines 16–20 indicate that

a. country and blues guitarists didn’t need amplifiers.
b. most musicians played louder than Dick Dale.
c. a new kind of music was being created.
d. Dick Dale needed a new guitar.
e. the Stratocaster didn’t work for Dick Dale.

284. In line 28, the word staccato most nearly means

a. smooth and connected.
b. loud.
c. gently picking the guitar strings.
d. abrupt and disconnected.
e. peaceful.

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285. The title that best suits this passage is

a. Dick Dale and the History of the Amplifier.
b. The King of Heavy Metal.
c. The Invention of the Stratocaster.
d. Lansing and Fender: Making Music History.
e. How Surf Music Got its Start.

286. In line 14, unfazed most nearly means

a. not moving forward.
b. not in sequence.
c. not bothered by.
d. not ready for.
e. not happy about.

287. In line 41, scream machine indicates that

a. the new transformer could handle very loud music.
b. fans screamed when they heard Dale play.
c. Dale’s guitar sounded like it was screaming.
d. neighbors of the club screamed because the music was too loud.
e. you couldn’t hear individual notes being played.

288. All of the following can explicitly be answered on the basis of the
passage EXCEPT
a. Who invented the Stratocaster?
b. Where did Dick Dale meet Leo Fender?
c. What company made speakers for Dick Dale?
d. Where did Ozzy Osbourne get his start as a musician?
e. What do Dick Dale, Ozzy Osbourne, and Tony Iossa have in
common?

Questions 289–295 are based on the following passage.

The following passage discusses the unique musical traditions that developed
along the Rio Grand in colonial New Mexico.

(1) From 1598 to 1821, the area along the Rio Grand that is now the state
of New Mexico formed the northernmost border of the Spanish
colonies in the New World. The colonists lived on a geographic fron­
tier surrounded by deserts and mountains. This remote colony with its
(5) harsh climate was far removed from the cultural centers of the Span­
ish Empire in the New World, and music was a necessary part of social
life. The isolated nature of the region and needs of the community
gave rise to a unique, rich musical tradition that included colorful bal­

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lads, popular dances, and some of the most extraordinary ceremonial

(10) music in the Hispanic world.
The popular music along the Rio Grand, especially the heroic and
romantic ballads, reflected the stark and rough nature of the region.
Unlike the refined music found in Mexico, the music of the Rio Grand
had a rough­cut “frontier” quality. The music also reflected the mix­
(15) ing of cultures that characterized the border colony. The close mili­
tary and cultural ties between the Spanish and the native Pueblos of
the region led to a uniquely New Mexican fusion of traditions. Much
of the music borrowed from both European and native cultures. This
mixing of traditions was especially evident in the dances.
(20) The bailes, or village dances—instrumental music played on violin
and guitar—were a lively focus of frontier life. Some bailes were
derived from traditional European waltzes, but then adapted to the
singular style of the region. The bailes had an unusual melodic struc­
ture and the players had unique methods of bowing and tuning their
(25) instruments. Other bailes, such as indita (little Indian girl) and vaquero
(cowboy), were only found in New Mexico. The rhythms and
melodies of the indita had definite Puebloan influences. Its themes,
which ranged from love to tragedy, almost always featured dramatic
interactions between Spanish and Native Americans. Similarly, the
(30) Matachines dance drama was an allegorical representation of the meet­
ing of European and Native American cultures. Its European
melodies, played on violin and guitar, were coupled with the use of
insistent repetition, which came from the Native American tradition.
In addition to the bailes, waltzes—the Waltz of the Days and the
(35) Waltz of the Immanuels—were also performed to celebrate New
Year’s Eve and New Year’s Day. Groups of revelers went singing from
house to house throughout the night to bring in the New Year. In New
Mexico, January 1 is the Feast of Immanuel so the singers visited the
houses of people named Manuel or Manuela. Many songs were sung
(40) on these visits but especially popular were the coplas, or improvised
couplets, composed on the spot to honor or poke fun of the person
being visited.
Like in the New Year’s celebration, music was central to many social
rituals in colonial New Mexico. In the Rio Grand region, weddings
(45) were performed in song in a folk ceremony called “The Delivery of
the Newlyweds.” The community would gather to sanction the new
couple and “deliver” them in song to each other and to their respec­
tive families. The verses of the song, played to a lively waltz, were
improvised, but followed a familiar pattern. The first verses spoke
(50) about marriage in general. These were followed by serious and

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humorous verses offering practical advice to the couple. Then all the
guests filed past to bless the couple and concluding verses were sung
to honor specific individuals such as the best man. At the wedding
dance, la marcha was performed. In this triumphal march, couples
(55) formed into single files of men and women. After dancing in concen­
tric circles, the men and women lined up opposite one another with
their hands joined overhead to form a tunnel of love from which the
new couple was the last to emerge.
By the turn of the twentieth century, styles were evolving and musi­
(60) cal forms popular in previous eras were giving way to new tastes. The
ancient romance ballads were replaced by newer forms that featured
more local and contemporary events. The extraordinary indita was no
longer performed and the canción, or popular song, had begun its rise.
However, many of the wedding traditions of the colonial era are still
(65) in practice today. The music that was so central to life in the remote
colony of New Mexico has much to teach us about the unique and
vibrant culture that once flourished there.

289. The primary purpose of the first paragraph is to

a. describe the geography of New Mexico.
b. instruct readers about the history of the Spanish colonies along
the Rio Grand.
c. introduce readers to the unique culture and musical traditions
along the Rio Grand.
d. list the types of music that were prevalent in colonial New
Mexico.
e. explain the unique musical traditions of the New Mexican
colonies.

290. In line 23, the word singular most nearly means

a. strange.
b. monotone.
c. separate.
d. unusual.
e. superior.

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291. According to the passage, the musical tradition found in New

Mexico was the result of all the following EXCEPT
a. distance from cultural centers.
b. the blending of cultures.
c. the geography of the region.
d. the imposition of European culture on native traditions.
e. unique ways of playing instruments.

292. The New Year’s celebration and wedding ceremony described in

the passage share in common
a. offering of practical advice.
b. use of a lively march.
c. use of improvised verses.
d. visiting of houses.
e. singing and dancing.

293. According to the passage, the main purpose of the “Delivery of the
Newlyweds” was to
a. sanction and bless the new couple.
b. form a tunnel of love.
c. marry couples who did not want a Church wedding.
d. offer advice to the new couple.
e. sing improvised songs to newlyweds.

294. Which of the titles provided below is most appropriate for this
passage?
a. Wedding Marches and New Year’s Waltzes of the Rio Grand
b. The Fading Era of Colonial Music in New Mexico
c. Cowboy Songs of the Past
d. Between Deserts and Mountains New Mexico Sings a Unique
Song
e. The Extraordinary Popular and Ceremonial Music of the Rio
Grand

295. The author’s attitude toward the music of colonial New Mexico
can best be described as
a. bemusement.
b. admiration.
c. alienation.
d. condescension.
e. awe.

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Questions 296–304 are based on the following passages.

In Passage 1, the author describes the life and influence of blues guitarist
Robert Johnson. In Passage 2, the author provides a brief history of the blues.

PASSAGE 1

(1) There is little information available about the legendary blues guitarist
Robert Johnson, and the information that is available is as much rumor
as fact. What is undisputable, however, is Johnson’s impact on the
world of rock and roll. Some consider Johnson the father of modern
(5) rock; his influence extends to artists from Muddy Waters to Led Zep­
pelin, from the Rolling Stones to the Allman Brothers Band. Eric
Clapton, arguably the greatest living rock guitarist, has said that
“Robert Johnson to me is the most important blues musician who ever
lived. [ . . . ] I have never found anything more deeply soulful than
(10) Robert Johnson.” While the impact of Johnson’s music is evident, the
genesis of his remarkable talent remains shrouded in mystery.
For Johnson, born in 1911 in Hazelhurst, Mississippi, music was a
means of escape from working in the cotton fields. As a boy he worked
on the farm that belonged to Noel Johnson—the man rumored to be
(15) his father. He married young, at age 17, and lost his wife a year later
in childbirth. That’s when Johnson began traveling and playing the
blues.
Initially Johnson played the harmonica. Later, he began playing the
guitar, but apparently he was not very good. He wanted to learn, how­
(20) ever, so he spent his time in blues bars watching the local blues legends
Son House and Willie Brown. During their breaks, Johnson would go
up on stage and play. House reportedly thought Johnson was so bad
that he repeatedly told Johnson to get lost. Finally, one day, he did.
For six months, Johnson mysteriously disappeared. No one knew what
(25) happened to him.
When Johnson returned half a year later, he was suddenly a first­
rate guitarist. He began drawing crowds everywhere he played. John­
son never revealed where he had been and what he had done in those
six months that he was gone. People had difficulty understanding how
(30) he had become so good in such a short time. Was it genius? Magic?
Soon, rumors began circulating that he had made a deal with the devil.
Legend has it that Johnson met the devil at midnight at a crossroads
and sold his soul to the devil so he could play guitar.
Johnson recorded only 29 songs before his death in 1938, purport­
(35) edly at the hands of a jealous husband. He was only 27 years old, yet

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he left an indelible mark on the music world. There are countless ver­
sions of “Walkin’ Blues,” and his song “Cross Road Blues” (later reti­
tled “Crossroads”) has been recorded by dozens of artists, with
Cream’s 1969 version of “Crossroads” being perhaps the best­known
(40) Johnson remake. Again and again, contemporary artists return to John­
son, whose songs capture the very essence of the blues, transforming
our pain and suffering with the healing magic of his guitar.

PASSAGE 2

(1) There are more than fifty types of blues music, from the famous
Chicago and Memphis Blues to the less familiar Juke Joint and
Acoustic Country Blues. This rich variety comes as no surprise to
those who recognize the blues as a fundamental American art form.
(5) Indeed, in its resolution to name 2003 the Year of the Blues, the 107th
Congress has declared that the blues is “the most influential form of
American roots music.” In fact, the two most popular American musi­
cal forms—rock and roll and jazz—owe their genesis in large part
(some would argue entirely) to the blues.
(10) The blues—a neologism attributed to the American writer Wash­
ington Irving (author of “The Legend of Sleepy Hollow”) in 1807—
evolved from black American folk music. Its beginnings can be traced
to songs sung in the fields and around slave quarters on southern plan­
tations, songs of pain and suffering, of injustice, of longing for a bet­
(15) ter life. A fundamental principle of the blues, however, is that the
music be cathartic. Listening to the blues will drive the blues away; it
is music that has the power to overcome sadness. Thus “the blues” is
something of a misnomer, for the music is moving but not melancholy;
it is, in fact, music born of hope, not despair.
(20) The blues began to take shape as a musical movement in the years
after emancipation, around the turn of the century when blacks were
technically free but still suffered from social and economic discrimi­
nation. Its poetic and musical forms were popularized by W. C. Handy
just after the turn of the century. Handy, a classical guitarist who
(25) reportedly heard the blues for the first time in a Mississippi train sta­
tion, was the first to officially compose and distribute “blues” music
throughout the United States, although its popularity was chiefly
among blacks in the South. The movement coalesced in the late 1920s
and indeed became a national craze with records by blues singers such
(30) as Bessie Smith selling in the millions.
The 1930s and 1940s saw a continued growth in the popularity of
the blues as many blacks migrated north and the blues and jazz forms

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continued to develop, diversify, and influence each other. It was at this

time that Son House, Willie Brown, and Robert Johnson played, while
(35) the next decade saw the emergence of the blues greats Muddy Waters,
Willie Dixon, and Johnny Lee Hooker.
After rock and roll exploded on the music scene in the 1950s, many
rock artists began covering blues songs, thus bringing the blues to a
young white audience and giving it true national and international
(40) exposure. In the early 1960s, the Rolling Stones, Yardbirds, Cream,
and others remade blues songs such as Robert Johnson’s “Crossroads”
and Big Joe Williams’ “Baby Please Don’t Go” to wide popularity.
People all across America—black and white, young and old, listened
to songs with lyrics that were intensely honest and personal, songs that
(45) told about any number of things that give us the blues: loneliness,
betrayal, unrequited love, a run of bad luck, being out of work or away
from home or broke or broken hearted. It was a music perfectly suited
for a nation on the brink of the Civil Rights movement—a kind of
music that had the power to cross boundaries, to heal wounds, and to
(50) offer hope to a new generation of Americans.

296. In Passage 1, the author’s main goal is to

a. solve the mystery of the genesis of Johnson’s talent.
b. provide a detailed description of Johnson’s music and style.
c. provide a brief overview of Johnson’s life and influence.
d. prove that Johnson should be recognized as the greatest blues
musician who ever lived.
e. explain how Johnson’s music impacted the world of rock and roll.

297. The information provided in the passage suggests that Johnson

a. really did make a deal with the devil.
b. was determined to become a great guitarist, whatever the cost.
c. wasn’t as talented as we have been led to believe.
d. disappeared because he had a breakdown.
e. owes his success to Son House and Willie Brown.

298. The word neologism in Passage 2, line 10 means

a. a new word or use of a word.
b. a grassroots musical form.
c. a fictional character or fictitious setting.
d. the origin or source of something.
c. the evolution of a person, place, or thing.

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299. In Passage 2, the sentence People all across America—black and white,
young and old, listened to songs with lyrics that were intensely honest and
personal, songs that told about any number of things that give us the
blues: loneliness, betrayal, unrequited love, a run of bad luck, being out of
work or away from home or broke or broken hearted (lines 43–47), the
author is
a. defining blues music.
b. identifying the origin of the blues.
c. describing the lyrics of a famous blues song.
d. explaining why blues remakes were so popular.
e. making a connection between the blues and the Civil Rights
movement.

300. In the last paragraph of Passage 2 (lines 37–50), the author

suggests that
a. the blues should be recognized as more important and complex
musical form than rock and roll.
b. the golden age of rock and roll owes much to the popularity of
blues cover songs.
c. music has always been a means for people to deal with intense
emotions and difficulties.
d. a shared interest in the blues may have helped blacks and whites
better understand each other and ease racial tensions.
e. the rock and roll versions of blues songs were better than the
originals.

301. Both authors would agree on all of the following points EXCEPT
a. listening to the blues is cathartic.
b. Robert Johnson is the best blues guitarist from the 1930s and
1940s.
c. the blues are an important part of American history.
d. “Crossroads” is one of the most well­known blues songs.
e. blues music is deeply emotional.

302. The passages differ in tone and style in that

a. Passage 1 is intended for a general audience while Passage 2 is
intended for readers with a musical background.
b. Passage 1 is far more argumentative than Passage 2.
c. Passage 1 is often speculative while Passage 2 is factual and
assertive.
d. Passage 1 is more formal than Passage 2, which is quite casual.
e. Passage 1 is straightforward while Passage 2 often digresses
from the main point.

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303. Which of the following best describes the relationship between

these two passages?
a. specific : general
b. argument : support
c. fiction : nonfiction
d. first : second
e. cause : effect

304. Which of the following sentences from Passage 2 could most

effectively be added to Passage 1?
a. In fact, the two most popular American musical forms—rock and roll
and jazz—owe their genesis in large part (some would argue
entirely) to the blues. (lines 7–9)
b. A fundamental principle of the blues, however, is that the music be
cathartic. (line 15–16)
c. Thus “the blues” is something of a misnomer, for the music is moving
but not melancholy; it is, in fact, music born of hope, not despair.
(lines 17–19)
d. It was at this time that Son House, Willie Brown, and Robert John­
son played, while the next decade saw the emergence of the blues
greats Muddy Waters, Willie Dixon, and Johnny Lee Hooker.
(lines 33–36)
e. After rock and roll exploded on the music scene in the 1950s, many
rock artists began covering blues songs, thus bringing the blues to a
young white audience and giving it true national and international
exposure. (lines 37–40)

Questions 305–314 are based on the following passage.

This passage describes the formative experiences of the composer Wolfgang

Amadeus Mozart.
(1) The composer Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart’s remarkable musical tal­
ent was apparent even before most children can sing a simple nursery
rhyme. Wolfgang’s older sister Maria Anna, who the family called
Nannerl, was learning the clavier, an early keyboard instrument, when
(5) her three­year­old brother took an interest in playing. As Nannerl
later recalled, Wolfgang “often spent much time at the clavier, pick­
ing out thirds, which he was always striking, and his pleasure showed
that it sounded good.” Their father Leopold, an assistant concert­
master at the Salzburg Court, recognized his children’s unique gifts
(10) and soon devoted himself to their musical education.

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Born in Salzburg, Austria, on January 27, 1756, Wolfgang was five

when he learned his first musical composition—in less than half an
hour. He quickly learned other pieces, and by age five composed his
first original work. Leopold settled on a plan to take Nannerl and
(15) Wolfgang on tour to play before the European courts. Their first ven­
ture was to nearby Munich where the children played for Maximillian
III Joseph, elector of Bavaria. Leopold soon set his sights on the cap­
ital of the Hapsburg Empire, Vienna. On their way to Vienna, the
family stopped in Linz, where Wolfgang gave his first public concert.
(20) By this time, Wolfgang was not only a virtuoso harpsichord player but
he had also mastered the violin. The audience at Linz was stunned by
the six­year­old, and word of his genius soon traveled to Vienna. In a
much­anticipated concert, the children appeared at the Schönbrunn
Palace on October 13, 1762. They utterly charmed the emperor and
(25) empress.
Following this success, Leopold was inundated with invitations for
the children to play, for a fee. Leopold seized the opportunity and
booked as many concerts as possible at courts throughout Europe.
After the children performed at the major court in a region, other
(30) nobles competed to have the “miracle children of Salzburg” play a pri­
vate concert in their homes. A concert could last three hours, and the
children played at least two a day. Today, Leopold might be considered
the worst kind of stage parent, but at the time it was not uncommon
for prodigies to make extensive concert tours. Even so, it was an
(35) exhausting schedule for a child who was just past the age of needing
an afternoon nap.
Wolfgang fell ill on tour, and when the family returned to Salzburg
on January 5, 1763, Wolfgang spent his first week at home in bed with
acute rheumatoid arthritis. In June, Leopold accepted an invitation for
(40) the children to play at Versailles, the lavish palace built by Loius XIV,
king of France. Wolfgang did not see his home in Salzburg for another
three years. When they weren’t performing, the Mozart children were
likely to be found bumping along the rutted roads in an unheated car­
riage. Wolfgang passed the long uncomfortable hours in the imaginary
(45) Kingdom of Back, of which he was king. He became so engrossed in
the intricacies of his make­believe court that he persuaded a family
servant to make a map showing all the cities, villages, and towns over
which he reigned.
The king of Back was also busy composing. Wolfgang completed
(50) his first symphony at age nine and published his first sonatas that same
year. Before the family returned to Salzburg, Wolfgang had played for,
and amazed, the heads of the French and British royal families. He had

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also been plagued with numerous illnesses. Despite Wolfgang and

Nannerl’s arduous schedule and international renown, the family’s
(55) finances were often strained. The pattern established in his childhood
would be the template for the rest of his short life. Wolfgang Amadeus
Mozart toiled constantly, was lauded for his genius, suffered from ill­
ness, and struggled financially, until he died at age 35. The remarkable
child prodigy who more than fulfilled his potential was buried in an
(60) unmarked grave, as was the custom at the time, in a Vienna suburb.

305. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a. illustrate the early career and formative experiences of a musical
prodigy.
b. describe the classical music scene in the eighteenth century.
c. uncover the source of Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart’s musical
genius.
d. prove the importance of starting a musical instrument at an
early age.
e. denounce Leopold Mozart for exploiting his children’s talent.

306. According to the passage, Wolfgang became interested in music

because
a. his father thought it would be profitable.
b. he had a natural talent.
c. he saw his sister learning to play.
d. he came from a musical family.
e. he wanted to go on tour.

307. What was the consequence of Wolfgang’s first public appearance?

a. He charmed the emperor and empress of Hapsburg.
b. Leopold set his sights on Vienna.
c. Word of Wolfgang’s genius spread to the capital.
d. He mastered the violin.
e. Invitations for the “miracle children” to play poured in.

308. The author’s attitude toward Leopold Mozart can best be

characterized as
a. vehement condemnation.
b. mild disapproval.
c. glowing admiration.
d. incredulity.
e. veiled disgust.

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309. In line 40, the word lavish most nearly means

a. wasteful.
b. clean.
c. extravagant.
d. beautiful.
e. glorious.

310. The author uses the anecdote about Mozart’s Kingdom of Back to
illustrate
a. Mozart’s admiration for the composer Johann Sebastian Bach.
b. the role imagination plays in musical composition.
c. that Mozart was mentally unstable.
d. that Mozart was an imaginative child.
e. that Mozart’s only friends were imaginary people and family
servants.

311. The author suggests that Mozart’s adult life

a. was ruined by repeated illness.
b. was a disappointment after his brilliant childhood.
c. was nothing but misery.
d. ended in poverty and anonymity.
e. followed the pattern of his childhood.

312. In line 57, the word lauded most nearly means

a. derided.
b. praised.
c. punished.
d. compensated.
e. coveted.

313. Each of the following statements about Wolfgang Mozart is

directly supported by the passage EXCEPT
a. Mozart’s father, Leopold, was instrumental in shaping his
career.
b. Wolfgang had a vivid imagination.
c. Wolfgang’s childhood was devoted to his musical career.
d. Wolfgang’s illnesses were the result of exhaustion.
e. Maria Anna was a talented musician in her own right.

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314. Based on information found in the passage, Mozart can best be

described as
a. a workaholic.
b. a child prodigy.
c. a sickly child.
d. a victim of his father’s ambition.
e. the greatest composer of the eighteenth century.

Use the following to answer questions 315 through 317.

(1) The Woodstock Music and Art Fair—better known to its partici­
pants and to history simply as “Woodstock”—should have been a
colossal failure. (2) Just a month prior to its August 15, 1969, opening,
the fair’s organizers were informed by the council of Wallkill, New
York, that permission to hold the festival was withdrawn. (3) Amaz­
ingly, not only was a new site found, but word got out to the public of
the fair’s new location. (4) At the new site, fences that were supposed
to facilitate ticket collection never materialized, and all attempts at
gathering tickets were abandoned. (5) Crowd estimates of 30,000 kept
rising; by the end of the three days, some estimated the crowd at
500,000. (6) And then, on opening night, it began to rain. (7) Off and
on, throughout all three days, huge summer storms rolled over the
gathering. (8) In spite of these problems, most people think of Wood­
stock not only as a fond memory but as the defining moment for an
entire generation.

315. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this
passage?
a. Backstage at Woodstock
b. Woodstock: From The Band to The Who
c. Remembering Woodstock
d. Woodstock: The Untold Story
e. Will There Ever Be Another Woodstock?

316. Which of the following numbered sentences of the passage best

represents an opinion rather than a fact?
a. sentence 1
b. sentence 2
c. sentence 3
d. sentence 4
e. sentence 5

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317. Why is the word “amazingly” used in sentence 3?

a. because the time in which the move was made and word sent
out was so short
b. because the fair drew such an unexpectedly enormous crowd
c. because there was such pressure by New York officials against
holding the fair
d. because the stormy weather was so unfavorable
e. because the best musicians who ever lived played there

Answers

277. c. The passage describes swing as vibrant, (line 6) a synonym for

lively. It is also stated that soloists in big bands improvised from
the melody, (line 11) indicating that the music was melodic.
278. d. In the 1940s, you would most likely hear bebop being played in
clubs, such as Minton’s Playhouse in Harlem (line 25).
279. b. In lines 21­22 the author states that rhythm is the distinguishing
feature of bebop.
280. a. Aficionado, derived from the word affection, means a devotee or
fan. The meaning can be inferred from the sentence, which
states that aficionados flocked to clubs to soak in the new style. The
use of fans in line 26 is a direct reference to the aficionados of
the previous sentence.
281. c. The tone of the passage is neutral so only the answers beginning
with explain or instruct are possible choices. The passage does
not explain how to play bebop music, so c is the best choice.
282. a. If Dale was trying out equipment before it became available to
the public, it makes sense that he was given original models.
The passage does not specify the type of amplifiers Dale tested,
so choices c, d, and e don’t work. It specifically mentions proto­
types of amplifiers, so choice b is also wrong.
283. c. The clue is in the last sentence, which states that Dale was play­
ing differently than other musicians at that time, and rock was
not yet invented. Do not be distracted by the other answers,
which are not supported by evidence in the passage.
284. d. His playing style was part of the reason the amplifiers blew up,
so the answer that fits best is abrupt and disconnected. Volume
was already mentioned, so you can infer that staccato does not
mean loud. Line 12 holds another clue, describing his playing as
a virtual assault on the instrument.

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285. b. The passage is primarily about Dick Dale and his contributions
to the history of playing electric guitar. The first paragraph
mentions that he was called the King of Heavy Metal, and the
last sentence notes that Dale made music history by playing a
new kind of music that would later be called heavy metal.
286. c. To be fazed by something means to be disturbed or affected by
it. Unfazed is therefore to not be affected or bothered by some­
thing. Even though the guitar was made for a right­handed
player, Dale tried it anyway. He wasn’t bothered by the fact that
it seemingly wasn’t right for him.
287. a. The line refers to the new transformer. Dale wanted to play
louder, and the new transformer was designed to allow him to
do that. Thus, it was a scream machine.
288. d. The passage mentions that Ozzy Osbourne is often called the
Father of Heavy Metal, but gives no other information
about him.
289. c. The first paragraph introduces the topic of the passage, the musi­
cal traditions of colonial New Mexico. Choices a and d are too
narrow, and choice b is too broad. Choice e is the purpose of
the entire passage, not the first paragraph alone.
290. d. Singular means of or relating to a single instance, or something
considered by itself. Although strange and superior can be syn­
onyms for singular, the author emphasizes throughout the pas­
sage that the music is unique. Unusual is closest in meaning to
unique. Also, note that in the next sentence the author states
that the bailes had unusual melodic structures and the players
had unique methods of bowing and tuning their instruments.
291. d. The passage does not explicitly state that European culture was
imposed on native traditions. Rather, it states that the cultures
mixed to give rise to the music.
292. c. The passage clearly states that both ceremonies used impro­
vised verses. The New Year’s celebration included improvised
couplets, composed on the spot (lines 40–41) and the verses of the song
[of the wedding ceremony], played to a lively waltz, were improvised
(lines 48–49). Each of the other choices is true for one of the
ceremonies but not both.
293. a. The sentence following the first mention of the ceremony states
its purpose: the community would gather to sanction the new couple
(lines 46–47). It is stated that the guests file past to bless the cou­
ple (line 42). Choices b, d, and e are all part of the ceremony
but not its main purpose. Choice c is not explicitly supported by
the text.

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294. e. This title indicates that the passage covers both popular and
ceremonial music and introduces the main theme of the pas­
sage: the unique (extraordinary) musical tradition of the Rio
Grand region. The other choices are all too narrow (choice d),
or are totally inappropriate (choice c).
295. b. The introductory and final paragraphs of the passage reveal the
author’s admiration for the music. In line 8 the author describes
the musical tradition as unique, rich, and in lines 9–10 he or she
calls the ceremonial music some of the most extraordinary . . . in the
Hispanic world.” In line 62, the author describes the indita as
extraordinary. Although he or she describes the tradition in positive
terms, awe overstates the case.
296. c. In Passage 1, the author provides a limited chronology of Johnson’s
life (paragraphs 2, 3, and 4) and briefly describes his influence on
blues and rock and roll (paragraphs 1 and 5).
297. b. In paragraph 3 of Passage 1, the author describes how Johnson
was not very good at playing the guitar but that he wanted to learn
and so spent his time in blues bars watching the local blues legends
(lines 19–20). That he disappeared for some time and then
returned as a first­rate guitarist (lines 26–27) also suggests
Johnson’s determination.
298. a. In lines 10–12 of Passage 2, the author describes how the blues
came to be called the blues—thus neologism means a new word
or new meaning or use of a word.
299. d. This sentence states that the blues remakes were enjoyed by all
kinds of people—black and white, young and old (line 43)—and
suggests why the songs were so popular by describing how the
lyrics touched a common emotional chord in listeners, all of
whom have had the blues from one or more of the sources listed
in the sentence.
300. d. The author states that the blues was a music perfectly suited for a
nation on the brink of the Civil Rights movement because it was
music that had the power to cross boundaries, to heal wounds, and to
offer hope to a new generation of Americans (lines 47–50). The pre­
vious sentence states that the music was popular with both black
and white, young and old (line 43). Thus, the author suggests that
this shared musical experience helped promote understanding
across racial boundaries and thereby ease racial tensions.

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301. b. Neither author explicitly states that Robert Johnson is the best
blues guitarist of his era, although this is implied by the author
of Passage 1, who states that Johnson’s impact on the world of rock
and roll is indisputable (lines 3–4) and quotes Eric Clapton as say­
ing Johnson is the most important blues musician who ever lived
(lines 8–9). However, the author of Passage 2 simply lists John­
son in the same sentence as his mentors Son House and Willie
Brown (lines 33–34), without suggesting that any one of these
artists was better than the other.
302. c. Passage 1 states from the beginning that there is little informa­
tion about Johnson and that the information that is available is
as much rumor as fact (lines 2–3). There is also no definitive
answer regarding how Johnson acquired his talent (paragraph
4), and the author uses the word purportedly in lines 34–35 to
further emphasize the speculative nature of the narrative. Pas­
sage 2, on the other hand, provides many specific facts in the
form of names and dates to present a text that is factual and
assertive.
303. a. Passage 1 describes the life and influence of one specific blues
artist, while Passage 2 provides a general overview of the history
of the blues.
304. c. At the end of Passage 1, the author describes the reason so
many artists record Johnson’s songs: his music capture[s] the very
essence of the blues, transforming our pain and suffering with the
healing magic of his guitar (lines 41–42). This sentence “proves”
the idea stated in Passage 2 that ‘the blues’ is something of a
misnomer. This is the only sentence from Passage 2 that fits the
focus of Passage 1; the others concern the development or
defining characteristics of the blues.
305. a. The passage is a neutral narration of Mozart’s childhood and
the beginnings of his musical career. Choices c, d, and e can be
eliminated because the author does not take a side or try to
prove a point. Choice b is incorrect because the author does not
make any generalizations about the classical music “scene.”
306. c. The passage clearly states that Wolfgang took an interest in the
clavier when his sister was learning the instrument.
307. c. The passage states (lines 18–19) that Wolfgang’s first public
appearance was at Linz and that after this concert word of his
genius traveled to Vienna. The passage states earlier that
Vienna was the capital of the Hapsburg Empire.

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308. b. The author’s tone toward Leopold is mild—neither strongly

approving nor disapproving. In a few places, however, the
author conveys some disappointment, especially lines 34–36 in
which she states that Leopold set an exhausting schedule for
Wolfgang.
309. c. Lavish means expended or produced in abundance. Both waste­
ful and extravagant are synonyms for lavish, but, because it is
modifying palace, extravagant is the more logical choice.
310. d. The author’s language emphasizes Mozart’s imagination. The
phrase engrossed in the intricacies of his make­believe court suggests
a child with a lively imagination. None of the other choices is
directly supported by the text.
311. e. The text directly states that the pattern established in his childhood
would be the template for the rest of his short life. Choice d could be
misleading as the text states that Mozart was buried in an
unmarked grave. However, it also states that this was customary
at the time so one cannot infer that he died an anonymous
pauper.
312. b. Lauded means praised or blessed. The meaning of the word
can be inferred from the structure of the paragraph. The
paragraph begins by summing up Mozart’s childhood, and
then describes how the features of his childhood were mir­
rored in his adult life. In his childhood Mozart played for, and
amazed, the heads of the British and French royal families and
likewise as an adult he was lauded for his genius. From the
structure, one can infer that to be lauded is something posi­
tive. Of the positive choices, praised makes more sense in the
sentence than coveted.
313. d. The author does not directly state that Mozart’s illnesses were
the result of exhaustion. She may imply this by describing
Mozart’s exhausting schedule and then stating that he became
ill on tour. However, she does not make the connection
explicit.
314. b. The main point of the passage is to describe Mozart’s experi­
ences as a child prodigy, or a highly talented child. Choices a
and c are too narrow in scope, and choices d and e are not
explicitly stated in the passage.
315. c. This title is the most accurate choice because the passage deals
mainly with remembering Woodstock.

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316. a. Sentence 1 contains the phrase “should have been a colossal

failure,” which is an opinion of the author because it is not an
indisputable fact. The other choices are sentences that provide
factual information about Woodstock.
317. a. The sentence preceding and leading into sentence 3 speaks of
the very brief time—a month—that the organizers of the fair
had to find a new site and get information out. That they were
able to do so during that brief period is amazing.

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Science and
6
Nature

Questions 318–321 are based on the following passage.

This passage is adapted from an article authored by the environmental

protection organization Greenpeace, regarding Finland’s destruction of old­
growth forests.
(1) Time is running out for the old­growth forests of Finland. The vast
majority of Finland’s valuable old­growth forest is owned by the state
and logged by the state­owned company Metsähallitus. Metsähallitus’
logging practices include clearcutting, logging in habitats of threat­
(5) ened and vulnerable species, and logging in areas of special scenic or
cultural value—including in areas that are critical for the reindeer
herding of the indigenous Sami people.
Despite being involved in a “dialogue process” with two environ­
mental organizations (World Wildlife Fund and the Finnish Associa­
(10) tion for Nature Conservation), to try and reach agreement regarding
additional protection for old­growth forests, Metsähallitus is now log­
ging sites that should be subject to negotiation.
In June 2003, Greenpeace and the Finnish Association for Nature
Conservation (FANC) presented comprehensive maps of the old­
(15) growth areas that should be subject to moratorium, pending discus­
sion and additional protection, to all those involved in the dialogue
process. Metsähallitus then announced a halt to new logging opera­

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tions in these mapped areas. Sadly, the halt in logging was short lived.
In August and September logging took place in at least six old­growth
(20) forest areas in Northern Finland.
It seems Metsähallitus wants to have its cake and eat it too—friendly
talks with environmental groups at the same time they keep logging
critical habitat. To be blunt, their commitment to the dialog process
has proven untrustworthy. The new logging has been without con­
(25) sensus from the dialog process or proper consultation with the Sami
reindeer herders. Now there’s a risk the logging will expand to include
other old­growth areas.
Greenpeace investigations have revealed a number of companies
buying old­growth timber from Metsähallitus, but the great majority
(30) goes to Finland’s three international paper manufacturers, Stora Enso,
UPM­Kymmene, and M­Real. Greenpeace recommends that com­
panies ask for written guarantees that no material from any of the
recently mapped old­growth areas is entering or will enter their sup­
ply chain, pending the switch to only timber that has been independ­
(35) ently certified to the standards of the Forest Stewardship Council in
order to stop this risk to protected forests.

318. According to the passage, which is NOT a logging practice

engaged in by Metsähallitus?
a. employing the clearcutting method
b. logging in the habitat of reindeer
c. logging near scenic Finnish vistas
d. logging within in the boundaries of the indigenous Sami
e. logging in traditional Norwegian Fiords

319. As used in line 15, moratorium most nearly means

a. an oral presentation.
b. a bipartisan meeting.
c. a cessation or stoppage.
d. an increase in volume.
e. an autopsy.

320. The author’s tone may best be classified as

a. casual sarcasm.
b. urgent warning.
c. furtive anger.
d. cool indifference.
e. reckless panic.

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321. The primary purpose of this passage is to

a. alert citizens that their forests may be in danger.
b. expose the logging industry as bad for the environment.
c. encourage consumers to boycott Finnish wood products.
d. agitate for change in Finland’s illicit logging practices.
e. rally support for Greenpeace international causes.

Questions 322–326 are based on the following passage.

This passage describes the Great Barrier Reef and its inhabitants.
(1) Coral reefs are among the most diverse and productive ecosystems on
Earth. Consisting of both living and non­living components, this type
of ecosystem is found in the warm, clear, shallow waters of tropical
oceans worldwide. The functionality of the reefs ranges from provid­
(5) ing food and shelter to fish and other forms of marine life to protect­
ing the shore from the ill effects of erosion and putrefaction. In fact,
reefs actually create land in tropical areas by formulating islands and
contributing mass to continental shorelines.
Although coral looks like a plant, actually it is mainly composed of
(10) the limestone skeleton of a tiny animal called a coral polyp. While
corals are the main components of reef structure, they are not the only
living participants. Coralline algae cement the myriad corals, and
other miniature organisms such as tube worms and mollusks con­
tribute skeletons to this dense and diverse structure. Together, these
(15) living creatures construct many different types of tropical reefs.
Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest network of coral reefs,
stretching 2,010 km (1,250 miles) off Australia’s northeastern coast.
From microorganisms to whales, diverse life forms make their home
on the reef. Over 1,500 fish species, 4,000 mollusk species, 200 bird
(20) species, 16 sea snake species, and six sea turtle species thrive in the
reef’s tropical waters. The reef is also a habitat for the endangered
dugong (sea cow), moray eels, and sharks. In addition to crawling with
animal life, the coral reef offers the viewer a spectrum of brilliant col­
ors and intricate shapes, a virtual underwater, writhing garden.
(25) Although protected by the Australian government, Great Barrier
Reef faces environmental threats. Crown­of­thorns starfish feed on
coral and can destroy large portions of reef. Pollution and rising water
temperatures also threaten the delicate coral. But the most preventa­
ble of the hazards to the reef are tourists. Tourists have contributed to
(30) the destruction of the reef ecosystem by breaking off and removing
pieces of coral to bring home as souvenirs. The government hopes

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that by informing tourists of the dangers of this seemingly harmless

activity they will quash this creeping menace to the fragile reef.

322. Which of the following statements does NOT describe the Great
Barrier Reef?
a. The Great Barrier reef is a colorful and active underwater
structure.
b. The Great Barrier Reef is a producer of small islands and
landmasses.
c. The Great Barrier Reef is threatened by vacationers.
d. The Great Barrier Reef is the cause of much beachfront erosion
in Northeastern Australia.
e. The Great Barrier Reef is home to endangered sea turtles.

323. Based on information from the passage, 4,020 km would be

approximately how many miles?
a. 402
b. 1,250
c. 1,500
d. 2,010
e. 2,500

324. In line 6 of the passage, putrefaction most nearly means

a. purification.
b. decay.
c. jettison.
d. liquification.
e. farming.

325. The primary purpose of this passage is to

a. inform the reader that coral reefs are a threatened, yet broadly
functioning ecosystem.
b. alert the reader to a premier vacation destination in the tropics.
c. explain in detail how the Great Barrier Reef is constructed.
d. recommend that tourists stop stealing coral off the Great
Barrier Reef.
e. dispel the argument that coral is a plant, not an animal.

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326. According to the passage, all of the following are a threat to a coral
reef EXCEPT
a. tourists.
b. pollution.
c. erosion and putrefaction.
d. rising water temperatures.
e. Crown­of­thorns starfish.

Questions 327–333 are based on the following passage.

This passage details the history and reasoning of Daylight Saving Time.
(1) For centuries time was measured by the position of the sun with the use
of sundials. Noon was recognized when the sun was the highest in the
sky, and cities would set their clock by this Apparent Solar Time, even
though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. “Sum­
(5) mer time” or Daylight Saving Time (DST) was instituted to make bet­
ter use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one hour in the spring
to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then
set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight.
Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during
(10) his tenure as an American delegate in Paris in 1784 and wrote about it
extensively in his essay “An Economical Project.” It is said that
Franklin awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight
at such an hour. Always the economist, Franklin believed the practice
of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight as candles
(15) were expensive at the time. In England, builder William Willett
(1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time
upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny
morning. Willett believed everyone, including himself, would appre­
ciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce
(20) introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to
adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and introduced into Parliament sev­
eral times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers. Even­
tually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the
day following the third Saturday in April and close after the first Sat­
(25) urday in October.
The United States Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918
to establish standard time and preserve and set Daylight Saving Time
across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout
the United States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The
(30) first time zone was set on “the mean astronomical time of the seventy­

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fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich” (England). In 1919, this

act was repealed. President Roosevelt established year­round Daylight
Saving Time (also called “War Time”) from 1942–1945. However,
after this period each state adopted their own DST, which proved to
(35) be disconcerting to television and radio broadcasting and transporta­
tion. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the Department of
Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the
Department of Transportation was given the responsibility for the
time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s,
(40) President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving
Time Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further. This law was
modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was set for beginning on
the first Sunday in April (to “spring ahead”) and ending on the last
Sunday in October (to “fall back”).
(45) Through the years the U.S. Department of Transportation con­
ducted polls concerning daylight saving time and found that many
Americans were in favor of it because of the extended hours of daylight
and the freedom to do more in the evening hours. In further studies
the U.S. Department of Transportation also found that DST con­
(50) serves energy by cutting the electricity usage in the morning and
evening for lights and particular appliances. During the darkest win­
ter months (November through February), the advantage of conserv­
ing energy in afternoon daylight saving time is outweighed by needing
more light in the morning because of late sunrise. In Britain, studies
(55) showed that there were fewer accidents on the road because of the
increased visibility resulting from additional hours of daylight.
Despite these advantages, there is still opposition to DST. One per­
petual complaint is the inconvenience of changing many clocks, and
adjusting to a new sleep schedule. Farmers often wake at sunrise and
(60) find that their animals do not adjust to the changing of time until
weeks after the clock is either moved forward or back. In Israel,
Sephardic Jews have campaigned against Daylight Saving Time
because they recite prayers in the early morning during the Jewish
month of Elul. Many places around the globe still do not observe day­
(60) light saving time—such as Arizona (excluding Navajo reservations), the
five counties in Indiana, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, Japan, and
Saskatchewan, Canada. Countries located near the equator have equal
hours of day and night and do not participate in Daylight Saving Time.

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327. In line 20 the word obligatory most nearly means

a. approved.
b. sparse.
c. aberrant.
d. requisite.
e. optional.

328. According to the passage what is the most beneficial effect of

DST?
a. changing sleeping patterns
b. fewer car accidents
c. conservation of energy
d. additional time for family outings
e. preferred harvesting time for farmers

329. Who first established the idea of DST?

a. President Richard Nixon
b. Benjamin Franklin
c. Sir Robert Pearce
d. President Lyndon Johnson
e. William Willett

330. According to the passage, in which area of the world is DST least
useful?
a. the tropics
b. Indiana
c. Navajo reservations
d. Mexico
e. Saskatchewan

331. Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department

of Transportation?
a. It was created by President Richard Nixon.
b. It set the standards for DST throughout the world.
c. It constructed the Uniform Time Act.
d. It oversees all time laws in the United States.
e. It established the standard railway time laws.

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332. What of the following statements is the best title for this passage?
a. The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time
b. Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act
c. The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving
Time
d. Daylight Saving Time in the United States
e. Benjamin Franklin’s Discovery

333. In which month does the need for more energy in the morning
offset the afternoon conservation of energy by DST?
a. June
b. July
c. October
d. January
e. March

Questions 334–340 are based on the following passage.

This passage details the life and illustrious career of Sir Isaac Newton,
preeminent scientist and mathematician.

(1) Tradition has it that Newton was sitting under an apple tree when an
apple fell on his head, and this made him understand that earthly and
celestial gravitation are the same. A contemporary writer, William
Stukeley, recorded in his Memoirs of Sir Isaac Newton’s Life a conversa­
(5) tion with Newton in Kensington on April 15, 1726, in which Newton
recalled “when formerly, the notion of gravitation came into his mind.
It was occasioned by the fall of an apple, as he sat in contemplative
mood. Why should that apple always descend perpendicularly to the
ground, thought he to himself. Why should it not go sideways or
(10) upwards, but constantly to the earth’s centre.”
Sir Isaac Newton, English mathematician, philosopher, and physi­
cist, was born in 1642 in Woolsthorpe­by­Colsterworth, a hamlet in
the county of Lincolnshire. His father had died three months before
Newton’s birth, and two years later his mother went to live with her
(15) new husband, leaving her son in the care of his grandmother. Newton
was educated at Grantham Grammar School. In 1661 he joined Trin­
ity College, Cambridge, and continued there as Lucasian professor of
mathematics from 1669 to 1701. At that time the college’s teachings
were based on those of Aristotle, but Newton preferred to read the
(20) more advanced ideas of modern philosophers such as Descartes,
Galileo, Copernicus, and Kepler. In 1665, he discovered the binomial

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theorem and began to develop a mathematical theory that would later

become calculus.
However, his most important discoveries were made during the
(25) two­year period from 1664 to 1666, when the university was closed
due to the Great Plague. Newton retreated to his hometown and set
to work on developing calculus, as well as advanced studies on optics
and gravitation. It was at this time that he discovered the Law of Uni­
versal Gravitation and discovered that white light is composed of all
(30) the colors of the spectrum. These findings enabled him to make fun­
damental contributions to mathematics, astronomy, and theoretical
and experimental physics.
Arguably, it is for Newton’s Laws of Motion that he is most revered.
These are the three basic laws that govern the motion of material
(35) objects. Together, they gave rise to a general view of nature known as
the clockwork universe. The laws are: (1) Every object moves in a
straight line unless acted upon by a force. (2) The acceleration of an
object is directly proportional to the net force exerted and inversely
proportional to the object’s mass. (3) For every action, there is an equal
(40) and opposite reaction.
In 1687, Newton summarized his discoveries in terrestrial and
celestial mechanics in his Philosophiae naturalis principia mathematica
(Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy), one of the greatest
milestones in the history of science. In this work he showed how his
(45) principle of universal gravitation provided an explanation both of
falling bodies on the earth and of the motions of planets, comets, and
other bodies in the heavens. The first part of the Principia, devoted to
dynamics, includes Newton’s three laws of motion; the second part to
fluid motion and other topics; and the third part to the system of the
(50) world, in which, among other things, he provides an explanation of
Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.
This is not all of Newton’s groundbreaking work. In 1704, his dis­
coveries in optics were presented in Opticks, in which he elaborated his
theory that light is composed of corpuscles, or particles. Among his
(55) other accomplishments were his construction (1668) of a reflecting
telescope and his anticipation of the calculus of variations, founded by
Gottfried Leibniz and the Bernoullis. In later years, Newton consid­
ered mathematics and physics a recreation and turned much of his
energy toward alchemy, theology, and history, particularly problems of
(60) chronology.
Newton achieved many honors over his years of service to the
advancement of science and mathematics, as well as for his role as war­
den, then master, of the mint. He represented Cambridge University

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in Parliament, and was president of the Royal Society from 1703 until
(65) his death in 1727. Sir Isaac Newton was knighted in 1705 by Queen
Anne. Newton never married, nor had any recorded children. He died
in London and was buried in Westminster Abbey.

33 . Based on Newton’s quote in lines 6–10 of the passage, what can

best be surmised about the famous apple falling from the tree?
a. There was no apple falling from a tree—it was entirely
made up.
b. Newton never sits beneath apple trees.
c. Newton got distracted from his theory on gravity by a fallen
apple.
d. Newton used the apple anecdote as an easily understood illus-
tration of the Earth’s gravitational pull.
e. Newton invented a theory of geometry for the trajectory of
apples falling perpendicularly, sideways, and up and down.

335. In what capacity was Newton employed?

a. Physics Professor, Trinity College
b. Trinity Professor of Optics
c. Professor of Calculus at Trinity College
d. Professor of Astronomy at Lucasian College
e. Professor of Mathematics at Cambridge

336. In line 36, what does the term clockwork universe most nearly mean?
a. eighteenth-century government
b. the international dateline
c. Newton’s system of latitude
d. Newton’s system of longitude
e. Newton’s Laws of Motion

337. According to the passage, how did Newton affect Kepler’s work?
a. He discredited his theory at Cambridge, choosing to read
Descartes instead.
b. He provides an explanation of Kepler’s laws of planetary
motion.
c. He convinced the Dean to teach Kepler, Descartes, alileo, and
Copernicus instead of Aristotle.
d. He showed how Copernicus was a superior astronomer to
Kepler.
e. He did not understand Kepler’s laws, so he rewrote them in
English.

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338. Which of the following is NOT an accolade received by Newton?

a. Member of the Royal Society
b. Order of Knighthood
c. Master of the Royal Mint
d. Prime Minister, Parliament
e. Lucasian Professor of Mathematics

339. Of the following, which is last in chronology?

a. Philosophiae naturalis principia mathematica
b. Memoirs of Sir saac Newton’s Life
c. Newton’s Laws of Motion
d. Optiks
e. invention of a refecting telescope

3 0. Which statement best summarizes the life of Sir Isaac Newton?

a. distinguished inventor, mathematician, physicist, and great
thinker of the seventeenth century
b. eminent mathematician, physicist, and scholar of the
Renaissance
c. noteworthy physicist, astronomer, mathematician, and British
Lord
d. from master of the mint to master mathematician: Lord Isaac
Newton
e. Isaac Newton: founder of calculus and father of gravity

Questions 3 1–3 8 are based on the following passage.

This passage outlines the past and present use of asbestos, the potential health
hazard associated with this material, and how to prevent exposure.
(1) Few words in a contractor’s vocabulary carry more negative connota-
tions than asbestos. According to the Asbestos Network, “touted as a
miracle substance,” asbestos is the generic term for several naturally
occurring mineral fbers mined primarily for use as freproof insula-
(5) tion. Known for strength, fexibility, low electrical conductivity, and
resistance to heat, asbestos is composed of silicon, oxygen, hydrogen,
and assorted metals. Before the public knew asbestos could be harm-
ful to one’s health, it was found in a variety of products to strengthen
them and to provide insulation and fre resistance.
(10) Asbestos is generally made up of fber bundles that can be broken
up into long, thin fbers. We now know from various studies that when
this friable substance is released into the air and inhaled into the lungs
over a period of time, it can lead to a higher risk of lung cancer and a

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condition known as asbestosis. Asbestosis, a thickening and scarring of the

(15) lung tissue, usually occurs when a person is exposed to high asbestos lev-
els over an extensive period of time. Unfortunately, the symptoms do
not usually appear until about twenty years after initial exposure, mak-
ing it diffcult to reverse or prevent. In addition, smoking while exposed
to asbestos fbers could further increase the risk of developing lung can-
(20) cer. When it comes to asbestos exposure in the home, school, and work-
place, there is no safe level; any exposure is considered harmful and
dangerous. Prior to the 1970s asbestos use was ubiquitous—many com-
mercial building and home insulation products contained asbestos. In
the home in particular, there are many places where asbestos hazards
(25) might be present. Building materials that may contain asbestos include
freproofng material (sprayed on beams), insulation material (on pipes
and oil and coal furnaces), acoustical or soundproofng material (sprayed
onto ceilings and walls), and in miscellaneous materials, such as asphalt,
vinyl, and cement to make products like roofng felts, shingles, siding,
(30) wallboard, and foor tiles.
We advise homeowners and concerned consumers to examine mate-
rial in their homes if they suspect it may contain asbestos. If the mate-
rial is in good condition, fbers will not break down, releasing the
chemical debris that may be a danger to members of the household.
(35) Asbestos is a powerful substance and should be handled by an expert. Do
not touch or disturb the material—it may then become damaged and
release fbers. Contact local health, environmental, or other appropri-
ate offcials to fnd out proper handling and disposal procedures, if war-
ranted. If asbestos removal or repair is needed you should contact a
(40) professional.
Asbestos contained in high-traffc public buildings, such as
schools, presents the opportunity for disturbance and potential expo-
sure to students and employees. To protect individuals, the Asbestos
Hazard Emergency Response Act (AHERA) was signed in 1986. This
(45) law requires public and private non-proft primary and secondary
schools to inspect their buildings for asbestos-containing building
materials. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has pub-
lished regulations for schools to follow in order to protect against
asbestos contamination and provide assistance to meet the AHERA
(50) requirements. These include performing an original inspection and
periodic re-inspections every three years for asbestos-containing
material; developing, maintaining, and updating an asbestos man-
agement plan at the school; providing yearly notifcation to parent,
teacher, and employee organizations regarding the availability of the
(55) school’s asbestos management plan and any asbestos abatement

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actions taken or planned in the school; designating a contact person

to ensure the responsibilities of the local education agency are prop-
erly implemented; performing periodic surveillance of known or sus-
pected asbestos-containing building material; and providing custodial
(60) staff with asbestos awareness training.

3 1. In line 12 the word friable most nearly means

a. ability to freeze.
b. warm or liquid.
c. easily broken down.
d. poisonous.
e. crunchy.

3 2. Which title would best describe this passage?

a. The EPA uide to Asbestos Protection
b. Asbestos Protection in Public Buildings and Homes
c. Asbestos in American Schools
d. The AHERA—Helping Consumers Fight Asbestos-Related
Disease
e. How to Prevent Lung Cancer and Asbestosis

3 3. According to this passage, which statement is true?

a. Insulation material contains asbestos fbers.
b. Asbestos in the home should always be removed.
c. The AHERA protects private homes against asbestos.
d. Asbestosis usually occurs in a person exposed to high levels
of asbestos.
e. Asbestosis is a man-made substance invented in the 1970s.

3 . In line 23, the word ubiquitous most nearly means

a. sparse.
b. distinctive.
c. restricted.
d. perilous.
e. universal.

3 5. Lung cancer and asbestosis are

a. dangerous fbers.
b. forms of serious lung disease.
c. always fatal.
d. only caused by asbestos inhalation.
e. the most common illnesses in the United States.

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3 6. The main purpose of this passage is to

a. teach asbestos awareness in the home and schools.
b. explain the specifcs of the AHERA.
c. highlight the dangers of asbestos to your health.
d. provide a list of materials that may include asbestos.
e. use scare tactics to make homeowners move to newer houses.

3 7. The tone of this passage is best described as

a. cautionary.
b. apathetic.
c. informative.
d. admonitory.
e. idiosyncratic.

3 8. For whom is the author writing this passage?

a. professional contractors
b. laypersons
c. students
d. school principals
e. health offcials

Questions 3 9–356 are based on the following two passages.

The following two passages tell of geometry’s Divine Proportion, 1.618.

PASSAGE 1

(1) PHI, the Divine Proportion of 1.618, was described by the astronomer
Johannes Kepler as one of the “two great treasures of geometry.” (The
other is the Pythagorean theorem.)
PHI is the ratio of any two sequential numbers in the Fibonacci
(5) sequence. If you take the numbers 0 and 1, then create each subse-
quent number in the sequence by adding the previous two numbers,
you get the Fibonacci sequence. For example, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21,
34, 55, 89, 144. If you sum the squares of any series of Fibonacci num-
bers, they will equal the last Fibonacci number used in the series times
(10) the next Fibonacci number. This property results in the Fibonacci spi-
ral seen in everything from seashells to galaxies, and is written math-
ematically as: 12 + 12 + 22 + 32 + 52 = 5 ¥ 8.
Plants illustrate the Fibonacci series in the numbers of leaves, the
arrangement of leaves around the stem, and in the positioning of
(15) leaves, sections, and seeds. A sunfower seed illustrates this principal

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as the number of clockwise spirals is 55 and the number of counter-

clockwise spirals is 89; 89 divided by 55 = 1.618, the Divine Propor-
tion. Pinecones and pineapples illustrate similar spirals of successive
Fibonacci numbers.
(20) PHI is also the ratio of fve-sided symmetry. It can be proven by
using a basic geometrical fgure, the pentagon. This fve-sided fgure
embodies PHI because PHI is the ratio of any diagonal to any side of
the pentagon—1.618.
Say you have a regular pentagon ABCDE with equal sides and equal
(25) angles. You may draw a diagonal as line AC connecting any two ver-
texes of the pentagon. You can then install a total of fve such lines, and
they are all of equal length. Divide the length of a diagonal AC by the
length of a side AB, and you will have an accurate numerical value for
PHI—1.618. You can draw a second diagonal line, BC, inside the pen-
(30) tagon so that this new line crosses the frst diagonal at point O. What
occurs is this: Each diagonal is divided into two parts, and each part is
in PHI ratio (1.618) to the other, and to the whole diagonal—the PHI
ratio recurs every time any diagonal is divided by another diagonal.
When you draw all fve pentagon diagonals, they form a fve-point
(35) star: a pentacle. Inside this star is a smaller, inverted pentagon. Each
diagonal is crossed by two other diagonals, and each segment is in PHI
ratio to the larger segments and to the whole. Also, the inverted inner
pentagon is in PHI ratio to the initial outer pentagon. Thus, PHI is
the ratio of fve-sided symmetry.
(40) Inscribe the pentacle star inside a pentagon and you have the pen-
tagram, symbol of the ancient reek School of Mathematics founded
by Pythagoras—solid evidence that the ancient Mystery Schools knew
about PHI and appreciated the Divine Proportion’s multitude of uses
to form our physical and biological worlds.

PASSAGE 2

(1) Langdon turned to face his sea of eager students. “Who can tell me
what this number is?”
A long-legged math major in back raised his hand. “That’s the num-
ber PHI.” He pronounced it fee.
(5) “Nice job, Stettner,” Langdon said. “Everyone, meet PHI.” [ . . . ]
“This number PHI,” Langdon continued, “one-point-six-one-eight,
is a very important number in art. Who can tell me why?” [ . . . ]
“Actually,” Langdon said, [ . . . ] “PHI is generally considered the most
beautiful number in the universe.” [ . . . ] As Langdon loaded his slide
(10) projector, he explained that the number PHI was derived from the

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Fibonacci sequence—a progression famous not only because the sum

of adjacent terms equaled the next term, but because the quotients of
adjacent terms possessed the astonishing property of approaching the
number 1.618—PHI!
(15) Despite PHI’s seemingly mystical mathematical origins, Langdon
explained, the truly mind-boggling aspect of PHI was its role as a fun-
damental building block in nature. Plants, animals, even human beings
all possessed dimensional properties that adhered with eerie exactitude
to the ratio of PHI to 1.
(20) “PHI’s ubiquity in nature clearly exceeds coincidence, and so the
ancients assumed the number PHI must have been preordained by the
creator of the universe. Early scientists heralded 1.618 as the Divine
Proportion.”
[ . . . ] Langdon advanced to the next slide—a close-up of a sun-
(25) fower’s seed head. “Sunfower seeds grow in opposing spirals. Can
you guess the ratio of each rotation’s diameter to the next?
“1.618.”
“Bingo.” Langdon began racing through slides now—spiraled
pinecone petals, leaf arrangement on plant stalks, insect segmenta-
(30) tion—all displaying astonishing obedience to the Divine Proportion.
“This is amazing!” someone cried out.
“Yeah,” someone else said, “but what does it have to do with art?”
[ . . . ] “Nobody understood better than da Vinci the divine struc-
ture of the human body. . . . He was the frst to show that the human
(35) body is literally made of building blocks whose proportional ratios
always equal PHI.”
Everyone in class gave him a dubious look.
“Don’t believe me?” . . . Try it. Measure the distance from your
shoulder to your fngertips, and then divide it by the distance from
(40) your elbow to your fngertips. PHI again. Another? Hip to foor
divided by knee to foor. PHI again. Finger joints. Toes. Spinal divi-
sions. PHI, PHI, PHI. My friends, each of you is a walking tribute to
the Divine Proportion.” [ . . . ] “In closing,” Langdon said, “we return
to symbols.” He drew fve intersecting lines that formed a fve-pointed
(45) star. “This symbol is one of the most powerful images you will see this
term. Formally known as a pentagram—or pentacle, as the ancients
called it—the symbol is considered both divine and magical by many
cultures. Can anyone tell me why that may be?”
Stettner, the math major, raised his hand. “Because if you draw a
(50) pentagram, the lines automatically divide themselves into segments
according to the Divine Proportion.”

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Landgon gave the kid a proud nod. “Nice job. Yes, the ratios of line
segments in a pentacle all equal PHI, making the symbol the ultimate
expression of the Divine Proportion.”

3 9. The tone of Passage 2 may be described as

a. fascinated discovery.
b. blandly informative.
c. passionate unfolding.
d. droll and jaded.
e. dry and scientifc.

350. According to both passages, which of the following are synonyms?

a. pentagon and pentacle
b. pinecones and sunfower seed spirals
c. Divine Proportion and PHI
d. Fibonacci sequence and Divine Proportion
e. Fibonacci sequence and PHI

351. In Passage 2, line 20, ubiquity of PHI most nearly means its
a. rareness in nature.
b. accuracy in nature.
c. commonality in nature.
d. artifciality against nature.
e. purity in an unnatural state.

352. Both passages refer to the “mystical mathematical” side of PHI.

Based on the two passages, which statement is NOT another
aspect of PHI?
a. PHI is a ratio found in nature.
b. PHI is the area of a regular pentagon.
c. PHI is one of nature’s building blocks.
d. PHI is derived from the Fibonacci sequence.
e. PHI is a math formula.

353. Which of the following techniques is used in Passage 1, lines

13–18 and Passage 2, lines 24–26?
a. explanation of terms
b. comparison of different arguments
c. contrast of opposing views
d. generalized statement
e. illustration by example

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35 . All of the following questions can be explicitly answered on the

basis of the passage EXCEPT
a. What is the ratio of the length of one’s hip to foor divided by
knee to foor?
b. What is the precise mathematical ratio of PHI?
c. What is the ratio of the length of one’s shoulder to fngertips
divided by elbow to fngertips?
d. What is the ratio of the length of one’s head to the foor divided
by shoulder to the foor?
e. What is the ratio of each sunfower seed spiral rotation’s
diameter to the next?

355. According to both passages, the terms ancient Mystery Schools

(Passage 1, line 43), early scientists (Passage 2, line 22), and ancients
(Passage 2, line 46) signify what about the divine proportion?
a. Early scholars felt that the Divine Proportion was a magical
number.
b. Early scholars found no scientifc basis for the Divine
Proportion.
c. Early mystery writers used the Divine Proportion.
d. Early followers of Pythagoras favored the Pythagorean theorem
over the divine proportion.
e. Early followers of Kepler used the Divine Proportion in
astronomy.

356. Which of the following is NOT true of the pentagon?

a. It is considered both divine and magical by many cultures.
b. It is a geometric fgure with fve equal sides meeting at fve
equal angles.
c. It is a geometric fgure whereby PHI is the ratio of any diagonal
to any side.
d. If you draw an inverted inner pentagon inside a pentagon, it is
in PHI ratio to the initial outer pentagon.
e. A polygon having fve sides and fve interior angles is called a
pentagon.

Questions 357–365 are based on the following passage.

The following passage describes the composition and nature of ivory.

(1) Ivory skin, ivory teeth, Ivory Soap, Ivory Snow—we hear “ivory” used
all the time to describe something fair, white, and pure. But where
does ivory come from, and what exactly is it? Is it natural or man-

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made? Is it a modifer, meaning something pure and white or is it a

(5) specialized and discrete substance?
Historically, the word ivory has been applied to the tusks of ele-
phants. However, the chemical structure of the teeth and tusks of
mammals is the same regardless of the species of origin, and the trade
in certain teeth and tusks other than elephant is well established and
(10) widespread. Therefore, ivory can correctly be used to describe any
mammalian tooth or tusk of commercial interest that is large enough
to be carved or scrimshawed. Teeth and tusks have the same origins.
Teeth are specialized structures adapted for food mastication. Tusks,
which are extremely large teeth projecting beyond the lips, have
(15) evolved from teeth and give certain species an evolutionary advantage
that goes beyond chewing and breaking down food in digestible
pieces. Furthermore, the tusk can be used to actually secure food
through hunting, killing, and then breaking up large chunks of food
into manageable bits.
(20) The teeth of most mammals consist of a root as well as the tusk
proper. Teeth and tusks have the same physical structures: pulp cavity,
dentine, cementum, and enamel. The innermost area is the pulp cav-
ity. The pulp cavity is an empty space within the tooth that conforms
to the shape of the pulp. Odontoblastic cells line the pulp cavity and
(25) are responsible for the production of dentine. Dentine, which is the
main component of carved ivory objects, forms a layer of consistent
thickness around the pulp cavity and comprises the bulk of the tooth
and tusk. Dentine is a mineralized connective tissue with an organic
matrix of collagenous proteins. The inorganic component of dentine
(30) consists of dahllite. Dentine contains a microscopic structure called
dentinal tubules which are micro-canals that radiate outward through
the dentine from the pulp cavity to the exterior cementum border.
These canals have different confgurations in different ivories and
their diameter ranges between 0.8 and 2.2 microns. Their length is
(35) dictated by the radius of the tusk. The three-dimensional confgura-
tion of the dentinal tubules is under genetic control and is therefore
a characteristic unique to the order of the mammal.
Exterior to the dentine lies the cementum layer. Cementum forms
a layer surrounding the dentine of tooth and tusk roots. Its main func-
(40) tion is to adhere the tooth and tusk root to the mandibular and max-
illary jaw bones. Incremental lines are commonly seen in cementum.
Enamel, the hardest animal tissue, covers the surface of the tooth or
tusk which receives the most wear, such as the tip or crown.
Ameloblasts are responsible for the formation of enamel and are lost
(45) after the enamel process is complete. Enamel exhibits a prismatic struc-

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ture with prisms that run perpendicular to the crown or tip. Enamel
prism patterns can have both taxonomic and evolutionary signifcance.
Tooth and tusk ivory can be carved into an almost infnite variety of
shapes and objects. A small example of carved ivory objects are small
(50 statuary, netsukes, jewelry, fatware handles, furniture inlays, and piano
keys. Additionally, warthog tusks, and teeth from sperm whales, killer
whales, and hippos can also be scrimshawed or superfcially carved, thus
retaining their original shapes as morphologically recognizable objects.
The identifcation of ivory and ivory substitutes is based on the
(55) physical and chemical class characteristics of these materials. A com-
mon approach to identifcation is to use the macroscopic and micro-
scopic physical characteristics of ivory in combination with a simple
chemical test using ultraviolet light.

357. In line 5, what does the term discrete most nearly mean?
a. tactful
b. distinct
c. careful
d. prudent
e. judicious

358. Which of the following titles is most appropriate for this passage?
a. Ivory: An Endangered Species
b. Elephants, Ivory, and Widespread Hunting in Africa
c. Ivory: Is It Organic or Inorganic?
d. Uncovering the Aspects of Natural Ivory
e. Scrimshaw: A Study of the Art of Ivory Carving

359. The word scrimshawed in line 12 and line 52 most nearly means
a. foated.
b. waxed.
c. carved.
d. sunk.
e. buoyed.

360. Which of the following choices is NOT part of the physical

structure of teeth?
a. pulp cavity
b. dentine
c. cementum
d. tusk
e. enamel

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361. As used in line 13, what is the best synonym for mastication?
a. digestion
b. tasting
c. biting
d. chewing
e. preparation

362. Which sentence best describes dentinal tubules?

a. Dentinal tubules are a layer surrounding the dentine of tooth
and tusk roots.
b. Dentinal tubules are micro-canals that radiate outward through
the dentine from the pulp cavity to the exterior cementum border.
c. Dentinal tubules are responsible for the formation of enamel
and are lost after the enamel process is complete.
d. Dentinal tubules cover the surface of the tooth or tusk which
receives the most wear, such as the tip or crown.
e. Dentinal tubules are extremely large teeth projecting beyond
the lips that have evolved from teeth and give certain species an
evolutionary advantage.

363. According to the passage, all of the following are organic

substances EXCEPT
a. cementum.
b. dentine.
c. dahllite.
d. ameloblasts.
e. collagen.

36 . According to the passage, how can natural ivory be authenticated?

a. by ultraviolet light
b. by gamma rays
c. by physical observation
d. by osmosis
e. by scrimshaw

365. According to the passage, which statement is NOT true of

enamel?
a. It is an organic substance.
b. It is the hardest of animal tissues.
c. It should never be exposed to ultraviolet light.
d. It structure is prismatic.
e. It is formed with the aid of ameloblasts.

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Questions 366–37 are based on the following passage.

This passage is about the process by which scientists prove theories, the
scientific method.
(1) The scientifc method usually refers to either a series or a collection
of processes that are considered characteristic of scientifc investiga-
tion and of the acquisition of new scientifc knowledge.
The essential elements of the scientifc method are:

(5) Observe: Observe or read about a phenomenon.

Hypothesize: Wonder about your observations, and invent a
hypothesis, or a guess, which could explain the phenomenon or
set of facts that you have observed.
Test: Conduct tests to try out your hypothesis.
(10) Predict: Use the logical consequences of your hypothesis to pre-
dict observations of new phenomena or results of new
measurements.
Experiment: Perform experiments to test the accuracy of these
predictions.
(15) Conclude: Accept or refute your hypothesis.
Evaluate: Search for other possible explanations of the result until
you can show that your guess was indeed the explanation, with
confdence.
Formulate new hypothesis: as required.

(20) This idealized process is often misinterpreted as applying to scien-

tists individually rather than to the scientifc enterprise as a whole. Sci-
ence is a social activity, and one scientist’s theory or proposal cannot
become accepted unless it has been published, peer reviewed, criti-
cized, and fnally accepted by the scientifc community.

(25) Observation
The scientifc method begins with observation. Observation often
demands careful measurement. It also requires the establishment of an
operational defnition of measurements and other concepts before the
experiment begins.

(30) Hypothesis
To explain the observation, scientists use whatever they can (their
own creativity, ideas from other fields, or even systematic guessing)
to come up with possible explanations for the phenomenon under

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study. Deductive reasoning is the way in which predictions are used

(35) to test a hypothesis.

Testing
In the twentieth century, philosopher Karl Popper introduced the idea
that a hypothesis must be falsifable; that is, it must be capable of being
demonstrated wrong. A hypothesis must make specifc predictions;
(40) these predictions can be tested with concrete measurements to support
or refute the hypothesis. For instance, Albert Einstein’s theory of gen-
eral relativity makes a few specifc predictions about the structure of
space and fow of time, such as the prediction that light bends in a
strong gravitational feld, and the amount of bending depends in a pre-
(45) cise way on the strength of the gravitational feld. Observations made
of a 1919 solar eclipse supported this hypothesis against other possi-
ble hypotheses, such as Sir Isaac Newton’s theory of gravity, which did
not make such a prediction. British astronomers used the eclipse to
prove Einstein’s theory and therefore, eventually replaced Newton’s
(50) theory.

Verif ation
Probably the most important aspect of scientifc reasoning is verif-
cation. Verifcation is the process of determining whether the
hypothesis is in accord with empirical evidence, and whether it will
(55) continue to be in accord with a more generally expanded body of evi-
dence. Ideally, the experiments performed should be fully described
so that anyone can reproduce them, and many scientists should inde-
pendently verify every hypothesis. Results that can be obtained from
experiments performed by many are termed reproducible and are
(60) given much greater weight in evaluating hypotheses than non-repro-
ducible results.

Evaluation
Falsifcationism argues that any hypothesis, no matter how respected
or time-honored, must be discarded once it is contradicted by new reli-
(65) able evidence. This is, of course, an oversimplifcation, since individ-
ual scientists inevitably hold on to their pet theory long after contrary
evidence has been found. This is not always a bad thing. Any theory
can be made to correspond to the facts, simply by making a few adjust-
ments—called “auxiliary hypothesis”—so as to bring it into corre-
(70) spondence with the accepted observations. The choice of when to
reject one theory and accept another is inevitably up to the individual
scientist, rather than some methodical law.

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Hence all scientifc knowledge is always in a state of fux, for at any

time new evidence could be present[ed] that contradicts long-held
(75) hypotheses.
The experiments that reject a hypothesis should be performed by
many different scientists to guard against bias, mistake, misunderstand-
ing, and fraud. Scientifc journals use a process of peer review, in which
scientists submit their results to a panel of fellow scientists (who may or
(80) may not know the identity of the writer) for evaluation. Peer review may
well have turned up problems and led to a closer examination of exper-
imental evidence for many scientists. Much embarrassment, and wasted
effort worldwide, has been avoided by objective peer review, in addition
to continuing the use and proving the necessity of the scientifc method.

366. Which step in the process of scientifc method do lines 63–72

speak of?
a. operational defnition
b. verifcation
c. evaluation
d. phenomenon
e. hypothesizing

367. What is the tone of this passage?

a. enigmatic
b. apathetic
c. abstruse
d. instructive
e. revealing

368. In line 63 the word falsifcationism most nearly means

a. validation.
b. qualifcation.
c. confrmation.
d. facilitation.
e. refutation.

369. Which statement is FALSE?

a. Reproducible results can be obtained by experiments performed
by a variety of scientists.
b. An auxiliary hypothesis can be made to correspond to the facts.
c. Einstein’s theory of relativity makes space and time predictions.
d. Peer review is usually not a valuable tool for scientists.
e. Experiments are a necessary element in the scientifc method.

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370. According to the passage, which is true of a hypothesis?

a. It is not a necessary process in the scientifc method.
b. It cannot be discarded by a competing theory.
c. It is a guess.
d. It can make a broad and general prediction.
e. It is always considered auxiliary.

371. What is the best title for this passage?

a. The Theory of Relativity
b. The Scientifc Method: A Step-by-Step Process
c. The Two Stages of Proving Theories
d. How to Form a Hypotheses
e. Evaluating Data with the Scientifc Method

372. What is meant by the term operational defnition in line 28

of the passage?
a. a scientifc law
b. a theory
c. a clear defnition [of a measurement]
d. scientifc method
e. hypothesis

373. What do lines 37–48 of the passage indicate?

a. The theory of general relativity is a hypothesis.
b. Karl Popper proved the theory of relativity to be incorrect.
c. Einstein was the father of the scientifc method.
d. Space and the fow of time theories are still in a state of fux.
e. Sir Isaac Newton’s theory of gravity disproved Einstein’s theory.

37 . Which is NOT a step used in the process of scientifc method?

a. observation
b. simplifcation
c. evaluation
d. verifcation
e. hypothesis

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Use the following to answer questions 375 through 376.

Cuttlefsh are intriguing little animals. The cuttlefsh resembles a

rather large squid and is, like the octopus, a member of the order of
cephalopods. Although they are not considered the most highly
evolved of the cephalopods, they are extremely intelligent. While
observing them, it is hard to tell who is doing the observing, you or the
cuttlefsh, especially since the eye of the cuttlefsh is very similar in
structure to the human eye. Cuttlefsh are also highly mobile and fast
creatures. They come equipped with a small jet located just below the
tentacles that can expel water to help them move. Ribbons of fexible
fn on each side of the body allow cuttlefsh to hover, move, stop, and
start. _______________________________________________.
The cuttlefsh is sometimes referred to as the “chameleon of the
sea” because it can change its skin color and pattern instantaneously.
Masters of camoufage, they can blend into any environment for pro-
tection, but they are also capable of the most imaginative displays of
iridescent, brilliant color and intricate designs, which scientists believe
they use to communicate with each other and for mating displays.
However, judging from the riot of ornaments and hues cuttlefsh pro-
duce, it is hard not to believe they paint themselves so beautifully just
for the sheer joy of it. At the very least, cuttlefsh conversation must
be the most sparkling in all the sea.

375. Which of the following sentences, if inserted into the blank line,
would best sum up the frst paragraph and lead into the next?
a. The cuttlefsh can be cooked and eaten like its less tender rela-
tives, the squid and octopus, but must still be tenderized before
cooking in order not to be exceedingly chewy.
b. On a scuba dive when you’re observing cuttlefsh, it is best to
move slowly because cuttlefsh have excellent eyesight and will
probably see you frst.
c. Cuttlefsh do not have an exoskeleton; instead, their skin is cov-
ered with chromataphors.
d. By far their most intriguing characteristic is their ability to
change their body color and pattern.
e. There are many interesting and diverse types of aquatic species
in the ocean.

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376. Which of the following best outlines the main topics addressed in
the passage?
a. I. Explanation of why cuttlefsh are intriguing
II. Communication skills of cuttlefsh
b. I. Classifcation and diffculties of observing cuttlefsh
II. Scientifc explanation of modes of cuttlefsh communication
c. I. Explanation of the cuttlefsh’s method of locomotion
II. Description of color displays in mating behavior
d. I. eneral classifcation and characteristics of cuttlefsh
II. Uses and beauty of the cuttlefsh’s ability to change color
e. I. The origin of the cuttlefsh
II. Food sources for the cuttlefsh

Use the following to answer questions 377 through 382.

(1) Medical waste has been a growing concern because of recent inci-
dents of public exposure to discarded blood vials, needles (sharps),
empty prescription bottles, and syringes. Medical waste can typically
include general refuse, human blood and blood products, cultures and
(5) stocks of infectious agents, laboratory animal carcasses, contaminated
bedding material, and pathological wastes.
Wastes are generally collected by gravity chutes, carts, or pneumatic
tubes, each of which has its own advantages and disadvantages. Chutes
are limited to vertical transport, and there is some risk of exhausting
(10) contaminants into hallways if a door is left open during use. Another
disadvantage of gravity chutes is that the waste container may get
jammed while dropping or broken upon hitting the bottom. Carts are
primarily for horizontal transport of bagged or containerized wastes.
The main risk here is that bags may be broken or torn during trans-
(15) port, potentially exposing the worker to the wastes. Using automated
carts can reduce the potential for exposure. Pneumatic tubes offer the
best performance for waste transport in a large facility. Advantages
include high-speed movement, movement in any direction, and min-
imal intermediate storage of untreated wastes. However, some objects
(20) cannot be conveyed pneumatically.
Off-site disposal of regulated medical wastes remains a viable
option for smaller hospitals (those with less than 150 beds). Some pre-
liminary on-site processing, such as compaction or hydropulping, may
be necessary prior to sending the waste off-site. Compaction reduces
(25) the total volume of solid wastes, often reducing transportation and dis-
posal costs, but does not change the hazardous characteristics of the

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waste. However, compaction may not be economical if transportation

and disposal costs are based on weight rather than volume.
Hydropulping involves grinding the waste in the presence of an oxi-
(30) dizing fuid, such as hypochlorite solution. The liquid is separated
from the pulp and discharged directly into the sewer unless local lim-
its require additional pretreatment prior to discharge. The pulp can
often be disposed of at a landfll. One advantage is that waste can be
rendered innocuous and reduced in size within the same system. Dis-
(35) advantages are the added operating burden, diffculty of controlling
fugitive emissions, and the diffculty of conducting microbiological
tests to determine whether all organic matters and infectious organ-
isms from the waste have been destroyed.
On-site disposal is a feasible alternative for hospitals generating two
(40) tons per day or more of total solid waste. Common treatment tech-
niques include steam sterilization and incineration. Although other
options are available, incineration is currently the preferred method
for on-site treatment of hospital waste.
Steam sterilization is limited in the types of medical waste it can
(45) treat but is appropriate for laboratory cultures and/or substances con-
taminated with infectious organisms. The waste is subjected to steam
in a sealed, pressurized chamber. The liquid that may form is drained
off to the sewer or sent for processing. The unit is then reopened after
a vapor release to the atmosphere, and the solid waste is taken out for
(50) further processing or disposal. One advantage of steam sterilization is
that it has been used for many years in hospitals to sterilize instru-
ments and containers and to treat small quantities of waste. However,
since sterilization does not change the appearance of the waste, there
could be a problem in gaining acceptance of the waste for landflling.
(55) A properly designed, maintained, and operated incinerator achieves
a relatively high level of organism destruction. Incineration reduces
the weight and volume of the waste as much as 95% and is especially
appropriate for pathological wastes and sharps. The most common
incineration system for medical waste is the controlled-air type. The
(60) principal advantage of this type of incinerator is low particulate emis-
sions. Rotary kiln and grate type units have been used, but use of grate
type units has been discontinued due to high air emissions. The rotary
kiln also puts out high emissions, and the costs have been prohibitive
for smaller units.

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377. The underlined word exhausting, as it is used in the second

paragraph of the passage, most nearly means
a. debilitating
b. disregarding
c. detonating
d. discharging
e. dampening

378. The underlined phrase fugitive emissions in line 36 most nearly

means
a. contaminants that are extremely toxic
b. contaminants that are illegally discharged
c. contaminants that escape the disposal process
d. contaminants that come from microbiological testing
e. contaminants that are more harmful to wildlife than humans

379. For hospitals that dispose of waste on their own premises, the
optimum treatment method is
a. incineration
b. compaction
c. sterilization
d. hydropulping
e. radiation

380. According to the passage, which of the following could be safely

disposed of in a landfll but might not be accepted by landfll
facilities?
a. hydropulped material
b. sterilized waste
c. incinerated waste
d. laboratory cultures
e. contaminated chemicals

381. The two processes mentioned in the passage that involve the
formation of liquid are
a. compaction and hydropulping
b. incineration and compaction
c. hydropulping and sterilization
d. sterilization and incineration
e. regurgitation and elimination

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382. According to the passage, two effective methods for treating waste
caused by infectious matter are
a. steam sterilization and incineration
b. hydropulping and steam sterilization
c. incineration and compaction
d. hydropulping and incineration
e. fracking and regeneration

Use the following to answer questions 383 through 38 .

reyhound racing is the sixth most popular spectator sport in the

United States. Over the last decade a growing number of racers have
been adopted to live out their retirement as household pets, once their
racing career is over.
Many people hesitate to adopt a retired racing greyhound because
they think only very old dogs are available. Actually, even champion
racers only work until they are about three-and-a-half years old. Since
greyhounds usually live to be 12-15 years old, their retirement is much
longer than their racing careers.
People worry that a greyhound will be more nervous and active
than other breeds and will need a large space to run. These are false
impressions. reyhounds have naturally sweet, mild dispositions, and
while they love to run, they are sprinters rather than distance runners
and are suffciently exercised with a few laps around a fenced-in back-
yard every day.
reyhounds do not make good watchdogs, but they are very good
with children, get along well with other dogs (and usually cats as well),
and are very affectionate and loyal. They are intelligent, well-behaved
dogs, usually housebroken in only a few days. A retired racing grey-
hound is a wonderful pet for almost anyone.

383. Based on the tone of the passage, the author’s MAIN purpose is to
a. teach prospective owners how to transform their racing grey-
hound into a good pet
b. show how the greyhound’s nature makes it equally good as racer
and pet
c. encourage people to adopt retired racing greyhounds
d. objectively present the pros and cons of adopting a racing grey-
hound
e. convince people to avoid greyhounds at all costs

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38 . Which of the following is implied by the passage?

a. The public is more aware of greyhounds than they used to be.
b. reyhounds are more competitive than other dogs.
c. reyhound racing should not be allowed.
d. People who own pet rabbits should not adopt greyhounds.
e. reyhounds aren’t as fast as some people think they are.

Answers

318. e. Answer choices a–d are all unauthorized logging practices per-
formed by Metsähallitus in Finland. Choice e is incorrect
because it refers to another country.
319. c. Calling for a moratorium means to cease or stop an activity or
concept. You can deduce this correct answer from the clue in
line 17, halt.
320. b. The author’s tone can best be characterized as an urgent warn-
ing. The passage exposes an illegal logging practice that threat-
ens to destroy forests in Finland. The author’s genuine concern
rules out choices a and d, and there is nothing in the passage to
suggest that the author is either secretly angry, choice c, or in a
state of panic, choice e.
321. d. Though reenpeace is clearly out to inform the reader of bad
logging practices in Finland, it is not trying to rally support for
their organization (choice e); rather, their goal is to promote
awareness, and through awareness, change. Choice a’s sugges-
tion that other forests are endangered is false, and choices b and
c are not ideas put forth by the passage.
322. d. The reat Barrier Reef does not cause erosion; it prevents it.
All of the other choices are true and can be found in the
passage.
323. e. According to the passage, 2,010 km is approximately 1,250
miles. So, twice as many km (4,020) would be approximately
twice as many miles (2,500).
32 . b. The phrase ill effects of that precedes the words erosion and putre-
faction means that putrefaction is a negative consequence, as is
erosion. The other choices are either neutral, c, d, and e, or
positive, a.
325. a. This statement encapsulates the entire passage, not just a part
of it. Choices c and e are too specifc to be correct. Choices b
and d are not supported by the passage.

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326. c. Erosion and putrefaction (line 6) are the consequences to shore-

line if the coral reefs are neglected or destroyed.
327. d. Choices b and c, meaning scattered and erratic, respectively, are
not supported in the document. Choice e is incorrect because it
is an antonym of obligatory. Choice a may be considered a syn-
onym but it is not the best choice. The best choice is d, requisite.
328. c. This answer can be drawn from lines 48–51 in the passage.
Choices b and d are also true but not the best answers. Choices
a and e are not true.
329. b. Lines 9–11 of the passage clearly state that Benjamin Franklin
frst considered the concept of DST.
330. a. Locations near the equator do not participate in DST because
they have equal hours of day and night; therefore, DST,
which extends the daylight period, is not useful. Choice c is
incorrect because Navajo reservations observe DST. Choice b
is incorrect because parts of Indiana do observe DST. Choice
d is incorrect because Mexico now observes DST. Choice e is
incorrect because Saskatchewan chooses to not observe DST.
331. d. This choice is directly supported by lines 37–39 of the passage.
332. a. Choices b–e are incorrect because they each refer to specifc
points raised in the passage, but not throughout the passage.
Only choice a describes the point of the entire passage.
333. d. This choice is directly supported by lines 51–54 of the passage.
33 . d. The anecdote contrasts with the ensuing quote in paragraph 1
and depicts a plausible reason for the apple story—Newton
wanted to make his theory understood to the general public.
Speaking in physics terminology is abstract, but using an illus-
tration that regular people have witnessed again and again
would aid in understanding. The quote gives credence to the
anecdote, ruling out choice a. Choices b and e are never men-
tioned, and choice c is not backed up by the passage.
335. e. Lines 16–18 of the passage clearly state that Newton became Pro-
fessor of Mathematics at Trinity College, Cambridge.
336. e. In paragraph 4, Newton’s Laws of Motion are said to govern the
motion of objects and are the basis for the concept of the clockwork
universe. Nowhere in the passage is it stated that Newton or his
Laws are responsible for the international dateline (choice b), lati-
tude (choice c), or longitude (choice d). Choice a plays on the
word govern in line 34 and is misleading.
337. b. Lines 49–51 specifcally state that Newton provided an explana-
tion of Kepler’s laws.

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338. d. All of the other titles were bestowed on Newton during his
lifetime.
339. b. William Stukeley published Memoirs of Sir saac Newton’s Life in
1726, after Newton’s death. The other choices are all accom-
plishemnts of Newton in his lifetime.
3 0. a. Choice a is correct because it lists the proper accolades and the
proper time frame in which he lived. Choice b is incorrect because
he did not live in the Renaissance; choices c and d are incorrect
because he was not a lord, but a knight; and choice e is incorrect
because it is not the best summary of his vast accomplishments.
3 1. c. The phrase broken up into long, thin fbers is used to describe
asbestos bundles in lines 10–11, prior to the phrase friable
substance supports that friable means easily broken down. All
other choices are not supported in the passage.
3 2. b. This choice best describes the passage in its entirety, while the
other choices describe individual points made throughout the
passage.
3 3. d. Asbestosis usually occurs in people exposed to high levels of
asbestos. Choice a is incorrect because not all insulation mate-
rial contains asbestos fbers; choice b is incorrect because
asbestos that is in good condition and not crumbled or breaking
away does not need to be removed. Choice c is incorrect
because the AHERA protects schools against asbestos exposure.
Choice e is incorrect because asbestosis is a lung disease, not a
manmade substance.
3 . e. The correct choice is universal. The sentence Many commercial
building and home insulation products contained asbestos after the
word ubiquitous shows that asbestos was commonly used.
3 5. b. The author explains that lung cancer and asbestosis are diseases
of the lung in lines 11–16 of the passage. Choice a is not true
because lung cancer and asbestosis are not dangerous fbers,
asbestos is. Choice c is incorrect as both diseases may be fatal,
but may be treated, as well. Choice d is incorrect because we
know lung cancer can develop in ways other than asbestos expo-
sure. Choice e is incorrect because asbestosis in not necessarily
a common illness.
3 6. a. While the passage does include the other choices except choice
e, the overall purpose of the passage is to teach asbestos aware-
ness in the home and school.

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3 7. c. The tone of this passage is informative, serving to instruct the

general reader about asbestos. Choices a and d (cautionary and
admonitory) are synonyms, and while the passage does show the
dangers of asbestos, the general tone is not cautionary. Apathetic
(choice b) means indifferent and idiosyncratic (choice e) means
distinctive, neither of which apply.
3 8. b. The author is writing for a layperson, meaning a homeowner,
parent, or student. Choices a and e describe professionals, while
c and d describe people you would fnd in a school setting, all of
whom may be interested in this information, but none of whom
is the specifc, targeted audience.
3 9. a. The tone is best described as one of fascinated discovery
unfolding during a lecture. A clue to the tone is the use of excla-
mation points and the excited, choppy delivery of Langdon’s
information. Choices b or e may be considered as the tone of
Passage 1. Choice c and d are not supported by the text.
350. c. The mathematical ratio PHI is also known as the Divine Pro-
portion. This is directly stated in lines 17–18 of Passage 1, and
lines 22–23 of Passage 2.
351. c. Ubiquity is used here to show that even though the concept of
PHI in nature seems unusual or unique at frst, it is actually a
very common and predictable occurrence. The other choices
are not supported by the passage.
352. b. PHI is not the area of a regular pentagon. All other answers
describe an aspect of PHI as found in the two passages.
353. e. The subject of both paragraphs is Fibonacci spirals. Sunfower
seeds, pinecones, and pineapples are mentioned as examples of
the Fibonacci spiral.
35 . d. The answer for choices a, b, c, and e are all the same, according
to Passage 2: 1.618. The ratio of head to foor divided by shoul-
der to foor (choice d) is not covered in the passage.
355. a. Both passages refer to the fact that early or ancient scientists
perceived the Divine Proportion to be a magical number.
Choices d and e could be correct, but they are not supported by
the passage. Choices b and c are false.
356. a. This statement, while true, refers to the pentagram, not the
pentagon. Choices b–e are all true statements about the
pentagon.
357. b. Discrete means distinct, and as used in the passage, it is paired
with specialized, a context clue. Choices a, c, d, and e are all syn-
onyms for the homophone, discreet.

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358. d. Choice b is not covered in the passage. Choices a, c, and e,

while mentioned, are too specifc to be viable titles. Choice d is
broad-ranging enough to encompass the entire passage.
359. c. Scrimshawed means carved, as in line 12. The word is often asso-
ciated with whaling and seafaring, so answer choices a, d, and e
are all distracters stemming from that confusion regarding con-
text. Because scrimshaw and enamel are wax-like substances, a
less careful reader may choose b.
360. d. According to lines 21–22 of the passage, choices a, b, c, and e
are all parts of the physical structure of teeth. Choice d, tusk, is
not a component of teeth, but rather a type of tooth found in
some mammals.
361. d. From the context in lines 13–17, it can be deduced that mastica-
tion means the act of chewing because tusks, evolved from teeth,
are described in line 16 as able to go beyond chewing. Choices a,
b, and c are distracters that might be chosen if not reading care-
fully. Choice e, preparation, is too vague.
362. b. Lines 30–32 clearly state that dentinal tubules are micro-canals
that radiate outward through the dentine from the pulp cavity to the
exterior cementum border.
363. c. In the passage, the substances in choices a, b, d, and e are all
described as organic substances. Therefore, choice c, an inor-
ganic substance, is correct.
36 . a. Lines 55–58 identify how natural ivory can be authenticated.
365. c. According to the ffth paragraph of the passage, enamel is the
hardest animal tissue (animal tissue, by nature, is a living thing,
and thus organic), ameloblasts help form it, and it has a pris-
matic structure (choices a, b, d, and e). Choice c is incorrect
because lines 55–58 state that ivory is commonly tested via
ultraviolet light, which would indicate exposure.
366. c. Choice c is correct because these lines specifcally speak to the
evaluation process of the scientifc method.
367. d. The entire passage is instructive and about educating
the reader.
368. e. Falsifcationism means to refute and prove wrong as supported in
lines 38 and 63 of the passage.
369. d. Peer review is proposed as a vital part of the scientifc method,
and it is directly supported as such by lines 61–67 in the pas-
sage. The other statements are all true.
370. c. Lines 31–35 of the passage support this truth about hypotheses.
The other statements about hypotheses are false.

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371. b. This is the best choice as it explains the overall point of the pas-
sage, which is a step-by-step process covering the scientifc
method. Choice e is close, but the entire passage is not about
evaluating data. Choice a is incorrect because the theory of rel-
ativity is only cited as an example, not as a general topic. Like-
wise, choice c only considers a small part of the passage. Choice
d is too specifc.
372. c. Operational defnition is defned as a clear defnition of a meas-
urement in lines 26–29 in the passage.
373. a. Choice a is supported by the passage. Choice c is not supported
anywhere in the passage. Choices b, d, and e are all incorrect
interpretations of information contained in the passage and are
careless choices.
37 . b. All the other choices are indicated in the passage to be steps of
the process of scientifc method.
375. d. This sentence sums up the frst paragraph, which is essentially a
list of the cuttlefsh’s characteristics, by declaring which is the
most interesting characteristic, and the sentence introduces the
subject of the second paragraph—the ability of the cuttlefsh to
change color.
376. d. This outline covers the most important ideas in the two para-
graphs.
377. d. See the second sentence of the second paragraph: there is some
risk of exhausting contaminants into hallways, meaning waste
might be discharged.
378. c. The word fugitive here is the key to the meaning. The words
fugitive emissions are used in the context of the disposal process
of hydropulping, and to be a fugitive means to run away or to
escape, so this defnition is the logical choice.
379. a. See lines 42–43, which state that incineration is . . . the preferred
method for on-site treatment.
380. b. See lines 52–54, which point out that steam sterilization does
not change the appearance of the waste, thus perhaps raising
questions at a landfll.
381. c. The fourth paragraph states that liquid is separated from pulp
in the hydropulping process. The sixth paragraph says t at liq-
uid may form during t e sterilization process.

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382. a. This response relies on an understanding of pathological

wastes, which are wastes generated by infectious materials. The
seventh paragraph points out that incineration is especially
appropriate for pathological wastes. Previously, the sixth para-
graph had said that steam sterilization is appropriate for sub-
stances contaminated with infectious organisms.
383. c. The tone of the passage is enthusiastic in its recommendation
of the greyhound as pet and thereby encourages people to adopt
one.
38 . a. The frst paragraph of the passage supports this statement.

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Sports and Leisure

Questions 38 –387 are based on the following passage.

In the following passage, the author attempts to define what separates a sport
from a leisure activity.
(1) The seemingly simple question of “what defines a sport?” has been
the fodder for argument and conversation for years, among profes-
sional and armchair athletes alike. There seems to be no doubt that vig-
orous and highly competitive activities such as baseball, football, and
(5) soccer are truly “sports,” but when the subject of other activities
such as darts, chess, and shuffleboard is broached we find ourselves
at the heart of a controversy.
If say, billiards, is not a sport, then what exactly is it? Those who
would dispute it to be a sport would respond that it is a simple leisure
(10) activity. They would go on to claim a true sport frst and foremost
requires some form of physical exertion. More to the point, if a player
does not break a sweat, what he or she plays is not a sport. Beyond
that, more important criteria would be the need for decent hand-eye
coordination, and the ever-present possibility of sustaining injury. Bil-
(15) liards only fts one of those specifcations (hand-eye coordination), so
according to the doubters, it is not a real sport.
To help resolve this dispute, the frst text to consult would have to
be the dictionary. According to one dictionary, a sport is defned as “a

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diversion” or a “recreation.” Assuming one strictly adheres to the sim-

(20) ple guidelines laid out in that defnition, it would seem that almost any
activity that provides enjoyment could be classifed as a sport. And if,
according to the dictionary, watching a sport on television is a sport
itself, I guess that would make a couch potato an athlete. Play ball!

38 . The author’s tone in this passage could be described as

a. serious.
b. light-hearted.
c. confrontational.
d. dark.
e. romantic.

386. The word vigorous in line 3 most nearly means

a. languorous.
b. boring.
c. intricate.
d. ancient.
e. strenuous.

387. According to the criteria given in lines 11–14, all of the following
would be considered a “true” sport EXCEPT
a. cheerleading.
b. skiing.
c. race car driving.
d. horseshoes.
e. gymnastics.

Questions 388–392 are based on the following passage.

The following passage describes the Native American games that were
predecessors to the modern sport of lacrosse.
(1) The roots of the modern-day sport of lacrosse are found in tribal stick
and ball games developed and played by many native North American
tribes dating back as early as the ffteenth century. The Native Amer-
ican names for these games refected the bellicose nature of those early
(5) contests, many of which went far beyond friendly recreational com-
petition. For example, the Algonquin called their game Baggattaway,
which meant, “they bump hips.” The Cherokee Nation and the Six
Tribes of the Iroquois called their sport Tewaarathon, which translated
into “Little Brother of War.” Rules and style of play differed from

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(10) tribe to tribe and games could be played by as few as ffteen to as many
as 1,000 men and women at a time. These matches could last for three
days, beginning at dawn each day and ending at sunset. The goals
could be specifc trees or rocks, and were a few hundred yards to a few
miles apart. Despite these differences, the sole object of every game
(15) was the same: to score goals by any means necessary. Serious injuries
caused by blows from the heavy wooden sticks used in the games were
not uncommon, and often expected. Not surprisingly, the Native
Americans considered these precursors to today’s lacrosse excellent
battle preparation for young warriors, and games were often used to
(20) settle disputes between tribes without resorting to full-blown warfare.
For the Six Tribes of the Iroquois, certain matches of Tewaarathon
held religious signifcance, as well. One of the most important gods
the Iroquois worshipped was the Creator, Deganawidah. In Iroquois
legend, the Creator united the Six Tribes into the one nation.
(25) Tewaarathon was played to please the Creator, and the competition was
viewed as a re-creation of the Iroquois Creation Story, where super-
natural forces of good and evil battled each other in an epic struggle.

388. In line 4, bellicose most closely means

a. beautiful.
b. warlike.
c. peaceful.
d. family minded.
e. clumsy.

389. The passage describes the early versions of lacrosse as

a. strictly regulated competitions.
b. intense games played against the Pilgrims.
c. serious and meaningful matches.
d. played only by the best athletes selected from each tribe.
e. friendly exhibitions.

390. Which of the following titles would be the most appropriate for
this passage?
a. Little Brother of War
b. Lacrosse: America’s Most Violent Sport
c. The Origins of the Modern Lacrosse Stick
d. Deganawidah and the Six Tribes
e. Hockey: the Little Brother of Lacrosse

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391. In line 15, the author’s use of the phrase by any means necessary
emphasizes the
a. unpredictable nature of the game.
b. mild nature of the game.
c. violent nature of the game.
d. fact that both women and men participated in the games.
e. importance of scoring goals.

392. The author’s main purpose for writing this passage is to

a. illustrate the differences between the early games and today’s
lacrosse.
b. condemn the violent tactics often used by the Native American
players.
c. show how ancient games infuenced many games played today.
d. teach the reader about the Iroquois Creation Story.
e. describe the importance of these games in Native American
culture.

Questions 393–397 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is adapted from a critical commentary about

commercialism in today’s society.
(1) Traditional body signage seems largely to have disappeared. Well,
many of the old symbols and names are still around, of course, but
they are part of the commercial range of options. Seeing someone in
a Harvard or Oxford sweatshirt or a kilt or a military tie now com-
(5) municates nothing at all signifcant about that person’s life other than
the personal choice of a particular consumer. Religious signs are still
evocative, to be sure, but are far less common than they used to be.
Why should this be? I suspect one reason may be that we have lost a
sense of signifcant connection to the various things indicated by such
(10) signs. Proclaiming our high school or university or our athletic team
or our community has a much lower priority nowadays, in part
because we live such rapidly changing lives in a society marked by con-
stant motion that the stability essential to confer signifcance on such
signs has largely gone.
(15) But we still must attach ourselves to something. Lacking the con-
viction that the traditional things matter, we turn to the last resort of
the modern world: the market. Here there is a vast array of options,
all equally meaningless in terms of traditional values, all equally
important in identifying the one thing left to us for declaring our

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(20) identity publicly, our fashion sense and disposable income. The mar-
ket naturally manipulates the labels, making sure we keep purchasing
what will most quickly declare us excellent consumers. If this year a
pair of sneakers worn by a celebrity are so popular that we are pre-
pared to spend our way into a trendy identity, then next year there
(25) will be something else.

393. The main purpose of the passage is to

a. discuss basketball’s importance in today’s fashions.
b. relate the tribal history of tattoos.
c. tell a story about the good old days.
d. help the reader discover his or her own true identity.
e. discuss commercialism’s powerful infuence upon personal
identity.

394. What does the author mean by the commercial range of options
(line 3)?
a. the variety of commercials on television and radio
b. the numerous products available to today’s consumer
c. the ability to shop on the Internet
d. let the buyer beware
e. technology’s impact upon the world

39 . In line 20, disposable income refers to

a. recyclable goods.
b. spending money.
c. life savings.
d. a donation to charity.
e. garbage.

396. The author would agree with all the following statements
EXCEPT
a. A person wearing a New York Yankees baseball hat is not neces-
sarily a fan of the team or a resident of New York.
b. Pride in our school or community is not as strong today as it
was years ago.
c. In today’s society, being trendy is more important than keeping
tradition.
d. You can tell a lot about somebody by what they are wearing.
e. The last resort of the modern world is the marketplace.

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397. Which statement best simplifes the author’s point of view of

today’s society in lines 12–14?
a. Times have changed.
b. People’s lives today are very similar to those of a generation
ago.
c. Fashion is very important in today’s world.
d. People today don’t have proper nutrition.
e. Life is short.

Questions 398–406 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is an excerpt from Jack London’s The Cruise of the nark.
In this selection, London discusses his experience of learning to surf in Waikiki
in the early 1 00s.
(1) A wave is a communicated agitation. The water that composes the
body of a wave does not move. If it did, when a stone is thrown into a
pond and the ripples spread away in an ever-widening circle, there
would appear at the center an ever-increasing hole. No, the water that
(5) composes the body of a wave is stationary. Thus, you may watch a par-
ticular portion of the ocean’s surface and you will see the same water
rise and fall a thousand times to the agitation communicated by a
thousand successive waves. Now imagine this communicated agitation
moving shoreward. As the bottom shoals, the lower portion of the
(10) wave strikes land frst and is stopped. But water is fuid, and the upper
portion has not struck anything, wherefore it keeps on communicat-
ing its agitation, keeps on going. And when the top of the wave keeps
on going, while the bottom of it lags behind, something is bound to
happen. The bottom of the wave drops out from under and the top of
(15) the wave falls over, forward, and down, curling and cresting and roar-
ing as it does so. It is the bottom of a wave striking against the top of
the land that is the cause of all surfs.
But the transformation from a smooth undulation to a breaker is
not abrupt except where the bottom shoals abruptly. Say the bottom
(20) shoals gradually from a quarter of a mile to a mile, then an equal dis-
tance will be occupied by the transformation. Such a bottom is that off
the beach of Waikiki, and it produces a splendid, surf-riding surf. One
leaps upon the back of a breaker just as it begins to break, and stays on
it as it continues to break all the way in to shore.
(25) And now to the particular physics of surf-riding. et out on a fat
board, six feet long, two feet wide, and roughly oval in shape. Lie
down upon it like a small boy on a coaster and paddle with your hands

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out to deep water, where the waves begin to crest. Lie out there qui-
etly on the board. Sea after sea breaks before, behind, and under and
(30) over you, and rushes in to shore, leaving you behind. When a wave
crests, it gets steeper. Imagine yourself, on your board, on the face of
that steep slope. If it stood still, you would slide down just as a boy
slides down a hill on his coaster. “But,” you object, “the wave doesn’t
stand still.” Very true, but the water composing the wave stands still,
(35) and there you have the secret. If ever you start sliding down the face
of that wave, you’ll keep on sliding and you’ll never reach the bottom.
Please don’t laugh. The face of that wave may be only six feet, yet you
can slide down it a quarter of a mile, or half a mile, and not reach the
bottom. For, see, since a wave is only a communicated agitation or
(40) impetus, and since the water that composes a wave is changing every
instant, new water is rising into the wave as fast as the wave travels.
You slide down this new water, and yet remain in your old position
on the wave, sliding down the still newer water that is rising and
forming the wave. You slide precisely as fast as the wave travels. If it
(45) travels ffteen miles an hour, you slide ffteen miles an hour. Between
you and shore stretches a quarter of mile of water. As the wave trav-
els, this water obligingly heaps itself into the wave, gravity does the
rest, and down you go, sliding the whole length of it. If you still cher-
ish the notion, while sliding, that the water is moving with you, thrust
(50) your arms into it and attempt to paddle; you will fnd that you have to
be remarkably quick to get a stroke, for that water is dropping astern
just as fast as you are rushing ahead.

398. The author compares surfng to

a. an ever-increasing hole forming in the water.
b. a chemistry experiment gone wrong.
c. a boy sledding down a hill on a coaster.
d. a transformation of time and space.
e. fying through the air like a bird.

399. All of the following questions can be answered based on

information from the passage EXCEPT
a. When a wave crests, it gets steeper.
b. If a wave is moving at eight miles per hour, so is the surfer on
that wave.
c. A wave is constantly recomposing itself with new water.
d. A fat board is the most popular type of surfboard.
e. The conditions at Waikiki make are excellent for surfng.

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400. According to the author, why is Waikiki ideal for surfng?

a. The weather is great and the water is warm.
b. The waves break abruptly as they approach the shore.
c. The waves at Waikiki are a communicated agitation.
d. Waikiki has some of the biggest waves in the world.
e. The waves break gradually as they approach the shore.

401. The word shoals in line 9 refers to

a. the sand kicked up as the waves break upon the beach.
b. water becoming shallower as it approaches the shore.
c. the steep cresting of a wave.
d. the salty smell of the sea.
e. water becoming deeper as you move away from the shore.

402. What part of a wave is responsible for the forming of surf?

a. the upper portion of the wave
b. the lower portion of the wave
c. the strongest part of the wave
d. the trailing portion of the wave
e. the roaring part of the wave.

403. The word impetus in line 40 most nearly means

a. a moving force.
b. a serious obstacle.
c. a slight annoyance.
d. a slight hindrance.
e. an area of very warm water.

404. The author’s description of the transformation of a smooth

undulating wave to a breaking wave (lines 18–21) indicates that
a. the distance of a wave’s break is dependent upon the bottom of
the approaching shoreline.
b. it is rare for a wave to break gradually.
c. it is common for a wave to break abruptly.
d. the size of a wave has to do with its speed through the water.
e. a wave only travels through deep water.

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40 . The sentence A wave is a communicated agitation (line 1) is best

defned by which statement?
a. The roar of a wave sounds angry when it breaks upon the shore.
b. Waves are a display of the ocean’s fury.
c. A wave is a surging movement that travels through the water.
d. The size of a wave can vary.
e. The ocean has baffed sailors for centuries.

406. What is the secret referred to in line 35?

a. A good wave for surfng must to be at least six feet tall.
b. A six-foot wave is between a quarter mile and a half mile in length.
c. A surfer can slide down a six-foot wave for a quarter of mile.
d. The smarter surfers paddle out to the deep water to catch the
best waves.
e. The water that composes a wave remains with the wave until it
reaches the shore.

Questions 407–41 are based on the following passage.

This passage details the life and career of Althea Gibson, an African-American
pioneer in the sport of tennis.
(1) Today, watching Venus and Serena Williams dominate the sport of
women’s tennis with their talent and fair, it is hard to imagine that just
over ffty years ago African-American tennis players were barred from
competing on the grandest stages of their sport. Jackie Robinson broke
(5) the color barrier in Major League Baseball in 1947, but the walls that kept
African Americans from playing professional sports did not come tum-
bling down overnight. Almost four years passed from Jackie Robinson’s
major league debut until a female African American made a similar
impact upon the sport of women’s tennis. That woman’s name was Althea
(10) ibson.
Althea ibson was born on a cotton farm on August 25, 1927, in Sil-
ver, South Carolina. The early stages of the reat Depression forced her
sharecropper father to move the family from the bucolic Silver to the
urban bustle of New York City when she was just three years old. As a
(15) child growing up in the Harlem section of Manhattan, Althea found
she had an affnity for athletics. Basketball and paddle tennis were her
favorite sports, and she excelled at both. In fact, her talent at paddle ten-
nis was so remarkable that in 1939 she won her age group at the New
York City paddle tennis championships. Shortly after, a very good friend
(20) of Althea’s suggested that she try lawn tennis. She showed an incredible
aptitude for the sport and her play caught the attention of members of the

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predominately African-American Harlem Cosmopolitan Tennis Club,

who helped her raise money to become a member. At the age of 14,
Althea took her frst real tennis lesson at the club under the tutelage of
(25) one-armed tennis coach Fred Johnson. She would never look back.
A year later in 1942, the major governing body for African-American
tennis tournaments—the American Tennis Association (ATA)—sponsored
the New York irls Singles Championship at Althea’s club. With her
aggressive and dominating style of play, she won the title easily. It was her
(30) frst of what was to be many victories, on and off the court.
Althea dropped out of high school shortly after winning the New York
irls Championship. She found the classes boring and wanted to con-
centrate on tennis. Her decision raised many eyebrows amongst members
of the ATA, who had hoped that she would become one of the sport’s new
(35) stars. She was encouraged to leave New York City and move to Wilm-
ington, North Carolina to live with the family of Hubert Eaton, a wealthy
doctor who was active in the African-American tennis community. Dr.
Eaton welcomed Althea into his family. He not only offered her guidance
with her tennis career, he also convinced her to fnish the remaining three
(40) years of high school. While living with the Eaton family in Wilmington,
she would travel around the country to compete in ATA tournaments. By
the time she graduated in 1949, Althea had already won the frst two of
what would be ten consecutive ATA national titles. She was regarded by
many as one of the most impressive young talents in the female game,
(45) but because of segregation she was not permitted to practice on any of
the public courts in Wilmington. She was also yet to be invited to any
of the major segregated tournaments.
By early 1950 Althea was making some headway. She was the frst
African American to play in the national indoor tournament, where she
(50) fnished second. Althea believed her two national championships and her
strong showing at the indoor tournament were proof that she was one of
female tennis’s elite players. She and the ATA tried to lobby the United
States Lawn Tennis Association (USLTA) for an invitation to the 1950
U.S. Nationals, but despite the ATA’s efforts and Althea’s obvious merit,
(55) the USLTA failed to extend her an invitation.
Not every member of the USLTA was pleased with the organization’s
decision. Former U.S. National and Wimbledon champion Alice Marble
wrote a scathing editorial in the July 1950 issue of American Lawn Tennis
magazine criticizing the USLTA’s segregationist stance. Ms. Marble
(60) wrote, “The entrance of (African Americans) into national tennis is as
inevitable as it has proven in baseball, in football, or in boxing; there is no
denying so much talent. . . . If Althea ibson represents a challenge to the
present crop of players, then it’s only fair that they meet this challenge on

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the courts.” The editorial caused a national uproar that quickly led the
(65) USLTA to fnally extend Althea an invitation to play in the 1950 U.S.
Nationals tournament. This invitation would open many doors for
Althea, and the following year she was the frst African American to com-
pete at Wimbledon.
It took a few years for Althea to adjust to the world-class level of play.
(70) She won her frst major tournament in 1956 and would dominate the
sport for the next fve years, winning six doubles titles and a total of eleven
rand Slam events including the U.S. Nationals and Wimbledon twice.
Yet even at the height of her career as an international tennis champ,
Althea was forced to endure discrimination. She was often refused hotel
(75) rooms and reservations at restaurants simply because of her skin color.
Althea once said that her extraordinary success was the product of
being “game enough to take a lot of punishment along the way.” The pio-
neering example set by Althea ibson paved the way for future genera-
tions of African-American tennis players, and proved that beyond her
(80) tennis glory she was a true champion of the human spirit.

407. What is the main purpose of the passage?

a. to glimpse a piece of the past
b. to glorify athletes
c. to disparage segregation
d. to teach the history of tennis
e. to tell a story

408. The word bucolic in line 13 most nearly means

a. rural.
b. urban.
c. sickly.
d. depressing.
e. wealthy.

409. All of the following questions can be answered based on

information from the passage EXCEPT
a. What factors infuenced the USLTA to invite Althea ibson to
the U.S. Nationals?
b. Did Althea play in another ATA tournament after she was
invited to the U.S. Nationals?
c. Why did Althea go to live with Dr. Eaton?
d. To what specifc types of discrimination was Althea subjected?
e. How many times did Althea compete at Wimbledon?

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410. Which of the following best describes the USLTA’s change of heart
regarding Althea’s invitation?
a. buckling under the pressure of public opinion
b. a calculated strike against segregation
c. a sudden recognition of Althea’s abilities
d. a bold marketing strategy
e. a desire to diversify the women’s game

411. The author uses Althea’s quote about being game enough in line 80
to illustrate that
a. Althea’s career was plagued with injuries.
b. the sport of tennis is more grueling than people realize.
c. Althea believed the discrimination she faced served only to
make her a stronger competitor.
d. Althea was often fned for yelling at the referee.
e. Althea believed talent was more important than mental
toughness.

412. Althea’s achievements are best described as

a. remarkable displays of talent and athleticism.
b. groundbreaking triumphs in the face of adversity.
c. important events that led to immediate civil rights reform.
d. one woman’s fght against the world.
e. historically insignifcant.

413. Which statement best summarizes Alice Marble’s quote in

lines 60–64?
a. Baseball, football, and boxing are more entertaining than tennis.
b. Talent should dictate who could be a champion at a USLTA
tournament, not race.
c. There are players in the U.S. Nationals who do not deserve to
be there.
d. The USLTA should do away with invitations and make the
tournament open to anybody.
e. The ATA and USTLA should merge for the beneft of the sport.

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414. Why did Althea’s friend suggest that she try lawn tennis?
a. Lawn tennis is a more competitive game than paddle tennis.
b. The friend preferred playing lawn tennis.
c. There was more money to be made playing lawn tennis than
paddle tennis.
d. The friend thought Althea might enjoy playing lawn tennis, and
excel at it.
e. The friend was looking for a tennis partner.

41 . All of the following statements are supported by the passage

EXCEPT
a. Alice Marble was a white tennis player.
b. Dr. Eaton’s guidance helped Althea’s career.
c. Althea won the New York irls Singles championship when she
was 15.
d. The public tennis courts in Wilmington were segregated.
e. Althea ibson won more rand Slam titles than any other
female tennis player.

Questions 416–424 are based on the following passage.

The following passage chronicles the 1 1 “Black Sox” baseball scandal.

(1) Professional baseball suffered during the two years the United States
was involved in World War I. Many Americans who were preoccupied
with the seriousness of the war raging overseas had little concern for
the trivialities of a baseball game. After the war ended in 1919, many
(5) Americans wanted to put those dark years behind them and get back
to the normal activities of a peaceful life. One of those activities was
watching baseball. In the summer of 1919, ballparks that just one year
earlier had been practically empty were now flled daily with the sights
and sounds of America’s favorite pastime. That year, both the Cleve-
(10) land Indians and New York Yankees were two of the strongest teams
in baseball’s American League, but one team stood head and shoulders
above the rest: The Chicago White Sox.
The Chicago White Sox, called The White Stockings until 1902,
were owned by an ex-ballplayer named Charles Comiskey. Between the
(15) years of 1900 and 1915 the White Sox had won the World Series only
once, and Comiskey was determined to change that. In 1915, he pur-
chased the contracts of three of the most promising stars in the league:
outfelders “Shoeless” Joe Jackson and “Happy” Oscar Felsch, and sec-
ond baseman Eddie Collins. Comiskey had only to wait two years for his
(20) plan to come to fruition; the 1917 White Sox, playing in a park named

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for their owner, won the World Series. Two years later they had the best
record in all of baseball and were again on their way to the Series.
Baseball players’ salaries in that era were much different than the exor-
bitant paychecks of today’s professional athletes. Often, ballplayers would
(25) have second careers in the off-season because of the mediocrity of their
pay. To make matters worse, war-torn 1918 was such a horrible year for
baseball attendance that many owners cut player salaries for the follow-
ing season. However, it is said in all of baseball there was no owner as
parsimonious as Charles Comiskey. In 1917, he reportedly promised
(30) every player on the White Sox a bonus if they won the American League
Championship. After winning the championship, they returned to the
clubhouse to receive their bonus—a bottle of inexpensive champagne.
Unlike other owners, Comiskey also required the players to pay for the
cleaning of their uniforms. The Sox had the best record in baseball, but
(35) they were the least paid, were the most discontented, and wore the dirt-
iest uniforms.
Comiskey’s frugality did not sit well with the players. They were
most upset with the fact that he did not raise salaries back to their
1918 levels, even though the ballpark attendance fgures for 1919
(40) were higher than any previous year. One player, Eddie Ciccotte, felt
especially ill-treated by Comiskey. The owner promised the pitcher
a bonus of $10,000 if he won thirty games, but after Ciccotte won his
twenty-ninth game he was benched by Comiskey for the rest of the
season.
(45) amblers were such a common sight around the Chicago ballpark
that Charles Comiskey had signs proclaiming “No Betting Allowed
In This Park” posted conspicuously in the stands. The money with
which these gamblers tempted the players was hard to refuse, and it
was rumored that to supplement their income some of the lower-paid
(50) athletes would offer inside tips to the bettors. But gamblers’ mingling
with ballplayers wasn’t solely confned to the White Sox. In 1920,
allegations involving gambling among Chicago Cubs players brought
to light a scandal that would shock Chicago and the rest of America:
Eight members of the White Sox had thrown the 1919 World Series.
(55) The exact facts regarding the scandal will never be known, but the
most accepted theory is that just prior to the World Series, White Sox
player Chick andil had approached a gambler by the name of
Joseph Sullivan with a proposal that for $100,000 andil would make
sure the Sox lost the Series. andil needed to recruit other players for
(60) the plan to work. It was not hard for him to do—there were many
underpaid players on the White Sox who were dissatisfed with the
way Comiskey operated the team. Ultimately, the seven other play-

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ers that were allegedly involved in the scheme were Eddie Cicotte,
Happy Felsch, Joe Jackson, Fred McMullin, Charles “Swede” Ris-
(65) berg, Buck Weaver, and Claude Williams.
They were successful. The Chicago White Sox, heavily favored to
beat an inferior Cincinnati Reds team, lost the nine-game World Series
in eight games, due in most part to the inferior play of the eight con-
spiring players. When the scandal made headlines the following year
(70) the press began to refer to them as the Black Sox, and the ignominious
label would be used to describe them forever.
When the eight players stood before an Illinois grand jury, it was
determined that there was not enough substantial evidence for any
convictions, and the players were all eventually acquitted of any crim-
(75) inal wrongdoing. Interestingly enough, Charles Comiskey paid for the
players’ high-priced defense lawyers. Unfortunately for Comiskey,
there was to be no similar reprieve from major league baseball: Every
single one of the accused players was banned from the game for life.
Comiskey’s once mighty team was decimated by the loss of its most
(80) talented players, and the 1921 White Sox fnished the season in sev-
enth place.

416. According to the passage, who was the supposed ringleader of the
Black Sox scandal?
a. Charles Comiskey
b. “Shoeless” Joe Jackson
c. Eddie Ciccotte
d. Eddie Collins
e. Chick andil

417. In line 29, the word parsimonious most nearly means

a. generous.
b. stingy.
c. powerful.
d. friendly.
e. jovial.

418. According to facts from the passage, what was the name of the
White Sox’s ballpark?
a. Chicago Park
b. Comiskey Park
c. Sullivan Stadium
d. White Sox Park
e. Sox Field

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419. In line 54, the word thrown refers to

a. losing intentionally.
b. pitching a baseball.
c. projecting upon.
d. dashing upon.
e. abandoning something.

420. According to the passage, how many World Series did the White
Sox win between 1900 and 1919?
a. none
b. one
c. two
d. three
e. four

421. All of the following questions can be answered based on

information from the passage EXCEPT
a. Who was the second baseman for the 1915 White Sox?
b. Did the White Sox play in the American League or the
National League?
c. What was the White Sox’s original name?
d. How many games did Eddie Ciccotte pitch in 1918?
e. Why did many baseball owners lower player salaries for the
1919 season?

422. In lines 71–72, the word ignominious most nearly means

a. uneducated.
b. dishonorable.
c. exalted.
d. worthy.
e. unentertaining.

423. The last paragraph of the passage suggests that Charles Comiskey
a. thought the team was better off without the eight players.
b. hoped all eight players would be convicted and sent to jail.
c. wanted the players involved in the scandal to return to the
team.
d. was contemplating retirement.
e. had a plan to get the White Sox back to the World Series.

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424. The passage as a whole suggests that

a. The White Sox probably fxed the 1917 World Series, too.
b. Charles Comiskey may have been in part to blame for his play-
ers’ actions.
c. ballplayers betting on games was a highly unusual occurrence.
d. baseball never recovered after World War I.
e. Charles Comiskey often bet against his own team.

Questions 42 –434 are based on the following passage.

The following passage is adapted from a magazine article entitled The Revival
of the Olympic Games: Restoring the tadium at Athens, published prior to the
first modern Olympics.
(1) For several months an unwonted activity has prevailed in one quarter
of Athens. Herodes Atticus Street behind the royal garden, one of the
most retired streets of the city, has resounded all day long with the rat-
tle of heavy wagons bringing blocks of marble from Pentelikon. At
(5) sunrise and sunset crowds of workingmen are seen moving through
this street, the lower end of which opens upon a bridge across the Ilis-
sos, and on the opposite bank lies the Panathenaic Stadium, now being
lined with marble for the Olympic games which are to be held in it
early in April. The time is short, and the work is being pressed for-
(10) ward. When the International Athletic Committee, at a session in
Paris last year, decided to have a series of athletic contests once in four
years in various countries, it is not surprising that they selected reece
for the frst contest. Although reece now has as little of the athletic
habit as any nation of the civilized world, its past is interwoven with
(15) athletics. Olympia is a magic word, and the committee were doubtless
swayed partly by sentimental reasons in the choice of name and place.
But some may wonder why, since the games come to reece, they
are not to be held at Olympia, to justify the name which they have
taken. This is because the originators of the scheme, although they
(20) have conceded something to sentiment, are no visionaries, but men of
practical common sense. Even their concession to sentiment is likely
to turn out to be a clever piece of practical management, calculated to
launch the games upon the world with more success than could have
been secured in any other way. The games also have a name which will
(25) be just as true in 1900 at Paris, and 1904 in America, as it is this year
in Athens.
Now, however fne a thing it might be to let athletes stir real
Olympic dust, and to let runners put their heels into the very groove

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of the old starting-sill, with the feeling that thirty centuries looked
(30) down upon them, it would not be practical. A successful athletic con-
test cannot be held in the wilderness. It demands a crowd and suste-
nance for a crowd. The crowd is the one essential concomitant of the
athletes. But a crowd will not go where it cannot eat and sleep. To
bring to Olympia a concourse suffcient to in modern times make the
(35) games anything like a success would demand the organization of a
frst-class commissary department, and that too for a service of half a
month only. Shelter and food for such an occasion come naturally only
in connection with some city with a market. Ancient Olympia, with all
its magnifcent buildings, was of course that sort of city, albeit practi-
(40) cally a deserted city except for a few days once in four years.
The visitors at Athens next April—and it is hoped that there will be
tens of thousands of them—will doubtless feel keenly enough the
inadequacy even of a city of 130,000 inhabitants, to give them all that
they seek in the way of material comforts. The problem of seating a
(45) large crowd of spectators did not come up before the International
Committee. But it is this problem which has found a most happy solu-
tion in Athens. The Stadium at Olympia, although excavated at each
end by the ermans, still lies in most of its course under ffteen or
twenty feet of earth. But the Stadium at Athens has always been a ft
(50) place for a monster meeting, provided people would be contented to
sit on its sloping sides without seats. When a local Athenian commit-
tee was formed, composed of most of the citizens conspicuous for
wealth or position, and some resident foreigners, under the presidency
of Constantine, crown prince of reece, one of the frst questions
(55) before it was this question of seating; and its attention was naturally
directed to the Stadium.
A wealthy and generous reek of Alexandria, eorge Averoff, who
was known as a man always on the watch to do something for Athens,
readily took upon himself the expense of restoring the Stadium to
(60) something like its former splendor, when it was lined with marble and
seated 50,000 spectators. He has already given over 900,000 drachmas,
which, if the drachma were at par, would be $180,000, but which now
amounts to only about $100,000. There is a sub-committee of the
general committee above described, designated as the committee on
(65) the preparation of the Stadium, composed of several practical architects,
but including also the Ephor eneral of Antiquities, and the directors
of the foreign archaeological schools. The presence of the archaeolog-
ical element on this committee emphasizes the fact that the new work
is to be a restoration of the old.

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42 . In line 1, the word unwonted most nearly means

a. not welcome.
b. out of the ordinary.
c. unexpected.
d. ancient.
e. nocturnal.

426. Herodes Atticus Street (line 2) is located where in relation to the

Stadium at Athens?
a. behind the royal garden
b. on Mount Olympus
c. across the Illissos river
d. just north of Pentelikon
e. directly adjacent to

427. Based on information in the passage, what year were the frst
modern Olympics to be held?
a. 1892
b. 1896
c. 1900
d. 1904
e. 1908

428. One of the sentimental reasons the author refers to in line 16 is

a. Athens was always the largest city in reece.
b. Panathenaic Stadium is the oldest stadium in Ancient Olympia.
c. Olympia, reece was the site of the original Olympics.
d. Paris was a better choice for the frst modern Olympic games.
e. eorge Averoff was once the King of reece.

429. All of the following are reasons why the frst modern games were
held in Athens and not in Olympia EXCEPT
a. Olympia was a much smaller city than Athens.
b. Parts of the Stadium at Olympia were buried underground.
c. Athens offered better facilities for the crowd in terms of food
and shelter.
d. The ermans voted against Olympia in favor of Athens.
e. The city of Olympia would not attract the same crowd as
Athens.

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430. Who was in charge of solving the problem of seating the crowds
expected at Athens?
a. the International Athletic Committee
b. the ermans
c. eorge Averoff
d. the Ephor eneral of Antiquities
e. a local Athenian Committee

431. According to the passage, about how long were the games to be?
a. two weeks
b. the month of April
c. four years
d. three weeks
e. a few days

432. In line 62, the word drachma refers to

a. a block of marble.
b. the reek word for marble.
c. the name of reek money.
d. a type of stadium seat.
e. a type of reek food.

433. In line 30, what does the author claim would not be practical?
a. trying to revive the spirit of the ancient games
b. holding the new Olympics in Olympia
c. excavating the Stadium at Olympia for use at the modern games
d. refurbishing the Stadium at Athens
e. seating 50,000 spectators

434. The phrase the feeling that thirty centuries looked down upon them
(lines 29–30) refers to the
a. political importance of holding the frst modern games at the
site of Ancient Olympia.
b. decision to hold the second modern Olympics in France.
c. importance of reviving the spirit of the ancient Olympic games.
d. sentimental value of holding the modern games at the site of
Ancient Olympia.
e. need for the best amateur athletes to compete.

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Questions 43 –44 are based on the following passages.

The following passages detail two very different perspectives of life aboard a
ship in the age of sail. The first passage describes an English pleasure yacht in
the early 1800s. The second passage recounts a young boy’s impressions of the
first time he set sail in a merchant vessel.

PASSAGE 1

(1) Reader, have you ever been at Plymouth? If you have, your eye must
have dwelt with ecstasy upon the beautiful property of the Earl of
Mount Edgcumbe: if you have not been at Plymouth, the sooner that
you go there the better. You will see ships building and ships in ordi-
(5) nary; and ships repairing and ships ftting; and hulks and convict ships,
and the guard-ship; ships ready to sail and ships under sail; besides
lighters, men-of-war’s boats, dockyard-boats, bum-boats, and shore-
boats. In short, there is a great deal to see at Plymouth besides the sea
itself: but what I particularly wish now is, that you will stand at the bat-
(10) tery of Mount Edgcumbe and look into Barn Pool below you, and
there you will see, lying at single anchor, a cutter; and you may also
see, by her pendant and ensign, that she is a yacht.
You observe that this yacht is cutter-rigged, and that she sits grace-
fully on the smooth water. She is just heaving up her anchor; her fore-
(15) sail is loose, all ready to cast her—in a few minutes she will be under
way. You see that there are ladies sitting at the taffrail; and there are
fve haunches of venison hanging over the stern. Of all amusements,
give me yachting. But we must go on board. The deck, you observe,
is of narrow deal planks as white as snow; the guns are of polished
(20) brass; the bitts and binnacles of mahogany: she is painted with taste;
and all the moldings are gilded. There is nothing wanting; and yet
how clear and unencumbered are her decks! Let us go below.
There is the ladies’ cabin: can anything be more tasteful or elegant?
Is it not luxurious? And, although so small, does not its very confned
(25) space astonish you, when you view so many comforts so beautifully
arranged? This is the dining-room, and where the gentlemen repair.
And just peep into their state-rooms and bed-places. Here is the stew-
ard’s room and the buffet: the steward is squeezing lemons for the
punch, and there is the champagne in ice; and by the side of the pail
(30) the long-corks are ranged up, all ready. Now, let us go forwards: here
are, the men’s berths, not confned as in a man-of-war. No! Luxury
starts from abaft, and is not wholly lost, even at the fore-peak. This is
the kitchen; is it not admirably arranged? And how delightful are the

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fumes of the turtle-soup! At sea we do meet with rough weather at

(35) times; but, for roughing it out, give me a yacht.

PASSAGE 2

(1) My very frst sea voyage was in a small merchant vessel out of New
York called the Alba. I was only twelve years old at the time, and full
of dreams of boundless adventure upon the high seas. I was to serve
as the ship’s boy. I was given the post by my Uncle Joseph, the weath-
(5) ered old captain of the Alba who uttered few words, choosing to speak
more with his menacing gaze than with his mouth. The moment I
stepped upon the bustling deck my Uncle Joseph set me straight about
shipboard life. There were to be no special privileges afforded to me
because of our relations. I was to live and mess in the ‘tween decks
(10) with the other seamen, and because I was his nephew, I would proba-
bly have to work twice as hard as the others to prove my worth. From
that point on I was to refer to my uncle as “Sir” or “Captain,” and only
speak to him when he addressed me. He then told me a bit about the
Alba. I learned that she was a cutter, and all cutters were fore-and-aft
(15) rigged, and possessed only a single mast. After my brief lesson, he then
sent me below deck to get myself situated.
What I found when I dismounted the ladder below was an entirely
different world than the orderly brightness of the top deck. Here was
a stuffy and dimly lit space barely tall enough for me to stand up
(20) straight in. It was the middle of July, and the heat was oppressive.
There seemed to be no air at all, there certainly were no windows, and
the stench that rose up from the bilge was so pungent it made me gag.
From the shadows, a pair of eyes materialized. They belonged to a
grimy boy no older than me.
(25) “Hello mate, you must be the new lubber just shipped aboard. I’m
Nigel. Follow me, we’re just in time for dinner.”
My new friend led me into the tiny dining room where the crew
messed. The men ate shoulder to shoulder on wooden tables bolted to
the deck. The horrifc smell of so many men crammed together was
(30) overpowering. We received our food from the ship’s cook, a portly
man in a flthy apron who, with the dirtiest hands I’d ever seen, ladled
us out a sort of stew. We found two open spots at a mess table and sat
down to eat. The stew was lukewarm and the mysterious meat in it was
so tough I could barely chew it. I managed to swallow a few spoonfuls
(35) and pushed my dish aside.

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With a smile that was graveyard of yellow sincerity, Nigel pushed

the dish back to me and said, “I’d get used to the grub, mate. It ain’t
so bad. Besides, this is the freshest it’ll be on the voyage.”
After dinner, Nigel showed me our berth. It was a tiny lightless cub-
(40) byhole near the bow of the boat that was barely six feet long and only
fve feet high. There was a small area where I could stow my clothes,
and at night we would string up our hammocks side by side with two
other boys, both of whom were on duty at the moment.
That night when we were under way, the boat ran into a vicious
(45) Atlantic storm. The waves tossed the Alba around like it was a tiny raft.
The ship made such noises; I was afraid it would simply break apart at
any moment. The seawater that crashed upon the deck leaked through
the planks and dripped upon my head. It would have bothered me if
I were not already horribly seasick. As I lay there miserably rocking
(50) back and forth in my damp hammock, I asked myself, “What have I
gotten myself into?”

43 . According to both passages, it is not uncommon for ships to

a. meet rough seas.
b. run out of fresh drinking water.
c. not return home for quite a while.
d. leak in heavy weather.
e. have children onboard.

436. In the last sentence of Passage 2 the narrator suggests that he

a. may never recover from the seasickness.
b. does not like Nigel.
c. made a mistake taking the voyage aboard the Alba.
d. should have eaten the stew.
e. should have stayed in school.

437. Which statement best summarizes the narrator’s description of

Plymouth in lines 3–8?
a. The port at Plymouth is full of rowdy sailors.
b. Plymouth is a dreary and overcrowded place.
c. Plymouth is a deserted and over-industrialized area.
d. There are many interesting sights to behold at Plymouth.
e. The British Royal Navy anchors at Plymouth.

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438. What do the yacht in Passage 1 and the Alba in Passage 2 have in
common?
a. They were both built in England.
b. They both have only a single mast.
c. They are both made of iron.
d. They both have lifeboats.
e. They are both fast.

439. How do the yacht in Passage 1 and the Alba in Passage 2 differ?
a. The yacht does not carry cargo.
b. The yacht is much bigger than the Alba.
c. There are no passengers aboard the Alba, only crew.
d. The yacht is much more luxurious than the Alba.
e. The yacht is much faster than the Alba.

440. Why does the captain in Passage 2 (lines 11–12) demand that his
nephew call him Sir or Captain?
a. The captain wanted his nephew to understand who was
in charge.
b. The captain did not want any member of the crew to know the
narrator was his nephew.
c. The captain was afraid that if he showed affection to his
nephew, he would lose his authority over the crew.
d. The captain was not really the narrator’s uncle.
e. It was important that the crew understood that the boy was no
more privileged than anyone else aboard.

441. In Passage 1, line 26, the use of the word repair most nearly means
a. go.
b. fx things.
c. sit in pairs.
d. get dressed.
e. exercise.

442. The narrator of Passage 1 most probably

a. is a seasoned sea captain.
b. is very wealthy.
c. is an experienced yachtsman.
d. suffers from seasickness.
e. was in the Royal Navy.

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443. In Passage 2, line 36, the narrator describes Nigel’s smile as a

graveyard of yellow sincerity. What fgure of speech is the narrator
employing?
a. onomatopoeia
b. simile
c. personifcation
d. alliteration
e. metaphor

444. Together, these two passages illustrate the idea that

a. the reality of two seemingly similar situations can often be
extremely different.
b. boating is a very dangerous pastime.
c. dreams sometimes fall very short of reality.
d. Plymouth is much nicer than New York.
e. hard work pays off in the end.

44 . The word berth, found in Passage 1, line 31 and Passage 2, line 39

most nearly means
a. a sailor’s hometown.
b. the sleeping quarters aboard a boat.
c. the kitchen aboard a boat.
d. the bathroom aboard a boat.
e. the lower deck of a boat.

Answers

38 . b. The author’s tone in this passage could only be described as

light-hearted. The subject of the passage itself is not of a particu-
larly serious nature, and the author’s deduction in lines 21–23
that watching a sport on television would technically character-
ize couch potatoes as athletes is humorous and subtly mocks
those who would argue over what is a “true” sport.
386. e. Vigorous, as it is used in the passage, is an adjective that
describes an activity carried out forcefully or energetically. In
other words, a vigorous activity requires a physical exertion (line
11) that would cause one to break a sweat (line 12). This type of
activity is best described as strenuous, choice e.

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387. d. Cheerleading (choice a), skiing (choice b), race car driving (choice
c), and gymnastics (choice e) are all strenuous activities that
require good hand-eye coordination and run the risk of injury.
Playing horseshoes (choice d) only requires good hand-eye
coordination.
388. b. Bellicose most closely means warlike. There are two major clues
in this passage to help you answer this question. The frst clue
lies in the translation of the name Tewaarathon, meaning “Little
Brother of War.” Another clue lies in lines 18–19, where the
passage states that these games were excellent battle preparation
for warriors.
389. c. The answer to this question can be found in lines 17–20, as well
as in the entire second paragraph. The passage states that the
games played by the Native Americans were often substitutes
for war, and from time to time the games held religious and
spiritual signifcance. Don’t be fooled by choice e; the Native
Americans may have played friendly exhibition matches, but
this is not discussed anywhere in the passage.
390. a. “Little Brother of War” is the best choice for the title of this
passage because, in the frst paragraph, the games are described
as ferce and warlike. Choice a is also the name of the original
Iroquois game, which was the subject of the entire second para-
graph. The other choices do not ft because they are unsup-
ported by the passage, or describe only a small portion of
the passage.
391. c. The answer can be found in the two sentences that follow the
phrase. The sentences state that the games were often high-
stakes substitutes for war, and it was not uncommon for players
to suffer serious injuries at the hands (and sticks) of others.
These statements describe the ferce nature of the games, and
suggest that players would not hesitate to resort to violent tac-
tics to score, by any means necessary. Choices d and e are true and
mentioned in the passage, but they do not ft in context with
the phrase.

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392. e. The author’s primary purpose in writing this passage is to illus-

trate the importance of these games in Native American cul-
ture. The author does this by giving examples of the spiritual
and peacekeeping signifcance of the games to the Native
Americans. The passage does inform us that lacrosse evolved
from these ancient games, but it does not specifcally describe
any aspect of modern lacrosse or any other sport, therefore
choices a and c are incorrect. Choices b and d are both men-
tioned by the author, but they are not the main subjects of the
passage, and nowhere in the passage does the author condone
or condemn the violence of the games.
393. e. The author’s primary purpose in writing this passage is to dis-
cuss his belief that commercialism’s strong presence in today’s
society strongly infuences a person’s view of his or her personal
identity. A good illustration of this can be found on line 23–24,
where the author states, we are prepared to spend our way into a
trendy identity.
394. b. The commercial range of options in line 3 is the numerous prod-
ucts available for purchase by today’s consumer. Line 6 holds a
clue to answering this question: The author refers to the mod-
ern practice of wearing old symbols such as a kilt as the personal
choice of a particular consumer.
39 . b. The term disposable income refers to the specifc amount of a per-
son’s income that is allotted as spending money. This is the only
choice that makes sense in the context of the passage.
396. d. The statement that one can tell a lot about somebody by what they
are wearing is directly contradicted by the claim the author
makes in lines 3–6: Seeing someone in a Harvard or Oxford sweat-
shirt or a kilt or a military tie now communicates nothing at all sig-
nifcant about that person’s life other than the personal choice of a
particular consumer.
397. a. The author’s point of view of today’s society in lines 12–14 is
that today’s world is much smaller and more hectic than it used
be, which makes it harder for people to put down solid roots
and identify with a singular way of life. In short, times have
changed.
398. c. In line 27 the author states a surfer should lie upon a surfboard
like a small boy on a coaster, and then goes on in lines 32–33 to
say that the surfer slides down a wave just as a boy slides down a
hill on his coaster.

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399. d. The question asks for the statement that cannot be answered
based on information given in the passage. In lines 25–29, the
author describes the shape and dimensions of a fat board, and
tells the reader how to paddle and lie upon it. But nowhere in
the passage does the author state that a fat board is the most
popular type of surfboard.
400. e. The answer to this question is found in lines 18–22. The author
states that the bottom shoals gradually from a quarter of a mile to a
mile toward the beach at Waikiki, producing a splendid surf-
riding surf.
401. b. When the word shoal is used as a verb it usually means to
become shallow (as in water) or to come to a shallow or less
deep part of. Lines 9–10 state that as the wave approaches the
shore the lower portion of the wave strikes land frst and is stopped. If
the sea bottom is rising, the water will therefore be not as deep,
in other words—it will be shallower.
402. b. The answer is explained in lines 9–17, and spelled out in lines
16–17: t is the bottom of a wave striking against the top of the land
that is the cause of all surfs.
403. a. As it is used in the passage, impetus most nearly means a moving
force. In this case, a wave is a moving force through the water. If
you did not know the correct defnition, the best way to answer
this question would be to replace impetus in the sentence with
each of the given answer choices to see which one makes the
most sense in context.
404. a. The best approach to this question is to reread lines 18–21 for
each answer choice to see which choice is directly supported by
the given text. For this question you would not have to go far to
fnd the answer: choice a quickly summarizes the text of those
lines. All the other answer choices are unsupported or contra-
dicted by the given text.
40 . c. Context clues are your best aid in answering this question, and
an important context clue is given in lines 1 and 2. The author
goes on to state that the water that composes the body of a wave is
stationary, and gives the example of the thrown stone causing rip-
ples in the water. The rock that is thrown is the cause of the agi-
tation of the water. The ripples (or the waves) that surge away
from that agitation are the communication of that agitation mov-
ing through the water. Therefore, choice c is the correct
answer.

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406. c. In line 33, the author compares surfng to slid[ing] down a hill.
But unlike a six-foot hill, a surfer can slide down a six-foot wave
for more than a quarter of a mile without ever reaching the bot-
tom. The author explains that this is possible because the water
that composes the wave is, like a hill, standing still and new water
is rising into the wave as fast as the wave travels, preventing the
surfer from reaching the bottom (lines 41–43). So while it looks
like a surfer is sliding along moving water, he or she is actually
stationary on a wave as it moves through the water. That’s the
secret.
407. e. Glimpsing a piece of the past (choice a), glorifying athletes (choice
b), disparaging segregation (choice c), and learning some tennis
history (choice d) are all story elements that support the main
purpose of the passage: To tell the story of Althea ibson, the
woman who broke the color barrier in professional tennis
(choice e).
408. a. The word bucolic is most often used to describe something
typical of or relating to rural life. If you did not know what
bucolic meant, there are contextual clues to help you. In lines
11-15, the passage tells us that Althea was born on a cotton
farm and her father was a sharecropper. Also, in lines 13–14,
the author contrasts the bucolic Silver with New York City’s
urban bustle.
409. e. The passage states that Althea ibson was a two-time Wim-
bledon champion. However, the passage does not offer the
exact number of defeats Althea suffered at Wimbledon in her
career.
410. a. Althea’s accomplishments in 1949 and 1950 should have
earned her an invitation to the 1950 U.S. Nationals, but her
and the ATA’s efforts to secure an invitation from the USTLA
fell on deaf ears (lines 51–57). It was not until the national
uproar spurred by Alice Marble’s editorial (lines 62–66)
that the USTLA, buckling under the weight of public pres-
sure (choice a), relented and extended Althea an invitation
to play.

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411. c. Althea was an extraordinarily gifted athlete, yet because of the

color of her skin and the time in which she lived, her path to
success from the very beginning was obstructed by segrega-
tion and discrimination. Althea was not allowed to practice on
public tennis courts (lines 47–48), was barred from USLTA-
sponsored events (line 57), and was refused hotel rooms and
restaurant reservations (lines 76–78). Althea’s ability to put
these distractions aside and excel was a triumph of mental
toughness, and the author uses the quote on line 80 to illus-
trate that fact.
412. b. When looking at questions such as this one, it’s important to
think each choice through before hastily picking an answer.
This question has two tough distracters: choices c and d. At
frst glance, choice c seems like a good pick, but the word
immediate is what makes it incorrect. Althea ibson’s achieve-
ments were certainly victories for the civil rights movement,
but in lines 6–7 it is stated that the color barrier did not come
tumbling down overnight. Choice d is attractive, but Althea did
not take on the world alone. The ATA and people like Dr.
Eaton and Alice Marble all had a hand in guiding and assisting
Althea on her pioneering path. Choice e is incorrect because
Althea’s historic achievements on and off the court were
groundbreaking, and she accomplished it all in the face of
adversity.
413. b. Alice Marble believed that talent should decide who can be a
champion, not race (choice b). Nowhere in her comments did
Alice Marble say baseball, football, and boxing are more enter-
taining than tennis (choice a), or that there were undeserving
players in the U.S. Nationals (choice c). Nor did she propose
that the USLTA make the tournament open to anybody
(choice d).
414. d. Althea’s friend probably suggested that Althea try lawn tennis
because she was a champion paddle tennis player and enjoyed
the sport very much (lines 16–17). The other choices either
don’t make sense or are not supported by facts from the
passage.
41 . e. In lines 71–75, the passage states that Althea won a total of 11
rand Slam titles in her career. However, nowhere in the pas-
sage does it state that those 11 titles were a record number for
a female.

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416. e. The answer is found in line 58 of the passage. Chick andil

frst approached the gambler with his scheme, and then
recruited the seven other players.
417. b. Parsimonious is a word used to describe someone who is frugal
to the point of stinginess. Comiskey’s pay cuts (line 27), bonus
of cheap champagne (lines 32–33), refusal to launder uniforms
(lines 33–34), and his benching of Eddie Ciccotte (lines 42–44)
are all clues that should help you deduce the answer from the
given choices.
418. b. Answering this question involves a bit of deductive reasoning.
Though the actual name of the ballpark is never given in the
passage, lines 20–21 state that the 1917 White Sox won the
World Series playing in a park named for their owner.
419. a. As it is used in line 54, thrown means to have lost intention-
ally. The answer to this question is found in lines 59–60.
For $100,000 Chick andil would make sure the Sox lost the
Series.
420. c. Lines 14–16 state between the years of 1900 and 1915 the White
Sox had won the World Series only once, and then line 21 tells us
they won it again in 1917. Be careful not to mistakenly select
choice d, three; the question asks for the number of World
Series the Sox won, not the number of Series played.
421. d. In lines 42–44 the author states that after Ciccotte won his twenty-
ninth game he was benched by Comiskey for the rest of the season.
Choice d asks for the number of games he pitched. It is stated
that he pitched and won twenty-nine games in 1919, but the
passage doesn’t mention the number of games he pitched in
which he lost, so you can’t know for sure.
422. b. gnominious is a word used to describe something marked with
shame or disgrace, something dishonorable. The ignominious
label referred to in lines 71–72 is Black Sox—the nickname the
Chicago press took to calling the scandalized and disgraced
White Sox team.
423. c. It is stated throughout the passage Comiskey was a frugal man,
yet in lines 76–77 it says that he paid for the players’ defense
lawyers. Why? The answer to that and the biggest clue to
answering this question lies in the last sentence of the passage:
Comiskey’s once mighty team was decimated by the loss of its most
talented players, and the 1921 White Sox fnished the season in
seventh place.

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424. b. Lines 47–50 state that gamblers would often target the lower-
paid athletes because the money with which these gamblers tempted
the players was hard to refuse. The passage tells that due to
Charles Comiskey’s stinginess with his players, there were many
underpaid players on the White Sox who were dissatisfed (lines
61–62) and they were the most discontented team in baseball (line
35). These factors suggest that if Charles Comiskey had treated
his players better, perhaps they might not have been so eager to
betray him.
42 . b. A context clue to help you answer this question is found in lines
2–3, when the author states that Herodes Atticus Street is one of
the most retired streets of the city. Of the given answer choices, out
of the ordinary best describes the activity of heavy construction
on a normally quiet street.
426. c. The author states in lines 6–7 that the lower end of Herodes
Atticus Street opens upon a bridge across the lissos, and on the
opposite bank lies the Panathenaic Stadium—the Stadium at
Athens.
427. b. Lines 11–12 state the Committee decided that the Olympics
would be held once in four years, and the next two Olympics to
follow would be held in the years 1900 and 1904 (line 25).
428. c. As stated in line 16, the organizers of the frst modern
Olympics were swayed partly by sentimental reasons in the choice of
name and place. The ancient Olympics took its name from the
city where it was held every four years: Olympia, in reece. To
honor those ancient games, the organizers named the modern
games the Olympics and would play the inaugural contests in
reece.
429. d. The ermans were involved in excavating the ancient Stadium
at Olympia (lines 47–48). Nowhere in the passage does it men-
tion that there was a vote to decide between Olympia and
Athens.
430. e. Lines 44–46 state that the problem of seating a large crowd of spec-
tators did not come up before the nternational Committee (choice a).
In fact, it was a local Athenian committee (choice e) composed of
most of the citizens conspicuous for wealth or position, and some resi-
dent foreigners (lines 52–53) that were posed with the question of
seating for the games in Athens.

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431. a. Lines 35–37 state that if Olympia were to be considered a viable

site for the modern Olympics, it would demand the organization of
a frst-class commissary department, and that too for a service of half a
month only. Half a month is roughly two weeks, choice a. It is true
that line 40 states that the games were just a few days (choice e)
every four years, but that is in reference to the ancient Olympic
games.
432. c. Before reece switched to the Euro in 2002, reek money was
called drachma. The answer to this question lies in line 61–63,
where it states that 900,000 drachmas were worth about
$100,000.
433. b. In lines 31–32 the author states that a successful athletic contest
cannot be held in the wilderness and demands a crowd and sustenance
for a crowd. Holding the games at Olympia would have senti-
mental value because of its history, but it would not be practical
because Olympia does not have the proper facilities and
resources to accommodate the crowds that would descend
upon the games.
434. d. In lines 29–30, the author uses the phrase the feeling that thirty
centuries looked down upon them to emphasize the sentimental value
of holding the modern games at the site of Ancient Olympia
(choice d). But the author goes on to say that despite the senti-
mental value, it just wouldn’t be practical.
43 . a. In lines 34–35, the narrator of Passage 1 mentions At sea we do
meet with rough weather at times. In Passage 2, lines 44–45, the
boy recounts that his boat ran into a vicious Atlantic storm, and the
waves tossed the Alba around like it was a tiny raft. Choice d may
seem like an attractive answer, but there is only evidence that the
Alba leaks (line 47), not the yacht, and the question requires sup-
port from both passages.
436. c. In the last sentence of Passage 2 the narrator questions his deci-
sion to take the voyage aboard the Alba by asking himself What
have gotten myself into? This self-doubt indicates that he believed
his decision may have been a mistake. This choice best answers
the question.

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437. d. In lines 2–3, the author of Passage 1 tells of the beautiful prop-
erty belonging to the Earl of Mount Edgcumbe and implores the
reader to visit Plymouth if they ever get the chance. He then goes
on to describe the bustling harbor at Plymouth and fnishes with:
there is a great deal to see at Plymouth besides the sea itself (lines 8–9).
In short, he describes all the interesting sights to behold at Ply-
mouth. All the other choices either do not make sense or are not
specifcally supported by details from the text.
438. b. In lines 10–12 of Passage 1 the narrator states that the yacht is a
particular type of ship known as a cutter. In lines 14–15 of Pas-
sage 2, the Captain explains to his nephew that the Alba is a cut-
ter, as well. In that same conversation the nephew learns that all
cutters share a similar trait: they possess only a single mast (line
15). Therefore, choice b is the correct answer.
439. d. When answering this question, the key is to be sure to fnd the
only choice that is supported by specifc examples from the text.
Nowhere in the text of Passage 1 does it state that the yacht car-
ries cargo, but on the other hand it never mentions the fact that
it does not. The same reasoning goes for choices b, c, and e.
The yacht may be bigger and faster than the Alba, and the Alba
may carry only crew, but these facts are never mentioned in the
texts so we can’t know for sure. That leaves only one possible
answer: choice d. The yacht is most certainly more luxurious
than the Alba, and this statement is backed by both narrators’
descriptions of their respective vessels.
440. e. The captain knew it was important that the crew understood
the boy was no more privileged than anyone else aboard the
Alba. Evidence for this choice is found in the narrator’s state-
ment in lines 10–11: because was his nephew, would probably
have to work twice as hard as the others to prove my worth. All the
other choices do not make sense or are not backed by specifc
examples from the text.
441. a. As used inPassage 1, line 26, the verb repair most closely means
take themselves, or more simply, go. Today, repair is most com-
monly used as a verb that means to fx something (choice b).
However, in the context of the sentence, this makes no sense.
The easiest way to answer this question is to replace repair in
the sentence with each the answer choices, and see which one
fts best in context. By doing this you should narrow down your
choice to just one: choice a.

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442. c. The narrator’s familiarity with yachts and the harbor at Ply-
mouth (lines 1–12) in Passage 1 seems to indicate that he is
an experienced yachtsman. He reveals his passion for yachting
in lines 17–18, when he declares, Of all amusements, give me
yachting. All the other answer choices either do not make
sense or are not supported by specific examples from
the text.
443. e. Nigel probably had rotten or missing teeth. The narrator of Pas-
sage 2 chose to describe Nigel’s smile as a graveyard of yellow sin-
cerity, describing his yellow teeth as tombstones in a graveyard.
When a writer uses a descriptive word or phrase in place of
another to suggest a similarity between the two, this fgure of
speech is called a metaphor (choice e). If the boy had instead said,
Nigel’s smile was “like a graveyard of yellow sincerity,” it would
have been a simile, choice b.
444. a. Both passages are basically concerned with a similar situation—
life aboard a cutter. The author of Passage 1 sets a pleasurable
tone in the frst paragraph by describing the idyllic scene at Ply-
mouth and the anchored yacht. He later describes the yacht as
elegant, tasteful, and luxurious (line 18), and the smell of the food
delightful (lines 23–24). In stark contrast, the boy narrator in
Passage 2 begins the passage by describing the menacing façade
of his uncle and the immediate reality check the boy receives
when he steps aboard (lines 6–9). His description of the heat
and smell below deck (lines 20–22), and the horrible food (lines
33–35), effectively sets the dark and oppressive tone of the pas-
sage. Together, these two very different descriptions prove that
the reality of two seemingly similar situations can often be extremely
different, choice a.
44 . b. The word berth, when used as a noun, often refers to the sleep-
ing quarters aboard a boat or a train. In lines 39–43 the boy
describes his berth as the place where he could stow [his] clothes,
and at night string up [his] hammock.

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Social Studies
8
Questions 446–449 are based on the following passage.

The following passage examines the possibility that early humans used
toothpicks.
(1) Could good dental hygiene be man’s earliest custom? The fndings of
paleontologist Leslea Hlusko suggest that 1.8 million years ago early
hominids used grass stalks to clean their teeth. Many ancient hominid
teeth unearthed in archaeological digs have curved grooves near the
(5) gumline. Hlusko posited that these grooves were evidence of teeth
cleaning by early man. However, critics pointed out that even though
the use of toothpicks is still a common practice among modern man
similar grooves are not found on modern teeth.
Hlusko, convinced that she was on the right track, experimented
(10) with grass stalks to see if they might have been the cause of the
grooves. Unlike the wood used for modern toothpicks, grass contains
hard silica particles that are more abrasive than the soft fbers found
in wood. A stalk of grass is also about the same width as the marks
found on the ancient teeth. To prove her theory Dr. Hlusko took a
(15) baboon tooth and patiently rubbed a grass stalk against it for eight
hours. As she suspected, the result was grooves similar to those found
on the ancient hominid teeth. She repeated the experiment with a
human tooth and found the same result.

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It seems that our early human ancestors may have used grass, which
(20) was easily found and ready to use, to foss between their teeth. As
Hlusko suggests in the journal Current Anthropology, “Toothpicking
with grass stalks probably represents the most persistent habit docu-
mented in human evolution.”

446. In line 5 the word posited most nearly means

a. insisted.
b. demanded.
c. questioned.
d. suggested.
e. argued.

447. Each of the following reasons is provided as evidence that early

man used grass stalks as toothpicks EXCEPT the
a. width of the grooves on ancient teeth.
b. location of the grooves on ancient teeth.
c. ready availability of grass.
d. ongoing use of grass toothpicks.
e. abrasive quality of grass.

448. Dr. Hlusko’s approach to determining the source of the grooves on

ancient teeth can best be described as
a. zealous.
b. persistent.
c. sullen.
d. serendipitous.
e. cautious.

449. The passage suggests that the theory that early man used grass
stalks as toothpicks is
a. a possibility.
b. very probable.
c. absolutely certain.
d. fanciful.
e. uncorroborated.

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Questions 4 0–4 6 are based on the following passage.

This passage, from research conducted for the Library of Congress olklife
Center, discusses the various folk beliefs of lorida fishermen.
(1) Beliefs are easily the most enduring and distinctive aspects of maritime
culture. Traditional beliefs, commonly called superstitions, are con-
victions that are usually related to causes and effects, and are often
manifest in certain practices. Common examples include beliefs about
(5) good and bad luck, signs for predicting the weather, interpretations of
supernatural happenings, and remedies for sickness and injury.
Because maritime occupations often place workers in a highly unpre-
dictable and hazardous environment, it is not surprising that fshermen
hold many beliefs about fortune and misfortune. A primary function of
(10) such beliefs is to explain the unexplainable. Watermen can cite many
actions that invite bad luck. These actions include uttering certain words
while aboard a boat, taking certain objects aboard a boat, going out in
a boat on a certain day, or painting boats certain colors. Among Florida
fshermen, saying “alligator,” bringing aboard shells or black suitcases,
(15) and whistling are all considered bad luck while on a boat.
Beliefs about actions that invite good luck appear to be fewer in
number than those about bad luck. Beliefs about good luck include
breaking a bottle of champagne or other liquid over the bow of a ves-
sel when it is launched, participating in a blessing-of-the-feet cere-
(20) mony, placing a coin under the mast, carrying a lucky object when
aboard, and stepping on or off the boat with the same foot. There are
many beliefs about predicting the weather and the movement of fsh.
These beliefs are often linked to the detection of minute changes in
the environment and refect fshermen’s intimate contact with the nat-
(25) ural environment.
A Florida shrimp fsherman told a researcher that when shrimps’
legs are blood red you can expect a strong northeaster or strong south-
easter. The direction of the wind is used to predict the best location for
catching shrimp. Other signs for weather prediction include rings
(30) around the moon, the color of the sky at sunrise and sunset, and the
color and texture of the sea. Sometimes beliefs are expressed in concise
rhymes. An oysterman from Apalachicola, Florida, uses the rhyme,
“East is the least, and west in the best” to recall that winds from the
west generally produce conditions that are conducive to good catches.
(35) Beliefs related to the supernatural—the existence of ghosts, phantom
ships, burning ships, or sea monsters—are also found in maritime com-
munities. Many fshermen are reluctant to discuss the supernatural, so
these beliefs are less conspicuous than those about luck and the

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weather. However, one net maker told a researcher about his

(40) encounter with a ghost ship. He saw a schooner, a ship that was preva-
lent in the nineteenth century, come in across the ulf and pass
through water that was far too shallow for a ship of its size. The ship
then suddenly disappeared from sight.
Commercial fshing is considered to be the most hazardous of all
(45) industrial occupations in the United States. Statistics show that fsh-
ermen are seven times more likely to die than workers in the next most
dangerous occupation. Adhering to a system of beliefs most likely
helps bring sense and order to a world in which natural disasters and
misfortune are a part of daily life. Many fshermen also make a pre-
(50) carious living at best. Maritime beliefs contain the collective wisdom
of generations and following these traditions may help fshermen
catch more fsh without taking unnecessary risks.

4 0. In line 4, the phrase manifest in certain practices most nearly means

a. obviously rehearsed.
b. recorded in some religions.
c. destined in certain circumstances.
d. evident in particular activities.
e. decreed in unwavering terms.

4 1. According to the passage, fshermen are superstitious because

a. they learn it from previous generations.
b. they believe in the supernatural.
c. fshing is a dangerous and unpredictable occupation.
d. they are afraid of stormy weather.
e. fshing is a terrible way to make a living.

4 2. The author’s attitude toward fshermen’s beliefs about predicting

the weather can best be characterized as
a. unqualifed respect.
b. veiled disbelief.
c. tempered belief.
d. absolute fascination.
e. minimal enthusiasm.

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4 3. According to information in the passage, fshermen’s beliefs about

the supernatural do not conform to the author’s defnition of
traditional beliefs (lines 2–4) in that
a. fshermen do not like to talk about them.
b. they are not related to cause and effect.
c. they are not conspicuous.
d. they are not manifest.
e. they are less rooted in the natural world.

4 4. The purpose of the statistic in lines 45–47 is to

a. qualify the statement that fshing is hazardous.
b. prove that fshing is an undesirable occupation.
c. illustrate the relative ease of other professions.
d. quantify the hazardous nature of commercial fshing.
e. demonstrate that fshermen need a system of beliefs.

4 . In lines 49–50, precarious most nearly means

a. dangerous.
b. steady.
c. reduced.
d. meager.
e. uncertain.

4 6. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a. catalog the beliefs of Florida fshermen.
b. demonstrate that traditional beliefs are effective.
c. describe some traditional beliefs found among Florida fshermen.
d. prove that superstitions are a valid guide to behavior.
e. amuse readers with the peculiar beliefs of Florida fshermen.

Questions 4 7–463 are based on the following passage.

This passage explores the theory that the first three years of life are critical in
the development of a child’s character and suggests a parenting model that
strengthens moral behavior.
(1) Does a baby have a moral conscience? While a baby is not faced with
many serious ethical dilemmas, his or her moral character is formed
from the earliest stages of infancy. Recent research has shown that the
type of parenting an infant receives has a dramatic impact on the
(5) child’s moral development and, consequently, success later in life. The
renowned childcare expert T. Berry Brazelton claims that he can

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observe a child of eight months and tell if that child will succeed or fail
in life. This may be a harsh sentence for an eight-month-old baby, but
it underscores the importance of educating parents in good child-rear-
(10) ing techniques and of intervening early in cases of child endanger-
ment. But what are good parenting techniques?
The cornerstone of good parenting is love, and the building blocks
are trust, acceptance, and discipline. The concept of “attachment par-
enting” has come to dominate early childhood research. It is the rela-
(15) tively simple idea that an infant who is frmly attached to his or her
“primary caregiver”—often, but not always, the mother—develops into
a secure and confdent child. Caregivers who respond promptly and
affectionately to their infants’ needs—to eat, to play, to be held, to sleep,
and to be left alone—form secure attachments with their children. A
(20) study conducted with rhesus monkeys showed that infant monkeys pre-
ferred mothers who gave comfort and contact but no food to mothers
who gave food but no comfort and contact. This study indicates that
among primates love and nurturing are even more important than food.
Fortunately, loving their infants comes naturally to most parents and
(25) the frst requisite for good parenting is one that is easily met. The sec-
ond component—setting limits and teaching self-discipline—can be
more complicated. Many parents struggle to fnd a balance between
responding promptly to their babies’ needs and “spoiling” their child.
Norton arfnkle, chair of the Executive Committee of the Lamaze
(30) Institute for Family Education, has identifed four parenting styles: warm
and restrictive, warm and permissive, cold and restrictive, and cold and
permissive. A warm parent is one who exhibits love and affection; a cold
parent withholds love; a restrictive parent sets limits on her child’s behav-
ior and a permissive parent does not restrict her child. arfnkle fnds
(35) that the children of warm-restrictive parents exhibit self-confdence and
self-control; the children of warm-permissive parents are self-assured but
have diffculty following rules; children of cold-restrictive parents tend
to be angry and sullenly compliant, and the most troubled children are
those of cold-permissive parents. These children are hostile and defant.
(40) The warm-restrictive style of parenting helps develop the two key
dimensions of moral character: empathy and self-discipline. A warm
attachment with his or her parent helps the child develop empathetic
feelings about other human beings, while parental limit-setting
teaches the child self-discipline and the ability to defer gratifcation.
(45) The ability to defer gratifcation is an essential skill for negotiating the
adult world. A study conducted by Daniel oleman, author of Emo-
tional Intelligence, tested a group of four-year-olds’ ability to defer grat-
ifcation. Each child in the study was offered a marshmallow. The child

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could choose to eat the marshmallow right away or wait ffteen min-
(50) utes to eat the marshmallow and receive another marshmallow as a
reward for waiting. Researchers followed the children and found that
by high school those children who ate their marshmallow right away
were more likely to be lonely, more prone to stress, and more easily
frustrated. Conversely, the children who demonstrated self-control
(55) were outgoing, confdent, and dependable.
This research seems to answer the old adage, “you can’t spoil a
baby.” It seems that a baby who is fed at the frst sign of hunger and
picked up on demand can perhaps be “spoiled.” Most parents, how-
ever, tend to balance their baby’s needs with their own. Many parents
(60) will teach their baby to sleep through the night by not picking up the
baby when she awakes in the middle of the night. Although it can be
heart wrenching for these parents to ignore their baby’s cries, they are
teaching their baby to fall asleep on her own and getting the beneft
of a full night’s sleep.
(65) While many parents will come to good parenting techniques
instinctually and through various community supports, others parents
are not equipped for the trials of raising a baby. Are these babies
doomed to lives of frustration, poor impulse-control, and anti-social
behavior? Certainly not. Remedial actions—such as providing enrich-
(70) ment programs at daycare centers and educating parents—can be
taken to reverse the effects of bad parenting. However, the research
indicates that the sooner these remedies are put into action the better.

4 7. The primary purpose of the passage is to

a. advocate for the ability to defer gratifcation.
b. educate readers about moral development in infants.
c. chastise parents for spoiling their children.
d. inform readers of remedies for bad parenting.
e. demonstrate the importance of love in child rearing.

4 8. In line 8, the word sentence most nearly means

a. statement.
b. pronouncement.
c. declaration.
d. judgment.
e. punishment.

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4 9. The author presents the study about rhesus monkeys

(lines 19–22) to
a. prove that humans and monkeys have a lot in common.
b. suggest that food is used as a substitute for love.
c. support her assertion that love is the most important aspect of
good parenting.
d. disprove the idea that you can’t spoil a baby.
e. broaden the scope of her argument to include all primates.

460. According to the third paragraph of the passage, a cold-restrictive

parent can best be characterized as
a. an aloof disciplinarian.
b. an angry autocrat.
c. a frustrated teacher.
d. a sullen despot.
e. an unhappy dictator.

461. Based on the information in paragraph four, one can infer that
children who are unable to defer gratifcation are most unlikely to
succeed because
a. they are unpopular.
b. they lack empathy.
c. their parents neglected them.
d. they are unable to follow directions.
e. they lack self-discipline.

462. Which of the following techniques is used in lines 59–64?

a. explanation of terms
b. comparison of different arguments
c. contrast of opposing views
d. generalized statement
e. illustration by example

463. The author of this passage would be most likely to agree with
which statement?
a. Babies of cold-permissive parents are doomed to lives of failure.
b. ood parenting is the product of education.
c. Instincts are a good guide for most parents.
d. Conventional wisdom is usually wrong.
e. Parents should strive to raise self-suffcient babies.

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Questions 464–472 are based on the following two passages.

Passage 1 describes the potlatch ceremony celebrated by native peoples of the

Pacific Northwest. Passage 2 describes the kula ring, a ceremonial trading
circle practiced among Trobriand Islanders in Papua New Guinea.

PASSAGE 1

(1) Among traditional societies of the Pacifc Northwest—including the

Haidas, Kwakiuls, Makahs, Nootkas, Tlingits, and Tsimshians—the
gift-giving ceremony called potlatch was a central feature of social life.
The word potlatch, meaning “to give,” comes from a Chinook trading
(5) language that was used all along the Pacifc Coast. Each nation, or
tribe, had its own particular word for the ceremony and each had dif-
ferent potlatch traditions. However, the function and basic features of
the ceremony were universal among the tribes.
Each nation held potlatches to celebrate important life passages,
(10) such as birth, coming of age, marriage, and death. Potlatches were also
held to honor ancestors and to mark the passing of leadership. A pot-
latch, which could last four or more days, was usually held in the win-
ter when the tribes were not engaged in gathering and storing food.
Each potlatch included the formal display of the host family’s crest and
(15) masks. The hosts performed ritual dances and provided feasts for their
guests. However, the most important ritual was the lavish distribution
of gifts to the guests. Some hosts might give away most or all of their
accumulated wealth in one potlatch. The more a host gave away, the
more status was accorded him. In turn, the guests, who had to accept
(20) the proffered gifts, were then expected to host their own potlatches
and give away gifts of equal value.
Prior to contact with Europeans, gifts might include food, slaves,
copper plates, and goat’s hair blankets. After contact, the potlatch was
fundamentally transformed by the infux of manufactured goods. As
(25) tribes garnered wealth in the fur trade, gifts came to include guns,
woolen blankets, and other Western goods. Although potlatches had
always been a means for individuals to win prestige, potlatches involv-
ing manufactured goods became a way for nobles to validate tenuous
claims to leadership, sometimes through the destruction of property. It
(30) was this willful destruction of property that led Canadian authorities,
and later the U.S. government, to ban potlatches in the late 1880s.
Despite the ban, the potlatch remained an important part of native
Pacifc Northwest culture. iving wealth—not accumulating wealth,
as is prized in Western culture—was a means of cementing leadership,

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(35) affrming status, establishing and maintaining alliances, as well as

ensuring the even distribution of food and goods. Agnes Alfred, an
Indian from Albert Bay, explained the potlatch this way, “When one’s
heart is glad, he gives away gifts. . . . The potlatch was given to us to
be our way of expressing joy.”

PASSAGE 2

(1) The inhabitants of the Trobriand Islands, an archipelago off the coast
of Papua New uinea in the South Pacifc, are united by a ceremo-
nial trading system called the kula ring. Kula traders sail to neighbor-
ing islands in large ocean-going canoes to offer either shell necklaces
(5) or shell armbands. The necklaces, made of red shells called bagi, travel
around the trading ring clockwise, and the armbands, made of white
shells called mwali, travel counterclockwise.
Each man in the kula ring has two kula trading partners—one part-
ner to whom he gives a necklace for an armband of equal value,
(10) although the exchanges are made on separate occasions, and one part-
ner with whom he makes the reverse exchange. Each partner has one
other partner with whom he trades, thus linking all the men around
the kula ring. For example, if A trades with B and C, B trades with A
and D, and C trades with A and E, and so on. A man may have only
(15) met his own specifc kula partners, but he will know by reputation all
the men in his kula ring. It can take anywhere from two to ten years
for a particular object to complete a journey around the ring. The
more times an object has made the trip around the ring the more value
it accrues. Particularly beautiful necklaces and armbands are also
(20) prized. Some famous kula objects are known by special names and
through elaborate stories. Objects also gain fame through ownership
by powerful men, and, likewise, men can gain status by possessing par-
ticularly prized kula objects.
The exchange of these ceremonial items, which often accompanies
(25) trade in more mundane wares, is enacted with a host of ritual activi-
ties. The visitors, who travel to receive kula from their hosts, are seen
as aggressors. They are met with ritual hostility and must charm their
hosts in order to receive the necklaces or armbands. The visitors take
care to make themselves beautiful, because beauty conveys strength
(30) and protects them from danger. The hosts, who are the “victims” of
their visitors’ charm and beauty, give the prized objects because they
know that the next time it will be their turn to be the aggressor. Each
man hopes that his charm and beauty will compel his trading partner
to give him the most valuable kula object.

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(35) The objects cannot be bought or sold. They have no value other
than their ceremonial importance, and the voyages that the traders
make to neighboring islands are hazardous, time-consuming, and
expensive. Yet, a man’s standing in the kula ring is his primary concern.
This ceremonial exchange has numerous tangible benefts. It estab-
(40) lishes friendly relations through a far-fung chain of islands; it provides
a means for the utilitarian exchange of necessary goods; and it rein-
forces the power of those individuals who win and maintain the most
valuable kula items. Although the kula ring might mystify Western
traders, this system, which has been in operation for hundreds of
(45) years, is a highly effective means of unifying these distant islanders and
creating a common bond among peoples who might otherwise view
one another as hostile outsiders.

464. According to Passage 1, potlatch is best defned as a

a. ceremony with rigid protocol to which all Pacifc Northwest
tribes adhere.
b. generic term for a gift-giving ceremony celebrated in the
Pacifc Northwest.
c. socialist ritual of the Pacifc Northwest.
d. lavish feast celebrated in the Pacifc Northwest.
e. wasteful ritual that was banned in the 1880s.

46 . According to Passage 1, the gift-giving central to the potlatch can

best be characterized as
a. reciprocal.
b. wasteful.
c. selfess.
d. spendthrift.
e. commercialized.

466. In Passage 1, the author’s attitude toward the potlatch can best be
described as
a. condescending.
b. antagonistic.
c. wistful.
d. respectful.
e. romantic.

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467. According to Passage 2, the men in a kula ring are

a. linked by mutual admiration.
b. hostile aggressors.
c. greedy.
d. motivated by vanity.
e. known to one another by reputation.

468. In Passage 2, line 30, the word victims is in quotation marks because the
a. word might be unfamiliar to some readers.
b. author is implying that the hosts are self-pitying.
c. author is reinforcing the idea that the hosts are playing a pre-
scribed role.
d. author wants to stress the brutal nature of the exchange.
e. author is taking care not to be condescending to the Trobriand
culture.

469. According to Passage 2, necklaces and armbands gain value

through all the following means EXCEPT being
a. in circulation for a long time.
b. especially attractive.
c. owned by a powerful man.
d. made of special shells.
e. known by a special name.

470. ift-giving in the potlatch ceremony and the ritual exchange of

the kula ring are both
a. a ritualized means of maintaining community ties.
b. dangerous and expensive endeavors.
c. a means of ascending to a position of leadership.
d. falling prey to Western culture.
e. peculiar rituals of a bygone era.

471. Based on information presented in the two passages, both authors

would be most likely to agree with which statement?
a. Traditional societies are more generous than Western societies.
b. The value of some endeavors cannot be measured in monetary
terms.
c. It is better to give than to receive.
d. Westerners are only interested in money.
e. Traditional societies could beneft from better business sense.

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472. Which of the following titles would be most appropriate for both
Passage 1 or Passage 2?
a. A ift-giving Ceremony
b. Ritual Exchange in Traditional Societies
c. Ceremonial iving and Receiving in a Traditional Society
d. The Kindness of Strangers
e. iving and Receiving in a Faraway Land

Questions 473–481 are based on the following passage.

The author of this passage, a professor of English literature at a major

university, argues that affirmative action is a necessary part of the college
admissions process.
(1) When I began teaching at Big State U in the late 1960s, the students
in my American literature survey were almost uniformly of European
heritage, and most were from middle-class Protestant families.
Attending college for these students was a lesson in homogeneity.
(5) Although a number of students were involved in the Civil Rights
Movement and some even worked “down South” on voter registra-
tion, most students considered segregation to be a Southern problem
and many did not see the discrimination that was rampant on their
own campus.
(10) Since the 1960s there has been a sea change in university admis-
sions. Key Supreme Court decisions and federal laws made equal
opportunity the law of the land, and many institutions of higher learn-
ing adopted policies of affrmative action. The term affrmative action
was frst used in the 1960s to describe the active recruitment and pro-
(15) motion of minority candidates in both the workplace and in colleges
and universities. President Lyndon Johnson, speaking at Howard Uni-
versity in 1965, aptly explained the reasoning behind affrmative
action. As he said, “You do not take a man who, for years, has been
hobbled by chains and liberate him, bring him to the starting line in
(20) a race and then say, ‘You are free compete with all the others,’ and still
believe that you have been completely fair.” Affrmative action pro-
grams in college admissions have been guided by the principle that it
is not enough to simply remove barriers to social mobility but it is also
necessary to encourage it for minority groups.
(25) In recent years, affrmative action programs have come under pub-
lic scrutiny, and some schools have been faced with charges of reverse
discrimination. Preferential treatment of minority applicants is seen
as discrimination against qualifed applicants from the majority

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group. Despite widespread support for the elimination of prejudice,

(30) most whites do not favor the preferential treatment of minority appli-
cants, and affrmative action in college admissions has been abolished
in several states. In my view, this trend is very dangerous not only for
minority students but for all students. Thanks to a diversifed student
body, my classes today are much richer than when I began teaching in
(35) the 1960s. For example, when I teach A Light in August by William
Faulkner, as I do every fall, today there is likely to be a student in the
class who has frsthand knowledge of the prejudice that is a central
theme of the novel. This student’s contribution to the class discussion
of the novel is an invaluable part of all my students’ education and a
(40) boon to my experience as a teacher.
Some may argue that affrmative action had its place in the years
following the Civil Rights Movement, but that it is no longer neces-
sary. To assume that all students are now on a level playing feld is
naïve. Take for example the extra-curricular activities, AP classes, and
(45) internships that help certain applicants impress the admissions board:
These are not available or economically feasible for many minority
candidates. This is just one example of why affrmative action still has
an important place on American campuses. When all things are equal,
choosing the minority candidate not only gives minorities fair access
(50) to institutions of higher learning, but it ensures diversity on our cam-
puses. Exposing all students to a broad spectrum of American society
is a lesson that may be the one that best prepares them to participate
in American society and succeed in the future.

473. In line 4, the phrase a lesson in homogeneity can be most accurately

described as
a. a slight against civil rights workers.
b. an ironic observation about the uniform character of the stu-
dent body.
c. a comment on the poor quality of the education at Big State U.
d. a sarcastic comment about the authors’ former students.
e. the author’s’ rueful view of his poor teaching skills.

474. In line 10, the expression sea change means

a. increase.
b. storm.
c. decrease.
d. wave.
e. transformation.

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47 . The author uses the quote from President Lyndon Johnson in

(lines 18–21) to
a. provide an example of discrimination in the past.
b. show how Howard University benefted from affrmative action
policies.
c. make the passage more interesting.
d. explain the rationale for affrmative action.
e. prove that affrmative action has been effective at promoting
diversity.

476. According to the passage, the greatest danger of abolishing

affrmative action in college admissions is
a. allowing reverse discrimination to take hold of college
admissions.
b. creating a “slippery slope” of discrimination and prejudice.
c. losing the benefts of a diverse campus.
d. returning to the segregation of the past.
e. complicating the job of the college admissions board.

477. From the information provided in the passage, one can conclude
that the author
a. has personally benefted from the effects of affrmative action.
b. considers affrmative action a necessary evil.
c. favors accepting poorly qualifed candidates for the sake of
diversity.
d. despises the opponents of affrmative action.
e. thinks that affrmative action will eventually be unnecessary.

478. The word feasible in line 46 most nearly means

a. advantageous.
b. possible.
c. attractive.
d. probable.
e. suitable.

479. The tone of this passage can best be described as

a. impassioned.
b. impartial.
c. reasonable.
d. sarcastic.
e. dispassionate.

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480. The author gives all the following reasons for continuing
affrmative action in college admissions EXCEPT that it
a. fosters diversity.
b. provides fair access to higher education.
c. is necessary to promote social mobility.
d. exposes students to a broad spectrum of society.
e. prepares students for the future.

481. The argument for affrmative action in the workplace that most
closely mirrors the author’s reasoning about affrmative action in
college admissions is
a. it is the law of the land.
b. diversity in the workplace better prepares a company to
compete in the marketplace.
c. a diverse workforce is more effcient.
d. a less-qualifed minority candidate is still a great asset to a
company.
e. it is the right thing to do.

Use the following to answer questions 482 through 484.

(1) O’Connell Street is the main thoroughfare of Dublin City. Although

it is not a particularly long street, Dubliners will tell the visitor proudly
that it is the widest street in all of Europe. This claim usually meets
with protests, especially from French tourists, claiming the Champs
(5) Elysees of Paris as Europe’s widest street. But the witty Dubliner will
not relinquish bragging rights easily and will trump the French visi-
tor with a fne distinction: the Champs Elysees is a boulevard; O’Con-
nell is a street.
Divided by several important monuments running the length of its
(10) center, the street is named for Daniel O’Connell, an Irish patriot.
___________________________________________. O’Connell stands
high above the unhurried crowds of shoppers, business people, and
students on a sturdy column, surrounded by four serene angels seated
at each corner of the monument’s base. Further up the street is the
(15) famous eneral Post Offce that the locals affectionately call “the
PO.” During the 1916 rebellion, the PO was taken over and occu-
pied by the Irish rebels to British rule, sparking weeks of armed com-
bat in the city’s center. To this day, the angels of O’Connell’s
monument bear the marks of the fghting: one sits reading calmly,
(20) apparently unaware of the bullet hole dimpling her upper arm;

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another, reaching out to stroke the ears of a huge bronze Irish

wolfhound, has survived what should be a mortal wound to her heart.

482. Which sentence, if inserted in the blank space above, would be the
most correct and contribute the most pertinent information to that
paragraph?
a. His monument stands at the lower end of the road, that is, the
end closest to the river Liffey that bisects Dublin.
b. Other monuments along the street include statues to Charles
Parnell, Anna Livia Plurabelle, and James Joyce.
c. Dublin tourist buses leave from this site every twenty minutes.
d. Daniel O’Connell was an important Irish nationalist who died
before the 1916 rebellion.
e. Most European countries have memorable patriots who are
worth celebrating.

483. What is the best defnition for the underlined word trump as it is
used in the frst paragraph of the passage?
a. to trumpet loudly, to blare or drown out
b. to trample
c. to get the better of by using a key or hidden resource
d. to devise a fraud, to employ trickery
e. to slip away from

484. With which of the following statements about the people of

Dublin would the author of the passage most likely agree?
a. They are proud of their history but lack industry.
b. They are playful and tricky.
c. They are rebellious and do not like tourists.
d. They are witty and relaxed.
e. They would be happy living elsewhere.

Use the following to answer question 48 .

(1) Authentic Dhurrie rugs are hand-woven in India. Today, they are usu-
ally made of wool, but they are descendants of cotton foor- and bed-
coverings. In fact, the name Dhurrie comes from the Indian word dari,
which means threads of cotton. The rugs are noted for their soft col-
(5) ors and their varieties of design and make a stunning focal point for
any living room or dining room.

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48 . Which of the following is the most likely intended audience for the
passage?
a. people studying traditional Indian culture
b. people who are studying Indian domestic customs
c. people learning to operate a rug loom
d. people who enjoy interior decorating
e. people who prefer to spend their time outdoors

Use the following to answer questions 486 through 488.

(1) Emperor Charlemagne of the Franks was crowned in 800 A.D. The
Frankish Empire at that time extended over what is now ermany,
Italy, and France. Charlemagne died in 814, but his brief reign marked
the dawn of a distinctly European culture. The artists and thinkers
(5) that helped create this European civilization drew on the ancient texts
of the ermanic, Celtic, reek, Roman, Hebrew, and Christian
worlds. __________________________________. These mores in turn
laid the groundwork for the laws, customs, and even attitudes of
today’s European culture.

486. Which sentence, if inserted into the blank line in the passage,
would be most consistent with the writer’s purpose and intended
audience?
a. Cultural traditions function to identify members of a culture to
one another and also to allow the individual to self-identify.
b. Many of the traditions of these cultures remained active in
Frankish society for centuries.
c. When tradition is lacking or is not honored by the younger
generation in a society, there is danger that the culture will be
lost.
d. I don’t think it is necessary to discuss the origin of these tradi-
tions; it will only muddy the water.
e. History is flled with the rises and falls of many great empires.

487. According to the passage, for how many years was Charlemagne
Emperor of the Franks?
a. 14 years
b. 15 years
c. 13 years
d. 16 years
e. 18 years

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488. Which of the following is the best meaning of the word culture as it
is used in the passage?
a. the fashionable class
b. a community of inter-related individuals
c. a partnership
d. an organized group with a common goal
e. a band of greedy yet cunning strangers

Use the following to answer questions 489 and 490.

(1) Jessie Street is sometimes called the Australian Eleanor Roosevelt.

Like Roosevelt, Street lived a life of privilege, while at the same time
devoting her efforts to working for the rights of the disenfranchised,
including workers, women, refugees, and Aborigines. In addition, she
(5) gained international fame when she was the only woman on the Aus-
tralian delegation to the conference that founded the United
Nations—just as Eleanor Roosevelt was for the United States.

489. Which of the following inferences may be drawn from the

information presented in the passage?
a. Eleanor Roosevelt and Jessie Street worked together to include
women in the United Nations Charter.
b. Usually, people who live lives of privilege do not spend much
time participating in political activities.
c. Discrimination in Australia is much worse than it ever was in
the United States.
d. At the time of the formation of the United Nations, few women
were involved in international affairs.
e. Eleanor Roosevelt was a big fan of Australia and liked to visit as
often as possible.

490. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following

would be the most likely cause that Jessie Street would actively
support?
a. A program to rescue and fnd homes for neglected animals.
b. An initiative to help jobless women fnd meaningful employ-
ment.
c. A fundraiser to help a local bank raise much needed funds to
continue operating.
d. A gala for a ritzy country club, to celebrate its new golf course.
e. A letter writing campaign to convince a car company to pro-
duce electric vehicles.

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Use the following to answer question 491.

(1) Moscow has a history of chaotic periods of war that ended with the
destruction of a once largely wooden city and the building of a “new”
city on top of the rubble of the old. The result is a layered city, with
each tier holding information about a part of Russia’s past. In some
(5) areas of the city, archaeologists have reached the layer from 1147, the
year of Moscow’s founding. Among the fndings from the various peri-
ods of Moscow’s history are carved bones, metal tools, pottery, glass,
jewelry, and crosses.

491. From the passage, the reader can infer that

a. the people of Moscow are more interested in modernization
than in preservation
b. the Soviet government destroyed many of the historic buildings
in Russia
c. Moscow is the oldest large city in Russia, founded in 1147
d. Moscow has a history of invasions, with each new conqueror
razing past structures
e. Moscow has been a peaceful city throughout its fabled existence

Use the following to answer questions 492 through 01.

Sifting through History

Adapted from the noxville News-Sentinel
by Amy McRary

(1) Archaeology is the study of the life and culture of past civilizations,
artifacts, and people. Studying archaeology shows how people inter-
act with their environment. An archaeologist is like a detective gath-
ering clues to the past.
(5) Archaeology is a science that involves biology, botany, geology,
chemistry, history, psychology, and art, to name a few. ood archae-
ologists work in teams made up of experts and archaeology students.
Experts could include biologists who help the archaeologists recon-
struct the environment at a site. It could also include geologists who
(10) study the soil at the site. eologists fnd that as a civilization thrives,
the soil reveals how they lived. Their garbage, belongings, and their
paths and trails give shape to their history. In any case, it takes many
experts to sift through the history of a site.
Archaeologists rely on careful science and documentation to under-
(15) stand the past. This is especially important because most archaeolog-

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ical sites are non-renewable; once they are destroyed or altered, the
information they contain is lost forever. Archaeologists have to keep
very detailed and accurate records about every artifact they fnd at a
site, including its location, position, and condition, not to mention
(20) what was located in close proximity. An artifact might be a bead, a
piece of pottery, or a bone, for example. Once collected at a dig site,
these artifacts are taken to an archaeological laboratory—usually at a
university or museum—where they are analyzed. After all the infor-
mation is collected, a picture begins to develop about a site. The pic-
(25) ture is an unwritten record of what the site looked like, who lived and
worked there, and how the people lived. After an archaeologist has
developed this “site picture,” he or she writes reports to share what
they have learned with others.
Even the tiniest things—like three small, blue, glass beads—can
(30) offer important clues about the past. Three beads—faceted and about
the size of a man’s little fngernail—were unearthed from a 200-year-
old building foundation in the east yard of historic Ramsey House.
University of Tennessee (UT) anthropology professor Dr. Charles
Faulkner admits the discovery might not sound impressive, but the
(35) beads are a strong indication that the 18 × 18 foot log building was
once home to slaves. Faulkner says that European-American women
did not wear such beads in the early 19th century. While the discov-
ery of these three small beads seems small, they do offer clues to the
past.
(40) “There are just three, and they may not sound like a lot, but these
are the frst beads we’ve found on the site,” says Faulkner, who has
been working at Ramsey House since 1985. Similar beads have been
found in an archaeological dig in downtown Knoxville’s historic
(45) Blount Mansion slave quarters, and they are often discovered in digs
at Southern plantations on the East Coast. Finding these beads at ran-
dom locations may provide a link to the people and the culture. Based
on the beads and on other artifacts found during a summer’s work at
Ramsey House, Faulkner believes that slaves lived in the one-story
(50) building from 1820 or 1830 until the Civil War.
“We are very, very interested in African-Americans on the frontier.
Archaeology is one of the few ways we can fnd out about them—what
food they ate, what dishes they used.”
The work, funded by a Tennessee Historical Commission grant to
(55) Ramsey House, has expanded on earlier digs. Twenty-two UT his-
torical archaeological feld school students and three volunteers have
painstakingly dug, scraped, and sifted through layers of earth since
mid-July. They used mason trowels, kitchen spoons, and whiskbrooms

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to fnd building footers and china, small animal bones, and handmade
(60) nails. They flled plastic bags with soil to use as water flters to help
them fnd tiny artifacts and perhaps more blue glass beads.
What’s discovered will then help Faulkner piece together what the
Ramsey House site in East Knox County once looked like. Then
called Swan Pond, Ramsey House was constructed from pink marble
(65) and blue limestone by architect Thomas Hope for Colonel Francis
Alexander Ramsey. While construction took place, Ramsey moved to
what was then a peninsula jutting into a clear lake in 1793. At least two
adults and four children lived in a 20  20-foot log cabin there while
Swan Pond was being built.
(70) Ramsey’s frontier property, in East Knox County, was likely more
fort than estate. Large postholes that would have supported a six- to
eight-foot board fence have been found at points around the house.
Original buildings, like the log cabin, were likely constructed in the
compound’s corners. Swan Pond was then built in the middle of the
(75) fenced area. This protective fence may have lasted until the mid-
1800s. A rather tedious dig around one posthole found it was replaced
four times. This told Faulkner that “this was an important fence.”
But what’s underground in the east yard of the house has drawn the
most interest, and most of the work has centered on the slave quarters.
(80) Faulkner believes that slave quarters were not the frst use of the build-
ing. The early eighteenth-century structure was built during Francis
Ramsey’s life and may have been his offce. After Ramsey died in 1820,
the building became a slave cabin. Post-Civil War horseshoes and nails
indicated it later was a dilapidated storage shed that was demolished
(85) in the 1880s.
This summer’s work expanded on a 1995 dig that found part of the
offce/slave cabin foundation. At that time, Faulkner said the “mystery
building” could have once been a blacksmith shop. “I never expected
to fnd anything like this,” he said last week. “Often you don’t know
(90) if something like this has been plowed up or dug away.” In addition,
his work this summer made Faulkner more certain that he knows
where the original 1793 Ramsey log cabin was built. The 1995 dig also
found a partial foundation of a second building slightly to the north
and east of Ramsey House. Faulkner theorized four years ago that the
(95) structure could be the original cabin; today he’s more certain. Next
summer’s archaeological work will look for more foundation and fence
postholes to prove his theory.
A picture of the site is beginning to emerge and will develop as the
dig progresses, perhaps over several years. “We still don’t know all of
(100) this for sure, but I am more and more confdent,” he says. “We can see

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a sequence of events out here. If what we think is going on, it’s all
starting to come together. If so, what we have found is really impor-
tant. I think eventually you’ll be able to reconstruct the whole origi-
nal farmstead here.”

492. Which statement BEST expresses the main idea of the passage?
a. Ramsey House was built in the 1800s.
b. Ramsey House was once home to slaves.
c. Mr. Ramsey was very wealthy.
d. Ramsey House was a battle site in the Civil War.
e. Ramsey House has not changed since it was built.

493. The Ramsey House was used

a. to always house slaves.
b. as the kitchen for the master’s house.
c. originally as Mr. Ramsey’s offce and later, after Mr. Ramsey’s
death, as slave quarters.
d. for entertaining visitors.
e. to store the family’s supply of food for the winter.

494. What feelings or sentiments BEST characterize archaeologist

Faulkner’s attitude about the Ramsey House dig?
a. worried and unsure
b. confdent and excited
c. exhausted and discouraged
d. angry and annoyed
e. disappointed and confused

49 . What would be the BEST defnition of an archaeologist?

a. An archaeologist only studies people who live in far away places.
b. An archaeologist studies how people lived in the past.
c. An archaeologist is a person who runs a museum where old arti-
facts are displayed.
d. An archaeologist digs in the earth to uncover the places where
slaves once lived.
e. An archeologist is a person interested more in strangers than in
people they know.

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496. After the discovery of three blue glass beads, archaeologists

concluded that slaves lived at Ramsey House. The reason for this is
that
a. the beads were 200 years old.
b. they were the frst beads found at the site.
c. similar beads were found at archaeological digs of other slave
quarters in the area and on other southern plantations known to
house slaves.
d. archaeological students painstakingly dug and searched at the
site to fnd the beads.
e. the beads could be traced through their point of purchase to the
original owners.

497. According to the passage, which of the following events occurred

FIRST in time?
a. The archaeologists found three small blue glass beads.
b. Swan Pond was built from pink marble and blue limestone.
c. lass beads were found in Knoxville’s Blount Mansion slave
quarters.
d. Slaves lived at Ramsey House.
e. Amy McRary wrote this passage

498. In paragraph 8, the passage tells us that archaeological sites are

non-renewable. When something is non-renewable, it means that
a. it can be replenished.
b. it knows no bounds.
c. once it is destroyed or altered, it is lost forever.
d. no one is interested in it.
e. no one can determine its rightful owner.

499. Which of the following statements from the passage refects the
author’s OPINION rather than a statement of fact?
a. Archaeologists rely on careful science and documentation to
understand the past.
b. Three beads were unearthed from a 200-year-old building
foundation in the yard of Ramsey House.
c. Ramsey’s frontier property was likely more fort than estate.
d. The 1995 dig found a partial foundation of a second building.
e. At one point in its history, Ramsey House was a slave cabin.

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00. One conclusion we can draw from this passage is

a. archaeologists have to be very careful and accurate in their
work.
b. archaeologists earn a lot of money.
c. the feld of archaeology attracts more men than women.
d. archaeologists at Ramsey House needed heavy equipment for
their work.
e. the feld of archaeology will continue to grow in popularity over
time.

01. What tone is the author of the passage using?

a. persuasive
b. humorous
c. informative
d. scary
e. dismissive

Answers

446. d. To posit means to suggest. In this context, Hlusko suggests that

grass stalks may have caused the grooves on early hominid
teeth.
447. d. The passage states that modern toothpicks are made of wood
(line 11).
448. b. Dr. Hlusko is described a being convinced she was on the right
track and patiently rubbing a baboon tooth with a grass stalk for
eight hours. Both point to a persistent approach.
449. b. In lines 19–20, the author states, It seems that our early human
ancestors may have used grass, which was easily found and ready to
use, to foss between their teeth. The use of may indicates that the
author is not absolutely certain, but as the author does not sug-
gest anything to contradict Dr. Hlusko’s fndings we can con-
clude that the author fnds her theory very probable.
4 0. d. Manifest means obvious or evident. Certain practices could have
several meanings and it is necessary to look to the examples
provided in the next sentence to clarify the meaning of the
phrase. The examples of beliefs mostly relate to particular activ-
ities such as predicting the weather or curing sickness.

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4 1. c. Lines 7–9 clearly state that it is not surprising that fishermen

hold many beliefs about fortune and misfortune because
fishermen work in a highly unpredictable and hazardous
environment.
4 2. a. In lines 21–25, the author states that these beliefs are linked to
the detection of minute changes in the environment and refect fsh-
ermen’s intimate contact with the natural environment. This sen-
tence indicates an attitude of respect. This respect is
unqualifed in that the author does not detract from the state-
ment in any way.
4 3. b. The author defnes traditional beliefs as convictions that are usually
linked to causes and effects. In the paragraph that discusses the super-
natural (lines 35–43), the author states that some fshermen
believe in the existence of certain supernatural phenomena. There
is no information about the cause or effect of the supernatural.
4 4. d. The statistic provides numerical evidence (quantifes) of the
degree to which commercial fshing is hazardous compared to
the next most dangerous occupation.
4 . e. Precarious means dependent on uncertain circumstances or
chance; it can also mean characterized by a lack of security.
Uncertain and dangerous (choice a) are both synonyms of pre-
carious; however, in the context of the sentence, uncertain makes
the most sense.
4 6. c. The passage is primarily concerned with describing beliefs
found among Florida fshermen. The passage does not, how-
ever, catalog (give a complete account of) their beliefs, in that it
only gives some examples. Although the author does close the
passage with a suggestion traditional beliefs may have some real
world benefts, the majority of the passage is not occupied with
this idea.
4 7. b. The primary purpose of the passage is to educate readers about
the importance of good parenting in developing moral charac-
ter in children. Choices a, d, and e are too narrow. Choice c is
not supported by the passage.
4 8. d. The author is using sentence in the sense of a conclusion reached
by a judge in a criminal trial. She is asserting that to conclude
that an eight-month-old baby is already destined for success or
failure is a harsh judgment on such a small child. Note that
choice e is incorrect because punishment is the result of a sen-
tence, and does not make sense in this context.

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4 9. c. The author opens the paragraph with the assertion that love is
the cornerstone (foundation) of good parenting. The monkey
study, which indicates that the need for love supercedes the
need for food, is used to support that assertion.
460. a. The passage clearly defnes cold parents as withholding love
(lines 32–33). Aloof means reserved or removed in feeling.
Restrictive parenting is defned in the passage as setting limits
(lines 33–34). A disciplinarian is one who enforces order.
461. e. Lines 44 and 54–55 link the ability to defer gratifcation with
self-discipline and self-control. Hence, children who are unable
to defer gratifcation are unlikely to succeed because they lack
self-discipline.
462. e. The subject of this paragraph is parents balancing their needs
with those of their child. Teaching a child to sleep through the
night is an example of parents balancing their needs (for a full
night’s sleep) with the needs of their baby (to be picked up in
the middle of the night).
463. c. The passage clearly states that many parents will come to good par-
enting techniques instinctually (lines 65–66), which indicates that
instincts are a good guide for parents. Also, line 24 states that
loving an infant comes naturally to most parents—something
that comes naturally is instinctual. None of the other choices is
supported by the passage.
464. b. The passage clearly states that potlatch is a gift-giving ceremony.
The author explains that potlatch is a generic word for the cere-
mony that comes from a shared trading language, while each
nation has its own specifc word for potlatch.
46 . a. The passage states that guests were expected to give a potlatch
with gifts of equal value to what they received. This arrange-
ment can best be described as reciprocal. The other choices are
not supported by the passage.
466. d. The author describes the ceremony in mostly neutral terms but
in the last paragraph emphasizes the positive aspects of the tra-
dition, which indicates a degree of respect.
467. e. The passage explicitly states in lines 15–16 that a man will know
by reputation all the men in his kula ring. None of the other
choices is explicitly stated in the passage.
468. c. The passage states in lines 26–27 that the visitors are seen as
aggressors and are met with ritual hostility. This indicates that the
visitors and hosts are playing the roles of aggressor and victims.
The author uses quotes to indicate that the hosts are not really
victims, but might call themselves the victims in the exchange.

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469. d. Lines 17–24 state the ways in which a kula object gains value;
special shells are not mentioned.
470. a. The fnal paragraph of each passage explicitly states the ways in
which these ceremonies, or rituals, maintain community ties.
None of the other choices is true for both passages.
471. b. Both authors specifcally discuss the non-monetary value of
each ceremony. In Passage 1, lines 33–36 the author states, Giv-
ing wealth—not accumulating wealth, as is prized in Western cul-
ture—was a means of cementing leadership, affrming status, . . . In
Passage 2, lines 35–39 the author states, The objects . . . have no
value, and yet, this ceremonial exchange has numerous tangible bene-
fts. None of the other choices is supported by the texts.
472. c. Both potlatches and the kula ring involve giving and receiving,
and both of the societies that participate in these rituals can be
described as traditional. The tone of the title in choice e is
more whimsical than the serious tone of each passage. Choice b
is incorrect because neither article draws conclusions about tra-
ditional societies in general.
473. b. The sentence preceding this phrase discusses the homogenous,
or uniform, makeup of the student body in the 1960s. The
author is using the word lesson ironically in that a lack of diver-
sity is not something on which many educators would pride
themselves.
474. e. A sea change is a transformation. This can be inferred from the
next sentence, which states that colleges adopted policies of
affrmative action. Affrmative action is a transformation in col-
lege admissions.
47 . d. The author clearly states in lines 17–18 that President Johnson
aptly explained the reasoning behind affrmative action.
476. c. After stating that he considers the trend of abolishing affrma-
tive action to be very dangerous, the author explains how a
diverse student body makes his classes much richer.
477. a. According to the author, one of the main benefts of affrmative
action is diversity in the classroom and he states that this diver-
sity has been a boon to my experience as a teacher (line 40). So,
affrmative action has personally benefted the author. None of
the other choices is supported by the passage.
478. b. Feasible can mean capable of being done (possible) or capable
of being used (suitable). In this context, the author is suggest-
ing that, for many minorities, extracurricular activities and
the like are not economically possible, that is, they are unaf-
fordable.

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479. c. The author expresses his opinion about affrmative action in a

moderate, or reasonable, tone. He is neither dispassionate nor
passionate, in that he expresses some emotion but not much.
He is not impartial, as he is expressing an opinion.
480. e. It is diversity, the result of affrmative action, not affrmative
action itself, that prepares students for the future (lines 51–53).
481. b. The author’s main argument for affrmative action is that the
student body benefts from diversity. His fnal point is that
students who have been exposed to a broad spectrum of American
society (line 51) are better prepared for their futures. The idea
that diversity benefts a company and makes it better prepared
to compete in the marketplace most closely mirrors this
reasoning.
482. a. This sentence sticks to the subject, Daniel O’Connell,
announced in the sentence before it, and provides a transition
to the sentence following it, a description of O’Connell’s monu-
ment, by providing information about the location of the statue.
483. c. The hidden or key resource mentioned in the passage is the fne
distinction between the defnition of street and boulevard,
which is used to win the argument with or get the better of
tourists.
484. d. This is the correct answer. The author would most likely agree
with this statement because in the passage he offers an example
of Dublin wit and mentions the unhurried pace of Dublin
crowds.
48 . d. The light informative tone, and the subject matter of the fnal
sentence particularly, indicate that the passage is directed
toward interior decorators.
486. b. The missing sentence is in a portion of the passage that is dis-
cussing the long-term impacts of the Franks; therefore, this is
the best choice.
487. a. The passage explicitly states that Charlemagne was crowned
emperor in 800 and died in 814—a period of 14 years.
488. b. The author uses culture to refer to a community of inter-related
individuals—Europeans.
489. d. Because the author mentions that one of the two women gained
international fame because she attended the international con-
ference, the reader can surmise that for a woman to attend was
a rare occurrence.

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490. b. The passage mentions that despite living a life of relative privi-
lege, Jessie Street devoted her efforts to working for the rights
of the disenfranchised, including workers and women. The
cause that best fts this description is an initiative to help jobless
women fnd meaningful employment.
491. d. This statement is supported by information in the frst sentence
of the passage because it speaks of periods of war.
492. b. The passage tells us that the discovery of the beads is a strong
indication that the 18-by-18 foot log building on the Ramsey
House property was once home to slaves.
493. c. The passage tells us that “slave quarters was not the frst use of
the building” and “that the house was built during Mr. Ramsey’s
life and may have been his offce.”
494. b. Toward the end of the article, in paragraph 11, the author tells
us that the archaeologist at Ramsey House, Faulkner, has found
things he had not expected to fnd. In paragraph 12, Faulkner is
quoted as saying he is “more and more confdent.”
49 . b. The answer can be found in the frst paragraph when the author
states, “archaeology is the study of the life and culture of past
civilizations, artifacts, and people.”
496. c. The passage tells us that similar beads have been found in an
archeological dig of downtown Knoxville’s historic Blount Man-
sion slave quarters and are often discovered in digs at southern
plantations on the East Coast. Thus, the scientists can infer that
the presence of beads at Ramsey House also indicates that slaves
lived there.
497. b. In paragraph 8, the passage tells us that Swan Pond was built
for the Ramsey family in the late 1700s.
498. c. Non-renewable means that once something is destroyed or
altered, the information it contains is lost forever.
499. c. The author does not know for a fact that Ramsey’s property was
more likely a fort than an estate. She thinks that this is true by
looking at what the archaeologists have found at the dig site so
far. She may change her opinion after more facts are discovered.
00. a. Archaeologists must be very careful and accurate in their work,
in part because most archaeological sites are non-renewable;
once they are destroyed, the information they contain is lost
forever.
01. c. The tone of this passage is informative.

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