SPOT TEST SERIES (TEST - 03) NEET : 31.01.

2025
[Time : 3 Hours] Full Marks : 720

(1) (i-q), (ii-s), (iii-r), (iv-p)

PHYSICS
(2) (i-r), (ii-s), (iii-p), (iv-q)
01. A charge Q is fixed at a distance d in front of an
infinite metal plate. The lines of force are (3) (i-p), (ii-q), (iii-r), (iv-s)
represented by :
(4) (i-q), (ii-r), (iii-s), (iv-p)
+Q +Q
04. If the ratio of magnitude of intensity of electric
field at a distance x on axial line and at a
(1) (2) distance y on equatorial line on a given dipole
is 1 : 4, then x : y is :

+Q +Q (1) 1 : 2 (2) 3
2 :1

(3) (4) 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2  2 3 :1

02. A positive point charge, which is free to move, is 05. The electric flux for Gaussian surface A that
placed inside a hollow conducting sphere with enclose the charged particles in free space is
negative charge, away from its centre. It will : (given q1 = –20 nC, q2 = 86.55 nC, q3 = –40 nC)
(1) oscillate between the centre and the nearer
wall. Gaussian
(2) move towards the nearer wall of the conductor surface A
q3
(3) remain stationary q1
(4) move towards the centre Gaussian
q2
surface B
03. Match the information given in Column-I with
that in Column-II and mark the correct code
given below.
Column I Column II (1) 1.72 × 103 Nm2 C–1 (2) 3 × 103 Nm2 C–1
i. For an infinitely p.inversely proportional
(3) 2.32 × 104 Nm2 C–1 (4) 9 × 103 Nm2 C–1
long line positive to r2 where r < R/2.
charge, electric 06. The metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 having
field at a distance charges Q1 and Q2 respectively are connected
r from the line is to each other. There is :
ii. For a uniformly q.radially outward and
(1) always a decrease in the energy of the system
charged non- inversely proportional
conducting sphere to r. (2) no change in the energy of the system
electric field at a
distance r from (3) an increase in the energy of the system
centre is (R = radius (4) a decrease in the energy of the system unless
of sphere) Q1R2 = Q2R1
iii. A spherical charged r. inversely proportional
conductor of radius to r2 when r > R. 07. The charge on 6 µF capacitor in the given circuit
R, with a concentric is (in µC)
cavity of radius R/2,
electric field at a 3 µF
distance r from the 18 µF
centre is 6 µF
iv. A spherical charged s.increases with r, 12 µF
conductor of radius reaches a maximum
R with a cavity of then decreases.
radius R/2 has a
point charge q (q > 0) 36 V
at its centre. Electric
field at a distance r (1) 144 µC (2) 72 µC
from the centre is (3) 108 µC (4) 132 µC
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08. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is charged 13. Two wires A and B of same material and mass
12 µC. Another uncharged sphere of radius have their lengths in the ratio 1 : 3. On
30 cm is allowed to touch it for some time. After connecting them parallel to the same source,
that if the sphere are separated, then surface the rate of heat dissipation in B is found to be
density of charges, on the spheres will be in the 6 W. The rate of heat dissipation in A is :
ratio of : (1) 0.67 W (2) 2 W (3) 54 W (4) 18 W
(1) 6 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 14. In the circuit shown below, the reading of the
09. E denotes electric field in a uniform conductor, I ideal voltmeter is :
corresponding current through it, vd drift velocity 18 V, 2 
of electrons and P denotes thermal power
produced in the conductor, then which of the
following graph is incorrect ? 4 V A

P P 12 
(1) 20 V (2) 16 V (3) 14 V (4) 18 V
(1) (2) 15. A milli voltmeter of 20 milli volt range is to be
converted into an ammeter of 80 ampere range.
i vd The value (in ohm) of necessary shunt will be :
(1) 1.6  (2) 0.2 
P vd –3
(3) 7.5 × 10  (4) 2.5 × 10–4 
16. The variation of magnetic susceptibility () with
(3) (4) absolute temperature T for a ferromagnetic
material is :
E E  
10. Assertion : Electric field outside the conducting
wire which carries a constant current is zero. (1) (2)
Reason : Net charge on conducting wire is zero. O T O T
(1) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
 
(2) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(3) (4)
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but O T O T
Reason i s no t co rre ct e xpl anation of 17. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of
Assertion. diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material
11. Two wires of equal diameters, of resistivities  and ferromagnetic material denoted by µd, µp, µf
and 4 and lengths l and 2l, respectively, are respectively then :
joined in series. The equivalent resistivity of the (1) µd  0 and µp = 0 (2) µd  0 and µf  0
combination is : (3) µp = 0 and µf  0 (4) µd = 0 and µp  0
18. Following figures show the arrangement of bar
7 9 5
(1) 3 (2)  (3)  (4)  magnets in different configurations. Each
2 4 2 
magnet has magnetic dipole moment m . Which
12. In the circuit shown in figure the heat produced configuration has highest net magnetic dipole
in the 8 resistor due to the current flowing moment ?
through it is 32 cal/s. The heat generated in
the 6  resistor is :
S N
6 10 
30° 60°
(1) S N N (2) S N

8 N

(1) 9 cal/sec. (2) 12 cal/sec. N S

(3) 3 cal/sec. (4) 6 cal/sec. (3) S S N (4) S N

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19. A bar magnet has coercivity 2 × 104 Am–1. It is 25. Statement I : Only a change in magnetic flux
desired to demagnetise it by inserting it inside with resepct to time, will maintain an induced
a solenoid 4 cm long and having 80 turns. The current in the coil.
current that should be sent through the solenoid Statement II : The presence of large magnetic
is : flux through a coil maintains a current in the
(1) 5 A (2) 15 A (3) 10 A (4) 30 A coil if the circuit is continuous.
20. The magnetic moment of a current carrying loop (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
is 7.5 × 10–27 amp × m2. The magnetic field at a correct.
point on its axis at a distance of 0.25 Å is : (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) 2.4 × 10–2 T (2) 1.6 × 10–3 T incorrect.

(3) 9.6 × 10–2 T (4) 7.2 × 10–3 T (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.
21. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
po tential differe nce V 1 . This el ectron
incorrect.
experiences a force F in a uniform magnetic field.
On increasing the potential difference to V2, the 26. In electromagnetic induction, the induced
force experienced by the electron in the same charge in a coil is independent of :
(1) Time
 V2 
magnetic field becomes 9F. Then the ratio  V  (2) Resistance in the circuit
 1
(3) Change in the flux
is equal to :
(4) None of these
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 81 : 1 (3) 27 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
27. The coil of area 0.2 m2 has 600 turns. After
22. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is placing the coil in a magnetic field of strength
situated near a long straight wire such that the 5 × 10–4 wb/m2, if rotated through 90° in 0.04 s,
wire is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop the average emf induced in the coil is :
and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current
(1) 0.75 V (2) 0.4 V
I is established in wire as shown in figure, the
loop will : (3) 1.2 × 10–3 V (4) 1.5 V
28. Plane of eddy currents makes an angle with the
i plane of magnetic lines of force equal to :
(1) 180° (2) 0° (3) 45° (4) 90°
I
29. A power transformer is used to step up an
alternating e.m.f. of 220 V to 22 kV to transmit
6.6 kW of power. If the primary coil has 1500
turns, what is the current rating of the secondary ?
(1) move towards the wire (Assume 100% efficiency for the transformer)
(2) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire (1) 0.3 A (2) 1.5 A
(3) remain stationary (3) 0.75 A (4) 0.15 A
(4) move away from the wire or towards right 30. What is the mutual inductance of a two-loop
23. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius system as shown with centre separation l ?
r
makes 2n rotations per second. The magnetic
2
field produced at the centre has magnitude : 1 2
2a 2a
20 en 40 en 0 en 80 en
(1) (2) (3) (4) l >> 2a
r r r r

l
24. An iron rod of length and magnetic moment
2
M is bent in the form of a semicircle. Now its 40a 4 20 a 4
magnetic moment will be : (1) (2)
l3 l3
2M M M M
(1) (2) (3) (4) 80a 4 160 a 4
  2 4 (3) (4)
l3 l3
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31. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and 37. Curie temperature is the temperature above
magnetising fields are 200 V/m and 0.36 A/m, which :
respectively. The maximum energy flow is : (1) ferromagnetic material beco mes
(1) 36 W/m2 (2) 18 W/m2 diamagnetic material
(3) 72 W/m 2 (4) 144 W/m2 (2) paramag neti c materi al becomes
32. Which of the following statements is false for the ferromagnetic material
properties of electromagnetic waves ? (3) paramag neti c materi al becomes
(1) These waves do not require any material diamagnetic material
medium for propagation. (4) ferromagnetic material beco mes
(2) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are paramagnetic material
parallel to each other and perpendicular to 38. The adjoining figure shows two bulbs B1 and B2
the direction of propagation of wave. resistor R and an inductor L. When the switch S
(3) The energy in electromagnetic wave is is turned off :
di vide d equall y be twee n el ectric and
magnetic vectors. B1 S
R
(4) Both electric and magnetic field vectors
attain the maxima and minima at the same
B2
place and same time. L
33. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency
25 MHz travels through a space alo ng
x-direction. If the electric field vector at a certain (1) B2 dies out promptly but B1 with some delay
point in space is 9 Vm–1, then what is the (2) Both B1 and B2 die out with some delay
magnetic field vector at the point ?
(3) Both B1 and B2 die out promptly
1
(1)  10 8 T (2) 3 × 10–8 T (4) B1 dies out promptly but B2 with some delay
3
39. The force between the plates of a parallel plate
1 1 capacitor of capacitance C, charge q and distance
(3)  10 8 T (4)  10 8 T
9 27 of separation of the plates d with a potential
34. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is difference V between the plates, is :
described by E = E0 sin (kz – t), B = B0 sin (kz – t). CV 2
2
q2
CV 2 q
Which of the following equations is true ? (1) (2) (3) (4)
2d 2d2 2 0 A 2 2 0 Ad
(1) E0K = B0 (2) E0 = KB0
40. A parallel plate capacitor with air as the
(3) E0B0 = K (4) E0 B0  K dielectric has capacitance C. A slab of dielectric
constant K and having the same thickness as
35. A and B are two infinitely long straight parallel the separation between the plates, is introduced
conductors. C is another straight conductor of so as to fill one of the capacitor as shown in the
length 1.5 m kept parallel to A and B as shown figure. the new capacitance will be :
in the figure. Then, the force experienced by C
is : A/3

A C B
K Air d

4A 2A 8A

C C
4cm 16cm (1) (K  1) (2) (2K  1)
3 3
(1) 3 × 10–5 towards B (2) 1.5 × 10–5 towards A
(3) 3 × 10–5 towards A (4) 1.5 × 10–5 towards B C C
(3) (K  4) (4) (K  2)
36. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a 3 3
magnetic field requires 2 3 J or work to turn it 41. The potential difference between A and B in the
through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the following figure is :
needle in this position will be : 5 8 4
A B
(1) 6 N-m (2) 4 3 N-m 3A 9V 6V

(3) 12 N-m (4) 8 3 N-m (1) 66 V (2) 48 V (3) 54 V (4) 45 V

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42. A solenoid of 0.75 meter length and 3 cm 49. Select the correct one among given option.
diameter posses 16 turn per cm. A current of (1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 Basic character
6 ampere is flowing through it. The magnetic
induction at axis inside the solenoid is : (2) H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O  Boiling point
(1) 9 × 10–3 T (2) 4.5 × 10–3 T (3) HCl < HF < HBr < HI  Boiling point
(3) 1.2 × 10–2 T (4) 5.6 × 10–2 T (4) H2O < H2Te < H2S < H2Se  Acidic nature
43. The sensitiveness of a moving coil galvanometer
50. Assertion (A) : Carboxylic acid is more acidic than
can be increased by decreasing:
phenol.
(1) The area of the coil
Reason (R) : The carboxylate ion is less stabilised
(2) The number of turns in the coil
than phenoxide ion.
(3) The couple per unit twist of the suspension
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) The magnetic field
explanation of (A).
44. Magnetic induction produced at the centre of a
circular loop carrying current is B. The magnetic (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
moment of the loop of radius R is : correct explanation of (A).
(µ0 = Permeability of free space) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
2R 3B BR 3 BR 2 BR 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) 51. The standard electrode potential of Zn, Ag and
0 20 40 80
Cu electrodes are –0.76 V, 0.80 V and 0.34 V
45. In the circuit shown below, the cells A and B respectively then :
have negligible resistance. For V A = 18V,
R1 = 600 and R = 300, the galvanometer (G) (1) Zn can oxidise Ag and Cu
shown no deflection. The value of VB is : (2) Ag can oxidise Zn and Cu
R1 (3) Zn can reduce Ag+ and Cu2+
G
(4) Ag can reduce Zn2+ and Cu2+
VA R VB 52. When phthalic acid is strongly heated with NH3,
then it gives :
(1) Benzamide (2) Phthalimide
(1) 3 V (2) 12 V (3) 8 V (4) 6 V
(3) Phthalamide (4) Phthalazine
53. Match the Column-I with Column-II.
CHEMISTRY Column-I Column-II
46. On passing electricity through dilute Na2SO4
(Reactants) (Product)
solution the mass of substance liberated at the
cathode and anode are in the ratio : A. Phenol I. 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 16 (3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
Na Cr O /H
2 2 7
47. Electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 causes :  
(1) An increase in pH B. Phenol II. 2-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(2) A decrease in pH
(i) CHCl  aq. NaOH
3
(3) Neither decrease nor increase in pH 
 
(ii) H
(4) None of these
C. Phenol III. Benzoquinone
N.B.S. aq. KOH
48. CH3—CH== CH2 X Y
(i) NaOH  CO
2
Z 
 
(ii) H
Acrolein
For the given sequential reaction identify D. Phenol IV. Picric acid
‘Y’ and ‘Z’.

Conc. HNO

(1) CH2 ==CH—CHO , Cl2 + Red P 3

(2) CH3—CH—CH3 , KmnO4/H (1) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-III), (D-I)

OH (2) (A-III), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-II)
(3) CH2 ==CH—COOH , KmnO4/OH– (3) (A-II), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-III)

(4) CH2 ==CH—CH2 —OH , P.C.C. (4) (A-III), (B-I), (C-II), (D-IV)

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54. The reaction A B follows first order kinetics. 60. Molar conductance at infinite dilution for Ba2+
The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce and Cl– are 137 Scm2 mol–1 and 71 Scm2mol–1
0.4 mole B is 1 hour. What is the time taken for respectively. The equivalent conductance at
conversion of 1 mole of A to produce 0.875 mole infinite dilution for BaCl2 is :
of B ?
(1) 208 Scm2 eq–1 (2) 172.5 Scm2eq–1
(1) 1 hour (2) 1.5 hours
(3) 104 Scm2eq–1 (4) 139.5 Scm2eq–1
(3) 3 hours (4) 2 hours
55. If the pressure of hydrogen gas is increased from 61. t1 = constant, confirms the 1st order of the
2
1 atm to 5 atm, keeping the hydrogen ion
concentration constant at 1 M, the reduction reaction so as a  t 1 = constant confirms that
2
potential of the hydrogen half cell will be :
th e re acti on i s of : [ where; a  in iti al
 2.303 RT  concentration]
 Assume :  0.06  [log 5 = 0.6989]
F  (1) zero order (2) 2nd order
(1) –0.059 V (2) –0.118 V (3) 3rd order (4) 1st order
(3) –0.0295 V (4) –0.021 V
O CH==O
56. Which of the following is correct order of ligand
field strength ? CH3 NaOH
62. + H 2O, 
P .
2
(1) S  NH3  en  CO  C2O24 Major Product

NO2
(2) NH3  en  CO  S2  C2O42
O
(3) CO  en  NH3  C2O24  S2
(1) Ph—C—CH== CH—Ph

(4) S2  C2O24  NH3  en  CO O

NO2

57. By Williamson synthesis which one of the (2) Ph—C—CH==CH

following ether cannot be prepared.

O
(1) (H3C)3C—O (2) O—CH3
NO2
(3) Ph—C—CH==CH

(3) O (4)
O (4) Ph — CH2 — CH  CH — Ph
58. The decreasing order of acidic strength is :
1
COOH COOH COOH COOH 63. The slope of the line for the graph of log K vs
T
1
for the reaction, N2O5  2NO2  O2 is
2
NO2
NO2 NO2 OCH3
–3000. Calculate the energy of activation of the
A B C D reaction (in Kcal mol–1)

(1) C > B > A > D (2) C > B > D > A (1) 5.74 (2) 13.818

(3) C > A > B > D (4) B > C > D > A (3) 1.38 (4) 95.7
59. During electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4 64. KCl can be used in salt bridge as electrolyte in
using Cu-electrode, at anode : which of the following cells ?
(1) O2 gas is evolved. (1) ZnZnCl2AgNO3Ag
(2) H2S2O8 is formed. (2) PbPb(NO3)2Cu(NO3)2Cu
(3) Cu(s) is oxidised.
(3) CuCuSO4AuCl3Au
(4) Reaction can not be predicted.
(4) FeFeSO4Pb(NO3)2Pb
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65. Which is the best method for carrying out 70. For electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 solution using
following conversion ? inert electrode. Calculate mass of copper
deposited at cathode while 2800 mL of O2 at NTP
COOH
is liberated at anode.
(1) 31.75 g (2) 15.875 g
NO2 (3) 63.5 g (4) 127 g

(1) CH3Cl/AlCl3, KMnO4/H, , Conc. HNO3 + 71. Assertion (A) : Molar conductivity for weak
H2SO4 electrolytes like acetic acid increases when the
electrolytic solution is diluted.
(2) CH3CH2Cl/FeCl3, H2CrO4, Cl2 + Red P
(3) HNO3/H2SO4, HCOOH, Cl2 + Red P Reason (R) : For weak electrolytes, degree of
dissociation and number of ions in total volume
(4) HNO3/H2SO4, CH3Cl/AlCl3, KMnO4/H,  of solution that contains 1 mol of electrolyte,
66. The correct sequence of reagent for given increase with dilution.
conversion is :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
CH2CH3 CHO correct explanation of (A).

R
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) (i) KMn O 4 , KOH / H , , (ii) SOCl 2 , correct explanation of (A).
(iii) H2, Pd/BaSO4
72. When a certain conductivity cell was filled with
(2) (i) LiAlH4, (ii) SOCl2, (iii) HNO3 + H2SO4 0.1 M KCl, it had a resistance of 85 at 25°C.
(3) (i) P.C.C., (ii) SOCl2, (iii) LiAlH4 When the same cell was filled with an aqueous
(4) (i) Jones reagent, (ii) SOCl2, (iii) LiAlH4 solution of 0.050 M unknown electrolyte, the
resistance was 100 . Calculate the molar
67. The total number of unpaired electrons present
conductivity of the unknown electrolyte at 0.050
in the complex K3[Cr(C2O4)3] is :
concentration. (Given : Specific conductance of
(1) 0 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3 0.1 M KCl = 1.20 × 10–2 –1 cm–1).
68. Which of the following conversion is correct in
(1) 120 –1 cm2 mol–1 (2) 219.65 –1 cm2 mol–1
presence of reagent ?
(3) 204 –1 cm2 mol–1 (4) None of these
O
73. The compound having maximum density is :
Zn—Hg
(1) Conc. HCl (1) n–C3H7Cl (2) n–C3H7Br

HO HO (3) n–C3H7I (4) CCl4

74. The correct order of boiling point is :
O
(1) n-Pentane > Ethoxyethane > Butan-1-ol
Zn—Hg
(2) Conc. HCl (2) Butan-1-ol > n-Pentane > Ethoxyethane
COCl COCl (3) Ethoxyethane > n-Pentane > Butan-1-ol
O OH (4) n-Pentane > Butan-1-ol > Ethoxyethane
Zn—Hg
(3) Conc. HCl CH3OH
HO Cl H 2 SO4
75. CH3—C—CH—CH3 Heat
(P)
Major
O O CH3

(4)
NH 2—NH2 The major product P is :
Base(NaOH)
COCl CH 2OH (1) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene
69. The molecular formula C5H11Br, the number of (2) 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene
primary alkylbromide isomer is/are : (3) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
(Including the stereoisomers)
(4) 3,3-dimethyl-2-butene
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5
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76. Select the correct statement for group-15 81. An organic compound A with molecular formula
hydrides. C8H8O forms an orange red ppt. with 2,4-DNP
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 reagent and gives yellow PPt. with I2 and NaOH,
Stability of hydride then A is :

(2) PH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > BiH3 Reducing O
ability of hydride C CH2CHO
H
(3) NH3 > PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3 (1) (2)
Basicity of hydride.
(4) Among hydrides NH3 is strong reducing agent CH3
and BiH3 is mild reducing agent.
O
77. Among group 16 hydrides, the maximum
C CH==CH—OH
dissociationH (H–E)/kJmol–1 is : CH3
(1) H2O (2) H2S (3) H2Se (4) H2Te (3) (4)

78. For the reactions :

82. The correct sequene of reagents for the following
kI
(i) A  P –+
R ONa
k II
(ii) B   Q , following observations are made :
O
(1) KMnO4/OH, (II) Red P + Cl2, (III) HCO3H
(2) (I) O3, Zn–H2O, (II) NaOI,
Concentration

Concentration

2M 2M OH
(III) N2H4, KOH/ HO
1M 1M (3) (I) O3, H2O2, (II) HIO4, (III) ZnHg/HCl
0.5 M [A] [B] (4) KMnO4/H, (II) Red P + Cl2, (III) HCO3H
30 60 30 83. Which of the following order is correct ?
Time (min) Time (min) (1) Lewis Basic character : NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 <
SbH3
kI (2) Bond dissociation energy : HF < HCl < HBr <
Calculate k , where k I and K II are rate HI
II
(3) Thermal stability : H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
constant for the respective reaction.
(4) Bond angle : CH4 > SiH4 > GeH4 > SnH4
(1) 2.303 (2) 1 (3) 0.36 (4) 0.693
84. Which of the following dibromides would yields
79. What will be the order of a reaction for a 2-butyne upon elimination ?
chemical change having log t1/2 v/s log a graph
as shown : (a = concentration of reactant, Br Br
t1/2 = half life of reaction) Br
Br Br Br Br
A B Br
C D
(1) C (2) B and C (3) B and D (4) A
45°
log t1/2 85. Among the given following, the number of
compounds which shows iodoform test.
O OH O
log a
, , , , CH3
OH OH
(1) Zero order (2) First order
(3) Second order (4) None of these
O O
80. Amongst the following, the most stable complex CHO
in : , ,
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
(3) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– (4) [FeCl6]3– (1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

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86. The hydrogen halides which shows highest pKa
BIOLOGY
value is :
91. MTPs are considered relatively safe :
(1) HF (2) HCl
(1) during the second trimester of pregnancy
(3) HBr (4) HI (2) upto 24 weeks of pregnancy
87. The IUPAC n ame of the compl ex (3) during the first trimester of pregnancy
[Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2 is :
(4) Both ‘2’ and ‘3’
(1) Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt (III) chloride 92. Assertion (A) : Incomplete dominance made it
(2) Tetraammineaquachlorocobalt (II) chlorine possible to distinguish heterogyzous from
homozygous.
(3) Tetraaquaaminecobalt (II) chloride Reason (R) : In incomplete dominance F1 had a
(4) Tetraaminechlorinecobalt (III) chloride phenotype that did not resemble either of the
two parents and was in between the two.
CH2OH (1) Both (A) and (B) are true and (R) is correct
explanation of (A).
SOCl2 Mg CH 2==O
88. X Y Z
dry ether H3O
 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
Select the correct statement with respect to (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
product Z is : (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
93. Match the following Column and select the
(1) ‘Z’ is a carbonyl compound
correct option.
(2) Product ‘Z’ is a homologous of reactant Column I Column II
(3) Product ‘Z’ gives iodoform test A. RNAi I. Cellular defense
(4) ‘Z’ is a secondary alcohol B. PCR II. Gene therapy
C. Adenosine deaminase III. Detection of HIV
89. Assertion (A) : [CoF6]3– is paramagnetic.
deficiency infection
Reason (R) : Co 3+ has 3d6 outer electronic D. Bt cotton IV. Bacillus
configuration due to weak field ligand of F , the Θ thuringiensis
unpaired electron do not pair up. (1) (A-II), (B-III), (C-I), (D-IV)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are ture and (R) is the correct (2) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-I), (D-III)
explanation of (A). (3) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-II)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the (4) (A-I), (B-III), (C-II), (D-IV)
correct explanation of (A). 94. Which of the following statement is/are not
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. correct regarding origin of life ?
A. Life appeared 500 million years after the
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
formation of earth, i.e., almost 4.5 billion
90. In the following reaction : years back.

xA yB B. Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England

proposed that the first form of life could have
come from pre-existing non-living inorganic
 d[A]   d[B] 
log    log    0.301 molecules.
 dt   dt 
C. Th e co nditions on earth w ere – hi gh
‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively can be : temperature, volcanic storms and non-
reducing atmosphere.
(1) N2O4 and NO2
D. The first non-cellular forms of life could have
(2) C2H4 and C4H8 originated 3 billion years back.
(3) C2H2 and C6H6 (1) A and C only (2) A, B and C

(4) n-Butane and Iso-butane (3) C only (4) D only

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95. I. This is sex-linked recessive disease. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
II. They transmitted from affected female to (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
some of male progeny. (3) Only Statement I is true.
III. In this disease, a single protein that is a part (4) Only Statement II is true.
of the cascade of proteins involved in the 100. Which of the following diseases are completely
clotting of blood is affected. curable if detected early and treated properly ?
III. The heterozygou s fe male (carrie r) for (1) Genital herps, syphilis, genital warts
haemophilia may transmit the disease to the
(2) Genital warts, chlamydiasis, syphilis
sons.
(3) Heptatitis-B, gonorrhoea, genital warts
Which of the above statements are incorrect with
respect to haemophilia ? (4) Genital herps, hepatitis-B, HIV infections
101. Match the following Column.
(1) Only II (2) II, III and IV
Column I Column II
(3) Only IV (4) None of the above
A. High copy number I. Insertional inactivation
96. A neuron is a microscopic structure composed
B. Ca2+ II. Bacteriophage
of three major parts, namely :
C. 42°C III. Heat shock
(1) Axon, dendrites and Impulse
D. -galactosidase IV. Competence
(2) Ne urotransmitter, nodes o f Ranvie r,
(1) (A-I), (B-II), (C-III), (D-IV)
Schwann cells
(2) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-III), (D-I)
(3) Cell body, axon and nissl’s granules
(3) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-I), (D-III)
(4) Cell body, dendrites and axon
(4) (A-II), (B-IV), (C-III), (D-I)
97. Which contrasting traits is not studied by
102. Select the mismatch pair.
Mendel in pea ?
(1) Joining of nucleotides — Endonuclease.
(1) Stem height — Tall/dwarf
(2) Joining okazaki fragments — DNA ligase.
(2) Pod colour — Green/Red
(3) RNA Primer — Primase.
(3) Flower colour — Violet/White (4) Opening of DNA — Helicase.
(4) Flower position — Axial/terminal 103. The cerebellum integrates information received
98. Match List I with List II. from the :
List I List II (1) semicircular canals of the ear
(2) amygdala and hippocampus
A. Follicular phase I. Secretory phase
(3) auditory system
B. Myometrium II. Proliferative phase
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘3’
C. Luteal phase III. External th in
membranous layer 104. Given below are two statement. One is labelled
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R).
D. Perimetrium IV. Thick layer of smooth
Assertion (A) : All copulations do not lead to
muscle
fertilisation and pregnancy.
Choose the correct answer from the options Reason (R) : Fertilisation can only occur if the
given below : ovum and sperms are transported
(1) (A-I), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-III) simultaneously to the infundibulum region.
(2) (A-I), (B-III), (C-II), (D-IV) In the light of above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(3) (A-II), (B-III), (C-I), (D-IV)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) (A-II), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-III)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
99. Statement I : For recessive autosomal disease correct explanation of (A).
both parents are normal and their first son is (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
diseased.
Statement-II : Gynacomastia is observed in (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
turner’s syndrome. explanation of (A).

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105. Match the following Column and select the 110. Neurons are excitable cells because their
correct option. membranes are in :
Column I Column II (1) Hyperpolarised state
A. Phenylalanine I. GGG (2) Polarised state
(3) Depolarised state
B. Glycine II. UCU
(4) Repolarised state
C. Methionine III. CCC
111. Given below are two statements :
D. Serine IV. AUG
Statement I : During ice age between 1,00,000
E. Proline V. UUU – 75000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose.
(1) (A-I), (B-III), (C-II), (D-IV), (E-V) Statement II : The skull of baby human is more
like adult chimpanzee skull than adult human
(2) (A-V), (B-IV), (C-III), (D-II), (E-I) skull.
(3) (A-V), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-II), (E-III) In the light of above statements, choose the
(4) (A-I), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-II), (E-V) correct answer from the options given below :
106. How many years ago dinosaurs suddenly (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
disappeared from the earth ? correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) About 350 million years ago incorrect.
(2) About 65 million years ago (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) About 200 million years ago incorrect.
(4) About 320 million years ago (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
107. Which among the following is more susceptible
112. In humans, the part of a neuron which is
to HIV infection ?
responsible for receiving stimuli in a chemical
(1) One who avoids sex with unknown partners. synpase is/are :
(2) One who does not share injection needles (1) Nissl’s granules (2) Axon
with others. (3) Axon terminals (4) Dendrites
(3) One who uses condoms during coitus. 113. Which of the following is not an application of
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
(4) One who uses ‘once a week’ pill
(1) Gene amplification.
108. RNA interference is used for which of the
(2) Molecular diagnosis.
following purposes in the field of biotechnology
to : (3) Detection of gene mutation in gene in
suspected cancer patient too.
(1) Develop a plant tolerant to abiotic stresses
(4) Purification of isolated protein.
(Cold, drought, salt).
114. Choose the incorrect labelling in the given figure.
(2) Develop a pest-resistant plant against Transcription start site
infestation by nematode.
B A
(3) Enhance the mineral usage by the plant. 3' C D 5'
(4) Reduce post harvest losses. 5' 3'
E
109. Assertion (A) : Enzyme galactosidase converts (1) A – Terminator (2) B – Promoter
galactose into lactose. (3) C – Structural gene (4) D – Coding strand
Reason (R) : -galactosidase coding sequence act 115. Identify the wrong statement with regards to
as a selectable marker. restriction enzyme.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct (1) They cut each of the two strands of double
explanation of (A). helix at palindromic sites.
(2) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true about (R) is not correct
explanation of (A). (3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
polymerase.
(3) Only (A) is false.
(4) Each restricti on e nzy me function by
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.

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116. Choose the correct option showing arrangement 123. Which of the following statement are incorrect
of cranial menings from outer to inner side : with respect to salient features of Human
(1) Dura mater – Arachnoid – Pia mater Genome ?
(2) Archnoid – Piamater – Duramater (1) Less than 2% of the genome code for protein.
(3) Piamater – Arachnoid – Duramater (2) More than 2% of the genome code for protein.
(4) Duramater – Pia mater – Arachnoid
(3) The function are unknown for over 50% of
117. All of the following can be grounds for medical discovered genes.
termination of pregnancy in India, except :
(4) Repeated sequence make up very large
(1) If the foetus is found to be female.
portion of the human genome.
(2) When continuation of pregnancy could be
fatal to the mother. 124. Match List I with List II.
(3) To get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to List I List II
failure of contraceptive used during coitus.
A. Neanderthal Man I. probably ate meat
(4) If the child were born, it would suffer from
physical abnormalities. B. Homo habilis II. lived in East African
grasslands
118. In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid
vector must be cleaved by : C. Australopithecines III. probably did not eat
(1) modified DNA ligase meat
(2) a heated alkaline solution D. Homo erectus IV. lived in near east and
(3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ central Asia.
(4) the same enzyme that cleaves the donor gene. Choose the correct answer from the options
119. How many of the conntraceptive devices given below :
mentioned below does not require expert (1) (A-II), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-III)
nurses/doctors for its/their insertion ?
(2) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-III), (D-I)
LNG–20, Lippes loop, Diaphragm, Implants,
Condoms, Vaults, Cervical caps. (3) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-II), (D-I)
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5 (4) (A-II), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-I)
120. The right and left cerebral hemispheres in 125. Statement I : The mini-satellite numbers
humans are connected by a tract of nerve fibres remain same from chromosome to chromosome
called : in an individual.
(1) Corpora quadrigemina Statement II : The VNTR belong to a class of
(2) Cerebral aqueduct satellite DNA reffered to as mini-satellite.
(3) Corpus callosum (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Cranial meaninges (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
121. Assertion (A) : Genetic codes are unambigous &
(3) Only Statement I is true.
specific.
Reason (R) : Some amino acid are coded by more (4) Only Statement II is true.
than one codon. 126. Mark the mismatch pair.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct (1) Satellite DNA  these sequences show
explanation of (A). hig h de gree of
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct polymorphism.
explanation of (A).
(2) Repetitive DNA  small peaks of DNA.
(3) Only (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Polymorphism  variation of genetic level.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) SNPs  sin gle nucl eoti de
122. Second meiotic division in secondary Oocyte
phosphate.
results in the formation of :
(1) First polar body and a haploid ovum. 127. In human females, fluid filled cavity called
antrum is absent in :
(2) Second polar body and a diploid ovum.
(3) First polar body and a diploid ovum. (1) Mature follicle (2) Primary follicle

(4) Second polar body and a haploid ovum. (3) Graffian follicle (4) Tertiary follicle

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128. Which of the following is not appropriately 132. Match the following Column and select the
describes sickle-cell anaemia ? correct option.
(1) Dominant genetic disorder. Column I Column II
A. Cytokinin I. Promote fl owering in
(2) HbA HbS – Individual appear apparently pineapple.
unaffected but they are carrier.
B. Ethylene II. Increase in the length of
(3) HbA HbS – 50% probability of transmission of graphe stalks.
mutant gene to the progeny. C. Auxin III. Ove rcoming apical
(4) Caused by substitution of ‘Glu’ by ‘Val’ at the dominance.
sixth position of beta chain of Hb. D. GA IV. Promote female flower
formation in cucumber.
129. Observe the given flow chart.
(1) (A-II), (B-I), (C-III), (D-IV)
Spermatogonia
Mitosis differentiation (2) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-II), (D-I)
A (3) (A-III), (B-II), (C-I), (D-IV)
Meiosis-I
(4) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-II)
B
Meiosis-II 133. Which of the following is not a natural or
Spermatids traditional method of contraception ?
Differentiation (1) Coitus interrupts
C (2) Periodic abstinence
Choose the correct option which correctly (3) Lactational amenorrhea
represents A, B and C.
(4) Lippes loop
(1) A – Se condary spermato cyte (2n ), 134. The depolarisation of axonal membrane is due
B – Spermatozoa, C – Sperms (n) to :
(2) A – Primary spermatocyte (n), B – Secondary (1) efflux of sodium ions
spermatocyte(2n), C – Spermatozoa(n) (2) efflux of potassium ions
(3) A – Se condary spe rmatocyte (n ), (3) influx of sodium ions
B – Spermatozoa, C – Spermatogonia (4) influx of potassium ions
(4) A – Primary spermatocyte (2n), B – Secondary 135. Match the following Column and seleclt the
spermatocyte (n), C – Spermatozoa (n) correct option.
Column I Column II
130. Gnetales evolved from :
A. tobacco roots I. Thermus aquaticus
(1) Chlorophyte ancestors
B. Cry protein II. Meloidegyne
(2) Tracheophyte ancestors incognitia.
(3) Psilophyton C. DNA polymerase III. Salmonella

(4) Rhynia – type plants typhimurium

D. Construction of 1st IV. Bacillus
131. How many of the given statements are correct?
rDNA molecule thuringiensis.
(i) Gibberellins delay senescence. (1) (A-II), (B-I), (C-III), (D-IV)
(ii) GA3 is used to speed up the malting process (2) (A-II), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-III)
in brewing industry. (3) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-I), (D-III)
(iii) All gibberellins are acidic. (4) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-II)
(iv)Gibberellins, cause a fruit like apple to 136. How many of the hormones given in the box below
elongate and improve its shape. are secreted by a healthy non-pregnant adult
female ?
(v) Plant growth is measurable.
Estrogen, hCG, Progesterone, hPL, Relaxin
(1) One (2) Two (1) Five (2) Three
(3) Three (4) Five (3) Two (4) Four

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137. Which of the following is/are function(s) of 142. Match List I with List II.
association areas present in cerebrum ?
A. Cleavage I. Mi toti c di vision of
A. Memory zygote
B. Cardiovascualr reflexes B. Inner cell mass II. Outer l ayer of
blastocyst attached to
C. Communication
the endometrium
D. Intersensory associations C. Implantation III. Grou p of cells that
(1) A, C and D (2) A and C only would differentiate as
embryo
(3) C and D only (4) D only
D. Trophoblast IV. Embedding of
138. The incorre ct state ment with re gard to blastocyst in the
Haemophilia is : endometrium
(1) It is recessive disease. (1) (A-I), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-II)
(2) It is a sex-linked disease. (2) (A-I), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-III)
(3) A single protein involved in the clotting of (3) (A-II), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-I)
blood is affected.
(4) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-I), (D-III)
(4) It is autosomal-linked disease.
143. In gene therapy, DNA is inserted into a cell to
139. In Miller’s experiment, he used a mixture of CH4, compensate for :
NH3, H2 and water vapour in a closed flask to
mimic early earth conditions. What was the (1) the lack of copy DNA and RNA
temperature at which this flask was kept ? (2) holes in the DNA made by viruses.
(1) 400°C (2) 1200°C (3) mutant alleles.
(3) 800°C (4) 1000°C (4) the absence of plasmid.
140. Which of the following is an example of homology ? 144. A type of natural selection in which more
individuals acquire peripheral character value
(1) Eye of the octopus and of mammals
at both ends of distribution curve is :
(2) Wings of butterfly and of birds (1) Disruptive selection
(3) Tho rns o f Cucurbita and tendrils of (2) Directional selection
Bougainvillae
(3) Stabilising selection
(4) Vertebrate hearts of brains.
(4) Both ‘1’ and ‘3’

145.
141.

I II

Mark the correct term with respect to given

Given pedigree ‘I’ and ‘II’ shows the inheritance
figure.
of a particular genetical disorder. Choose the
(1) Masculine development correct combination.
(2) Disorder is caused due to absence of one of I II
the X-chromosome.
(1) Myotonic dystrophy Sickle cell Anaemia
(3) Disorder is caused due to presence of
(2) Sickle cell Anaemia Myotonic dystrophy
additional copy of X-chromosome.
(3) Colour blindness Sickle cell Anaemia
(4) Disorder is caused due to presence of an
additional copy of the chromosome number 21. (4) Sickle cell Anaemia Colour blindness

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146. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 151. Voluntary termination of pregnancy is risky at
(1) Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a 19th week of pregnancy, thus it is :
little away from the centre of palindrome site,
(1) Done after opinion of two registered medical
but between the same two bases on the
practitioners.
opposite strands.
(2) Modern biotechnology using GMO was made (2) Done by unqualified quacks legally.
possible only when man learnt to alter the
(3) Not done in any condition.
chemistry of DNA and construct recombinant
DNA. (4) Done after opinion of one registered medical
(3) Cloning site is responsible for controlling the practitioners.
copy number of the linked DNA.
152. Fill in the blanks.
(4) None of the above.
147. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of A. The lac operon consists of one regulatory
heterozygous individual is represented by : i
gene-i gene where ‘i’ refer to .
(1) 2pq (2) pq (3) q2 (4) p2
B. In lac operon ‘Z’ gene code for ii ‘Y’ gene
148. A selectable marker is used to :
(1) Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation code for iii and ‘a’ gene code for iv .
using a restriction enzyme.
Choose the correct option given below.
(2) Select a suitable vector for transformation in
a specific crop. (1) i – inhibitor; ii – -galactosidase
(3) Identify the gene for the desired trait in an (2) i – operator; iii – permease.
alien organism.
(3) i – inhibitor; iv – permease.
(4) Help in eliminating and identifying the non-
transformants so that the transformants can (4) i – operator; iii – transacetylase.
be regenerated. 153. Statement I : hnRNA is subjected to a processing
149. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to called splicing, capping and tailing.
Goal of “HGP”.
Statement II : In eukaryotes, the primary
(1) Identify all the approximately 25,000 – 30,000 transcripts called hnRNA is non-functional.
genes in human DNA.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Store this information databases.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Transfer related technologies to other
sectors, such as industries. (3) Only Statement I is true.
(4) Improve tools for data analysis. (4) Only Statement II is true.
150. How many of the following statement is/are 154. Identify ‘A’ in the given figure of human foetus
incorrect regarding generation and conduction within the uterus :
of nerve impulse ?
A. The electrical potential difference across the
resting plasma membrane is called as the
action potential.
B. Different types of ion channels are present
A
on the neural membrane.
Embryo
C. Na+ – K+ pump transports 3Na+ outwards and
2K+ inwards
D. When a neuron is not conducting any
impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane
is comparitively more permeable to K+
(1) 4 (2) 1
(1) Yolk sac (2) Cavity of uterus
(3) 3 (4) 2
(3) Placental villi (4) Umbilical cord

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155. Select the correct match : (3) (A-II), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-I)
(1) Menstruation — Middle layer of uterus (4) (A-II), (B-III), (C-I), (D-IV)
undergo es maximum 160. Given below are two statements – one is labelled
changes. as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R).
(2) Parturition — In duce d by a compl ex Assertion : Comparative biochemistry provides
ne uro endocri ne a strong evidence in favour of common ancestory
me chan ism involvi ng of living beings.
cortisol.
Reason : It is the study of evolutionary
(3) Mons pubis — Fleshy folds of tissue. relationship between organisms.
(4) Labia Majora — Cusion of fatty tissue. In the light of above statements, choose the
156. Mother has B+ blood group, the father has A+ and correct answer from the options given below :
child is A what can be genotypes of all three
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
respectively ?
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
A. IBi, IAIA, IBi B. IAIA, IBi, IAIB
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
C. IBi, IAi, IAi D. IBIA, IAi, IAi
B B A A A
correct explanation of (A).
E. I I , I I , I i
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Choose the correct option. explanation of (A).
(1) A and B (2) C and D (3) C and E (4) A and E 161. Choose the not incorrect match pair.
157. Recombinant DNA technology involves several (1) Cytokinin — Tea plantation
steps in specific sequence such as :
(2) ABA — First isolated from human
I. Isolation of DNA.
urine
II. Fragme ntation of D NA by restricti on
(3) Auxin — Stress hormone
exonucleases.
III. Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector. (4) Ethephon — Female flower in cucumber.
IV. Culturing the host cells in a medium at small 162. Match the following Column. Select the correct
scale. option.
V. Extraction of desired product. Column I Column II
Choose the correct steps. A. H.H.Cousins I. Fo olish se edli ng
(1) I, III and V (2) II, III and IV disease of rice.
(3) I, II and IV (4) I, II, III and V B. F.W.Went II. Biassay of Auxin.
158. Which of the following statement is not correct C. F.Skoog and Miller III. Release of ethylene
regarding evolution ? gas.
(1) When we look at stars on a clear night sky D. E.Kurosawa IV. Crystallized the
we are, looking back in time kinetin.
(2) Stellar distances are measured in kilometres Select the correct option.
(3) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the (1) (A-III), (B-II), (C-IV), (D-I)
universe (2) (A-II), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-I)
(4) The universe is very old-almost 20 billion (3) (A-I), (B-III), (C-II), (D-IV)
years old. (4) (A-III), (B-II), (C-I), (D-IV)
159. Match List I with List II. 163. A major coordinating center for sensory and
List I List II motor signaling in the human brain is shown
A. Infundibulum I. Help in collection of the in the given sagittal section by the :
ovum after ovulation.
B. Isthmus II. Part closer to the ovary F

C. Fimbriae III. It joins the uterus

D. Ampulla IV. Wider part of the
oviduct
Choose the correct answer from the options D E
given below : C
(1) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-I) B
A
(2) (A-I), (B-II), (C-III), (D-IV) (1) D (2) A (3) E (4) B and C

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164. What is the total number of polar bodies formed 171. Which of the following is not correct for cerebrum ?
during oogenesis in the ovary of pregnant female (1) A deep cleft di vide s th e ce rebrum
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3 longitudinally into two halves.
165. The only gaseous hormones in plants except : (2) Forms the major part of the human brain.
(1) promote ripening of fruits. (3) The layer of cells which covers the cerebral
(2) promote senescence of plant part. hemisphere is called cerebral cortex.
(3) incre ases number of fe male flow er in (4) Has very convoluted surface in order to
cacumber. provide the additional space for many more
neurons.
(4) induces dormancy of seed and bud.
172. Apical dominance is :
166. Lamarck’s theory of evolution is also called :
(1) due to cytokinin at the tip.
(1) Embryological support for evolution
(2) counter acted by auxin.
(2) Survival of the fittest
(3) increase the yield of leaves in tea plantation.
(3) Natural selection
(4) explained as a phenomenon by which
(4) None of these presence of apical bud does not allow the
167. During geometric growth, the rate of growth is hearby lateral bud to grow lateral.
very fast in : 173. Identify the incorrect match pair.
(1) lag-phase (2) log-phase (1) Jawless fish — evolved around 320 mya.
(3) stationary-phase (4) all of these (2) Neanderthal man — buried their dead.
168. Given below are two statements : (3) Australopithecines — essentially ate fruit.
Statement I : The urinary bladder originates (4) Homo erectus — large brain around 900 cc.
from the urethra and extends through the penis
to its external opening called urethral meatus. 174. Which technique is used to detect given
phenomenon ?
Statemen t II : Th e re gio ns i nsi de the
I. It is routinely used to detect HIV in suspected
seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces,
AIDs patients.
contain small blood vessels and leydig cells.
II. It is being used to detect mutations in genes
In the light of above statements, choose the in suspected cancer patients.
correct answer from the options given below :
III. It is a powerful technique to identify many
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are other genetic disorder.
incorrect. (1) ELSI (2) PCR
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) Widal test (4) Montoux test
incorrect. 175. Which plant growth hormone help to initiate
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are rooting in stem cuttings and widely used for plant
correct. propagation ?
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Cytokinins (2) Auxins
correct. (3) Gibberellins (4) ABA
169. The limbic system is formed by : 176. To attain reproductive health as a social goal,
A. Pons B. Hippocampus India first initiated the action plans and
programmes at a national level in the year :
C. Inner parts of cerebral hemispheres
(1) 1971 (2) 1951
D. Cerebrum E. Amygdala
(3) 1950 (4) 2011
(1) B, C and E (2) B, C, D and E
177. Identify the phytohormone on the basis of given
(3) C only (4) B and E only
statement.
170. The hormone which induce stem elongation is
A. Occurs in the region where rapid cell division
rosette plant and cabbages :
occurs.
(1) decreases the size of apple.
B. Chemically it is modified purine.
(2) inhance ripening.
C. Miller etal discovered it.
(3) decreasing malting process in brewing
D. Delay senescence.
industries.
(1) ABA (2) GA
(4) delay senescence.
(3) Ethylene (4) Cytokinin
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178. Wh ich of the follo win g ho rmon es act 180. Which of the following term used to refer to the
synergistically to accelerate abscission ? use of bio-resources by multinational companies
(1) ABA & Ethylene (2) ABA and GA and oth er o rgan isation with out proper
authorisation from countries and people
(3) GA & Cytokinin (4) ABA and Auxin concerned without compensantory payment ?
179. Cry I Ab controls : (1) Biopiracy
(1) Cotton bollworm (2) Wheat stem borer (2) Bioprocessing
(3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ (4) Corn borer
(3) Down stream processing
(4) GEAC

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 SPOT TEST SERIES
for

NEET 2025
Test - 03rd
Date : 31.01.2025

PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
BIOLOGY

Contact. Office: B-58, Buddha Colony, Patna - 800 001, Tel. : 0612-3508700, Website : www.goalinstitute.org
 SOLUTION SPOT TEST SERIES - 03, NEET - 31.01.2025

PHYSICS V2
13. R l2  P
R
k  2p kp
04. Ex  , Ey  ,  Pl2 = constant
x 3 y3
2
P1  l2 
Ex 1  P   l  = 32 = 9
 2  1
E y 4 , 4Ex = Ey
PA
  9, PA = 9 × PB = 9 × 6 = 54 W
k  2p kp PB
 4 
x3 y3
18
14. I = 1A,
2  4  12
8 1 x3 x
 2 :1
  , 8,
x 3
y 3
y 3 y V = 18 – 2 × 1 = 16 volt
15. IgG = (I – Ig)s,
q net 20nc  86.55nC  40nC
05. A   20  103 1
0 0 s   103  = 0.25 × 10–3 
80 4
 s = 2.5 × 10–4 
26.55  109
 = 3 × 103
8.85  1012 N
19. nI = 2 × 104,  I  2  10 4 ,
l
 A = 3 × 103 Nm2C–1
2  104 2  104
36 I  = 10 A
07. V6F   18 = 24 volt,  80  2000
27  2 
 4  10 
q6µF = 24 × 6 × 10–6 = 144 × 10–6 C = 144 µC

Kq1 K(12  q1 ) 0 2M 7 2  7.5  1027

 20. B  3  10 
08.
10  10 2 30  10 2
4 x (0.25  1010 )3

 3q1 = 12 – q1, 4q1 = 12, q1 = 3µC 15  1034

 = 15 × 64 × 10–4 = 960 × 10–4
q2 = 9 µC, 1 30
 10
64
1 3  106 4(30  102 )2 = 9.6 × 10–2 T
  =3:1
2 4(10  102 )2 9  10 6
F1 V1 F 1 V1 1
11. R = R1 + R2 21. Fq V B  F  V2
  ,
V

81
2 9F 9 2

s (l  2l ) l 4  2l
   V2
A A A   81:1
V1
9l
 s × 3l = 9l  s  = 3 e
3l 23. I = e = e × 2n,
T
12. I2 × 8 = 32 × 4.2, I2 = 4 × 4.2,
0 2I 0 e  2n 20 en
B    
2 2 4 r' 2 r /2
I I 6 r
  6 = I2 × 1.5 = 4 × 4.2 × 1.5
2 4
20en
 B
= 6 × 4.2 J/s = 6 cal/sec. r

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 l
 r , r
l  q q2  d
24. l = 2r, , 39. F q  q 
2 2 2 0 2A 0 2 0 A  d

l
M m , q2 q2 (CV)2 CV 2
2   = 
0 A 2Cd 2Cd 2d
2 d
l ml 2M d
M = m × 2r  m  2    A 2A
2    A 0 K  0
40. C 0 , C  3, C  3
d 1
d
2
d
2M
 M' 
 0 KA 2 0 A
 Ceq = C1 + C2  
3d 3d
 BAN 5  104  0.2  600
27.   = 1.5 volt 0 KA  2 0 A 0 A
t t 0.04   (K  2)
3d 3d

6.6  103 C
29. Is  = 0.3 A  C eq  (K  2)
22  10 3 3
41. VA – 3 × 5 – 9 – 3 × 8 + 6 – 4 × 3 = VB
0 2(2a) I  2
2  4a I 2 = VA – 15 – 9 – 24 + 6 – 12
30. B  2 2 3/2
 0 (l  2a)  VA – VB = 60 – 6 = 54 volt.
4 [(2a)  l ] 4 l3
42. B = µ0nI = 4 × 10–7 × 1600 × 6 = 1.2 × 10–2 T
= MI, = BA
 0 2I  0I 2BR
2 44. B   , I ,
0 2  4a I 4 R 2R 0
   (2a)2  MI
4 l3
2 2BR 2R 3B
M = R2I  R  
0    16a 4 80 a 4 0 0
 M 
2l 3 l3 18 18
45. I  = 2 × 10–2 A,
31. Smax = E0H0 = 200 × 0.36 = 72 W/m2 600  300 900
E 9 VB = 2 × 10–2 × 300 = 6 volt, VB = 6 volt.
33. B  = 3 × 10–8 T
c 3  108
CHEMISTRY

34. cB0 = E0 B0  E0  B0 = E0K 46. On passing electricity through dilute Na 2SO 4
K solution, H2 and O2 gases are liberated at cathbode
and anode respectively according to following
0 2I1I2  10 7  2  4  2  1.5 reaction :
35. F1   l
4 d 4  10 2 at anode :
= 6 × 10–5 N towards A, 1
2OH
(aq)  O2 (g)  H2O(l )  2e
228 2
F2  10 7   1.5 = 3 × 10–5 N towards B, nfactor  4
16  10 2 at cathode :
Fnet = 6 × 10–5 – 3 × 10–5 = 3 × 10–5 N towards A
2H  2e  H2 (g)
36. W = MB(cos 1 – cos 2) = MB(cos 0° – cos 60°) nfactor  2

1 Number of equivalent of H2 = Number of equivalent

 MB  2 3 of O2
2
 2  nH2  4  nO2
 MB  4 3 ,
nH2 4 2
3  n 2 
= MB sin = MB sin 60°  2 3  2  =6 O2 1
2
mass of H2 22 1
 = 6 N-m.  mass of O  1  32 
2 8
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47. During electrolysis of aqueous CusO4 solution.
55. 2H (aq.)  2e  H2 (g)

Cations : Cu2+ H(aq)

+
PH
(aq)
0.06
E   Eo   log 2 at 25°C
(Discharged H |H2 H |H2 n
at catbhode)
[H ]

Anions : SO24(aq.)

OH(aq.) 0.06 5
0 log 2
(Discharged 2 1
at anode)
= –0.03 × log 5 = –0.021
By-product : H2SO4
56. [NCERT (Pg. 258)]
as [H2SO4] pH 
57. Tertiary halide do not undergo Williamson ether
synthesis because it undergo elemination to form
N.B.S.

aq. K OH alkene as a major product.
48. CH3—CH==CH2 CH2—CH==CH2 CH2 == CH—CH2
Br X Y OH 58. [NCERT (Pg. 256)]
P.C.C. (Z)
59. During electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 solution
CH2 == CH—CHO
(Acrolein) using Cu(active) – electrode, oxidation of Cu(s)
takes place at anode.
51. Eo   0.76 V ; Eo  0.76 V
Zn2 |Zn Zn|Zn 2  Cu(s)  Cu2 (aq.)  2e

Eo  0.80 V ; Eo  0.80 V 60.  2 2 1

Ag |Ag Ag |Ag m [Ba ]  137 Scm mol

Eo  0.34 V ; Eo   0.34 V 
[Ba 2 ] 
137
 68.5 Scm2 eq 1
Cu2 |Cu Cu|Cu2  eq.
2
 Zn has higher oxidation potential than Ag and
2 1
Cu.  
m [Cl ]  71 Scm mol
 Ag+ and Cu2+ have higher reduction potential
than Zn2+ 
eq [Cl  ] 
71
Scm2 eq 1 = 71 Scm2 eq–1
1
Therefore; Zn oxidises itself and reduces Ag+ and
Cu2+. 2
   
eq [BaCl2 ]   eq [Ba ]   eq [Cl ]
52. [NCERT (Pg. 252/253)]
53. [NCERT (Pg. 211/212/213)] = 68.5 + 71
= 139.5 Scm2 eq–1
54. A  B
61. t 1  a1n .... (1)
Initial : 0.8 mole 0 2

Final : 0.4 mol 0.4 mol According to question,

a  t 1 = constant
t 1  1 hour 2
 2

1
 t 12 
Again, A  B a
Initial : 1 mol 0 1
Final : 0.125 mol 0.875 mol  t 12  a .... (2)

Comparing (1) & (2),

t1 t4 t1
2 2 2
1 mol  0.5 mol  0.25 mol  0.125 mol 1 – n = –1

3 t 1 = 3 × 1 hour = 3 hour.  n2

2

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62. This is cross aldol condensation reaction. for 0.05 M unknown solution :

1 1
K  G   102  10 2 = 1.02 × 10–2 –1 m–1
–Ea R 100
Slope =
2.303 R
log K
K  1000 1.02  102  1000 1 2
63.    cm mol 1
C 0.05
1
10.2 1020
T   = 204 –1 cm2 mol–1
0.05 5
According to question, 73. [NCERT (Pg. 169)]
Ea 74. [NCERT (Pg. 217)]
–   3000
2.303R
 Ea = 3000 × 2.303 R  

:
CH3 :OH H/HSO 4 CH3 OH2
3000  2.303  2 75. CH3—C—–CH—CH3 + H2SO4 CH3—C—–CH—CH3
 Kcal mol 1
1000 CH3 CH3
–H2O
= 3 × 2.303 × 2 Kcal mol–1
CH3
= 13.818 Kcal mol–1  1,2-Me 
CH3—C—–CH—CH3 Shift CH 3—C—–CH—CH3
64. The cell in which any of the electrode compartment
CH3 CH3 CH3
contains Ag+, Pb2+ or Hg2+ then KCl cannot be used
in salt bridge as electrolyte. M.S. L.S.
HSO4
66. [NCERT (Pg. 257/252/232)] CH3—C== C—CH3 + H2SO4
CH3 CH3
O Cl 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene
CH2CH 3 COOH C CHO

KMnO4 SOCl2 Pd/BaSO 4 76. [NCERT (Pg. 173)]

KOH, 
77. [NCERT (Pg. 188)]
67. K3[Cr(C2O4)3] 3K+ + [Cr(C2O4)3]3– 78. k
1  P (Ist order)
A 
Oxidation state of Cr x + 3 (–2) = –3
k
II  Q (zero order)
x = +3 B 
Cr3+  [Ar]3d3 4s0
2.303 2
log  
kI 30 min 1
  0.693
k II (2  1)M
69. [NCERT (Pg. 162)]
30 min
70. Number of equivalent of Cu = Number of equivalent
of O2 79. Here, t1/2 a (zero order)
WCu 2800 80. [NCERT (Pg. 266)]
 2 4
63.5 22400 81. A Yellow ppt. gives (I2 + NaOH), then definitely

 WCu = 15.875 g compound A is methyl keto group containing

72. For 0.1 M KCl solution : compound. According to given options.

K = 1.20 × 10–2 –1 cm–1 82. [NCERT (Pg. 200/240/231)]

R = 85 
O3/Zn—H2O NaOI
O O
1
K   G*
R O O
N 2H 4 – + + CHI3
Cell constant G* = K × R = 1.20 × 10–2 × 85 ONa KOH / OH ONa
–+ OH
O
= 102 × 10–2

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 Br H
BIOLOGY
91. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 46]
Base
+ 2HBr
84.  94. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 111]
H
Br 96. [NCERT (Class-11) Pg. 231]
98. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 30]
Br 100. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 47]
H 103. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 237]
Base
 
+ 2HBr 104. [NCERT (Class-12) Pg. 35]
H
Br
106. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 124]
107. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 45]
108. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.208]
85. Methyl keto CH3—C— and 2–ol type alcohol
O
109. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-200]
110. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 232]
CH3—C— shows iodoform test.
111. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 125]
OH
112. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 232]
86. [NCERT (Pg. 201)] 113. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-212]
87. [NCERT (Pg. 250)] 115. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-196]
116. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 235]
117. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 46]
O
Cl—S—Cl 118. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-198]
– +
CH2—O H CH2—Cl CH2—MgCl + 119. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 44]
H—C—H
120. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 236]
SO Cl2 Mg O –
88. dry ether
122. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 36]
123. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-120]
CH2—CH2
O
 124. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 124,125]
H—O—H
H 126. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-121]
127. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 32,33]
CH2—CH2—OH
128. [NCERT Old (Class-12th)Pg.-89]
Z 129. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 33]
130. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 122]
132. [NCERT New (Class-11th)Pg.-177]
 d[A]   d[B] 
90. log    log    log 2 133. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 44]
 dt   dt 
134. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 232]

 d[A]   d[B]  135. [NCERT Old (Class-12th)Pg.-208,209]

 log  2    log   136. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 37]
 dt   dt 
137. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 236]
d[A] d[B] 138. [NCERT Old (Class-12th)Pg.-89]
 2  
dt dt 139. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 111]
140. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 114,115]
d[A] 1 d[B]
   . 142. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 36,37]
dt 2 dt
143. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-211]
 The reaction is : A 2B 144. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 121]
145. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg. 88]
i.e. N2O4  2NO2 147. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 121]

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148. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-199] 164. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 32,36]
149. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-118] 165. [NCERT (Pg. 177)]
150. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 232,233] 166. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 119]
151. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 46] 167. [NCERT (Pg. 170)]
152. [NCERT Old (Class-12th)Pg.-116] 168. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 27]
153. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg.-111] 169. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 236]
154. [New NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 37] 170. [NCERT (Pg. 176)]
155. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 30,38,39] 171. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 236]
158. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 111] 172. [NCERT (Pg. 175)]
159. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 29,30] 173. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 122,124,125]
160. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 115,126] 176. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 41]
161. [NCERT (Pg. 177)] 177. [NCERT (Pg. 175)]
162. [NCERT (Pg. 175)] 178. [NCERT (Pg. 139)]
163. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 235] 180. [NCERT (Class-12th)Pg. 214]

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 SPOT TEST - 03 - 31-01-2025 - ANS. KEY
01. (4) 24. (1) 47. (2) 70. (2) 93. (4) 115. (3) 137. (1) 159. (4)
02. (3) 25. (2) 48. (4) 71. (4) 94. (2) 116. (1) 138. (4) 160. (4)
03. (1) 26. (1) 49. (2) 72. (3) 95. (1) 117. (1) 139. (3) 161. (4)
04. (3) 27. (4) 50. (3) 73. (3) 96. (4) 118. (4) 140. (4) 162. (1)
05. (2) 28. (4) 51. (3) 74. (2) 97. (2) 119. (3) 141. (4) 163. (1)
06. (4) 29. (1) 52. (2) 75. (3) 98. (4) 120. (3) 142. (1) 164. (4)
07. (1) 30. (3) 53. (4) 76. (1) 99. (3) 121. (2) 143. (3) 165. (4)
08. (2) 31. (3) 54. (3) 77. (1) 100. (2) 122. (4) 144. (1) 166. (4)
09. (2) 32. (2) 55. (4) 78. (4) 101. (4) 123. (2) 145. (2) 167. (2)
10. (3) 33. (2) 56. (4) 79. (1) 102. (1) 124. (3) 146. (3) 168. (1)
11. (1) 34. (1) 57. (1) 80. (3) 103. (4) 125. (1) 147. (1) 169. (1)
12. (4) 35. (3) 58. (1) 81. (3) 104. (3) 126. (4) 148. (4) 170. (4)
13. (3) 36. (1) 59. (3) 82. (2) 105. (3) 127. (2) 149. (1) 171. (4)
14. (2) 37. (4) 60. (4) 83. (4) 106. (2) 128. (1) 150. (2) 172. (4)
15. (4) 38. (2) 61. (2) 84. (2) 107. (4) 129. (4) 151. (1) 173. (1)
16. (4) 39. (1) 62. (3) 85. (2) 108. (2) 130. (3) 152. (1) 174. (2)
17. (4) 40. (4) 63. (2) 86. (1) 109. (3) 131. (4) 153. (1) 175. (2)
18. (2) 41. (3) 64. (3) 87. (1) 110. (2) 132. (4) 154. (1) 176. (2)
19. (3) 42. (3) 65. (1) 88. (2) 111. (3) 133. (4) 155. (2) 177. (4)
20. (3) 43. (3) 66. (1) 89. (1) 112. (4) 134. (3) 156. (2) 178. (1)
21. (2) 44. (1) 67. (4) 90. (1) 113. (4) 135. (2) 157. (1) 179. (4)
22. (4) 45. (4) 68. (2) 91. (3) 114. (4) 136. (3) 158. (2) 180. (1)
23. (1) 46. (1) 69. (4) 92. (1)

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