SCIENCE CLASS -9 ( MCQ)

Class 09 - Science

1. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter? [1]

A. Particles of matter are in continuous motion.
B. Particles of matters do not have spaces between them.
C. Particles of matter attract each other.
D. Particles of matter are very large in size.

a) All of these b) (A), (B) and (C) is correct.

c) (B) and (C) is correct. d) (A) and (C) is correct.

2. Which of the following statements are correct? [1]
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I. Temperature changes during the change of a state.
II. Dry ice gets converted directly into gaseous state under normal atmospheric conditions.
III. Higher boiling point of liquid indicates weaker intermolecular forces.
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IV. Latent heat of vaporisation is generally higher than the latent heat of fusion for a substance.
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a) II and III only b) I and IV only

c) II and IV only d) III and IV only

3. Which of the following is not a chemical change? [1]
A. Changing of milk into curd
B. Freezing of water
C. Burning of paper
D. Mixing of iron filling & sand

a) (B) and (D) are correct b) All of these

c) (A) and (B) are correct d) (A), (B) and (C) are correct
4. An experiment is performed as shown in the given figure. [1]

The conclusion we can draw from the given experiment is that

i. Nature of matter is continuous
ii. Matter is made up of particles

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 iii. Particles of salt get into the spaces between the particles of water
iv. Both Matter is made up of particles and Particles of salt get into the spaces between the particles of water

a) Statement (iv) is correct. b) Statement (ii) is correct.

c) Statement (i) is correct. d) Statement (iii) is correct.

5. A substance upon heating directly changes into a gaseous state. What is this change called? [1]

a) Condensation b) Fusion

c) Melting d) Sublimation
6. Which of the following factors are responsible for the change of state of solid CO2 into vapours? [1]

a) Decrease in pressure b) Increase in temperature

c) Increase in pressure d) Both decrease in pressure and an increase in

temperature
7. The evaporation of a liquid occurs only at [1]

a) all temperatures b) temperature less than 100oC

c) fixed temperature d) temperature more than 100oC

8. In an endothermic process, heat is absorbed, in an exothermic process heat is evolved and in an athermic [1]
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process, no thermal change is observed. What is the nature of evaporation of ether?

a) First exothermic then endothermic b) Athermic

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c) Exothermic d) Endothermic
9. When water boils its temperature remains the ________. [1]
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a) same b) first increases and then decreases

c) decreases d) increases
10. Choose the correct statements about the plasma state of matter. [1]
I. Plasma state consists of super energetic and super excited particles.
II. The particles of plasma state are in the form of ionised gases.
III. The plasma is created on stars.
IV. Colour of plasma glow depends on the temperature of gas only.

a) I, II and III only b) I and II only

c) II and III only d) I, II, III and IV

11. In the determination of boiling point of water correct reading in the thermometer is noted when : [1]

a) water starts boiling b) temperature starts rising

c) temperature becomes constant d) whole of the water evaporates

12. A brief information about three substances is given in the table. [1]

Substance Melting point Boiling point

P 23oC 60oC

Q 10oC 20oC

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 R 65oC 110oC

Which of the following is incorrect about these substances?

a) At room temperature, substance P will have b) None of these

fixed volume but no fixed shape.

c) At room temperature substance R will have d) At room temperature substance Q will have
strongest interparticle forces. maximum space between the particles.
13. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. [1]

Column I Column II

(a) Liquid (i) Highly compressible

(b) Gas (ii) Definite volume

(c) Plasma (iii) Super low density

(d) Bose-Einstein condensate (iv) Super energetic

a) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) b) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

c) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) d) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
14. Which of the following set of apparatus is required to determine the boiling point of water? [1]
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a) Round bottom flask, burner, thermometer, b) Boiling tube, beaker, thermometer, burner,
wire gauze, stand with clamp, cork with two cork with one hole, stand with clamp, wire
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holes, glass tube gauze

c) Tripod stand, conical flask, thermometer, d) Funnel, burner, clamp and stand, test tube,
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wire gauze, stand with clamp, pair of tongs thermometer, wire gauze
15. In the experiment, determination of melting point of Ice, the reading of the thermometer must be noted when: [1]

a) temperature becomes constant b) whole of the ice gets melted

c) temperature starts rising d) ice starts melting

16. Which type of solution is formed when sand and water are mixed thoroughly and then kept undisturbed for some [1]
time?

a) True solution b) Mixture

c) Colloidal d) Suspension
17. A student mixed the white of an egg with water and stirred it well. After sometimes he observe that: [1]

a) egg white settles down at the bottom b) a transparent solution is formed

c) a translucent mixture is formed d) egg white floats on the surface of the water
18. Which of the following solutions has the highest mass by mass percentage? [1]

a) 20 g of sodium carbonate in 90 g of water b) 15 g of sugar in 160 g of water

c) 10 g of sodium chloride in 200 g of water d) 60 g of potassium permanganate in 200 g of

water
19. Which of the following are physical changes? [1]

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 i. Decaying of wood
ii. Burning of wood
iii. Sawing of wood
iv. Hammering of a nail into a piece of wood

a) (i) and (iv) b) (iii) and (iv)

c) (ii) and (iii) d) (i) and (ii)

20. The substance which does not form a true solution in water is: [1]

a) alum b) egg albumin

c) common salt d) sugar

21. The particles of the colloidal solution are: [1]

a) visible with a powerful microscope b) not visible with a powerful microscope

c) visible with the naked eye d) visible with a simple microscope

22. Fermentation of grapes is an example of [1]

a) Redox reaction b) Reversible change

c) Chemical change d) Physical change

23. To prepare a colloidal solution of starch, we should: [1]
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a) add the thin paste of starch to hot water with b) add starch powder to cold water and boil
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stirring

c) add the starch powder to boiling water and d) heat starch, add it to cold water and then
cool bring it to boil
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24. Which one of the following will result in the formation of a mixture? [1]

a) Breaking of ice cubes into small pieces b) Adding sodium metal to water

c) Agitating a detergent with water in a d) Crushing of a marble tile into small particles
washing machine
25. A student added only two drops of iodine to a rice extract in test tube 'A'. Another student added a little rice [1]
extract to iodine solution in test tube 'B'. They would then observe:

a) no change of colour in any test tube b) a change of colour to blue-black in both

tubes 'A' and 'B'

c) a change of colour to blue-black in test tube d) a change of colour to blue-black in test tube
'B' but not in test tube 'A' 'A' but not in test tube 'B'
26. The maximum amount of sodium that can be obtained by electrolysis of 117 g of sodium chloride is [1]
[Atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Cl = 35.5 u]

a) 40 g b) 52 g

c) 23 g d) 46 g
27. Which of the following statements are incorrect? [1]
i. Dichromate ion is a divalent and positive ion.
ii. Barium ion is trivalent and positive.

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 iii. Solid sulphur is a polyatomic molecule.
iv. Ammonium ion is divalent and positive.

a) i, ii and iv only b) i, ii and iii only

c) iii and iv only d) i and ii only

28. The number of molecules in CuSO4.5H2O bonded by H-bond is [1]

a) 5 b) 3

c) 2 d) 1
29. Calculate the formula unit mass of ZnCl2? (nearest approximation) [1]

a) 111 u b) 123 u

c) 124 u d) 137 u
30. Atomicity of Chlorine and Argon is: [1]

a) Monoatomic and diatomic respectively b) Diatomic and diatomic respectively.

c) Diatomic and monoatomic respectively. d) Monoatomic and monoatomic respectively.

31. 440 g of carbon dioxide can be represented as [1]
i. 5 g mole of carbon dioxide
ii. 10 moles of carbon dioxide
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iii. 6.023 × 1023 molecules of carbon dioxide
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iv. 6.023 × 1024 molecules of carbon dioxide

a) (ii) and (iii) only b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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c) (i) and (ii) only d) (ii) and (iv) only

32. What are a and b? [1]

a) a = divide by 22.4 L, b - multiply by 22.4 L b) a = divide by 22.4 L, b = divide by 22.4 L

c) a = multiply by 22.4 L, b = multiply by 22.4 d) a = multiply by 22.4 L, b = divide by 22.4 L

L
33. The formula for quicklime is [1]

a) Ca(OH)2 b) CaCl2

c) CaO d) CaCO3

34. Four different experiments were conducted in the following ways: [1]

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 i. 3 g of carbon was burnt in 8 g of oxygen to give 11 g of CO2.

ii. 1.2 g of carbon was burnt in air to give 4.2 g of CO2.

iii. 4.5 g of carbon was burnt in enough air to give 11 g of CO2.

iv. 4 g of carbon was burnt in oxygen to form 30.3 g of CO2.

Law of constant proportions is not illustrated in experiment(s).

a) i and iii only b) ii, iii and iv only

c) iv only d) i only
35. Sulphate of a divalent metal M exists in hydrated form. If 0.10 mol of metal sulphate combines with 9.0 g of [1]
water to form the hydrated salt then, the formula of metal sulphate will be

a) M2SO4⋅ 3H2O b) MSO4.5H2O

c) M2SO4⋅ 2H2O d) MSO4⋅ H2O

36. 1 mole of diatomic element X2 contains 34 and 40 moles of electrons and neutrons respectively. The isotopic [1]
formula of the element is

a) 40

34
X b) 37

17
X

c) d)
74 74
X X
40 34

37.
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The average atomic mass of boron is 10.8 u. If the isotopic mass of B-10 is 10.013 and that of B-11 is 11.009, [1]
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then the relative abundance of these isotopes is respectively

a) 11% and 89% b) 20.98% and 79.02%

c) 10.001% and 89.9% d) 80.1% and 19.9%

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38. The triad which is isoelectronic [1]

a) Mg2+, F-, O b) –
Na+, O2 , Ne

c) Na+, Al, N – d) Cl – , Ar, Ca

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39. The electron distribution in an aluminium atom is [1]

a) 2, 3, 8 b) 2, 8, 2

c) 2, 8, 3 d) 8, 2, 3
40. If K, L, M, N, shells of an atom are full. The total number of electrons in that atom are: [1]

a) 26 b) 36

c) 60 d) 42

41. The electronic configuration of Cl– ion is [1]

a) 2, 8, 6 b) 2, 8, 7

c) 2, 8, 8, 1 d) 2, 8, 8
42. 226
88
A,
228
87
B,
228
88
C,
228
90
D [1]
Which of the following nuclei are isotopes?

a) 226
88
A,
228
88
C b) 228
87
B,
228
88
C

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 c) Both 228
87
B,
228
88
C and 228
88
C,
228
90
D d) 228
88
C,
228
90
D

43. Which of the following are isobars? [1]

a) 34
17
Cl ,
37
17
Cl b) 40
18
Ar ,
40
20
Ca

c) 3
1
H ,
2
1
H d) 16
8
O ,
15
8
O

44. The fundamental particle not present in hydrogen is ________. [1]

a) Proton b) Nucleus

c) Neutron d) Electron

45. How many electrons, protons and neutrons will be present in X –, if atomic number of X is 9 and mass number is [1]
19?

a) E = 10, P = 9, N = 10 b) E = 9, P = 10, N = 10

c) E = 10, P = 10, N = 10 d) E = 9, P = 9, N = 10

46. An element has 3 valence electrons in its outermost 3rd shell, the name of element is [1]

a) B b) Mg

c) Ga d) Al
47. The highest value of e/m of anode rays has been observed when the discharge tube is filled with [1]
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a) N2 b) O2
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c) He d) H2

48. Which of the following has the highest n/p ratio? [1]
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a) 222
88
Ra b) 235
92
U

c) 14
6
C d) 3
1
H

49. Which of the following statements does not belong to Bohr's model? [1]

a) Electrons revolve around the nucleus in b) The electrons radiate energy during
different orbits having fixed energies. revolution due to force of attraction between
nucleus and electrons.

c) The electron in the orbit nearest to the d) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is
nucleus is in lowest energy state and farthest quantized, i.e., they have fixed energies.
away from nucleus is in highest energy
state.
50. Cathode rays have [1]

a) mass only b) charge only

c) charge as well as mass d) neither charge nor mass

51. Amoeba acquires its food through a process, termed [1]

a) plasmolysis b) endocytosis

c) both exocytosis and endocytosis d) exocytosis

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52. Chlorophyll is present in ________. [1]

a) Thylakoid b) Matrix

c) Stroma d) Cristae
53. Engulfing of food materials or foreign bodies by cells like Amoeba is called: [1]

a) plasmolysis b) diffusion

c) osmosis d) endocytosis
54. The site of detoxification in liver cells is: [1]

a) SER b) lysosome

c) ribosome d) RER
55. Most of the substances in the living world are transported across the cell membrane by the process of: [1]

a) osmosis b) diffusion

c) endocytosis d) plasmolysis
56. Which of the following acts as a garbage disposal system of the cell? [1]

a) Vacuole b) Lysosome

c) Peroxisome d) Golgi body

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57. X is present in all eukaryotic cells except mammalian RBC, sieve tube cells of phloem and tracheids and vessels [1]
of xylem. X is ________.
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a) Nucleus b) Chloroplast

c) Mitochondrion d) Endoplasmic reticulum

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58. Which of the following cell functions will stop, if its ribosomes are destroyed? [1]

a) Formation of complex sugars b) Lipid metabolism

c) Protein synthesis d) ATP synthesis

59. A cell has 10 chromosomes. After mitotic cell division, the number of chromosomes in the daughter cell will be: [1]

a) 10 b) 4

c) 20 d) 5
60. The most abundant material on the plant cell wall is: [1]

a) proteins b) lipids

c) wax d) cellulose
61. Chromosomes are made up of [1]

a) RNA b) DNA

c) DNA and protein d) Protein

62. Which of the following is absent in plant cells? [1]

a) Cell membrane b) Vacuole

c) Mitochondria d) Centriole
63. A eukaryotic nucleus has a: [1]

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 a) non-porous, single membrane b) porous, single membrane

c) porous, double membrane d) non-porous, double membrane

64. Which of the following is correct for the given figure? [1]

a) The parts labelled ‘a’, ‘b' and ‘c’, all possess b) The part labelled ‘a’ is the site of dark
photosynthetic pigments such as reaction.
chlorophyll.

c) The part labelled ‘c’ is called granum. d) The part labelled ‘b’ is called intergranal
thylakoid.
65. Cell theory was given by [1]

a) Haeckel b) Virchow

c) Hooke d) Schleiden and Schwann

66. Amoeba acquires its food through: [1]

a) Exocytosis & Endocytosis b) Exocytosis

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c) Plasmolysis d) Endocytosis
67. Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poison and drugs in a cell? [1]
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a) Lysosomes b) Vacules

c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) Golgi apparatus

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68. Living cells were discovered by [1]

a) A.V. Leeuwenhoek b) Robert Brown

c) Robert Hooke d) R. Virchow

69. In the plant cells, many substances important for life are stored in: [1]

a) plastids b) lysosomes

c) mitochondria d) vacuoles
70. Study the given figure carefully. In which direction the net movement of water will take place? [1]

[Key : O Water molecule; ® Solute molecule]

a) From solution 1 to solution 2 b) Both From solution 1 to solution 2 and

From solution 2 to solution 1

c) From solution 2 to solution 1 d) No movement will take place

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71. The structure/organelle of a cell that functions as a passage for intracellular transport as well as a manufacturing [1]
surface is:

a) endoplasmic reticulum b) plastids

c) plasma membrane d) ribosome

72. The proteins and lipids, essential for building the cell membrane, are manufactured by [1]

a) Mitochondria b) Golgi apparatus

c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum d) Plasma membrane

73. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding endoplasmic reticulum? [1]

a) None of these b) SER helps in detoxification in the liver of

vertebrates.

c) ER helps in the transport of materials from d) RER helps in the synthesis of proteins.
one part of the cell to another.
74. The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes are also known as [1]

a) nucleiod b) nucleic acid

c) nucleolus d) nucleus
75. The cell organelles with digestive enzymes are: [1]
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a) food vacuoles b) Golgi appartus

c) lysosomes d) ribosomes
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