Biology Study Guide
Biology Study Guide
STUDY GUIDE
P530/1
VOLUME 1
NAME:...........................................................................................................................................................
SCHOOL:........................................................................................................................................................
CLASS:...........................................................................................................................................................
AUTHORS
Contents
1 PREFACE 6
2 ACKNOWLDEGEMENT 7
3 INTRODUCTION 8
4.3 Histology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 92
9 HEREDITY 204
9.1 The structure of nucleic acids and nature of the gene . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 204
10 EVOLUTION 250
10.5 The origin and emergency of new species, types of selections . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 272
14 REPRODUCTION 493
15 DEVELOPMENT 523
1 PREFACE
As the authors of the A-LEVEL BIOLOGY STUDY GUIDE we have fundamentally written this book
having been stimulated to redeem the continuous poor performance in such an essential subject on which
everyone depends to maintain life. We have discovered where the problem is and our response is to
present to you this book as the exact solution.
The book consists of learning objectives and the exhaustive examination questions per subtopic. The
questions assess the extent to which the student has achieved each of the learning objectives in every
subtopic before rushing for another topic.
The questions have been organized following the most recent NCDC advanced level Biology syllabus
handling all the topics.
To instill essential skills of advanced biology paper1 P530/1. No answers have been suggested to foster
scientific research and analysis among students, and allow teachers guide their students in line with the
most up-to-date approaches to the questions therein.
However, whenever need arises users are more than welcome to consult the authors on possible lines of
argument and approach to the questions.
This book is designed to be used throughout the A-level course and not as a last minute revision aid.
It should be used in conjunction with the textbooks, lesson explanations, studies from field work, study
trips and any other study relevant to the advanced level Biology syllabus.
Although the book is primarily designed as a student study guide, it is envisaged that teachers will find
it useful.
We trust you will find this book informative and helpful and that it will stimulate further interest in
Biology. We hope it will support your studies and so contribute to a satisfactory outcome at the end of
your course. We wish you well in your efforts to achieve A-level success.
. Gingo David and Kato Maxmillian.
Copyright c 2020:
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced in whole or in part in any form
or by any means, mechanical, electrical, recording, photocopying or otherwise without prior written
permission by the authors.
. First edition 2020
2 ACKNOWLDEGEMENT
We thank the almighty God for the gift of wisdom that has enabled us to compile this book.
We acknowledge the following biology experts for their technical advice and support in the lay down of
this book;
Mr. Magala Dan (Lecturer Makerere University), Mr. Kiguwa Anthony (Head of Biology Department
Ndejje Secondary School), Mr. Nakibinge Alex (Head of Biology Department Uganda Martyrs SS
Namugongo), Mr. G.K Kiwanuka (Head of Biology Namilyango College), Mrs Sheila Bwogere (Head of
Biology Department Kings College Budo, Mr. Mukuye Augustine (Head of Biology Department Budo
SS), Mr. Mayega Deogratius (Head of Biology Department Mengo SS), Mr. Kinene George William
(Head of Biology Department Katikamu SDA Secondary School), Dagula Dominic (Senior teacher of
Biology Katikamu SDA Secondary School), Mr. Kiwanuka (Senior teacher of Biology Mengo SS),
Mr. JB Rubahamya (Senior teacher of Biology Mengo SS), Mr. Ntambi (Head of Biology Department
St.Josephs SS Naggalama), Mr. Kayongo Allan (Head of Biology Department Merryland High School,
Mrs. Rose Semakula (Head of Biology Department Trinity College Nabbingo), Mr. Kiryoowa (Head
of Biology Department Seeta Mukono Campus), Barasa Gerald (seroma christian high school), Sevume
Fred (Seroma Christian High School), Mrs. Mwanje Flavia Seroma Christian High School, Mr.Kibonde
Henry (Seroma Christian High School), Mr. Musame Gerald Head of Biology Department Mt. St.
Henrys SS Mukono), Mr. Habib (Gombe SS), Mr. Erenyu John (Seeta High School Main Campus),
Mr. Alagai Charles (Seeta High School Main campus), Mr.Naabye Wilson (Hilton High School, St
Balikudembe SS Kisoga), Mr.Sekandi Isa (Kawempe Muslim SS, Director Atom Science Maganjo),
Mr. Sisye Samuel (Midland High School and Brilliant High School Kawempe), Mr. Semanda William
(Trinity College Nabbingo), Mr. Wambi Jonathan (Mt. St Marys Namagunga), Mr. Mpaata Ernest (DOS
Elite High School Entebbe), Wasswa (Head of Biology Department Kyadondo Secondary School), and
many others.
3 INTRODUCTION
The A-level Biology Study Guide has been written to answer the following four
fundamental questions asked by a student who has the zeal to excel;
1. How is the A-level Biology paper one (UACE P530/1) set?
2. How should I prepare in order to excel in the UACE P530/1 examination?
3. How should I answer the questions in the UACE P530/1 examination?
4. How is the UACE P530/1 examination marked?
The A-level Biology Study guide has been designed systematically to respond to the above questions by
presenting to you the following four main features;
1. The format of A-level Biology paper 1 (UACE P530/1).
2. The learning objectives of the sub-topics of each topic.
3. Exhaustive examination questions (both multiple choice/objective and structured questions) for each
sub-topic of A-level Biology.
4. Each learning objective of each sub-topic has exhaustive examination questions that assess the level
at which the student has achieved each learning objective for each sub-topic before rushing for another
sub-topic and topic at large.
This book is designed to be used throughout the A-level course and not as a last minute revision aid.
It should be used in conjunction with the textbooks, lesson explanations, studies from field work, study
trips and any other study relevant to the advanced level Biology syllabus.
You should know that every question in this book was set from a particular text book of A-level biology.
Therefore, follow the following five steps while using this book.
1. Read the question thoroughly while underlining the key terms and words of emphasis.
2. Study various text books one by one in search for the answer.
3. Write your answer in the spaces provided.
4. Take to your teacher for marking.
5. Make corrections where applicable as guided by the teacher.
You remember that this is a study guide, therefore instead of answering the questions directly using your
brain, it is better to use each question even if it is one objective question as an opportunity for you to
open various text books and do thorough reading about that area.
Doing an exam is like facing an opponent in a contest. If you are preparing wisely for the contest one of
the things you will not miss to do is to find out and study the style of play or operation of the opponent:
After seeing his/her style, you train to acquire the necessary skills to counteract his style. In that way
you defeat him.
If you are not aware of your opponents style, then all your preparation is just a gamble. Our opponent
here is the UNEB Biology paper 1 (P530/1) question paper. We get its style of play by looking at the
format of this paper.
So follow keenly as we explore through this sample paper (UNEB 2017 Biology P530/1)
Read the front page of the paper and note down the key aspects there.
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Also read through the inside of the paper from page 2 onwards and note down the key aspects there,
look at the sections there, types of questions, marks allocated and the space for writing the answers.
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Then compare your findings with the detailed analysis following after this paper.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
This paper consists of sections A and B
Answer all questions in both sections.
SECTION A
Write answers to this section in the boxes provided.
SECTION B
Write answers to this section in the spaces provided.
No additional sheets of paper should be inserted in this booklet.
1. Which one of the following pairs of hormones when released increase the level blood sugar in the
body?
2. The inheritance of comb shape in fowls is controlled by two dominant alleles P and R. What is the
probability of producing a homozygous double recessive fowl with no comb, from parents of ge-
3. The surface area and volume of four animals A, B, C and D are given in Table 1. Which one of them
4. Which one of the following genetic abnormalities does not result from non-disjunction?
5. The earth worm does not require a special respiratory organ because
A. it is not very active metabolically.
B. its moist cuticle allows gases to dissolve and diffuse easily.
C. its surface lacks a cuticle.
D. it has a large surface area to volume ratio.
7. Which one of the following types of plants is likely to have the thinnest leaf cuticle?
8. The cutting of a plant apex encourages the growth of many side branches because
A. it encourages the interaction of auxins and gibberellins.
B. secondary growth increases in the stem.
C. auxins transfer downwards along the stem.
D. apical dominance is removed.
10. During protein synthesis, the anticodon base sequence on tRNA is AUG.
What is the base sequence on the template DNA strand?
11. Figure 1 shows changes in dry mass of a growing seedling with time.
Which part of the curve indicates growth where respiration in higher than photosynthesis?
A. R. B. S. C. P. D. Q.
12. Cones have better visual acuity than rods because cones.
A. have little retinal convergence.
B. are more sensitive to light.
C. connect with a single optic nerve fibre.
D. are more concentrated at the fovea.
Which one of the points indicated on the figure would have the highest diffusion gradient?
A. R. B. P. C. Q. D. S
14. A common aspect between photosynthesis and chemosynthetic bacteria is that they both
A. use water as a source of hydrogen.
B. release oxygen during the synthesis of organic compounds.
C. contain energy absorbing compounds.
D. use carbon dioxide as a raw material.
15. A plant which is not lignified, has poorly developed xylem tissue with large airspaces in stem and
16. Which one of the following organisms possesses a heart which pumps out only deoxygenated
blood?
18. Which one of the following changes in the guard cells lead to the opening of the stomata?
19. Which one of the following groups comprises of organisms with least common features?
22. Which one of the following is the tidal volume in an individual whose ventilation rate is 2000dm3 /mm
24. The following equation summarises aerobic respiration of glucose. C6 H12 O6 + 6CO2 → 6H2 O +
38ATP If the energy released on complete oxidation of one mole of glucose is 2880KJ and one ATP
contains 30.6 KJ of energy, what is the percentage efficiency of aerobic respiration of glucose in
the equation.
25. Which one of the following cell types provides strength with flexibility in plant tissues?
26. If a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, its water potential becomes.
B. genetic makeup.
C. frequency of disease among individuals.
D. different diet among individuals.
28. A specimen observed under an electron microscope measures 50mm and the actual specimen
29. Saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids are similar in
A. the number of carbon to carbon bonds they possess.
B. their consistence at room temperature.
C. the number of oxygen atoms present.
D. the number of hydrogen atoms they contain.
30. What would be the estimated fish population in a lake if 350 fish were captured, marked and
released, and later 450 fish including 150 marked fish were captured?
31. Which one of the following substances is not transported by the blood circulatory system in arthro-
pods?
If crossing over occurs at appoint marked Q, genotypes in the gametes formed would be
A. AA, BB. B. AA, aa, BB, bb. C. Ab, AB, Ab, ab. D. AB, ab.
33. Promotion of cell division by cytokinins only in the presence of auxins is an interaction known as
34. Which one of the following activities results into release of nitrogen into the atmosphere?
35. Which one of the following is true of what occurs at the excitatory synapse when an impulse ar-
rives?
A. Chloride ion channels close.
B. Receptor sites close.
C. Post synaptic membrane becomes impermeable to calcium ions.
D. Sodium ion channels open.
39. Which one of the following is true of a fully contracted muscle fibre?
40. Which one of the following is a function of the autonomic sympathetic nervous system?
41. (a) Explain the role of consumers and producers in the recycling of carbon in nature.
(i) Consumers (03 marks)
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(ii) Producers (02 marks)
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(b) Give five reasons why all the carbon in plants is not accessible to herbivores. (05 marks)
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42. Figure 6 shows the effect of temperature on the rates of photosynthesis and respiration in well
illuminated leaves.
(a) Compare the effect of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis and respiration. (04 marks)
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(b) Explain the shapes of the curves. (06 marks)
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43. (a) Give one function of synapses in the nervous system. (01 mark)
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(b) When an action potential arrives at a synapse, calcium ions enter the neurone through presy-
naptic membranes.
(i) Explain how the calcium ions enter the neurone. (02 marks)
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(ii) Describe the events which occur as a result of the entry of the calcium ions to cause depolar-
ization of the post synaptic membrane. (05 marks)
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(c) Explain the role of cholinesterase at synapses. (02 marks)
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44. Figure 7 shows a relationship between a pest and a biological control agent.
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(c) Suggest what would happen if the pest was completely wiped out. (02 mark)
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(d) Explain the characteristic of a good biological control agent. (01 mark)
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45. (a) Explain how changes in the solute potential of a cell affects its turgidity. (04 marks)
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(b) A plant cell with a solute potential of -1240 kPa and a pressure potential of 250kPa was im-
mersed in a sucrose solution whose water potential was -530 kPa. (i) Calculate the water potential
gradient between the cell and the sucrose solution. (03 marks)
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(ii) State the direction in which the water will flow. (01 mark)
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(c) Outline the differences between plasmolysis and wilting. (02 marks)
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46. Figure 8 show the oxygen dissociation curves for two species of fish, the Carp and the Mackerel.
The Carp lives in a pond with decomposing vegetation while the Mackerel lives in the surface
water of the sea.
(a) Describe how the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen changes with change in
partial pressure of oxygen in the two species.
(i) Carp (01 mark)
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(ii) Mackerel (01 mark)
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(b) Explain the changes in percentage saturation of haemoglobin with partial pressure of oxygen
in the two species.
Carp (04 marks)
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SECTION A
Section A is made up of 40 objective questions (multiple choice questions).
An objective question is a one which has only one potential correct answer. This is opposite to a
subjective question which has more than one potential correct answer.
A multiple choice question is a question with many choices for you to pick as your answer but
only one of the offered answers is correct.
In Biology paper 1 (P530/1), each objective question (multiple choice question) is made up of two
main parts; the stem and four alternative answers labelled A, B, C and D. These four alternative
answers seemingly look similar but only one of them is the correct answer while the remaining
three are destructors.
The stem of every multiple choice question is extracted from any of the common textbooks and
thus the correct answer is exactly in that same portion of the textbook where the stem is extracted
from. This is confirmed by taking a look at the 40 multiple choice questions in section A of our
sample paper (UNEB P530/1, 2017) as shown in table 1.
Table 1.
(i) only one particular text book e.g. questions 38, 24,34,9 and 13. The answer for any of such
questions can only be found in only a particular text book and thus it is harder to discover unless
by chance you open that text book as the first one during your study.
(ii) from more than one text book e.g. question 7, 3, etc. The answer for such questions can be
found in more than one text book and thus is easier to discover.
Now this book has many objective questions already organized into their corresponding subtopics.
This implies that you are left with only one task i.e.
To read the question and open various text books until you discover where that question was set
from and that is where the correct answer is. You can note the reference text book and page on
that question after the discovery to ease the study in a few days/hours to the examination.
Such a study will enrich you with the content of the whole topic. Therefore, objective questions
should be used as tools for studying Biology rather than just guessing the answer.
Open text books and study even if you are capable of giving the answer directly because there is
no question that will ever reappear in UNEB but studying Biology using the already set questions
can make you ready for any fresh questions to come.
This study will make you familiar with various textbooks to the extent that you can be in your
final UNEB exam and tell the text book and page where a particular question was set from and of
course you cannot fail such a question.
The following are the text books recommended to be used during your study;
1. Chapman.J.L. and Reiss, MJ., (1995). Ecology: Principles and Application. Cambridge:
Cambridge University Press.
2. Clegg, C.J. and Mackean. D.G, (2000). Advanced Biology Principles and Applications. 2nd
Edition, London: Hodder Education.
3. Clegg, C.J. Mackean .D.G, (1996). Advanced Biology Principles and Applications: Study
guide, London Hodder Education.
4. Freeman, W.H. and Bracegirdle, B, (1983): An atlas of Histology, Michighan: Heinmann
Educational.
5. Toole, G. and Toole,S, (1999). New Understanding Biology for Advanced Level, 4th Edition,
UK: Nelson Thornes.
6. Nigel G.P.O. et al (1990); Biology Science, 3rd Edition, Cambridge University Press, Cam-
bridge.
7. Roberts, M.B.V, (1986). Biology: A functional approach, 4th edition, Kong Thornes. 8. Kent,
The 40 objective questions are also set in such a way that they are distributed in the following
branches of biology
(i) Animal biology (Zoology)
(ii) Plant biology (Botany)
(iii) Both Plant and Animal Biology
(iv) Microbiology (the biology of microscopic organisms)
(v) Universal biology (the biology concepts that cut across all living things)
Check table 3 to see how the 40 objectives are distributed in the different branches of biology.
The 40 objective questions cover the various abilities of the brain i.e. recall, comprehension, ap-
plication
If it is a boxing contest these are now the various styles of play. The upper cuts, cross cuts, and
hooks of the game. For football it would be the different ways of dodging, passing on the ball and
kicks.
These brain abilities are precisely of three kinds and degrees of difficult. Listed in order of in-
creasing difficulty are;
(i) Recall (knowledge).
(ii) Comprehension.
(iii) Application.
For any topic, a question may be set requiring you to exercise your brain in any of the above areas.
(i) Recall (Knowledge) questions.
These are questions that do not require any reasoning but just remembering. There is no reasoning
to get the answer. You either remember on not. They are the type of questions where you can get
the answer directly from the textbook.
The recall/knowledge questions have the following action verbs if they are to be perceived as or
converted into structured questions;
List, state, define, and outline
In case a comprehension question can be answered by an ordinary level student (i.e. is part of the
Ordinary level content) it is taken as a recall/knowledge question because it requires less thoughts
and time to be answered since you have prior knowledge about it.
And if an application question can be answered by an ordinary level student (i.e. is part of the
Ordinary level content) it is taken as a comprehension question because it requires less thoughts
and time to be answered since you have prior knowledge about it.
Check examples of such questions in our sample papers using table 4 in the row of O-level content.
b) The reading should be aimed at analysing the details of the question which enables you to discover
the idea or concept of the question.
c) Analysing the question requires you to look for two things;
(i) Key words.
(ii) Emphasis.
d) Underline the key words and the emphasis as you read the question
e) On reading again, reject those responses you feel are clearly incorrect. Always reject on a sound
biological basis and never because it doesnt sound right or because it cant be C for the fifth time on the
trot.
f) Should you still be left with more than one answer try to find a good reason why one response is better
than the other.
g) Answer all the forty questions.
the required content. Thus you will score less than the marks allocated. Or you may have misfired the
question.
Leaving less than half of the space unused is okay because in most cases the examiner gives slightly
more space from his/hers to cater for the individual differences in handwritings.
When the question asks for a certain number of answers for example state three similarities and gives a
space of 6 lines and then you present 6 similarities in the struggle to utilise the whole space provided,
the examiner will mark only the first three presented answers. So in case the first three similarities are
correct, you score 3 marks out 3 while in case the first three similarities are wrong but the last three are
correct, you score 0 because they mark the first three answers presented.
42. Toole, G. and Toole,S, (1999). New Understanding Biology for Advanced Level, 4th Edition, UK:
Nelson Thornes page 286 (Modified question)
(a) Similarities:
Increase in temperature causes both rates to increase up to the peak.
Temperature beyond (45-50) leads to a decrease in both rates.
Both have same peaks at 52oC and 60o C.
Differences
Rate of photosynthesis attains the peak at a lower temperature.
Beyond 45oC increase in temperature causes a more rapid decrease in the rate of photosynthesis.
Rate of photosynthesis is higher than that of respiration.
Beyond 52oC, rate of transpiration is higher.
Rate of photosynthesis starts to increase at a lower temperature.
43. Clegg, C.J. and Mackean. D.G, (2000). Advanced Biology Principles and Applications. 2nd Edition,
London: Hodder Education page 448-449
(a) Transmit information between neurons.
Pass impulses in one direction.
Increases the sensitivity of the nervous system through amplification of weak stimuli. Filter out low level
stimuli.
Enables integration of information from different parts.
Acts as a switch/junction that allows nerve impulses pass along one of the several discrete pathways.
Allows adaptation to intense stimuli.
Aids in learning and memory.
(b) (i) Arrival of an impulse leads to opening of calcium ion channels. So calcium ions diffuse into the
presynaptic knob from the synaptic cleft.
(ii) Calcium ions induce vesicles containing the transmitter substance to fuse with the presynaptic mem-
brane and release the transmitter substance into the synaptic cleft. The transmitter substance diffuses
across the synaptic cleft and binds with a specific receptor on the post-synaptic neurone causing opening
of the sodium ion channels.
(c) Cholinesterase hydrolyses acetylcholine so as to prevent continuous firing of impulses.
44. Toole, G. and Toole,S, (1999). New Understanding Biology for Advanced Level, 4th Edition, UK:
Nelson Thornes page 260
(a) A-Pest: Because it is more abundant initially.
B-Control agent: because it initially begins with minimal numbers.
(b) The high population of the pest leads to a rapid increase in the pollution of the control agent because
there is plenty of food.
The population of the pest organism decreases due to predation by control agent. The population of the
control agent then decreases because of food shortage due to reduction in pest population.
The population of both organisms stabilizes due to a dynamic equilibrium between them being estab-
lished.
(c) The control agent would die due to lack of food or may also turn to feed on some non-target organ-
isms in the environment.
45. Roberts, M.B.V, (1986). Biology: A functional approach, 4th edition, Kong Thornes page 53-54
(a) Increase in solute potential (more negative) of the cell causes water to enter it by osmosis and the cell
becomes turgid.
Decrease in solute potential (less negative) causes the cell to lose water by osmosis thereby becoming
plasmolysed/flaccid.
46. Toole, G. and Toole,S, (1999). New Understanding Biology for Advanced Level, 4th Edition, UK:
Nelson Thornes page 442 (Modified question)
(i) Percentage saturation increases rapidly reaching maximum saturation at low oxygen partial pressure.
(ii) Percentage saturation increases gradually reaching maximum saturation at higher oxygen partial
pressure.
b) Carp
Lives in a habitat of low oxygen partial pressure as a result of decomposition by aerobic bacteria, so its
haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen in order to pick up oxygen from a limited oxygen environ-
ment.
Mackerel
Lives where there is sufficient oxygen supply as it leaves near the surface of sea water. Its haemoglobin
has a lowered affinity in order to release oxygen readily to the active tissues.
Give/State/list
Restrictions
If the question requires 3 answers, marking will only look for the first 3. E.g. UACE P530/1 2017
question 45b(ii)
and relate.
1. Describe/Give an account of
Mark out the main points with the aid of diagrams where appropriate.
The word describe may be used in: a particular situation or phenomenon; a particular experiment; or
graphical situations to describe their nature.
In particular phenomenon: - in this case, a candidate is expected to state in words all the observations
made and use diagrams where appropriate. For the cases where processes are asked, a candidate is
expected to be systematic i.e. state the main points in a stepwise manner. For example; UACE P530/1
2017 question 43b(ii)
2. Explain/Account for
- State what is and how or why
- Explain the role; first state the role. .(UACE P530/1 2017 question 41(a),43c
- Explain the changes; state the change first.(UACE P530/1 2017 question 43b(ii)
- Explain the factors; first state the factors.
- Explain the relationship; first state the relationship.
- Explain the position; first state the position. UACE P530/1 2012 question 45
3. Comment
Using your own words, bring out the facts shown on the graph.
4. Distinguish
in case the marks allocated are (1 or 2), Give only one main point. Use the word whereas or while.
In case the marks allocated are more than 2, use a table to give the differences.
5. Relate:
Tell how one relates with another.
6. Compare
-Similarity (in both or both)
7. Suggest
Give an answer in your words according to the context.
E.g. UACE P530/1 2017 question 44c
4. Terminologies.
5. Movement of substance.
- Absorption
- Exchange
- Axoplasm.
- Nephrone.
- Name.
- Direction.
- Process.
NB
For all hormones;
-where it is produced (source)
-when it is produced. (what triggers its secretion)
-where it goes. (target organ)
-what it does. (effect)
Emphasize the biological terms.
Compare/Describe/explain the;
- Shape of the graph. E.g. UACE P530/1 2017 question 42 (b)
- Change/trend/pattern. E.g. UACE P530/1 2017 question 45(b), 44(b)
- Effect. E.g. UACE P530/1 2017 question 42 (a)
- Relationship. E.g. UACE P530/1 2013 question 45 (a)
- Distribution. E.g. UACE P530/1 2000 question 45
Every year has at least one graph. The A-level Biology study guide for Paper 2 has a detailed guidance
about the skills of handling data analysis. The same skills are required in paper one.
Balancing the branches of biology
Section B questions (structured questions) are also set in such a way that they are distributed in the fol-
lowing branches of biology
(i) Animal biology (Zoology)
(ii) Plant biology (Botany)
(iii) Both Plant and Animal Biology
(iv) Universal biology (the biology concepts that cut across all living things) Check table 6 to see how
the 40 objectives are distributed in the different branches of biology.
The section B questions (structured questions) are spread uniformly in all the 6 main blocks. At least
one question is set from each block each year. This can be confirmed by taking a look at table 7.
Table 7
Time management Time management is very crucial during the time of writing an exam.
First subtract off the time for praying, planning before starting and proof reading (editing) your answers
before they invigilators command you to stop writing. Since section A carries 40% of the total marks,
then give 40% of the remaining time to section A. Then calculate the average time to be spent per
objective question.
Remember that application questions will require more time followed by comprehension questions then
lastly recall questions. So it means that the recall questions should require less than the average time.
And 60% of the remaining time to section B.
Hand writing
Write well so that your answers are easier to be read by anyone marking.
1. Which part of a phospholipid molecule makes up most of the thickness of cell surface membrane?
2. The organelles that provide part of the skeleton of a cell are the.
3. Which of the following cell organelles is associated with the final stage of most cell secretions?
5. Which of the following cell organelles is associated with the final stage of most cell secretions?
6. What are the most abundant molecules in the cell surface membrane of plants?
8. Which one of the following cell structures can be can be seen with a light microscope?
9. The use of electrons as a source of radiation in the electron microscope allows high resolution to
11. Which one following does not always form part of a bacterium cell?
14. Which one of the following functions of membranes is only carried out by intracellular
membranes?
A. facilitate transmission of nerve impulses.
B. allows cells to recognise others.
C. control of material entry and exit.
D. provide separate compartment, isolating different chemical reactions.
15. Which one of the following structures is found in animals cells but not plant cells.
19. The organelle is responsible for replenishing the plasma membrane is...........
21. The mineral element attached to the pophyrin ring of the chlorophyll molecule is
23. Which one of the following theories best explains how double membrane organelles came to exist
in eukaryotes?
26. The organelle responsible for inter cellular transportation of proteins is called.
A. dictosome C. microfilaments
B. rough endoplasmic reticulum D. microtubules
27. The role played by chromatophore pigments in the survival of an organism is.
A. cause rapid muscle contraction hence escaping enemies.
B. increase oxygen delivery to the contracting muscles.
C. cause organisms colour change hence camouflage.
D. eliminate carbon dioxide from the respiring tissues to increase pH.
28. When a lignin sensitive stain was applied the stain was positive in the tracheid but not the sieve
tubes because.
A. it is photosynthetic C. it is a prokaryote
B. its cell wall is made of cellulose D. it is not multicellular
31. One disadvantage of the multicellular state is that individual cells are
32. Which of the following organelles plays the most significant role in the meristematic cells?
36. Identify the group that has organelles that don’t play a transport role in the cell
A. nucleus, dictyosome, ribosome
B. mitochondia, chloroplast, rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, golgi body
D. mitochrondia, nucleus, chloroplast
38. A tissue viewed under a microscope showed numerous lysosomes in the cells. Which one of the
41. Which one of the following structures possesses abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
43. Which one of the following roles is associated with smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
44. Which one of the following structures separates the sap from the cytoplasm?
47. The cell organelle responsible for renewal of the cell membrane is known as;
49. The cell wall found outside the membrane of the Nitrosomonas is mainly made up of;
52. Rapid transport of materials within the cytoplasm of a cell is associated with the.
A. presence of an extensive endoplasmic reticulum
B. numerous ribosomes
C. absence of a cell wall
D. presence of spindle fibres in the dividing cell
55. Cells which lack a membrane to separate the cytoplasm from nuclear material are called
57. What would be the effect on a cell with punctured lysosome? The cell would under go
A. reproductive cells
B. fat containing cells
C. catrotenoid containing cells
D. Pigment containing cells in certain vertebrates
60. Which of the following chemicals of life are absent in the plasma membrane?
62. The cell organelle responsible for renewal of the cell membrane is called
63. The tails of the phospholipids like in the centre of the cell membrane due to their being
64. Transport of materials within the cytoplasm of a cell is associated with the
A. secreting substances out of the cells C. Assembly of raw materials for section
B. synthesizing proteins D. synthesizing carbohydrate
67. Which type of molecule form a bilayer with in the cell membrane?
68. Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of microtubules in a cross section of a
flagellum.
A. 9 + 0 B. 9 + 4 C. 9 + 2 D. 9 + 1
69. Which one of the following features would be prominent in mucus secreting cells?
70. The tails of the phospholipids lie in the centre of the cell membrane due to their being.
71. Which one of the following is the main function of the golgi apparatus in a living cell?
74. Which part of a phospholipid molecule makes up most of the thickness of cell surface membrane?
76. A cell has a high density of rough endoplasmic reticulum in its cytoplasm. Which other organelle
77. Which of the following would most readily move across a selectively permeable membrane?
78. Tha actual diameter of a cell organelle which measures 0.4mm at magnification of X 400 is
79. In a unicellular organisms the function performed by organs and systems in multicellular
81. Which of the following occurs in both plant and animal cells?
82. The organelle responsible for the renewal of the cell membrane is known as
83. Which one of the following statements best describes prokaryotic cells?
84. In Eukaryotes
85. Which of the following organelles are not double bound (Envelope-bound).
89. Which one of the following pairs of cells has closely similar walls?
93. The eukaryotic nucleus houses all the following except the
A. RNA C. Nucleolus
B. DNA D. Endoplasmic reticulum
96. In biological membranes, integral proteins and lipids interact mainly by.
102. Which of the following organelles would most likely be abundant in the tail of a tadpole at a time
103. The flagellum and skeletal muscle are structurally similar in that they both have
104. Which one of the following cell organelles would be most active at sites where substances move
A. Ectoplasm C. Pseudopodia
B. Contractile vacuole D. Cell membrane
106. Which of the following does not always form part of a bacterium cell?
107. Which of the following features would be prominent in mucus secreting cells?
108. Which one of the following cell organelles is associated with final stage of most cell secretions?
109. Which one of the following is a function of the Golgi body in a cell?
110. Which one of the following structures plays an important role in the formation of primary cell
walls?
111. Which of the following organelles would be most abundant at the site where some embryonic
114. Large steroid molecules diffuse quckly through cell surface membranes suggesting that the
membranes.
115. A tissue viewed under a microscope showed numerous lysosomes in the cells. Which one of the
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
116. The figure shows the fluid-mosaic of the cell membrane structure.
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(ii) Cholesterols, towards the membrane (2 marks)
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c) Outline any four advantages of some organelles, being membrane-bound. (2 marks)
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d) The cytoplasmic composition of the cells is mainly made up of colloidal solution.
118. a) With aid of a well labeled diagram describe the action of a lysosome. (2 marks)
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b) Outline four functions of the lysosome inside cells of living organisms. (4 marks)
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119. (a) State two important differences which can be recognized under the light microscope between
plant and animal cells. (2 marks)
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(b) (i) Name the membrane-bounded channels, which form a network and almost fill the
cytoplasm of most cells and are only recognizable under the electron microscope. (2 marks)
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(ii)What are the ”small granules” associated with the channels mentioned in b(i) above and what
is their function? (2 marks)
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(c)(i) Give any four differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. (4 marks)
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120. The diagram shows part of the membrane containing a channel protein
(b) For each of the following, state whether the components are hydrophillic or hydrophobic.
(i) A; (1 mark)
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(ii) B; (1 marks)
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(iii) darkly shaded part of the protein. (1 marks)
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(iv) Lightly shaded part of the protein. (1 mark)
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(c) Explain how ions would move through the channel protein. (1 mark)
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(d) State two features that the channnel protein and carrier protein have in common. (2 marks)
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(e) State one structural difference between channel and carrier proteins. (1 mark)
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121. The diagram below shows a structure of a bacterial cell as viwed using an electron microscope.
(a) Complete the table by writing the letter from the diagram which refers to each part of the
membrane. (2.5 marks)
(b) Explain why the structure of a membrane is described as fluid mosaic. (3 marks)
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(c) What should be the nature of substances that may move across the cell membrane
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(ii) With difficulty. (1 mark)
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(d) What are functions of glycocalyx in the plasma membrane? (2 marks)
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125. The figure below shows a diagram based on an electron micrograph of a secretory cell in the
pancrease.This type of cell is specialised for scecreting proteins. The arrows show the route taken
by the protein molecule.
(c) Through which structure must the molecule or the structure you have named in (b) above pass
to get through the nuclear envelope. (2 marks)
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(d) Name the molecule which leaves the mitochondrion in order to provide energy for this cell.
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1. Which of the following does not contribute to the selective permeability of a biological
membrane?
A. Specificity of the carrier proteins in the membrane.
B. Selectivity of the channel proteins in the membranes.
2. Where are the carbohydrates portions of glycolipids and glycoproteins in the cell surface
membranes?
A. the inside and outside surfaces of membranes.
B. the inside surface of the membrane.
C. the interior of the membrane.
D. the outside surface of the membrane.
3. Movement of ions and large polar molecules across the plasma membrane is repelled by
4. The two cells A and B have water potentials of -2000kpa and -1000kPa respectively. Which of
5. Which one of the following changes in a cell would increase its water potential?
A. water flows across a semi permeable C. water flows along a concentration gradient
membrane D. it is an active process
B. it is a passive process
10. The pressure and osmotic potential of a cell are equal when
12. Which one of the following changes brings about the opening of the stomata plant leaves?
A. Fall of intercellular space PH
B. Synthesis of starch
C. Rise in intercellular space carbon dioxide level
D. Increase in guard cell pressure potential
13. Which of the following processes is employed in the transport of sugars in a flowering plant?
15. The magnitude of lowering the tendency of water to leave a solution is known as;
17. The pressure which tends to force water out of a cell is called
18. Which of the following processes move materials against concentration gradients?
A. Active transport and facilitated diffusion C. Active transport and passive diffusion
B. Active transport and osmosis D. Active transport only
19. Which one of the following water relations is not true about a plasmolysed plant cell?
A. Turgor pressure is zero
B. pressure potential is equal to asmotic potential of sap
C. Pressure potential is zero
D. Water potential of the sap is equal to its osmotic potential
20. Which one of the following changes brings about opening of stomata in plant leaves?
A. fall in the PH of the intercellular spaces.
B. synthesis of starch.
C. rise in levels of carbon dioxide in the intercellular spaces.
D. conversion of starch to sugar.
22. Which one of the following conditions will not apply to a plant cell placed in a hypertonic
solution?
A. the wall pressure of the cell will decrease
B. the cell becomes flaccid
C. the osmotic pressure of the cell increases
D. the suction pressure of the cell decreases
24. The figure below shows a system of two cells separated by a semi-permeable membrane.
Which of the following statements is correct about the movement of water in the sysytem?
A. water moves out of both cells A and B
B. water moves from cell B to cell A
C. there is no net movement of water between the cells
D. water moves from cell A to cell B.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS.
26. (a)(i) Distinguish between water potential and solute potential. (2 marks)
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(ii) Explain why the water potential in roots is higher than the water potential in leaves in plants.
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(b) Describe how;
(i) the root pressure in roots contributes to transport of water in plants. (3 marks)
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(ii) structure of cells of the endodermis is adapted for their role of transport of water in plants.
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27. Figure below shows two guard cells A, and A1 with adjacent cells B,B1 , C, C1 and C2 . The values
of the solute potentials and pressure potentials shown in cells A and B are exactly the same as
those for cells A1 and B1 respectively. Similarity, the water potential indicated in cell C is the
same as that in cell C1 and C2 . Use the figure to answer questions that follow.
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(b) (i) Show by means of arrows the net movement of water in the seven cells.
Explain why the net movement of water in the cells is as you have indicated in (a)(ii) (3 marks)
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(b) What would be the effect of net movement of water indicated in (a)(ii) to guard cells A and
A1 ? (3 marks)
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28. (a) Explain how changes in the solute potential of a cell affects its turgidity. (04marks)
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(b). A plant with a solute potential of -1240kpa and a pressure potential of 350kpa was immersed
in a sucrose solution whose water potential was -530kpa.
(i) Calculate the water potential gradient between the cell and the sucrose solution. (03marks)
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(ii). State the direction in which water flows. (1 mark)
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(c) Outline the difference between plasmolysis and wilting. (3 marks)
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(c) Outline three ways of varifying that active uptake of particular ions is occuring in a plant
growing in a culture solution. (3 marks)
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(d) State the importance of active transport in guard cells. (3 mark)
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33. The graph below shows the effect of concentration on three transport processes .
(a) With reference to the graphs, state what the three graphs have in common. (2 marks)
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(b) Explain the rates of transport observed when the concentration rates is zero. (3 marks)
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(c) (i) Which one of the process would stop if a respiratory poison was added. (1 marks)
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(ii) Explain your answer. (4 marks)
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(d) Explain the difference between the graphs for diffusion and facilitated diffusion. (4 marks)
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34. The figure below shows the concentration in mmoldm-3 of two different ions inside a human
redblood cell and in the plasma outside the cell.
(a) Explain why these concentration could not have occurred as a result of diffusion. (2 marks)
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(b) Explain how these concentrations could have been achieved. (2 marks)
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(c) If respiration of red blood cells is inhibited, the concentration of potassium ions and sodium
ions inside the cells gradually change until they come into equilbrium with the plasma. Explain
your this observation. (4 marks)
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ii) If the pressure potential of the cell is 500kpa and its solute potential is -4900kpa, What is the
water potential of the cell, show your working. (2 marks)
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(iii) What is meant by plasmolysis? (2 marks)
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(iv) Incepient plasmolysis means a point at which plasmolysis is about to happen.At incipient
plasmolysis ;
(i) State the value of pressure potential of the cell. (1 mark)
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(ii) Comment on the values of water potential and solute potential of the cell. (2 marks)
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(iv) Explain how the potential of the root hair cell would be affected if water movement in the
xylem stops. (4 marks)
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36. The figure below shows two adjascent plant cells A and B . The values of their pressure potentials
and solute potentials are given in kilopascals.
(a) In which direction would the water flow between the two cells. Give a reason for your answer.
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(b) Complete the below to show values of pressure potential and water potential of each of the
cells when equilibrium has been reached. Assume that changes of the values of solute potential
are negligible.
(c) The are then immersed in distilled water and allowed to and allowed to reach equillibrium.
Assume values in the solute potential are negligible.
(i) State the new value of water potential of the cells. (1 mark)
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(ii) State the new values of the pressure potential of the cells. (1 mark)
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37. The graph below shows two experiments A and B. In both cases, the uptake of potassium ions
into the roots of young plants was measured. The roots were thoroughly washed in pure water
before the plants were to the solution containing potassium ions.
(a) Describe the results of experiment A over the first 80 minutes of the experiment. (3 marks)
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(b) Describe the results of experiment B. (3marks)
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(c) Explain the results in (b) above. (3 marks)
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(d) What is the effect of adding potassium cynide in experiment A. (1 mark)
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(f) Explain the effect of adding potassium cynide in experiment A. (2 mrks)
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(e) Suggest why the roots were thoroughly washed in pure water before the experiment.(2 marks)
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4.3 Histology
2. Which one of the following cell types are unlikely to be found in the mammalian intestine?
9. Which one of the following cell types provides strength with flexibility in plant tissues?
A.Parenchyma C.Trancheids
B. Collenchyma D. Sieve tubes
11. Which one of the following types of epithelia experiences the highest rate of wearing?
12. Which one of the plant tissues, have cells with cell wall least adapted for support?
13. Which one of the following plant tissues performs both storage and supportive functions?
16. Which one of the following is true about mature metaxylem vessels?
17. In a plant stem, the parenchyma of the secondary cortex is also called
18. Which one of the following is not true with apical meristems?
A. They have large spaces in between their cells C. They are small in size
B. They have thin cellulose walls D. They have proplastids
A. Osteonectin C. Phosphates
B. Calcium D. Concentric lamellae
22. Which one of the following is not true with sieve tubes?
23. Which one of the following tissues, experiences cytoplasmic streaming, when still young?
24. The plant tissue which is functionally equivalent to a bone is known as;
25. Which one of the following tissues serves as vascular and mechanical tissues?
26. Which one of the following glands secretes its materials, by complete breakdown of their entire
cells?
27. Which one of the following tissues serves the role of the sclerenchyma, in herbaceous plants?
A. Collenchyma C. Xylem
B. Parenchyma D. Phloem
A. They are hard and flexible C. They have ground substance or matrix
B. They are soft and flexible D. They have chondroblasts
30. Which one of the following types of epithelia lines the walls of the mammalian alveoli?
31. The main difference between bones and cartilages is that cartilages
32. Which one of the following tissues has the least power of regeneration?
33. Which one of the following tissues would be stained deepest red by a dye that stains nuclei red?
35. Which one of the following types of epithelia experiences the highest rate of wearing?
36. Which of the following structures is found in both xylem and phloem tissues of higher plants?
38. Which one of the following is not correct about cells of a tissue? They
40. Which one of the following epithelium is unlikely to be found in the mammalian intestine?
A. They have perforated end walls. C. They have all cell organelles.
B. They experience cytoplasmic streaming. D. They are made up of dead cells.
46. The long wary, unbranched fibres present in bundles in connective tissue are
48. The Haversian canal of compact bone tissue consists of all the following except:
50. Which of the following tissues has unevenly thickened cellulose walls and uniformly thick
52. The walls of collenchyma cells are stained deep blue by methylene blue but not aniline
53. Which one of the following tissues is most important in providing mechanical support in the stem
of a young plant?
58. Hyaline cartilage is considered a simple tissue consisting of only two components. These are:
59. Which of the following best describes the function of parenchyma tissue in plants?
A. Parenchyma is the main tissue for the transportation of water and mineral salts to all parts of
the plant.
B. It is the main pathway for the transportation of manufactured food substances
C. It is the main tissue which gives plants mechanical support
D. It is a storage tissue
63. Once the osteoblasts are inactive, they are known as.
65. Which one of the animal tissues serves a similar function like parenchyma tissues in plants.
66. Which one of the following structures is found in both xylem and phloem tissues of higher plants?
69. Which of the following is true about the musculo-epithelial cells of hydra?
71. The epithelial type lining the mammalian alveoli is the ......
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
72. Name two areas in plants where each of the following tissues is found.
(c) Explain the importance of the collenchyma tissue in leaves and young stems. (2 marks)
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(d) Outline three structural differences between the collenchyma and sclerenchyma tissue.
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74. The figures below show some transport tissue found in flowering plants.
75. a) Describe the adaptations of each of the following tissues for their functions, giving one
example of a site where each of them is found.
i)Sclerenchyma. (2 marks)
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ii)Xylem. (2 marks)
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b) Explain how the structure of proteins enables them to form body tissues and structures.
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5.1 Water
2. Which one of the following properties of water enables its movement through the apoplast
pathway in a plant
4. Water has a comparatively high surface tension and boiling point in relation to other substances
9. Evaporation of water from a body surface causes cooling because water has a
10. Which diagram best describes the arrangment of water molecules around sodium(Na+) and
chloride(Cl-) in solution?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
16. How does the properties of water make it an important chemical of life? (3 marks)
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17. How are the biological significance of water related to its properties? (3 marks)
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5.2 Carbohydrates
3. Identify the enzyme whose hydrolytic action leads to the formation of glucose and fructose.
7. Which of the following substances can not change the colour of copper (ii) ions from blue to
green?
13. All macromolecules are synthesized by joining monomers together in a process known as,
14. Starch and glycogen are suitable storage molecules because they are
A. Are large in size which makes them insoluble in water
B. Are chemically reactive in the cell
C. Can easily be hydrolysed
D. Exert an osmotic pressure in the cell.
16. Which one of the following expalins why sucrose is a good transport substance in plants? it
A. can easily be hydrolysed
B. easily enters the general metabolic pathways
C. has high solubility thus forming high concentration
D. is highly abundant in plants
17. The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to the ability of carbon atom to
A. Form covalent and ionic bonds
B. Form covalent bonds in three dimensions
C. Form strong chemical bonds
D. Bond with atoms of many elements
18. The figure below shows the structure of a common organic chemical of life.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
20. Starch and glycogen are important energy storage compounds in organisms.
a) State three similarities in the structure of starch and glycogen. (3 marks)
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b) Outline three advantages that make starch and glycogen suitable storage compounds.(3marks)
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c) State the advantages of storing fat over glycogen. (3 marks)
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d) Explain why large herbivores like cows cannot digest but depend on microscopic bacteria to
digest cellulose in the plant material they eat. (3 marks)
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21. (a) How important are monosaccharides to plants and animals? Give examples in each case.
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(b) Compare the structure of amylose and amylopectin. (3 marks)
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24. (a) With examples, explain why polysaccharides are preferred storage forms for carbohydrates.
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(b) Give reasons why sucrose is the major form in which carbohydrates are translocated.
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26. (a) How does the structure of starch relate to its functions. (3 marks)
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(b)How does the structure of cellulose relate to its roles. (3 marks)
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27. a) Name three disaccharides and their constituent simple sugars. (3 marks)
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b) How can you test for a non-reducing sugar in the laboratory? (3 marks)
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28. (a)Describe the structure of cellulose as found in the plant cell wall. (3 marks)
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b) Outline any four differences between starch and cellulose. (3 marks)
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29. The figure below shows the a disaccharide of lactose. Use it to answer the questions that follow.
(b) What name is given to the reaction above that results into formation of lactose. (3 marks)
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(c) Using the information above, is alpha of beta form of glucose used to make lactose? Explain
your answer. (3 marks)
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30. The below shows part of the molecular structure of cellulose and starch.
(a) Describe the differences in the molecular structure between cellulose and starch. (3 marks)
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Cellulose has a structural function in plants while starch has a storage function.
(b) Relate these functional differences to the differences in the molecular structure of cellulose
and starch. (3 marks)
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(c) Name the bond formed between adjascent glucose molecules in starch and cellulose.
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(d) Suggest why amylase, the enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of starch, will not catalyse the
hydrolysis of cellulose. (3 marks)
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(e) The table below shows three polysaccharides. Complete the table by placing tick if a stament
is correct or a cross (X) if a stament is incorrect.
5.3 Lipids
1. Which one of the following compounds combines with fatty acids to form fats?
2. How many water molecules are produced when 30 molecules of fatty acids are used for synthesis
of triglycerides?
A. 10 B. 30 C. 90 D. 60
4. One reason why lipids are better energy sources than carbohydrates is that they
6. Which of the following food materials has the highest amount of potential energy per unit
weight?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
for glycerol, and molecular formula CH3 (CH2 )n COOH for a fatty acid, show the formation of a
triglyceride from fattyacids and glycero. (3 marks)
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(b) What properties do lipids possess as storage food substances?. (3 marks)
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(c) Outline the sructual and physiological functions of lipids in living organisms.
(i) Structual. (3 marks)
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(ii) Physiological. (3 marks)
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12. The figure below shows two diagrams, use them to answer the questions that follow.
(a) Identify with albels which one represents a lipid and which a phospholipid. (1 mark)
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(b) (i) For molecule A, indicate on the diagram where hydrolysis would take place if a molecule
is digested.
(ii) Name the products of digestion. (0.5 marks)
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(c) Each molecule has a head with tails attached. For molecule B, label the head to indentify its
chemical nature.
(d) (i) Which of the two molecules is water soluble? (3 marks)
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(ii) Explain your answer in (d)(i). (3 marks)
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(e) State one function of each molecule. (1 mark)
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5.4 Proteins
3. Which one of the following does not determine the order in which amino acids line up to protein
synthesis.
5. When a Biuret test was carried out on an unknown substance, a purple colour was observed.
A. (i) (ii) (iii) B. (ii) (iv) (v) C. (i) (iii) (vi) D. (ii) (iv) (vi)
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
12. a) Outline any four differences between keratin and a hormone. (4 marks)
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b) What is meant by an isoelectric point? (2 marks)
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c) Suggest any one mechanical means of protein denaturation. (1 mark)
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14. Explain what is meant by the primary structure of a protein molecule. (2 marks)
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15. (a) Explain the role of hydrogen bonding in maintaining the structure of a globular protein such
as insulin. (3 marks)
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(b)Describe how the structure of a fibrous protein, such as collagen, differs from the structure of a
globular protein. (3 marks)
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(a) Give two elements other than carbon, hydrogen and oxygen which could be present in the side
groups R1 and R2 . (1 mark)
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(b) A and B can be linked together during protein synthesis.
(i) What name is given to that bond? (1 mark)
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(ii) Copy the diagram and put a ring around atoms which are removed when A and B are joined.
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(iii) Draw a line connecting the atoms in A and B which are bonded. (0.5 marks)
(c) Describe how properties of side groups R1 and R2 may vary, and how these are involved in the
structure of proteins. (1 mark)
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(d) Complete the table below giving named examples of a protein having the function indicated.
(e) The figure below shows a small polypeptide consisting of eight amino-acids , S-Z.
(i) Give the formula of the chemical compound which would appear at the end of aminoacid Z.
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(ii) Name the type of reaction by which amino acids are joined together. (1 mark)
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(iii) Name the reagents you would use to test for the presence of a protein. (2 marks)
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(a) Draw a diagram to show the structure of a tripeptide with the following sequence,
alanine-glycine-serine. (3 marks)
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(b) What name is give to the squence of aminoacids in the protein? (1 mark)
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(c) What substance, apart from the tripeptide would be formed when the three acids combine?
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(c) Draw a ring around an atom or group of atoms making up the R-group that could hydrogen
bond with a neighbouring R group. (1 mark)
(d) Draw a ring around and label the peptide(s) bonds you have drawn in the diagram. (1 mark)
5.5 Vitamins
A. D B. E C. B D. A
3. Which of the following vitamins can not be stored in the adipose tissue?
5. Vitamins are important in human diet because they are incorporated into:
6.1 Enzymes
2. When a piece of liver is dropped into a beaker containing hydrogen peroxide, there is a vigorous
3. Enzymes that catalyze the removal of water molecules from a substance are called
4. When the level of inhibition of an enzyme activity depends entirely on the concentration of the
8. Which one of the following properties of proteins is most important in creating molecular order in
cells?
12. The cofactor which is a small organic molecule that acts as a carrier molecule called.
14. Which one of the following characteristics of enzymes distinguish them from inorganic catalysts?
They;
A. Initiate and speed up the rate of reactions.
B. Remain the same at the end of a reaction.
C. May promote reversible reactions.
D. Exert their effects when present even in small amounts.
15. Chloride ions are vital for efficient functioning of salivary amylase because the ions are;
16. Which one of the following correctly represents the effect of increasing substrate concentration
. competitive Non-competitive
A. decreased increased
B. decreased no decrease
C. increased decreased
D. no change increased
17. The rate of enzyme controlled reaction becomes constant ata certain point with increase in
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
18. a) Using an example in each case distinguish between competitive and non-competitive inhibitors.
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b) Explain how allosteric inhibition occurs. (3 marks)
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c) State one way in which enzyme inhibitors have been put to use by man. (1 mark)
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19. The figure below shows the effect of varying substrate concentration on an enzyme catalysed
reaction, in abscence and presence of compund A.
(a) Explain the relationship between the reaction rate and substrate concentration.
(i) in absence of compound A. (3 marks)
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(ii) in the presnce of compound A. (3 marks)
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(b) State two factors which would have to be kept constant in this experiment. (3 marks)
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(C) What would be the effect of increasing the concentration of compund A in the experiment?
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22. The figure below shows the relationship between pH and realtive activity of the three proteases
D. Nomenclature C. Systematics
B. Identification D. Phylogenetic relationship
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
7.2 Viruses
A. They are the smallest living organisms C. They have both DNA and RNA
B. They lack cellular structures D. They have alipoprotein coat
3. Which one of the following characteristics of viruses makes it difficult to classify them as living
organism?
A. DNA as template to make more DNA. C. RNA as template to make more RNA.
B. DNA as template to make RNA. D. RNA as template to make more DNA.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
11. (a)(i) What characteristics are used to classify viruses as living things? (3 marks)
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(ii) Why are viruses also referred to as non-living things? (2 marks)
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(b) Why is a virus referred to as an obligate parasite? (3 marks)
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(c) State the two general components of viruses. (2 marks)
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(d) Name any two plant and two animals (other than human) diseases caused by viruses.
Plant diseases (1) (1 mark)
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Animal diseases (1) (1mark)
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12. (a) The diagram below shows five steps in the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage. The order of steps
has been scrambled. Arrange the steps in their correct order by writing the letter of each step, and
briefly what is happening in each step.
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(b) How does an RNA virus get viral DNA into a host cell’s genome? (3 marks)
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(C) Why must a person recieve a different flu vaccine ecah year to be protected against flu?
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(e) What kind of factors can cause a prophage to become virulent. (2 marks)
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13. (a) The figure below shows the structure of the human immunodefieciency virus. Label parts a to
e in the spaces provided
(a) Name and briefly describe the functions of the parts labelled A and B. (3 marks)
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(b) Suggest an approximate size(diameter) for such a virus. (1 mark)
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(c) Suggest two important reasons why such viruses are not reffered to as living organisms.
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1. The following organizations have cilia and flagella with 9 + 2 fibril arrangement except.
3. Which of the following type of bacteria would you mostly likely to find in very salty water?
A. chemoautotroph. C. cynobacterium.
B. halophile. D. thermoacidophile.
8. Which one of the following bacteria can live in the presence of oxygen?
A. only obligate anaerobes.
B. only obligate aerobes.
C. only obligate aerobes and facultative anaerobes.
D. all bacteria
9. The process by which two living bacteria bind together and transfer genetic information is called.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
10. (a) Give four nutritional groups of bacteria, giving one example in each case. (4 marks)
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11. (a) Give the function of each labeled part the drawing of the bacterial cell below.
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(b) Name three environmental factors that affect the growth of bacteria. (3 marks)
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(c) Where does photosynthesis take place in a photoautotrophic bacterium? (1 mark)
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12. (a) Name the bacterial cells in the figure below in the spaces provided.
(b) Why do some bacteria retain their Gram stain while others do not? (3 marks)
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(c) Identify two ecologically important characteristcs of cynobacteria. (2 marks)
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(e) Clostridium perfringens , the soil dwelling bacterium that causes gangrene, is an obligate
anaerobe, using the information predict which would be more likely to become infected with C.
perfringens : A deep puncture wound or a surface cut. Explain the reason for your inference
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13. The figure below shows the strucure of a typical bacterial cell as revealed by an elcetron
microscope.
(a) Give one function for each of the following features A, B, and C. (1 mark)
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(b) Gram staining can be used in in the identification of bacteria.
(i) Explain the difference in appearance after staining between a sample of Gram positive and a
sample of Gram negative. (3 marks)
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5. Fungi that have coenocytic hyphae and reproduce sexually through conjugation belong to
phylum.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
10. The figure below shows asexual and sexual reproduction in zygomycetes.
(a) label each structure or process in the space provided.
(b) How do the reproductive structures of ascomycetes differ from those of basidiomycetes.
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(c) Explain the difference between a mycorrhiza and a lichen. (2 marks)
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(c) What effects do lichens have on their physical environment? (2marks)
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(b) How does the cell wall of fungi differ from those of plants? (2 marks)
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(c) Outine four features of puffballs that enable them to be placed into the fungi kingdom.
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(d) Explain how a fungi reproduces through fragmentation. (3 marks)
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(e) What characteristic do fungi share with plants? (1 marks)
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(f) In what ways are most fungi similar to unicellular protists? (3 marks)
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3. Fleas are wingless but are grouped in the order of the winged insects because;
A. its mouth parts are similar to those of winged insects
B. it lost wings during evolution
C. its limbs are similar to those of the winged insects
D. it feeds on the same type of food with the winged insects
8. Which one of the following organisms belongs to the same phylum as the earth worm?
12. Which one of the following organisms has the highest power of regeneration?
13. Which of the following organisms is rendered immobile by cutting off the flagella?
14. Which one of the following belongs to a different phylum from the rest?
15. In which one of the following pairs do the organisms belong to two different phyla?
6. Bryophytes have
13. The production of single type of spore is a characteristic of the life cycles of.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
16. The figure below shows a phylogenetic diagram of plants and their algal anscestors.
(a) In the space provided, name the adaptations that evolved at each of the positions indicated.
(b) Name two adaptations plants have made to life on land. (2 marks)
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(c) Describe the advantage of each adaptation. (3 marks)
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17. The diagram below shows the main parts of the moss.
(a) Identify the phases of the moss life cycle represented by letters A and B, and name the
structure labelled C.
(b) Identify two ways how vacular plants differ from non vascular plants. (1.5 marks)
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(c) How do reproductive structures of angiosperms differ from those of gymnosperms?
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2. A feeding relationship that proceeds from grass to rabbit, fox, and lion is best described as
A. less than the total number C. consistently the same year after year
B. greater than the total number of herbivores D. equal to the total number of
4. Which one of the following equations shows the correct relationship between gross primary
6. Which one of the following ecological pyramids may be used to determine productivity in an
ecosystem?
7. The number of organisms in each trophic level reduces as one moves up a food chain because
11. In a heavily polluted aquatic ecosystem, the group of organisms with highest concentration of
12. Competition by two species for the same ecological niche generally results in.
A. the sharing of the niche by the two species
B. one species taking possession of the niche
C. both species leaving the niche
D. inter breeding between the species
14. Algae have much smaller biomass compared to large producers such as tree but may have the
15. A food web is more stable than a food chain because a food web
A. includes more consumers than producers.
B. Includes alternative path ways for energy flow.
C. reduces the number of niches in an ecosystem.
The most likely nutritional relationship between producers and primary consumers is
A. mutualistic. C. parasitic.
B. symbiotic. . D. autotrophic.
18. Which one of the following refers to a group of individuals of atleast two species living together?
19. Which one of the following is true about the environment of a forest floor under thick canopy?
20. Which one of the followimg constitutes of the most energy transfer?
21. Why don’t most food chains go beyond trophic level four?
A.Top consumers like lions dont have predators.
B. Some organic matter is not edible.
C. They have very few producers.
D. Energy is lost by consumers to producers.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
23. In an aquatic ecosystem which was affected by an insecticide, analysis of energy flow and
concentration of the pesticide at each trophic level in a food chain was made. The results are
shown on a pyramid of biomass of the ecosystem, in figure
(a) What does the width of each bar of the pyramid represent? (1 mark)
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(b) Explain why, from producers to secondary consumers,
(i) The levels of the pesticides increase? (2 marks)
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25. (a) Explain the role consumers and producers in the recycling of carbon in nature
(i) Consumers; (2 marks)
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(a) Assuming 10% of the energy received by the herbivore is lost. Calculate the energy retained
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(b) Explain why
(i) Energy transfers from herbivores to carnivores is more effective than from producers to
herbivores. (3 marks)
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(ii) The efficiency of energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores is less than 100%? (3 marks)
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(c) State the factors which limit the numbers of trophic levels in a food chain. (3 marks)
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27. The figure below shows the relationship between biomass of primary consumers, secondary
consumers and producers.
28. The figur below shows the relationship between the biomass of phytoplankton and the depth at
which is found in two different lakes.Lake A has low nutrient concentration. Lake B has the
highest nutrient content
(a) Briefly describe a method by which you could measure the biosmass of the phytoplanktons.
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(b) Describe the effect of different nutrient concentration on the distibution of phytoplanktons in
the two lakes. (3 marks)
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(c) The rate of biomass production at 5 metres was much higher in lake A than in lake B. Explain
why. (3 marks)
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(e) After a shorter period of time, the phytoplanktons die and their remains decays;
(i) Use this information to explain why application of large amounts of nitrate fertiliser to the land
surrounding the lake might affect other organisms in the lake. (3 marks)
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(ii) Suggest why a period of drought might increase the effect described in your answer in (e)(i).
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(f) Biological methods can be used to monitor water pollution such as that caused by addition of
fertilisers. Explain why each of the following may be used to monitor water pollution.
(i) presence or basence of indicator species. (2 marks)
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(ii) an index of diversity. (2 marks)
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(i) Explain the relations between the leaf area index and net primaty productivity between points.
A and B. (3 marks)
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B and C. (3 marks)
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(ii) State the equation that shows the relationship between gross primary productivity, net primary
productivity and respiration. (1 marks)
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(iii) Which one of these quantities will give the best indication of mass of dry matter produced by
the banana. (1 marks)
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1. All the following are density dependent factors that limit population growth except
A. rainfall C. interspecific
B. disease and parasites D. intraspecific competition
2. Which of the following methods of controlling malaria would cause least damage to the
environment?
3. Which of the methods below is most suitable for estimating the population of the Paramecium in
a pond?
6. In estimating the number of fish in a small lake, 625 fish were netted, marked and released. After
a week, 873 fish were netted and of these 129 had been marked . the estimated size of the
7. Which one of the following would not apply to population whose size is growing exponentially?
A. Absence of predators
C. Shortage of reproducing individuals
B. Reproduction rate being higher than death
D. Absence of competition for resources.
rate
A. Some organisms exist in isolation C. All organisms interact with each other
B. Every organism can be independent D. Each organism has a different source of food
11. In estimating the population of Tilapia in fish pond, 60 fish were marked and released. After 2
days, 50 were captured and out of which 10 were marked. The population of Tilapia in the fish
pond was.
12. What is the major environmental factor limiting the number of autotrophs at a great depths in the
oceans?
13. The largest population that can be maintained by a particular environment for an indefinite period
is known as
14. Which one of the following is not used to describe a population of organisms
15. Which one of the following statements concerning the general world environmental situation is
scientifically untrue?
A. use of pesticides increases accumulation of poisons in water supplies.
B. farming intensively leads to destruction of wild life habitant
C. cutting down of forests creates favorable conditions for soil erosion.
D. use of fertilizers has risks of water pollution.
16. Which of the following factors will cause an increase in the bio chemical oxygen demand in a
water body?
A. insufficient supply of oxygen
B. a high producer population
C. A high production on low consumer population
D. Action of anaerobic bacteria
17. In estimating the population of a weed in a area of 1000m2 , a1m2 quadrant was thrown 50 times
and the total number of weeds counted were 60. What was the estimated population of the weed?
18. Determining the most common plant species in a large harbitat within a short time can be best
19. When using the Lincoln index method, during the release of the animals one has to consider the
20. When individuals are found in isolated small groups within a habitat, their dispersion is termed as
21. The type of succession where recolonisation of an area results into a different community from
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
23. The figure below shows three population growth curve patterns a, b, and c that occur naturally.
Describe and suggest reasons for the observed pattern of each population growth curve.
(a) (3 marks)
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(b) (3 marks)
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(c) (4 marks)
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24. (a) (i) Describe how the quadrant method can be used to determine species density. (3 marks)
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(ii) State the advantage and disadvantages of the method. (2 marks)
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(b) (i) why is it important to estimate population size? (2marks)
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(ii) In estimate the number of fish in a small lake, 625 fish were caught, marked and released.
After one week, 920 fish were caught and of these, 150 had been marked. What was the estimated
fish population? (3 marks)
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(iii) In using the method in b (ii) to estimate the population size of fish, state two assumptions that
were made. (3 marks)
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a) i) Describe how random sampling can be carried out. (3 marks)
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25. The figure shows a relationship between a pest and biological control agent.
(b) Explain the changes in the population of the pest and control agent. (5 marks)
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(c) Suggest what would happen if the pest was completely wiped out. (2 marks)
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(d) Explain the characteristics of a good biological control agent. (1 marks)
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26. The figure below shows the population of a producer and a consumer in a lake over time.
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(c) Suggest how human activities could result in the interactions of the population between points
A and B. (4 marks)
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27. The capture recapture method was used to estimate the population size of dragon flies. The
following results were obtained: On first day, 300 dragon flies were captured and marked. Two
days later 450 dragon flies were captured out of which 100 had been marked.
(a) Using this information, estimate the population size of dragon flies. (3 marks)
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(b) State three assumptions, and two precautions which are taken into account while using this
method in estimating population size.
Assumptions: (3 marks)
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Precautions: (3 marks)
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(c) State any three sources of error in using this method of estimating population size. (3 marks)
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(a) Indicate by drawing on curve A the carrying capacity of the environment. (01 mark)
(b) Compare the pattern of population change in curves A and B. (02 marks)
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(c) Suggest an explanation for the population changes in curve B. (3 marks)
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(d) Suggest three biotic factors which can result into a change in carrying capacity, in an
environment. (3 marks)
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29. The graph A and B below indicate biotic interactions between different species of Paramecia
when bred in two mixed cultures in two different beakers. Study them and answer the questions
that follow;
30. Table 1 gives information on the frequency % of three plants along grassland / woodland transect.
(a) List the structural and physiological adaptations that enable a grass e.g Grass A, to survive in
its habitat. (3 marks)
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(b) Give two structural adaptations you would expect to find in herb G that would enable it to
survive in the woodland. (2 marks)
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(c) How would you describe the distribution of grass B? (3 marks)
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31. (a) How can predation be beneficial to the prey species? (3 marks)
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(b) Give factors that may affect the predator-prey balance in nature. (2 marks)
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(c) Outline ways by which humans have affceted the predator- prey balance resulting into harmful
consequences. (3 marks)
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33. (a) Describe brifely the Lincoln index method of estimating population size. (3 marks)
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(b) Outline three disadvantages of using the Lincoln index method of estimating population size.
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(c) Outline any three precautions that must be taken when using the Lincoln index method in
estamating population size. (3 marks)
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2. Which of the following characteristics of a parasite is not means of ensuring continuity of species
of the parasite?
3. Which of the following is the right order in the life cycle of fasciola?
4. Facultative parasites are more difficult to control than the obligate ones because they;
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
(d) Describe three ways of a parasite-host relationship which ensures the success of a parasite.
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2. Predators in the top trophic levels in a food chain are most severely affected by persistent
pesticides because
A. their system are highly sensitive to chemiclas
B. they have rapid reproductive rates
C. they cannot store pesticides in their tissues.
D. the pesticides become concentrated in their prey.
3. Which one of the following activities does not contribute to global warming?
9. A feeding relationship that proceeds from grass to rabbit, fox, and lion is best described as
10. The ecological roles played by organism may be represented graphically in form of pyramids.
A. less than the total number C. consistently the same year after year
B. greater than the total number of herbivores D. equal to the total number of producers
14. Competition by two species for the same ecological niche generally results in
A. the sharing of the niche by the two species
B. one species taking possession of the niche
C. both species leaving the niche
D. inter breeding between the species
17. All the following are density dependent factors that limit population growth except
A. rainfall C. interspecific
B. disease and parasites D. intraspecitic competition
18. Which of the following methods of controlling malaria would cause least damage to the
environment?
A. Drawing of swamps
B. spraying swamps and ponds with insecticide
C. spreading oil all over stagnant water
D. introducing fish into the swamps and ponds.
22. What is the major environmental factor limiting the number of autotrophs at a great depths in the
oceans?
23. A food web is more stable than a food chain because a food web.
A. includes more consumers than producers.
B. Includes alternative path ways for energy flow.
C. reduces the number of niches in an ecosystem.
D. transfers all the producer energy to herbivores.
25. The largest population that can be maintained by a particular environment for an indefinite period
is known as
26. The following relate to the Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D), increase in the
1. Population of aerobic micro organism
2. Level of organic pollution
3. Level of eutrophication
28. Which one of the following statements concerning the general world environmental situation is
scientifically untrue?
A. use of pesticides increases accumulation of poisons in water supplies.
B. farming intensively leads to destruction of wild life habitant
C. cutting down of forests creates favourable conditions for soil erosion.
D. use of fertilizers has risks of water pollution.
29. Why dont most food chains go beyond trophic level four?
A. Top consumers like lions dont have predators.
B. Some organic matter is not edible.
C. They have very few producers.
D. Energy is lost by consumers to producers
30. Which one of these makes carbon dioxide have the greatest influence on global warming?
A. Retains more heat.
B. Has a higher concentration in the atmosphere.
C. Stays longer in the atmosphere.
D. Has acidic properties.
31. Which one of the following forms of environmental hazards is attributed to application of CFCs?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
32. (a) State three ecological problems which arise from the accumulation of dosmestic waste in
urban communities. (3 marks)
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(b) Give two ways of reducing domestic watse. (2 marks)
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(c) Figure below shows the lichen species growing along a 20 km transect from an urban centre.
(i) Explain the trend in the lichen species with with distance from the urban centre. (3 marks)
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(ii) Suggest an explanation for the observed number of lichen species at a distance of 10 km from
the urban centre. (2 marks)
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(i) From the figure above what is meant by thermal stratification? (1 mark)
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(ii) Suggest explanations for the distributions of each of the following within the different layers
of the lake. Oxygen content: (4 marks)
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Concentration of nutrients: (2 marks)
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36. How do high levels of each of the following gases in the atmosphere affect the environment
(a) Sulphur dioxide; (3 marks)
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(b) carbon dioxide; (3 marks)
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37. Table 1 shows the amount of DDT measured in parts per million (ppm) found in a variety of
organisms associated with a fresh water lake.
(a) (i) Calculate how many times the DDT is more concentrated in carnivorous fish compared
with its concentration in water. (2 marks)
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(ii) What do the results in a(i) show? (1 mark)
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(b) Explain why the concentration of DDT changes from water to carnivorous fish. (3 marks)
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(c) State two effects of DDT to organisms. (2 marks)
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(d) Explain how a pest sprayed with a pesticide may flourish afterwards. (3 marks)
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38. The graph below shows the effects of sewage pollution on some physical and chemical
constituents of a river at increasing distances downstream from the point of sewage discharge.
Suggest explanations for the variation, downstream from the point of sewage discharge, in
concentrations of ammonium ions, dissolved oxygen, and suspended solids.
(i) Ammonium ions; (3 marks)
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(ii) Dissolved oxygen (3 marks)
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(iii) Suspended solids; (3 marks)
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(b) Mention two consequences of discharging sewage into a river. (2 marks)
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39. (a) State any two human activities which cause eutrophication. (2 marks)
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(b) The fugure below shows plankton biomass of a lake measured during onset of eutrophication
and before. The reslults are represented in pyramid of biomass X and Y.
9 HEREDITY
2. Analysis of sample of DNA showed that 33% of the base were adenine. The percentage of
A. 34. B 33 C. 17 D. 28
3. The two strands of DNA easily separate during replication because of the;
A. helical nature of the nucleotide
B. closeness of the base pairs
C. weak hydrogen bonds between base pairs
D. the weak hydrogen bonds between phosphate and sugar
4. If the bases on the mRNA are ACU, what would be the corresponding bases on the original DNA
5. When a DNA sample was analysed, it showed that 28% of the bases were adenine. The
A. adenine-deoxyribose-phosphate. C. cytosine-deoxyribose-phosphate.
B. adenine-ribose-phosphate. D. guanine-deoxyribose- phosphate.
12. The codon CCU and CCC both code for the amino acid proline. What property of the genetic
A. It is universal C. It is degenerate
B. One gene codes for one polypeptide D. There are overlapping genes
13. The maximum number of triplet codons in the mammalian nuclear genetic code is
A. 3 B. 46 C. 61 D. 64
15. Which one of the following base triplets will pair with ACG triplet base?
17. A genetic code is a non over lapping code. What is the maximum number of amino acids, which
would have been coded for, by the following sequence of bases: UAAUAGUGA, provided there
A. 3 B. 4 C. 7 D. 9
20. A mutation is a
A. change in the direction of the replication fork.
B. form of cancer.
C. kind of replication.
D. change in the nucleotide squence of DNA.
21. Which one of the following enzymes is involved with the breaking of hydrogen bonds?
22. A biochemical analysis of a DNA sample showed that 34% of the bases were guanine. The
24. In the Watson crick mode of a double helix, the rungs of the twisted ladder are composed of
A. sugars
C. two pyrimidines
B. two purines
D. a purine and a pyrimidine
25. What are the triplet baseson the template DNA strand if the anticodon of the tRNA is ACG?
28. The maximum number of triplet codons in the mammalian nuclear genetic code is
A. 3 B. 46 C. 61 D. 64
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
29. The genetic code contains punctuation codons to mark the start and end of synthesis of
polypeptide chains on ribosome.
a) State the codes for the
i) Start codon: (2 marks)
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ii) Stop codons; (2 marks)
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b) i) Define the term genetic code. (2 marks)
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ii) Outline any four basic features of a genetic code. (4 marks)
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(C) Explain why the genetic code for an amino acid is a 3 base code rather than a 2 base code.
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32. (a) The diagram below shows two nucleotide base pair in the segment of DNA molecule. Label
each part of the figure in the spaces provide.
(b) Why is complementary base pairing important in the DNA structure? (2 marks)
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(c) If 15% of the nucleotide in a DNA molecule contain guanine, what percentage of the
nucleotide contain each of the following bases? (2 marks)
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33. (a) The figure below shows DNA replicating,describe what is occuring at each lettered section of
the figure.
Part a: (2 marks)
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part b: (2 marks)
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part C: (2 marks)
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(b) Why is it important that exact copies of DNA are produced during replication? (2 marks)
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(c) State any three features that make DNA a good storage compound for genetic information.
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35. (a) Describe two differences between a DNA molecule and tRNA molecule. (3 marks)
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3. At which one of the following stages of cell division does a cell have the same nucleic content as
that at metaphase I?
A. Anaphase I C. Telophase II
B. Metaphase II D. Prophase II
5. Figure 1 below represent a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis. If crossing over
occurs at the point labeled as Q, t he genotypes in the gametes formed would be.
8. Which one of the following events takes place during the late metaphases of mitotic cell division?
A. Nucleolus disappears.
B. Chromosomes arrange themselves on the equator of spindle
C. Chromatids part company and migrate to opposite poles of cell
D. Chromatids draw apart at the centromere region.
12. meiosis II
A. is preceded by copying the DNA.
B. separates chromatids into separate poles of the cell.
C. separates homologous chromosomes into separate poles of the cell.
D. produces diploid offspring cells.
14. In eukaryotic cells, DNA is copied a phase of the cell cycle called....
17. The fibers that extent from centrosome to centrosome during mitosis are called
19. Which of these stages of prophase 1 deals with the paternal and maternal chromosomes coming
20. A cell with four chromosomes undergoes a cell cycle including mitosis. Which diagram correctly
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
23. (a) In the spaces provided below, label each figure with the phase of mitosis that it represents.
(b)List five main phases of the cell cycle, and briefly explain what occurs in each phase.(3 marks)
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(c) Describe cytokinesis in a plant cell. (3 marks)
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26. (a). State FOUR differences between mitosis and meiosis. (4 marks)
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(b)What two features of mitosis ensure that the diploid number of chromosomes is maintained.
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(c) Describe two roles of mitosis. (2 marks)
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27. (a) In the space provide below, label each figure with the phase of meiosis that it represents
(b) Describe two ways in which genetic recombination occur during meiosis. (2 marks)
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(c) How do products of meiosis I differ from those of meiosis II? (2 marks)
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2. Double helix is composed of one old protein strand and one new protein strand Which one of the
A. Translation C. Transcription
B. Transportation D. DNA replication
3. During protein synthesis, the anticodon base sequence on tRNA is AUG. What is the base
5. Which one of the following statements is correct about base pairing in nucleic acids?
A. Guanine pairs with adenine.
B. Purines only pair with pyrimidines.
6. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the transcription of DNA?
8. How many different arrangments of four bases into triplets can be made?
A. 3+4 B 3x4. C. 34 D. 43
stage 2 represents
12. The free end of the tRNA which serves as a binding site of a specific amino acid terminates in the
triplet.
13. The information required for protein synthesis is called to the ribosome by
14. What is the maximum number of triplets of nucleotides that could code for the 20 amino acids?
A. 3 B. 6 C. 48 D. 64
16. If the bases on the mRNA are ACU, what would be the corresponding bases on the original DNA
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
17. (a)The diagram below summaries the events tant occur during translation. label each part of the
figure in the spaces provided.
(b) Explain why methionine is the first amino acid in every growing polypetide. (02 marks)
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(c) Explain the relationship of the following terms in each of the following pairs.
(i) Regulator gene and repressor protein: (2 marks)
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(ii) operator and operon: (2 marks)
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(iii) intron and exon. (2 marks)
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18. The figure below summaries the processes of protein synthesis. use it to answer questions that
follow.
(i) Which of the first anticodon used in protein synthesis from this mRNA? (1 mark)
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(ii) What is the anticodon sequence in tRNA 1. (1 mark)
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(iii) Give the DNA triplet code which is recognised by tRNA 2. (1mark)
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(iv) Give the amino acid carried by tRNA 2. (1 mark)
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(b) i) Explain what changes will occur in translation apparatus to allow codon 6 to be translated.
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ii) What are the possible codon sequences for codon 6.
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1. All the allelles present in the population of a species are called the populations
2. Which one of the following representations of genotypes would produce only one type of
gametes
3. When tall red flowered plant was crossed with a a short and white flowered plant, all the off
springs were tall and red flowered. When the F1 were selfed, theF2 plants phenotypes were in a
5. What would be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring when a test cross is carried out on an
6. What would be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring when a test cross is carried out on an
A. 1 : 2 : 1. B. 3 : 1. C. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. D. 1 : 1.
7. In humans brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes. A cross between a heterozygous brown eyed
individual and a recessive blue eyed individual would result in a phenotypic ratio of
8. The scientist who first described the principles of dominance, segregation, and independent
assortment was
9. The results of crossing a red flowered Japanese four oclock plant with a white flowered Japanese
four o’clock are all pink offspring. This demonstrates the principle of
10. In a plant species, the allele for tallness (T) and blue flowers (B) is dominant to that for shortness
(t) and white flowers (b). A tall plant with blue flowers was crossed with a short plant with white
12. The allele of a trait that always shows up in the F1 generation is said to be
13. Establishing the genotype of an organism by crossing it with a homozygous recessive individual
is carrying out a
14. In guinea pigs, the allele for rough coat (R) is dominant over the smooth coat (r) and that for
black coat (B) is dominant over one for white coat (b). The allele for coat type and colour are not
linked. A cross between rough black guinea pig and rough white one produced 28 rough black,
31 rough white, 11 smooth black and 10 smooth white. Which one of the following could be the
15. In flowers, the heterozygous condition of the alleles for Red petals (R) and white petals (W), are
pink. Which one of the following proportions and colour of petals is correct if a pink flowered
16. A coffee plant known as to be heterozygous for a recessive defect which makes the plant fail to
produce viable seeds, was self-pollinated and gave rise to 600 seedlings. How many of the
17. The phenotype resulting from a cross between red eyed and white eyed fruit flies depends on
which parent is red eyed. This means that the gene for eye colour is
18. What would be the proportions of the F1 generation if a double recessive parent is crossed with a
A. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 B. 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 C. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 D. 1 : 3
19. Which one of the following phenotypic ratios results from Dihybrid inheritance?
A. 1 : 1 B. 1 : 2 : 1 C. 3 : 1 D. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
21. Which of the following stages best describes Mendels first law?
A. Metaphase I C. Prophase II
B. Anaphase D. Metaphase II
22. A cotton plant known to be heterozygous for a recessive gene defect which makes the plant fail to
produce seeds was self pollinated and gave rise to 500 seedlings. How many of the seedlings will
23. A blue eyed man marries two wives, both brown eyed. Two children one brown eyed, the other
blue eyed are born to the first wife. The second wife bears three children all brown eyed. Which
24. In mice, the allele for yellow fur is dominant to agouti fur. A self cross between mice with yellow
fur produces offsprings in the ratio of 2 yellow to 1 agouti. This result indicates that the allele for
yellow fur is
25. When a heterozygote (grey body, long wing) was crossed with a homozygote (black body, short
wing), the off springs phenotypic ratio was 1 grey body, long wing to 1 black body vestigial wing
because
26. In cattle, the gene for the polled conditions is dominant over that for the horned condition. A
heterozygous polled bull is mated to a cow whose horns were removed when still a calf. The
27. A white cow was mated to a red bull and the offspring was roan. This result shows:
28. Which one of the following is determine when a test cross is carried out?
30. In horses chestnut coat is dominant to black coat and trolling gait is dominant to pacing. A horse
that is hybrid for both traits has the genotype Cc Tt. If a horse who is a chestnut pacer is bred
several times to a black troller and they always have chestnut trollers and black trollers. What are
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
31. In a garden pea plant there are two forms of heights. When a pure breeding tall pea plant was
crossed with a short pea plant all the offsprings obtained were tall when the offsprings were
selfed a phenotype ration was obtained in F2
a. Using suitable genetic symbols determine the genotypic ratio of the F2 generation. (4 marks)
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b) What are the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of the F2 generation. (1 mark)
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c) Explain how you would determine the genotype of the F1 tall pea plants formed. (3 marks)
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d. Suppose 700 pea plants where produced in the F2 generation
(i) How many were tall? (3 marks)
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(ii)How many were short? (3 marks)
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(ii) Show by means of a cross, the inheritance of manx condition when two manx are mated.
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33. In an oil seed plant species, the allele for tallness is dominant over that of dwarfness. Meanwhile
the allele for chlorophyll production and non-chlorophyll show incomplete dominance. The
heterozygous plants are variegated.
(a) Using suitable symbols, construct a diagram of a cross between a tall plant with green leaves
and a dwarf plant with variegated leaves, to show the genotypes and phenotypes of the offsprings.
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(b) Explain why 25% of the offspring of the cross in (a) would fail to survive. (3 marks)
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34. Suppose a man who is a tongue roller marries a woman who is a non-tongue roller and all the
children in the F1 are tongue rollers
(a) Workout the phenotypic and genotypic ratio as obtained in the F2 generation. (4 marks)
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(b) What is the probability that the 4th born is a non-tongue roller? (3 marks)
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35. Gene R for red colour can only express itself in a Dihybrid cross in the presence of gene C which
complements its action to form colour. When two white flowering genotypes CCrr and ccRR
were crossed the F1 generation were all red flowers.
(a) (i) What would be the genotypes of F2 when the F1 progeny are selfed? (Show your working).
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ii)What would be the phenotype ratio of the F2 progeny? (3 marks)
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(b) Comment on the F2 phenotype ratio you have obtained in (a)(ii) above. (2 marks)
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36. (a) State Mendel’s first law of inheritance and explain what it means. (2 marks)
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(b) (i) State the stages of meiosis that illustrate this law. (3 marks)
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(ii) Explain what takes place in the stages you have named in a (ii) above. (2 marks)
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(c) In human beings, brown eye are usually dominant over blue eyes. Suppose a blue-eyed man
marries a brown eyed woman whose father was blue-eye. What proportion of their children
would you predict will have blue eyes? Show your working. (6 marks)
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37. (a) State four situations where Mendel’s law would not apply. (4 marks)
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(b) In an animal species, individuals that are homlogous for gene A or its alles die. Another
independent gene B in the homozygous state, blocks this lethal effect,otherwiae gene B has no
other effect on the organism
(i) Work out the expected phenotypic ratio of the viable offspring in a cross of individuals of
AaBb and AaBB genotype. (5 marks)
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(ii) State the type of gene in interaction in b(i). (1 mark)
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b) In cats the allelic gene for black colour and ginger colour shows co-dominance. This gene is
sex-linked. A male cat with ginger coat colour was crossed with a female with black coat colour.
Using genetic symbols work out the genotypes of across of the F1 off springs. (5 marks)
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ii) Explain how theF2 phenotypic ratio is obtained. (3 marks)
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1. In drosophila, there are red -eyed and white eyed types, the red eye being dominant over the
white, genes controlling eye colour and are sex linked. The ratio of the phenotypes resulting from
2. In an experiment using maize with two contrasting characters, the F2 progeny were made up of 3
3. A muscle cell of an animal was found to contain 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes
would a germinal epithelium cell within the ovary of the animal contain?
A. 24 B. 12 C. 48 D. 36
5. A couple had children with disorder that appeared only in sons. Which one of the following
7. A plant has 20 chromosomes on its receptacle cells. What would be the number of chromosomes
in its endosperm?
A. 80 B. 40 C. 30 D. 10
9. Which one of the following phenotype ratios results from a recombination due to linkage?
A. 4 : 1 : 1 : 4 B. 1 : 2 : 1 C. 2 : 1 D. 1 : 1
10. A man of blood group B married a woman of blood group AB. Which one of the following blood
A. AO B. BO C. AA D. BB
11. A boy has blood group A and his sister has blood group B. Which combination of genotype
12. Which of the following statements is not true of a recessive sex-linked character in humans?
A. It is found more frequently in males than in females
B. It does not appear in a female unless it also appeared in the paternal parent
C. It rarely appears in both father and son, then only if the maternal parent is heterozygous
D. It is found more frequently in the female than in the male
13. A trait that is carried on the X chromosome and has no allele on the Y chromosome is
A. an exception to the principle of codominance.
B. normal sex-linked inheritance.
C. lethal in females.
D. normal autosomal inheritance
14. In humans, normal color vision is dominant over color blindness. A color blind male marries a
female who is a carrier for color blindness. What is the probability that a color blind boy, X n Y,
15. Since blood groups AB0 are codominant and individual with IA IB will have blood group
A. B. B. A C.O. D. AO
16. Which one of the following human traits is not a polygenic trait?
17. A trait whose expression is affected by the presence of a sex hormone is said to be
A. sex-influenced. C. X-linked.
B. sex-linked. D. Y-linked.
18. Which one of the following cannot be parents of a child of blood group O?
A. Man of blood group A and woman of blood group B.
B. Both man and woman of blood group A
C. Both man and woman of blood group B
D. Man of blood group AB and woman of blood group O.
19. Which of the following is the phenotypic ratio due to lethal genes;
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
21. In a drosophila, the gene for wing length and eye colour are sex- linked with normal wings and
red eyes being dominant to miniature wings and white eyes respectively.
(a) In a cross between a miniature-winged red eyed male and a homozygous normal wing white
eyed female, explain the expected appearance of theF1 and F2 generations. (5 marks)
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(b) Crossing a female from theF1 genarations above with miniature wing white eyed male gave
the following results
Normal wing white eyed males and females = 35
Normal wing red eyed males and females = 17
Miniature wing red eyed males and females = 18
Miniature wing white eyed males and females = 36
Account for the appearance and numbers of the phenotypes listed above. (3 marks)
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22. In a variety of beans, yellow seed colour is dominant over green and smooth seed coat is
dominant over wrinkled. When yellow smooth beans were crossed with green wrinkled beans, all
F1 had yellow smooth seed. The F2 progeny yielded 556 seeds.
(a) Assuming no linkage, state the four possible characters in the F2 progeny and their
corresponding phenotypic ratios. (4 marks)
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(b) Calculate the number of individuals for each of the characters in the F2 population. (3 marks)
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(c) Calculate the percentage crossover in this experiment. (3 marks)
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23. In Drosophila, the genes for broad abdomen and long wing are dominant over the genes for
narrow abdomen and vestigial wing. Pure breeding strains of the double dominant variety were
crossed with a double recessive variety and a test cross was carried out on the F1 generation.
(a) Using suitable symbols, work out the expected phenotype ratio of the test cross of the F1
generation, if the genes for abdomen width and length of wing are linked. (6 marks)
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(b) It was however observed that when the test cross of the F1 generation was carried out, the
following results were obtained. (03 marks)
Broad abdomen, long wing 380
Narrow abdomen, vestigial wing 396
Broad abdomen, vestigial wing 14
Narrow abdomen, long wing 10
Calculate the distance in units, between the genes ,for abdomen width and length of wing.
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24. Mary, a student, with blood group A had a baby with blood group O. Peter, a fellow Student who
she named as responsible for the pregnancy, denied responsibility. The case was then taken to
court. The following facts were determined.
Peters mother was of blood group A and father, blood group B. State whether the court will find
Peter guilty or innocent. Show how you reached your conclusion. (6 marks)
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26. a) Define the following terms; back cross, sex linked and sex limited characters.. (3 marks)
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b) Which cells in cereals are haploid, diploid and triploid?
Haploid.. (1 mark)
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Diploid. (1 mark)
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Triploid. (1 mark)
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(c) Describe one method by which polyploidy can be artificially induced.. (2 marks)
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27. (a) In sugarcane the genes for yellow midrib (y) and long internodes (n) are recessive to green
plants midrib (Y) and short internode (N), and are on the same chromosomes. A yellow
sugarcane with long internode was crossed with a sugarcane heterozygous for yellow midrib and
long internodes. The offspring were: 256 YyNn, 38 Yynn
272 yynn, 34 yyNn
Calculate the cross over value.. (4 marks)
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b)In man the gene for red blood corpuscle shape is represented by alleles E (ediptical) and e
(normal), while another gene for rhesus blood is represented by alleles Rhesus positive(R) and
Rhesus negative (r). Alleles E and R are dominant over e and r respectively. The two genes are
linked. A person may have alleles E and R on one chromosome and e and r on its homologous
partner.
State the possible genotypes of the gamete if
i)There is crossing over.. (1 mark)
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28. (a) Explain using appropriate symbols, the possible blood groups of children whose parents are
both heterozygous, the father being of blood group A and te mother of B.. (3 marks)
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(b) If both parents have non-identical twins, what is the probability that both twins will have
blood group A?. (3 marks)
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29. (a) In cats, the genes conrolling the coat colour are carried on the X chromosomes and are
codominant. A black-coat female mated with a ginger-coat male produced a liter consisting of
black male and tortoiseshell female kittens. What is the expected F2 phenonotypic ratio? Explain
the results.. (5 marks)
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10 EVOLUTION
7. Hydroxylamine a mutagen converts cytosine to a compound which pairs with adenine. If DNA is
10. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a double recessive gene and sufferers usually die before maturity.
The continued existence of the sickle cell allele among the human population demonstrates
11. The maintenance of the fairly constant frequency for a sickle cell allele is an example of
12. In humans, albinism is recessive to normal pigmentation, if the frequency of the albino allele in a
population is 10%. What would be the expected proportion of albinos in the population?
13. Which one of the following stages of meiosis I are core determinants of genetic variation?
14. Which of the following factors does not maintain a constant allele frequency?
15. Haemophillia is a sex-linked trait caused by a rescessive gene. When a normal person marries a
carrier woman for haemophiia, the probability of the couple a normal son is
17. The ability for man to taste phenyl thiocarbomate (PTC) is an example of discontinuous variation.
When the percentage frequency of tasters for PTC is 71.2%, what is the genotype of frequency of
homozygous tasters?
18. From which of the following sources of variation, which one has the highest chance of producing
new species?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
(b) Explain how each of the following causes variation in sexually reproducing individuals
(i) Crossing over during meiosis.. (3 marks)
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(ii) Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis.. (3 marks)
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21. Figure 4 shows how sickle cell anaemia has affected a family line. Sickle cell anaemia is a
recessive genetic defeat which is not linked. (Individuals are numbered 1,2,3,,,,,,,,,,12)
(i) State the numbers of all the individuals in the family line that are certain to be heterozygous
for this gene.. (2 marks)
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(ii) What is the probability that individual 6 is heterozygous for this gene?(Show your working).
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(iii) The parasite which causes malaria digests haemoglobin in the red blood cells. Suggest two
reasons why an individual who is heterozygous for this gene may show resistance to malaria.
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(iv) State the difference between individuals who have sickle cell anaemia and those that have
sickle cell trait.. (2 marks)
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23. Cystic fibrosis is a lethal hereditary defect of the internal organs determined by a recessive gene.
(a) List down the symptoms of the condition.. (3 marks)
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(b) A couple has a child with cystic fibrosis but neither the husband not the wife nor any of their
parents have the disease.
(i) Calculate the probability that if this couple had a child, it will have cystic fibrosis (show your
reasoning) . (3 marks)
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(ii) What is meant by the term Allopolyploidy? . (2 marks)
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1. What would be the frequency of the heterozygote genotype in an infinitely large population if the
A.x2 B. y 2 C. xy D. 2xy
2. What is the frequency of the heterozygous genotype if there is one albino in a population of ten
thousand individuals?
3. ”The Hardy Weinberg principle can be applicable in the following instances except when”
A. population size is small
B. migration occurs only at the beginning of the breeding season.
C. mutations occur at a constant rate
D. natural selection does not occur.
4. If a population of four O’clock flowers consists of five RR plants (Red flowers) two Rr plants
(pink flowers) and one rr plant (white flowers) , the phenotype frequency of plants with pink
flowers is
6. All the alleles present in the population of a species are called the populations;
10. Any violation for the conditions necessary for the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can result in
11. The movement of reproductive idividuals from one population to another results into.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
14. In humans, albinism is caused by an autosomal recessive allele. On average 1 person in 10,000 is
an albino
(a) Give two characteristics of an albino.. (2 marks)
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(b) Using Hardy Weinberg formula p2 + 2pq + q 2 = 1, determine the
(i) Frequency of the albino allele in the human population. (3 marks)
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(ii) Frequency of the heterozygous genotype in the population . (3 marks)
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(c) Explain why it is difficult to eliminate recessive allelles from a population.. (3 marks)
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17. (a) Explain the meaning of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle.. (3 marks)
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(b) State four conditions that must be fulfilled in order for the principle to hold true. . (3 marks)
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(c) Brown eyes in human population is caused by a dominant allele. If in a population, 84% of
the people have brown eyes, using Hardy- Weinberg formula, determine the percentage of the
population who are (i) heterozygous for eye colour. Show your working. . (3 marks)
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(ii) homozygous dominant for eye colour. Show your working.. (3 marks)
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18. (a) What kind of individuals in population are represented by the two ends of the bell curve?.
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(b) What are the three main ways the variations in genotype arise in a population.?. (3 marks)
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(c) What five assumption must be made for the Hardy-Weinberg genetic equilibrium to apply a
population.. (5 marks)
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19. (a) List three factors that can cause evolution to take place.. (3 marks)
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(b) Explain how Hardy-weinberg genetic equilibrium is affected by mutations.. (3 marks)
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(c) What is one potential negative consquence of random mating based on geographic proximity?.
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2. What is the most basic raw material for evolution according to Charles Darwin?
3. If Lamacrk’s hypothesis of species modification were true, the children of a person who
C. all living organisms descended from a rescent common anscestor on the Galapogas islands.
D. all idividuals modify their behavior to survive and then pass those modifications on their
descendants.
5. Which one of the following is NOT part of Darwins theory of natural selection?
A. The members of a species differ from one another.
B. There is severe competition among organisms for available resources
C. Organisms strive to develop those traits that are most helpful in their particular environment.
D. Better adapted members of a species will survive and reproduce more successfully.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
(c) How does the modern view on evolution differ from Darwins view?. (3 marks)
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9. (a) Why are acquired traits not directly related to the process of evolution?. (2 marks)
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(b) What is the relationship between evolution and natural selection.. (2 marks)
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(C) Using the figure below, which of the parent birds shown below (A or B) appear to have
greater fithess. Explain your answer.. (3 marks)
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1. The similarities of the skeletal structures of moles, monkeys and whales lead to the conclusion
that they
2. The camel family is found only in North Africa, Asia and South America. This is an example of
A. Adaptive radiation
C. Divergent distribution
B. Convergent radiation
D. Discontinuous distribution
5. The following processes account for the discontinuous distribution of flora and fauna in the
1. Isolation 3. Migration
2. Continental drift, 4. Adaptive radiation
Which one of the following is the correct order for the occurrence of the process?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 2, 3, 4, 1 C. 2, 3, 1, 4 D. 4, 3, 2, 1
6. The possession of similar structures in organisms having different ancestral origin is a result of
A. Convergent evolution
C. Adaptive radiation
B. Divergent evolution
D. Parallel evolution
7. What is the process called by which different species evolve similar traits?
10. Functional resemblance of wings of a butterfly and a bird although from different origins, is an
example of
13. Features that were useful to an anscestral organism but are not useful to a mordern heritage that
A. analogous. C. vestigial.
B. homologous. D. artificially selected.
14. Which one of the following is not likely to bring about evolutionary change in the population?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
17. (a) Using an example, give the meaning of adaptive radiation of species.. (2 marks)
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(b) State the ecological importance of adaptive radiation. (2 marks)
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(c) How do adaptive radiation and homologous structures give evidence of evolution?
(i) Adaptive radiation (2 marks)
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(ii) Homologous structures (2 marks)
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1. Which one of the following may cause adaptive radiation to a variety of species?
2. Which one of the following does not lead to change in allele frequency of a population?
3. Which of the following factors would contribute least to the development of new species?
4. Which one of the following woulf happen to individuals of a population in the shadded area of
the figure below if selection pressure continued for generations acting on the phenotype?
They would
5. Insects have different mouth parts modified to suit their different modes of feeding. This shows
A. Speciation
C. Divergent evolution
B. Convergent evolution
D. Development of analogous structures
6. Starlings produce an average if five eggs in each clutch. if there are more than five, parents cannot
adequately feed the young.If thet are fewer than five, predators may destroy the entire clutch.This
is an example of
7. Which one of the following is likely to cause a faster rate of evolution of organsisms?
8. A shark (fish) and a porpoise (mammal) are both adapted to swimming. This is an example of
A. Speciation
B. Divergent evolution
C. adaptive radiation
D. convergent evolution
9. Which one of the following situations would result into evolution? When
10. Which one of the following best describes the evolution of new species from the same ancestor in
different environments?
11. The type of selection that can most likely lead to polymorphism within a population is termed as
A. Artificial selection
C. Stabilizing selection
B. Disruptive selection
D. Directional selection
12. The human embryo and that of fish both have gill slit. A possible explanation for this is that;
13. Which one of the following factors is least likely to contribute to the development of new
species?
14. Fish populations that do not interbreed because they live in different ponds may evolve into
15. Bird populations that do not interbreed because they cannot recognise each other’s mating calls
16. A pattern of rapid evolutionary changes followed by long periods of no change is described as
A. gradual evolution.
C. reproductive isolation.
B. punctuated evolution.
D. continous speciation.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
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19. (a) What are the two limitations of the biological species concept?. (2 marks)
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(b) What is one advantage of prezygotic isolation over postzygotic isolation?. (3 marks)
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(c) Describe two pieces of evidence indicating that speciation does not always occur at the same
time.. (3 marks)
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22. When extensive lakes that existed in Bunyoro were reduced to isolated pools many years ago,
four species of fish evolved as a result.
(a). Suggest how the drying up the lake system to isolated pools could have resulted in the
evolution of four new fish species.. (3 marks)
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(c) Suggest what would happen to the fish species if water levels rose and aisolated pools once
again formed an extensive lake system.. (2 marks)
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23. (a) How does resistance of malaria parasites to malarial drugs occur? . (3 marks)
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(b) How may each of the following lead to speciation?
(i) Genetic drift. . (3 marks)
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(ii) Unrandom mating.. (3 marks)
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24. The figure below shows selection pressure acting on a population of butterflies.
(a) State the type of natural selection exhibited in the figure above. (01 mark)
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(b) Explain how this type of natural selection affects the phenotypic ratio characteristics of the
population. (03 marks)
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(c) (i) In the space below sketch the distribution curve that would result after many generations of
this type of natural selection shown above. (01 mark)
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(ii) What ecological effect does the above type of selection have on the population? . (3 marks)
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(d) State the importance of genetic variation in natural selction. . (3 marks)
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25. (a) Explain three theories that attempt to explain the origin of the earth .. (3 marks)
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(d) Name the three types of selection illustarted by the graphs below
2. Which one of the following wave length bands of light is least absorbed by chlorophyll?
3. Over a 24- hour period, which factor would have the least effect upon the rate of photosynthesis
in a green plant?
5. Which pair of the following substances is not required for the light-independent reactions of
photosynthesis?
8. How does the C4 pathway improve the efficiency of carbon dioxide fixation?
9. Under which conditions do you expect the highest rate of photo respiration? Under which
conditions do you expect the highest rate of photo respiration?
A. High light intensity, presence of RUBISCO, low oxygen level.
B. Low carbon dioxide, high oxygen level, low humidity.
C. Presence of RUBISCO, PEP carboxylase, highlight intensity.
D. sunny, dry weather, high level of carbon dioxide
11. What is the fate of the hydroxyl radicals formed during light stage of photosynthesis? They are
A. Broken down into oxygen and free hydrogen
B. Used to raise the activation level of chlorophyll
C. Used to produce oxygen and water
D. Used to reduce carbon dioxide to sugar
13. The decarboxylation of malic acid in C4 plants, results into formation of;
14. Protons(H + ) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between photosystem I
and II. The excess protons in the thylakoid space
A.enter the respiratory pathway.
B. convert NADP to NADPH and generate ATP.
C. raise the pH of the space until the process stops.
D. are small enough to diffuse back in the cytoplasm.
15. Which one of the following photosynthetic pigments is universal to all the groups if algae?
A. xanthophylls C. chlorophyll a
B. carotene D. chlorophyll b
16. Which one of the following is not true about blue green bacteria?
A. They lack chloroplasts
B. Use water as a hydrogen donor.
C. chlorophyll is their primary pigment
D. They oxidize chemicals to manufacture food˙
17. The purple Sulphur bacteria live at the bottom of ponds under green algae because it
A. Absorb light of different wave length from the algae
B. Are parasites
C. Are shielded from direct sunlight
D. Do not require light for photosynthesis
20. C3 plants are less efficient than C4 plants in fixing carbon dioxide at low carbon dioxide and high
oxygen partial pressure because
A.C3 plants use energy
B. In C3 plants, energy is lost
C. RuBP carboxylase is inactivated by the high oxygen partial pressures
D. PEP carboxylase has a high affinity for oxygen
A. With increase in light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis increases until temperature becomes
a limiting factor.
B. Rate of photosynthesis increases with an increase in the carbon dioxide concentration
C. With increase in light intensity, the rate of photosynthesis increases indefinitely.
D. Rate of photosynthesis increases with an increase in light intensity until carbon dioxide
concentration becomes a limiting factor.
22. Which one of the following is likely to occur if a photosynthesizing plant was suddenly removed
from light?
23. In which one of the following parts of a chloroplast is water splitting enzymes mostly located?
25. During the light stage of photosynthesis, water is an important raw material in that it
A. Gives off oxygen
B. Provides hydrogen that reduces NAD
C. Reduces carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
D. Provides electrons
26. Figure 1 shows the relationship between temperature and rate of photosynthesis in two plant
species A and B.
28. Which one of the following is the role of reduced NADP in the dark stage of photosynthesis?
30. Which wavelength from light spectrum is mostly absorbed by green plants?
31. Where wavelength from light spectrum is mostly absorbed by green plants?
32. Which one of the following would speed up the phosphorylation of a hexose sugar?
A. A decrease in ADP concentration
B. A decrease in the concentration of ATP
C. An increase in the concentration of phosphorylase
D. An increase in the concentration of phosphorylated hexoses
33. Fig. 2 illustrates the phenomenon of limiting factors. What, in this case, is the limiting factor for
photosynthesis?
34. Which one of the following occurs during the light dependent stage of photosynthesis?
35. The figure below shows variation of the rate of photosynthesis with light intensity.
36. The carbon acceptor in the Calvin cycle of the dark stage of photosynthesis is
38. During water stress, there is reduced photosynthesis mainly due to shortage of
39. During what stage of the dark reaction is NADPH2 used? Conversion of
A. Ribulose diphosphate to Phosphoglyceric acid
41. Which one of the following pairs of reactants is not required for light-dependent reactions of
photosynthesis.
42. Which one of the curves correctly represents plants adapted for low light intensity.
43. Protons (H+ ) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between photosystem I
and II. The excess protons in the thylakoid space
A.enter the respiratory pathway.
B. convert NADP to NADPH and generate ATP.
C. raise the pH of the space until the process stops.
D. are small enough to diffuse back in the cytoplasm
44. Purple sulphur bacteria live at the bottom of ponds under green algae because the bacteria;
A. are parasites.
B. do not require light for photosynthesis.
C. are shield from direct sunlight.
D. absorb light of different wavelength from that absorbed by algae
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
45. (a)The figure below shows a scheme of reaction occuring in a chloroplast during photosynthesis.
(i) name the chemical substances represented by letters W,X,Y and Z.. (3 marks)
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(ii) Indicate by means of arrows on the diagram, the direction of transfer of substances occuring
in cycles A and B.
(b) State three adaptations of a chloroplast for photosynthesis.. (3 marks)
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46. (a) Giving examples differentiate between photosynthetic and chemosynthetic bacteria..(3 marks)
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(b) Explain how certain bacteria which require light for photosynthesis, survive under weeds in
ponds and rocks.. (3 marks)
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(b) Describe a state where carbon dioxide is a limiting factor in photosynthesis.. (3 marks)
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(c) Give three differences between light dependent and light independent reactions of
photosynthesis.. (3 marks)
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48. The figure below shows the distribution of C3 ,C4 and CAM plants at different altitudes.
(a) Suggest reasons for the trends in the distribution of each of the plants species.
(i) C3 plants . (3 marks)
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(ii) C4 plants. . (3 marks)
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(iii) CAM plants. . (3 marks)
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(b) State four physiological differences between C3 and C4 plants.. (3 marks)
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50. (a) Name the two stages of photosynthesis, indicating where, in the chloroplast, they occur.
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(a) By means of a flow diagram, show the sequence of electron flow during non-cyclic
photophosphorylation.. (3 marks)
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51. The figure below shows the effects of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis and respiration in
well illuminated leaves
(a) Compare the effects of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis and respiration. (3 marks)
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(b) Explain the shapes of the curves.. (3 marks)
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52. The figure shows the concentration of glycerate -3- phospahate(GP) and ribulose biphosphate of
(RuBP) during an investigation in which a sample of chorella was allowed to photosynthesise at
very low and very high carbon dioxide levels.
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(c) Explain why it is possible for photosythetic and chemosynthetic bacteria to co-exist in an
oxygen free environment. (3 marks)
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(d) State the importance of chemosynthetic bacteria in nature.. (3 marks)
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54. (a) Figure below shows a scheme of reactions within the plants photosynthesizing unit.
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(iii) Give two examples of plants where the photosynthetic pathway above is found. .(3 marks)
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55. The diagram below shows an outline of the main stages in the Hatch and Slack pathway.
(a) (i)With reference to the figure above, give the name of cell A and cell B. . (3 marks)
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(ii) Name enzyme X and Y. . (3 marks)
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(b) State three differences between the mode of action of enzyme X and Y.. (3 marks)
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(d) Name the substances P,Q,R and S. . (3 marks)
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(e) Explain the importance of the Hatch and Slack pathway. . (3 marks)
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(f) Describe the role played by reduced NADP in the light-independent reaction. . (3 marks)
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56. The scheme below shows the flow of electrons along the thylakoid membranes of a green leaf.
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(ii)Even though leaves reflect green light some phoyosynthesis is still able to occur when green
light falls on a leaf. . (3 marks)
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57. The figure below shows light saturation curves for plants of same species growing underdifferent
light intensities.
(a) Compare the effect of intensity on carbon dioxide uptake in the two types of plants. (3 marks)
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(b) Describe the state of light plants at point P. . (3 marks)
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(c) Explain what happens to the plant biomass in region Y.. (3 marks)
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(d) State an environmental factor that affects the shape of the graph other than carbon dioxide.
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58. The figure below shows chemical pathways involved in respiration and photosynthesis.
(a) Name the process that produced the pyruvate from glucose.. (1 mark)
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(b) Name compounds labeled X and Y.. (2 marks)
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(c) i) In which part of the chloroplast is glycerate 3-phosphate converted into ribose biphosphate?
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(ii) Describe the role of ribose biphosphate in photosynthesis.. (3 marks)
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59. (a) Briefly describe how ATP is produced as light strikes a chlorophyll molecule.. (3 marks)
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(b) Although photosynthesis generates ATP, plants also generate ATP through respiration.
Explain the why this is necessary.. (3 marks)
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(c) The diagram shows the main steps in light dependant stage of photosynthesis
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(d) What name is given to the substance in the Calvin cycle which combines with carbon dioxide?
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(ii) What name is given to the first stable product produced in the Calvin cycle?. (3 marks)
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62. The figure below shows the rate of photosynthesis in two different plants over a range of light
intensities.
a) Explain, (i) the relationship between light intensity and the rate of photosynthesis for plants A
and B up to 50 lux.. (3 marks)
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(ii) Why the rate of photosynthesis remains constant at very high light intensities.. (3 marks)
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b) Giving a reason, state which plant would grow best in a forest floor?
Plant:. (3 marks)
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Reason:. (3 marks)
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c) State two benefits of photosynthesis to plants.. (3 marks)
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63. (a) The figure below shows the effect of carbon dioxide concentraion on photosynthesis of a life
plant leaf (a C3 plant) and that of a sugar cane ( a C4 plant) compared. Study it carefully and use
it to answer questions that follow.
64. The figure beow shows the relatioship between abundance and rate of photosyntheis when a
chlorophyll molecule is shone by light of varying wavelengths in a flowering plant.
65. The figure below shows the main stages of the Calvin cycle.
(a) State the site where the Calvin ctcle occurs in plant cells.. (3 marks)
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(b) Describe how carbon dioxide is fixed in the Calvin cycle.. (3 marks)
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(c) Explain how the products of phosphorylation are are used in the Calvin cycle.. (3 marks)
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(d) Explain intially what happens to the concentration of RuBP and GP if the supply of carbon
dioxide is reduced.
RuBP;. (3 marks)
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GP;. (3 marks)
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66. The figure below shows the absportion spectra of the photosynthetic pigments of a flowering
plant.
(i) Name the accessory pigments shown in the figure above.. (3 marks)
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(ii) Outline the role of accessory pigments in photosythesis.. (3 marks)
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(iii) Very little light of wavelegnth 550nmis absorbed by photosynthetic pigments. State what
happens to most of the light.. (3 marks)
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(iv) A graph can also be drawn to show the relationship between the wavelength and the rate of
photosynthesis. State the name of this graph.. (3 marks)
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1. Which of the following indirectly stimulates secretion of alkaline fluids by the pancrease?
A. Stimulation by sympathetic nerves
B. The presence of gastrin in the blood
C. The presence of food in the duodenum
D. The presence food in the stomach
2. Which one of the following best explains why fat digestion does not occur in the human stomach?
A. pH of the stomach is too low for lipase to function
B. bile salts that emulsify fat are missing in the stomach
C. fat digestion is only possible in the duodenum
D. lipase are active within a narrow range of pH
3. Figure shows growth curves of rats provided with milk diet at different times
4. The non - enzymatic components of intestinal juice are secreted by the cells in the:
5. Which one of the following statement about digestion of food in man is false?
A. No carbohydrate digestion occurs in the stomach
B. All fat digestion occurs in the stomach
C. No protein digestion occurs in the mouth
D. All fat digestion occurs in the small intestines
6. Which one of the following best explains why fat digestion does not occur in the human stomach?
A. pH of the stomach is too low for lipase to function
B. bile salts that emulsify fat are missing in the stomach
C. fat digestion is only possible in the duodenum
D. lipase are active within a narrow range of pH
7. An enzyme was found to work best between a pH range of 6 to 8. Which one of the following
enzymes could it be?
9. The alimentary canals of carnivores are relatively shorter than those of herbivores because
A. Their mainly protein diet is relatively easier to digest
B. They eat diet which is largely protein in nature
C. They have to maintain low weight to be able to chase prey
D. They eat little food at a time
A. Gastrin C. Enterogastrone
B. Cholecystokinin (cck) D. Secretin
11. A person who had a balanced meal 2 - 3 hours earlier on will have blood with the highest sugar
concentration in the,
12. Which one of the following enzymes is not secreted by the lining of the ileum?
13. Which one of the following best explains why fat digestion does not occur in the human stomach?
A. PH of the stomach is too low for lipase to function.
B. Bile salts that emulsify fats are missing in the stomach.
C. Fat digestion is only possible in the duodenum.
D. Lipases are active within a narrow range of PH
14. The part of the mammalian gut that contains the chief glands, columnar epithelial cells and goblet
cells is the.
16. The passage which is common to the digestive and respiratory system in humans is the;
17. Which one of the following features characterizes the omnivore gut?
A. Large divided stomach
B. Poorly developed appendix and ceacum
C. Long pouched colon
D. Short ileum and colon
18. In the duodenum, the products ready for absorption are those of the digestion;
19. The hormone produced from the duodenal mucosa which stimulates the production of bile by the
liver is called.
20. The hormone that stimulates the gastric glands to secrete pepsinogen is
21. Which of the following is secreted by the pancreas, under the influence of secretin hormone?
22. Which of the following statements is true about digestion in the small intestine?
A. secretin stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes
23. The following are sites of the beginning of physical and chemical digestion, respectively;
24. The insects lower lip with palps that help to manipulate food is called
The hormone which stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juices and inhibits gastric secretions is
25. Termites are able to benefit from feeding on woody materials because:
A. have sharp, toothed mandibles which crush the wood materials into soluble products.
B. secrete digestive enzymes which breaks down wood.
C. use their labial palps to avail end products from wood.
D. trichonympha in their gut secrete an enzyme which breaks down cellulose in wood.
27. which one of the following pairs of hormones when released increase the level of blood sugar in
the body.
28. Which one of the following forms the biggest composition of bile?
29. Which one of the following is secreted under the influence of secretin hormone?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
30. (a) What is the role of the following hormones in human digestive system?
(i) Pancreozymin. (1 mark)
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(ii) Gastrin . (1 mark)
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(iii) Secretin. (1 mark)
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(b) Describe how hydrochloric acid is formed in oxyntic cells within the gastric walls. .(3 marks)
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31. a) Name three hormones that control digestion and state their effects. . (3 marks)
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b) Briefly describe how fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed in the ileum. . (2 marks)
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c) What role does the liver play in fat metabolism? . (3 marks)
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32. An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect on the growth of rats of including milk in
the diet.
Two groups (Group A and B), each consisting of eight young rats , were fed on synthetic diet
consisting of purified casein(a milk protein), sucrose, fat, inorganic salts and water. Group A
recieved a supplement of 3cm3 of milk per day for first 18 days then recieved no further milk.
Group B was given no milk for the first 18 days, then reiecved a supplement of 3cm3 of milk per
day. The results are shown in the graph below.
(a) i) From the graph, find the mean mass of each group of rats at 10 days.. (3 marks)
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ii) Describe the changes in mean mass upto day 18, for the rats which recieved no milk. (Group
B). (3 marks)
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iii) Compare the chnages in the mean mass of both groups of rats during the whole experiment.
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(b) Suggest why the growth of rats was faster when they recieved milk than when they recieved no
milk.. (3 marks)
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(c) The inorganic salts provided in the diet included calcium. Describe the importance of calcium
to growing rats.. (3 marks)
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1. Which one of the following sets of conditions in the guard cells would lead to opening of the
stoma?
A. High carbon dioxide concentration and low sugar concentrations
B. Low carbon dioxide concentration and high sugar concentration
C. High sugar concentration and high carbon dioxide concentration
D. Low pH and high starch concentration.
3. Which one of the following occurs as a result of a low pH in the guard cells?
A. conversion of sugar to starch reducing osmotic pressure
B. conversion of starch to sugar reducing osmotic pressure
4. Which one of the following qualities of the guard cells that contributes to their opening?
A. Uneven thickened walls
B. Inner walls being less elastic than other walls
C. Presence of chloroplasts
D. Presence of vacuoles
5. Which one of the following changes causes the closure of stomata in plant leaves?
A. Rise in the pH of the intercellular spaces
B. Synthesis of glucose
C. Fall in levels of carbon dioxide in the intercellular spaces
D. Conversion of glucose into starch
1. In teleost fishes water is drawn into and pumped out of the pharynx mainly by
A. counter flow of water between the gills
B. branchial valves which prevent backflow of water
C. movements of the opercular cavities
D. contraction of opercular cavities
2. Which one of the following features is not essential for gaseous exchange in the lungs?
3. The disadvantage of parallel flow system during gaseous exchange in some fish is the
4. Which one of the following changes occurs in a mammalian body, at the onset of an exercise?
A. increase in pH of blood
5. Which one of the following curves below correctly represent the breathing rate of an athelete
under increasing sustainable exercise?
6. Which one of the following is correct about the counter current mechanism in teleosts?
A. blood with low oxygen concentration flows in the same direction with water of high oxygen
concentration.
B. water of low oxygen concentration flows near blood of high oxygen concentration.
C. blood with high oxygen concentration flows opposite direction to water of high oxygen
concentration.
D. water of high oxygen concentration flows in opposite dircetion to bllod of low oxygen
concentration.
7. Which one of the following graphs shows the correct relationship between the rate of breathing
with the increase in amount of excerise in an athelete
10. Cartilagenous fish extract less oxygen from water than bony fish because the former.
A. lives in sea water.
B. are relatively bigger in size.
C. employ parellel flow system for gaseous exchange.
D. possess large gills with small surface area to volume ratio.
12. The table below shows the rate of breathing and volume of air exchanged woth each person at test
and during exercise.
State of the individual Breaths per minute Volume of each breath.(cm3 )
At rest 12 500
During exercise 24 1000
The increase in the volume of air exchanged per minute when an individual does exercise from
rest is
B. The external intercostals muscles contract while the internal intercostal muscles relax
C. The diaphragm muscles contract
D. The ribcage is pulled upwards and outwards
14. . Identify the factor that increases the diffusion distance across a respiratory surface.
15. Which one of following pairs of adjustments at a respiratory surface would increase its efficiency?
A. Decreasing the rate of ventilation and increasing blood supply
B. Increasing the rate of blood flow and the rate of ventilation
C. Increasing the ventilation rate and the distance of diffusion of molecules
D. Decreasing the blood supply and the distance of diffusion of molecules
16. Why does gaseous exchange in amoeba take place by diffusion across the surface membrane?
17. An athlete has just finished a race. The phrase ”oxygen debt” refers to
A. the amount of oxygen originally present in the muscles of the athlete before the race.
B. the total amount of oxygen the athlete required to restore the breathing rate to normal.
C. the extra amount of oxygen taken in after the race and used to complete the combustion of
some of the lactic acid.
D. the amount of oxygen required after an exercise
18. Which one of the following would be the effect of increasing the partial pressures of carbon
dioxide in the blood?
19. Many small animals use their skins as the only respiratory organ because they
A. Are too small to have other respiratory organs
B. Have large surface area to volume ratio
20. Which of the following is a benefit of gas exchange in air compared to water in animals?
21. In which one of the following respiratory surfaces does gaseous exchange occurs across the entire
body surface?
22. The earthworm does not require a special respiratory organ because?
A. it is not active metabolically
B. It moist cuticle allows gases to dissolve and diffuse easily
C. its surfaces lack a cuticle
D. it has a large surface area to volume ratio
23. The figure below shows parallel flow across a gill plate in fish.
Indicated on the figure on the figure would have the highest diffusion gradient?
A. R. B. P C. Q. D. S
24. The substance which lowers the surface tension in alveoli to ease their flexing during ventilation
movements of the chest is
25. Which of the following is a benefit of gas exchange in air compared to water in animals?
27. A person has a tidal volume of 0.36 dm3 and a breathing rate of 18 breaths per min. This persons
ventilation rate is
−1
A. 0.02 dm3 min−1 B. 6.48 dm3 min−1 C. 64.8 dm3 min−1 D.2.0 dm3 min
28. Which one of the following may act as a respiratory surface in animals?
30. The disadvantage of parallel flow over counter current flow during gaseous exchange which is
caused by presence of a vertical septum is:
A. slows down the speed of movement of water with more oxygen.
B. slows down the speed of water with high carbon dioxide concentration.
C. deflects the water so that it tends to pass over rather than between gill plates.
D. gills run for a shorter distance thereby disrupting interaction.
31. Which of the following happens after gaseous exchange in the buccal cavity?
A. Petrohyoid muscles contract and air moves to the lungs.
B. Sternohyoid muscles contract and the air moves to the longs.
C. Sternohyoid muscles contract and the air in the lungs moves to the buccal cavity.
D. The petrohyoid muscles contract and the air is expelled from the buccal cavity, to the
surroundings
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
32. a)How is the structure of the gill filaments adapted to increase the rate of gaseous exchange
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b)Describe how a bony fish uses pumping movements of the mouth to ventilate the gills.
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34. (a) Briefly describe the structure of the bony fish gill.. (3 marks)
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(b) The graph below shows pressure changes in the buccal cavity and opercular cavity during the
breathing of a bony fish.
35. (a) Explain why air is a better respiratory medium than water.. (3 marks)
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(b) State how each of the following respiratory sysytems have been modified to to increase
surface area for gaseous exchange
(i) Mammalian lung.. (3 marks)
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(ii) Tracheal sysytem.. (3 marks)
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(c) Explain why a fish suffocates immediately when removed from water.. (3 marks)
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37. The figure below illustrates two different mechanisms of gaseous exchange in fish A and fish B.
(a) State two differences between the two systems in terms of Oxygen concentration. (2 marks)
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(b) Explain the physiological advantage of fish A over B. . (3 marks)
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(c) Describe how a gill is structually adapted as a respiratory surface. . (3 marks)
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38. The figure below shows the rate and depth of breathing in a group of students during rest and
during a strenous activity.
(a) Calculate the average number of inspirations per minute during rest and during exercise.
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(b) Calculate the average tidal volume during rest and during the exercise.. (3 marks)
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(c) Explain how oxygen requirements of a mammal are met under conditions of physical activity.
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39. The figure below shows the mechanism of exchange of gases between the blood and water in a
fish
(b) Comment on the efficiency of the mechanism of exchange of gases shown . (3 marks)
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(c) Explain how the teleost gill is more efficient for gaseous exchange than the dog fish gill.
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3. During a strenuous activity, the pyruvic acid in the muscle may accept hydrogen from reduced
NAD to become
4. Which one of the following activities in living organisms can result in a respiratory quotient of
less than 1.0?
A. When carbohydrates are respired
B. During extensive laying down of fat in livestock
C. At compensation point, during photosynthesis
D. When the rate of exhalation equals that of inhalation
6. The low RQ values after some days of germination may be attributed to;
A. High reserve food content
B. Great need for energy production of seed germination
C. Liability of oxygen to diffuse to embryo
D. Utilization of food reserves other than sugars.
10. Which of the following occurs in both the thylakoid membrane and mitochondrial matrix?
11. Which of the following reactions take place in the Krebs cycle?
i. NAD is reduced to NADH+
ii. FAD is oxidized to FADH2
iii. pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA
iv. ADP and inorganic phosphate is condensed to ATP
12. Which set of products is liberated during both aerobic and anaerobic respiration in plants?
13. The respiratory quotient can be lower than 1.0 during the following activities, except.
14. During respiration in the absence of oxygen, pyruvic acids is converted into:
A. lactic acid and carbon dioxide in animals. C. ethanol and water in plants.
B. lactic acid and water in animals. D. ethanol and carbon dioxide in plants
15. In which one of the following is the respiratory quotient most likely to be lowest?
A.During lactic acid formation in animals. C. In animals during laying down of fat.
B. In plants during bright light. D. During egg laying in birds.
16. Which one of these activities would result into a low respiratory quotient?
A. Respiration in muscles during heavy exercise
B. Formation of calcareous shells
C. Fattening livestock
D. Preparation for hibernation in a mammal
17. Which of the following are formed during anaerobic respiration in yeast cell?
19. Which one of the following biological processes does not utilize respiratory energy?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
20. The diagram below shows a summary of glycolysis and two alternative pathways that may follow
this process in anaerobic conditions.
(a) Substance X is the final product of glycolysis. Name this substance.. (1 mark)
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(b) In glycolysis, NAD is converted to its reduced form (NADH + H+ ). Describe how NAD is
regenerated in pathway A.. (3 marks)
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(c) Name the waste products of pathway B.. (1 mark)
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(d) Describe the role of reduced NAD (NADH + H+ ) when respiration takes place in aerobic
conditions.. (3 marks)
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21. Figure 2 shows the transfer of energy in catabolic and anabolic reactions in a living cell.
(a) Using arrowsX and Y show the direction of catabolic and anabolic reactions respectively on
figure 2
(b) Name compounds marked B and one example of the process represented by A and C.
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(c) Outline two roles of ATP in living cells. . (2 marks)
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(d) Give three differences between oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation.
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22. The flow chart below illustrates some of the stages that occur in glycolysis.
(a) State the net gain in ATP from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis.. (3 marks)
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(b) Explain why the yield of ATP from the respiration of one molecule of glucose when oxygen is
present is more than the yield of ATP from the respiration of one molecule of glucose under
anaerobic conditions.. (3 marks)
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23. (a) How in a respiratory chain do elctrons from FADH2 and NADH2 passing through
cytochromes liberate energy for ATP synthesis?. (3 marks)
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(b) How does the poison cyanide act upon aerobic respiration?. (3 marks)
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(c) What is the precise role of oxygen in respiration?. (3 marks)
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24. The figure below shows a process that occurs with in the mitochondrion and some other
substances that enter and leave it.
25. The figure below shows metabolic pathway within a mitochondrion from a liver cell.
(a) Suggest why the respiratory substrate added to the metabolic pathway was a molecule from
the Krebs cycle not glucose.. (3 marks)
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(b) What additional substance, other than those mentioned on the on diagram , would be added to
this preparation inorder to get the results shown.. (1 mark)
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(c) Explain why;
(i) Why the amount of oxygen fell between A and B. (3 marks)
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(ii) The shape of trace after C.. (3 marks)
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26. The figure below shows degradation of a hexose sugar and genearation of of a triose sugar in a C3
plant and in animal in presence and absence of oxygen.
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27. The respiratory quotient (RQ) of a resting person is approximately 0.85. A man exercised
vigorously for two minutes and his respiratory quoteint was measured at regular intervals for 40
minutes. The results were plotted in the figure below.
(a) (i) Explain the variation in the RQ up to the fourth minute after the exercise.. (2 marks)
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(ii) From the graph, determine the time taken for the RQ value of man to remain below normal.
Show your working.. (1 mark)
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(iii) Explain the decline in the RQ value below the normal for a period of time determined above.
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(b) What is the fate of pyruvate formed during anearobic respiration in a plant cell.. (2 marks)
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28. The conversion of succinate fumerate by an enzyme, succinate dehydrogenase. This is one odf
the steps in the krebs cycle. (a) State the role played by the dehydrogenase enzyme in the krebs
cycle (1 mark).
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(b) Explain the importance of this role in (a) above in the production of ATP. (2 marks)
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(c) An investigation was carried out into the effects of different concentrations of aluminiun ions
on the activity of succinate dehydrogenese. The enzyme concentration and other coditions were
kept constant.
(i) Describe the effect of concentration of aluminium ions on the rate of production of the
fumerate. (2 marks)
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(ii) Suggest an explanation for this effect. (2 marks)
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1. Which one of the following is the role of the capillary network around the alveoli in mammals A.
Makes the alveoli more permeable
B. Increases the surface area of the alveoli
C. Maintains a steep diffusion gradient
D. Make the alveoli cell thinner.
2. Which of the following is the major forming which carbon dioxide travels to the lungs from
tissues?
3. Which one of the following conditions results into alkaline tide in the cells?
A. Increased concentration of hydrogen carbonate ions.
B. Increased concentration of hydrogen ions.
C. Increased formation of hydrochloric acid.
D. Increased dissociation of sodium chloride
6. In amphibian double circulation, mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is prevented by;
7. Which one of the following conditions reduces the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen
8. Which of these is the correct sequence of the movement of impulses in the heart wall before
contraction?
9. The mountain gorilla lives at high altitude and has its oxygen dissociation curve located at the left
of many animals. This suggests that
A. There is low carbon dioxide tension at high altitudes
B. Its hemoglobin has higher affinity for oxygen than many animals
C. Temperatures are low at high altitudes
D. It has high concentration of myoglobin in its muscles.
10. Which one of the following conditions would lead to the Bohr effect in mammals?
A. Decrease in the pH of the blood
B. Increase in the partial pressure of oxygen in the environment
C. Decrease in the metabolic rate
D. Increase in environmental temperature.
11. 14. Which one of the following organisms possesses a heart which pumps out only deoxygenated
blood?
12. Which of the following substances is not transported by blood circulatory system in a blood
circulatory system in arthropods?
A. Nutrients C. Hormones
B. Respiratory gas D. Nitrogenous wastes
13. Which of the following animal groups have body segments and closed circulatory system?
14. Which one of the following is the correct order of events in the heart after the contraction of the
atria?
A. Atrio - ventricular valves open, ventricle contract, semi lunar valves close
B. Ventricles contract, atrio - ventricular valves close, semi lunar valves open
C. Ventricles contract, atrio - ventricular valves open, semi lunar valves open
D. Atrio - ventricular valves open, semi lunar valves open, ventricles contract
15. Which one of the following foetal blood vessels carries the most oxygenated blood?
17. Which one of the following structures is responsible for initiating the contractions of the heart?
A. Haemocyanin C. Haemoerythrin
B. Myoglobin D. Haemoglobin
19. The ability of the heart to contract without fatigue is owed to the
20. Changes in the level of carbon dioxide in mammalian blood is detected by the
21. Which blood vessels are able to change their resistance to blood flow, regulating distribution of
blood flow to organs?
22. 5. The artery is adapted to withstand resulting from the pumping of the heart by having a
A. Superficial location on the body to allow distension
B. Thin elastic wall that extends with increased pressure
C. Thick tough wall to withstand the pressure
D. System of valves that prevent back flow of blood
23. Which one of the pairs of animals listed below possess an incomplete double circulatory system?
24. Which of the following statements best defines the Bohr effect?
A. At high level of respiration hydrogen ions combine with haemoglobin.
B. When the partial pressure of oxygen is high than oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right.
C. When the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is high the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the
left.
D. When there is a low level of hydrogen ions oxyhaemoglobin dissociates faster
26. The lymph fluid is slightly different from blood plasma in that it contains
A. Less proteins, more of the other food materials and more waste products
B. Less proteins, less of the other food materials and more waste products
C. More proteins, less of the other food materials and more waste products
D. Less proteins, less of the other food materials and less waste products
27. 10. Which of the following factors may not alter the frequency of electrical excitation of the Sino
atrial node of the heart?
A. Increase in carbon dioxide content of blood
B. Accumulation of mineral salts in blood
C. Increase in oxygen content of blood
D. Increased blood sugar level
28. Which one of the following would normally decrease the cardiac rate?
A. Secretion of adrenalin into the blood
B. Accumulation of lactic acid in the tissues
C. Increase in the blood oxygen content
D. Increase in the carbon dioxide content in blood
A. pump oxygenated blood to the body tissues. C. pump deoxygenated blood to the gills.
B. pump oxygenated blood to the main heart. D. pump deoxygenated blood to the main heart
A. they carry blood away from the heart C. carry blood in large quantities
B. always carry oxygenated blood D. have thinner walls than the veins
32. In amphibian double circulation, mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is prevented by;
33. The mammalian heart muscle cells are supplied with blood by the;
A. Easily release oxygen to the muscles. C. Offers a red colour to the muscles
B. Has a low affinity for oxygen D. Slowly releases oxygen to the muscles.
36. Oxygen from myoglobin is realeased after oxyhaemoglobin supplies are exhausted because
myoglobin
A. acts as a store of oxygen in resting muscles.
B. works better when partial pressure of oxygen is high.
C. is produced in skeletal muscles when oxygen demand is low.
D. has low affinity for oxygen for oxygen than haemoglobin.
37. Carbon dioxide is carried in the red blood cells of mammals in form of.
38. Which one of the descibes the chloride shift during transportation of carbon dioxide in mammala?
A. hydrogen carbonate ions leave the erythrocytes as chloride ions from tissues, enter.
B. chloride ions leave the erythrocytes as hydrogen carbonate ions from tissues, enter.
C. chloride ions enter the lungs as hydrogen carbonate ions leave the erythrocytes.
D. hydrogen carbonate ions enter the lungs as chloride ions leave the ertyhrocytes.
39. Which one of the following terms is used to refer to displacement of the oxygen haemoglobin
dissociation curve by a change in pH?
42. The tissues of the smokers for cigarettes develop anoxic conditions. Which one of the following
best explains this observation?
A. Cigarette chemicals damage the red blood cells.
B. Haemoglobin has a higher affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen.
C. There is formation of a high concentration of carboxyhaemoglobin.
D. Carbaminohaemoglobin is a chemically stable compound.
43. The following can occur during high blood pressure beyond the norm, except;
A. Increase in the rate of emission of waves of electrical excitation by the SAN.
B. Decrease in the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute.
C. Widening of the lumen of the arterioles serving the body tissues with blood.
D. The sympathetic output becomes suppressed.
44. Which of the following is not true about the blood circulatory and lymphatic systems in
mammals? The fluid contains
45. Usually sodium ions and potassium ions are actively pumped out of a red blood cell. When the
cell is treated with a metabolic poison, it byrsts because
A. the metabolic poison weakens the cell surface.
B. accumulation of sodium ions and potassium ions inside the cell alters its water potential.
C. the influx of potassium ions damages the structure of the surface .
D. accumulation of sodium ions inside the cell alters its water potential.
46. Climbing the Rwenzori mountain rapidly may result in altitude sickness. This will be due to,
A. Reduced partial pressure of oxygen in the air.
B. reduced quantities of haemoglobin in the erythrocytes.
C. nitrogen bubbles forming in the blood stream.
D. increased carbon content of the blood.
49. What causes the biscupid valve to close during ventricular sysytole? A. a greater blood pressure
in the left atrium than in the left ventricle.
B. a greater blood pressure in the left ventricle than in the left atrium.
C. contraction of muscles in the septum. D. contraction of muscles in the valve.
50. The forward movement of blood through the tubular heart in insects from posterior to the anterior
end involves
51. Which one of the following when at high levels in blood , increase the rate of heart beat.
52. The lung fish living in mud has its oxygen dissociation curve to the left of that of the humans
because?
A. there is a high level of carbon doxide concentration in mud.
B. the lung fish’s haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of humans.
C. of the lower temperatures of the lung fish.
D. of low level of oxygen concentration in the mud.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
53. The figure below shows the oxygen dissociation curve of two species of fish, the carp and the
mackerel. The carp lives in the pond with decomposing vegetation while the Mackerel lives in the
surface water of the sea.
(a) Describe how the percentage saturation of haemoglobin woth oxygen changes with change in
partial pressure of oxygen of two species
(i) Carp (1 mark)
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(ii) Mackerel (1 mark)
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(b) Explain the changes in the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with partial pressure of
oxygen in the two species
Carp (4 marks)
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Mackerel (4 marks)
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54. The figure below shows the oxygen dissociation curves for a tadpole blood and that of an adult
frog.
(a) Explain the relative position of the curves for the tadpole blood and that of the an adult frog.
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(b) What is the position of the dissociation curve for the tadpole in its environment?. (1 mark)
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(c) How is the skin of frog adapted for gaseous exchange? (3 marks)
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57. Figure 2 shows oxygen dissociation curves for Haemoglobin of two animals x and y, living in
different habitats.
(a) From the figure, state three differences in the behavior of haemoglobin of the two animals.
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(b) (i) Outline the characteristics of the haemoglobin of animal
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(ii) From the characteristics in (b) (i) suggest the nature of the habitat in which animal y lives.
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(c) Human haemoglobin has a higher affinity for carbon monoxide than oxygen. What is the
effect of this fact?
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58. Figure 3 shows diagrams of two types of blood circulatory systems A and B, in animals. The
arrows the direction of the blood flow.
59. (a) Figure 4 shows the oxygen dissociation curves at 2.7 kPa of carbon dioxide, in three
organisms: pigeon, human and lugworm that lives in muddy, waterlogged burrows
(a) Explain the position of the curves for the lugworm and pigeon in reference to that for human.
(i) Lugworm
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(ii) Pigeon
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(b) (i) On the same graph sketch oxygen dissociation curves for the lugworm and human if both
organisms were subjected to same higher carbon dioxide tension.
(ii) Explain the position of each of the curves you have sketched
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The figure below shows part of the capillary network and some cells surronding the tissue.
(b)State three ways in which the blood at Y differs from the blood at X other than in the
concentration of carbon dioxide. (3marks)
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(c) An enzyme in blood catalyses the reaction between carbon dioxide and water as blood flows
through respiring tissues.
The figure below shows part of the circulation in the mammalian tissue.The central part is
enlarged to show a capillary, a cell supplied by the capillary and vessel Z.
(b) Explain why the walls of the artery is thicker than the walls of the vein. (2 marks)
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(c) Suggest one role for the pre-capillary sphincter muscle shown in the figure above.(1 mark)
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(d) With refrence to the figure above, describe the role capillaries in making tissue fluid. (3
marks)
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(e) (i) Describe three ways in which plasma differs from tissue fluid.(3 marks)
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(ii) Name the fluid in vessel Z.(1 mark)
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1. The biochemical property of blood essential for its protective function of the body is
2. Which one of the following are target cells for HIV (AIDs virus)?
4. A rhesus positive foetus whose mother is rhesus negative may not be born alive because the
A. Mothers body produces antigens against foetal antibodies
B. Foetus lacks antibodies against the mothers antigens
C. Mothers body produces antibodies against the foetal antigens
D. Mothers red blood cells mix with the foetal blood
5. If a new born baby suffers from haemolytic disease, it means that the
6. When a foetus receives antibodies from the mother through the placenta, it acquires
8. Which one of the following agranulocytes has the highest percentage composition in blood?
A. (i) and (iv) B. (i) and (ii) C. (ii) and (iii) D. (ii) and (iv)
15. Which one of the following agranulocytes has the highest percentage composition in blood?
17. Why would the removal of the thymus gland from a new born mouse lead to death?
A. Un controlled rise in lymphocyte levels.
B. Failure to recognize and react with antigens.
C. A low erythrocytes and leucocyte count.
D. The stem cells of the bone marrow that give rise to lymphocytes are fully functional.
18. Which one of the following Leucocytes, increases greatly in number when an individual develops
hay fever?
19. Which one of the following offers a non specific defense against viral infection?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
21. (a) Explain the function of the antigens and antibodies in the immune system
(i). antigens
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(ii) Antibodies
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(b) State two ways in which passive immunity maybe acquired naturally by a young child.
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(c) During vaccination against tuberculosis(TB), children are injected with a weakened strain of
T.B bacteria. Explain how this procedure can result in long term defense against T.B
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22. The table below shows blood group systems in humans. Complete the table by
(i). filling the antigen and the antibody for each blood group
(ii). Indicating whether agglutination occurs (by a cross X) or no agglutination occurs by (a tick ),
when an individual of each blood group receives blood from group AB.
(b). How can a Rhesus negative mother affect a Rhesus positive foetus in her womb.
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23. Figure 4 shows the immune response of a persons blood after vaccinations are given on day one
and 60 days later.
25. The graph below shows the development of an infection with human immunodefficiency virus.
(HIV) over a period of 10 years. Changes in the number of T lymphocytes is also shown below.
(a) Describe the changes in the number of HIV particles over a period of 10 years.
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(b) Describe two ways in which the curve of T4 cells differs from that for the HIV particles.
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(c) Account for the differences between the number of T4 cells in blood and the number of HIV
particles over the period.
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26. The graph below that shows the exxtent of precipitation that occur when serum from different
mammals is mixed with sensitised rabbit serum.
Lemur.
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27. B-lymphocytes orginate from the stem cells, mature and circulate around the body. Following an
infection by tetanus bacteria, some of the lymphocytes will be activated as shown in the figure
below.
(c) Use the information in the figure above to distinguish between the following pair of terms. (i)
antigen and antibody. (2marks)
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(ii) self and non-self. (2 marks)
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(a) Name;
(i) Regions X and Y. (1mark)
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(ii) Bond labelled Z.(1 mark)
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(b) Describe brifely how antibody molecules are produced and secreted. (4 marks)
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1. Which one of the following cell organelles would be most active at sites where substances move
against a diffusion gradient?
A. Ribosomes C. Mitochondria
B. Golgi bodies D. Chloroplast
2. In what forms are carbohydrates transported in animals and flowering plants respectively?
4. . Which one of the following does not limit loss of water from xerophytes?
6. The pathway which allows water to move from cell to cell through the cytoplasm is the
9. The suberinised and lignified band in endodermal cells of the root is called
11. . Which one of the following does not involve mass flow?
A. Blood flow in the arteries.
B. Uptake of food by the tapeworm.
C. Movement of food and water in the gut.
D. Transport of water and mineral salts by the xylem.
12. Which one of the following qualities of the guard cells least contributes to their opening?
13. Which one of the following sets of conditions in the guard cells would lead to the opening of
stomata?
A. High carbon dioxide concentration and low sugar concentration.
B. Low carbon dioxide concentration and high sugar concentration.
C. High sugar concentration and high carbon dioxide concentration..
D. Low pH and high starch concentration
15. Which of the following does not affect the rate of transpiration?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
16. Figure a shows changes in the relative humidity of the atmosphere during the daylight hours of
one day.
Figure b shows changes in the tension in the xylem of a tree during the same period.
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17. The graph below shows the relationship between the rate of transpiration and rate of water uptake
for a particular plant.
18. (a) Desribe two forces which enable water to move up the xylem vessels in a continous column.
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(b) Explain how light influences stomatal opening in a plant that has been previously in the dark.
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22. (a) State three physiological differences between xylem and phloem tissues.
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(b) How are plant sugars loaded into the sieve tubes according to the pressure flow hypothesis?
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(c) Suggest three evidences that translocation of sugars from the source to the sink in plants is an
active process.
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23. The figure below shows a relationship between the rate of transpiration and water uptake for a
particular plant. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.
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(d) State two adaptations of leaves to stress.
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24. The figure below shows two cells from a root of a plant.
(ii) Suggest an explanation for the link between the pathway by which an ion travels across the
root and the direction of the concentration gradient.
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25. The graph below shows two experiments A and B. In both cases, the uptake of potassium ions
into the roots of young plants was measured. The roots were thoroughly washed in pure water
before the plants were to the solution containing potassium ions.
(a) Describe the results of experiment A over the first 80 minutes of the experiment. (3 marks)
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(b) Describe the results of experiment B.(3marks)
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(c) Explain the results in (b) above.(3 marks)
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(d) What is the effect of adding potassium cynide in experiment A.(1 mark)
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(f) Explain the effect of adding potassium cynide in experiment A. (2 mrks)
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(e) Suggest why the roots were thoroughly washed in pure water before the experiment.(2 marks)
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1. Which one of the following is not a requirement for the working of a physiological homeostatic
mechanism?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
4. (i) Outline the general features a physiological homeostatic system must have.
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(ii) What are qualities of an efficient homeostatic system?
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(iii) Graphs below compare the efficiency of a homeostatics systems. The vertical axis shows a
parameter being considered as time goes.
(iv) Identify the graph which represent an efficient and an inefficient homeostatic system:
Efficient
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Inefficient
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(v) Explain your answer in (b) (iv) above.
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5. The figure below shows differences between negative feedback and positive feedback.
2. Which one of the following will result in the formation of gall stones in the liver?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
3. The figure below shows results obtained from an experiment to determine the response of
pancreatic cells in a person who ingested only water for 12 hours and then had ahot drink of
glucose solution. The amount of insulin, glucagon and glucose in her blood was determined at
one hour interval.
(a) Explain the significance of the person ingesting only water for the first 12 hours before having
the glucose drink.
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(b) Describe the changes in glucose of a person.
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(c) Explain the increase in the concentraion of insulin in the first hour of the investigaation.
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(d) Suggest how the results will change if the experiment continued for longer than five hours
without the person taking anything.
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4. The figure below shows a structure of a transverse section of a mammalian liver as observed
through a mocroscope.
(a) Rule accurate guide-lines, an using the intial letters indicated below, label the diagram to
identify the following.
(i) a branch of hepatic vein (HV).
(ii) a branch of hepatic portal vein (HPV).
(iii) a liver sinusoid.(S).
(iv) a site where the storage of glycogen would be present(G).
(v) a portion of connective tissue (Glisson’s capsule) (GT).
(b List four different ways in which the blood composition could be changed as a result of
homeostatic activity in the liver.
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(c) Explain why the rate of blood flow in the hepatic vein is four times greater than the rate of
blood flow in the hepatc artery.
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(d) How is the structured of the liver suited for its functions?
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5. The graph shows change changes in the blood glucose concentration after a meal.
6. An investigation was carried out to determine the response of pancreatic cells to increase in
glucose concentration of blood. A person who had taken only water for 12 hours then took a
glucose solution.Blood samples were taken from the person at one hour interval for five hours and
the concentarion of glucose, insulin, and glucagon were determined in the figure below.
(a) i) Explain why the person was told not to eat or drink anything otherthan water for 12 hours
before taking the glucose drink. (3 marks)
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ii) Describe the response of the pancraetic cells to an increase in glucose concentration.(4 marks)
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iii) Outline the role of insulin when the glucose concentration in blood increases.(4 marks)
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(b) (i) Suggest how the results will change if the investigation continued longer than five hours
without the person taking any food. (4 marks)
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(ii) Outline the sequence of events that follow binding of glucagon to its membrane on a liver
cell. (4marks)
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2. Which one of the following is a chemical mechanism of coping with cold environment in a
mammalian body?
3. Which one of the following is the reason for hibernation of a humming bird every night?
A. Its metabolic rate is so high
B. It is too cold at night
C. It feeds on nectar from flowers which close at night
D. Its relatively large surface area would lose too much heat
4. Which one of the following may happen when a mammal is subjected to sever cold?
5. Which one of the following adaptations would be most essential in animals living in desert
environments?
6. The temperature mammals such as polar bears have lower lethal temperatures than tropical ones.
This is because of
A. Body colour
B. Large size in temperate mammals
C. Better insulation mechanism in tropical mammal
D. Better insulation mechanisms in temperature mammals.
7. The latent heat of evaporation of sweat is 3.15KJcm−3 . What is the percentage of the energy lost
by sweating from a manual worker who loses 2dm3 per a day of sweat and has a daily energy
intake of 40,000KJ?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
(a) Use the figure above to explain what is meant by negative feedback.
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(b) Where are receptors which detect a rise in the temperature of blood.
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(c) Describe the part played by the blood vessels in the skin in returning a high body
temeperature to its normal value.
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(d) Give one advantage of the body of possessing separate mechanisms to retuen high and low
temeperatures to their normal value.
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(e) Explain why it is an advantage for humans to have a constant body temperaure.
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10. Figure 3 shows the relationship between air temperature from summerthrough winter and body
temperature of hibernating and non hibernating endotherms.
(a) Explain the changes in the body temperature when air temperature changes in the; (i)
Hibernating endotherm.
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(ii) non-hibernating endotherm.
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(c) What is the importance of hibernation in mammals that live in cold regions.
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(c) Explain whyit is mainly small animals that hibernate.
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11. (a) Explain why a person with malaria fever undergoes shivering
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(b) Explain the significance of the thermoregulatory ectothermic behavior of a camel
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(c) Mention one advantage and disadvantage of paracetamol or panadol to the patient with
malaria fever
(i) advantage
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(ii) disadvantage
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12. Fig.7 shows the metabolic rates of the artic fox (curve WX) and the Kangaroo rat (curve YZ) in
relation to the environment temperature.
13. The figure below shows the metabolic rate and body temperature of a naked man subjected to a
gradual lowering environmental temperature from 290 C to -1o C.
14. The figure below shows the variation of metabolic rate with environmental temperature in a
mammal.
15. The figure below shows the variation of metabolic rate with environmental temperature in a
mammal.
12.4 Excretion
4. Which one of the following is a way of minimizing water loss in a desert animal?
5. Which one of these plasma constituents is reabsorbed in the distal convoluted tubule?
6. Blood plasma contains proteins but glomerular filtrate does not. Why does this difference in
composition occur?
A. Blood osmotic pressure is maintained by the pressure of back proteins.
B. Proteins are actively transported from the kidney tubule back into the blood capillaries.
C. Proteins cannot pass through the membranes of the glomerular capillaries
D. There is a high hydrostatic pressure in the blood within the glomerular capillaries
7. Which part of the nephron in a mammal contains the highest concentration of urea?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
10. (a) With reasons, give examples of animals which produce each of the following excretory
products:
(i) Ammonia
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(ii) Uric acid
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(b) State
(i) Why the pH of the body fluids in a human body is kept constant. (02 marks)
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(ii) three ways of keeping the pH in b(i) constant. (03 marks)
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(c) The table below shows the percentage of various components in the blood plasma in the part
labeled A, the fluid in the part labeled B and in the urine of a human.
14. Nephrosis is a kidney condition in which damage to the glomeruli results in large quantities of
protein passin g through the glomeruli filtrate. This protein finally appears in urine.
(a) Suggest why this protein is not reabsorbed into the blood stream in the proximal convoluted
tubule of the nephron.
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(b) As a result of nephrosis, large amounts of tissue fluid accumulate in the body, especially the
ankle and the feet.
(i) Explain why loss of protein from the body results in accumulation of tissue fluid.
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(ii) Suggest why this tissue fuild accumulates especially in the ankles and the feet.
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(c) (i) Explain how the action in the kidney of the hormone aldosterone controls the sodium
content in blood.
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(ii) Suggest why little aldosterone is produced by person suffering from nephrosis.
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15. The table below shows the percentage composition of blood plasma and urine for four substances.
16. (a) What polymer is formed from the amino acid by condesation reactions?
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(b) The figure below shows part of the structural formula of an amino acid.
17. The figure below shows the events of the ornithine cycle. Study it carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
12.5 Osmoregulation
1. which one of the following parts of the nephron contributes to the production of hypertonic urine?
2. The following are adaptations for survival among animals during periods of water shortage
(i) Tolerance to water loss
(ii) Biochemical production of water
(iii) Reduction in water loss
(iv) Evasion of hot environment
6. Vertebrates A and B belong to the same species and are terrestrial. A lives in a dry environment
while B lives in a wet environment. The kidney structure of B would differ from that of A by
having
A. more numerous and smaller glomeruli with longer loop of henle.
B. more numerous and bigger glomeli with shorter loop of henle.
C. fewer and bigger glomeruli with shorter loop of henle.
D. fewer and smaller glomeruli with longer loop of henle.
7. Some of the events that occur in mans body in order to correct an increase in the osmotic
potential of the blood are
1. Increased production of ADH (antidiuretic hormones)
2. Stimulation of osmoreceptors
3. Increased reabsorption of water by the kidney
The correct order in which these occurs is
A. 2, 1, 3 B. 3, 2, 1 C. 1, 2, 3 D. 3, 1, 2
8. An individual with diabetes inspidus feels thirsty most of the time because
A. glucose in urine causes less water to be loss in form of urine.
9. 12. Which one of the following methods is used by marine fish to overcome the problem of
dehydration?
A. Increase in glomerular filtration rate
B. Extensive reabsorption of salts from renal fluids
C. Extrusion of salty by chloride secretory cells
D. Elimination of nitrogenous waste in form of insoluble compounds
10. Which one of the following adaptations would not assist animals living in a desert?
A. Use of metabolic water
B. Possession of a large number of glomeruli
C. Possession of long loop of Henle
D. Production of non-toxic nitrogenous waste
12. Which one of the following is not characteristic of animals which migrate from fresh water to sea
water?
A. Lack means of osmoregulation
B. Have efficient means of osmoregulation
C. Possess tolerant tissues
D. Employ behavioral means in osmoregulation
13. Where in the host is a parasite lacking sense organs and osmoregulatory devices likely to be
located?
14. If the osmotic pressure of the external solution is lower than that of the cell, the external solution
is said to be
15. The urine that flows out of the collecting duct has its osmotic concentration nearest to that of the
17. The significance of direct secretion of waste materials from the epithelial cells of the nephron
tubules into the lumen is to;
A. prevent loss of sugars from the body
B. selectively reabsorb salt into the blood stream.
C. maximize osmotic water reabsorption.
D. minimize water loss from the body, in urine.
18. Which one of the following does not occur during low sodium ion concentration in the body?
A. Increase in concentration of ACTH in blood
B. Increase in concentration of renin enzyme in blood.
C. Decrease in blood pressure inside blood vessels.
D. Increase in the concentration of aldosterone in blood
19. Excessive loss of proteins from blood circulation, via urine, in some patients, results into
excessive accumulation of tissue fluid in the intercellular spaces because low protein level in
blood;
A. increase ultra filtration rate
B. increases diffusion of lymph into the intercellular spaces.
C. enables the osmotic pressure of blood to be lower than the hydrostatic pressure.
D. promotes re-absorption of all amino acids into the blood stream.
20. Which one of the following groups of fish have gills which can actively pump salts in and out of
their bodies, depending on the changes in the osmotic pressure of the external environment?
21. While many fresh water animals posses vacuoles which contract to expel excess water, plants
living in fresh water do not have such vacuoles because
A. plant walls are impermeable to water
B. plant cell sap is of much lower concentration than animal protoplasm
C. water movement into plants is controlled by their roots
D. the water potential inside and outside such plant cells is the same.
22. Which of the following methods is used by the bony fish to regulate its internal environment?
A. actively takes up salts through the gills
B. constantly drinks water.
C. produces isotonic urine in samll quantities.
D. produces dilute urine in large quantities.
23. The blood proteins which filter through the tiny pores of the glomerulus, are reabsorbed from the
lumen of proximal convoluted tubules into the epithelial cells of the tubules by;
24. In which part of the mammalian kidney is blood likely to to be most viscous as ot flows?
A. in the affarent vessel.
B. In the capillaries at the proximal convoluted tubule.
C. in the efferent vessel.
D. in the capillaries of the distal convoluted tubule.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
25. Figure 6 shows the effect of changing the osmotic pressure of the external medium (Ope), on the
osmotic pressure of the blood (Opi), of sea animals A and B.
(a) Explain the effect of decreasing the Ope on the Opi of each animal.
(i) Animal A
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(ii) Animal B
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(b) Using the information provided, suggest an ecological advantage animal B has over animal A.
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(c) What is the main osmotic problem faced by sea animals whose OPi is less than OPe?
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26. (a) State three ways by which ions are regulated in mammals
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(b) The pH of blood and tissue fluid in humans remains constant at about 7.4 inspite of metabolic
activities which produce hydrogen ions. Explain how this constancy is maintained by the kidneys.
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27. The figure below shows the relationship between the osmotic pressure of blood and external
medium of three animals. A, B, and C
(a) Suggest the likely habitat for each animal, giving a reason for each case.
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29. (a) Explain the role of sodium ions in maintaining high water potential of blood.
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(b) Give reasons for the following observations in a human being;
(i) Urination almost stops during excessive bleeding.
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(ii) Indiviuals passes out Urine that changes yellow if boiled with Benedicts solution.
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(c) Give two structural mechanisms employed by fresh water fish to solve the problem of
osmoregulation.
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c) Study the sketch graph below and answer the questions which follow.
31. Explain the changes in the concentration of sodium ions in the renal fluid along the
(a) descending limb of the loop of Henle.
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(b) ascending limb of the loop pf Henle.
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(c) collecting duct.
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33. The figure below show the concemtration of solutes in the fluids of diffrent a nephron from a
human kidney. Curve A shaows the concentration in the presence of hormone ADH. Curve B
shows the concentration when no ADH present.
(a) Aithough solutes such as glucose are reabsorbed in the first convoluted tubule, the
concentration of these solutes doesnot change as the fluid flows along this part. Explain why?
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(b) What causes the concentration of the solutes to increase then decrease as the fluid flows along
the loop of Henle.
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(c) Explain the difference in concentration of fluids in the collecting duct in curves A and B
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34. Diuretics are substances which increase urine production by the kidneys.
(a) Complete the flow chart belwo to show how ethanol acts a diuretic.
(b) (i) Explain why eating large amounts of glucose can lead to lead to an increase in urine
production.
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(ii) Some diuretics used in medicine inhibit the reabsorption of chloride ions in the loop of Henle.
Explain how this would lead to an increase in urine production.
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1. Which one of the following pairs of responses in plants is caused by unequal distribution of
Auxins?
2. In plants, the growth substances that whic interact to cause cell enlargement are
3. When the shoot of the apex of a growing plant is removed , lateral growth is encouraged because
A. auxins are activated in buds
B. growth of lateral buds is stimulated by gibberellins
4. Ripening in uripe fruits is facilitated when they are enclosed with ripe ones because?
A. IAA is produced by ripe fruits to initiate ripening of others
B. ripe fruits produce ethene which facilitates ripening of others.
C. ripe fruits increase the temperature which enhances ripening.
D. the unripe fruits absorb moisture from ripe fruits which speeds up ripening
6. Which one of the following substances would be released by a plant under conditions of water
stress?
8. The cutting of plant apex encourages the growth of many branches because
A. It encourages interaction of auxins and gibberellins
B. Secondary growth increases in stems
C. Auxins transfer downwards along the stem
D. Apical dominance is removed.
9. Promotion of cell division by cytokinins only in the presence of auxins is an interaction known as
10. The ripening of raw tomatoes when mixed with ripe ones occurs because tomatoes produce
11. Interruption of the period of darkness by a brief red light prevents flowering in a short day plant
because
12. In short-day plants, which one of the following will induce flowering?
A. Period of light longer than a critical length
B. Period of darkness longer than a critical length
C. Period of light shorter than a critical length
D. Period of darkness shorter than a critical length
13. Which one of the following hormones initiates flowering in long-day plants?
14. A light flash given in the middle of the night over several days may delay flowering in
15. If a long plant has a critical night length of 10 hours, which one of the following conditions
would allow flowering in the plants
A. 8 hours light and 16 hours darkness C. 12 hours light and 12 hours darkness
B. 16 hours light and 8 hours darkness D. 10 hours light and 14 hours darkness
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
16. Figure 2 shows the effect of red light and far red light interruption of night period, on flowering
of a plant.
(a) What is the effect of interruption of the night period by each type of light?
(i) Red Light
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(ii) Far red light
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(b) Suggest the type of plant that would exhibit responses to light treatments as shown in figure 2.
..............................................................................................................................................................
(c) How can the knowledge of the effect of red light and far red light on flowering be utilized in
the commercial growing of flowers?
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F
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19. (a) Figure 5 shows the results of an experiment to find out the effects of Indole acetic acid (IAA)
and gibberellic acid (GA), on elongation of the stem. Segments from the stem internodes of
young pea seedlings were used in four cultures which were kept in the same identical conditions
except for the treatments outlined below.
Culture 1 Control, no plant growth substances added.
Culture 2 GA only
Culture 3 IAA only
Culture 4 GA and IAA
..............................................................................................................................................................
(c) Over which period of the experiment do the plant growth substances have their greatest effect?
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(d) (i) State two other effects of IAA in plants, other than stem elongation.
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(ii) For each effect in d(i), state a commercial application of IAA.
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20. Three healthy unrelated species of flowering plants A,B and C were subjected to a range of
different light and dark treatments.The results are shown in the table below.
(a) State the periodic group to which each species belongs, giving a reason in each case
(i) A :
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(ii) B:
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(iii) C:
..............................................................................................................................................................
(b) Describe how the phytochrome controls flowering response exhibited in species A and B.
(i) Species A:
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(ii) Species B:
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(C) What would be the effect of flashing light during darkness, on each of the following species?
A:
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B:
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C:
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Giving a reason from the graphs above, state the plant that is
(i) Long day plant.
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3. The mammalian eye recieves fewer stimuli per unit compared to the insect’s eye because.
A.mammalian eye occupies a smaller space on the head than the inscet eye.
B. mammalian eye has less focusing units than the insect eye.
C. time lapse between reception of light, stimulus and recoveryis shorter in the insect eye.
D. mammalian eye has a small field of view.
4. Which one of the following does not contribute to the short reaction times in insects?
A. Large amplitude and high frequency C. High frequency and small amplitude
B. Low frequency and large amplitude D. Small quantities and low frequency
6. The diagram in the Fig. 1 show a defect of the eye. What is it and what does it cause?
A. Eyeball is too short for the lens, causing short sightedness
B. Lens is too thick, causing short sight
C. Eyeball is too short for the lens, causing long sightedness
D. Eyeball is too large for the lens, causing astigmatism
7. The insect compound eye receives more stimuli per unit time than the mammalian eye because the
A. Insect occupies a larger part of the head than the mammalian eye
B. Time lapse between reception of light stimulus and recovery is short
C. Insect eye has more focusing units than the mammalian eye.
D. Insect eye has a wide field of view.
A. Have little retinal convergence C. Connect with a single optic nerve fibre
B. Are more sensitive to light D. Are more concentrated at the fovea.
9. In the mammalian eye, rods have a poorer visual acuity than cones because they are
10. Which of the following takes place as the eye accommodates a distant object?
pupil widens, the lens thickens C. pupil widens, the lens flattens.
B. pupil narrows, the lens thickens D. pupil narrows, the lens flatten
11. Which of the following applies to the cones of the retina? They
15. Which one of the following types of sound waves travels furthest along the basilar membrane?
The sound wave with
A. High frequency and high amplitude C. High frequency and low amplitude
B. High frequency and high amplitude D. Low frequency and low amplitude
16. Which one of the following is not true about the simple eye?
17. Which part of the vestibular column rseponds to the vertical movement of the head?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
..............................................................................................................................................................
(b) (i) Give three structural similarities between the compound eye and the mammalian eye.
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(ii) Give two advantages each has over the other.
Compound eye overmammalian eye.
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Mammalian eye over compound eye.
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(a) What is the effect of each arrangement on the response of the eye?
(i) Effect of arrangement A.
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(ii) Effect of arrangements B.
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..............................................................................................................................................................
(b) Explain how the effect of each arrangement is brought about.
(i) Effect of arrangement A.
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(ii) Effect of arrangement B.
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(c) Under which light conditions is each arrangement most effective and why?
(i) Arrangement A.
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(ii) Arrangement B.
..............................................................................................................................................................
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21. Figure 1 is a drawing of a rod cells, from the retina of the human eye.
..............................................................................................................................................................
(e) Explain how light energy falling onto the rod cell in the retina of a mammalian eye is
converted into electical energy.
..............................................................................................................................................................
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..............................................................................................................................................................
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(f) Explain why an individual is temporarily blinded whwn one moves from bright light into a
dimly lit room.
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..............................................................................................................................................................
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..............................................................................................................................................................
(g) Explain how the possession different types of cones enables us to see.
(i) Blue light
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
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(ii) White light
..............................................................................................................................................................
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23. The figure below shows rod cells and neurons from the retina of an eye.
(a) Describe how light falling on a rod cell can give an action potential.
..............................................................................................................................................................
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..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
(b) Explain how an action potential is produced and a nerve impulse transmitted along an axon.
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
(c) With reference to the figure above, explain the folowing properties of a synapse.
(i) Summation:
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
(ii) Transmission across a synapse will only occur in one direction.
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
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24. The diagram below represents the retina of the human eye
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
25. The diagram represents a vertical section through the eye of the mammal
..............................................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................................................
1. Wearing a coarse a tickling sensation but later the sensation disappears. Which one of the
following is not an explanation of this observation?
A. Supply of the transmitter substance gets exhausted
B. Discharge of impulses at the afferent nerves ceases
C. The membrane surrounding the generator region becomes less permeable to sodium ions
D. Generator potential falls below threshold value
3. Wearing a coarse shirt causes unpleasant sensation at first but later the discomfort disappears
because
A. With continued stimulus, generator potential falls below threshold value
B. The post synaptic surfaces fail to release the transmitter substance
C. Nervous system stops carrying sensory impulses
D. Continued stimulation leads to fusion of generator potentials
A. entry of sodium ions into the cell. C. entry of potassium ions into the cell.
B. sodium ions diffusing out of the cell. D. ptassium ions diffusing out of the cell.
5. Which one of the following is a correct statement about a neurone membrane during resting
potential?
A. The inside of the neurone membrane is negatively charged
B. The Na+, K+ and Cl− ions are evenly distributed on either side of the membrane
C. The concentration of K+ ions is greater inside the membrane
D. The concentration of K+ ions is greater outside the membrane
A. All synapse use chemicals only. C. Some synapses are not vulnerable to fatigue
B. Some synapses are not susceptible to drugs. D. some synapse occur in form of tubes
7. Myelinated axons of a frog conduct impulses three times faster as those of the same diameter in a
rat because the
A. myelin sheath in axon of frog’s is thinner. C. neurones of a frog have more synapses.
B. rat is endothermic. D. frog lives in water which is cold
8. In which one of these insects is the wing beat frequency at the same rate as the impulse supply?
9. Which one of the following would occur at the synapse treated with a poison which renders
cholinesterase inactive?
A. conduction of impulses ceases
B. conduction speed of impulses reduces
C. conduction of impulses in the post-synaptic neuron continues.
D. the dircetion of impulses reverses.
10. The following chemical substances mimic the actions of natural neurotransmitters, at the synapse,
except;
11. The table below shows the speed of impulse conduction along the axons from four different
species of animals.
Which one of the above species is most likely to possess a myelinated nerve fibre?
A. X B. Z C. Y D. W
A. Acetylcholine B. Norepinephrine
C. Acetylcholinesterase D. Epinephrine
13. Which one of the following describes the state of the membrane during resting potential?
15. Which one of the following is correct about the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Nerve endings produce nor-adrenaline
B. Preganglionic fibres are long and post ganglionic fibres are short
C. Nerve endings produce acetylcholine
D. Ganglia are embedded in the walls of the effector organs
16. Which one of the following structures underwent evolutionary development to increase
intelligence in mammals?
17. Which of the following substances play a vital role in the transmission of an impulse across a
synapse?
18. which one of the following events represent the correct order of events that occur at the synapse
during impulse transmission?
A. Ca2+ ion influx, release of transmitter substance, depolarization
B. Depolarization, release of transmitter substance, Ca2+ ion influx
C. Release of transmitter substance, Ca2+ ion influx, depolarization
D. Release of transmitter substance, depolarization, Ca2+ ion influx.
19. The onset of depolarization of an axon occurs when the axoplasm temporarily becomes
20. Which one of the following is true about the state of the axon membrane during the absolute
refractory period? It is
A. Depolarized C. Polarized
B. In excitable D. Excitable with a stimulus stronger than usual
A. Sodium ions leaving the axon C. Sodium ions entering the axon
B. Potassium ions entering the axon D. Potassium ions leaving the axons
24. Which one of the following would occur at the onset of an action potential in a neurone?
26. Which one of the following statements is true only of sympathetic nervous system?
27. Which one of the following occurs when the axon membrane depolarizes?
A. Sodium ions enter the axon and potassium ions leave
B. Both sodium and potassium ions leaves the axon
C. Potassium ions enter the axon and sodium ions leave
D. Both sodium and potassium ions enter the axon
28. A mother, who lacked milk in her breasts at the birth of her baby was diagnosed to have a brain
damage. Which one of the following parts of the brain is most likely to have been affected?
A.Posterior lobe of the pituitary gland C. Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
B. Pineal body D. Cerebrum
29. Increased depplarisation of the postsynaptic membrane to allow chloride ions in, and potassium
ions out of the cell causes
30. Which one of the following is not stimulated by the parasympathetic nerves?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
Figure 2 above shows the result of one end of an axon being stimulated with six electrical shocks
of gradually increasing intensity and its response recorded from the other end. Study the figure
and answer the following questions:
(a) Describe the behavior of the axon in the regions labeled A, B and C in relation to the
magnitude of the stimuli given Region A
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Region B
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Region C
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34. In the space below, draw and label the structure of a synapse.
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(b) How does an impulse cross a synapse?
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35. The figure below shows a human brain seen from right angle.
36. The figure below shows the variation of a nerve impulse conduction speed with total diameter, of
myelinated and non-myelinated fibres.
(a) Compare the variation of speed of conduction with diameter in two types of fibres. (04 marks)
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(b) Explain the diffrences in the conduction speed of the two fibres (02marks)
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(c) Suggest the significance of transmission speed in nervous communication.
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37. The figure below shows dendrites from neurons A and B forming synapses with neuron C
(a) Explain what would happen if (i) acetylcholine increased the permeability of the post synaptic
membrane to sodium ions.
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(ii) X increased the permeability of the post synaptic membrane to chloride ions.
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(b) State a benefit of neuron C forming a synapse with two neurons A and B.
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(c) State three fuctions of the synapses.
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ii) Facilitation
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b) Outline any four ways how the synapse can be disrupted by the drugs and poisons.
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c) Mention any four likely effects of synapse disruption by the drugs and poisons.
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d) State three disadvantages of synapse
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(a) Describe what would happen in the presynaptic neurone as a result of the arrival of an impulse.
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(b) The graphs below show the changes in membrane potential in the presynaptic neurone and the
postsynaptic neurone as an impulse passes across a synapse.
On the graph for the postsynaptic neurone, indicate by using a letter S the point at which the
sodium channels open, allowing an increased flow of sodium into the neurone.
(ii) On the graph for the postsynaptic neurone, indicate by using a letter P the point at which the
potassium channels open, allowing an increased flow of potassium ions
(iii) Calculate the delay between the arrival of the action potential at the presynaptic neurone and
the production of an action potential in the postsynaptic neurone. Show your working.
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40. (a) Give one function of the synapse in the nervous system.
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(b) When an action potential arrives at the synapse, calcium ions enter the neurone through
presynaptic membranes.
(i) Explain how the calcium ions enter the neurone.
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(ii) Describe the events which occur as result of the entry of the calcium ions to cause
depolarization of the post synaptic membrane.
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(d) Explain the role of cholinesterase at synapses.
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42. The figure below shows changes in plarity of an axon as an impulse passes along the axon.
(a) What is the state of the axon membrane between (i) R and S?
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(ii) S and T?
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(b) Describe the movement of ions across the axon membrane between
(i) R and S.
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(ii) S and T.
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(iii) T and U.
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(c) Why is it difficult to stimulate an axon shortly after it has transmitted an impulse?
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43. The graph shows the changes in the permeability of an axon membrane to sodium and potassium
ions during an action potential.
(a) Explain why at the start of the action potential, the potential difference across the membrane
rapidly changes from positive to negative.
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(b) Suggest why, during a period of intense nervous activity, metabolic rate of nerve cell
increases.
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(c) Predict the effect of on an action potential of lowering the external concentration of sodium
ions. Explain your answer.
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44. The graph below shows the effect of adding acetylcholine to skeletal muscles and heart muscle.
3. Hormones achieve their activities within their target cells by any of the following processes
except;
A. nervous transmission across synapse.
B. enzyme activity.
C. exchange of materials across cell membranes.
D. protein synthesis.
7. Cyclic Amp.
A. is produced in response to aminoacid-based proteins
B. appears in cycles.
C. is produced in response to steroid hormones.
D. attaches to DNA to control mRNA transcription
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
9. (a) State four differences and one similarity between nervous and hormonal communication.
(i) Differences
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(ii) Similarities
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(b) What is the major role of
(i) Follicle stimulating Hormone (FSH)
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(ii) Luteinizing Hormone (LH) in a human menstrual cycle.
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(c) The functioning of synapses can be affected by the presence drugs as shown in the table below.
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13.5 Behaviour
1. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage gained from innate evolutionary behavior?
3. In birds, hatchlings following the first thing they see is an example of,
4. The special phenomenon by which young birds recognize their parents is referred to as
9. Which one of the following would not be caused by seasonal changes in migratory birds?
10. The type of learning that involves the immediate understanding and responding is
11. Migration of birds during winter from temeperate regions to the tropics is an example of .
A. habituation. C. imprinting.
B. insight learning D. exploratory learning
12. The type of learning that prevents animals from responding to repeated stimulation is
14. Which body part does a scout bee from side to side when a bee performs a waggle dance¿
18. The chaffinch chick which is isolated from others and reared alone, sings a subsong compared to
the rest of other members. What is the best explanation for such an observation?
A. The chaffinch chick is a hybrid.
19. What type of learning is exhibited by a predator when it avoids eating a brightly coloured prey.
20. which one of the following is not correct about instinctive behavior
A. is a permanent adaptive trait
B. can be developed in animals reared in isolation
C. Allows synchronisation of sexual behaviour
D. Develops independently of the environment
22. Which one of the following is not a purpose for courtship behavior among animals?
A. Ensuring that both partners are sexually mature
B. Establishing a pair-bond
C. Ensuring that both partners are ready for moving
D. Establishing territories
23. The learning which involves immediate understanding and correct response
24. When same response is given to same stimulus on different occasions, the behavior is said to be
25. Which one of the following patterns of behavior in rats would be a result of latent learning?
29. Learning to associate a reward with a predictive stimulus, such as a hamburger with the sight of a
neon sign, is an example of
31. The responses of an organism to stimuli from its environment constitute its
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
33. (a) The figure below shows two types of dances performed by a worker bee.Identify the dance
and briefly describe the the information it conveys.
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(b) Explain why for an altruistic behaviour to be maintained in a population over time, it must be
directed at close relatives.
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34. (a) Give the meaning of the each of the following forms of behavior
(i). Habituation
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(ii). Imprinting
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(iii). Instinctive behaviour.
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(c) State the benefits of each of the above forms of behaviour to an animal
(i). Habituation
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(ii). Imprinting
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(iii). Instinctive behaviour.
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36. (a) Distinguish between Altruistic behavior and Rhythmical behavior, give an example in each
case.
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(b) Figure below shows the behavioral response by a rat and an ant when learning a new maze by
trial and error
(i) What conclusions about learning in rats and ants are evident from the data?
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(ii) State three factors that could affect the learning of a new situation like a maze in animals.
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37. In a series of experiments on ducklings, the effectiveness of impriting was measured at various
times of hatching.In these experiments , the ducklings had the opportunity to follow a model dark.
The figure represents the percentage of darklings at a particular age which followed the model.
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(d) Describe three ways how hormones may influence an animals behavior
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13.6 Effectors
Which one of the following pairs of structures shorten when the muscle fibre contracts?
For the earthworm to progress in the direction indicated by the arrow, in region X, the earthworm
has to contract its
A. Circular muscles and extend the cheatae C. Circular muscles and retract the cheatae
B. Longitudinal muscles and retract the cheatae D. Longitudinal muscles and extend the cheatae
3. During locomotion, bones of a tetrapod are subjected to the following forces except.
4. During locomotion in an earth worm, when longitudinal muscles cintract in a region, the region
becomes,
A. 1, 2, 3, 8. B. 6, 7, 8, 9. C. 1, 9, 4, 6. D. 5, 7, 3, 2.
6. Which one of the following is the correct shape, in the region of the body of an earth worm where
its circular muscles are contracted?
A. Short and thick B. Long and thin C. Short and thin D. Long and thick
7. The type of locomotion in aquatic organisms where the entire body is thrown into motion is called
Which arrow represents the force applied against the water by the tail of the fish as the muscles in
the shaded side contract?
In what state are the circular and longitudinal muscles in the region labeled Y?
A. Circular muscles are contracted and longitudinal muscles relaxed
B. Longitudinal muscles are contracted and circular muscles relaxed
C. Circular muscles and longitudinal muscles are relaxed
D. Circular muscles and longitudinal muscles contracted
11. Which one of the following sections of a striated muscle in figure 1 below represents the
myofibril in a contracted state?
12. Which pair of structures counteracts the instability due to rolling in fish?
13. Which one of the following describes what happens at the tip of a newly formed amoeboid
A. Gel ectoplasm changes to sol endoplasm C. Sol ectoplasm changes to gel endoplasm
B. Gel endoplasm changes to sol ectoplasm D. Sol endoplasm changes to gel ectoplasm
14. Which one of the following features in a bony fish makes it more efficient in swimming than
cartilagenenous fish?
15. Which one of the following pairs of proteins is found in skeletal muscle?
16. Which one of the following statements is true for all mammalian muscles? They
A. Contract only when stimulated by a nervous impulse
B. Are either smooth or striated except for the heart muscle
C. Use chemical energy to perform mechanical work
D. Can be moved by the skeleton
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
(a) What name is given to the biochemical pathway of a mitochondrion that produces ATP.
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(b) Give one function of ATP produced by the mitochondria shown in the diagram below.
(i) Position A;
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(ii) Position B;
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(c) Describe one function of calcium ions in the streuctures shown in the diagram above.
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17. The figure below shows a structure a nerve-muscule junction together with part associated
muscle.
(a) Describe how transmission of an impulse occurs a nerve-muscle junction when an impulse
arrives at the presynaptic membrane.
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(b) i) What causes the banding pattern seen in the muscle fibril?
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ii) How and why will the banding pattern change when the muscle fibre contracts?
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13.7 Locomotion
3. Which of the following muscles does not require nervous intervention to initiate its contraction?
6. Which one of the following movements in fish is counteracted by the vertical horizontal fins?
10. The fusion of parts of the vertebral column in birds , aids flight by
11. The flagellum and skeletal muscle are structurally similar in that they both have
12. Which one of the following factors least affects the gliding speed of a bird?
13. Which of the following are the points that must be taken into account when considering
locomotion of any animal?
15. which one of the following is true of a fully contracted muscle fibre?
16. During insect locomotion by walking movement of the fore leg on one side is followed by the
movement of the
17. Which one of the following occrs during contraction of a skeletal muscle?
18. Stability in a fish during locomotion is provided by the following fins except?
19. Physical exercise increases skeletal muscle performance by increasing the following except the
20. The following are properties of skeletal muscle fibres used for maintainance of body posture,
except;
A. lose heat at a high rate
B. have abundant glycogen granules
C. have many mitochondria
D. have poorly developed sarcoplasmic reticulum
22. Which one of the following structures prevents dislocation of the forearm, during its backward
movement?
Which one of the following would be the correct order of limb movement in the tetrapod if it is to
move in the direction shown.?
A. (ii), (iv), (iii), (i). B. (i), (iv), (ii), (iii). C. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv). D. (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
14 REPRODUCTION
2. The common method of reproduction in organisms which have a large number of undifferentiated
cells is
3. A fragment of an earthworm can regenerate into a new worm because earth worms
5. Workers bees and the queen bee are polymorphic forms which differ in their fertility as a result of
A. Feeding on different diets
B. Workers eggs not being fertilized
C. Workers being produced parthenogenetically
D. The queen having diploid cells while the workers have haploid cells
6. Workers bees and the queen bee are polymorphic forms which differ in their fertility as a result of
A. Feeding on different diets
B. Workers eggs not being fertilized
C. Workers being produced parthenogenetically
D. The queen having diploid cells while the workers have haploid cells
7. Which one of the following occurs in haploid parthenogenesis? Eggs are formed by
A. meiosis and develop without being fertilised
B. mitosis and develop without being fertilised
C. meiosis and are fertilised.
D. mitosis and are fertilised.
9. Which one of the following is true of diploid parthenogenesis? The eggs are formed by
A. Meiosis and develop without fertilization C. Meiosis and develop after fertilization
B. Mitosis and develop after fertilization D. Mitosis and develop without fertilization
12. Bryphytes and pteridophytes cannot fully exploit terrestrial life mainly because they.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
(b) Describe the role of a male gamete in the process of sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
(03 marks)
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(c) Give any three reasons why mosses are restricted to live in moist places.
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1. Which of one of the following can be concluded from the reproductive process in figure below.
The
2. A human sperm.
A. doesnot have a nucleus.
B. has haploid number of chromosomes located in the middle piece.
5. After sperms move through the vas deferens, they enter the,
10. Which one of the following could result from low levels of progesterone during gestation?
11. which one of the following occurs in the human female body, following menstruation?
A. corpus leteum develops
B. infertilised egg cell is removed from the body
C. placenta develops
D. proliferation of the uterine wall starts.
12. figure shows the control of production of hormones in the menstrual cycle.
A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 6
A. chlorophyta. C. pteridophyta.
B.spermatophyta. D. bryophyta.
14. High levels of luteinizing hormone in blood leads to the following except?
15. The genetic condition of spore produced in the sporophyte caspsule of the bryophyte is
16. The passage of glucose molecules from maternal circulation to the foetal circulation across the
placenta is by
17. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in which hormones are produced in the
menstrual cycle?
A. Progesterone, luteinizing hormone, oestrogen, follicle stimulating hormone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone, progesterone, luteinizing hormone, oestrogen
C. Follicle stimulating hormone, oestrogen, luteinizing hormone, progesterone
D. Luteinizing hormone, oestrogen, follicle stimulating hormone, progesterone.
20. Which one of the following structures supplies oxygenated blood to the foetus?
B. Prevent menstruation
C. Assist in producing hormones which maintain pregnancy
D. Facilitate food and oxygen supply to the foetus
25. In the mammalian menstrual cycle, the decline in the level of progesterone is due to
26. All the following are stimulated by the luteinizing hormone except A. Proliferation of the uterine
wall
B. Development of the corpus luteum
C. Stimulation of corpus luteum to produce progesterone
D. Ovulation
27. Which one of the following foetal blood vessels carries the most oxygenated blood?
28. Which one of the following conditions would most likely result into a miscarriage in humans?
A. High level of progesterone and low level of Oestrogen in the blood
B. High level of Oestrogen and low level of progesterone in the blood
C. Low levels of progesterone and Oestrogen in the blood
D. High levels of progesterone and Oestrogen in the blood
29. Which one of the following would not reduce the development of Graafian follicles in
mammalian ovaries?
31. What is the role of the luteinizing hormone in menstrual cycle? Promotes
32. The hormone controlling ovulation and luteal phase of human menstrual cycle is:
A. Spermatid B. Spermatozoon
C. Spermatogonium D. Primary spermatocyte
36. The figure below shows hormonal interaction that occurs during the menstrual cycle
37. Which one of the following is the mother cell from which the ovum is developed?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
38. (a) Study the figure below and label the parts in the spaces provided.
(b) Describe two differences between the seminiferous tubules and the vasdeferens.
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(c) Describe the composition of semen.
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(d) (i) State any one similarity between an egg and a sperm.
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(ii) Outline any two differences between the sperm and an egg.
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40. The figure below shows the events of menstrual cycle. Use it to answer the questions that folllow.
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(b) Explain why ovulation does not occur during pregnancy.
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(c) Describe how the placenta, chorionic villi, and allantois are functionally and structurally
related.
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41. The illustration below shows the action of the female hormones during pregnancy. Study it and
answer questions that follow.
42. The figure below shows the rise and fall of pituitary and ovarian hormones during the human
cycle.
44. The figure shows below some of the events which take place in an ovary and oviduct around the
time of fertilisation.
45. In the process of sperm formation in a mammalain testis, cells divide by meiosis and mitosis.
(a) Explain why mitosis is important in the process of sperm formation.
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(iv) Suggest and explain the advantages and disadvantages of using Norplant as acontraceptive.
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46. The figure below shows changes in the mean diameter of follicles and corpora lutea ovaries of a
mammal over a period of 50 days.
(a) i) Explain the changes in the follicle size which took place between days 5 and 27.
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ii) Describe the role played by these hormones in producing these changes.
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(b) Describe two pieces of evidence which suggest that the animal didnot become preganant over
the period of time shown on the graph.
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47. (a) What is meant the term gonadotrophic hormones as used in the menstrual cycle? (02 marks)
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(b) Name two gonadotrophic hormones essential in controlling the menstrual cycle. (02 marks)
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(c) The figure below shows the thickness of the uterine wall throughout the menstraul cycle in an
adult human female.
From the figure above, state with a reason the day when;
(i) ovulation is mostly likely to happen.(2 marks)
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(ii) fertilisation is most likely to occur.(2 marks)
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(iii) Corpus leteum begins to break down.(1.5marks)
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(d) Briefly describe the development of the graffian follicle from oogonium during ovulation. (4
marks)
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48. The table below shows some of the sex hormones in blood of a cow over a period of time.
(a) State with a reason the length of the oestrous cycle. (2 marks)
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(b) Explain how a high concentration of luteinising hormone on day 0 causes an increase in
progestrone later.(3 marks)
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(c) Suggest with a reason how the level of progestrone would differ if a cow has been pregnant. (3
marks)
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(d) Progestrone can be detected in milk during pregnancy. Suggest how progestrone gets into
milk. (1mark)
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(e) Describe how sex hormones can be used in contraception in controlling infertility in humans.
(2 marks)
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2. Some sporophytes contain a mixture of haploid, diploid and triploid cells at some point. This
condition only occurs in
4. Which of the following is a difference between flowers of dicotyledonous plants and those of
monocotyledonous plants? Flowers of dicotyledonous plant usually
6. Double fertilization in flowering plants refers to fusion of two male nuclei with
A. antipodal nuclei and polar nuclei C. egg nucleus and antipodal nuclei
B. egg nucleus and polar nuclei D. two egg nuclei
7. At which of the following stages does meiosis occur in the life cycle of a fern? During the
formation of the
8. Which one of the following is the diploid stage in the life cycle of a moss?
9. In which of the following plants showing alternation of generations is the sporophyte generation
dominant?
10. Which one of the following is true during fertilization in higher plants?
A. One of the male nuclei fuses with polar nuclei
B. Two of the cells at the micropyle become non-functional
C. The antipodal cells fuse with one male nucleus
D. All the polar cells are fertilized
11. Which one of the following is true of the products of gametogenesis in flowering plants?
12. Ferns are considered to be more advanced land plants than mosses because sporophytes of ferns
13. The sporophyte generation of flowering plants has a mixture of cellswith different nucleic acid
content because
A. of chromosomal mutation in some cells. B. they produce megaspores and microspores.
C. of double fertilisation
D. the flower produce fruits and seeds.
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
16. (a) Give one ecological importance of each of the following structures arrangements in plants.
(i) Monoecious
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(ii) Dioecious
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(b) Explain why
(i) in Dioecious plants, male plants are usually associated with dry soils while female plants are
associated with moist soils
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(ii) nearly all Dioecious plants are wind pollinated
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(c) Give one reason why Dioecious plants are rarer than Monoecious plants.
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17. a) Describe the structural changes of a flowers ovary that result in the development of a fruit.
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b) Why are plantations of banana plants in different parts of the world grown from cuttings all
susceptible to fungal attack?
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c) Edible banana plants have three sets of chromosomes. Why does this condition result into
sterility?
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19. A moss alternates between two distinct forms in its life cycle; as a gametophyte and sporophyte.
(a) Describe how (i) a gametophyte forms a sporophyte.
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(ii) a sporophyte forms a gametophyte.
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(c) Explain why mosses are restricted to living in wet environment.
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21. The figure below shows a germinating pollen grain and a mature ovule from a flower of a
papilionaceae. Some nuclei have been labeled.
15 DEVELOPMENT
2. The primary meristematic tissue in plants which gives rise to the cortex is the
3. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents the growth rate of a multcellular
organism?
9. Which one of the following is not a role of the larva stage in animal development?
A. dispersal. C. feeding.
B. asexual reproduction. D. sexual reproduction.
10. Which one of the following statements about meristematic cells is true
A. they are found only at growing tips in plants
B. lose their ability to divide after 5 divisions
C. have lignified cell walls
D. they are alive at maturity
12. In the mature woody stem, the sequences of tissues (moving from outside towards the centre) is
A. periderm → phloem → cambium → xylem → pith
B. Periderm → phloem → pith → cambium → xylem
C. periderm → cambium → phloem → xylem → pith
D. phloem → sapwood → cambium → xylem → pith
13. Which of the following does not occur in the region of cell elongation in both the root and stem?
A. osmotic intake of water by the cells
B. loosening of the cell wall
14. Which of the following is not a short coming of the use of dry weight as a method of measuring
growth?
19. The larva forms and their adults do not come into direct competition because the larva
23. Which one of the following is not a function of larval forms during animal development?
24. Which one of the following events occurs during telophase of mitosis in the meristematic cells of
a root tip?
STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
26. Figure 3 below shows the changes in dry weight of a germinating bean.
(i) Growth
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(ii) Development
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(b) Explain the growth pattern in arthropods
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28. The figures below show viability of fescue grass seed at different conditions.
(a) From the figures, state the factors that affect viability of fescue grass
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(b) Describe the effect of each factor in (a) on the viability of seeds.
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(c) Explain the effect of each factor in (a) on viability of the seeds.
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29. Figure 6 shows results obtained in an investigation on maize seedlings and the dry mass of the
seedlings during germination, for 12 days.
(a) (i) Describe the relationship between the change in concentration of amylase and the dry mass
of the seedlings in the first 2 days.
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(ii) Explain the relationship described in (a)(i)
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(b) Explain the change
(i) In dry mass of the seedlings during the 7th day.
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(ii) In amylase concentration after the 2nd day.
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30. Figure 3 shows growth curves of the brain, thymus gland, reproductive organs and the whole
body of a human. The size attained is expressed as percentage of total gain between birth and
maturity (20 years).
(a) Explain the different growth rates of the brain, thymus gland, reproductive organs and the
whole body.
(i) Brain
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(ii) Thymus gland
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(iii) Reproductive organs
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(b) What type of growth is exhibited in the figure?
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31. Graph 2 below shows changes in lipid and sugar content of castor oil seeds during germination in
the dark.
The R.Q of the seedlings was measured at day 5 and the embryo was found to have an R.Q of 1.0
while the remaining cotyledons had an RQ of 0.4 0.5
a) Suggest an explanation for these results.
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b) What would you expect the RQ of the whole seedling to be on day 11? Explain briefly
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c) Why was the experiment carried out in the dark?
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(d) Explain the changes in lipid and sugar content and total dry mass during the experimental
period.
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(e) On the same graph indicate the shape of the curves if the seeds were to germinate in light.
33. The table below shows an experiment carried out on blood sucking bug genus Rhodinus. Study
the information in the table and answer questions that follow.
Experiment Results.
1. Blood sucked by the bug, then head cut off after 2days later Bug survives briefly, no moulting.
2. Blood sucked by bug, then head cut off 7days later Bug survives longer and moults.
3. Brain from a moulted larva transplanted into another larva of same age. Larva moults but doesnot turn to an adult.
(a) Explain;
(i) the obseved results in experiment 1 and 2.
Experiment 1.
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Experiment 2.
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(ii) Explain the role of the brain in insect development as observed in experiemnt 3.
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(b) Suggest ;
(i) one way the larva can be induced to develop into adult.
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(ii) Four ecological significance of larvae in life of a species.
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(ii) What is the ecological significance of these states of activity?
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(c) Give an example of an organism that undergoes
(i) Aestivation
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(ii) Hibernation
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(d) Why do small animals hibernate more than large ones?
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35. The figure below shows changes in the dry mass of the embryo ,endosperm and total mass of
maize seeds germianting in light conditions
(ii) embryo.
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(b) Explain why the total drt mass of the seedlings intially deccreases then later increases.
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(c) Suggest with reasons what would happen to the total dry mass of the seedlings if seeds were
germinated in the dark.
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36. The figure below shows the relationship between the levels of prothoracicotrophic hormone
(PTTH) or brain hormone in the brain and in blood of a silk worm at 300 C and later transfered to
a temperature of 250 C with time of development from larva to adult. Study the figure and use it to
answer the qustions that follow.
(a) Compare the levels of PTTH in the brain and blood of silkworm during the study period.
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(b) Account for the reletionship between the levels of PTTH in blood and brain of the silkworm
during its development from larva to adult.
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(c) State any one significance of growth and development in organisms.
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