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MHT CET 2024 May 4 Shift 1 Done

The document contains the MHT CET 2024 question paper for Shift 1 PCM, featuring 150 MCQs divided into Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections. It provides detailed solutions for selected math problems, including optimization, quadratic equations, matrix equations, and committee formation. Each question awards one mark for correct answers, with no negative marking, and the paper duration is 3 hours.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
10 views20 pages

MHT CET 2024 May 4 Shift 1 Done

The document contains the MHT CET 2024 question paper for Shift 1 PCM, featuring 150 MCQs divided into Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics sections. It provides detailed solutions for selected math problems, including optimization, quadratic equations, matrix equations, and committee formation. Each question awards one mark for correct answers, with no negative marking, and the paper duration is 3 hours.

Uploaded by

tojichan109
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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MHT CET 2024 4 May Shift 1 PCM Question Paper with Solutions

General Instructions
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

1. This question booklet contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).

2. Section-A: Physics & Chemistry - 50 Questions each and Section-B: Mathematics


- 50 Questions.

3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of
the candidate.

4. Read each question carefully.

5. Determine the one correct answer out of the four available options given for each
question.

6. Each question with correct response shall be awarded one (1) mark. There shall
be no negative marking.

7. No mark shall be granted for marking two or more answers of the same question,
scratching, or overwriting.

8. Duration of the paper is 3 Hours.

1
MATHS QUESTIONS

1. Maximize z = x + y subject to:

x + y ≤ 10, 3y − 2x ≤ 15, x ≤ 6, x, y ≥ 0.

Find the maximum value.


Correct Answer: 10.
Solution: Step 1: Understand the constraints. We are given the following constraints for the
variables x and y :

x + y ≤ 10, 3y − 2x ≤ 15, x ≤ 6, x, y ≥ 0.

These constraints define the feasible region on a graph.


Step 2: Identify the vertices of the feasible region. To find the feasible region, plot these
constraints on a graph. The vertices where the constraints intersect are
(0, 0), (0, 5), (6, 4), (6, 0).
Step 3: Evaluate the objective function at the vertices. The objective function is z = x + y .
Let’s evaluate it at each vertex:
- At (0, 0), z = 0 + 0 = 0.
- At (0, 5), z = 0 + 5 = 5.
- At (6, 4), z = 6 + 4 = 10.
- At (6, 0), z = 6 + 0 = 6.
Step 4: Conclusion. The maximum value of z is 10, which occurs at (6, 4).

Quick Tip
When maximizing or minimizing a linear objective function subject to linear con-
straints, the optimal value occurs at one of the vertices of the feasible region.

2. The equation (cos p − 1)x2 + (cos p)x + sin p = 0, where x is a variable with real roots.
Then the interval of p may be any one of the following:
(1) (0, 2π)
(2) (−π, 0)
(3) (− π2 , π2 )

2
(4) (0, π)
Correct Answer: (4) (0, π).
Solution: Step 1: Identify the discriminant condition for real roots. For a quadratic
equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 to have real roots, the discriminant must be greater than or equal to
0.
b2 − 4ac ≥ 0.

Step 2: Apply this condition to the given equation. In the given equation
(cos p − 1)x2 + (cos p)x + sin p = 0, - a = (cos p − 1), b = cos p, c = sin p. So, the discriminant
condition is:
(cos p)2 − 4(cos p − 1)(sin p) ≥ 0.

Simplifying, we get:
(cos p)2 ≥ 4(cos p − 1)(sin p).

Step 3: Analyze the inequality. For p ∈ (0, π), cos p is positive, and sin p is also positive,
making the inequality valid. However, for other intervals, cos p and/or sin p could be negative,
invalidating the inequality.
Step 4: Conclusion. Therefore, the interval for p is (0, π).

Quick Tip
For a quadratic equation to have real roots, the discriminant (i.e., b2 − 4ac) must be non-
negative.

3. If AX = B , where
     
1 −1 1  x 4
A = 2 1 −3 , X = y  , B = 0 ,
     
     
1 1 1 z 2

then 2x + y − z is:
(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4

3
(4) -2
Correct Answer: (1) 2.
Solution: We are given the matrix equation AX = B , which expands to the following system
of equations:
x−y+z =4 (Equation 1)

2x + y − 3z = 0 (Equation 2)

x+y+z =2 (Equation 3).

Step 1: Solve for y in terms of x and z From Equation (3), solve for y :

x+y+z =2 ⇒ y =2−x−z (Equation 4).

Step 2: Substitute y = 2 − x − z into Equation (1) Substitute Equation (4) into Equation (1):

x − (2 − x − z) + z = 4

Simplifying:

x−2+x+z+z = 4 ⇒ 2x+2z−2 = 4 ⇒ 2x+2z = 6 ⇒ x+z = 3 (Equation 5).

Step 3: Substitute y = 2 − x − z into Equation (2) Substitute Equation (4) into Equation (2):

2x + (2 − x − z) − 3z = 0

Simplifying:

2x + 2 − x − z − 3z = 0 ⇒ x − 4z + 2 = 0 ⇒ x = 4z − 2 (Equation 6).

Step 4: Substitute x = 4z − 2 into Equation (5) Substitute Equation (6) into Equation (5):

(4z − 2) + z = 3

Simplifying:
4z − 2 + z = 3 ⇒ 5z = 5 ⇒ z = 1.

Step 5: Solve for x and y Substitute z = 1 into Equation (6) to find x:

x = 4(1) − 2 = 4 − 2 = 2.

Substitute x = 2 and z = 1 into Equation (4) to find y :

y = 2 − 2 − 1 = −1.

4
Substitute these values into the expression 2x + y − z :

2x + y − z = 2 ∗ 2 + (−1) − 1 = 4 − 1 − 1 = 2

Thus, 2x + y − z = 2.
Step 4: Conclusion. Therefore, 2x + y − z = 2.

Quick Tip
To solve a system of linear equations, use substitution or elimination methods to sim-
plify and solve for the unknowns.

4. The equation of the plane passing through the point (1, 1, 1) and perpendicular to the
planes 2x + y − 2z = 5 and 3x − 6y − 2z = 7 is:
(1) 14x + 2y − 15z = 1
(2) −14x + 2y + 15z = 3
(3) 14x − 2y + 15z = 27
(4) 14x + 2y + 15z = 31
Correct Answer: (4) 14x + 2y + 15z = 31.
Solution: Step 1: Understand the problem. We are asked to find the equation of a plane
passing through the point (1, 1, 1) and perpendicular to the planes 2x + y − 2z = 5 and
3x − 6y − 2z = 7.
Step 2: Find the normal vectors. The normal vectors of the given planes are: - ⟨2, 1, −2⟩ for
the plane 2x + y − 2z = 5 - ⟨3, −6, −2⟩ for the plane 3x − 6y − 2z = 7
Step 3: Find the cross product of the normal vectors. The normal vector to the required
plane is the cross product of the normal vectors of the given planes:

⟨2, 1, −2⟩ × ⟨3, −6, −2⟩ = ⟨14, 2, 15⟩.

Step 4: Equation of the plane. The equation of the plane is:

14(x − 1) + 2(y − 1) + 15(z − 1) = 0

Simplifying, we get:
14x + 2y + 15z = 31.

5
Step 5: Conclusion. Thus, the equation of the plane is 14x + 2y + 15z = 31.

Quick Tip
The normal vector to a plane is perpendicular to every vector lying within the plane.
The cross product of two normal vectors gives a vector perpendicular to both.

5. Using the rules in logic, write the negation of the following:

(pq) ∧ (q∨ ∼ r)

Correct Answer: ∼ q ∧ (∼ p ∨ r).


Solution: To find the negation of (pq) ∧ (q∨ ∼ r), we will apply De Morgan’s laws.
1. First, apply the negation to the entire expression:

∼ ((pq) ∧ (q∨ ∼ r))

According to De Morgan’s law, the negation of a conjunction is the disjunction of the


negations:
∼ (pq)∨ ∼ (q∨ ∼ r).

2. Now, apply De Morgan’s law to ∼ (pq) and ∼ (q∨ ∼ r): - ∼ (pq) =∼ p∨ ∼ q -


∼ (q∨ ∼ r) =∼ q ∧ r
Thus, the negation of the original expression becomes:

(∼ p∨ ∼ q) ∨ (∼ q ∧ r).

3. Simplifying this further, we get the final result:

∼ q ∧ (∼ p ∨ r).

Quick Tip
Use De Morgan’s laws when negating conjunctions or disjunctions:

∼ (A ∧ B) =∼ A∨ ∼ B and ∼ (A ∨ B) =∼ A∧ ∼ B.

6
6. A student scores the following marks in five tests: 45, 54, 41, 57, 43. His score is not
known for the sixth test. If the mean score is 48 in the six tests, then the standard
deviation of the marks in six tests is:
100
(1) 3
10
(2) 3
10
(3) √
3
100
(4) √
3
10
Correct Answer: (3) √
3
.
Solution: Step 1: Calculate the sum of the five given marks. The given marks are 45, 54, 41,
57, and 43. Their sum is:
45 + 54 + 41 + 57 + 43 = 240.

Step 2: Find the sixth test score using the mean. The mean score for the six tests is 48. The
sum of all six marks is:
Sum of six marks = 48 × 6 = 288.

Therefore, the sixth test score is:

x6 = 288 − 240 = 48.

Step 3: Calculate the variance. The marks are 45, 54, 41, 57, 43, and 48, with the mean
µ = 48. The variance is calculated as:
6
1X
Variance = (xi − µ)2
6
i=1

Now calculate (xi − 48)2 for each mark:


- (45 − 48)2 = 9
- (54 − 48)2 = 36
- (41 − 48)2 = 49
- (57 − 48)2 = 81
- (43 − 48)2 = 25
- (48 − 48)2 = 0
Thus, the variance is:
9 + 36 + 49 + 81 + 25 + 0 200 100
Variance = = = .
6 6 3

7
Step 4: Calculate the standard deviation. The standard deviation is the square root of the
variance: r
100 10
Standard Deviation = =√ .
3 3

Quick Tip
1
Pn
To calculate the standard deviation, first find the variance using n i=1 (xi − µ)2 , then
take the square root of the variance.

7. A committee of 11 members is to be formed out of 8 males and 5 females. If m is the


number of ways the committee is formed with at least 6 males and n is the number of
ways with at least 3 females, then:
(1) n = m − 8
(2) m = n = 78
(3) m = n = 68
(4) m + n = 68
Correct Answer: (2) m = n = 78
Solution: We need to calculate m and n.
Step 1: Calculate the number of ways to form the committee with at least 6 males. The
possible cases are: - 6 males and 5 females:
   
8 5
× = 28 × 1 = 28
6 5

- 7 males and 4 females:    


8 5
× = 8 × 5 = 40
7 4
- 8 males and 3 females:    
8 5
× = 1 × 10 = 10
8 3
Thus, the total number of ways to form the committee with at least 6 males is:

m = 28 + 40 + 10 = 78.

Step 2: Calculate the number of ways to form the committee with at least 3 females.

8
The possible cases are: - 8 males and 3 females:
   
8 5
× = 1 × 10 = 10
8 3
- 7 males and 4 females:    
8 5
× = 8 × 5 = 40
7 4
- 6 males and 5 females:    
8 5
× = 28 × 1 = 28
6 5
Thus, the total number of ways to form the committee with at least 3 females is:

n = 10 + 40 + 28 = 78.

Step 3: Conclusion. Since both m and n are 78, the correct answer is m = n = 78.

Quick Tip
For combinatorics problems involving committees, break down the problem by consid-
ering all possible cases and apply the binomial coefficient to calculate the number of
ways.

csc x
R
8. The integral cos2 (1+log tan x2 )
dx is equal to:
(1) sin2 (1 + log tan x2 ) + C
(2) tan(1 + log tan x2 ) + C
(3) − tan(1 + log tan x2 ) + C
(4) sec2 (1 + log tan x2 ) + C
Correct Answer: (2) tan(1 + log tan x2 ) + C .
Solution:
Step 1: Substitution. Let u = 1 + log tan x2 . Differentiating both sides:


du 1 2 x 1
= x · sec · .
dx tan 2 2 2
Thus:
csc x csc x
du = dx ⇒ 2du = dx.
2 cos2 u
Step 2: Substituting into the integral. The integral becomes:
Z
I=2 sec2 u du.

9
Step 3: Solving the integral. The integral of sec2 u is tan u, so we have:

I = 2 tan u + C.

Step 4: Substitute back the value of u. Substituting u = 1 + log tan x2 into the result:


x
  
I = 2 tan 1 + log tan + C.
2

Since the constant factor of 2 can be simplified, the final result is:
x
  
I = tan 1 + log tan + C.
2

Quick Tip
When dealing with complex trigonometric integrals, substitution and trigonometric
identities can simplify the integrand and make the problem easier to solve.


9. The value of 3 csc 20◦ − sec 20◦ is:
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1
Correct Answer: 4.

Solution: We are given the expression 3 csc 20◦ − sec 20◦ , and we need to simplify it step by
step.
Step 1: Express the terms using basic trigonometric identities. We know the following
basic trigonometric identities:
1 1
csc θ = , sec θ = .
sin θ cos θ

Therefore,
1 1
csc 20◦ = , sec 20◦ = .
sin 20◦ cos 20◦
Substituting these into the original expression gives:
√ √ 1 1
3 csc 20◦ − sec 20◦ = 3× ◦
− .
sin 20 cos 20◦

10
Step 2: Find an approximation for sin 20◦ and cos 20◦ . Using known values or a calculator,
we approximate:
sin 20◦ ≈ 0.3420, cos 20◦ ≈ 0.9397.

Substitute these values into the expression:


√ 1 1
3× − .
0.3420 0.9397

Step 3: Simplify the expression. Now, calculate the individual terms:



3 ≈ 1.732,

1.732 1
≈ 5.06, ≈ 1.064.
0.3420 0.9397
Thus, the expression becomes:
5.06 − 1.064 = 4.

Step 4: Conclusion. The value of 3 csc 20◦ − sec 20◦ is approximately 4.

Quick Tip
When solving trigonometric expressions, it’s often useful to approximate the values of
sine and cosine, then simplify the expression step by step.

CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS

1. Which has the highest first ionization energy?


Correct Answer: Neon (Ne).
Solution: Ionization energy is the amount of energy required to remove one mole of
electrons from one mole of atoms in the gaseous state. The ionization energy depends on
several factors, including the nuclear charge, the distance of the electron from the nucleus,
and the shielding effect of inner electrons.
- Across a period (left to right): Ionization energy increases due to the increasing nuclear
charge. As we move across a period, the atomic size decreases, and the electrons are pulled
closer to the nucleus, making them harder to remove. This leads to higher ionization energy.

11
- Down a group (top to bottom): Ionization energy decreases because of the increasing
atomic size and the shielding effect. Electrons in the outermost shell are farther from the
nucleus and experience more repulsion from inner electrons, making them easier to remove.
Now, let’s analyze the elements:
- Lithium (Li) has an atomic number of 3 and is in Group 1, Period 2. It has a low first
ionization energy because it only has one electron in its outermost shell, which is far from
the nucleus and easily removed. - Sodium (Na), in Group 1, Period 3, has a lower ionization
energy than lithium because its outer electron is farther from the nucleus. - Neon (Ne), in
Group 18, Period 2, is a noble gas with a stable electron configuration. It has the highest first
ionization energy because its electrons are tightly bound to the nucleus and it has a complete
octet configuration. - Magnesium (Mg), in Group 2, Period 3, has a higher ionization energy
than sodium but lower than neon, as it is in the same period as sodium but has an extra
proton in the nucleus.
Therefore, Neon (Ne) has the highest first ionization energy.

Quick Tip
Ionization energy increases across a period and decreases down a group. This is due to
the combined effect of nuclear charge and atomic size. Noble gases have the highest
ionization energy in their periods because they are stable and have a full outer electron
shell.

2. The half-life of a 1st order reaction is 1 hr. What is the fraction of the reactant
remaining after 3 hours? Correct Answer: 18 .
Solution: In a first-order reaction, the rate of the reaction is directly proportional to the
concentration of the reactant. The half-life (t1/2 ) for a first-order reaction is constant and
does not depend on the initial concentration. The formula for the fraction of reactant
remaining at any time t is:

[A]t
= e−kt
[A]0
where:

12
- [A]t is the concentration of the reactant at time t,
- [A]0 is the initial concentration,
- k is the rate constant, and
- t is the time elapsed.
For a first-order reaction, the relationship between the half-life and the rate constant is given
by:
0.693
t1/2 = .
k
Given that the half-life t1/2 = 1 hr, we can calculate the rate constant k :
0.693 0.693
k= = = 0.693 hr−1 .
t1/2 1

Now, to find the fraction remaining after 3 hours, we substitute into the formula for the
fraction of reactant remaining:
[A]t 1
= e−0.693×3 = e−2.079 ≈ .
[A]0 8

Thus, the fraction of the reactant remaining after 3 hours is 81 .

Quick Tip
For a first-order reaction, the fraction remaining after time t is given by the equation
[A]t
[A]0
= e−kt , where k is the rate constant and t is the time. The half-life for a first-order
reaction is constant and is independent of the initial concentration.

3. Which of the following represents the Stephan Reaction?


N aOH
(1) C6 H5 CH2 Cl −−−−→ C6 H5 CH2 OH
N aOH
(2) C6 H5 Cl −−−−→ C6 H5 OH
3 AlCl
(3) C6 H5 Cl −−−→ C6 H5 CH3
N aOCl
(4) C6 H5 CH3 −−−−→ C6 H5 Cl
N aOH
Correct Answer: (2) C6 H5 Cl −−−−→ C6 H5 OH .
Solution: The Stephan Reaction involves the substitution of a halogen (usually chlorine) in
an aromatic compound with an alcohol group. This is typically achieved using a strong base
like sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

13
The general form of the Stephan reaction is:

C6 H5 Cl + N aOH → C6 H5 OH + N aCl.

Here, chlorobenzene reacts with sodium hydroxide to form phenol (C6H5OH) and sodium
chloride (NaCl). This is a classic example of a nucleophilic substitution reaction where the
hydroxide ion from NaOH replaces the chlorine atom in the chlorobenzene.
Therefore, option (2) represents the correct reaction.

Quick Tip
The Stephan Reaction is a type of nucleophilic substitution, where a halide group (Cl) is
replaced by a hydroxyl group (OH) using a strong base like NaOH. This is an important
reaction in organic synthesis for preparing phenolic compounds.

4. What is the maximum oxidation state of an element in the periodic table?


(1) +7
(2) +6
(3) +5
(4) +4
Correct Answer: (1) +7.
Solution: The maximum oxidation state of an element depends on its group number and the
number of valence electrons. For example, manganese (Mn) in Group 7 of the periodic table
has an oxidation state of +7 in MnO−
4 (permanganate ion). Thus, +7 is the maximum

oxidation state.

Quick Tip
The maximum oxidation state of an element typically corresponds to its group number
for elements in the s and p blocks. However, transition metals can exhibit higher oxida-
tion states.

5. In a BCC (Body-Centered Cubic) structure, the radius of the atoms is:


a
(1) 2

14
a
(2) 4

3
(3) 4 a

2
(4) 4 a

3
Correct Answer: (3) 4 a.

Solution: In a BCC structure, the atoms at the corners are in contact with the atom at the
center. The relationship between the atomic radius r and the edge length a of the unit cell for
a BCC structure is given by:

√ 3
4r = 3a ⇒ r= a.
4

3
Thus, the atomic radius is 4 a.

Quick Tip
For a BCC structure, the diagonal of the cube is equal to four times the radius of the
atoms. Use this to derive the relationship between atomic radius and edge length.

6. What is the depression in the freezing point?


(1) ∆Tf = Kf × m
(2) ∆Tf = Kb × m
(3) ∆Tf = m × 100
(4) ∆Tf = Kf × m1
Correct Answer: (1) ∆Tf = Kf × m.
Solution: The depression in freezing point (∆Tf ) is given by the formula:

∆Tf = Kf × m

where: - Kf is the cryoscopic constant or freezing point depression constant of the solvent,
and - m is the molality of the solution (moles of solute per kilogram of solvent).
This formula shows that the depression in freezing point is directly proportional to the
molality of the solution.

Quick Tip
The depression in freezing point is a colligative property, meaning it depends on the
number of solute particles in the solution, not their identity.

15
7. Arrange the following substances in decreasing order of their boiling points:
(1) Water, ethanol, acetone
(2) Ethanol, acetone, water
(3) Acetone, water, ethanol
(4) Water, acetone, ethanol
Correct Answer: (1) Water, ethanol, acetone.
Solution: The boiling point of a substance depends on the strength of the intermolecular
forces between its molecules. The stronger the intermolecular forces, the higher the boiling
point.
- Water (H2O) has hydrogen bonding, which is a strong intermolecular force. Thus, it has the
highest boiling point.
- Ethanol (C2H5OH) also exhibits hydrogen bonding but is weaker than water because of its
larger molecular size and lower polarity.
- Acetone (CH3COCH3) has dipole-dipole interactions, which are weaker than hydrogen
bonding.
Thus, the boiling points decrease in the following order: Water ¿ Ethanol ¿ Acetone.

Quick Tip
Boiling point is influenced by the nature of intermolecular forces: hydrogen bonding
leads to higher boiling points, while weaker forces like dipole-dipole interactions result
in lower boiling points.

PHYSICS QUESTIONS

1. The root mean square velocity (vrms ) of a gas is given by:


q
(1) vrms = 3RT
q M
(2) vrms = 2RT
q M
(3) vrms = 3kT
m

16
q
2kT
(4) vrms = m
q
3kT
Correct Answer: (3) vrms = m .

Solution: The root mean square (rms) velocity of a gas is given by the formula:
r
3kT
vrms =
m

where: - k is the Boltzmann constant, - T is the temperature in Kelvin, - m is the mass of one
molecule of the gas.
This formula gives the square root of the average of the squared velocities of gas molecules.
It is derived from the kinetic theory of gases.

Quick Tip
The rms velocity provides an average measure of the speed of gas molecules, and it
increases with temperature and decreases with molecular mass.

2. The ideal gas equation is given by P V = nRT . Which of the following statements is
correct for an ideal gas?
(1) The equation holds at all temperatures and pressures.
(2) It holds only at low temperatures and high pressures.
(3) It holds only at high temperatures and low pressures.
(4) It holds only for gases with large intermolecular forces.
Correct Answer: (3) It holds only at high temperatures and low pressures.
Solution: The ideal gas equation P V = nRT is an approximation that assumes the gas
molecules do not interact with each other and that their volume is negligible compared to the
volume of the container.
This equation is most accurate under conditions of high temperature and low pressure
because, under these conditions, the gas molecules are far apart, and intermolecular forces
(such as attraction or repulsion) are negligible. At low temperatures and high pressures, real
gases deviate from ideal behavior due to intermolecular forces and the finite volume of gas
molecules.

17
Quick Tip
The ideal gas law is an approximation. It works best at high temperatures and low
pressures, where intermolecular forces are less significant.

Cp
3. What is the ratio Cv for a monatomic and diatomic gas?
Cp 5 Cp 7
(1) Cv = 3 for monatomic, Cv = 5 for diatomic
Cp 3 Cp 5
(2) Cv = 2 for monatomic, Cv = 3 for diatomic
Cp 5 Cp 7
(3) Cv = 3 for monatomic, Cv = 5 for diatomic
Cp 3
(4) Cv = 2 for both monatomic and diatomic
Cp 3 Cp 5
Correct Answer: (2) Cv = 2 for monatomic, Cv = 3 for diatomic.
Cp
Solution: The ratio of specific heats Cv for an ideal gas is given by:
Cp
γ= .
Cv

For a monatomic ideal gas, the value of γ is 53 , because a monatomic gas has only
translational degrees of freedom.
For a diatomic ideal gas, the value of γ is 75 , because a diatomic gas has translational and
rotational degrees of freedom. At high temperatures, it may also have vibrational degrees of
freedom, but in this case, we’re assuming it to be a simple diatomic molecule.
Cp 3 Cp 5
Thus, Cv = 2 for monatomic and Cv = 3 for diatomic.

Quick Tip
Cp
The value of γ = Cv depends on the number of degrees of freedom of the gas molecules.
For monatomic gases, it is higher than for diatomic gases.

4. How do you find the amplitude of a simple harmonic oscillator?


p
(1) A = (x2 + v 2 )
p
(2) A = (x20 + v02 )
q
(3) A = 2E
qk
(4) A = 2kE

18
q
2E
Correct Answer: (3) A = k .

Solution: The amplitude A of a simple harmonic oscillator can be found using the total
mechanical energy of the system. The total energy E is the sum of potential and kinetic
energy:
1
E = kA2 .
2
Solving for A, we get: r
2E
A= .
k
Thus, the amplitude A is related to the total energy E and the spring constant k .

Quick Tip
The amplitude of a simple harmonic oscillator is the maximum displacement from the
q
equilibrium position and can be found using the energy equation A = 2E
k .

5. What is the overtone of a vibrating string?


(1) The second harmonic
(2) The first harmonic
(3) The third harmonic
(4) The fifth harmonic
Correct Answer: (1) The second harmonic.
Solution: In the context of a vibrating string, the fundamental frequency is the first
harmonic. The overtones are higher frequency modes of vibration that occur at integer
multiples of the fundamental frequency.
- The first harmonic is the fundamental frequency.
- The second harmonic is the first overtone, which has twice the frequency of the
fundamental.
- The third harmonic is the second overtone, which has three times the frequency of the
fundamental.
Thus, the overtone refers to the second harmonic.

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Quick Tip
The overtone of a vibrating string refers to the higher-frequency modes of vibration that
are integer multiples of the fundamental frequency. The second harmonic is the first
overtone.

6. Which of the following is a logic gate that gives an output of 1 when the inputs are
different?
(1) AND Gate
(2) OR Gate
(3) XOR Gate
(4) NOT Gate
Correct Answer: (3) XOR Gate.
Solution: The XOR (exclusive OR) gate produces an output of 1 when the inputs are
different (i.e., one is 0 and the other is 1). If the inputs are the same, the output is 0.
- AND Gate: Output is 1 only when both inputs are 1.
- OR Gate: Output is 1 if at least one input is 1.
- XOR Gate: Output is 1 if the inputs are different.
- NOT Gate: It only inverts one input.
Therefore, the correct answer is XOR Gate.

Quick Tip
The XOR gate gives an output of 1 only when the inputs are different. It is often used
in digital circuits where the condition of difference is needed.

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