Question Paper with Official Answers

Question 1
An ammeter of resistance 20 Ω measures upto 50 mA. The value of shunt required in parallel to measure current upto 5 A is nearly

1)0.1 Ω
2)0.2 Ω (Correct Answer)
3)0.02 Ω
4)0.01 Ω

Question 2
Two parallel infinite line charges of linear charge density λ 1 and λ 2 are placed at a distance b apart as shown in the figure. The force
acting on a unit length of each linear charge is

λ1 λ2
1)
4πε0 b
λ λ
2) 1 2 (Correct Answer)
2πε0 b
λ λ
3) 1 2
π ε0 b
2λ λ
4) 1 2
π ε0 b

Question 3
Ratio of the speed of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen to the speed of light in vacuum is
1
1)
237
1
2) (Correct Answer)
137
2
3)
237
1
4)
2

Question 4
When intensities of light coming from two slits in a Y.D.S.E. have ratio √2 : √3 , then the ratio of slit widths is
1)2 : 3
2)4 : 9
3)3 : √2
4)√2 : √3 (Correct Answer)
Question 5
→ → → →
A short linear dipole of dipole moment P is kept in electric field E such that, E and P are in the opposite directions. The magnitude of
net torque acting on the dipole is

1)PE
2)Zero (Correct Answer)
PE
3)
2
√3 PE
4)
2

Question 6
The switch S in the circuit below is closed first and then opened. The closed conducting loop will show

1)An anticlockwise current

2)A clockwise current
3)An anticlockwise current and then clockwise current
4)A clockwise current and then anticlockwise current (Correct Answer)

Question 7
A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are

1)Both are zero

Q
2) and zero (Correct Answer)
4πε0 R
Q
3)Zero and
4πε0 R2
Q Q
4) and
4πε0 R 4πε0 R2

Question 8
The work function of a metal is 2 eV. Its threshold wavelength is about

1)620 nm (Correct Answer)

2)1240 nm
3)310 nm
4)900 nm
Question 9
The ratio of average translational kinetic energy to rotational kinetic energy of a diatomic molecule at temperature T is

1)3 : 1
2)7 : 5
3)3 : 2 (Correct Answer)
4)5 : 3

Question 10
If nuclear density of 8O16 is 2.35 × 1017 kg m–3, then nuclear density of element having atomic mass number 32 is

1)2.35 × 1017 kg m–3 (Correct Answer)

2)4.7 × 1017 kg m–3
3)2.35 × 1016 kg m–3
2.35 × 2 17 −3
4) 3 × 10 kgm
(2)

Question 11
A : Zener breakdown occurs in highly doped semiconductor.

R : Width of depletion layer increases as doping level is increased.

1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (Correct Answer)
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Question 12
The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is

1)180° + 2A
2)180° – 3A
3)180° – 2A (Correct Answer)
4)90° – A

Question 13
When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C, its volume

1)Increases
2)Decreases
3)First decreases and then increases (Correct Answer)
4)Does not change
Question 14
A tube is shown in figure. If liquid is ideal then velocity v1 will be equal to

1)v
2)Zero
v
3)
3v
4) (Correct Answer)
2

Question 15
An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 × 10–2 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 × 1011
C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the electron is

1)1 GHz (Correct Answer)

2)100 MHz
3)62.8 MHz
4)6.28 MHz

Question 16
The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance R1 will be

1)2.5 A (Correct Answer)

2)10.0 A
3)1.43 A
4)3.13 A

Question 17
Which of the following is not a characteristic of diamagnetism?

1)The diamagnetic materials are repelled by a magnetic field

2)Susceptibility of diamagnetic materials is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature (Correct Answer)
3)Magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic material is small and negative
4)Diamagnetic material moves from a region of strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field
Question 18
A : Critical angle offered by glass for red light is more than that for blue light.

R : Wavelength of red light is less as compared to blue light.

1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (Correct Answer)
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Question 19
In which of the following circuits, the maximum power dissipation is observed?

1)Pure capacitive only

2)Pure inductive circuit only
3)Pure resistive circuit (Correct Answer)
4)Inductive-capacitive series circuit

Question 20
In a vernier calliper, 10th division on vernier scale coincides with 9th main scale division. If 1 MSD is 0.1 mm, then vernier constant is

1)0.01 cm
2)0.001 cm (Correct Answer)
3)0.001 mm
4)0.2 mm

Question 21

A force of 40 N is applied to block A as shown in the figure. The mass of blocks A and B are 2 kg and 3 kg respectively. The blocks slide
over a frictionless inclined plane. The force exerted by block A on block B is [given g = 10 m s–2]

1)18 N
2)24 N (Correct Answer)
3)20 N
4)32 N
Question 22
A bob of mass m is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with initial speed ω rad s–1. The tension in string is T. If speed of the
ω
bob becomes and radius becomes 2r, then tension in the string becomes
2

1)T
2)2T
T
3) (Correct Answer)
2
T
4)
4

Question 23
The moment of inertia of thin rod about an axis passing through its mid-point and perpendicular to the rod is 2400 g cm2. If the mass of the
rod is 400 g, then its radius of gyration about an axis passing through its end and perpendicular to rod is

1)√18 cm
2)√24 cm (Correct Answer)
3)√72 cm
4)√6 cm

Question 24
The particle is projected at angle θ with horizontal ground with speed v, then magnitude of its tangential acceleration at the point of
projection is

1)g cos θ
2)g sin θ (Correct Answer)
3)g
4)Zero

Question 25
A particle of mass 1 kg moves along x axis. If position (x) from the origin varies as, x = t3 where x is in meter and t is in seconds. The power
delivered by force at t = 2 s is

1)72 W
2)96 W
3)120 W
4)144 W (Correct Answer)

Question 26
If a quantity X = (pressure) × (volume), then the dimensions of X is same as that of

1)Angular momentum
2)Linear Impulse
3)Moment of Inertia
4)Moment of force (Correct Answer)
Question 27
The Young's modulus of the material of wire is 2 × 1011 N m–2. If the longitudinal strain is 0.1%, then stress in the wire is

1)2 × 108 N/m2 (Correct Answer)

2)2 × 107 N/m2
3)108 N/m2
4)2 × 109 N/m2

Question 28
A body of mass m moving with velocity v collides head on and elastically with another body of mass m at rest. The loss in kinetic energy of
the bodies in the collision will be

1)Zero (Correct Answer)

3
2) mv2
4
1
3) mv2
4
1
4) mv2
2

Question 29
In a spring-block system, the block is oscillating on a horizontal smooth surface with amplitude A and time period T. When the block is at
mean position, another identical block of same mass is placed gently over it. Due to this, its

1)Amplitude of oscillation decreases while time period of oscillation increases (Correct Answer)
2)Amplitude of oscillation increase while time period of oscillation decreases
3)Amplitude of oscillation and Time period, both increase
4)Amplitude of oscillation and Time period, both decreases

Question 30
A rectangular film of liquid is extended from 4 cm × 2 cm to 4 cm × 4 cm. If the surface tension is 0.250 N m–1 for the liquid, the work done
is

1)0.3 mJ
2)0.4 mJ (Correct Answer)
3)0.2 mJ
4)0.8 mJ

Question 31
The force per unit charge is equal to

1)Electric flux
2)Electric field (Correct Answer)
3)Electric potential
4)Electric current
Question 32
A parallel plate capacitor C is charged to voltage V and then disconnected. The energy stored in the capacitor is U and charge on capacitor
is Q. Now the distance between plates is increased to 2 times and the space between them is filled with dielectric of constant K = 4. Match
the column I and Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Charge (i) Remain unchanged
(B) Energy (ii) Increase
(C) Capacitance (iii) Decreases
1)(A)(i), B(iii), (C)(ii) (Correct Answer)
2)(A)(i), (B)(ii), (C)(iii)
3)(A)(ii), (B)(i), (C)(iii)
4)(A)(iii), (B)(ii), (C)(i)

Question 33
The maximum energy that can be drawn from the battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω in 10 s

1)10 J
2)100 J
3)1000 J (Correct Answer)
4)10000 J

Question 34
A wire of length l and resistance 50 Ω is divided into 5 equal parts and Joined with the battery as shown. The current supplied by battery is

1)1 A (Correct Answer)

1
2) A
2
3)2A
1
4) A
4

Question 35
A solenoid has a core of a material with relative permeability 100. The windings of solenoid are insulated and carry a current of 2 A. If the
number of turns per unit length are 200 per meter, then magnetic field is

1)1 T
2)0.5 T
3)0.05 T (Correct Answer)
4)50 T
Question 36
Δϕ
The magnetic flux through a loop of resistance R changes as Δφ in time Δt then SI unit of is (symbol have their usual meaning)
R

1)A s
2)A s–1
3)J V–1
4)Both (1) and (3) (Correct Answer)

Question 37
A circuit has a resistance of 100 Ω and impedance of 100√2 Ω. Find the reactance of the circuit.
1)50 Ω
2)20 Ω
3)100 Ω (Correct Answer)
4)10 Ω

Question 38
For a light ray undergoing minimum deviation through an equilateral prism

1)Incident ray will always be parallel to the base of prism

2)Refracted ray inside prism will always be parallel to the base of prism (Correct Answer)
3)Emergent ray will always be parallel to the base of prism
4)None of these

Question 39
Intrinsic semiconductor is electrically neutral. Extrinsic semiconductor having large number of charge carriers, would be

1)Positively charged
2)Negatively charged
3)Positively charged or negatively depending upon type of impurity added
4)Electrically neutral (Correct Answer)

Question 40
The velocity of A and B are v→A = 2^i + 3^j m/s and v→B = 3^i + 4^j m/s. Velocity of B as observed by A is ?
1) ( − ^i + ^j ) m/s
2) ( ^i + ^j ) m/s (Correct Answer)
3) ( 2^i + 3^j ) m/s
4) ( − ^i − ^j ) m/s
Question 41
Work done during the process AB in the P-V diagram shown below is

1)2P0V0
2)4 P0V0 (Correct Answer)
3)5 P0V0
7
4) P0 V0
2

Question 42
The variation of energy (E) of particle with position (x) is given by, E = Ax2 + Bx . The factor which is dimensionless if A and B are constant,
is

1)ABx
AB
2)
x
B
3) x
A
Ax
4) (Correct Answer)
B
Question 43
If fm is the frequency, corresponding to which the radiant intensity of a block is at its maximum and its absolute temperature is T, then which
of the following graph correctly represents the variation of fm Vs T.

1) (Correct Answer)

2)

3)

4)
Question 44

The acceleration-time (a-t) plot of a motion of a body moving along a straight line is shown below. If the particle starts from rest, then choose
the correct (v-t) velocity-time graph among the options given below.

1)

2)

3)

4) (Correct Answer)

Question 45
Two bodies of masses 4M and 9M are placed at a distance r apart. The gravitational potential at a point on the line joining them where
gravitational field is zero, is
20 GM
1) –
r
25 GM
2) – (Correct Answer)
r
15GM
3) –
r
30GM
4) –
r
Question 46
Match list I with list II

List I List II

(Species) (Hybridisation and shape)

a. SF4 (i) sp3d and T-shape
b. BrF5 (ii) sp3d2 and square planar
c. XeF4 (iii) sp3d and see saw
d. ClF3 (iv) sp3d2 and square pyramidal

Choose the correct option.

1)a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

2)a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (Correct Answer)
3)a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
4)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

Question 47
The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with velocity 5 × 103 m/s is (mass of particle = 0.33 kg, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)

1)4 × 10–36 m
2)2 × 10–35 m
3)2 × 10–37 m
4)4 × 10–37 m (Correct Answer)

Question 48
20 moles of a gas compressed reversibly from 100 L to 10 L at constant temperature. The entropy change during the process is

1)–23.03 R
2)46.06 R
3)–46.06 R (Correct Answer)
4)zero

Question 49
The solubility of Pb(OH)2 in water is 4 × 10–6 M, then solubility of Pb(OH)2 in the buffer solution of pH = 9 is

1)2.56 × 10–6 M (Correct Answer)

2)1.25 × 10–4 M
3)2.45 × 10–3 M
4)5.6 × 10–8 M
Question 50
During nitrogen estimation of an organic compound by Kjeldahl's method, the ammonia evolved by 0.5 g of the compound neutralise 5 mL
of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

1)42%
2)56%
3)14%
4)28% (Correct Answer)

Question 51
Consider the following two statements.

Statement I: Orthophosphorus acid on heating give orthophosphoric acid and phosphine.

Statement II: Orthophosphorus acid contains one P=O and 3 P–OH bonds.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (Correct Answer)
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Question 52
Elevation in boiling point of an aqueous solution of 0.1 molal monobasic acid, which undergoes 25% ionization is (Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K molal–
1)

1)0.2 K
2)0.065 K (Correct Answer)
3)0.13 K
4)0.104 K

Question 53
Ecell of the cell Mg|Mg2+(0.1 M) || Ag+(0.001 M) | Ag at 25°C is nearly E°cell = 3 .17 V
1)1.5 V
2)3 V (Correct Answer)
3)3.5 V
4)4 V
Question 54
Match list I with list II

List I List II

(Species) (Oxidation state of central atom)

a. C3O2 (i) +7
b. Br3O8 (ii) +5
c. HClO4 (iii) 0
d. H3PO4 (iv) +4

Choose the correct option

1)a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

2)a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
3)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (Correct Answer)
4)a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

Question 55
Which of the following has most negative heat of hydration?

1)Cu2+ (Correct Answer)

2)Fe2+
3)Cr2+
4)Ti2+

Question 56
Given below are two statements

Statement I: Ethanal is miscible with water in all proportions.

Statement II: Ethanal forms hydrogen bond with water.

In light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3)Both statement I and statement II are correct (Correct Answer)
4)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Question 57

Products C and D are

1)

2)

3) (Correct Answer)

4)

Question 58
Match groups in list-1 with their group reagent in list-2 and choose correct answer.

List-1 List-2
(a) Group-I (i) NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl
(b) Group-II (ii) H2S in presence of NH4OH
(c) Group-III (iii) Dilute HCl
(d) Group-IV (iv) H2S gas in presence of dil. HCl

1)(a)(iii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(ii) (Correct Answer)

2)(a)(i), (b)(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(iv)
3)(a)(iv), (b)(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(i)
4)(a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iv), (d)(iii)

Question 59
When dimethyl glyoxime is added to the aqueous solution of nickel chloride in an alkaline medium, it forms a complex having

1)Black colour
2)Red colour (Correct Answer)
3)Blue colour
4)Yellow colour
Question 60
Which among the following method can be used for the preparation of benzene?

(i) By passing ethyne through red hot iron tube

(ii) On heating sodium benzoate with soda lime

(iii) By passing vapours of phenol over heated zinc dust

1)(i) and (ii) only

2)(ii) and (iii) only
3)(i) and (iii) only
4)(i), (ii) and (iii) (Correct Answer)

Question 61
If haemoglobin contains 0.334% iron by mass and one molecule of haemoglobin has 4 atoms of iron then the molecular mass of
haemoglobin is approximately

1)98432.4 u
2)54298.6 u
3)24502.5 u
4)67065.8 u (Correct Answer)

Question 62
Consider the following statements

(a) Dipole moment of H2O is greater than the NH3

(b) C≡C bond length is smaller than the C≡N bond length

(c) Both CO and NO+ have bond order 2

(d) The formal change on central oxygen atom in ozone molecule is +2

Choose the incorrect statements

1)(a) and (c) only

2)(b) and (c) only
3)(b), (c) and (d) only (Correct Answer)
4)(a) and (d) only
Question 63
In the following reaction

(A) and (B) respectively are

1) (Correct Answer)

2)

3)

4)

Question 64
An organic compound (X), molecular formula (C6H12) on reductive ozonolysis gives only two moles of compound (Y). Compound (Y) does
not give Fehling's test. It undergoes aldol condensation and gives compound (Z). The compound (Z) will be

1)3-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
2)3-Methylpent-3-one
3)4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one (Correct Answer)
4)4-Methyl-but-2-enal

Question 65
Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction 2A3 → 3A2 is given below
(i) A3 ⇌ A2 + A (fast)
(ii) A3 + A → 2A2 (slow)
The overall order of the reaction will be

1)0
2)3
3)1 (Correct Answer)
4)2
Question 66
Rate of formation of NH3 according to the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) is 4 × 104 mol L–1 s–1, then the rate of disappearance of
H2 will be

1)1.4 × 104
2)6 × 104 (Correct Answer)
3)2.7 × 104
4)12 × 104

Question 67
Consider the following two statements.

Statement I: Amylose is water soluble component which constitutes about 80-85% of starch.

Statement II: Amylopectin is water insoluble component which constitutes about 15-20% of starch.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (Correct Answer)
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Question 68
Choose the incorrect statement

1)DNA molecule contains β-D-2-deoxyribose sugar moiety

2)RNA molecule contains β-D-ribose sugar moiety
3)DNA contains adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil bases (Correct Answer)
4)RNA contains adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil bases

Question 69
Choose the incorrect match.

Order Property
(a) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S – Melting point
(b) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O – Dissociation constant
(c) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te – Bond angle
(d) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O – Boiling point

1)(a)
2)(b)
3)(c)
4)(d) (Correct Answer)
Question 70
The correct order of negative electron gain enthalpies is

1)Se > O > S > Te > Po

2)O > S > Se > Te > Po
3)S > Se > Te > Po > O (Correct Answer)
4)Po > Te > Se > S > O

Question 71
Match list I with list II

List I List II

(Species) (Nature)
a. GeO2 (i) Basic
b. CO (ii) Acidic
c. Tl2O3 (iii) Amphoteric
d. Ga2O3 (iv) Neutral

Choose teh correct option

1)a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (Correct Answer)

2)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
3)a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
4)a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

Question 72
The correct electronic configuration of gadolinium and lutetium respectively are

1)[Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f146s2

2)[Xe]4f75d16s2 and [Xe]4f145d16s2 (Correct Answer)
3)[Xe]4f86s2 and [Xe]4f146s2
4)[Xe]4f86s2 and [Xe]4f145d16s2

Question 73
Consider the following statements about [Co(NH3)6]3+ complex ion.

(a) Central atom is d2sp3 hybridised

(b) It is dimagnetic in nature

(c) It is spin free complex ion

Choose the correct statements.

1)(a) and (b) only (Correct Answer)

2)(a), (b) and (c)
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(b) and (c) only
Question 74
The correct IUPAC name of [PtCl2(en)2](NO3)2 is

1)Bis(ethane-1,2-diamine)dichloridoplatinum(III) nitrate
2)Ethane-1,2-diaminedichloridoplatinum(III) nitrate
3)Dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)platinum(IV) nitrate (Correct Answer)
4)Bis(ethane-1,2-diamine)dichloridoplatinum(IV) nitrate

Question 75
In the following reaction

Products (P) and (Q) respectively are

1)C2H5OC2H5 and CH2=CH2 (Correct Answer)

2)CH3CHO and CH2=CH2
3)CH2=CH2 and CH3CHO
4)C2H5OC2H5 and CH3COOH
Question 76
In the following reaction

The product (Y) will be

1)

2) (Correct Answer)

3)

4)

Question 77
The correct order of acidic strength of the following compound is

1)ClCH2CH2COOH > HCOOH > C6H5COOH > NC–CH2–COOH

2)C6H5COOH > NC–CH2–COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2CH2COOH
3)HCOOH > NC–CH2–COOH > C6H5COOH > ClCH2CH2COOH
4)NC–CH2–COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2CH2COOH > C6H5COOH (Correct Answer)
Question 78
In the following reaction sequences

The product (Q), (R) and (S) respectively are

1)

2)

3) (Correct Answer)

4)
Question 79
In the following reaction

Products (A) and (B) respectively are

1) (Correct Answer)

2)

3)

4)

Question 80
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as assertion (A) and other is labelled as reason (R).

Assertion (A): Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by the Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

Reason (R): In Gabriel phthalimide synthesis, aryl halide does not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
2)Both (A) and (R) are false
3)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (Correct Answer)
4)(A) is true but (R) is false
Question 81
Mass of 80% pure CaCO3 required to neutralise 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution according to following reaction is

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

1)0.505 g
2)0.625 g (Correct Answer)
3)0.745 g
4)0.895 g

Question 82
Consider the following two statements.

Statement I: Both N2+ and N2− have same bond order.

Statement II: Both N2+ and N2− are paramagnetic in nature.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both statement I and statement II are correct (Correct Answer)

2)Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
3)Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
4)Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Question 83
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + X kJ

2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + Y kJ

The enthalpy of formation of CO(g) (in kJ) is

1)X – Y
2)2X – Y
Y
3)X −
2
Y
4)
2
− X (Correct Answer)

Question 84
If the pH of ammonium acetate solution is 7.005 and pKa of acetic acid is 4.76 then the pKb of ammonium hydroxide is

1)4.82
2)4.24
3)4.38
4)4.75 (Correct Answer)
Question 85
If 0.04 M solution of Na2SO4 (100% ionization) is isotonic with aqueous solution of glucose at 27°C, then molarity of aqueous solution of
glucose is

1)0.2 M
2)0.3 M
3)0.12 M (Correct Answer)
4)0.5 M

Question 86
Consider the following statements.
(a) Thin layer chromatography is an example of adsorption chromatography
(b) Silica gel and alumina are common adsorbents used in thin layer chromatography
(c) Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography
The correct statement(s) is/are

1)(a) only
2)(c) only
3)(a) and (c) only
4)(a), (b) and (c) (Correct Answer)

Question 87
Which of the following is the most stable carbocation?

1) (Correct Answer)

2)

3)

4)

Question 88
Match the given Lists-I and List-II choose the correct option:

List-I List-II

Vitamin Deficiency diseases

a. Vitamin B12 (i) Scurvy
b. Vitamin C (ii) Convulsions
c. Vitamin D (iii) Pernicious anaemia
d. Vitamin B6 (iv) Rickets
1)a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (Correct Answer)
2)a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
3)a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
4)a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
Question 89
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion(A) : Boron cannot form [BF6]3–.

Reason(R) : Maximum covalency of B is 4 due to the absence of vacant d-orbitals.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.?

1)Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion (Correct Answer)
2)Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3)Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
4)Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Question 90
In the following reaction sequences,

The compound X is

1)Benzaldehyde
2)Benzene
3)Toluene (Correct Answer)
4)Phenol

Question 91
In a pond, there were 40 water lily plants last year. Calculate the birth rate if their population reaches to 56 by reproduction in one year and
choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1)0.4 individuals per water lily per year (Correct Answer)

2)0.8 individuals per water lily per year
3)1.6 individuals per water lily per year
4)16 individuals per water lily per year

Question 92
Find the odd one out w.r.t. cytokinin.

1)It promotes cell division

2)It initiates the growth of lateral buds
3)Delay the senescence of leaves
4)Derived from acetyl-CoA (Correct Answer)
Question 93
In post-transcriptional events, splicing is a process in which

1)Exons are removed from primary transcript

2)Introns are removed and exons are joined in a defined order (Correct Answer)
3)Adenylate residues are added at 3’ end of hnRNA
4)Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 5’ end of mature mRNA

Question 94
Match List I with List II.

List I List II
(a) Atmospheric N2-fixer (i) Glomus
(b) Mycorrhiza (ii) Azospirillum
(c) Baculoviruses (iii) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(d) Free-living fungus (iv) Trichoderma

Choose the correct option.

1)(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (Correct Answer)

2)(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3)(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4)(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Question 95
Conjoint and closed vascular bundles are commonly found in

1)Dicot roots
2)Leaves of flowering plants (Correct Answer)
3)Dicot stems
4)Monocot roots

Question 96
Select the mismatched pair w.r.t. human

1)Kingdom – Animalia
2)Order – Carnivora (Correct Answer)
3)Genus – Homo
4)Phylum – Chordata

Question 97
Mark the incorrect one w.r.t. human genome

1)Less than 2% of genome codes for proteins

2)The average gene consists of 3000 bases
3)Repeated sequences make up a small portion of human genome (Correct Answer)
4)The functions of over 50% of discovered genes are unknown
Question 98
Which of the following is not a dominant trait of the pea plant according to Mendel's studies?

1)Constricted pod shape (Correct Answer)

2)Violet flower colour
3)Round seed
4)Axial flower position

Question 99
The sub-stage of prophase I which is followed by the tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate
from each other is

1)Zygotene
2)Diplotene
3)Pachytene (Correct Answer)
4)Leptotene

Question 100
An angiospermic family which includes a plant that produces colchicine

1)Bears non endospermous seeds

2)Has tricarpellary superior ovary (Correct Answer)
3)Has flowers which show zygomorphic symmetry
4)Has unisexual flowers only

Question 101
Sexual deceit to get the pollination done is employed by the plant

1)Ophrys (Correct Answer)

2)Fig
3)Mango
4)Calotropis

Question 102
Adventitious roots are seen in

1)Mustard
2)Monstera (Correct Answer)
3)Carrot
4)Turnip
Question 103
Which of the following statements is true?

1)Robert May estimated the global species diversity to be 20-50 million.

2)Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group. (Correct Answer)
3)More than 70% of all the species recorded are plants.
4)For many taxonomic groups, species inventories are more complete in tropical than in temperate countries.

Question 104
Each bivalent in pachytene stage shows

1)2 chromosomes, 2 chromatids

2)4 chromosomes, 2 chromatids
3)2 chromosomes, 4 chromatids (Correct Answer)
4)4 chromosomes, 4 chromatids

Question 105
Which of the following can be placed under the class Ascomycetes?

1)Claviceps (Correct Answer)

2)Ustilago
3)Agaricus
4)Albugo

Question 106
At least how many meiotic divisions are required to produce 100 seeds in a typical flowering plant?

1)100
2)25
3)125 (Correct Answer)
4)50

Question 107
Some cells of shoot apical meristem that are left behind in axil of leaves
a. Constitute axillary buds
b. Are secondary meristem
c. Are capable of forming a flower
d. Form intercalary meristem
The correct one(s) is/are

1)a and d
2)a only
3)b and c
4)a and c (Correct Answer)
Question 108
Cyclic photophosphorylation

1)Is connected with photolysis of water

2)Synthesises both ATP as well as NADPH
3)Is performed by photosystem I independently (Correct Answer)
4)Requires an external source of electron donor

Question 109
Read the following statements of Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Down's syndrome is said to be a chromosomal disorder.

Reason (R): In an individual, Down's syndrome is the result of an extra copy of chromosome 21.

1)Both (A) and (R) are false

2)(A) is true but (R) is false
3)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (Correct Answer)

Question 110
The term ‘nuclein’ was given by

1)James Watson
2)Friedrich Meischer (Correct Answer)
3)Rosalind Franklin
4)Erwin Chargaff

Question 111
In human beings, the membrane of erythrocyte has approximately

1)42% proteins and 50% lipids

2)52% proteins and 40% lipids (Correct Answer)
3)40% proteins and 52% lipids
4)60% proteins and 2% lipids

Question 112
If, in a food chain, 15 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to tertiary consumer (T4 level)?

1)0.015 J (Correct Answer)

2)0.0015 J
3)0.15 J
4)0.00015 J
Question 113
Study the given pedigree chart of a family and select the statements which can be true for the trait.

a. The trait under study can be colour blindness.

b. The genotype of II-2 cannot be AA.

c. The pedigree can be for inheritance of cystic fibrosis.

d. The genotype of III-4 can be AA.

1) a and b
2) b and c only (Correct Answer)
3) a and c
4) b, c and d

Question 114
In the equation, log S = log C + Z log A, representing the species-area relationship, Z stands for:

1)Species richness
2)Slope of the line (Correct Answer)
3)Y-intercept
4)Area

Question 115
Filiform apparatus

1)Is present in generative cell of pollen

2)Guides the entry of pollen tube into synergid (Correct Answer)
3)Is composed of sporopollenin
4)Absorbs the water for seed germination

Question 116
Choose the incorrect match among the following

1)Marginal placentation – Pea

2)Parietal placentation – Lemon (Correct Answer)
3)Free central placentation – Dianthus
4)Basal placentation – Sunflower
Question 117
Match the following complexes to their alternate name and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Complex I (i) Cytochrome bc1 complex
b. Complex II (ii) Cytochrome c oxidase complex
c. Complex III (iii) NADH dehydrogenase
d. Complex IV (iv) Succinate dehydrogenase
1)a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (Correct Answer)
2)a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
3)a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
4)a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

Question 118
Anisogamous reproduction can be observed in

1)Volvox
2)Fucus
3)Eudorina (Correct Answer)
4)Ulothrix

Question 119
How many of the following structures in a cell are not bounded by any membrane?
Lysosome, Vacuole, Ribosome, Centrosome, Cilium, Nucleolus

1)Two
2)Three (Correct Answer)
3)Five
4)Four

Question 120
Select the incorrect statements from the following.

(a) Hatch and Slack pathway occurs in mesophyll cells of all types of plants.

(b) ATP required for phosphorylation during reduction stage in Calvin cycle comes from mitochondria.

(c) In Sorghum, the primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-C molecule.

(d) C4 plants lack photorespiration.

1)(a) & (d) only

2)(a) & (b) only (Correct Answer)
3)(b) & (c) only
4)(a), (b) & (c) only
Question 121
Which of the following are not seen in a prokaryotic cell?

1)Ribosomes
2)Lysosomes (Correct Answer)
3)Mesosomes
4)Plasmids

Question 122
Observe the given tRNA

Select the option that cannot be true regarding the above tRNA?

1)This tRNA will bind at AUG codon of mRNA

2)This tRNA binds with amino acid methionine at its 3' end
3)The loop with UAC is anticodon loop of this tRNA
4)The amino acid X would be the same when anticodon UAC is changed to UAA (Correct Answer)

Question 123
In flowering plants, microsporangium develops to form

1)Embryo sac
2)Pollen sac (Correct Answer)
3)Pollen grain
4)Ovule

Question 124
Which of the following is not the basis of classification of fungi?

1)Morphology of the mycelium

2)Mode of spore formation
3)Mode of nutrition (Correct Answer)
4)Fruiting bodies
Question 125
A couple has two daughters and two sons. Among two daughters one is homozygous normal and other is carrier for colour blindness,
whereas, among two sons one is normal and other is colour blind. What should be genotypes of the parents?

1)XX and XY
2)XX and XcY
3)XXc and XY (Correct Answer)
4)XXc and XcY

Question 126
Which of the following statements is false w.r.t. phenylketonuria?

1)It is an inborn error of metabolism

2)Along with accumulation of the derivatives of phenylalanine these are also excreted through urine
3)Affected individual lacks phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme
4)Phenylalanine is converted into tyrosine that when accumulated in brain results in mental retardation (Correct Answer)

Question 127
Find the odd one w.r.t. brown algae.

1)Show great variation in size and form

2)They contain chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c and fucoxanthin
3)They reproduce asexually only by non-motile spores (Correct Answer)
4)Their gametes are pyriform bearing two laterally attached flagella

Question 128
Dinoflagellates differ from euglenoids, as the former

1)Can predate on other smaller organisms

2)Have majority of members that are fresh water organisms
3)Have two flagella
4)Have cell wall with stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface (Correct Answer)

Question 129
Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: In lac operon the promoter gene adjacent to the operator gene interacts with protein molecule synthesized by repressor
mRNA.

Statement B: Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation.

1)Only statement A is correct

2)Only statement B is correct
3)Both the statements A and B are incorrect (Correct Answer)
4)Both the statements A and B are correct
Question 130
What is the net ATP gain when one molecule of glucose is fermented to alcohol or lactic acid?

1)6
2)2 (Correct Answer)
3)38
4)8

Question 131
The genetic codes are said to be

1)Doublet
2)Degenerate (Correct Answer)
3)Absolutely universal
4)Read in mRNA in discontinuous fashion as there are punctuations

Question 132
Sclerenchyma tissue

1)Is a living tissue

2)Consists of narrow cells with thick and lignified cell wall (Correct Answer)
3)Has the cells which are oval in shape and often contain chloroplast
4)Consists of cell with thin and cellulosic cell wall

Question 133
Heterophylly due to difference in environment is seen in

1)Cotton
2)Coriander
3)Larkspur
4)Buttercup (Correct Answer)

Question 134
Match the following columns and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Fluid-mosaic model (i) Golgi apparatus
b. Calcium pectate (ii) Plasma membrane
c. Divide by fission (iii) Middle lamella
d. Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids (iv) Mitochondria

1)a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

2)a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
3)a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (Correct Answer)
4)a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Question 135
In which of the following population interactions, only one species gets benefit?
a. Mutualism
b. Predation
c. Parasitism
d. Amensalism
e. Commensalism

The correct ones are

1)a and b only

2)b, c and e (Correct Answer)
3)c, d and e
4)a, c and d

Question 136
Select the correct set of favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the alveoli.

1)Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature

2)High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature (Correct Answer)
3)Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
4)High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature

Question 137
Observe the reactions given below.
A
Prothrombin → Thrombin
B
Fibrinogens → Fibrins
Identify A and B and choose the correct option.

1)A - Thrombokinase; B - Heparin

2)A - Thrombins; B - Thrombokinase
3)A - Thrombokinase; B - Thrombin (Correct Answer)
4)A - Tissue factor; B - Platelet factor

Question 138
How many biomolecules given in the box below are found in the acid-soluble fraction obtained upon chemical analysis of a living tissue?

Glucose, Ribose, Lipids, Glutamic acid, Collagen, Starch

Choose the correct option.

1)Two
2)Three (Correct Answer)
3)Four
4)Five
Question 139
Which of the following co-factors forms bond with the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?

1)Zinc (Correct Answer)

2)Haem
3)Copper
4)Iron

Question 140
A joins skeletal muscle to bone whereas B connects one bone to another. Here A and B are

1)A – Areolar tissue, B – Ligament

2)A – Tendon, B – Areolar tissue
3)A – Tendon, B – Ligament (Correct Answer)
4)A – Ligament, B – Tendon

Question 141
Select the pair of hormones synthesised by the hypothalamus and transported axonally to the pituitary gland.

1)Prolactin and TSH

2)Oxytocin and vasopressin (Correct Answer)
3)FSH and LH
4)MSH and prolactin

Question 142
Both Scoliodon and Betta are true fishes, but they differ from each other as

1)Former has operculum whereas latter does not

2)Only former has a streamlined body
3)Former lives in marine habitat while latter is an aquarium fresh water fish (Correct Answer)
4)Fertilisation in former is external while latter exhibits internal fertilisation

Question 143
Substances like glucose, amino acids, Na+, etc., in the renal filtrate are reabsorbed a whereas the nitrogenous wastes are absorbed
by b¯ transport. Reabsorption of water also occurs c¯ in the initial segments of¯ nephron. Fill the blanks correctly from given
options.

a b c
(1) Actively Passive Passively
(2) Passively Active Passively
(3) Actively Passive Actively
(4) Passively Passive Actively
1)(1) (Correct Answer)
2)(2)
3)(3)
4)(4)
Question 144
Monomeric protein of F-actin and thick filament respectively are

1)G-actin and meromyosin (Correct Answer)

2)Tropomyosin and troponin
3)Meromyosin and G-actin
4)G-actin and troponin

Question 145
Conditional reabsorption of water occurs under the influence of ADH by which of the following parts of nephron?

1)Loop of Henle
2)PCT
3)DCT (Correct Answer)
4)Glomerulus

Question 146
What is true about Balanoglossus, Sepia and Antedon?

1)All belong to the same phylum

2)All possess water vascular system
3)All exhibit radial symmetry
4)All possess true coelom (Correct Answer)

Question 147
The first pair of wings of cockroach arises from A and is known as B .
Select the option which fills A and B correctly.

A B
(1) Metathorax Metathoracic wings
(2) Mesothorax Tegmina
(3) Mesothorax Metathoracic wings
(4) Metathorax Tegmina

1)(1)
2)(2) (Correct Answer)
3)(3)
4)(4)

Question 148
In frogs, the medulla oblongata passes out through the ________ and continues into spinal cord.

Select the option to fill the blank correctly.

1)Olfactory lobe
2)Foramen magnum (Correct Answer)
3)Diencephalon
4)Optic lobe
Question 149
The outermost protective covering of the central information processing organ of our body is

1)Dura mater (Correct Answer)

2)Arachnoid mater
3)Pia mater
4)CSF

Question 150
Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: Muscle contraction in smooth muscles can be explained by the sliding filament theory.
Statement B: Relaxation of skeletal muscle fibres takes place when thick filaments slide over thin filaments.

1)Only statement A is correct

2)Only statement B is correct
3)Both statements A and B are correct
4)Both statements A and B are incorrect (Correct Answer)

Question 151
Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. mode of action of steroidal oral contraceptive pills.

1)Inhibit the release of ovum from ovary

2)Alter the quality of cervical mucus
3)Prevent the embedding of blastocyst in uterine endometrium
4)Release copper ions to suppress sperm motility (Correct Answer)

Question 152
Complete the analogy w.r.t. ploidy level and select the correct option.

Diploid : Spermatogonium :: Haploid : ___________

1)Primary spermatocyte
2)Primary oocyte
3)Secondary oocyte (Correct Answer)
4)Oogonium

Question 153
All of the following features are correct w.r.t. a plasmid, except

1)Autonomously replicating
2)Circular in shape
3)Acts as the chromosomal genetic material (Correct Answer)
4)Acts as an extra-chromosomal material
Question 154
The hormone which attains the peak twice during the menstrual cycle in a normal human female is

1)LH
2)FSH
3)Estrogen (Correct Answer)
4)Progesterone

Question 155
Read the given description carefully

There are four DNA fragments; A, B, C and D. Given, C = B + A, B < A, and D is the smallest of all.

Which of the following represents correct sequence of bands from cathode to anode when these segments are separated with the help of
gel electrophoresis?

1)C, B, A, D
2)C, A, D, B
3)C, A, B, D (Correct Answer)
4)D, B, A, C

Question 156
Which of the following cannot act as the source of complementary RNA during RNAi?

1)Transposons that replicate via an RNA intermediate

2)Infection by viruses having RNA genomes
3)Mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate
4)Natural Agrobacterium tumefaciens (Correct Answer)

Question 157
Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and ______________ are responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans.

Fill in the blank by selecting the correct option.

1)Salmonella typhi
2)Haemophilus influenzae (Correct Answer)
3)Epidermophyton
4)Bacillus thuringiensis
Question 158
Arrange the given geological periods in the correct sequence from oldest to most recent.

(a) Triassic

(b) Permian

(c) Devonian

(d) Jurassic

(e) Cretaceous

Select the correct option.

1)(a) → (b) → (d) → (e) → (c)

2)(c) → (b) → (a) → (d) → (e) (Correct Answer)
3)(c) → (e) → (b) → (d) → (a)
4)(d) → (a) → (c) → (e) → (b)

Question 159
Select the incorrect match.

1)Origin of the first non-cellular form of life - 3 bya

2)Origin of the Universe - 4 bya (Correct Answer)
3)Origin of the Earth - 4.5 bya
4)Origin of the first cellular form of life - 2000 mya

Question 160
In uterus of a human female, the ____________ layer is made up of smooth muscles, while _____________ layer is glandular in nature.

Select the correct option to fill in the respective blanks.

1)Endometrium, myometrium
2)Myometrium, endometrium (Correct Answer)
3)Perimetrium, endometrium
4)Endometrium, perimetrium

Question 161
An example of analogous structures among the following is

1)Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

2)Hearts of frog and humans
3)Forelimbs of mammals and bats
4)Eyes of Octopus and mammals (Correct Answer)
Question 162
Select the incorrect option w.r.t. vaccines.

1)The principle of immunisation through vaccination is based on creation of immunological memory

2)In vaccination, antigenic proteins or weakened pathogens are introduced in the body, providing artificially acquired passive immunity
(Correct Answer)
3)
Recombinant DNA technology can allow the production of antigenic polypeptides of pathogens in bacteria or yeast for preparation of
some vaccines
4)Recombinant hepatitis-B vaccine has been produced from yeast

Question 163
In a population of 900 cows, which are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 891 are white and 9 are black. What would be frequency of dominant
and recessive allele respectively within this population?

1)0.8 and 0.2

2)0.09 and 0.01
3)0.9 and 0.1 (Correct Answer)
4)0.08 and 0.02

Question 164
Consider the following statements w.r.t. evolution and select the correct option.

Statement (A): Genetic variability is the raw material for operation of natural selection.

Statement (B): Adaptive ability is inherited and has a genetic basis.

1)Only statement (A) is correct

2)Only statement (B) is correct
3)Both statements (A) and (B) are correct (Correct Answer)
4)Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect

Question 165
Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human sperms.

1)The neck of sperm is filled with hydrolytic enzymes that help in fertilisation of the ovum. (Correct Answer)
2)Male ejaculates about 200-300 million sperms during a coitus.
3)The middle piece of sperm possesses numerous mitochondria.
4)Acrosome is anteriorly located to the nucleus and contains enzymes that help in fertilisation of ovum.

Question 166
At resting state i.e., when a neuron is not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is

1)Completely impermeable to Na+

2)Completely impermeable to K+
3)Nearly impermeable to Na+ (Correct Answer)
4)Only permeable to negatively charged proteins
Question 167
Consider the given statements

Statement A: Purified DNA precipitates out after addition of chilled ethanol and can be seen as fine threads in the suspension.

Statement B: In the method of micro-injection, recombinant DNA is directly injected into mitochondria of a plant cell.

Select the correct option.

1)Only statement A is correct (Correct Answer)

2)Both statements A and B are correct
3)Both statements A and B are incorrect
4)Only statement B is correct

Question 168
Recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants is possible by

1)Meristem culture (Correct Answer)

2)Somatic hybridisation
3)Protoplast fusion
4)Bioprocess engineering

Question 169
Which part of the brain has special neural centre that can moderate the cardiac function through autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

1)Cerebrum
2)Cerebellum
3)Medulla oblongata (Correct Answer)
4)Corpora quadrigemina

Question 170
How many fragments will be obtained if we digest cloning vector pBR322 with restriction enzymes Cla I and Sal I?

1)3
2)1
3)4
4)2 (Correct Answer)
Question 171
Match the Column I with Column II w.r.t. humans and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Ball and socket joint i. Between carpals
B. Hinge joint ii. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
C. Saddle joint iii. Shoulder joint
D. Gliding joint iv. Knee joint
1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (Correct Answer)
3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

Question 172
In humans, which of the following are mainly responsible for maintaining the increasing osmolarity gradient in the medullary interstitium of
kidney?

1)H2O and NaCl

2)H2O and urea
3)NaCl and K+
4)NaCl and urea (Correct Answer)

Question 173
All of the following sets of hormones can increase the blood glucose levels, except

1)Adrenaline and cortisol

2)Glucagon and Epinephrine
3)Glucagon and Cortisol
4)ACTH and Insulin (Correct Answer)

Question 174
If an enzyme shows a reaction rate ‘6X’ at a temperature of 50°C, then what will be the rate of this reaction if temperature of the reaction
set-up is reduced by 20°C?

1)12 X
2)3 X
3)1.5 X (Correct Answer)
4)8 X

Question 175
Which of the following are the secretions of largest gland of human body?

1)Hydrocarbons and steroids

2)NaCl and lactic acid
3)Lysozyme and ammonia
4)Bilirubin and biliverdin (Correct Answer)
Question 176
Assertion (A): Ribozymes are proteinaceous enzymes and their catalytic power get affected at high temperature.

Reason (R): The activity of proteinaceous enzyme can be affected by a change in the conditions which can alter the tertiary confirmation of
the proteins that form the active sites in the enzyme.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.

1)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2)(A) is false but (R) is true (Correct Answer)
3)(A) is true but (R) is false
4)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 177
How many animals given in the box below are homeotherms?

Aptenodytes, Calotes, Clarias, Myxine, Pavo, Canis, Delphinus

Select the correct option.

1)Five
2)Four (Correct Answer)
3)Three
4)Six

Question 178
Read the given statements:

(a) In a healthy individual, under normal conditions, the body is able to differentiate between ‘self’ and ‘non-self’ cells.

(b) Blood group matching is essential before undertaking any graft.

(c) After performing successful transplantation, the patient does not require immunosuppressive drugs.

(d) Humoral immune response is primarily responsible for graft rejection.

How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct w.r.t. humans?

1)One
2)Three
3)Two (Correct Answer)
4)Four

Question 179
Which of the following structures in human female is characterised by the presence of antrum?

1)Primary follicle
2)Secondary oocyte
3)Tertiary follicle (Correct Answer)
4)Corpus luteum
Question 180
In a lactating human female, during the period of intense lactation, generally

1)Both ovulation and menstruation occur normally

2)Ovulation occurs but menstruation does not occur
3)Menstruation occurs without ovulation
4)Both ovulation and menstruation do not occur (Correct Answer)

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