ĐỀ 1

SECTION A. LISTENING(Each recording will be played TWICE)

Part1: Questions 1-7. There are seven questions in this part. For each
question, there are three pictures and a short recording. Choose the correct picture
A, B or C.
1. What is the girl doing?

A B C
2. What will the weather be like tomorrow?

A B C
3. Which musical instrument is the girl learning to play?

A B C
4. Where will they meet?

A B C
5. What time does the museum shut on Saturdays?

A B C

T
 6. Where is the flat?

A B C
7. What did the woman receive in the post?

A B C

Part2. Questions 8-13. You will hear a man called Toby Merchant talking on the
radio about his job as an engineer with a company called Atkins Engineering.
Choose the best answer A, B or C for each of the following questions.
8. When did Toby get a job with Atkins Engineering?
A. when he was a university student
B. as soon as he finished university
C. six months after he finished university
9. What is Toby working on at the moment?
A. new motorway B. houses and flats C. a new airport
10. When Toby began working, he was surprised to spend so much time_____.
A. talking to other people B. sitting in an office C. designing buildings
11. Young people often don’t choose engineering because they think _______.
A. it’s hard to get a job B. it’s probably boring C. it’s very well paid
12. What is a disadvantage of the job for Toby?
A. He finds it difficult to take holidays.
B. He can’t organize his spare time.
IC. He works too many hours.
13. When Toby was at school, what job did he want to have?
A. a doctor B. an architect C. an engineer
Part 3. Questions 14-20. Complete the notes bellow.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDSAND / OR A NUMBER for each
answer.

T
 GOODWOOD CAR SHOW
Type of car: Duesenberg J-type
Number made: (14) ___________
Type of body: two-seater
Engines contained capsules of mercury to ensure a (15)
_________ trip.
Top speed: (16) ___________ per hour
Sold as a frame and engine
Main attraction: instrument panel
Type of car: Leyat Helica
Number built: (17) ___________
Car looks like a (18) ___________ without (19) _______.
Steering used the (20) ___________.
SECTION B. PHONETICS
Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words.
Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet.
1. A. alarming B. criticize C. excellent
D. arrogant
2. A. presentation B. confidential C. controversial D.communicate
3.A. ambitious B. appearance C. development
D. introduce
4.A. economical B. alternative C. miraculous
D. ability
5. A. ingratiate B. politics C. courageous D. conspicuous

SECTION C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer A, B, C or D.
1. ________ daily promotes physical as well as emotional well-being in people of all
ages.
A. Having exercised B. Those who exercise
C. Exercising D. For exercising
2. The new production of Othello is very ambitious and extremely interesting, but
somehow it doesn't quite ________ .
A. come off B. come through
C. come out D. come round
3. These tablets are really ________. My headache’s much better now.
A. affective B. effective C. efficient D.
affected
4. Doctors advise people who are deficient ________ vitamin C to eat more fruit and
vegetables.
A. from B. of C. in D. for
5. “But son, you are my own ________. ”
A. flesh and blood B. body and soul C. heart to heart D. skin
and bone
6. The TV documentary was so informative that we were all ________ to the set until
it ended.

T
 A. glued B. secured
C. hooked D.
united
7. By the time the bridge is complete, over $20 million ________ on the project.
A. will have been spent B. is to be spent
C. will be spending D. is going to spend
8. Linda: “It’s really the end of the holiday already.” ~ Alice: “________!”
A. How time flies B. Let’s call it a day
C. It’s a small world D. There’s nothing to
it
9. Harold would sooner we ________ the meeting on Sunday.
A. shouldn’t hold B. wouldn’t hold
C. didn’t hold D. won’t hold
10. Susan will graduate in June,________ she submits her dissertation on time.
A. unless B. provided
C. otherwise D. supposing

Part 2. Supply the correct form of the word provided in each blank.
Many (1. RESEARCH) ________ believe that apes can communicate with human beings.
Investigations made at several laboratories in the United States and elsewhere indicate that chimpanzees
and gorillas are capable of understanding language and line using (2. LANGUAGE) ________
responses at the level of a four – year – old child. Washoe, an adult chimpanzee who was raised as if she
were a deaf child, can translate words she hears into American Sign Language. Loko, a 400-pound
lowland gorilla, is claimed to have understood a poem (3. WRITE) ________ about her. Tests of Koko’s
auditory comprehension show that she is able to make discriminations between such words as “funny”,
“money”, and “bunny”.
The (4. SCIENCE) ________ at the forefront of this research admit that their work has been severely
criticized. The skeptics in general claim that apes’ language (5. BEHAVE) ________ is merely
imitative. For this behavior to be called “language”, it must also be (6. COMMUNICATE) ________.
The proponents of ape language counter that those who deny the (7. VALID) ________ of this research
have never worked with apes. They point out that new fields of investigation always create (8.
CONTROVERSIAL) ________. They add that (9. HUMAN) ________ primates have not been taught
to speak, however, because the outer layer of their brain hemispheres is not (10. SUFFICIENT)
________refined.
Part 3. The passage below contains five mistakes. Write down the line numbers, the corresponding
mistakes and correct them.
It is a sad fact that adults laugh farly less than children, sometimes by as much as a couple of
hundred times a day. Just take a look at people's faces on the way to work or in the office: you'll be
lucky to see a smile, let alone hear a laugh. This is a shame - especially in view of the fact that
scientists haveproved that laughing is good at you. "Whenyou laugh" says psychologist David Cohen,
"it produces the feel-good hormones, endorphin. It counters the effects of stress and enhances the
immune system."
They are many reasons why we might laugh less in adult life: perhaps we are too work-obsessed, or
too embarrassed to let our emotions shown. Some psychologists simply believe that children have more
native responses and like adults we naturally grow out of spontaneous reactions. Luckily, however, it is
possible to relearn the art of laughter.

T
No Line Mistake Corect
1
2
3
4
5
SECTION D. READING
Part 1. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer by writing the
corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship betweenhealth and how the
body takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in
the nineteenth century and extended into the earlytwentieth century when it was recognized for the
first time that food containedconstituents that were essential for human function and that different
foods provideddifferent amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research
studiesdemonstrated that rapid weight loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance andcould only be
rectified by providing adequate dietary protein associated with certainfoods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century andmight be called "the
vitamin period." Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, anddeficiency syndromes were described. As
vitamins became recognized as essentialfood constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to
suggest that everydisease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment
mightbe responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started tobecome more
interested in having their curricula integrate nutritional concepts intothe basic sciences. Much of the
focus of this education was on the recognition ofvitamin deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning
of what ultimately turned fromignorance to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine.
Recklessclaims were made for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actuallybe achieved
from the use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamintherapy began to fall
into disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education inmedical schools also became less popular.
It was just a decade before this that manydrug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing
and were quick to supplypracticing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature praising
thevirtue of supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectationsas to the success of
vitamins in disease control were exaggerated. As is known inretrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies
are much less effective when applied tohealth-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term
problems of under nutritionthat lead to chronic health problems.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The effects of vitamins on the human body
B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present
C. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study
D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century

T
2. It can be inferred from the passage that during the first era in the history of
nutrition________.
A. protein was recognized as an essential component of diet
B. vitamins were synthesized from foods
C. effective techniques of weight loss were determined
D. certain foods were found to be harmful to good health
3. It can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of
nutrition in order to________.
A. convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition
B. encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease
C. convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients
D. support the creation of artificial vitamins
4. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to________.
A. therapies B. claims C. effects D. vitamins
5. Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950's?
A. Because the public lost interest in vitamins.
B. Because medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts.
C. Because nutritional research was of poor quality.
D. Because claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be
exaggerated.
6. The phrase "concomitant with" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________.
A. in conjunction with B. prior to C. in dispute with D. in
regard to
7. The word "skyrocketing" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________.
A. internationally popular B. increasing rapidly
C. acceptable D. surprising
8. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses________.
A. the fourth era of nutrition history B. problems associated with under
nutrition
C. how drug companies became successful
D. why nutrition education lost its appeal
(Source: TOEFL READING collection 2, 1995)
Part 2. Read the passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
Fog is a cloud in (1) ________ with or just above the surface of land or sea. It can be a major
environmental hazard. Fog on highways can cause chain-reaction accidents involving dozens of cars.
Delays and shutdowns at airports can (2) ________ economic losses to airlines and inconveniences to
thousands of travelers carrying vast quantities of oil, increases the possibility of catastrophic oil spills.
The (3) ________ common type of fog, radiation fog, forms at night, when moist air near the
ground loses warmth through radiation on a clear night. This type of fog often occurs in valleys, (4)
________ as California's San Joaquin Valley. (5) ________ common type, advection fog, results from
the movement of warm, wet air over cold ground. The air loses temperature to the ground and
condensation sets in. This type of fog often occurs along the California coast and the shores of the
Great Lake. Advection fog also forms when air (6) ________ with a warm ocean current blows across
the surface of a cold current. The thick fogs of the Grand Banks of Newfoundland, Canada, are largely
of this origin, (7) ________ here the Labrador Current comes in contact with the warm Gulf Stream.

T
 Two other types of fog are somewhat (8) ________ unusual. Frontal fog occurs when two fronts
of different temperatures meet, and rain from the warm front falls (9) ________ the colder one,
saturating the air. Steam fog appears when cold air picks (10) ________ moisture by moving other
warmer water.
Part 3.Choose the correct answer to complete the following passage by writing
thecorresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Of the myriad of Japanese ceremonies introduced to the West, the Japanese tea ceremony would
have to be the least accessible. (1) __________ many other aspects of Japanese culture, the practice of
drinking tea was (2) __________from China well over a thousand years ago. In Japan, green tea
developed its own character, and the Japanese tea ceremony has evolved (3) __________ a peculiarly
Japanese phenomenon.
The modern tea ceremony can be (4) __________back to the 17th century when it developed
alongside another singular Japanese adaptionof Chinese culture: the philosophy of Zen. The tea
ceremony eventually became established as a recognized form of high art, where it was practiced in (5)
__________ locations, from a Zen temple to an ordinary home. Even today, the simplest and most
secular tea ceremony still embraces the Zen aesthetics of (6) __________, austerity and devotion.
During the ceremony strictly prescribed words of invitation and gratitude are murmured quietly; tea
maker and guests(7) __________ their roles with humilityand respect. A brief moment of (8)
__________ tranquility has been communallycreated and shared. It is simultaneously an aesthetic,
social and spiritual moment. Significantly it is a Japanese moment, fleeting and poignant with its own
peacefulness(9) __________ the noise and confusion of the everyday world is temporarily suspended
as a vague, indefinable(10) __________ of the eternal pervades.
1. A. Like B. As C. Similar
D. Alike
2. A. brought up B. brought in
C. brought about D. brought down
3. A.off B. into
C. about D. for
4. A.detected B. tracked
C. ignored D. traced
5. A. disparate B. diverse
C.equal D. unlike
6. A. simply B. simplify
C. simplicity D. simplification
7. A. play B. take
C. set D. have
8. A. heavy B. serious
C. profound D. difficult
9. A. where B. when
C. which D. who
10. A. sense B.thought
C. capacity D. atmosphere

SECTIONE. WRITING
Part 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar
meaning to the original one.
1. Although I love you, I cannot let you have any more money.
→ Much _________________________________________________.
2. She was unaware that they were watching her every move.

T
 → Little did ______________________________________________.
3. It was a bad idea to invite them to the party.
→ You should ____________________________________________.
4. It is not a habit of mine to sleep in the afternoon.
→ I am __________________________________________________.
5. The letter arrived completely unexpectedly this morning.
→The letter arrived completely out ____________________________.

Part 2. Essay writing:

“Teenagers should be required to do unpaid work in their free time to help their local community.”
To what extent do you agree with this proposal?
Write an essay within 250 words to express your own idea.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 2
SỞ GD& ĐT KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP10, 11 CHƯƠNG TRÌNH
VĨNH PHÚC THPT NĂM HỌC 2022-2023
ĐỀCHÍNHTHỨC Môn: TIẾNG ANH 10
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút(không kểthời gian phát đề)
Đề thi có 06 trang

A. LISTENING
Section 1. Questions 1-10
Listen to a conversation and complete the notes below with ONE WORD for
each answer.
EASY LIFE CLEANING SERVICES

Basic cleaning package offered

∙ Cleaning all surfaces
∙ Cleaning the (1) ____________ throughout the apartment
∙ Cleaning showers, sinks, toilets, etc.
Additional services agreed
∙ Every week
- Cleaning the (2) ____________
- Ironing clothes - (3) ____________ only
∙ Every month
- Cleaning all the (4) ____________ from the inside
- Washing down the (5) ____________
Other possibilities
∙ They can organize a plumber or an (6) ____________ if necessary.
∙ A special cleaning service is available for customers who are allergic to
(7)____________.
Information on the cleaners
∙ Before being hired, all cleaners have a background check carried out by the
(8)____________.
∙ References are required.
∙ All cleaners are given (9)____________ for two weeks.

T
 ∙ Customers send a (10) ____________ after each visit.
∙ Usually, each customer has one regular cleaner.

Section 2. Questions 11-15

You will hear a man called Frank, talking on the radio about looking for ships that sank at sea
long ago. Listen to the tape and choose the best answer to each question.
11. The first old ship which Frank found was ______________.
A. covered by rocks B. older than he first thought
C. easy to find
12. Frank finds ships quickly because he ______________.
A. reads history books B. is a professional diver C. uses the latest equipment
13. What does Frank say about the ship called The Seabird?
A. It was built in 1859. B. It sank in a storm. C. It was badly made.
14. Frank says his wedding ring ______________.
A. was made from gold he found himself B. is worth £88,000 C. was found by
a friend
15. Frank’s wife believes he should ______________.
A. stop diving B. give things to museums C. sell some of his collection
Section 3. Questions 16-20
You will hear a guide talking to a group of visitors to a farm. Label the plan
below. Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 16-20.
Fiddy Working Heritage Farm

16. Scarecrow
17. Maze
18. Cafe
19. Black Barn
20. Covered picnic area

T
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following
sentences.
21. - George: “I think self-learning is facilitated by e-learning platforms.”
- Linda: “____________”
A. Not really. I can't agree with you more. B. Go ahead! What a good idea!
C. Never mind. D. I’ll say!
22. I don’t think this strange new fashion will ____________.
A. turn up B. care for
C. show off D. catch on
23. You don't think there's anything wrong with my idea, _____________?
A. do you B. don’t you
C. is there D. isn’t there
24. It is very important that we ____________ as soon as there's any change in the patient's
condition.
A. were notified B. be it notified
C. be notified D. being notified
25. They are incensed by the Government's ____________ thirst for higher taxes and more
public spending, which has failed to improve services.
A. inevitable B. inexorable
C. insatiable D. inedible
26. When ____________ nests during spring nesting season, Canadian geese are fiercely
territorial.
A. building B. are building
C. built D. are built
27. The jury ____________ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. gave B. paid
C. made D. said
28. Susan would never have talked to you again if you ____________.
A. hadn’t apologized B. didn’t apologize
C. wouldn’t have apologized D. haven’t
apologised
29. She is a ____________ woman. She continued to study well despite her illness and poverty.
A. strong-willed B. two-faced
C. narrow-minded D. short-sighted
30. You may borrow as many books as you like provided you show them to ____________ is at
the desk.
A. who B. whom C.
whoever D. which
31. It was such a shock to receive a letter like that ____________.
A. in the red B. out of the blue
C. in the pink D. over the moon
32. Do you think English is a ____________ easy language to learn?
A. comparatively B. comparative C. comparable
D. comparison
33. I know this is a big disappointment but don’t take it to ____________.
A. soul B. mind
C. spirit D. heart

T
 34. I am no ____________ able to operate this machine than he is.
A. far B. more
C. much D. fewer
35. ____________the barrier at the side of the road, the car would have crashed into the
valley below.
A. But for B. Apart from
C. Except for D. Unless
C. READING
Section 1. Choose the correct answer A,B,C or D to complete the following passage.

On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds they
had experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the region and
£1.5-billion worth of damage was (36) ____________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (37) ____________ of the power of the wind.
It’s one part of the weather we generally don't give a second thought to in Britain, but it plays a vital
role in people’s lives across the world. Without the formation and circulation of winds, there would
quite (38)____________ be no climate.
Some parts of the world seem to suffer more than others from the effects of ‘ill winds’, and
links between particular winds and psychological problems (39) ____________ back centuries. The
Föhn, the hot dry wind that slides off the slopes of the Alps, is capable of boosting temperatures
quite suddenly by 10°C or more. It affects as many as one in three people in its (40) ____________,
making them feel anxious, irritable and generally ill. In California, many people (41) ____________
the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high Mojave desert. Lyall Watson, in his
book Heaven’s Breath, claims that when the Santa Ana blows, murder rates soar.
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and hurricanes,
but for the (42) ____________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air around the
planet. Plants take (43) ____________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and wide. Trees
(44) ____________ on it to remove old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders have been
caught (45) ____________ a lift at altitudes of almost 4.5 kilometers.
36. A. made B. caused
C. destroyed D. completed
37. A. reminders B.
recollections C. mementos
D. memorial
38. A. easily
B. rightly
C. surely
D. simply
39. A. last B. originate
C. pass D. date
40. A. line B. road
C. path D. bypass
41. A. despair B. respect
C. dread D. warn
42. A. most B. maximum
C. majority D. general
43. A. benefit
B

T
 C. occasion
D
44. A. need B. trust
C. hope D. rely
45. A. traveling

C. borrowing

Section 2. Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
A recent report has shown that conventional intelligence tests may not be the best way of identifying
gifted children. It seems that the tests fail to pick up specific aptitudes and (46)____________
important factors such as motivation. Another problem is that (47)____________ it is difficult to test
intelligence without relying on vocabulary knowledge, the results of the tests are inevitably
influenced by (48)____________ a child has already learned at school. The report, a review of
international research on (49) ____________ gifted child, suggests that while many child prodigies
fail to maintain their success into their adult life, both parents and teachers in England tend to pick
the wrong children. Primary teachers in England tended to label children (50) ____________ very
able on the basis of their ways of working (51)____________ than their cognitive ability. A study in
1984 showed that 40 percent of potential high achievers had been underestimated by their teachers.
Furthermore, parents and teachers were far (52) ____________ likely to see boys as gifted.
Studies in America, China and England all showed a stable ratio of two boys for (53) ____________
girl identified as highly able. The report’s author, Professor Freeman, urges schools to provide extra
activities for able pupils. Instead of just teaching gifted children in the same (54) ____________ as
other children, but more quickly, these extra activities would be aimed (55) ____________
stimulating the child’s special aptitudes and interests.

Section 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to
each of the questions.
Paper is everywhere. We use it for homework, money, checks, books, letters, wallpaper, and
greeting cards. We have paper towels, napkins, plates, cups, and tissues. We print the news every day
on newspapers. Our history and knowledge is written on paper. Without paper, our lives would be
completely different.
From the very beginning of time, people have tried to record their thoughts and lives. The
earliest humans drew pictures on cave walls. Later, people used large pieces of clay to write on.
Almost 5,000 years ago, the Egyptians wrote on pieces of plants called papyrus. Papyrus was used
throughout the ancient world of the Mediterranean for thousands of years. Eventually it was replaced
by parchment. Parchment was made from animal skins. It was stronger and lasted longer than any
other material.
The Chinese made the first real paper in the year A.D. 105. They mixed tree bark and small
pieces of old cloth with water. They used a screen to remove the thin, wet piece of paper. Then they
let the paper dry in the sun. The Chinese kept papermaking a secret until after 751. In that year, there
was a war between the Chinese and the Muslims. Many Chinese papermakers were taken away from
China to live in Muslim countries. The art of papermaking soon spread throughout the Muslim
world. Finally, by the end of the twelfth century, papermaking reached Europe. The first paper made
in Europe was in Spain in 1151.
The first important improvement on the Chinese method of papermaking was in France in
1798. A man named Nicholas Louis Robert invented a machine for making paper. His machine could

T
make paper much faster than one person could by hand. However, his machine was not very
successful. About ten years later, an Englishman improved on Robert’s machine and began
producing paper.
The most important improvement in papermaking also happened in France. A scientist
observed a wasp making its nest. The wasp chewed up pieces of wood, mixed it with the chemicals
in its mouth, and made a paper nest. The scientist realized that people could make paper from wood,
too. Finally, a machine was invented for grinding wood into pulp to use for making paper. Today, the
principal ingredient in paper is wood pulp. It is made by machine. There are also other kinds of paper
made from rice, wheat, cotton, corn, and other plants. Paper from wood pulp is the most common.
Canada and the United States are the world leaders in paper production, due in part to the quantity of
wood that is available in the forests of these two countries.
Because paper is made of wood, many people are becoming concerned that too many trees are
being chopped down every year in order to produce paper. Trees are an important part of the
environment. As a
Trang 4/6
result, many companies that produce paper are using old paper instead of new wood pulp to
make paper. This method of using old products again instead of simply throwing them away is called
recycling. Recycling paper helps reduce the number of trees that are used every year. Many people
also try to use less paper in their daily lives. They use both sides of a sheet of paper instead of just
one. They use cloth handkerchiefs instead of paper tissues. There are also special containers in many
schools and public places where people can put used paper instead of throwing it into the garbage
can. Then this paper is collected to be recycled.
Whether we use a little or a lot, paper has an important place in our lives. The books we read
and write are made of paper. Our history and scientific inventions have all been recorded on paper.
This, however, is changing. Other methods of storing information are becoming common.
Computers can store an enormous amount of information in a much smaller space. Computer faxes,
electronic mail, and the Internet are only three examples of technology that have replaced paper.
Who knows, perhaps one day people will not use paper to write at all!
56. In order to record their thoughts and lives, the earliest humans _______.
A. drew pictures on cave walls B. wrote on cave walls
C. invented a system of writing D.
found a way to make paper
57. Papyrus was _______.
A. a kind of paper made from a plant
B. made by ancient Egyptians
C. a kind of plant that ancient Egyptians wrote on
D. a special kind of clay
58. Parchment was used to write on because _______.
A. it was stronger and lasted longer than papyrus B. the
plant it was made from died out
C. it could be made into slabs of clay
D. there were a lot of animals
59. The Chinese kept papermaking a secret _______.
A. because they were afraid of the Muslims
B. so that they could keep exporting paper to the Muslim world
C. until the Muslims found out about the special tree bark
D. for more than 6 centuries
60. The Chinese secret of papermaking was discovered _______.
A. by some Muslims who went to live among the Chinese

T
 B. as a result of a war between the Chinese and the Muslims
C. by the Spanish in the 12th century
D. because the Chinese let the paper dry in the sun
61. The Chinese method of papermaking was first improved by _______.
A. a papermaking machine B. an Englishman
C. Nicholas Louis Robert D.
employing people with faster hands
62. Paper was first made from wood pulp _______.
A. in France B. by a wasp C. by a
machine D. by a scientist
63. The United States and Canada _______.
A. import most of the paper they need B. have
the largest forests in the world
C. consume most of the paper they produce
D. are the biggest producers of paper
64. Some people think that producing a lot of paper is not good because _______.
A. papermaking factories are polluting the environment
B. a lot of trees have to be chopped down for wood pulp
C. recycling old paper is expensive
D. there is not enough land to plant trees for wood pulp
65. What is the main idea of the last paragraph?
A. Paper and computers play the same role in our lives.
B. New technology helps recycle paper.
C. Paper is an important part of our life, but technology is changing
this fast.
D. Those who know how to use a computer don’t need paper at all.
D. WRITING
Section 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to
the original one.
66. I’m sorry that I didn’t finish my homework last night.
→ I wish ___________________________________________________________.
67. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
→ On ______________________________________________________________.
68. Immediately after their arrival, things went wrong.
→ No sooner ________________________________________________________.
69. Although Richard is competent in his work, he doesn’t know how to deal with
this client.
→ Competent ________________________________________________________.
70. It is fairly unlikely that he will be convicted of the offence.
→ There ____________________________________________________________.
Section 2. Complete each second sentence using the word given, so that it has a similar meaning to the
first sentence. Write between TWO and SIX words in each gap.
71. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. NOTHING
→ The North Sea is ___________________ the Mediterranean.
72. From the educational point of view, his childhood years had been well spent.
TERMS
→ In _________________________________ years had been well spent.

T
73. 73. It would be difficult for me to finish the work by the weekend. DIFFICULTY
→ I _______________________ the work by the weekend.
74. Do phone us when you arrive at the airport, even if it is late. HOW
→ No _______________ is when you arrive at the airport, do phone us.
75. It is obvious that Andrew was completely unaware of what was happening.
IDEA
→ Andrew obviously had _________________________________ on.

ĐỀ 3 KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP10

SỞ GD& ĐT NĂM HỌC 2017- 2018
HƯNG YÊN Môn: TIẾNG ANH 10
ĐỀCHÍNHTHỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút(không kểthời gian phát
đề)
Đề thi có 06 trang

SECTION I. LISTENING (4.0 points)

Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh
(bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài nghe.

Part 1: You will hear a man talking to the customer service manager at the bank and
complete the table below. Write no more than three words and/or a number for each
answer on your answer sheet. You will hear twice. First you will have some time to
look at the questions from 1 to 10. (2.0 points)
OPENING A BANK ACCOUNT
Application for a:
Current bank account

Type of current account:

The (1) “___________” account
Full name of applicant:
Pieter Henes
Date of birth:
(2) ___________
Joint account holder(s):
No
Current address:
(3) ___________Exeter
Time at current address
(4) ____________
Previous address:
Rielsdorf 2, Utrecht, Holland
Telephone:
work (5) ___________

T
 home 796431
Occupation:
(6) ___________
Identify (security):
Name of his (7) ___________: Siti
Opening sum:
(8) € ___________
to be transferred from Fransen Bank, Utrecht
Statements:
Every (9) ___________
Requests: Supply information about the bank’s (10) ___________
service

Part 2: You will hear Sarah Brown talking about her work as a television weather forecaster. Listen
to her talk and do exercise. (2.0 points)
Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. Write your answer on your answer
sheet.
1. How long has Sarah worked as a weather forecaster?
A. two years

2. What does Sarah say about her job?

A. She sometimes has to work at night. B. She enjoys getting
up early.
C. She works ten or twelve hours a day. D. She
normally stays up late to manage the department.
3. When Sarah does a weather forecast, ____________.
A. She prepares it in advance B. She sometimes
forgets her words
C. She worries about making a mistake D.
There is much time for her to prepare
4. Sarah’s husband ____________.
A. works on the same days each week B. wants to
move nearer his work
C. spends a lot of time travelling
D. is often on short-distance flights
5. Sarah is pleased because she ____________.

T
 A. has got her pilot’s licence B. took part in
a long race
C. taught her husband to play tennis
D. skis all the time
SECTION II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (5.0 points)

Part 1: Choose the best word or phrase to complete the following sentences. Write A, B, C or D on
your answer sheet. (2.0 points)
1. I'm sure it's not my fault that Peter found out what we were planning. I don't remember
________ anyone about it.
A. to tell B. being told
C. having told D. to be told
2. ________appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical
illusion.
A. What the Moon B. The Moon which
C. When the Moon D. That the Moon
3. Tim looks so frightened and upset. He ________ something terrible.
A. must experience B. can have
experienced
C. should have experienced
D. must have experienced
4. My friend has just bought ________ from a shop on Tran Phu street.
A. a digital useful alarm clock B. an alarm useful
digital clock
C. a useful alarm digital clock
D. a useful digital alarm clock
5. ________ we invested in telecommunication industry, we would be rich now.
A. Should B. Were C . Would D.
Had
6. ________ we have finished the course, we should start doing more revision work.
A. For now B. Now that C. Ever since
D. By now
7. There are two small rooms in the beach house, ________ served as a kitchen
A. the smaller of which B. the smallest of which
C. the smaller of them D.
smallest of that
8. People who are unemployed can receive the ________.
A. pension B. dole C.
scholarship D. allowance
9. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have ________ any solutions.
A. looked into B. thought over
C. got round to D. come up with
10. The car burst into ________ but the driver managed to escape.
A. fire B. burning C. heat
D. flames
11. The little boy pleaded ________ his mother not to leave him alone in the dark.
A. on B. in C.
with D. at

T
 12. It is the recommendation of many psychologists ________ to associate words and remember
names.
A. that a learner uses mental images B. that a learner use mental
images
C. that a learner must use mental images
D. mental images are used
13. Sarah delivered a/an ________ appeal to the court and asked for mercy.
A. sensational B. sentimental
C. emotional D. affectionate
14. Of course I’ll play the piano at the party but I’m a little ________.
A. out of use B. out of reach
C. out of turn D. out of practice
15. She ________ modern art. She visits all the local exhibitions.
A. looks down on B. goes in for
C. fixes up with D. catches up with
16. Unfortunately, I might have to leave for Boston ________.
A. for short notice B. under short notice
C. at short notice D. to short notice
17.Many habitats change ________ the types of plants and animals that live there.
A. with respect to B. in respect for
C. as for D. as against
18. My old riding boots served me well for eleven years before they finally ________.
A. wore off B. broke down
C. wore out D. broke up
19. ________, the catfish is prized for its state.
A. With ugly look B. As looking ugly
C. As it is looking ugly D. Ugly looking as it is
20. He has been unable to find a job ________ with his ability as an accountant.
A. appropriate B. suitable
C. requisite D. commensurate
Part 2: Supply the appropriate form of the words in CAPITAL to complete the sentences.
Write them on your answer sheet. (2.0 points)

1. After hours of going from one hotel to another, we ________ found one which was not fully
booked. (EVENT)
2. Librarians spend a lot of their time _________ books. (CLASS)
3. Ants and bees are described as _________insects. (INDUSTRY)
4. The lovers stood, hand in hand, gazing at the _________sky. (STAR)
5. The soil has been _________ by erosion. (POVERTY)
6. The bookcase was placed _________ near the door to hide a huge crack in the
wall. (STRATEGY)
7. I don’t like to be visited or phoned too much at home. I like my _______. (PRIVATE)
8. Nobody wanted to _______ the obnoxious boy, so he was always alone. (FRIEND)
9. I think it’s sheer _______ to get married in church if you don’t believe in God.
(HYPOCRITE)
10. The English term café, borrowed from French, is ultimately a _________ of the Turkish
kahve, meaning coffee. (DERIVE)

T
 Part 3: Choose the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction. Write
them on your answer sheet. (1.0 point)
1. Families who are enough fortunate to own a historic home may be able to get restoration funds from
the government. A B C D
2. The most Americans were killed in World War II than in any other war since the birth of the
nation
A B C D
3. Sandra has not rarely missed a play or concert since she was seventeen years old.
A B C D
4. Many people are afraid that in the future there will be no space leaving for human beings and
they express
A B C
the idea of robots replacing human beings.
D
5. Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have
been
A B C
forced to alter their eating habits.
D
6. A turtle differs from other reptiles in that its body is encased in a protective shell of their own.
A B C D
7. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a
successful cure.
A B C D
8. The Vermont Elementary Science Project, according to its founders, are designed to
challenge some
A B
of the most widely held beliefs about teaching.
C D
9. All of the students in this course will be assessed according to their attendance, performance,
and they
A B C
D
work hard.
10. All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally heated regarding of their age, sex or
nationality.
A B C D
SECTION III. READING (6.0 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Write them
on your answer sheet. (1.0 point)
Save money on the book that aims to save animals
Have you ever raised such a question “Do you want to take part in the battle to save the world’s
wildlife?” Animal Watch is a book which will (1) _______ you in the fight for survival that faces many
of our endangered animals and show how they struggle on the (2) _______ of extinction.
As you enjoy the book’s 250 pages and over 150 color photographs, you will have the (3)
_______ of knowing that part of your purchase money is being used to help animals (4) _______.
From the comfort of your armchair, you will be able to observe the world’s animals close-up and

T
explore their habitats. You will also discover the terrible results of human (5) _______ for land, flesh
and skins.
Animal Watch is packed with fascinating facts. Did you know that polar bears cover their black
noses with their (6) _______ so they can hunt their prey in the snow without being seen, for example?
Or that (7) _______ each orange-utan which is captured, one has to die?
This superb publication has (8) _______ impressed Britain’s leading wildlife charity that it has
been chosen as Book of the Year, a title awarded to books which are considered to have made a major
contribution to wildlife conservation. You will find Animal Watch at a special low (9)_______ price at
all good bookshops, but hurry while (10) _______ last.
1. A. combine B. involve C. bring
D. lead
2. A. edge B. start C. limit
D. end
3. A. value B. enjoyment C. virtue
D. satisfaction
4. A. survive B. raise C. observe
D. explore
5. A. interest B. greed C. care
D. concern
6. A. feet B. claws C. paws
D. toes
7. A. for B. by C. with
D. from
8. A. too B. enough C. so
D. such
9. A. beginning B. preparatory C. original
D. introductory
10. A. stores B. stocks C. goods
D. fund
Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Write them on
your answer sheet. (2.0 points)
What I love about my job is the variety. I get enquiries from people all over the world asking
me how they should go about setting up their own website. I’ve been asked about so many subjects -
anything from someone wanting to teach people how to throw boomerangs to another people selling
paper flowers which they make at home in their spare time.
Obviously with all the thousands of websites available at the click of a button, you want to
create an impression with your website so that it becomes a must-see destination. Not everyone is
prepared, however, for the way in which a website can become so popular that it actually has to be
closed down.
When people first set up their websites they probably pay their web advertiser a monthly fee
based on the number of hits or page impressions their site receives. If they can pay their monthly fee
without it costing them too much, that is the best that most people hope for. One guy, Pete Bennett,
whom I helped, wanted to set up a one-stop shop to provide decent images of the world’s flags. He’d
been fascinated by flags since his boyhood and had no idea that thousands of other people share his
passion. Anyway, in one month his web page had over 1.5 million hits. As a result his internet provider
trebled the fee that he was being charged. He wasn’t a rich person and he couldn’t afford to spend that
amount of money on a hobby without any benefit to him, so he decided to carry advertising on his site.
He found a company which specializes in smaller sites and adverts were added to the pages on his

T
 website. So, although he doesn’t make a huge profit, at least his hobby provides him with a small
income.
If you have specialist skills or expertise, it can pay you to sell the products that people want. I
helped one woman design a page to advertise the fact that she tells fortunes, based on the information
that her clients supply her with. If you want her to tell your fortune, you fill in a questionnaire online -
your age, date of birth, hobbies, interests and so on and for a small fee she e-mails you back your
fortune. You can print it out and it looks really good, decorated with moons and stars, your zodiac sign
and your

birthstone. I tried it myself and although I’m not sure I believe it, my future according to her is positive
and exciting. I also found out that for someone born in August, like me, the birthstone is a period, a
pale green stone which I’d never even heard of!
I also get a fair number of complaints from people e-mailing me to say that they can’t access
the website. When they click on the site a message appears on their screen saying ‘An error has
occurred in the script on this page’. This usually happens when someone has tried to achieve fancy
effects on their website by using programming techniques based on a scripting language. This means
that unless they really know what they are doing, whoever designed the site has probably made a
mistake in their programming. This is where people like me come in. Most computer instruction guides
make things appear quite straightforward, but unless you’re very skilled, you’re likely to run into
problems. It’s generally worth getting a professional to help you set up your site in the first place -
otherwise people like me would be out of work. And let’s face it, this is big business.
1. What does Paul Howells enjoy most about his job?
A. Dealing with different people. B. The range of
topics.
C. His worldwide contacts.
D. Teaching design skills.
2. What does Paul mean by ‘a must-see destination’ in paragraph 2?
A. A website that can no longer be seen. B. A website that
does not make a charge.
C. A website that everyone wants to visit.
D. A website that has been well prepared.
3. Why did Pete Bennett set up a website on flags?
A. He knew lots of people shared his interest. B. A web
advertiser wanted to sell flags.
C. He hoped to make a lot of money.
D. He’d been interested in flags for years.
4. What word can best replace the word “hits” in paragraph 3?
A. bad effects B. beats
C. attacks D. visits
5. Why did Pete Bennett accept advertising on his website?
A. To attract more hits.

T
6. Who are the “clients” in paragraph 4 referred to?
A. Interested people B. Web page designers C . Internet
providers D. Product advertisers
7. Why do error messages sometimes appear?
A. People make a mistake in their e-mail address. B. People try to put too much on the
web page.
C. People have used a program incorrectly.
D. People have clicked on the wrong button.
8. What comment does Paul make about setting up a website?
A. It is usually fairly easy to do. B. You must use a
good instruction guide.
C. It can be quite complicated. D.
You should rely on your own skills.
9. What word can best replace the word “script” in paragraph 5?
A. instruction B. picture
C. handwriting D. play
10. What does Paul’s final sentence suggest about his work?
A. There’s a lot of money to be made in designing websites.
B. There are far too many websites on the internet.
C. There’s a big chance of becoming unemployed.
D. There are more web page designers than necessary.
Part 3: The following passage includes six paragraphs (A-F) and there are five pieces of
information. Read and find the information from 1 to 5 in the suitable paragraph. Write the answers
on your answer sheet; example: 0 - G (1.0 point)
1. Two "jobs" that women essentially do
2. Question about dating
3. The first year, when women are more likely to have bachelor's a
degree
4. The source of conformation to domestic lifestyle
5. Pros of extended paternity
(A) There’s no denying that women around the world have made great strides toward equality in the
past century. One hundred years ago, women in the United States still didn’t have the right to vote, and
very few were allowed to pursue higher education or a meaningful career outside of their household
duties. Trang 5/7
Fast forward to today, and more than 70 percent of women between the ages of 20 and 54 are active
members of the national workforce. On top of this, 2015 marked the first year when women were, on
average, more likely to have a bachelor’s degree than men, and this trend is on the rise.
(B) But despite all this newfound opportunity, the prevailing societal attitudes about what women are
historically supposed to value still have a long way to go. That’s why we’ve partnered with SK-II to
learn more about all of the ways women are still pressured to stick to outdated gender norms. “Women
have won unprecedented rights thanks to the feminist movement, but as a society, we still expect
women to prioritize family over career, or even over their own needs,” says Silvia Dutchevici,
president and founder of the Critical Therapy Center in New York City. Dutchevici says many women
feel pressure to “have it all,” meaning both a thriving career and the perfect family, but that can be
very difficult to achieve.

T
(C) “Most women try to balance work and family,” Dutchevici says, “but that balance is seldom
equal.” In fact, she says working mothers ― even those with partners ― often find themselves
essentially working two full-time jobs: keeping their career together while doing the brunt of
housework, cooking and child-rearing. This happens for a variety of reasons, but societal expectations
about the roles of women and men at home are still very much to blame, says Tamra Lashchyk, a Wall
Street executive, business coach and author of the book “Lose the Gum: A Survival Guide to Women
on Wall Street.”
(D) “No matter how successful she is, the burden of running a household still falls on the woman’s
shoulders,” Lashchyk says. “Men get more of a pass when it comes to these duties, especially those that
involve children.” Lashchyk says much of this pressure on women to conform to a more domestic
lifestyle comes from friends and family.
(E) “In many people’s minds, a woman’s career success pales in comparison to having a family,” she
says. “Especially if the woman is single, no matter how great her professional achievements, almost
every single one of her conversations with her family will include questions about her romantic life or
lack thereof. I could literally tell my family I’d cured cancer and the conversation would still end with,
‘But are you dating anyone?’” While covert societal expectations might contribute to some of this
inequality, workplace policies on maternity and paternity leave can hold a lot of the blame.
(F) “Unfortunately, many workplace policies regarding taking time off to care for family do not the
changing times,” Dutchevici says. “Both men and women suffer in their careers when they prioritize
family, but women carry far harsher punishments. Their choice to take time off and start a family can
result in lower pay, and fewer promotions in the future. The right to family leave is not a woman’s
issue, it is a society’s issue, a family’s issue.” Lashchyk agrees with this sentiment. “There should be
more flexibility and benefits [in the workplace], like longer periods of time for paternity leave……If
paternity leave was extended, men could share a greater responsibility in child care, and they could
Part 4: Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage
below. Write it on your answer sheet. (2.0 points)
When an animal species is (1) _______ endangered, it means that the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has evaluated it as nearly (2) _______, which means that a significant
portion of its range has already died (3) _______ and the rate of birth is lower than the species' death
rate.
Today, more and more animal and plant species are on the verge of extinction because of a (4)
_______ of major factors that cause a species to become endangered, and as you might expect, humans
play a role in quite a few of them - in fact, the biggest threat to endangered animals is human
encroachment on their habitats. By analyzing and grouping many individual cases, (5) _______, we
find the same broad causes appearing again and again. They are habitat destruction, exotic species, and
overexploitation. Among other (6) _______ threatening particular species are limited: distribution,
disease, and pollution. Limited distributions are often a (7) _______ of other threats: populations
confined to one or a few small areas because of habitat loss, for example, may be disastrously affected
by random factors.
Diseases can have severe (8) _______ on species lacking natural genetic protections against
particular pathogens, like the rabies and canine distemper viruses that are currently devastating
carnivore populations in East Africa. Domestic (9) _______ are usually the reservoirs of these and
other diseases affecting wild populations, showing once again that human activities lie at the root of
most causes of
endangerment. Pollution has seriously done harm (10) _______ number of terrestrial species, although
species living in freshwater and marine ecosystems are also suffering.
SECTION IV. WRITING (5.0 points)

T
 Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (1.5 point)
1. She can’t have any more children because of her age.
-> She is too ________________________________________________.
2. I will marry her and I do not care how old she is.
-> No matter _________________________________________________.
3. The storm completely wiped out all my crops.
-> I had_____________________________________________________.
4. "I am sorry I was rude to you yesterday" said the boss to me.
-> The boss _________________________________________________.
5. He said he had won as a result of good luck.
-> He attributed ______________________________________________.
6. The truth only came out on the publication of the general’s personal diaries.
-> Only when ________________________________________________.
7. Their chances of success are small
-> It is not___________________________________________________.
8. I rarely sleep in the afternoon.
-> I’m not in_________________________________________________.
9. There is nobody in this office that will offer a different opinion to the one I gave
you.
🡪 Whoever _________________________________________________.
10. That the press heaped scorn on the handling of the crisis is immaterial to us.
-> Of_______________________________________________________.
Part 2: Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the original sentence. Use the word given and other words as necessary. Do not
change the form of the given word. Write the answers on your answer sheet (1.0 point)
1. They continued to suggest that I was lying. (PERSISTED)
_________________________________________________________.

2. This is the first time I have seen her in my life. (SET)

_________________________________________________________.
3. His irresponsible attitude is endangering his career as a doctor. (JEOPARDY)
_________________________________________________________.
4. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. (RED-HANDED)
_________________________________________________________.
5. Some people say that Tsiolkovsky invented the space rocket (CREDITED)
_________________________________________________________.
Part 3: Some parents think that they can take advantage of modern technology to educate their
children at home. Others argue that the learning process can only be facilitated with the appearance
of teachers. Which opinion are you in favor of? Why? You should write at least 250 words. (2.5
points)

____________THE END____________
ĐỀ 4

T
 SECTION I: LISTENING (40 points) (You will hear twice for each
part)
Part 1. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about a new sport
center. For each question, fill in the missing information in the number of spaces.
(10 points)
(Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording
for each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes).
New Sports Centre
It opens on (1) _______________.
The party will be on (2) _______________.
It is opposite (3) _______________.
The car park entrance is in (4) _______________.
It costs (5) _______________ per week to be a member.
You can pay for a (6) _______________ year to save money.
You need to wear (7) _______________ and suitable clothes
A (8) _______________ is provided.
(9) _______________ are given at 5.30 each day.
Check on the (10) _______________ to get more information.

Part 2.Listen to the conversation between a caller and receptionist

and choose the correct answer by circling A, B, C or D. (10 points)
1. Which was NOT mentioned as part of the purpose of the English Language
Center?
A. to help international students prepare to enter institutions of higher
learning
B. to teach students how to use English at work
C. to provide work opportunities for graduating
students in the community
D. to help students use English in their daily life.
2. What is one course taught at the English Language Center?
A. business English B. US Culture
C. TOEFL D. IELTS
3. If the Fall semester begins on August 29th, by what date should one apply to
theprogram?
A. May 29th B. June 29th
C. July 29th D. April 29th
4. What is the tuition for a full-time student?

T
 A. $2013 B. $2300
C. $2030 D. $2033
5. Which one was NOT mentioned as part of the application packet a student must send to the
center?
A. sponsorship form
B. bank statement
C. application fee
D. high school transcripts
Part 3. Listen to the record and decide if the following sentences are true (T)
or false (F). (10 points)
1. The man and woman are close friends.
2. Andrew found out about his new diet through unwanted mail.
3. The cost of the Wafu Diet is $419.
4. From the conversation, we can infer that Andrew hasn’t gone running
yet.
5. The woman advised the man to eat a little late at night.
Part 4: You are going to hear a lecture about the Indian railway. First, you have some time to look a
questions from 1 to 10. Now listen carefully and answer the questions from 1 to 10. (10 points)
Questions 1 – 5: Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer

1. Indian Railways is owned and by the government of India.

2. There are more than million people working for Indian Railways
3. The of the railways from 1857 occurred under Robert Maitland
Brereton.
4. The joining of the East Indian Railway with the Great Indian Peninsula Railway led to a

network of kilometres.
5. The route from Bombay to Calcutta, opened in 1870, was an for the book Around th
World in 80 days.
Questions 6-10: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS for each answer
Period Situation

The network radiated inward

1875 -1899
from (6) , Madras, and Calcutta

T
 1900- It was not long before various independent
1906 kingdoms had their own (7) .

When the war finished the railways were

1907
suffering from (8)
- 1919
and

1920 Between 1920 and 1929, the railways had

- 1938 a (9) of around £687 million

1939 The rolling stock that was moved to the Middle

- 1946
East included locomotives and (10)
SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60 pts)
Part 1:Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions. (2pts/ea)
1. The couple decided to ________some money every month for their retirement.
A. put off B. put
aside C. take
on
D. take against
2. In geometry, a tangent is a straight line ________a curve at only one point.
A. it touches B.
whose touching C. its
touching
D. that touches
3. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play ________on him.
A. games B.
jokes C.
tricks
D. fun
4. Most folk songs are ballads ________have simple words and tell simple
stories.

T
 A. what B.
although C. who

D. that
5. Well- ___________child often behaves quite differently from one who did
not get good schooling.
A. education B.
educated C.
educate
D. educating
6. When my grandfather was alive, he ________ morning exercises.
A. used to do B. use
to do C. used
to doing
D. wasn't used to do
7. There is no __________ explanation for what happened.
A. scientifically B.
scientist C.
science
D. scientific
8. A: “Do you know how old I am?” - B: “_______ .”
A. Happy birthday B. I
couldn’t help it C.
Don’t mention it D. I
haven’t a clue
9. By the end of this month I _______ at this school for two years.
A. have been studying
B. will study
C. will have been studying
D. will be
studying
10. I could not _____ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. make off B. take
in C. get
along
D. hold on
11. There are __________ as many houses in this area as there used to be.

T
 A.double B. twice C. D. a lot
much
12. Susan: “Do you want to watch this or the news?”
Kate: “Oh, ___________ . It’s up to you.”
A. I agree B. I
couldn’t agree more C.
Don’t mention it
D. I am easy
13. John wasn’t at school last week. He ________.
A. must have been ill B. must be ill
C. must have ill D.
must to be ill
14 Please don’t _______ a word of this to anyone else, it’s highly confidential.
A. speak B. breathe
C. mutter
D. pass
15. The more important an exam is, …………..
A. the more you’ll get nervous
B. the more nervous will you get
C. the most nervous you’ll be
D. the more nervous you’ll get
16. There is ________in my bedroom.
A. an old wooden square table
B. a square wooden old table
C. a
wooden old square table D. an
old square wooden table
17. When Bill saw my new car, he was ………… with envy.
A. blue B.
green C.
yellow
D. white
18 When I came in, the lesson ..................
A. was teaching B. was
taught C. was
being taught
D. taught
19. I ………… very well with my father now, we never have any arguments.
A. go on B.
carry on C. get
on
D. put on
20. ________an emergency arise, call 113.

T
 A. Should B. Can
C. Does
D. Will
Part 2: Questions from 1 to 10. (2 points/ each)
Use the correct form of the word in brackets to complete the following
sentences.
1. She was ____________gifted: as a writer and as a painter.

(doubt)
2. The illiteracy rate on the island is still _____________high.

(accept)
3. She found that it was difficult to handle children who__________in class.

(behave)
4. A certain degree of stress seems to be ___________in modern life.

(avoid)
5. We had the phone ______because we are moving tomorrow.

(connect)
6. Film directors usually ask actors to _________the scene in their mind.

(visual)
7. The Internet is probably one of the best __________ever.

(invent)
8. Despite his __________ with that type of vehicle, he had an accident
because a cat made him crash into a tree.

(familiar)
9. His latest __________ is a book of verse on the theme of relationships.

(publish)
10. Even if you’re good at a game, you shouldn’t be __________.
(confidence)

SECTION III. READING (60 pts)

T
Part 1: Read the text below and think of the word that best fits each gap. Use
only ONE word in each gap. (2pts/ea)
The British are widely (1) _____ to be a very polite nation, and in (2)______ respects this is
true. An Italian journalist once commented of the British that they need (3) _____ fewer than
four ―thank you‖ merely to buy a bus ticket. The first, from the bus conductor means, ―I‘m
here.‖ The second accompanies the handing over of the money. The third, again from the
conductor, (4) ____ ―Here is your ticket.‖, and then the passenger utters a final one as he
accepts the tickets. Such transactions in most (5) ____ parts of the world are usually conducted
in total silence. In sharp contrast to this excessive politeness with strangers, the British are
strangely lacking (6) _____ ritual phrases for social interaction. The exhortation ―Good
appetite‖, uttered in so (7) ______ other languages to fellow-diners before a meal, does not exist
in English. The nearest equivalent – Enjoy your dinner! – is said only by people who will not be
partaking of the meal in question. What‘s more, the British (8) ____ happiness to their friends
or acquaintances only at the start of a new year and at (9)_____ such as birthdays, (10) _____
the Greeks routinely wish all and sundry a ―good week‖ or a ―good month‖.
Your answers:
1 2 3 4 5
. . . . .
6 7 8 9 1
. . . . 0
.
Part 2: Read the text and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each
question (2 points/ ea)
Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the long-term
research of the great conservationist Jane Goodall. Jane Goodall was born in London, England,
on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday, her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee.
Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course
Jane’s life would take. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By
the age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time,
in the early 1940S, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.
As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school,
and then worked for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to
visit Kenya, she worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She
was 23 years old. Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and
anthropologist. He was impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and
hired her to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey
soon realized that Jane was the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some
time. She expressed her interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them,
rather than studying dead animals through paleontology.
Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who
were living on the shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would
not approve their plan. At the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the
wilds of Africa alone. But Jane’s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be
alone. Finally, the authorities gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and
begin her study.

T
 1. What is the main source of information about chimpanzees?
A. the research of Jane Goodall
B. the research of some conservationists
C Jane Goodall’s father D. recentre search
2. What does the name of the toy chimpanzée refer to?
A. Jane’s father B. her favorite toy C. a baby
animal D. her close friend
3. Which of the following is NOT true about Jane?
A. Jane was born in London.
B. She was interested in animals from her early age.
C. At the age of 10, she went to Africa to live with animals.
D. She wanted to live among animals.
4. What does “there” in Line 9 refer to?
A. Kenya B. Jane’s hometown
C. London D. London Zoo
5. Jane could not go to Africa because
A. it was thought to be dangerous for women
B. it was far away
C. no one wanted to go with her
D. Africa did not exist at that time
6. After her graduation, Jane_____________
A. was unemployed
B. did not want to work
C. worked for a zoo
D. worked for a filmmaker
7. Jane had to work as a waitress because she wanted to
A. have more experience
B. have money to buy the fare to Kenya
C. help her parents
D. meet more people
8. Dr. Louis Leakey hired her because
A. she was beautiful
B. she was homeless
C. she knew a lot about Africa and its wildlife
D. he was impressed by her beauty
9. What does “they” in line 15 refer to?
A. Dr. Leakey and his wife
B. the British authorities
C. animals
D. Jane and her mother
10. Which of the following can be the title for the reading?
A. Jubilee
B. Jane’s love for toy chimpanzees
C. Jane’s love for studying animals
D. Jane’s favorite animals

T
 Part 3: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best
fits each space. ((1 point/ ea)
Clean freshwater resources are essential for drinking, bathing,
cooking, irrigation, industry, and for plant and animal (1) _____. Unfortunately,
the global supply of freshwater is (2) _____ unevenly. Chronic water shortages
(3) _____ in most of Africa and drought is common over much of the globe. The
(4) _____ of most freshwater supplies - groundwater (water located below the
soil surface), reservoirs, and rivers - are under severe and (5) _____
environmental stress because of overuse, water pollution, and ecosystem
degradation. Over 95 percent of urban sewage in (6) _____ countries is (7) _____
untreated into surface waters such as rivers and harbors.
About 65 percent of the global freshwater supply is used in (8) _____ and 25
percent is used in industry. Freshwater (9) _____ therefore requires a reduction in
wasteful practices like (10) _____ irrigation, reforms in agriculture and industry,
and strict pollution controls worldwide.
1. A. survive
B. survived
C. surviving
D. survival
2. A. delivered
B. distributed
C. provided
D. given
3. A. exist
B. lie
C. show
D. stay
4. A. resources
B. springs
C. sources
D. starting
5. A. increasing
B. growing
C. climbing
D. ascending
6. A. growing
B. miserable
C. poverty
D. developing
7. A. recharged
B. discharged
C. charged
D. discharging
8. A. farming
B. planting

T
 C. agriculture
D. growing
9. A. reservation
B. conservation
C. preservation
D. retention
10. A. ineffective
B. illogical
C. irrational
D. inefficient
Part 4: Read the passage below and choose the best answer for each
question. (2 points/ ea)
WARNING ON GLOBAL WARMING
Global warming could cause drought and possibly famine in China
the source of much of Hong Kong's food, by 2050, a new report predicts. Hong
Kong could also be at risk from flooding as sea levels rose The report
recommends building sea-walls around low-lying areas such as the new port and
airport reclamations. Published by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), the
report, which includes work by members of the Chinese Academy of
Meteorological Sciences, uses the most recent projections on climate change to
point to a gloomy outlook for China.
By 2050 about 30 to 40 per cent of the country will experience
changes in the type of vegetation it supports, (1_with tropical and sub-tropical
forest conditions shifting northward and hot desert conditions rising in the west
where currently the desert is temperate. Crop-growing areas will expand but any
benefit is expected to be negated by increased evaporation of moisture), making
it too dry to grow crops such as rice. The growing season also is expected to
alter, becoming shorter in southern and central China, the mainland's
breadbasket. The rapid changes make it unlikely that plants could adapt.
"China will produce smaller crops. In the central and northern areas,
and the southern part, there will be decreased production because of water
limitations," Dr. Rik Leemans, one of the authors of the report, said during a
brief visit to the territory yesterday. Famine could result because of the demands
of feeding the population - particularly if it grows - and the diminished
productivity of the land. "It looks very difficult for the world as a whole," he
said.
Global warming is caused by the burning of large amounts of fossil
fuels, such as coal and oil, which release gases that trap heat in the atmosphere.
World temperatures already have increased this century by about 0.6 degrees
Celsius and are projected to rise by between 1.6 degrees and 3.8 degrees by 2100.
Dr. Leemans said China's reliance on coal-fired power for its indus-
trial growth did not bode well for the world climate. "I think the political and
economic powers in China are much greater than the environ-mental powers, and
[greenhouse gas emissions] could accelerate," Dr-Leemans said. "China is not

T
taking the problem seriously yet, although it is trying to incorporate this kind of
research to see what is going to happen."
The climate change report, which will be released tomorrow, focused
on China but Mr David Melville of WWF-Hong Kong said some of the
depressing scenarios could apply to the territory. Food supplies, for instance,
could be affected by lower crop yields. "Maybe we could afford to import food
from elsewhere but you have to keep in mind that the type of changes
experienced in southern China will take place elsewhere as well," he said. Sea
levels could rise as glaciers melted and the higher temperatures expanded the size
of the oceans, threatening much of developed Hong Kong which is built on
reclaimed land. Current projections are that sea levels worldwide will rise by 15
to 90 centimetres by 2100, depending on whether action is taken to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions.
"Hong Kong has substantial areas built on reclaimed land and sea
level rises could impact on that, not only on Chek Lap Kok but the West
Kowloon Reclamation and the Central and Western Reclamation – the whole
lot," Mr Melville said, adding that sea-walls would be needed. depleted fresh
water supplies would be another problem because increased evaporation would
reduce levels. Mr Melville said the general outlook could be helped if Hong
Kong used water less wastefully and encouraged energy efficiency to reduce
fuel-burning. He also called on the West to help China improve its efficiency.
1. What is this passage?
A. a report
B. a preview of a report

C. an article describing a response to a report

D. an article previewing a report
2. Why does the writer add the information in square brackets in
paragraph 5?
A. because the quote is from a second language user whose com mand of
English is not perfect.

B. because, although they are not part of the original quote, the additional
information given is necessary to understand the
statement.

C. because the writer is quoting from another source.

D. because the writer wants to emphasize the meaning of these words.

3. In paragraph 7, which point is Mr Melville NOT making?
A. suggesting that there is a potential disaster in Hong
Kong

B. suggesting that reclamation areas are at risk

C. criticising current safeguards

T
 D.
making a call for action
4. How would you describe the Dr. Leeman's attitude towards China?
A. mainly favourable
B. critical
C. supportive in theory D.
admiring
5. In paragraph 2 "negated" is closest in meaning to________.
A. made ineffective
B. made possible
C. reduced
D. paid for
SECTION IV. WRITING (40 pts)
Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to
the first one. (2pts/ea)
1. It was wrong of you to be rude to Judy last night.
 I’d rather
……………………………………………………………………………………
…..
2. It is not necessary for you to do the test.
 You.....................................................................................................................……..
3. She prefers reading a book to watching TV.
She would............................................................................................................……..
4. People must wear face masks when going out during the Covid-19
pandemic.
People are.............................................................................................................……..
5. He was unable to paint the gate of his house because of the heavy rain.
The heavy rain made.......................................................................................................…….
6. She never seems to succeed, even though she works hard.
 However
……………………………………………………………………………………
…..
7.The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star
attended.

T
  Had it not
……………………………………………………………………………………
….
8. DespiteJack’sstrangeclothes,everybodyignoredhim.

Nobodytook………………………………………………………………………
……………..
9. They tried hard so that they would pass the exam.
With ....................................................................................................................………
10.The Pacific Ocean is averagely deeper than the Atlantic.
The average _.......................................................................................................………
Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to
the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given.
(2pts/ea)
1. We feel uncomfortable in this weather. (fish)
We feel
…………………………………………………………………………in this
weather.
2. The staff in that office all have great respect for their boss. (look)
 The staff in that office ………………………………..
………………………… their boss.
3 She found the photographs when she was cleaning her room.(came)
She …………………………….………………………..…. when she
was cleaning her room.
4. Tim looks nothing like his father at all. (take)
 Tim
………………………………………………………………………. his father at
all.
5. Despite knowing this place very well, I got lost. (though)

T
  I got lost ……………………………………………….
……………………….. very well.
Part 3:Writing (10 pts)
Some students prefer learning online instead of going to school. Other
students think online learning is not really effective. In about 250 words,
write an essay to express your opinion, using specific reasons and examples
to support your opinion. (You may continue your writing on the back page if
you need more space.)

ĐỀ 5
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT KÌ THI HSG TỈNH 10
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
I. LISTENING
PART 1: Questions 1 – 11
Questions 1 – 5
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer.

STUDENT EMPLOYMENT BUREAU

STUDENT REGISTRATION FORM

Facult ScienceEXAMPLE
y: Charlotte
Given (1)…………………….
name:
(2)
Surna …………………….Hearthfield
me: St, Maryland
Addre
ss:
N/A
Telep
hone (3)…………………….
numbers: (4)…………………….
H (5)…………………….
ome:

T
 M
obile:
Numb
er of hours
preferred:
Empl
oyment
experience:

Questions 6 – 8
Circle the correct letter A – C
6. What time should Annetta finish work in the hamburger shop?
A. 7.00 pm B. 3.00 am
C. 11.00 pm
7. What is the problem with Annetta’s pay at the hamburger shop?
A. the pay is too much B. the pay is late C. the pay isn’t
correct
8. How many children will Annetta have to look after?
A. two boys and a girl B. two boys and two girls C. two girls and a
boy

T
 Questions 9 – 11
Label the map, choosing your answers from the list below. Write the
correct letters A – E on the map.

PART 2: Questions 12 – 20
For each question, there are three pictures and one short recording.
Choose the correct picture and put a tick (√) in the box below it.
Example: How did the woman get to work?

T
12. What regular exercise does David do at the moment?

13. What should Suzie take to Emma’s house?

14. Which kind of T-shirt did the boy choose?

15. What frightened the man?

T
16. Where is the woman calling from?

17. How did the woman spend her last holiday?

18. Where is the girl’s purse?

T
 19. What is the man’s job now?

20. Which calendar will the boy buy?

II. PRONUNCATION
Circle the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest.
1. A. dolphin B. honest C. lost
D. occasion
2. A. works B.
stays C. discovers
D. bans
3. A. photograph B.
phobia C. Stephen
D. Philippines
4. A. missing B.
scissors C.
messenger
D. massage
5. A. established B.
recognized C.

T
orphaned
D. endangered
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1: Choose the most suitable option to fill in the blank.
1. When was Cuc Phuong forest_________Cuc Phuong National Park?
A. built B.
named C. born

D. developed
2. Unfortunately, about 5000 species of plants and animals are already being
________ each year.
A. eliminated B.
developed C.
visited
D. found
3. Without plants, water would run off and take away________ soil.
A. poisonous B. bad
C.
forest
D. valuable
4. __________ of our poor condition, we tried to cure the injured dolphin.
A. Despite B.
Because C. In
spite
D. Although
5. Look at that girl swimming ___________ the sea.
A. on B.
under C.
across
D. in
6. -A: ______________________. -B:I'd be glad to.
A. Would you like to drive me to class today? My car doesn’t start.
B. Would you please drive me to
class today? My car doesn’t start.

T
 C. Why don't you drive me to class
today? My car doesn’t start.
D. What about driving me to class
today? My car doesn't start.
7. __________is a chemical used for killing weeds.
A. Pesticide B. Herbicide
C. Fertilizer D. Antibiotic
8. We all enjoyed the waters of Timor Sea and the coral reefs that lie __________.
A. under B. behind
C. beneath
D. beside
9. Sperm whales are __________, which means they eat meat.
A. herbivores B. carnivores
C. omnivores
D. mammals
10. You are _________ to clean the bathroom.
A. declared B.
imagined C.
supposed
D. spoken
11. There’s a _________ look on his face. I’m _________ of him indeed.
A. frightening/scared
B. frightening/scaring
C. frightened/
scaring
D. frightened/scared
12. _________ Vietnamese are patriotic. Many were _________ heroes in the wars
against foreign invaders.
A. x/x B.
The/the C.
x/the
D. The/x
13. “What would you like for your birthday?” – “________ will do.”

T
 A. Anything B.
None C.
Something
D. Somebody
14. We have run out of water. – Really? Give me the bucket and I _______ some.
A. will fetch B. am
going to fetch C. can
fetch
D. am fetching
15. The band has gone on tour to ________ their new album.
A. increase B.
strengthen C.
promote
D. spread
16. I have a monthly bank _________ sent to me, so that I know how much there is
in my account.
A. balance B.
overdraft C.
statement
D. cheque
17. The marshes provide a rich ___________ for water plants.
A. habitant B.
inhabitant C.
habitat
D. habitation
18. It upset him that nobody had __________ to tell him about it.
A. bothered B. even
C. minded
D. cared for
19. Many children are being taught in __________ classes.
A. oversize B.
oversized C. size
over
D. sized over

T
20. The temperature has ________ by five degrees.
A. rose B.
raised C.
arose
D. risen
Exercise 2:Choose the words or phrases that are not correct in Standard
English and CORRECT them.
1. Because( A) the expense of (B) traditional fuels, many countries(C) have been investigating
alternative (D) sources of power.
2. Sharks (A) can detect minute (B) electrical discharges (C) come from
(D) their prey.
3. The (A) oceans contain many (B) forms of life that (C) has not (D) yet
been discovered.
4. (A) The song to (B) that we (C) listened last night (D) was beautiful.
5. (A) Not only my teacher (B) but also my close friend (C) are(D) here.
Exercise 3: Read the passage below and put the words in capitals into
the correct forms to complete the passage.
The FIFA World Cup, often
(1)_________ the World Cup, is an SIMPLE
international association football competition
(2)_________by the senior men's national CONTESTANT
teams of the members of Fédération
Internationale de Football Association (FIFA),
the sport's global (3)_________body. The
championship has been awarded every four GOVERNMENT
years since the inaugural tournament in 1930,
except in 1942 and 1946 when it was not held
because of the Second World War. The current
champions are Spain, who won the 2010
tournament inSouth Africa.
The current format of the tournament
involves 32 teams (4)_________for the title at COMPETITION
venues within the host nation(s) over a period
of about a month; this phase is often called
the World Cup Finals. A (5)_________ phase, DISQUALIFY

T
 which currently takes place over the preceding
three years, is used to determine which teams
qualify for the tournament together with the
host nation(s).
The 19 World Cup tournaments have
been won by eight different
(6)_________teams. Brazil have won five
NATION
times, and they are the only team to have
played in every tournament. The other World
Cup (7)_________ are Italy, with four
WIN
titles; West Germany, with three
titles; Argentina and inaugural
winners Uruguay, with two titles each; and
England, France, and Spain, with one title each.
The World Cup is among the world's
most (8)_________ viewed sporting events; an
(9)_________ 715.1 million people watched WIDTH
the final match of the 2006 FIFA World ESTIMATE
Cup held inGermany.
The next three World Cups will be
(10)_________ HOST
by Brazil in 2014, Russia in 2018,
and Qatar in 2022.
Exercise 4: Choose the option that has the same meaning as the
underlined word/phrase above.
1. Try to eliminate fatty foods from your diet.
A. limit B. prevent
C. get rid of
D. add
2. The cattle drank from a river polluted with toxic chemicals.
A. waste B.
colorless C.
odorless D.
poisonous
3. Whales feed on krill.

T
 A. tiny shellfish B. small
animals C. sea
plants D. small
fish
4. Sperm whale populations are at risk due to hunting.
A. in extinction B. in
danger C. on the
decrease D. in
fewness
5. We had an accidental meeting with an old friend at the party last night.
A. unpleasant B.
unexpected
C.unacceptable D. unlucky

IV. READING COMPREHENSION

Exercise 1:
The people below all want to find a radio programme they could enjoy
listening to this week. Decide which programme would be the most suitable for
the following people by marking the correct letter (A-H) next to the number (1-
5) on your answer sheet. Note that there are more radio programmes than
needed.
1. Roberta and Alice are interested in pop music. They want to listen to a
live performance, and would also enjoy hearing interviews with some of the
performers.
2. Paul enjoys listening to good modern drama. He works long hours
during the week so he can only listen to the radio at weekends.
3. Sven teaches history and likes listening to experts talking about his
subject. However, he hates shows which invite listeners to phone in.
4. Al writes poetry, and enjoys hearing other writers read their poems on
the radio. He wants to have the opportunity to give his own opinions live on the
programme.
5. Kim and Yannis are interested in finding out about the latest
international events. They want to listen to a programme that is on every day.

T
 RADIO PROGRAMME WE RECOMMEND THIS
WEEK
A. Before Our Time B. Pop Review
On Saturday, this weekly This Saturday’s programme
programme includes the first discusses the very latest CD releases, so
part of a documentary series there will be a great mix of music from
about the discovery of the site all over the world. This week’s special
of a 15th-century village. report comes from Senegal.
Professor John Frost and his
team will talk about what life
was like for the villagers. D. History Team

C. Good Morning This Wednesday, a local

team tries to prove that people
This programme has lived in the rocky hills of their
regular reports on current area thousands of years ago.
affairs and news stories Specialist presenter Dr Clive
as they happen at home Sparky describes what they
and abroad, plus find. Listeners can ring in and
discussions every ask him questions, and discuss
morning about the their own interests and local
background to world discoveries.
news. All this week, the
programme features F. Opinion
interviews with ordinary Find out about the news on this
people around the world regular Wednesday morning
who talk about the recent programme, with a team of
history of their country. journalists discussing the major
E. Spotlight events of the week around the
world. this week, the programme
This Thursday, writer Kate also visits the new National
Dyer talks about the Library’s collection of original
relationship between her documents from the world of
poetry and her work as a literature, including internationally
history teacher. Kate will famous drama and poetry, with
perform her latest poem, readings of some of the poems.
‘Sunshine’. Listeners can
then phone in and talk to H. Showtime
Kate about her work. This is a perfect programme for

T
 Dramatist David Fry will also lovers of new plays, music and
talk about his latest book on poetry. On Saturday, listeners
historical drama from the 19th have the chance to hear the prize-
century. winning play ‘Machines’. Poet
G. Out and About Roger Brookes will also read from
his new collection ‘Rainbow’ and
Hear all the latest composer Jack Williams will play
in the world of pop and his latest piece for classical guitar.
rock, including a week
of major concerts as
they happen every
evening, coming direct
from Birmingham.
After each concert,
listeners can also hear
members of the band
answering questions
about their music.

Exercise 2: Read the text and choose the best answer.

Although both Luther Burbank and George Washington Carver
drastically changed American agriculture and were close friends besides, their
methods of working could hardly have been more dissimilar. Burbank’s formal
education ended with high school, but he was inspired by the works of Charles
Darwin. In 1872, on his farm near Lunenberg, Massachusetts, he produced his
first “plant creation” – a superior potato developed from the Early Rose variety.
It still bears his name. After moving to Santa Rosa, California, in 1875, Burbank
created a stream of creations, earning the nickname “the plant wizard.” He
developed new varieties of fruits, vegetables, flowers, and other plants, many of
which are still economically important. He began his work some thirty years
before the rediscovery of Gregor Mendel’s work on heredity, and while he did
not participate in the developing science of plant genetics, his work opened the
country’s eyes to the productive possibilities of plant breeding. However, the
value of his contributions was diminished by his methods. He relied on his keen
memory and powers of observation and kept records only for his own use. He
thus thwarted attempts by other scientists to study his achievements.

T
 Carver, on the other hand, was a careful researcher who took thorough notes.
Born a slave, he attended high school in Kansas, Simpson College in Iowa, and
Iowa State College, which awarded him a master’s degree. When the eminent
black educator Booker T. Washington offered him a position at Tuskegee
Institute in Alabama, he accepted. While Burbank concentrated on developing
new plants, Carver found new uses for existing ones. He produced hundreds of
synthetic products made from the soybean, the sweet potato, and especially the
peanut, helping to free Southern agriculture from the tyranny of cotton.
1. What is the author’s main purpose in writing the passage?
(A) To compare the products created by two agricultural scientists
(B) To demonstrate how Carver and Burbank influenced American agriculture
(C) To contrast the careers and methods of two scientists
(D) To explain how Charles Darwin inspired both Carver and Burbank
2. The word drasticallyin bold is closest in meaning to
(A) dramatically (B) initially (C) unintentionally (D)
potentially
3. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the
relationship between Burbank and Carver?
(A) They were competitors.
(B) Carver was one of Burbank’s teachers.
(C) Burbank invited Carver to work with him.
(D) They were personal friends.
4. It can be inferred that Burbank’s first “plant creation” is known as the
(A) Early Rose potato (B) Burbank potato
(C) Lunenberg potato (D) Wizard potato
5. The word hisin bold refers to
(A) George Washington Carver’s (B) Gregor Mendel’s
(C) Luther Burbank’s (D) Charles Darwin’s
6. Which of the following a closest in meaning to the word thwartedin bold?
(A) Restored (B) Predated (C) Nurtured (D) Defeated
7. The word thoroughin bold is closest in meaning to

T
 (A) complete (B) general (C) puzzling (D) precise
8. The author implies that a significant difference between the techniques of
Burbank and those of Carver is that
(A) while Carver kept careful research records, Burbank did not
(B) Carver popularized his achievements, but those of Burbank were relatively
unknown
(C) unlike Burbank, Carver concentrated mainly on developing new varieties of
plants
(D) Burbank bred both plants and annuls, but Carver worked only with plants
9. According to the passage, what school awarded Carver a master’s degree?
(A) Simpson College (B) Iowa State College
(C) Tuskegee Institute (D) The University of Alabama
10. Carver developed new uses for all of the following crops EXCEPT
(A) cotton (B) soybeans (C) sweet potatoes (D) peanuts
Exercise 3: Choose the best option to fill in the blank in the following passage.
Sleep
By the time we (1)________old age most of us have (2)________ twenty
years sleeping. Yet nobody knows why we do it. Most scientists believe that by
resting our bodies, we allow time for (3)________ maintenance work to be done.
Any (4)________ that there is can be put right more quickly if energy isn’t being
used up doing other things.
Sleep is controlled by certain chemicals. These build up during the day,
eventually reaching peaks that cause tiredness. We can control the effects of
these chemicals to some extent. Caffeine helps to (5)________us awake while
alcohol and some medicines make us sleepy.
By using electrodes,scientists are able to (6)________what goes on in
people’s heads while they sleep .They have (7)________ that when we first drop
off everything slows down. The heart (8)________ more slowly and our
breathing becomes shallow. After about 90 minutes our eyes start to twitch and
we go into what is called REM(Rapid Eye Movement)sleep, which is a
(9)________that we’ve started to dream .You have dreams every night,even if
you don’t remember them.There are may theories about why we dream, none of
them conclusive.A lot of people say they have to have eight hours’ sleep every

T
night while others seem to (10)________on a lot less . One thing’s for sure – we
all need some sleep.Going without it can have some very strange effects.
1. A. arrive B. become
C. reach D. get
2. A. passed

3. A. essential B. elementary
C. needed D. main
4. A. harm B. suffering
C. damage D. hurt
5. A. stay B. maintain
C. make D. keep
6. A. exhibit

T
 7. A. seen B. researched
C. watched D. discovered
8. A. beats

C. moves

C. moves
D. trembles

D. trembles
9. A. clue

T
 10. A. manage B. need
C. get D. deal
Exercise 4: Fill in each blank with the most suitable word.
Many of us are still unaware (1)_________or are indifferent to the need to
preserve rare species. Some people argue that species have (2)_________dying
out since life began. "So (3)_________ should we worry about them
now?" (4)_________ ask. They calmly believe that others would take their place.
What these people (5)_________not realize is that it will (6)_________ millions
of years before a set of species is evolved to replace (7)_________ we are rapidly
losing. These species are (8)_________national heritage. We should not
let (9)_________die off. They (10)_________ be preserved for our descendants.
V. WRITING
Exercise 1: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have the same
meanings as the given above.
1. The students usually hold the concerts at the university.

The concerts ……………………………………………...……….

2. “When will you return to your hometown, Tim?” She said to Tim.
She asked …………………………………………………………
3. They were late for school because they missed the first train.
Because of…………………………………………………………..
4. We didn’t find out about the meeting until he phoned us.
@Not until …………………………………………………………..
5. He may spend the holiday in Japan when he saves enough money but I don’t
think he can save enough money.
@If ……………………………………………………………………..
6. It is believed that the man was killed by terrorists.
@The man ……………………………………………………………..
7. He was drunk last night because he joined the party.
@If ……………………………………………………………………..

T
8. I think you were wrong when you asked your friend for helping you in your
test.
@If I ……………………………………………………………………..
9. There are no interesting films on this week.
@There is nothing ……………………………………………………………..
10. This kind of food has a really delicious taste.
@This kind of food tastes ……………………………………………………..
Exercise 2:
Mary is going to have a birthday party at 7 p.m. on Sunday. She asks you to go
to the market to buy some fruits and sweets with her in the morning. You agree
to help her. Write a confirmation letter responding to her request. Write at least
50 words. Write in the following form.
Dear Mary,
……………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………
Love,
Elena

ĐỀ 6
SỞ GD VÀ ĐT HÀ NỘI
TRƯỜNG THPT PHÙNG KHẮC KHOAN THẠCH THẤT
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TRƯỜNG NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021

BÀI THI MÔN THI: NGOẠI NGỮ 10

Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút
(Không kể thời gian phát đề)
Đề thi gồm: 06 trang

Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài thi trực tiếp vào đề bài, thí sinh không ghi bất kỳ thông tin nào
khác ngoài nội dung bài làm, phần Số phách thí sinh bỏ trống.
PART A: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
others.(0,5point)
1. A.cleaned B. shared C . called D. visited

T
 2. A. chore B. work C. more D. divorce

3. A. angry B. needy C. supply D. country

4. A. poets B. flutes C. organs D. instruments

5. A. chooses B. clothes C. encourages D. boxes

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others in each group.
(0,5point)
1. A. ailment B. disease C. pultry D. nervous

2. A. internal B. skeletal C. therapy D. willpower

3. A. dedicate B. fortunate C. practical D. volunteer

4. A. career B. gender C. equal D. bias

5. A. enrol B. rural C. allow D. prefer

PART B : READING COMPREHENSION.

I. Read the following text and fill in each blank with one suitable word.(1point)
A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many
households (1) ____ the fact that many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256 people (2)
____ between 18 and 65, men said they contributed an average of 37 per cent of the total
housework, while the women (3) ____ their share to be nearly double that, at 70 per cent. This ratio
was not affected by (4) ____ the woman was working or not.
When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labour, women with jobs felt that
housework should (5) ____ shared equally between male and female partners. Women who did not
work outside the home were satisfied to perform 80 per cent - the majority of housework - if their
husbands did the (6) ____. Research has shown that if levels increase beyond these percentages,
women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are (7) ____.
After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload (8) ____ 14 hours per
week, but for men (9) ____ amount is just 90 minutes. So the division of labour becomes
unbalanced, (10) ____ the man’s share increases much less than the woman’s.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

II.Read the following passage and choose the correct answers.(1point)

Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effect of global
warming, Scientists have already observerd shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals,
such as flowers blooming earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have
begun shifting where they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides
toward higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old
habitats grow too warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts.
Species that find cities or farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct.
Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those found in polar and mountantop regions, are
especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not possible. For example, polar bears and

T
 marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea ice but have nowhere
farther to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists
have estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extiction with 2 to 3 Celsius
degrees of further warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important
for plants and animals. Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest,
many not be able to adjust quickly enough and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global
warming. Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to "bleach", a state which if prolonged will
lead to the death of the coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming
could lead to widespread bleaching and death of coral reefs around the world. Also increasing
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and increases the acidity of ocean waters. This
acidification furter stresses ocean ecosystems.
1: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to ___.
A. die instantly B. bloom earlier
C. become lighter D. lose color
2: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animali tend to move ________.
A. south - eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations.
B. north - westwards and up mountainsides toward higher
elevations.
C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward
lower elevations.
D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher
elevations.
3: The pronoun "those" in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. species B. ecosystems C . habitats
D. areas
4: The phrase "dwindling sea ice" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. the frozen water in the Artie. B.the violent Arctic Ocean.
C. the melting ice in the Arctic. D.the
cold ice in the Arctic.
5: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celcius degrees,
________.
A. half of the earth's surface would be flooded.
B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters.
C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent.
D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct.
6: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer
temperatures, _______.
A. they may be endangered B. they can begin to develop
C. they will certainly need water.
D. they move to tropical forests.
7: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means______.
A. very large B. easily damaged
C. rather strong D. pretty hard
8: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates ________.
A. the water absorption of coral reefs. B.the
quick growth of marine mammals.

T
 C. the blooming phase of sea weeds.
D.the slow death of coral reefs.
9: The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by _______.
A. the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean.
B. the decrease of acidity of the pole waters.
C. the extinction of species in coastal areas.
D. the lose of acidity in the atmosphere around the earth.
10: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles.
B. Effects of global warming on animals and plants.
C. Global warming and possible solutions
D. Global warming and species migration.
III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answers.(1point)
Belgium is a very old country, with a fascinating mixture of old customs and modern laws.
Belgium weddings may be performed as a civil ceremony or as a religious ceremony. Traditionally,
when a couple in Belgium wishes to announce their marriage, the wedding invitations are printed on
two sheets of paper, one from the bride's family and one sheet from the groom's family. These
wedding invitations symbolize the union of the two families and the partnership of the new union.
An ancient Belgium custom that is designed to unite the two families calls for the bride to
stop as she walks up the aisle and to hand her mother a single flower. The two then embrace. Then,
during the recessional, the bride and groom walk to the groom's mother and the new bride hands her
new mother-in- law a single flower and the two of them embrace, symbolizing the bride's
acceptance of her new mother.
One of the most important and enduring traditions of the Belgium wedding is for the bride to
carry a specially embroidered handkerchief that has her name embroidered on it. After the wedding
this handkerchief is framed and hung on the wall in a place of honor. When the next female member
of the bride's family is to be wed, the handkerchief is removed from its frame, the new bride's name
is embroidered onto it, and it is passed down. The wedding handkerchief is passed from generation
to generation, and is considered an important family heirloom.
During the wedding mass, the bride and the groom are enthroned in two large chairs placed
near the altar, symbolizing that on this day and in this place they are the king and the queen. At the
conclusion of the ceremony, the groom slips the wedding ring onto the third finger of his bride's left
hand. The ring, being an endless circle, symbolizes never-ending love, and the third finger of the
left hand is believed to hold the vein that travels to the heart, symbolizing love. At the conclusion of
the ceremony, the bride and groom share their first kiss as husband and wife. The kiss is considered
a symbolic act of sharing each other's spirit as the couple each breathes in a portion of their new
mate's soul.
The bridesmaids traditionally take up a collection of coins and as the bride and groom exit
the church, the bridesmaids toss the coins to the poor outside the church. Giving gifts of money to
the poor helps to insure prosperity for the new bride and groom.
Following the wedding the bride and groom are off on their honeymoon. In ancient times the
honeymoon, which was celebrated by the drinking of mead, or honey wine, would last 28 days, one
complete cycle of the moon. This was to make sure that the bride's family did not try to steal their
daughter back from her new husband.
1. Which of the following could be the best title of this passage?
A. Belgium's wedding ceremony.
B. The differences between an ancient wedding and a
modern one in Belgium.

T
 C. The bride's and groom's traditional activities in their
wedding day.
D. Belgium's wedding customs and traditions.
2. What does the word "them" in the third paragraph refer to?
A. the bride and her mother.
B. the bride and the groom.
C. the bride and her mother-in-law.
D. the groom and his mother-in-law.
3. What is embroidered on the handkerchief?
A. bride’s name B. groom’s name
C. flowers D. rings
4. The following is true about Belgium's wedding, EXCEPT .
A. The weddings in Belgium are not only a civil event but also a religious one.
B. The wedding invitations are the symbol of both the bride's and
the groom's families.
C. Each mother of the couple is given a single flower in their
children's wedding.
D. The bride often hugs her mother-in-law before embracing her
mother.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that the wedding handkerchief .
A. is prepared for the bride by her mother before the wedding.
B. is highly appreciated in the home of Belgian people.
C. is only replaced by another person in their house.
D. is embroidered in most important occasions in Belgium.
6. The word "heirloom" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. dowry B. inheritance
C. prize D. reward
7. According to paragraph 5, what is CORRECT about the wedding ring?
A. It is worn onto the third finger of the bride's right hand.
B. The groom wears the ring for his mate at the beginning of the
ceremony.
C. The ring represents the boundless love of the couple.
D. The ring is presented by the queen and the king of their country.
8. The word "insure" in the paragraph 6 could be best replaced by .
A. express B. indemnify
C. determine D. affirm
9. The author mentioned honeymoon in the past in the last paragraph as a period that _____.
A. the bride and the groom live far from each other.
B. lasts for a fortnight after wedding.
C. protects the new bride from her family's effort to take her back.
D. the new couple serves the guests honey wine.
10. What do the bride and groom share at the conclusion of the ceremony as husband and wife?
A. wedding ring B. kiss
C. fingers D. handkerchief
PART C: GRAMMAR and VOCABULARY
I. Write the correct form of the words in parentheses in the blanks (0,5 point).
1 That little girl can dance __________. (BEAUTY)
2. They have a good __________ of stamps. (COLLECT)

T
 3. Libraries are helpful in __________ children’s love for books. (DEVELOP)
4. My teacher __________ me to take this examination.( COURAGE)
5. Their __________on the mountain was attributed to the warm clothes and the tent which they had
with them. (SURVIVE)
II. Identify the errors and correct them in the following sentences.(0,5 point)
1. My alarm rings at 6 o’clock every morning. Therefore, I always went to school on time.
2. Bats usually sleep during the day and they play and eating at night
3. I am not mind if you turn on the air-conditioner.
4. Many people are hating living in Hue because it often rains continually.
5. We can go to the pool, so we can go horse-riding, whichever you prefer.
III. Use the verbs in the brackets in the correct form to complete the following
sentences.(1point)
1. Don’t forget ____ your homework before coming to class.(do)
2. My computer is used for ____ music and video.(play)
3. I have lost my mobile phone. Someone ____ it.(steal)
4. It's no good ____ him the truth now.(tell)
5. He ____ for the Google since 2014.(work)
6. John made me ____ a lot with his hilarious jokes.(laugh)
7. The acupuncturist decides which and how many needles will ____.(use)
8. She _______ when she saw her reflection on the mirror. (frighten)
9. When _______ to explain his mistake, the new employee cleared his throat nervously. (ask)
10. After_____ dinner, he watches television.(eat)
IV. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (1 Point)
1. Gender discrimination must ____ in order to create a better society.
A. eliminate

2. More and more girls apply ____ males’ jobs these days.
A. by B.for C. about
D. to
3.Washing machine or vacuum cleaner can help you to ____ time while doing housework.
A. kill B. save C. spend
D. waste
4. More and more girls apply ____ males’ jobs these days.
A. by B.for C. about
D. to
5.These ____ children encounter many problems and really need our help.
A. disadvantaged B. advantaged
C. disadvantage D. advantage
6.I ____ Maria for the first time at the Heart-to-Heart Charity Office.
A. saw B. was seeing C. was
seen D. has seen
7.We’re best friends as we have a ____ interest in music.
A. passion B. passionately
C. passionless D. passionate
8. Tom said that he could ____ me with this assignment.

T
 A. helped B. helping C. to help
D. help
9. Skeletal system of the body is made up of our ____. It supports our body and protects our organs.
A. bones B. museles C. nerves
D. vessels
10.It ____ that half of your plate should consist of vegetables and fruit.
A. is suggested B. is suggesting
C. suggesting D. suggests. Your answers:
Part D: WRITING
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
(1point)
1. You can’t visit the USA unless you have a visa.
=> If you ……………………………………………………..
2. Our dog bit the postman.
=>The postman........................................................................................
3.Although his leg was broken he managed to get out of the car.
=>In spite of .................................................................................... ……
4. I can’t cook as well as my mother does.
=>My mother .........................................................................................
5. If the government raised interest rates, they would lose the election.
=>Were ....................................................................................................
II.Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the suggested word. (1 point)
1. We last went to Sa Pa two years ago.(BEEN)
=> .............................................................................................................
2. I'm willing to help you repair the radio.(MIND)
=>.............................................................................................................
3. He climbed the tree so that he could get a better view.(ORDER)
=> .............................................................................................................
4. Was the steam engine invented by James Watt ?(INVENT)
=> .............................................................................................................
5. She has never seen a more unusual festival than this. (MOST)
=> .............................................................................................................
III. Build sentences, using the given words to make meaningful sentences. (1point)
1. It/easy/share/them/social networks.
=> .............................................................................................................
2. I / look forward / see you again / next month.
=> .............................................................................................................
3. Robots/offer/work/more accuracy/higher quality.
=> .............................................................................................................
4. Teenagers/tend/make their own decisions/although/they/not have much
experience. => .............................................................................................................
5. Volunteering/be/great way/discover/new passions/or/interests/future
career
=> .............................................................................................................

T
 ---------------The End---------------

ĐỀ 7

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NỘI

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi có 08 trang)
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (Chuyên)
Ngày thi: 12/06/2023
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
LISTENING: You will hear each part TWICE. (2.0 pts)
Part 1. Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5: Listen to the first part of the conversation and circle the correct answer
for Questions 1-5.
1. What point does Robert make about the 2013 study in Britain?
A. It focused more on packaging than wasted food.
B. It proved that households produced more waste than restaurants.
C. It included liquid waste as well as solid waste.
2. The speakers agree that food waste reports should emphasize the connection between carbon dioxide
emissions and __________.

A. food production B. transport of food to landfill sites C. distribution of food product.

3. Television programmes now tend to focus on __________.
A. the nutritional value of food products
B. the origin of food products
C. the chemicals found in food products
4. For Anna, the most significant point about food waste is __________.
A. the moral aspect B. the environment impact C. the economic effect
5. Anna and Robert decide to begin their presentation by __________.
A. handing out a questionnaire
B. providing statistical evidence
C. showing images of wasted food
Questions 6-10: What advantage do the speakers identify for each of the following projects? Choose
FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, in the spaces given after Questions 6-10.
Advantages Projects

A. It should save time. 6. edible patch

B. It will create new jobs. 7. ripeness sensor

T
 C. It will benefit local communities. 8. waste tracking technology
D. It will make money. 9. smartphone application
E. It will encourage personal 10. food waste composting
responsibility.
F. It will be easy to advertise.
G. It will involve very little cost.

Part 2. Questions 11-20: You will hear five short extracts in which people describe cultural activities.
While you listen, you must complete both tasks.
Task one. Choose from the list (A-H) the activity each speaker is describing.
A. watching a DVD at home (11) Speaker 1: __________
B. going to the opera (12) Speaker 2: __________
C. going to the theatre (13) Speaker 3: __________
D. listening to a concert on the radio (14) Speaker 4: __________
E. viewing an exhibition of posters (15) Speaker 5: __________
F. going to the cinema
G. visiting a museum of ancient
artifacts
H. viewing a collection of photographs
Task two. Choose from the list (A-H) how each speaker says they felt during the activity.
A. disappointed (16) Speaker 1: __________
B. puzzled (17) Speaker 2: __________
C. bored (17) Speaker 3: __________
D. fascinated (19) Speaker 4: __________
E. scared (20) Speaker 5: __________
F. amused
G. depressed
H. angry

PHONETICS
Part 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
21. A. fizzy B. Switzerland C. pizza D. pretzel
22. A. hazard B. bombard C. custard D. mustard
Part 2. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
23. A. disguise B. canal C. obscure D. process
24. A. ultraviolet B. paradoxical C. correlative D. influential
25. A. legitimate B. extravagant C. apprehend D. autonomous

VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (2.5 pts)

Part 1. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.

T
26. - Tim: “You’re so lucky to be going abroad for a whole semester!”
- Janet: “__________, I’ll miss my friends and family.”
A. That is B. On account of that C. All the same D. But despite
27. This year it was __________ that many of our flowering plants died
A. so a dry’ summer B. so dry a summer C. a so dry a summer D. such dry a summer
28. I’ve heard that argument before and quite frankly it just doesn’t __________!
A. face the music B. hit the roof C. cany’ weight D. hold water
29. Unsalted butter is best for this recipe, but __________ that, margarine will do.
A. except B. failing C. for all of D. given
30. It seems a lot of us are putting ourselves __________ the mercy of material comfort.
A. at B. in C. on D. under 31. In spite of working their fingers to the __________, all the
staff were made redundant.
A. nail B. edge C. flesh D. bone
32. I thought she was being serious, but she was only having me __________.
A. up B. on C. over D. round
33. When his parents are away, his oldest brother __________.
A. knocks it off B. calls the shots C. draws the line D. is in the same boat
34. The new secretary seems a bit lazy, she doesn’t really __________ her weight.
A. push B. give C. act D. pull
35. “What do you think of these books?” - “__________, the two novels are similar.”
A. To their respects B. At many respects
C. In many respects D. The many respects
Part 2. Think of ONE word which can be used appropriately in all THREE sentences. Write your
answer in the numbered space.
36. __________
- Your work has not been up to standard in the last three months, but we are prepared to let you me a
__________ start.
- Write the report today while die events are still __________ in your mind.
- You will find that Professor Stanton has an entirely __________ approach to this
problem.
37. __________
- I do not __________ with young people staying up till all hours.
- Ben’s parents __________ shares in several major multinational companies.
- Computers can __________ huge amounts of information.
38. __________
- It’s not worth arguing with Jane, as I learned to my __________.
- If we build an airport on this land, the __________ to the environment will be
enormous. - When Andrew’s boss found out that he had lied on his CV, it __________
him his job.
39. __________
- If the examiner asks you something, don’t spend too long thinking about what to say - just give a
answer __________ to the question using everyday language.
- Ginny was delighted to get __________ A’s from the judges, the highest possible marks anyone could
get in the competition.
- The shelf isn’t __________ - it sags in the middle.
40. __________

T
- I usually __________ up a big appetite after patrolling the streets all day.
- This video game doesn’t __________ the way it’s supposed to.
- We need to __________ out a way to reduce costs without firing anyone.
Part 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the passage.
Most people would probably name around six categories into which they place their music, including
classical, rock, pop, folk, blues and soul, but could this breakdown be divisive, even elitist? Could music
be labelled more (41. include) __________? One suggestion would be to consider its purpose and impact
rather than its genre. To test the (42. feasible) __________ of this, consider the kind of music people find
(43. lift)
__________. Most would accept that singing creates a feeling of well-being, but the actual music that’s
sung seems to be (44. relevant) __________. It may straddle more than one traditional category, but its
effect is (45. deny) __________ the same. Now take the need for (46. assure) __________. Everyone
hums soothing melodies to crying babies or plays nostalgic tunes at times of emotional turmoil. Yet one
person’s musical choice in such situations may be (47. comprehend) __________ to others. It follows
that we shouldn’t pigeonhole ourselves as classical or rock fans, but how we use music and what it does
for us. Although some may find this provocative, they might actually be surprised at the (48. diverse)
__________ of their own playlists!

Part 4. Circle the best option A, B, C, or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined one in the following question.
49. Albert Einstein is lauded as one of the greatest theoretical physicists of all time.
A. dictated B. acclaimed C. described D. rumored
Part 5. Circle the best option A, B, c, or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined one in the following question.
50. Golf wear has become a very lucrative business for both manufacturers and golf stars.
A. unprofitable B. impoverished C. inexpensive D. unfavorable

READING (2.0 pts)

Part 1. Read the passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Humans live in
interdependent societies where people (51) __________ together in groups for mutual aid and protection.
We have always had a conscious (52) __________ that group survival means personal survival, that the
individual benefits by supporting the group, because the group reciprocates by supporting the individual.
Our primitive ancestors worked collectively to hunt for food and to fight off (53) __________ of
dangerous animals. They were nomads who lived in (54) __________ and followed seasonally available
wild plants and game for their subsistence. These hunter-gatherers migrated when food resources became
scarce or the environment less hospitable.
When they learnt how to farm, they were finally able to (55) __________ away with their nomadic
lifestyle. They formed small permanent settlements where they harvested crops for their sustenance and
kept (56) __________ of livestock. Over time, the settlements grew. Now, super cities with millions of
inhabitants dot the planet, but many people feel a greater sense of isolation and a very real disconnect
from their fellow human beings.
51. A. form B. match C. make D. band
52. A. effort B. decision C. awareness D. attempt
53. A. packs B. clans C. squads D. throngs
54. A. factions B. tribes C. races D. unions
55. A. keep B. run C. do D. get
56. A. hordes B. crowds C. masses D. herds

T
Part 2. Read the passage carefully and then fill ONE suitable word in each gap.
It is often said that non-native speakers don’t get the British (57) __________ of humor, and it’s easy
to see why this is so. Almost every conversation between Brits has an undercurrent of humor, making it
difficult for a non-native speaker to decipher (58) __________ a Brit is joking or being serious. In
addition, the British also have a particular fondness for understatement. In refusing to be overwhelmed
by anything, the British might retort ‘Not bad’ when they really mean, ‘That’s great’. Furthermore, the
British don’t like to (59) __________ their own trumpet. They tend to make (60) __________ of their
accomplishments by being excessively modest and putting themselves down. But the most difficult part
of British humor for foreigners is that much of British humor is not obviously hilarious and does not
result in fits (61) __________ laughter. However, those unaccustomed to British humor need not worry,
for the best thing about it is that it is not something you can learn, it’s something that (62) __________
on you.
Part 3. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow
A. For many hundreds of thousands of people worldwide, online networking has become enmeshed in
our daily lives. However, it is a decades-old insight from a study of traditional social networks that best
illuminates one of the most important aspects of today’s online networking. In 1973 sociologist Mark
Granovetter showed how the loose acquaintances, or ‘weak ties’, in our social network exert a
disproportionate influence over our behaviour and choices. Granovetter’s research showed that a
significant percentage of people get their jobs as a result of recommendations or advice provided by a
weak tie. Today our number of weak-tie contacts has exploded via online social networking. “You
couldn’t maintain all of those weak ties on your own,” says Jennifer Golbeck of the University of
Maryland. “Online sites, such as Facebook, give you a way of cataloging them.” The result? It’s now
significantly easier for the schoolfriend you haven’t seen in years to pass you a tip that alters your
behaviour, from recommendation of a low
cholesterol breakfast cereal to a party invite where you meet your future wife or husband.

B. The explosion of weak ties could have profound consequences for our social structures too, according
to Judith Donath of the Berkman Center for Internet and Society at Harvard University. “We’re already
seeing changes,” she says. For example, many people now turn to their online social networks ahead of
sources such as newspapers and television for trusted and relevant news or information. What they hear
could well be inaccurate, but the change is happening nonetheless. If these huge ‘supernets’ - some of
them numbering up to 5,000 people - continue to thrive and grow, they could fundamentally change the
way we share information and transform our notions of relationships.

C. But are these vast networks really that relevant to us on a personal level? Robin Dunbar, an
evolutionary anthropologist at the University of Oxford, believes that our primate brains place a cap on
the number of genuine social relationships we can actually cope with: roughly 150. According to Dunbar,
online social networking appears to be very good for ‘servicing’ relationships, but not for establishing
them. He argues that our evolutionary roots mean we still depend heavily on physical and face-to-face
contact to be able to create ties.

D. Nonetheless, there is evidence that online networking can transform our daily interactions. In an
experiment at Cornell University, psychologist Jeff Hancock asked participants to try to encourage other
participants to like them via instant messaging conversation. Beforehand, some members of the trial were
allowed to view the Facebook profile of the person they were trying to win over. He found that those
with Facebook access asked questions to which they already knew the answers or raised things they had
in common, and as result were much more successful in their social relationships. Hancock concluded
that people who use these sites to keep updated on the activities of their acquaintances are more likely to
be liked in subsequent social interactions.

T
E. Online social networking may also have tangible effects on our well-being. Nicole Ellison of
Michigan State University found that the frequency of networking site use correlates with greater self-
esteem. Support and affirmation from the weak ties could be the explanation, says Ellison. “Asking your
close friends for help or advice is nothing new, but we are seeing a lowering of barriers among
acquaintances,” she says. People are readily sharing personal feelings and experiences to a wider circle
than they might once have done. Sandy Pentland at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology agrees.
“The ability to broadcast to our social group means we need never feel alone,” he says. “The things that
befall us are often due to a lack of social support. There’s more of a safety net now.”

F. Henry Holman, also at MIT, who studies the interface between online social networking and the real
world, points out that increased visibility also means our various social spheres - family, work, friends -
are merging, and so we will have to prepare for new societal norms. “We’ll have to learn how to live a
more transparent life,” he says. “We may have to give up some ability to show very limited glimpses of
ourselves to others.”

G. Another way that online networking appears to be changing our social structures is through
dominance. In one repeated experiment, Michael Kearns of the University of Pennsylvania asked 30
volunteers to quickly reach consensus in an online game over a choice between two colours. Each person
was offered a cash reward if they succeeded in persuading the group to pick one or other colour. All
participants could see the colour chosen by some of the other people, but certain participants had an extra
advantage: the ability to see more of the participants’ chosen colours than others. Every time Kearns
found that those who could see the choices of more participants (in other words, were better connected)
persuaded the group to pick their colour, even when they had to persuade the vast majority to give up
their financial incentive. While Kearns warns that the setting was artificial, he says it’s possible that
greater persuasive power could lie with well connected individuals in the everyday online world too.
Questions 63-66: Look at the following findings and the list of researchers below. Match each finding
with the correct researcher, A-F. Write the correct letter, A-F, in the space given at the end of each
question.

63. People who network widely may be more able to exert pressure on others.
64. We have become more willing to confide in an extensive number of people.
65. There is a limit to how many meaningful relationships we can maintain.
66. There is a social advantage in knowing about the lives of our online contacts.
__________ __________ __________ __________

List of researchers

A. Mark Granovetter D. Jeff Hancock

B. Judith Donath E. Nicole Ellison
C. Robin Dunbar F. Michael Kearns

Questions 69-70: Which TWO of these disadvantages of online social networking are mentioned in
the reading passage? Circle your answers.
A. Information from online social contacts may be unreliable.
B. We may become jealous of people who seem to have a wide circle of friends.
C. We may lose the ability to relate to people face-to-face.

T
 D. It is easy to waste a lot of time on social networking sites.
E. Using social networking sites may result in a lack of privacy.

WRITING (3.0 pts)

Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the original one.
Write your answer in the spaces provided. (0.8 pts)
71. Redundancy has caused a lot of domestic problems.
→ Many a ......................................................................................................................................
redundancy.
72. If the weather is fine, we may go camping at the weekend.
→ Weather ............................................................................................................................... at the
weekend.
73. It was not until five years had elapsed that the whole truth about the accident came out.
→ Not for ....................................................................................................................................................
out.
74. I think you should have some consideration for those who don’t have lives as privileged as yours.
→ I think you should spare ................................................................................... aren’t as privileged as
yours.
75. James and Jane do not think in a similar way and understand each other well about how to deal with
the problem.
→ James and Jane ..................................................................... wavelength about the solution to the
problem.
76. Many creatures still survive and thrive in the harsh conditions of the deserts.
→ Harsh ........................................................................................................................ still survive and
thrive.
77. Nowadays I consider taking up a hobby to be far less important than I used to.
→ Nowadays I don’t attach nearly ..................................................................................................... I used
to.
Part 2. Rewrite each of the following sentences using the word given in bold so that it has the same
meaning as the original one. You MUST use between 2-5 words, including the word given. (0.7 pts)
79. I know it was a waste of money - don’t make me feel worse about it! SALT
→ I know it was a waste of money - there’s no need to ........................................................ by reminding
me!
80. When they started their trek, they had no idea how bad the weather would become. OUTSET
→ Nobody realized ........................................................................... trek how bad the weather would
become.
81. Guy made absolutely sure nothing would go wrong when he planned the expedition. CHANCE

→ Guy ............................................................................................................ when he planned the

expedition.
82. As a pop singer, Kay has recently become involved in more diverse styles of music. BRANCHED
→ As a pop singer, recently Kay ...................................................................................... other styles of
music.
83. She speaks Spanish very well. COMMAND
→ She ..................................................................................................................................................
Spanish.
84. He is likely to be promoted. CARDS

T
→ His
promotion ...............................................................................................................................................
85. The meeting will be an opportunity for everyone to express their feelings. VENT
→ The meeting will be an opportunity for everyone ................................................................... their
feelings.
Part 3. Write an academic essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (1.5 pts) It is reckoned that
making mistakes is inevitable and can be a valuable growth experience for teenagers. To what extent do
you agree with this idea?
Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.