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JEE Main 2020_5th September_Evening Shift (Paper)

The document outlines the general instructions and marking scheme for the JEE Main 2020 exam, which consists of three subjects: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Each subject has two sections, with Section 1 containing multiple-choice questions and Section 2 featuring numerical value questions. The marking scheme includes positive and negative marking for Section 1, while Section 2 has no negative marking.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
12 views

JEE Main 2020_5th September_Evening Shift (Paper)

The document outlines the general instructions and marking scheme for the JEE Main 2020 exam, which consists of three subjects: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Each subject has two sections, with Section 1 containing multiple-choice questions and Section 2 featuring numerical value questions. The marking scheme includes positive and negative marking for Section 1, while Section 2 has no negative marking.

Uploaded by

1975marchpg
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

JEE Main – 2020


5th September 2020 (Evening Shift)
General Instructions

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and the maximum marks is 300.

2. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each Part
has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).

3. Section 1 contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of
which ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

4. Section 2 contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer. If the answer is a decimal
numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Marking Scheme
1. Section – 1: +4 for correct answer, –1 (negative marking) for incorrect answer, 0 for all other cases.

2. Section – 2: +4 for correct answer, 0 for all other cases. There is no negative marking.

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SUBJECT I: PHYSICS MARKS: 100

SECTION 1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. In an experiment to verify stokes law, a small spherical ball of radius r and density  falls under gravity
through a distance h in air before entering a tank of water. If the terminal velocity of the ball inside water
is same as its velocity just before entering the water surface, then the value of h is proportional to: (ignore
viscosity of air)
(1) r4 (2) r (3) r2 (4) r3
2. The velocity (v) and time (t) graph of a body in a straight line motion is shown in the figure. The point S
is at 4.333 seconds. The total distance covered by the body in 6 s is:

37 49
(1) m (2) m (3) 11 m (4) 12 m
3 4
3. Two Zener diodes (A and B) having breakdown voltages of 6 V and 4 V respectively, are connected as
shown in the circuit below. The output voltage V0 variation with input voltage linearly increasing with
time, is given by: (Vinput = 0 V at t = 0) (figures are qualitative)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

4. In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic gas becomes 32 times its initial value. The final
pressure of the gas is found to be n times the initial pressure. The value of n is:
1
(1) (2) 326 (3) 32 (4) 128
32

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5. A driver in a car, approaching a vertical wall notices that the frequency of his car horn, has changed from
440 Hz to 480 Hz, when it gets reflected from the wall. If the speed of sound in air is 345 m/s, then the
speed of the car is:
(1) 36 km/hr (2) 18 km/hr (3) 24 km/hr (4) 54 km/hr
6. The acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface at the poles is g and angular velocity of the earth
about the axis passing through the pole is  . An object is weighed at the equator and at a height h above
the poles by using a spring balance. If the weights are found to be same, then h is: (h<<R, where R is the
radius of the earth)
R 2 2 R 2 2 R 2 2 R 2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4g g 2g 8g

7. The correct match between the entries in column I and column II are :
I II
Radiation Wavelength
(a) Microwave (i) 100 m
(b) Gamma rays (ii) 10–15 m
(c) A.M. radio waves (iii) 10–10 m
(d) X-rays (iv) 10–3 m
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
8. In the circuit shown, charge on the 5 F capacitor is:

(1) 10.90 C (2) 18.00 C (3) 16.36 C (4) 5.45 C

9. Ten charges are placed on the circumference of a circle of radius R with constant angular separation
between successive charges. Alternate charges 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 have charge (+q) each, while 2, 4, 6, 8, 10
have charge (–q) each. The potential V and the electric field E at the centre of the circle are respectively:
(Take V = 0 at infinity)
10q
(1) V=0;E=0 (2) V ; E 0
40 R
10q 10q 10q
(3) V ;E (4) V 0; E 
40 R 40 R 2 40 R 2

10. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different processes. The half life for the first process is 10s and that
for the second is 100s. The effective half life of the nucleus is close to :
(1) 55 sec (2) 12 sec (3) 9 sec (4) 6 sec
11. An infinitely long straight wire carrying current I, one side opened
rectangular loop and a conductor C with a sliding connector are
located in the same plane, as shown in the figure. The connector has
length l and resistance R. It slides to the right with a velocity v. The
resistance of the conductor and the self inductance of the loop are
negligible. The induced current in the loop, as a function of
separation r, between the connector and the straight wire is:
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20 Ivl 0 Ivl 0 Ivl 0 Ivl


(1) (2) (3) (4)
 Rr  Rr 4 Rr 2 Rr
1 E l
12. The quantities x  , y and z  are defined where C-capacitance, R-resistance, l-length,
0 0 B CR
E-electric field, B-magnetic field and  0 ,  0 , - free space permittivity and permeability respectively.
Then :
(1) x, y and z have the same dimension (2) only x and z have the same dimension
(3) only x and y have the same dimension (4) only y and z have the same dimension
13. An iron rod of volume 10–3 m3 and relative permeability 1000 is placed as core in a solenoid with 10
turns/cm. If a current of 0.5 A is passed through the solenoid, then the magnetic moment of the rod will
be :
(1) 0.5 × 102 Am2 (2) 500 × 102 Am2 (3) 50 × 102 Am2 (4) 5 × 102 Am2
14. A ring is hung on a nail. It can oscillate, without slipping or sliding (i) in its plane with a time period T 1
T
and, (ii) back and forth in a direction perpendicular to its plane, with a period T 2. The ratio 1 will be :
T2
2 3 2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 3 3

15. A spaceship in space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust. As a result, its mass increases at a rate
dM  t 
  bv 2  t  , where v(t) is its instantaneous velocity. The instantaneous acceleration of the satellite
dt
is:
2bv 3 bv3 bv3
(1)  (2)  (3)  (4) bv3  t 
M t  M t  2M  t 

16. Two different wires having lengths L1 and L2, and respective temperature coefficient of linear expansion
1 and  2 , are joined end-to-end. Then the effective temperature coefficient of linear expansion is :
1L1   2 L2 1   2 1 2 L2 L1
(1) (2) (3) 2 1 2 (4) 4
L1  L2 2 1   2  L2  L1 2

17. A parallel plate capacitor has plate of length ‘l’, width ‘w’ and separation of plates is ‘d’. It is connected
to a battery of emf V. A dielectric slab of the same thickness ‘d’ and of dielectric constant k = 4 is being
inserted between the plates of the capacitor. At what length of the slab inside plates, will the energy
stored in the capacitor be two times the initial energy stored?
(1) l/3 (2) l/4 (3) 2l/3 (4) l/2
18. Two coherent sources of sound, S1 and S2, produce sound waves of the
same wavelength,   1 m, in phase. S1 and S2 are placed 1.5 m apart
(see fig). A listener, located at L, directly in front of S 2 finds that the
intensity is at a minimum when he is 2 m away from S2. The listener
moves away from S1, keeping his distance from S2 fixed. The adjacent
maximum of intensity is observed when the listener is at a distance d
from S1. Then, d is :

(1) 2m (2) 3m (3) 5m (4) 12 m

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19. A galvanometer is used in laboratory for detecting the null point in electrical experiments. If, on passing a
current of 6 mA it produces a deflection of 2°, its figure of merit is close to :
(1) 333° A/div. (2) 3 × 10–3 A/div. (3) 6 × 10–3 A/div. (4) 666° A/div.

20. In the circuit, given in the figure currents in different branches and value of one resistor are shown. Then
potential at point B with respect to the point A is :

(1) +1V (2) –1V (3) +2V (4) –2V

SECTION 2
This section has FIVE (05) Questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
enter the correct numerical value of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.

21. A body of mass 2 kg is driven by an engine delivering a constant power of 1 J/s. The body starts from
rest and moves in a straight line. After 9 seconds, the body has moved a distance (in m) ________.
22. Nitrogen gas is at 300°C temperature. The temperature (in K) at which the rms speed of a H2 molecule
would be equal to the rms speed of a nitrogen molecule, is ____________ .
(Molar mass of N2 gas 28 g).
23. The surface of a metal is illuminated alternately with photons of energies E1 = 4 eV and E2 = 2.5 eV
respectively. The ratio of maximum speeds of the photoelectrons emitted in the two cases is 2. The work
function of the metal in (eV) is ____________ .
24. A thin rod of mass 0.9 kg and length 1 m is suspended, at rest, from one end so that it can feely oscillate
in the vertical plane. A particle, of move 0.1 kg moving in a straight line with velocity 80 m/s hits the rod
at its bottom most point and sticks to it (see figure). The angular speed (in rad/s) of the rod immediately
after the collision will be ___________ .

25. A prism of angle A = 1° has a refractive index  = 1.5. A good estimate for the minimum angle of
deviation (in degrees) is close to N/10. Value of N is _________.

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SUBJECT II: CHEMISTRY MARKS: 100

SECTION 1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

1. The final major product of the following reaction is:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

2. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. If x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass
x
m of the adsorbent, the correct plot of versus p is :
m

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

3. The correct order of the ionic radii of O2 , N3 , F , Mg 2 ,Na  and Al3 is :
(1) N3  F  O2  Mg 2  Na   Al3
(2) Al3  Mg 2  Na   F  O2  N3
(3) N3  O2  F  Na   Mg 2  Al3
(4) Al3  Na   Mg 2  O 2  F  N3

4. The major product formed in the following reaction is:


CH3CH  CHCH  CH3 2 
HBr

(1) CH3CH  Br  CH2CH  CH3 2 (2) CH3CH2CH2C  Br   CH3 2
(3) CH3CH2CH  Br  CH  CH3 2 (4) Br  CH2 3 CH  CH3 2

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5. Which one of the following polymers is not obtained by condensation polymerization?


(1) Buna-N (2) Nylon 6, 6 (3) Bakelite(4) Nylon 6
6. The rate constant (k) of a reaction is measured at different temperatures (T), and the data are plotted in
the given figure. The activation energy of the reaction in kJ mol–1 is : (R is gas constant)

(1) 2R (2) R (3) 2/R (4) 1/R


7. An element crystallises in a face-centered cubic (fcc) unit cell with cell edge a. The distance between the
centres of two nearest octahedral voids in the crystal lattice is :
a a
(1) a (2) (3) 2a (4)
2 2

8. The major product of the following reaction is :

(1) (2) (3) (4)


9. Reaction of ammonia with excess Cl2 gives :
(1) NCl3 and HCl (2) NH 4 Cl and N 2
(3) NCl3 and NH 4 Cl (4) NH 4 Cl and HCl

10. Boron and silicon of very high purity can be obtained through :
(1) liquation (2) electrolytic refining
(3) vapour phase refining (4) zone refining
11. Lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution of NaCl are 788 kJ mol–1 and 4 kJ mol–1, respectively. The
hydration enthalpy of NaCl is:
(1) –780 kJ mol–1 (2) 784 kJ mol–1 (3) 780 kJ mol–1 (4) –784 kJ mol–1
12. The following molecule acts as an :

(1) Anti-bacterial (2) Anti-histamine (3) Antiseptic (4) Anti-depressant


13. The correct statement about probability density (except at infinite distance from nucleus) is :
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
(1) It can be zero for 1s orbital (2) It can be negative for 2p orbital
(3) It can be zero for 3p orbital (4) It can never be zero for 2s orbital

14. The increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds is :

(1) I < IV < III < II (2) IV < I < II < III (3) III < I < II < IV (4) I < III < IV < II
15. The compound that has the largest H–M–H bond angle (M = N, O, S, C), is:
(1) NH 3 (2) H 2S (3) CH 4 (4) H 2O

16. Hydrogen peroxide, in the pure state, is :


(1) linear and blue in color (2) linear and almost colorless
(3) non-planar and almost colorless (4) planar and blue in color
17. Consider the complex ions,

trans- Co  en 2 Cl2   A  and

cis- Co  en 2 Cl2   B . The correct statement regarding them is:
(1) (A) cannot be optically active, but (B) can be optically active
(2) (A) can be optically active, but (B) cannot be optically active
(3) both (A) and (B) can be optically active
(4) both (A) and (B) cannot be optically active
18. The variation of molar conductivity with concentration of an electrolyte (X) in aqueous solution is shown
in the given figure.

The electrolyte X is :
(1) CH 3COOH (2) HCl (3) NaCl (4) KNO3

19. The one that is NOT suitable for the removal of permanent hardness of water is :
(1) Clark’s method (2) Calgon’s method
(3) Treatment with sodium carbonate (4) Ion-exchange method
20. Among the following compounds, geometrical isomerism is exhibited by :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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SECTION 2
This section has FIVE (05) Questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
enter the correct numerical value of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
2
21. Considering that  0  P , the magnetic moment (in BM) of Ru  H2O 6  would be __________ .

22. The number of chiral carbons present in sucrose is __________ .


23. The volume, in mL, of 0.02 M K 2 Cr2 O7 solution required to react with 0.288 g of ferrous oxalate in
acidic medium is _______ .
(Molar mass of Fe = 56 g mol–1)
24. For a reaction X  Y 2Z , 1.0 mol of X, 1.5 mol of Y and 0.5 mol of Z were taken in a 1 L vessel and
allowed to react. At equilibrium, the concentration of Z was 1.0 mol L –1. The equilibrium constant of the
x
reaction is ___________ . The value of x is _________ .
15
25. For a dimerization reaction,
2A  g   A 2  g  , at 298K, U   20kJ mol1 , S  30
J K 1 mol1 , then the G  will be _________ J.

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1.

SUBJECT III: MATHEMATICS MARKS: 100

SECTION 1
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.

x 2 y2
1. If the line y = mx + c is a common tangent to the hyperbola   1 and the circle x 2  y 2  36 ,
100 64
then which one of the following is true?
(1) c2 = 369 (2) 4c2 = 369 (3) 8m + 5 = 0 (4) 5m = 4

2. 
If x  1 is a critical point of the function f  x   3x 2  ax  2  a e x , then : 
2
(1) x  1 and x   are local minima of f
3
2
(2) x =1 is a local maxima and x   is a local minima of f
3
2
(3) x =1 and x   are local maxima of f
3
2
(4) x = 1 is a local minima and x   is a local maxima of f
3

cos  B  
3. If  5  7sin   2cos 2  d   A loge B    C , where C is a constant of integration, then A
can be:

5  2sin   1 2sin   1 2sin   1 5  sin   3


(1) (2) (3) (4)
sin   3 5  sin   3 sin   3 2sin   1

4. If the length of the chord of the circle, x2  y 2  r 2  r  0 along the line, y  2 x  3 is r, then r 2 is
equal to :
9 24 12
(1) 12 (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5

5. The area (in sq. units) of the region A   x, y : x  1 x  y  2 


x , 0  x  2 , where [t] denotes the
greatest integer function, is :
4 8 8 1 4 1
(1) 2 1 (2) 2 1 (3) 2 (4) 2
3 3 3 2 3 2
x  log x  log x  .... is 460, then x is equal
71/2  71/3  71/4 
6. If the sum of the first 20 terms of the series log

to :
(1) 7 46/21 (2) 72 (3) 71/ 2 (4) e2
30
 1  i 3 
7. The value of   is:
 1 i 
(1) 215 i (2) 215 (3) 215 i (4) 65

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     
8. If L  sin 2    sin 2   and M  cos 2    sin 2   , then :
 16  8  16  8
1 1  1 1 
(1) M  cos (2) L  cos
4 2 4 8 2 2 2 8
1 1  1 1 
(3) L  cos (4) M  cos
4 2 4 8 2 2 2 8

dy  
9. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation cos x  2 y sin x  sin 2 x, x   0,  . If
dx  2
y   / 3  0 , then y   / 4  is equal to :
1
(1) 2 2 (2) 2 2 (3) 1 (4) 2 2
2

 1  x2  1   2 x 1  x2  1
10. The derivative of tan 1   with respect to tan 1   at x  is :
 x   1  2 x2  2
   
2 3 3 3 2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 12 10 5
11. If the sum of the second, third and fourth terms of a positive term G.P. is 3 and the sum of its sixth,
seventh and eighth terms is 243, then the sum of the first 50 terms of this G.P. is :

(1)
1 50
26

3 1 (2) 1 49
26
3 1  
(3)
1 50
13

3 1 (4)
2 50
13
3 1  
12. If the mean and the standard derivation of the data 3, 5, 7, a, b are 5 and 2 respectively, then a and b are
the roots of the equation :
(1) 2 x 2  20 x  19  0 (2) x 2  10 x  18  0
(3) x 2  20 x  18  0 (4) x 2  10 x  19  0

13. Which of the following points lies on the tangent to the curve x4e y  2 y  1  3 at the point (1, 0) ?

(1) (2, 2) (2) (–2, 4) (3) (–2, 6) (4) (2, 6)


x 1 y  2 z 1 x  2 y 1 z 1
14. If for some   R , the lines L1 :   and L2 :   are coplanar, then
2 1 1  5 1
the line L2 passes through the point :
(1) (–2, 10, 2) (2) (2, –10, –2) (3) (10, –2, –2) (4) (10, 2, 2)
15. If the system of linear equations
x  y  3z  0
x  3y  k 2z  0
3x  y  3z  0
 y
has a non-zero solution (x, y, z) for some k  R , then x    is equal to :
z

(1) –9 (2) 3 (3) –3 (4) 9

  
1 x 2  x 4 1 x 
x  e   1
 
16. lim  
x 0
1  x2  x4  1

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(1) is equal to 0 (2) is equal to 1 (3) is equal to e (4) does not exist

17. The statement  p   q  p     p   p  q   is:


(1) equivalent to  p  q    q  (2) a tautology
(3) equivalent to  p  q    p  (4) a contradiction

18. if a + x = b + y = c + z + 1, where a, b, c, x, y, z are non-zero distinct real numbers, then


x a y xa
y b  y y  b is equal to:
z c y zc
(1) 0 (2) y(a – c) (3) y(b – a) (4) y(a – b)
19. There are 3 sections in a question paper and each section contains 5 questions. A candidate has to answer
a total of 5 questions, choosing at least one question from each section. Then the number of ways, in
which the candidate can choose the questions, is :
(1) 1500 (2) 3000 (3) 2250 (4) 2255
 
20. If  and  are the roots of the equation, 7 x 2  3 x  2  0 , then the value of  is equal to :
1   1  2
2

27 27 1 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
16 32 24 8

SECTION 2
This section has FIVE (05) Questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
enter the correct numerical value of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.

21. In a bombing attack, there is 50% chance that a bomb will hit the target. At least two independent hits are
required to destroy the target completely. Then the minimum number of bombs, that must be dropped to
ensure that there is at least 99% chance of completely destroying the target, is_________ .

 
6
22. The coefficient of x 4 in the expansion of 1  x  x 2  x 3 in powers of x, is __________ .

23. Let A = {a, b, c} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Then the number of elements in the set C  { f : A  B |2  f  A 
and f is not one-one} is _________ .

24. Let the vectors a, b, c be such that a  2, b  4 and c  4 . If the projection of b on a is equal to

the projection of c on a and b is perpendicular to c , then the value of a  b  c is _____________ .

25. If the lines x + y = a and x – y = b touch the curve y  x 2  3x  2 at the points where the curve
a
intersects the x-axis, then is equal to __________ .
b

JEE Main - 2020 | Page 12 5th September (Evening Shift)

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