SCIENCE

1. All living things are made up of cells. Different cells and organs are adapted for their
different roles in life b processes. All living cells contain a nucleus, cytoplasm and a
cell membrane. In addition to these, plant cells also have a cell wall, chloroplasts and
a vacuole. Which part of a cell contains the mitochondria?
a) nucleus
b) cytoplasm
c) cell membrane
d) cell wall

2. The part of a plant cell that stores water, sugar and minerals.
a) nucleus
b) vacuole
c) chloroplast
d) cell wall

3. Photosynthesis is the process of converting light energy and inorganic compounds to

chemical energy and organic compounds. This is the way the plants make their own
food. It happens mainly in the palisade cells of leaves, and is a complex chemical
reaction requiring energy from light. Photosynthesis
a) uses up oxygen.
b) is not important to animals.
c) takes place only in darkness.
d) is essential to all life on earth.

4. Plants need carbon dioxide, water, light and chlorophyll in order to make starch by
photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide enters plants through holes in in the leaves called
a) air spaces.
b) stomata.
c) cuticles.
d) chloroplasts.

5. Our diet must include three types of food: energy foods, 0000 body-building foods
and maintenance foods. The main abcd energy foods are carbohydrates and
a) fats
b) proteins
c) vitamins
d) Minerals

6. Vitamins help to control chemical reactions in our bodies. 0000 Without vitamins
certain reactions cannot take place. We need only tiny amounts of vitamins, but
without them we will suffer from deficiency diseases, like the lack of vitamin D will
lead to
a) beriberi
b) rickets
c) scurvy
d) night blindness

7. The heart pumps blood around the body through a system of tubes called blood
vessels. Which blood abcd vessels carry blood back to the heart?
a) arteries
b) capillaries
c) veins
d) Cartilage

8. What is the function of the white blood cells?

a) to carry nerve impulses to the brain
b) to produce hormones to clot the blood
c) to transport oxygen to the cells
d) to destroy bacteria in the body

9. What is the function of the excretory system?

a) to get rid of undigested food from the body
b) to remove harmful waste produced by the body
c) to take in oxygen and transport it to the cells
d) to control all the organs of the body

10. In a species of pea plant, white Pure-breeding, are crossed with pure completely
dominant over red flowers. I breeding, red-flowered pea plants. What proportion of
white-flowered pea plants white- and red-colored plants will be produced in the FI
generation? 0000
a) all white-flowered plants
b) all red-flowered plants
c) a 3:1 ratio of white-flowered plants to red-flowered plants
d) a 3:1 ratio of red-flowered plants to white-flowered plants

11. Of the following parts of a cell, which one is the smallest in size?
a) amino acid
b) chromosome
c) gene
d) nucleus

12. Which of the following statements is true?

a) DNA is made of genes and contains chromosomes.
b) Chromosomes are made of DNA and contain genes.
c) Genes are made DNA and contain chromosomes.
d) Genes are made of chromosomes and contain DNA.

13. Different organisms have different numbers of chromosomes. Kangaroos have body
cell. This means that the number of chromosomes 12 chromosomes in each in each
egg cell of a kangaroo is
a) 6
b) 12
c) 18
d) 24

14. Phenotype may be defined as

a) genetic make up of an individual.
b) hidden traits of an individual.
c) visible expression of genotype.
d) unrelated characteristics.

15. Alleles are genes which

a) are linked to only one chromosome.
b) occupy corresponding positions on homologous chromosomes.
c) are sex-linked and are transmitted from fathers to their daughters.
d) are always sex-linked and are transmitted from mother’s to their son.

16. Fine pollen grains in the surface of water are examined under a microscope. It is
observed that the pollen grains are in random motion and frequently changing
direction. The movement is most likely due to the
a) movement of air across the water.
b) chemical reaction between the pollen and the water.
c) collisions between water molecules and pollen grains.
d) attraction and repulsion between charged particles.

17. When ice changes from a solid to a liquid at its melting point
a) its temperature increases.
b) heat is given out
c) its particles gain energy.
d) its particles become more ordered.

18. When water changes into steam, the molecules become

a) separate atoms
b) more widely spaced
c) much larger
d) less in mass

19. Which of the following is a physical property of sugar?

a) Its composition is hydrogen, oxygen and carbon.
b) It can be decomposed with heat.
c) It is a white crystalline solid.
d) It turns black with concentrated H2SO4.

20. It is the separation of a liquid into different substances with different boiling points.
a) Distillation
b) Filtration
c) Chromatography
d) Evaporation

21. A chemical reaction occurs when

a) salt solution is heated.
b) crude oil is distilled.
c) dilute hydrochloric acid is added to magnesium ribbon.
d) an electric current passes through an electric wire.

22. Solids do not diffuse like gases because the particles 0000 of a solid
a) are stationary.
b) are too close to move.
c) are too heavy to move.
d) cannot move around each other.

23. Smoke particles are examined under a microscope, and was observed to be moving
randomly. This movement is due to
a) air currents blowing on the smoke particles.
b) air molecules bumping into smoke particles.
c) the force of attraction between the smoke particles.
d) smoke particles reacting with oxygen in the air.

24. The reason why gases diffuse faster than liquids is that gas molecules are
a) more free to move than liquid molecules.
b) more compressible than liquid molecules.
c) lighter than liquid molecules.
d) more elastic than liquid molecules.

25. It is considered as the most primitive kingdom.

a) Fungi
b) Monera
c) Animals
d) Plants

26. Two different forms of the same gene and are located on homologous chromosomes.
a) Chromatids
b) genes
c) alleles
d) DNA

27. Enzymes are proteins that catalyze a particular biochemical reaction involving
specific substrate molecules. Enzyme activity is affected by pH, that is
a) pH has no effect on enzyme activity.
b) all enzymes work at any pH.
c) each enzyme works at different optimum level.
d) enzymes works at a higher pH when the temperature is higher

28. An embryo begins to develop from a zygote as a direct result of

a) fermentation
b) budding
c) sporulation
d) cleavage

29. Which of the following is the function of the cotyledon in a seed?

a) to form the lower portion of the plant
b) to form the upper portion of the plant
c) to protect the seed from drying out
d) to provide nutrients for the germinating plant

30. Which of the following may stimulate the growth of the roots in plant cuttings?
a) the use of auxins
b) a decrease in enzymes
c) a decrease in soil minerals
d) the use of endocrine secretions
31. Species can be best defined as
a) a population that preys on other populations.
b) a group of organisms that occupy the same niche.
c) a group of organisms that mate with each other.
d) a population that works together to defend itself from predators.
32. Evolution is best defined as
a) survival of the fittest.
b) adaptation of an organism to its environment.
c) an abrupt replacement of one community by another.
d) a process of change in organisms over a period of time.

33. Which of the following concepts is best described by 0000 the statement: “Organisms
with favorable variations abcd reproduce more successfully than organisms with less
favorable variations”?
a) over production
b) use and disuse
c) survival of the fittest
d) inheritance of acquired characteristics.

34. The density of CCl4 (carbon tetrachloride) is 1.58 g/mL. How much will 1L of CCI4
weigh?
a) 1.58 g
b) 15.8 g
c) 158 g
d) 1580 g

35. Which of the following will change the boiling point of a liquid?
a) the amount of liquid
b) solid dissolved in a liquid
c) the air temperature
d) the temperature of the Bunsen flame

36. A neutral atom in the ground state contains 16 electrons. What is the total number of
date contains 3p sublevel?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

37. A light microscope contains two lenses that work together to magnify the image the
observer is looking at. Name the part of the microscope that regulates the light that
passes through the object that is mounted on the slide.
a) Ocular
b) Nosepiece
c) diaphragm
d) arm
38. Atoms which are chemically the same but differ in their mass numbers are isotopes.
Chlorine has two isotopes. The atomie structure of isotopes have
a) different number of protons.
b) different number of electrons.
c) different number of neutrons.
d) different number of protons plus electrons.

39. A graduated cylinder is used to measure liquid volume. The correct way of reading
the level of mercury in a graduated cylinder is
a) read from the top of the meniscus.
b) read from the bottom of the meniscus.
c) use the lowest point of the mercury in the cylinder.
d) take the average of the highest and the lowest points.

40. The two main parts of an atom are

a) nucleus and kernel.
b) nucleus and energy levels.
c) planetary electrons and energy levels.
d) the principal energy levels and energy sublevels.

41. An orbital can never be occupied by

a) 0 electron
b) 1 electron
c) 2 electrons
d) 3 electrons

42. An electron-dot symbol consist of the symbol representing the element and an that
usually shows
a) the number of neutrons.
b) the number of protons.
c) the atomic weight.
d) the electrons in the outermost energy levels.

43. Elements are classified according to the

a) number of protons in its nucleus.
b) number of neutrons in its nucleus.
c) number of electrons in its nucleus.
d) total particles in its nucleus.

44. In the atomic nucleus of a certain element are 28 protons and 30 neutrons. The
atomic number of the element is
a) 28
b) 30
c) 58
d) 86

45. The weight of an atom comes mostly from its

a) neutrons
b) electrons
c) protons
d) charge

46. Adding a catalyst to a reaction will change the

a) enthalphy
b) activation energy
c) entropy
d) nature of the product.

47. The radioactive half-life of a certain isotope is 2 days. What part of this isotope will
remain after 8 days?
a) ½
b) ¼
c) 1/8
d) 1/16

48. The radioactivity we encounter comes mostly from

a) medical x-rays.
b) nuclear power plants.
c) the natural environment.
d) the nuclear weapon tests.

49. Most of the energy released in fusion is initially in the form of

a) gamma radiation.
b) high temperatures.
c) potential energy of newly formed nuclei.
d) the kinetic energy of recoiling particles.

50. Mixtures can be classified as homogeneous or heterogeneous and can be separated

by simple means. Solutions and suspensions
a) are both compounds.
b) are both examples of a homogeneous mixture.
c) are both examples of a heterogeneous mixture.
d) can be separated into components by physical means.

51. In the periodic table, the periods are represented by

a) rows
b) metallic elements
c) columns
d) non-metallic elements

52. The elements in Group VII-A

a) are known as halogens.
b) are inert at room temperature.
c) are low in electronegativity.
d) have the largest atomic radius.

53. When combined with metals, nonmetals tend to electrons.

a) lose
b) gain
c) share
d) combine

54. The main reason why the inner transition elements are 0000 placed below the main
body of the periodic table is that
a) they are not real metals.
b) they are the most negative elements.
c) they do not have as many applications as elements shown in the main body of the
table.
d) such positioning makes the periodic table fit better on a sheet of paper.

55. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Reducing agents are oxidized in an oxidation-reduction
b) Oxidizing agents are reduced in an oxidation-reduction
c) The reaction that takes place in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is an example of
electrolysis.
d) oxygen and chlorine are good oxidizing agent,

56. What do respiration, combustion and rusting have in common?

a) None of them involve the reduction of a substance.
b) They are all impeded by the presence of water.
c) They are processes using up oxygen.
d) They have different processes so they share nothing in common.

57. Decomposing water by an electric current will give a ratio of oxygen to hydrogen by
volume equal to
a) 9:1
b) 2:1
c) 1:2
d) 1:8

58. A 20% solution of NaCl means that in 100 g of solution there is

a) 11.70 g of NaCl
b) 117.0 g of NaCl
c) 20 g of NaCl
d) 80 g of NaCl

59. A salt derived from a weak acid and a strong base 0000 will undergo hydrolysis and
give a solution that will be a bed
a) Volatile
b) Acidic
c) Basic
d) Neutral

60. The concept of kinetic energy per molecule is the same as the concept of
a) heat
b) calorie
c) temperature
d) thermal energy

61. The inner part of the earth is kept hot by

a) radioactivity.
b) enormous pressure.
c) great insulation.
d) radiation.

62. The melting of snow in Siberia actually

a) tends to warm the atmosphere.
b) tends to cool the atmosphere.
c) has no effect on the temperature of the surroundings.
d) causes the El Niño phenomenon.

63. The main reason why one can possibly walk barefoot on red-hot wooden coals without
burning the feet is
a) the low thermal conductivity of coal.
b) the high temperature of coal.
c) the low temperature of coal.
d) the stepping techniques.
64. Soon after you remove a bottled mineral water from a 0000 cold refrigerator it
becomes wet. This wetness is primarily due to
a) conduction
b) convection
c) condensation
d) evaporation

65. The temperature of water at the bottom of an ocean

a) below freezing point.
b) freezing point
c) above freezing point
d) 37°C

66. How many star/s is/are there in our solar system?

a) 1
b) 1 million
c) 1 billion
d) infinitely many

67. Which pair of substances are pollutants produced by a petrol-burning engine?

a) nitrogen dioxide and steam
b) carbon monoxide and steam
c) carbon and sulfur dioxide
d) carbon monoxide and lead compounds

68. The moon’s gravitational field strength is one sixth that 0000 of the earth. An object
on earth a mass of 600 kg and a weight of 6 000 N. What is the mass and weight of
the object on the moon?
a) 100 kg and 1 000 N
b) 600 kg and 1 000 N
c) 600 kg and 36 000 N
d) 100 kg and 6 000 N

69. Most of the minerals in the Earth’s crust belong to which of the following groups
a) oxides
b) carbonates
c) sulfates
d) silicates

70. In minerals, it is very common for atoms to gain or lose electrons to form electrically
charged ions. Which of the following bonds resulted from the attraction between the
positively charged ions and the negatively charged ions?
a) covalent
b) hematic
c) ionic
d) metallic

71. Which of the following explains why the troposphere is warmest near the earth’s
surface?
a) The air is most compressed there due to the weight of the atmosphere.
b) The earth’s surface reradiates the solar energy which heats the troposphere.
c) The radioactive elements in the earth’s crust heat the atmosphere above the ground.
d) Lightning strikes the surface which in turn heats the layer above.

72. Is the region of the atmosphere which absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation.
a) ionosphere
b) hydrosphere
c) ozone layer
d) thermosphere

73. What is likely to happen if the moisture in the lower layers of an air mass is increased
and heat energy is added?
a) It will create instability.
b) It will increase the stability of the air mass.
c) It will cause the upper layers of the air to subside.
d) It will create a strong horizontal air movement.

74. An “astronomical unit” is

a) the diameter of the earth.
b) the distance light travels in one year.
c) the distance the earth travels in one year.
d) the average distance from the earth to the sun which is 1.495 × 10¹¹m.

75. The reason why we see eclipses of the Moon more often than solar eclipses, even
though solar eclipses happen more frequently is that
a) lunar eclipses are visible over more than half of Earth compared to less than 20% of
Earth’s surface for partial solar eclipses.
b) the weather is more cloudy during the new moon.
c) a lunar eclipse lasts longer than a solar eclipse.
d) people are not so interested in the solar eclipse.

76. Scientists think of the Earth as a system meaning that it related parts that interact in
some way. The Earth’s system include the Earth-universe system, the atmosphere,
the hydrosphere, the biosphere, and the solid Earth. None of these systems operates
in isolation; all interact to some degree. Habitats in the biosphere are found in all of
the following EXCEPT:
a) the Earth’s mantle
b) desert
c) the lower atmosphere
d) deep ocean

77. Minerals, like all other materials, are made up of atoms and are solids possessing
orderly internal arrangements of atoms. This means that minerals are
a) denser than water
b) made up of single element
c) crystalline
d) ionic compounds

78. Minerals, like gold, diamond and sulfur, are known as native elements. Native
elements are
a) made up of only one element.
b) the most common type of minerals.
c) composed of at least two elements.
d) commonly used as energy resources.

79. Igneous rocks originate when magma or lava cools and crytallizes or when pyroclastic
materials are consolidated. The two categories of igneous rocks are plutonic rocks,
which form within the earth’s crust, and volcanic rocks, which form at the surface.
Volcanic rocks can usually be distinguished from plutonic rocks by
a) its color
b) its composition
c) its iron-magnesium content
d) the size of its mineral crystals

80. In the process of toleration, liquid molecules of 0000 molecules of water vapor. Water
evaporates most readily under the following conditions.
a) hot, dry and windless day.
b) hot, dry with a lot of wind.
c) cold, wet and windless.
d) hot and humid with a lot of wind.

81. Mechanical and chemical weathering result in disintegration and decomposition of

parent material so that it is more nearly in equilibrium with new physical and
chemical conditions. Mechanical weathering involves forces that break rocks into
smaller pieces without changing their chemical composition. Which mechanical
weathering process is involved in the origin of exfoliation domes?
a) pressure release
b) expansion and contraction
c) heating and cooling
d) oxidation and reduction

82. A slope’s shear strength (mountain slope) depends on the slope material’s strength
and cohesiveness and on the amount of internal friction between grains. These
factors promote slope stability. Which of the following factors can actually enhance
the slope stability?
a) water content
b) overloading
c) vegetation
d) none of these

83. Ground water moves very slowly to outlets such as streams, lakes, swamps, and
eventually completing the hydrologic cycle by returning to the oceans. It may be
discharged at the sur- face when a spring forms where the water table intersects the
ground surface. What is the rate of discharge flow of a stream with a cross sectional
area of 168 m² and an average flow of 16 m/sec?
a) 336 m³/s
b) 672 m³/s
c) 1 344 m³/s
d) none of these

84. Stars formet under their own gravity. Eventually, the ab contracting cloud, or
protostar, becomes hot and dense enough for nuclear reactions to begin within. Stars
shine stably until their hydrogen runs out. The sequence of evolution of a typical star
is best described as
a) protostar, main sequence, red giant, white dwarf.
b) protostar, red giant, main sequence, white dwarf.
c) protostar, white dwarf, main sequence, red giant.
d) protostar, main sequence, white dwarf, red giant.

85. An object is in uniform motion if it travels in a straight line at constant speed. All
other motions are accelerated. Acceleration can involve changes of speed, changes of
direction, or both. Which of the following is in uniformly accelerated motion?
a) a car speeding north-east at 88 kph.
b) a car going around a circular curve at uniform speed of 88 kph.
c) an airplane cruising a distance of 100 000 km at 1000 kph,N
d) none of the above.

86. Newton’s first law of motion states that “Every object remains at rest or in motion in a
straight line at constant speed unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.” What is
the net force acting on a airplane in level flight at 500 kph due north?
a) 100 N
b) 490 N
c) 980 N
d) 0

87. Newton’s second law of motion states that “ The net force of an object is equal to its
mass times its acceleration and points in the direction of the acceleration.” What is
the weight of a weight-lifter who has a mass of 120 kilograms?
a) 1100 N
b) 1200 N
c) 1400 N
d) 980 N
88. Assuming the frictional force to be zero when the car hits an oil slick. Describe the
resulting motion of the car.
a) The car will stop.
b) The car will overturn.
c) The car will slide in a circular direction at a constant speed.
d) The car will slide in straight line in the direction it was traveling at the time it hits the
oil slick.

89. A bird is flying upward at an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The direction of the
force of gravity acting on it is
a) upward
b) at an angle upward
c) downward
d) at an angle downward

90. An object is in equilibrium,

I. if it is at rest.
II. if it is moving at a constant velocity only.
III. if it is in free fall.
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II only
d) I, II and III
91. If a car is moving along a constant speed in a straight line, it maybe assumed that
a) a net force is pushing forward.
b) the sum of all forces is zero.
c) the sum of all horizontal forces is zero.
d) it is accelerating.

92. Objects in an orbiting spacecraft is weightless because

a) the spacecraft is in free fall.
b) the objects are beyond the influence of earth’s gravity.
c) there is no air resistance in that region.
d) there is no inertia in the outer space.

93. A stone is thrown straight up into the air. While it rises and falls its potential energy
a) increases then decreases.
b) decreases then increases.
c) remains constant.
d) increases steadily.

94. As the second hand of a clock on a vertical wall moves, its

a) remains constant.
b) changes in direction only.
c) increases steadily.
d) alternately increases and decreases.

95. A substance with a given quantity occupies a definite volume if it is a

I. gas
II. Liquid
III. Solid
a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) II and III only

96. The height of the column of mercury in a mercury 0000 barometer is dependent on
the following EXCEPT on the
a) diameter of the tube.
b) atmospheric pressure.
c) density of mercury and weather condition.
d) altitude at which the measurement is made.

97. A plastic cube 8 cm on a side is floating and partially submerged in water. The mass
of the cube must be
a) 64 grams
b) 512 grams
c) at least 512 grams
d) less than 512 grams

98. If a fish wore goggles above the water surface, it will see better if it has goggles that
are
a) tinted blue-green
b) flat
c) tinted red
d) filled with water

99. The freezing point of water is exactly 0°C, because

a) that is the lowest temperature it can reach.
b) ice boils at that temperature.
c) that is when the molecular motion drops.
d) that is the definition of zero degrees Celsius.

100. What component of hard water makes it “hard”?

a) sodium and nitrogen
b) oxygen and hydrogen
c) large amounts of calcium and magnesium ions
d) large amounts of sodium and carbon dioxide

101. Hydrogen bond is

a) metallic
b) covalent
c) ionic
d) an unusually strong dipole-dipole interaction

102. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Reducing agents are oxidized in an oxidation-reduction reaction.
b) Oxidizing agents are reduced in an oxidation-reduction reaction.
c) During electrolysis, electrical energy is used to produce chemical change.
d) The reaction that takes place in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is an.

103. Charle’s Law states that “If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a gas
varies directly as the absolute a temperature”. The volume of a gas at 91°C is 1000
mL. Find its volume at standard temperature if the pressure is held constant.
a) 500 mL
b) 600 mL
c) 750 mL
d) 910 mL

104. Boyle’s law states that “If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a gas
varies inversely as the pressure”. The volume of a gas is 204 mL at 840 mm pressure.
Calculate the volume of the same gas at 765 mm if the temperature is held constant.
a) 112 mL
b) 224 mL
c) 288 mL
d) 336 mL

105. When 168 mL of a gas at constant pressure is heated from 0°C to 100°C, the
volume must be multiplied by
a) 100/0
b) 0/100
c) 273/373
d) 373/273

106. When 88 mL of a gas at constant pressure is heated, its volume

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) remains unchanged

107. If you wish to find the corrected volume of a gas that was at 15°C and 864 mm
pressure and conditions were bed changed to 0°C and 800 mm pressure, by what
fractions would you multiply the original volume?
a) 288/273 x 864/800
b) 273/288 x 864/800
c) 273/288 x 800/864
d) 288/273 x 800/864

108. Which of the following does not affect the rate of reaction?
a) Concentration
b) Nature of reactants
c) Presence of a catalyst
d) NONE of the above

109. Radioactive changes differ from ordinary chemical changes because radioactive
changes
a) are explosive
b) release energy
c) absorb energy
d) involve changes in the nucleus

110. Chalk, limestone and marbles are remains of seashells deposited in the seas
millions of years ago. They are all forms a bed of
a) calcium carbonate
b) carbon dioxide
c) calcium hydroxide
d) sodium sulfide

111. All of the following are compounds EXCEPT

a) air
b) sodium fluoride
c) magnesium oxide
d) baking soda

112. A rainbow viewed from an airplane may form a complete circle. Where do you
expect to see the shadow of the airplane?
a) at the left side of the rainbow
b) at the center of the rainbow
c) at the right side of the rainbow
d) you can’t see the shadow of the plane

113. Kinetic energy or energy in motion depends on the mass and the motion of an
object. In formula, KE = ½ mv². An object with a speed of 8 m/s has a kinetic energy
of 168 joules. How much kinetic energy would it have if its speed were reduced to 2
m/s?
a) 10.5 J
b) 21 J
c) 42 J
d) 63 J

114. The magnetic needle of a compass always points to the north because
a) the needle touches the north pole.
b) the earth has a magnetic north pole.
c) compasses are used for finding direction.
d) the earth’s magnetic field is strongest at the south pole.

115. If your science teacher showed you a pea plant that resulted from a genetic
experiment, what could you tell with greatest accuracy?
a) the plant’s phenotype
b) the plant’s genotype
c) which recessive genes the plant has
d) which generation the plant is from

116. If two identical mixtures of sugar and water are prepared, and only one is stirred,
the one that is stirred dissolves the sugar faster. Which of the following conclusions
can be supported by information provided?
a) Stirring increases solubility.
b) Stirring increases the amount of solute.
c) Stirring increases the amount of solvent.
d) Stirring causes the molecules to move and spread apart more quickly.

117. Which of the following is the force that begins to set a truck in motion?
a) the burning of gasoline
b) the push of the hot gases on a piston
c) the push of hot gases on shafts and gears
d) the push of the piston on shafts and gears

118. The solubility of a solute must indicate

I. the quantity of solute.
II. the quantity of solvent.
III. The temperature of the solution.
a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) I , II , and III

119. As the drops of water that leak from a dripping faucet fall,
a) get closer together.
b) get farther apart.
c) the pattern of their motion can’t be determined.
d) remain at a relatively fixed distance from one another.

120. Which of the following statements is true?

a) All of the properties of two different pure substances could be identical.
b) Solutions may exist in solid, liquid, or gaseous states.
c) All atoms of a given element are exactly alike.
d) The SI system is more accurate than the English system of weights and measures.

121. When the red light shines on a red rose, which of the following is true?
a) The leaves reflect rather than absorb the red light, and so it becomes cooler than the
petals.
b) The leaves absorb rather than reflect the red light, and so it becomes warmer than
the petals.
c) The green leaves will look red.

122. All of our Earth’s weather occurs in the troposphere. The data needed in weather
forecasting include temperature, air pressure, humidity, type of clouds, level of
precipitation, and wind direction and speed. The wind blows in response to
I . pressure differences
II. the Earth’s rotation
III. temperature differences
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and III only
d) I, II and III

123. Relative humidity is the amount of water vapor in the air at a given temperature
expressed as a percentage of the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold
at that temperature. What happens to relative humidity as air temperature
decreases?
a) it increases
b) it decreases
c) it drops
d) it stays the same

124. Air cools at the dry adiabatic rate of 10°C for each kilometer it rises. If a parcel of
dry air initially at 0°C expands adiabatically while flowing upward alongside a
mountain, what is its temperature when it has risen 8 km?
a) -80°C
b) -40°C
c) 40°C
d) 80°C

125. It is possible to maintain the pressure while heating a gas if

a) additional gas is added.
b) its internal energy is increased.
c) the volume of gas is increased.
d) its internal energy is decreased.