1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose

the word or phrase that bestfits each ofthe numbered blanks from 1 to 5
Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (1) up about 10 percent of the population
- but, frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right- handed
gadgets, awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand.
What (2) points to a complex (3)
someone to become a lefthand? Scientists aren‟t exactly sure, but research between genes and
environment While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use
their left hands do have more left-handed family members. And researchers have found different brain
wirings in righties vs. lefties. But no matter (4) it is that drives someone to use their antipodal paw,
science has also uncovered a particular set of personality traits that left-handed people tend to have. So
for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out there - it‟s time to brush up on
your left-handed knowledge and
help (5) an end to leftie discrimination once and for all.

Question 1: A. consist B. account C. hold D. make

Question 2: A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does
Question 3: A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D. collaborated
Question 4: A. which B. who C. what D. that
Question 5: A. put B. bring C. make D. take

2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 6 to 12.
Successful students often do the followings while studying. First, they have an overview
before reading. Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it (which often
needs jumping forward or backward to process information). They also relate important points to one
another. Also, they activate and use their prior knowledge. When they realize that their
understanding is not good, they do not wait to change strategies. Last, they can monitor
understanding and take action to correct or “fix up” mistakes in comprehension.
Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective study
skills. They tend to assume a passive role, in learning and rely on others (e.g., teachers, parents) to
monitor their studying, for example, low-achieving students often do not monitor their understanding
of content; they may not be aware of the purpose of studying; and they show little evidence of
looking back, or employing “fix-up” strategies to fix understanding problems. Students who struggle
with learning new information seem to be unaware that they must extent effort beyond simply
reading the content to understand and remember it. Children with learning disabilities do not plan
and judge the quality of their studying. Their studying may be disorganized. Students with learning
problems face challenges with personal organization as well. They often have difficulty keeping
track of materials and assignments, following directions, and completing work on time. Unlike good
studiers who employ a variety of study skills in a flexible yet purposeful manner, low-achieving
students use a restricted range of study skills. They cannot explain why good study strategies are
important for learning; and they tend to use the same, often ineffective study approach for all
learning tasks, ignoring task content, structure or difficulty.
(Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning — NUI Galway)
Question 6: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Successful and low-academic achieving students
B. Successful learners and their learning strategies
C. Study skills for high school students
D. Effective and ineffective ways of learning
Question 7: The word “prior” in the first paragraph is closest meaning to _ ?
A. important B. earlier C. forward D. good
Question 8: According to the passage, what can be learnt about passive students?
A. They depend on other people to organize their learning
B. They are slow in their studying
C. They monitor their understanding
D. They know the purpose of studying
Question 9: Which of the followings is NOT an evidence of monitoring studying?
A. Being aware of the purpose of studying B. Monitoring their understanding of content
C. Fixing up mistakes in understanding D. Looking at their backs
Question 10: According to the passage, to learn new information, low-achieving students do
NOT .
A. just understand it B. relate it to what they have known
C. simply remember it D. read it
Question 11: In compared with low-achieving students, successful students use .
A. aimless study techniques B. various study skills
C. restricted strategies D. inflexible study ways
Question 12: The underlined pronoun “They” in the last sentence refers to .
A. study strategies B. study skills
C. low-achieving students D. good studiers

3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 13 to 20
Pollution emitted in industrial areas represents a threat to human health and the surrounding
natural resources. We have a tendency to believe that the production processes are the only source of
environmental damage, and often forget about the possible long-term effects of harmful production
practices. We may think that the closure of these huge industrial areas would improve the quality of
the environment. Unfortunately, this ignores the threat of the remaining waste, which is abandoned
and poorly stored. It represents an even bigger danger because it stands neglected as it degrades and
leaks into the earth without any control at all.
Changes in the water chemistry due to surface water contamination can affect all levels of an
ecosystem. It can affect the health of lower food chain organisms and, consequently, the availability
of food up through the food chain. It can damage the health of wetlands and damage their ability to
support healthy ecosystems, control flooding, and filter pollutants from storm water runoff. The
health of animals and humans are affected when they drink or bathe in contaminated water. In
addition water-based organisms, like fish and shellfish, can pile up and concentrate contaminants in
their bodies. When other animals or humans eat these organisms, they receive a much higher dose of
contaminant than they would have if they had been directly exposed to the original contamination.
Contaminated groundwater can badly affect animals, plants and humans if it is removed from
the ground by manmade or natural processes. Depending on the study of rocks of the area,
groundwater may rise to the surface through springs or seeps, flow sideways into nearby rivers,
streams, or ponds, or sink deeper into the earth. In many parts of fhe world, groundwater is pumped
out of the ground to be used for drinking, bathing, other household uses, agriculture, and industry.
Contaminants in the soil can harm plants when they take up the contamination through their
roots. Eating, breathing in, or touching contaminated soil, as well as eating plants or animals that
have piled up soil contaminants can badly affect the health of humans and animals.
Air pollution can cause breathing-related problems and other bad health effects as
contaminants are absorbed from the lungs into other parts of the body. Certain air contaminants can
also harm animals and humans when they contact the skin. Plants rely on breathing for their growth
and can also be affected by exposure to contaminants moved in the air.
Question 13: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Sources of environmental damage B. The pollution from the city
C. Bad effects of industrial waste D. The quality of the environment
Question 14: According to the passage, the industry is likely to be thought as_ .
A. a danger to the environment B. the only source of pollution
C. the utmost harmful activity D. a threat to human health
Question 15: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to .
A. the remaining waste B. a danger
C. the environment D. the threat of the remaining waste
Question 16: Which of the followings affect an ecosystem as the whole?
A. Surface water contamination B. Soil contamination
C. Groundwater contamination D. Air contamination
Question 17: According to the passage, which of the followings supports healthy ecosystems? A.
Lower food chain organisms B. Animals C. Water-based organisms D.
Wetlands
Question 18: Which of the followings is NOT badly affected by contaminated groundwater?
A. Human B. Plants C. Rocks D. Animals
Question 19: Which of the followings is the flow of water from the ground to the surface?
A. Streams B. Ponds C. Rivers D. Springs
Question 20: Which of the followings has the closest meaning to the word “absorbed” in the last
paragraph?
A. Consumed B. Taken in C. Swallowed D. Piled up
4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer for each of the questions.

Understanding India's Caste System

It has been said that life is what we make of it. In other words, if we work hard and focus on our
goals, we can have great careers and enjoy high status is society. However, these opportunities don‟t
exist for everyone. In some places, the family you are born into will decide almost everything about
your life. India‟s caste system is an example of this.
The caste system is a major part of the Hindu religion that has existed for thousands of years. It is a
way of organizing and grouping people based on the occupation of the family. Castes will determine
whom people can socialize with and their place in society. Originally, a person‟s caste was supposed
to be determined by their personality, but over time it has been linked to their job and family.
There are four classes, also known as varnas, in India‟s caste system. The highest one is Brahmin.
People in this class have jobs in education and religion. These are seen as extremely important
functions for the society as they deal with the knowledge. The second highest level is the Kshatriya,
or ruling class. People from this group can be soldiers, landowners, or have jobs in politics. The
class beneath this is the Vaishya. These people often work in the commercial sector as merchants.
The fourth class level is the Shudra. Shudras typically work as unskilled labourers doing factory or
farm work, or they may also be employed as artists.
There is another group, the Harijan, that is at the bottom and considered to be outside of the caste
system. For many years, they were known as Untouchables, people from this caste held the most
undesirable jobs in society, such as cleaning up garbage. Furthermore, they weren‟t allowed to pray
at public temples or drink water from the same wells as other classes. If someone from another caste
came into contact with an Untouchable, they were considered dirty and would be expected to bathe
vigorously to clean themselves.
Although the caste system still exists in India, the government is taking steps to improve the living
conditions and decrease unemployment rates for the Shudras and Harijan. This includes providing
better health care, offering literacy programmes, and making sure that people from higher social
classes do not exploit them. It seems unlikely that the caste system will disappear any time soon, but
the overall conditions for those at the bottom do seem to be improving.
21. Which of the following is not true about India‟s caste system? A.
The caste system has been used in India for a long time.
B. The Kshatriya is the second highest class.
C. Hard work helps people move up in the caste system.
D. It is possible that a Shudra would work on a farm.
22. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to .
A. the fact that your origin will mostly decide your future
B. the pleasure of life in India
C. the India‟s caste system existing for thousands of years
D. the major part of the Hindu religion
23. What is the caste system mainly based on?
A. What a person believes on B. When a person starts school
C. Who a person‟s parents are D. Where a person was born
24. What kind of job would a Brahmin likely have?
A. A priest B. A warrior C. An inventor D. A painter
25. What could replace the word “ruling” in paragraph 3?
A. defeating B. guessing C. delaying D. governing
26. All of the following are true about the Harijan EXCEPT that .
A. they used to be known as Untouchables
B. they had to do undesirable jobs in society
C. any contact between someone from another caste with an Untouchable was
considered unacceptable
D. anyone from another caste coming to contact with an Untouchable is not allowed to
pray at temples
27. What does the passage suggest about the future of the caste system? A.
One day soon it won‟t be used anymore in India.
B. It is probably going to get worse before it gets better.
C. The bottom groups will rise to rule over the top classes.
D. It will likely continue to exist for a long time in India.
5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer for each of the questions.
Throughout the world there are different ways for people to greet each other. In much of the world, a
handshake is the (28) _ form of welcoming and greeting someone. In many countries around the
Mediterranean Sea a (29) kiss on the cheek is the appropriate way to welcome friends and family. It
can be a very (30) surprise if you expect to shake hands and get a kiss or a hug instead.
At times, it is difficult to tell what sort of greeting (31) is followed. People may bow, grab another‟s
arm or even slap the other person on the back. In some places people just smile, look at the other‟s
face and say nothing.
Most people in the world are tolerant of visitors and don‟t mind what travellers do that seems wrong
as long as the visitors are (32). A big part of the delightfulness of world travel is
experiencing different customs.
28. A.different B.unique C.common D.same
29. A.light B.superficial C.fast D.heavy
30. A.huge B.large C.big D.great
31. A.habit B.routine C.custom D.tradition
32. A.sincere B.truthful C.faithful D.hopeful
6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer for each of the questions
Humans have struggled against weeds since the beginnings of agriculture. Marring our gardens is
one of the milder effects of weeds – any plants that thrive where they are unwanted. They clog
waterways, destroy wildlife habitats, and impede farming. Their spread eliminates grazing areas and
accounts for one-third of all crop loss. They compete for sunlight, nutrients, and water with useful
plants.
The global need for weed control had been answered mainly by the chemical industry. Its herbicides
are effective and sometimes necessary, but some pose serious problems, particularly if misused.
Toxic compounds threaten animal and public health when they accumulate in food plants,
groundwater, and drinking water. They also harm workers who apply them.
In recent years, the chemical industry has introduced several herbicides that are more ecologically
sound. Yet new chemicals alone cannot solve the world‟s weed problems. Hence, scientists are
exploring the innate weed-killing powers of living organisms, primarily insects and microorganisms.
The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans. They can
be chosen for their ability to attack selected targets and leave crops and other plants untouched. In
contrast, some of the most effective chemicals kill virtually all the plants they come in contact with,
sparing only those that are naturally resistant or have been genetically modified for resistance.
Furthermore, a number of biological agents can be administered only once, after which no added
applications are needed. Chemicals typically must be used several times per growing season.
33. With what topic does this passage primarily deal? A.
The dangers of toxic chemicals.
B. A proposal to ban the use of all herbicides.
C. The importance of the chemical industry.
D. Advantages of biological agents over chemical ones.
34. The word „marring‟ in bold is closest in meaning to
A. planting B. spoiling C. dividing D. replacing
35. The word „clog‟ in bold is closest in meaning to
A. drain B. grow along C. obstruct D. float on
36. Which of the following terms does the author define in the first paragraph?
A. grazing area B. weeds C. nutrients D. wildlife habitats
37. Which of the following statements about the use of chemical agents as herbicides would the
author most likely agree?
A. It has become more dangerous recently. B. It is occasionally required.
C. It is safe but inefficient. D. It should be increased.
38. The word „innate‟ in bold is closest in meaning to
A. effective B. natural C. active D. organic
39. The word „applications‟ in bold could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. treatments B. requests C. special purposes D. qualifications
40. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. Two possible causes of a phenomenon are compared.
 B. A problem is described and possible solutions are discussed.
C. A general idea is introduced and several specific examples are given.
D. A recommendation is analysed and rejected
7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 41 to 45
About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources.
We (41) well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of
it is thrown away. A high proportion of our animal consumption is in the (42) of packaging and
this constitutes about seven percent by weight, of our domestic(43) _ . Almost all of it can be
recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics
themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(44) than coal and one
methodn of “recovery” strongly (45) by plastic manufacturers if the conversion of waste plastic
into a fuel.
Question 41. A. consign B. import C. consume D. remove
Question 42. A. form B. way C. type D. kind
Question 43. A. goods B. refuse C. rubble D. requirements
Question 44. A. effect B. degree C. value D. demand
Question 45. A. argued B. presented C. desired D. favored
8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 51. FIRST TIME IN THE AIR
When John Mills was going to fly in an aeroplane for the first time, he was frightened. He did not
like the idea of being thousands of feet up in the air. “ I also didn't like the fact that I wouldn't be in
control,” says John.
“I'm a terrible passenger in the car. When somebody else is driving, I tell them what to so. It drives
everybody crazy.”

However John couldn't avoid flying any longer. It was the only way he could visit his grandchildren
in Canada.
“I had made up my mind that I was going to do it, I couldn't let my son, his wife and their three
children travel all the way here to visit me. It would be so expensive for them and I know Tom's
business isn't doing so well at the moment – it would also be tiring for the children – it's a nine-hour
flight!” he says.
To get ready for the flight John did lots of reading about aeroplanes. When he booked his seat, he
was told that he would be flying on a Boeing 747, which is better known as a jumbo jet. “I needed to
know as much as possible before getting in that plane. I suppose it was a way of making myself feel
better. The Boeing 747 is the largest passenger aircraft in the world at the moment. The first one flew
on February 9th 1969 in the USA. It can carry up to 524 passengers and 3.400 pieces of luggage. The
fuel for aeroplanes is kept in the wings and the 747 is wings are so big that they can carry enough
fuel for an average car to be able to travel 16,000 kilometres a year for 70 years. Isn't that
unbelievable? Even though I had discovered all this very interesting information about the jumbo,
when I saw it for the first time, just before I was going to travel to Canada, I still couldn't believe that
something so enormous was going to get up in the air and fly. I was even more impressed when I saw
how big it was inside with hundreds of people!”
The biggest surprise of all for John was the flight itself. “The take-off itself was much smoother than
I expected although I was still quite scared until we were in the air. In the end, I managed to relax,
enjoy the food and watch one of the movies and the view from the window was spectacular. I even
managed to sleep for a while! Of course,” continues John, “the best reward of all was when I arrived
in Canada and saw my son and his family, particularly my beautiful grandchildren. Suddenly, I felt so
silly about all the years when I couldn't even think of getting on a plane. I had let my fear of living
stop me from seeing the people I love most in the world. I can visit my son and family as often as I
like now!”
Question 46. Why did John Mills fly in an aeroplane?
A. He wanted to go on holiday B. He wanted to try it.
C. He wanted to see his family D. He had to travel on business.
Question 47. Why did John read about aeroplane?
A. He wanted to know how they work. B. It was his hobby.
C. It made him feel safer. D. He had found a book on them.
Question 48. What happened when he saw the jumbo jet for the first time? A.
He felt much safer. B. He liked the shape of it.
C. He couldn‟t believe how big it was. D. He thought the wings were very small.
Question 49. How did John feel when the aeroplane was taking off?
A. excited B. happy C. sad D. frightened Question
50. What surprised John most about the flight?
A. that he liked the food. B. that he was able to sleep
C. that there was a movie being shown D. that the view was good Question
51. How did John feel about his fears in the end?
A. He thought he had wasted time being afraid.
B. He realized it was okay to be afraid.
C. He hoped his grandchildren weren‟t afraid of flying.
D. He realized that being afraid kept him safe.
9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 52 to 34.
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of
pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different
individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise
may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing
loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by-product of our
advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the
quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no
lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection.
Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes
accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing
mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate,
blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general
increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to
fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long
as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly
responding in the same way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have
concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a
serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not
only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that
hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning
that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. Fetuses
exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to
gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very
important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase affecting the quality of
rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as well as the way
that we interact with each other
Question 52: Which of the following is the author‟s main point?
 A. Hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 53: According to the passage, what is noise?
A. A byproduct of technology. B. Physical and psychological harm
C. Congestion.. D. Unwanted sound.
Question 54: Why is noise difficult to measure?
A. All people do not respond to it in the same way
B. It causes hearing loss.
C. It is unwanted.
D. People become accustomed to it.
Question 55: The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by .
A. hazardous B. crowded C. polluted D. rushed
Question 56: The word it in the first paragraph refers to .
A. the quality of life B. advancing technology
C. the noise D. physical and psychological harm
Question 57: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same
way that they respond to .
A. annoyance B. danger C. damage D. disease
Question 58: Look at the verb accelerate in paragraph 3. Which of the following is the
closest in meaning to .
A. decrease B. alter C. increase D. release
Question 59: The phrase as well in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _.
A. after all B. instead C. also D. regardless
Question 60: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye .
A. responds to fear B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions D. is damaged by noise
10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to
28.

EXAMS OR CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT?

 How do you feel when you (61) an exam? Do you always succeed in getting all your
ideas down on paper, or do you sometimes feel that you‟re (62) a mess of it? Apart
from those lucky few who sail through exams, most secondary school (63) find them
very stressful. Many teachers are aware of the problems their students face and use a
different method for measuring their progress: continuous assessment. With continuous
assessment, students are given various (64) to do through the year. All their marks are
added together to produce a total mark at the end of the year. Students have to take more
responsibility for their education because they can‟t rely on doing well on just one day.
Also, they have more time to (65) over their work, meaning that they are able to do their
best.
Question 61: A. sit B. write C. make D. give
Question 62: A. doing B. making C. having D. taking
Question 63: A. colleagues B. classmates C. perfects D. students
Question 64: A. tasks B. efforts C. achievements D. results
Question 65: A. consider B. imagine C. think D. examine

11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 72.
Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more
real than speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing
secondary to language. Human beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from
surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been talking for much longer,
doubtless ever since there have been human beings.
When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although
imperfectly. Even today there are spoken languages that have no written form.
Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write; any human child who is
not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal human being
cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to
write. In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill,
and even today many who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or
write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only imperfectly.
 To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the
latter. One advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes
possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human,
writing makes us civilized.

Question 66: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech

because . A. it has become very important in our culture.
B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years.
C. writing is secondary to language.
D. people have been writing since there have been human beings.
Question 67: The author of the passage argues that .
A. all languages should have a written form.
B. writing has become too important in today‟s society.
C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write.
D. speech is more basic to language than writing.
Question 68: Normal human beings .
A. learn to talk after learning to write. B. learn to write before learning to talk.
C. learn to write and to talk at the same time. D. learn to talk before learning to
write. Question 69: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives
the example of
.
A. severely handicapped children. B. people who learn the rudiments of speech.
C. intelligent people who couldn‟t write. D. people who speak many languages.
Question 70: According to the author, one mark of any civilized society is that it .
A. keeps written records. B. affirms the primacy of speech over writing.
C. teaches its children to speak perfectly. D. affirms the primacy of writing over
speech.
Question 71: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means .
A. skill B. rudiments C. domination D. benefit
Question 72: Which of the following is
NOT true? A. It is easy to acquire
the writing skill.
B. Writing has become so important in our culture.
C. Writing represents speech, but not perfectly.
 D. Speech is essential but writing has important benefits.

12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 73 to 80
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will
cause a disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the
biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too
aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause
great damage to children

However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but
are ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if
the parents are very supportive of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a
lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They
even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael‟s mother knows
very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he
never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael‟s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are
successful musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to
be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They
are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint
his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
Question 73: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to .
A. push their child into trying too much. B. help their child to become a genius.
C. make their child become a musician. D. neglect their child‟s education.
Question 74: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious
parents? A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic
parents.
C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists.
Question 75: Michael Collins is fortunate in that .
A. his father is a musician. B. his parents are quite rich.
 C. his parents help him in a sensible way. D. his mother knows little about music.
Question 76: The phrase "crazy about" in in the paragraph 3 mostly means .
A. surprised at B. extremely interested in
C. completely unaware of D. confused about
Question 77: Winston‟s parents push their son so much and he .
A. has won a lot of piano competitions. B. cannot learn much music from them.
C. has become a good musician. D. is afraid to disappoint them.
Question 78: The word "They" in the paragraph 3 refers to .
A. Michael‟s parents B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. concerts
Question 79: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT .
A. Winston‟s father B. Winston‟s mother C. Michael‟s father D.
Michael‟s mother Question 80: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the
principle that .
A. successful parents always have intelligent children.
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children.
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants.
D. parents should spend more money on the child‟s education.
13. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered
blanks.
I had never been to Denmark before, so when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I
little suspected that by the end of the trip I'd have made such lasting friendships. Esjberg
is a (81) port for a cyclist's arrival, where tourist information can be obtained and money
changed. A cycle track leads (82) town and down to Ribe, where I spent my first night.
The only appointment I had to keep was a meeting with a friend who was flying out in
June. I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would include several
small islands and various parts of the countryside.
In my (83) , a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality, and
this trip was no (84) . On only my second day, I got into conversation with a cheerful
man who turned out to be the local baker. He insisted that I should join his family for
lunch, and, while we were eating, he contacted his daughter inOdense. Within minutes, he
had (85) for me to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on my way with a fresh loaf
of bread to keep me going and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful
holiday.
Question 81: A. capable B. ready C. favorable D. convenient
Question 82: A. in to B. up ward C. out of D. upon
Question 83: A. information B. experience C. knowledge D. observation
Question 84: A. exception B. difference C. change D. contract
Question 85: A. fixed B. ordered C. settled D. arranged

14. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees‟ homes
and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor
entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the
machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees
can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey
in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But
although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as
predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a
few years ago. Why hasn‟t telecommuting become more popular?

Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the
part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a
large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems
for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager‟s
responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to
accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group,
and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if
they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in
their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.
Question 86: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. An overview of telecommuting B. The failure of telecommuting
 C. The advantages of telecommuting D. A definition of telecommuting
Question 87: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week B. More than 8 million
C. Fewer than last year D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today
Question 88: The phrase “of no consequence” means .
A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant
Question 89: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting
EXCEPT
.
A. the opportunities for advancement B. the different system of supervision
C. the lack of interaction with a group D. the work place is in the home
Question 90: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to .
A. telecommuters B. systems C. executives D. responsibilities
Question 91: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the
employees
.
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
feel that aC. work area in their home is away from the office.
are D. ignorant of telecommuting.
Question 92: The word “reluctant” in line 13 can best be replaced by .
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical

15. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a
counselor and professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both
academically and socially. But students now are less mature and often not ready for the
responsibility of being in college.
It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life‟s
obstacle. Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their
children writing admission essays to picking college courses, certainly may contribute to
their children‟s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social
trends of today.
How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression?
The number of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions
has increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don‟t want to “feel”
anything unpleasant and we certainly don‟t want our children to “suffer”.
The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn
the necessary skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware
of the fact that some individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from
treatment, but I question the growing number of medicated adolescents today.

Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political
realities, but I don‟t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than
that of the past 10 years.
What I do think is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all
the responsibilities of life.
What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic
parenting of these students – the student who complains that the professor didn‟t remind
her of the due date for an assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the
student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism.
As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college
student before we can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect
young people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this direction, we have to step
back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to
begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood.
Question 93: According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in
that they are .
A. too ready for college B. not as mature
C. not so academic D. responsible for their work
Question 94: The word “handle” in parapgraph 2 mostly means .
A. deal with B. gain benefits from C. lend a hand to D. point at
Question 95: According to the writer, students‟ difficulties to cope with college life are
partly due to
 .
A. the absence of parents‟ protection B. the lack of parental support
C. the over-parenting from parents D. the lack of financial support
Question 96: The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to .
A. studying medicine at college B. doing medical research
C. receiving medical treatment D. suffering anxiety from depression
Question 97: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic
students.
B. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10
years.
C. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political
situation.
D. Our society certainly doesn‟t want our children to experience unpleasant
things.
Question 98: Students who are not well – prepared to be young “adults” with all the
responsibilities of life will need .
A. to be assigned more housework from adults
B. to be given more social responsibilities
C. to be encouraged to meet challenges
D. daily coaching from their teachers
Question 99: According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will
A. help students to learn to stand on their own feet
B. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives
C. defeat students from the very beginning
D. discourage students and let them down forever
Question 100: What is probably the writer‟s attitude in the passage?
A. Praising B. Indifferent C. Humorous D. Critial

16. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
choose the word of phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 101 to 105.
As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course
to pursue. In this world of diversity, (101) such a choice is not easy for both children and
parents. In the old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not
so many diverse learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive
professional careers like doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher,etc. to think about.
Most higher learning usually led to a financially successful life. (102) , the cost of
education was not so high. Today‟s world is entirely different from the things (103) _
have just been described. The job market is constantly changing due to innovative
technology and new (104) . Meanwhile, most

teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-
organized career talks and student counseling workshop to guide and help teenagers
(105) what course

to take. Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as
surveys, interviews and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or
learning styles of the students.
Question 101: A. taking B. making C. giving D. having
Question 102: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. Therefore
Question 103: A. when B. that C. where D. what
Question 104: A. competitively B. competition C. compete D. competitive
Question 105: A. employ B. study C. decide D. apply

17: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Living things include both the visible world of animals and plants as well as the
invisible world of bacteria and viruses. On a basic level, we can say that life is ordered.
Organisms have an enormously complex organization. Life can also “work”. Living
creatures can take in energy from the environment. This energy, in the form of food, is
changed to maintain metabolic processes and for survival. Life grows and develops. This
means more than just getting larger in size. Living organisms also have the ability to
rebuild and repair themselves when injured. Life can reproduce. Life can only come from
other living creatures. Life can respond. Think about the last time you accidentally
stubbed your toe. Almost instantly, you moved back in pain. Finally, life can adapt and
respond to the demands placed on it by the environment. There are three basic types of
adaptations that can occur in higher organisms.
Reversible changes occur as a response to changes in the environment. Let's say
you live near sea level and you travel to a mountainous area. You may begin to experience
difficulty breathing and an increase in heart rate as a result of the change in height. These
signs of sickness go away when you go back down to sea level.
Body- related changes happen as a result of prolonged changes in the environment.
Using the previous example, if you were to stay in the mountainous area for a long time,
you would notice that your heart rate would begin to slow down and you would begin to
breath normally. These changes are also reversible. Genotypic changes (caused by genetic
change) take place within the genetic make up of the organism and are not reversible. An
example would be the development of resistance to bug-killing chemicals by insects and
spiders. Question 106: In what way is life organized?.
A. Hard B. Difficult C. Complicated D. Problematic
Question 107: Which of the followings is NOT a feature of life?
A. Getting a job. B. Giving birth.
C. Getting larger and self-repairing. D. Reacting to the environment.
Question 108: What is the energy for the living things called?
A. Food. B. Metabolic process. C. Green energy. D. Environment Question 109:
You see life respond most clearly when you .
A. unintentionally hurt yourself. B. move part of your body due to threat.
C. look at your toe. D. feel hurt.
Question 110: Which type of living creatures can adapt to the changes in the
environment?
A. More visible B. Lower C. Higher D. More human
Question 111: What does the word “Reversible” in the passage mean?
A. Changeable B. Visible C. Fitful D. Irregular
Question 112: Which type of adaptation is permanent?
A. Body- related B. Reversible C. Genotypic D. Environmental

18. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
 For many American university students, the weeklong spring break holiday means
an endless party on a sunny beach in Florida or Mexico. In Panama City Beach, Florida, a
city with a permanent population of around 36,000, more than half a million university
students arrive during the month of March to play and party, making it the number one
spring break destination in the United States.
A weeklong drinking binge is not for anyone, however, and a growing number of
American university students have found a way to make spring break matter. For them,
joining or leading a group of volunteers to travel locally or internationally and work to
alleviate problems such as poverty, homelessness, or environmental damage makes spring
break a unique learning experience that university students can feel good about.
During one spring break week, students at James Madison University in Virginia participated
in 15 “alternative spring break” trips to nearby states, three others to more distant parts of
the United States, and five international trips. One group of JMU students traveled to
Bogalusa, Louisiana, to help rebuild homes damaged by Hurricane Katrina. Another group
traveled to Mississippi to organize creative activities for children living in a homless
shelter. One group of students did go to Florida, but not to lie on the sand. They performed
exhausting physical labor such as maintaining hiking trails and destroying invasive plant
species that threaten the native Florida ecosystem.
Students who participate in alternative spring break projects find them very
rewarding. While most university students have to get their degrees before they can start
helping people, student volunteers are able to help people now. On the other hand, the
accommodations are far from glamorous. Students often sleep on the floor of a school or
spend the week camping in tents. But students only pay around $250 for meals and
transportation, which is much less than some of their peers spend to travel to more
traditional spring break hotspots.
Alternative spring break trips appear to be growing in popularity at universities
across the United States. Students cite a number of reason for participating. Some
appreciate the opportunity to socialize and meet new friends. Others want to exercise their
beliefs about people‟s obligation to serve humanity and make the world a better place
whatever their reason, these students have discovered something that gives them rich
rewards along with a break from school work.
 (―Active Skills for Reading: Book 2‖ by Neil J.Anderson –
Thompson, 2007) Question 113: How many university students travel to Panama Beach
City every March for spring break?

A. Around 500,000 B. Around 10,000 C. Around 36,000 D. Around 50,000

Question 114: The article is mainly
about . A. sleeping on the floor or
camping in tents.
B. alternative spring break trips.
C. drinking problems among university students.
D. spring break in Florida and Mexico
Question 115: The word “binge” in the second paragraph probably means_ .
A. having very little alcohol. B. refusing to do something.
C. studying for too long. D. doing too much of something.
Question 116: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem that alternative
spring break trips try to help solve?
A. Alcoholism. B. Environmental damage.
C. Poverty. D. Homelessness.
Question 117: Which of the following gives the main idea of the third
paragraph? A. One group of JMU students worked on homes damaged
by a hurricane.
B. Some students work to help the environment on alternative spring break trips.
C. Children living in homeless shelters enjoy creative activities.
D. University students do many different types of work on alternative spring break
trips.
Question 118: The article implies that university students .
A. many take fewer alternative spring break trips in future.
B. would prefer to wait until they have their degrees to start helping people.
C. complain about accommodations on alternative spring break trips.
D. spend more than $250 for traditional spring break trips.
Question 119: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to .
A. degrees B. projects C. people D. students
Question 120: Which of the following is mentioned as a reason for participating in
alternative spring break trips?
 A. The hope of earning money.
B. A personal opinion that people must help other people.
C. A desire to travel to glamorous places.
D. A wish to get away from family and friends.

19. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many
African cultures. In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to
the family of the bride before the marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from
culture to culture in Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price
often takes the form of cattle. In Western African, kola nuts, shells, and other goods are often
used for the payment of the bride price. The actual payment of money sometimes takes
place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The amount of paid in a bride price can also
vary. In modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite small and its value is mainly
symbolic. However, the bride price can still be quite high, especially among prominent or
highly traditional families.

There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is
that the bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride's family has
gone in order to raise her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents
payment for the loss of a family member, since the bride will officially become a member of
her husband's family and will leave her own. On a deeper level the bride price represents
payment for the fact that the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby
increasing the wealth of the family. This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price
must often be returned if the bride fails to bear children.

The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the
payment of bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are
dependent on their fathers and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives,
and this generally leads to greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between
the two families concerning the bride price allow the parents and other family members to
meet and get to know one another before the marriage. Finally, since the bride price must
often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride's family often works to make sure that any
marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of wealth
distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the marriage of their
son, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families.
Question 121: According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the bride price
EXCEPT
.
A. its amount and form can vary
B. its practice is occasionally only symbolic
C. it is a relatively new practice in Africa
D. it is generally higher among traditional families
Question 122: Why does the author mention “the payment of money” in
paragraph 1? A. To stress that the use of goods in the payment of bride
price is most common.
B. To demonstrate the differences in how rich and poor families pay the bride price.
C. To illustrate how the practice of bride price has changed over time.
D. To demonstrate how expensive a bride price can be sometimes.
Question 123: The word "prominent" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .
A. educated B. important C. religious D. conservative
Question 124: The phrase "The first" in paragraph 2 refers to the first .
A. Marriage B. Bride price C. Payment D. Justification
Question 125: It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that African families .
A. never see their daughters after marriage
B. pay the bride price on the day of the wedding '
C. place more value on men than women
D. place great importance on childbirth
Question 126: The author uses the word "marital" to indicate that the problems are
related to
.
A. money B. law C. marriage D. pregnancy
Question 127: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Sometimes the bride‟s family has to return the bride price to the groom‟s for
equal distribution of wealth.
 B. The initial negotiations over the birde price provide opportunities for 2
families to meet each other.
C. Animals are not an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the
bride prices.
D. Without having to pay the bride price, African men would not respect their
family members.
Question 128: Why are women often married to
older men? A. Young men lack the financial to
marry.
B. The legal age for marriage is lower for women than for men.
C. Families are eager to gain the bride price from their daughter‟s marriage.
D. Women live longer than men on average.
20. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

SPORTS IN SOCIETY
The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer
seem to think of sports as „just a game‟ - to be watched or played for the (129) of
enjoyment. Instead, it has become big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice
for leading companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to
screen important matches or competitions. The result has been huge rewards for athletes,
some of (130) are now very wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and tennis players.
(131) , it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for
advertising products or making personal appearances.

A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free
time, both to watch and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the
recreation industry that we now rely (132) to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a
vital part of that industry,
providing for millions of (133) people all over the world.
Question 129: A. advantage B. good C. benefit D. sake
Question 130: A. whose B. whom C. who D. that
Question 131: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. Therefore
Question 132: A. for B. with C. on D. in
Question 133: A. ordinary B. mighty C. extremist D. abnormal
21. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
One of the most important social developments that helped to make possible a shift in
thinking about the role of public education was the effect of the baby boom of the 1950's
and 1960's on the schools. In the 1920's, but especially in the Depression conditions of the
1930's, the United States experienced a declining birth rate – every thousand women aged
fifteen to forty-four gave birth to about 118 live children in 1920, 89.2 in 1930, 75.8 in
1936, and 80 in 1940. With the growing prosperity brought on by the Second World War
and the economic boom that followed it, young people married and established
households earlier and began to raise larger families than had their predecessors during
the Depression. Birth rates rose to 102 per thousand in 1946, 106.2 in 1950, and 118 in
1955. Although economics was probably the most important determinant, it is not the only
explanation for the baby boom. The increased value placed on the idea of the family also
helps to explain this rise in birth rates. The baby boomers began streaming into the first
grade by the mid-1940's and became a flood by 1950. The public school system suddenly
found itself overtaxed. While the number of schoolchildren rose because of wartime and
postwar conditions, these same conditions made the schools even less prepared to cope
with the flood. The wartime economy meant that few new schools were built between
1940 and 1945. Moreover, during the war and in the boom times that followed large
numbers of teachers left their profession for better-paying jobs elsewhere in the economy.

Therefore, in the 1950's and 1960's, the baby boom hit an antiquated and inadequate
school system. Consequently, the "custodial rhetoric" of the 1930's and early 1940's no
longer made sense; that is, keeping youths aged sixteen and older out of the labor market
by keeping them in school could no longer be a high priority for an institution unable to
find space and staff to teach younger children aged five to sixteen. With the baby boom,
the focus of educators and of laymen interested in education inevitably turned toward the
lower grades and back to basic academic skills and discipline. The system no longer had
much interest in offering nontraditional, new, and extra services to older youths.
Question 134: What does the passage mainly discuss?
 A. Birth rates in the United States in the 1930's and 1940
B. The impact of the baby boom on public education
C. The role of the family in the 1950's and 1960's
D. The teaching profession during the baby boom
Question 135: The word "it" in paragraph refers to .
A. the economic boom B. the Second World War
C. the 1930s D. the United States
Question 136: The word "overtaxed" in line 14 is closest in meaning to .
A. changed too much B. plentifully supplied C. heavily burdened D. well prepared
Question 137: The public school of the 1950's and 1960's faced all of the following
problems
EXCEPT .
A. an inadequate number of school buildings B. old-fashioned facilities
C. a shortage of teachers D. a declining number of students
Question 138: According to the passage, why did teachers leave the teaching profession
after the outbreak of the war?
A. Teaching positions were scarce. B. They were dissatisfied with the curriculum.
C. Other jobs provided higher salaries. D. They needed to be retrained.
Question 139: The word "inevitably" in parapraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. unavoidably B. impartially C. irrationally D. unwillingly
Question 140: Which of the following best characterizes the organization of the passage?
A. The second paragraph provides a fictional account to illustrate a problem
presented in the first paragraph.
B. The second paragraph argues against a point made in the first paragraph.
C. The second paragraph introduces a problem not mentioned in the first
paragraph.
D. The second paragraph presents the effect of circumstances described in the
first paragraph.
22. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 141 to
145.
 CHESS
Chess, often (141) to as the Royal Game, is the oldest of all board games which do not
contain an element of chance.
The origins of chess are uncertain, (142) there are a number of legends regarding its
invention.
One story says that it was King Solomon who invented chess, another that it was the Greek
god Hermes, and yet another that the Chinese mandarin Han-Sing was responsible for its
creation. In fact, chess almost certainly originated in India in the sixth or seventh century
AD. The game‟s popularity then spread quickly through Persia (now known as Iran) and
from there came to Europe. The first documented reference to chess in literature is in a
Persian romance which was written about 600 AD.
It is (143) the word „chess‟ comes from „shah‟, the Persian word for „king‟ and that
„checkmate‟, the game‟s winning (144) , comes from the phrase „shah mat‟, (145) „the
king is dead‟.

The rules and pieces used in the game have undergone changes over the centuries. Modem
chess owes much to the Spaniard Lopez de Segura, who in 1561 wrote the first book on how
to play the game. In it, he introduced the concept of „castling‟, which had not been part of
the game until then.
Question 141: A. mentioned B. called C. known D. referred
Question 142: A. despite B. nevertheless C. although D. however
Question 143: A. believed B. imagined C. held D. taken
Question 144: A. place B. stand C. go D. move
Question 145: A. representing B. suggesting C. intending D. meaning
23. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 146 to 34.
Rain pounded down on the roof. I was trying to read but the sound was too loud. I couldn‟t
help myself from being a little grumpy. I wanted to be outside playing, but the rain was
keeping me inside.
My mom had gone to the grocery store, and my dad was spending Saturday at the office. I
had planned to spend the day hiking, but Mother Nature decided that today was the perfect
day for rain.
It meant that I would have to entertain myself. I spent most of the morning playing with my
stuffed animals and reading. I was sitting next to the window staring out when I got a strange
idea: why not just go outside anyway?
I put on my boots and a big raincoat and stepped out into the wet world. It was raining hard
but it wasn‟t cold. All I could hear were raindrops and the wind. I decided to go on my hike
anyway.
My feet didn‟t make any sound on the wet ground and the forest seemed different. I went to
my favourite place and sat down. In the summer, my best friend Ellen and I would come here
and sit for hours. It was our special place. All of a sudden, I thought I heard someone
shouting my name. I turned and saw Ellen walking up behind me.
“Oh my Gosh! It‟s really you, Martha!” she said. “I can‟t believe that you are out here right
now. I thought I would be the only person crazy enough to go for a walk in the rain.”
I was very happy to have some company. We decided that hiking in the rain was just as fun
as hiking in the sunshine. We planned on hiking in the rain again.
Question 146: What is the best title for the story?
A. Rainy Day Work B. Rainy Day Hike
C. A Rainy Day Indoors D. Rainy Day Homework
Question 147: The word ―grumpy‖ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. stupid B. bad-tempered C. uninterested D. unsatisfactory
Question 148: What was keeping Martha inside?
A. The heat B. Her parents C. Bad weather D. Lots of homework
Question 149: What does Martha mean when she says ―It meant that I would have to
entertain myself‖?
A. She was tire D. B. She was feeling sick.
C. She had to find something to do. D. She was bored with doing homework.
Question 150: The word ―company‖ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. time B. space C. friend D. business
Question 151: What did Martha think about being outside?
A. It was too hot. B. It was too cold.
C. It was very nice. D. It was too wet to walk.
Question 152: What will Martha and Ellen probably do next time it rains?
 A. Stay inside B. Do homework
C. Go for another hike D. Go to their friend‟s house
24. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 153 to 160.

Life in the Universe

Exobiology is the study of life that originates from outside of Earth. As yet, of course, no
such life forms have been found. Exobiologists, however, have done important work in the
theoretical study of where life is most likely to evolve, and what those extrateưestrial life
forms might be like.
What sorts of planets are most likely to develop life? Most scientists agree that a habitable
planet must be terrestrial, or rock-based, with liquid surface water and biogeochemical cycles
that somewhat resemble Earth‟s. Water is an important solvent involved in many biological
processes. Biogeochemical cycles are the continuous movement and transformation of
materials in the environment. These cycles include the circulation of elements and nutrients
upon which life and the Earth‟s climate depend. Since (as far as we know) all life is carbon-
based, a stable carbon cycle is especially important.
The habitable zone is the region around a star in which planets can develop life. Assuming
the need for liquid surface water, it follows that most stars around the size of our sun will be
able to sustain habitable zones for billions of years. Stars that are larger than the sun are
much hotter and bum out more quickly; life there may not have enough time to evolve. Stars
that are smaller than the sun have different problem. First of all, planets in their habitable
zones will be so close to the star that they will be
“tidally locked” – that is one side of the planet will always face the star in perpetual
daylight with the other side in the perpetual night. Another possible obstacle to life on
smaller stars is that they tend to vary in their luminosity, or brightness, due to flares and “star
spots”. The variation can be large enough to have harmful effects on the ecosystem.

Of course, not all stars of the right size will give rise to life; they also must have terrestrial
planets with the right kind of orbits. Most solar systems have more than one planet, which
influence each other‟s orbits with their own gravity. Therefore, in order to have a stable
system with no planets flying out into space, the orbits must be a good distance from one
another. Interestingly, the amount of space needed is roughly the width of a star‟s habitable
zone. This means that for life to evolve, the largest possible number of life-supporting
planets in any star‟s habitable zone is two.
Finally, not all planets meeting the above conditions will necessarily develop life. One major
threat is large, frequent asteroid and comet impacts, which will wipe out life each time it tries
to evolve. The case of Earth teaches that having large gas giants, such as Saturn and
Jupiter,.in the outer part of the solar system can help keep a planet safe for life. Due to their
strong gravitation, they tend to catch or deflect large objects before they can reach Earth.
Question 153: What is the topic of the passage?
A. The search for intelligent life B. Conditions necessary for life
C. Characteristics of extraterrestrial life D. Life in our solar system
Question 154: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as necessary for the
development of life except
A. rock B. carbon C. oxygen D. water
Question 155: The word ―which‖ in paragraph 3 refers to
A. star B. zone C. region D. planet
Question 156: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that
A. the Earth is in the sun‟s habitable zone B. the Earth is tidally locked to the sun
C. the sun varies in its luminosity D. variations in luminosity help life to develop
Question 157: The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. assist B. have C. need D. experience
Question 158: In order for life to develop, a planet’s orbit must not be
A. stable
B. very close to another planet‟s orbit
C. on the same planet as another planet‟s orbit
D. less wide than the star‟s habitable zone
Question 159: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that
A. most stars have more than two planets in their habitable zones
B. no star has more than two planets in its habitable zone
C. it is not possible for a star to have three planets with life on them
D. for life to develop, a star must have at least two planets in its habitable zone
Question 160: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in the passage?
 A. Because of their nearness, habitable planets orbiting smaller stars usually have
either constant daylight or constant night.
B. The habitable zones of small stars are so close to the star that planets within
them do not spin.
C. One problem with some stars is that their habitable zones are tidally locked
into either light or darkness.
D. Some stars become tidally locked, so that they only shine light on one side of a
planet.
25. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In 1972. a century after the first national park in the United States was established at
Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The
intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that
existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine
sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted
to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or
removed.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and
Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce.
Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades
later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978.
They range in size from the very small (less than 1 square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National
Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in
California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in
which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some
degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a
reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains
the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.
Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries.
The National
 Estuarine Research Reserve System managed by the United States government, includes 23
designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs
exist as marine parks, reserves and preserves.
Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range
from the well- known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in
countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile
coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the
importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas whether as
sanctuaries,parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving

that diversity.

Question 161: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves
B. Various marine conservation programs
C. International agreements on coastal protection
D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments
Question 162: The word “administered” the passage is closest in meaning to ……
A. managed B. recognized C. opposed D. justified
Question 163: The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in
paragraph 2 as an example of a sanctuary that ….
A. is not well known
B. covers a large area
C. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary
D. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status
Question 164: According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program
established?
A. Before 1972
B. After 1987
C. One hundred years before national parks were established
D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established
Question 165: According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the
National Marine
Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT …..
 A. the discovery of several new marine organisms
B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species
C. the protection of coastal habitats
D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life
Question 166: The word “periphery” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. depth B. landmass C. warm habitat D. outer edge
Question 167: The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas
outside the United States?
A. Limitations in financial support B. The use of marine species as food
C. Variability of the climate D. Increases in tourism
26. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first
page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average
amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned
wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first
step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that
they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave
off more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The
Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into
extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United
States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and
renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These
were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial
energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood.
However, at he beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and
replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood
was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of
energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because
they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and
polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very
important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82
percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy
were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct
perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of
countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of
hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from non-
renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to
another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than
public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite
resource that will have to be replaced.
Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples.
The extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to
be labor consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large
scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar
sands in Alberta and Utah is complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated
from the sandstone and limestone that carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently
versatile for a large-scale removal of the material. However, both sources of fuel may
eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel
availability make alternative deposits more attractive.
Question 168: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Application of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use D. A historical review of energy rates
Question 169: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples
B. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions
C. the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process
D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental
Question 170: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were
A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combination
C. not derived from mineral deposits D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 171: The phrase “the latter” refers to
A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones
Question 172: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. it was a concentrated source of energy.
B. it was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. it replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.
D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 173: It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy
was obtained primarily from
A. Fossil fuels B. Nuclear fission
C. Hydraulic and solar sources D. Burning biomass
Question 174: The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are
curently
A. being used for consumption B. available in few locations
C. being explored D. examined on a large scale
Question 175: The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to
A. prohibited B. provided C. too expensive D. too expedient
27. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the
invention of a machine that would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring
and repetitive factory work could be (176) by robots, why not boring and repetitive
household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur
inventors And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very
complex It has never been one job it has always been many. A factor robot (177) one
task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn‟t run the whole factory.
A housework robot on the other hand, has to do several different (178) _ of cleaning and
carrying jobs and also has to cope
(179) all the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs.
(180) , there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help
the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the
hardware. All that is missing the software- the programs that will operate the machine.
Question 176: A. managed B. succeeded C. made D. given
Question 177: A. carries over B. carries out C. carries off D. carries away
Question 178: A. systems B. types C. ways D. methods
Question 179: A. from B. with C. by D. for
Question 180: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover

Part 28: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks New
cycling schemes
The County Council has decided to give a higher (181) to cycling and agreed a new strategy
to guide the way ahead in East Sussex.
Cycling is a (182) , healthy and environmentally friendly form of transport. It is (183)
to make it safer, more convenient, and to increase the proportion of journeys made by
bicycle.
Cycling is being encouraged both for utility purposes (such as journeys to work, school and
the shops) and for recreation trips for exercise and enjoyment, including longer trips by tour.
Recent cycle schemes carried out in conjunction with District Councils and other bodies
(184) the Brighton and Hove seafront route and the Cross Levels Way cycle route, in
Eastbourne.
Local people will be consulted as the strategy is implemented. The County council will work
with local cycling and other groups, and a countrywide Cycling Forum will be formed to
(185) that all bodies concerned with cycling are in regular (186) .
The (187) of the Cycling strategy are given in a leaflet, and a copy of the full strategy
document can be seen in County Council Public Libraries.
Question 181: A. advantage B. benefit C. priority D. income
Question 182: A. low-cost B. dangerous C. shortcut D. high-speed
Question 183: A. written B. convinced C. spoken D. intended
Question 184: A. consist B. include C. improve D. participate
Question 185: A. improve B. ensure C. maintain D. assert
Question 186: A. basis B. touch C. contact D. account
Question 187: A. rights B. cyclists C. objectives D. vehicles

Part 29: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
The days of the camera-toting tourist may be numbered. Insensitive travelers are being
ordered to stop pointing their cameras and camcorders at reluctant local residents. Tour
companies selling expensive trips to remote corners of the world, off the well-trodden path of
the average tourist, have become increasingly irritated at the sight of the visitors upsetting
locals. Now one such operator plans to ban clients from taking any photographic equipment
on holidays. Julian Mathews is the director of Discovery Initiatives, a company that is
working hand-in-hand with other organizations to offer holidays combining high adventure
with working on environmental projects. His trips are not cheap; two weeks of white-water
rafting and monitoring wildlife in Canada cost several thousand pounds.
Matthews says he is providing 'holidays without guilt', insisting that Discovery Initiatives is
not a tour operator but an environmental support company. Clients are referred to as
'participants' or 'ambassadors'. 'We see ourselves as the next step on from eco-tourism, which
is merely a passive form. of sensitive travel - our approach is more proactive.'
However, says Matthews, there is a price to pay. 'I am planning to introduce tours with a total
ban on cameras and camcorders because of the damage they do to our relationships with local
people. I have seen some horrendous things, such as a group of six tourists arriving at a
remote village in the South American jungle, each with a video camera attached to their face.
That sort of thing tears me up inside. Would you like somebody to come into your home and
take a photo of you cooking? A camera is like a weapon; it puts up a barrier and you lose all
the communication that comes through body language, which effectively means that the host
communities are denied access to the so-called cultural exchange.' Matthews started
organizing environmental holidays after a scientific expedition for young people. He
subsequently founded Discovery Expeditions, which has helped support 13 projects
worldwide. With the launch of Discovery Initiatives, he is placing a greater emphasis on
adventure and fun, omitting in the brochure all references to scientific research. But his rules
of conduct are strict. 'In some parts of the world, for instance, I tell people they should wear
long trousers, not shorts, and wear a tie, when eating out. It may sound dictatorial, but I find
one has a better experience if one is well dressed. I don't understand why people dress down
when they go to other countries.'
Matthews' views reflect a growing unease among some tour companies at the increasingly
cavalier behaviour of well-heeled tourists. Chris Parrott, of Journey Latin America, says: 'We
tell our clients that indigenous people are often shy about being photographed, but we
certainly don't tell them not to take a camera. If they take pictures without asking, they may
have tomatoes thrown at them.' He also reports that increasing numbers of clients are taking
camcorders and pointing them indiscriminately at locals. He says: 'People with camcorders
tend to be more intrusive than those with cameras, but there is a payoff - the people they are
filming get a tremendous thrill from seeing themselves played back on the viewfinder.'
Crispin Jones, of Exodus, the overland truck specialist, says: 'We don't have a policy but,
should cameras cause offence, our tour leaders will make it quite clear that they cannot be
used. Clients tend to do what they are told.
Earthwatch, which pioneered the concept of proactive eco-tourism by sending paying
volunteers to work on scientific projects around the world, does not ban cameras, but
operates strict rules on their use. Ed Wilson, the marketing director of the company, says: 'We
try to impress on people the common courtesy of getting permission before using their
cameras, and one would hope that every tour operator would do the same. People have to be
not only environmentally aware but also culturally aware. Some people use the camera as a
barrier; it allows them to distance themselves from the reality of what they see. I would like
to see tourists putting their cameras away for once, rather than trying to record everything
they see.'
Question 188: The word „indigenous‟ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to
A. timid B. native C. ignorant D. impoverished
Question 189: Which of the following does Chris Parrott believe?
A. Local people may react angrily towards tourists who use cameras
B. Tourists are becoming more sensitive about their use of cameras.
C. Camcorders always cause more trouble with local people than cameras
D. Tourists are unlikely to agree to travel without their cameras.
Question 190: In the first paragraph we learn that Discovery Initiatives
A. organizes trips to places where few tourists go
B. offers trips that no other tour company offers
C. has decided to respond to its customers‟ complaints
D. has already succeeded in changing the kind of tourist it attracts
Question 191: Which of the following best summarizes the view of Earthwatch?
A. There are more problems concerning the use of cameras these days.
 B. Cameras enable people to be detached from places they visit.
C. Too many tour operators ignore the problems caused by cameras.
D. Most tourists realize when they have caused offence to local people.
Question 192: The word „courtesy‟ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. dignity B. politeness C. nobility D. elite
Question 193: What does Matthews say in paragraph 3 about cameras and
camcorders? A. They prevent local people from learning about other
societies.
B. They encourage holidaymakers to behave unpredictably.
C. They discourage holidaymakers from intruding on local people.
D. They give local people a false impression of holidaymakers.
Question 194: What is Matthews keen for clients to realize?
A. that the brochure does not contain all the information they need.
B. that certain behavior may spoil their enjoyment of a trip.
C. that it is likely that they will not be allowed in certain places.
D. that they may find certain local customs rather surprising.
Part 30: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in
the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the
ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the
importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these
environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological
diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively
affect one after another of Earth‟s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine
ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most
situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems
through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than
two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably
redirected the course of evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth‟s history when mass extinctions have occurred.
The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or
cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between
species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on
Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species
survived and which died out.

However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is
altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is
wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes
themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux
as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-
time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the
proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new
environments.
Question 195: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
B. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests
C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments
D. The impact of human activities on Earth‟s ecosystems
Question 196: The word “critical” is closest in meaning to
A. complicated B. interesting C. negative D. essential
Question 197: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph
to emphasize that
A. the cause of the dinosaurs‟ extinction is unknown
B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species‟ extinction
C. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
D. Earth‟s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs‟extinction
Question 198: The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to
A. shocking B. unknown C. illuminating D. predicted
Question 199: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of
humans on the world‟s ecosystems EXCEPT
A. habitat destruction in wetlands
B. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
C. damage to marine ecosystems
D. destruction of the tropical rain forests
Question 200: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to
agree?
A. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.
B. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.
C. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.
D. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of
ecosystems.
31. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 201 to 208
The Forbidden City is the former imperial palace in the center of Beijing, China.
Construction began in 1406, and the emperor's court officially moved in by 1420. The
Forbidden City got its name because most people were barred from entering the 72-hectare
site, surrounded by walls. Even government officials and the imperial family were permitted
only limited access. Only the emperor could enter any section at will.

The architecture of the Forbidden City conforms rigidly to traditional Chinese principles. All
buildings within the walls follow a north-south line and the most important ones face south
to honor the sun. The designers arranged the other buildings, and the ceremonial spaces
between them, to impress all visitors with the great power of the Emperor, while reinforcing
the insignificance of the individual. This architectural concept was carried out to the smallest
detail. For example, the importance of a building was determined not only by its height or
width but also by the style of its roof and the quantity of statuettes placed on the roof‟s
ridges.
In recognition of the importance of its unparalleled architecture, UNESCO added the palace
to its World Heritage List in 1987. Today, visitors from all over the world do not wait for an
imperial invitation to walk about this palace, now a museum of imperial art.
One of the most impressive landmarks of the Forbidden City is the Meridian Gate, the formal
entrance to the southern side of the Forbidden City. The gate, with its auxiliary wings on
either side of the entryway, is 38 meters high at its roof ridge. When you stand in front of this
majestic structure, you understand how awed people felt when they stood there listening to
imperial proclamations.
As you walk through the gate, you come into a large courtyard, 140 meters long and 210
meters wide. Running through the courtyard is the Golden River, which is crossed by five
parallel white marble bridges. These bridges lead to the Gate of Supreme Harmony, which, in
turn, leads to the heart of the Forbidden City. At the northernmost end of the Forbidden City
is the Imperial Garden, which is totally different from the rest of the compound. Instead of
rigid formality, you see a seemingly spontaneous arrangement of trees, fishponds,
flowerbeds, and sculpture. Here is the place of relaxation for the emperor.
Question 201: According to the passage, what do the bridges over the Golden River lead
to?
A. The Meridian gate B. The Gate of Supreme Harmony
C. The Imperial Gardens D. The center of Beijing
Question 202: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word 'unparalleled' as used in
paragraph 3?
A. high quality found nowhere else B. at an angle from the main line
C. careless of small details in design D. partially designed in a foreign country
Question 203: From the passage, it is implied that the main entrance area to the
Forbidden City is
A. not very impressive B. surrounded by three tall walls
C. decorated with statuettes D. painted gold and green
Question 204: Which word(s) does the word 'its' refer to in paragraph 3?
A. Architecture B. World Heritage List C. Palace D. UNESCO
Question 205: Which word or phrase is closest in meaning to the word "spontaneous"?
A. Without thinking B. Unique C. Without planning D. Strange
Question 206: From the passage, it can be inferred that
A. Chinese architects borrowed ideas from many different countries
B. the garden of the Forbidden City was laid out in a strict, rectangular pattern.
C. the design of the Forbidden City is dull and colorless.
D. the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese values.
Question 207: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “proclamations”?
A. Poetry written for the emperor. B. Music composed for public ceremonies.
C. Speeches encouraging soldiers to fight. D. Official public announcements.
Question 208: Which sentence in the first paragraph explains who could go anywhere in the
Forbidden City at any time?
A. Sentence 2 B. Sentence 5 C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 3