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MATHS QUESTION BANK CLASS 10TH

The document is a Mathematics Question Bank for Class 10, containing a series of multiple-choice questions along with their answers and explanations. It covers various topics including rational and irrational numbers, polynomials, quadratic equations, and linear equations. Each question is designed to test the understanding of mathematical concepts and problem-solving skills.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
83 views

MATHS QUESTION BANK CLASS 10TH

The document is a Mathematics Question Bank for Class 10, containing a series of multiple-choice questions along with their answers and explanations. It covers various topics including rational and irrational numbers, polynomials, quadratic equations, and linear equations. Each question is designed to test the understanding of mathematical concepts and problem-solving skills.

Uploaded by

anskharwar98
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Tatwamasi Vidyalaya

Nr. Mahakali Temple, Ognaj, Ahmedabad, 380060


Mathematics Question Bank Class-10

Mathematics Question Bank Class-10


1. The decimal expansion of 22/7 is

(a) Terminating

(b) Non-terminating and repeating

(c) Non-terminating and Non-repeating

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Non-terminating and repeating

Explanation: 22/7 = 3. 14285714286..

2. For some integer n, the odd integer is represented in the form of:

(a) n

(b) n + 1

(c) 2n + 1

(d) 2n

Answer: (c) 2n + 1

Explanation: Since 2n represents the even numbers, hence 2n + 1 will always represent the
odd numbers. Suppose if n = 2, then 2n = 4 and 2n + 1 = 5.

3. HCF of 26 and 91 is:

(a) 15

(b) 13

(c) 19

(d) 11

Answer: (b) 13

Explanation: The prime factorisation of 26 and 91 is;

26 = 2 x 13
91 = 7 x 13

Hence, HCF (26, 91) = 13

4. Which of the following is not irrational?

(a) (3 + √7)

(b) (3 – √7)

(c) (3 + √7) (3 – √7)

(d) 3√7

Answer: (c) (3 + √7) (3 – √7)

Explanation: If we solve, (3 + √7) (3 – √7), we get;

(3 + √7) (3 – √7) = 32 – (√7)2 = 9 – 7 = 2 [By a2 – b2 = (a – b) (a + b)]

5. The addition of a rational number and an irrational number is equal to:

(a) rational number

(b) Irrational number

(c) Both

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Irrational number

The addition of a rational number and an irrational number is equal to irrational number.

6. The multiplication of two irrational numbers is:

(a) irrational number

(b) rational number

(c) Maybe rational or irrational

(d) None

Answer: (c) Maybe rational or irrational

The multiplication of two irrational numbers is maybe rational or irrational.

7. If set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5,…} is given, then it represents:

(a) Whole numbers

(b) Rational Numbers


(c) Natural numbers

(d) Complex numbers

Answer: (c) Natural numbers

If set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5,…} is given, then it represents natural numbers.

8. If p and q are integers and is represented in the form of p/q, then it is a:

(a) Whole number

(b) Rational number

(c) Natural number

(d) Even number

Answer: (b) Rational number

If p and q are integers and is represented in the form of p/q, then it is a rational number.

9. The largest number that divides 70 and 125, which leaves the remainders 5 and 8,
is:

(a) 65

(b) 15

(c) 13

(d) 25

Answer: (c) 13

Explanation: 70 – 5 = 65 and 125 – 8 = 117

HCF (65, 117) is the largest number that divides 70 and 125 and leaves remainder 5 and 8.

HCF (65, 117) = 13

10. The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 5 is:

(a) 70

(b) 60

(c) 80

(d) 90

Answer: (b) 60
Explanation: The least number will be LCM of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

Hence, LCM (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) = 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 = 60

11. The sum or difference of two irrational numbers is always

(a) rational

(b) irrational

(c) rational or irrational

(d) not determined

Answer: (b) irrational

12. The zeroes of x2–2x –8 are:

(a) (2,-4)

(b) (4,-2)

(c) (-2,-2)

(d) (-4,-4)

Answer: (b) (4,-2)

Explanation: x2–2x –8 = x2–4x + 2x –8

= x(x–4)+2(x–4)

= (x-4)(x+2)

Therefore, x = 4, -2.

13. What is the quadratic polynomial whose sum and the product of zeroes is √2, ⅓
respectively?

(a) 3x2-3√2x+1

(b) 3x2+3√2x+1

(c) 3x2+3√2x-1

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) 3x2-3√2x+1

Explanation: Sum of zeroes = α + β =√2

Product of zeroes = α β = 1/3


∴ If α and β are zeroes of any quadratic polynomial, then the polynomial is;

x2–(α+β)x +αβ

= x2 –(√2)x + (1/3)

= 3x2-3√2x+1

14. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax2+bx+c, c≠0 are equal, then

(a) c and b have opposite signs

(b) c and a have opposite signs

(c) c and b have same signs

(d) c and a have same signs

Answer: (d) c and a have same signs

Explanation:

For equal roots, discriminant will be equal to zero.

b2 -4ac = 0

b2 = 4ac

ac = b2/4

ac>0 (as square of any number cannot be negative)

15. The degree of the polynomial, x4 – x2 +2 is

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 1

(d) 0

Answer: (b) 4

Explanation: Degree is the highest power of the variable in any polynomial.

16. If one of the zeroes of cubic polynomial is x3+ax2+bx+c is -1, then product of other
two zeroes is:

(a) b-a-1

(b) b-a+1
(c) a-b+1

(d) a-b-1

Answer: (b) b-a+1

Explanation: Since one zero is -1, hence;

P(x) = x3+ax2+bx+c

P(-1) = (-1)3+a(-1)2+b(-1)+c

0 = -1+a-b+c

c=1-a+b

Product of zeroes, αβγ = -constant term/coefficient of x3

(-1)βγ = -c/1

c=βγ

βγ = b-a+1

17. If p(x) is a polynomial of degree one and p(a) = 0, then a is said to be:

(a) Zero of p(x)

(b) Value of p(x)

(c) Constant of p(x)

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Zero of p(x)

Explanation: Let p(x) = mx+n

Put x = a

p(a)=ma+n=0

So, a is zero of p(x).

18. Zeroes of a polynomial can be expressed graphically. Number of zeroes of


polynomial is equal to number of points where the graph of polynomial is:

(a) Intersects x-axis

(b) Intersects y-axis

(c) Intersects y-axis or x-axis


(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Intersects x-axis

19. A polynomial of degree n has:

(a) Only one zero

(b) At least n zeroes

(c) More than n zeroes

(d) At most n zeroes

Answer: (d) At most n zeroes

Explanation: Maximum number of zeroes of a polynomial = Degree of the polynomial

20. The number of polynomials having zeroes as -2 and 5 is:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) More than 3

Answer: (d) More than 3

Explanation: The polynomials x2-3x-10, 2x2-6x-20, (1/2)x2-(3/2)x-5, 3x2-9x-30, have zeroes as


-2 and 5.

21. Zeroes of p(x) = x2-27 are:

(a) ±9√3

(b) ±3√3

(c) ±7√3

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) ±3√3

Explanation: x2-27 = 0

x2=27

x=√27

x=±3√3
22. Given that two of the zeroes of the cubic polynomial ax3 + bx2 + cx + d are 0, the
third zero is

(a) -b/a

(b) b/a

(c) c/a

(d) -d/a

Answer: (a) -b/a

Explanation:

Let α be the third zero.Given that two zeroes of the cubic polynomial are 0.

23. The pairs of equations x+2y-5 = 0 and -4x-8y+20=0 have:

(a) Unique solution

(b) Exactly two solutions

(c) Infinitely many solutions

(d) No solution

Answer: (c) Infinitely many solutions

Explanation:

a1/a2 = 1/-4

b1/b2 = 2/-8 = 1/-4

c1/c2 = -5/20 = -¼

This shows:

a1/a2 = b1/b2 = c1/c2

Therefore, the pair of equations has infinitely many solutions.

24. If a pair of linear equations is consistent, then the lines are:

(a) Parallel

(b) Always coincident

(c) Always intersecting

(d) Intersecting or coincident


Answer: (d) Intersecting or coincident

Explanation: Because the two lines definitely have a solution.

25. The pairs of equations 9x + 3y + 12 = 0 and 18x + 6y + 26 = 0 have

(a) Unique solution

(b) Exactly two solutions

(c) Infinitely many solutions

(d) No solution

Answer: (d) No solution

Explanation: Given, 9x + 3y + 12 = 0 and 18x + 6y + 26 = 0

a1/a2 = 9/18 = 1/2

b1/b2 = 3/6 = 1/2

c1/c2 = 12/26 = 6/13

Since, a1/a2 = b1/b2 ≠ c1/c2

So, the pairs of equations are parallel and the lines never intersect each other at any point,
therefore there is no possible solution.

26. If the lines 3x+2ky – 2 = 0 and 2x+5y+1 = 0 are parallel, then what is the value of k?

(a) 4/15

(b) 15/4

(c) ⅘

(d) 5/4

Answer: (b) 15/4

Explanation: The condition for parallel lines is:

a1/a2 = b1/b2 ≠ c1/c2

Hence, 3/2 = 2k/5

k=15/4

27. If one equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is -3x+5y-2=0. The second
equation will be:
(a) -6x+10y-4=0

(b) 6x-10y-4=0

(c) 6x+10y-4=0

(d) -6x+10y+4=0

Answer: (a) -6x+10y-4=0

Explanation: The condition for dependent linear equations is:

a1/a2 = b1/b2 = c1/c2

For option a,

a1/a2 = b1/b2 = c1/c2= ½

28.The solution of the equations x-y=2 and x+y=4 is:

(a) 3 and 1

(b) 4 and 3

(c) 5 and 1

(d) -1 and -3

Answer: (a) 3 and 1

Explanation: x-y =2

x=2+y

Substituting the value of x in the second equation we get;

2+y+y=4

2+2y=4

2y = 2

y=1

Now putting the value of y, we get;

x=2+1 = 3

Hence, the solutions are x=3 and y=1.

29. A fraction becomes 1/3 when 1 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes
1/4 when 8 is added to its denominator. The fraction obtained is:
(a) 3/12

(b) 4/12

(c) 5/12

(d) 7/12

Answer: (c) 5/12

Explanation: Let the fraction be x/y

So, as per the question given,

(x -1)/y = 1/3 => 3x – y = 3…………………(1)

x/(y + 8) = 1/4 => 4x –y =8 ………………..(2)

Subtracting equation (1) from (2), we get

x = 5 ………………………………………….(3)

Using this value in equation (2), we get,

4×5 – y = 8

y= 12

Therefore, the fraction is 5/12.

30. The solution of 4/x+3y=14 and 3/x-4y=23 is:

(a) ⅕ and -2

(b) ⅓ and ½

(c) 3 and ½

(d) 2 and ⅓

Answer: (a) ⅕ and -2

Explanation: Let 1/x = m

4m + 3y = 14

3m – 4y = 23

By cross multiplication we get;

m/(-69-56) = y/(-42-(-92)) = 1/(-16-9)

m/-125=y/50=-1/25
m/-125 = -1/25 and y/50=-1/25

m=5 and y=-2

m=1/x or x=1/m = ⅕

31. Ritu can row downstream 20 km in 2 hours, and upstream 4 km in 2 hours. Her
speed of rowing in still water and the speed of the current is:

(a) 6km/hr and 3km/hr

(b) 7km/hr and 4km/hr

(c) 6km/hr and 4km/hr

(d) 10km/hr and 6km/hr

Answer: (c) 6km/hr and 4km/hr

Explanation: Let, Speed of Ritu in still water = x km/hr

Speed of Stream = y km/hr

Now, speed of Ritu, during,

Downstream = x + y km/h

Upstream = x – y km/h

As per the question given,

2(x+y) = 20

Or x + y = 10……………………….(1)

And, 2(x-y) = 4

Or x – y = 2………………………(2)

Adding both the equations, we get,

2x=12

x=6

Putting the value of x in eq.1, we get,

y=4

Therefore,

Speed of Ritu is still water = 6 km/hr


Speed of Stream = 4 km/hr

32. Equation of (x+1)2-x2=0 has number of real roots equal to:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: (a) 1

Explanation: (x+1)2-x2=0

X2+2x+1-x2 = 0

2x+1=0

x=-½

Hence, there is one real root.

33. The roots of 100x2 – 20x + 1 = 0 is:

(a) 1/20 and 1/20

(b) 1/10 and 1/20

(c) 1/10 and 1/10

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) 1/10 and 1/10

Explanation: Given, 100x2 – 20x + 1=0

100x2 – 10x – 10x + 1 = 0

10x(10x – 1) -1(10x – 1) = 0

(10x – 1)2 = 0

∴ (10x – 1) = 0 or (10x – 1) = 0

⇒x = 1/10 or x = 1/10

34. The sum of two numbers is 27 and product is 182. The numbers are:

(a) 12 and 13

(b) 13 and 14
(c) 12 and 15

(d) 13 and 24

Answer: (b) 13 and 14

Explanation: Let x is one number

Another number = 27 – x

Product of two numbers = 182

x(27 – x) = 182

⇒ x2 – 27x – 182 = 0

⇒ x2 – 13x – 14x + 182 = 0

⇒ x(x – 13) -14(x – 13) = 0

⇒ (x – 13)(x -14) = 0

⇒ x = 13 or x = 14

35. If ½ is a root of the quadratic equation x2-mx-5/4=0, then value of m is:

(a) 2

(b) -2

(c) -3

(d) 3

Answer: (b) -2

Explanation: Given x=½ as root of equation x2-mx-5/4=0.

(½)2 – m(½) – 5/4 = 0

¼-m/2-5/4=0

m=-2

36. The altitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than its base. If the hypotenuse is 13
cm, the other two sides of the triangle are equal to:

(a) Base=10cm and Altitude=5cm

(b) Base=12cm and Altitude=5cm

(c) Base=14cm and Altitude=10cm


(d) Base=12cm and Altitude=10cm

Answer: (b) Base=12cm and Altitude=5cm

Explanation: Let the base be x cm.

Altitude = (x – 7) cm

In a right triangle,

Base2 + Altitude2 = Hypotenuse2 (From Pythagoras theorem)

∴ x2 + (x – 7)2 = 132

By solving the above equation, we get;

⇒ x = 12 or x = – 5

Since the side of the triangle cannot be negative.

Therefore, base = 12cm and altitude = 12-7 = 5cm

37. The roots of quadratic equation 2x2 + x + 4 = 0 are:

(a) Positive and negative

(b) Both Positive

(c) Both Negative

(d) No real roots

Answer: (d) No real roots

Explanation: 2x2 + x + 4 = 0

⇒ 2x2 + x = -4

Dividing the equation by 2, we get

⇒ x2 + 1/2x = -2

⇒ x2 + 2 × x × 1/4 = -2

By adding (1/4)2 to both sides of the equation, we get

⇒ (x)2 + 2 × x × 1/4 + (1/4)2 = (1/4)2 – 2

⇒ (x + 1/4)2 = 1/16 – 2

⇒ (x + 1/4)2 = -31/16
The square root of negative number is imaginary, therefore, there is no real root for the given
equation.

38. In an Arithmetic Progression, if a = 28, d = -4, n = 7, then an is:

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 3

(d) 7

Answer: (a) 4

Explanation: For an AP,

an = a+(n-1)d

= 28+(7-1)(-4)

= 28+6(-4)

= 28-24

an=4

39. If a = 10 and d = 10, then first four terms will be:

(a) 10, 30, 50, 60

(b) 10, 20, 30, 40

(c) 10, 15, 20, 25

(d) 10, 18, 20, 30

Answer: (b) 10, 20, 30, 40

Explanation: a = 10, d = 10

a1 = a = 10

a2 = a1+d = 10+10 = 20

a3 = a2+d = 20+10 = 30

a4 = a3+d = 30+10 = 40

40. The first term and common difference for the A.P. 3, 1, -1, -3 is:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) -1 and 3

(c) 3 and -2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 3 and -2

Explanation: First term, a = 3

Common difference, d = Second term – First term

⇒ 1 – 3 = -2

⇒ d = -2

41. 30th term of the A.P: 10, 7, 4, …, is

(a) 97

(b) 77

(c) -77

(d) -87

Answer: (c) -77

Explanation: Given,

A.P. = 10, 7, 4, …

First term, a = 10

Common difference, d = a2 − a1 = 7−10 = −3

As we know, for an A.P.,

an = a +(n−1)d

Putting the values;

a30 = 10+(30−1)(−3)

a30 = 10+(29)(−3)

a30 = 10−87 = −77

42. 11th term of the A.P. -3, -1/2, 2 …. Is

(a) 28

(b) 22
(c) -38

(d) -48

Answer: (b) 22

Explanation: A.P. = -3, -1/2, 2 …

First term a = – 3

Common difference, d = a2 − a1 = (-1/2) -(-3)

⇒(-1/2) + 3 = 5/2

Nth term;

an = a+(n−1)d

a11 = 3+(11-1)(5/2)

a11 = 3+(10)(5/2)

a11 = -3+25

a11 = 22

43. The missing terms in AP: __, 13, __, 3 are:

(a) 11 and 9

(b) 17 and 9

(c) 18 and 8

(d) 18 and 9

Answer: (c)

Explanation: a2 = 13 and

a4 = 3

The nth term of an AP;

an = a+(n−1) d

a2 = a +(2-1)d

13 = a+d ………………. (i)

a4 = a+(4-1)d

3 = a+3d ………….. (ii)


Subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get,

– 10 = 2d

d=–5

Now put value of d in equation 1

13 = a+(-5)

a = 18 (first term)

a3 = 18+(3-1)(-5)

= 18+2(-5) = 18-10 = 8 (third term).

44. Which term of the A.P. 3, 8, 13, 18, … is 78?

(a) 12th

(b) 13th

(c) 15th

(d) 16th

Answer: (d) (d) 16th

Explanation: Given, 3, 8, 13, 18, … is the AP.

First term, a = 3

Common difference, d = a2 − a1 = 8 − 3 = 5

Let the nth term of given A.P. be 78. Now as we know,

an = a+(n−1)d

Therefore,

78 = 3+(n −1)5

75 = (n−1)5

(n−1) = 15

n = 16

45. The 21st term of AP whose first two terms are -3 and 4 is:

(a) 17

(b) 137
(c) 143

(d) -143

Answer: (b) 137

Explanation: First term = -3 and second term = 4

a = -3

d = 4-a = 4-(-3) = 7

a21=a+(21-1)d

=-3+(20)7

=-3+140

=137

46. If 17th term of an A.P. exceeds its 10th term by 7. The common difference is:

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: (a) 1

Explanation: Nth term in AP is:

an = a+(n-1)d

a17 = a+(17−1)d

a17 = a +16d

In the same way,

a10 = a+9d

Given,

a17 − a10 = 7

Therefore,

(a +16d)−(a+9d) = 7

7d = 7
d=1

Therefore, the common difference is 1.

47. The number of multiples of 4 between 10 and 250 is:

(a) 50

(b) 40

(c) 60

(d) 30

Answer: (c) 60

Explanation: The multiples of 4 after 10 are:

12, 16, 20, 24, …

So here, a = 12 and d = 4

Now, 250/4 gives remainder 2. Hence, 250 – 2 = 248 is divisible by 2.

12, 16, 20, 24, …, 248

So, nth term, an = 248

As we know,

an = a+(n−1)d

248 = 12+(n-1)×4

236/4 = n-1

59 = n-1

n = 60

48. 20th term from the last term of the A.P. 3, 8, 13, …, 253 is:

(a) 147

(b) 151

(c) 154

(d) 158

Answer: (d) 158

Explanation: Given, A.P. is 3, 8, 13, …, 253


Common difference, d= 5.

In reverse order,

253, 248, 243, …, 13, 8, 5

So,

a = 253

d = 248 − 253 = −5

n = 20

By nth term formula,

a20 = a+(20−1)d

a20 = 253+(19)(−5)

a20 = 253−95

a20 = 158

49. Which of the following triangles have the same side lengths?

(a) Scalene

(b) Isosceles

(c) Equilateral

(d) None of these

Answer: (c) Equilateral

Explanation: Equilateral triangles have all sides and all angles equal.

50. Area of an equilateral triangle with side length a is equal to:

(a) (√3/2)a

(b) (√3/2)a2

(c) (√3/4) a2

(d) (√3/4) a

Answer: (c) (√3/4) a2

Area of an equilateral triangle with side length a = √3/4 a2


51. D and E are the midpoints of side AB and AC of a triangle ABC, respectively and
BC = 6 cm. If DE || BC, then the length (in cm) of DE is:

(a) 2.5

(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) 6

Answer: (b) 3

Explanation: By midpoint theorem,

DE=½ BC

DE = ½ of 6

DE=3 cm

52. The diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm, in length. The side of the
rhombus in length is:

(a) 20 cm

(b) 8 cm

(c) 10 cm

(d) 9 cm

Answer: (c) 10 cm

Explanation: Here, half of the diagonals of a rhombus are the sides of the triangle and side of
the rhombus is the hypotenuse.

By Pythagoras theorem,

(16/2)2+(12/2)2=side2

82+62=side2

64+36=side2

side=10 cm

53. Corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 2:3. If the area of
the small triangle is 48 sq.cm, then the area of large triangle is:

(a) 230 sq.cm.


(b) 106 sq.cm

(c) 107 sq.cm.

(d) 108 sq.cm

Answer: (d) 108 sq.cm

Solution: Let A1 and A2 are areas of the small and large triangle.

Then,

A2/A1=(side of large triangle/side of small triangle)

A2/48=(3/2)2

A2=108 sq.cm.

54. If perimeter of a triangle is 100 cm and the length of two sides are 30 cm and 40
cm, the length of third side will be:

(a) 30 cm

(b) 40 cm

(c) 50 cm

(d) 60 cm

Answer: (a) 30 cm

Solution: Perimeter of triangle = sum of all its sides

P = 30+40+x

100=70+x

x=30 cm

55. If triangles ABC and DEF are similar and AB=4 cm, DE=6 cm, EF=9 cm and FD=12
cm, the perimeter of triangle ABC is:

(a) 22 cm

(b) 20 cm

(c) 21 cm

(d) 18 cm

Answer: (d) 18 cm
Explanation: ABC ~ DEF

AB=4 cm, DE=6 cm, EF=9 cm and FD=12 cm

AB/DE = BC/EF = AC/DF

4/6 = BC/9 = AC/12

BC = (4.9)/6 = 6 cm

AC = (12.4)/6 = 8 cm

Perimeter of triangle ABC = AB+BC+AC

= 4+6+8

=18 cm

56. The height of an equilateral triangle of side 5 cm is:

(a) 4.33 cm

(b) 3.9 cm

(c) 5 cm

(d) 4 cm

Answer: (a) 4.33 cm

Explanation: The height of the equilateral triangle ABC divides the base into two equal parts
at point D.

Therefore,

BD=DC= 2.5 cm

In triangle ABD, using Pythagoras theorem,

AB2=AD2+BD2

52=AD2+2.52

AD2 = 25-6.25

AD2=18.75

AD=4.33 cm

57. If ABC and DEF are two triangles and AB/DE=BC/FD, then the two triangles are
similar if
(a) ∠A=∠F

(b) ∠B=∠D

(c) ∠A=∠D

(d) ∠B=∠E

Answer: (b) ∠B=∠D

If ABC and DEF are two triangles and AB/DE=BC/FD, then the two triangles are similar if
∠B=∠D.

58. Sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 4: 9. Areas of these triangles are in
the ratio

(a) 2: 3

(b) 4: 9

(c) 81: 16

(d) 16: 81

Answer: (d) 16: 81

Explanation: Let ABC and DEF are two similar triangles, such that,

ΔABC ~ ΔDEF

And AB/DE = AC/DF = BC/EF = 4/9

As the ratio of the areas of these triangles will be equal to the square of the ratio of the
corresponding sides,

∴ Area(ΔABC)/Area(ΔDEF) = AB2/DE2

∴ Area(ΔABC)/Area(ΔDEF) = (4/9)2 = 16/81 = 16: 81

59. Which of the following are not similar figures?

(a) Circles

(b) Squares

(c) Equilateral triangles

(d) Isosceles triangles

Answer: (d) Isosceles triangles

Explanation:
All circles, squares, and equilateral triangles are similar figures.

60. If O(p/3, 4) is the midpoint of the line segment joining the points P(-6, 5) and Q(-2,
3), the the value of p is:

(a) 7/2

(b) -12

(c) 4

(d) -4

Answer: (b) -12

Explanation: Since, (p/3, 4) is the midpoint of line segment PQ, thus;

p/3 = (-6-2)/2

p/3 = -8/2

p/3 = -4

p= -12

Therefore, the value of p is -12.

61. The point which divides the line segment of points P(-1, 7) and (4, -3) in the ratio of
2:3 is:

(a) (-1, 3)

(b) (-1, -3)

(c) (1, -3)

(d) (1, 3)

Answer: (d) (1, 3)

Explanation: By section formula we know:

x = [(2 × 4) + (3 × (-1))]/(2 + 3) = (8 – 3)/5 = 1

y = [(2 × (-3)) + (3 × 7)]/(2 + 3) = (-6 + 21)/5 = 3

Hence, the required point is (1, 3).

62. The ratio in which the line segment joining the points P(-3, 10) and Q(6, –8) is
divided by O(-1, 6) is:

(a) 1:3
(b) 3:4

(c) 2:7

(d) 2:5

Answer: (c) 2:7

Explanation: Let k :1 be the ratio in which the line segment joining P( -3, 10) and Q(6, -8) is
divided by point O(-1, 6).

By the section formula, we have;

-1 = ( 6k – 3)/(k + 1)

–k – 1 = 6k – 3

7k = 2

k = 2/7

Hence, the required ratio is 2:7.

63. The coordinates of a point P, where PQ is the diameter of a circle whose centre is
(2, – 3) and Q is (1, 4) is:

(a) (3, -10)

(b) (2, -10)

(c) (-3, 10)

(d) (-2, 10)

Answer: (a) (3, -10)

Explanation: By midpoint formula, we know;

[(x + 1)/2, (y + 4)/2] = (2, -3) {since, O is the midpoint of PQ}


By equating the corresponding coordinates,

(x + 1)/2 = 2

x+1=4

x=3

And

(y + 4)/2 = -3

y + 4 = -6
y = -10

So, the coordinates of point P is (3, -10).

64. The area of a rhombus whose vertices are (3, 0), (4, 5), (-1, 4) and (-2,-1) taken in
order, is:

(a) 12 sq.units

(b) 24 sq.units

(c) 30 sq.units

(d) 32 sq.units

Answer: (b) 24 sq.units

65. In ∆ ABC, right-angled at B, AB = 24 cm, BC = 7 cm. The value of tan C is:

(a) 12/7

(b) 24/7

(c) 20/7

(d) 7/24

Answer: (b) 24/7

Explanation: AB = 24 cm and BC = 7 cm

tan C = Opposite side/Adjacent side

tan C = 24/7

66. (Sin 30°+cos 60°)-(sin 60° + cos 30°) is equal to:

(a) 0

(b) 1+2√3

(c) 1-√3

(d) 1+√3

Answer: (c) 1-√3

Explanation: sin 30° = ½, sin 60° = √3/2, cos 30° = √3/2 and cos 60° = ½

Putting these values, we get:

(½+½)-(√3/2+√3/2)
= 1 – [(2√3)/2]

= 1 – √3

67. The value of tan 60°/cot 30° is equal to:

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

Answer: (b) 1

Explanation: tan 60° = √3 and cot 30° = √3

Hence, tan 60°/cot 30° = √3/√3 = 1

68. 1 – cos2A is equal to:

(a) sin2A

(b) tan2A

(c) 1 – sin2A

(d) sec2A

Answer: (a) sin2A

Explanation: We know, by trigonometry identities,

sin2A + cos2A = 1

1 – cos2A = sin2A

69. sin (90° – A) and cos A are:

(a) Different

(b) Same

(c) Not related

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Same

Explanation: By trigonometry identities.

Sin (90°-A) = cos A {since 90°-A comes in the first quadrant of unit circle}
70. If cos X = ⅔ then tan X is equal to:

(a) 5/2

(b) √(5/2)

(c) √5/2

(d) 2/√5

Answer: (c) √5/2

Explanation: By trigonometry identities, we know:

1 + tan2X = sec2X

And sec X = 1/cos X = 1/(⅔) = 3/2

Hence,

1 + tan2X = (3/2)2 = 9/4

tan2X = (9/4) – 1 = 5/4

tan X = √5/2

71. If cos X = a/b, then sin X is equal to:

(a) (b2-a2)/b

(b) (b-a)/b

(c) √(b2-a2)/b

(d) √(b-a)/b

Answer: (c) √(b2-a2)/b

Explanation: cos X = a/b

By trigonometry identities, we know that:

sin2X + cos2X = 1

sin2X = 1 – cos2X = 1-(a/b)2

sin X = √(b2-a2)/b

72. The value of sin 60° cos 30° + sin 30° cos 60° is:

(a) 0

(b) 1
(c) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (b) 1

Explanation: sin 60° = √3/2, sin 30° = ½, cos 60° = ½ and cos 30° = √3/2

Therefore,

(√3/2) x (√3/2) + (½) x (½)

= (3/4) + (1/4)

= 4/4

=1

73. 2 tan 30°/(1 + tan230°) =

(a) sin 60°

(b) cos 60°

(c) tan 60°

(d) sin 30°

Answer: (a) sin 60°

Explanation: tan 30° = 1/√3

Putting this value we get;

[2(1/√3)]/[1 + (1/√3)2] = (2/√3)/(4/3) = 6/4√3 = √3/2 = sin 60°


74. sin 2A = 2 sin A is true when A =

(a) 30°

(b) 45°

(c) 0°

(d) 60°

Answer: (c) 0°

Explanation: sin 2A = sin 0° = 0

2 sin A = 2 sin 0° = 0

75. The value of (sin 45° + cos 45°) is


(a) 1/√2

(b) √2

(c) √3/2

(d) 1

Answer: (b) √2

Explanation:

sin 45° + cos 45° = (1/√2) + (1/√2)

= (1 + 1)/√2

= 2/√2

= (√2 . √2)/√2

= √2

76. If sin A = 1/2 , then the value of cot A is

(a) √3

(b) 1/√3

(c) √3/2

(d) 1

Answer: (a) √3

Explanation:

Given,

sin A = 1/2

cos2A = 1 – sin2A

= 1 – (1/2)2

= 1 – (1/4)

= (4 – 1)/4

= 3/4

cos A = √(3/4) = √3/2

cot A = cos A/sin A = (√3/2)/(1/2) = √3


76. A circle has a number of tangents equal to

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) Infinite

Answer: (d) Infinite

Explanation: A circle has infinitely many tangents, touching the circle at infinite points on its
circumference.

77. A tangent intersects the circle at:

(a) One point

(b) Two distinct point

(c) At the circle

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) One point

Explanation: A tangent touches the circle only on its boundary and do not cross through it.

79. A circle can have _____parallel tangents at a single time.

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

Answer: (b) Two

Explanation: A circle can have two parallel tangents at the most.

80. If the angle between two radii of a circle is 110º, then the angle between the
tangents at the ends of the radii is:

(a) 90º

(b) 50º

(c) 70º
(c) 40º

Answer: (c) 70º

Explanation: If the angle between two radii of a circle is 110º, then the angle between
tangents is 180º − 110º = 70º. (By circles and tangents properties)

81. The length of the tangent from an external point A on a circle with centre O is

(a) always greater than OA

(b) equal to OA

(c) always less than OA

(d) cannot be estimated

Answer: (c) always less than OA

Explanation: Since the tangent is perpendicular to the radius of the circle, then the angle
between them is 90º. Thus, OA is the hypotenuse for the right triangle OAB, which is right-
angled at B. As we know, for any right triangle, the hypotenuse is the longest side. Therefore
the length of the tangent from an external point is always less than the OA.

82. AB is a chord of the circle and AOC is its diameter such that angle ACB = 50°. If AT
is the tangent to the circle at the point A, then BAT is equal to

(a) 65°

(b) 60°

(c) 50°

(d) 40°

Answer: (c) 50°

Explanation: As per the given question:


∠ABC = 90° (angle in Semicircle is right angle)

In ∆ACB

∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°

∠A = 180° – (90° + 50°)

∠A = 40°

Or ∠OAB = 40°

Therefore, ∠BAT = 90° – 40° = 50°

83. If TP and TQ are the two tangents to a circle with centre O so that ∠POQ = 110°,
then ∠PTQ is equal to

(a) 60°

(b) 70°

(c) 80°

(d) 90°

Answer: (b) 70°

Explanation: As per the given question:


We can see, OP is the radius of the circle to the tangent PT and OQ is the radius to the
tangents TQ.

So, OP ⊥ PT and TQ ⊥ OQ

∴ ∠OPT = ∠OQT = 90°

Now, in the quadrilateral POQT, we know that the sum of the interior angles is 360°

So, ∠PTQ + ∠POQ + ∠OPT + ∠OQT = 360°

Now, by putting the respective values, we get,

⇒ ∠PTQ + 90° + 110° + 90° = 360°

⇒ ∠PTQ = 70°

84. The length of a tangent from a point A at a distance 5 cm from the centre of the
circle is 4 cm. The radius of the circle is:

(a) 3 cm

(b) 5 cm

(c) 7 cm

(d) 10 cm

Answer: (a) 3 cm

Explanation: As per the given question:


AB is the tangent, drawn on the circle from point A.

So, OB ⊥ AB

Given, OA = 5cm and AB = 4 cm

Now, In △ABO,

OA2 = AB2 + BO2 (Using Pythagoras theorem)

⇒ 52 = 42 + BO2

⇒ BO2 = 25 – 16

⇒ BO2 = 9

⇒ BO = 3

85. If a parallelogram circumscribes a circle, then it is a:

(a) Square

(b) Rectangle

(c) Rhombus

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Rhombus

If a parallelogram circumscribes a circle, then it is a Rhombus.

86. Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. The length of the chord of the
larger circle which touches the smaller circle is:

(a) 8 cm

(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm

(d) 18 cm

Answer: (a) 8 cm

Explanation: As per the given question:

From the above figure, AB is tangent to the smaller circle at point P.

∴ OP ⊥ AB

By Pythagoras theorem, in triangle OPA

OA2 = AP2 + OP2

⇒ 52 = AP2 + 32

⇒ AP2 = 25 – 9

⇒ AP = 4

Now, as OP ⊥ AB,

Since the perpendicular from the center of the circle bisects the chord, AP will be equal to PB

So, AB = 2AP = 2 × 4 = 8 cm

87. If angle between two radii of a circle is 130°, the angle between the tangents at the
ends of the radii is

(a) 90°

(b) 50°
(c) 70°

(d) 40°

Answer: (b) 50°

Explanation:

We know that the sum of the angle between two radii of a circle and the angle between the
tangents at the ends of the radii is 180°.

Therefore, the angle between the tangents at the ends of the radii = 180° – 130° = 50°

88. A line intersecting a circle in two points is called a _______.

(a) Secant

(b) Chord

(c) Diameter

(d) Tangent

Answer: (a) Secant

A line intersecting a circle in two points is called a Secant.

89. In the figure below, the pair of tangents AP and AQ drawn from an external point A
to a circle with centre O are perpendicular to each other and length of each tangent is
5 cm. Then the radius of the circle is

(a) 10 cm

(b) 7.5 cm

(c) 5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm

Answer: (c) 5 cm

Explanation:

Join OP and OQ.

Tangents AP = AQ

In triangle APO and AQO,

AP = AQ

AO = AO (Common)

OP = OQ (radius of same circle)

Thus, ΔAPO ~ ΔAQO.

POQA is a square

OP = OQ = AP = AQ

So, AP = AQ = 5 Cm

And AP = OP (Proved)

Therefore, radius = OP = 5 cm

90. The tangent to a circle is ___________ to the radius through the point of contact.

(a) parallel

(b) perpendicular

(c) perpendicular bisector


(d) bisector

Answer: (b) perpendicular

The tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.

91. The perimeter of a circle having radius 5cm is equal to:

(a) 30 cm

(b) 3.14 cm

(c) 31.4 cm

(d) 40 cm

Answer: (c) 31.4 cm

Explanation: The perimeter of the circle is equal to the circumference of the circle.

Circumference = 2πr

= 2 x 3.14 x 5

= 31.4 cm

92. Area of the circle with radius 5cm is equal to:

(a) 60 sq.cm

(b) 75.5 sq.cm

(c) 78.5 sq.cm

(d) 10.5 sq.cm

Answer: (c) 78.5 sq.cm

Explanation: Radius = 5cm

Area = πr2 = 3.14 x 5 x 5 = 78.5 sq.cm

93. The largest triangle inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r, then the area of that
triangle is;

(a) r2

(b) 1/2r2

(c) 2r2

(d) √2r2

Answer: (a) r2
Explanation: The height of the largest triangle inscribed will be equal to the radius of the
semi-circle and base will be equal to the diameter of the semi-circle.

Area of triangle = ½ x base x height

= ½ x 2r x r

= r2

94. If the perimeter of the circle and square are equal, then the ratio of their areas will
be equal to:

(a) 14:11

(b) 22:7

(c) 7:22

(c) 11:14

Answer: (a) 14:11

Explanation: Given,

The perimeter of circle = perimeter of the square

2πr = 4a

a=πr/2

Area of square = a2 = (πr/2)2

Acircle/Asquare = πr2/(πr/2)2

= 14/11

95. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 8 cm is

(a) 36 π cm2

(b) 16 π cm2

(c) 12 π cm2

(d) 9 π cm2

Answer: (b) 16 π cm2

Explanation: Given,

Side of square = 8 cm

Diameter of a circle = side of square = 8 cm

Therefore, Radius of circle = 4 cm

Area of circle
= π(4)2

= π (4)2

= 16π cm2

96. The area of the square that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 8 cm is

(a) 256 cm2

(b) 128 cm2

(c) 642 cm2

(d) 64 cm2

Answer: (b) 128 cm2

Explanation: Radius of circle = 8 cm

Diameter of circle = 16 cm = diagonal of the square

Let “a” be the triangle side, and the hypotenuse is 16 cm

Using Pythagoras theorem, we can write

162= a2+a2

256 = 2a2

a2= 256/2

a2= 128 = area of a square.

97. The area of a sector of a circle with radius 6 cm if the angle of the sector is 60°.

(a) 142/7

(b) 152/7

(c) 132/7

(d) 122/7

Answer: (c) 132/7

Explanation: Angle of the sector is 60°

Area of sector = (θ/360°) × π r2

∴ Area of the sector with angle 60° = (60°/360°) × π r2 cm2

= (36/6) π cm2

= 6 × (22/7) cm2

= 132/7 cm2
98. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. The
length of the arc is;

(a) 20cm

(b) 21cm

(c) 22cm

(d) 25cm

Answer: (c) 22cm

Explanation: Length of an arc = (θ/360°) × (2πr)

∴ Length of an arc AB = (60°/360°) × 2 × 22/7 × 21

= (1/6) × 2 × (22/7) × 21

Or Arc AB Length = 22cm

99. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. The area
of the sector formed by the arc is:

(a) 200 cm2

(b) 220 cm2

(c) 231 cm2

(d) 250 cm2

Answer: (c) 231 cm2

Explanation: The angle subtended by the arc = 60°

So, area of the sector = (60°/360°) × π r2 cm2

= (441/6) × (22/7) cm2

= 231 cm2

100. Area of a sector of angle p (in degrees) of a circle with radius R is

(a) p/180 × 2πR

(b) p/180 × π R2

(c) p/360 × 2πR

(d) p/720 × 2πR2

Answer: (d) p/720 × 2πR2

Explanation: The area of a sector = (θ/360°) × π r2

Given, θ = p
So, area of sector = p/360 × π R2

Multiplying and dividing by 2 simultaneously,

= [(p/360)/(π R2)]×[2/2]

= (p/720) × 2πR2

101. If the area of a circle is 154 cm2, then its perimeter is

(a) 11 cm

(b) 22 cm

(c) 44 cm

(d) 55 cm

Answer: (c) 44 cm

Explanation:

Given,

Area of a circle = 154 cm2

πr2 = 154

(22/7) × r2 = 154

r2 = (154 × 7)/22

r2 = 7 × 7

r = 7 cm

Perimeter of circle = 2πr = 2 × (22/7) × 7 = 44 cm

102. If the sum of the areas of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the area of a
circle of radius R, then

(a) R1 + R2 = R

(b) R12 + R22 = R2

(c) R1 + R2 < R

(d) R12 + R22 < R2

Answer: (b) R12 + R22 = R2

Explanation:

According to the given,

πR12 + πR22 = πR2


π(R12 + R22) = πR2

R12 + R22 = R2

103. If θ is the angle (in degrees) of a sector of a circle of radius r, then the length of
arc is

(a) (πr2θ)/360

(b) (πr2θ)/180

(c) (2πrθ)/360

(d) (2πrθ)/180

Answer: (a) (2πrθ)/360

If θ is the angle (in degrees) of a sector of a circle of radius r, then the area of the sector is
(2πrθ)/360.

104. It is proposed to build a single circular park equal in area to the sum of areas of
two circular parks of diameters 16 m and 12 m in a locality. The radius of the new park
would be

(a) 10 m

(b) 15 m

(c) 20 m

(d) 24 m

Answer: (a) 10 m

Explanation:

Radii of two circular parks will be:

R1 = 16/2 = 8 m

R2 = 12/2 = 6 m

Let R be the radius of the new circular park.

If the areas of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the area of circle with radius R, then

R2 = R12 + R22

= (8)2 + (6)2

= 64 + 36

= 100

R = 10 m
105. The radius of a circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of the
circumferences of the two circles of diameters 36 cm and 20 cm is

(a) 56 cm

(b) 42 cm

(c) 28 cm

(d) 16 cm

Answer: (c) 28 cm

Explanation:

If the sum of the circumferences of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the
circumference of a circle of radius R, then R1 + R2 = R.

Here,

R1 = 36/2 = 18 cm

R2 = 20/2 = 10 cm

R = R1 + R2 = 18 + 10 = 28 cm

Therefore, the radius of the required circle is 28 cm

106. A cylindrical pencil sharpened at one edge is the combination of

(A) a cone and a cylinder (B) frustum of a cone and a cylinder

(C) a hemisphere and a cylinder (D) two cylinders.

Solution:

(A) a cone and a cylinder


The Nib of a sharpened pencil = conical shape

The rest of the part of a sharpened pencil = cylindrical

Therefore, a pencil is a combination of cylinder and a cone.

107. A surahi is the combination of

(A) a sphere and a cylinder (B) a hemisphere and a cylinder

(C) two hemispheres (D) a cylinder and a cone.

Solution:

(A) a sphere and a cylinder

The top part of surahi = cylindrical shape

Bottom part of surahi = spherical shape

Therefore, surahi is a combination of Sphere and a cylinder.

108. A plumbline (sahul) is the combination of (see Fig. 12.2)


(A) a cone and a cylinder (B) a hemisphere and a cone

(C) frustum of a cone and a cylinder (D) sphere and cylinder

Solution:

(B) a hemisphere and a cone

The upper part of plumbline = hemispherical,

The bottom part of plumbline = conical

Therefore, it is a combination of hemisphere and cone.

109. The shape of a glass (tumbler) (see Fig. 12.3) is usually in the form of

(A) a cone (B) frustum of a cone

(C) a cylinder (D) a sphere

Solution:

(B) frustum of a cone


The shape of glass is a frustum or specifically, an inverted frustum.

110. The shape of a gilli, in the gilli-danda game (see Fig. 12.4), is a combination of

(A) two cylinders (B) a cone and a cylinder

(C) two cones and a cylinder (D) two cylinders and a cone

Solution:

(C) two cones and a cylinder


The left and right part of a gilli = conical

The central part of a gilli = cylindrical

Therefore, it is a combination of a cylinder and two cones.

111. A shuttle cock used for playing badminton has the shape of the combination of

(A) a cylinder and a sphere (B) a cylinder and a hemisphere

(C) a sphere and a cone (D) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere

Solution:

(D) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere

The cork of a shuttle = hemispherical shapes

The upper part of a shuttle = shape of frustum of a cone.

Therefore, it is a combination of frustum of a cone and a hemisphere.

112. A cone is cut through a plane parallel to its base and then the cone that is formed
on one side of that plane is removed. The new part that is left over on the other side of
the plane is called

(A) a frustum of a cone (B) cone

(C) cylinder (D) sphere

Solution:

(A) a frustum of a cone


When a cone is divided into two parts by a plane through any point on its axis parallel to its
base, the upper and lower parts obtained are cone and a frustum, respectively.

113. A hollow cube of internal edge 22cm is filled with spherical marbles of diameter
0.5 cm and it is assumed that 1/8 space of the cube remains unfilled. Then the number
of marbles that the cube can accommodate is

(A) 142296 (B) 142396

(C) 142496 (D) 142596

Solution:

(A) 142296

According to the question,

Volume of cube =223=10648cm3

Volume of cube that remains unfilled =1/8×10648=1331cm3

volume occupied by spherical marbles =10648−1331=9317cm3

Radius of the spherical marble = 0.5/2=0.25cm=1/4cm

Volume of 1 spherical marble = 4/3×22/7 × (1/4)3=11/168cm3

Numbers of spherical marbles, n = 9317 × (11/168) =142296

114. A metallic spherical shell of internal and external diameters 4 cm and 8 cm,
respectively is melted and recast into the form a cone of base diameter 8cm. The
height of the cone is
(A) 12cm (B) 14cm (C) 15cm (D) 18cm

Solution:

(B) 14cm

Volume of spherical shell = Volume of cone recast by melting

For Spherical Shell,

Internal diameter, d1 = 4 cm

Internal radius, r1 = 2 cm

[ as radius = 1/2 diameter]


External diameter, d2 = 8 cm

External radius, r2 = 4 cm

Now,

As volume of spherical shell= 4/3 π (r23 – r13)

where r1 and r2 are internal and external radii respectively.

volume of given shell = 4/3 π (43 – 23)

= 4/3 π (56)

= (224/3) π

We know that,

Volume of cone = 224π /3 cm3


For cone,

Base diameter = 8 cm

Base radius, r = 4 cm

Let Height of cone = ‘h’.

We know,

Volume of cone = (1/3) π r2h,

Where r = Base radius and h = height of cone

Volume of given cone = (1/3) π 42h

⇒ 224π /3 = 16πh /3

⇒ 16h = 224

h = 14 cm

So, Height of cone is 14 cm.

115. A solid piece of iron in the form of a cuboid of dimensions 49cm × 33cm × 24cm,
is moulded to form a solid sphere. The radius of the sphere is

(A) 21cm (B) 23cm (C) 25cm (D) 19cm

Solution:

(A) 21cm

As we know,

Volume of cuboid = lbh

Where, l = length, b = breadth and h = height

For given cuboid,

Length, l = 49 cm

Breadth, b = 33 cm

Height, h = 24 cm

Volume of cube = 49× (33) × (24) cm3

Now,

Let the radius of cube be r.


As volume of sphere = 4/3 πr3

Where r = radius of sphere

Also,

Volume of cuboid = volume of sphere moulded

So,

49(33)(24) = 4/3 πr3

⇒ πr3 = 29106

⇒ r3 = 29106 × 22/7

⇒ r3 = 9261

⇒ r = ∛ 9261 cm = 21 cm

Hence, radius of sphere is 21 cm

116. If x1, x2, x3,….., xn are the observations of a given data. Then the mean of the
observations will be:

(a) Sum of observations/Total number of observations

(b) Total number of observations/Sum of observations

(c) Sum of observations +Total number of observations

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Sum of observations/Total number of observations

Explanation: The mean or average of observations will be equal to the ratio of sum of
observations and total number of observations.

xmean=x1+x2+x3+…..+xn/n

117. If the mean of frequency distribution is 7.5 and ∑fi xi = 120 + 3k, ∑fi = 30, then k is
equal to:

(a) 40

(b) 35

(c) 50
(d) 45

Answer: (b) 35

Explanation: As per the given question,

Xmean = ∑fi xi /∑fi

7.5 = (120+3k)/30

225 = 120+3k

3k = 225-120

3k= 105

k=35

118. The mode and mean is given by 7 and 8, respectively. Then the median is:

(a) 1/13

(b) 13/3

(c) 23/3

(d) 33

Answer: (c) 23/3

Explanation: Using Empirical formula,

Mode = 3Median – 2 Mean

3Median = Mode + 2Mean

Median = (Mode + 2Mean)/3

Median = [7 + 2(8)]/3 = (7 + 16)/3 = 23/3

119. The mean of the data: 4, 10, 5, 9, 12 is;

(a) 8

(b) 10

(c) 9

(d) 15

Answer: (a) 8

Explanation: mean = (4 + 10 + 5 + 9 + 12)/5 = 40/5 = 8


120. The median of the data 13, 15, 16, 17, 19, 20 is:

(a) 30/2

(b) 31/2

(c) 33/2

(d) 35/2

Answer: (c) 33/2

Explanation: For the given data, there are two middle terms, 16 and 17.

Hence, median = (16 + 17)/2 = 33/2

121. If the mean of first n natural numbers is 3n/5, then the value of n is:

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

Answer: (c) 5

Explanation: Sum of natural numbers = n(n + 1)/2

Given, mean = 3n/5

Mean = sum of natural numbers/n

3n/5 = n(n + 1)/2n

3n/5 = (n + 1)/2

6n = 5n + 5

n=5

122. If AM of a, a+3, a+6, a+9 and a+12 is 10, then a is equal to;

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: (d) 4
Explanation: Mean of AM = 10

(a + a + 3 + a + 6 + a + 9 + a + 12)/5 = 10

5a + 30 = 50

5a = 20

a=4

123. The class interval of a given observation is 10 to 15, then the class mark for this
interval will be:

(a) 11.5

(b) 12.5

(c) 12

(d) 14

Answer: (b) 12.5

Explanation: Class mark = (Upper limit + Lower limit)/2

= (15 + 10)/2

= 25/2

= 12.5

124. If the sum of frequencies is 24, then the value of x in the observation: x, 5,6,1,2,
will be;

(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 8

(d) 10

Answer: (d) 10

Explanation:

Given,

∑fi = 24

∑fi = x + 5 + 6 + 1 + 2 = 14 + x
24 = 14 + x

x = 24 – 14 = 10

125. The probability of event equal to zero is called;

(a) Unsure event

(b) Sure Event

(c) Impossible event

(d) Independent event

Answer: (c) Impossible event

Explanation: The probability of an event that cannot happen or which is impossible, is equal
to zero.

126. The probability that cannot exist among the following:

(a) ⅔

(b) -1.5

(c) 15%

(d) 0.7

Answer: (b) -1.5

Explanation: The probability lies between 0 and 1. Hence, it cannot be negative.

127. If P(E) = 0.07, then what is the probability of ‘not E’?

(a) 0.93

(b) 0.95

(c) 0.89

(d) 0.90

Answer: (a) 0.93

Explanation: P(E) + P(not E) = 1

Since, P(E) = 0.05

So, P(not E) = 1 – P(E)


Or, P(not E) = 1 – 0.07

∴ P(not E) = 0.93

128. A bag has 3 red balls and 5 green balls. If we take a ball from the bag, then what
is the probability of getting red balls only?

(a) 3

(b) 8

(c) ⅜

(d) 8/3

Answer: (c) ⅜

Explanation: Number of red balls = 3

Number of green balls = 5

Total balls in bag = 3+5 = 8

Probability of getting red balls = number of red balls/total number of balls

=⅜

129. A bag has 5 white marbles, 8 red marbles and 4 purple marbles. If we take a
marble randomly, then what is the probability of not getting purple marble?

(a) 0.5

(b) 0.66

(c) 0.08

(d) 0.77

Answer: (d) 0.77

Explanation: Total number of purple marbles = 4

Total number of marbles in bag = 5 + 8 + 4 = 17

Probability of getting purple marbles = 4/17

Hence, the probability of not getting purple marbles = 1-4/17 = 0.77

130. A dice is thrown in the air. The probability of getting odd numbers is
(a) ½

(b) 3/2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: (a) ½

Explanation: A dice has six faces having values 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.

There are three odd numbers and three even numbers.

Therefore, the probability of getting only odd numbers is = 3/6 = ½

131. If we throw two coins in the air, then the probability of getting both tails will be:

(a) ½

(b) ¼

(c) 2

(d) 4

Answer: (b) ¼

Explanation: When two coins are tossed, the total outcomes will be = 2 x 2 = 4

Hence, the probability of getting both tails = ¼

132. If two dice are thrown in the air, the probability of getting sum as 3 will be

(a) 2/18

(b) 3/18

(c) 1/18

(d) 1/36

Answer: (c) 1/18

Explanation: When two dice are thrown in the air:

Total number of outcome = 6 x 6 = 36

Sum 3 is possible if we get (1,2) or (2,1) in the dices.

Hence, the probability will be = 2/36 = 1/18


133. A card is drawn from the set of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting a queen
card.

(a) 1/26

(b) 1/13

(c) 4/53

(d) 4/13

Answer: (b) 1/13

Explanation: Total number of cards = 52

Number of queen cards= 4

The probability of getting queen card = 4/52 = 1/13

134. A fish tank has 5 male fish and 8 female fish. The probability of fish taken out is a
male fish:

(a) 5/8

(b) 5/13

(c) 13/5

(d) 5

Answer: (b) 5/13

Explanation: Total fish = 5 + 8 = 13

Probability of taking out a male fish = 5/13

135. The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an experiment is

(a) 0.5

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 1.5

Answer: (b) 1

The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an experiment is equal to 1.

136. A card is selected at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. The
probability of its being a face card is
(a) 3/13

(b) 4/13

(c) 6/13

(d) 9/13

Answer: (a) 3/13

Explanation:

Total number of outcomes = 52

Number of face cards = 12

The probability of its being a face card = 12/52 = 3/13

137. If an event cannot occur, then its probability is

(a) 1

(b) 3/4

(c) 1/2

(d) 0

Answer: (d) 0

If an event cannot occur, then its probability is 0.

138. An event is very unlikely to happen. Its probability is closest to

(a) 0.0001

(b) 0.001

(c) 0.01

(d) 0.1

Answer: (a) 0.0001

The probability of an event which is very unlikely to happen is closest to zero.

Thus, 0.0001 is the probability of an event which is very unlikely to happen.

139. If P(A) denotes the probability of an event A, then

(a) P(A) < 0

(b) P(A) > 1


(c) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1

(d) –1 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1

Answer: (c) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1

If P(A) denotes the probability of an event A, then 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1.

140. The probability that a non leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is

(a) 1/7

(b) 2/7

(c) 3/7

(d) 5/7

Answer: (a) 1/7

Explanation:

Non-leap year = 365 days

365 days = 52 weeks + 1 day

For 52 weeks, number of Sundays = 52

1 remaining day can be Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday,


Saturday, Sunday.

Total possible outcomes = 7

The number of favourable outcomes = 1

Thus, the probability of getting 53 Sundays = 1/7

141. If the probability of an event is p, the probability of its complementary event will
be

(a) p – 1

(b) p

(c) 1 – p

(d) 1 – 1/p

Answer: (c) 1 – p

Explanation:
The sum of probability of an event and it complementary event = 1

So, if the probability of an event is p, the probability of its complementary event will be 1 – p.

142. A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. The event E is that card is not an ace of
hearts. The number of outcomes favourable to E is

(a) 4

(b) 13

(c) 48

(d) 51

Answer: (d) 51

In a deck of 52 cards, there are 13 cards of heart and 1 is ace of heart.

Given that the event E is that card is not an ace of hearts.

Hence, the number of outcomes favorable to E = 52 – 1 = 51

143. The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 is 0.035. The number of bad
eggs in the lot is

(a) 7

(b) 14

(c) 21

(d) 28

Answer: (b) 14

Explanation:

Total number of eggs = 400

Probability of getting a bad egg = Number of bad eggs/Total number of eggs

0.035 = Number of bad eggs/400

Number of bad eggs = 0.035 × 400 = 14

144. Two players, Sangeeta and Reshma, play a tennis match. It is known that the
probability of Sangeeta winning the match is 0.62. The probability of Reshma winning
the match is

(a) 0.62
(b) 0.38

(c) 0.58

(d) 0.42

Answer: (b) 0.38

Explanation:

Probability of Sangeeta’s winning = P(S) = 0.62

Probability of Reshma’s winning = P(R) = 1 – P(S) {since events R and S are


complementary}

= 1 – 0.62

= 0.38

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