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MBBS Phase III Part I March 2022 (2)

The document outlines the MBBS Phase-III Part-I examination for Community Medicine at KLE Academy, detailing the structure of the exam including multiple-choice questions, long essay questions, short essay questions, and short answer questions. It includes specific topics such as epidemiology, perinatal mortality, and health care principles. The exam is scheduled for March 2022 and consists of a total of 100 marks.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
26 views

MBBS Phase III Part I March 2022 (2)

The document outlines the MBBS Phase-III Part-I examination for Community Medicine at KLE Academy, detailing the structure of the exam including multiple-choice questions, long essay questions, short essay questions, and short answer questions. It includes specific topics such as epidemiology, perinatal mortality, and health care principles. The exam is scheduled for March 2022 and consists of a total of 100 marks.

Uploaded by

kanupriyakarle23
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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KLE ACADEMY OF HIGHER EDUCATION AND RESEARCH, BELAGAVI.

(Declared as Deemed-to-be-University u/s 3 of the UGC Act, 1956)


Accredited ‘A’ Grade by NAAC (2nd Cycle) Placed in ‘A’ Category by MHRD (GoI)

MBBS PHASE – III Part-I


DEGREE EXAMINATION – MARCH 2022
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 100
COMMUNITY MEDICINE
PAPER – II

Q.P. Code: 1016


Answers should be specific to the Questions asked.
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
All questions are compulsory.
Question Number Marks
1. M.C.Q. 25 X 1 = 25
LONG ESSAY QUESTIONS: 2 X 10 = 20
2. Describe the epidemiology, clinical features, prevention and control of (2+2+2+2+2)
Measles.
3. Define 'Perinatal mortality rate'. Mention its causes and measures of (2+4+4)
prevention.

SHORT ESSAY QUESTIONS: 8 X 5 = 40


4. Write in detail about various steps involved in Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP)
surveillance.
5. Discuss the management of Dengue hemorrhagic fever.
6. Enlist the 'Warning/Danger signs of Cancer'.
7. Define 'Pearl index'. Mention the formula used to calculate it and describe in
brief about each component of the formula.
8. Describe the conditions under which a pregnancy can be terminated under
Maternal Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) act, 1971.
9. Enumerate and discuss the steps in 'Planning Cycle'.
10. Explain all the principles of 'Primary Health Care'.
11. Enumerate the functions of 'Medical officer, PHC' in India.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 5 X 3 = 15
12. Explain about dosage, route of administration and schedule of Rota virus
vaccination.
13. Discuss the 'Rule of Halves' in 'Hypertension'.
14. Define 'Dependency ratio'.
15. Define 'At-Risk Infants'.
16. Explain 'Critical Pathway Method' (CPM).

****
KLE ACADEMY OF HIGHER EDUCATION AND RESEARCH, BELAGAVI.
(Declared as Deemed-to-be-University u/s 3 of the UGC Act, 1956)
Accredited ‘A’ Grade by NAAC (2nd Cycle) Placed in ‘A’ Category by MHRD (GoI)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS


Course: MBBS Phase-III Part-I, March 2022 Max. Marks: 25 Marks
Subject : Community Medicine Paper-II, Time: 30 Minutes
QP Code: 1016

Instructions:
 Each question is followed by four options.
 Pick up the single best option and darken the appropriate circle in the OMR Sheet provided.
 Each question carries one mark. No negative marking.

1. What is not true regarding measles?


(A) Only source of infection is case (B) Secondary attack rate is 80%
(C) Carriers do not occur (D) Subclinical measles not known

2. Prevalence of TB infection in a community is estimated by?


(A) Tuberculin test (B) Sputum microscopy
(C) Chest X ray (D) Sputum culture

3. Protective value for BCG vaccination is


(A) 30-60% (B) 0-80%
(C) 40% (D) 100%

4. The CVD responsible for maximum deaths in developed countries is:


(A) IHD (B) RHD
(C) Cerebrovsascuar disease (D) Nutritional cardiomyopathy

5. The major risk factor for cerebral thrombosis is


(A) Elevated blood lipids (B) Diabetes
(C) Hypertension (D) Oral Contraceptives

6. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for Hypertension?


(A) Age (B) Family history
(C) Sex (D) Obesity

7. Family size is related to


(A) Total number of female born (B) Total number of males born
(C) Total number of family members (D) Total number of children born

8. Demography includes study of all EXCEPT


(A) Fertility (B) Mortality
(C) Social mobility and marriage (D) Morbidity

9. Mortality experience are taken into account when defining


(A) Net reproduction rate (B) Gross reproduction rate
(C) Total fertility rate (D) General fertility rate

10. Commonest cause of perinatal mortality is


(A) Low birth weight (B) Congenital malformations
(C) Respiratory infection (D) GIT infections

11. Beneficiaries under Integrated Child Development Services Scheme are


(A) Children up to 6 years, pregnant and lactating women, all women in the reproductive age group
(B) Children up to 5 years, pregnant and lactating women
(C) Children up to 3 years only and all Anti Natal Care (ANC) mothers
(D) All school going children up to the age of 15 years and their mothers
12. Most common cause of maternal mortality is
(A) Hemorrhage (B) Eclampsia
(C) Anemia (D) Obstructed labour

13. Birth in India must be registered within


(A) 7 days (B) 14 days
(C) 21 days (D) 5 days

14. Arrange the following phases of disaster cycle in a logical sequence:


(A) Disaster impact- mitigation-rehabilitation- response
(B) Disaster impact- response - rehabilitation- mitigation
(C) Rehabilitation- response - disaster impact- mitigation
(D) Response- Disaster impact- rehabilitation- mitigation

15. Most commonly reported disease in the post disaster period is:
(A) Acute respiratory infections (B) Gastroenteritis
(C) Tetanus (D) Malaria

16. 3 month's training in preventive and social medicine during internship is recommended by
(A) Bhore committee (B) Chadah committee
(C) Mudaliar committee (D) Mukerji committee

17. Health survey and development committee is given by


(A) Mudaliar (B) Bhore
(C) Srivasthava (D) Mukherji

18. Economic benefits of any programme are compared with the costs incurred in
(A) Cost benefit analysis (B) Cost effective analysis
(C) Cost accounting (D) Network analysis

19. PERT is associated with


(A) Qualitative analysis (B) Quantitative analysis
(C) Behavioural analysis (D) None

20. United Nations Development Programme is an international agency which works for:
(A) Development of children (B) Development of human and natural resources
(C) Economic development (D) Research and technological development

21. One of the following is NOT a Voluntary Health Agency


(A) Family Planning Association of India (B) Ford Foundation
(C) Rockfeller Foundation (D) National Institute of Nutrition

22. The International Red Cross Society was founded by


(A) Rene Sand (B) Neumann and Virchow
(C) Henry Dunant (D) Andreas Varelius

23. The 'GOBIFFF' campaign for child health revolution was initiated by
(A) World Health Organization (B) Food and Agriculture Organization
(C) United Nations Fund for Population Activities (D) United Nations Children's Fund

24. The World Health Organization headquarter for South East Asia region is located at
(A) Dhaka (B) New Delhi
(C) Lahore (D) Manila

25. Black colour in triage is


(A) Death (B) Transfer
(C) High priority (D) Low priority

****

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