SSC 2024

"SSC 2024 All Exams:

Comprehensive Mathematics Question Bank
(Exam-Wise & Chapter-Wise)
E-Book"

4500+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 SSC 2024 Complete Mathematics E Book
INDEX
Click on Chapter Name to Directly Navigate

Sr. No Chapter Name

1. Number System
2. LCM AND HCF
3. Simplification
4. Percentage
5. Ration and Proportion
6. Average
7. Profit and Loss
8. Simple and Compound Interest
9. Discount
10. Time and Work
11. Pipes and Cisterns
12. Mixture and Alligation
13. Time, Speed & Distance
14. Train, Boats and Streams
15. Algebra
16. Trigonometry
17. Geometry
18. Mensuration
19. Data interpretation
 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Number System
150+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Number System
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 2 and 5?
A) 63840 B) 20792 C) 37915 D) 37254 Correct Ans: A

Q2) Which of the following numbers is NOT divisible by 8?

A) 7344 B) 5544 C) 7497 D) 4608 Correct Ans: C

Q3) Which of the following numbers is divisible by 6?

A) 128530 B) 12581 C) 438750 D) 62233 Correct Ans: C

Q4) Which of the following can be the value of ‘k’ so that the number 217924k is divisible by 6?
A) 4 B) 6 C) 2 D) 0 Correct Ans: C

Q5) If P is a digit such that 6954P is divisible by 11, then P equals:

A) 2 B) 8 C) 6 D) 7 Correct Ans: A

Q6) Find the least value of x for which 57x716 is divisible by 9.

A) 1 B) 9 C) 0 D) 8 Correct Ans: A

Q7) Which digits should come in the place of x and y, respectively, if the number 62684xy is divisible by both 8
and 5?
A) 5 and 0 B) 4 and 0 C) 2 and 0 D) 0 and 5 Correct Ans: B

Q8) Which digits should come in place * and $,respectively, if the number 72864*$ is divisible by both 8 and 5?
A) 4 and 0 B) 2 and 0 C) 2 and 5 D) 4 and 5 Correct Ans: A

Q9) Without doing the actual division, find the remainder when 28735429 is divided by 9.
A) 4 B) 2 C) 8 D) 9 Correct Ans: A

Q10) Find the smallest value that must be assigned to number ‘a’ in order for 91876a2 to be divisible by 8.
A) 3 B) 0 C) 1 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q11) Which of the following numbers is divisible by 2, 5, 10 and 11?

A) 203467 B) 830942 C) 589270 D) 1234560 Correct Ans: C

Q12) Which of following numbers is NOT divisible by 11?

A) 109153 B) 5445 C) 128041 D) 80124 Correct Ans: C

Q13) Which digits should come in the place of * and #, respectively, if the 7-digit number 62684*# is divisible by
both 8 and 5?
A) 2 and 0 B) 4 and 0 C) 5 and 0 D) 0 and 5 Correct Ans: B

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Q14) The sum of two consecutive even numbers is 174. Find the smaller number.
A) 84 B) 90 C) 86 D) 88 Correct Ans: C

Q15) The least number which must be subtracted from 7278745 so as to obtain a sum that is divisible by 11 is:
A) 3 B) 1 C) 5 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

m
Q16) If m is even, then (8 – 1) is divisible by:
A) 63 B) 42 C) 65 D) 8 Correct Ans: A

Q17) On dividing a number by 55, we get 28 as the remainder. On dividing the same number by 11, what is the
remainder?
A) 5 B) 8 C) 7 D) 6 Correct Ans: D

Q18) If 7845K854 is divisible by 11, then what is the value of K?

A) 6 B) 9 C) 7 D) 8 Correct Ans: B

Q19) Find the greatest value of ‘k’ in a 6-digit number 6745k2 such that the number is divisible by 3.
A) 8 B) 6 C) 9 D) 7 Correct Ans: C

Q20) From the given numbers A, B, C and D, which number is NOT divisible by 11?
A = 712712
B = 177210
C = 64614
D = 756148
A) C B) D C) B D) A Correct Ans: B

Q21)
A) 3 B) 5 C) 2 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q22) Find the remainder, if 19200 is divided by 20.

A) 2 B) −1 C) 1 D) 3 Correct Ans: C

Q23) Find the smallest number to be added to 999, so that 99 divides the sum exactly.
A) 99 B) 0 C) 90 D) 9 Correct Ans: C

Q24) Which composite number can divide the sum of the first 12 natural numbers?
A) 6 B) 12 C) 4 D) 8 Correct Ans: A

Q25) The number 4,29,714 is divisible by:

A) 3 and 5 B) 6 and 5 C) 4 and 6 D) 3 and 6 Correct Ans: D

Q26) Find the remainder when 920 + 2 is divided by 4.

A) 1 B) 3 C) 0 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

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Q27) In a division problem, the divisor is 4 times the quotient and 2 times the remainder. If the remainder is 32,
then find the dividend.
A) 1056 B) 1650 C) 3240 D) 1065 Correct Ans: A

Q28) Which of the following fractions is the largest?

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q29) Which of the following fractions is the largest?

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q30) Replace * by the smallest digit so that 723*56* is divisible by 6.

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 Correct Ans: C

Q31) If 321y72 is a multiple of 6, where y is a digit, what is the least value of y?

A) 3 B) 0 C) 7 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

Q32) At a cafe, Rama bought drinks for her 7 friends at ₹240. Some of them wanted coffee, while others wanted
black tea. A regular cup of coffee cost ₹40 and a regular cup of black tea cost ₹ 30. How many cups of tea
did she purchase?
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 6 Correct Ans: B

Q33) Which of the following is the largest 5-digit number divisible by 47?
A) 99999 B) 98888 C) 99969 D) 10000 Correct Ans: C

Q34) If (7777+77) is divided by 78, then the remainder will be:

A) 76 B) 77 C) 78 D) 1 Correct Ans: A

Q35) Find the remainder: (1713 − 21) ÷ 18

A) 15 B) 17 C) 14 D) 21 Correct Ans: C

Q36)

A) −7 B) −2 C) −4 D) −5 Correct Ans: D

Q37) The five-digit number 45yz0 is divisible by 40. What is the maximum possible value of (y + z)?
A) 15 B) 18 C) 16 D) 17 Correct Ans: C

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Q38) If the sum of three numbers is 18 and the sum of their squares is 36, then find the difference between the
sum of their cubes and three times of their product.
A) 1449 B) −1944 C) −1494 D) 4149 Correct Ans: B

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1) If 6428A83 is divisible by 9, then the value of A is equal to :
A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) 3 Correct Ans: C

Q2) A number is divisible by 11 if and only if the difference of the sum of the digits in the even and odd
positions in the number is:
A) 0 B) 1 C) 0 or multiple of 11 D) 11 Correct Ans: C

Q3) The number nearest to 7658 and exactly divisible by 45 is:

A) 7645 B) 7660 C) 7650 D) 7640 Correct Ans: C

Q4) What is the value of a so that the seven−digit number 4645a52 is divisible by 72?
A) 3 B) 2 C) 0 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q5) If 1234567y is divisible by 11, then what is the value of y?

A) 3 B) 1 C) 4 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

Q6) Which of the following numbers is divisible by 22?

A) 893002 B) 645372 C) 602351 D) 654320 Correct Ans: A

Q7) When a number is divided by 512 it leaves a remainder 67. If the same number is divided by 32, then what
will be the remainder?
A) 4 B) 0 C) 5 D) 3 Correct Ans: D

Q8) When the integer n is divided by 5, the remainder is 3. What is the remainder if 6n is divided by 5?
A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 0 Correct Ans: C

Q9) On dividing a certain number by 304, we get 43 as the remainder. If the same number isdivided by 16, what
will be the remainder?
A) 8 B) 11 C) 15 D) 12 Correct Ans: B

Q10) How many numbers between 10 and 65 are divisible by 2, 3 and 4?

A) 3 B) 7 C) 9 D) 5 Correct Ans: D

Q11) On dividing a certain number by 459, we get 19 as remainder. What will be the remainder, when the same
number is divided by 17?
A) 13 B) 2 C) 11 D) 1 Correct Ans: B

Q12)
A) 4 B) 6 C) 1 D) 2 Correct Ans: D

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Q13) The sum of the digits of a two−digit number is 9. The number obtained by interchanging its digits
exceeds the given number by 45, then the original number is:
A) 18 B) 27 C) 36 D) 54 Correct Ans: B

Q14) The number 611611611611 is:

(a)divisible by both 6 and 11
(b)neither divisible by 6 nor by 11
(c)divisible by 6 only
(d)divisible by 11 only
A) (d) B) (c) C) (b) D) (a) Correct Ans: A

Q15) An 8 digit number is divisible by 99. If the digits are shuffled, then the number is always divisible by
__________.
A) 6 B) 9 C) 5 D) 11 Correct Ans: B

Q16) The cost of 21 pencils and 9 pens is ₹276, and the cost of 6 pencils and 3 pens is ₹84. The cost of 1 pencil
and 1 pen is:
A) ₹20 B) ₹10 C) ₹40 D) ₹30 Correct Ans: A

Q17) The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If the digits are reversed, then the number is increased
by 27. Find the number.
A) 36 B) 63 C) 54 D) 45 Correct Ans: A

Q18) The sum of two−digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digit is 77. If the difference
of digits is 1, then the number is:
A) 67 B) 45 C) 34 D) 12 Correct Ans: C

Q19) The sum of the five consecutive even numbers is 2720. The sum of the third and fifth numbers is:
A) 1192 B) 1292 C) 1092 D) 1392 Correct Ans: C

Q20) The sum of two numbers is 76. Three times the larger number is 46 more than four times the smaller one.
Find the two numbers.
A) 35 and 41 B) 40 and 36 C) 44 and 32 D) 50 and 26 Correct Ans: D

Q21) There are 160 multiple choice questions in a test. 4 marks are allotted for a correct answer and 1 mark is
deducted for a wrong answer or un-attempted question from the total score of correct answers. If a
candidate scored 400 marks in the test, how many questions did he answer correctly?
A) 110 B) 115 C) 112 D) 120 Correct Ans: C

Q22)
A) 2 B) 5 C) 0 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q23) If the number 6p5157q is divisible by 88, then p × q = ______, where p and q are single digit numbers.
A) 15 B) 18 C) 20 D) 12 Correct Ans: B

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Q24) A seven-digit number 489y5z6 is divisible by 72. Which of the options gives the highest possible product
of y and z?
A) 21 B) 30 C) 42 D) 3 Correct Ans: C

Q25) If two numbers are each divided by the same divisor, then the remainders are 6 and 7, respectively. If the
sum of the two numbers be divided by the same divisor, then the remainder is 5. The divisor is:
A) 6 B) 8 C) 13 D) 4 Correct Ans: B

Q26) Identify a single-digit number other than 1, which may exactly divide the number173 + 183− 163 − 153.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 Correct Ans: A

Q27) If 3c2933k is divisible by both 5 and 11, where c and k are single digit natural numbers, then c + k =
______.
A) 7 B) 8 C) 6 D) 5 Correct Ans: C

Q28) A two-digit number is 12 more than five times the sum of its digits. The number formed by reversing the
digits is 9 less than the original number. The number is:
A) 96 B) 78 C) 69 D) 87 Correct Ans: D

Q29) Write the smallest digit in the blank space of a number 7__7624, so that the number formed is divisible by
3.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 0 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

Q30) When the integer n is divided by 18, the quotient is x and the remainder is 6, When the integer n is divided
by 25, the quotient is y and the remainder is 15. Which of the following is true?
A) 25y +18x = 9 B) 25y − 18x = 9 C) 18x + 25y = 9 D) 18x − 25y = 9 Correct Ans: D

Q31) What is the number of digits required for numbering a book with 428 pages?
A) 1176 B) 1500 C) 2000 D) 988 Correct Ans: A

Q32)
A) 24 B) 13 C) 5 D) 15 Correct Ans: A

Q33) Find the number when successively divided by 3,5and 7 leaves remainder 2,1and 3, respectively, and the
last quotient is 3.
A) 360 B) 362 C) 365 D) 367 Correct Ans: C

Q34) Find the lowest positive value of (c – b) such that the 7-digit number 1738b9c is divisible by 12.
A) 4 B) 2 C) 1 D) 7 Correct Ans: C

Q35) After the division of a number successively by 2,3 and 5, the remainders are 1,2 and 3, respectively. What
will be the remainder, if 13 divides the same number (if the last quotient is 1)?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 0 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

Q36) How many factors of 14,400 are divisible by 18 but not by 36?
A) 5 B) 2 C) 4 D) 3 Correct Ans: D

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Q37) A natural number n divides 732 and leaves 12 as a remainder. How many values of n are possible?
A) 18 B) 20 C) 16 D) 22 Correct Ans: B

Q38) Successive division of a number by 2, 3, 5 and 7 gives remainders 1,4,0 and 5, respectively. What will be
the sum of the remainders if the same number is divided by 7, 5,3 and 2 successively?
A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 17 Correct Ans: B

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) The greatest number which exactly divides the numbers 38, 95 and 171 is:
A) 21 B) 9 C) 13 D) 19 Correct Ans: D

Q2) Find the greatest number that exactly divides 12, 24 and 40.
A) 2 B) 40 C) 3 D) 4 Correct Ans: D

Q3) The price of 24 movie tickets is ₹768. How much (in ₹) will 32 movie tickets cost? [Assume that all tickets
here are equally priced]
A) 1056 B) 992 C) 1024 D) 1040 Correct Ans: C

Q4) Determine the smallest number which when divided by 20, 15 and 30 leaves remainder 6 in each case.
A) 96 B) 56 C) 36 D) 66 Correct Ans: D

Q5) The largest number that can divide 147,183 and 271 leaving remainders 11,13 and 16, respectively, is:
A) 14 B) 16 C) 17 D) 15 Correct Ans: C

Q6) The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by each one of the numbers 12, 15 and 18 is:
A) 10015 B) 10010 C) 10020 D) 10080 Correct Ans: D

Q7) The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by each one of the numbers 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
A) 9400 B) 9800 C) 9600 D) 9500 Correct Ans: C

Q8)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q9)
A) 24 B) 26 C) 22 D) 20 Correct Ans: A

Q10) The greatest possible length of a scale that can exactly measure a cloth of lengths 250 cm, 420 cm and
710 cm is:
A) 10 cm B) 460 cm C) 71 cm D) 170 cm Correct Ans: A

Q11)
A) 3 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12 Correct Ans: C

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Q12)

A) B)

C) D)

Correct Ans: B

Q13) Find the least number which when divided by 20,25,35 and 40 leaves remainders 14,19,29and 34,
respectively.
A) 1294 B) 1284 C) 1384 D) 1394 Correct Ans: D

Q14) Find the average of all the numbers between 21 and 70 which are divisible by 3 and leave the remainder 2.
A) 65.5 B) 55.4 C) 55.6 D) 45.5 Correct Ans: D

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) If the sum of two numbers x and y is 12 and their product is 27, then find the sum of their cubes.
A) 657 B) 576 C) 765 D) 756 Correct Ans: D

Q2) 18 students of a class took part in a quiz. If the number of girls is 8 more than the number of boys, find the
product of the number of boys and girls.
A) 56 B) 36 C) 63 D) 65 Correct Ans: D

Q3) The sum of two numbers is 28 and the sum of their squares is 528. Find the square root of the product of
both the numbers.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q4)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q5)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q6)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q8)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q10)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q11)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q12)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q13)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q14)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q15)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q16)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q17)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q19)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q20)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q21)
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q22)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q23)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q24)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q25)
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q26)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q27)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Selection Post XII

Q1) Which of the following numbers is divisible by 8?
A) 6816 B) 5006 C) 6124 D) 6006 Correct Ans: A

Q2) If 72 * 72 is divisible by 9, the missing * digit will be:

A) 0 or 9 B) 3 or 6 C) 2 or 4 D) 5 or 8 Correct Ans: A

Q3) The number 10000 is exactly divisible by which of the following numbers?
A) 17 B) 18 C) 25 D) 14 Correct Ans: C

Q4) Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9?

A) 941201 B) 132490 C) 553986 D) 350846 Correct Ans: C

Q5) Find the smallest non-zero value of k so that 7-digit number 48397k5 is divisible by 9.
A) 4 B) 5 C) 9 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

Q6) Without actual division, find the remainder when 379843 is divided by 3.

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A) 1 B) 4 C) 2 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

Q7) The number 2918245 is divisible by which of the following numbers?

A) 12 B) 9 C) 3 D) 11 Correct Ans: D

Q8) If * is a digit such that 7235 * is divisible by 11, then the value of * is:
A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 5 Correct Ans: B

Q9) The number 7918378 is divisible by:

A) 9 B) 4 C) 13 D) 11 Correct Ans: C

Q10) Which of the following numbers is divisible by 4.

(i) 67920598
(ii) 618703592
(iii) 618703594
(iv) 67920590
A) (ii) B) (iv) C) (i) D) (iii) Correct Ans: A

Q11) Find the largest number which should replace P in the 7- digit number 87893P4 to make the number
divisible by 4.
A) 2 B) 8 C) 9 D) 0 Correct Ans: B

Q12) If a number is divisible by both 11 and 13, then it must be:

A) divisible by 42 B) divisible by (11+13) C) divisible by (13-11) D) divisible by (11×13) Correct Ans: D

Q13) Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?

A) 294621 B) 956127 C) 258913 D) 958749 Correct Ans: D

Q14) The number 1254216 is divisible by which of the following numbers?

A) 16 B) 8 C) 11 D) 5 Correct Ans: B

Q15) Which of the following numbers is divisible by 36 ?

A) 1542 B) 8840 C) 55512 D) 96272 Correct Ans: C

Q16) What least number must be subtracted from 2001 to get a number exactly divisible by 17?
A) 14 B) 12 C) 13 D) 11 Correct Ans: B

Q17) Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?

A) 611571 B) 969331 C) 701611 D) 908781 Correct Ans: B

Q18) If (5)55 is divided by 4, then the remainder is:

A) 3 B) 2 C) 5 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q19)

A) 16 B) 32 C) 28 D) 64 Correct Ans: D

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Q20) Ram gives a six-digit number 468312 to Shyam to check the divisibility. Shyam tells Ram that the number
is divisible by 57. Shyam asks Ram, “If we rearrange the digits of this number in descending order, then
by which number will it be always divisible?”
A) 2 B) 17 C) 3 D) 19 Correct Ans: C

Q21) Which of the following is a condition of divisibility of a number by six?

A) Sum of digits is divisible by 3 and last digit is even B) Sum of digits is divisible by 6

C) Sum of digits is divisible by 3 and first digit is even D) Last digit is 3 or 6

Correct Ans: A

Q22) The five-digit number 725yz is divisible by 15. What is the maximum possible value of the product of y
and z?
A) 40 B) 35 C) 30 D) 45 Correct Ans: A

Q23) A bag contains a total of 180 coins in the denominations of ₹5 and ₹1. Find the number of ₹5 coins in the
bag, if the total value of the coins is ₹500.
A) 100 B) 60 C) 120 D) 80 Correct Ans: D

Q24) In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 12,
then what is the dividend?
A) 352 B) 386 C) 368 D) 372 Correct Ans: D

Q25)

A) 8 B) 6 C) 5 D) 7 Correct Ans: D

Q26) A six-digit number is divisible by 33. If 21 is added to the number, then the new number which formed is
also divisible by:
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Correct Ans: B

Q27)
A) 3 B) 17 C) 11 D) 7 Correct Ans: B

Q28) Which of the following numbers are divisible by 11?

(i) 29435417
(ii) 57463828
(iii 57463824
(iv) 29435416
A) (i) and (ii) B) (iii) and (iv) C) (ii) and (iii) D) (i)and (iii) Correct Ans: D

Q29)

A) 255 B) 254 C) 259 D) 256 Correct Ans: C

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Q30) If the number 3727 x 4 is completely divisible by 8, then the smallest integer in place of x will be:
A) 6 B) 2 C) 0 D) 8 Correct Ans: C

Q31) A 4-digit number ‘34PQ’ divisible by 3,5 and 7. Find the value of P+Q.
A) 12 B) 10 C) 13 D) 11 Correct Ans: D

Q32) If a 9-digit number 937X728Y6 is divisible by 72, then one of the possible values of X + Y is:
A) 8 B) 9 C) 5 D) 12 Correct Ans: D

Q33) In a division sum, the divisor is 13 times the quotient and 6 times the remainder. If the remainder is 39,
then the dividend is:
A) 4,240 B) 4,800 C) 4,251 D) 4,576 Correct Ans: C

Q34) The largest 4-digit number that is exactly divisible by 88 is:

A) 8888 B) 9988 C) 9768 D) 9848 Correct Ans: C

Q35) How many numbers less than 1,000 are multiples of both 7 and 11?
A) 11 B) 13 C) 12 D) 10 Correct Ans: C

Q36) How many times does the hour hand and minute hand of a clock coincide in half a day?
A) 44 B) 11 C) 22 D) 55 Correct Ans: B

Q37) The average of 25 integers is zero. What is the maximum possible number of positive integers?
A) 24 B) 20 C) 12 D) 13 Correct Ans: A

Q38) A number when divided by a divisor leaves a remainder of 24. When twice the original number is divided
by the same divisor, the remainder is 13. What is the value of the divisor?
A) 25 B) 35 C) 30 D) 37 Correct Ans: B

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics
LCM AND HCF

50+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 L.C.M and H.C.F
MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Q1) The LCM of 16,20 and 24 is:
A) 260 B) 240 C) 180 D) 135 Correct Ans: B

Q2) Find the HCF of 10, 35 and 55.

A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 10 Correct Ans: A

Q3) Two numbers are in the ratio of 7:9 and their LCM is 630. Find the numbers
A) 63, 81 B) 77, 99 C) 70, 90 D) 56, 72 Correct Ans: C

Q4) x,y and z are divisible by 2,3 and 4, respectively. What is the highest common factor (HCF) of 6x,4y and 3z?
A) At least 16 B) At least 12 C) At least 18 D) At least 36 Correct Ans: B

Q5) The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 11 and 3465, respectively. If one of the two numbers is 693, what is
the other number?
A) 315 B) 75 C) 55 D) 65 Correct Ans: C

Q6)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q7) The product of LCM and HCF of two numbers is 24. If the difference between the two numbers is 2, then
find the numbers.
A) 6 and 4 B) 5 and 3 C) 2 and 4 D) 8 and 6 Correct Ans: A

Q8)

A) 180 B) 1575 C) 1260 D) 630 Correct Ans: C

Q9) Which of the following options is equal to the LCM of 12, 36, 72, 144, 288 and 576?
A) 288 B) 72 C) 576 D) 144 Correct Ans: C

Q10) Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and their HCF is 60. The numbers are:
A) 180, 240, 300 B) 90, 120, 150 C) 45, 60,75 D) 20, 15, 12 Correct Ans: A

Q11) A teacher wanted certain groups of students with exactly 10 or12 or 15 members. What minimum number
of students must be there in the class to make the required groups?
A) 120 B) 37 C) 60 D) 150 Correct Ans: C

Q12) The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their HCF is 4. Then, their LCM is:
A) 28 B) 24 C) 38 D) 48 Correct Ans: D

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Q13) Using the factor method of HCF, which of the following is the HCF of 160 and 256?
A) 40 B) 64 C) 16 D) 32 Correct Ans: D

Q14) Three bells toll at intervals of 12, 15 and 18 minutes, respectively. If all the three bells toll together at 8
a.m., when will they toll together next?
A) 3 p.m. B) 10 a.m. C) 8 a.m. D) 11 a.m. Correct Ans: D

Q15) Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 7. Their L.C.M. is 126. Find the sum of the numbers.
A) 60 B) 90 C) 64 D) 69 Correct Ans: A

Q16) If P is a prime number, then the LCM of P and its successive number would be:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q17) Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and their LCM is 2400. Their HCF is:
A) 30 B) 25 C) 40 D) 60 Correct Ans: C

Q18) An oil dealer had three types of oil. 403 litres of the first kind, 434 litres of the second kind and 465 litres
of the third kind. Find the maximum volume of oil, filled in each barrel, if equal number of barrels are
filled.
A) 52 litres B) 48 litres C) 41 litres D) 31 litres Correct Ans: D

Q19) Find the greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 2 m 25 cm, 2 m 70
cm, 3 m 15 cm.
A) 45 cm B) 25 cm C) 35 cm D) 15 cm Correct Ans: A

Q20)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q21) Three red lights on the same road start blinking at the same time and blink repeatedly after every 4, 6 and
8 minutes, respectively. How many times will they blink together in an interval of 3 hours, excluding
blinking together at the starting moment?
A) 6 B) 4 C) 7 D) 5 Correct Ans: C

Q22)
A) 360 B) 1260 C) 1155 D) 105 Correct Ans: D

Q23)

A) B) C)

D)

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 Correct Ans: C

Q24) The sum of two natural numbers is 80 and their HCF is 10. How many such pairs of numbers are
possible?
A) 3 B) 8 C) 2 D) 7 Correct Ans: C

Q25) If the HCF of 156 and 96 is expressible in the form of 156 × 12 + 96A, then the value of A is:
A) 19.375 B) −19.375 C) −19.735 D) 19.735 Correct Ans: B

Q26) Three numbers are in the ratio of 6:7:3 and their LCM is 3654.Their HCF is:
A) 87 B) 28 C) 27 D) 29 Correct Ans: A

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q5)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q6)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q8)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q9)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q10)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q11)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q12)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q14)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q15)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q17)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q18)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q19)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q20)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q21)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q23)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q24)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q25)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q26)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q27)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q28)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Simplifications
300+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Simplifications
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1)

A) -31 B) 33 C) -17 D) 19 Correct Ans: D

Q2) Simplify:

A) 9 B) 23 C) 27 D) 15 Correct Ans: B

Q3) The value of is:

A) −8 B) 18 C) −18 D) 8 Correct Ans: C

Q4) Simplify the following.

16 ÷ 2− 7 × 15 ÷ 3 + 5 × 5 + 4 × 3 − 10
A) 1 B) 2 C) 0 D) -1 Correct Ans: C

Q5)
A) 9 B) 0 C) 12 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

Q6)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q7) Simplify
15.5 − [3 − {7 − (5 − (14.5 − 13.5))}].
A) 15.5 B) 13.5 C) 12.5 D) 14.5 Correct Ans: A

Q8) Simplify
​21
−[6 + 7 − {3.22 − (1.1 × 0.2)}].
A) 13 B) 12 C) 11 D) 10 Correct Ans: C

Q9) Simplify

A) 84 B) 74 C) 64 D) 94 Correct Ans: A

Q10) Simplify the following expression.

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A) 16 B) 4 C) 8 D) 12 Correct Ans: D

Q11)

A) 28 B) 36 C) 17 D) 31 Correct Ans: B

Q12) Simplify the following.

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

Q13)

A) 60 B) 50 C) 80 D) 70 Correct Ans: D

Q14) Simplify

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q15)

A) 2 B) 3 C) 1 D) 5 Correct Ans: B

Q16) Simplify:
[25 −48 ÷ 6 + 12 × 2] + 78 − [5 + 3 of (25 − 2 × 10)]
A) 98 B) 90 C) 99 D) 89 Correct Ans: C

Q17)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q18)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

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Q19)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q20)

A) 12 B) 3.2 C) 2.6 D) 11 Correct Ans: C

Q21)

A) 9.5 B) 6.5 C) 8.5 D) 7.5 Correct Ans: D

Q22)

A) 261 B) 725 C) 445 D) 596 Correct Ans: B

Q23)

A) 1,10 B) 4,7 C) 3,10 D) 2,7 Correct Ans: A

Q24) Simplify the following:

21− 4.9 ÷ 7 + 3.9 × 0.4 + 0.9
A) 18.23 B) 24.12 C) 26.32 D) 22.76 Correct Ans: D

Q25) For what least value of n, 22n+2n is completely divided by 6, where n is an integer?
A) 3 B) 1 C) 0 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

Q26)

A) 30.2 B) 23.6 C) 28.7 D) 25.5 Correct Ans: B

Q27)

A) 46 B) 21 C) 12 D) 42 Correct Ans: A

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Q28)

A) 0 B) 81 C) 27.1 D) 63 Correct Ans: D

Q29) Simplify the following:

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

Q30) .

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q31)

A) 96 B) 98 C) 112 D) 108 Correct Ans: A

Q32) Simplify the following expression.

(60 + 64 ÷ 4 of 4) × {1000 ÷ ((10 of (3 + 2)) × 2 of 5)} − 28 + (100 × 3 of 3).

A) 600 B) 1000 C) 100 D) 500 Correct Ans: B

Q33)
is equal to:

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q34)

A) 13 B) 9 C) 0 D) 26 Correct Ans: C

Q35) Simplify the following expression.

[{70 − 60÷ 2 of 6} + (20− 10)÷ 10] + 600÷ 25 of (2 ×3)× (2 of 3) + 2 of 5.
A) 90 B) 100 C) 99 D) 110 Correct Ans: B

Q36) Simplify

A) 285 B) 224 C) 364 D) 310 Correct Ans: B

Q37)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q38)

A) 0.48 B) 0.28 C) 0.37 D) 0.42 Correct Ans: A

Q39) Find the value of .

A) 2 B) 3 C) 1 D) −1 Correct Ans: C

Q40)

A) 602 B) 601 C) 603 D) 604 Correct Ans: B

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1)
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q2) If 42 ÷ 3 + k × 3 – 22 ÷ 11 + 4 = 28, then the value of k is:

A) 0 B) 1 C) 4 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

Q3)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q5)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q8)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

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Q9)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q10) If ‘÷’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘+’, then 47 ÷ (10 × 5) + (4 − 5) − 6 is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q12)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q13) The value of (17 + 15) ÷ 2 – 11 + 16 × 4 – 28 + 13 (−16 + 13) is:

A) 3 B) 1 C) 0 D) 2 Correct Ans: D

Q14)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q15)

A) 64 B) 32 C) 4 D) 16 Correct Ans: D

Q16) Simplify

A) 102 B) 98 C) 96 D) 92 Correct Ans: A

Q17)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q18) Simply the following expression.

A) 7 B) 13 C) 11 D) 9 Correct Ans: A

Q19)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q20)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q21) Find the remainder when 179 × 172 × 173 is divided by 17.
A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q22)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q23) If 640 ÷ 8 + 930 ÷ 15 – k + 32 × 5 = 1104 ÷ 16 × 148 ÷ 37, then the value of k is:
A) 276 B) 26 C) 35 D) 302 Correct Ans: B

Q24)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q25)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q26)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q27)

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 Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q28)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q29) What is the value of the following expression?

A) 127 B) 139 C) 107 D) 89 Correct Ans: C

Q30)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q31)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q32)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q33)

A) B) C) D)

Correct Ans: D

Q34)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q35) Simplify

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q36)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q37) What is the value of the following expression?

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q38)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q39)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q40) What is the value of the following expression?

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) Find the value of 5 + 32 ÷ 2 + 6 × 2.5.
A) 36 B) 40 C) 34 D) 15 Correct Ans: A

Q2) Simplify the following expression.

(5×5+5−5×5+5−5×5)+(5×5)÷5(2+3)
A) 10 B) 5 C) 25 D) 20 Correct Ans: A

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) Simplify 45 ÷ 5 × 5 + 10 - 5.

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A) 40 B) 50 C) 60 D) 30 Correct Ans: B

Q2) The value of 72 ÷ 8 − 210 ÷ 15 − 5 + 2 × 5 is:

A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 0 Correct Ans: D

Q3)
A) 13 B) 15 C) 21 D) 19 Correct Ans: A

Q4) Simplify 22 × 10 ÷ 5 × 2 + 12.

A) 103 B) 102 C) 100 D) 101 Correct Ans: C

Q5) Simplify 250 + [100 - {50 - (30 + 15)}].

A) 280 B) 255 C) 345 D) 360 Correct Ans: C

Q6)
A) 27 B) 26 C) 24 D) 22 Correct Ans: C

Q7) Simplify the following.

72 ÷ 8 × 4 +40 - 35 ÷ 5 + 15
A) 24 B) 84 C) 48 D) 9 Correct Ans: B

Q8) Simplify (4 + 4) × (4 ÷ 4) × (4 × 4).

A) 144 B) 130 C) 128 D) 124 Correct Ans: C

Q9) Find the value of [{(82 + 48 ÷ 8 × 3) + 5 × 6 } – 7.5 × 2].

A) 115 B) 130 C) 121 D) 125 Correct Ans: A

Q10)

A) 12 B) 18 C) 16 D) 15 Correct Ans: C

Q11)
A) 8 B) 12 C) 14 D) 10 Correct Ans: D

Q12) Find the value of 24 ÷ (3 – 8 × 3 + 27) + 3.

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q13)
A) 11 B) 17 C) 18 D) 13 Correct Ans: D

Q14)
A) 22 B) 18 C) 21 D) 15 Correct Ans: D

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Q15) If 56 ÷ 4 + p × 3 – 24 ÷ 12 + 4 = 21 ÷ 3 + 3, then the value of p is:
A) 2 B) −1 C) 1 D) −2 Correct Ans: D

Q16) The value of 30 + 180 ÷ 30 × 6 − 15 − 16 − 60 ÷ 3 − 15 is:

A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 0 Correct Ans: D

Q17) Find the value of (13.49 + 12.51) × 13.

A) 238 B) 338 C) 438 D) 138 Correct Ans: B

Q18)

A) 6 B) 8 C) 5 D) 7 Correct Ans: D

Q19)
A) 39 B) 65 C) 29 D) 47 Correct Ans: C

Q20) The value of 264 ÷ 8 − 1 − 32 × 2 + 80 ÷ 5 × 40 ÷ 20 is:

A) 0 B) 1 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q21)

A) 0.7 B) 1.5 C) 2.1 D) 1.3 Correct Ans: A

Q22) Simplify 35 - [30 + {10 + (12 - 10 - 4)}].

A) −3 B) 2 C) −2 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

Q23) Find the value of 12 + 24 ÷ 2 - 7 × 30 ÷ 6 + (5 + 4) × 8 + 8 ÷ 8 - 8.

A) 45 B) 85 C) 54 D) 58 Correct Ans: C

Q24) Simplify 8.2 + 2.6 + 3.2 - 4.5 ÷ 0.9 × 1.2.

A) 8 B) 6 C) 4 D) 10 Correct Ans: A

Q25) Simplify the given expression.

A) 112 B) 108 C) 126 D) 138 Correct Ans: B

Q26)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q27) The value of (42)2 + 4 × 4 ÷ 4 − 4 is:

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A) 44 B) 43 C) 42 D) 40 Correct Ans: A

Q28) Simplify [{38 - ( - 6)} × {9 - (8 - 1)}] ÷ [4 × {6 + ( - 4)}].

A) 11 B) 18 C) 22 D) 14 Correct Ans: A

Q29) Simplify 63 - [15 + {17 - (9 - 7 + 1)}].

A) 34 B) 40 C) 30 D) 44 Correct Ans: A

Q30) Find the value of [16 ÷ 2 - 7 × 15 ÷ 3 + {(1 + 4) × 5} + 4 × 3 - 10].

A) 0 B) 4 C) −2 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q31)

A) 2 B) −1 C) −2 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q32) Simplify the following expression:

25 × 25 + 9 × 9 + 6 × 6 + 2 × 25 × 9 + 2 × 9 × 6 + 2 × 25 × 6
A) 900 B) 1200 C) 1600 D) 2500 Correct Ans: C

Q33)
A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

Q34)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q35) Find the value of the following expression.

A) −15 B) −20 C) 20 D) 15 Correct Ans: B

Q36)

A) 10 B) 5 C) 20 D) 15 Correct Ans: B

Q37)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q38) Find the simplified value of 5055 − (1002 ÷ 20.04).

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A) 4050 B) 5005 C) 50.05 D) 5050 Correct Ans: B

Q39)

A) 12 B) 16 C) 8 D) 4 Correct Ans: C

Q40) The value of (12 + 18) ÷ 2 − 11 + 16 × 4 − 28 + 13(−18 + 15) is:

A) 3 B) 1 C) 0 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

Q41)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q42) The value of 9 × 9 + 9 ÷ 9 – 9 × 9 + 9 + 9 × 9 – 9 – 9 × 9 is:

A) 9 B) 1 C) 81 D) 0 Correct Ans: B

Q43)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q44)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q45)

A) –1 B) 2 C) –2 D) 1 Correct Ans: B

Q46)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q47)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q48) If m × 7 + 4 − 6 ÷ 3 − 7 + 45 ÷ 5 × 4 + 49 = 87, then the value of m is:

A) 7 B) 14 C) 0 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q49) If 855 ÷ 15 − k + 32 × 5 = 1152 ÷ 16 × 111 ÷ 37, then the value of k is:

A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) 3 Correct Ans: B

Q50) Simplify the given expression.

A) 99235 B) 99980 C) 99020 D) 99999 Correct Ans: C

Q51)

A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q52) Simplify the given expression.

A) 2 B) 12 C) 20 D) 4 Correct Ans: D

Q53)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q54)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q55) Simplify [25 - ( - 4){9 - (6 - 2)}] ÷ [3 × {6 + ( - 3) × ( - 3)}].

A) 2 B) 6 C) 1 D) 4 Correct Ans: C

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Q56)

A) 0 B) 6 C) 9 D) 3 Correct Ans: C

Q57)

A) 27 B) - 51 C) - 47 D) 62 Correct Ans: C

Q58)

A) 350 B) 700 C) 2 D) 4 Correct Ans: D

Q59)

A) 4.9 B) 3.2 C) 7.4 D) 9.6 Correct Ans: B

Q60) Simplify the given expression.

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q61)

A) 19 B) 11 C) 3 D) 57 Correct Ans: C

Q62)

A) 18 B) 19 C) 12 D) 15 Correct Ans: B

Q63) Simplify.
22.0625 – [15 + 0.25 × (4.78 – 1.5 × 3.02)]
A) 7.3 B) 7.0 C) 7.1 D) 7.2 Correct Ans: B

Q64) If x [ - 5 { - 4 ( - a ) } ] + 6 [ - 3 { -3 ( - a ) } ] = 6a, then the value of x is:

A) −1 B) 0 C) −3 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

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Q65)

A) 4 B) 1 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q66) Simplify the following expression.

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q67)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q68) Simplify the given expression.

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q69) Simplify the given expression.

A) 25 B) 35 C) 20 D) 15 Correct Ans: C

Q70)

A) 2 B) 0 C) 1 D) −1 Correct Ans: B

Q71)

A) −450000 B) 45000 C) 450000 D) −45000 Correct Ans: A

Q72) Simplify the following expression.

A) 2.5 B) 4.5 C) 3.5 D) 1.5 Correct Ans: A

Q73)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

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Q74)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q75) Simplify

A) 561 B) 526 C) 546 D) 574 Correct Ans: A

Q76) Simplify

A) 80.41 B) 46.29 C) 53.25 D) 70.25 Correct Ans: A

Q77) Simplify the following expression.

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q78) Simplify the given expression.

A) 5.2314 B) 7.8539 C) 1.2368 D) 3.9512 Correct Ans: D

Q79)

A) 5 B) 3 C) 1 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

Q80)

A) 9.3 B) 3.1 C) 5.8 D) 7.4 Correct Ans: C

Q81) Find the value of 15% of 1.5 + 0.15 ÷ 0.1 + 0.01 of 1.1 × 0.5 + 2.5 × 25.
A) 77.2305 B) 64.2305 C) 62.2305 D) 6.42305 Correct Ans: B

Q82) Simplify

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q83) Simplify

A) 57.426 B) 60.456 C) 65.234 D) 70.225 Correct Ans: B

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q5)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q6)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q8)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q10)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q11)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q12)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q13)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q14)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q15)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q16)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q17)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q18)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q19)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q20)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q21)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q22)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q23)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q24)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q25)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q26)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q27)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q28)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q29)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q30)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q31)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q32)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q33)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q34)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q35)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q36)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q37)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q38)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q39)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q40)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q41)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q42)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q43)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q44)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q45)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q46)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q47)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q48)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q49)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q50)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q51)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q52)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q53)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q54)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q55)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q56)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q57)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q58)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q59)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q60)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q61)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q62)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q63)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q64)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q65)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q66)
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q67)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q68)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q69)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q70)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q71)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q72)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q73)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q74)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q75)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q76)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q77)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q78)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q79)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q80)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q81)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q82)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q83)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q84)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q85)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q86)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q87)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q88)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q89)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q90)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q91)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q92)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q93)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q94)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q95)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q96)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q97)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q98)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q99)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q100)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q101)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q102)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q103)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q104)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q105)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q106)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q107)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q108)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q109)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q110)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q111)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q112)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q113)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q114)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q115)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q116)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q117)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q118)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q119)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q120)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q121)
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

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Q122)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Selection Post XII

Q1)

A) 34 B) 30 C) 32 D) 36 Correct Ans: C

Q2) Simplify the expression (0.3-0.2) (0.32+0.3×0.2+0.22 ).

A) 0.035 B) 0.019 C) 0.027 D) 0.053 Correct Ans: B

Q3) Simplify the expression:

15×15×15+3×15×12×12-3×15×15×12-12×12×12
A) 36 B) 9 C) 18 D) 27 Correct Ans: D

Q4)

A) 17.6 B) 14.5 C) 20.9 D) 21.9 Correct Ans: D

Q5)

A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 9 Correct Ans: D

Q6)

A) 0.005 B) 0.001 C) 1.000 D) 1.525 Correct Ans: C

Q7)

A) 0.9 B) 0.7 C) 0.3 D) 0.4 Correct Ans: A

Q8)

A) 2 B) 1 C) −2 D) −1 Correct Ans: B

Q9)

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A) 8 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q10)
A) -281450 B) -281250 C) 271250 D) 281350 Correct Ans: B

Q11)

A) 9840 B) 6560 C) 3280 D) 6561 Correct Ans: A

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Percentage
360+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Percentage
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) Ram’s income is 2.5% more than Shyam’s income. By what percentage is Shyam’s income less than Ram’s
income?
A) 2.43% B) 3.43% C) 1.43% D) 4.43% Correct Ans: A

Q2) The ratio of expenditure to savings of a woman is 4 : 1. If her income and expenditure are increased by
20% and 10%, respectively, then find the percentage change in her savings.
A) 40% B) 50% C) 60% D) 30% Correct Ans: C

Q3) In an election between two candidates, the one who gets 88% of the votes is elected by a majority of 684
votes. What is the total number of votes polled? (all polled votes are valid)
A) 900 B) 800 C) 850 D) 750 Correct Ans: A

Q4) If an employee's income is ₹72,000, the amount he spends is 40% higher than his savings. Therefore, his
savings (in ₹) is:
A) 30000 B) 34000 C) 32000 D) 28000 Correct Ans: A

Q5) Suresh’s expenditure and savings are in the ratio of 3 : 1. His income increases by 25%. If his savings
increase by 20%, then by how much percentage does his expenditure increase?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q6) In a company, all employees are getting equal wages. If the number of employees is increased by 20% and
their wages per head are decreased by 18%, what is the percentage decrease in total wages?
A) 2.4% B) 1% C) 1.6% D) 1.4% Correct Ans: C

Q7) Ajay spends of his income on different household items. If his income increases by 25% and

expenditure increase by 20%, then the effect on his savings will be:
A) 28% B) 61% C) 49% D) 35% Correct Ans: D

Q8) An article passing through two hands is sold at a total profit of 40% of the original cost price. If the first
dealer makes a profit of 30%, then the profit percentage made by the second dealer is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q9) In a constituency, 45% of the total number of voters are males and the rest are females. If 60% of the males
are illiterate and 60% of the females are literate, then by what per cent is the number of illiterate females
more than that of literate males? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
A) 19.11% B) 27.23% C) 30.24% D) 22.22% Correct Ans: D

Q10) In an election between R and S, R gets 110% of the votes of S and beats S by 770 votes. If there were no
invalid votes, then the total number of votes polled is:
A) 17610 B) 17160 C) 16170 D) 16710 Correct Ans: C

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Q11) Mrudula starts her job with a certain monthly salary and earns a fixed increment every year. If her salary
was ₹28,400 after six years of service and ₹52,997 after fifteen years, find her annual increment.
A) ₹12,002 B) ₹1,200 C) ₹2,733 D) ₹1,824 Correct Ans: C

Q12) A number whose fifth part increased by 5 is equal to its third part decreased by 7. Find half of the number.
A) 45 B) 150 C) 80 D) 60 Correct Ans: A

Q13) Vipul spends 30% of his monthly income on rent, 60% of the remaining on groceries, and 40% of the
remaining on others. If he saves ₹ 7056 in a month, then how much (in ₹) does he spend on groceries?
A) 18323 B) 15230 C) 17640 D) 22386 Correct Ans: C

Q14) The cost of tomatoes per kg is increased by 300%. A housewife reduces her consumption of tomatoes by
70%. By what percentage does her expenditure on tomatoes increase or decrease?
A) Decreases, 30% B) Decreases, 20% C) Increases, 30% D) Increases, 20% Correct Ans: D

Q15) The income of a person is ₹16,500, and his expenditure is ₹12,000. Next year, his income increases by
24% but his expenditure decreases by 10%. The percentage increase (rounded off to the nearest integer)
in his savings is:
A) 90% B) 120% C) 115% D) 95% Correct Ans: C

Q16) The monthly income of Ramesh in year 2021 was ₹18,600 and his monthly expenditure was ₹12,400. In
year 2022 his income increased by 15% and his expenditure increased by 8%. Find the percentage
increase in his savings.
A) 29% B) 32% C) 25% D) 27% Correct Ans: A

Q17) Two candidates contested in an election. 80% of the voters cast their votes, out of which 5% of the polled
votes were invalid. The winning candidate got 70% of valid votes and won by a majority of 36,480 votes.
Find the total number of voters.
A) 1,15,000 B) 1,20,000 C) 1,25,000 D) 1,18,000 Correct Ans: B

Q18) An investor, invested ₹2,00,000 in shares. The shares rose by 18% on the first day, fell by 15% on the
second day, and then fell by 3% on the third day. What is the net percentage increase or decrease in the
value of the investor's shares?
(Rounded up to one decimal place)
A) increase by 2.2% B) increase by 2.7% C) decrease by 2.7% D) decrease by 2.2% Correct Ans: C

Q19) In an election between two candidates, 80% of the voters cast their votes, out of which 4% votes were
declared invalid. A candidate got 15,360 votes which were 80% of the valid votes. Find the total number of
votes.
A) 20,000 B) 18,000 C) 25,000 D) 23,000 Correct Ans: C

Q20) Half litre of a solution contains 15% of alcohol. To change the alcohol concentration to 50%, find the
quantity of alcohol to be mixed.
A) 250 ml B) 350 ml C) 175 ml D) 400 ml Correct Ans: B

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Q21) A number is first increased by 12% and then increased by 23%. The number, so obtained, is now
decreased by 34%. What is the net increase or decrease percent in the original number (nearest to an
integer)?
A) 10% increase B) 9% decrease C) 10% decrease D) 9% increase Correct Ans: B

Q22) In an election between Sunita and Mamata, 85% of voters cast their votes but 2% of votes were invalid. If
Sunita got 64,974 votes which is 78% of valid votes, then the total number of voters enrolled in the
election was:
A) 1,25,000 B) 1,00,000 C) 1,65,000 D) 1,80,000 Correct Ans: B

Q23) In an election between two candidates P and Q, P got 78% of the total valid votes. If the total votes of the
electorate were 75,60,000, then what was the number of valid votes that Q got if 10% of the voters did not
cast their vote and 15% of the votes polled were declared invalid?
A) 1,41,372 B) 1,41,732 C) 12,72,348 D) 1,47,312 Correct Ans: C

Q24) Three candidates X, Y and Z participated in an election. X got 30% more votes than Y, whereas Z got 25%
more votes than Y. X also overtook Z by 5000 votes. If 71% of the voters voted and no invalid votes were
cast, then what was the total number of voters in the voting list?
A) 5,00,000 B) 4,05,000 C) 3,55,000 D) 4,50,000 Correct Ans: A

Q25) The price of an item is increased twice successively. The final price is ₹2,295 and initial price was ₹1,000.
The percentage increment the second time was twice the percentage increment the first time. By what
percentage was the price increased the second time?
A) 35% B) 65% C) 70% D) 25% Correct Ans: C

Q26) R targets to score 85% marks in exams. He scores 450 marks and misses the target by 35%. How much
increment in percentage should be there in his scored marks to meet the target?
A) 70 B) 35 C) 53 D) 45 Correct Ans: A

Q27) In an election between two candidates, P received 42% of the valid votes and Q won by 45,360 votes. 20%
people did not cast their vote. If 10% of the votes cast were found invalid, what is the total number of
votes registered in the poll booth?
A) 3,93,750 B) 3,59,000 C) 3,93,600 D) 3,53,790 Correct Ans: A

Q28) Every month, a man consumes 20 kg of rice and 8 kg of wheat. The price of rice is 20% of the price of
wheat, resulting in a total expenditure of ₹300 per month for rice and wheat combined. If the price of
wheat is increased by 20%, what percentage reduction in rice consumption is needed to maintain the
same expenditure of ₹300? (Given that price of rice and consumption of wheat is constant.)
A) 40% B) 38% C) 24% D) 22% Correct Ans: A

Q29) The salaries of P and Q together amount to ₹9,60,000. P and Q save 64% and 44%, respectively of their
individual salaries. If P’s expenditure is 1.5 times Q’s expenditure, then what is the ratio of P’s salary to
Q’s salary?
A) 2 : 3 B) 7 : 3 C) 3 : 7 D) 3 : 2 Correct Ans: B

Q30) In an election between two candidates, y% of the voters did not vote. 10% of the votes cast were declared
invalid, while all the valid votes were cast in favour of either of the two candidates. The candidate who got

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 59.375% of the valid votes cast was declared elected by 2484 votes. If the number of people eligible to
vote in that election was 16,000, what is the value of y?
A) 7.2 B) 8.4 C) 8 D) 7.5 Correct Ans: C

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1) The price of a motorcycle was $750 last year. The price increased by 20% this year. What is the price of the
motorcycle this year?
A) $750 B) $900 C) $600 D) $790 Correct Ans: B

Q2) If a person’s salary increases from ₹200 per day to ₹234 per day, then the percentage increase in the
person’s salary is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q3) The cost price of an item increased from ₹2,500 to ₹3,000. Find the increase percentage.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4) After decreasing 30%, an article costs Rs.3,500. Find its actual cost.
A) Rs.4,500 B) Rs.6,500 C) Rs.5,000 D) Rs.5,500 Correct Ans: C

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q6) Shyam’s income is 20% less than Ram’s. How much is Ram’s income more than Shyam’s in percentage
terms?
A) 80% B) 30% C) 25% D) 20% Correct Ans: C

Q7) A number increased by 20% gives 240. Find the number.

A) 240 B) 280 C) 200 D) 250 Correct Ans: C

Q8) Sumit’s income in 2020 was ₹21,000. He gets an increment of 10% every year. What was his income in
2022?
A) ₹23,100 B) ₹25,410 C) ₹29,100 D) ₹26,530 Correct Ans: B

Q9) If Arun’s salary was decreased by 50% and subsequently increased by 50%, then how much per cent did
he lose?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q10) 5% of 2% of 3 is equal to:

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q11) A person spends 60% of his salary on family expenses, 10% on medical expenses, 5% on charity, and
saves the remaining amount. If the amount on savings is ₹4,000, find his monthly salary.
A) ₹16,000 B) ₹12,000 C) ₹14,000 D) ₹15,000 Correct Ans: A

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Q12) If 10% of 24% of x is 240,then x = ?
A) 100 B) 1000 C) 10000 D) 100000 Correct Ans: C

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q14) The price of a car is decreased by 15% and 20% in two successive years respectively. What percentage of
the price of the car is decreased after two years?
A) 32% B) 25% C) 46% D) 15% Correct Ans: A

Q15) If 18 toys out of 75 toys are for boys and the rest are for girls, what is the percentage of girls toys?
A) 18% B) 57% C) 67% D) 76% Correct Ans: D

Q16) What is the number which needs to be added to 20% of 460 to have the sum as 70% of 920?
A) 926 B) 762 C) 552 D) 335 Correct Ans: C

Q17) The difference between 31% and 26% of votes for the same party at different places is 2350. What is 7% of
those votes?
A) 2270 B) 3090 C) 4090 D) 3290 Correct Ans: D

Q18)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q19) The population of a village was 4,00,000. It increased by 20% in the first year and increased by 30% in the
second year. Its population after two years is _______.
A) 6,25,000 B) 6,24,000 C) 5,40,000 D) 5,20,000 Correct Ans: B

Q20) Last year, Ranjan’s monthly salary was ₹34,500 and this year his monthly salary is ₹38,640. What is the
percentage increase in Ranjan’s monthly salary this year over his monthly salary last year?
A) 15% B) 12% C) 20% D) 13% Correct Ans: B

Q21) In an election there were three candidates. The first candidate got 40% votes and second candidate got
35% votes. If the total votes in the election are 50,000, find the number of votes got by the third candidate.
A) 12000 B) 1250 C) 12500 D) 13,500 Correct Ans: C

Q22) If the income of Neha is 5% more than that of Monica, then the income of Monica is what percentage less
than that of Neha?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q23) When a number is increased by 8, it becomes 120% of itself. The number is:
A) 30 B) 40 C) 60 D) 50 Correct Ans: B

Q24) The value of a machine depreciates every year by 5%. If the present value of the machine is ₹80,000, what
will be its value after 2 years?

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A) ₹72,200 B) ₹74,400 C) ₹74,000 D) ₹72,000 Correct Ans: A

Q25) Express the following as decimals, respectively.

20%,0.5%,0.03%
A) 0.02,0.005,0.0003 B) 0.02,0.005,0.003 C) 0.2,0.005,0.0003 D) 0.2,0.0005,0.0003 Correct Ans: C

Q26) If the price of tea is increased by 40%, by how what percentage must the consumption of tea be
decreased so as not to increase the expenditure?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q27) After an increase of 9% in salary, a person received ₹6,300. What was his salary before the increase
(consider integral part only)?
A) ₹3,879 B) ₹5,779 C) ₹5,000 D) ₹4,000 Correct Ans: B

Q28) The salary of employees in a factory was reduced by 20% due to economic crisis. In order to have their
salary back to original amount, it must be raised by:
A) 20% B) 12.5% C) 40% D) 25% Correct Ans: D

Q29) A person spends 10% of his income on groceries, 10% on medicines, 20% on children’s education, 15%
on house rent, and he saves the remaining amount. If his monthly income is ₹30,000, find his savings.
A) ₹15,500 B) ₹16,500 C) ₹13,500 D) ₹12,500 Correct Ans: C

Q30) 12.75% is equivalent to _________.

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q31)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q32) If Ramu’s salary is 30% less than Somu’s salary, then by how much percent is Somu’s salary more than
Ramu’s salary?

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q33) Two numbers are respectively 61% and 35% less than a third number. The first number is what
percentage of the second number?
A) 24% B) 48% C) 30% D) 60% Correct Ans: D

Q34) In an election between two candidates, a candidate who gets 78% of the votes is elected by a majority of
448 votes. What is the total number of votes polled?
A) 700 B) 850 C) 800 D) 750 Correct Ans: C

Q35) Due to decrease in manpower, the production in a factory decreases by 25%. By what per cent should the
working hours be increased to restore the original production?

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 Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q36) In an election, a candidate secures 40% of the votes, but is defeated by the only other candidate with a
majority of 298 votes. Find the total number of votes recorded.
A) 1,470 B) 1,270 C) 1,490 D) 1,290 Correct Ans: C

Q37)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q38) If price of an article increases successively by 15% and 10%, respectively, then what is the percentage
equivalent to a single price increase of that article?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q39)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q40) Raju spends 80% of his income. His income increased by 20%, while his spending rise by 10%. The
percentage of increase in his savings is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q41) Shantanu’s income decreased from ₹42,800 to ₹37,236. Find the percentage decrease in his income.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q42) A shopkeeper charges his customer 14% more than the cost price. If a customer paid ₹18,240 for a
mobile phone, then the cost price of the mobile phone was:
A) ₹20,793.60 B) ₹15,686.40 C) ₹16,600 D) ₹16,000 Correct Ans: D

Q43)

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: C

Q44) If 20% of 35% of a number is 240.8, then 18% of that number (rounded off to 1 decimal place) is:
A) 619.2 B) 618.2 C) 621.2 D) 623.2 Correct Ans: A

Q45)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q46) During the first year the population of a village increased by 5% and during the second year it diminished
by 5%. At the end of the second year its population was 47,880. What was the population at the beginning
of the first year?

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A) 45000 B) 48000 C) 43500 D) 53000 Correct Ans: B

Q47)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q48) The price of an article is first increased by 40% and then decreased by 45%, due to reduction in sales.
Find the net percentage change in the final price of the article.
A) −23% B) 23% C) 13% D) −13% Correct Ans: A

Q49) In a group of 250 persons, 40% are males and 60% are females. If 30 more females join the group, then
what will be the percentage of females in the new group? (Correct to 2 decimal places)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q50) Ramana spends 75% of his income. His income is increased by 25% and he increases his expenditure by
10%. By what percentage are his savings increased?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q51) In an election between two candidates, 10% of the registered voters did not cast their vote. The winning
candidate got 60% of the total votes cast and defeated the other candidate by 1242 votes. Find the total
number of registered voters.
A) 9600 B) 6200 C) 8640 D) 6900 Correct Ans: D

Q52) The population of a town first decreased by 16% due to migration to a big city for better job opportunities.
The next year, the population of the town increased by 21% as there were better facilities for jobs. What is
the net percentage change (correct to 2 decimal places) in the population?
A) Decrease by 2.54% B) Increase by 2.54% C) Increase by 1.64% D) Decrease by 1.64% Correct Ans: C

Q53) A man spent 60% of his salary on household expenses, 20% of his salary on rent and out of remaining
salary, he donated 80% to a trust. If he is left with ₹20,000, then what is his salary?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q54) In an election between two candidates, 15% of the votes were invalid and one candidate got 52% of the
total valid votes. If the total number of votes was 8000, what was the number of valid votes that the other
candidate got?
A) 3264 B) 3536 C) 3840 D) 6800 Correct Ans: A

Q55) Rahul spends 70% of his income. His income increased by 15% and his expenditure increased by 7.5%.
What is the percentage increase in his savings?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q56) In an election between two candidates, Ananth and Aravind, Ananth got 55% of the total valid votes, and
20% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes was 30,000, find the number of valid votes that
Aravind got.
A) 10800 B) 1080 C) 24000 D) 13200 Correct Ans: A

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Q57) Mohan gets 12% increase in his sale amount in the first year and 15% increase in the second year, with
that his present sale is ₹1,28,800. What was his sale two years ago?
A) ₹1,25,000 B) ₹1,50,000 C) ₹1,75,000 D) ₹1,00,000 Correct Ans: D

Q58)
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q59)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q60) In an election between two candidates, one got 65% of the total valid votes. 20% of the votes were invalid.
If the total number of votes was 7,500, the number of valid votes that the other candidate got was:
A) 1,700 B) 2,100 C) 4,300 D) 1,900 Correct Ans: B

Q61) The price of pulses has increased by 45%. By what percentage (rounded off to the nearest integer) the
increased price of the pulses should be reduced so that the price of the pulses remains unaltered?
A) 45 B) 31 C) 41 D) 35 Correct Ans: B

Q62) Two numbers are, respectively, 30% and 40% more than the third number. The ratio of the second number
to the first number is:
A) 26:28 B) 14:13 C) 39:42 D) 13:14 Correct Ans: B

Q63) In an election between two candidates A and B, A got 33% of total votes casted and still lost by 55,522
votes. Find the total number of votes got by B.
A) 1,09,114 B) 1,09,141 C) 1,04,911 D) 1,09,411 Correct Ans: D

Q64) A person saves 45% of his income. Next year, his income increases by 200%. He increases his savings by
five times the previous year’s savings. By what percentage (correct to one place of decimal) has he
increased/decreased his expenditure?
A) Decreased, 63.4% B) Decreased, 36.4% C) Increased, 63.4% D) Increased, 36.4% Correct Ans: D

Q65) An interval of 2 hours 25 minutes is wrongly estimated by 2 hours 30.5 minutes. The error percentage is:
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q66) Monthly salary of Jitvik in the month of December 2020 was ₹24,800. Every year his salary increases by
5% from the month of January. What was his salary (in ₹) in the month of February 2022?
A) 27342 B) 26485 C) 27486 D) 27180 Correct Ans: A

Q67) Suresh studies the pattern of daily sale of a shop. He finds that on Monday, the sale was decreased by
10% in comparison to the sale on Sunday. On Tuesday, the sale was increased by 10% in comparison to
the sale of Monday. If the sale on Tuesday was of ₹1,485, how much was the sale on Sunday?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q68) In an election between two candidates, one candidate gets 72% of the total votes cast. If the total votes
are 1000, by how many votes does the winner win the election?
A) 360 B) 250 C) 720 D) 440 Correct Ans: D

Q69) Three persons ran for office and got, 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes, respectively. What was the winning
candidate's percentage of the total votes?
A) 52% B) 61% C) 59% D) 57% Correct Ans: D

Q70) In an election between two candidates, A gets 63% of the total valid votes. If the total votes polled were
8,750, what is the number of valid votes that the other candidate B gets, if 20% of the total votes were
declared invalid?
A) 2,590 B) 3,560 C) 4,410 D) 6,450 Correct Ans: A

Q71) In an assembly election, a candidate got 60% of the total valid votes. 3% of the total votes were declared
invalid. If the total number of voters is 2,40,000, then find the number of valid votes polled in favour of the
candidate.
A) 193680 B) 139680 C) 139860 D) 139608 Correct Ans: B

Q72) In an election, a candidate secured 41% of the votes polled and lost the election by 97,632. What is the
number of votes obtained by the winning candidate?
A) 320016 B) 542400 C) 222384 D) 360072 Correct Ans: A

Q73) In two successive years, 75 and 50 employees of a company appeared at the departmental examination.
Respectively, 84% and 52% of them passed. The average rate of pass percentage is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q74) When 12 is subtracted from a number, it reduces to its 40%. Two-fifth of that number is:
A) 20 B) 12 C) 8 D) 50 Correct Ans: C

Q75) Pranav gave 30% of the money he had to his wife, and 86% of the remaining to his two children. Half of
the amount left was spent on other things, and the remaining amount of ₹98,000 was deposited in the
bank. How much money did he have initially?
A) ₹20,00,000 B) ₹40,00,000 C) ₹10,00,000 D) ₹30,00,000 Correct Ans: A

Q76)

A) 25% B) 22% C) 27% D) 30% Correct Ans: D

Q77) From the salary of a software engineer, if 15% is used as house rent, 25% of the remaining is spent on
household items, 25% of the remaining as income tax, and 15% of the remaining on clothing, then he is
left with ₹10,404. Find his total salary.
A) ₹22,600 B) ₹24,600 C) ₹25,600 D) ₹23,600 Correct Ans: C

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Q78) The population of a city was 5000000 in 2020. The population grows 7.5% annually. The population in
2022 is ______.
A) 5778125 B) 5875215 C) 5558875 D) 5887125 Correct Ans: A

Q79) At an election involving two candidates, 68 votes are declared invalid. The winning candidate gets 52% of
the valid votes and wins by 98 votes. The total number of votes polled is:
A) 2475 B) 2518 C) 2500 D) 2250 Correct Ans: B

Q80) An election was held between two candidates. The winning candidate scored 54% of the valid votes and
won by 88 votes. If 58 votes were declared invalid, then find the total number of votes polled in the
election.
A) 1850 B) 1158 C) 1156 D) 2000 Correct Ans: B

Q81)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q82) In an election between two candidates, 30% voters did not cast their votes and 200 votes were declared
invalid. The winner got 65% of the valid votes. If he won by 1200 votes, then find the total votes.
A) 9000 B) 6000 C) 7000 D) 8000 Correct Ans: B

Q83) A man spends 35% of his monthly income on food and four-thirteenths of the remaining income on
transport. He incurs some other expenses, but also saves Rs.6,300 per month, the latter being equal to
20% of the balance remaining just after spending on food and transport. What is his monthly income (in
Rs.)?
A) 67500 B) 72,000 C) 70,000 D) 63000 Correct Ans: C

Q84) If the price of rice is reduced by 24%, it enables Alok to buy 10 kg more rice for ₹2,500. The reduced rate
of rice per kg is:
A) ₹25 B) ₹50 C) ₹60 D) ₹75 Correct Ans: C

Q85)

A) Increase, 60% B) Decrease, 50% C) Increase, 50% D) Decrease, 60% Correct Ans: D

Q86) In an election between two candidates, 10% of the voters did not cast their votes and 5% of the votes
polled were found invalid. The successful candidate got 52.5% of the valid votes and won by a majority of
1710 votes. The number of voters enrolled on the voters list was:
A) 36000 B) 40000 C) 42000 D) 48000 Correct Ans: B

Q87) The total income of three families is ₹72,000. Their expenditures are 80%, 85% and 75%, respectively. If
the savings are in the ratio 8 : 9 : 20, then the income of the second family is:
A) ₹32,000 B) ₹16,000 C) ₹40,000 D) ₹24,000 Correct Ans: D

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Q88) At the beginning of day 1 of a month, Rajesh has 500 eggs. He sells 20% of the eggs by the end of the day
and added b% of the eggs at the beginning of the next day and sold 20% of the eggs at the end of the
next day. This pattern continued up to the end of the third day of the month when he is left with 1024
eggs. The value of b is equal to:
A) 20 B) 10 C) 500 D) 100 Correct Ans: D

Q89) In an election, a voter has choices to vote for one candidate out of three candidates. There is also an
option ‘None OfThe Above’ (NOTA) to reject all candidates. The three candidates get votes that are 6
times NOTA. The winner gets votes that are twice the second runner-up’s votes. The first runner-up gets
900 votes more than NOTA and defeats the second runner-up by 150 votes. What is the total number of
votes polled?
A) 17715 B) 15177 C) 11025 D) 11577 Correct Ans: C

Q90) A’s income is equal to 125% of the income of B, while B’s savings are 120% of the savings of A. If the
expenditure of B is 75% of the expenditure of A, then how much are B’s savings as a percentage of her
expenditure?

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q91) In a state election between two parties, 83% of the voters cast their votes, out of which 4% of the votes
were declared invalid. Party A got 156611 votes which were 83% of the total valid votes. Find the total
number of votes enrolled in that election. (Consider integer part only)
A) 2,58,233 B) 2,34,888 C) 2,36,807 D) 23,46,807 Correct Ans: C

Q92) In an election between two candidates, the defeated candidate secured 42% of the valid votes polled and
lost the election by 2545800 votes. If 365500 votes were declared invalid and 30% people did not cast
their vote, what was the approximate number of people (in millions) in the electorate who did NOT cast
their votes?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 8 D) 7 Correct Ans: D

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) Raima saves 14% from her income of ₹35,000. How much is her expenditure (in ₹)?
A) 32000 B) 28600 C) 30100 D) 34000 Correct Ans: C

Q2) If the number of working staff in the company is increased by 20% and the salary per head is decreased by
20%, then the percentage of change in the total salary is:
A) decrease of 20% B) increase of 20% C) decrease of 4% D) increase of 4% Correct Ans: C

Q3) A number is increased by 24% and then decreased by 25%. What is the net increase or decrease
percentage?
A) Increase 7% B) Decrease 7% C) Increase 8% D) Decrease 8% Correct Ans: B

Q4) Rajeev saves 75% of his monthly income. If his monthly expenditure is ₹37,500, then his monthly saving
(in ₹) is:
A) 1,20,250 B) 1,12,500 C) 1,11,500 D) 1,10,500 Correct Ans: B

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Q5) If apples and pears in a basket are in the ratio of 5 : 8, then find the percentage of pears (correct to two
decimal places) in the basket.
A) 63.45% B) 61.54% C) 59.44% D) 69.5% Correct Ans: B

Q6) The price of a book is first increased by 10% and then again by 20%. If the price of the book after both
increments is ₹33, then the original price (in ₹) of the book is:
A) 25 B) 33 C) 32 D) 30 Correct Ans: A

Q7) If Mohan’s income is 20% less than Arvind’s income, then how much per cent is Arvind’s income more
than Mohan’s income?
A) 30% B) 25% C) 20% D) 15% Correct Ans: B

Q8) Aniruddh invested ₹15,000 in the shares of a company. The shares rose by 15% one day and fell by 10% on
the other day. What is the current value (in ₹) of Aniruddh’s investment?
A) 15450 B) 15500 C) 15750 D) 15525 Correct Ans: D

Q9) Ravish had ₹1,500 with him. Sunaina had 24% more money than what Ravish had, while Sanatan had 10%
less money that what Sunaina had. How much money did Sanatan have?
A) ₹1,674 B) ₹1,774 C) ₹1,764 D) ₹1,664 Correct Ans: A

Q10) Alfred buys an old scooter for ₹4,700 and spends ₹800 on its repairs. If he sells the scooter for ₹5,800, his
gain percentage is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q11) The price of a computer increases by 10% in the first year, decreases by 5% in the second year, and
increases by 8% in the third year. If the original price was ₹50,000, then the final price (in₹) is:
A) 55,830 B) 56,430 C) 54,120 D) 55,100 Correct Ans: B

Q12) When 80% of a number is added to 80, the result is the same number. Find the number.
A) 420 B) 400 C) 380 D) 320 Correct Ans: B

Q13) When the price of an article was reduced by 10% its sale increased by 60%. What was the net effect on
the revenue?
A) Decrease of 24% B) Increase of 24% C) Decrease of 44% D) Increase of 44% Correct Ans: D

Q14) An investment grows by 15% in the first month, 20% in the second month, and then decreases by 10% in
the third month. If the initial investment was ₹5000, then the final amount (in ₹) is:
A) 6,602 B) 6,420 C) 6,340 D) 6,210 Correct Ans: D

Q15) If 4% of (A + B) is equal to 28% of (A – B), then find A : B.

A) 2 : 3 B) 4 : 3 C) 1 : 3 D) 3 : 4 Correct Ans: B

Q16) A’s salary increases by 60% and then decreases by 30%. On the whole, A’s salary is increased by ______?
A) 48% B) 72% C) 30% D) 12% Correct Ans: D

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Q17) A man spends 12% of his income on food, 18% on children’s education, and 70% of the remaining on
house rent. What percentage of his income is he left with?
A) 21% B) 28% C) 30% D) 20% Correct Ans: A

Q18)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q19) A student's overall grade is determined by their scores in three subjects: Mathematics, English, and
Science, with weights of 40%, 30%, and 30%, respectively. If the student scores 80, 90, and 75 in these
subjects, respectively, the overall grade of the student is:
A) 81 B) 81.5 C) 82 D) 82.5 Correct Ans: B

Q20) The price of a commodity is increased by 20% and then again by 25%. By what per cent should the
increased price be reduced to get back to the initial price?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) 45% D) 25%

Q21) In a student council election, there were three contestants. All the voters participated in the voting and
10% of votes were declared invalid. The contestants got the votes in the ratio 8 : 7 : 5. If the second
candidate in the list got 4725 votes, the total number of valid votes is:
A) 9,000 B) 10,000 C) 13,500 D) 11,500 Correct Ans: C

Q22) If two numbers are 6.25% and 25% more than a third number, respectively, then the first number is how
much per cent of the second number?
A) 95% B) 85% C) 80% D) 90% Correct Ans: B

Q23) The height of Aaryan was 120 cm. After 1 year,his height increased by 15%, and in the next 1 year, his
height increased by 16%. What will be the height (in cm) of Aaryan after the second years?
A) 160.08 B) 161.08 C) 150.56 D) 138 Correct Ans: A

Q24) R earns ₹55,000 per month and his annual expenditure is ₹4,50,000. What is his percentage of savings per
annum?
A) 38.12% B) 31.82% C) 36.21% D) 32.81% Correct Ans: B

Q25) A man’s working hours per day were increased by 10% and his wages per hour were increased by 5%. By
how much per cent were his daily earnings increased?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q26)

A) 5 : 10 : 9 B) 5 : 10 : 7 C) 10 : 5 : 9 D) 10 : 5 : 7 Correct Ans: C

Q27) Three candidates contested an election and received 1234, 8448 and 20180 votes, respectively. What
percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q28) In an election there were only two candidates, Geeta and Shyama. Geeta received 15% of the total votes
and Shyama received 8700 votes. 60% of the voters did not cast their vote to either of the two candidates.
Find the total percentage of votes that Shyama received, assuming that all the votes cast were valid.
A) 24% B) 22% C) 23% D) 25% Correct Ans: D

Q29) The salary of a worker is first increased by 30% and later reduced by 28.5%. What is the net change in his
salary?
A) 9.05% decrease B) 7.05% decrease C) 6.05% increase D) 8.05% increase Correct Ans: B

Q30) Two candidates contested in an election. One of them secured 62.5% of the total votes and won by 996
votes. What is the total number of votes cast?(all votes are valid)
A) 3984 B) 2988 C) 1594 D) 2656 Correct Ans: A

Q31) A girl spends 76% of her income. If her income increases by 18% and her expenditure increases by 25%,
then what is the percentage increase or decrease in her savings? (Correct to one decimal place)
A) Decrease by 4.2% B) Increase by 5% C) Increase by 3.6% D) Decrease by 3.8% Correct Ans: A

Q32) If the price of a commodity is increased by 10% and 20% successively, what is the net percentage
increase/decrease in its price, if it is further decreased by 25%?
A) 5% Decrease B) 5% Increase C) 1% Decrease D) 1% Increase Correct Ans: C

Q33) In an examination, there are four subjects of 100 marks each. A student scores 78% in the first subject,
75% in the second subject and 90% in the third subject. She scored 85% in aggregate. Her percentage of
marks in the fourth subject is:
A) 81% B) 95% C) 87% D) 97% Correct Ans: D

Q34) In 2016, the price of a refrigerator increased by 5%, and in 2017, it decreased by 5%. At the end of the year
2017, its price was ₹47,880. What was its price at the beginning of the year 2016?
A) ₹48,000 B) ₹46,000 C) ₹54,050 D) ₹48,560 Correct Ans: A

Q35) The number of schools in a city is directly proportional to the population of the city. In 2020, there were
125 schools and the population of the city was 1,80,000. In 2023, the number of schools in the city is 180.
What is the percentage increase in the population of the city from 2020 to 2023?
A) 45% B) 42% C) 44% D) 46% Correct Ans: C

Q36) During the first year, the population of a village increased by 5%, and during the second year, it reduced
by 6%. At the end of the second year, its population was 35,532. What was the population at the beginning
of the first year?
A) 36,000 B) 37,568 C) 34,567 D) 38,000 Correct Ans: A

Q37) If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 12% and its denominator is diminished by 8%, then the
value of the fraction is . Find the original fraction.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q38) The population of a village is increased by 3%. Had there been 122 less, there would have been a
decrease of 1%. Find the original population.

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A) 3550 B) 3555 C) 3050 D) 3000 Correct Ans: C

Q39) Ankur sells a box to Sunita earning a profit of 20%. Sunita sold it to Mohit with a 9% profit. Mohit sold it to
Anjali for ₹24,525 thereby gaining 25%. At what price (in ₹) did Ankur buy the box?
A) 17000 B) 20000 C) 15000 D) 12000 Correct Ans: C

Q40) In an election between A and B, A gets double the votes of B and wins with a margin of 150 votes. 10% of
votes were invalid. What is the total number of votes polled in the election?
A) 600 B) 450 C) 500 D) 550 Correct Ans: C

Q41) A dealer marked the price of an item 30% above the cost price. He allowed two successive discounts of
15% and 20% to a particular customer. As a result, he incurred a loss of ₹696. At what price did he sell the
item to the customer?
A) ₹7,805 B) ₹6,205 C) ₹4,904 D) ₹5,304 Correct Ans: D

Q42) A person spends 75% of his income. If his income increases by 15% and expenditure decreases by 10%,
then what percentage increase will occur in his savings?
A) 90% B) 67.5% C) 22.5% D) 47.5% Correct Ans: A

Q43) If a reduction of 10% in the price of rice enables a person to obtain 22 kg more for ₹250, then the original
price of the rice per kg is:
(correct to two decimal place)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q44) A student's final grade is determined by their final examination scores (weighted at 60%) and a final
project score (weighted at 40%). If the student scores 75 in the final examination and 90 in the project,
then the final grade of the student is:
A) 81 B) 81.5 C) 82 D) 82.5 Correct Ans: A

Q45) Due to a fault in the voting machine, the invalid votes are counted in votes of the candidate B, who gets 5
times the invalid votes. A gets the votes 8 times the invalid votes and wins the election by 28. What is the
total number of votes polled?
A) 168 B) 176 C) 196 D) 184 Correct Ans: C

Q46) The rate of oil is increased by 12% every year. The rate in the next year would be ₹125.44 per litre. What is
the difference between the prices (in ₹) per litre of the oil in the last year and this year?
A) 14.5 B) 12 C) 17.5 D) 15.5 Correct Ans: B

Q47) The cost of a raw material increased with equal percentage in two years. The price increased to ₹145.20
from ₹120. What is the equal annual percentage increase?
A) 10.5% B) 11% C) 11.5% D) 10% Correct Ans: D

Q48) The price of a pencil is increased by ₹2 this year and ₹2 in the previous year. The price of a pencil is now
30% more than the price in the previous to the previous year. How much is the price of the pencil now in
₹?
A) 13.33 B) 15.33 C) 17.33 D) 14.33 Correct Ans: C

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 SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024
Q1) If the number of school going children in a town is 64000 and it is increasing annually by 10%, then what
will be the number of school going children in the town at the end of 3 years?
A) 85100 B) 85184 C) 85000 D) 80000 Correct Ans: B

Q2) In an election between two candidates, the candidate who gets 35% of the votes polled is defeated by
15,900 votes. What is the total number of votes polled?
A) 53,000 B) 45,000 C) 35,000 D) 43,000 Correct Ans: A

Q3) The population of a city increases every year at the rate of 5%. If the population of the city is 16000, what
will be the population after 2 years?
A) 17640 B) 17000 C) 17700 D) 17600 Correct Ans: A

Q4) Ramesh spent ₹30,000 on Diwali shopping and ₹45,000 on buying a TV set, and the remaining 40% of the
total amount he had as cash with him. What was the total amount (in ₹)?
A) 1,22,000 B) 1,25,000 C) 1,35,000 D) 1,10,000 Correct Ans: B

Q5) A number is first decreased by 10%, then increased by 30% and then further it is decreased by 20%. What
is the net decrease percentage in the number?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q6) The cost of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) per litre is increased by 65%. By what percentage must Manish
reduce his consumption of CNG so as not to increase his expenditure? (correct up to two decimal places)
A) 39.39% B) 30.13% C) 45.13% D) 25.39% Correct Ans: A

Q7) A is 25% more than B and B is 30% less than C. If C is 20% more than D, then by what percentage is A
more than D?
A) 3% B) 6% C) 5% D) 2% Correct Ans: C

Q8) The population of a town increases 8% annually. If its present population is 1,42,560, what was the
population one year ago?
A) 1,34,000 B) 1,33,000 C) 1,32,000 D) 1,31,000 Correct Ans: C

Q9) Shiya invests ₹1,53,000, which is 30% of her annual income, in mutual funds. What is her monthly income
(in ₹)?
A) 52,300 B) 45,800 C) 42,500 D) 55,600 Correct Ans: C

Q10) In an election between two candidates, one got 60% of the total valid votes. 25% of the votes were invalid.
If the total number of votes was 15,000, then find the number of valid votes that the other candidate got.
A) 5,550 B) 4,500 C) 6,750 D) 5,000 Correct Ans: B

Q11) On account of corona virus, 5% of the population of a village died. Out of the remaining population, 20%
fled due to panic. If the present population is 4655, then what was the population of the village before the
corona attack?
A) 5995 B) 6125 C) 6000 D) 5985 Correct Ans: B

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Q12) The population of a town is 15000. If the population increases by 15% in the first year, by 25% in the
second year and due to pollution it decreases by 6% in the third year, what will be its population after 3
years?(Round off number in answer)
A) 20269 B) 15269 C) 25269 D) 28269 Correct Ans: A

Q13) In an election, A received 27% of the votes and B received 125,982 votes. 19% did not cast their votes.
Find the number of votes received by A.
A) 44,327 B) 1,88,973 C) 57,827 D) 62,991 Correct Ans: D

Q14) 42% of Ranita’s weekly income is equal to 56% of Bhaskar’s weekly income. If Bhaskar’s weekly income
was raised by ₹ 200, while Ranita’s weekly income did not change, the ratio of the weekly incomes of
Ranita and Bhaskar, respectively, would have been 5 : 4. What is Ranita’s weekly income (in ₹)?
A) 4200 B) 3600 C) 3000 D) 4000 Correct Ans: D

Q15) In an election, 95% of the total voters cast their votes. In this election, there were only two candidates A
and B. The winner A, by obtaining 75% of the total votes, defeated his contestant B by 5500 votes. Find
the total number of voters in the election.
A) 11,000 B) 10,000 C) 13,000 D) 12,000 Correct Ans: B

Q16) The strength of a school increases and decreases every alternate year by 15%. If it started with an
increase in 2012, then the strength of the school in the beginning of 2015, as compared to that in 2012,
had (correct to two decimal places):
A) Decreased by 12.41% B) Increased by 12.41 % C) Decreased by 13.85 % D) Increased by 13.85 % Correct Ans: B

Q17)

A) 3.03% less B) 4.04% more C) 4.04% less D) 3.03% more Correct Ans: B

Q18) In an election between two candidates, 10% of the voters did not cast their votes and 75 votes were found
invalid. The winner got 50% of the total votes expected and won by 170 votes. How many voters were
enrolled in the voters’ list?
A) 800 B) 855 C) 850 D) 950 Correct Ans: D

Q19) In an election, the winner was supported by 46% of all the voters in the list, and he got 410 votes more
than his only rival. 10% of the voters on the voters’ list did not cast their votes, and 60 voters cast their
ballot papers blank. How many voters were on the list?
A) 17445 B) 16550 C) 17500 D) 15750 Correct Ans: C

Q20) In an election, 12% of the voters in the voter list did not cast their votes, whereas 84 voters cast their
ballot papers blank. There were only two candidates: Ramagya and Shravan. The winner, Ramagya, was
supported by 54% of all the voters in the list. He got 1456 more votes than his rival, Shravan. Find the
total number of voters in the list.
A) 5690 B) 6670 C) 7860 D) 6860 Correct Ans: D

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Q21)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q22)

A) 37.55% B) 41.55% C) 38.5% D) 42.5% Correct Ans: D

Q23) The population of a town increases annually by 20%. If the present population is 80lakh, then what is the
difference between the population three years ago and 2years ago?
A) 75592.6 B) 85592.6 C) 65592.6 D) 925925.93 Correct Ans: D

Q24) In an election between A and B, every fifth vote polled was marked as invalid by the machine. In the
remaining votes, A wins the election with a margin of 2500 votes or 10% of the total votes polled, over B.
If 90% of the invalid votes would have been in favour of B, then which of the following would have been
the result of the election?
A) B would have won by 8% B) B would have won by 3% C) A would have won by 3% D) A would have won by 8%

Correct Ans: A

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q6)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q8)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q10)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q12)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q13)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q14)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q15)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q17)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q19)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q20)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q21)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q22)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q23)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q24)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q25)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q26)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q27)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q28)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q29)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q30)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q31)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q32)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q33)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q34)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q35)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q36)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q37)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q38)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q39)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q40)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q41)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q42)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q43)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q44)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q45)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q46)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q47)
A) 85 B) 94 C) 75 D) 88 Correct Ans: C

Q48)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q49)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q50)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q51)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q52)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q53)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q54)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q55)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q56)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q57)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q58)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q59)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q60)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q61)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q62)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q63)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q64)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q65)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q66)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q67)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q68)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q69)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q70)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q71)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q72)

A) B) C) D)

Correct Ans: D

Q73)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q74)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q75)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q76)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q77)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q78)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q79)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q80)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q81)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q82)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q83)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q84)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q85)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q86)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q87)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Selection Post XII

Q1) If 45% of 50% of a number is 27, then what is the number?
A) 160 B) 180 C) 150 D) 120 Correct Ans: D

Q2) A person spends 40% of his salary on food items, 50% of the remaining on transport, and 30% of the
remaining on clothes. After spending on food, transport and clothes, he saves ₹1,260 every month, what is
his monthly salary?
A) ₹10,000 B) ₹6,000 C) ₹7,000 D) ₹8,000 Correct Ans: B

Q3) The price of an item is increased by 15% and then the price is decreased by 12%. What is the effective
percentage increase in the price of the item?
A) 2.2% B) 3% C) 1.2% D) 1.8% Correct Ans: C

Q4) Pass percentage of an examination is 35%. If a student who got 210 marks, failed by 14 marks, then what
are the maximum marks of the examination?
A) 660 B) 600 C) 640 D) 620 Correct Ans: C

Q5) If 70 is subtracted from 70% of a number, the remainder is 70. What is the number?

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A) 400 B) 100 C) 300 D) 200 Correct Ans: D

Q6) Ramesh spends 60% of his income. If his income is increased by 30% and his expenditure is increased by
20%, then the percentage increase in the savings of Ramesh will be:
A) 35% B) 30% C) 45% D) 50% Correct Ans: C

Q7) A person spends 60% of his income. His income increased by 30% and he increased his expenditure by
20%. His percent savings will then be increased by:
A) 45% B) 42% C) 46% D) 48% Correct Ans: A

Q8) 45% of Samita’s monthly income is equal to 63% of Anil’s monthly income. If Samita’s monthly income is
₹84,000, what is Anil’s monthly income (in ₹)?
A) 59,400 B) 61,500 C) 58,500 D) 60,000 Correct Ans: D

Q9) The difference between the cost price and the selling price of a table lamp is ₹540. If the profit is 30%, then
the selling price (in ₹) is:
A) 2,340 B) 2,150 C) 2,800 D) 2,280 Correct Ans: A

Q10) A shopkeeper charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid ₹30,135 for a dining
table, then find its original price (in ₹).
A) 24,000 B) 24,500 C) 28,200 D) 23,300 Correct Ans: B

Q11) The price of a trouser is first decreased by 12% and then increased by 15%. If the initial price of the
trouser was ₹1,500, find the final price (in ₹) of the trouser.
A) 1,545 B) 1,554 C) 1,518 D) 1,581 Correct Ans: C

Q12) Anita saves 20% of her income. If her income is increased by 30% and she saves 25% of the new income,
by what percentage will her actual savings increase?
A) 83% B) 62.50% C) 65.20% D) 70% Correct Ans: B

Q13) In an election, the total number of valid votes cast was 3,75,000. Candidate A secured 48% of the valid
votes, with the rest of the valid votes going to the winner, Candidate B. By how many valid votes did
Candidate B win over Candidate A?
A) 15,000 B) 13,500 C) 15,250 D) 14,750 Correct Ans: A

Q14) Nazeer spends 20% of his monthly income on housing, 25% of the remaining on education, and saves
10% of the remaining. If his monthly salary is ₹52,600, how much money does he save every month?
A) ₹5,260 B) ₹1,578 C) ₹2,367 D) ₹3,156 Correct Ans: D

Q15) The sum of the two numbers is 450. If the greater number is decreased by 4% and the smaller number is
increased by 20%, then the numbers obtained are equal. The smaller number is:
A) 144 B) 164 C) 200 D) 176 Correct Ans: C

Q16) In an election between two candidates, the first gets 75% of the total valid votes. If 20% votes are invalid
among 2,48,000 votes, then how many votes were cast in the favour of the other candidate?
A) 56600 B) 46800 C) 53800 D) 49600 Correct Ans: D

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Q17) Antara’s monthly income is ₹96,000, while Barnali’s monthly income is ₹1,10,000. If y% of Barnali’s
income is equal to 55% of Antara’s monthly income, find the value of y.
A) 45 B) 48 C) 44 D) 52 Correct Ans: B

Q18) If two-fifth of three-eighth of one-sixth of a certain number is 52, what is 40% of the number?
A) 1248 B) 1664 C) 2080 D) 832 Correct Ans: D

Q19) Akshara scores 85% in five subjects together. The subjects are Hindi, Science, Mathematics, English and
Computers, where the maximum marks of each subject are 100. Akshara scores 75 marks in Hindi, 92
marks in Computers, 89 marks in Mathematics, and 81 marks in English. How many marks did Akshara
score in Science?
A) 92 B) 73 C) 67 D) 88 Correct Ans: D

Q20) Ramagya spends 22% of his salary on house rent and 75% of the rest on household expenses. If he saves
₹3,705, find his total income (in rupees).
A) ₹17,000 B) ₹18,000 C) ₹21,000 D) ₹19,000 Correct Ans: D

Q21) Shweta spends 21% of her monthly salary on house rent, 14% on education, and 13% on entertainment,
and still saves ₹5,408. What is her monthly salary (in ₹)?
A) 10,400 B) 14,000 C) 12,400 D) 9,150 Correct Ans: A

Q22) An item costs Rs15,000. A customer can choose either 30% discount or the buy two get one free offer.
Jeevan chose the first offer and Rakshit chose the second offer. Find the difference in their payment for a
single item.
A) Rs.750 B) Rs.10,500 C) Rs.500 D) Rs.10,000 Correct Ans: C

Q23) In a school, an exam was held for 80 marks in which 32 was the passing marks. Who among the following
scored the minimum marks?
Note: Round off upto one decimal only.

A) B)

C) D)

Correct Ans: A

Q24) The strength of a school increases and decreases every alternate year by 20%. It started with an increase
in 2018. What is the strength of the school at the start of 2021 as compared to that of 2018?
A) Decrease by 16.2% B) Increase by 15.2% C) Decrease by 15.2% D) Increase by 16.2% Correct Ans: B

Q25) The monthly salaries of A and B together amount to ₹45,000. A spends 75% of his salary and B spends
80% of his salary. If now their savings are the same, then the salary of B (in ₹) is:
A) 15,000 B) 25,000 C) 30,000 D) 20,000 Correct Ans: B

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Q26)

A) 1500 B) 1200 C) 1100 D) 1300 Correct Ans: C

Q27) Sandeep spends 32% of his annual income on food, 20% of the remaining income on travelling, and 35%
of the remaining income on clothes, and still saves ₹70,720 per year. What is the annual income (in ₹) of
Sandeep?
A) 3,75,000 B) 4,50,000 C) 2,00,000 D) 5,44,000 Correct Ans: C

Q28) In an election between two candidates, 75% of the voters cast their votes, out of which 4% of the votes
were declared invalid. A candidate got 9504 votes, which were 80% of the valid votes. Find the total
number of votes enrolled in that election.
A) 12,375 B) 12,672 C) 13,200 D) 16,500 Correct Ans: D

Q29) In an election, there were only two candidates. 12% of the voters did not cast their votes. The winner by
obtaining 60% of the total votes defeated his opposite contestant by 1200 votes. Find the total number of
votes.
A) 3750 B) 3570 C) 4000 D) 5730 Correct Ans: A

Q30) The number of toys manufactured by a machine in 2018 was 25,000, which increased by 20% in 2019. In
2020, the production was hindered by strike and it fell by 15%. How many total toys were manufactured in
three years by the machine?
A) 80500 B) 80000 C) 25500 D) 89500 Correct Ans: A

Q31) In an election between two candidates, 10% of the voters did not cast their vote and 5% of the votes
polled were found invalid. The successful candidate got 55% of the valid votes and won by a majority of
1,710 votes. The number of voters enrolled on the voters list was:
A) 21,000 B) 18,000 C) 19,000 D) 20,000 Correct Ans: D

Q32) In a Panchayat election, three contestants - A, B, and C - are contesting. 75% of the total population of
8000 cast their votes. There were no invalid or NOTA votes in the election. A got the least votes, with only
300 votes. B got 66% of the total votes and won the election. How many votes did B get?
A) 3960 B) 5280 C) 3660 D) 4060 Correct Ans: A

Q33) In an election between two candidates, 75% of the voters cast their votes, out of which 2% of the votes
were declared invalid. A candidate got 9,261 votes, which were 75% of the total valid votes. Find the total
number of votes.
A) 17,200 B) 16,800 C) 17,000 D) 17,400 Correct Ans: B

Q34) The rice sold by a grocer contained 20% of low-quality rice. What quantity of good-quality rice should be
added to 175 kg of mixed rice so that the percentage of low-quality rice remains 10%?
A) 150 kg B) 100 kg C) 175 kg D) 125 kg Correct Ans: C

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Q35) During 2021, the population of a city increased by 8% and in 2022, it increased by 10%. At the end of
2022, its population was 47520. The population of the city at the end of 2021 was:
A) 40000 B) 43200 C) 42300 D) 44000 Correct Ans: B

Q36) The monthly income of Reena was ₹75,200 and her monthly expenditure was ₹22,500. Next year, her
income increased by 25% and her expenditure by 14%. Find the percentage increase in her savings
(rounded off to 2 decimal places).
A) 34.80% B) 28.25% C) 29.70% D) 30.75% Correct Ans: C

Q37) A person, while trading the shares of a particular company, observes that its price has gone down by 10%
from the previous day. In anticipation of increment on the next day, he holds it for the next day. But the
share price further falls down by another 8% of the previous day. Then he sells his shares and gets
₹12,420. How much could he have saved had he sold it the previous day?
A) ₹1,080 B) ₹1,220 C) ₹1,260 D) ₹1,140 Correct Ans: A

Q38)

A) decreased by 2.57% B) decreased by 1.57% C) increased by 1.57% D) increased by 2.57% Correct Ans: C

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Ratio & Proportion

280+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Ratio and Proportion
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) If A:B = 6 : 8 and B:C = 5 : 12, then A:B:C is:
A) 11:32:44 B) 10:23:14 C) 14:31:28 D) 15:20:48 Correct Ans: D

Q2) The ratio of two numbers is 2 : 5 and their difference is 210. The smaller number is ____________.
A) 60 B) 150 C) 140 D) 350 Correct Ans: C

Q3) A sum of money is divided among P, Q, R and S in the proportion of 4 : 9 : 2 : 3. If Q gets ₹560 more than R,
then the share of S is:
A) ₹140 B) ₹340 C) ₹240 D) ₹440 Correct Ans: C

Q4) The present ages (in years) of A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 4. Five years back, the ratio of their ages was 2
: 3. What is the present age (in years) of A?
A) 15 B) 28 C) 20 D) 21 Correct Ans: A

Q5)

A) 56 B) 48 C) 45 D) 42 Correct Ans: B

Q6) In a company, the ratio of men and women is 5 : 3, respectively. When 150 additional women are employed
in the company, the ratio becomes 5 : 4. How many men are employed in the company?
A) 850 B) 750 C) 550 D) 950 Correct Ans: B

Q7) If the mean proportional between p and q is 12, then the possible values of p and q, respectively, are:
A) 3, 38 B) 3, 28 C) 24, 6 D) 24, 16 Correct Ans: C

Q8) Nihira is 25 years old and Punith is 30 years old. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 3 : 4?
A) 20 years B) 15 years C) 5 years D) 10 years Correct Ans: D

Q9) Find the mean proportional of 36 and 100.

A) 65 B) 60 C) 55 D) 70 Correct Ans: B

Q10) Hema is 20 years old and her sister Neha is 30 years old. How many years ago were their ages in the ratio
of 3 : 5?
A) 3 B) 2 C) 7 D) 5 Correct Ans: D

Q11) A money bag contains one rupee, 5 rupee and 10 rupee coins in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If the
total amount in the bag is ₹980,then find the number of coins of ₹10.
A) 69 B) 70 C) 71 D) 68 Correct Ans: B

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Q12) The ratio between male and female members in a club is 2 : 3. If the number of male members is
increased by 200, the ratio becomes 5 : 6. How many female members are there in the club?
A) 1200 B) 900 C) 1400 D) 1000 Correct Ans: A

Q13) Ghanshyam is thrice as old as Akash. 10 years ago, Ghanshyam was four times as old as Akash.
What is the difference between their current ages (in years)?
A) 65 B) 50 C) 55 D) 60 Correct Ans: D

Q14) The average marks (out of 100) of boys and girls in an examination are 75 and 80, respectively. If the
average marks of all the students in that examination are 78. Find the ratio of the number of boys to the
number of girls.
A) 2 : 3 B) 3 : 4 C) 1 : 3 D) 1 : 2 Correct Ans: A

Q15) Raj divides ₹1,200 in the ratio 2 : 1 : 3 among three of his friends. The amount equal to the sum of three
times the largest share and two times the smallest share is:
A) ₹2,400 B) ₹1,800 C) ₹2,200 D) ₹2,000 Correct Ans: C

Q16) An article is sold at a profit of 250%. What is the ratio of its cost price to selling price?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q17) If 28.9 : x :: x : 36.1, and x > 0, then find the value of x.

A) 38.3 B) 32.3 C) 30.4 D) 35 Correct Ans: B

Q18) 30 is the mean proportional of 18 and A. Find the value of A.

A) 60 B) 40 C) 45 D) 50 Correct Ans: D

Q19) What is the ratio of the mean proportional of 1.21 and 0.09 with the mean proportional of 0.16 and 0.36?
A) 11 : 8 B) 13 : 8 C) 13 : 12 D) 11 : 13 Correct Ans: A

Q20) The proportion of Suresh's spending to saving is 3 : 1. His salary rises by 25%. What percentage of his
expenditure will increase if his saving grows by 10%?
A) 40% B) 20% C) 10% D) 30% Correct Ans: D

Q21) The ratio of boys to girls initial in a college is 5 : 6. If 40 boys leave the college and 50 girls join the
college, the ratio will become 8 : 11. Find the number of girls (initial) in the college.
A) 740 B) 860 C) 720 D) 640 Correct Ans: C

Q22) If a ∶ b = c ∶ d = e ∶ f = 5 ∶ 7, then what is the ratio (3a + 5c + 11e) ∶ (3b + 5d + 11f)?

A) 7 : 11 B) 3 : 7 C) 5 : 7 D) 11 : 7 Correct Ans: C

Q23)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

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Q24)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q25) A, B and C invested money in a business such that 2 times A's share, 4 times B's share and 6 times C's
share are all equal. If they earned ₹44,000, find the share of A.
A) ₹22,000 B) ₹12,000 C) ₹24,000 D) ₹20,000 Correct Ans: C

Q26) Three people, A, B and C, invest in a business in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. It was decided that 9% of the profits
will go to charity. If the total profit was ₹2,50,000, then find the share of C in the profit (in ₹).
A) 1,26,950 B) 1,11,650 C) 1,21,850 D) 1,13,750 Correct Ans: D

Q27) The ratio of circumference and diameter of a circle is 3 : 5. If the circumference is 6 cm, then the radius of
the circle is:
A) 10 cm B) 15 cm C) 5 cm D) 1.8 cm Correct Ans: C

Q28) 10 years ago, the age of Sunita was thrice the age of her daughter Tanya. 10 years hence, the age of
Sunita will be twice the age of Tanya. What is the ratio of their present ages?
A) 3 : 7 B) 7 : 3 C) 2 : 7 D) 7 : 2 Correct Ans: B

Q29) The sum of the ages of 6 children born at the interval of two years each is 90 years. What is the age (in
years) of the eldest child?
A) 14 B) 20 C) 16 D) 10 Correct Ans: B

Q30) At present, A is thrice as old as B. C is 5 years elder than B. The sum of the ages of A, B, C is 75 years.
The ratio of the age of B five years ago to the age of A three years from now is:
A) 2 : 3 B) 1 : 4 C) 4 : 7 D) 1 : 5 Correct Ans: D

Q31)

A) 49 B) 42 C) 21 D) 36 Correct Ans: C

Q32) The ratio of the ages of A and B, 3 years ago, was 5 : 7. The ratio of their ages, 13 years from now, will be
9 : 11. If the present age of C is 11 years less than that of B, then the present age of C, in years, is:
A) 23 B) 36 C) 31 D) 20 Correct Ans: D

Q33) One year ago, the age of B was twice that of A. After 9 years, if the ratio of the ages of B and A would be 4
∶ 3, then the sum of their present ages is _____ years.
A) 30 B) 15 C) 17 D) 21 Correct Ans: C

Q34) Seven years ago, Prachi was four times as old as her daughter was at that time. Four years from now,
Prachi will be two-and-a-half times as old as her daughter would then be. Find the sum of the present
ages (in years) of Prachi and her daughter.
A) 69 B) 77 C) 49 D) 72 Correct Ans: A

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Q35) Three years ago, the age of a person was six times the age of his younger brother. Eight years later, the
age of the person will be three years less than twice the age of his younger brother. Find the present ages
of the person and his younger brother.
A) 15 years and 5 years B) 5 years and 15 years C) 12 years and 4 years D) 4 years and 12 years Correct Ans: A

Q36) Anna and Ben each have a collection of marbles. If Anna gives one marble to Ben, they will both have an
equal number of marbles. Conversely, if Ben gives one marble to Anna, she will end up with three times
the number of marbles that Ben has. What is the total number of marbles they both have?
A) 10 B) 8 C) 11 D) 9 Correct Ans: B

Q37) The cost of a diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. Once, this diamond broke into four
pieces with weights in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 .When the pieces were sold, the merchant got ₹63,000 less
than that of one piece. Find the original price of the diamond.
A) ₹86,000 B) ₹80,000 C) ₹90,000 D) ₹75,000 Correct Ans: C

Q38) The monthly incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio 2 : 9 : 3 and their expenses are in the ratio 3 : 9 : 5. If
A’s saving is half of his total income, then savings of A, B and C are, respectively, in the ratio of:
A) 3 : 9 : 2 B) 2 : 5 : 2 C) 3 : 18 : 4 D) 1 : 2 : 1 Correct Ans: C

Q39) Each of Ravi and Kavita had some marbles. Kavita had 12 more marbles than Ravi had. If each of them
had one more marble, then three times the number of marbles Kavita would then have had would have
been equal to four times the number of marbles Ravi would then have had. How many marbles did Kavita
actually have?
A) 43 B) 47 C) 51 D) 48 Correct Ans: B

Q40) In a collection of rare coins, there is one gold coin for every four non-gold coins. If 20 more gold coins
are added to the collection, the ratio of the number of gold coins to that of non-gold coins will be 2:3. The
total number of coins in the collection will now become ________.
A) 80 B) 60 C) 100 D) 48 Correct Ans: A

Q41) The ages of two friends, Ram and Ravi, differ by 7 years. Ram’s mother Mayadevi is three times as old as
Ram, and Ravi is four times as old as his brother Soham. The ages of Mayadevi and Soham differ by 65
years. Find the age of Mayadevi (in years).
A) 69 B) 36 C) 85 D) 45 Correct Ans: A

Q42) R pays ₹100 to P with ₹5, ₹2 and ₹1 coins. The total number of coins used for paying are 40. What is the
number of coins of denomination ₹5 in the payment?
A) 16 B) 17 C) 18 D) 13 Correct Ans: D

Q43) The incomes of P, Q and R are in the ratio 10 : 12 : 9 and their expenditures are in the ratio 12 : 15 : 8. If Q
saves 25% of his income, then what is the ratio of the savings of P, Q and R?
A) 15 : 14 : 21 B) 14 : 15 : 21 C) 21 : 15 : 14 D) 21 : 14 : 15 Correct Ans: B

Q44) There are y yellow marbles and b blue marbles in a box. 18% of the yellow marbles were added to 24% of
the blue marbles, and the total was 30. Three times the number of yellow marbles exceeds two times the
number of blue marbles by 200. What is the ratio of y2 to b2?
A) 6 ∶ 5 B) 4 : 1 C) 2 ∶ 1 D) 5 ∶ 2 Correct Ans: B

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Q45) Amit’s father is aged five times more than Amit. After 6 years, he would be three and a half times of Amit’s
age. After further 9 years, how many times of Amit’s age would he be?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q46) A payment of ₹120 is made with ₹10, ₹5 and ₹2 coins. A total of 25 coins are used. Which of the following
is the number of ₹10 coins used in the payment?
A) 6 B) 4 C) 10 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

Q47)

A) 40 B) 45 C) 35 D) 30 Correct Ans: C

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q2) Convert 28% into the form of ratio.

A) 25 : 7 B) 18 : 7 C) 7 : 25 D) 7 : 18 Correct Ans: C

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q4) If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 7 : 8, find A : C.

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q5) Two numbers are, respectively, 30% and 60% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q6)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q8) The difference between two numbers is 48. The ratio of these two numbers is 7 : 3. What is the sum of the
two numbers?
A) 110 B) 90 C) 100 D) 120 Correct Ans: D

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Q9)

A) 12 : 15 : 20 B) 15 : 20 : 12 C) 20 : 12 : 15 D) 20 : 15 : 12 Correct Ans: D

Q10) The ratio of red to green sweets in a bag is 3 : 4. How many red sweets are there in the bag if the number
of green sweets is 120?
A) 100 B) 80 C) 70 D) 90 Correct Ans: D

Q11) Raju and Ramu have more land than Sonu by 15% and 25%, respectively. What is the ratio of land owned
by Raju and Ramu?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q12) Two numbers are in the ratio 2:3. Their sum is 135. Find the numbers.
A) 50,85 B) 60, 75 C) 54, 81 D) 45,90 Correct Ans: C

Q13) If x ∶ y = 5 ∶ 6,then 2x + 3y ∶ 3x + 5y is:

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q15) The surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio 25 : 36. What is the ratio of their volumes?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q16) A father is presently 3 times his daughter’s age. After 10 years he will be twice as old as her. Find the
daughter’s present age.
A) 5 years B) 10 years C) 20 years D) 15 years Correct Ans: B

Q17) A box filled with gift articles weighs 25 kg. If the weight of the box and the gift articles, respectively, are in
the ratio 1 : 9, then the weight of the articles (in grams) is:
A) 21500 B) 22500 C) 24500 D) 23500 Correct Ans: B

Q18) Divide some money in the ratio Ravi, Reeta and Rahul that 5 (Part of Ravi) = 3 (Part of Reeta) =11 (Part of
Rahul). The money ratio of Ravi : Reeta : Rahul is equal to:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q19) Among the ratios 3 : 4, 5 : 8, 1 : 2, 6 : 9 which is the greatest?

A) 5 : 8 B) 3 : 4 C) 6 : 9 D) 1 : 2 Correct Ans: B

Q20) The heights of two cones are in the ratio of 5 : 3 and their radii are in the ratio 6 : 5. Find the ratio of their
volumes.
A) 11 : 5 B) 10 : 5 C) 12 : 5 D) 13 : 5 Correct Ans: C

Q21) If 35 is the mean proportional of 25 and x, then what is value of x?

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A) 46 B) 47 C) 49 D) 48 Correct Ans: C

Q22)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q23) Divide 25 into two parts such that 6 times of the larger part added to 4 times of the smaller part is equal to
130. Find the larger part.
A) 20 B) 14 C) 13 D) 15 Correct Ans: D

Q24) The age of the older of two boys is thrice that of the younger. 9 years ago it was five times that of the
younger. Find the present age of each.
A) 15 years, 45 years B) 12 years, 36 years C) 17 years, 51 years D) 18 years, 54 years Correct Ans: D

Q25) The ratio of a father’s age to his son’s age is 7 : 4. The product of the numbers representing their ages is
1372. The ratio of their ages after 8 years will be:
A) 19 : 11 B) 19 : 12 C) 19 : 13 D) 19 : 14 Correct Ans: B

Q26)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q27)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q28) My father is presently 25 years older than me. The sum of our ages 5 years ago was 39 years. Find my
present age.
A) 13 years B) 12 years C) 15 years D) 20 years Correct Ans: B

Q29) In the year 2000, Monu was 3 times his sister’s age. In 2010, he was 24 years older than her. Find Monu’s
age in 2010.
A) 46 years B) 52 years C) 38 years D) 62 years Correct Ans: A

Q30) In an engineering college, there are four branches namely Computer Science (CS), Electronics (EC), Civil
(CE), and Mechanical (ME). The respective ratio of the number of students in these branches is 11 : 5 : 6 :
7. What is the percentage of students belonging to CS and ME branches in the college (correct up to two
decimal places)?
A) 61.07% B) 61.37% C) 62.07% D) 62.37% Correct Ans: C

Q31) The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 6 : 7 and its volume is 792 cm3. Calculate its curved
surface area in cm2.
A) 490 B) 226 C) 264 D) 262 Correct Ans: C

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Q32) The sum of the present ages of a father and son is 50 years. If after 5 years, the father’s age will be 5
times the age of the son, then what was the father’s age 5 years ago?
A) 36 B) 47 C) 43 D) 40 Correct Ans: D

Q33) Four years ago, Ravi was four times as old as Kavya. Seven years from now, Ravi will be three times as
old as Kavya. Find the sum of their present ages.
A) 118 years B) 122 years C) 117 years D) 115 years Correct Ans: A

Q34) 10 years ago, a man’s age was 5 times of his son’s age. 2 years hence, twice his age will be equal to 4
times the age of his son. What is the present age (in years) of the son?
A) 20 B) 16 C) 18 D) 14 Correct Ans: D

Q35)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q36)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q37)

A) 37.5, 57500 B) 37.5, 37500 C) 57.5, 57500 D) 57.5, 37500 Correct Ans: B

Q38) Find the length of the sides of a triangle, if its angles are in the ratio 2 : 4 : 6 and its circumradius is 12
cm.

A) B) C)

D)

Correct Ans: C

Q39) P pays Q a sum of ₹150 using coins of ₹2, ₹5 and ₹10. He uses a total of 50 coins. If the ratio of ₹2 and ₹5
coins used is 5 : 2, then how many coins of ₹10 are used in the payment?
A) 1 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q40)

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: B

Q41) The age of a father will be double the age of his son ten years later. 10 years ago, the father’s age was six
times the age of the son. How many years from now, the ratio of their ages will be 3 : 2?
A) 35 B) 30 C) 20 D) 25 Correct Ans: A

Q42) Ram is 20 years older than Rahul. ‘n’ years ago Ram was thrice as old as Rahul. ‘2n’ years from now the
ratio of the ages of Ram and Rahul will be 15 : 11. What is the value of ‘n’?

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A) 15 B) 10 C) 30 D) 20 Correct Ans: A

Q43)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) The speeds of three trains are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 7. What is the ratio of the time taken by them to travel the
same distance?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q2) If 40% of A is equal to 64% of B, then what will be A : B?

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q3) The ratio of the number of boys to that of girls in a school is 7 : 9. If the number of girls in the school is
189, then the number of boys in that school is:
A) 168 B) 105 C) 126 D) 147 Correct Ans: D

Q4) In a box, Refrigerator covers and Washing Machine covers are in the ratio of 7 : 11. If the Washing Machine
covers are 660, how many Refrigerator covers are there?
A) 410 B) 400 C) 420 D) 430 Correct Ans: C

Q5) The ratio of the present ages of Ram and Shyam is 3 : 4, and 4 years ago the ratio was 2 : 3. What will be
the ratio of the ages of Ram and Shyam 4 years from now?
A) 4 : 5 B) 2 : 5 C) 3 : 5 D) 1 : 5 Correct Ans: A

Q6) The ratio of two numbers is 15 : 26. If the difference between the numbers is 352, then find the smallest
number.
A) 832 B) 840 C) 480 D) 238 Correct Ans: C

Q7) The average age of a man and his son is 48 years. The ratio of their ages is 5 : 3. What is the son's age?
A) 36 years B) 34 years C) 38 years D) 35 years Correct Ans: A

Q8) A’s income and expenditure are in the ratio 5 : 4. If his total savings are ₹56,000, what is his expenditure in
₹?
A) 2,44,000 B) 4,42,000 C) 2,24,000 D) 2,42,000 Correct Ans: C

Q9) The speeds of three cars are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 4. The ratio between the time taken by these cars to cover
the same distance is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q10) If 40 : 35 :: 35 : x, find the value of x.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q11)
A) 18,775 B) 35,705 C) 41,560 D) 25,575 Correct Ans: D

Q12) Sunil, Basid, Vikram, and Kuldeep receive salaries in the ratio of 3 : 7 : 8 : 13. If the difference between the
salaries of Sunil and Basid is ₹2,000, then what is the difference between the salaries (in ₹) of Vikram and
Kuldeep?
A) 2,000 B) 2,400 C) 2,200 D) 2,500 Correct Ans: D

Q13) Express 29.5% as a ratio in the simplest form.

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q14) The mean proportional between the numbers p and q is 8. Which of the following pairs of numbers can be
the values of p and q?
A) 12 and 16 B) 12 and 3 C) 10 and 6 D) 16 and 4 Correct Ans: D

Q15) In a college, 20% of the number of boys are equal to the three-fourth of the number of girls. What is the
ratio of boys and girls in that college ?
A) 15 : 4 B) 5 : 3 C) 13 : 4 D) 7 : 6 Correct Ans: A

Q16) The ratio of the incomes of Rama and Ganga is 4 : 3 and the ratio of their expenditures is 3 : 2. If each
person saves₹2,700, then find their expenditures, respectively.
A) ₹8,100 and ₹5,400 B) ₹8,000 and ₹5,000 C) ₹8,000 and ₹5,400 D) ₹8,100 and ₹5,000 Correct Ans: A

Q17) If 12 : x :: x : 27 and 25 : y :: y : 36, where x and y are both positive numbers, then find x : y.
A) 4 : 7 B) 3 : 5 C) 7 : 9 D) 5 : 6 Correct Ans: B

Q18) The ratio 13∶15 expressed as a percentage equals:

(Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q19) The ratio of income to expenditure of a family is 18:15. Find the savings if the income of the family is
₹81,000.
A) ₹13,500 B) ₹12,750 C) ₹17,500 D) ₹15,000 Correct Ans: A

Q20) If x : 6 :: 6 : y and x : y :: y : 6, then which of the options below gives the correct values of x and y in that
order?
A) 12 and 12 B) 6 and 12 C) 12 and 6 D) 6 and 6 Correct Ans: D

Q21) Find the fourth proportional of 4a + 7, 11a + 3 and 6a if a = 2.

A) 15 B) 20 C) 30 D) 25 Correct Ans: B

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Q22) The ratio between the monthly incomes of P and Q is 7 : 6 and the ratio between their expenditures is 6 :
5. If they save ₹480 each, then find P’s monthly income.
A) ₹2,400 B) ₹3,360 C) ₹2,880 D) ₹6,240 Correct Ans: B

Q23) The average age of a mother and her daughter is 42 years. The ratio of their ages is 9 : 5, respectively.
Find the daughter's age (in years).
A) 20 B) 35 C) 25 D) 30 Correct Ans: D

Q24) The ratio of per kg market price of rice to that of wheat flour is 7 : 9 and the ratio of their quantities
consumed by a family is 9 : 11. Find the ratio of the family’s expenditure on rice to that on wheat flour.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q25) A shopkeeper mixes three types of pulses costing₹88/kg,₹72/kg and₹62/kg in the ratio of 5 : 2 : 3. The
average cost (in₹) of the mixture per kg is:
A) 84 B) 77 C) 89 D) 97 Correct Ans: B

Q26) In a park there are rabbits and pigeons in the ratio 4 : 9. If legs are counted, the total number of legs is
340. Find the number of rabbits.
A) 20 B) 70 C) 30 D) 40 Correct Ans: D

Q27) If 5 + x, 2x + 7, 6x + 9 and y are in proportion when x = 2,then find the value of y.

A) 45 B) 28 C) 33 D) 42 Correct Ans: C

Q28) The ratio of prices of coffee and tea is 5 : 7 and the ratio of their quantities consumed by a family is 7 : 9.
Find the ratio of expenditures on coffee and tea.
A) 9 : 5 B) 5 : 9 C) 7 : 5 D) 7 : 9 Correct Ans: B

Q29) A bag contains coins of 1 rupee, 0.5 rupee and 0.25 rupee in the ratio of 5: 6: 8. If the total amount of
money in the bag is ₹420,find the number of coins of type1 rupee, 0.5 rupee and 0.25 rupee are:
A) 216,252,292 B) 208,272,352 C) 212,232,312 D) 210,252,336 Correct Ans: D

Q30) The average of the present ages of P and Q is 56 years and their ages are in the ratio 5:3. What will be the
age of Q seven years hence?
A) 52 years B) 54 years C) 42 years D) 49 years Correct Ans: D

Q31) A grocer wishes to sell a mixture of two varieties of rice worth ₹48 per kg. In what ratio must he mix the
rice to reach this selling price when the cost of one variety of rice is ₹42 per kg and the other is ₹60 per
kg?
A) 2 : 1 B) 2 : 3 C) 1 : 2 D) 3 : 2 Correct Ans: A

Q32) Find the number that must be added to the terms of the ratio 11 : 29 to make it equal to 11 : 20.
A) 12 B) 10 C) 9 D) 11 Correct Ans: D

Q33) The ratio of the present age of A and B is 3 : 1. Five years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5 : 1. The age of
A (in years) after eight years will be:
A) 40 B) 22 C) 38 D) 30 Correct Ans: C

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Q34) 360 toffees are distributed among Pushkal, Quadir and Rustam in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. After distribution,
Quadir gives 20% of his toffees to Pushkal and Rustam gives 25% of his toffees to Pushkal. What is the
new ratio of toffees with Pushkal, Quadir and Rustam?
A) 5 : 4 : 6 B) 7 : 3 : 5 C) 6 : 4 : 5 D) 3 : 5 : 7 Correct Ans: C

Q35) What should be added to each of the four numbers 5, 19, 7 and 25 to make them proportional?
A) 4 B) 1 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: D

Q36) If 49 : x :: x : 81 and 64 : y :: y : 169, where x and y are both natural numbers, then find the value of 2x +
3y.
A) 312 B) 438 C) 126 D) 348 Correct Ans: B

Q37) If p is directly proportional to q and is p = 7 when q = 6, then what is the value of p when q = 21?
A) 23.5 B) 24.0 C) 25.0 D) 24.5 Correct Ans: D

Q38) The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a hostel is 5 : 7. If 40% of boys and 50% of girls are getting
scholarships for their studies, what is the percentage of hostel students who are not getting any
scholarships?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q39) The ratio of the I class and II class AC train coach fares between two stations is 5 : 3, and that of the
number of passengers travelling between the two stations by I class and II classes AC coach is 3 : 10. If
on a particular day ₹37,080 is collected from passengers travelling between the two stations, then find the
amount collected from second class AC coach passengers.
A) ₹22,047 B) ₹24,720 C) ₹20,247 D) ₹27,420 Correct Ans: B

Q40) Aman, Bheema and Rehman play cricket, the ratio of Aman's runs to Bheema's runs and Bheema's runs to
Rehman's runs is 5 : 4. They make together 549 runs. How many runs did Rehman make?
A) 132 B) 158 C) 108 D) 144 Correct Ans: D

Q41) What should be subtracted from 30, 56, 40 and 76 so that the remaining numbers may be proportional?
A) 10 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 Correct Ans: B

Q42) A commodity is made of two metals, A and B, which cost ₹35 per kg and ₹40 per kg, respectively, in the
ratio of 2 : 3. What is the cost (in ₹) of 12 kilograms of this commodity?
A) 152 B) 228 C) 456 D) 38 Correct Ans: C

Q43) Shankar comes to buy a T-shirt in a showroom. He purchases a shirt which costs ₹1,020 after a discount.
He pays his bill in the form of 50 paise, 20 paise and 10 paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 (assume for the
sake of the problem). What is the number of 10 paise coins he used to pay his bill?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q44)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q45) 141 is divided into two parts in such a way that the one-eighth part of the first and one-ninth
part of the second are in the ratio 5 : 6. Find the first part.
A) 36 B) 48 C) 60 D) 72 Correct Ans: C

Q46) If 45% of the sum of the two numbers is equal to 60% of the difference between the two numbers, find the
ratio of the smallest number to the greatest number.
A) 7 : 1 B) 1 : 7 C) 3 : 4 D) 4 : 3 Correct Ans: B

Q47) Arjun mixed three different oils to form a mixture costing ₹25 per litre. The ratio of the three varieties of
oil was 1 : 5 : 2. What is the cost (per litre in ₹) of the second variety if the cost per litre of the first and
third varieties was ₹20 and ₹30, respectively?
A) 26 B) 28 C) 25 D) 24 Correct Ans: D

Q48) The number of marbles in three bags is in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. If 12 marbles are added to each bag, then
the ratio changed to 8 : 11 : 14. The total number of marbles in the beginning was:
A) 216 B) 162 C) 126 D) 200 Correct Ans: B

Q49) If the numbers X + 2, X + 5, 2X − 3 and 3X − 5 are in proportion, then which of the following pairs of values
is possible for X?
A) 5 and 1 B) 4 and 2 C) 3 and 2 D) 5 and 3 Correct Ans: A

Q50)
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q51) When x is added to each of 2, 3, 30 and 35, then the numbers obtained in this order are in proportion.
What is the second largest part in the proportion?
A) 35 B) 45 C) 30 D) 40 Correct Ans: A

Q52) A shopkeeper of a subsidised canteen mixed three varieties of rice, X, Y and Z, in the ratio of 4 : 1 : 3 to
make a packet of 4 kg of rice. The cost prices per kg of X, Y and Z varieties of rice are ₹2, ₹4 and ₹6,
respectively. What is the cost price (in ₹) of the packet of rice?
A) 10 B) 15 C) 18 D) 30 Correct Ans: B

Q53) The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to its length and inversely proportional to the square of
its radius. Two wires of the same material have the same resistance and their radii are in the ratio of 7 : 8.
The corresponding lengths of the wires are 147 cm and L cm, respectively. Find the value of L.
A) 128 B) 168 C) 158 D) 192 Correct Ans: D

Q54)

A) 6768 B) 6687 C) 6678 D) 6876 Correct Ans: A

Q55)

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A) 7 : 13 B) 13 : 7 C) 9 : 13 D) 13 : 9 Correct Ans: D

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) What is the ratio between S and T if S is 75% of T?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q2) Three boys, on an average, are 25 years old, and their age are in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7. What is the age of
youngest boy?
A) 12 years B) 15 years C) 21 years D) 24 years Correct Ans: B

Q3) The ratio of marks of A and B is 3 : 4 and the ratio of marks of B and C is 4 : 5. If the difference in the marks
of C and A is 30, then how much marks does B get?
A) 52 B) 64 C) 60 D) 56 Correct Ans: C

Q4) In a class, the numbers of boys and girls are in the ratio of 3 : 5. What is the percentage of boys in the
class?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q5) A sum of ₹17,600 was divided between Jeevan, Praveen and Kanan, such that the ratio of the sums
received by Jeevan and Praveen was 5 : 8, while the ratio of the sums received by Praveen and Kanan was
3 : 2. How much money did Jeevan receive as his share?
A) ₹4,900 B) ₹4,750 C) ₹4,850 D) ₹4,800 Correct Ans: D

Q6) In a school, the total number of boys is 20% more than the total number of girls. What is the ratio of the
number of boys to that of girls in the school?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q7) Swati earns a sum of ₹40,000, out of which she saves 25%. She spends the remaining amount on food and
education in the ratio of 3 : 2. What is the percentage of expenditure incurred on education to her total
income?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q8) The fourth proportional to 4,a and 16a is 81. What is the value of a?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q9) Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 7. If 11 is subtracted from each, the ratio between the numbers becomes
7 : 20. Find the smaller number.
A) 39 B) 21 C) 36 D) 27 Correct Ans: A

Q10) Find the natural number obtained when the number 13 is subtracted from the mean proportional of 75
and 12.
A) 14 B) 30 C) 27 D) 17 Correct Ans: D

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Q11)

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) a Correct Ans: C

Q12)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q13) A drink is made by mixing water and juice in the ratio 9 : 7. If x litres of water and 2x litres of juice are
mixed in 160 litres of drink, then the new ratio becomes 13 : 15. The quantity of drink (in litres) is:
A) 240 B) 280 C) 300 D) 260 Correct Ans: B

Q14) 57% of Ranita’s weekly income is equal to 76% of Bhaskar’s weekly income. If Ranita’s weekly income
was reduced by ₹400, while Bhaskar’s weekly income did not change, the ratio of the weekly incomes of
Ranita and Bhaskar, respectively, would have been 6 : 5. What is Bhaskar’s weekly income (in ₹)?
A) 2800 B) 4000 C) 3000 D) 3200 Correct Ans: C

Q15) An alloy contains the metals A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 1 and another contains the metals B, C and D in
the ratio 5 : 4 : 3. If equal weights of both alloys are mixed together to form a third alloy, then how much
part of the metal B is in new alloy?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q16) If four distinct positive numbers, a, b, c and d, in the order given are in proportion, then which of the
following options is NOT correct?
A) b, a, d and c, in the order given are in proportion. B) c, d, b and a, in the order given are in proportion.

C) d, c, b and a, in the order given are in proportion. D) a, c, b and d, in the order given are in proportion.

Correct Ans: B

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q5)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q6)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q8)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q10)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q11)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q12)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q13)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q15)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q16)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q17)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q18)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q19)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q20)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q21)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q22)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q23)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q24)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q25)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q26)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q27)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q28)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q29)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q30)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q31)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q32)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q33)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q34)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q35)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q36)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q37)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q38)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q39)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q40)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q41)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q42)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q43)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q44)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q45)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q46)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q47)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q48)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q49)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q50)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q51)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q52)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q53)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q54)

A) B) C) D)

Correct Ans: A

Q55)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q56)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q57)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q58)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q59)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q60)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q61)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q62)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q63)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q64)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q65)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q66)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q67)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q68)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q69)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q70)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q71)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q72)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q73)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q74)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q75)

A) B) C)

D)

Correct Ans: A

Q76)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q77)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q78)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q79)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q80)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q81)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q82)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q83)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q84)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q85)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q86)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q87)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q88)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q89)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q90)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q91)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q92)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q93)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Selection Post XII

Q1) The fourth proportional of 64, 80 and 88 is:
A) 110 B) 100 C) 120 D) 90 Correct Ans: A

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Q2) The present ages of Ramu and Ravi are in the ratio of 4 : 3. After 5 years the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 4.
Find their present ages, respectively.
A) 20 years, 15 years B) 15 years, 20 years C) 10 years, 15 years D) 15 years, 12 years Correct Ans: A

Q3) If A : B = 8 : 13, B : C = 5 : 8 and C : D = 4 : 5, then A : B : C : D is equal to:

A) 40 : 65 : 104 : 130 B) 20 : 50 : 105 : 119 C) 38 : 65 : 111 : 120 D) 40 : 60 : 103 : 112 Correct Ans: A

Q4) Find the third proportional of 9, 7, ?, 14.

A) 18 B) 16 C) 24 D) 21 Correct Ans: A

Q5) The prices of a school bag and a school dress are in the ratio of 8 : 7. The price of the school bag is ₹400
more than the price of the school dress. Find the price of the school dress.
A) ₹3,400 B) ₹2,800 C) ₹3,800 D) ₹2,400 Correct Ans: B

Q6) Find the third proportional to 5 and 15 which is equal to the fourth proportional of 2, 5 and 18.
A) 45 B) 36 C) 32 D) 46 Correct Ans: A

Q7) Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5. If 3 is added to the smaller and 7 is subtracted from the larger number,
they are in the ratio 1 : 1. Find the numbers.
A) 60, 75 B) 20, 25 C) 40, 50 D) 55, 44 Correct Ans: C

Q8) ₹4,800 is divided among Ram, Shyam and Mohan in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. Who gained most of the money
and how much?
A) Shyam ₹2,500 B) Ram ₹2,200 C) Shyam ₹2,000 D) Mohan ₹2,000 Correct Ans: D

Q9) Four numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 : 5, and their sum is 56. Find the sum of the first and third
numbers.
A) 24 B) 16 C) 20 D) 12 Correct Ans: A

Q10) The price of a television set and a washing machine are in the ratio of 8 : 7. If the cost of the television set
is ₹4,800 more than the cost of the washing machine, then find the price of the washing machine.
A) ₹33,600 B) ₹33,000 C) ₹33,500 D) ₹33,700 Correct Ans: A

Q11) A recipe is made using cheese and butter in the ratio 4 : 3. If Arohi uses 8 bowls of cheese, how many
bowls of butter should she use?
A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 3 Correct Ans: B

Q12) A sum of money was divided between Cyrus, Rohan and Mishti. The ratio of the sums received by Cyrus
and Rohan was 3 : 2, while the ratio of the sums received by Rohan and Mishti was 7 : 12. If the sum
received by Cyrus was ₹1,800 less than the sum received by Mishti, how many rupees did Rohan receive
as his share?
A) ₹7,560 B) ₹9,240 C) ₹6,300 D) ₹8,400 Correct Ans: D

Q13) In an educational institution, the ratio of the numbers of students in middle school and in high school,
respectively, in a given year was given as 4 : 3. If there were 324 students in middle school in that year in
that institution, what was the number of students in high school in the same year in that institution?

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A) 243 B) 240 C) 246 D) 249 Correct Ans: A

Q14)

A) 45 B) 38 C) 40 D) 35 Correct Ans: C

Q15) The ages of A and B are in the ratio 4 : 7, respectively. After 8 years, the ratio of their ages will be 2 : 3.
What is the sum of the ages of A and B (in years)?
A) 38 B) 36 C) 42 D) 44 Correct Ans: D

Q16) Find the ratio between the fourth proportional of 42, 56, 63 and the fourth proportional of 189, 273, and
153.
A) 33 : 84 B) 217 : 42 C) 33 : 221 D) 84 : 221 Correct Ans: D

Q17) The sum of the four numbers A, B, C and D is 875. If the ratio of A to B is 1 : 2, the ratio of B to C is 3 : 1
and the ratio of C to D is 2 : 3, find the value of C.
A) 125 B) 120 C) 135 D) 130 Correct Ans: A

Q18) A bag contains rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6. If the total amount is ₹143, the
number of 50-paise coins is:
A) 66 B) 90 C) 88 D) 132 Correct Ans: C

Q19) What is the mean proportional of 45x4 and 5y2?

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q20) Which number should be added to 3, 11, 4 and 14 to make them in proportion?
A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 Correct Ans: B

Q21) Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5. If 17 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 11 : 14.
If 20 is added to each of the original numbers, then the ratio becomes:
A) 241 : 275 B) 224 : 241 C) 224 : 275 D) 275 : 241 Correct Ans: C

Q22) Three partners decided to start a business. They decided to donate 10% of the profit to a charity
organisation and then the remaining profit would be shared among first, second and third partner in the
ratio 1 : 2 : 2. The total profit received was ₹1,80,000. Find the share of the first partner.
A) ₹31,800 B) ₹29,600 C) ₹33,200 D) ₹32,400 Correct Ans: D

Q23) If class A has 11 boys and 18 girls, class B has 13 boys and 17 girls, and class C has 20 boys and 9 girls,
which class has the biggest ratio(s) of boys to girls?
A) Both class A and class B B) Class C C) Class B D) Class A Correct Ans: B

Q24) The dimensions of a rectangular field when extended by 6 metres are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and when
decreased by 6 metres are in the ratio of 2 : 1. Find the dimensions of the field.
A) 14 metres, 10 metres B) 18 metres, 12 metres C) 16 metres, 12 metres D) 10 metres, 6 metres Correct Ans: B

Q25) S varies directly as (R + 7), and S = 42 when R = 17. What is the value of S when R = 29?

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A) 51 B) 63 C) 58 D) 66 Correct Ans: B

Q26) The ratio of the salaries of S to F is 2 : 3 and the ratio of their savings is 3 : 4. What is the ratio of their
expenditures if their total savings are equal to the salary of S?
A) 7 : 15 B) 8 : 13 C) 8 : 15 D) 7 : 12 Correct Ans: B

Q27) Four distinct positive numbers, ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’, in the order given, are in proportion. ‘b’ is 35 more than
‘a’ and ‘d’ is 60 more than ‘c’. The product of ‘a’ and ‘c’ is 5376. What is the sum of ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’?
A) 400 B) 398 C) 397 D) 399 Correct Ans: D

Q28) In an examination, there were two papers, A and B, and the maximum mark in each of the two papers was
10. However, the weights assigned to papers A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, respectively. Riddhi scored 8
out of 10 in Paper B, and an overall 70% in the examination. How much did she score in Paper A out of
10?
A) 5 B) 5.5 C) 6 D) 6.5 Correct Ans: D

Q29) In an examination, there were two papers, A and B, and the maximum mark in each of the two papers was
10. However, the weights assigned to papers A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, respectively. Jonathan scored
8 out of 10 in Paper A and an overall 70% in the examination. How much did he score in Paper B out of
10?
A) 6.5 B) 6 C) 5 D) 5.5 Correct Ans: C

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics
Average
340+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Average
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) In the 8th class, consisting of 30 students, a Mathematics test was taken. 10 students had an average score
of 90. The other students had an average score of 75. What is the average score of the whole class?
A) 78 B) 80 C) 76 D) 74 Correct Ans: B

Q2) The sum of five consecutive numbers is 80. Find the largest number.
A) 18 B) 15 C) 19 D) 14 Correct Ans: A

Q3) The average score of a batsman in twenty matches is 15 and in twenty-five other matches is 24. Find the
average score in all the forty-five matches.
A) 21 B) 20 C) 19.5 D) 22 Correct Ans: B

Q4) A class of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 62, and that of the rest is 68.
What is the average score of the class?
A) 63.6 B) 65.6 C) 66.6 D) 64.6 Correct Ans: B

Q5) The average weight of 10 students is increased by half a kg when one of the students weighing 51 kg is
replaced by a new student. Find the weight of the new student.
A) 56 kg B) 75 kg C) 45 kg D) 66 kg Correct Ans: A

Q6) A class of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 62, and that of the rest is 74.
What is the average score of the class?
A) 70.2 B) 69.2 C) 68.2 D) 67.2 Correct Ans: B

Q7) In a class of 150 students (boys and girls only), the girls are 60. The average weight of boys is 52 kg and
that of girls is 48 kg. What is the average weight (in kg) of the whole class?
A) 50.4 B) 48.8 C) 49.6 D) 51.2 Correct Ans: A

Q8) A class of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 62, and that of the rest is 78.
What is the average score of the class?
A) 72.6 B) 69.6 C) 70.6 D) 71.6 Correct Ans: D

Q9) The average temperature of a city for the first sixteen days of January is 22°C, and the average
temperature for the last sixteen days of the same month is 26°C. If the average temperature for the entire
month is 24°C, what is the temperature on the sixteenth day?
A) 24°C B) 25°C C) 23°C D) 22°C Correct Ans: A

Q10) Find the average of first 125 natural numbers.

A) 62.5 B) 63 C) 62 D) 63.5 Correct Ans: B

Q11) Find the average of the prime numbers lying between 50 and 76.
A) 66 B) 60 C) 62 D) 64 Correct Ans: D

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Q12) In a team of seven members, the average age of six of the members is 42 years while the age of the
seventh member of the team is 36 years more than the average age of all the seven members taken
together. Find the age (in years) of the seventh member of the team.
A) 90 B) 84 C) 80 D) 78 Correct Ans: B

Q13) The average of the squares of the first 47 natural numbers is

A) 760 B) 761 C) 759 D) 762 Correct Ans: A

Q14) The average of 12 numbers is 48. The average of the first 5 numbers is 45 and the average of next 4
numbers is 52. If the 10th number is 10 less than the 11th number and is 5 more than the 12th number, then
the average of the 11th and 12th numbers is:
A) 50.5 B) 46.5 C) 47.5 D) 48.5 Correct Ans: D

Q15) The average of the squares of the first 46 natural numbers is

A) 729.5 B) 728.5 C) 727.5 D) 730.5 Correct Ans: B

Q16) The average of the squares of the first 48 natural numbers is

A) 793.17 B) 791.17 C) 794.17 D) 792.17 Correct Ans: D

Q17) The average of the squares of the first 45 natural numbers is

A) 698.67 B) 699.67 C) 697.67 D) 696.67 Correct Ans: C

Q18) A stock portfolio consists of four stocks. Stock A represents 20% of the portfolio and has a return of 6%.
Stock B represents 30% of the portfolio and has a return of 8%. Stock C represents 20% of the portfolio
and has a return of 4%. Stock D represents the remaining 30% of the portfolio and has a negative-return
of 5%. What is the average return of the portfolio?
A) 2.9% B) 2.6% C) 3.2% D) 3.4% Correct Ans: A

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q2) The average of the first 10 natural numbers is _______.

A) 5.5 B) 6.5 C) 5 D) 6 Correct Ans: A

Q3)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q4)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q5) The average of 50 numbers is 23. If each number is multiplied by 13, then the new average is:
A) 219 B) 299 C) 650 D) 88 Correct Ans: B

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Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q9)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q10) The salaries of T in twelve months of a year are: ₹12,000, ₹12,000, ₹12,000, ₹15,000, ₹15,000, ₹15,000,
₹21,000, ₹21,000, ₹21,000, ₹30,000, ₹30,000, ₹30,000. The average salary of T per month in ₹ is _______.
A) 19500 B) 18500 C) 18000 D) 19000 Correct Ans: A

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q12)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q14)

A) 100M B) M − 50 C) 50M D) M − 100 Correct Ans: D

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q16) The average age of 24 workers and their supervisor is 41 years. If the supervisor's age is excluded, the
average reduces by 0.75 years. The age of the supervisor is:

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A) 59 years B) 41 years 9 months C) 40 years 9 months D) 49 years Correct Ans: A

Q17) In June, Rohit’s bank account balance is ₹5,000 for 25 days, ₹20,000 for 2 days and ₹1,500 for 3 days.
What is the average balance (in ₹) in Rohit's bank account in June?
A) 5575 B) 5650 C) 5200 D) 6000 Correct Ans: B

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q19) The average salary of a group of 12 employees in an institution is ₹3,950 per month and that of another
group of employees is ₹1,850. If the average salary of all employees is ₹2,150, then the total number of
employees is:
A) 100 B) 88 C) 84 D) 72 Correct Ans: C

Q20)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q21) A public library has an average attendance of 410 on Sundays and 230 for the remaining days. The
average attendance per day of a month of 30 days beginning with Sunday would be:
A) 230 B) 254 C) 320 D) 260 Correct Ans: D

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) The average marks obtained by 75 students in a certain examination is 38. Find the total marks.
A) 113 B) 4294 C) 2850 D) 1406 Correct Ans: C

Q2) Harsha obtained 72, 63 and 81 marks (out of 100) in Maths, Physics and Chemistry, respectively. What is
the average of his marks?
A) 72 B) 63 C) 81 D) 84 Correct Ans: A

Q3) The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 66 kg and 39
kg is:
A) 51 B) 50 C) 49 D) 52 Correct Ans: B

Q4) The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 71 kg and 39
kg is:
A) 53 B) 52 C) 51 D) 50 Correct Ans: C

Q5) Find the average of the numbers 1, −1, 0 and 2.

A) 4 B) 2 C) 0.5 D) 1.5 Correct Ans: C

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Q6) S gets 78, 75, 68, 64 and 58 marks in Hindi, English, Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics, respectively.
What are his average marks per subject?
A) 68.6 B) 68.8 C) 66.6 D) 66.8 Correct Ans: A

Q7) The average of four girls' age is 12 years. The ages of three of them are 7, 12 and 13 years. Find the age of
the fourth girl.
A) 16 years B) 14 years C) 15 years D) 17 years Correct Ans: A

Q8) Find the average of the first 10 natural numbers.

A) 5.5 B) 55.5 C) 50 D) 50.5 Correct Ans: A

Q9) The monthly incomes of Selva for 3 months of a year are ₹19,500, ₹21,500 and ₹22,000. What is Selva’s
average income per month for these 3 months?
A) ₹21,000 B) ₹20,500 C) ₹21,500 D) ₹20,000 Correct Ans: A

Q10) The average age of four boys Shikhar, Mukesh, Anil, and Anish is 25 years. If the ages of Shikhar,
Mukesh, and Anil are 15, 25, and 29 years, then what is the age (in years) of Anish?
A) 31 B) 32 C) 30 D) 29 Correct Ans: A

Q11) Find the average of all odd numbers between 10 and 30.
A) 40 B) 30 C) 10 D) 20 Correct Ans: D

Q12) The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 72 kg and
37 kg is:
A) 52.8 B) 49.8 C) 50.8 D) 51.8 Correct Ans: C

Q13) What is the average of the first 40 natural numbers?

A) 40.5 B) 50.5 C) 10.5 D) 20.5 Correct Ans: D

Q14) In a class, there are 30 boys and 20 girls. The average score of boys in Physics is 92, whereas the
average score of girls in Physics is 83. Find the average score of the whole class in Physics.
A) 89.3 B) 92.6 C) 88.4 D) 96.2 Correct Ans: C

Q15) The average weight of a family of five members (in kg) whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 69 kg and
37 kg is:
A) 49.2 B) 50.2 C) 52.2 D) 51.2 Correct Ans: B

Q16) The average of the first six multiples of 7 is:

A) 23.2 B) 22.4 C) 24.5 D) 25.1 Correct Ans: C

Q17) If the average of nine numbers is 360, then what is the sum of the nine numbers?
A) 3420 B) 40 C) 3240 D) 1620 Correct Ans: C

Q18) The average weight of 5 persons sitting in a boat is 28 kg. If the average weight of the boat and the
persons sitting in the boat is 56 kg, what is the weight of the boat?
A) 232 kg B) 196 kg C) 242 kg D) 122 kg Correct Ans: B

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Q19) The average of 9 numbers is 3. If the average of the first 8 of these numbers is 2, the 9th number is:
A) 12 B) 15 C) 14 D) 11 Correct Ans: D

Q20) The average of two numbers is 13.5 and the square root of their product is . Find the numbers.
A) 10 and 17 B) 11 and 16 C) 12 and 15 D) 13 and 14 Correct Ans: C

Q21) The average of 5 consecutive natural numbers is 7. Which is the largest number among these?
A) 9 B) 7 C) 8 D) 10 Correct Ans: A

Q22) A batsman scored the following runs in the last 5 innings. Find his score in the 4th innings if the average
score is 43.
Innings Score (in runs)
1st - 92
2nd - 53
3rd - 35
4th - X
5th - 27
A) 10 B) 12 C) 4 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

Q23) A class of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 80, and that of the rest is
70. What is the average score of the class?
A) 77 B) 67 C) 74 D) 87 Correct Ans: C

Q24) The average of five numbers is 38. If one number is excluded, their average is 36. Find the excluded
number.
A) 49 B) 41 C) 46 D) 38 Correct Ans: C

Q25) The average weight of a group of 8 people is 70 kg. After a new person joins the group, the average
weight becomes 72 kg. What is the weight (in kg) of the new person?
A) 87 B) 86 C) 89 D) 88 Correct Ans: D

Q26) In an experiment to determine the refractive index of water, a student took five sets of observations and
got the values for the refractive index of water as 1.32, 1.37, 1.36, 1.39 and 1.31. What is its average
value?
A) 1.34 B) 1.35 C) 1.33 D) 1.36 Correct Ans: B

Q27) ​The average of seven consecutive numbers is 95. Find the middle number in the series of seven
consecutive numbers.
A) 98 B) 96 C) 92 D) 95 Correct Ans: D

Q28) The average score of 12 girls in a test was 16.5 and that of 18 boys in the same test was 16. The average
score of girls and boys taken together in the same test was:
A) 16.1 B) 16.7 C) 16.2 D) 16.4 Correct Ans: C

Q29)

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 Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q30) In an office having 160 staff members, 40% are females and the remaining are males. The average weight
of females is 58 kg and that of males is 63 kg. Find the average weight of all staff members.
A) 58 kg B) 79 kg C) 68 kg D) 61 kg Correct Ans: D

Q31) The average of 7 numbers is 55. If the first 4 numbers are 48, 62, 135 and 74, then what will be the
average of the remaining numbers?
A) 19 B) 22 C) 25 D) 31 Correct Ans: B

Q32) In Class I there are 12 students of average age 20 years, and in Class II there are 16 students of average
age 23 years. What is the average age (approximately) of both the classes?
A) 21.7 years B) 17.6 years C) 15.3 years D) 20.7 years Correct Ans: A

Q33) The average of all the numbers between 8 and 68 that are divisible by 9 is:
A) 36 B) 33 C) 40.5 D) 31.5 Correct Ans: A

Q34) The average age of 14 students and their teacher is 18 years. If the teacher's age is excluded, the average
reduces by 1 year. What is the teacher's age?
A) 37 B) 32 C) 34 D) 35 Correct Ans: B

Q35) The average of 10 observations is 46. It was realised later that an observation was misread as 42 in place
of 142. Find the correct average.
A) 45 B) 54 C) 56 D) 65 Correct Ans: C

Q36) The average of five numbers is 62. The average of the first two numbers is 48 and that of the last two
numbers is 52. What is the third number?
A) 95 B) 100 C) 105 D) 110 Correct Ans: D

Q37) The average of six numbers is 30. If one number is excluded, the average becomes 28. Find the excluded
number.
A) 30 B) 36 C) 40 D) 35 Correct Ans: C

Q38) The average of 20 results is 15 and the average of other 25 results is 24. What is the average of all the
results?
A) 20 B) 39 C) 40 D) 22 Correct Ans: A

Q39) The average of 11 numbers is 17. If the average of the first five numbers is 16 and the average of the last
five numbers is 19, then the sixth number is:
A) 17 B) 15 C) 14 D) 12 Correct Ans: D

Q40) The average weight of a group of 20 women was calculated as 58.5 kg and it was later discovered that the
weight of one of the women was read as 35 kg, whereas her actual weight was 65 kg. What is the actual
average weight of the group of 20 women?
A) 50 kg B) 60 kg C) 40 kg D) 70 kg Correct Ans: B

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Q41) In the first 24 matches, a cricket player averages 60 runs. The overall average for all 32 matches is 80.
Determine the average for the last 8 matches.
A) 110 B) 140 C) 130 D) 120 Correct Ans: B

Q42) When a class of 40 students took a science test, 25 students had an average score of 80, and the
remaining students had an average score of 90. What was the average score of the whole class?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q43) The management batch of a college has two sections, A and B. Section A has 22 students and their
average marks are 75, whereas section B has 30 students and their average marks are 60. What are the
average marks of the whole batch? (Round off to two decimal places)
A) 58 B) 59.34 C) 66.35 D) 65.23 Correct Ans: C

Q44) A class teacher conducted a unit test in the class. If out of 25 students, 11 students' average score is 77
and rest 14 students' average score is 69, then the weighted average score is:
A) 72.52 B) 70.29 C) 74.65 D) 68.54 Correct Ans: A

Q45) The average of five numbers, where the difference between any two consecutive numbers is 5, is 215.
Find the least number.
A) 225 B) 215 C) 205 D) 220 Correct Ans: C

Q46) The average weight of 20 boys is 60 kg. Together with 30 girls, the average weight of all boys and girls is
54 kg. What is the average weight of 30 girls in kg?
A) 50 B) 54 C) 55 D) 52 Correct Ans: A

Q47) If the average of the first 15 multiples of 9 is x, then x is:

A) 114 B) 68 C) 78 D) 72 Correct Ans: D

Q48) Among three numbers, the second number is half of the first number and the third number is 4 less than
the second number. If the average of the first and third numbers is 16, what is the second number?
A) 10 B) 18 C) 12 D) 16 Correct Ans: C

Q49) The average income of 25 persons is ₹2,400 and that of another 20 persons is ₹1,500. The average
income of all of them together is:
A) ₹1,950 B) ₹2,000 C) ₹2,100 D) ₹2,150 Correct Ans: B

Q50) Amithab has scored an average of 72 runs in his six interschool matches. In the next match, he scored 96
runs. What is his revised average score?
A) 75 B) 74 C) 75.3 D) 75.428 Correct Ans: D

Q51) The average of 70 values is 40. If each value is multiplied by 20, what will be the changed average?
A) 800 B) 1400 C) 60 D) 90 Correct Ans: A

Q52) The average marks of 60 students was found to be 48. Later on, it was discovered that a score of 68 was
misread as 56. Find the correct average corresponding to the correct score.
A) 54.2 B) 40.8 C) 44.2 D) 48.2 Correct Ans: D

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Q53) In a math exam, two students scored 95, six students scored 90, three students scored 80, and one
student scored 50. What was the average score of the class?
A) 96.25 B) 82 C) 78.75 D) 85 Correct Ans: D

Q54) The average weight of a family of 8 members is 56 kg. The grandfather and the grandmother came to visit
the family. Now, the average weight of 10 members of the family is 64 kg. Find the average weight (in kg)
of the grandparents.
A) 92 B) 94 C) 90 D) 96 Correct Ans: D

Q55) John has scored 60% in statistics and 70% in mathematics. A weightage of 2 is given to statistics and a
weightage of 4 is given to mathematics. Which of the following expressions represents the weighted
average of the two scores?

A) B) C) D)

Correct Ans: C

Q56) There are five baskets- A, B, C, D and E. Each basket has rings in it and the average number of rings in all
five baskets is 42. If basket D is removed, the average number of rings in the remaining baskets is 38.
How many rings are there in basket D?
A) 64 B) 42 C) 38 D) 58 Correct Ans: D

Q57) The average age of 6 children and their father is 13 years, and this average is reduced by 4 years if the
father is excluded. How old is the father?
A) 41 years B) 38 years C) 42 years D) 37 years Correct Ans: D

Q58) Out of 8 lecturers of a college, one lecturer retires and at his place a new lecturer of age 32 years joins.
As a result, the average age of lecturers is reduced by 4 years. The age of the retired lecturer is:
A) 65 years B) 62 years C) 63 years D) 64 years Correct Ans: D

Q59) The average of 42 numbers is 25 and that of other 28 numbers is 40. What is the average of all the
numbers?
A) 31 B) 30 C) 69 D) 70 Correct Ans: A

Q60) The average of 7 numbers is 10.8. If the average of the first three be 10.5 and that of the last three is 11.4,
find the value of the middle number.
A) 9.7 B) 9.9 C) 9.5 D) 9.8 Correct Ans: B

Q61) The average weight of 20 boys in a class is 65 kg and that of remaining 35 boys is 32 kg. What is the
average weight of all the boys in the class?
A) 48 kg B) 46 kg C) 44 kg D) 56 kg Correct Ans: C

Q62) The average weight of X, Y and Z is 67 kg. The average weight of X and Y is 64 kg and that of Y and Z is 52
kg. The weight of Y (in kg) is:
A) 28 B) 31 C) 33 D) 30 Correct Ans: B

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Q63) Two classes took the same test. One class of 20 students made an average grade of 85%, the other class
of 30 students made an average grade of 70%. The average grade for all students across both classes is:
A) 72% B) 75% C) 74% D) 76% Correct Ans: D

Q64) The average age of the 28 boys in a class is 16 years and that of the 26 girls is 15 years. The approximate
average age (in years) for the whole class is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q65) The average of nine consecutive numbers is 45. The largest number among these numbers is:
A) 41 B) 49 C) 50 D) 48 Correct Ans: B

Q66) Find the average of the prime numbers lying between 68 and 91.
A) 76 B) 79 C) 78 D) 77 Correct Ans: B

Q67) In an examination, the average marks obtained by 15 students was 96, by 12 other students was 84 and
by 13 other students was 68. Find the average marks of all 40 students.
A) 87.6 B) 83.3 C) 78.6 D) 68.5 Correct Ans: B

Q68) Akash, Ajay, Sonia, Anju and Rohit are in a group. The average marks scored by their group is 27. Akash
left the group and now the average of the remaining students is 24. How many marks did Akash score?
A) 39 B) 35 C) 32 D) 15 Correct Ans: A

Q69)
A) 75.8 kg B) 78.8 kg C) 76.8 kg D) 77.8 kg Correct Ans: D

Q70) The average of seven consecutive natural numbers is 56. The greatest number among them is:
A) 61 B) 58 C) 59 D) 60 Correct Ans: C

Q71) The average weight of 30 male workers in a company is 62.5 kg and that of the remaining 20 female
workers is 54.5 kg. The average weight of the total workers in the company is:
A) 59.3 kg B) 58.5 kg C) 58.3 kg D) 59.5 kg Correct Ans: A

Q72) A class of 42 students took a Physics test. 18 students had an average score of 95. The other students had
an average score of 73. What is the average score (rounded off to one decimal place) of the whole class?
A) 90.7 B) 86.1 C) 82.4 D) 79.6 Correct Ans: C

Q73) The average age of a group of 32 women is 60 years and that of another group of 40 men is 33 years. The
average age of the two groups mixed together is:
A) 48 years B) 45 years C) 46.5 years D) 42 years Correct Ans: B

Q74) The average age of a class of 65 boys is 14 years. The average age of 20 of them is 14 years,
and the average age of another 15 boys is 12 years. What will be the average age (in years) of
the remaining boys?
A) 17 B) 14 C) 16 D) 15 Correct Ans: D

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Q75) The average of nine numbers is 6. When three new numbers are included, the average of the twelve
numbers becomes 7.5. The average of three new numbers is:
A) 11.5 B) 12 C) 12.5 D) 8 Correct Ans: B

Q76) There are two groups C and D of a class consisting of 32 and 40 students, respectively. If the average
weight of group C is 60 kg and that of group D is 33 kg, then find the average weight of the whole class.
A) 44 kg B) 45.2 kg C) 45 kg D) 46.5 kg Correct Ans: C

Q77) The average score of 30 students (boys and girls only) in a class test was 16.2 and that of 18 boys in the
same test was 16. The average score of girls in the same test was:
A) 16.3 B) 16.1 C) 16.5 D) 16.7 Correct Ans: C

Q78) In a mock test conducted by a coaching institute, 20 students average scored 75% marks and the
remaining 15 students average scored 54% marks. Find the average score.
A) 66% B) 62% C) 63% D) 67% Correct Ans: A

Q79) If the average marks of three batches of 40, 50 and 60 students, respectively, is 50, 60 and 75, then the
average marks of all the students is:
A) 63.33 B) 70.00 C) 65.50 D) 61.25 Correct Ans: A

Q80) In a 100-marks test, the average of marks scored by 50 students was found to be 65. Later on, it was
discovered that a score of 88 was misread as 68. Find the correct average.
A) 65.60 B) 65.70 C) 65.50 D) 65.40 Correct Ans: D

Q81) There are five persons with weights 58 kg, 38 kg, 45 kg, 34 kg and 55 kg. What is the average weight (in
kg) of those persons whose weight is less than the average weight of the five persons?
A) 43 B) 41 C) 39 D) 37 Correct Ans: C

Q82) The average age of a class of 39 students is 20 years. If the age of the teacher is included, then the
average increases by 6 months. Find the age of the teacher (in years).
A) 45 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 Correct Ans: C

Q83) The salary of T in January, February and March is ₹15,000 per month. His salary in July, August,
September, October, November and December is ₹30,000 per month. His average salary per month for the
year is ₹27,000. What is his salary (in ₹) in April, May and June per month?
A) 33000 B) 31000 C) 28000 D) 25000 Correct Ans: A

Q84) In a school, class 11th has three sections A, B and C. There are 30 students in Section A, 36 students in
Section B, and 40 students in Section C. The average marks scored by the students in Section A, Section
B and Section C in the Mathematics annual exam are 90, 85 and 70, respectively. Find the average marks
scored by the whole class, correct to two places of decimals.
A) 80.75 B) 80.57 C) 58.70 D) 58.07 Correct Ans: A

Q85)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q86) In a group of 200 members, 45% are teenagers and the remaining are adults. The average weight of the
whole group is 62 kg. If the average weight of teenagers is 56 kg, then the nearest integral value of the
average weight of adults is ________.
A) 84 kg B) 79 kg C) 67 kg D) 65 kg Correct Ans: C

Q87) The average of the first twelve multiples of 11 is:

A) 69.5 B) 68.5 C) 70.5 D) 71.5 Correct Ans: D

Q88) A tunnel elevator can carry a maximum of 15 passengers with an average weight of 81 kg. However, four
persons beyond the maximum capacity entered the elevator, resulting in an average weight of 82 kg and
causing it to be overloaded. Find the average weight (in kg) of the additional four persons.
A) 100 B) 102.37 C) 90.41 D) 85.75 Correct Ans: D

Q89) There are 20 cricket balls in the showroom. Among these 20 balls, some are yellow and some are white.
The average cost of all the balls is ₹75. If the average cost of yellow balls is ₹80 and that of white is ₹60,
then the number of yellow balls is:
A) 5 B) 6 C) 15 D) 14 Correct Ans: C

Q90) In a class of 40 students the ratio of boys to girls is 3 : 5. If the average marks scored by the boys in
Science is 70 and the average marks scored by the whole class in Science is 60, then find the average
marks scored by the girls in Science.
A) 56 B) 50 C) 54 D) 52 Correct Ans: C

Q91) The average weight of 6 children increases by 1.5 kg when a new child comes in place of one of them
weighing 12 kg. The weight of the new child is:
A) 14.5 kg B) 14 kg C) 21 kg D) 22 kg Correct Ans: C

Q92) In a group of sports persons, 20 wrestlers have an average weight of 90 kg, while some athletes have an
average weight of 68 kg. If the average weight of all sports persons is 78 kg, then the number of athletes
is:
A) 52 B) 24 C) 39 D) 30 Correct Ans: B

Q93) What will be the average of the odd numbers from 1 to 51, both inclusive?
A) 24 B) 26 C) 25 D) 26.5 Correct Ans: B

Q94) The average of 11 consecutive numbers is 30. The smallest number among these is:
A) 25 B) 28 C) 18 D) 12 Correct Ans: A

Q95) The average monthly income of A and B is ₹3,590. The average monthly income of B and C is ₹4,250. The
average monthly income of A and C is ₹6,500. What is the monthly income of C?
A) ₹7,545 B) ₹7,160 C) ₹6,984 D) ₹8,190 Correct Ans: B

Q96) A man purchased 3 bags of cement at the rate of ₹2,200 each, 4 bags of cement at ₹2,550 each and 5 bags
of cement at the rate of ₹3,120 each. What is the average cost of one bag of cement?
A) ₹2,805 B) ₹2,800 C) ₹2,700 D) ₹2,623 Correct Ans: C

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Q97) The average weight of 16 containers is 80 kg. If 8 new containers are added, the new average increases
by 2.5 kg. The average weight of the 8 new containers is:
A) 87 kg B) 82.5 kg C) 160 kg D) 87.5 kg Correct Ans: D

Q98) The average of runs scored by a player in 22 innings is 40 runs. How many runs should he score in the
23rd innings so that his average is increased by 6 runs?
A) 148 runs B) 188 runs C) 178 runs D) 158 runs Correct Ans: C

Q99) Find the average of the the first 15 multiples of 5.

A) 30 B) 45 C) 40 D) 35 Correct Ans: C

Q100) Two sections A and B of class VIII consist of 42 and 38 students, respectively. If the average marks of
section A is 400 and that of section B is 320, find the average marks of the whole class.
A) 360 B) 362 C) 576 D) 310 Correct Ans: B

Q101) The average height of a group of 50 students is 175 cm. If another group of 40 students with average
height of 180 cm is included, what is the average (in cm, to the nearest cm) of the combined group?
A) 174 B) 176 C) 178 D) 177 Correct Ans: D

Q102) Eight persons went to a restaurant for lunch. Seven of them spent ₹80 each on their meals, while the
eighth person spent ₹70 more than the average expenditure of all eight persons. What was the total
amount spent by all the individuals?
A) ₹560 B) ₹640 C) ₹720 D) ₹780 Correct Ans: C

Q103) In a hospital, 60% of the patients are men, 25% of the patients are women, and 15% of the patients are
children. If the average age of the men is 40 years, that of the women is 36 years, and that of the
children is 8 years. What is the average age of all the patients?
A) 32.4 years B) 23.4 years C) 24.3 years D) 34.2 years Correct Ans: D

Q104) The average of nine consecutive integers is 54. The second largest of these numbers is:
A) 50 B) 58 C) 59 D) 57 Correct Ans: D

Q105) In the first 5 overs of a T-20 international cricket match, the run rate was only 5.6. What should be the
run rate (approximately) in the remaining 15 overs to reach a target of 185 runs?
A) 11.15 B) 9.55 C) 10.46 D) 10.25 Correct Ans: C

Q106) The average of the numbers 253, 245, 325, 120 and 115+2K is 212. Find the average of the numbers 353,
354, 225, 220 and 110+3K.
A) 252 B) 250 C) 253 D) 251 Correct Ans: C

Q107) 24 boys and a certain number of girls appeared for an exam. The average score of the boys was 42 and
the average score of the girls was 34, while the combined average score was 38. How many girls
appeared for the exam?
A) 26 B) 28 C) 30 D) 24 Correct Ans: D

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Q108) There are 98 women in a group and their average weight is 52 kg. If 7 women of average weight 60 kg
leave the group and two new women of average weight 80 kg join the group, then what will be the new
average weight of women in the group now?
A) 50 kg B) 52 kg C) 54 kg D) 56 kg Correct Ans: B

Q109) The average of five numbers is 206. The average of two of them is 205. The average of another two of
those numbers is 207.5. How many numbers can be accurately identified with this information?
A) None B) Three C) One D) Two Correct Ans: C

Q110) Which of the following is true about average?

A) The average of six consecutive odd integers is an odd integer.

B) The average of six consecutive even integers is an even natural number

C) The average of six consecutive odd integers is an odd natural number.

D) The average of six consecutive odd integers is an even integer.

Correct Ans: D

Q111) The average score of boys in an examination in a school is 71 and that of the girls is 73. The
average score of the school is 71.8. The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls that
appeared in the examination is:
A) 4 : 3 B) 3 : 2 C) 3 : 4 D) 2 : 3 Correct Ans: B

Q112) The average of 10 numbers is 29. The average of the first 6 numbers is 22 and that of the last 6 numbers
is 32. What is the average of the 5th number and the 6th number?
A) 24 B) 20 C) 17 D) 27 Correct Ans: C

Q113) The average height of 50 students in a class was 105 cm. A group of five students with an average
height of 95 cm were admitted to this class. What is the average height (in cm) of the class of 55
students? (correct to the nearest integer)
A) 100 B) 102 C) 104 D) 105 Correct Ans: C

Q114) A student saves an average of ₹4,000 per month for the first three months. How much should be saved
(in ₹) on an average per month over the next 9 months to average ₹4,375 per month over the whole
year?
A) 4200 B) 4000 C) 4500 D) 4187.5 Correct Ans: C

Q115) In an amusement park, all rides are equally priced, and the entry ticket for the park costs an additional
₹180. Rohan had 15 rides and paid a total of ₹1,380 for his visit to the park. How much (in ₹) in all would
Rohan have to pay for his visit to the amusement park if he had opted for 20 rides?
A) 1800 B) 1840 C) 1780 D) 1760 Correct Ans: C

Q116) A vehicle moves at 65 km/h for 4 hours before slowing down to 52 km/h for the next 2.5 hours. Calculate
the average speed.
A) 58.5 km/h B) 60 km/h C) 55 km/h D) 61.25 km/h Correct Ans: B

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Q117) The average height of a group of 10 students is 172 cm. Two more students of height 178 cm and 165 cm
joined the group and 3 students of average height 160 cm leave the group. What is the new average
height (in cm, rounded off to 1 decimal place) of the group after the changes?
A) 170.5 B) 169.7 C) 175.9 D) 174.6 Correct Ans: C

Q118) The average weight of a class of 115 students is 52.4 kg. If the average weight of the 63 boys is 60 kg,
then find the average weight (in kg) of the girls in the class.
(Rounded off to one decimal place)
A) 41.8 B) 43.2 C) 45.5 D) 47.6 Correct Ans: B

Q119) In an office, the average salary of 22 staff members was ₹81,400. If the average salary of staff and the
Vice Chairman was ₹89,600, then how much is the salary of the Vice Chairman (in ₹)?
A) 1,97,300 B) 2,70,000 C) 2,17,000 D) 3,00,000 Correct Ans: B

Q120) In a factory, the average monthly salary of 25 unskilled workers is ₹11,950, that of 20 mechanics is
₹24,000 and that of 5 supervisors is ₹35,000. The average monthly salary of all the employees is:
A) ₹19,180 B) ₹19,075 C) ₹19,055 D) ₹19,225 Correct Ans: B

Q121) The average of the sales of an electronics shop in the years 1991, 1992, 1993 and 1994 is 2000, and that
for the years 1992, 1993, 1994 and 1995 is 2200. If the sales in 1995 are 1800, find the sales in 1991.
A) 1200 B) 800 C) 500 D) 1000 Correct Ans: D

Q122) The average age of a family consisting of parents and a child five years ago was 27 years. Three years
ago, the average age of parents was 41. The child was born ______ years ago.
A) 16 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

Q123) What is the difference between the average of prime numbers between 30 and 50 and the average of
multiples of 3 between 20 and 50?
A) 2.6 B) 3.2 C) 4.5 D) 5.3 Correct Ans: D

Q124) A dozen oranges cost ₹96, 2 dozen apples cost ₹240 and 4 pineapples costs ₹180. What is the average
cost (in ₹) per piece?
A) 16.2 B) 19.2 C) 12.6 D) 12.9 Correct Ans: D

Q125) The average salary of all 50 employees including 5 officers of a company is₹855. If the average salary of
the officers is₹2,550, find the average salary of the remaining staff of the company.
(Rounded to the nearest integer.)
A) ₹637 B) ₹667 C) ₹657 D) ₹677 Correct Ans: B

Q126) The average monthly pocket money of Ram and Shyam is ₹2,460, Shyam and Manohar is ₹2,380 and
Manohar and Ram is ₹2,760. Find the monthly pocket money of Ram alone.
A) ₹2,840 B) ₹2,408 C) ₹2,480 D) ₹2,048 Correct Ans: A

Q127) The average weight of 40 athletes and 5 trainers is 72 kg. When six more athletes of average weight 65
kg are included in the group, what is the average weight (in kg) of the group? (Rounded off to 2 decimal
places)

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A) 69.37 B) 72.25 C) 71.18 D) 65.21 Correct Ans: C

Q128) The average weight of 11 persons is increased by 4.5 kg when one of them, whose weight is 50.5 kg, is
replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person is:
A) 95.5 kg B) 100 kg C) 90.5 kg D) 98.5 kg Correct Ans: B

Q129) What will be the average of all the odd numbers from 11 to 71 (both inclusive)?
A) 47 B) 41 C) 39 D) 31 Correct Ans: B

Q130) The average monthly expenditure of a family was ₹8,600 during the first three months, ₹9,750 during the
next four months and ₹9,920 during the last five months of a year. If the total savings during the year
was ₹65,300, the average monthly income (in ₹) of the family was:
A) 15,794 B) 15,479 C) 14,975 D) 14,597 Correct Ans: C

Q131) The average age of a class of 39 students is 15 years. If the age of the teacher be included, then the
average increases by 3 months. Find the age of the teacher.
A) 26 years B) 24 years C) 27 years D) 25 years Correct Ans: D

Q132) A family of seven minors and some adults has an average wheat consumption of 11.10 kg. The average
consumption for minors is 5.5 kg per person, and for adults, it is 16 kg per person. Find the number of
adults in the family.
A) 6 B) 5 C) 10 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

Q133) The average weight of a certain number of apples in a basket was 0.5 kg. If 10
apples with an average weight of 0.7 kg are removed from the basket and 5 apples
with an average weight of 0.6 kg are added to the basket, then the average weight
of the apples in the basket decreases by 0.1 kg. What was the initial number of
apples in the basket?
A) 18 B) 21 C) 20 D) 19 Correct Ans: C

Q134) The average age of 12 men is increased by 6 years when three of them, whose ages are 36, 40 and 44
years, are replaced by 3 persons. What is the average age of the 3 persons?
A) 64 years B) 58 years C) 67 years D) 50 years Correct Ans: A

Q135) The average score in the Mathematics exam of a class of 60 students is 52. A group of 8 boys with an
average score of 40 left the class and another group of 10 boys with an average score of 43 joined the
class. What is the new average score of the class? (correct to one decimal place)
A) 50.5 B) 52.1 C) 53.9 D) 55.7 Correct Ans: B

Q136) The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 58 more than the average of these numbers. Find the
largest number.
A) 33 B) 27 C) 31 D) 37 Correct Ans: C

Q137) The average weight of two persons A and B is 70 kg. Another person C joins A and B and the average
weight now becomes 72 kg. If another person D, whose weight is 2 kg less than that of C, replaces A,

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 then the average weight of B, C and D becomes 70 kg. Find the weight of A (in kg).
A) 74 B) 75 C) 80 D) 73 Correct Ans: C

Q138) The average mark in an exam was 60. Due to some assessment errors, the marks of 115 students had to
be changed from 85 to 50 each, and the new average is 55. The total number of students who appeared
in the examination was:
A) 1000 B) 902 C) 763 D) 805 Correct Ans: D

Q139) The average weight of 12 students and two teachers is 55 kg. When one teacher weighing 68 kg is
included in the group, then the average weight of the group (in kg) is:
A) 56 B) 54.5 C) 56.5 D) 55 Correct Ans: A

Q140) There are 40 students in a class. Their average weight is 60 kg. Two students left the class. Then the
average weight is reduced by 500 g. Find the weight of the two students who left the class (in kg).
A) 129 B) 139 C) 140 D) 130 Correct Ans: B

Q141) If the average of 53 consecutive even numbers is 1280. Find the difference between the smallest and the
largest number.
A) 24 B) 34 C) 124 D) 104 Correct Ans: D

Q142)

A) 27 B) 18 C) 36 D) 45 Correct Ans: B

Q143) The batting average of a cricket player for 40 innings is 60 runs. His highest score in an innings exceeds
his lowest score by 110 runs. If these two innings are excluded, the average score of the remaining 38
innings is 58 runs. Find his highest score.
A) 290 B) 310 C) 153 D) 220 Correct Ans: C

Q144) In an examination, the average marks of the student in class were 85.4. If the student had got 8 more
marks in History, 12 more marks in Science, 10 more marks in Computer Science, 15 less marks in Hindi
and retained the same marks in other subjects, then the average would have been 87.9. How many
subjects were there in the examination?
A) 7 B) 8 C) 5 D) 6 Correct Ans: D

Q145) In a school, the average salary of 12 teachers was ₹71,400. If the average salary of the teachers,
principal and vice principal was ₹89,500, then what was the average salary of the principal and vice
principal (in ₹)?
A) 1,98,100 B) 1,18,900 C) 1,76,800 D) 2,11,000 Correct Ans: A

Q146) A library has an average number of 768 visitors on Monday, and 258 visitors on others day. Find the
average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days, beginning with Tuesday.
A) 362 B) 236 C) 326 D) 263 Correct Ans: C

Q147) The average age of a husband and wife, and their child 3 years ago, was 27 years, and that of the wife
and the child 5 years ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:

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A) 40 years B) 50 years C) 35 years D) 45 years Correct Ans: A

Q148) For 8 innings, a cricketer has an average of 68 runs. In the ninth inning, he scores 220 runs. His average
score increased by (rounded off to the nearest whole number):
A) 23 B) 85 C) 61 D) 17 Correct Ans: D

Q149) In a group of 260 people, one-fourth are women, two-fifth are men and the rest are children.
The average age of women is five-sixth of the average age of men, average age of children is
one-third of the average age of men. If the average age of men is 48 years, what is the average
age of the group in years?
A) 42.7 B) 32.7 C) 34.8 D) 38.4 Correct Ans: C

Q150) The average of some natural numbers is 27. If 69 is added to the first number and 12 is subtracted from
the last number, the average becomes 32.7, then the number of natural numbers is:
A) 7 B) 10 C) 8 D) 5 Correct Ans: B

Q151) The average score obtained by 64 boys and a certain number of girls in a test is 59.15, while the average
score obtained by the boys is 55.25. If the average score of the girls is 68.75, then how many girls
appeared for the test?
A) 28 B) 27 C) 25 D) 26 Correct Ans: D

Q152) The average weight of a certain number of students in a group was 72 kg. If 11 students, with an average
weight of 76 kg each, leave the group, and 5 students, each with an average weight of 79 kg, join the
group, the average weight of the students in the group decreases by 0.6 kg. The number of students
initially in the group was:
A) 17 B) 21 C) 19 D) 25 Correct Ans: B

Q153) A park has an average number of 420 visitors on Sunday and 120 on other days. The average number of
visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with Sunday, is:
A) 170 B) 160 C) 150 D) 270 Correct Ans: A

Q154) The average age of 11 players of a cricket team is increased by 2 months, when two of them aged 20
years and 21 years, respectively, are replaced by two new players. Find the average age of the two new
players (in years).
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q155) A batsman scores 152 runs in his 15th inning, which increases his average score by 5 runs. Find the
average score per inning of the batsman after the 15th innings.
A) 77 B) 41 C) 82 D) 85 Correct Ans: C

Q156) The average of 17 results is 62. The average of the first eighth is 48 and that of the last eighth is 84, the
ninth result is:
A) 2.5 B) −1.5 C) 2 D) −2 Correct Ans: D

Q157) The average of a non-zero number and its square is 7 times the number. The number is:
A) 13 B) 7 C) 14 D) 91 Correct Ans: A

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Q158) The average weight of Rakesh and his five friends is 62 kg. If Rakesh is 6 kg heavier than the average
weight of his five friends, then find the weight of Rakesh.
A) 61 kg B) 68 kg C) 62 kg D) 67 kg Correct Ans: D

Q159) In an examination, the average score of a student was 71.9. If the student would have got 28 more marks
in English, 22 more marks in Mathematics, 16 more marks in Computer Science, 14 more marks in
History, 10 less marks in Hindi, and retained the same marks in other subjects, then the average score
would have been 80.65. How many subjects were there in the examination?
A) 7 B) 8 C) 6 D) 9 Correct Ans: B

Q160) At a health club, 56% of the members are women and 44% of the members are men. If the average age
of the men is 35 years and the average age of the women is 30 years, what is the average age (in years) of
all the members?
A) 33.5 B) 32.2 C) 32.8 D) 34.9 Correct Ans: C

Q161) The average age of 40 students in a class is 12 years. The average age of the students increased by 4
months due to 20 new admissions in the class. The average age of the newly admitted students is:
A) 13 years 4 months B) 13 years C) 14 years D) 14 years 6 months Correct Ans: B

Q162) The average of 8 numbers 127, 432, p, 89, q, 99, 842 and 76 is 221 and the numbers p and q are two-digit
numbers. If the units digit of p is one less than that of q and tens digit of q is one less than that of p,
then the sum of the digits of p is:
A) 11 B) 14 C) 13 D) 12 Correct Ans: A

Q163) The average weight of 14 persons out of 16 persons is 75 kg. The total weight of the remaining two
persons is 48 kg more than the average weight of all 16 persons. Find the average weight of the
remaining two persons.
A) 66.6 kg B) 48.6 kg C) 54.6 kg D) 60.6 kg Correct Ans: D

Q164) In an NCC camp, the average weight was 72 kg. If 5 cadets having average weight 76 kg leave and 11
cadets of average weight 79 kg join the group, the average weight of the cadets in the group increases
by 0.6 kg. The number of cadets, initially in the group was:
A) 89 B) 85 C) 91 D) 81 Correct Ans: A

Q165) The average of first 9 whole numbers is:

A) 3 B) 4.5 C) 5 D) 4 Correct Ans: D

Q166) The average of 41 numbers is 62. The average of the first 18 numbers is 65.5, and the average of the last
24 numbers is 61.5. If the 18th number from the beginning is excluded, then what is the average of the
remaining numbers?
A) 61.325 B) 61.625 C) 60.725 D) 60.5 Correct Ans: C

Q167) Five athletes are weighed consecutively, and after each measurement, their average weight is
calculated. If the average weight increases by 1.5 kg each time, then how much heavier is the last player
than the first player?
A) 10 kg B) 15.5 kg C) 18 kg D) 12 kg Correct Ans: D

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Q168) The average weight of three friends Ram, Ramesh and Shyam is 76 kg. Somesh joins them and the
average weight of the four friends becomes 74 kg. If Mohan, whose weight is 2 kg more than that of
Somesh replaces Ramesh, the average weight of Ram, Shyam, Somesh and Mohan becomes 68 kg. Find
the weight of Ramesh.
A) 75 kg B) 89 kg C) 94 kg D) 84 kg Correct Ans: C

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) In a class, there are 60 students. The average weight of the entire class is 42 kg. If there are 36 boys in the
class and the average weight of all the boys is 50 kg, then what is the average weight (in kg) of all the
girls?
A) 30 B) 32 C) 36 D) 34 Correct Ans: A

Q2) Anwesha's marks in a class text of Sanskrit were incorrectly entered as 99 instead of 66. If there are 55
students in the class, then what is the increment in the average marks of the class in Sanskrit because of
this typing error?
A) 0.2 B) 0.8 C) 0.4 D) 0.6 Correct Ans: D

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q2)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q5)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q10)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q12)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q16)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q17)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q19)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q20)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q21)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q23)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q24)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q25)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q26)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q27)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q28)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q29)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q30)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q31)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q32)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q33)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q34)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q35)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q36)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q37)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q38)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q39)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q40)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q41)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q42)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q43)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q44)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q45)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q46)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q47)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q48)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q49)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q50)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q51)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q52)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q53)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q54)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q55)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q56)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q57)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q58)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q59)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q60)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q61)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q62)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q63)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q64)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q65)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q66)

A) B)

C) D)

Correct Ans: A

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Q67)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q68)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q69)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q70)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q71)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q72)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q73)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q74)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q75)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q76)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q77)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q78)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q79)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q80)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q81)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q82)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q83)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q84)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q85)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q86)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q87)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q88)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q89)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q90)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q91)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q92)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q93)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q94)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q95)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q96)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q97)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q98)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q99)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q100)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q101)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q102)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q103)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Selection Post XII

Q1) If the weight of A is 40 kg, weight of B is 54 kg and weight of C is 62 kg, then what is the average weight (in
kg) of the three persons?
A) 58 B) 78 C) 156 D) 52 Correct Ans: D

Q2) The wages of 10 workers for a six-day week are ₹1,200. What is the one-day wage of one worker?
A) ₹28 B) ₹20 C) ₹24 D) ₹16 Correct Ans: B

Q3) If the average score of a cricketer in three matches is 38 and in two other matches is 23, then what is the
average score in all five matches?
A) 32 B) 30 C) 34 D) 36 Correct Ans: A

Q4) Find the average of 642, 253, 834 and 303.

A) 509 B) 508 C) 452 D) 512 Correct Ans: B

Q5) The average of six numbers is 4. The average of two of them is 3.5, while the average of the other two is
3.75. What is the average of the remaining two numbers?
A) 8.375 B) 4.85 C) 4.65 D) 4.75 Correct Ans: D

Q6) John buys 20 kg of wheat at ₹30 per kg and 30 kg of wheat at ₹50 per kg. Find his average price.
A) ₹40 per kg B) ₹20 per kg C) ₹42 per kg D) ₹21 per kg Correct Ans: C

Q7) Class X has 45 students scoring average marks of 30 and class Y has 35 students scoring average marks
of 18. Find the average marks of the students of both classes together.
A) 25 B) 24.75 C) 28.50 D) 30 Correct Ans: B

Q8)

A) 56.0 B) 55.5 C) 56.33 D) 54.33 Correct Ans: A

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Q9) The average monthly income of A and B is ₹5,050, the average monthly income of B and C is ₹6,250, and
the average monthly income of A and C is ₹5,200. What is the sum of the monthly incomes (in ₹) of A, B
and C?
A) 18000 B) 19500 C) 16500 D) 11000 Correct Ans: C

Q10) At a fitness club, 70% of the members are men and 30% of the members are women. If the average age of
the men is 30 years and that of the women is 40 years, then what is the average age of all the members?
A) 30 years B) 35 years C) 33 years D) 38 years Correct Ans: C

Q11) A fruit seller has 10 kg of apples and 5 kg of grapes. The price of 1 kg of apples is ₹94.50 and that of
grapes is ₹105. He sold all the fruits with him. What is the average amount (in ₹) received by the fruit
seller?
A) 101.50 B) 98 C) 100 D) 97.50 Correct Ans: B

Q12) The university has 750 faculty (male and female only) out of which the females are 60%. The average
height of females is 162 cm and that of males is 168 cm. What is the average height of the faculty (in cm)
of the university?
A) 164.4 B) 166.4 C) 163.4 D) 161.4 Correct Ans: A

Q13) The average temperature of a city for the first four days of the week is 25°C, and the average temperature
for the last four days is 30°C. If the average temperature for the entire week is 27°C, then what is the
temperature on the fourth day?
A) 30°C B) 31°C C) 29°C D) 28°C Correct Ans: B

Q14) The average weight of 5 boys is increased by 9 kg when one of them, whose weight is 39 kg, is replaced
by another boy. What is the weight (in kg) of the new boy?
A) 65 B) 70 C) 69 D) 84 Correct Ans: D

Q15) The average of runs of a cricket player in 12 innings was 42. How many runs must he make in his next
innings to increase his average of runs by 2?
A) 68 B) 64 C) 78 D) 72 Correct Ans: A

Q16) The average weight of a group of 15 students is 70 kg. Five more students of weight 65 kg, 68 kg, 45 kg,
77 kg and 62 kg join the group. What is the change in the average weight (rounded off to the nearest
integer) of the group?
A) Increases by 2 kg B) Decreases by 2 kg C) Increases by 1 kg D) Decreases by 1 kg Correct Ans: B

Q17) The average age of all the students of a class is 18 years. The average age of the boys of the class is 19
years and of the girls is 14 years. If the number of girls in the class is 30, then what is the number of boys
in the class?
A) 100 B) 120 C) 140 D) 110 Correct Ans: B

Q18) The average weight of 10 persons is increased by 3.5 kg, when one of them whose weight is 45.5 kg is
replaced by a new man. The weight (in kg) of the new man is ___.
A) 70.5 B) 85.5 C) 80.5 D) 75.5 Correct Ans: C

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Q19) The average weight of 4 persons is increased by 14 kg when one of them whose weight is 55 kg, is
replaced by another person. What is the weight (in kg) of the new person?
A) 111 B) 85 C) 56 D) 98 Correct Ans: A

Q20) What is the average of the first 10 prime numbers?

A) 12.1 B) 13.1 C) 13.9 D) 12.9 Correct Ans: D

Q21) The average weight of Rohan and his three friends is 62 kg. If Rohan’s weight is 8 kg more than the
average weight of his three friends, what is Rohan’s weight (in kg)?
A) 60 B) 65 C) 68 D) 72 Correct Ans: C

Q22) The average cost of a pencil is ₹8 and the average cost of an eraser is ₹4. The cost of 8 erasers, 4 pencils
and 12 sharpeners are ₹148. The average cost of a sharpener is ₹____.
A) 7 B) 6 C) 6.5 D) 6.66 Correct Ans: A

Q23) In nine games, A wins five games with score differences of 12, 3, 8, 4 and 1, while in the remaining four
games, he loses with score differences of –4, –1, –2 and –3. The average score difference of A in all the
nine games is:
A) 1 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: D

Q24) A stock portfolio consists of three stocks. Stock A represents 30% of the portfolio and has a return of 5%.
Stock B represents 40% of the portfolio and has a return of 10%. Stock C represents the remaining 30% of
the portfolio and has a return of 8%. What is the average return of the portfolio?
A) 7.2% B) 7.5% C) 8.1% D) 7.9% Correct Ans: D

Q25) Find the average of the first 18 multiples of 9.

A) 85.5 B) 82.3 C) 88.5 D) 84.6 Correct Ans: A

Q26) A garrison of 140 men has provisions for 35 days. At the end of 10 days, 35 more men joined them. How
many days can they sustain on the remaining provisions?
A) 10 B) 35 C) 20 D) 25 Correct Ans: C

Q27) The average of v numbers is w2 and that of w numbers is v2 . Then the average of all the numbers is:
A) v2+ w2 B) v + w C) vw D) vw2 Correct Ans: C

Q28) A packet has to consist of three types of jellies – orange, mango and strawberry. The price per unit of
orange, mango and strawberry jelly is ₹2.00, ₹3.00 and ₹3.50, respectively. In a packet, there are 80
orange jellies, 50 mango jellies and 120 strawberry jellies. What is the average cost (in ₹) of a jelly in a
mixed packet?
A) 2.92 B) 3.02 C) 2.80 D) 2.96 Correct Ans: A

Q29) Find the average of all prime numbers between 42 and 75.
A) 59.25 B) 60.25 C) 55.75 D) 57.65 Correct Ans: A

Q30) The average of 12 numbers is 47. The average of the first 5 numbers is 45 and the average of the next 4
numbers is 52. If the 10th number is 10 less than the 11th number and is 5 more than the 12th number, then

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 what is the average value of the 11th and 12th numbers?
A) 44.5 B) 47.5 C) 42.5 D) 46.5 Correct Ans: A

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Profit and Loss

380+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Profit and Loss
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) Ravi's salary was increased by 50%. After some time, his new salary was also increased by 50%. Find his
gain percentage of salary.
A) 125% B) 100% C) 200% D) 150% Correct Ans: A

Q2) A shopkeeper marked the price 20% more than its cost price. If he allows a discount of 30%, then find his
loss percent.
A) 20% B) 16% C) 25% D) 15% Correct Ans: B

Q3) A man loses 28% by selling an article for ₹144. If he sells it for ₹288, what will be his gain/loss percentage?
A) Gain, 41% B) Loss, 43% C) Gain, 44% D) Loss, 46% Correct Ans: C

Q4) If the market price of a bag is 25% above the cost price, and a discount of 18% is declared on it, then find
the gain percentage.
A) 1.5% B) 2.0% C) 3.0% D) 2.5% Correct Ans: D

Q5) A shopkeeper allows a discount of 20% on the marked price of an item and thus gains 10%. What is the
ratio of the cost price to the marked price of the item?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q6) An article costs₹1,000 for a salesman. He fixes its marked price as₹1,500. He sells it to a customer at a
discount of 20%. He gives a furtherdiscount of 10% for each cash payment. Find the percentage of loss or
gain that the salesman makes on sale.
A) gain 8% B) gain 10% C) loss 8% D) loss 10% Correct Ans: A

Q7) A dishonest fruit-seller sells fruits at 20% profit but he uses 950 gm weight in place of 1 kg. What is the
profit per cent?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q8)

A) 20% B) 35% C) 25% D) 5% Correct Ans: A

Q9)

A) 5% B) 20% C) 30% D) 35% Correct Ans: B

Q10) A shopkeeper sells rice at the rate of ₹44 per kg whose cost price is ₹40 per kg. Not satisfied with this, he
tries to increase his profit by removing 200 grams of rice from each packet. What is the shopkeeper’s
overall gain percentage?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q11) Madhav purchased an item for ₹42,000 and sold it at a loss of 20%. With that amount, he purchased
another item and sold it at a gain of 30%. What is the overall gain (in ₹)?

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A) 6720 B) 4200 C) 1680 D) 2520 Correct Ans: C

Q12)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q13) The marked price of an article is 26% more than its cost price. If a discount of 32% is given, what will be
the loss percentage?
A) 18.64% B) 15.25% C) 12.26% D) 14.32% Correct Ans: D

Q14) A dishonest merchant sells his grocery using weights that are 12% less than the true weights and makes
a profit of 10%. Find his total gain percentage.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q15) Raman fixes the sale price of his goods at 16% above the cost price. He sells his goods at 12% less than
the fixed price. Find the profit percentage correct to two places of decimal.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q16) A dishonest shopkeeper claims to sell salt at a rate of ₹25/kg. The cost price of the salt is ₹25/kg. Not
satisfied with this, he tries to make profit by removing 200 gm from each kg. What is the shopkeeper’s
gain percentage?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q17) A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at a 10% profit and the rest at a 40% profit. He
gains 20% on the whole. The quantity sold at 40% profit is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q18) If books bought at prices ranging from ₹200 to ₹260 are sold at prices ranging from ₹250 to 300, what is
the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling 25 books?
A) ₹2,300 B) ₹2,500 C) ₹1,800 D) ₹2,700 Correct Ans: B

Q19) The marked price of 55 items was equal to the cost price of 99 items. The selling price of 56 items was
equal to the marked price of 35 items. Calculate the profit or loss percentage from the sale of each item.
A) 15% profit B) 12.25% profit C) 12.5% profit D) 12.5% loss Correct Ans: C

Q20) A vendor started selling vegetables at ₹10 per kg, but couldn’t find buyers at this rate. So he reduced the
price to ₹7.2 per kg, but uses a faulty weight of 900 g instead of 1 kg. Find the percentage change in the
actual price.
A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25% Correct Ans: C

Q21) A person purchased a table and a sofa for ₹28,000. He sold the sofa at a profit of 10% and the table at a
profit 15.25%. If his total profit was 13%, then the difference between the cost price of the sofa and the
table (in ₹) is:

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A) 1500 B) 4000 C) 5000 D) 2500 Correct Ans: B

Q22) In what ratio, sugar costing ₹78 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹46 per kg such that by selling the
mixture at ₹75 per kg there is a gain of 20%?
A) 33 : 37 B) 31 : 29 C) 37 : 31 D) 33 : 31 Correct Ans: D

Q23) The profit gained on selling a certain product is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 10% but the
selling price remains constant, then what percentage of the selling price is the profit (correct to one
decimal place)?
A) 70.2% B) 73.8% C) 75.7% D) 63.8% Correct Ans: B

Q24) Ramesh purchased 130 books at the rate of ₹200 each and sold half of them at the rate of ₹300 each, one-
fifth of them at the rate of ₹350 each and the rest at the cost price. Find his profit percentage.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q25) Naman bought few apples for ₹720 from a shop. He negotiated the price and the shopkeeper reduced it
by ₹2 per apple. Due to this Naman could buy four more apples than what he had bought earlier. How
many apples did he originally buy?
A) 48 B) 44 C) 36 D) 40 Correct Ans: C

Q26) Samreen sells a keyboard for ₹1,260 at a profit of 25%, and another keyboard for ₹1,440 at a loss of 10%.
What is her total gain or loss percentage?

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: D

Q27)

A) ₹49.5 B) ₹52.5 C) ₹48.5 D) ₹51.5 Correct Ans: B

Q28) A shopkeeper has a fault of 100 g in a 3 kg weight. He sold 3 kg of potatoes to Charu using the same
faulty weight for ₹46. The cost price of the potatoes for the seller was ₹12 per kg. How much profit (in ₹)
did he earn on the potatoes?
A) 11.6 B) 10.2 C) 11.2 D) 10 Correct Ans: C

Q29) S borrowed some amount from R and promised to pay him 8% interest. Then S invested the borrowed
amount in a scheme, upon which he earned a profit of 5% after paying R, the principal amount with
interest. How much percentage R would have gained, if he would have invested in the scheme directly?
A) 13.4% B) 13% C) 14.4% D) 14% Correct Ans: B

Q30) A seller sold 19 cookies for ₹95 instead of 20 cookies in one kg, cheating a customer. What is the gain (in
₹) if the seller bought the cookies for ₹76?
A) 28.2 B) 26.2 C) 22.8 D) 25.8 Correct Ans: C

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

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Q1) If the selling price of 100 pens is equal to the cost price of 140 pens, find the profit percentage.
A) 30% B) 45% C) 40% D) 36% Correct Ans: C

Q2) Ravath had to sell vegetables worth ₹4,960 for ₹4,712 due to weather conditions. What is the loss
percentage that he has incurred?
A) 20% B) 10% C) 5% D) 15% Correct Ans: C

Q3) If 70% of the cost price of an article is equal to 40% of its selling price, what is the profit percentage?
A) 85% B) 80% C) 70% D) 75% Correct Ans: D

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q5)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q7) If the selling price of 40 articles is equal to the cost price of 50 articles, then the percentage gain is:
A) 25% B) 20% C) 30% D) 35% Correct Ans: A

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q9) A vendor buys 20 dozen bananas for ₹1,200 and sells 5 dozen for ₹350, then his gain percentage is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q10)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q12)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q13)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q17) A sells a bike to B at 45% profit. Then B sells it to C at 30% profit. If C pays ₹43,355, then what is the cost
price of the bike for A?
A) ₹23,000 B) ₹27,000 C) ₹29,000 D) ₹21,000 Correct Ans: A

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q19) A shopkeeper sold an article at a 26% profit. On selling it for ₹2,250 more, he would get a profit of 41%. If
this article is sold at 12% profit, then the selling price would be:
A) ₹16,800 B) ₹15,000 C) ₹15,800 D) ₹16,120 Correct Ans: A

Q20)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q21)

A) 47.9 B) 37.0 C) 39.8 D) 40.0 Correct Ans: B

Q22)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q23)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q24)
A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: D

Q25)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q26) By selling 22 items, Rohit gains the selling price of 6 items. His gain per cent is:
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q27)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q28)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q29)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q30) Pradeep sells two fans at ₹480 each and by doing so he gains 20% on one fan and loses 20% on the
other. His loss on the whole (in ₹) is:
A) 30 B) 10 C) 20 D) 40 Correct Ans: D

Q31) By selling 30 metres of cloth a shopkeeper makes a profit equivalent to the selling price of 10 metres of
cloth. Find the selling price of 1 metre of cloth when the cost price of 1 metre of cloth is ₹480.
A) ₹520 B) ₹720 C) ₹960 D) ₹820 Correct Ans: B

Q32)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q33)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q34)

A) ₹4,000 B) ₹12,000 C) ₹15,000 D) ₹9,600 Correct Ans: B

Q35) The profit obtained by selling on article for ₹86 is twice the loss obtained by selling the same article for
₹53. Find the cost price.
A) ₹33 B) ₹22 C) ₹64 D) ₹75 Correct Ans: C

Q36) A shopkeeper buys 1800 kg wheat for ₹32,400. If 20% of this wheat is spoiled due to rain, at what rate
(₹/kg) should he sell the rest to earn 20%?
A) 29 B) 26 C) 25 D) 27 Correct Ans: D

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Q37)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q38)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q39)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q40)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q41)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q42)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q43)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q44)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) A man bought an article for ₹500 and sold it for ₹400. Find his loss percentage.
A) 30% B) 20% C) 100% D) 25% Correct Ans: B

Q2) Amar buys a wall clock for ₹300 and sells it for ₹200. Find his percentage loss.
A) 31.33% gain B) 30.33% loss C) 32.33% gain D) 33.33% loss Correct Ans: D

Q3) By selling an article for ₹880, a shopkeeper gains 10%. What would his gain percentage be if he sells the
article for ₹900?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q4) Reena buys an iron for ₹900 and sells it at a loss of 12%. What is the selling price of the iron?
A) ₹792 B) ₹658 C) ₹763 D) ₹825 Correct Ans: A

Q5) Find the selling price of an article (in ₹) if the cost price is ₹4,500 and gain is 5%.
A) 4,657 B) 4,725 C) 5,527 D) 5,175 Correct Ans: B

Q6) A vendor bought candies at ₹5 each. At what price must he sell to make 20% profit?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q7) Gagandeep marks his goods 50% above the cost price and offers a discount of 25% on the marked price to
his customers. What is the percentage gain of Gagandeep?
A) 13.5% B) 13.0% C) 12.5% D) 12.0% Correct Ans: C

Q8) A man buys 15 identical articles for a total of ₹15. If he sells each of them for ₹1.32, then his profit
percentage is:
A) 23% B) 50% C) 8% D) 32% Correct Ans: D

Q9)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q10) Surendra bought an old bicycle for ₹2,500 and spent ₹300 on its repair. He sold it for ₹3,000. Find his
profit percentage.
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q11) Pushkar buys an article for ₹27.50 and sells it for ₹28.60. Find his gain percentage.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q12) Rohit made a profit of 22% when he sold a jacket for ₹7,930. Find the cost price of the jacket.
A) ₹7,500 B) ₹6,500 C) ₹6,000 D) ₹7,000 Correct Ans: B

Q13) The cost price of 12 bananas is equal to the sale price of 10 bananas. What is the percentage of profit?
A) 20% B) 12% C) 24% D) 16% Correct Ans: A

Q14) Ramesh sold a watch to Rahul at a gain of 10%, and Rahul sold it to Arun at a loss of 10%. If Arun paid
₹1,800 to Rahul, then for how much did Ramesh sell it to Rahul?
A) ₹3,000 B) ₹2,000 C) ₹3,500 D) ₹2,500 Correct Ans: B

Q15) If the cash difference between the selling price of an item at a gain of 3% and 6% is ₹9, which of the
following options is the correct ratio between the selling prices?
A) 101 : 103 B) 103 : 106 C) 101 : 105 D) 103 : 100 Correct Ans: B

Q16) Ramani sells her car to Sarla at a loss of 15%. If Sarla pays ₹1,91,250 for it, then what is the cost price of
the car for Ramani?

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q17) Atul sold two sacks of rice for ₹19,200 each. On one, he gained 20% and on the other, he lost 20%. Find
his gain or loss percentage in the whole transaction.
A) 7% profit B) 4% loss C) 5% loss D) 8% profit Correct Ans: B

Q18) The salary of a person was reduced by 20%. By what percentage should his reduced salary be raised so
as to bring it at par with his original salary?
A) 20% B) 25% C) 22% D) 30% Correct Ans: B

Q19) Sohan buys 16 oranges for ₹80 and sells 30 oranges for ₹168. Find the percentage of his profit.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q20) On selling a book for ₹348, a shopkeeper loses 13%. In order to gain 22%, he must sell that book for:
A) ₹424 B) ₹369 C) ₹379 D) ₹488 Correct Ans: D

Q21) Mr Rao purchased a laptop for ₹45,000. After a few months, as his office provided another laptop, he sold
it at a loss of 12% to Mrs Sharma. After one year, she sold it to an engineering student for a profit of 12%.
What is the amount the student had to pay?
A) ​₹34,848 B) ₹44,352 C) ₹45,000 D) ₹56,448 Correct Ans: B

Q22) A man sold an article for ₹237, there by gaining 18.5%. The cost of the article (in ₹) was:
A) 281 B) 193 C) 291 D) 200 Correct Ans: D

Q23) A person buys a horse for 15 pounds. After one year, he sells it for 20 pounds. After one year, again he
buys the same horse for 30 pounds and sells it for 40 pounds. What is the overall profit percentage for
that person over both the transactions?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q24) A shopkeeper sells an article for ₹450.30 with a loss of 21%. What is the cost price (in ₹)of the article?
A) 485 B) 429 C) 570 D) 521 Correct Ans: C

Q25) A shopkeeper bought 10 dozen eggs at the rate of ₹5 per egg. 12 eggs broke in transit. He sold the
remaining eggs at the rate of ₹6 per egg. Find his profit percentage.
A) 15% B) 20% C) 10% D) 8% Correct Ans: D

Q26) Sandeep sold an overcoat for ₹8,784 and made a profit of 22%. Determine the original cost of the
overcoat.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q27) A man sold his bicycle for ₹810 losing two-fifth of its cost price. What is the loss percentage?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q28) Anirudh bought an old mobile for ₹18,000 and spent 5% of the cost price on its repairing and then sold it
for ₹21,735. Find the profit percentage earned by Anirudh.

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q29) The marked price of a folding bed is ₹18,000. Aman bought it after two successive discount of
15% and 10%. He spent ₹830 on transportation and sold it for ₹18,440. Find his profit.
A) ₹2,869 B) ₹3,539 C) ₹3,148 D) ₹3,840 Correct Ans: D

Q30)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q31) A tradesman marks his goods at 45% above the cost price but allows a discount of 20% at the time of
sale. His gain is:
A) 17% B) 25% C) 26% D) 16% Correct Ans: D

Q32) A trader marks his goods at 20% higher than the cost price. Further, he uses a weighing balance which
shows 1200 grams for a kilogram. What is his profit percentage?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q33) Anil sells sugar at cost price but uses false weights and thus makes 20% profit. How many grams of
sugar does he give in 1 kilogram?
A) 833.13 B) 833.23 C) 823.33 D) 833.33 Correct Ans: D

Q34) If the cost price of a house is 86% of the selling price, then what is the profit percentage, correct up to
two decimals?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q35) The marked price of an article is ₹1,680 and it is sold at a discount of 19%. If there is a gain of 8%, then by
what percentage above the cost price was the article marked?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q36) Reeta buys 90 kg potatoes and sells them at a profit equal to the cost price of 40 kg potatoes.
Find her profit percentage.
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q37) A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually
weighs 19% less than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q38) A man sold an article for ₹247.50, thereby gaining 12.5%. The cost of the article (in ₹) was:

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A) 220 B) 224 C) 210 D) 225 Correct Ans: A

Q39) A shopkeeper makes a 15% profit on a sale. He would have made 18%, if he had sold it for Rs.18 more.
The cost price of the article is:
A) Rs.600 B) Rs.500 C) Rs.550 D) Rs.650 Correct Ans: A

Q40) If the cost price of an article is 75% of its selling price, then the profit percent is:
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q41) A trader gains 44% after selling an item at 25% discount on the printed price. What is the ratio of the cost
price and the printed price of the item?

A) 25 : 48 B) 35 : 48 C) 48 : 25 D) 48 : 35 Correct Ans: A

Q42) A shopkeeper marks his good 12% above the cost price and allows a discount of 8.5% on the
marked price. Find his profit or loss percentage.
A) Loss 4.65% B) Loss 2.48% C) Profit 2.48% D) Profit 4.65% Correct Ans: C

Q43) The marked price of an article is ₹1,500 and it is sold at a discount of 19%. If there is a gain of 8%, then by
what per cent above the cost price was the article marked?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q44) By selling an item for ₹ 125, S earns 12% profit. What is the cost of the item (in ₹)? (Correct up to 2
decimal digits)
A) 111.61 B) 116.61 C) 116.16 D) 111.16 Correct Ans: A

Q45) A dealer made some profit by selling a laptop for ₹88,000, which is equal to the amount of loss incurred
on selling the same laptop for ₹72,000. If he had sold the laptop for ₹96,000, then his profit percentage
would have been:
A) 20% B) 37.5% C) 31.7% D) 25% Correct Ans: A

Q46) A person sold an article and got a loss of 9%. If he sold it for ₹51 more he would gain 8%. Find the C.P.
A) Rs.400 B) Rs.250 C) Rs.350 D) Rs.300 Correct Ans: D

Q47) Raju sold 4 laptops at a rate of ₹1,54,005 all together and incurred a loss of 25%. At what rate should he
sell the laptops to gain a profit of 25%?
A) ₹2,56,675 B) ₹2,05,340 C) ₹2,31,007.5 D) ₹2,25,820 Correct Ans: A

Q48) A man sells an article at a certain price and suffers a loss of 20%. If he sells the article at ₹100 more, he
gets a profit of 30%. Find the cost price of the article (in ₹).
A) 200 B) 400 C) 250 D) 300 Correct Ans: A

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Q49) By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 25%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹) so as to make a profit of 50%?
A) 4.8 B) 5.8 C) 3.8 D) 6.8 Correct Ans: C

Q50) Ramesh Chandra purchased 360 bulbs for ₹18 each. However, 20 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown
away. The remaining were sold at ₹20 each. Find the gain or loss per cent.

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: D

Q51) By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 30%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹) so as to make a profit of 50%?
A) 5 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 Correct Ans: B

Q52) Pankaj bought a watch at a price range from₹1,500 to₹3,000 which are sold at prices ranging
from₹2,500 to₹3,500. If Pankaj sells such 10 watches, then the greatest possible profit (in ₹) he
made with the transaction is:
A) 20,000 B) 23,854 C) 19,000 D) 21,765 Correct Ans: A

Q53) The difference between the selling prices with 19% profit and 11% loss is Rs.454.50. What is the cost
price of the item?
A) Rs.1,520 B) Rs.1,515 C) Rs.1,505 D) Rs.1,525 Correct Ans: B

Q54) Sunita borrows ₹5,500 for 3 years at 6.5% per annum simple interest. She immediately lends it to
Vedanshi at 9.3% per annum simple interest for 3 years. Find her gain (in ₹) in the transaction per year.
A) 149 B) 154 C) 161 D) 157 Correct Ans: B

Q55) A shopkeeper sells one-fourth of his items at a loss of 12%, one-third of the remaining items at a profit of
44%, and the rest at a loss of 7%. What is his overall profit/loss percentage?
A) 2% gain B) 2% loss C) 4.5% gain D) 4.5% loss Correct Ans: C

Q56) A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually
weighs 18% less than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q57) An item was sold for ₹40 with a profit of 15%. If it were sold for ₹36, then what would have been the
percentage of profit or loss? (rounded off to 1 decimal places).
A) Loss 3.7% B) Profit 3.5% C) Profit 4.7% D) Loss 4.5% Correct Ans: B

Q58)

A) 20% B) 25% C) 10% D) 15% Correct Ans: A

Q59) Reena sells an article at 12% below its cost price. Had she sold it for ₹540 more, she would
have gained 15%. At what price should she sell the article to gain 20%?
A) ₹2,040 B) ₹2,400 C) ₹4,200 D) ₹2,004 Correct Ans: B

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Q60) A shopkeeper sells goods at the same price rate for which he has bought them, but gives 20% less
quantity to the customer. Find the profit percentage.
A) 15% B) 25% C) 20% D) 30% Correct Ans: B

Q61) A vendor bought a certain number of bananas at 6 for ₹5 and sold them at 4 for ₹3. Find his loss
percentage.
A) 12% B) 10% C) 8% D) 15% Correct Ans: B

Q62) By selling a TV set for₹26,000, a seller earns 30% profit. If the production cost is increased by 10%, what
should be the new selling price of a set so as to gain 15% profit?
A) ₹26,300 B) ₹25,300 C) ₹28,300 D) ₹30,300 Correct Ans: B

Q63) A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually
weighs 49% less than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q64) A shop keeper allows a 25% discount and gains 20%. How much of the percentage is above the Marked
Price on the Cost Price?
A) 60% B) 50% C) 80% D) 20% Correct Ans: A

Q65) Akhil bought two articles at ₹4,500 each. He sold one article at a 12% gain but had to sell the second
article at a loss. If he had suffered a loss of ₹395 on the whole transaction, then what was the selling price
of the second article?
A) ₹3,550 B) ₹3,565 C) ₹3,500 D) ₹3,595 Correct Ans: B

Q66)
A) 2 :3 B) 21 : 16 C) 6 :7 D) 3 :2 Correct Ans: D

Q67) By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 25%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹) so as to make a profit of 50%?
A) 3.9 B) 4.9 C) 6.9 D) 5.9 Correct Ans: A

Q68) A shopkeeper claims that he sells rock salt at ₹23 per kg, which costs him ₹25 per kg. But he gives 800 g
instead of 1,000 g. What is his percentage profit or loss?
A) Loss of 3% B) Profit of 15% C) Loss of 5% D) Profit of 8% Correct Ans: B

Q69) The cost price of an article is 76% of its marked price. Find the gain percentage after allowing a discount
of 5%.
A) 27.5% B) 24% C) 25% D) 22.5% Correct Ans: C

Q70) By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 25%?
A) 4.73 B) 2.73 C) 5.73 D) 3.73 Correct Ans: B

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Q71) A shopkeeper purchases oil at ₹50/litre and sells the same at ₹54/litre. While selling, he gives 900 ml of oil
instead of 1 litre. What is his profit percentage?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q72) Sam purchased 20 dozen toys at the rate of ₹375 per dozen. He sold each of them at the rate of ₹33. What
was his profit percentage?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q73) Each of the two merchants sell an article for ₹1,000. If Merchant A computes his profit on the cost price,
while Merchant B computes his profit on the selling price, then they both end up making profits of 25%.
By how much is the profit made by Merchant B more than that of Merchant A?
A) ₹40 B) ₹50 C) ₹45 D) ₹35 Correct Ans: B

Q74) In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix sugar at ₹30/kg and ₹32.5/kg so that by selling the mixture at
₹34.1/kg, he may get 10% profit?
A) 2 : 1 B) 3 : 2 C) 4 : 3 D) 5 : 4 Correct Ans: B

Q75) A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually
weighs 33% less than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q76) A tradesman marks his goods 30% more than the cost price. If he allows a discount of , then his

gain percentage is:

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q77) A shopkeeper sells an item at a profit of 25% and dishonestly uses a weight that is 30% less than the
actual weight. Find his total profit percentage.
A) 78.57% B) 42% C) 23% D) 65.75% Correct Ans: A

Q78) By selling a book for ₹480 at marked price, a shopkeeper gains 20%. During a clearance sale, the
shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% on the marked price. What is his gain per cent during the sale?
A) 12% B) 18% C) 8% D) 16% Correct Ans: C

Q79) A television costs₹20,500 for a trader. He fixes its marked price as₹24,000 and gives a discount of 15%.He
further gives a discount of 5%for cash payment. Find his percentage of profit or loss.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q80) A dishonest shopkeeper claims to sell rice at the cost price of ₹95 per kg, but the weight he uses has 1 kg
written on it, while it actually weighs 950 gm. The profit he thus earns on selling rice having an actual
weight of 95 kg rice is:
A) ₹375 B) ₹275 C) ₹475 D) ₹500 Correct Ans: C

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Q81) A dealer sells his goods at 5% loss on cost price but uses 12 % less weight. Find his percentage of loss
or gain.
Loss 8 Loss 7 Gain 7 Gain 8 Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)
% % % %

Q82) A bought an item for ₹384 and sold it for ₹576, and B bought another item for ₹1,254 and sold it for
₹1,672. What is the ratio of gain percentage of A to gain percentage of B?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q83) A merchant has 5000 kg of Basmati rice. He sells some part of this Basmati rice at 20% profit and the rest
at 35% profit. He gains 29% in the entire transaction. What is the quantity sold at 20% profit and 35%
profit, respectively?
A) 1800 kg, 3200 kg B) 2000 kg, 3000 kg C) 2600 kg, 2400 kg D) 2200 kg, 2800 kg Correct Ans: B

Q84) Raman purchased an iron at a cost of ₹2,400 and sold it to Rohan at a loss of 8%. Rohan sold it
to Soham at a gain of 12.5%. At what price should Soham sell the iron to gain 15%?
A) ₹2,658.60 B) ₹2,860.56 C) ₹2,856.60 D) ₹2,568.60 Correct Ans: C

Q85) By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 20%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 40%?
A) 5.17 B) 6.17 C) 4.17 D) 3.17 Correct Ans: D

Q86) By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 30%?
A) 4.64 B) 5.64 C) 3.64 D) 6.64 Correct Ans: C

Q87) A merchant gives 800 g instead of 1000 g to a customer. What is the merchant’s percentage profit?
A) 10% B) 20% C) 25% D) 15% Correct Ans: C

Q88) By selling 120 note books, a shopkeeper gains the selling price of 40 note books. Find his gain
percentage.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q89) Shikha sells a bookshelf to Vansh at a loss of 5%, Vansh sells the same bookshelf to Swarnima at a profit
of 10%, and Swarnima sells the same bookshelf to Nikhil at a loss of 20%. If Nikhil purchased the
bookshelf for ₹16,720, then what was the cost (in ₹) of the bookshelf for Shikha?
A) 19,500 B) 21,500 C) 20,000 D) 18,000 Correct Ans: C

Q90) A shopkeeper buys 15 mobiles and sells 12 mobiles at the cost price of 15 mobiles. If the shopkeeper
sells all the mobiles at the same price at which he sold the 12 mobiles in the first case, what is the profit
percentage?
A) 25% B) 27.5% C) 22.5% D) 20% Correct Ans: A

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Q91) A dishonest merchant sells his grocery using weights that are 15% less than the true weights and makes
a profit of 20%. Find his total gain percentage.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q92)
If the cost price of an article is 70.5% of its selling price, what is the profit percentage (rounded off to 1 decimal

place)?

A) 51.6% B) 39.5% C) 42.7% D) 41.8% Correct Ans: D

Q93) The amount of profit and loss will be the same if an article is sold at ₹19,125 and ₹14,625. Find the
percentage of profit if an article is sold at ₹19,125.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q94) By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 40%?
A) 7.45 B) 5.45 C) 8.45 D) 6.45 Correct Ans: B

Q95) By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 35%?
A) 6.55 B) 5.55 C) 4.55 D) 7.55 Correct Ans: C

Q96) A shopkeeper sells a notebook that has a marked price of ₹80 at a discount of 8% and gives a
pen costing ₹8.60 free with each notebook. Even then he makes a profit of 17%. Find the cost
price of each note book correct to two places of decimals.
A) ₹51.32 B) ₹55.56 C) ₹45.35 D) ₹49.75 Correct Ans: B

Q97) 400 chickooes were bought at ₹1280 per hundred and were sold at a profit of ₹980. Find the selling price
(in ₹) per dozen of chickooes.
A) 193 B) 183 C) 198 D) 173 Correct Ans: B

Q98) P sold an article to Q at 11% profit and Q sold it to R at 11% loss. If R paid ₹19,758 for it, then at what
price (in ₹) was the article purchased by P?
A) 19,750 B) 19,500 C) 22,500 D) 20,000 Correct Ans: D

Q99) A dishonest shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price. However, he uses a weight that actually
weighs 11% less than what is written on it. Find his profit percentage.
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q100) By selling 20 cakes, a shopkeeper earns selling price of 4 cakes. Determine the profit percentage.
A) 20% B) 10% C) 25% D) 4% Correct Ans: C

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Q101) By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 40%?
A) 5.18 B) 7.18 C) 6.18 D) 8.18 Correct Ans: A

Q102) A vendor loses the selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. His loss percentage is:
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q103) By selling an article for ₹19.5, a dealer makes a profit of 30%. By how much should he increase his
selling price (in ₹) so as to make a profit of 35%?
A) 0.75 B) 2.75 C) 1.75 D) 3.75 Correct Ans: A

Q104)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q105) By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 20%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 30%?
A) 3.67 B) 4.67 C) 1.67 D) 2.67 Correct Ans: C

Q106) A man bought a bullock and a cart for ₹10,000. He sold the bullock at a gain of 30% and the cart at a loss
of 20%, thereby gaining 2% on the whole. Find the cost of the bullock.
A) ₹4,400 B) ₹5,400 C) ₹5,600 D) ₹4,600 Correct Ans: A

Q107) What is the ratio in which product A, costing ₹70 per 100 grams, should be mixed with product B,
costing ₹100 per 100 grams, so that on selling the mixture at ₹1.20 per gram, a profit of 25% is
achieved?
A) 9 : 2 B) 2 : 13 C) 13 : 2 D) 2 : 9 Correct Ans: B

Q108) By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 20%?
A) 1.82 B) 3.82 C) 4.82 D) 2.82 Correct Ans: A

Q109) A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a false weight and thus gains 15%.
For a kilogram he uses a weight of ____ grams.
A) 830.43 B) 930.43 C) 1130.43 D) 869.57 Correct Ans: D

Q110) Manoj buys 1 kg tomato for ₹80 and sells it for ₹90. He also uses a weight of 800 gm in place of 1 kg.
What is Manoj’s actual profit percentage on the sale of 1 kg tomato?
A) 40.625% B) 12.5% C) 25% D) 37.5% Correct Ans: A

Q111)

A) 981 g B) 975 g C) 985 g D) 978 g Correct Ans: B

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Q112)

A) 880 B) 890 C) 895 D) 885 Correct Ans: D

Q113) A trader sells his goods at 25% profit. Had he bought it at 10% more and sold it for ₹75 more, he would
have earned a profit of 25%. The cost price of the goods is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q114) In a scheme, a shopkeeper offers 4% discount if you buy three or more products. Ritu buys three bottles
of guava juice for ₹330. If the shopkeeper still makes a profit of 10%, find the profit he would make if had
sold it without discount (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
A) 15.28% B) 15.74% C) 14.58% D) 15% Correct Ans: C

Q115) By selling an article for ₹19, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 50%?
A) 7.91 B) 9.91 C) 8.91 D) 6.91 Correct Ans: D

Q116) The cost price of some table lamps is ₹25,000. The shopkeeper will get ₹15,000 more If he sells these
table lamps for ₹1,200 per lamp instead of ₹900 per lamp. Find the selling price of 23 table lamps if he
earned 21% profit.
A) ₹12,585 B) ₹14,917 C) ₹12,919 D) ₹13,915 Correct Ans: D

Q117) Ramesh purchased a piano, marked at ₹18,000 at a successive discounts of 12% and 15%, respectively.
Ramesh gave ₹536 as transportation charge and sold it at ₹21,000. What is his gain percentage?
A) 35% B) 48% C) 50% D) 40% Correct Ans: C

Q118) A shopkeeper sold an article at a profit of 4%. If he had bought the article at 5% less and sold it at ₹30
more, then he would have made a profit of 12%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of the article?
A) 1,232 B) 1,200 C) 1,260 D) 1,250 Correct Ans: D

Q119) By selling an article for ₹20, a dealer makes a profit of 10%. By how much should he increase his selling
price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal place) so as to make a profit of 50%?
A) 7.27 B) 10.27 C) 9.27 D) 8.27 Correct Ans: A

Q120) A trader sells an item at 25% profit. Had he bought it at 15% more and sold it for₹147 more, he would
have earned a profit of 30%. Find the cost price of the item.
A) ₹525 B) ₹450 C) ₹650 D) ₹600 Correct Ans: D

Q121) Two vendors calculate their profit percentage on the cost price and selling price, respectively. What will
be the difference between the profits (in ₹) if both the vendors declare a profit of 28% on the goods sold
for ₹3,200?
A) 896 B) 196 C) 700 D) 548 Correct Ans: B

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Q122)

A) ₹58.37 B) ₹61.54 C) ₹63.14 D) ₹51.23 Correct Ans: B

Q123) A shopkeeper sold the Refrigerator and the Geyser set together for ₹30,400, thereby making a profit of
25% on the Refrigerator and 10% on the Geyser. By selling them together for ₹30,700, he would have
made a 10% profit on the Refrigerator and 25% on the Geyser. Now, if the Geyser is sold at 17% profit,
then the selling price (in ₹) of the Geyser is:
A) 14,380 B) 17,510 C) 12,130 D) 16,380 Correct Ans: D

Q124) Rahul sells an article at 8% above its cost price. If he had bought it at 5% less than what he had paid for
it and sold it at ₹8 less, he would have gained 12%. Find the cost price of the article.
A) ₹700 B) ₹500 C) ₹650 D) ₹550 Correct Ans: B

Q125) Riya sold two packets of detergent at ₹96 each. On one packet she gains 20% and on the other, she
loses 20%. The net gain or loss in the complete process is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q126) After successive discounts of 26% and 22.5%, an item was sold at a profit of 24%. If the cost price of the
item was ₹925, what was the marked price (in ₹) of the item?
A) 2,250 B) 2,200 C) 1,975 D) 2,000 Correct Ans: D

Q127) A flat worth ₹9,50,000 is sold by Lakshman to Bharath at 8% profit. If Bharath sells it back to Lakshman
at 3% loss, then find the gain/loss (in ₹) of Lakshman in the entire transaction?
A) Lakshman loses ₹45,220 B) Lakshman gains ₹45,220 C) Lakshman gains ₹30,780 D) Lakshman gains ₹50,200

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 Correct Ans: C

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) A shopkeeper buys oranges at the rate of 10 oranges for ₹50 and sells them at the rate of 12 oranges for
₹74. Find his gain or loss percentage.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q2) A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price but uses a false weight of 950 grams instead of
1 kilogram. His gain percentage is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q3) A shopkeeper kept the marked price of an item at ₹500. He sold it at a scheme discount of 10% and 20%
and got a profit of 25%. What was the cost price of the item?
A) ₹482 B) ₹384 C) ₹288 D) ₹188 Correct Ans: C

Q4) The cost price of 36 articles is the same as the selling price of N articles. If the profit is 20%, then the value
of N is:
A) 25 B) 42 C) 40 D) 30 Correct Ans: D

Q5) A trader sells pulses at a 32% profit and uses weights 20% less than the actual measure. Find his gain
percentage.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q6) A dishonest dealer sells an article at a 10% loss on the cost price but uses a weight of 40 g instead of 50 g.
What is his percentage of profit?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q7) The marked price of an article is 35% more than its cost price. If a discount of 15% is given, what will be
the profit percentage?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q8) A dishonest dealer claims to sell his products at 24% loss on the cost price but uses 100 g weight instead
of 200 g weight. His profit percentage is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q9) A dishonest dealer sells his goods at 20% loss on the cost price but uses a faulty weight that weighs 25%
less. His profit or loss percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is:
A) 6.67%, loss B) 3.33%, profit C) 3.33%, loss D) 6.67%, profit Correct Ans: D

Q10) A trader sells an article at 16% below its cost price. Had he sold it for ₹192.20 more, he would have gained
15%. The new selling price (in ₹) of the article is:
A) 742 B) 731 C) 713 D) 724 Correct Ans: C

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Q11) A person bought two buffaloes for₹11,520. One is sold at a loss of 15% and the other is sold at a gain of
19%. If the selling price of both buffaloes is equal, find the cost price of the first one.
A) ₹6,700 B) ₹6,715 C) ₹6,720 D) ₹6,710 Correct Ans: C

Q12) A merchant bought two watches for ₹9,000 each. He sold one watch at a loss of 10%. At what price (in ₹)
should he sell the other watch to earn a profit of 18% overall?
A) 14,130 B) 14,310 C) 13,140 D) 13,410 Correct Ans: C

Q13) Aarav owns a watch worth ₹10,000. He sells it to Bhavin at a profit of 15%. After some days, Bhavin sells
it back to Aarav at 15% loss. Find the percentage profit or loss faced by Aarav.
A) 17.25% loss B) 17.25% profit C) 18.25% profit D) 18.75% loss Correct Ans: B

Q14) A grocer purchased 10 kg rice for ₹700. He spends some amount on transportation and then sells it for
₹1,400. If the percentage of profit made by the grocer is 30%, then what is the amount (in₹)he spends on
transportation? (Round off to the nearest integer)
A) 350 B) 380 C) 300 D) 377 Correct Ans: D

Q15)

A) ₹50,000 B) ₹51,000 C) ₹50,990 D) ₹52,150 Correct Ans: B

Q16) A vegetable vendor bought 100 kg of potatoes at the rate of ₹19 per kg and spent ₹100 as cartage. He
sold 60 kg of potatoes with a 50% profit and half of the remaining stock with a 40% profit. He sold half of
the still remaining potatoes with a 25% profit. What profit percentage should he aim for when selling the
ultimate remaining potatoes to achieve an overall profit of 42%?
A) 0.16 B) 0.1 C) 0.12 D) 0.15 Correct Ans: D

Q17) A shopkeeper gives a discount of 12% on the purchase of 10 kg of sugar. The cost price of the sugar is
₹30/kg, and the marked price is ₹38/kg. The weighing machine of the shopkeeper is faulty, and it shows
weight of 1 kg when the actual weight is 900 grams. Find the percentage profit of the shop keeper
(rounded off to two decimal places).
A) 30.18% B) 12.5% C) 22.25% D) 23.85% Correct Ans: D

Q18) A reduction of 7.5% in the cost price of a commodity enables a shopkeeper to purchase 15 kg more than
what he previously purchased for a sum of ₹7,400. In order to make a profit of 32.5% on the pre-reduction
cost price of the commodity, at what price (in ₹) per kg should the commodity be sold?
A) 54 B) 53 C) 52 D) 51 Correct Ans: B

Q19) A shopkeeper sold 3 wristwatches for ₹2,800 each. If he has sold the watches with 40%, 25% and 12%
profit, respectively, then find his overall profit percentage (correct to 2 decimal places).
A) 0.2419 B) 0.2463 C) 0.2455 D) 0.2475 Correct Ans: B

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q4)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q6)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q8)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q10)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q11)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q12)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q14)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q15)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q17)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q18)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q19)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q20)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q21)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q23)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q24)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q25)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q26)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q27)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q28)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q29)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q30)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q31)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q32)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q33)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q34)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q35)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q36)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q37)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q38)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q39)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q40)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q41)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q42)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q43)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q44)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q45)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q46)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q47)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q48)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q49)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q50)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q51)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q52)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q53)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q54)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q55)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q56)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q57)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q58)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q59)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q60)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q61)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q62)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q63)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q64)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q65)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q66)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q67)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q68)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q69)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q70)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q71)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q72)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q73)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q74)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q75)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q76)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q77)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q78)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q79)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q80)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q81)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q82)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q83)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q84)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q85)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q86)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q87)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q88)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q89)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q90)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q91)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q92)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q93)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q94)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q95)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q96)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q97)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q98)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q99)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q100)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q101)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q102)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q103)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q104)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q105)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q106)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q107)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q108)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q109)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q110)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q111)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q112)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q113)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Selection Post XII

Q1) A wrist watch was purchased for₹3,000 and sold for₹3,500. Find the profit percentage.
A) 19.58% B) 18.33% C) 16.66% D) 20.50% Correct Ans: C

Q2) The salary of an employee is increased by 10% and then the increased salary is reduced by 10%. The
percentage loss in the salary of the employee is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q3) If the cost price of a table is ₹400 and the selling price is ₹600, then find the profit percentage.
A) 50% B) 45% C) 55% D) 33% Correct Ans: A

Q4) A man sells a cow for Rs.22,000 and gains 10%. At what price should he sell the same cow, in order to gain
14%?
A) Rs.23,000 B) Rs.23,800 C) Rs.22,800 D) Rs.22,900 Correct Ans: C

Q5) A wristwatch is sold for ₹2,700 at a loss of 10%. What is the cost price of the wristwatch?
A) ₹2,900 B) ₹3,200 C) ₹3,000 D) ₹3,300 Correct Ans: C

Q6) Sukrit purchased an item for ₹650 and sold it at a profit of 26%. At what price (in ₹) did Sukrit sell the item?
A) 819 B) 813 C) 823 D) 829 Correct Ans: A

Q7) If an electricity bill is paid before the due date, one gets a reduction of 10% on the amount of the bill. By
paying the bill before the due date, a person got a reduction of ₹23. The amount of his electricity bill (in ₹)
was:
A) 230 B) 250 C) 380 D) 520 Correct Ans: A

Q8) Rama sold a car costing ₹4,00,000 to Sansar at a loss of 20%. What is the selling price (in ₹)?
A) 3,50,000 B) 3,20,000 C) 4,80,000 D) 3,80,000 Correct Ans: B

Q9) By selling a hair oil product for ₹336, the gain is 12%. If the gain is reduced to 9%, find the resultant selling
price (in ₹).
A) 330 B) 300 C) 327 D) 339 Correct Ans: C

Q10) P sells a Laptop to Q at a loss of 25% and Q sells the laptop to R at a profit of 20%. If R purchased the
laptop for ₹22,500, then what was the cost (in ₹) of the laptop for P?
A) 25000 B) 24800 C) 23200 D) 23800 Correct Ans: A

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Q11) A salesman purchases goods at ₹1,250 and is forced to sell it at ₹1,000. Find his loss percentage.
A) 25% B) 30% C) 20% D) 15% Correct Ans: C

Q12) A shopkeeper marks the price of his goods at 20% higher than the cost price and allows a discount of
10%. What is his profit percentage?
A) 8% B) 10% C) 4% D) 6% Correct Ans: A

Q13) A dealer advertises that he sales his goods at cost price. But he uses 950 gm for 1 kg weight. Find his
gain or loss percentage.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q14) An old HP Deskjet printer was bought for ₹4,800 and ₹500 was spent on its repair. If it was sold for ₹6,360,
then its profit percentage is:
A) 0.15 B) 0.12 C) 0.18 D) 0.2 Correct Ans: D

Q15) A shopkeeper bought 30 books and sold 25 books for same price. What percentage had he gained or
lost?
A) 20% loss B) 20% gain C) 25% gain D) 25% loss Correct Ans: B

Q16) The selling price of 84 items is equal to the cost price of 105 items. What is the percentage of profit
gained in the transaction?
A) 28% B) 20% C) 25% D) 21% Correct Ans: C

Q17) A person bought bananas at 6 for ₹12 and sold them at 8 for ₹10. Find his gain or loss percentage?
A) 37.5% loss B) 375% gain C) 3.75% gain D) 0.375% loss Correct Ans: A

Q18) A tradesman marked his goods at 26% above its cost price and then allowed a discount of 13%. His gain
(in %) is:
A) 6.92 B) 6.29 C) 9.62 D) 9.26 Correct Ans: C

Q19) The ratio of the cost price of an article to its selling price is 432 ∶ 612. The profit percentage (rounded off
to 2 decimal places) on it is:
A) 41.66% B) 40.25% C) 42.33% D) 38.26% Correct Ans: A

Q20) A dealer sells an article at ₹850 after offering a cash discount of 15% on its marked price. Without
discount, he would have earned a profit of 25%. What is the cost price of the article (in ₹)?
A) 950 B) 800 C) 900 D) 1000 Correct Ans: B

Q21) A shopkeeper purchased groundnuts at ₹64/kg and sells at ₹80/kg. While selling, he uses faulty weights
and gives 800 gm instead of 1 kg. Find his actual profit percentage.
A) 32.25% B) 28.75% C) 36.65%, D) 56.25% Correct Ans: D

Q22) The selling price of 80 items is equal to the cost price of 72 items. What is the percentage of loss incurred
in the transaction?

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 Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q23) Shyam bought a chair for ₹1,563 and spent ₹350 on its repairing. He sold it for ₹2,398. Find his profit
percentage (correct to two places of decimals).
A) 52.55% B) 35.55% C) 42.35% D) 25.35% Correct Ans: D

Q24) The profit earned after selling a bucket for ₹680 is the same as the loss incurred after selling the bucket
for ₹532. The cost price (in ₹) of the bucket is:
A) 606 B) 612 C) 610 D) 618 Correct Ans: A

Q25) In a business, R invests ₹65,000 and he gets a total ₹80,000 back. Out of profit, ₹2,000 are spent as
expenses of the business. What is his profit from the business in percentage?
A) 18% B) 22% C) 20% D) 25% Correct Ans: C

Q26) Rashid sells a book at a gain of 20%. If he had sold it at ₹34.51 more, he would have gained 37%. The cost
price (in ₹) of the book is:
A) 220 B) 207 C) 203 D) 210 Correct Ans: C

Q27) The selling price of y items is equal to the cost price of 540 items. If the profit made is 44%, then find the
value of y.
A) 375 B) 400 C) 360 D) 380 Correct Ans: A

Q28) Reyan purchased a laptop for₹56,000 and a scanner-cum-printer for₹22,000. He sold the laptop for a 20%
profit and the scanner-cum-printer for a 15% profit. What is his profit percentage?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q29) Rameshwar sold a bike at a loss of 15%. If the selling price had been increased by ₹3,375, there would
have been a gain of 12%. Find the cost price of the bike.
A) ₹25,100 B) ₹25,200 C) ₹12,500 D) ₹15,200 Correct Ans: C

Q30) A and B invested money in a business in the ratio of 2:3. If 10% of the total profit goes to charity and A’s
share in the profit is ₹4,500, then what is the total profit?
A) ₹13,000 B) ₹12,500 C) ₹12,000 D) ₹13,500 Correct Ans: B

Q31) The percentage profit earned by selling an article for ₹1,910 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by
selling the same article for ₹1,690. At what price (in ₹) should the article be sold to make a 12% profit?
A) 2,106 B) 2,160 C) 2,016 D) 2,610 Correct Ans: C

Q32) On two items of equal prices, T gets 12% profit on one item and incurs 8% loss on other. What is his
overall profit or loss percentage?
A) Profit, 2% B) Profit, 4% C) Loss, 4% D) Loss, 2% Correct Ans: A

Q33) The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs.2,100 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by
selling the same article for Rs.1,460. At what price should the article be sold to make 20% profit?

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A) Rs.2,156 B) Rs.2,256 C) Rs.2,136 D) Rs.2,056 Correct Ans: C

Q34) A shopkeeper purchased an article for ₹7,200 and spent 9% of its cost on repairs. He sold it to Rajan for
₹8,100. What was the profit percentage on selling the article? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
A) 3.21% B) 3.12% C) 12.5% D) 2.91% Correct Ans: A

Q35) Two articles were sold for Rs.3,000 each, with no loss and profit in the entire transaction. If one was sold
at a profit of 25%, then the loss incurred on the second article is ________.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q36) A shopkeeper expects a gain of 36% on his cost price. If in a month, his sale was ₹6,14,856, then what
was his profit (in ₹)?
A) 1,62,756 B) 1,63,900 C) 1,61,235 D) 1,62,800 Correct Ans: A

Q37) By selling a mobile phone for ₹23,856, Ramesh gains 20%. If he sells it for ₹20,580, find his gain or loss
percentage (correct to two places of decimals).
A) Gain 3.52% B) Loss 3.52% C) Gain 5.32% D) Loss 5.32% Correct Ans: A

Q38) A shopkeeper sells goods at 82% loss on cost price but uses 28% less weight. What is his percentage
profit or loss?
A) 54% loss B) 54% profit C) 75% profit D) 75% loss Correct Ans: D

Q39) A shopkeeper normally makes a profit of 20% in a certain transaction; he weighed 900 gm instead of 1 kg
due to an error in the weighing machine. If he charges 15% less than what he normally charges, then
what is his actual profit or loss percentage?
A) 18.33% profit B) 13.33% profit C) 13.33% loss D) 18.00% loss Correct Ans: B

Q40) A vendor buys 20 laptop bags for ₹13,000 and sells them at 15 for ₹10,125. How many laptop bags should
be bought and sold to earn a profit of ₹3,225?
A) 123 B) 129 C) 120 D) 127 Correct Ans: B

Q41) A vendor buys 20 pens for ₹15 and sells them at 15 for ₹20. How many pens should be bought and sold to
earn a profit of ₹245?
A) 280 B) 540 C) 320 D) 420 Correct Ans: D

Q42) Reena makes a profit of 20% by selling pens at a certain price. If she charges ₹5 more on each pen, she
will gain 40%. The initial selling price of one pen was:
A) ₹20 B) ₹25 C) ₹30 D) ₹35 Correct Ans: C

Q43) An iron costing ₹758 was sold by Ramesh at a gain of 15%, and it was again sold by Reena, who bought it
from Ramesh, at a loss of 8%. Find the selling price of the iron for Reena (correct to two places of
decimals).
A) ₹808.69 B) ₹820.69 C) ₹810.96 D) ₹801.96 Correct Ans: D

Q44) To clear a stock of items, a seller gives an 8% discount on the marked price. He spends ₹x on the
promotion of the discount offer. His total cost of the items is ₹2,50,000 and the marked price is 10% more

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 than the cost price. Finally, he earns no profit or no loss. What is the value of x?
A) 7500 B) 3000 C) 6000 D) 4500 Correct Ans: B

Q45) Sachin purchases a watch from a dealer at some price and sells it at 20% profit. The next day he
purchases the same watch and marks up the price by 75% and offers a discount of 30%. What is the
change in the percentage in the profit that Sachin receives on day 2?
A) 20% B) 22.5% C) 17% D) 12.5% Correct Ans: D

Q46) A shopkeeper claims to sell 450 kg rice at a cost price of ₹40 per kg but uses a weight of 900 grams
instead of a one kilogram weight. He makes a profit of ₹2,520 by selling the remaining rice in the black
market. The ratio of the black-market price to the original price per kg of rice is:
A) 9 : 4 B) 4 : 3 C) 10 : 7 D) 7 : 5 Correct Ans: D

Q47) During the lockdown, a state government gives 4.5 kg of rice to each person of a family at a cost price of
₹40 per kg. But the distributor uses false weight of 3.75 kg instead of 4.5 kg and distributes the rice. The
accumulated rice was sold in the black market at double the price. He showed the government that he
distributed 2700 kg of rice. When caught, he was made to pay a fine of 125% of what he earned in the
black market. What was his fine amount?
A) ₹36,000 B) ₹45,000 C) ₹28,000 D) ₹54,000 Correct Ans: B

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics
Simple &Compound
Interest
250+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

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 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

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 Simple and Compound Interest
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) How many years will it take for ₹8,400 to amount to ₹11,928 at a simple interest rate of 7% per annum?
A) 8 B) 5 C) 2 D) 6 Correct Ans: D

Q2) If the simple interest on ₹7,200 in 3 years at the rate of 16% per annum equals the simple interest on ₹9,600
at the rate of x% per annum in 4 years. The value of x is equal to:
A) 9 B) 11 C) 8 D) 10 Correct Ans: A

Q3) The simple interest on a sum for 6 years is three-fifth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is:
A) 3% B) 7% C) 10% D) 5% Correct Ans: C

Q4) The difference between the simple interests on the principal of ₹500 at an interest rate of 5% per annum for
3 years and 4% per annum for 4 years is:
A) ₹7.5 B) ₹5 C) ₹15 D) ₹10 Correct Ans: B

Q5) If a sum of ₹5,000 is taken at a simple rate of interest of 15% per annum for 3 years and another sum of
₹8,000 is taken at a simple interest of 12% per annum for 4 years, the positive difference of the interests
paid is:
A) ₹1,643 B) ₹1,590 C) ₹1,286 D) ₹1,378 Correct Ans: B

Q6) The simple interest on a sum for 8 years is three-fifth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is:
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q7)

A) 20% p.a. B) 18% p.a. C) 17% p.a. D) 19% p.a. Correct Ans: A

Q8)

A) 8 years B) 5 years C) 4 years D) 2 years Correct Ans: A

Q9) What principal would amount to ₹21,420 in 2 years at the rate of 9.5% p.a. simple interest?
A) ₹11,273 B) ₹12,000 C) ₹18,000 D) ₹16,000 Correct Ans: C

Q10) A sum of ₹1,456, when invested for ten years, amounts to ₹2,366 on maturity. Find the rate of simple
interest per annum that was to be paid on the sum invested.
A) 5.75% B) 6.5% C) 6.25% D) 6.15% Correct Ans: C

Q11) A certain sum of money is given at a certain rate of simple interest for 6 years. Had it been given at 7%
higher rate, it would have fetched ₹1,512 more. Find the sum (in ₹).

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A) 3,200 B) 3,600 C) 3,100 D) 4,200 Correct Ans: B

Q12) A total of ₹2,00,000 is divided into two parts for investing in different banks on simple interest. One yields
4% p.a. while the other yields 6% p.a. If the total interest at the end of one year is equivalent to 4.7% p.a.
on the whole amount, the amount (in ₹) invested in each bank is ________, respectively.
A) 1,30,000 and 70,000 B) 1,45,000 and 55,000 C) 1,20,000 and 80,000 D) 1,60,000 and 40,000 Correct Ans: A

Q13) Ramu lent ₹3,000 to Raju and a certain sum to Ravi at the same time and at the same rate of simple
interest of 8% per annum. After 5 years, he received a sum of ₹1,600 from Raju and Ravi together as
interest. Find the sum lent to Ravi.
A) ₹1,000 B) ₹1,250 C) ₹1,200 D) ₹1,500 Correct Ans: A

Q14) Kiran lent ₹4,000 to two persons such that one part of it at the rate of 8% per annum and the remaining
part at the rate of 10% per annum. He got an annual simple interest of ₹352. Then the sum lent at 10% is:
A) ₹1,800 B) ₹2,200 C) ₹2,400 D) ₹1,600 Correct Ans: D

Q15)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q16) A sum of ₹10,000 is taken as a loan by Rajesh at a rate of 15% p.a. simple interest for 2 years. But Rajesh
could not repay it at the agreed time and asked for an extension of two more years. So, the lender
included the interest amount for the period as principal for the next two years at the same rate of interest.
The total amount paid by Rajesh at the end of 4 years is:
A) ₹18,590 B) ₹16,900 C) ₹17,650 D) ₹15,630 Correct Ans: B

Q17) Ramesh has ₹18,000. He deposited ₹7,000 in a bank at the rate of 5% per annum and ₹6,000 in other bank
at the rate of 6% per annum simple interest. If he received ₹1,160 as simple interest at the end of one year,
then the rate of interest per annum on rest of the capital is equal to:
A) 10% B) 11% C) 9% D) 8% Correct Ans: C

Q18) A certain sum of money becomes seven times itself when invested at a certain rate of simple interest, in
14 years. How much time (in years, rounded off to 2 decimal places) will it take to become 18 times itself
at the same rate?
A) 27.33 B) 39.67 C) 42.78 D) 35.5 Correct Ans: B

Q19) Aman invested a sum of money in scheme A at the rate of 8% p.a. for a period of 5 years on simple
interest. He invested four times of the sum of scheme A in scheme B at the rate of 5% p.a. for 7 years on
simple interest. He received a total interest amount of ₹1,620. How much (in ₹) did he invest in scheme B?
A) 2,400 B) 900 C) 3,200 D) 3,600 Correct Ans: D

Q20) In how much time (in years, rounded off to 2 decimal places) will ₹10,800 amount to ₹24,800 if invested at
simple interest at the rate of 15.5% per annum?
A) 7.72 B) 8.36 C) 9.54 D) 6.89 Correct Ans: B

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Q21) If ₹1,875 becomes ₹2,625 in 4 years, what will ₹24,000 become at the end of 9 years at the same rate of
interest, under simple interest?
A) ₹45,600 B) ₹21,600 C) ₹34,800 D) ₹43,200 Correct Ans: A

Q22) What annual instalment will discharge a debt of ₹26,160 due in 4 years at 6% simple interest p.a.?
A) ₹4,500 B) ₹5,500 C) ₹6,000 D) ₹5,800 Correct Ans: C

Q23) Simple interest on a certain sum is one-fifth of the sum and the interest rate per cent per annum is 5
times the number of years. If the rate of interest increases by 3%, then how much will the simple interest
(in ₹) be on ₹5,600 for 6 years?
A) 4668 B) 4168 C) 4268 D) 4368 Correct Ans: D

Q24) The interest accrued on a sum of ₹16,000 lent at a simple interest rate of 14% p.a. for the time in those
many years, which gives a simple interest of three-fifths of a certain sum at 10% p.a., is:
A) ₹13,440 B) ₹12,970 C) ₹15,360 D) ₹14,280 Correct Ans: A

Q25) In a bank, 6% interest is given on the deposited amount. The bank then invests the money in the stock
market and is able to earn ₹30,000 for every ₹3,00,000. How much money is the bank earning finally if the
total amount deposited in the bank is ₹60,00,000?
A) ₹3,00,000 B) ₹6,40,000 C) ₹2,40,000 D) ₹3,60,000 Correct Ans: C

Q26) A trader owes a merchant ₹9,810 due in 1 year, but the trader wants to settle the account after 6 months.
If the rate of simple interest is 9% per annum, how much cash (in ₹) should he pay?
A) 9,550 B) 9,450 C) 9,540 D) 9,405 Correct Ans: D

Q27) A customer pays ₹975 in instalments. The payment is done each month ₹5 less than the previous month.
If the first instalment is ₹100, how much time will be taken to pay the entire amount?
A) 14 months B) 15 months C) 27 months D) 26 months Correct Ans: B

Q28) A cell phone is available for Rs.600 or for Rs.300 cash down payment together with Rs.360 to be paid
after two months. Find the rate of interest charged under this scheme.
A) 60% B) 120% C) 20% D) 50% Correct Ans: B

Q29) Sohan borrows a sum of ₹1,41,545 at the rate of 11% per annum simple interest. At the end of the first
year, he repays ₹25,490 towards return of principal amount borrowed. If Sohan clears all pending dues at
the end of the second year, including interest payment that accrued during the first year, how much does
he pay (in ₹) at the end of the second year?
A) 1,44,391 B) 1,36,453 C) 1,41,222 D) 1,37,407 Correct Ans: A

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1) An amount invested fetched a total simple interest of ₹4,050 at the rate of 9% per annum in 5 years. What is
the amount invested (in ₹)?
A) 9,000 B) 8,300 C) 7,500 D) 9,050 Correct Ans: A

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q3)

A) 5% B) 15% C) 10% D) 20% Correct Ans: C

Q4) How much simple interest will ₹5,000 earn in 14 months at a 12% interest rate per annum?
A) ₹600 B) ₹800 C) ₹700 D) ₹500 Correct Ans: C

Q5) An amount of ₹50,000 becomes ₹72,000 in 4 years on a simple rate of interest. The rate of interest is _____
per annum.
A) 9% B) 10% C) 11% D) 12% Correct Ans: C

Q6) The simple interest on the sum for 12 years is three-fifth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is:
A) 4% B) 6% C) 5% D) 3% Correct Ans: C

Q7) A man invested a sum of ₹5,000 on simple interest for 5 years such that the rate of interest for the first 2
years is 10% per annum, for the next 3 years it is 12% per annum How much interest (in ₹), will he earn at
the end of 5 years?
A) 3180 B) 2800 C) 3000 D) 2450 Correct Ans: B

Q8) In how many years will a sum of ₹4,250 yield a simple interest of ₹510 at a rate of 6% per annum?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q9) If the ratio of principal and simple interest for 5 years is 10 : 7, then the rate of interest per annum is:
A) 10% B) 15% C) 14% D) 11% Correct Ans: C

Q10)

A) 35 years B) 34 years C) 33 years D) 37 years Correct Ans: A

Q11) What is the present worth of ₹2,400 due in 4 years at a rate of 5% simple interest per annum?
A) ₹2,240 B) ₹2,000 C) ₹2,456 D) ₹2,200 Correct Ans: B

Q12)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q13) An equal sum of money was lent to P and Q at 8.6% per annum for a period of 7 years and 8 years,
respectively. If the difference in interest paid by them was ₹172, then the sum lent to each was:
A) ₹3,000 B) ₹2,150 C) ₹185 D) ₹2,000 Correct Ans: D

Q14) A sum becomes ₹6,600 in 4 years at simple interest at a yearly interest rate of 5% per annum. What is the
sum?
A) ₹4,400 B) ₹3,300 C) ₹5,500 D) ₹6,000 Correct Ans: C

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Q15) Reshma took a loan of ₹12,00,000 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid
₹9,72,000 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest per annum ?
A) 7.5% B) 8% C) 8.7% D) 9% Correct Ans: D

Q16) What will be the amount due on ₹36,000 in 2 years when the rate of simple interest for successive years is
8% and 6%, respectively?
A) ₹38,880 B) ₹40,320 C) ₹41,760 D) ₹41,040 Correct Ans: D

Q17)

A) ₹1,500, 12% B) ₹1,200, 10% C) ₹1,500, 15% D) ₹1,200, 12% Correct Ans: A

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q19) A certain sum of money is lent out at simple interest. If that money becomes ₹24,000 in 2 years and
₹32,000 in 4 years, the annual rate of interest is:
A) 30% B) 16% C) 25% D) 20% Correct Ans: C

Q20) What will be the amount due on ₹12,000 in 2 years when the rate of simple interest on successive years is
9% and 10%, respectively?
A) ₹14,250 B) ₹14,280 C) ₹14,350 D) ₹14,150 Correct Ans: B

Q21) If a sum of ₹3,260 on simple interest amounts to ₹5,420 in 6 years, then what will this sum amount to in 4
years at the same rate of interest?
A) ₹4,700 B) ₹3,700 C) ₹3,900 D) ₹4,500 Correct Ans: A

Q22)

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: B

Q23) A sum of money becomes five times its original value in 15 years when invested at a certain simple
interest rate. If the sum was invested twice the time at the same rate of interest, what would be the final
amount?
A) The money becomes 7 times its original value B) The money becomes 9 times its original value

C) The money becomes 6 times its original value D) The money becomes 8 times its original value

Correct Ans: B

Q24)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q25) A person borrowed some money at the rate of 8% per annum for the first two years, at the rate of 11% per
annum for the next three years, and at the rate of 16% per annum for the period beyond five years. If he
pays a total interest of ₹21,400 at the end of nine years, how much money did he borrow (round to the
nearest unit) ?
A) ₹11,938 B) ₹18,738 C) ₹15,938 D) ₹18,938 Correct Ans: D

Q26) A laptop charger is sold for Rs.2,540 in cash or for a down payment of Rs.1,340 in cash together with
Rs.1,205 to be paid after one month. Find the rate of interest charged in the instalment scheme.
A) 20% p.a. B) 10% p.a. C) 5% p.a. D) 15% p.a. Correct Ans: C

Q27) A clock is sold for ₹550 cash or in the instalment scheme, for ₹250 cash down payment and ₹310 after
one month. Find the rate of interest charged in the instalment scheme.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q28)

A) 24 B) 20 C) 22 D) 25 Correct Ans: D

Q29) Find the total amount of debt that will be discharged by 5 equal instalments of ₹200 each, if the debt is
due in 5 years at 5% p.a. at simple interest.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q30) Rahna decided to buy a scooty that costs ₹40,000. The shopkeeper agreed to sell the scooty under the
condition of ₹25,000 cash down payment of ₹4,000 each month for four months. Find the rate of interest
at which the shopkeeper sold the scooty under the instalment scheme.

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
A) 290 B) 390 C) 350 D) 310 Correct Ans: C

Q2) Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 2 years.
A) 210 B) 290 C) 250 D) 190 Correct Ans: C

Q3) Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2500 as a sum borrowed at 5% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
A) 790 B) 710 C) 750 D) 690 Correct Ans: C

Q4) Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹3000 as a sum borrowed at 7% per year rate of interest for 6 years.
A) 1200 B) 1220 C) 1300 D) 1260 Correct Ans: D

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Q5) What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by a certain amount at the same rate of interest for 12 years
and that for 15 years?
A) 2 : 5 B) 3 : 4 C) 2 : 3 D) 4 : 5 Correct Ans: D

Q6) What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹360 in 3 years at 16% per year rate of interest?
A) 1000 B) 750 C) 1500 D) 375 Correct Ans: B

Q7) In how many years will ₹4,000 invested at the rate of 18% per annum simple interest amounts to ₹5,800?
A) 2.5 B) 2 C) 3.5 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

Q8) What sum of money (in₹)will produce ₹75 as simple interest in 4 years at %per annum?

A) 1,240 B) 1,210 C) 1,200 D) 1,250 Correct Ans: D

Q9) The simple interest on a sum of₹4,200 at the end of 3 years is₹756. What will be the simple
interest (in₹) on₹5,400 at the same rate and for the same time period?
A) 972 B) 987 C) 998 D) 980 Correct Ans: A

Q10) What sum (in ₹) will earn a simple interest of ₹240 in 4 years at 12% per year rate of interest?
A) 500 B) 1000 C) 250 D) 750 Correct Ans: A

Q11) A sum of money was lent on simple interest. After 7 years it’s simple interest became of it. Find the

rate of interest per annum.

A) 5% B) 10% C) 8% D) 12% Correct Ans: B

Q12) Ram borrowed ₹20,000 at 6% per annum and ₹25,000 at 8% per annum, for the same duration. He had to
pay ₹9,600 in all as interest. What is the time period?
A) 2 years B) 5 years C) 4 years D) 3 years Correct Ans: D

Q13) The money invested by Gopal at simple interest amounts to ₹16,150 in 3 years and to ₹16,540 in 4 years.
What was the principal amount invested by him?
A) ₹14,980 B) ₹18,150 C) ₹11,150 D) ₹16,150 Correct Ans: A

Q14) At what rate percent per annum on simple interest will ₹760 amount to ₹912 in 5 years?
A) 6% B) 4% C) 5% D) 3% Correct Ans: B

Q15) Kumar took a loan from a bank at the rate of 9.5% per annum at simple interest. After 6 years he had to
pay ₹3,705 as interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was:
A) ₹8,200 B) ₹5,800 C) ₹6,500 D) ₹2,100 Correct Ans: C

Q16) The difference between simple interests on a certain sum at the annual rate of 6% for 6 years and 8% for 8
years is ₹1,176. What is the sum?
A) ₹4,200 B) ₹3,800 C) ₹4,400 D) ₹4,000 Correct Ans: A

Q17) Find the simple interest on₹550 for 8 months at 3 paise per rupee per month?

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A) ₹130 B) ₹131 C) ₹134 D) ₹132 Correct Ans: D

Q18) For what sum will the simple interest at per annum be 210 in years?

A) ₹2,250 B) ₹1,600 C) ₹2,400 D) ₹1,980 Correct Ans: C

Q19) For a sum of ₹15,000 the rate of interest of 8.5% per annum simple interest, find the interest earned (in ₹)
in 5 years 3 months.
A) 6,693.75 B) 21,693.75 C) 21,375 D) 6,375 Correct Ans: A

Q20) The simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate of 5% per annum for 9 years is ₹1,260. At what
rate of interest can the same amount of interest be received on the same sum after 6 years?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q21) How long (in years) will it take for a sum of money invested at 4% per annum on simple interest to
increase its value by 30%?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q22) Simple interest on a given sum for 3 years at a rate of 17% per year is ₹7,140 less than the simple interest
on the same sum for 5 years. Find the sum.
A) ₹22,000 B) ₹23,000 C) ₹20,000 D) ₹21,000 Correct Ans: D

Q23)
A) 360 B) 240 C) 405 D) 540 Correct Ans: A

Q24) A sum of ₹12,000 becomes double at simple interest in 7 years at a certain rate of simple interest. Find
the time (in years) it takes for the amount to become ₹60,000 at the same rate of interest.
A) 25 B) 30 C) 20 D) 28 Correct Ans: D

Q25) At a certain rate of simple interest, a sum becomes ₹9,430 in 3 years and ₹11,070 in 7 years. Find the sum.
A) ₹7,800 B) ₹8,000 C) ₹8,350 D) ₹8,200 Correct Ans: D

Q26) The simple interest on a sum is of the principal for 21 years. What is the rate (in percentage) of

interest per annum? (Rounded to two decimal places)

A) 3.21 B) 3.97 C) 2.56 D) 4.26 Correct Ans: C

Q27) Rakesh obtained a simple interest of ₹3,195 on a certain principal in 6 years at the rate of 15% per annum.
What amount of simple interest would he get if he invested ₹1,250 more than the previous principal for 3
years at the same rate of interest?
A) ₹2,255 B) ₹2,050 C) ₹2,160 D) ₹2,400 Correct Ans: C

Q28)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q29) A specific amount of money is loaned out at a simple interest rate, resulting in ₹15,000 in 2 years and
₹20,000 in 4 years. The rate percentage per annum is:
A) 20% B) 25% C) 15% D) 18% Correct Ans: B

Q30) A person lent a sum of ₹30,000 on simple interest for 12 years, with an interest rate of 8% per annum for
the first 4 years, 10% per annum for the next 3 years, and 15% per annum for last 5 years. How much
interest (in ₹) will he earn at the end of 12 years?
A) 40800 B) 41100 C) 40200 D) 38000 Correct Ans: B

Q31) Raghu lends ₹9,600 and ₹11,800 at simple interest to two different persons for the same time at the rate of
7% per annum and 8% per annum, respectively. If he had received ₹9,696 as total interest from both, find
the time period for which the amounts were lent.
A) 10 years B) 8 years C) 6 years D) 12 years Correct Ans: C

Q32) The simple interest on a certain deposit at 5.5% per annum is ₹264 in one year. How much additional
interest will be earned in one year on the same deposit at 6.5% per annum?
A) ₹49 B) ₹46.5 C) ₹47.5 D) ₹48 Correct Ans: D

Q33) After how many years will a sum of ₹8,925 at simple interest fetch a total amount of ₹12,941.25 at the rate
of 9% per annum?
A) 6 years B) 5 years C) 3 years D) 4 years Correct Ans: B

Q34)
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q35) Rohit invested a sum of money at simple interest and it became double itself in years. The rate of
interest per annum was:
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q36) Rakesh rented out an amount to Samarth for 6 years at simple interest rate. At the end of the 6th year,
Samarth paid of the amount to Rakesh to clear out the amount. The rate of simple interest per annum

was:
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q37) Rohan deposited ₹500 for 2 years, ₹650 for 4 years and ₹1,300 for 6 years, at the same rate of interest. He
received the total simple interest of ₹1,140. What is the rate of interest per annum?
A) 11% B) 9.5% C) 10% D) 10.5% Correct Ans: C

Q38) A sum was deposited at a certain rate of simple interest for 4 years. If it had been a 5% higher rate of
interest, then it would have amounted to ₹5,200 more. The sum deposited is:
A) ₹10,400 B) ₹25,000 C) ₹26,000 D) ₹13,000 Correct Ans: C

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Q39) Sharad invested two equal amounts for 6 years and 3 years at the rate of 7% and 9% per annum,
respectively. The sum of their simple interest is ₹1,587. The invested amount (in ₹) by Sharad is:
A) 4,374 B) 4,550 C) 4,600 D) 4,650 Correct Ans: C

Q40) A borrows ₹89,500 for 3 years at 7% p.a. simple interest. B borrows the same amount at simple interest of
9% for the first year, 8% for the second year, and 7% for the third year. What is the total simple interest (in
₹) paid by A and B?
A) 42,075 B) 40,275 C) 47,025 D) 45,027 Correct Ans: B

Q41) How long (in months) will it take a sum of money invested at 5% per annum on simple interest to increase
its value by 22.5%?
A) 44 B) 54 C) 50 D) 48 Correct Ans: B

Q42) Lokesh received an amount of ₹10,500 in 5 years, including simple interest, on a principal amount of
₹7,500. What would be the total amount he receives if the interest rate is increased by 4%?
A) ₹12,000 B) ₹12,595 C) ₹11,500 D) ₹12,550 Correct Ans: A

Q43) A person borrow some money on simple interest. After 15 years, the simple interest will be of the

borrowed amount. What is the rate of interest per annum?

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: C

Q44) A borrows ₹7,500 for 4 years at 8% p.a. simple interest. B borrows the same amount at simple interest of
9% for the first year, 10% for the second year and 6% for the next two years. What is simple interest paid
by A and B in total (in ₹)?
A) 4,545 B) 4,175 C) 4,725 D) 4,275 Correct Ans: C

Q45) Ram borrows a sum of ₹24,000 from his friend Soham on 31December 2021 on the condition that he will
return the same after one year with simple interest at 18% per annum. However, Ram is able to return the
money on 1August 2022. What amount does Ram have to return to Soham?
A) ₹26,520 B) ₹26,250 C) ₹25,520 D) ₹25,250 Correct Ans: A

Q46) A sum invested at 5% simple interest per annum grows to ₹806 in 6 years. If the amount remains the
same, how much will it grow at a 12% simple interest rate in 5 years?
A) ₹992 B) ₹1,000 C) ₹1,120 D) ₹985 Correct Ans: A

Q47) The simple interest on a certain sum for 4 years at 23% per annum is ₹11,960 less than the simple interest
on the same sum for 8 years. Find the sum.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q48) ₹7,000 becomes₹7,567 in 2 years at simple interest at a certain rate percentage. Find the principal amount
(in₹) that will become₹24,050 in 5 years at the same rate of interest.
A) 20,000 B) 24,000 C) 18,300 D) 12,500 Correct Ans: A

Q49) A person deposited ₹2,500 in a bank that pays 8% simple interest. He withdrew ₹1,000 (from
amount) at the end of the first year. What will be his balance after 4 years?

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A) ₹2,018 B) ₹2,280 C) ₹2,108 D) ₹2,480 Correct Ans: C

Q50) A sum of₹2,380 is lent out into two parts, one at 25% p.a. and another at 20% p.a. . If the total annual income
is₹500, find the money (in ₹) lent at 25% rate.
A) 560 B) 240 C) 480 D) 320 Correct Ans: C

Q51) A certain sum of money will be ₹10,800 in 5 years. If simple interest is two-third of the principal, then the
rate of interest p.a. is equal to:
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q52) A sum of money amounts to ₹7,436 after 6 years and ₹9,460 after 10 years at the same rate of simple
interest. Find the rate of interest per annum.
A) 11.5% B) 12% C) 12.5% D) 13% Correct Ans: A

Q53) A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ₹2,500 in three years and ₹3,000 in five years. What is the
rate of interest (correct up to two decimal places)?
A) 15% B) 14.29% C) 13.56% D) 14.25% Correct Ans: B

Q54) A money lender lent out ₹40,000 in two parts, one at 7% p.a. and the other at 6% p.a.. If the total annual
simple interest on the amount is ₹2,550, what is the amount of money lent at 7%?
A) ₹26,000 B) ₹21,000 C) ₹15,000 D) ₹18,000 Correct Ans: C

Q55) A person invested a certain sum of money at 6% per annum simple interest and another sum at 8% per
annum simple interest at the same time. After 4 years, he received interest ₹1,560 from both sums. One-
fifth of the first sum is equal to one-sixth of the second sum. Find the total sum invested.
A) ₹5,500 B) ₹5,000 C) ₹4,500 D) ₹6,000 Correct Ans: A

Q56) A sum of ₹717 becomes ₹874.74 in 5 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If the rate of interest is
increased by 3.1%, then what will be the simple interest (in ₹) of ₹717 in 5 years?
A) 211.115 B) 268.875 C) 201.135 D) 279.125 Correct Ans: B

Q57) Arun has taken some money as loan on simple interest for 6 years. The money lender levied interest at
4% per annum for the first 2 years, at 8% per annum for the next 3 years and at 12% per annum for the
period beyond 5 years. If Arun clears his loan by paying ₹5,472, then what was the sum (in ₹) he had
taken as loan?
A) 12,436 B) 3,800 C) 6,840 D) 3,040 Correct Ans: B

Q58) A cooperative society increases the annual rate of simple interest from 10% to 16½
%, then the yearly income of a person increases by ₹1,077.70. The simple interest
(in₹) on the sum at 10% for four years will be:
A) 16,580 B) 9,120.3 C) 6,632 D) 8,240 Correct Ans: C

Q59) The simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of 12.5% p.a. for 3 years and 6 months is ₹6,750 less than
the principal. Find out the principal.
A) ₹10,650 B) ₹12,350 C) ₹10,000 D) ₹12,000 Correct Ans: D

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Q60) Vipul, Ashima, and Priya invested a total of ₹21,000 at 3%, 6%, and 5% per annum, respectively, on simple
interest. If at the end of the year, all three persons received an equal amount of interest, then the amount
(in ₹) invested by Ashima is:
A) 5,000 B) 2,000 C) 3,000 D) 4,000 Correct Ans: A

Q61) Divyansh invested of his capital at 10%, at 20% and the remaining at 30% simple interest
per annum, respectively. If his annual income is₹3,220, then find the capital (in₹).
A) 15,300 B) 17,000 C) 14,000 D) 13,500 Correct Ans: C

Q62)
A) 31 : 48 B) 48 : 31 C) 91 : 33 D) 33 : 91 Correct Ans: D

Q63) A sum of money invested at simple interest becomes 5 times in 12 years. How many times will it become
in 27 years?
A) 11 B) 12 C) 10 D) 9 Correct Ans: C

Q64)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q1) In how many years will ₹2,500 be invested at the rate of 12% per annum simple interest, which amounts to
₹4,900?
A) 2 B) 8 C) 6 D) 4 Correct Ans: B

Q2) The simple interest on a certain sum for 4 years at 14% per annum is ₹6,160 less than the simple interest
on the same sum at the same rate for 8 years. Find the sum.
A) ₹10,000 B) ₹9,000 C) ₹11,000 D) ₹12,000 Correct Ans: C

Q3) A certain sum of money is given at a certain rate of simple interest for 4 years. Had it been given at 11%
higher rate for the same time, it would have fetched ₹1320 more. Find the sum (in ₹).
A) 2500 B) 3000 C) 4580 D) 3240 Correct Ans: B

Q4) A sum of money at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years does the sum become 8
times of itself at the same rate of interest?
A) 15 B) 12 C) 8 D) 10 Correct Ans: B

Q5) A person deposited some amount of money in the bank at simple interest. After 20 years, the amount
became nine times the amount deposited. In how many years will the amount become 13 times the amount
if the interest rate remains the same?
A) 30 B) 25 C) 28 D) 23 Correct Ans: A

Q6) A person borrowed ₹ 1760 at 6% per annum and ₹ 2240 at 9% per annum at simple interest for the same
period. He had to pay ₹ 1536 in all as interest. Find the time (in years).
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

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Q7) A man borrowed ₹29,000 for 3 years and ₹45,000 for 5 years at the same rate of simple interest. If he paid a
total interest of ₹62,400, then what was the rate of interest?
A) 27% B) 18% C) 25% D) 20% Correct Ans: D

Q8) Sita takes a loan of Rs.35,000 at an interest rate of 10% compound interest, compounded annually. She
agrees to pay two equal instalments in 2 years, one instalment at the end of each year. Find the value of
each instalment.(Round off to the nearest integer)
A) ₹20,167 B) ₹40,167 C) ₹10,167 D) ₹30,167 Correct Ans: A

Q9) If the simple interest on a certain sum of money for 20 months at the rate of 19.2% per annum exceeds the
simple interest on the same sum for 15 months at the rate of 11.2% p.a. by ₹2,920, then what is the sum (in
₹, to the nearest hundreds)?
A) 16,620 B) 12,660 C) 16,200 D) 16,660 Correct Ans: C

Q10) What annual instalment will discharge a debt of ₹10,192 due in 3 years at 10% simple interest?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q11) A part of ₹48,500 is invested at a simple interest of 15% per annum. The rest of the money is invested at
the rate of 10% simple interest per annum after 2 years of the first investment. The ratio of interest after 5
years from the time when the first amount was invested is 5 : 3. How much is the second part that was
invested( in ₹) at the rate of 10% simple interest?
A) 20,940 B) 29,100 C) 24,900 D) 19,400 Correct Ans: B

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q2)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q3)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q9)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q10)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q11)

A) 7 percent B) 3.5 percent C) 4 percent D) 2 percent Correct Ans: C

Q12)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q17)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q19)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q20)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q21)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q23)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q24)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q25)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q26)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q27)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q28)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q29)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q30)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q31)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q32)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q33)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q34)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q35)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q36)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q37)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q38)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q39)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q40)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q41)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q42)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q43)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q44)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q45)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q46)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q47)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q48)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q49)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q50)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q51)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q52)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q53)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q54)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q55)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q56)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q57)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q58)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q59)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q60)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q61)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q62)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q63)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q64)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q65)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q66)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q67)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q68)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q69)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q70)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q71)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q72)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q73)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q74)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q75)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q76)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q77)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q78)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q79)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q80)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q81)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q82)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q83)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Selection Post XII

Q1) Find the simple interest on ₹15,000 at the rate of 7% p.a. for 3 years.
A) ₹3,000 B) ₹3,100 C) ₹3,150 D) ₹3,120 Correct Ans: C

Q2) Manish invested a certain sum of money at 10% per annum simple interest. If he receives an interest of
₹72780 after 1 year, the sum (in ₹) he invested is:
A) 728383 B) 727812 C) 727925 D) 727800 Correct Ans: D

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Q3) A sum of ₹5,575 is invested at the rate of 8% simple interest per annum for 4 years. What will be the
interest (in ₹) payable on maturity?
A) 1776 B) 1784 C) 1782 D) 1788 Correct Ans: B

Q4) An amount will be triple itself in 15 years at a certain rate of simple interest per annum. The rate of interest
per annum is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q5) In what duration (in years) will ₹1,500 amount to ₹2,250 at simple interest 10% per annum?
A) 5.5 B) 5 C) 3 D) 3.5 Correct Ans: B

Q6) A bank gives ₹1,500 as simple interest in one year on an amount of ₹60,000. What is the annual rate of
simple interest (in percentage)?
A) 3 B) 5.5 C) 2.5 D) 3.5 Correct Ans: C

Q7) Manoj earned Rs.6,075 as simple interest on a certain sum at 9% per annum after 5 years. Find the sum
invested by him.
A) Rs.13,500 B) Rs.13,750 C) Rs.12,600 D) Rs.12,250 Correct Ans: A

Q8) Suresh invested a certain sum of money at 5% per annum simple interest. If he receives an interest of
₹69687 after 15 year, the sum (in ₹) he invested is:
A) 92916 B) 92880 C) 92456 D) 92530 Correct Ans: A

Q9)
A) ₹740 B) ₹750 C) ₹720 D) ₹730 Correct Ans: C

Q10) The difference between the simple interest on a sum of money for 3½ years at the rate of 12% per annum
and simple interest on the same sum of money for 4 ½ years at 10% per annum is ₹360. Find the sum(in
₹).
A) 16,000 B) 12,000 C) 14,000 D) 10,000 Correct Ans: B

Q11)

A) 5% B) 2% C) 7% D) 3% Correct Ans: B

Q12) A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 4 years. Had it been put at 5% higher rate, it would
have fetched ₹520 more. Find the sum.
A) ₹2,400 B) ₹2,600 C) ₹2,200 D) ₹2,000 Correct Ans: B

Q13) A bank gives simple interest at the rate of 4.5% per annum. How much money (in ₹) should a person
deposit to get ₹7,500 as interest every year?
A) 1,66,666.67 B) 2,66,666.67 C) 1,33,333.33 D) 2,33,333.33 Correct Ans: A

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Q14) A sum of ₹2,400 gives a simple interest of ₹378 in 2 years 4 months. What is the rate of interest per
annum?
A) 7.05% B) 6.75% C) 6.85% D) 6.95% Correct Ans: B

Q15) On a deposit of ₹1,50,000, R gets ₹2,000 as interest on simple rate of interest in a year. How much amount
(in ₹) should he deposit to get interest of ₹4,500?
A) 4,25,500 B) 3,37,500 C) 2,77,500 D) 3,77,500 Correct Ans: B

Q16) A sum of money invested at simple interest amounts to ₹1,01,264 in 3 years and to ₹1,01,654 in 4 years.
What was the sum invested (in ₹)?
A) 2,01,094 B) 1,01,094 C) 1,00,194 D) 1,00,094 Correct Ans: D

Q17) Rohan buys a bike priced at ₹95,000. He pays ₹25,000 at once and the rest after 18 months, on which he
is charged a simple interest at the rate of 10% per annum. The total amount (in ₹) he pays for the bike is:
A) 1,23,200 B) 1,05,500 C) 1,03,500 D) 1,02,320 Correct Ans: B

Q18)

A) 33.96% B) 23.96% C) 43.96% D) 53.96% Correct Ans: A

Q19) What equal instalment of annual payment (in ₹) will discharge a debt that is due as ₹624 at the end of 5
years at 2% per annum simple interest?
A) 120 B) 150 C) 180 D) 240 Correct Ans: A

Q20) A loan of ₹2,550 is to be paid back in two equal half-yearly instalments. How much is each instalment if
the interest is compounded half-yearly at 8% p.a.?
A) ₹1,258 B) ₹1,352 C) ₹1,745 D) ₹1,457 Correct Ans: B

Q21) ₹1,380 has to be paid after 4 years. If four equal instalments are required with a simple interest of 10% on
each instalment, then what is the value of each instalment?
A) ₹500 B) ₹200 C) ₹400 D) ₹300 Correct Ans: D

Q22) ₹50,000 is deposited in a bank account. There was already some money in the account. Now the bank
gives ₹7,500 as simple interest in a year. The rate of simple interest is 4.5% per annum. How much money
(in ₹) was already there in the account?
A) 1,66,666.67 B) 1,16,666.67 C) 1,13,333.33 D) 1,33,333.33 Correct Ans: B

Q23) What annual installment will discharge a debt of ₹5,460 due in 5 years at 10% simple interest per annum?
A) ₹1,200 B) ₹910 C) ₹1,092 D) ₹950 Correct Ans: B

Q24) A borrows ₹20,000 from B and C. B lends him a certain sum of money at 25% simple interest per annum,
while C lends him the remaining sum of money at 21% simple interest per annum. The total interest paid
by A in one year is ₹4,500. The sum (in ₹) borrowed from B is:
A) 12,500 B) 6,000 C) 9,000 D) 7,500 Correct Ans: D

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Q25) A man has to discharge a debt of ₹15,600 which is due in 3 years at 4% simple interest per annum. If he
pays this amount in equal instalments of annual payment, find the amount for annual payment.
A) ₹5,100 B) ₹5,000 C) ₹5,400 D) ₹5,200 Correct Ans: B

Q26) The annual instalment (in ₹) to discharge a debt of ₹8,432 due in 4 years at 16% simple interest per
annum is:
A) 2,204 B) 1,527 C) 2,108 D) 1,700 Correct Ans: D

Q27) Mr Gogia invested an amount of ₹,13,900 divided into two different schemes A and B at the simple
interest rate of 14% pa and 11% pa, respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years is
₹3,508, what was the amount invested in scheme B?
A) ₹7,200 B) ₹7,500 C) ₹6,400 D) ₹6,500 Correct Ans: C

Q28) The simple interest on a certain sum is one-fifth of the sum and the interest rate per cent per annum is 3.2
times the number of years. If the rate of interest increases by 4%, then the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹7,500
for 4 years is:
A) 3,600 B) 3,000 C) 2,500 D) 5,100 Correct Ans: A

Q29) Find the amount of equal annual instalment, which will discharge a debt of Rs.40,376 due in 4 years at the
rate of 2% p.a. simple interest.
A) Rs.8,758 B) Rs.10,250 C) Rs.8,600 D) Rs.9,800 Correct Ans: D

Q30) What annual instalment will discharge a debt of Rs.3,658 due in four years at 12% simple interest per
annum?
A) Rs.725 B) Rs.825 C) Rs.750 D) Rs.775 Correct Ans: D

Q31) Sanjana borrows ₹16,000 at24% per annum simple interest and Savithri borrows ₹18,200 at 20% per
annum simple interest. In how many years will their amounts of debts be equal?
A) 10 B) 15 C) 12 D) 11 Correct Ans: D

Q32) The amount of debt that will be discharged by 5 equal monthly instalments of ₹1,845 each, at the rate of
48% simple interest per annum, is:
A) ₹9,468 B) ₹9,048 C) ₹9,936 D) ₹9,963 Correct Ans: D

Q33) An annual instalment of ₹3,500 will discharge a debt of ₹16,310 due in 4 years at y% simple interest per
annum. What is the value of y? [Note: Instalments will be paid at the end of Year 1, Year 2, Year 3 and Year
4.
A) 10.5 B) 16.5 C) 11.5 D) 11 Correct Ans: D

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Discount
200+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Discount
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) Two successive discounts of 40% and 30% are equal to a single discount of:
A) 70% B) 35% C) 58% D) 60% Correct Ans: C

Q2) The MP of an article was Rs.180 and it was sold at a discount of 15%, the discount in Rs. is:
A) 12 B) 15 C) 27 D) 18 Correct Ans: C

Q3) A shopkeeper allows 40% discount on his goods. He further gives 20% discount. What is the single
discount equivalent to these two successive discounts?
A) 62% B) 52% C) 60% D) 50% Correct Ans: B

Q4) If the successive discount by 10%,15%, then the single equivalent rate of discount is:
A) 32.3% B) 24.2% C) 43.4% D) 23.5% Correct Ans: D

Q5) If the selling price of an article is ₹1,792 after a 20% discount, then the marked price of the article is:
A) ₹2,140 B) ₹2,240 C) ₹2,160 D) ₹2,260 Correct Ans: B

Q6) In a clearance sale, a sari whose marked price was ₹10,490 is now sold for ₹9,441. What is the discount
percentage on the sari?
A) 10% B) 15% C) 18% D) 12% Correct Ans: A

Q7) During a new-year sale, a shopkeeper offers a discount scheme to his customers, ‘Buy 5 Sweaters, Get 2
Sweaters Free’. Find the effective percentage discount given by the shopkeeper.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q8) A shopkeeper, on the eve of Diwali, allowed a series of discounts on television sets. Find the selling price
of a television set, if the marked price of television is ₹1,200 and successive discounts are 15% and 10%.
A) ₹945 B) ₹918 C) ₹975 D) ₹965 Correct Ans: B

Q9) The marked price of a bed sheet is ₹500. At the time of its sale, two successive discounts of 10% and 5%
are available. Find the selling price (in ₹) of the bed sheet.
A) 432.50 B) 427.50 C) 445.00 D) 430.00 Correct Ans: B

Q10) A shopkeeper marked an article at ₹5,000. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 20%,15% and
10%. The selling price of the article is:
A) ₹2,750 B) ₹3,000 C) ₹2,800 D) ₹3,060 Correct Ans: D

Q11) The marked price of a TV set is ₹18,500. If the dealer allows two successive discounts of 20% and 5%, for
how much is the TV available?
A) ₹14,000 B) ₹15,000 C) ₹15,060 D) ₹14,060 Correct Ans: D

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Q12) Successive discounts of 10% and 20% are given on the purchase of a purse. If the marked price of the
purse is ₹2,250, find the selling price.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q13) The marked price of a revolving chair is ₹15,000. It is available on two successive discounts of 20% and
12%. What is its selling price (in ₹)?
A) 9,560 B) 10,560 C) 9,230 D) 10,230 Correct Ans: B

Q14) An article is marked at ₹550. If it is sold at a discount of 40%, then the selling price becomes 10% more
than its cost price. What is the cost price (in ₹)?

A) 220 B) 330 C) 300 D) 200 Correct Ans: C

Q15) The cost price of a bat is 75% of the marked price. Calculate the gain percentage after allowing a discount
of 15%.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q16) Rohini buys a Bluetooth headphone set for ₹1,700 from a wholesale shop and marks it at ₹2,000. Later on,
she allows a discount of 40% on its sale. What is her loss or gain percentage (correct up to two decimal
places)?
A) 25.19% loss B) 29.41% gain C) 29.41% loss D) 25.19% gain Correct Ans: C

Q17) The difference between a discount of 25% and two successive discounts of 15% and 20% on a certain bill
was ₹28. Find the amount of the bill.
A) ₹500 B) ₹400 C) ₹450 D) ₹550 Correct Ans: B

Q18) A bronze article having a marked price of ₹1,000 is sold during a festive season sale after three
successive discounts of 20% and 30% and 10%. What will be the amount (in ₹) to be paid by a customer if
she buys the article during the festival season?
A) 508 B) 564 C) 504 D) 496 Correct Ans: C

Q19) The single discount equivalent to a series discount of 60%, 70% and 80%.
A) 97.6% B) 70% C) 85% D) 95.5% Correct Ans: A

Q20) The marked price of an electronic watch in a store is ₹15,620 and it is available at a discount of 27%. What
is the price (in ₹, to the nearest tens) that a customer pays if he buys from the store?
A) 12,500 B) 11,400 C) 9,880 D) 10,800 Correct Ans: B

Q21) After offering two successive discounts a toy with a marked price of ₹150 is sold at ₹105. If the value of
the first discount is 12.5%, what is the value of the second discount?
A) 21% B) 18% C) 20% D) 22% Correct Ans: C

Q22) A person first increases the price of a commodity by 8% and then he announces a discount of 18%. The
actual discount (in%) on the original price is:
A) 11.44 B) 14.44 C) 9.44 D) 8.44 Correct Ans: A

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Q23) A cooker is marked at ₹12,500. The dealer allows successive discounts of 6%, 6% and 4% on it. What is
the net selling price of the cooker?
A) ₹10,603.20 B) ₹10,306 C) ₹12,230 D) ₹12,320.60 Correct Ans: A

Q24) If, on a marked price, the difference between selling prices with a discount of 65% and with two
successive discounts of 30% and 40% is ₹105, then the marked price (in ₹) is:
A) 1,650 B) 1,050 C) 1,500 D) 1,320 Correct Ans: C

Q25) A manufacturer announces a trade discount of 30% on his products for his dealers. One of the dealers
purchased 6 smart phones manufactured by the company at the rate of Rs.25,000 each. What is the
amount of trade discount?
A) Rs.50,000 B) Rs.55,000 C) Rs.1,05,000 D) Rs.45,000 Correct Ans: D

Q26) An article marked for ₹275 is sold at 5% discount. The seller still gains 4.5%. What did he pay for it?
A) ₹250 B) ₹125 C) ₹200 D) ₹225 Correct Ans: A

Q27) An article is sold for₹747 after successive discounts of 17% and x%. If the marked price of the article is₹1,600, what is the
value of x?
A) 32.26 B) 43.75 C) 22.12 D) 40.28 Correct Ans: B

Q28) Two successive percentage decrease of 25% each is by what percentage less than two successive
percentage increase of 25% each? (Round to two decimal places.)
A) 50% B) 43.75% C) 22.22% D) 56.25% Correct Ans: C

Q29) If Ram purchases a fan, he gets 8% discount, however, if he purchases three fans he gets 6% on the first,
10% on the second and 12% on the third. If the price paid by the Ram for three fans is ₹6,800, then what
will be the marked price of each fan?
A) ₹2,400 B) ₹2,500 C) ₹2,450 D) ₹2,550 Correct Ans: B

Q30) Amit and Bilal buy goods for ₹1,500 and ₹2,000, respectively. Amit marks his goods up by y%, while Bilal
marks his goods up by 2y% and offers a discount of y%. If both make the same profit, then find the value
of y.
A) 10.5 B) 12 C) 11.5 D) 12.5 Correct Ans: D

Q31) Ramesh purchased some items from a dealer on 19 November 2019. The bill generated was for ₹5,480. He
had also purchased some items on 10 November 2019 having the bill value of ₹9,800. He cleared both the
bills this time and paid the total amount in cash. If the dealer gives a scheme of 2% discount on the
payments done within 10 days and 5% for the payments made in cash at the time of purchase, then find
the amount paid by Ramesh on 19 November 2019.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q2)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q5)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q9)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q10)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q12)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q17)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1)
A) ₹665 B) ₹672 C) ₹655 D) ₹650 Correct Ans: B

Q2) A wholesale dealer announced during the festival season that they are offering 'buy 4 shirts, get one free',
then find the net discount percentage given by the dealer.
A) 10% B) 20% C) 5% D) 15% Correct Ans: B

Q3) A certain shopping site gave successive discounts of 20% and 30% on purses during a new year sale.
What is the actual discount received by the customer?
A) 44% B) 41% C) 47% D) 39% Correct Ans: A

Q4) A product having an MRP of ₹29,800 is on sale for ₹28,608 in-store. How much of a discount is being
offered on the product?
A) 3% B) 4% C) 1% D) 2% Correct Ans: B

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Q5) The marked price of a table is ₹10,500, and it was sold for ₹9,450. Find the percentage discount for this
transaction.
A) 10% B) 9.5% C) 9% D) 10.5% Correct Ans: A

Q6)
A) 30% B) 20% C) 10% D) 40% Correct Ans: D

Q7) Rakesh marks an item for ₹5,400 and offers two successive discounts of 15% and 5%, respectively. What is
the selling price of the item?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q8) Annu buys a dress from an online designer portal during a festival sale, marked at a price of ₹9,600. She
gets a 15% festive discount and a further 10% discount on checkout as it is her first order from the site.
How much did she actually pay for the dress?
A) ₹7,344 B) ₹8,160 C) ₹7,934 D) ₹7,554 Correct Ans: A

Q9) The marked price of a mobile phone at a showroom is ₹25,000 and is sold at successive
discounts of 20%, 15% and 10%. Find its selling price.
A) ₹15,300 B) ₹15,000 C) ₹14,960 D) ₹14,000 Correct Ans: A

Q10) An item is listed for ₹450 with 15% trade discount. Find the amount of trade discount.
A) ₹67.50 B) ₹382.50 C) ₹517.50 D) ₹52.50 Correct Ans: A

Q11) The marked price of a scooter is ₹1,80,000. The shopkeeper gave a scheme discount of 4% on ₹1,20,000
and 2.5% on the remaining amount. The selling price (in ₹) of the scooter is:
A) 1,37,700 B) 1,73,700 C) 1,77,300 D) 1,73,070 Correct Ans: B

Q12) Riya offers 12% discount on all her goods and offers an additional discount of 6% to those customers
who pay in cash. How much will a customer have to pay for a fan marked for ₹2,400 if he pays in cash?
A) ₹1,900 B) ₹1,985.28 C) ₹2,300.50 D) ₹2,122.50 Correct Ans: B

Q13) What is the single equivalent price increase for two successive price increases of 12% and 18% on an
article?
A) 30% B) 30.24% C) 15% D) 32.16% Correct Ans: D

Q14) A tradesman marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and then allows customers a discount of 15%.
What is the profit percentage for the tradesman?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q15) A shopkeeper offers two schemes, the first being a single discount of 30%, and the second being two
successive discounts of 25% and 5%. What is the difference (in ₹) in the discounts of both the schemes if
the customer did the shopping of ₹5,000 each in both the schemes?
A) 62.50 B) 70 C) 67.50 D) 65 Correct Ans: A

Q16) A printer with a marked price of ₹9,000 is offered on successive discounts of 30%, 20%, and 15%. Identify
the printer's selling price.

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A) ₹4,250 B) ₹4,264 C) ​₹4,284 D) ​₹4,274 Correct Ans: C

Q17) A shopkeeper normally gives a discount of 40%. To increase his sale before off season, he announces an
additional discount of 4% upto a specific date. How much additional discount (in ₹) will a customer get on
an item marked for ₹500?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q18) A tradesman marks his goods 25% above the cost price and allows his customers 12% reduction on their
bills. What percentage profit does he make?
A) 10% B) 9% C) 12% D) 11% Correct Ans: A

Q19) A shopkeeper offers buy three, get one free; what is the percentage discount being offered by the
shopkeeper in this scheme?
A) 33.33% B) 30% C) 20% D) 25% Correct Ans: D

Q20) The difference between discounts on a bill for ₹22,500 under two schemes, a discount of 40% and two
successive discounts of 36% and 4%, is:
A) ₹356 B) ₹342 C) ₹324 D) ₹365 Correct Ans: C

Q21) A person got an article at 22% discount, if he got no discount, then he had to pay ₹1,760 more. How much
did he pay (in ₹) for the article?
A) 5,120 B) 6,360 C) 5,640 D) 6,240 Correct Ans: D

Q22) In view of Diwali, Rajnee, an electronics shop owner, offers a discount scheme to her customers that on
buying 15 decorative bulbs, they get 5 decorative bulbs free. What is the effective percentage discount
given by Rajnee to her customers?
A) 25% B) 20% C) 30% D) 33% Correct Ans: A

Q23) Manpreet offers two successive discounts of 12% and 8% on the sale of a sweater to his customers on
the occasion of Diwali. What is the equivalent single percentage discount offered by Manpreet?
A) 20.00% B) 19.64% C) 20.96% D) 19.04% Correct Ans: D

Q24) Trader A gives a single discount of 45% and Trader B gives two successive discounts of 35% and 10% on
an identical item of the same marked price. If the discount given by A is ₹539 more than the discount
given by Trader B, then what is the marked price (in ₹) of the item?
A) 16,500 B) 15,600 C) 14,500 D) 15,400 Correct Ans: D

Q25) In a stationary shop, a pen is marked as ₹80 and it is sold at a discount of 15%. The shopkeeper also
offers a special discount of ₹8 on the pen. Find the cost price of the pen if the shopkeeper earns a profit
of 20%.
A) ₹62 B) ₹75 C) ₹60 D) ₹50 Correct Ans: D

Q26) A shopkeeper marks his goods k% more than their cost price. If the shopkeeper allows a 20% discount
and still gains 25%, then find the value of k.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q27) The marked price of a speaker is ₹520 and the shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% and still he gains
17%. If no discount is allowed, then find the gain percentage.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q28) The marked price of a washing machine is ₹15,000. A retailer buys it at ₹11,250, after getting
two successive discount of 15% and another rate which is illegible. What is the second
discount rate?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q29) Maria buys a dress for ₹3,000. She could not decide between a discount of 35% and three successive
discounts of 20%, 10% and 5%. The difference between both discounts (in ₹) is:
A) 20 B) 0 C) 102 D) 68 Correct Ans: C

Q30) The marked price of an item is 50% more than its cost price. The shopkeeper offers two successive
discounts of 10% and 15%. What is his profit percentage?
A) 12.75% B) 15.75% C) 15% D) 14.75% Correct Ans: D

Q31) A retailer allows a trade discount of 25% and a further discount of 8% on the marked price of the
products, if paid along with his shop’s membership card. He makes a net profit of 15% on the cost. By
what percentage are the products marked up by him?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q32) A shopkeeper offers 38% discount on a certain item. He announces an additional 15% discount to a
customer for paying cash. A customer paid a cash amount of ₹2,108 for that item. What is the marked
price (in ₹) of the item?
A) 4,000 B) 3,800 C) 3,560 D) 4,200 Correct Ans: A

Q33) The difference between successive discounts of 25% followed by 12% and 20% followed by 15% on the
marked price of a saree is ₹50. The marked price of the saree is:
A) ₹625 B) ₹1,250 C) ₹2,500 D) ₹5,000 Correct Ans: C

Q34) The marked price of a chair is ₹1,800 and a discount of 18% is offered on the marked price. What
additional discount must be offered to the customer now to bring the net price to ₹1,220? (Correct to two
places of decimals.)
A) 17.34% B) 14.37% C) 13.47% D) 31.47% Correct Ans: A

Q35) A person marks his goods x% above the cost price and allows a discount of 28% on the marked price. If
his profit is 22.4%, then the value of x is:
A) 30 B) 70 C) 50 D) 80 Correct Ans: B

Q36) Raman paid ₹18,656 for a mobile phone, after a single discount of 12%. If Raman is given successive
discounts of 4% and 8%, then how much Raman would pay?
A) ₹17,238.84 B) ₹13,728.84 C) ₹18,723.84 D) ₹17,283.84 Correct Ans: C

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Q37) A chair was sold for ₹8,601 after giving two successive discounts of 8.5% and 6%. Find the marked price.
A) ₹9,612 B) ₹9,848 C) ₹10,000 D) ₹9,000 Correct Ans: C

Q38) A clothing store announces a discount scheme 'Buy one shirt and get 40% off on another shirt of the
same price'. What is the profit percentage of the store, given that each shirt has a cost price 60% below
the marked price?
A) 80% B) 60% C) 100% D) 120% Correct Ans: C

Q39) A trader sells 25 kg of rice at ₹1,400. A customer asks for 15% discount. The shopkeeper agrees to it but
instead of 1 kg he gives 10% less rice. What is the effective discount that the customer gets (correct to
one decimal place)?
A) 5.6% B) 5.8% C) 5.7% D) 5.1% Correct Ans: A

Q40) A supermarket gives two successive discounts on a mobile phone marked ₹19,000. The first discount given is 14%. If the
customer pays ₹15,048 for the phone, then what was the second discount (rounded up to two decimal points)?
A) 7.91% B) 7.51% C) 8.00% D) 9.26% Correct Ans: A

Q41) A shopkeeper marked the price of a commodity at ₹37,000 more than the actual cost. If the shopkeeper
allowed a 15% discount, it would fetch ₹ 7,500 more than if he allowed a 20% discount. Find the cost
price.
A) ₹1,31,000 B) ₹1,23,000 C) ₹1,50,000 D) ₹1,13,000 Correct Ans: D

Q42) A shop has two promotional offers: buy three shirts, get one shirt free, or a 25% discount on the marked
price. If a customer buys five using both offers, what discount will he get all together?
A) 27.5% B) 30% C) 25% D) 50% Correct Ans: C

Q43) The difference between successive discounts of 28% followed by 25% and 10% followed by 5% on the
marked price of a pen is ₹63. The marked price of the pen is:
A) ₹165 B) ₹331 C) ₹150 D) ₹200 Correct Ans: D

Q44) A retailer announces a discount of 25% for selling a mobile phone marked at ₹48,000. The cost price of
the mobile phone is 45% below the marked price. He offers a further discount of 7.5% if the buyer returns
his old mobile phone. What is the ratio of the profit percentages of the retailer with the return of the old
mobile phone scheme to that of without the return of the old mobile phone, respectively?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q45) A banner at a garment shop advertises 'Buy 2 and get 5'. The shopkeeper has marked all the shirts at the
same amount. Gaurav was his relative and the shopkeeper gave him an additional discount of 2% on the
total bill. Gaurav purchased 5 shirts and paid ₹1,274. What is the marked price of each shirt?
A) ₹520 B) ₹260 C) ₹630 D) ₹650 Correct Ans: D

Q46) A shopkeeper declares the following three schemes of discounts. Which scheme is most beneficial to a
customer?
A. Buy 25 items and get 30 of the same items
B. Two successive discounts of 12% and 18%
C. Two successive equal discounts of 15%

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A) B and C B) Only B C) A D) Only C Correct Ans: D

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) A trader gives a 40% discount on his goods. Further, he gives 20% discount on the goods. Find the single
discount equivalent to these two successive discounts.
A) 30% B) 50% C) 52% D) 60% Correct Ans: C

Q2) The marked price of an immersion rod in an electronic store is ₹900. The store offers a discount of 12% on
its sale. At what price (in ₹) can a customer buy it from the electronic store?
A) 787 B) 792 C) 782 D) 797 Correct Ans: B

Q3) In a store, an item with marked price of ₹82,500 is available at a discounted price of ₹79,200. What is the
percentage of discount given on that item?
A) 4% B) 3% C) 1% D) 2% Correct Ans: A

Q4) The marked price of a table is ₹5,980. If the shopkeeper offers a discount of 18%, what is its selling price
(in ₹, to the nearest rupee)?
A) 4,490 B) 4,940 C) 4,904 D) 4,094 Correct Ans: C

Q5) A shopkeeper offers a 10% discount on dairy products and still manages to make a 20% profit. What is the
actual cost (in ₹) to the shopkeeper of a dairy product marked ₹420?
A) 315 B) 340 C) 350 D) 325 Correct Ans: A

Q6) A product was offered at a 10% trade discount on the marked price. After a cash discount of 10%, the
product was sold for ₹7,290. The marked price (in ₹) is:
A) 9,000 B) 8,900 C) 8,510 D) 8,720 Correct Ans: A

Q7) A doll is marked for ₹2,500. A customer pays ₹1,800 for it. If the customer got a series of two discounts and
the rate of the first discount is 10%, then the rate of the second discount is:
A) 25% B) 18% C) 15% D) 20% Correct Ans: D

Q8) A retailer marks up his goods by 130% and offers 25% discount. What will be the selling price (in ₹) if the
cost price is ₹ 1600?
A) 3680 B) 2760 C) 1765 D) 1980 Correct Ans: B

Q9) A shopkeeper wanted to sell ₹2,000 worth of products. But he had two options, giving three successive
discounts of 10% each or giving a single discount of 28%. What was the difference between the two
options of discounts (in rupees)?
A) 28 B) 18 C) 16 D) 22 Correct Ans: B

Q10) Applied to a bill for ₹1000, what is the difference between a discount of 40% and two successive
discounts of 36% and 4%?
A) ₹154 B) ₹144 C) ₹15.40 D) ₹14.40 Correct Ans: D

Q11) A seller marks an item for ₹500 and sells it at a discount of 25%. He also gives a gift worth ₹65. If he still
makes 24% profit, then the cost price of the item (in ₹) is:

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A) 280 B) 270 C) 250 D) 320 Correct Ans: C

Q12) On the tag price, a seller offers a 10% discount and a cashback of ₹250. He still earns 10% profit. If the
cost price is ₹1,200, then the tag price (rounded off to 2 decimal places) is ₹______.
A) 1447.44 B) 1777.44 C) 1744.44 D) 1774.44 Correct Ans: C

Q13) A shopkeeper offers a discount of 24 % on the marked price. On a special sale day, he offers an extra 30%
off coupon after the first discount. If the article was sold for ₹ 7 comma 700.70 comma what is the marked
price left parenthesis in ₹ right parenthesis of the article ?
A) 14475 B) 17475 C) 14745 D) 17745 Correct Ans: A

Q14) A seller offers a discount of 12% if the total sale price of different products purchased by a single
customer is below ₹3,000, and discount of 15% if the total sale value of all the products exceeds ₹3,000. A
shirt costing ₹900 was sold to Anand after earning a margin of 9% and also a jacket costing ₹1,900 was
sold to him after a margin of 6%. How much does Anand have to pay (in ₹) for the final settlement of the
bill?
A) 2,953.60 B) 3,005.40 C) 2,645.60 D) 2,635.60 Correct Ans: D

Q15) Ramanna purchased raw materials for a certain price to manufacture a product. However, owing to
shortage of labour, 22.5% of the raw materials could not be utilised and got wasted. 80% of the cost of
raw materials used was added as the cost of manufacturing. If Ramanna could sell his product at a price
to earn an overall profit of 20% after offering a discount of 20%, how many times of the total cost of the
raw materials purchased was the marked price of the product?
A) 2.44 times B) 2.42 times C) 2.43 times D) 2.40 times Correct Ans: C

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q2)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q4)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q6)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q10)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q11)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q12)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q14)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q15)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q16)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q17)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q18)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q19)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q20)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q21)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q23)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q24)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q25)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q26)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q27)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q28)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q29)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q30)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q31)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q32)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q33)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q34)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q35)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q36)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q37)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q38)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q39)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q40)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q41)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q42)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q43)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q44)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q45)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q46)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q47)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q48)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q49)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q50)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q51)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q52)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q53)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q54)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q55)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q56)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q57)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q58)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q59)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q60)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q61)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q62)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q63)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q64)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q65)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q66)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q67)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q68)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q69)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q70)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Selection Post XII

Q1) The marked price of a grinder was ₹3,000, and the dealer offered successive discounts of 20% and 15% on
it. For how much did he sell the grinder?
A) ₹2,040 B) ₹2,000 C) ₹2,200 D) ₹2,400 Correct Ans: A

Q2) An amusement park gives an offer to its customers that one person will be given free entry with four other
people. What is the effective percentage discount given by the amusement park?
A) 14% B) 18% C) 20% D) 16% Correct Ans: C

Q3) The marked price of an electronic weighing machine in a store is ₹1,220 and it is available at a discount of
15%. What is the price (in ₹) at which a customer can buy it from the store?
A) 1,035 B) 1,039 C) 1,041 D) 1,037 Correct Ans: D

Q4) A shopkeeper announced 17% rebate on the marked price of an article. If the selling price of the article is
₹1,245, then the marked price (in ₹) of the article is :
A) 1500 B) 1820 C) 1780 D) 1600 Correct Ans: A

Q5) Kajal offers two successive discounts of 10% and 8% on the sale of a cosmetic item to her customer. What
is the equivalent single percentage discount offered by Kajal?
A) 17.6% B) 17.2% C) 17.4% D) 17.8% Correct Ans: B

Q6) A shopkeeper gives a discount of 15% on the marked price of an article. If the selling price is ₹8,500, then
the discount on it will be ________.
A) ₹1,500 B) ₹1,800 C) ₹1,600 D) ₹1,200 Correct Ans: A

Q7) If an electricity bill is paid before the due date, one gets a reduction of 5% on the amount of the bill. By
paying the bill before the due date, a person got a reduction of ₹250. The original amount of his electricity
bill (in ₹) was:
A) 4000 B) 5000 C) 4500 D) 5500 Correct Ans: B

Q8) A dealer sells an article at a discount of 5% on the marked price. If the marked price is 20% above the cost
price and the article was sold for ₹2,280, then the cost price would be:
A) ₹2,500 B) ₹3,000 C) ₹2,000 D) ₹3,500 Correct Ans: C

Q9) A shopkeeper offers the following three schemes:

I. Buy 9 get 1 free
II. Buy 7 get 8
III. Two successive discounts of 20% and 15%
Which scheme has the lowest discount percentage (all articles have the same marked price)?
A) Scheme II B) Scheme I C) All are equal D) Scheme III Correct Ans: B

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Q10) The marked price of an item was ₹12,500. Two successive discounts of 12% each was offered on its sale.
What was the selling price (in ₹) of the item?
A) 9500 B) 9720 C) 9680 D) 9620 Correct Ans: C

Q11) The marked price of a fancy toy is ₹30,000. It is to be sold allowing two successive discounts of 20% and
24%, respectively. On cash payment, an additional 10% discount on the net price is also given. The selling
price (in ₹) of the toy is:
A) 16416 B) 16520 C) 18350 D) 17280 Correct Ans: A

Q12) A shopkeeper offers 25% discount on all the toys. He offers a further discount of 5% on the reduced price
to those customers who pay in cash. How much does a customer have to pay (in ₹) in cash for a toy of
₹510? (Correct to two decimal places)
A) 363.38 B) 360.38 C) 146.25 D) 250.65 Correct Ans: A

Q13) The marked price of a commodity was given as ₹425 per kg. After two successive discounts of 5% and
y%, respectively, the retailer purchased it for ₹323 per kg. What was the value of y?
A) 18 B) 24 C) 19 D) 20 Correct Ans: D

Q14) A tractor manufacturing company sells each tractor for ₹5,00,000. Assuming that KISAN firm buys 50
tractors from them as a part of an annual contract, the company offers a trade discount of 10% to KISAN
and an additional 2% discount if the payment is made within 30 days. What will be the amount payable by
KISAN within 30 days for the consignment?
A) ₹20,051,000 B) ₹22,050,000 C) ₹24,050,020 D) ₹22,080,100 Correct Ans: B

Q15) On an item there is 8% discount on the marked price of ₹32,000. After giving an additional season’s
discount, the item is sold for ₹25,000. How much is the season’s discount (in %)? (Correct to two places
of decimal)
A) 14.08% B) 15.08% C) 12.08% D) 13.08% Correct Ans: B

Q16) In a discount scheme, there is a 38% discount on the marked price of Rs.1,250, but the sale is done at
Rs.434 only, then what additional discount did the customer get?
A) 40% B) 44% C) 48% D) 58% Correct Ans: B

Q17) A shopkeeper offers a cash discount of ₹275 first and then three successive discounts of 10%, 8% and
5% on the sale of a laptop. If the marked price of the laptop is ₹85,275, find its price for a customer.
A) ₹65,561 B) ₹66,561 C) ₹65,861 D) ₹66,861 Correct Ans: D

Q18) A store is running a scheme for offering a discount of 12% if the customer pays instantly, and a discount
of 6% if purchased through credit card. The benefit of the scheme may be split on the amount of
payment, however only one discount shall be given on one item. There is no discount on any other type
of transaction. Ankur purchased a shirt from the store, whose marked price was ₹2,200, through credit
card and paid instantly for the purchase of a coat marked at ₹7,500. What was the total amount (in ₹)
billed?
A) 8568 B) 8778 C) 8814 D) 8668 Correct Ans: D

Q19) A dealer buys an article listed at ₹250 and gets successive discounts of 12% and 16%. He spends 10% of
the cost price on transportation. At what price should he sell the article to earn a profit of 25%? (Correct

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 to two places of decimal)
A) ₹274.10 B) ₹254.10 C) ₹244.10 D) ₹264.10 Correct Ans: B

Q20) Find a single discount equivalent to the successive discount of 12%, 20%, 24%, and 32%. (Correct to two
places of decimals)
A) 43.41% B) 73.71% C) 63.62% D) 53.51% Correct Ans: C

Q21) On a machine there is 12% trade discount on the marked price of ₹2,56,000, but the machine is sold for
₹2,05,000 after giving a cash discount. How much is this cash discount (in %)? (Rounded to the nearest
whole number)
A) 9% B) 10% C) 8% D) 12% Correct Ans: A

Q22) A retailer buys 220 chocolates from a wholesaler for the marked price of 198 items. He then sells each
chocolate at a discount of 3.7%. What is his profit percentage?
A) 7% B) 7.2% C) 6% D) 6.3% Correct Ans: A

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Time and Work

190+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Time and Work
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) Varun and Raju, working together, can complete a job in 40 hours whereas Varun alone can complete the
same job in 50 hours. The number of hours required by Raju to complete the job alone is:
A) 200 B) 150 C) 170 D) 190 Correct Ans: A

Q2)

A) 60 B) 20 C) 54 D) 56 Correct Ans: C

Q3) A and B can do a work in 12 days and 16 days, respectively. If they work together for 6 days, then the
fraction of the work left is _________.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q6) Joey completed the school project in 15 days. How many days will Tim take to complete the same work if
he is 25% more efficient than Joey?
A) 8 days B) 10 days C) 12 days D) 16 days Correct Ans: C

Q7)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

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Q8) A, B and C can complete a work in 12, 15 and 20 days, respectively. How many days are required to finish
the work if they work together?
A) 5 days B) 3 days C) 6 days D) 4 days Correct Ans: A

Q9)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q10)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q12) A and B, working together, take 15 days to complete a piece of work. If A alone can do this work in 18
days, then how long would B take to complete the same work?
A) 33 days B) 90 days C) 8 days D) 15 days Correct Ans: B

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q14) Rohan takes 10 hours to mow a large lawn. He and Mohan together can mow it in 4 hours. How long will
Mohan take to mow the lawn if he works alone?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q15) 47 masons can dig a 35 m long trench in one day. How many masons should be employed for digging a
105 m long trench of the same type in one day?
A) 94 B) 141 C) 128 D) 70 Correct Ans: B

Q16)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q17) Riya and Sangeeta can finish a work in 6 days and 8 days, respectively. Riya started the work alone and
then after 3 days, Sangeeta joined Riya. They both finish the remaining work. How long did the total work
last?

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: B

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q19) A’s marks in Mathematics are directly proportional to practice time. In 6 hours of practice, A gets 70
marks. What should be the practice time (approximately) to get 90 marks?
A) 8 hours B) 8.3 hours C) 7 hours D) 7.7 hours Correct Ans: D

Q20) X and Y can do a job in 18 days; Y and Z can do the same in 24 days. If all the three can finish the job in
12 days, in how many days can X and Z can complete the job?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q21) R and S can finish a work in 10 days, S and T can finish it in 12 days and T and R can finish in 8 days. In
how many days will the work be finished if they all work simultaneously?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q23) Mira can complete a piece of work in 20 days, Nina in 30 days and Sima in 40 days. Mira and Sima worked
together for 4 days and then Mira was replaced by Nina. In how many days, altogether, was the work
completed?
A) 14 B) 18 C) 16 D) 20 Correct Ans: C

Q24)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q25)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q26)

A) 36 B) 90 C) 72 D) 54 Correct Ans: C

Q27) To finish a work, P takes half of the number of days required by Q to finish it. If they together can finish
the work in 36 days, then in how many days Q alone can finish the work?
A) 108 B) 84 C) 60 D) 24 Correct Ans: A

Q28) Rohan can alone finish a work in 12 days and Hari can alone in 16 days. They both work for 3 days and
then Rohan left. After that only Hari works and finishes the work. The total work will be completed in:

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

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Q29)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q30)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q31) If 6 engineers can complete a work in 5 days and 5 skilled workers can complete the same work in 7 days,
then the time taken (in days) to complete the same work by 7 engineers and 4 skilled workers will be:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q32) R can finish a work in 6 days if he works 10 hours a day. S can finish it in 5 days if he works 8 hours a
day. If both start a work and work daily for 6 hours, the work will be finished in _____ days.
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Correct Ans: B

Q33) Teena does half of a task in 6 days. Later, with Shyam’s help, she completes the remaining work in 4
days. Shyam alone can finish the entire work in:
A) 21 days B) 24 days C) 18 days D) 12 days Correct Ans: B

Q34)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q35) To finish a work in 12 days, 8 workers are engaged. After 2 days, due to some urgency, the work is to be
finished in next 2 days. How many more workers are to be engaged now to finish it on time?
A) 30 B) 32 C) 36 D) 40 Correct Ans: B

Q36)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) If Anil takes 5 days to complete a task when he works for 8 hours a day, how many days will he take to complete the
task if he works 6 hours a day?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q2) A earns ₹88 per hour and works for 10 hours. B earns ₹95 per hour and works for 8 hours. The ratio of per
day wages of A to B is:
A) 22 : 19 B) 21 : 19 C) 19 : 22 D) 19 : 21 Correct Ans: A

Q3) If 80 workers took 25 days to finish a task,how many days will it take to finish the same task if 20 more
workers join?

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A) 8 B) 12 C) 20 D) 16 Correct Ans: C

Q4) A group of 9 people can survive on₹8,100 for30 days. How long can a group of 7 people survive on₹8,400?
A) 25 days B) 31 days C) 40 days D) 43 days Correct Ans: C

Q5) In a company, if 40 workers can make 50 bags in 4 days, then how many bags will 24 workers
will make in 8 days?
A) 45 B) 40 C) 60 D) 54 Correct Ans: C

Q6) A total of 24 men working 7 hours a day can complete a task in 10 days. In how many days will 21 men
working9 hours a day complete the same task?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q7) 16 women can finish a task in 20 days and 20 men take 32 days to finish the same task. How many days
will 8 women and 16 men take to finish the same task?
A) 10 B) 16 C) 20 D) 32 Correct Ans: C

Q8) In a ration shop, there is a certain amount of cereals to distribute to 42 families for 15 days. If 48 kg of
cereals can be distributed to 30 families for 7 days, then the quantity of cereals already in the shop was:
A) 112 kg B) 96 kg C) 144 kg D) 84 kg Correct Ans: C

Q9) As part of the partial work from home process, Amita went to office every 2nd day, Amrita went to office
every 3rd day, and Tosita went to office every 6th day, respectively. All three went to office on 31 October
2021. On how many days did all three attend office on the same date during the remaining two months of
the year?
A) 12 B) 11 C) 10 D) 9 Correct Ans: C

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) P can do a piece of work in 30 days and Q in 40 days. They work together for 4 days and then Q leaves.
The number of days taken by P to finish the remaining work is:
A) 23 days B) 28 days C) 30 days D) 7 days Correct Ans: A

Q2) Sumit and Rajiv, working together, can do a job in 20 hours whereasSumit alone can do the same job in 25
hours. In how many hours can Rajiv alone do the job?
A) 70 B) 90 C) 80 D) 100 Correct Ans: D

Q3) A can do a work in 20 days and B in 30 days. If they work on it together for 2 days, then what is the fraction
of the work that is left?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q4) Akash and Vikash can complete a work in 40 days and 60 days, respectively. In how many days will the
entire work be completed if they work on alternate days, starting with Akash?
A) 48 B) 52 C) 50 D) 42 Correct Ans: A

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Q5) Ronak and Riya can do a work in 12 and 18 days, respectively. They worked together for six days and then
Ronak left. Find the time taken by Riya to complete the work.
A) 5 days B) 7 days C) 6 days D) 3 days Correct Ans: D

Q6) A and B can do a work in 13 days and 26 days, respectively. If they work for a day alternately, starting with
A, then in how many days will the work be completed?
A) 17 B) 16 C) 13 D) 14 Correct Ans: A

Q7) Sapna is double efficient as compared to Rakesh. If they both work together on a project and complete it in
48 days, then the number of days in which Sapna alone can complete the project is:
A) 72 B) 69 ½ C) 68 D) 52 Correct Ans: A

Q8) Tarun is twice as good as Tripti in doing a work. Together, they can complete the work in 16 days. In how
many days can Tripti alone complete the same work?
A) 24 B) 48 C) 25 D) 50 Correct Ans: B

Q9) Arvind works 4 times as fast as Suresh. If Suresh can complete a work in 20 days independently, then find
the number of days in which Arvind and Suresh can together finish the work.
A) 6 B) 3 C) 5 D) 4 Correct Ans: D

Q10) Mitu can do a piece of work in 12 hours, Titu and Situ together in 2 hours, and Mitu and Situ together in 3
hours. How long will Titu alone take to do it?
A) 7 hours B) 8 hours C) 4 hours D) 6 hours Correct Ans: C

Q11) Ravi and Sanju together can do a job in 2 days, Sanju and Mahesh can do it in 4 days, while Ravi and
Mahesh can do it in 2days. What is the number of days required for Ravi to do the same job alone?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q12) If 12 people can print 540 identical books in 10 days, then how many more people will be required to print
720 such books in 8 days?
A) 8 B) 12 C) 6 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q13) Amita can build a room in the same amount of time that Bina and Sita working together can build. If Amita
and Bina together could do it in 25 days and Sita alone in 35 days, then how many days are required for
Bina alone to do the same work?
A) 152 Days B) 175 Days C) 165 Days D) 180 Days Correct Ans: B

Q14) A hostel had food provision for 300 students for a month. After 20 days, 50 students left the hostel. How
long would the remaining food last? (1 month = 30 days)
A) 10 days B) 14 days C) 12 days D) 16 days Correct Ans: C

Q15) A can complete a piece of work alone in 200 days, while B can complete the same piece of work alone in
100 days. In every three-day cycle, both A and B work on day 1, only A works on day 2, and only B works
on day 3. This cycle continues till the work is completed. How many days in all does it take the duo to
complete the work?

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 Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q16) Rajan and Rajat can do a work in 64 days and 48 days, respectively. Starting with Rajat, they work on
alternate days. In how many days will the work be completed?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q17) Manish, Nakul and Pintoo alone can complete a certain work in 21days, 28 days and 15 days,
respectively. Manish and Pintoo started the work together while Nakul joined them after 5 days and
worked with them till the completion of the work. For how many days did Nakul work?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q18) If 24 people can build 90 identical walls in 25 days, then how many more days will 27 people require to
build 162 such walls?
A) 16 B) 14 C) 15 D) 13 Correct Ans: C

Q19) 18 workers can complete a piece of work in 96 days. They start working together and after 26 days 10
more workers join them. In how many days in all will the work be completed?
A) 69 B) 71 C) 72 D) 70 Correct Ans: B

Q20) A and B together can complete a piece of work in 25 days, B and C together can complete the same piece
of work in 36 days, while C and A together can complete it in 30 days. If A, B, C, and D together can
complete this piece of work in 18 days, then in how many days can D alone complete this piece of work?
A) 225 B) 210 C) 200 D) 180 Correct Ans: C

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q2)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q10)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q12)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q17)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q19)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q20)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q21)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q23)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q24)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q25)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q26)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q27)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q28)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q29)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q30)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q31)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q32)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q33)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q34)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q35)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q36)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q37)
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q38)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q39)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q40)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q41)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q42)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q43)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q44)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q45)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q46)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q47)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q48)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q49)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q50)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q51)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q52)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q53)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q54)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q55)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q56)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q57)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q58)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q59)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q60)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q61)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q62)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q63)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q64)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q65)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q66)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q67)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q68)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q69)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q70)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q71)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q72)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q73)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q74)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q75)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q76)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q77)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q78)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q79)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q80)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q81)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q82)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q83)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q84)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q85)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q86)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q87)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q88)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q89)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q90)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q91)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q92)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q93)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q94)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Selection Post XII

Q1) A completes a piece of work in 4 days and B completes it in 6 days. How long will it take to complete the
same piece of work if they both work together?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q2) 36 persons can do a work in 10 days, working 6 hours a day. In how many days will 24 persons, working 9
hours a day complete the work?
A) 4 B) 10 C) 6 D) 8 Correct Ans: B

Q3) A and B can do a piece of work separately in 10 days and 8 days, respectively. If they work alternately and
A begins the work, in how many days will the work be completed?
A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 9 Correct Ans: D

Q4) Eight labourers working 10 hours a day completed a work in 18 days. If only 5 labourers are working, then
in how many hours a day should they work to finish the work in 24 days?
A) 9 hours B) 10 hours C) 8 hours D) 12 hours Correct Ans: D

Q5) A, B and C can do the same work in 9 days, 12 days and 18 days, respectively. A started the work and
worked for 3 days and left. Then, B joined the work and worked for 3 days and left. Then, C joined the work
and completed the work. Find the number of days C took to complete the work.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q6) If 28 men can do a piece of work in 26 days, then in how many days 13 men will do it?
A) 50 B) 56 C) 52 D) 58 Correct Ans: B

Q7) A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. B and C can do the same work in 12 days. C and A can do the
same work in 15 days. If all the three work together, find the number of days required to complete the work.
A) 6 B) 10 C) 8 D) 12 Correct Ans: C

Q8) 30 persons working 10 hours a day can do 5 units of work in 12 days. How many people are required to do
8 units of that work in 16 days if they work for 8 hours a day?
A) 47 B) 38 C) 45 D) 30 Correct Ans: C

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Q9) Prakash and Avinash can complete a work in 24 days. If Prakash alone can complete it in 48 days, then in
how many days can Avinash alone complete the work?
A) 48 B) 36 C) 24 D) 40 Correct Ans: A

Q10) If 108 workers can build a wall in 36 days, then in how many days can 48 workers build the same wall?
A) 72 B) 81 C) 54 D) 63 Correct Ans: B

Q11) Working separately, A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 18 days, respectively. If A starts the work
and they work on alternate days, one on each day, then in how many days will the work be completed?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q12) If 12 students can read 4800 pages of a book in 15 days, then how many students can read 7200 pages of
the same book in 10 days?
A) 27 B) 33 C) 30 D) 24 Correct Ans: A

Q13) A person can paint a 2.5 ft2 of a wall in 5 minutes. How much ft2 of the wall will he paint in 6 hours?
A) 120 B) 160 C) 140 D) 180 Correct Ans: D

Q14) Sarthak and Mohan are working on alternate days in a workshop. Sarthak can complete the work in 20
days while Mohan can finish in 25 days. Sarthak works on the 1st day, Mohan on the 2nd day, and so on.
How much time (in days) will they take on alternate basis?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q15) If 6 people are required to complete a work in 1 hour 20 minutes, then how long will only 5 people take to
complete the same work?
A) 105 minutes B) 90 minutes C) 96 minutes D) 100 minutes Correct Ans: C

Q16) A and B complete a work in 12 and 15 days, respectively. They started the work alternatively for 1 day
each and A started the work first. In how much time will 60% of the work be completed?
A) 7 days B) 9 days C) 8 days D) 10 days Correct Ans: C

Q17) A and B can do a work in 15 days and 30 days, respectively. They start working together, but A leaves
after 3 days. How much time will B take to complete the remaining work?
A) 21 days B) 28 days C) 24 days D) 32 days Correct Ans: A

Q18) A group of 25 tourists consume 5 containers of food in 8 days in a hotel. How many containers will be
required for 10 tourists to eat for 16 days?
A) 6 B) 3 C) 5 D) 4 Correct Ans: D

Q19) X and Y can do a piece of work in 18 days and 27 days, respectively. Starting with X, they work on
alternate days. The whole number of days to complete the work by X and Y is:
A) 22 B) 24 C) 20 D) 21 Correct Ans: A

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Q20) A work can be finished by 8 men in 10 days working 6 hours a day or same can be finished by 20
qualified workers in 6 days working 8 hours a day. 2 men and 4 qualified workers work simultaneously 10
hours a day, the work will be finished in _______ days.
A) 9 B) 10 C) 12 D) 8 Correct Ans: C

Q21) At a construction site, 15 men or 10 machines can construct a room in 66 days. In how many days can 5
men and 4 machines together complete the work?
A) 75 B) 80 C) 90 D) 85 Correct Ans: C

Q22) A can do a piece of work in 25 days. After working for 5 days, he took help of B and completed the work
in 8 days. If both A and B had worked together from the beginning, in how many days would they have
completed the work?
A) 14 B) 12 C) 10 D) 15 Correct Ans: C

Q23) If 8 men or 16 women or 32 boys can do a piece of work in 8 months, then in how many months can 4
men, 4 women and 4 boys together complete the work?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q24) 3 men can finish a work in 10 days, 4 women can finish it in 12 days and 10 qualified workers can finish it
in 6 days. In how many days is the work finished by 4 men, 4 women and 4 qualified workers, working
together every day?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q25) Two workers - Sagar and Manish - are working on a heavy machine to melt waste metal. Sagar can
complete the work in 15 days while both workers on alternate basis can complete the work in 12 days. In
how many days can Manish alone complete the work?
A) 10 B) 18 C) 9 D) 30 Correct Ans: A

Q26) A group of men decided to complete a job in 4 days. However, since 10 men dropped out every day, the
job got completed at the end of the 7th day. How many men were there in the beginning?
A) 90 B) 70 C) 140 D) 35 Correct Ans: B

Q27) Aman and Rajan are working at a construction site. In some engineering experiment, Aman is
constructing a wall, while Rajan is demolishing that wall. Aman can completely build the wall in 15 days,
while Rajan will take 20 days to completely demolish the wall. In how many days will the complete wall be
built for the first time if they work on alternate days, with Aman working on the 1st day?
A) 57 B) 117 C) 113 D) 120 Correct Ans: C

Q28) The one-day work of 2 men is equal to the one-day work of 4 women or the one-day work of 8 qualified
workers. 10 qualified workers can finish a work in 8 days. If a man, a woman and a qualified worker work
in the same order on three different days, the work is finished in ____ days.
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

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Complete
Mathematics
Pipe and Cistern

30+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 Pipe and Cistern
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) Pipe L can fill a pool in 30 hours and pipe M in 45 hours. If both the pipes are opened in an empty pool, how
much time will they take to fill it?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q2) Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes, respectively. If both pipes are opened
together, the time taken to fill the tank is:
A) 81 minutes B) 20 minutes C) 40.5 minutes D) 10 minutes Correct Ans: B

Q3) Two pipes X and Y can fill a tank in 14 hours and 21 hours, respectively. Both pipes are opened
simultaneously to fill the tank. In how many hours will the empty tank be filled?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q4)
A) 33 min B) 30 min C) 35 min D) 25 min Correct Ans: B

Q5) An inlet pipe can fill a water storage tank in 11 hours and an outlet pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 15 hours .If both pipes opened simultaneously. The time taken to fill the empty tank ( in hrs) is :
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D) 40

Q6) A tap can fill a cistern in 10 minutes and another tap can empty it in 12 minutes. If both the taps are open,
the time (in hours) taken to fill the tank will be:
A) 1.5 hours B) 2.5 hours C) 2 hours D) 1 hour Correct Ans: D

Q7) Two pipes can fill a tank in 12 hours and 18 hours, respectively, while a third pipe can empty it in 8 hours.
How long (in hours) will it take to fill the empty tank if all three pipes are opened simultaneously?
A) 48 B) 24 C) 36 D) 72 Correct Ans: D

Q8) Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 6 hours and 8 hours, respectively. Both pipes are opened together for 3
hours. After that pipe A is closed, and B continues to fill the tank. In how many hours will the tank be
filled?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 3 D) 6 Correct Ans: B

Q9) A tank is filled in 45 minutes by two pipes, A and B. Pipe B fills the tank twice as fast as A. How much time
(in minutes) will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
A) 135 B) 140 C) 125 D) 115 Correct Ans: A

Q10) Pipe X can fill a tank in 60 hours while pipe Y can fill the tank in 72 hours. Both pipes are opened together
for 20 hours. How much of the tank is left empty ?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)
Q11) One pipe can fill a tank 6 times faster than another pipe. If both the pipes together can fill the tank in 40
minutes, then in how many minutes will the slower pipe alone be able to fill the tank?
A) 275 B) 285 C) 290 D) 280 Correct Ans: D

Q12) Fill pipe P is 21 times faster than fill pipe Q. If Q can fill a cistern in 110 minutes, find the time it takes to
fill the cistern when both fill pipes are opened together.
A) 5 minutes B) 4 minutes C) 3 minutes D) 6 minutes Correct Ans: A

Q13) A pipe can fill an overhead tank in 12 hours. But due to a leak at the bottom, it is filled in 18 hours. If the
tank is full, how much time will the leak take to empty it?
A) 3.6 hours B) 63 hours C) 7.2 hours D) 36 hours Correct Ans: D

Q14) Pipe A can fill a cistern in 4 hours and Pipe B can fill the same cistern in 5 hours. Pipe C can empty a full
cistern in 3 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, then the time (in minutes) taken to fill the tank is:
(round to the nearest minute)
A) 625 B) 445 C) 800 D) 514 Correct Ans: D

Q15) Pipe X can fill a tank in 9 hours and Pipe Y can fill it in 21 hours. If they are opened on alternate hours and
Pipe X is opened first, in how many hours shall the tank be full?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q16) One pipe can fill a tank four times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill the tank in 48
minutes, the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
A) 192 minutes B) 288 minutes C) 240 minutes D) 144 minutes Correct Ans: C

Q17)
A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: C

Q18) A tank can be filled by pipe A in 4 hours and pipe B in 6 hours. At 8:00 a.m., pipe A was opened. At what
time will the tank be filled if pipe B is opened at 9:00 a.m.?
A) 10:16 a.m. B) 10:22 a.m. C) 10:48 a.m. D) 10:18 a.m. Correct Ans: C

Q19) Pipe A usually fills a tank in 6 hours. But due to a leak at the bottom of the tank, it takes extra 2 hours to
fill the tank. If the tank is full, then how much time will it take to get emptied due to the leak?
A) 16 hours B) 20 hours C) 12 hours D) 24 hours Correct Ans: D

Q20) Two inlet pipes, P1 and P2, can fill a cistern in 20 hours and 30 hours, respectively. They were opened at
the same time, but pipe P1 had to be closed 5 hours before the cistern was full. How many hours in total
did it take for the two pipes to fill the cistern?
A) 15 hours B) 9 hours C) 12 hours D) 10 hours Correct Ans: A

Q21) There are two pipes used to fill a tank and when operated together, they can fill the tank in 20 minutes. If
one pipe can fill the tank two and a half times as quickly as the other, then the faster pipe alone can fill
the tank in:
A) 30 min B) 32 min C) 34 min D) 28 min Correct Ans: D
Q22) Two pipes, A and B, can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 20 minutes, respectively. The pipe C can empty the
tank in 30 minutes. All the three pipes are opened at a time in the beginning. However, pipe C is closed 2
minutes before the tank is filled. In what time, will the tank be full (in minutes)?
A) 12 B) 10 C) 8 D) 6 Correct Ans: C

Q23) There are two pipes to fill a tank. Together, they can fill the tank in 15 minutes. If one pipe can fill the tank
in one and a half times as fast as the other, the faster pipe alone can fill the tank in:
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q24) At a school building, there is an overhead tank. To fill this tank 50 buckets of water are required. Assume
that the capacity of the bucket is reduced to two-fifth of the present. How many buckets of water are
required to fill the same tank?
A) 62.5 B) 20 C) 125 D) 60 Correct Ans: C

Q25) Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 48 minutes and 66 minutes, respectively. If both the pipes are opened
simultaneously, then after how many minutes should pipe B be closed so that the tank gets filled in 32
minutes?
A) 18 B) 16 C) 22 D) 20 Correct Ans: C

Q26) Three pipes P, Q and R can fill a cistern in 40 minutes, 80 minutes and 120 minutes, respectively. Initially,
all the pipes are opened. After how much time (in minutes) should the pipes Q and R be turned off so that
the cistern will be completely filled in just half an hour?
A) 14 B) 10 C) 16 D) 12 Correct Ans: D

Q27) Three pipes, P, Q and R, together take four hours to fill a tank. All the three pipes were opened at the
same time. After three hours, P was closed, and Q and R filled the remaining tank in two hours. How
many hours will P alone take to fill the tank?
A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 9 Correct Ans: A

Q28) Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 hours, respectively. Both pipes are opened to fill the tank,
but when the tank is one-third full, a leak develops through which one-fourth of the water supplied by
both pipes goes out. Find the total time (in hours) taken to fill the tank.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q29) Pipe Q can fill the tank in 60 hours while pipe R may fill in 45 hours. Q and R pipes are opened together
for 6 hours after which pipe W is also opened to empty the tank. All three pipes are opened
simultaneously for 24 hours to reach the half level mark. How much time (in hours) will pipe W alone take
to empty the entire tank?
A) 48 B) 42 C) 36 D) 30 Correct Ans: C

Q30) The tank is filled by three pipes with different uniform flow rates. While the first two pipes are operating
simultaneously, they fill the tank in the same duration that the third pipe takes to fill it alone. The second
pipe can fill the tank 5 hours quicker than the first pipe, yet 4 hours slower than the third pipe. What is the
time (in hours) needed for the first pipe to fill the tank?
A) 18 B) 12 C) 9 D) 15 Correct Ans: D

Q31) A cistern can be filled by two pipes in 8 minutes and 10 minutes, separately. Both the pipes are opened
together for a certain time, but due to an obstruction, only 5/8 of the full quantity of water flowed through
the former pipe and 3/5 through the latter pipe. However, the obstruction was suddenly removed, and the
cistern was filled in 3 minutes from that moment. How long did it take before the full flow began?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)
 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Mixture & Alligation

90+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Mixture and Alligation
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) A merchant mixes two varieties of sugar of 5 kg and 3 kg, which costs him ₹4 and ₹6 per kg, respectively.
What is the cost price (in ₹) of the mixture per kg?
A) 4.35 B) 4.45 C) 4.75 D) 4.21 Correct Ans: C

Q2) There is a 32 l mixture of milk and water. The ratio of milk and water in this mixture is 5 : 3. How many litres
of water should be added to this mixture so that the resultant mixture has 50% water in it?
A) 8 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q3) How much rice of ₹4 per kg should be mixed to 15 kg of rice of ₹10 per kg, so as to make a mixture worth
₹6.50 per kg?
A) 15 kg B) 21 kg C) 30 kg D) 40 kg Correct Ans: B

Q4) 42 litres of milk at ₹25 per litre is mixed with 28 litres of milk at ₹40 per litre. Find the average price of the
mixture.
A) ₹31.5 B) ₹32.5 C) ₹32 D) ₹31 Correct Ans: D

Q5) A shopkeeper mixes two types of rice costing ₹250/5 kg and ₹280/5 kg in the ratio 7 : 8. Find the net cost of
the resultant mixture (per kg).
A) ₹32.50 B) ₹53.20 C) ₹52.30 D) ₹25.30 Correct Ans: B

Q6) A man buys 10 kg of wheat at a rate of ₹26/kg. The wheat is mixed with 6 kg of other good quality of wheat
to get a mixture at a price of ₹35/kg. The price of good quality wheat per kg (in ₹) is:
A) 38 B) 42 C) 50 D) 46 Correct Ans: C

Q7) 2 varieties of tea powders worth ₹250/kg and ₹300/kg are mixed with a third variety of tea powder in the
ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth ₹350/kg, find the price of the third variety tea powder.
A) ₹450/kg B) ₹400/kg C) ₹425/kg D) ₹500/kg Correct Ans: C

Q8) 15 kg of ₹10 per kg wheat is mixed with 5 kg of another type of wheat to get a mixture costing ₹30 per kg.
Find the price (per kg) of the costlier wheat.
A) ₹70 B) ₹80 C) ₹60 D) ₹90 Correct Ans: D

Q9) If one man adds 6 litres of water to 10 litres of milk and another man adds 4 litres of water to 8 litres of
milk. Find the ratio of milk in the two mixtures.
A) 16 : 15 B) 12 : 11 C) 16 : 17 D) 15 : 16 Correct Ans: D

Q10) Two different quantities of the same solution having ingredients A and B are stored in two different
containers. In the first container, there are 252 litre of A and 441 litre of B. In the second container, the
total quantity of the solution was 1188 litre. How much of the solution in the second container was made
up of ingredient B?
A) 765 litre B) 756 litre C) 752 litre D) 760 litre Correct Ans: B

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Q11) A mango juice is made by mixing water and mango concentrate in the ratio 9 : 7. If x litres of water and 3x
litres of mango concentrate is mixed in 160 litres of mango juice, then the new ratio becomes 13 : 14.
What is the quantity of the new mango juice (in litres)?
A) 197 B) 212 C) 206 D) 216 Correct Ans: D

Q12) The concentrations of three acids, A, B, and C, are specified as 20%, 30%, and 40%, respectively. They are
blended in a ratio of 3 : 5 : a, yielding a solution with a concentration of 30%. What is the value of 'a'?
A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1) In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing ₹60 and ₹75 per kg, respectively, so as to
get a mixture worth ₹65 per kg?
A) 3 : 4 B) 2 : 1 C) 2 : 3 D) 1 : 2 Correct Ans: B

Q2)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q3)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q4) Pomegranate juice contains 10% sugar solution and orange juice contains 30% sugar solution. What is the
percentage of sugar solution in a mixture of two litres of pomegranate juice and three litres of orange
juice?
A) 22% B) 25% C) 20% D) 40% Correct Ans: A

Q5) A bucket contains a mixture of milk and water in the proportion of 7: 5. If 9 litres of milk is replaced by
water, then the ratio becomes 7:9. How much milk was there in the bucket initially?
A) 36 litres B) 35 litres C) 30 litres D) 25 litres Correct Ans: A

Q6)

A) 15 liters B) 12 liters C) 27 liters D) 20 liters Correct Ans: A

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) The quantity of milk ordered on the first, second, third and fourth day of a four day ceremony is in the
proportion of 30 litres, 24 litres, 35 litres and ‘x’ litres, respectively. Find the quantity of milk (in litres)
ordered on the fourth day.
A) 28 B) 26 C) 30 D) 32 Correct Ans: A

Q2) A grocer mixes two varieties of tea worth ₹120/kg and ₹125/kg in a ratio to produce a new variety worth
₹122/kg. What is the ratio of the varieties to be mixed to obtain the new variety?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q3) Find the ratio in which rice worth ₹7.20/kg should be mixed with rice worth ₹5.70/kg to produce a mixture
worth ₹6.30/kg.
A) 2 : 3 B) 1 : 3 C) 3 : 4 D) 4 : 5 Correct Ans: A

Q4) In a mixture of 60 litres, milk and water are in the ratio 7 : 3. If 3 litres of water be added, find the ratio of
milk and water in the new mixture.
A) 1:2 B) 3:2 C) 2:1 D) 2:3 Correct Ans: C

Q5) In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix two types of rice worth ₹60/kg and ₹80/kg, respectively, so that, the
average cost of the mixture is ₹75/kg?
A) 3 : 4 B) 1 : 3 C) 2 : 3 D) 1 : 2 Correct Ans: B

Q6) A vendor wants to gain 25% by adding water to milk and selling the mixture at the cost price. Find the ratio of
water and milk in the mixture.
A) 1 : 5 B) 1 : 4 C) 2 : 7 D) 2 : 5 Correct Ans: B

Q7) 2 kg of copper at ₹15 per kg is mixed with 3 kg of zinc at ₹20 per kg. Find the average price of the mixture.
A) ₹17 B) ₹17.5 C) ₹18.5 D) ₹18 Correct Ans: D

Q8) Three different types of pulses costing ₹180, ₹240 and ₹200 per kg, respectively, are mixed in the ratio 1 : 5
: 4. What will be the cost for 1 kg of the mixture?
A) ₹200 B) ₹206 C) ₹218 D) ₹240 Correct Ans: C

Q9) A vessel contains 80 litres of a mixture of alcohol and water in the ratio of 3 : 7. If 40 litres of the mixture is
taken out from the vessel and replaced with 40 litres of water, then the ratio of alcohol and water becomes:
A) 2 : 15 B) 3 : 17 C) 1 : 11 D) 3 : 23 Correct Ans: B

Q10) If tea that costs ₹7.50 per kg is mixed with tea that costs ₹10.50 per kg in the proportion of 2 :1 then, what
is the cost (in ₹) of the resultant mixture per kg?
A) 9.00 B) 7.50 C) 8.50 D) 7.00 Correct Ans: C

Q11) 15 kg of superior quality of wheat is mixed with 5 kg of inferior quality of wheat. The price of superior
quality and inferior quality wheat is ₹80 and ₹60, respectively. Find the average price per kg of the
mixture.
A) ₹65 B) ₹75 C) ₹70 D) ₹150 Correct Ans: B

Q12) If two kinds of resins costing ₹160 per kg and ₹210 per kg are mixed in the ratio of 2
: 3, then find the cost (in ₹) of the mixture per kg.
A) 200 B) 180 C) 185 D) 190 Correct Ans: D

Q13) There are two types of dal. Type 1 dal costs ₹100 per kg and type 2 dal costs ₹120 per kg, respectively. If
both the dal are mixed in the ratio 2 : 3, find the cost of the mixed dal per kg.
A) ₹112 B) ₹115 C) ₹110 D) ₹114 Correct Ans: A

Q14) A mixture contains 8 kg of tea costing ₹295per kilogram and 10 kg of tea costing₹250 per kilogram. The
average price per kilogram (in ₹) of the mixture is:

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A) 270 B) 273 C) 250.70 D) 259.60 Correct Ans: A

Q15) Rice worth ₹84 per kg and ₹96 per kg is mixed with a third variety of rice in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture
is worth ₹99 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg is:
A) ₹112 B) ₹110 C) ₹108 D) ₹115 Correct Ans: C

Q16) A shopkeeper mixes three types of seeds worth ₹240, ₹258 and ₹252 in 3 : 1 : 2. Average cost of the
mixture is:
A) ₹248 B) ₹246 C) ₹245 D) ₹247 Correct Ans: D

Q17) Pure ghee costs ₹100 per kg. After adulterating it with vegetable oil costing ₹50 per kg, a shopkeeper
sells the mixture at the rate of ₹96 per kg, thereby making a profit of 20%. In what ratio does he mix the
two?
A) 3 : 1 B) 1 : 2 C) 4 : 1 D) 3 : 2 Correct Ans: D

Q18)

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

Q19) A jar contains a mixture with 45% syrup. A portion of this mixture is replaced by another mixture
containing 30% syrup. The new mixture is found to have 34% syrup. What is the ratio in which these
mixtures should be mixed to obtain the new mixture?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q20) A chemist prepares 100 grams of medicine by mixing two ingredients X and Y. The rate of X is ₹1,500 per
100 grams and that of Y is ₹50 per 10 grams. X and Y are mixed in such a way that the cost of the
resulting medicine is ₹13 per gram. What is the quantity of X (in grams) in the medicine?
A) 80 B) 30 C) 20 D) 10 Correct Ans: A

Q21) Rice worth₹43/kg and₹67/kg are mixed with a third variety in the ratio 2 : 1 : 5. If the mixture is worth₹96/kg,
the price (in ₹) of the third variety of rice per kg will be:
A) 142 B) 131 C) 159 D) 123 Correct Ans: D

Q22) Raj prepares a 60 gm mixture by combining two ingredients X and Y. The cost of ingredient X is ₹80 per 5
gm, and the cost of ingredient Y is ₹80 per 10 gm. Ingredients X and Y are mixed in a manner that the cost
of the resulting mixture is ₹14 per gm. What is the quantity of ingredient X (in gm) in the mixture?
A) 60 B) 15 C) 45 D) 30 Correct Ans: C

Q23)
A) 15 kg B) 22 kg C) 20 kg D) 18 kg Correct Ans: C

Q24) The milk and water in two buckets P and Q are in the ratio 5 : 3 and 1 : 4, respectively. In what ratio are
the liquids in both the buckets mixed to obtain a new mixture in a third bucket R containing 50% milk and
50% water?
A) 7 : 9 B) 4 : 7 C) 12 : 5 D) 7 :13 Correct Ans: C

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Q25) How much water should be added to a 30 l mixture of milk and water, which currently has a ratio of 7 : 3,
so that the resultant mixture contains 40% water?
A) 6 l B) 3 l C) 5 l D) 4.25 l Correct Ans: C

Q26) How many kilograms of tea, costing ₹250 per kg must be mixed with 25 kg of tea costing ₹400 per kg so
that there may be a profit of 10% on selling the mixture at ₹330 per kg?
A) 45 kg B) 60 kg C) 50 kg D) 40 kg Correct Ans: C

Q27) If 5 litres of vinegar containing 20% of water is mixed with 10 litres of vinegar containing 5% of water,
then what percentage of the new vinegar mixture is water?
A) 11.11% B) 10% C) 20% D) 15% Correct Ans: B

Q28) A dealer mixes 26 kg of a variety of tea at ₹200 per kg with 30 kg of another variety of tea at ₹360 per kg,
and sells the mixture at ₹300 per kg. His profit percentage is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q29) In what ratio wheat at ₹38 per kg should be mixed with wheat at ₹26 per kg so that on selling the mixture
at ₹39 per kg, there would be a profit of 30%?
A) 1 : 2 B) 3 : 4 C) 2 : 3 D) 1 : 3 Correct Ans: A

Q30) Two vessels, A and B, contain spirit and water in the ratio 3 : 4 and 5 : 3, respectively. Find the ratio in
which these two mixtures be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel C containing spirit and water in the
ratio 4 : 3.
A) 4 : 7 B) 5 : 8 C) 3 : 8 D) 3 : 7 Correct Ans: C

Q31) A shopkeeper buys two varieties of sugar at ₹120 and ₹80 per kg, respectively, and mixes them in the
ratio 2 : 3. He then sets the marked price of each kg of the blended sugar at 50% above the cost he
incurred per kg of the same, and then sold it after offering a 25% discount on the marked price. At what
price (in ₹) did the shopkeeper sell each kg of the blended sugar?
A) 108 B) 114 C) 120 D) 144 Correct Ans: A

Q32) How much sugar at ₹68/kg should be added to 20 kg of tea worth ₹440/kg so that the mixture be worth
₹130/kg?
A) 120 kg B) 110 kg C) 80 kg D) 100 kg Correct Ans: D

Q33) A container has 72 litre of pure milk. One–third of the milk is replaced by water in the container. Again,
one–third of the mixture is extracted and an equal amount of water is added. What is the ratio of milk to
water in the new mixture?
A) 2 : 3 B) 4 : 5 C) 1 : 2 D) 3 : 4 Correct Ans: B

Q34) A chef has two cans of acids and water mixture. He combines the contents of both cans in a beaker. The
resulting mixture has half water and half acid. What is the quantity in which he mixed the contents of can
1 and can 2, given that can 2 has an acid-to-water ratio of 2 : 3 and can 1 has an acid-to-water ratio of 5 :
3?
A) 2 : 3 B) 4 : 5 C) 4 : 7 D) 3 : 7 Correct Ans: B

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Q35) A car’s radiator should contain a solution of 52% antifreeze. A motorist has 8 litres of 40% antifreeze. How
many litres (rounded off to 2 decimal places) of 95% antifreeze liquid should he add to his solution to
produce a 52% antifreeze?
A) 2.23 B) 1.92 C) 4.26 D) 3.45 Correct Ans: A

Q36) A solution of phenyl and water is 28 litres, with phenyl and water in ratio 4 : 3. 21 litres phenyl-water
solution which has phenyl to water ratio as 2 : 1 is added to the 28 litres phenyl-water solution. Again 51
litres phenyl-water solution that has phenyl to water ratio as 9 : 8 is added to this. What is ratio of water
to phenyl in the final mixture?
A) 43 : 57 B) 57 : 43 C) 59 : 41 D) 41 : 59 Correct Ans: A

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) If two kinds of rice which cost ₹25 a kg and ₹40 a kg are mixed in the ratio of 3 : 2, then find the cost of the
mixture per kg.
A) ₹32 B) ₹33 C) ₹31 D) ₹30 Correct Ans: C

Q2) A vessel contains 18 litres mixture of milk and water in the ratio 5 : 1. If 3 litres of milk is added to the
vessel, then how much water (in litres) should be added to the vessel to have milk and water in the ratio 9 :
2?
A) 2 B) 1.5 C) 0.5 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q3) In alloys A and B, the ratio of lead to tin is 5 : 3 and 3 : 1, respectively. 80 kg of alloy A and 100 kg of alloy B
are mixed together to form a new alloy. What is the amount of tin (in kg) in the new alloy?
A) 90 B) 55 C) 68 D) 81.3 Correct Ans: B

Q4) A 12 litre solution of acid and water contains 30% acid. How much water (in litres) must be added to get a
solution having 20% acid?
A) 6 B) 3 C) 5 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q5) A mixture of750 kg of alloy of copper and tin contains 25% tin. How much tin must be added so that it
becomes 70% of the mixture?
A) 895 kg B) 1125 kg C) 956 kg D) 1097 kg Correct Ans: B

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q2)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q3)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q4)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q9)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q10)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Selection Post XII

Q1) The initial ratio of water and milk in a mixture of 84 litres is 2:5. What quantity of water (in litres) should be
added to the mixture so that the resulting mixture has 50% of water?
A) 36 B) 18 C) 16 D) 32 Correct Ans: A

Q2) Two containers of equal capacity are full of mixture of milk and water. In the first, the ratio of milk to water
is 3 : 7 and in the second it is 7 : 9. Now both the mixtures are mixed in a bigger container. What is the
resulting ratio of milk to water?
A) 59 : 101 B) 57 : 107 C) 61 : 97 D) 58 : 103 Correct Ans: A

Q3) A grocer has 15 kg of sugar at ₹45 per kg. How much sugar at ₹34.5 per kg should she add to it, so that the
mixture is worth ₹38 per kg?
A) 32 kg B) 30 kg C) 35 kg D) 28 kg Correct Ans: B

Q4) A shopkeeper mixes 15 kg of sugar costing ₹ 11/kg with 22 kg of sugar costing ₹12/kg. What is the cost (in
₹) per kg of the mixture? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
A) 11.51 B) 11.59 C) 11.38 D) 11.84 Correct Ans: B

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Q5) A person mixes two liquids, x and y. One litre of x weighs approximately 900 g, and one litre of y weighs
approximately 750 g. If one litre of the mixture weighs approximately 800 g, then the percentage of x in the
mixture is:
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q6) From a container having pure milk, 40% is replaced by water and the process is repeated thrice. At the end
of the third operation, the purity of milk is:
A) 21.6% B) 22.7% C) 18.6% D) 23.4% Correct Ans: A

Q7) A chemistry laboratory requests for a 25% solution of ferrous sulphate. A supplier has 40 millilitres of 20%
solution. How many millilitres of 40% solution should be added to make it a 25% solution (correct to two
decimal places)?
A) 14.30 B) 15.20 C) 16.40 D) 13.33 Correct Ans: D

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics
Distance, Time,
and Speed
200+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Distance, Time, and Speed
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) P and Q start running in opposite directions on a circular track from the same point. If their speeds are 10
m/s and 8 m/s, respectively, then after what time will they meet if the length of the track is 1620 m?
A) 110 seconds B) 70 seconds C) 120 seconds D) 90 seconds Correct Ans: D

Q2) Two athletes are participating in a race on a circular track of 220 m. Ravi runs at the speed of 22 m/s, while
Kapil runs at the speed of 11 m/s. They start from the same point, at the same time and in the same
direction. After how many seconds will they meet for the first time?
A) 15 seconds B) 16 seconds C) 20 seconds D) 24 seconds Correct Ans: C

Q3) A policeman is chasing a thief at a speed of 82 km/h. The thief is 1300 m away and is running at a speed of
64 km/h. In how much time will the policeman catch the thief if both are riding on bikes?
A) 350 sec B) 260 sec C) 250 sec D) 300 sec Correct Ans: B

Q4) A thief pursued by a policeman was 150 m ahead at the start. If the ratio of the speed of the policeman to
that of the thief was 5 : 4, then how far (distance in metres) could the thief go before he is caught by the
policeman?
A) 350 B) 200 C) 600 D) 400 Correct Ans: C

Q5) In a circular race of 750 m, X and Y start from the same point and at the same time with speeds of 9 km/h
and 13.5 km/h, respectively. If they are running in the same direction then, when will they meet again for
the first time on the track?
A) 750 seconds B) 900 seconds C) 500 seconds D) 600 seconds Correct Ans: D

Q6) A thief is spotted by a policeman from a distance of 100 m. The thief starts running and the policeman
chases him. If the speed of thief and policeman are 21 km/h and 23 km/h, respectively, then how far will the
thief have to run before he is over taken?
A) 1020 m B) 1050 m C) 1090 m D) 1080 m Correct Ans: B

Q7) A policeman noticed a thief at some distance. The policeman started running to catch the thief and the
thief also started running at the same time. The speed of both policeman and the thief was 12 km per hour
and 10 km per hour, respectively. It took 30 minutes for the policeman to catch the thief. Find the initial
distance (in metres) between them.
A) 500 B) 600 C) 1000 D) 100 Correct Ans: C

Q8) In a circular race of 1600 m in length, Bhaskar and Vinay start with speeds of 27 km/h and 45 km/h starting
at the same time from the same point. When will they meet for the first time on the track when running in
the opposite directions and the same direction, respectively?
A) 1 minute 20 seconds and 5 minutes 20 seconds B) 1 minute 40 seconds and 5 minutes 20 seconds

C) 2 minutes 40 seconds and 5 minutes 40 seconds D) 2 minutes 20 seconds and 4 minutes 20 seconds

Correct Ans: A

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Q9) Places A and B are 20 km apart on the highway. A car starts from A and another from B at the same time. If
the cars travel in the same direction at different speeds, they meet in one hour. If they travelled towards
each other, they met in 12 minutes. What are the speeds (in km/h) of two cars?
A) 60, 40 B) 52, 48 C) 51, 49 D) 55, 45 Correct Ans: A

Q10) A thief is spotted by a policeman from a distance of 195 metres. When the policeman starts the chase, the
thief also starts running. If the speed of the thief is 22 km/h and that of the policeman is 27 km/h, then
how far would the thief have run (in m) before he is overtaken?
A) 825 B) 951 C) 858 D) 958 Correct Ans: C

Q11) Suppose P starts walking at a speed of 8 km/h. After 8 hours B started travelling on a bicycle at a speed
of 24 km/h. The distance from the starting B can catch A is:
A) 64 km B) 96 km C) 72 km D) 88 km Correct Ans: B

Q12) A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman
chases him. The thief and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km/h and 11 km/h, respectively. What is the
distance (in metres) between them after 9 minutes?
A) 40 B) 50 C) 30 D) 60 Correct Ans: B

Q13) Arvind and Chetan started running simultaneously from the same point in the same direction on a
circular track of length 210 m. If Arvind takes 180 seconds to complete one round, and Chetan takes 420
seconds to complete one round, after how much time will they meet for the first time at the starting point
on the track?
A) 10 minutes B) 15 minutes C) 21 minutes D) 28 minutes Correct Ans: C

Q14) A bus travels of the distance initially at a speed of 40 km/h, the next of the distance 50 km/h, and the

final of the distance at 60 km/h. Find the average speed of the bus for the entire journey.

(Rounded off to two decimal places)

A) 48.65 km/h B) 51.43 km/h C) 54.13 km/h D) 46.85 km/h Correct Ans: A

Q15) Akshara and Siddharth travel from point P to Q, a distance of 72 km at a rate of 8 km/h and 10 km/h,
respectively. Siddharth reaches Q first and returns immediately and meets Akshara at R. Find the
distance from P to R.
A) 65 km B) 63 km C) 64 km D) 66 km Correct Ans: C

Q16) A thief takes off on his bike at a certain speed, after seeing a police car at a distance of 250 m. The police
car starts chasing the thief and catches him. If the thief runs 1.5 km before being caught and the speed of
the police car is 70 km/h, then what is the speed of thief’s bike (in km/h)?
A) 65 B) 60 C) 55 D) 50 Correct Ans: B

Q17) Seema walks around a circular field at the rate of 3 rounds per hour, while Priya runs around it at the rate
of 8 rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 11:54 p.m. They shall first
cross each other at:
A) 12:06 p.m. B) 12:00 a.m. C) 12:06 a.m. D) 11:59 p.m. Correct Ans: C

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Q18) Atul gives Vishu a head-start of 20 seconds in a 900 m race and beats him by 135 m. While running the
same race again Atul gives a start of 189 m and beats him by 8 seconds. In how much time can Vishu
complete the full race of 900 m?
A) 3 minutes 30 seconds B) 2 minutes 50 seconds C) 3 minutes 20 seconds D) 3 minutes 10 seconds Correct Ans: C

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q3) A person divides his total route of journey into three equal parts and decides to travel the three parts at the
speeds of 80 km/h, 60 km/h and 30 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed during the journey?
A) 45 km/h B) 40 km/h C) 49 km/h D) 48 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q4) A person drives 110 miles at 55 miles per hour, he drives the next 120 miles at 60 miles per hour, and then
he drives the next 60 miles in an hour. What is his average speed for the entire journey in miles per hour ?
A) 58 B) 55 C) 63 D) 60 Correct Ans: A

Q5) Shankar covers a certain distance by a car driving at 40 km/h and he returns to the starting point riding on
a scooter with a speed of 20 km/h. Find the average speed of the whole journey.
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q6) By what percentage should a racer increase the speed to reduce the time by 25% to cover a fixed
distance?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q7)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q9)

A) 90 B) 60 C) 80 D) 75 Correct Ans: A

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Q10) A person reaches his destination 30 minutes late, if his speed is 3 km/h, and reaches 30 minutes before
time if his speed is 4 km/h. Find the distance of his destination from his starting point.
A) 13 km B) 12 km C) 14 km D) 11 km Correct Ans: B

Q11) A motorcyclist rides his motorcycle at a speed of 90 km/hr in the first one hour and the next two hours at
a speed of 120 km/hr. Find the average speed of the rider.
A) 110 km/hr B) 120 km/hr C) 105 km/hr D) 115 km/hr Correct Ans: A

Q12)

A) 400 km B) 250 km C) 240km D) 300km Correct Ans: A

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q14) A cyclist rides 10 km at an average speed of 15 km/hr and then the next 15 km at an average speed of 10
km/hr. The average speed of the entire ride is:
A) 20 km/hr B) 12.5 km/hr C) 10 km/hr D) 11.54 km/hr Correct Ans: D

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q16)

A) 3 hours 20 minutes B) 5 hours 20 minutes C) 6 hours 20 minutes D) 4 hours 20 minutes Correct Ans: B

Q17)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q19) A motorcycle covered the first 60 km of its journey at an average speed of 40 km/h. The speed of the
motorcycle for covering the rest of the journey, i.e. 90 km, was 45 km/h. During the whole journey, the
overall average speed of the motorcycle was:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q20)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q21) A car covers a certain distance in 85 minutes, if it runs at a speed of 36 km/hr. The speed at which the car
must run to reduce the time of journey to 51 minutes will be:
A) 70 km/hr B) 80 km/hr C) 60 km/hr D) 50 km/hr Correct Ans: C

Q22) With a uniform speed, a car covers a distance in 16 hours. Had the speed been increased by 20 km/h, the
same distance would have been covered in 12 hours. The total distance covered by the car is:
A) 720 km B) 1080 km C) 960 km D) 480 km Correct Ans: C

Q23) A policeman is chasing a thief at a speed of 12 km/h, and the thief is running at a speed of 8 km/h. If the
policeman started 30 minutes late, find the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief.
A) 120 minutes B) 60 minutes C) 90 minutes D) 100 minutes Correct Ans: B

Q24) A man walking at the speed of 5 km/h covers a certain distance in 3 hours 45 minutes. If he covers the
same distance by a cycle in 2 hours 10 minutes, then the speed of the cycle in km/h is:

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q25) Tom travelled 285 km in 6 hours. In his total travelling, he travelled the first part by bus at 40 km/hr and
the remaining part by train at 55 km/hr. How much distance has he travelled by train?
A) 155 km B) 120 km C) 165 km D) 135 km Correct Ans: C

Q26) A policeman was asked to chase a thief. Before the policeman started the chase, he realised that the thief
was 200 metres ahead of him and was running at a speed of 16 km/h. The policeman started the chase at
a speed of 20 km/h. How far will the thief run before he is overtaken by the policeman?
A) 1000 m B) 700 m C) 800 m D) 600 m Correct Ans: C

Q27) Mithila covers 50 km by bus in 90 minutes. After deboarding the bus, she takes rest for 15 minutes and
covers another 30 km by a taxi in 35 minutes. Find the average speed (in km/h) for the whole journey.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q28) In a 2 km linear race, if P completes the race in 200 second and Q in 220 seconds, then the distance by which P beats Q is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q29)

A) 40 km B) 38 km C) 42 km D) 35 km Correct Ans: A

Q30)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q31)

A) 0.8 B) 1.0 C) 1.5 D) 1.2 Correct Ans: C

Q32)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) Ravi walks a circular track of 1680m in circumference. If the speed of Ravi is 140m/min, then the time to
cover one round is equal to:
A) 14 min B) 8 min C) 12 min D) 10 min Correct Ans: C

Q2) If a man takes 36 minutes to cover a certain distance at a speed of 6 km/h, then the distance covered by
him is:
A) 3 km B) 3.6 km C) 2 km D) 2.5 km Correct Ans: B

Q3) A speed of 16 km/h is the same as:(Up to 1 place of decimal)

A) 8.4 m/sec B) 2 m/sec C) 8 m/sec D) 4.4 m/sec Correct Ans: D

Q4) How many seconds does Tiwari take to cover a distance of 600 m if he runs at a speed of 10 km/h?
A) 212 B) 200 C) 205 D) 216 Correct Ans: D

Q5) A cyclist covers a distance of 2.5 km in 4 minutes 10 seconds. How long will he take to cover a distance of
12 km at the same speed?
A) 10 minutes B) 20 minutes C) 11 minutes D) 12 minutes Correct Ans: B

Q6) A car can cover 275 km in 5 hours. If its speed is reduced by 5 km/h, then how much time will the car take
to cover a distance of 300 km?
A) 6 hr B) 4 hr 30 min C) 5 hr 30 min D) 5 hr Correct Ans: A

Q7) A bicycle goes 11 metres in 9 seconds. Find its speed in km/h.

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q8) A, B and C start running around a circular track and complete one round in 16, 20 and 28 seconds,
respectively. In how much time will they meet again at the starting point?
A) 510 seconds B) 220 seconds C) 310 seconds D) 560 seconds Correct Ans: D

Q9) Raghav covers a distance of 45 km in 1 hour 40 minutes. Assuming he maintains a constant speed
throughout his journey, what is Raghav’s speed (in m/s)?
A) 6 B) 9 C) 7.2 D) 7.5 Correct Ans: D

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Q10) A man riding his bike covers 960 m in 64 sec. What is his speed in km/hr?
A) 15 B) 64 C) 54 D) 50 Correct Ans: C

Q11) The speed of a car is 81 km/hr. The distance covered by the car in 24 seconds is:
A) 280 m B) 560 m C) 270 m D) 540 m Correct Ans: D

Q12) A thief is running away on a straight road on a bike moving at the speed of 28 m/s. A policeman chases
him in a car moving at the speed of 30 m/s. if the instantaneous separation of the bike from the car is 400
m, how long will it take for the policeman to catch the thief?
A) 200 seconds B) 100 seconds C) 150 seconds D) 300 seconds Correct Ans: A

Q13) A car can cover 275 km in 5 hours. If its speed is reduced by 5 km/h, then how much time will the car take
to cover a distance of 250 km?
A) 6 hr B) 5 hr C) 4 hr 30 min D) 5 hr 30 min Correct Ans: B

Q14) A cyclist covers a distance of 2.5 km in 4 minutes 10 seconds. How long will he take to cover a distance
of 6 km at the same speed?
A) 10 minutes B) 12 minutes C) 11 minutes D) 9 minutes Correct Ans: A

Q15) A man covers a total distance of 100 km on bicycle. For the first 2 h, the speed was 20 km/h and for the
rest of the journey, it came down to 10 km/h. The average speed will be:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q16) A car travels 80 km at the speed of 20 km/h and the next 30 km at the speed of 30 km/h. What is its
average speed?
A) 20 km/h B) 30 km/h C) 40 km/h D) 22 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q17) A man travelled from Tirupati to Tirumala at the speed of 20 km/h and walked back at the speed of 4 km/h.
If the whole journey took 24 hours, then find the distance (in km) between Tirumala and Tirupati.
A) 20 B) 25 C) 80 D) 30 Correct Ans: C

Q18) A man covers the first half of the journey at the speed of 60 km/h and the remaining at the speed of 84
km/h. What is his average speed (in km/h)?

A) 60 B) 75 C) 70 D) 65 Correct Ans: C

Q19) A car driver covers a total distance of 120 km. He covers the first 80 km at a uniform speed of 50 km/h
and the next 40 km at a uniform speed of 40 km/h. The average speed of the car is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q20) A thief is 150 metres away from a policeman. If the speed of the thief is 93 km/h and the speed of the
policeman is 108 km/h, then the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief is:
A) 40 seconds B) 36 seconds C) 38 seconds D) 32 seconds Correct Ans: B

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Q21) A man riding his bicycle covers 75 metres in 12.5 seconds. What is his speed (in km/hr)?
A) 15.5 B) 21.6 C) 6 D) 11.1 Correct Ans: B

Q22) Two bicycle riders started at a speed of 7 m/sec and 8 m/sec on a circular path in opposite directions at
the same point. If the circumference of the circle is 300 m, then in what time will they first meet?
A) 30 sec B) 12 sec C) 20 sec D) 24 sec Correct Ans: C

Q23) During the evening patrolling, a policeman noticed a thief snatching a lady’s mobile phone at a distance
of 200 m. The thief starts running at a speed of 15 km/hr. If the policeman is chasing him at a speed of 16
km/hr, then the time taken to catch the thief is:
A) 24 minutes B) 12 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 18 minutes Correct Ans: B

Q24) A and B are running in the same direction at the speeds of 9km/h and 3km/h, respectively,on a circular
track of length 27 km. They will meet again after:
A) 3 hours B) 3.5 hours C) 4.5 hours D) 4 hours Correct Ans: C

Q25) In a jeep driving at a speed of 9 m/s, a thief is fleeing on a straight road. He is being pursued by a police
officer riding a motorbike at a speed of 10 m/s. How long would it take a police officer to apprehend the
burglar if there is a 100 m instantaneous distance between the vehicle and the motorbike?
A) 95 s B) 102 s C) 98 s D) 100 s Correct Ans: D

Q26) I walk at a speed of 10 km/h and reach the destination in 2 hours. If I increase my speed by 5 km/h, how
early would I reach my destination?
A) 50 min B) 40 min C) 30 min D) 20 min Correct Ans: B

Q27) A motor car starts with a speed of 60 km/h and increases its speed after every two hours by 15 km/h. In
how much time will it cover a distance of 450 km?
A) 2 hours B) 6 hours C) 9 hours D) 5 hours Correct Ans: B

Q28) Walking at a speed of 5.4 km/h, Rohit takes 40 minutes to reach his school from his home. What time will
he take if he walks 8 km/h?
A) 27 minutes B) 23 minutes C) 25 minutes D) 24 minutes Correct Ans: A

Q29) Rajneesh drove his car at a speed of 99 km/h for 2 hours and then he took a rest for one hour. Then, he
further drove for 3 hours at a speed of 60 km/h. What was Rajneesh’s average speed (in km/h) during his
entire journey?
A) 69 B) 65 C) 67 D) 63 Correct Ans: D

Q30) P, Q and R start running around a circular track and complete one round in 18, 22 and 30 seconds,
respectively. In how much time will they meet again at the starting point?
A) 16 min 30 sec B) 11 min 50 sec C) 11 min 30 sec D) 16 min 50 sec Correct Ans: A

Q31) The scale of a map is given as 1:250. Two cities are 6.5 km apart on the map. The actual distance between
them is
A) 1000 km B) 1250 km C) 1200 km D) 1625 km Correct Ans: D

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Q32) A policeman travelling at a speed of 120 km/h chases a thief 5000 m away from him, and travelling at a
speed of 100 km/h. What is the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief?
A) 13.5 min B) 15 min C) 10 min D) 20 min Correct Ans: B

Q33) Two athletes X and Y are jogging on a circular path whose circumference is 500 m. Athlete X jogs at a
speed of 18 km/h and Y jog at 9 km/h, jogging in opposite directions. The time at which they will meet for
the first time is:
A) 66.66 s B) 50 s C) 27.77 s D) 200 s Correct Ans: A

Q34) A policeman notices a thief from a distance of 220 m. He chases the thief when he started running the
moment he saw the police. The thief and policeman run at the rate of 9 km/h and 11 km/h respectively.
How much distance policeman has to cover for catching the thief?
A) 1.21 km B) 0.86 km C) 1.48 km D) 0.98 km Correct Ans: A

Q35) A man covers 30 km by car at a speed of 60 km/h and another 20 km by cycle. His whole journey is
completed in 3 hours. What is the speed (in km/h) of the cycle?
A) 6 B) 12 C) 8 D) 10 Correct Ans: C

Q36) Ravi goes to college from his village at the speed of 5km/h and returns at the speed of 4km/h. If he takes
9 hours in all, find the distance (in km) between the village and the college.
A) 9 B) 40 C) 18 D) 20 Correct Ans: D

Q37) Radha walks to her office 5 km away from home. In the morning, she covers the distance in 1 hour
whereas, while returning home in the evening, she takes 15 more minutes to cover the same distance.
Find her average speed (in km/h) during the two-way journey.
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q38) A policeman can catch a thief in fifteen minutes when the distance between them is 2 km. If the policeman
starts chasing the thief at 9:00 a.m. and he catches the thief at 9:40 a.m., what was the initial distance
between the thief and the policeman?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q39) Tannish travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km/h, from B to C at 15 km/h and from C to D at 30 km/h. If AB
= BC = CD, then find Tannish’s average speed for the whole journey.
A) 21 km/h B) 22 km/h C) 20 km/h D) 19 km/h Correct Ans: C

Q40) A thief steals a bike at 12.40 p.m. and drives it at 45 km/h. The theft is discovered at 1 p.m. and the owner
sets off in a car at 65 km/h in the direction the thief was heading. The time at which the owner can catch
the thief is:
A) 1:30 p.m. B) 1:45 p.m. C) 2:10 p.m. D) 2:00 p.m. Correct Ans: B

Q41) A person has to cover a distance of 8 km in 1 hour. If he covers one-fourth of the distance in one-third of
the total time, then what should his speed (in km/h) be to cover the remaining distance in the remaining
time so that the person reaches the destination exactly on time?

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A) 8 B) 9 C) 6 D) 7 Correct Ans: B

Q42)
A) 3100 m B) 3150 m C) 3125 m D) 3175 m Correct Ans: B

Q43) How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of side 38 metres, if
he runs at a speed of 6 km/h?
A) 50.1 B) 61.2 C) 91.2 D) 71.2 Correct Ans: C

Q44) A policeman saw a thief at a distance of 800m. When the policeman started chasing the thief, the thief
started running. If the ratio of the speeds of the policeman to the thief is 3:2, then the distance travelled
by the policeman to catch the thief is
A) 2.4 km B) 1.6 km C) 3.2 km D) 2 km Correct Ans: A

Q45) A man on a tour of 400 km, travels the first 120 km at 80 km/h and the next 150 km at 75 km/h. If he must
spend less than 5 hours in the tour, what is the minimum speed at which he has to travel for the
remaining distance?
A) 86.66 km/h B) 90.21 km/h C) 88.56 km/h D) 84.72 km/h Correct Ans: A

Q46) Three students of class VII participated in a race during a school sports day. In a 1 km race, A wins the
race with B by 100 m, and in a 300 m race, B beats C by 50 m. Then in the race of 1 km, with what margin
will A beat C?
A) 250 m B) 750 m C) 700 m D) 150 m Correct Ans: A

Q47) A person has to cover a distance of 8 km in 1 hour. If he covers one-fourth of the distance in one-third of
the total time, then what should his speed (in km/h) be to cover the remaining distance in the remaining
time so that the person reaches the destination exactly on time?
A) 9 B) 8 C) 6 D) 7 Correct Ans: A

Q48) A thief saw a policeman, and he started running at a speed of 18 m/s. After 12 seconds, the policeman
starts running behind the thief at a certain speed. If the policeman covered 864 meters distance to reach
the thief, then the speed (in m/s) of the policeman is:
A) 30 B) 15 C) 24 D) 28 Correct Ans: C

Q49) A man’s average driving speed for 9 hours is 88 km/hr. During the first five hours of his journey, he drove
at 74 km/hr, and last two hours he drove at 82 km/hr. What was his average speed (in km/hr) for the sixth
and the seventh hour?

A) 101 B) 92 C) 120 D) 129 Correct Ans: D

Q50) A car travels at a uniform speed of 45 km/h for 210 km and then travels for 420 km at a uniform speed of
70 km/h. What is the average speed of the car during the entire journey?

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q51) Geeta went to her home town at a distance of 270 km from her house. She started her journey at 10:00
a.m. and reached the destination at 02:00 p.m. by travelling 20 km by cab at a speed of 60 km/h and 240

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 km by train running at a speed of 80 km/h. She covered the remaining distance by an auto to reach her
place. What was the speed of the auto?
A) 4 km/h B) 15 km/h C) 20 km/h D) 18 km/h Correct Ans: B

Q52) A man travels a certain distance at 10 km/h and returns to the starting point at 8 km/h. The total time
taken by him for the entire journey is one and a half hours. The total distance (in km) covered by him is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q53) A person can complete a journey in 21 hours. He covers the first one-third of the journey at the speed of
40 km/h and the remaining distance at the speed of 60 km/h. What is the total distance of his journey?
A) 1140 km B) 360 km C) 720 km D) 1080 km Correct Ans: D

Q54) A person walks alonga rectangular field, whose dimensions are 6 km long and 3 km wide. For the first
1 hour, he walks at a speed of 2 km/hr. After 1 hour, he increases his speed to 4 km/hr. Next 1 hour, his
speed is decreased to 2 km/hr. For the next 1 hour, he increases his speed to 4 km/hr. Find his
average speed (in km/hr).
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Correct Ans: B

Q55) A policeman chases a thief. The speed of the policeman and thief are 10 kmph and 8 kmph, respectively.
If the policeman started 15 minutes late, find the time taken by the policeman to catch the thief.
A) 30 minutes B) 60 minutes C) 45 minutes D) 15 minutes Correct Ans: B

Q56) I walk at a speed of 10 km/h and reach my destination in 2 hrs. If I increase my speed by 2 km/h, how early
would I reach my destination?
A) 50 min B) 20 min C) 100 min D) 40 min Correct Ans: B

Q57) A thief saw a policeman and he started running at a speed of 12 m/s. After a certain time, the policeman
starts running behind the thief at a speed of 18 m/s. If the policeman covered a 540 m distance to catch
the thief, the time (in seconds) after which the policeman started running is:
A) 18 B) 10 C) 15 D) 12 Correct Ans: C

Q58) A person has to cover a distance of 8 km in 1 hour. If he covers one-fourth of the distance in one-third of
the total time, then what should his speed (in km/h) be to cover the remaining distance in the remaining
time so that the person reaches the destination exactly on time?
A) 7 B) 9 C) 6 D) 8 Correct Ans: B

Q59) A and B start running on a circular race track whose length is 3240 m. A and B start from the same point
and at the same time, but in opposite directions. If A runs at a speed of 10 m/s and they cross each other
3 minutes after they start running, then what is B’s speed (in m/s)?
A) 7.5 B) 8 C) 9 D) 8.5 Correct Ans: B

Q60) A person travels equal distances with speeds of 3 km/hr, 4 km/hr and 8 km/hr, respectively, and takes a
total of 425 minutes. What is the total distance (in km) travelled?
A) 27 B) 30 C) 28 D) 32 Correct Ans: B

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Q61) Distance between A and B is 1200 km. If they start moving towards each other at same time, they will
meet in 24 hrs. If A starts 10 hrs after B, then they will meet after another 20 hrs. What are their respective
speeds?
A) 35 km/h, 25 km/h B) 40 km/h, 25km/h C) 30 km/h, 20 km/h D) 25 km/h, 35 km/h Correct Ans: C

Q62) A thief steels a bike at 10:30 am and drives it at 50 km/hr. But the thief is found after half an hour. The bike
owner started to chase him by another bike at 60 km/hr. The time at which the thief is caught is:
A) 2: 30 pm B) 1: 30 pm C) 1: 00 pm D) 12: 30 pm Correct Ans: B

Q63) A start from X at 9:00 A.M. and reaches Y at 1:00 P.M., on the same day, B also starts from Y at 9:00 A.M.
and reaches X at 3:00 P.M. on the same day, following the same route as A. At what time do the two meet?
A) 11:12 A.M. B) 11:30 A.M. C) 10:00 A.M. D) 11:24 A.M. Correct Ans: D

Q64)

A) 150 m B) 200 m C) 100 m D) 350 m Correct Ans: D

Q65) A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 400 m. The thief starts running at a speed of 8 km/h
and the policeman chases him at a speed of 9 km/h. What is the distance between them after 18 minutes?
A) 300 m B) 200 m C) 100 m D) 150 m Correct Ans: C

Q66) A person sees another person snatching a chain from a lady, at a distance of 300 metres. He starts
running and catches the thief by running at 10 km/h after running a total distance of 1.5 km. The speed at
which the thief was running was:
A) 9.5 km/h B) 9 km/h C) 8 km/h D) 8.5 km/h Correct Ans: C

Q67) Ajit walks around a circular field at the speed of two rounds per hour, while Mohit runs around it at the
speed of 10 rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 6.30 a.m. Find the
time at which they cross each other.
A) 06 : 40 : 00 B) 06 : 37 : 30 C) 06 : 37 : 20 D) 06 : 37 : 50 Correct Ans: B

Q68) In a 5-km race, A beats B by 750 metres and C by 1260 metres. By how many metres does B beat C in the
same race?
A) 400 metres B) 700 metres C) 500 metres D) 600 metres Correct Ans: D

Q69) P and Q walk along a circular track in opposite directions. P completes two rounds of the track in 1
minute and Q completes three rounds of the track in the same time. They start from the same point and
walk for 2 minutes. How many times will they meet on the track between start time and end time?
A) 11 B) 10 C) 8 D) 9 Correct Ans: D

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

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Q1) A travels for 8 hours at the rate of 4 km/h and for 4 hours at the rate of 8 km/h. The average speed of the
journey (in km/h) is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q2) S drives his car and covers 37 km and 500 m in 90 minutes. What is his average speed (in km/h)?
A) 25 B) 22.5 C) 40 D) 20 Correct Ans: A

Q3) A man travels some distance from his house to the exhibition ground by an auto at a speed of 30 km/h and
returns by a cab at a speed of 50 km/h. What is his average speed (in km/h)?
A) 38 B) 28 C) 40 D) 37.5 Correct Ans: D

Q4) A train covers a distance of 850 metres in 45 seconds. Travelling at the same speed, how many kilometres
will the train cover in an hour?
A) 67.5 B) 69 C) 68 D) 67.2 Correct Ans: C

Q5) Ashish covers 72 km at a speed of 45 km/h by bike, 28 km at a speed of 4 km/h by bicycle, and another 160
km at a speed of 20 km/h by car. Find his average speed (in km/h) for the whole journey. (Rounded off to
two decimal places)
A) 15.66 B) 25.25 C) 28.33 D) 27.65 Correct Ans: A

Q6) The distance (d) a moving body travels, varies directly with the time (t) when it moves. A train travels 72 km
in 2 hours. Find the equation that relates d and t.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q7) Two towns P and Q are 275 km apart. A motorcycle rider starts from P towards Q at 10:00 a.m. at the speed
of 25 km/h. Another rider starts from Q towards P at 12 noon on the same day at the speed of 20 km/h. At
what time will they cross each other?
A) 3:00 p.m. B) 5:00 p.m. C) 1:15 p.m. D) 4:30 p.m. Correct Ans: B

Q8) A bus covers the first 50 km of its journey in 40 minutes and covers the remaining 75 km in 40 minutes.
What is the average speed (in km/h) of the bus?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q9) R reaches office from home in 30 minutes and comes back in 20 minutes. The distance to his office from
home is 12.5 km. What is his average speed (in km/h) from home to office and then back home?
A) 20 B) 25 C) 60 D) 30 Correct Ans: D

Q10) A person covers 11 km with a speed of 7 km/h, 25 km with a speed of 10 km/h and 30 km with a speed of
20 km/h. What is the average speed of the person?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

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Q11) A man travels some distance at a speed of 12 km/h and returns at a speed of 8 km/h. If the total time taken
by him is 3 hours and 45 minutes, then the total distance (in km) travelled is:
A) 32 B) 42 C) 36 D) 24 Correct Ans: C

Q12) Two cars run to a place at the speeds of 45 km/h and 55 km/h, respectively. If the second car takes 40
minutes less than the first for the journey, then what is the length of the journey (in km)?
A) 145 B) 165 C) 180 D) 99 Correct Ans: B

Q13) A man travels 1200 km by train at 80 km/h, 1600 km by ship at 40 km/h, 1000 km by plane at 400 km/h, and
200 km by car at 50 km/h. What is the average speed for the entire distance? (rounded off to 2 decimal
places)
A) 75.40 km/h B) 68.14 km/h C) 72.40 km/h D) 65.04 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q14) If a car runs at a speed of 60 km/h and takes 180 minutes to cover a certain distance, then what time will it
take to cover the same distance at a speed of 40 km?
A) 3 hr B) 4 hr 30 min C) 3 hr 45 min D) 3 hr 15 min Correct Ans: B

Q15) A train covers 60 km at a speed of 80 km/h, 100 km at a speed of 90 km/h, and another 140 km at a speed
of 120 km/h. Find the average speed for the complete journey. (Round to the nearest integer.)
A) 99 km/h B) 105 km/h C) 90 km/h D) 115 km/h Correct Ans: A

Q16) In a 100-km journey, the average speed of S is 40 km/h. He covers the first 60 km in 40 minutes and the
next 20 km in 50 minutes. What is his speed in the last 20 km (in km/h)?
A) 20 B) 40 C) 25 D) 30 Correct Ans: A

Q17) A student goes to his school by cycle. The distance from his house to school is 5 km and he covers this
distance in 1 hour. While going he stops twice for 5 minutes each. Find his average speed (in km/h).
A) 5.5 B) 6.5 C) 6 D) 4.5 Correct Ans: C

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q3)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q9)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q10)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q12)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q17)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q19)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q20)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q21)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q23)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q24)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q25)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q26)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q27)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q28)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q29)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q30)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q31)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Selection Post XII

Q1) If a car covers 90 km using 4 litres of petrol, how much distance (in km) will it cover using 32 litres of
petrol?
A) 720 B) 650 C) 710 D) 680 Correct Ans: A

Q2) A truck travels 75 km in the first hour and 33 km in the second hour. Find the average speed of the truck (in
km/h).
A) 54 B) 42 C) 108 D) 60 Correct Ans: A

Q3) A bus covers 1200 km in 30 hours. What is its average speed in m/s?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q4) A car covers the distance from Delhi to Gurugram at 60 km/h and returns at a uniform speed of 40 km/h.
The average speed of the car during the whole journey is:
A) 40 km/h B) 50 km/h C) 48 km/h D) 60 km/h Correct Ans: C

Q5) Reshma covers 45 km at a speed of 15 km/h by bicycle, 80 km at a speed of 40 km/h by car, and another 6
km at a speed of 2 km/h on foot. Find her average speed for the whole journey (correct to 2 decimal
places).
A) 18.36 km/h B) 43.50 km/h C) 15.25 km/h D) 16.38 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q6) In a circular race of 840 m, A and B start running in the same direction at the same time from the same
point at the speeds of 6 m/s and 12 m/s, respectively. After how much time will they meet next?
A) 70 s B) 20 s C) 140 s D) 40 s Correct Ans: C

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Q7) Dixit covers a certain distance by car, driving at the speed of 28 km/h and he returns to the starting point
riding on a scooter at the speed of 36 km/h. Find the average speed (in km/h) for the whole journey.
A) 31.5 B) 32.0 C) 64.0 D) 48.5 Correct Ans: A

Q8) A person travels two-fifth of a distance at a speed of 40 km/h and the remaining at a speed of 60 km/h.
What is his average speed (in km/h) in the entire journey?
A) 50 B) 40 C) 48 D) 60 Correct Ans: A

Q9) A man walks 3 km and 200 metres in 25 minutes. What is his speed (in km/h)?
A) 8.76 B) 7.86 C) 6.87 D) 7.68 Correct Ans: D

Q10) Ram goes to his office from his house at a speed of 8 km/h and returns at a speed of 2 km/h. If he takes
four hours in going and coming back, find the distance between the house and the office.
A) 6.4 km B) 5.3 km C) 7.4 km D) 6.3 km Correct Ans: A

Q11) A bus covers the first 70 km of its journey in 40 minutes and the remaining 60 km in 30 minutes. The
average speed of the bus, in km/h, is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q12) Sahil covers a distance of 96 km at the speed of 16 km/h and covers another distance at the speed of 21
km/h in 5 hours. What is his average speed (in km/h)? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
A) 19.45 B) 18.50 C) 18.27 D) 17.47 Correct Ans: C

Q13) A truck driver drove for 4 hours at 40 km/h. He drove for another 3 hours at 50 km/h after taking rest for 1
h. What was the driver’s average speed, in km/h, during the whole journey?
A) 36.50 B) 38.75 C) 40 D) 39.25 Correct Ans: B

Q14) A policeman spots a thief from a distance of 100 metres. When he starts running after the thief, the thief
starts running as well. How far will the thief have to run before being overtaken if his speed is 8 km/h and
the policeman's speed is 10 km/h?
A) 415 metres B) 430 metres C) 380 metres D) 400 metres Correct Ans: D

Q15) If Tanmay covers three equal distances at the speeds of 2 km/h, 3 km/h and 4 km/h, respectively, then find
his average speed (in km/h) during the whole journey. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
A) 3.25 B) 2.77 C) 5.75 D) 4.35 Correct Ans: B

Q16) The time taken by R to cover 45 km is 1.2 hours. In how many seconds will he cover 400 metres?
A) 34.8 B) 48.3 C) 38.4 D) 43.8 Correct Ans: C

Q17) A drives for 2 hours, 2.5 hours, 3 hours, 2 hours and 2.5 hours in five days of a week, respectively. His
speeds on these days are 45 km/h, 50 km/h, 60 km/h, 70 km/h and 80 km/h, respectively. What is his
average speed for the week?
A) 64.08 km/h B) 60.8 km/h C) 68.02 km/h D) 61.25 km/h Correct Ans: D

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Q18) A teacher travelled a distance of 22 km in 7 hours. He travelled partly on foot at the speed of 2 km/h and
partly on bicycle at the rate of 4 km/h. The distance travelled on foot is:
A) 10 km B) 6 km C) 8 km D) 3 km Correct Ans: B

Q19) P drives a car for 5 hours and after every hour he doubles the speed. In the fifth hour, his speed is 128
km/h. What is his average speed of the journey in km/h?
A) 52.6 B) 62.6 C) 49.6 D) 55.6 Correct Ans: C

Q20) A policeman notices a thief from a distance of 300 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases
him. The thief and the policeman run at the speeds of 10 km/h and 12 km/h, respectively. What will be the
distance between them (in m) after 6 minutes?
A) 150 B) 100 C) 200 D) 80 Correct Ans: B

Q21) A policeman chases a thief. The speed of the policeman and thief are 18 km/h and 6 km/h, respectively. If
the policeman started 10 minutes late, at what distance will he catch the thief?
A) 2.0 km B) 1.5 km C) 2.5 km D) 1.0 km Correct Ans: B

Q22) In a 300 m race, A beats B by 22.5 m or 6 seconds. Which of the following options is equal to B’s time
over the course?
A) 82 sec B) 80 sec C) 300 sec D) 30 sec Correct Ans: B

Q23) In a race of 400 m, Bhim gave Saral a head start by 20 m at the start of the race. Saral took 48 seconds to
complete the race. What was the speed (in m/s) of Bhim if Saral defeated Bhim by a margin of 2 seconds?
A) 8 B) 8.7 C) 7.6 D) 7.4 Correct Ans: A

Q24) A police station, a bank and a safe house for the thief are in a straight line with a bank in between. The
distance between the police station and the safe house is four times the distance between the bank and
the safe house. After looting the bank at 9:15 A.M, the thief runs away. A policeman gets the information
instantly and chases him at the speed of 16 km/h. The policeman catches the thief at the gate of the safe
house in fifteen minutes. What is the distance between the bank and the police station?
A) 4 km B) 1 km C) 2 km D) 3 km Correct Ans: D

Q25) Rashi travelled a distance of 400 km at an average speed of 50 km/h. She covers the first half distance in
the first lag in 2 hours, while she covers another lag at half the speed of that of the first lag in 1 hour.
What is the speed (in km/h) of the remaining distance?
A) 45 B) 60 C) 30 D) 50 Correct Ans: C

Q26) In a circular path of 619 m, Preeti and Rani start walking in opposite directions from the same point at the
speed of 2.85 km/h and 5.4 km/h, respectively. When they will meet for the first time approximately?
A) After 6.75 minutes B) After 4.75 minutes C) After 6.05 minutes D) After 4.50 minutes Correct Ans: D

Q27) A thief steals an item and escapes, running at 13.5 km/h. A policeman arrives at the spot of the crime after
8 minutes and immediately starts chasing the thief. 28 minutes after the policeman started to chase the
thief, there is still a gap of 540 m between the two. At what distance from the spot of the crime would the
policeman catch up with the thief, and what is the speed (in km/h) at which the policeman ran?
A) 10.4 km, 16 B) 10.8 km, 16.2 C) 12.96 km, 16.2 D) 11.2 km, 16.4 Correct Ans: B

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Q28) A policeman chases a thief on a straight road. The policeman catches the thief in 15 minutes if he drives
with a speed of 60 km/h and catches the thief in 0.5 hours if he drives with a speed 45 km/h. What should
be his driving speed (in km/h) to catch the thief in just 10 minutes?
A) 75 B) 70 C) 90 D) 65 Correct Ans: A

Q29) Veena and Karmesh were at different places in Delhi. They fixed a meeting point to meet to settle some
issue. Veena started her journey at 8:00 a.m. from place A and reached place B at 4:00 p.m. and Karmesh
started moving from place B 2 hours later than the time Veena started and could reach place A at 5:00
p.m. the same day, via the same route. At what time will Karmesh and Veena meet each other?
A) 1:24 p.m. B) 1:00 p.m. C) 12:48 p.m. D) 1:46 p.m. Correct Ans: C

Q30) In a 200-m race, if A gives B a head start of 35 m, then A wins the race by 20 sec. Alternatively, if A gives B
a head start of 55 m, the race ends in a dead heat. How long does A take to run 200 m?
A) 150 sec B) 165 sec C) 145 sec D) 155 sec Correct Ans: C

Q31) While travelling from A to B, Raghav travels a quarter of the distance at 10 km/h, the next quarter of the
distance at 15 km/h, the third quarter of the distance at 20 km/h, and the final quarter of the distance at 30
km/h. While travelling on exactly the same route, Manish travels for a quarter of the total time taken for
his journey at 10 km/h, the next quarter of the total time taken for his journey at 15 km/h, the third quarter
of the total time taken for his journey at 20 km/h, and the final quarter of the total time taken for his
journey at 30 km/h. If the overall average speed of Raghav during his journey is given as y km/h, and that
of Manish is given as z km/h, find the value of (z – y).
A) 2.5 B) 2.75 C) 0 D) 1.5 Correct Ans: B

Q32) In a 150-m race, if R gets a 5-metre head start, then he would beat S by 35 metres. If S gets a 25-metre
head start in a 100-metre race, then _______ would win the race by ________ metres.
A) R; 5.44 B) S; 5.44 C) S; 4.44 D) R; 4.44 Correct Ans: B

Q33) In a 3000 m race, if vehicle A gives vehicle B a start of 400 m, then vehicle A wins the race by 10 s. If
vehicle A gives vehicle B a start of 750 m, then the race ends in a dead heat. How long does vehicle A
take to run 3000 m?
A) 90.5 s B) 100 s C) 64.3 s D) 92.5 s Correct Ans: C

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics
Problems based on
Train, Boat, and
Stream
100+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Problems based on Train, Boat, and Stream
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) A boat covers a distance of 55 km downstream in 5 hours while it takes 11 hours to cover the same
distance upstream. What is the speed of the boat?
A) 8 km/h B) 9 km/h C) 11 km/h D) 7 km/h Correct Ans: A

Q2) The speed of a boat in still water is 18 km/h and the speed of the stream is 3 km/h. How much time (in
hours) will it take to cover a distance of 105 km in downstream and in coming back?
A) 12 B) 10 C) 15 D) 9 Correct Ans: A

Q3) A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km along with the current in
10 minutes. How long will it take to go 6 km in stationary water?
A) 1 hr 30 min B) 1 hr 15 min C) 2 hr 30 min D) 1 hr 45 min Correct Ans: A

Q4) A motorboat takes 18 hours to go downstream, and it takes 36 hours to return the same distance. Find the
ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the stream.
A) 3 : 1 B) 2 : 3 C) 2 : 1 D) 3 : 2 Correct Ans: A

Q5) A motorboat, whose speed in 15 km/h in still water goes 50 km downstream and comes back in a total of 7
hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/h) is:
A) 9 B) 5 C) 11 D) 7 Correct Ans: B

Q6) Two trains of lengths 150 m and 250 m run on parallel lines. When they run in the same direction, they take
20 seconds to cross each other and, when they run in the opposite direction, they take 5 seconds to cross
each other. What is the speed of the two trains?
A) 150 km/h and 105 km/h B) 150 km/h and 250 km/h C) 180 km/h and 108 km/h D) 160 km/h and 106 km/h

Correct Ans: C

Q7) A boat can go 54 km upstream in 6 hours. If the speed of the stream is 4.8 km/h, then how much time (in
hours) will the boat take to cover a distance of 279 km downstream?
A) 20 B) 15 C) 18 D) 16 Correct Ans: B

Q8) A motorboat travelling at some speed can cover 24 km upstream and 40 km downstream in 17 hours. At
the same speed it can travel 32 km downstream and 12 km upstream in 10 hours. The speed of the stream
is:
A) 5 km/h B) 4 km/h C) 2 km/h D) 3 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q9) A man can row a distance of 6 km in 1 hour in still water. He can row the same distance in 45 minutes with
the current. Find the total time taken by him to row a distance of 16 km with the current and to return to the
starting point.
A) 4 hours and 40 minutes B) 6 hours C) 4 hours D) 6 hours and 40 minutes Correct Ans: B

Q10) A boat can travel 78 km upstream and back in a total of 32 hours. It can travel 15 km upstream and 52 km
downstream in a total of 9 hours. How much distance will the boat cover in 12 hours in still water?
A) 92 km B) 96 km C) 104 km D) 100 km Correct Ans: B

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Q11) A boatman rows to a place 30 km distant and back in 14 hours. He finds that he can row 10 km with the
stream at the same time as 4 km against the stream. Find the speed (in km/h) of the stream.
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1) A and B are two stations 420 km apart. A train starts from A at 11 am and travels towards B at the speed of
70 kmph. Another train starts from B at 12 noon and travels towards A at the speed of 30 kmph. At what
time do they meet?
A) 2 pm B) 1.30 pm C) 3.30 pm D) 3 pm Correct Ans: C

Q2) If the speed of a boat in still water is 3 km/h and if its speed upstream is 1 km/h, find the speed of the
stream.
A) 2 km/h B) 1 km/h C) 0.25 km/h D) 0.5 km/h Correct Ans: A

Q3) A boat can travel 60km downstream in 4 hours. If the speed of the boat in still water is 13 km/h, then in
what time will it cover 30 km upstream?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q4) A train 550 metres long is running at a speed of 78 km/h. How many seconds will it take to cross a 350
metres long train running in the opposite direction at a speed of 30 km/h?
A) 40 seconds B) 20 seconds C) 50 seconds D) 30 seconds Correct Ans: D

Q5) A man can row a boat at speed 8 km/h in still water. It takes thrice as long to row upstream as it does to
row downstream. Find the speed of the stream (in km/h).
A) 5 B) 4 C) 6 D) 3 Correct Ans: B

Q6) If Tanya walks at the speed of 6 km/h, she misses a train by 2 minutes. However, if she walks at the speed
of 8 km/h, she reaches the station 3 minutes before the arrival of the train. The distance covered by Tanya
to reach the station is:
A) 3 km B) 2.5 km C) 2.75 km D) 2 km Correct Ans: D

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q8) A man can row 18 km/h in still water. It takes him two times as long to row up as to row down the river.
Find the rate of the stream.
A) 12 km/h B) 6 km/h C) 24 km/h D) 9 km/h Correct Ans: B

Q9) The ratio of the speeds of a boat while going upstream and going downstream is 2 : 3 and the sum of these
two speeds is 15 km/h. What is the speed of the stream?
A) 3.5 km/h B) 1.5 km/h C) 3 km/h D) 2.5 km/h Correct Ans: B

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 MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024
Q1) A train travels at a speed of 120 km/h. How many metres will it travel in 60 minutes?
A) 135000 B) 120000 C) 140000 D) 145000 Correct Ans: B

Q2) A train travelling at a speed of 36 km/h crosses a pole in 24 sec. What is the length of the train?
A) 30 m B) 240 m C) 300 m D) 1.5 m Correct Ans: B

Q3) A train 315 m long is running at a speed of 54 km/h. What time will it take to cross a pole on its route?
A) 21 s B) 20 s C) 19 s D) 18 s Correct Ans: A

Q4) A boat can travel at a speed of 13 km/h in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/h, find the time
taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.
A) 5 hours B) 3 hours C) 4 hours D) 6 hours Correct Ans: C

Q5) A 725 m long train passes through a 235 m long tunnel in 48 sec. Find the speed of the train.
A) 72 km/h B) 54 km/h C) 66 km/h D) 82 km/h Correct Ans: A

Q6) A 296-m long train is running at a speed of 72 km/h. In how much time will it pass a 144-m long bridge?
A) 22 seconds B) 25 seconds C) 27.5 seconds D) 30 seconds Correct Ans: A

Q7) A 735 m long train passes through a 225 m long tunnel in 48 sec. Find the speed of the train.
A) 82 km/h B) 72 km/h C) 66 km/h D) 54 km/h Correct Ans: B

Q8) The speed of a boat in still water is 12 km/h and the stream flows at a speed of 3 km/h. The distance
travelled in the boat downstream in 24 minutes is:
A) 4 km B) 5 km C) 6 km D) 7 km Correct Ans: C

Q9) Two trains are running in opposite directions at the same speed. If the length of each train is 150 m and
they cross each other in 15 sec, find the speed of each train (in km/hr).
A) 36 B) 42 C) 24 D) 18 Correct Ans: A

Q10) It takes15 seconds for a 375-m long train to pass a pole. How long will it take to pass a 975-m long
platform?
A) 72 seconds B) 60 seconds C) 54 seconds D) 90 seconds Correct Ans: C

Q11) Suman travels the first 330 km by train at a speed of 110 km/hr and the next 165 km by bus at 55 km/hr.
Ignoring the buffer time between different modes of travel, the average speed (in km/hr) for her tour was:
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q12) The speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h and the speed of the current is 3 km/h. How much distance (in
km) can be covered going downstream in 12 minutes?
A) 3.5 B) 3.4 C) 3.6 D) 3.7 Correct Ans: C

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Q13) A and B start running simultaneously, around a circular track of 1200 m, in the same direction, at a speed
of 8 m/s and 12 m/s, respectively. A and B will meet at the starting point for the first time after:
A) 80 s B) 150 s C) 300 s D) 100 s Correct Ans: C

Q14) A man rows downstream 27 km and upstream 18 km, taking one hour each time. What is the speed of the
current?
A) 1.5 km/h B) 6 km/h C) 4.5 km/h D) 9 km/h Correct Ans: C

Q15) If the speed of a boat going downstream is 40 km/h and its speed going upstream is 20 km/h, then find
the speed of the stream (in km/h).
A) 40 B) 20 C) 10 D) 15 Correct Ans: C

Q16) A boat is rowed down along a river 21km in 3 hours and against a river 14km in 7 hours. Find the speed of
the boat and the river.
A) 3.2 km/h and 4.8 km/h B) 2.6 km/h and 4.8 km/h C) 4.5 km/h and 2.5 km/h D) 6.4 km/h and 4.6 km/h Correct Ans: C

Q17) Two trains 280 metres and 260 metres long, respectively, are running towards each other on parallel
lines, one at the speed of 58 km/hr and another at the speed of 50 km/hr. How much time (in seconds)
will they take to cross each other?
A) 15 B) 17 C) 18 D) 12 Correct Ans: C

Q18) Two trains running towards each other on parallel tracks, at speeds of 45 km/hr and 51 km/hr, take 21
seconds to cross each other. If the length of one train is 290 m, then the length (in m) of the other train is:
A) 250 B) 290 C) 230 D) 270 Correct Ans: D

Q19) The speed of a boat in still water is 8 km/h, while it takes 2 hours for the boat to cover a distance of 20 km
downstream. What is the speed (in km/h) of the stream?
A) 2.5 B) 1.5 C) 1.75 D) 2 Correct Ans: D

Q20) Two trains are running in opposite directions at the same speed. The length of each train is 180 m. If they
cross each other in 12 seconds, what is the speed of each train (in km/h)?
A) 63 B) 54 C) 36 D) 45 Correct Ans: B

Q21) If a boatman can row upstream at 10 km/h and downstream at 12 km/h, then find the ratio of the speed of
the boat in still water and the speed of the current.

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q22) A 250-metre-long train running at a speed of 100 km/h crosses another train coming from the opposite
direction at a speed of 62 km/h in 10 seconds. What is the length of the second train?
A) 240 metres B) 200 metres C) 270 metres D) 230 metres Correct Ans: B

Q23) Two trains start at the same time from Agra and Meerut and proceed towards each other at speeds of 16
km/h and 32 km/h, respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 64 km more than
the other. The distance between the two stations is:
A) 176km B) 208km C) 192km D) 156km Correct Ans: C

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Q24) A boat can travel at a speed of 42 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 3 km/hr, how much time
(in hours and minutes) will be taken by the boat to go 157.5 km downstream, and then 78 km upstream?
A) 7 h 25 min B) 6 h 20 min C) 5 h 30 min D) 4 h 45 min Correct Ans: C

Q25) Two stations A and B are 1800 km apart. A train starts from A towards B at 7 A.M. at a speed of 100 km/h.
Another train starts from B towards A at 8 A.M. on the same day at a speed of 325 km/h. At what time will
they cross each other?
A) 11 A.M. B) 9 A.M. C) 3 P.M. D) 12 P.M. Correct Ans: D

Q26) A fast train takes 1 hour less than a slow train for a journey of 96 km. If the speed of the slow train is 8
km/h less than that of the fast train, then find the speeds of the fast train and slow train respectively.
A) 34 km/h, 28 km/h B) 12 km/h, 14 km/h C) 26 km/h, 34 km/h D) 32 km/h, 24 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q27) Two trains start at the same time from two stations and proceed towards each other at speeds of 120
km/hr and 80 km/hr, respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 60 km more than
the other. What is the distance (in km) between the two stations?

A) 387 B) 452 C) 300 D) 268 Correct Ans: C

Q28) A train increases its regular speed by 12.5% and reaches its destination 20 minutes earlier. What is the
actual time taken by the train on the journey?
A) 150 min B) 110 min C) 180 min D) 120 min Correct Ans: C

Q29) Two trains of lengths 125 m and 175 m respectively are running in the same direction at 40 km/h and 22
km/h respectively. How much time will they take to pass each other completely?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q30) If two trains 200 m and 150 m long are running on parallel rails at the rate of 50 km/h and 30 km/h,
respectively, find the relative speed if they are running in the same direction.
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q31) Two trains of lengths 310 m and 340 m, respectively, are 285 m apart. They start moving towards each
other on parallel tracks, at the speeds of 151 km/h and 155 km/h, respectively. In how much time will the
trains cross each other completely?
A) 12 s B) 10 s C) 13 s D) 11 s Correct Ans: D

Q32) A 240 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 4.5 km/h in the opposite direction in 12 seconds.
What is the speed (in km/h) of the train?
A) 61.5 B) 60.5 C) 58.5 D) 67.5 Correct Ans: D

Q33) The speed of a boat in still water is 13 km/h and the speed of the stream is 4 km/h. How much more time
will it take in going upstream than ingoing downstream a distance of 68 km? (Correct to the nearest
minute)
A) 3 h 33 min B) 3 h 50 min C) 3 h 30 min D) 2 h 55 min Correct Ans: A

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Q34) Two trains start at the same time from two stations and travel towards each other with speeds of 72 km/h
and 84 km/h, respectively. When they cross each other, it is found that one train has covered 108 km
more than the other. What is the distance (in km) between the two stations, and after how many hours will
they meet, respectively?
A) 1084; 7 B) 1440; 10 C) 1244; 8 D) 1404; 9 Correct Ans: D

Q35) A train moving at the same speed passes two bridges of length 900 m and 486 m in 110 seconds and 70
seconds, respectively. The length of the train (in m) is:
A) 283.5 B) 238.5 C) 253.8 D) 225.7 Correct Ans: B

Q36) One train is moving with at twice the speed of a second train. The lengths of the trains are equal. The
ratio of the time taken by these trains to cross each other when moving in the same direction and in
opposite directions, respectively, is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q37) A train travelling at a speed of 60 km/h leaves station A at 7:00 a.m. and another train travelling at a speed
of 84 km/h starts from station A at 9:30 a.m. in the same direction on a parallel track. At what distance (in
km) from station A and after how many hours of travel of the second train will they be together? Express
your answer in the same order.
A) 495, 8.25 B) 525, 6.25 C) 693, 8.25 D) 375, 6.25 Correct Ans: B

Q38) A boat can travel at a speed of 28 km/h in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/h, what is the
average speed (in km/h) of the boat if it travels 192 km downstream, stops there for one hour and then
returns to the starting point?
A) 25.6 B) 24.8 C) 36.5 D) 28.5 Correct Ans: A

Q39) A train is moving in from north to south direction. It overtakes Raj and Madhur who are walking in the
same direction at the rate of 2 km/h and 4 km/h in 9 sec and 10 sec, respectively. If the train is x metres
long, find the value of x.
A) 30 B) 90 C) 50 D) 70 Correct Ans: C

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) A train covers a distance of 72 km in 40 minutes. Travelling at the same speed, how many metres will the
train cover in 6 seconds?
A) 180 B) 192 C) 210 D) 174 Correct Ans: A

Q2) Two trains 230 m and 270 m long are running in opposite directions at speeds of 42 km/h and 48 km/h,
respectively. They cross each other in:
A) 30 seconds B) 22 seconds C) 20 seconds D) 25 seconds Correct Ans: C

Q3) The speed of a boat when travelling downstream is 33 km/h, whereas when travelling upstream it is 27
km/h. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
A) 6 km/h B) 60 km/h C) 12 km/h D) 30 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q4) A 255-m long train is running at a speed of 72 km/h. It crosses a platform of length 745 m in:

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A) 53 seconds B) 40 seconds C) 50 seconds D) 51 seconds Correct Ans: C

Q5) Two trains, 140 m and 120 m in length, are running in the same direction at the speed of 60 km/h and 78
km/h, respectively. In how much time will they completely cross each other?
A) 52 seconds B) 58 seconds C) 48 seconds D) 65 seconds Correct Ans: A

Q6) A boatman rows 2 km in 10 mins, along the stream and 12 km in 2 hours against the stream. What is the
speed of the stream?
A) 3 km/h B) 2.5 km/h C) 4 km/h D) 3.5 km/h Correct Ans: A

Q7) Two trains are moving in the same direction at 60 km/h and 42 km/h. The faster train crosses a man in the
slower train in 36 seconds. Find the length of the faster train.
A) 185 m B) 180 m C) 195 m D) 175 m Correct Ans: B

Q8) A train covers a distance of 56 km in 35 minutes. Travelling at the same speed, in how many seconds will
the train cover a distance of 720 metres?
A) 24 B) 27 C) 30 D) 32 Correct Ans: B

Q9) The distance between two stations A and B is 800 km. A train covers the journey from A to B at a speed of
90 km/h and returns to A with a uniform speed of 65 km/h. Find the average speed of train during the whole
journey (in km/h)?
A) 82.36 B) 80.50 C) 70.45 D) 75.48 Correct Ans: D

Q10) A 320 m long train completely crosses a 240 m long train, coming from the opposite direction, in y
seconds. If the first train is travelling at the speed of 44 km/h and the second train is travelling at 56.8
km/h, then what is the value of y?
A) 21 B) 18 C) 20 D) 22 Correct Ans: C

Q11) A man wishes to cover 1 km distance in river water. In still water he takes 12 minutes to cover it, but in the
flowing river he takes 13 minutes. The speed of the flowing water of the river is:
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q12) Two trains, P and Q, are running on parallel tracks in opposite directions with lengths of 110 m and 140 m,
respectively. Train P is running at a speed of 70 km/h and took 5 seconds to cross train Q. The speed of
train Q is:
A) 120 km/h B) 110 km/h C) 90 km/h D) 100 km/h Correct Ans: B

Q13) A boat can travel 16.9 km downstream in 52 min. If the speed of the current is 3 km/h, then how much
time (in hours) will the boat take to travel 84 km upstream?
A) 6 B) 13.5 C) 6.22 D) 7.5 Correct Ans: C

Q14) Ashu can row 7.5 km an hour in still water. He finds that it takes four times as much time to row
upstream, as it takes to row downstream. The speed of the stream is:
A) 3.5 km/h B) 1.5 km/h C) 4.5 km/h D) 2.5 km/h Correct Ans: C

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Q15) A man’s speed in still water is 4 km/h more than the speed of the current. If the man takes a total of 10 h
to cover 45 km downstream and 35 km upstream, then the speed of the man in still water is:
A) 20 km/h B) 18 km/h C) 15 km/h D) 22 km/h Correct Ans: A

Q16) The ratio of the speed of a boat to that of the current water is 35 : 8. The boat goes along with the current
in 5 hours 10 minutes. What will be the time taken by the boat to come back?
A) 5 hours 15 minutes 58 seconds B) 6 hours 45 minutes 10 seconds C) 8 hours 13 minutes 48 seconds

D) 9 hours 30 minutes 49 seconds

Correct Ans: C

Q17) A man rows 48 km and back in 48 hours. He can row 4 km with the stream in the same time as 3 km
against the stream. The speed of the stream (in km/h) is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q18) A boat covers 24 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 10 hours, and 36 km upstream and 24 km
downstream in 12 hours. The speed of the current is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q19) A 234 m long train passes a person running at 9 km/h in the opposite direction, in 6 seconds. In how
much time (in seconds) will it pass another person who is moving at 23.4 km/h, in the same direction?
A) 8 B) 7.8 C) 7.2 D) 8.4 Correct Ans: B

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q2)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q3)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q4)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q6)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q9)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q10)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q11)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q12)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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 Selection Post XII
Q1) A goods train 350 m long passes through a tunnel of 1250m in 80 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
A) 56 km/h B) 64 km/h C) 72 km/h D) 78 km/h Correct Ans: C

Q2) A boat covers a distance of 72 km downstream in 6 hours, while it takes 12 hours to cover the same
distance upstream. What is the speed of the boat?
A) 8 km/h B) 10 km/h C) 6 km/h D) 9 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q3)

A) 29 km/h B) 25 km/h C) 20 km/h D) 27 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q4) A man can row 9 km/h in still water. If the river is running at 4 km/h, it takes 8 hours more in upstream than
to go downstream for the same distance. How far is the place?
A) 65 km B) 60 km C) 75 km D) 55 km Correct Ans: A

Q5) A motorboat, whose speed is 15 km/h in still water goes 20 km downstream and comes back in a total of 4
hours. The speed of the stream (in km/h) is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q6) Two trains start at the same time from stations P and Q and travel towards each other at the speeds of 75
km/h and 100 km/h, respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 50 km more than
the other. The distance (in km) between two stations is:
A) 325 B) 350 C) 300 D) 375 Correct Ans: B

Q7) Ram, standing on a railway platform, noticed that a train took 36 seconds to completely pass through the
platform, which was 108 m long, and it took 12 seconds in passing him. Find the speed of the train.
A) 18.2 km/h B) 25.2 km/h C) 20.2 km/h D) 16.2 km/h Correct Ans: D

Q8) A train passes a 500 m long platform in 12 seconds and a man standing on the platform in four seconds.
Find the speed of the train.
A) 225 km/h B) 152.5 km/h C) 252.5 km/h D) 125 km/h Correct Ans: A

Q9) Two trains, A and B started travelling towards each other at the same time, from places P to Q and Q to P,
respectively. After crossing each other, A and B took 9 hours and 16 hours to reach Q and P, respectively. If
the speed of A was 56 km/h, then what was the speed (in km/h) of B?
A) 38 B) 42 C) 40 D) 46 Correct Ans: B

Q10) A train starts from station P with ‘n’ number of passengers. At station Q, 20% of the passengers get down
and 50 passengers get in. At station R, 40% of the passengers get down and 10 passengers get in. If a
total of 520 passengers are left on the train, find the value of ‘n’.
A) 750 B) 1000 C) 975 D) 855 Correct Ans: B

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Q11) Two trains of equal length take 10 s and 20 s, respectively, to cross a pole. If these trains are moving in
the same direction, then how long will they take to cross each other?
A) 10 sec B) 30 sec C) 40 sec D) 15 sec Correct Ans: C

Q12) A train leaves Hyderabad at 4:00 A.M. and reaches Vijayawada at 8:00 A.M. the same day. Another train
leaves Vijayawada at 6:00 A.M. and reaches Hyderabad at 9:30 A.M the same day. At what time do the two
trains cross each other?
A) 6:45 A.M. B) 7:45 A.M. C) 6:56 A.M. D) 7:56 A.M. Correct Ans: C

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics
Algebraic
Identites
120+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Algebraic Identites
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q2)

A) 144 B) 146 C) 142 D) 140 Correct Ans: C

Q3)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4) Find the values of x, y and z, so as to satisfy the equations given below:
x + y + z = 12; x + y – z = 6; x – y + z = 4
A) x = 5, y = 4, z = – 3 B) x = 5, y = – 4, z = 3 C) x = 5, y = 4, z = 3 D) x = 5, y = – 4, z = – 3 Correct Ans: C

Q5)

A) 47 B) 49 C) 51 D) 45 Correct Ans: A

Q6)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q7) ​If 45 ÷ 3 + 4 × A – 48 ÷ 24 + 4 = 1, then the value of A is:

A) −2 B) 4 C) 2 D) −4 Correct Ans: D

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q9)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q10)

A) 4gh B) −4gh C) 4 D) 0 Correct Ans: D

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Q11)

A) 27 B) 63 C) 81 D) 54 Correct Ans: D

Q12)

A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4 Correct Ans: C

Q13)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 0 D) −1 Correct Ans: B

Q14)

A) 0 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 Correct Ans: A

Q15) Solve the given set of three equations to get the value of the unknowns:
x + 2z = 3
x + 2y + 3z = 5
3x - 5z = -13
A) x = 0,y = -1,z = 2 B) x = -1,y = 0,z = 2 C) x = -1,y = 2,z = 0 D) x = 2,y = 0,z = -1 Correct Ans: B

Q16) A number r when divided by 8 leaves remainder 3. What will be the remainder when (r2+6r+7) is divided by
8?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 1 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q17)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q18)

A) 884 B) 876 C) 754 D) 756 Correct Ans: D

Q19) The solution of the following equations is:

5x + 4y - 8z = 1
7x - 9y + z = - 1
2x + 3y - 4z = 1
A) x = - 1,y = 1,z = 1 B) x = 1,y = 1,z = 1 C) x = 1,y = - 1,z = 1 D) x = 1,y = 1,z = - 1 Correct Ans: B

Q20)

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A) B) C)

D)

Correct Ans: C

Q21)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q22) If x varies inversely as y and x = 2 when y = 6, then the value of y when x = 3 is:
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 Correct Ans: C

Q23)

A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q24)

A) 110 B) 130 C) 160 D) 180 Correct Ans: A

Q25)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q26)

A) 0 B) 40 C) 576 D) 320 Correct Ans: A

Q27)

A) 87 B) 81 C) 77 D) 79 Correct Ans: D

Q28)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q29) For what value of k, the system of equations 4x + 12y + 36 = 0 and 5x + ky + 45 = 0 has an infinite number
of solutions?
A) 20 B) 25 C) 22 D) 15 Correct Ans: D

Q30)

A) 188 B) 194 C) 186 D) 196 Correct Ans: B

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Q31)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q32)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q33) Ten chairs and six tables together cost ₹5,140; three chairs and two tables together cost ₹1,635. The cost
of 1 chair and 1 table is:
A) ₹900 B) ₹600 C) ₹800 D) ₹700 Correct Ans: D

Q34)

A) 9 B) 5 C) 3 D) 7 Correct Ans: C

Q35) Find the values of x, y and z, so as to satisfy the equations given below:
5x – 3y + 7z = 22; 3x – 5y – 2z = – 46; 2x – 2y + 5z = 24
A) x = – 5, y = 3, z = – 8 B) x = 5, y = – 8, z = 3 C) x = – 5, y = 3, z = 8 D) x = – 5, y = – 3, z = 8 Correct Ans: C

Q36)

A) 7 B) 5 C) 0 D) 113 Correct Ans: D

Q37)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q38)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q39)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q40)

A) 3 B) 1 C) 0 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q41) For what value of K does the following system have an infinite number of solutions?
x + 2Ky - 8 = 0
2x - y - 16 = 0
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q42)

A) b + 3c = 2a B) 2a + b = 3c C) 2a + 3c = b D) b + 3c = −2a Correct Ans: D

Q43)
A) 4 B) 10 C) 8 D) 6 Correct Ans: A

Q44) For what value of k, the system of equations kx - 15y + 7 = 0 and 7x - 21y - 19 = 0 has NO solution?
A) 5 B) 12 C) 25 D) 6 Correct Ans: A

Q45)

A) 221 B) 234 C) 198 D) 216 Correct Ans: B

Q46)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q47)

A) 42 B) 97 C) 35 D) 22 Correct Ans: B

Q48) Which of the following is the sum of the values of a and b if the equations 2x + y = a, 8x + by = 12 have
infinite solutions?
A) 16 B) 9 C) 7 D) 18 Correct Ans: C

Q49) What conclusion can be drawn about the solution of the following system of linear equations in two
variables:
3x + 2y = 7
2x + 3y = 7

A) No solution B) Unique solution C) Infinite solutions D) More than two solution Correct Ans: B

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Q50) In a room, there are some chairs and some people. If on each chair, only one person is seated, then there
is no chair for exactly one person. If on each chair, two persons sit, then there is one vacant chair. What
is the number of chairs in the room?
A) 7 B) 4 C) 3 D) 6 Correct Ans: C

Q51)
A) 63 B) 65 C) 61 D) 67 Correct Ans: A

Q52) For the following equations, what are the values of a and b to have infinitely many solutions?
ax + by = 2
3x - (5 - 2a)y = 6
A) a = - 1,b = - 1 B) a = - 1,b = 1 C) a = 1,b = - 1 D) a = 1,b = 1 Correct Ans: C

Q53)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q54)

A) 3048190 B) 3048542 C) 3048132 D) 3048625 Correct Ans: A

Q55)

A) 7 B) 5 C) 9 D) 11 Correct Ans: C

Q56)

A) 72 B) 70 C) 77 D) 75 Correct Ans: D

Q57) Let a + b = 2c, then which of the following expressions is true?

A) B) C) D)

Correct Ans: C

Q58)
A) 0 B) 2 C) 4 D) 1 Correct Ans: B

Q59) Find the values of 'a' and 'b' for which the system of equations 3x+y=3 and (a-b)x+(a+b)y=3a+b-3 has
infinite solutions.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q60) If 0.4x + 0.16y = 1.7 and 0.3x + 0.12y = 3.4, then which of the following is correct?
A) The system has finitely many solutions but not unique. B) The system has infinitely many solutions.

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C) The system has no solution. D) The system has unique solution.

Correct Ans: C

Q61)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q62) Find the value of 'k' for which the system of equations 4x+6y=7 and 6x+(k+4)y-21=0 has a unique solution.
A) k = 5 B) k ≠ 5 C) k = 7 D) k ≠ 7 Correct Ans: B

Q63) Given a linear equation in two variables: 5x + 7y - 8 = 0, which of the following linear equations, along
with the given equation, forms a system of linear equations having no solution?
A) 5x + 7y - 16 = 0 B) 7x + 5y - 8 = 0 C) 5x - 7y - 8 = 0 D) 10x + 14y - 16 = 0 Correct Ans: A

Q64)

A) 1 B) 0 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

Q65) Cindy bought 15 apples and 12 oranges and paid a sum of ₹447 for the purchase. Which of the
statements given below is inconsistent with the information given in the previous statement, leading to
no possible prices of the two fruits?
A) Purchased 25 apples and 20 oranges and paid a sum of ₹745

B) Purchased 10 apples and 13 oranges and paid a sum of ₹353

C) Purchased 12 apples and 8 oranges and paid a sum of ₹340

D) Purchased 35 apples and 28 oranges and paid a sum of ₹1,029

Correct Ans: D

Q66) For the equations ax + (a2 + 1)y = 4 and 4x + ay = a2, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct Ans: D

Q67) For which of the following values of a and b do the given equations, have NO solution?
x - ay = 2 - a
(1 - a)x + 6y = a + b
A) a = -3,b ≠ 1 B) a = 3,b ≠-1 C) a = -3,b ≠ -1 D) a = 3,b ≠ 1 Correct Ans: B

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Q68) If the system of the following equations has the value of the variables as three consecutive integers, then
the value of a is ____.
x - y + z = 2a
x + 4y - 2z = 3(4 - a)
2x - 3y + 4z = 6 - 2a
A) 2 B) 4 C) 1 D) 3 Correct Ans: C

Q69) A function of two variable varies directly with x and inversely with y. Determine function when x = 5 and y
= 3. Given that, for x = 0 and y = 1, f = 15 and for x = 1 and y = 15, f = 2.
A) 10 B) 2 C) 5 D) 15 Correct Ans: A

Q70) 2 biscuits and 1 chocolate cost ₹69. 2 chocolates and 3 cups of coffee cost ₹127. 3 biscuits, 4 chocolates
and 2 cups of coffee cost ₹229. Find the total cost (in ₹) of 5 biscuits, 5 chocolates and 5 cups of coffee.
A) 304 B) 375 C) 345 D) 355 Correct Ans: D

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1)

A) x = 7, y = 5, z = 3 B) x = 2, y = 5, z = 3 C) x = 7, y = 2, z = 3 D) x = 7, y = 5, z = 1 Correct Ans: A

Q2) If equation of line p is x + y = 5 and that of line q is x − y = 3, what are the coordinates of the point common
to both the lines?
A) (2, 1) B) (2, 3) C) (4, 1) D) (1, 4) Correct Ans: C

Q3)
A) 5 B) 6 C) −5 D) −6 Correct Ans: A

Q4) 8 apples and 10 oranges weigh 5 kg. 12 apples and 20 oranges weigh 9 kg. What is the weight (in kg,
rounded off to the nearest integer) of 15 apples and 24 oranges?
A) 13 B) 10 C) 16 D) 11 Correct Ans: D

Q5) M varies inversely as (N2 + 3). If M = 3 when N = 3, then what will be the value of M when N2 = 69?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q6) Raju has ₹11,000 and starts saving ₹5,000 each week towards buying a new laptop. At the same time,
Ramesh has ₹60,000 and begins spending ₹2,000 per week on supplies for his art class. Will there be a
week when they have the same amount of money?
A) Yes, after 7 weeks B) Yes, after 6 weeks C) No, they will never have the same amount D) Yes, after 5 weeks

Correct Ans: B

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

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Q1) The number of heads on the farm, as determined by the farmer, was 60. When he counted, he discovered
there were 150 legs. If all that was present were pigeons or horses, and every horse on the property had
four legs while every pigeon had two, how many horses were there on the property?
A) 12 B) 14 C) 15 D) 10 Correct Ans: C

Q2) b is the sum of two quantities, one of which varies inversely as the square of a2 , and the other of which
varies directly as a. Identify the relationship between a and b if b = 49 when a = 3 or 5.
A) a = 3b2 − 7/a B) b = 8a + 225/a2 C) b = 2a D) a = 3b Correct Ans: B

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1)

A) 5 : 3 B) 3 : 2 C) 3 : 5 D) 2 : 3 Correct Ans: B

Q2) Determine the value of the product (4a + 3b) (16a2 − 12ab + 9b2) for a = 2 and b = 3.
A) 1131 B) 1141 C) 1231 D) 1241 Correct Ans: D

Q3)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q4)
A) 999 B) 991 C) 997 D) 995 Correct Ans: A

Q5)

A) 30 B) 32 C) 28 D) 34 Correct Ans: A

Q6)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q7) What must be added to (x3 - 3x2 + 4x - 75) to obtain a polynomial that is exactly divisible by (x - 5)?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q8) If x = 3y + 4, then what is the value of (x3 - 27y3 – 36 xy) ?

A) 27 B) 64 C) 1 D) 8 Correct Ans: B

Q9)

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A) ±3 B) ±6 C) ±4 D) ±2 Correct Ans: B

Q10) If a + 2b + 3c = 0, then what is the value of (a3 + 8b3 + 27c3)?

A) 18 abc B) 12 abc C) 0 D) 6 abc Correct Ans: A

Q11)

A) 10 B) 8 C) 9 D) 14 Correct Ans: A

Q12) If x – y = 25 and xy = 444, compute the value of x3 – y3.

A) 48,925 B) 42,985 C) 28,495 D) 26,725 Correct Ans: A

Q13)

A) 1911 B) 1225 C) 1625 D) 1339 Correct Ans: D

Q14)
A) 2100 B) 1500 C) 1200 D) 1800 Correct Ans: D

Q15)

A) 3 B) 0 C) 2 D) −3 Correct Ans: B

Q16)

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Correct Ans: B

Q17)

A) −15 B) 15 C) −10 D) 10 Correct Ans: A

Q18)

A) 9 B) 11 C) 12 D) 15 Correct Ans: B

Q19)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q20)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q21)

A) −1 B) −2 C) 2 D) 1 Correct Ans: A

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q23)

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 5 Correct Ans: D

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Selection Post XII

Q1)

A) 223 B) 225 C) 13 D) 17 Correct Ans: A

Q2)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q3)

A) 4 B) 8 C) 6 D) 9 Correct Ans: C

Q4)

A) 343 B) 332 C) 340 D) 322 Correct Ans: D

Q5)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q6)

A) 18 B) 22 C) 24 D) 26 Correct Ans: B

Q7) If x + y = 10 and xy = 12, find the value of x2 - xy + y2.

A) 78 B) 74 C) 64 D) 82 Correct Ans: C

Q8)

A) 38 B) 32 C) 36 D) 34 Correct Ans: D

Q9)

A) 1298 B) 1125 C) 1920 D) 1331 Correct Ans: A

Q10) If a − b = 5 and ab = 25, then the value of a3 − b3 is:

A) 525 B) 500 C) 450 D) 400 Correct Ans: B

Q11)

A) 195 B) 197 C) 196 D) 194 Correct Ans: D

Q12) If (x + y + z) = 23 and x2 + y2 + z2 = 179, then find the value of (xy + yz + zx).

A) 225 B) 280 C) 175 D) 350 Correct Ans: C

Q13)

A) 6 B) 4 C) 3 D) 5 Correct Ans: A

Q14)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q15)

A) 2 B) 0 C) 1 D) 3 Correct Ans: D

Q16) Simplify the following.

(x – 3y)3 + 27(y3 – xy2)
A) x3 – 3x2y B) x3 – 9x2y C) x3 – 27y3 – 9x2y D) x3 – 27y3 – 9x2y + 27xy2 + 27y2 – 27y2 Correct Ans: B

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Q17)

A) 1.75 B) 3.25 C) 2.00 D) 2.50 Correct Ans: A

Q18) If x3 = 184 + y3 and x = 4 + y, then the value of (x + y) is (given that x > 0 and y > 0):
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q19)

A) 6690 B) 6609 C) 6906 D) 6960 Correct Ans: D

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Trigonometry
190+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Trigonometry
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) At what angle θ, the value of sin (θ) and cos (θ) will have the same value?
A) 45° B) 30° C) 60° D) 75° Correct Ans: A

Q2) Find the value of .

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q3)
A) 30° B) 15° C) 60° D) 45° Correct Ans: D

Q4)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q5)
A) 16 B) 2 C) 8 D) 4 Correct Ans: B

Q6)
A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Correct Ans: D

Q7)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q8) If , then is equal to:

A) 0 B) √2 C) −1 D) 1 Correct Ans: B

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q10)

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: D

Q11)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

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Q12)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q13)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q14) The value of is:

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q15) .

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q16)

A) 0 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q17) If , then find the value of

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

Q18)
What is the value of

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q19)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q20)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

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Q21) Solve the following:

A) 2cosec2θ B) 2sin2θ C) 2sec2θ D) 2tan2θ Correct Ans: A

Q22) In a right angle ABC, , if tanA = 1, then 4 sinA cosA =_________________.

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q23)
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q24)

A) 1 B) 0 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

Q25)
:

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q26)

A) 7/3 B) 7 C) 14 D) 49 Correct Ans: B

Q27)

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 Correct Ans: C

Q28)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q29)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q30) If (48°+ k) is an acute angle and sin(48°+ k) = cos13°, what is the value of k(in °)?
A) 17 B) 23 C) 29 D) 37 Correct Ans: C

Q31)

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 Correct Ans: C
A) B) sin32° C) D)

Q32) If , then the numerical value of is:

A) 1 B) 0 C) 13 D) −13 Correct Ans: C

Q33)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q34)

A) 60° B) 45° C) 30° D) 22.5° Correct Ans: B

Q35) If cos A + cos2A = 1 then sin2A + sin4A is equal to:

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q36)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q37) Find the value of (cosec θ - sin θ )(sec θ - cos θ )(tan θ + cot θ ).
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q38)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q39)

A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 Correct Ans: B

Q40)
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q41)
A) 45° B) 60° C) 90° D) 30° Correct Ans: A

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Q42)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q43)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q44) Find the value of the following expression.

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q45)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q46)
A) 6 B) 17 C) 16 D) 7 Correct Ans: B

Q47)

A) 1 + sinA cosA B) 1 – 3 sinA C) 3 cosA - 1 D) sinA + cosA Correct Ans: A

Q48)
Evaluate the given expression.

A) 0 B) 3 C) 5 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

Q49)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q50)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q51)

A) 20° B) 60° C) 90° D) 30° Correct Ans: C

Q52) Express sin 74° + tan 74° in terms of trigonometric ratios of angles between 0° and 45°.

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A) B) C) D)

Correct Ans: D

Q53) Find the exact value of

A) 1.5 B) 0.5 C) 0.75 D) -0.5 Correct Ans: B

Q54)
A) 45° B) 90° C) 30° D) 75° Correct Ans: C

Q55)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q56)
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q57)
A) B) 1 C) 0 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

Q58)

A) sin⁡A B) cos⁡A C) sinA+cos⁡A D) cosec A Correct Ans: D

Q59)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q60)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q61)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q62)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

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Q63)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q64) If then the value of is:

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q65) If ,then A = ________, where 3A is an acute angle.

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q66)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q67)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 0 Correct Ans: D

Q68)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q69)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q70)

A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 0 Correct Ans: B

Q71) Find the value of

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q72)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

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Q73)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q74)
A) 10 B) 0 C) 1 D) 5 Correct Ans: C

Q75) If , then is equal to:

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q76)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q77) Let 0° < t < 90°. Then which of the followings is true?
A) B)

C) D)

Correct Ans: C

Q78)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q79)
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q80)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q81)

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 Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q82)

A) B) C) D)

Correct Ans: B

Q83) Let x = r cos (t), y = r sin (t) cos (u), z = r sin (t)sin (u). Then the value of x2 + y2 + z2 is ___.
A) r2 cos (u) B) r2 C) 2r D) r2 sin (t) Correct Ans: B

Q84)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q85)
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q86)

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: C

Q87)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q88)
The value of is:

A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) −1 Correct Ans: D

Q89)

A) 1 B) -1 C) 2 D) 0 Correct Ans: A

Q90)
A) 6 B) 2 C) 1 D) 3 Correct Ans: D

Q91) If secθ + tanθ = x, then find sinθ.

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

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Q92)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q93)

A) 4 B) 3 C) 1 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

Q94) If asin3 X + bcos3 X = sinXcosX and asinX = bcosX, then find the value of a2 + b2, provided that x is
neither 0° nor 90°.
A) 0 B) 1 C) a2 - b2 D) a2 + b2 Correct Ans: B

Q95) If then the value of is:

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: B

Q96)

A) B) C)

D)

Correct Ans: D

Q97)

A) a2 b2 B) 1-a2 b2 C) a2 b2 +2 D) a2 b2 +1 Correct Ans: D

Q98) Find the value of tan 72° − tan 27° − tan 72° tan 27°.
A) −1 B) 1 C) −2 D) 0 Correct Ans: B

Q99)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q100)
A) 2 B) 4 C) 1 D) 3 Correct Ans: B

Q101)

A) −1 B) 1 C) 2 D) 0 Correct Ans: A

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Q102)

A) B) C) D)

Correct Ans: D

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q2) Evaluate (9sin θ + 2 cos θ) / (9sin θ − 2cos θ), if 3 tan θ = 4.

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q3)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q4)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q5)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q6)

A) 6 B) 10 C) 12 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

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Q7)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q9)

A) 4 B) 3 C) 1 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q10)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q11)

A) 30° B) 75° C) 60° D) 45° Correct Ans: C

Q12)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q13)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q14)

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 0 Correct Ans: A

Q15)

A) 0 B) -1 C) 1 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

Q16)

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 Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q17)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q18)
A) 2 B) –1 C) 0 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q19)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q20)
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q21)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q22) (cot θ + tan θ)(cosec θ − sin θ)(cos θ − sec θ) = ________.

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) −1 Correct Ans: D

Q23)

A)

B)

C) D)

Correct Ans: B

Q24)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q25)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q26)

A) 14 B) 10 C) 12 D) 11 Correct Ans: C

Q27) What is the maximum value of 7 cosA + 24 sinA + 32?

A) 57 B) 32 C) 25 D) 39 Correct Ans: A

Q28)

A) B) C) D)

Correct Ans: B

Q29)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q30)

A) 3 B) 2 C) 0 D) 1 Correct Ans: A

Q31)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q32)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q33)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

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Q34) If tan A = a tan B and sin A = b sin B, then the value of cos2A is:
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q35)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q2)

A) 90° B) 60° C) 30° D) 20° Correct Ans: C

Q3)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q4) If cotθ =28/45, then find the value of ( sinθ - cosθ ).

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q5) (1 - cos2A) sec2A is equal to:

A) cos2A cot2A B) tan2A C) cot2A D) cosec2A Correct Ans: B

Q6)

A) 30° B) 80° C) 60° D) 45° Correct Ans: C

Q7)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q8) If tan θ + cot θ = 6, then the value of tan2θ + cot2θ is ____ .

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A) 24 B) 34 C) 20 D) 22 Correct Ans: B

Q9)

A) tan2θ B) cot θ C) tan θ D) cot2θ Correct Ans: D

Q10)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q11)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q12)
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q13)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q14) Find the value of cosecθ (1 − cosθ) (cosecθ + cotθ).

A) -1 B) 2 C) 0 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q15)

A) 34 B) 20 C) 17 D) 19 Correct Ans: C

Q16) tan4A + tan2A is equal to:

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q17) If sec 6A = cosec (A – 29°), where 2A is an acute angle, then the measure of ∠A = ___°.
A) 18 B) 17 C) 21 D) 19 Correct Ans: B

Q18)
A) -3 B) 3 C) secθcosecθ D) 1 Correct Ans: D

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Q19)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q20) If sin(x+y) = cos {3(x+y)}, then, the value of cot {2(x+y)} is _______.
A) -1 B) 1 C) -2 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

Q21) Solve the following:

A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) −1 Correct Ans: A

Q22)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q23)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q24)
A) -1 B) 1 C) 2 D) -2 Correct Ans: A

Q25)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q26)

A) sin2θ B) sec2θ C) cosec2θ D) cot2θ Correct Ans: C

Q27) If (sin x + sin y) = a and (cos x + cos y) = b, then find the value of (sin x sin y + cos x cos y).
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q28)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q29) Which of the following is true when x = SinA + CosA; y = SecA + CosecA?
A) y(1 + x2 ) = 2x B) y - 2x = x2 y C) y + 2x = x2 y D) y(1 - 2x2 ) = x Correct Ans: C

Q30)

A) 0 B) 1 C) -1 D) 2 Correct Ans: C

Q31)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q32)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q33)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q34)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Selection Post XII

Q1) If μ = 60°, then Sinμ + Cos(90 - μ) = _______.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q2) If cos 2θ = 0, where θ is an acute angle, then find the value of sin (75° - θ).
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q3)

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 Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q4) If sin(5x – 40°) = cos (5y + 40°), then the value of x + y is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q5)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q6)
A) −1 B) 2 C) 0 D) 1 Correct Ans: B

Q7)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q8) The sides of a right-angled triangle, right-angled at B, are 6, 8 and 10 units. C is the vertex opposite to the
side with length 8 units. What is the value of tan2 A + cos2 C?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q9)

A) 1 B) 0 C) -1 D) 8 Correct Ans: A

Q10)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q11) Which of the following is NOT a correct formula?

A) B) C)

D)

Correct Ans: A

Q12)

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A) 40 B) 2 C) -16 D) 10 Correct Ans: C

Q13)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q14)

A) 0 B) 1 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: D

Q15) The expression sin2 θ + cos2 θ - 1 = 0 is satisfied by how many values of θ?

A) No value B) Only one value C) Infinitely many values D) Two values Correct Ans: C

Q16)
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q17)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q18) Find the value of (sin 75° + sin 15°).

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics
Geometry &
Co-Ordinate Geometry
360+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Geometry and Co-Ordinate Geometry
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) In a triangle PQR, ∠P + ∠Q = 84°. Find the value of ∠R.
A) 74° B) 96° C) 60° D) 102° Correct Ans: B

Q2) If the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is 25 : 144, the ratio of their corresponding sides is:
A) 5 : 12 B) 5 : 144 C) 25 : 12 D) 12 : 5 Correct Ans: A

Q3) In the following sets, which set represents the angles of a triangle?
A) {30°,60°,90°} B) {80°,50°,90°} C) {30°,50°,110°} D) {30°,50°,90°} Correct Ans: A

Q4) In the following sets, which set represents the sides of a right-angled triangle?
A) {3, 4, 6} B) {8, 15, 16} C) {5, 10, 12} D) {5, 12, 13} Correct Ans: D

Q5) If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 7 : 8 : 3, then the value of the largest angle is:
A) 120° B) 80° C) 100° D) 60° Correct Ans: B

Q6) △ABC and △RPQ are congruent, then the side of △ABC that corresponds to PQ is:
A) AB B) CA C) AR D) BC Correct Ans: D

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q8) If the medians of a triangle are equal, then the triangle will be:
A) equilateral triangle B) obtuse angle triangle C) scalene triangle D) right angled triangle Correct Ans: A

Q9) The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. The difference in the largest and smallest angle is (in
degrees):
A) 60 B) 15 C) 45 D) 30 Correct Ans: A

Q10) In a ΔLMN, ∠L = 118° and LM = LN. Find ∠N.

A) 42° B) 31° C) 65° D) 62° Correct Ans: B

Q11) Two triangles EFG and HIJ are congruent. If the area of ΔEFG is 124 cm2, then the area of ΔHIJ will be:
A) 124 cm2 B) 248 cm2 C) 62 cm2 D) 31 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q12) The measures of the three angles of a triangle are in the ratio 17 : 13 : 15. Find the positive difference
between the greatest and the smallest of these three angles.
A) 16° B) 24° C) 20° D) 12° Correct Ans: A

Q13) The radius of the circle is 10 cm and the perpendicular distance from the chord to the centre is 6 cm. The
length of the chord is:
A) 16 cm B) 12 cm C) 14 cm D) 18 cm Correct Ans: A

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Q14) If arcs PAQ and RBS of a circle are congruent, then find the ratio of PQ and RS.
A) 2 : 3 B) 1 : 3 C) 1 : 1 D) 1 : 2 Correct Ans: C

Q15) A chord of length 32 cm is drawn at a distance of 12 cm from the centre of a circle. Find the radius of the
circle.
A) 18 cm B) 22 cm C) 20 cm D) 28 cm Correct Ans: C

Q16) If 45° and 65° are the angles of a triangle, then find the exterior angle of the third angle (remaining angle).
A) 110° B) 120° C) 70° D) 100° Correct Ans: A

Q17)

A) B) C)

D)

Correct Ans: D

Q18) If in a circle a chord of length 14 cm is at a distance of 24 cm from its centre, then the length of the radius
of the circle is:
A) 28 cm B) 31 cm C) 24 cm D) 25 cm Correct Ans: D

Q19) If ∆ABC and ∆QPR are congruent triangles such that AB = 7 cm, AC = 8 cm, ∠B = 65° and ∠C = 75°, then
which of the following is true?
A) ∠R = 75° and PQ = 8 cm B) PQ = 7 cm and ∠R = 75° C) ∠Q = 40° and RQ = 7 cm D) AC = PR and ∠P = 65°

Correct Ans: B

Q20) If the sum of two sides of an equilateral triangle is 16 cm, then find the third side.
A) 4 cm B) 16 cm C) Cannot be found D) 8 cm Correct Ans: D

Q21) If the area of a sector of a circle is 462 cm² and the central angle is 120°, then its radius is ____.
A) 18 cm B) 17 cm C) 21 cm D) 14 cm Correct Ans: C

Q22) At what angle is the arc length half the perimeter of the circle?
A) 120° B) 180° C) 90° D) 270° Correct Ans: B

Q23) In ∆PQR, S and T are the midpoints of the sides PQ and PR, respectively. The length of the side QR is 12
cm. If ST is parallel to QR, then find the length (in cm) of ST.
A) 4 B) 10 C) 6 D) 8 Correct Ans: C

Q24) AP and AQ are two tangents drawn to a circle with center O from an external point A. If ∠PAQ = 40°, then
∠POQ is:
A) 120° B) 130° C) 150° D) 140° Correct Ans: D

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Q25) In a ∆PQR, PQ = PR and PT is perpendicular to QR. If PQ = 17 cm, PT = 15 cm, then what is the measure
(in cm) of QR?
A) 8 B) 24 C) 16 D) 32 Correct Ans: C

Q26) The side BC of ∆ABC is produced to a point D. If AC = BC and ∠BAC = 70°, then find the value of ∠ACD −
∠ABC.
A) 70° B) 60° C) 75° D) 45° Correct Ans: A

Q27)

A) 145˚ B) 130˚ C) 160˚ D) 120˚ Correct Ans: A

Q28) The radius of the circle is 8 cm. The distance of a point lying outside the circle from the centre is 17 cm.
The length of the tangent drawn from the outside point to the circle is:
A) 18 cm B) 15 cm C) 16 cm D) 19 cm Correct Ans: B

Q29) Find the area of a square, one of whose diagonals is 4.8 m long.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q30)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q31) A circle's centre is connected to its 50 cm long chord by a perpendicular that is 21 cm long. Find the
circle's radius.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q32) If we extend a chord infinitely on both sides, then the chord becomes a _____________.
A) diameter B) tangent C) secant D) normal Correct Ans: C

Q33) In a circle, two chords MN and PQ intersect at O. If MO = 9 cm, ON = 5 cm and OQ = 6 cm, then the value
of OP (in cm) is:
A) 7.5 B) 6.5 C) 6 D) 7 Correct Ans: A

Q34) Triangle XYZ is an isosceles triangle with sides XY = XZ. If the measure of angle Y is 80°, what is the
measure of angle X?
A) 30° B) 40° C) 20° D) 50° Correct Ans: C

Q35) The angle turned by minutes hand in 25 minutes in a clock is:

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

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Q36) Let ABC be a triangle. If the mid-points of AB, BC and AC are D, E and F, respectively, then ∆DEF is NOT
congruent to _____.
A) ∆BDE B) ∆ECF C) ∆ADF D) ∆ABC Correct Ans: D

Q37) In aΔPQR, the bisectors of∠Q and∠R meet at point O, inside the triangle. If∠QOR = 107°, then the
measure of∠P is:
A) 40° B) 23° C) 17° D) 34° Correct Ans: D

Q38) The radii of two circle are 5 cm and 10 cm and the distance between their centres is 17 cm. Find the length of
the transverse common tangent.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q39) From a point T, the length of the tangent to a circle is 32 cm and the distance of T from the centre is 40
cm. The diameter (in cm) of the circle is:
A) 36 B) 16 C) 32 D) 48 Correct Ans: D

Q40)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q41) Two circles of radii 18 cm and 12 cm touch each other externally. Find the length (in cm) of their direct
common tangent.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q42)

A) 15,421 B) 13,992 C) 11,229 D) 17,355 Correct Ans: B

Q43)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q44)

A) (a) and (b) B) (b), (c) and (d) C) (a), (b) and (d) D) (a) and (c) Correct Ans: D

Q45) In ΔPQR, if 4∠P = 5∠Q = 20∠R, then the value of ∠Q is:

A) 72° B) 36° C) 90° D) 45° Correct Ans: A

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Q46) The radii of two concentric circles are 26 cm and 10 cm. If the chord of the greater circle is a tangent to
the smaller circle, then find the length of that chord.
A) 38.7 cm B) 28.7 cm C) 48 cm D) 28 cm Correct Ans: C

Q47) Find the diameter (in cm) of a circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of the circumferences of
two circles of radii 12 cm and 16 cm.
A) 32 B) 56 C) 64 D) 28 Correct Ans: B

Q48) The central angle of a sector is 80° and whose length is 96π. What is the radius of the circle?
A) 196 units B) 204 units C) 116 units D) 216 units Correct Ans: D

Q49) In triangles ABC and DEF, AB = FD and ∠A = ∠D. The two triangles are congruent by SAS criterion if:
A) BC = DE B) AC = EF C) BC = EF D) AC = DE Correct Ans: D

Q50) The length of the tangent drawn from a point 10 cm away from the centre of a circle with radius 4 cm, is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q51) In a kite ABCD, longer diagonal BD is drawn. If ∠ABD = 54°and ∠ADB = 50°, then what is the measure (in
degrees) of the ∠DCB?
A) 108 B) 76 C) 100 D) 54 Correct Ans: B

Q52) In a rhombus PQRS, O is any interior point such that OP = OR. What is the degree measure of ∠SOQ?
A) 120° B) 180° C) 240° D) 200° Correct Ans: B

Q53) The two circles intersect at two points P and Q. PR and PS are diameters of the two circles. What is ∠PQR
?
A) 90° B) 0° C) 45° D) 60° Correct Ans: A

Q54) P and Q are two fixed points 10 cm apart, and R is a point on PQ such that PR = 6 cm. By what percentage
is the length of QR decreased when the length of PR is increased by 5%?
A) 8.5% B) 7.5% C) 7% D) 8% Correct Ans: B

Q55) The perimeters of two similar triangles ΔRST and ΔABC are 26 cm and 39 cm, respectively. If AB = 24 cm,
then RS is ___.
A) 16 cm B) 36 cm C) 18 cm D) 24 cm Correct Ans: A

Q56) In a circle of radius 5√13 cm, a chord is at a distance of 10 cm from the centre of the circle. Find the
length (in cm) of the chord.
A) 30 B) 28 C) 36 D) 15 Correct Ans: A

Q57) If the sectorial angle with radius 9.6 units is 75°, what is the length of the arc?
A) 2π B) 4π C) π D) 3π Correct Ans: B

Q58) Which of the following are the angles of a scalene triangle?

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q59)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q60)
A) 9 B) 6 C) 3 D) 7 Correct Ans: B

Q61) If ∆PQR≅∆MON such that ∠PQR = 82°,∠QRP = 47°,∠RPQ = 51°,∠MON = (5y - 8)°,QR = 24 and ON = 3x +
y,then find (x + y).
A) 14 B) 18 C) 16 D) 20 Correct Ans: D

Q62) ΔEFG and ΔHIJ are similar. Also, ∠E = ∠H and ∠F = ∠I. If 3EF = HI and FG = 9 cm, then IJ is equal to ____.
A) 9 cm B) 27 cm C) 3 cm D) 18 cm Correct Ans: B

Q63)

A) 37.5 B) 18.5 C) 60.5 D) 55.5 Correct Ans: D

Q64)

A) 2 : 3 B) 1 : 2 C) 2 : 5 D) 2 : 1 Correct Ans: D

Q65) In triangle ABC, the length of side BC is 2 cm less than twice the length of side AB. The length of side AC
exceeds the length of side AB by 10 cm. The perimeter of the triangle is 40 cm. Determine the length (in
cm) of the smallest side of the triangle.
A) 12 B) 14 C) 10 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

Q66) A circular arc whose radius is 12 cm makes an angle of 30° at the centre. Find the perimeter (in cm) of the
sector formed. (Use π = 3.14)
A) 32.38 B) 30.28 C) 28.64 D) 26.24 Correct Ans: B

Q67) The distance between the centres of two circles of radii 22 cm and 10 cm is 37 cm. If the points of contact
of a direct common tangent to these circles are M and Q, then find the length of the line segment MQ.
A) 35 cm B) 39 cm C) 29 cm D) 25 cm Correct Ans: A

Q68) In ΔDEF, the bisector of ∠D intersects side EF at point N. If DE = 36 cm, DF = 40 cm and EF = 38 cm, then
the length (in cm) of NF is ________.
A) 16 B) 20 C) 18 D) 12 Correct Ans: B

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Q69) If the altitude from two vertices of a triangle to the opposite sides are equal, then the triangle will be:
A) isosceles triangle B) equilateral triangle C) scalene triangle D) obtuse angle triangle Correct Ans: A

Q70) Let C be a circle with centre O and P be an external point to C. Let PA and PB be two tangents to C with A
and B being the points of tangency, respectively. If PA and PB are inclined to each other at an angle of
60°, then find∠POA.
A) 40° B) 60° C) 80° D) 30° Correct Ans: B

Q71) A circular arc whose radius is 24 cm makes an angle of 60° at the centre. The perimeter of the sector
formed is:
(Use π = 3.14)
A) 73.22 cm B) 63.12 cm C) 74.32 cm D) 73.12 cm Correct Ans: D

Q72) PQ is the diameter of a circle with centre A. M is a point on the circumference of the circle. If m∠MAP =
110°, then find the value of m∠MQA.
A) 55° B) 35° C) 65° D) 70° Correct Ans: A

Q73)

A) 38 B) 28 C) 39 D) 34 Correct Ans: C

Q74) Find the area of a sector with an arc length of 44 cm, which subtends a central angle of 30°.
A) 1488 cm2 B) 1584 cm2 C) 1848 cm2 D) 1884 cm2 Correct Ans: C

Q75)
A) 2.4 B) 5 C) 3.2 D) 4 Correct Ans: D

Q76) By applying which of the following criteria can two triangles NOT be proved congruent?
A) angle-side-angle B) angle-angle-angle C) side-side-side D) side-angle-side Correct Ans: B

Q77) It is always possible to draw a circle passing through ______ non-collinear points in a plane.
A) 3 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q78) ΔABC and ΔDEF are two triangles such that ΔABC≅ΔFDE. If AB=17 cm, ∠B=52° and ∠A=95°, then which
of the following options is true?
A) DE=17 cm,∠F=33° B) DF=17 cm,∠E=33° C) DE=17 cm,∠E=33° D) DF=17 cm,∠D=33° Correct Ans: B

Q79) In a rhombus ABCD, O is any interior point such that OA = OC. What is five-ninths of the degree measure
of ∠DOB?
A) 120° B) 150° C) 100° D) 90° Correct Ans: C

Q80) The distance between the longest chord and the centre of a circle is:
A) equal to zero unit B) equal to the diameter C) equal to the half of the radius D) equal to the radius Correct Ans: A

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Q81) M and N are, respectively, the centres of two circles of radii 12 cm and 8 cm. QR is the common tangent
to the circles. If MN = 16 cm, then what will be the length of QR?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q82)

In the figure shown above, quadrilateral PQRS has its vertices on the circumference of the circle with
centre O. If m∠QOS = 20x° and m∠QRS = 26x°, then what is the value of ‘x’?
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 Correct Ans: B

Q83) Which of the following statements is sufficient to conclude that two triangles are congruent?
A) These have two equal sides and the same perimeter. B) These have the same area and the same base.

C) One side and one angle of both triangles are equal. D) These have the same base and the same height.

Correct Ans: A

Q84) If the lengths of two sides of an isosceles triangle are 6 cm and 12 cm, then find the length of the third
side.
A) 8 cm B) 6 cm C) 12 cm D) 14 cm Correct Ans: C

Q85) In ∆ PQR, M, N, and S are the mid-points of sides PQ, PR and QR, respectively. If the area of the ∆ PQR is
46 cm2, what is the area (in cm2) of the quadrilateral MNRQ?
A) 39 B) 27.6 C) 23 D) 34.5 Correct Ans: D

Q86) The side BC of ∆ABC is produced to a point D. If AC = BC and ∠BAC = 70°, then find the value of 2.5∠ACD
− 1.5∠ABC.
A) 245° B) 235° C) 225° D) 230° Correct Ans: A

Q87) In right-angled triangle ABC, ∠C=90, CM is perpendicular on AB. If AB = 18 cm and BM = 6 cm, then find
the length of CM.
A) 6√2 cm B) 4√2 cm C) 7√2 cm D) 2√2 cm Correct Ans: A

Q88) In a triangle, the lengths of sides are 6 units, 12 units and x units. How many possible integer values are
there for x?
A) 9 B) 12 C) 11 D) 10 Correct Ans: C

Q89) The radius of a circle is 12.5 cm and the length of one its chords is 11 cm. What is the distance of the
chord from the centre? (correct to one decimal place)

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A) 11.2 cm B) 13.2 cm C) 10 cm D) 12 cm Correct Ans: A

Q90) XAB and XCD are two secants to a circle. If XA = 18 cm, AB = 22 cm and XC = 24 cm, then find the value of
XD (in cm).
A) 28 B) 21 C) 30 D) 34 Correct Ans: C

Q91) For what value of k will the lines 2x + 7ky – 8 = 0 and x + y – 9 = 0 have no solution?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q92) Let C be a circle with centre O and PQ be a minor arc on C. Let R and S be two points on the major arc of
PQ on C. If PQ subtends an angle 80° at O, find ∠PRQ and ∠PSQ, respectively.
A) 40° and 60° B) 50° and 80° C) 40° and 40° D) 40° and 50° Correct Ans: C

Q93) From a point A, which is at a distance of 17 cm from the centre C of a circle with radius 8 cm, the pair of
tangents AB and AD to the circle are drawn. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD is _____ cm2.
A) 192 B) 120 C) 60 D) 360 Correct Ans: B

Q94) The angles of triangle are such that one is average of other two, then the angles are:

A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q95) P, Q and R are the three angles of a triangle. If P − Q = 20° and Q − R = 26°, then ∠P is equal to:
A) 52° B) 46° C) 92° D) 82° Correct Ans: D

Q96) Two equal circles pass through each other’s centre. If the radius of each of the circle is 13 cm, then what
is the length of the common chord?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q97) What is the perimeter (in cm, rounded off to one decimal place) of the sector of a circle with a radius of 10
cm and of angle 30°?
(Use π = 3.14)
A) 20.4 B) 35.7 C) 82.8 D) 25.2 Correct Ans: D

Q98) In ΔPQR, if PT is the median, then which of the following is correct?

A) B) C)

D)

Correct Ans: B

Q99) If two straight lines are coinciding with each other, then the number of points of intersection is/are:
A) infinitely many points of intersection B) finite number of point of intersection C) no points of intersection

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D) unique point of intersection

Correct Ans: A

Q100)

A) 14.586 B) 18.654 C) 15.486 D) 16.584 Correct Ans: A

Q101) Let O be the centre of the circle and AB and CD are two parallel chords on the same side of the radius.
OP is perpendicular to AB and OQ is perpendicular to CD. If AB = 10 cm, CD = 24 cm and PQ = 7 cm,
then the diameter (in cm) of the circle is equal to:
A) 26 B) 13 C) 12 D) 24 Correct Ans: A

Q102) AB and CD are two parallel chords drawn in a circle with centre O. The distance between the two chords
is 21 cm. If the lengths of AB and CD are 24 cm and 18 cm, respectively, then the radius of the circle is
equal to:
A) 15 cm B) 20 cm C) 18 cm D) 24 cm Correct Ans: A

Q103) In ∆ABC, two medians AD and BE intersect at G at right angles. If AD = 12 cm and BE = 9 cm, then the
length of AB is equal to:
A) 14 cm B) 16 cm C) 12 cm D) 10 cm Correct Ans: D

Q104) If the equations 4x + (k − 2)y + 3 = 0 and (k − 2)x + 9y − 5 = 0 (k > 0) are parallel, then find the value of k2
+ 6.
A) 68 B) 70 C) 72 D) 64 Correct Ans: B

Q105) X, Y, and Z are three points on a plane with XY = 11 cm, YZ = 13 cm, and XZ = 24 cm. The number of
circles that travel through points X, Y, and Z is:
A) 0 B) 2 C) 1 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

Q106) A quadrilateral PQRS is inscribed in a circle of centre O, such that PQ is a diameter and
. Find the value of .
A) 30° B) 60° C) 40° D) 50° Correct Ans: A

Q107) A line cuts two concentric circles. The length of chords formed by this line on the circles is 6 cm and 18
cm. Find the difference in the squares of the radii of two circles.
A) 90 B) 120 C) 60 D) 72 Correct Ans: D

Q108) The side MN of a parallelogram MNOP is produced to Q such that MN = NQ. PQ intersects ON at R. The
point R divides ON in the ratio:
A) 3 : 1 B) 2 : 1 C) 1 : 2 D) 1 : 1 Correct Ans: D

Q109) A circular arc makes an angle of 15° at the centre. If the radius of the circular arc is 14 cm, what is the
perimeter (correct up to two decimal places) of the sector so formed? (π = 3.14)?
A) 17.66 cm B) 21.32 cm C) 35.32 cm D) 31.66 cm Correct Ans: D

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Q110) The relation between K1 and K2 for which the system of linear equations K1x + 3y = 8 and 4x + K2y = 16
represents coincident lines, is:
A) K2 = 3K1 B) K2 + 3K1 = 0 C) K2 = K1 D) K1 + K2 = 0 Correct Ans: A

Q111)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q112)

A) 70.05 B) 36.57 C) 66.75 D) 53.58 Correct Ans: C

Q113) From a point A, a tangent line is drawn to the circle of radius 7 units. From the same point, a secant is
drawn to the circle which cuts the circle at B and C and the point B is near A than C. What is the length
of BC in units if the length of the tangent to the circle from point A is 21 units and the length of AB is 14
units?
A) 18.5 B) 16.5 C) 15.5 D) 17.5 Correct Ans: D

Q114) One-quarter of a circular pizza of radius 21 cm was removed from the whole pizza. What is the perimeter
(in cm) of the remaining pizza? (Use
A) 99 B) 141 C) 128 D) 131 Correct Ans: B

Q115)

A) 120° B) 150° C) 80° D) 30° Correct Ans: B

Q116) PQ and RS are common tangents to two circles intersecting at A and B. A and B, when produced on both
the sides, meet the tangents PQ and RS at X and Y, respectively. If AB = 3 cm and XY = 5 cm, then PQ is
________.
A) 5 cm B) 3 cm C) 6 cm D) 4 cm Correct Ans: D

Q117) A and B are centres of two circles with radii 2 cm and 1 cm respectively, where AB = 5 cm. C is the
centre of another circle of radius r cm, which touches each of the above two circles externally. If
∠ACB=90° , then the value of r is:
A) 5 cm B) 2 cm C) 3 cm D) 4 cm Correct Ans: B

Q118) From a circle of radius 7 units, an arc length is cut by a chord of length 7 units. What is the arc length of
the smaller portion (in units)?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

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Q119) In a triangle PQR, S is a point on the side QR such that PS⊥QR, then which of the following options is
true?
A) PS2 + PR2 = PQ2 + QR2 B) PR2 + QS2 = PQ2 + SR2 C) PQ2 + PR2 = QS2 + SR2 D) PS2 + QS2 = PQ2 + PR2

Correct Ans: B

Q120)

A) B) C)

D)

Correct Ans: D

Q121) If a triangle has a perimeter of 52 units, then all its sides have length ________ units.
A) <26 B) <20 C) <24 D) <18 Correct Ans: A

Q122) WXYZ is a quadrilateral in which XQ and ZP are perpendicular to WY such that XQ = ZP. Diagonals ZX
and WY intersect each other at point O. If OX = 12 cm, then find the value of ZX (in cm).
A) 12 B) 24 C) 36 D) 18 Correct Ans: B

Q123)

A) 7,850 B) 8,164 C) 7,693 D) 7,536 Correct Ans: A

Q124) In triangle ABC, D is the mid-point of BC. If DL perpendicular to AB and DM perpendicular to AC such
that DL = DM, then the triangle will be:
A) isosceles triangle B) right angled triangle C) obtuse angle triangle D) equilateral triangle Correct Ans: A

Q125) A triangle ABC is made on a circle, where AB is diameter of the circle. If BC is equal to the radius of the
circle and ∠ABC = x ∠BAC, then x is :
A) 2.5 B) 2 C) 1 D) 1.5 Correct Ans: B

Q126)

A) 132° B) 112° C) 124° D) 102° Correct Ans: B

Q127) In a circle with center O, an arc ABC subtends an angle of at the centre of the circle. The chord AB
is produced to a point P. Then, the measure of is:

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q128) P and Q are centres of two circles whose radii are 7 cm and 3 cm, respectively. If the direct common
tangents to the circles meet PQ extended at A, then A divides PQ _________.
A) externally in the ratio 3 : 7 B) internally in the ratio 3 : 7 C) externally in the ratio 7 : 3 D) internally in the ratio 7 : 3

Correct Ans: C

Q129) A pair of straight lines from an external point F intersects a circle at A and B (FA < FB), and touches the
circle at C. O is the centre of the circle. Given that ∠ACF = 50° and ∠AFC = 30°, find ∠AOB.
A) 80° B) 90° C) 100° D) 40° Correct Ans: C

Q130) In a quadrilateral ABCD, AB = BC, AD = DC. ∠ABD = 68°, ∠ADB = (2y-7)°, ∠BDC = 33°, ∠DBC = (3x+2)°.
Then the value of 2x+3y is:
A) 108 B) 144 C) 104 D) 118 Correct Ans: C

Q131) The side of an equilateral triangle is 28 cm. Taking each vertex as the centre, a circle is described with a
radius equal to half the length of the side of the triangle. Find the area of that part of the triangle which
is not included in the circles (use = and ).

A) 30.89 cm2 B) 38.08 cm2 C) 31.08 cm2 D) 39.08 cm2 Correct Ans: C

Q132) R is a point outside a circle and is 18 cm away from its centre. A secant drawn from the point R
intersects the circle at points A and B in such a way that RA = 7 cm and AB = 5 cm. The radius of the
circle (in cm) is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q133) A secant PAB is drawn from an external point P to the circle with the centre at O, intersecting it at A and
B. If OP = 17 cm, PA = 12 cm and PB = 22.5 cm, then the radius of the circle is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q134) If the length of a common external tangent to two circles is 9 and that of a common internal tangent is 5,
then the product of the radii of the two circles is:
A) 12 B) 8 C) 14 D) 10 Correct Ans: C

Q135) On a circle of radius 7 units, PQ and QR are chords of length 7 units each. What is the length of the
chord PR in units?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q136) AB is a chord of length 32 cm of a circle of radius 20 cm, the tangents at A and B intersect at a point T.
Find length TA (rounded off to two digits after decimal).
A) 36.50 cm B) 21.33 cm C) 26.67 cm D) 19.93 cm Correct Ans: C

Q137) From a point T, a tangent TP at point P, is drawn to a circle with centre O. A secant TQR (point Q is near
to point T) is drawn from the point T. ∆PQR is inscribed into the circle by joining the points P, Q and R.

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 Draw lines OQ and OR. If ∠PTQ is 27° and ∠ TPQ = 55°, what is the degree measure of ∠ROQ?
A) 86 B) 82 C) 98 D) 94 Correct Ans: A

Q138) AB is the chord of the circle with centre O. A line segment DOC originating from a point D on the
circumference of the circle in major segment meets AB produced at C such that BC = OD. If angle BCO =
30°, then angle AOD is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1) If the perimeter of a square is 64 cm, what would be its area?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q2) Which of the following are the sides of a right-angled triangle?

A) 6 cm, 7 cm, 10 cm B) 5 cm, 11 cm, 13 cm C) 12 cm, 16 cm, 20 cm D) 16 cm, 31 cm, 34 cm Correct Ans: C

Q3) In ∆ABC, P and Q are the middle points of the sides AB and AC, respectively. R is a point on the segment
PQ such that PR: RQ = 1:5. If PR= 6 cm, then BC = ____.
A) 70 cm B) 66 cm C) 68 cm D) 72 cm Correct Ans: D

Q4) Two similar triangles have area 490 sq. cm. and 640 sq. cm. If the length of the one side of the first triangle
is 21 cm, then what is the length of the corresponding side of the second triangle?
A) 24 cm B) 21 cm C) 16 cm D) 14 cm Correct Ans: A

Q5) If three sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm, then the area of the triangle is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q6) Let ABC be a triangle such that ∠ABC = 70° and ∠ACB = 50°. Let O be the incentre of the triangle. Find
∠BOC.
A) 120° B) 100° C) 60° D) 130° Correct Ans: A

Q7)

A) 32 B) 30 C) 27 D) 25 Correct Ans: B

Q8) Find the area of a rhombus whose diagonals are of lengths 10 cm and 8.2 cm.
A) 43 cm2 B) 41 cm2 C) 40 cm2 D) 42 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q9)

A) 24 B) 20 C) 8 D) 16 Correct Ans: A

Q10) AB and AC are two tangents to a circle having centres at the point X. What will be the measure of ∠BAC,
if ∠BXC = 125°?

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A) 50° B) 48° C) 55° D) 52° Correct Ans: C

Q11) In a triangle ABC, D and E are two points on sides AB and AC, respectively, such that DE is parallel to BC
and AD : DB = 3 : 5. If AC = 5.6 cm, then find the value (in cm) of AE.
A) 2.3 B) 2.1 C) 1.9 D) 2.5 Correct Ans: B

Q12) In ∆ DEW, AB∥EW. If AD = 4 cm, DE = 12 cm and DW = 24 cm, then find the length of DB.
A) 7 cm B) 6 cm C) 9 cm D) 8 cm Correct Ans: D

Q13)

A) 9 cm B) 13 cm C) 15 cm D) 12 cm Correct Ans: C

Q14) Given that the perimeters of two similar triangles, ∆ABC and ∆DEF, are 24 cm and 9 cm, respectively, and
DE = 3 cm, what is the ratio between the area of ∆ABC and that of ∆DEF?
A) 64 : 9 B) 54 : 9 C) 64 : 7 D) 54 : 7 Correct Ans: A

Q15) A tangent is drawn from a point that is at a distance of 37 cm from center of the circle O, and diameter is
24 cm. The length (in cm) of the tangent is:
A) 30 B) 35 C) 28.16 D) 37 Correct Ans: B

Q16) ∆ABC and ∆PQR are similar. The areas of these two triangles are 289 sq.cm and 576 sq.cm, respectively.
If PR = 12 cm, then AC = ?
A) 7.25 cm B) 8.5 cm C) 12 cm D) 6 cm Correct Ans: B

Q17) L and M are the mid points of sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC, respectively, and BC = 18 cm. If LM ||
BC, then find the length of LM (in cm).
A) 6 B) 3 C) 9 D) 12 Correct Ans: C

Q18) A circle of diameter 26 cm has two equal parallel chords of length 10 cm each, then the distance between
the two chords is:
A) 23 cm B) 26 cm C) 21 cm D) 24 cm Correct Ans: D

Q19) A chord of length 12 units in a circle of radius 10 units is ______ units away from its centre.
A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 6 Correct Ans: A

Q20)
A) 60° B) 90° C) 30° D) 45° Correct Ans: A

Q21) In triangle XYZ, XY = YZ and m∠X = 78°. Find the value of m∠Y.
A) 28° B) 24° C) 34° D) 39° Correct Ans: B

Q22) If PQ and PR are the two tangents to a circle with center O, and ∠QOR=150°, then ∠QPR is equal to:
A) 60° B) 30° C) 90° D) 45° Correct Ans: B

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Q23) In a circle, the chords AB and CD intersect each other at point L (internally). If AL = 9 cm, LB = 7 cm and
LD = 3 cm, then find CL (in cm).
A) 20 B) 21 C) 18 D) 19 Correct Ans: B

Q24) In ∆PQR, PR = 10 cm. Find the length of PT, where ST∥QR. Given that PS = 6 cm and QS = 14 cm.
A) 2 cm B) 4 cm C) 1.5 cm D) 3 cm Correct Ans: D

Q25) The length of a common external tangent to two circles of an equal radius of 5 units is equal to the
diameter of the circle. Which of the following can be the distance between the centres of the circles in
units?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 9 D) 8 Correct Ans: A

Q26) The sides AB and AC of △ABC are produced to points D and E, respectively. The bisectors of ∠CBD and
∠BCE meet at P. If ∠A = 72°, then the measure of ∠P is:
A) 55° B) 65° C) 54° D) 35° Correct Ans: C

Q27) Let ABC be a right-angled triangle such that ∠C = 90°. Let D be a point on AB such that CD is
perpendicular to AB. If AC = 5 cm and BC = 12 cm, find the length of CD (in cm).
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q28) Two chords AB and CD of a circle are produced to intersect each other at a point P outside the circle. If
AB = 7 cm, BP = 4.2 cm and PD = 2.8 cm, then the length of CD is:
A) 11 cm B) 18 cm C) 16 cm D) 14 cm Correct Ans: D

Q29) The lengths of the three sides of a triangle are 19 cm, 25 cm and y cm. Which of the following options
most accurately gives the possible values of ‘y’?
A) 6 ≤ y < 44 B) 6 < y < 44 C) 6 ≤ y ≤ 44 D) 6 < y ≤ 44 Correct Ans: B

Q30) Two parallel chords of length 8 units each are 6 units away from each other in a circle. What is the radius
of the circle in units?
A) 3 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4 Correct Ans: C

Q31)

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 Two circles touch each other externally as shown in the figure above. The radius of the circle with centre
O is 49 cm. The radius of the circle with centre A is 16 cm. Find the length (in cm) of their common
tangent BC.
A) 56 B) 55 C) 58 D) 57 Correct Ans: A

Q32)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q33) Let C be a circle with center O and PQ be the diameter of C. Let AB be a chord on C. If ∠QOB = 40°, ∠AOP
= 80°, then find ∠AOB.
A) 100° B) 60° C) 90° D) 70° Correct Ans: B

Q34) X and Y are two points on the circumference of a circle having diameter 20 cm. The length of the line
segment XY is 16 cm. Find the distance (in cm) of the line segment XY from the centre of the circle.
A) 6 B) 3 C) 5 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q35) Let C be a circle with Centre O and P be an external point to C. Let PQ and PR be the tangents to C such
that Q and R be the points of tangency, respectively. If ∠ROQ = 110°, find ∠RPQ.
A) 90° B) 70° C) 80° D) 110° Correct Ans: B

Q36) The measures of the three angles of a triangle are such that the smallest angle measures 42° less than
the greatest angle, while the measure of the remaining angle is 24° more than the measure of the smallest
angle. Find the measure of the smallest angle of the triangle.
A) 42° B) 40° C) 38° D) 36° Correct Ans: C

Q37) Two circles of radii 16 cm and 4 cm, respectively, touch each other externally at Point A. PQ is the direct
common tangent of these circles with centres C1 and C2, respectively. What is the length of PQ?
A) 15 cm B) 20 cm C) 16 cm D) 18 cm Correct Ans: C

Q38) From a circle, a sector with a central angle of 30° is cut off. If the length of the arc of this sector is 5.5 cm,
then find the radius (in cm) of the circle.

A) 12 B) 10 C) 10.5 D) 11 Correct Ans: C

Q39) Chords AB and CD of a circle, when produced, meet at a point P outside the circle. If AB = 6 cm, CD = 3
cm and PD = 5 cm, then PB is equal to:
A) 9 cm B) 8 cm C) 4 cm D) 6 cm Correct Ans: C

Q40) In ΔABC,D and E are points on sides AB and AC, such that DE∥BC. If AD = x,DB = x - 3,AE = x + 3 and EC
= x - 2, then the value of x is:
A) 5.2 B) 4.0 C) 4.5 D) 4.2 Correct Ans: C

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Q41) ∆ABC~∆EDF and area (∆ABC) : area (∆EDF) = 9 :4. If AB = 5 cm, BC = 8 cm and CA = 10 cm, then DF is
equal to:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q42) In an isosceles triangle, the angle between equal sides is 40°. The bisectors of the other two angles will
intersect each other at an angle of:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q43)

A) 3 B) -4 C) 4 D) -3 Correct Ans: B

Q44) Two circles touch each other externally at M. PQ is a direct common tangent to the two circles, P and Q
are points of contact and ∠MPQ = 38°. ∠MQP is:
A) 38° B) 52° C) 42° D) 48° Correct Ans: B

Q45) Two circles with centre O and A touch each other externally. The radius of the first circle with centre O is
6 cm. The radius of the second circle with centre A is 3 cm. Find the length of their common tangent CB
(in centimetres).
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q46)

A) 16 cm B) 18 cm C) 14 cm D) 12 cm Correct Ans: A

Q47)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q48) ∆ABC is similar to ∆DEF and the ratio of the area of triangle ABC to triangle DEF is 25 ∶ 144. If AB = p
cm,AC = q cm and BC = r cm,then DE = ?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q49) O is the centre of the circle. Its two chord AB and CD intersect each other at the point P (internally) within
the circle. If AB = 22 cm, PB = 14 cm, CP = 8 cm, then find the value of the PD.
A) 14 cm B) 11 cm C) 22 cm D) 12 cm Correct Ans: A

Q50) In a triangle ABC, P and Q are two points on AB and AC, respectively, such that PQ parallel to BC. If AC =
5QC, then the ratio PQ : BC is equal to:

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A) 3 : 4 B) 5 : 4 C) 4 : 5 D) 4 : 3 Correct Ans: C

Q51) If the radii of two circles are 6 cm and 3 cm and the length of the transverse common tangent is 8 cm,
then the distance between the two circles is:

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q52) △XYZ is similar to △PQR. If the ratio of the perimeter of △XYZ to the perimeter of △PQR is 16 : 9 and PQ
= 3.6 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of XY?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q53) A circle of diameter 26 cm has two equal chords of length 10 cm each, separated by a distance h cm.
What is the value of h?
A) 18 B) 12 C) 24 D) 16 Correct Ans: C

Q54) Consider two concentric circles having radii 17 cm and 15 cm. What is the length (in cm) of the chord, of
the bigger circle, which is a tangent to the smaller circle?
A) 16 B) 10 C) 12 D) 8 Correct Ans: A

Q55) Which of the following is NOT true regarding a circle?

A) The largest chord in a circle has a length twice its radius

B) Given any three points in a plane, there is always a circle passing through these points

C) The ratio of the perimeter and radius of a circle is always constant

D) A triangle with vertices on a circle and one side as its diameter is a right-angled triangle

Correct Ans: B

Q56) In a triangle ABC, AB = AC. BC is extended to D such that CD = AB and the angle ADC is 30°. What are the
angles of triangle ABC?
A) 30°, 60°, 90° B) 50°, 60°, 70° C) 60°, 60°, 60° D) 45°, 60°, 75° Correct Ans: C

Q57) In an isosceles triangle, the vertex angle is four times the sum of the base angles. The measure of the
square root of the vertex angle is:
A) 16° B) 18° C) 10° D) 12° Correct Ans: D

Q58) The radii of two concentric circles are 35 cm and 21 cm. If the chord of the greater circle is a tangent to
the smaller circle, then the length of that chord is:
A) 70 cm B) 42 cm C) 56 cm D) 28 cm Correct Ans: C

Q59) A and B are centres of two circles of radii 32 cm and 8 cm, respectively. CD is a direct common tangent to
the circles. If the length of AB = 30 cm, then the length of CD will be:
A) 10 cm B) 20 cm C) 9 cm D) 18 cm Correct Ans: D

Q60) If the area of a rhombus is 70 m2 and its height is 5 m, its perimeter is ________.
A) 56 m B) 35 m C) 64 m D) 25 m Correct Ans: A

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Q61) Let C be a circle with center O and AB be a chord of C such that the length of AB is equal to the radius of
C. Let D be any point on major arc of AB. Find ∠AOB and ∠ADB, respectively.
A) 120°; 100° B) 60°; 30° C) 100°; 80° D) 90°; 60° Correct Ans: B

Q62) The distance between the centres of two circles of radii 7 cm and 5 cm is 15 cm. Find the length of the
transverse common tangent to these circles.
A) 7 cm B) 13 cm C) 11 cm D) 9 cm Correct Ans: D

Q63) The triangle has sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. What is the length of the perpendicular from the opposite
vertex to the side whose length is 5 cm?
A) 2.4 cm B) 3.5 cm C) 1.4 cm D) 2.2 cm Correct Ans: A

Q64) In a right angle triangle with sides 12 cm and 16 cm and hypotenuse 20 cm, the length of altitude drawn
on the hypotenuse from the opposite vertex is K. Find the value of K.
A) 6.9 cm B) 9.6 cm C) 6.8 cm D) 8.6cm Correct Ans: B

Q65) ∆ABC and ∆DEF are similar and their areas are respectively 0.64 m2 and 0.0121 m2. If EF = 0.154 m, then
BC is:
A) 1.15 m B) 11.2 m C) 1.12 m D) 2.12 m Correct Ans: C

Q66)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q67) If 6,18, x are sides of a triangle and x is an integer, then the number of possible values of x is:
A) 11 B) 15 C) 13 D) 14 Correct Ans: A

Q68) In a circle with centre O, ABC is a secant intersecting the circle at A and B and DC is a tangent to the
circle at D. If DC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, then the length of AB is equal to:
A) 20 cm B) 18 cm C) 22 cm D) 16 cm Correct Ans: B

Q69) In an isosceles triangle ABC, AB=AC. D is a point inside the triangle such that ∠BAD = 20° = ∠DCB, ∠CAD
= 80°. The value of ∠ABC is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q70) The ratio of the outer and the inner circumference of a circular path is 7:6. If the path is 45 m wide, then
what is the radius (in m) of the inner circle?
A) 240 B) 120 C) 150 D) 270 Correct Ans: D

Q71) O is the centre and the arc PQR subtends an angle of 240° at O. PQ is extended to A. Then ∠AQR is:
A) 180° B) 60° C) 240° D) 120° Correct Ans: D

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Q72) There are two circles touching each other externally. The radius of the first circle with centre O is 12 cm.
The radius of the second circle with centre A is 5 cm. Find the length of their common tangent touching
the two circles at points P and Q.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q73) Two circles touch each other at a point O. AB is a simple common tangent to both the circles touching at
point A and point B. If radii of the circles are 9 cm and 4 cm, then find AB.
A) 72 cm B) 144 cm C) 12 cm D) 24 cm Correct Ans: C

Q74) ∆DEF and ∆GHI are two similar triangles. If DE = 64 cm, GH = 24 cm and the perimeter of ∆GHI is 72 cm,
then what is the sum of the lengths (in cm) of the sides EF and FD of the ∆DEF?
A) 192 B) 96 C) 128 D) 82 Correct Ans: C

Q75) In ΔABC,XY is drawn parallel to BC, cutting sides at X and Y, where AB = 5.4 cm ,BC = 7.2 cm and BX = 3
cm. What is the length of XY (in cm)?
A) 4.3 B) 3.0 C) 3.2 D) 2.8 Correct Ans: C

Q76) Which of the following is a correct statement?

A) The sum of the angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is always 180°.

B) Equal chords are equidistant from the centre of the circle but not always subtend equal angle at centre of the circle

C) If two circles touch each other, the point of contact lies on the line joining the two centres.

D) Angles subtended by the arc in the same segment of the circle are in ratio of 2 : 1.

Correct Ans: C

Q77) The distance between the centres of two circles is 81 cm, and their radii are 42 cm and 51 cm. What is the
length (in cm) of the direct common tangent to the circles?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q78)

A) 11 B) 22 C) 10 D) 20 Correct Ans: B

Q79) The radii of the two circles are 7 cm and 4 cm. If the distance between their centres is 25 cm, then the
length of the transverse common tangent is equal to:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q80) If Δ ABC ~ Δ QRP; area of Δ ABC : area of Δ PQR = 9 : 4; AB = 18 cm and BC = 15 cm, then find the length
of PR.
A) 15 cm B) 10 cm C) 12 cm D) 14 cm Correct Ans: B

Q81) The perimeter of a minor sector of a circle of radius 4 units subtending an angle of 45° is:

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A) 4 − π units B) 8 − π units C) 8 + π units D) 4 + π units Correct Ans: C

Q82) If the graph of the equation 20x + 21y = 420 cuts the coordinate axes at P and Q, then what is the measure
of the length (in units) of PQ?
A) 25 B) 29 C) 40 D) 35 Correct Ans: B

Q83) PQ is a diameter of a circle with centre O. The tangents at R meets PQ produced at A. If ∠RPQ = 27°, then
measure of ∠RQP is:
A) 63° B) 54° C) 153° D) 27° Correct Ans: A

Q84) The centres of two circles are 84 cm apart. If the radii of these two circles are 38 cm and 26 cm,
respectively, then which of the following options gives the length (in cm) of a direct common tangent of
these two circles?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q85)

A) 36° B) 32° C) 22° D) 27° Correct Ans: C

Q86) For what value of k (k > 0) will the lines 5x + ky − 2 = 0 and (k + 1)x + 4y + 7 = 0 be parallel?
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 5 Correct Ans: A

Q87) A line from point A is drawn that is tangent to the circle at point B. A secant is also drawn from point A to
the circle intersecting it at points C and D. If AB = 42 cm and AC = 21 cm, then what is the ratio between
AB and CD?
A) 2 : 3 B) 2 : 5 C) 3 : 2 D) 3 : 4 Correct Ans: A

Q88)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q89)

A) 6 B) 4 C) 5 D) 3 Correct Ans: B

Q90) In ∆EFG, XY ∥ FG, area of the quadrilateral XFGY = 44 m2. If EX : XF = 2 : 3, then find the area of ∆EXY (in
m2).
A) 8.38 B) 9.46 C) 7.28 D) 8.10 Correct Ans: A

Q91) In right triangle ABC with right angle at C, M is the mid-point of hypotenuse AB. C is joined to M and
produced to a point D, such that DM = CM. Point D is joined to B. If CD = 10 cm, and BD = 6 cm, find the
value of CM.
A) 8 cm B) 5 cm C) 9.5 cm D) 11.4 cm Correct Ans: B

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Q92) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the circle?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct Ans: B

Q93)

A) 33 B) 54 C) 99 D) 63 Correct Ans: A

Q94)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q95) In ∆ABC the straight line parallel to the side BC meets AB and AC at the points P and Q, respectively. If
AP = QC, the length of AB is 12 cm and the length of AQ is 2 cm, then the length (in cm) of CQ is:
A) 6 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

Q96) There is a circle with a centre T and a radius of 8 cm. Two tangents KE and KI are drawn from point K,
which is 17 cm from the centre. The area of the quadrilateral TEKI is:
A) 130 sq.cm B) 136 sq.cm C) 120 sq.cm D) 127.5 sq.cm Correct Ans: C

Q97) Two parallel chords are drawn in a circle of radius 25 cm. The distance between the two chords is 27 cm.
If the length of one chord is 48 cm, then length of the other chord is equal to:
A) 42 cm B) 36 cm C) 48 cm D) 30 cm Correct Ans: D

Q98)

A) 82 B) 88 C) 96 D) 48 Correct Ans: B

Q99) The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 6m more than twice the shortest side. If the third side is 2 m less
than the hypotenuse, find the area(in m2) of the triangle.
A) 130 B) 100 C) 120 D) 110 Correct Ans: C

Q100) Given is a circle with centre at C. A, B and D are the points on the circumference. Find ∠ABC.

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q101) From a circle of radius r units, the largest equilateral triangle is cut out. What is the length (in units) of
the side of the triangle?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q102) Two circles of diameters 16 cm and 20 cm are such that the distance between their centers is 13 cm.
What is the length (in cm) of a common tangent to these circles that does not intersect the line joining
the centers?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q103) The areas of two similar triangles ΔPQR and ΔXYZ are 12.96 cm2 and 635.04 cm2, respectively. If QR =
2.9 cm, then the length (in cm) of YZ equals:
A) 30.4 B) 20.3 C) 23.2 D) 25.2 Correct Ans: B

Q104) Two triangles ABC and DEF are similar. The smallest side of ABC is equal to 15 units. If the sides of ABC
are in the ratio 3 ∶ 4 ∶ 5, and the area of DEF is half of the area of ABC, then what is the largest side of
DEF (in units)?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q105)

A) 12.5 B) 12 C) 10 D) 9 Correct Ans: B

Q106) The centers of two circles of radii 25 cm and 35 cm are 80 cm apart. What is the ratio of the lengths of
the transverse common tangent to the direct common tangent to these circles?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

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Q107)

A) 3 cm B) 5 cm C) 2 cm D) 4 cm Correct Ans: C

Q108) A, B, C are three points such that AB = 11 cm, BC = 13 cm and AC = 24 cm. Number of circles passing
through the points A, B, C is:
A) 0 B) 3 C) 1 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q109) For what positive values of k do the following pair of linear equations have infinitely many solutions?
kx + 3y – ( k – 3 ) = 0
12x + ky – k = 0
A) 6 B) 2 C) 12 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q110) The average of the areas of 2 similar triangles is 706.5 m2 whose perimeters are in the ratio of 6 : 11.
What is 20% of the difference (in m2) in areas of both triangles?
A) 157 B) 149 C) 153 D) 164 Correct Ans: C

Q111) If the intersection point of the equations 3p − 2q + 23 = 0 and −2p + q − 13 = 0 on the graph is (p, q), then
the value of (3p + q) is equal to:
A) 2 B) 1 C) −2 D) −1 Correct Ans: C

Q112) In a circle with center O, the diameter AB extended to the point C, outside the circle. CD is a tangent at
the point D on the circle. If the radius of circle is 6 cm and ∠DBC = 120°, then the length of CD is equal
to:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q113) In a ∆ABC, two medians AD and BE intersect at G at right angles. If AD = 18 cm and BE = 12 cm, then the
length of BD is equal to:
A) 10 cm B) 15 cm C) 8 cm D) 20 cm Correct Ans: A

Q114)

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

Q115) A rectangle with the largest area is cut out of a circle with radius 5 units. What is the area of the
remaining portion?
A) 25(2π-3) B) 25(π-2) C) 25(2π-5) D) 25(π-3) Correct Ans: B

Q116) Two equal circles are drawn on a square in such a way that opposite side of the square forms the diameter
of each circle. If the remaining area of the square is 42 cm2, what is the measurement (in cm) of the

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 diameter of each circle?
A) 3.5 B) 2.5 C) 14 D) 7 Correct Ans: C

Q117) In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, AE is the diameter and ∠AOC = 100°.

The value of ∠CDE + ∠CEA is:

A) 90° B) 80° C) 60° D) 100° Correct Ans: A

Q118) A bigger circle centre at O and a smaller circle centre at P touch each other externally such that the
length of their common tangent LM is 12 cm. If the radius of the bigger circle is 18 cm, then what will be
the radius (in cm) of the smaller circle?
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 Correct Ans: C

Q119) PQR is a triangle. MN is a line segment intersecting PQ in M and PR in N such that MN ∥ QR and divides
ΔPQR into two parts, which are equal in area. What is the ratio of MQ to PQ?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q120) Two circles have radii of 27 cm and 36 cm. The distance between their centres is 45 cm. What is the
length (in cm) of their common chord?
A) 37.2 cm B) 40.5 cm C) 43.2 cm D) 47.5 cm Correct Ans: C

Q121) PQ is a chord of a circle. The tangent XR at point X on the circle intersects the extension of PQ at point
R. Given that XR = 12 cm, PQ = x cm, and QR = (x - 2) cm, find the value of x.
A) 11 cm B) 9 cm C) 8 cm D) 10 cm Correct Ans: D

Q122) The graphs of two linear equations, x + 2y = 15 and 4x + 8y = 13 will be:

A) parallel B) coincident C) intersecting at one point D) intersecting at two points Correct Ans: A

Q123) PQ and RS are two chords of a circle such that PQ = 12 cm and RS = 20 cm and PQ is parallel to RS. If
the distance between PQ and RS is 4 cm, find the diameter of the circle.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q124) In ΔPQR, S and T are points on PQ and PR, respectively, such that ST ∥ QR and ST divides the ΔPQR
into two parts of equal areas. Then the ratio of PS and QS is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q125) The length of the portion of the straight line 5x + 12y = 60 intercepted between the axes is:
A) 5 B) 13 C) 17 D) 12 Correct Ans: B

Q126) The perpendicular length from the origin to the line 6x + 8y - 48 = 0 is:
A) 2.6 unit B) 4.8 unit C) 8.3 unit D) 5.2 unit Correct Ans: B

Q127)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q128) What is the area of the region created by the two linear equations 2x + y = 6 and 2x – y = –2 bounded by
these lines and the x-axis?
A) 5 sq. units B) 8 sq. units C) 3 sq. units D) 6 sq. units Correct Ans: B

Q129)

A) 10 cm B) 15 cm C) 18 cm D) 12 cm Correct Ans: B

Q130) PBA and PDC are two secants. AD is the diameter of the circle with the centre at O. ∠A = 30°, ∠P = 20°.
Find the measure of ∠DBC.

A) 50° B) 30° C) 45° D) 40° Correct Ans: D

Q131) The centres of two circles of radii 20 cm and 32 cm are 60 cm apart. What is the ratio of the length of the
direct common tangent to the length of the transverse common tangent to these circles?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q132) PQ is the diameter of a circle with centre O. PT is a tangent touching the circle at P. The secant QT
intersects the circle at S. O and S are joined. If ∠ SOP = 104°, what is the measure (in degrees) of ∠PTQ?
A) 45 B) 62 C) 76 D) 38 Correct Ans: D

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Q133)

A) I and III B) I and II C) I, II and III D) Only I Correct Ans: B

Q134) In a circle, O is the centre and AOB is the diameter. AT is a tangent to the circle. Line TB intersects the
circle at Q. Given that ∠AOQ = 94°, find ∠ATQ.
A) 86° B) 43° C) 47° D) 133° Correct Ans: B

Q135) Find the altitude (in cm) from the vertex Q to side PR of triangle PQR with side lengths PQ = 40 cm, PR =
40 cm and QR = 60 cm.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q136) Two circles of radius 7 units each, intersect in such a way that the common chord is of length 7 units.
What is the common area in square units of the intersection?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q137) CD is a tangent to a circle of circumference of 88 cm with its centre at O. OC cuts the circle at P while
OD cuts circle at V such that ∠COD = 90°. Length of PC is 6 cm. What is half of CD (in cm) if OD exceeds
OC by 1 cm?
A) 15.5 B) 14.5 C) 31 D) 16.5 Correct Ans: B

Q138)
A) 10 units B) 6 units C) 14 units D) 12 units Correct Ans: A

Q139) In a triangle PQR, RS intersects PQ at point S. The sides of the triangle QR = 36 cm, SQ = 27 cm, RS = 18
cm and ∠QRS = ∠QPR. What is the ratio of the perimeter of ∆PRS to that of ∆QSR?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q140) By decreasing 17° from each angle of a triangle, the ratio of their angles is 3 : 4 : 7. The radian measure
of the greatest angle is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

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Q141) The length (in cm) of a direct common tangent to two circles of radii 14 cm and 5 cm whose centres are
separated by a distance of 40 cm is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q142) The lines x+y = 10 and -3x+y = 2 have a unique solution. What is the distance (in units) between the
unique solution and the point of intersection of the line x+y = 10 and the x-axis?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q143) R wishes to use a stick of length 6 units as common internal tangent to two circles of radius two units
and three units. What can be the maximum distance (in units) between the centres of the circle?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q144) Find the equation of the sphere having centre (-1,2,-3) and the radius of 3 units.
A) B)

C) D)

Correct Ans: C

Q145) Two parallel chords of length 5 units and 8 units are on opposite sides of the center of a circle of radius
7 units. What is the distance between the chords? (round your answer to two decimal places)
A) 11.82 units B) 12.28 units C) 11.28 units D) 12.82 units Correct Ans: B

Q146)

A) 45 B) 61 C) 73 D) 56 Correct Ans: B

Q147) Two circles with centres M and N have radii 5 cm and 8 cm, respectively. The circles touch each other
externally at point T. A line PR is drawn such that the points M, T and N lie on PR, P being closer to M.
From P, a tangent PQ = 12 cm is drawn to the circle with centre M touching at Q, and from R, another
tangent RS = 15 cm is drawn to the circle with centre N touching at S. What is the length (in cm) of PR?
A) 37 B) 43 C) 53 D) 26 Correct Ans: B

Q148) PQ is parallel to SR in a trapezium PQRS. It is given that PQ > SR and the diagonals PR and QS intersect
at O. If PO = 3 x − 15, OQ = x + 9, OR = x − 5 and OS = 5 and x has two values x1 and x2, then the value of
(x12 - x22) is:
A) 15 B) 11 C) 19 D) 13 Correct Ans: B

Q149) In a circle, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral in which AE is drawn parallel to CD, and BA is produced to F. If
∠ABC = 85° and ∠FAE = 24°, find the value of ∠BCD.
A) 125° B) 115° C) 124° D) 119° Correct Ans: D

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Q150) If a circle whose centre is (2, 3) touches the line 4x + 3y − 7 = 0, then the radius of the circle is:
A) 4 unit B) 1 unit C) 2 unit D) 3 unit Correct Ans: C

Q151) In an obtuse-angled triangle ABC, the length of its longest side AB is 50 cm and one of the other two
sides is 42 cm. If the area of the triangle is 294 cm2, what is the length (in cm) of its third side?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q152) Find the altitude (in cm) of side MT of triangle MNT with side MN = 36 cm, MT = 36 cm and NT = 48 cm.
A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

Q153) Consider AD is a tangent to a circle of radius 6 cm. AC is a secant meeting the circle at B and CD is a
diameter. If AB is 7 cm, then the value of AC (in cm) is:
A) 9 B) 18 C) 20 D) 16 Correct Ans: D

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) The diagonals of two squares are in the ratio of 5 : 6. What is the ratio of their areas?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q2) If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 24 cm,then the length of each median is:
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q3) The centroid of a ∆XYZ is G. The area of ∆XYZ is 45 cm2. The area of ∆GYZ is:
A) 15 cm2 B) 22.5 cm2 C) 30 cm2 D) 7.5 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q4) ABCD is a quadrilateral in which diagonal BD = 62 cm, AL ⊥ BD and CM ⊥ BD, such that AL = 14.3 cm and
CM = 17.7 cm. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD is:
A) 900 cm2 B) 982 cm2 C) 992 cm2 D) 902 cm2 Correct Ans: C

Q5) The lengths of two sides of a parallelogram are 6 cm and 20 cm. What is the sum of the squares of the
diagonals of the parallelogram (in cm2 )?
A) 728 B) 872 C) 782 D) 800 Correct Ans: B

Q6) If the height of a triangle is increased by 20% and the base is increased by 12%. What is the new area (in
cm2) if the old area of the triangle was 200 cm2?
A) 254.4 B) 268.8 C) 216.7 D) 234.4 Correct Ans: B

Q7)

A) 74.25 B) 74.75 C) 72.25 D) 72.75 Correct Ans: C

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Q8) Find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD, the coordinates of whose vertices are A(6,-3),B(-4,-2),C(3,1) and
D(5,0)?
A) 30 unit2 B) 25 unit2 C) 21 unit2 D) 16 unit2 Correct Ans: C

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) Of the three angles of a triangle, one is twice the smallest and another one is thrice the smallest. Find the
value of the smallest angle.
A) 65° B) 30° C) 60° D) 45° Correct Ans: B

Q2) Find the perimeter of a triangle with sides equal to 13 cm, 12 cm and 5 cm.
A) 15 cm B) 5 cm C) 25 cm D) 30 cm Correct Ans: D

Q3) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. A triangle can have all angles less than 60°.
B. A triangle can have one obtuse angle.
C. A triangle can have two right angles.
D. A triangle can have two acute angles.
A) B B) B and D C) A and C D) A Correct Ans: B

Q4)

A) 231 B) 289 C) 302 D) 245 Correct Ans: A

Q5) The sum of any two sides of a triangle is:

A) less than or equal to third side B) equal to third side C) greater than the third side D) less than the third side

Correct Ans: C

Q6) In triangle ABC, AB = AC and ∠A = 70°. Find the value of ∠C.

A) 45° B) 75° C) 65° D) 55° Correct Ans: D

Q7) What is the area of the sector of a circle whose radius is 35 cm and whose arc subtends an angle of 72° at
the centre of the circle?

A) 810 cm2 B) 610 cm2 C) 770 cm2 D) 970 cm2 Correct Ans: C

2
Q8) The distance between the parallel sides of a trapezium is 18 cm. If the area of the trapezium is 1188 cm ,
then what is the sum of the lengths of the parallel sides?
A) 150 cm B) 115 cm C) 126 cm D) 132 cm Correct Ans: D

Q9) In a ∆ABC, angle BAC = 30° and angle BCA = 60°. If AC = 13 cm and AB = 12 cm, then BC is equal to:
A) 6 cm B) 5 cm C) 4 cm D) 7 cm Correct Ans: B

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Q10) If one angle of triangle PQR is greater than the sum of the other two, the triangle PQR will be:
A) obtuse angle B) equilateral C) right angle D) acute angle Correct Ans: A

Q11) The area of a circle is 256π square cm. The length of its longest chord (in cm) is:
A) 34 B) 36 C) 16 D) 32 Correct Ans: D

2
Q12) The area of a triangle is 486 cm and its sides are in the ratio 3:4:5. The perimeter of the triangle is:
A) 105 cm B) 218 cm C) 108 cm D) 308 cm Correct Ans: C

Q13) If L is the mid-point of the side YZ of XYZ, and the area of XYL is 13 cm2, then the area (in cm2) of XYZ is
_____.
A) 24 B) 22 C) 26 D) 20 Correct Ans: C

2 2
Q14) Two similar triangles of ΔXYZ and ΔLMN. If area of (ΔXYZ) = 16 cm , area of (ΔLMN) = 25 cm and YZ = 2.4
cm, then the measure of MN is:
A) 1 cm B) 3 cm C) 2 cm D) 4 cm Correct Ans: B

Q15)

A) 125° B) 150° C) 140° D) 135° Correct Ans: D

Q16) What is the length of the arc of a circle whose radius is 35 cm and whose arc subtends an angle of 72° at
the centre of the circle?
A) 28 cm B) 44 cm C) 38 cm D) 56 cm Correct Ans: B

Q17) The base of a parallelogram is twice its height. If the area of the parallelogram is 338 cm2, then find its
height (in cm).
A) 13 B) 11 C) 14 D) 12 Correct Ans: A

Q18) Triangle DEF is an equilateral triangle with a side length of 12 cm. If point G is the mid-point of side DE,
what is the length (in cm) of side FG?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q19) In ∆ABC, AD is the internal bisector of ∠A, meeting the side BC at D. If BD = 5 cm, BC = 7.5 cm, then AB :
AC is:
A) 1 : 2 B) 1 : 3 C) 3 : 1 D) 2 : 1 Correct Ans: D

Q20) The distance between the centres of the two circles, with radii 3 cm and 2 cm, respectively, is 13 cm. The
length (in cm) of a transverse common tangent is:
A) 18 cm B) 12 cm C) 9 cm D) 16 cm Correct Ans: B

Q21) A scalene triangle ABC has two sides whose measures are 3.8 cm and 6 cm, respectively. Which of the
following CANNOT be the measure (in cm) of its third side?

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A) 3.0 B) 2.7 C) 2.4 D) 2.2 Correct Ans: D

Q22) The difference between the two perpendicular sides of a right-angled triangle is 2 cm and its area is 24
cm2. What is the perimeter (in cm) of the triangle?
A) 24 B) 14 C) 16 D) 18 Correct Ans: A

Q23) In a circle, the chords AB and CD intersect each other at point L (internally). If AL = 8 cm, LB = 6 cm and
LD = 5 cm, then find the CL.
A) 10.6 cm B) 9.6 cm C) 7.6 cm D) 8.6 cm Correct Ans: B

Q24)

A) 154 cm² B) 451 cm² C) 415 cm² D) 145 cm² Correct Ans: A

Q25) If the three sides of a triangle are 12, 22 and m units, then which of the following is correct?
A) 10 ≤ m ≤ 34 B) 10 < m < 34 C) 10 ≤ m < 34 D) 10 < m ≤ 34 Correct Ans: B

Q26) The side PR of a ΔPQR is extended to S such that QR = RS. If ∠PRQ = 86°, then find the value of ∠PSQ.
A) 94° B) 54° C) 43° D) 86° Correct Ans: C

Q27) If the sides of a triangle are 7, 12 and x, and x is an integer, then find the number of possible values of x.
A) 14 B) 13 C) 15 D) 12 Correct Ans: B

Q28)

A) 110° B) 100° C) 60° D) 80° Correct Ans: D

Q29)

A) 20 B) 22 C) 24 D) 21 Correct Ans: B

Q30) Three circles each of radius 5 cm touch one another. The area (in cm2) subtended between them is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q31)

A) 2 B) –1 C) –2 D) 1 Correct Ans: B

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Q32)

A) 480 B) 1000 C) 250 D) 500 Correct Ans: D

Q33) A school has two rectangular playgrounds, which are similar in shape. If the length and the breadth of the
first playground are given as 224 m and 160 m, respectively, then which of the following options CANNOT
be the dimensions of the second playground?
A) Length = 273 m; Breadth = 195 m B) Length = 168 m; Breadth = 120 m C) Length = 210 m; Breadth = 150 m

D) Length = 343 m; Breadth = 255 m

Correct Ans: D

Q34) If two circles of radii 35 cm and 25 cm touch each other externally, then the length (in cm) of a common
tangent is (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
A) 45.29 B) 52.25 C) 59.16 D) 60.00 Correct Ans: C

Q35) The secant CD intersects the circle at E and CF is tangent to the circle at F. If the length of the secant CD
is equal to 20 cm and the length of tangent CF is 15 cm, find the length of the chord DE.
A) 3.75 cm B) 11.25 cm C) 9.25 cm D) 8.75 cm Correct Ans: D

Q36) Two circles with centers B and D have radii DA = 8 cm and BC = x cm, respectively. AC is tangent to both
circles. If DB and AC intersect the point E, AE = 12 cm and EC = 18 cm, then find the value of x (in cm).
A) 13 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12 Correct Ans: D

Q37) Taking any three of the line segments out of segments of length 2 cm, 5 cm, 7 cm and 8 cm, the number
of triangles that can be formed is:
A) 2 B) 4 C) 1 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

Q38)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q39) What is the length (in cm) of chord PQ in a circle with a radius of 7 cm, where a diameter AB and non-
diameter chord PQ intersect perpendicularly at point C, and the ratio of AC to BC is 4 : 3?
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q40) In ∆ABC, P is a point on AB such that PB : AP = 3 : 4 and PQ is parallel to AC. If AR and QS are
perpendicular to PC and QS = 9 cm, what is the length (in cm) of AR?
A) 28 B) 35 C) 21 D) 14 Correct Ans: C

Selection Post XII

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Q1) In ∆ABC and ∆PQR, AB = 7 m, BC = 8 m, AC = 9 m, PQ = 7 m, QR = 8 m and PR = 9 m. Which of the
following is true for these triangles?
A) ∆ABC ≅ ∆QRP B) ∆ABC ≅ ∆RQP C) ∆CBA ≅ ∆PQR D) ∆ABC ≅ ∆PQR Correct Ans: D

Q2) If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 9∶11∶16, then the difference between the greatest angle and the
smallest angle is:
A) 40° B) 35° C) 25° D) 30° Correct Ans: B

Q3) Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose sides are 16 cm each.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4) Select the correct statement about the properties of a triangle.

A) The sum of two sides may be equal to the third side. B) The sum of two sides is always equal to the third side.

C) The sum of two sides is always greater than the third side. D) The sum of two sides is always less than the third side.

Correct Ans: C

Q5) ∆PQR and ∆ABC are two congruent triangles. If the area of ∆PQR is 225 cm2, then the area of ∆ABC is:
A) 225 cm2 B) 25 cm2 C) 112.5 cm2 D) 15 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q6) If the vertical angle of an isosceles triangle is 42°, then the measure of the other two angles will be:
A) 59° and 59° B) 69° and 69° C) 79° and 79° D) 89°and 89° Correct Ans: B

Q7) In an isosceles ΔLMN, LM = LN, and ∠MLN = 37°. Find ∠MNL.

A) 60.5° B) 70.0° C) 65.0° D) 71.5° Correct Ans: D

Q8) ΔXYZ is an isosceles triangle such that XY = XZ. It is given that YS ⊥ XZ and ZT ⊥ XY. What is the relation
between YS and ZT?
A) YS = ZT B) YS = 2 ZT C) YS < ZT D) YS > ZT Correct Ans: A

Q9) Find the area of a right angle whose base is 15 cm and hypotenuse is 17 cm.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q10)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q11)

A) 34 B) 17 C) 36 D) 27 Correct Ans: A

Q12) If three angles of a triangle are (18x+6°), (10x+30°) and (15x+15°), then the triangle is:
A) scalene B) equilateral C) right angled D) isosceles Correct Ans: B

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Q13) If x2-1, 2x and x2+1 are the three sides of a right angled triangle, then which of the following can be its
hypotenuse?
A) x2 + 1 B) 2x C) x2 - 1 D) x2 Correct Ans: A

Q14) In the following figure, ∠A = ∠P and AC = PR.

Which of the following options needs to be satisfied for Δ PQR and Δ ABC to be congruent?
A) BC = QR by SSA criteria B) BC = QR by ASS criteria C) AB = PQ by SSA criteria D) AB = PQ by SAS criteria

Correct Ans: D

Q15) In ΔOPQ, ∠O = 50°, ∠P = 70°, and the bisectors of ∠P and ∠Q meet at R. Find ∠PRQ.
A) 118° B) 125° C) 120° D) 115° Correct Ans: D

Q16) In a triangle ABC, P is the midpoint of BC. If AB = (2x + 4) cm, AC = 6 cm and AP⊥ BC, then the value of x
is:
A) 1 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

2
Q17) The base of a parallelogram is thrice its height. If the area of the parallelogram is 1020 cm , then what is
its height?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q18) The area of the rhombus (in cm2) having each side equal to 13 cm and one of its diagonals equal to 24 cm
is:
A) 120 B) 60 C) 110 D) 130 Correct Ans: A

Q19) In ΔABC, D is the mid‐point of BC and G is the centroid. If GD = 10 cm, then the length of AD is
_________.
A) 15 cm B) 10 cm C) 20 cm D) 30 cm Correct Ans: D

Q20) In ∆ABC, AB=9 cm and AC=13 cm, then the length of BC could be:
A) 20 cm B) 22 cm C) 4 cm D) 2 cm Correct Ans: A

Q21) The lengths of the three sides of a triangle are given as 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. The ratio of their
corresponding altitudes to the opposite vertices will be:
A) 3∶4∶5 B) 5∶4∶3 C) 9∶8∶7 D) 20∶15∶12 Correct Ans: D

Q22) ΔABC and ΔABD are on a common base AB and AC = BD and BC = AD as shown in the given figure.

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 Which of the following options is true?
A) ΔABC ≅ ΔADB B) ΔABC ≅ ΔBAD C) There are no congruent triangles in the given figure D) ΔABC ≅ ΔABD

Correct Ans: B

Q23) PQ is a diameter of a circle and PS is a chord. If PQ is 82 cm and PS is 80 cm, the distance (in cm) of PS
from the center of the circle is:
A) 39 B) 18 C) 9 D) 24 Correct Ans: C

Q24) In a parallelogram ABCD, if vertices are in respective order and diagonals AC and BD intersect at O, then
which of the following is NOT always correct?
A) ∆BOC ≅ ∆AOD B) ∆ABC ≅ ∆ADC C) ∆AOD ≅ ∆COD D) ∆AOB ≅ ∆COD Correct Ans: C

Q25) Which of the following in NOT a criterion of congruent triangles?

A) Side- Angle- Side B) Angle- Angle- Angle C) Angle- Side- Angle D) Side- Side- Side Correct Ans: B

Q26) ∆ABC is inscribed in a circle with centre O. If AB = 35 cm, BC = 12 cm and AC = 37 cm, then what is the
circumradius of a triangle?
A) 18.5 cm B) 13.5 cm C) 16.5 cm D) 14.5 cm Correct Ans: A

o
Q27) If the length of each of the two equal sides of an isosceles triangle is 15 cm and the adjacent angle is 30 ,
then the area of the triangle is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q28) The median AD of a triangle ABC is produced and a perpendicular CF is dropped on it. BE is
perpendicular to AD. If BC = 34 cm and DF = 8 cm, what is the length (in cm) of BE?
A) 17 B) 15 C) 19 D) 9 Correct Ans: B

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics

Mensuration
470+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Mensuration
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) Find the area of a rectangle whose length is 52m and breadth is 9m.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q2) If the length, breadth, and height of a cuboid is 8 cm, 4 cm, and 6 cm, respectively, then the volume (in
cm3) of the cuboid is:
A) 218 B) 192 C) 96 D) 172 Correct Ans: B

Q3) Find the area (in cm2) of an equilateral triangle whose sides are 18 cm.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q4) The ratio of the length, the breadth, and the height of a solid cuboid is given as 3 : 2 : 1, and the breadth of
this cuboid is given as 12 cm. Find the volume (in cm3) of the cuboid.
A) 1250 B) 1296 C) 1200 D) 1500 Correct Ans: B

Q5)

A) 2686 B) 2816 C) 2784 D) 2456 Correct Ans: B

Q6) Two cylinders have the radii of their bases in the ratio 4 : 5 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 7. Find the
ratio of their curved surface areas.
A) 5 : 4 B) 4 : 7 C) 1 : 2 D) 4 : 5 Correct Ans: B

Q7) What is the length (in cm) of each side of a cube if the volume of a cube is 13,824 cm3?
A) 20.4 B) 24 C) 22 D) 34 Correct Ans: B

Q8) The radius of the base of a right circular cone is 9 cm and its slant height is 49 cm. Find the curved surface
area of the cone.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q9) If the curved surface area of a cylinder is 880 cm2 , then the product of its height and radius is:
A) 90 cm2 B) 120 cm2 C) 220 cm2 D) 140 cm2 Correct Ans: D

Q10) The perimeter of a rectangular garden is 48 m. If the length is 6 m more than the breadth, the area (in m2)
of the garden is:
A) 135 B) 96 C) 84 D) 112 Correct Ans: A

Q11) Find the volume of a cone having base radius 3.5 cm and height 18 cm.
A) 241 cm3 B) 221 cm3 C) 201 cm3 D) 231 cm3 Correct Ans: D

Q12) If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 36 units, then its area is (in square units):

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q13)

A) 36 B) 24 C) 18 D) 27 Correct Ans: D

Q14) A well with 14 cm radius is dug 23 cm deep. Find the volume of the earth taken out of it.
A) 14,178 cm3 B) 14,108 cm3 C) 14,168 cm3 D) 15,168 cm3 Correct Ans: C

Q15) ABC is an equilateral triangle. P, Q and R are the mid-points of sides AB, BC and CA, respectively. If the
length of the side of the triangle ABC is 11 cm, then the area of is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q16) The radii of the two cones are in the ratio of 2 : 5 and their volumes are in the ratio of 3 : 5. What is the
ratio of their heights?
A) 15 : 4 B) 11 : 15 C) 13 : 11 D) 4 : 11 Correct Ans: A

Q17) Find the measure of the central angle of a sector if its area is 16π and the radius is 8.
A) 75° B) 60° C) 108° D) 90° Correct Ans: D

Q18) What is the volume in cubic units of a cylinder with a height equal to the diameter and a radius is 4 units?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q19) The total surface area of a closed cube is given as 1152 cm2. What is the length (in cm) of each side of the
cube?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q20)

A) 27 B) 9 C) 18 D) 54 Correct Ans: B

2
Q21) The height of a cylinder is 20 cm. The lateral surface area is 1760 cm . Its volume is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q22)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q23) Find the length of the longest stick that can be fitted in a cubical vessel of edge 70 cm.

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q24)

A) 4312 cm2 B) 3432 cm2 C) 5212 cm2 D) 3816 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q25) The volume of a right circular cylindrical box of radius 30cm is 600cm3. Find the height of the box.
A) 0.61cm B) 0.31cm C) 0.51cm D) 0.21cm Correct Ans: D

Q26) If the height and diameter of a cylinder are 12 cm and 28 cm, respectively, then find the ratio of the total
surface area to the curved surface area.
A) 13 : 5 B) 10 : 3 C) 13 : 6 D) 11 : 6 Correct Ans: C

Q27) The base radius of a circular cylinder is 10.5 cm. If the area of its curved surface is 792 cm2, then what is
the volume of the cylinder?
A) 4185 cm3 B) 4518 cm3 C) 4152 cm3 D) 4158 cm3 Correct Ans: D

Q28)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q29) The radii of two circles are 8 cm and 15 cm.The perimeter of the circle having area equal to the
sum of the areas of the two circles (in cm) is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q30) The area of a parallelogram with base 26 cm and height 18 cm is:

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q31)

A) 764.71 cm2 B) 704.00 cm2 C) 682.60 cm2 D) 714.05 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q32) If three cubes of volume 512 cm3 each are joined end to end, find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.
A) 896 cm2 B) 986 cm2 C) 895 cm2 D) 869 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q33) Find the area (in cm2) of the sector, where the radius of the circle is 24 cm and length of the arc is 7 cm.
A) 72 B) 84 C) 48 D) 168 Correct Ans: B

Q34) The area of a sector of a circle of radius 12 cm, formed by an arc of length 7 cm is:
A) 42 cm2 B) 84 cm2 C) 21 cm2 D) 28 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q35) A right-angled isosceles triangle has an area of 50 square units. Its hypotenuse is (in units):

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q36)

A) 38.5 B) 3.58 C) 3.85 D) 83.5 Correct Ans: C

Q37)

A) 806 cm2 B) 704 cm2 C) 904 cm2 D) 608 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q38)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q39) A rectangular piece of paper is 50 cm long and 22 cm wide. If a cylinder is formed by rolling the paper
along its breadth, then the volume of the cylinder is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q40) From a circle with the radius of 15.75 cm, a sector with the arc length of 11 cm is cut off. Find the area (in
cm2) of this sector.
A) 86.525 B) 86.625 C) 86.875 D) 86.125 Correct Ans: B

Q41) A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated about the sides of 3 cm to form a cone. The
volume of the cone so formed is:
A) 20π cm3 B) 16π cm3 C) 25π cm3 D) 28π cm3 Correct Ans: B

Q42) Find the length of the longest diagonal (in cm) of a cuboidal box of dimensions 1.2 cm × 1.3 cm × 1.5 cm
(correct to two decimal places).
A) 2.22 cm B) 2.32 cm C) 2.23 cm D) 2.35 cm Correct Ans: B

Q43)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q44)

A) 9.244 B) 2.439 C) 3.924 D) 4.329 Correct Ans: A

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Q45) A cuboid of dimensions 50 cm, 150 cm, 175 cm can be divided into how many identical largest cubes?
A) 75 B) 84 C) 85 D) 90 Correct Ans: B

Q46) A rectangular courtyard is 4m 95cm long and 16m 65cm broad. It is to be paved with the square tiles of
the same size. Find the least number of such square tiles required to pave the rectangular courtyard.
A) 877 B) 944 C) 388 D) 407 Correct Ans: D

Q47) M and N walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions.
M and N walk at a speed of 5 rounds per hour and 2 rounds per hour, respectively. How many times will
they cross each other before 6.30 a.m. on the same day?
A) 10 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 Correct Ans: A

Q48)

A) 1000 B) 100 C) 1 D) 10 Correct Ans: D

Q49) What is the central angle of a sector of a circle whose area and perimeter are, respectively, equal to 209
cm2 and 63 cm if it is given that its radius is a non-negative integer (roundup to one decimal place)?
A) 55.5° B) 53.5° C) 49.5° D) 51.5° Correct Ans: C

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1) If the surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio of 49 : 81, then find the ratio of their volumes.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q2)
A) 6 cm B) 3.1 cm C) 2.2 cm D) 9 cm Correct Ans: A

Q3) Find the circumference of a circle whose area is 154 m2 .

A) 44 m B) 29.5 m C) 39 m D) 52 m Correct Ans: A

Q4) If the side of a square is increased by 5%, then the percentage increase in its area will be:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q6) The whole surface area of a cube is 294 cm2. The volume of the cube is:
A) 243 cm3 B) 343 cm3 C) 512 cm3 D) 216 cm3 Correct Ans: B

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q8) The diameter of the base of a cylindrical tank is 28 cm and its height is 42 cm. Find its curved surface area.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q9) The area of a rectangular field is 3600 m2. If the field is 45 m long, what is its perimeter?
A) 260 m B) 255 m C) 265 m D) 250 m Correct Ans: D

Q10) The internal length, breadth and height of a cardboard box are 6 cm, 10 cm and 12 cm, respectively. How
many boxes are needed in which cubes whose volume is 2160 cm3 can be packed?
A) 4 B) 3 C) 6 D) 5 Correct Ans: B

Q11) Find the number of paper balls, each 2 cm in diameter, that can be made from a sphere of diameter 18 cm.
A) 1020 B) 625 C) 729 D) 484 Correct Ans: C

Q12) Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio 1 : 125. Find the ratio of their surface areas.
A) 1 : 125 B) 1 : 25 C) 25 : 1 D) 1 : 5 Correct Ans: B

Q13) If the radius of the base and slant height of the cone is 6 cm and 10 cm, respectively, then the volume of
the cone is equal to:
A) 98 π cm3 B) 106 π cm3 C) 96π cm3 D) 108 π cm3 Correct Ans: C

Q14) If the surface area of the sphere is 616 cm2, then the radius of the sphere is equal to:
A) 18.0cm B) 14.0cm C) 7.0cm D) 3.5cm Correct Ans: C

Q15) If the radius of a sphere is doubled, then the volume of the sphere becomes _____ times the previous
volume.
A) eight B) two C) four D) one Correct Ans: A

Q16) An article is of size 9 cm × 6 cm × 3 cm. The number of such articles that can be packed in a box
measuring 63 cm × 42 cm × 21 cm is:
A) 343 B) 243 C) 49 D) 196 Correct Ans: A

Q17) The radius of a sphere is increased by 25%. What is the increase per cent in surface area?
A) 56.25% B) 36.45% C) 25.25% D) 15.55% Correct Ans: A

Q18)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q19)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q20) For a given circle of radius 4 cm, the angle of its sector is 45°. Find the area (in cm2) of the sector.
(Use π = 3.14.)
A) 6.18 B) 7.28 C) 6.28 D) 7.18 Correct Ans: C

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Q21)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q23)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q24) If the radius of a sphere is increased by 5%, then by what percentage will the surface area of the sphere
increase?
A) 13.25% B) 11.25% C) 10.25% D) 15.25% Correct Ans: C

Q25)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q26) The surface area of a cube is 486 cm2 Find the volume.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q27)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q28) A metallic solid cuboid of dimensions 36 cm × 22 cm × 12 cm is melted and recast in the form of cubes of
side 6 cm. Find the number of the cubes so formed.
A) 46 B) 43 C) 45 D) 44 Correct Ans: D

Q29)

A) ₹4,000 B) ₹6,000 C) ₹8,000 D) ₹9,000 Correct Ans: C

Q30)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q31)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q32) A solid metallic cylinder of base radius 6 cm and height 10 cm is melted to form small cylinders, each of
height 2.5 cm and base radius 2 cm. Find the number of small cylinders.
A) 32 B) 36 C) 80 D) 360 Correct Ans: B

Q33) A solid metallic sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and recast into spherical balls of radius 3 cm. The
number of spherical balls thus obtained is:
A) 6 B) 10 C) 4 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

Q34) If lateral surface area of a cube is 144 cm2, then find its volume.
A) 216 cm3 B) 117.58 cm3 C) 1728 cm3 D) 864 cm3 Correct Ans: A

Q35)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q36) The length of a rectangular shaped park exceeds its breadth by 15 m. If the perimeter of the park is 110 m,
find the length of the park (in m).
A) 20 B) 35 C) 25 D) 40 Correct Ans: B

Q37) If the side of a cube is 3,which of the following options is equal to the ratio between the surface area and
the volume of the cube?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q38) The diameter of a cylinder is 14 cm and its height is 9 cm. Find the total surface area of the cylinder.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q39) If the diameter of the base and curved surfaced area of a cylinder are 14cm and 352 cm2,respectively,
then the total surface area of the cylinder is equal to:
A) 660 cm2 B) 760 cm2 C) 754 cm2 D) 654 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q40) The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm, is 88 cm2. Find the total surface area
of the cylinder.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q41) The capacity of a cylinder tank is 8316 cm3 . If the radius of its base is 21 cm, then find the depth of the
tank.
A) 4 cm B) 8 cm C) 10 cm D) 6 cm Correct Ans: D

Q42) Find the percentage increase in surface area of a cube by triple each side.
A) 800% B) 650% C) 700% D) 500% Correct Ans: A

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Q43)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q44) Find the whole surface area of a cuboid having a length of 19 cm, breadth of 9 cm and height of 4.5 cm.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q45) The total surface area of a solid hemisphere of diameter 28 cm is:

A) 1784 cm2 B) 1488 cm2 C) 1648 cm2 D) 1848 cm2 Correct Ans: D

Q46)

A) 4.2 cm B) 4.8 cm C) 4.6 cm D) 4.4 cm Correct Ans: A

Q47)

A) 2700 B) 5400 C) 10800 D) 8100 Correct Ans: B

Q48) The curved surface area of a right circular cone is 20π cm2. If its radius is 4 cm, then find the volume of
cone.
A) 18 π cm3 B) 21 π cm3 C) 20 π cm3 D) 16 π cm3 Correct Ans: D

Q49) If the brick size is 25 cm×12 cm×9 cm, then how many bricks are required to construct a wall of length 10
m, breadth 22.5 cm and height 6 m?
A) 6000 B) 4500 C) 5000 D) 8000 Correct Ans: C

Q50) Three solid cubes of metal have sides 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm, respectively. They are melted to form a new
cube. What is the surface area of this new cube?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q51) If the length, breadth and total surface area of a cuboid are 30 cm, 20 cm and 2600 cm2, respectively, then
find its height.
A) 30 cm B) 15 cm C) 50 cm D) 14 cm Correct Ans: D

Q52)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q53) The surface area of a spherical ball is 1386 cm2. What will be its volume?
A) 4825 cm3 B) 5000 cm3 C) 4851 cm3 D) 4800 cm3 Correct Ans: C

Q54) The ratio of the lateral surface area to the total surface area of a cylinder with base diameter 60cm and
height 10 cm is:
A) 1:9 B) 1:7 C) 1:4 D) 1:3 Correct Ans: C

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Q55) The area of three adjacent faces of a cuboidal box is 120 cm2, 72 cm2 and 60 cm2, respectively. Find the
volume (in cm3) of the box.
A) 425 B) 650 C) 720 D) 864 Correct Ans: C

Q56) A cylindrical rod of iron whose height is twelve times its radius, is melted and cast into spherical balls,
each of one-third the radius of the cylinder. Find the number of spherical balls.
A) 224 B) 212 C) 243 D) 198 Correct Ans: C

Q57) The perimeter of a rectangle is 70 cm and its diagonal is 25cm. The area of the rectangle is:
A) 425 cm2 B) 300 cm2 C) 625 cm2 D) 420 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q58) The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are in ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. If the volume of the cuboid is 1620 m3,
find the total surface area of the cuboid.
A) 646 m2 B) 846 m2 C) 423 m2 D) 712 m2 Correct Ans: B

Q59)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q60) Three cubes each of side 5 cm are joined end to end. The surface area of the resulting cuboid is:
A) 150 cm2 B) 175 cm2 C) 350 cm2 D) 75 cm2 Correct Ans: C

Q61)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q62)

A) 4,928 B) 4,828 C) 2,414 D) 2,464 Correct Ans: A

Q63) If the surface area of cuboid is 108 m2, then find the height of the cuboid, whose length is 6 m and
breadth is 3 m.
A) 4.5 m B) 4 m C) 5 m D) 5.5 m Correct Ans: B

Q64) Find the difference between the curved surface area and total surface area of a right circular cylinder
having a length of 68 cm and base diameter of 28 cm.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q65) Two cubes, each of edge 5 cm, are joined face to face. Find the surface area of the cuboid thus formed.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q66) A cube of edge 4 cm is cut into cubes each of edge of 2 cm. The ratio of the total surface area of one of
the small cubes to that of the large cube is equal to:
A) 1 : 64 B) 1 : 16 C) 1 : 4 D) 1 : 8 Correct Ans: C

Q67)

A) 729 B) 216 C) 343 D) 512 Correct Ans: A

Q68) The perimeter of a triangle is 36 units. Its area cannot be more than ______ square units.
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q69) The perimeter of a square whose area is the same as the area of a semi-circle of radius 2√2 cm is:
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q70) How many cubes of edge 15 cm can be put in a cubical box of 3 m edge?
A) 9000 B) 1050 C) 8000 D) 2000 Correct Ans: C

Q71) What is the area (in cm2) of an equilateral triangle whose perimeter is 24 cm?
Note: Round off to the nearest two decimal places.
A) 28.14 B) 27.71 C) 13.86 D) 27.14 Correct Ans: B

Q72) If three spheres of radius 75 cm, 60 cm and 45 cm are melted into one big sphere, then the radius of the
big sphere is:
A) 90 cm B) 85 cm C) 95 cm D) 80 cm Correct Ans: A

Q73) The respective ratio between numerical values of the curved surface area and the volume of a right
circular cylinder is 2 : 3. If the respective ratio between the radius and the height of the cylinder is 3 : 7,
what is the total surface area of the cylinder?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q74) If the radius of a sphere is increased by 12 percent, then the volume will be increased by approximately:
A) 42.5 percent B) 45.49 percent C) 40.49 percent D) 41.49 percent Correct Ans: C

Q75)

A) 80 cm B) 10 cm C) 20 cm D) 50 cm Correct Ans: D

Q76) If the areas of three adjacent faces of a cuboid are 5 cm2, 15 cm2, 27 cm2, respectively, the surface area of
the cuboid is:
A) 45 cm2 B) 75 cm2 C) 47 cm2 D) 94 cm2 Correct Ans: D

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Q77) A solid copper sphere of radius 9 cm is drawn into a wire of radius 4 mm. Find the length of the wire.
A) 60.75 m B) 70.25 m C) 65.25 m D) 20.75 m Correct Ans: A

Q78) If the radius of a circle is 48 cm and the length of the arc is 15 cm, then the area of the sector
corresponding to that arc is:
A) 360 m2 B) 360 cm2 C) 720 cm2 D) 7200 m2 Correct Ans: B

Q79) The surface area of a sphere is 2464 cm2. Find its volume.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q80)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q81)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q82) The volume of a cube is reduced to 72.9%. By how much is the side of the cube reduced?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q83)
A) 0.8 m B) 4 m C) 8 cm D) 8 m Correct Ans: D

Q84)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q85) The diameter of a roller is 35 cm and its length is 100 cm. It takes 200 complete revolutions to level a
playground. Find the area of the playground in m2
A) 1,10,000 B) 110 C) 2,20,00,000 D) 220 Correct Ans: D

Q86)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q87) What is the area (in square units) of the sector if the radius of the circle is given to be 24 units and the arc
length is 7.5 units?
A) 135 B) 180 C) 45 D) 90 Correct Ans: D

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Q88) 3 solid spheres of diameters 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm are melted together to form a single solid sphere. Find
its radius.
A) 12 cm B) 9 cm C) 3 cm D) 6 cm Correct Ans: D

Q89) The volume of rectangular block is 12288 m³. Its dimension are in the ratio of 4 : 3: 2. If the entire surface
is polished at the rate 2 paise per m²,then find the total cost of polishing
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q90)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q91) A closed cylindrical tank of radius 1.5 m and height 3 m is made from a sheet of metal, how much sheet
of metal is required to do it?
A) 42.24 square metre B) 24.42 square metre C) 42.42 square metre D) 24.24 square metre Correct Ans: C

Q92)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q93)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q94) A covered wooden box has the inner measures as 128 cm, 90 cm, 25 cm and the thickness of wood is 5.5
cm. Find the volume of the wood.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q95)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q96) A cylinder has a curved surface area equal to 350% of the curved surface area of another cylinder. If their
radii are in the ratio 3 : 1, then the volume of the smaller cylinder is approximately _____% of the larger
cylinder (the smaller cylinder has its radius and height smaller when compared to the larger).
A) 9.52 B) 8.86 C) 7.28 D) 10.16 Correct Ans: A

Q97) The inner and outer radii of a hemispherical wooden bowl are 6 cm and 8 cm, respectively. Its entire
surface has to be polished and the cost of polishing π cm2 is Rs.50. How much will it cost to polish the
bowl?

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A) Rs.12,000 B) Rs.10,000 C) Rs.11,600 D) Rs.11,400 Correct Ans: D

Q98) An iron box with external dimensions 60 cm, 40 cm, and 20 cm is made of 1 cm thick sheet. If 1 cm3 of
iron weighs 50 gm, the weight of the empty box is:
A) 214.05 kg B) 240 kg C) 400 kg D) 416.40 kg Correct Ans: D

Q99)

A) 20.36 m B) 22.32 m C) 24.36 m D) 26.32 m Correct Ans: D

Q100) The ratio of the diameters of two spheres is given as 1 : 4. The larger sphere is melted and 125 identical
spheres are made out of the molten material. The smaller sphere is melted and 27 identical spheres are
made out of the molten material. If the ratio of the volume of each of the 125 identical spheres to the
volume of each of the 27 identical spheres is given as 1 : m, what is the value of m?
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q101) A cuboid with dimensions 20cm, 12cm, and 10 cm is cut into 8 identical pieces by 3 cuts. What will be
the total surface area of all the pieces?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q102) The sides of a cuboid are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and its surface area is equal to the surface area of the cube
with side 6 units. What is the approximate volume of the cuboid?
A) 210 B) 150 C) 240 D) 180 Correct Ans: A

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

Q1) If the length and breadth of a rectangle are 7cm and 5cm, respectively, the area of the rectangle is:
A) 12 cm2 B) 35 cm2 C) 30 cm2 D) 28 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q2) The area of a rectangular park of length 15 m and breadth 12 m is:

A) 144 m2 B) 180 m2 C) 54 m2 D) 170 m2 Correct Ans: B

Q3) Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose side is 16 cm.

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q4) If a conical vessel is of height 12cm and radius 6cm, then the volume of the conical vessel is
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q5) If the height of a triangle is 45 cm and base is 70 cm, then the area of the triangle is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q6) Find the ratio of the curved surface areas of two cones if the diameters of the bases are equal and slant
heights are in the ratio 5 : 3.

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A) 3 : 2 B) 5 : 3 C) 7 : 5 D) 2 : 3 Correct Ans: B

Q7) The area of a right-angled triangle is 80m2. If its perpendicular is equal to 20 m, then find its base.
A) 6 m B) 4 m C) 3 m D) 8 m Correct Ans: D

Q8)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q9) The area of a rectangular field is 396 m2, whose sides are in the ratio of 11 : 9. What is The perimeter of the
rectangular field?
A) 80 m B) 74 m C) 76 m D) 78 m Correct Ans: A

Q10)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q11) The radii of the bases of two cylinders and their heights are in the ratio 4 : 3 and 9 : 8, respectively. Find
the ratio of their curved surface areas.
A) 4 : 5 B) 2 : 3 C) 3 : 2 D) 5 : 6 Correct Ans: C

Q12) Find the number of lead balls of diameter 4 cm each that can be made from a sphere of diameter 24 cm.
A) 108 B) 144 C) 216 D) 432 Correct Ans: C

Q13) A metallic cone of radius 12 cm and height 36 cm is melted and made into spheres of radius 3 cm each.
How many spheres are there?
A) 74 B) 48 C) 58 D) 34 Correct Ans: B

Q14)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q15) Find the area of a square whose diagonal is of 14 cm length.

A) 96 cm2 B) 94 cm2 C) 98 cm2 D) 95 cm2 Correct Ans: C

Q16) Find the area of a parallelogram with a base of 12 m and a height of 20 m.

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q17) Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose side is 14 cm.

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q18)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q19) If the radii of two right circular cylinders are in the ratio of 2:3 and their heights are in the ratio of 5:4, then
find the ratio of their curved surface areas?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q20) The ratio of the base radii of two cylinders is 5 : 6 and the ratio of their corresponding heights is 49 : 36.
Find the ratio of their volumes.
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q21)

A) 465 cu.cm B) 3087 cu.cm C) 2000 cu.cm D) 2310 cu.cm Correct Ans: D

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q23) The sum of length and breadth of a rectangle is 68 m and the ratio of length and breadth is 11:23. What is
the area of the rectangle (in m2 )?
A) 1012 B) 253 C) 1331 D) 976 Correct Ans: A

Q24) Find the volume of the largest right circular cone which is inscribed in a hollow cube of length 6 units and
is standing on its base.
A) 9π units3 B) 21π units3 C) 10π units3 D) 18π units3 Correct Ans: D

Q25) If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 54 cm. The radius of the sphere is:
A) 182 cm B) 111 cm C) 166 cm D) 162 cm Correct Ans: D

Q26) A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 24 cm contains liquid. The liquid is to be filled into cylindrical
container of diameter 8 cm and height 12 cm. What is the number of containers that are necessary to
empty the bowl?
A) 45 B) 39 C) 50 D) 48 Correct Ans: D

Q27) A shot-put made of iron with a diameter of 12 cm is melted into a solid cylinder with a height of 2 cm.
What is the diameter of the cylinder made?
A) 18 cm B) 24 cm C) 12 cm D) 21 cm Correct Ans: B

Q28) Find the curved surface area of the cylinder which has a height of 25 m and a base of radius 7 m.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q29) What is the radius of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of edge 8.4 cm ?

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A) 4.2 cm B) 2.2 cm C) 2.1 cm D) 4.1 cm Correct Ans: A

Q30)

A) 40 cm B) 50 cm C) 30 cm D) 60 cm Correct Ans: D

Q31) Find the total surface area of hemisphere of radius 6.3 cm.
A) 3,742 cm2 B) 374.2 cm2 C) 3,777 cm2 D) 3,524 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q32) Find the curved surface area and total surface area, respectively, of a cylinder of radius of base 28 m and
height 40 m.
A) 7040 m2 and 11,968 m2 B) 7040 m2 and 11,008 m2 C) 7040 m2 and 11,768 m2 D) 7000 m2 and 11,968 m2

Correct Ans: A

Q33) Which of the following options is equal to the radius of the new sphere, if three spheres of radii 5cm, 3cm
and 4cm are melted into form a new sphere?
A) 8cm B) 6.5cm C) 6cm D) 5cm Correct Ans: C

Q34)

A) 1233 m2 B) 1231 m2 C) 1230 m2 D) 1232 m2 Correct Ans: D

Q35)

A) 3 B) 7 C) 3.5 D) 6 Correct Ans: A

Q36)

A) 1025π B) 1546 C) 1458π D) 1458 Correct Ans: C

Q37)

A) 12672 B) 12689 C) 11889 D) 11368 Correct Ans: A

Q38)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q39)

A) 152 B) 137 C) 91 D) 182 Correct Ans: D

Q40) The perimeter of a rhombus is 68 cm and one of its diagonals is 30 cm. Its area is:
A) 240 cm2 B) 250 cm2 C) 230 cm2 D) 245 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q41) The whole surface area of a right circular cone of radius 15 metres and height 8 metres is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q42) A solid sphere of radius 9 cm is melted to form a hollow, right circular cylindrical tube of length 12 cm
and external radius 15 cm. The thickness (in cm) of the tube is:
A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

Q43) The lengths of the two diagonals of a rhombus are 20 cm and 23 cm. What is the area (in cm2) of the
rhombus?
A) 230 B) 460 C) 345 D) 115 Correct Ans: A

Q44) A solid hemisphere of radius 12 cm is melted into N identical cones, each of radius 6 cm and height 8 cm.
What is the value of N?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 15 D) 8 Correct Ans: B

Q45) A solid metallic sphere of radius 15 cm is melted and recast into solid spherical balls of radius 3 cm each.
What is the ratio of the surface area of the original sphere to the sum of the surface areas of all the balls?
A) 1 : 3 B) 1 : 5 C) 3 : 8 D) 2 : 7 Correct Ans: B

Q46) Find the total surface area of a cone having base radius 49 cm and slant height 61 cm.
A) 15,940 cm2 B) 16,940 cm2 C) 15,900 cm2 D) 16,040 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q47) If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is reduced to one-third, keeping the height same, what
is the ratio of the volume of the reduced cylinder to that of the original?
A) 2 : 3 B) 2 : 4 C) 1 : 9 D) 1 : 2 Correct Ans: C

Q48) If the curved surface area of a cylindrical pipe is 44,000 cm2 and its diameter is 5 cm, find its length.

(Take π = )
A) 28 m B) 24.5 m C) 14 m D) 19 m Correct Ans: A

Q49) If the diameter of a hemisphere is 14cm, then the total surface area of the hemisphere is
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q50) The length of a rectangle is four-fifths of the side of the square, whose area is 1225 units2. What is the
area (in units2) of the rectangle if the breadth is 12 units?
A) 300 B) 425 C) 336 D) 225 Correct Ans: C

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Q51) Three cubes of sides 1 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm are melted to form a new cube. Find one-fourth of the surface
area of the new cube.
A) 101.5 cm2 B) 111.5 cm2 C) 121.5 cm2 D) 131.5 cm2 Correct Ans: C

Q52) What is the ratio between the area of a square having side of 6 cm and that of the rhombus having
diagonals of 8 cm and 6 cm?
A) 3 : 4 B) 4 : 5 C) 3 : 2 D) 2 : 5 Correct Ans: C

Q53)

A) 1960 B) 1940 C) 2000 D) 1980 Correct Ans: D

Q54)

A) 28082 cm2 B) 20882 cm2 C) 28028 cm2 D) 20828 cm2 Correct Ans: C

Q55) A metallic sphere with a radius of 35 cm is melted and subsequently transformed into several small solid
cones, each having a diameter of 14 cm and a height of 4 cm. How many cones are formed as a result of
this process?
A) 900 B) 850 C) 875 D) 825 Correct Ans: C

Q56)

A) ₹8,000 B) ₹8,400 C) ₹8,800 D) ₹8,600 Correct Ans: C

Q57)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q58) A spherical ball of iron is to be produced. If the radius of the ball is 3 cm and weight of iron per cm3 is
30g,what would be the weight of the ball?
A) 1080π g B) 104π g C) 1040π g D) 108π g Correct Ans: A

Q59) The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio 3 : 2. If the area of the field is 3456 m2, then
the cost of fencing the field at ₹3.50 per metre is:
A) Rs. 420 B) Rs. 840 C) Rs. 480 D) Rs. 240 Correct Ans: B

Q60)
A) 21.404 B) 19.404 C) 20.500 D) 22.500 Correct Ans: B

Q61) If the radius of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 40% and its height is increased by 75%, its
volume will be decreased by:
A) 37% B) 57% C) 65% D) 35% Correct Ans: A

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Q62)

A) 6 cm B) 8 cm C) 12 cm D) 10 cm Correct Ans: B

Q63)

A) 1200.5 B) 942.1 C) 1000.3 D) 1177.5 Correct Ans: D

Q64) If the total surface area of a hemisphere is 192π cm2, then the radius of the base of the hemisphere is:
A) 64 cm B) 4 cm C) 8 cm D) 16 cm Correct Ans: C

Q65) A solid sphere of radius 12 cm is melted and cast into small spherical balls, each of diameter 2.4 cm. Find
the number of balls thus obtained.
A) 980 B) 1000 C) 1050 D) 500 Correct Ans: B

Q66)

A) 50 cm2 B) 264 cm2 C) 450 cm2 D) 350 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q67) Anand wanted to make a cylindrical kaleidoscope of length 30 cm and radius 7 cm. If he is using
handmade sheets to make it, then how much sheet will be required for this?
A) 1520 cm2 B) 660 cm2 C) 1320 cm2 D) 1440 cm2 Correct Ans: C

Q68)

A) 35 B) 24 C) 28 D) 21 Correct Ans: D

Q69) Water in a conical flask with radius 7 cm and height 48 cm is poured into a cylindrical flask with radius 14
cm. The water level in the cylindrical flask is:
A) 5 cm B) 3 cm C) 2 cm D) 4 cm Correct Ans: D

Q70)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q71) If a semi-circular plot has radius 100 m, find its perimeter. (Use π = 3.14)
A) 500 m B) 414 m C) 828 m D) 514 m Correct Ans: D

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Q72) The rate of nickel plating on a metal is ₹50 / m2. If the cost of nickel plating on a curved surface area of a
solid hemisphere is ₹600, find the cost of nickel coating on the total surface area of this hemisphere.
A) ₹1,000 B) ₹700 C) ₹900 D) ₹800 Correct Ans: C

Q73)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q74) The side of a square exceeds the side of another square by 3 cm and the sum of the areas of the two
squares is 225 cm2 . Find the sum of the perimeter (in cm) of both squares.
A) 94 B) 84 C) 74 D) 64 Correct Ans: B

Q75)

A) ₹1,232 B) ₹1,230 C) ₹1,234 D) ₹1,236 Correct Ans: A

Q76)

A) 42 B) 21 C) 12 D) 18 Correct Ans: B

Q77)

A) 29,700 cm3 B) 1980 cm3 C) 19,800 cm3 D) 27,900 cm3 Correct Ans: A

Q78)

A) 18 cm B) 12 cm C) 21 cm D) 15 cm Correct Ans: C

Q79) An iron ball of radius 20 cm is melted and recast into 64 spherical balls of same radius. Find the radius of
each spherical ball.
A) 5 cm B) 6 cm C) 7 cm D) 8 cm Correct Ans: A

Q80)

A) 13 cm B) 15 cm C) 14 cm D) 12 cm Correct Ans: C

Q81) The length and the breadth of the floor of a rectangular hall are 98 feet and 70 feet, respectively. If all
persons in the hall are allotted equal square spaces as workstations, what will be the area of the largest

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 such workstation that can be allotted to any user, assuming no space in the hall is left unoccupied?
A) 256 sq. ft B) 196 sq. ft C) 144 sq. ft D) 100 sq. ft Correct Ans: B

Q82) If the radius of a cylinder is decreased by 25% and the height is increased by 25% to form a new cylinder,
what is the percentage decrease in new volume (rounded off to two digits after the decimal)?
A) 40.2% B) 39.5% C) 27.5% D) 29.69% Correct Ans: D

Q83)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q84)

A) 21 B) 7 C) 28 D) 14 Correct Ans: C

Q85) A hemispherical bowl of internal radius 15 cm contains a liquid. The liquid is to be filled into cylindrical
shaped bottles of diameter 5 cm and height 6 cm. The number of bottles required to empty the bowl is:
A) 50 B) 40 C) 60 D) 30 Correct Ans: C

Q86)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q87) The diameter of a cylinder is equal to its height. If the height of the cylinder is 14 cm, find the total surface
area of the cylinder.

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q88)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q89)

A) 7186 B) 7156 C) 7166 D) 7128 Correct Ans: D

Q90)

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A) 17 cm B) 15 cm C) 21 cm D) 12 cm Correct Ans: A

Q91)
A) 9 cm B) 7 cm C) 12 cm D) 8 cm Correct Ans: A

Q92) A solid sphere of iron having radius 15 cm is to be melted and recast in the shape of a cylindrical pipe
having internal and external radii 4 cm and 6 cm, respectively. Find the length (in m) of the pipe thus
formed.
A) 2.25 B) 2.35 C) 2.45 D) 2.15 Correct Ans: A

Q93)
A) 3 : 4 B) 3 : 5 C) 4 : 7 D) 2 : 3 Correct Ans: C

Q94) If the volume and surface area of a sphere are numerically the same, then find the volume (in cm3) of its
semi − sphere. (correct to two places of decimals, use π = 3.14)
A) 65.25 B) 56.52 C) 56.25 D) 65.52 Correct Ans: B

Q95) The dimensions of a room are 1650 cm × 1350 cm × 900 cm. What should be the size of the longest tape
with which the three dimensions can be measured exactly?
A) 250 cm B) 300 cm C) 200 cm D) 150 cm Correct Ans: D

Q96) A solid cuboid with dimensions 2 m × 4 m × 10 m is melted to form small solid cubes of side 8 cm. How
many such cubes can be formed?
A) 1,56,250 B) 1,62,250 C) 1,60,000 D) 1,58,250 Correct Ans: A

Q97) The area (in cm2) of circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 12 cm is:
A) 144π B) 72π C) 24π D) 36π Correct Ans: D

Q98)

A) 700 B) 708 C) 704 D) 712 Correct Ans: C

Q99)

A) 25 B) 24.8 C) 24.5 D) 20.8 Correct Ans: B

Q100)

A) 1760 B) 1720 C) 1780 D) 1740 Correct Ans: A

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Q101) A hemispherical bowl with an internal radius of 27 cm is full of liquid. The liquid is to be filled into
cylindrical shaped bottles of diameter 12 cm and height 13.5 cm. The number of bottles required to
empty the bowl is:
A) 27 B) 25 C) 29 D) 21 Correct Ans: A

Q102) The curved surface area of a cylinder is three-fifth of its total surface area. Find the ratio
between the height and radius of the cylinder.
A) 8 : 3 B) 3 : 2 C) 3 : 5 D) 2 : 5 Correct Ans: B

Q103) The original breadth of a rectangular box is 25 cm. The box was then remade in such a way that its
length was increased by 30% but the breadth decreased by 20% and the area increased by 100 cm2.
What is the length (in cm) of the new box?
A) 109 B) 91 C) 100 D) 130 Correct Ans: D

Q104)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q105) 12 solid spheres of the same size are made by melting a solid cylinder of 16 cm diameter and 4 cm
height. The diameter of each sphere is:
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q106)

A) 28,747 m3 B) 12,936 m3 C) 17,248 m3 D) 25,872 m3 Correct Ans: C

Q107)

A) 9500 m2, 113550 m3 B) 8600 m2, 105850 m3 C) 9900 m2, 103950 m3 D) 7660 m2, 93990 m3 Correct Ans: C

Q108) A solid cylinder has a total surface area of 352 cm2. Its curved surface area is one-eighth of the total
surface area. The radius (in cm) of the cylinder is:
[Useπ = 22/7]
A) 9 B) 8 C) 11 D) 7 Correct Ans: D

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Q109) The sum of the radii of spheres A and B is 14 cm, the radius of A being larger than that of B. The
difference between their surface areas is 112 π cm2 . What is the ratio of the volumes of B to A?
A) 25 : 64 B) 64 : 25 C) 27 : 64 D) 64 : 27 Correct Ans: C

2
Q110) From a square with area a another square made on mid points of the sides of the square is removed.
What is the area left in the square?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q111) The radius of a circle is equal to the side of a square. The perimeters of the square and circle are in the
ratio 7 : 11, then the ratio of the areas will be:(Use π = 22/7)
A) 22 : 7 B) 22 : 14 C) 7 : 22 D) 14 : 22 Correct Ans: C

Q112)

A) 21 B) 24 C) 35 D) 28 Correct Ans: A

Q113)

A) 95.2 B) 92.4 C) 616 D) 4106.6 Correct Ans: B

Q114)

A) 1664 B) 1012 C) 2024 D) 2268 Correct Ans: C

Q115) A conical tent of height 8 m and radius 15 m is to be built in a tracking camp. How much area of cloth is
needed?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q116) A solid metal cone of height 30 cm and radius of base 10 cm is melted in to the form of a solid sphere.
Find the radius of the sphere (in cm).
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q117)

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A) 33000 B) 92400 C) 19140 D) 18140 Correct Ans: C

Q118) A solid cone of base radius 7 cm and height 18 cm is melted and recast into a hollow metal hemisphere
of internal and external radii 20 cm and R cm, respectively. What is the value of R (in cm)?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q119) A cylinder of radius 10 cm and height 30 cm is cut, parallel to the base, into two pieces of different sizes.
The total surface area of the larger piece formed is 70% of that of the given cylinder. The smaller piece is
melted and made into a sphere. The radius (in cm) of the sphere is:
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q120)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q121)

A) 25 B) 28 C) 22 D) 21 Correct Ans: C

Q122) If the diagonal of a rectangle is 16 cm long and its perimeter is 48 cm long, find the area of the rectangle.
A) 160 cm2 B) 140 cm2 C) 148 cm2 D) 120 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q123) A cylindrical disc of thickness 1 cm is made by melting two solid cylinders of radii 4 cm and 5 cm, and
length 6 cm and 4 cm, respectively. The radius of the new cylinder is:
A) 21 cm B) 7 cm C) 14 cm D) 28 cm Correct Ans: C

Q124) A rectangular sheet of paper of length 10π cm and width 5 cm is rolled along its length (width of the
sheet becomes the height of the cylinder) to form a cylinder. What would be the radius of the cylinder?
A) 2.5 cm B) 5 cm C) 6 cm D) 10 cm Correct Ans: B

Q125)

A) 942.86 B) 924.86 C) 1036.72 D) 892.55 Correct Ans: A

Q126)

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A) 5264.2 gm B) 6252.4 gm C) 5262.4 gm D) 6254.2 gm Correct Ans: B

Q127) A right circular solid metallic cone is 7.2 cm high and radius of its base 3.5 cm. It is melted and recast
into two right circular solid metallic cones equal in all respects, each with base radius 2.1 cm and height
‘h’. What is the value of ‘h’ (in cm)?
A) 10 B) 21 C) 12 D) 14 Correct Ans: A

Q128)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q129)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q130) The diameter of a solid sphere is 3 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 8 mm. The length
of the wire is:
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q131) A closed cylindrical tank of height 280 cm and base radius 70 cm is to be made from a metal sheet. The
required sheet for the same, in m2, is:
A) 13.8 B) 12.8 C) 14.4 D) 15.4 Correct Ans: D

Q132)

A) 588 cu.cm B) 462 cu.cm C) 858 cu.cm D) 396 cu.cm Correct Ans: C

Q133)

A) 21 B) 18.5 C) 16.5 D) 17.5 Correct Ans: D

Q134) A well with an internal diameter of 8 m is dug to a depth of 12 m. The earth taken out of it is spread all
around the well to a width of 8 m to form an embankment. What is the height (in m) of the embankment?
A) 2.2 B) 1.3 C) 1.5 D) 1.0 Correct Ans: C

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Q135) The radius of a cylinder is doubled due to which the volume of the new cylinder also gets doubled. The
height of the new cylinder is what percentage of the old cylinder?
A) 25% B) 200% C) 100% D) 50% Correct Ans: D

Q136)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q137) A hemispherical bowl is 264 cm round at the brim. Suppose that the bowl is half-full of beverage. If the
beverage is served in hemispherical glasses 6 cm in the diameter at the top, how many people would be
served?
A) 1270 B) 1372 C) 1170 D) 1470 Correct Ans: B

Q138) A rectangular sheet of length 28 cm and breadth 16 cm is folded to meet the edges so that it is made
into a cylindrical pipe in two possible ways – one along the length and the other along the breadth. The
larger volume is how much percentage of smaller volume?
A) 180% B) 185% C) 165% D) 175% Correct Ans: D

Q139) What is the cost of a tadpole required to make a conical tent with slant height 15 m and height 9 m,
when one square meter tadpole costs ₹147?
A) Rs.62,370 B) Rs.49,896 C) Rs.83,160 D) Rs.67,842 Correct Ans: C

Q140)

A) 54 B) 66 C) 42 D) 35 Correct Ans: D

Q141)

A) 31.5 cm B) 17.5 cm C) 25 cm D) 19 cm Correct Ans: C

Q142)

A) 3.8 cm B) 2.2 cm C) 3.5 cm D) 2.9 cm Correct Ans: C

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Q143)

A) 2157 m2 B) 440 m2 C) 572 m2 D) 607 m2 Correct Ans: C

Q144) 20 identical solid hemispheres of radius 3 cm are melted to form a big solid hemisphere. What is the
radius (in cm) of the biggest hemisphere formed, if 20% of the solid is wasted during the process?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q145) What is the area of the remaining portion of a circle of radius 14 cm when a square with maximum
possible area inscribed in it is removed from it? (Use π= 22/7)
A) 520 cm2 B) 224 cm2 C) 518 cm2 D) 616 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q146) The perimeter of a rhombus is 160 cm and one of its diagonals has a length 50 cm. Find the area (in
cm2) of the rhombus.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q147) The diameter of a hollow hemisphere is 30 cm. Water is filled in it up to its brim. When spherical lead
shots each of radius 0.75 cm are dropped into the hemisphere, two-fifth of the water flows out. How
many lead shots were dropped into the hemisphere?
A) 1380 B) 2250 C) 1600 D) 1575 Correct Ans: C

Q148) A hemispherical bowl with diameter 14 cm has to be painted inside and outside. How much it will be
charged at the rate of ₹20 per 40 cm2?
A) ₹616 B) ₹154 C) ₹224 D) ₹308 Correct Ans: D

Q149) A conical cavity is drilled in a solid circular cylinder of 7 cm height and 48 cm base diameter. The height
and base diameter of the cone are the same as those of the cylinder. What is the total surface area of the
remaining solid?
A) 1512π cm2 B) 1076π cm2 C) 1420π cm2 D) 1654π cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q150) The least number of square tiles required to pave the ceiling of a room 525 centimetre long and 378
centimetre broad is:
A) 150 B) 380 C) 178 D) 450 Correct Ans: D

Q151)

A) 21 B) 14 C) 10.5 D) 7 Correct Ans: A

Q152) A conical tent is to accommodate 12 persons. Each person must have 5 m2 of the space on the ground
and 20 m3 of air to breathe. The height of the tent should be:
A) 12.5 m B) 22 m C) 12 m D) 13 m Correct Ans: C

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Q153)

A) 117.81 m2 B) 116.81 m2 C) 115.81 m2 D) 114.81 m2 Correct Ans: D

Q154)

A) 1620.35 B) 745.36 C) 1810.16 D) 1025.24 Correct Ans: C

Q155)

A) 286 B) 280 C) 289 D) 283 Correct Ans: D

Q156) A cylinder with a radius of 12 cm and height of 38 cm is cut parallel to the base into two pieces of
different sizes. The total surface area of the larger piece formed is 60% of the total surface area of the
given cylinder. The smaller piece is melted and used to create a sphere. Find the radius (in cm) of the
sphere.
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

Q157) A trapezium has parallel sides 6 units and 10 units. Other two opposite sides are of same length 8 units
and two diagonals are of equal length. What is the area of the trapezium (in square units)?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q158) A spherical metal ball is melted into a shape of cylinder mounted by a cone such that the base of cone
exactly overlaps the top base of cylinder. The diameter of the cylinder and sphere is 4.2 m each. What is
the height (in m) of the cone if the height of cylinder is 1.4 m?
A) 1.4 B) 2.1 C) 4.2 D) 0.7 Correct Ans: C

Q159) Air is leaking from a spherical-shaped advertising balloon at the rate of 24 cubic feet per minute. If the
radius of the balloon is 8 feet, how long would it take for the balloon to empty? Round your answer to
the nearest minute. Use the approximate of value of π, that is 3.14.
A) 89 minutes B) 80 minutes C) 65 minutes D) 94 minutes Correct Ans: A

Q160)

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A) 3854 B) 3256 C) 3145 D) 3696 Correct Ans: B

Q161) An ice-cream cone with a lid has a total surface area equal to the area of another circle of certain radius.
If the radius of the circle is equal to average of the slant height and the radius of the cone, then the ratio
of the slant height of the cone to the radius of the circle is:
A) 2 : 3 B) 3 : 1 C) 1 : 3 D) 3 : 2 Correct Ans: D

Q162)

A) 726 B) 712 C) 734 D) 748 Correct Ans: A

Q163)

A) ₹5,774.28 B) ₹7,745.28 C) ₹7,547.28 D) ₹7,574.28 Correct Ans: D

Q164) The weight of a sphere is jointly proportional to the cube of its radius and the density of the material of
which it is made. The radii of two spheres are 17 : 8 and the densities of materials 3 : 4. If the weight of
the second sphere be 40 kg, then the approximate weight of the first sphere is:
A) 287.87 kg B) 123.26 kg C) 96 kg D) 230 kg Correct Ans: A

Q165)

A) 351 B) 156 C) 75 D) 66 Correct Ans: D

Q166)

A) 11,282.85 B) 10,437.43 C) 10,128.85 D) 10,182.86 Correct Ans: D

Q167)

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 Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q168) A cone of radius 16 cm and height 12 cm is cut, parallel to the base, at some height closer to the top. If
the ratio of the heights of the solids is 1∶3, then the ratio of the total surface areas of the two solids
formed is approximately given by:
A) 2 : 15 B) 9 : 143 C) 7 : 180 D) 1 : 8 Correct Ans: B

Q169)

A) 233 B) 239 C) 231 D) 234 Correct Ans: A

Q170)

A) 27000 B) 900 C) 18000 D) 9000 Correct Ans: C

Q171) A cylinder has curved surface area equal to area of the flat surfaces of the cylinder. If the diameter of the
cylinder is r units, then the total surface area of the cylinder (in square units) will be _____.
Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q172) If 2744 identical small spheres are made out of a big sphere of radius 7 cm, then what is the surface area
of each small sphere?
A) 4π cm2 B) π cm2 C) 3π cm2 D) 2π cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q173) A cylindrical tank of height 10 m and radius 5 m has a small circular cut of 0.5 m radius on its top
surface. What would be the total surface area of the tank?
Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q174) A cylindrical glass with a diameter of 20 cm is having the juice to a height of 9 cm. An ice cube of size 8
cm is amerced in it completely. How much will the juice level rise in the glass? (Use π = 3.142 and
answer correctly up to the nearest mm)
A) 63 mm B) 163 mm C) 17 mm D) 16 mm Correct Ans: D

Q175)

A) 54.90 kg B) 45.09 kg C) 59.40 kg D) 50.49 kg Correct Ans: D

Q176) The outer circumference of the top of a large hemispherical iron bowl is 565.2 cm and the bowl is 6 cm
thick. What will be the volume (in cm3) of the iron required to make this bowl? (Use π = 3.14.)
A) 2,85,312.96 B) 2,85,212.96 C) 2,85,132.96 D) 2,85,232.96 Correct Ans: A

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Q177)

A) 50 cm B) 34 cm C) 42 cm D) 26 cm Correct Ans: B

Q178)

A) 200 B) 250 C) 175 D) 225 Correct Ans: A

Q179)

A) 12 B) 16 C) 10 D) 8 Correct Ans: C

Q180)

A) 2.25 m B) 4.5 m C) 7.5 m D) 5.5 m Correct Ans: A

Q181)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q182)

A) 9(R + L) : 16L B) 9L : 16(R + L) C) 16(R + L) : 9L D) 16L : 9(R + L) Correct Ans: B

Q183) A well with an internal diameter 10 m is dug to a depth of 10 m. Earth taken out of it is spread all around
the well to a width of 12 m to form an embankment. What is the height (in m, rounded off to 2 decimal
places) of the embankment?
A) 0.88 B) 1.02 C) 0.95 D) 1.12 Correct Ans: C

Q184) A right circular cone of height h and radius R is cut by a plane parallel to the base at a distance h/4 from
the base. The ratio of the curved surface areas of the resulting cone to the frustum is:
A) 16 : 9 B) 16 : 7 C) 7 : 16 D) 9 : 7 Correct Ans: D

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Q185) The outer circumference of the top of a large hemispherical iron bowl is 565.2 cm and the bowl is y cm
thick. If the total surface area of the bowl is 98,988.5 cm2, then what is the value of y? (Use π = 3.14.)
A) 4 B) 5 C) 3.5 D) 6 Correct Ans: B

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) The length of the side of a cube is 8 cm. Find the volume of the cube?
A) 612 cm3 B) 512 cm3 C) 664 cm3 D) 564 cm3 Correct Ans: B

Q2) The breadth of a rectangular lawn is decreased by 8% and its length is increased by 15%. Find the
percentage change in the lawn area.
A) 8.5% increase B) 8.5% decrease C) 5.8%decrease D) 5.8% increase Correct Ans: D

Q3) The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio of 512: 3375. The ratio of their surface areas is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q4) Find the surface area (in m2) of a cuboid that is 11 m long, 7 m broad and 4 m high.
A) 298 B) 320 C) 249 D) 289 Correct Ans: A

Q5)

A) 2.8 cm B) 3.5 cm C) 2.5 cm D) 3.0 cm Correct Ans: B

Q6) The height of a cylinder is 8 cm, and its area of the base is 20 cm2 . Find its volume?
A) 180 cm3 B) 80 cm3 C) 160 cm3 D) 100 cm3 Correct Ans: C

Q7)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q8) If the radius of a sphere is increased by 40%, then find the percentage increase in its surface area.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q9)

A) 1731 B) 2464 C) 2856 D) 1724 Correct Ans: B

Q10) A cylinder has a radius of 7 cm and the area of its curved surface is 396 cm2. The volume of the cylinder
is:
A) 1396 cm3 B) 1381 cm3 C) 1386 cm3 D) 1391 cm3 Correct Ans: C

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Q11)

A) 2508 cm2 B) 2260 cm2 C) 2550 cm2 D) 1580 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q12)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q13) If the radius of a sphere is 2.1 cm, then the volume of sphere is equal to:
A) 36.088 cm3 B) 36.808 cm3 C) 38.808 cm3 D) 38.088 cm3 Correct Ans: C

Q14) If the radius of a sphere is increased by 20%, then find the percentage increase in its volume.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

3
Q15) The breadth of a room is twice its height and half its length. The volume of the room is 1728 m .The
length of the room is:
A) 20 m B) 24 m C) 34 m D) 28 m Correct Ans: B

Q16)

A) 462 cubic ft. B) 527 cubic ft. C) 1386 cubic ft. D) 1423 cubic ft. Correct Ans: A

Q17)

A) 1527.43 cm3 B) 1428.78 cm3 C) 1625.37 cm3 D) 1821.47 cm3 Correct Ans: A

Q18) If the length and breadth of a cuboid are increased by 6% and 8%, respectively, then the percentage
increase in its volume (correct to two decimal places) is:
A) 13.96% B) 12.96% C) 14.48% D) 11.48% Correct Ans: C

Q19) The total percentage change in the volume of a cuboid if its length and breadth are decreased by 15% and
25%, respectively, while its height is increased by 60% is:
A) 5% decrease B) 2% decrease C) 5% increase D) 2% increase Correct Ans: D

Q20) A cone of slant height 4.2 units has a lateral surface area 13.2 units2. The radius of the base is:
A) 1 unit B) 1.5 units C) 2.5 units D) 2 units Correct Ans: A

Q21) Find the total surface area of a hemisphere with a radius of 11 cm?
A) 242π cm2 B) 313π cm2 C) 273π cm2 D) 363π cm2 Correct Ans: D

Q22) One laddoo with a radius of 5 cm belongs to a shopkeeper. How many laddoos of radius 2.5 cm may be
created from the same one laddoo?

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A) 2 B) 6 C) 4 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

Q23)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q24) The area of the canvas cloth needed to erect a right conical tent of height 20ft. and circular base of
circumference 30π ft. is:
A) 455π sq.ft. B) 375π sq.ft. C) 589π sq.ft. D) 470π sq.ft. Correct Ans: B

Q25) A woman working in a company was supplied a rectangular solid (cuboid shape) of wax with dimensions
70 cm , 44 cm and 20 cm to prepare cylindrical candles, each 14 cm in diameter and 20 cm of height. Find
the number of candles.
A) 15 B) 20 C) 10 D) 30 Correct Ans: B

Q26)

A) 18.68 B) 25.35 C) 28.68 D) 15.25 Correct Ans: A

Q27) A gear 15 cm in diameter is turning a gear 21 cm in diameter. When the smaller gear has 105 revolutions,
how many has the larger one made?
A) 75 B) 100 C) 85 D) 90 Correct Ans: A

Q28)
A) 30 B) 32 C) 28 D) 35 Correct Ans: D

Q29)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q30)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q31)
A) 11250.25 B) 12219.43 C) 18750.23 D) 12200.43 Correct Ans: B

Q32)

A) 470 B) 462 C) 456 D) 478 Correct Ans: B

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Q33) Two rectangular sheets of paper, each 60 cm × 36 cm, are made into two right circular cylinders, one by
rolling the paper along its length and the other along the breadth. The ratio of the volumes of the two
cylinders, thus formed, is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q34)

A) 3590 B) 4589 C) 2564 D) 5544 Correct Ans: D

Q35)

A) 7200 B) 7823 C) 8342 D) 9000 Correct Ans: A

Q36) If the radius of a sphere is increased by 125%, then by what percentage will its surface area increase
(correct to two decimal places)?
A) 506.25% B) 509.54% C) 409.76% D) 406.25% Correct Ans: D

Q37) The volume of a cube is four times the volume of a cuboid. If the sides of the cuboid are 32 cm, 8 cm and
4 cm, then find the ratio of the total surface area of the cube to that of the cuboid.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q38)

A) 5241 B) 4356 C) 4881 D) 4125 Correct Ans: B

Q39) A rectangular sheet of metal is 60 cm by 25 cm. Equal squares of side 5 cm are cut off at the corners and
the remainder is folded up to form an open rectangular box. Find the volume of the box.
A) 2750 cm3 B) 5750 cm3 C) 3750 cm3 D) 4750 cm3 Correct Ans: C

Q40)

A) 74 B) 68 C) 64 D) 70 Correct Ans: C

Q41) A hollow sphere of external and internal diameters of 10 cm and 6 cm, respectively, is melted and made
into another solid in the shape of a right circular cone of base diameter 10 cm. Find the height of the
cone.

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A) 13.68 cm B) 14.68 cm C) 16.68 cm D) 15.68 cm Correct Ans: D

Q42)

A) 35% B) 20% C) 45% D) 50% Correct Ans: D

Q43) Melting a metal ball of radius 3 units, 27 identical dice and a ball of radius 1 units are made. What is the
side of dice?
A) 1.7 units B) 1.5 units C) 1.6 units D) 1.4 units Correct Ans: C

Constable GD Examination 2024

Q1)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q2)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q3)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q4)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q5)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q6)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q7)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q8)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q9)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q10)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q11)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q12)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q13)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q14)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q15)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q16)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q17)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q18)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q19)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q20)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q21)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q22)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q23)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q24)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q25)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q26)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q27)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q28)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q29)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q30)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q31)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q32)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q33)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q34)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q35)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q36)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q37)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q38)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q39)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q40)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q41)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q42)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q43)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q44)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q45)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q46)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q47)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q48)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q49)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q50)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q51)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q52)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q53)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q54)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q55)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Selection Post XII

Q1) The dimensions of a pond are 20 m, 14 m and 6 m. Find the capacity of the pond.
A) 1680 m3 B) 1520 m3 C) 1280 m3 D) 1460 m3 Correct Ans: A

Q2) The difference between the total surface area and lateral surface area of a cube, if side of the cube is 11 cm
(in square cm), is _________ .
A) 242 B) 243 C) 241 D) 244 Correct Ans: A

Q3)

A) 5452 B) 5524 C) 5544 D) 5430 Correct Ans: C

Q4)

A) 27 cm B) 21 cm C) 24 cm D) 18 cm Correct Ans: B

Q5) The volume of a cube is 64 cm3. The total surface area of the cube is:
A) 16 cm2 B) 96 cm2 C) 64 cm2 D) 128 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q6) If the surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio of 9 : 49, then the ratio of their volumes is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q7) Half the perimeter of a rectangular garden, whose length is 8 cm more than its width, is 42 cm. Find the
area of the rectangular garden.
A) 542 cm2 B) 425 cm2 C) 254 cm2 D) 524 cm2 Correct Ans: B

Q8) In measuring the sides of a rectangle, one side is taken 10% in excess, and the other 8% in deficit. The
error percent in the area calculated from these measurements is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q9)

A) 5544 mm2 B) 5540 mm2 C) 5546 mm2 D) 5542 mm2 Correct Ans: A

Q10) The perimeter of one face of a cube is 40 cm. Its volume will be:
A) 1000 cm3 B) 100 cm3 C) 10 cm3 D) 10000 cm3 Correct Ans: A

Q11) The length of cold storage of cuboidal shape is double its breadth and its height is half of its breadth. If
its volume is 216 m3 , then what are the dimensions of the cold storage?
A) 12 m × 6 m × 3 m B) 12 m × 9 m × 5 m C) 14 m × 7 m × 5 m D) 8 m × 4 m × 2 m Correct Ans: A

Q12) The dimensions of a cuboid are 8 cm, 12 cm and 14 cm. Find the total surface area.
A) 753 cm2 B) 754 cm2 C) 752 cm2 D) 751 cm2 Correct Ans: C

Q13) The radius of a circle is increased in such a way that its circumference increases by 7%. As a result, the
area of the circle also increases by:
A) 12.20% B) 10.28% C) 14.49% D) 18.69% Correct Ans: C

Q14) If the radius of the right circular cone is increased by 20% and its height is decreased by 25%, then the
volume of the right circular cone will be increased by:
A) 12% B) 10% C) 8% D) 15% Correct Ans: C

Q15)

A) 924 ft2 B) 928 ft2 C) 922 ft2 D) 926 ft2 Correct Ans: A

Q16)
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q17) The radius of a hemisphere is 9 cm. Its volume will be:

A) 486π cm3 B) 243π cm3 C) 972π cm3 D) 712π cm3 Correct Ans: A

Q18) If the volume of spheres are 27 : 8, then their ratio of surface areas is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q19) What must be the total percentage change in the volume of a cuboid if its length and breadth are
decreased by 10% and 20%, respectively, while its height is increased by 40%?
A) 0.8% increase B) 1.8% decrease C) 1.8% increase D) 0.8% decrease Correct Ans: A

Q20)

Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

2
Q21) If the cylinder height is 9 cm and the base area is 25πcm , then find the total surface area.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q22) The radii of the two concentric circles are 27 cm and 18 cm. The area (in cm2) of the closed figure
bounded by the boundaries of the circle is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q23) Find the area (in cm2) of a circle with a maximum radius that can be inscribed in a rectangle of length 18
cm and breadth 12 cm.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q24) The volume of a cuboid is twice the volume of a cube. If the dimensions of the cuboid are 12 cm, 16 cm
and 18 cm, then the total surface area of the cube is:
A) 864 cm2 B) 625 cm2 C) 764 cm2 D) 484 cm2 Correct Ans: A

Q25) Roshan owned a plot of land having an area that was 20% more than the area of the plot owned by Susan,
while the area of the plot of land owned by Jacob was 30% more than the area of the plot owned by
Roshan. If the area of the plot owned by Susan was 1250 square feet, what was the area (in square feet) of
the plot owned by Jacob?
A) 2020 B) 1950 C) 1875 D) 2050 Correct Ans: B

Q26) The volume of a right circular cylinder of base radius r is obtained by multiplying its curved surface area
by:
Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q27) How many cubes of length 50 cm can be accommodated in a container of 5 m in length, 2 m in width and
5 m in height?
A) 450 B) 250 C) 400 D) 500 Correct Ans: C

Q28) The lateral surface area of a cone is 550cm2. If the diameter of the cone is 14cm, then the height of the
cone is:
A) 12.5 cm B) 25 cm C) 24 cm D) 12 cm Correct Ans: C

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Q29)

A) 11488.67 cm3 B) 11598.67 cm3 C) 11478.67 cm3 D) 11498.67 cm3 Correct Ans: D

Q30) The height of a solid cylinder is 4 times its radius. Its curved surface area is ______ times its base area.
A) 4 B) 8 C) 2 D) 6 Correct Ans: B

Q31) There is a large cone with a diameter of 14m and height of 12m. It is being filled with water at a rate of 2
m3 in every 20 seconds. How long will it take to fill the cone?
A) 616 sec B) 12320 sec C) 6160 sec D) 313 sec Correct Ans: C

Q32)

A) ₹188.30 B) ₹410.10 C) ₹277.20 D) ₹388.20 Correct Ans: C

Q33) Three solid iron cubes of edges 8 cm, 10 cm and 12 cm are melted together to make a new cube. It is
observed that 496 cm3 of the melted material is lost due to improper handling. The area (in cm2) of the
whole surface of the newly formed cube is:
A) 1176 B) 3375 C) 1331 D) 2197 Correct Ans: A

Q34) The diagonal of a cubical block of wood is 192 cm. Find its volume.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q35)

A) 38 cm B) 56 cm C) 46 cm D) 58 cm Correct Ans: B

Q36) A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube
is:
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q37) A cube is having surface area of 5400 square units. Its volume would increase approximately ______ if
the side is increased by 5 units.
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q38)

A) 12 cm B) 14 cm C) 11 cm D) 13 cm Correct Ans: D

2
Q39) The lateral surface area of a cylinder is 3862.2 cm and its height is 15 cm. Find its volume (take π =
3.14)correct to one decimal place.

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A) 79175.1 cm3 B) 88275.2 cm3 C) 78275.2 cm3 D) 89175.1 cm3 Correct Ans: A

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 SSC 2024
Complete
Mathematics
Data
Interpretation
500+ Questions

Gagan Pratap Sir

 INDEX
Click on Exam Name to Start Reading

01 SSC CGL PRE 2024

02 SSC CHSL PRE 2024

03 SSC MTS 2024

04 SSC CPO PRE 2024

05 SSC GD 2024

06 SELECTION POST XII

 Data Interpretation
Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I 2024
Q1) The given table shows the number of runs scored in IPL matches by four Indian batsmen in a particular
year.

What is the total number of runs scored by all four batsmen?

A) 3270 B) 2900 C) 3760 D) 3300 Correct Ans: A

Q2)

A) 30% B) 50% C) 40% D) 45% Correct Ans: C

Q3)

A) 4 B) 6 C) 5 D) 7 Correct Ans: B

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Q4)

A) 495 B) 499 C) 510 D) 522 Correct Ans: C

Q5)

A) 5012 tonnes B) 1052 tonnes C) 2150 tonnes D) 2051 tonnes Correct Ans: C

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Q6)

A) 5 B) 155 C) 80 D) 30 Correct Ans: A

Q7) The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of runs scored by a batsman in a test innings. Study
the chart and answer the question that follows.

If the batsman has scored a total of 440 runs, how many runs did he score by hitting fours?

A) 88 B) 172 C) 224 D) 132 Correct Ans: D

Q8) Study the given pie chart and select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The given pie chart shows the sales of different fruits in a day for a shop.
If the total number of fruits sold by a fruit seller in a day is 1200, then the number of bananas sold is ___.

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A) 360 B) 520 C) 240 D) 480 Correct Ans: D

Q9)

A) 3227 B) 2851 C) 3057 D) 2720 Correct Ans: C

Q10) The given table shows the number of candidates appeared in an interview for different posts (A, B, C, D, E
and F).
What is the average number of candidates appearing for the posts C, D, E and F?

A) 7600 B) 8000 C) 7225 D) 7500 Correct Ans: C

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Q11)

A) 175 B) 180 C) 170 D) 185 Correct Ans: D

Q12)

A) 13 : 12 B) 12 : 11 C) 11 : 12 D) 13 : 11 Correct Ans: A

Q13) The following pie chart shows the study time of different subjects of a student in a day. Study the pie
chart and answer the question.

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 If the student studied English for 3 hours, then he studied Mathematics for:

A) 2 hours B) 1 hour C) 7 hours D) 5 hours Correct Ans: C

Q14)

A) 8 : 7 B) 7 : 5 C) 5 : 8 D) 3 : 7 Correct Ans: A

Q15) A student studying in 6th class scored the following marks in 6 subjects.
The maximum marks for each subject are 100.

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 What are the average marks scored by the student?
A) 92.5 B) 96 C) 95 D) 94.5 Correct Ans: D

Q16) The following table shows the number of pages printed by 3 printers (P, Q and R) for 3 days.

What is the ratio of the total number of pages printed by printer P over the course of three days to the
total number of pages printed by printer Q during the same three days?
A) 9 : 10 B) 11 : 10 C) 10 : 11 D) 10 : 9 Correct Ans: D

Q17) The bar graph shows the number of students present in a class on four days. The average number of
students present on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday is:

A) 24 B) 20 C) 30 D) 25 Correct Ans: D

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Q18)

A) 75% B) 70% C) 68% D) 65% Correct Ans: B

Q19) The pie chart given below shows the expenditure (in percentage) of Aditya. The monthly income of Aditya
is₹54,000.

How much does he spend (in₹) on Food?

A) 12,240 B) 13,420 C) 11,240 D) 12,420 Correct Ans: D

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Q20)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q21) The following table indicates the number of students studying in three subjects in four colleges.

What is the ratio of the total number of students studying in the Physics to that of studying in
Mathematics in all four colleges taken together?
A) 781 : 585 B) 775 : 601 C) 576 : 731 D) 776 : 603 Correct Ans: D

Q22)

A) 40% B) 30% C) 35% D) 25% Correct Ans: B

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Q23)

A) 83 B) 80 C) 85 D) 84 Correct Ans: A

Q24) The given table shows the marks obtained by a student in class 9.

What is the percentage of marks obtained by the student?

A) 89.2% B) 88.8% C) 90% D) 88% Correct Ans: A

Q25)

A) 8 B) 5 C) 6 D) 3 Correct Ans: C

Q26)

A) 2 : 1 B) 1 : 3 C) 3 : 4 D) 5 : 3 Correct Ans: D

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Q27)

A) 14 : 9 B) 7 : 6 C) 6 : 7 D) 9 : 14 Correct Ans: A

Q28)

A) 35.79% B) 29.52% C) 28.57% D) 32.25% Correct Ans: C

Q29) The following pie-chart shows the distribution of students at graduate level in different institutes in a
town. Study the given chart and answer the question that follows.
Distribution of students at graduate level institutes

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 If the total number of students at the graduate level is 2,46,000, then how many students of institutes A
and B are studying at graduate level?
A) 76,260 B) 74,580 C) 86,190 D) 78,370 Correct Ans: A

Q30) The pie chart given below shows the number of hours spent by a student for different activities on a
working day.
The percentage of hours spent at school in a day is _____.

A) 25% B) 35% C) 40% D) 30% Correct Ans: A

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Q31)

A) 230 B) 250 C) 240 D) 260 Correct Ans: B

Q32)

A) 42,150 B) 43,250 C) 40,150 D) 41,250 Correct Ans: D

Q33)

A) 9 : 5 B) 12 : 5 C) 1 : 2 D) 5 : 12 Correct Ans: B

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Q34) The given table shows the percentage of students passing out of college M over five years.

What is the percentage increase in the number of students passing out of college M in the year 2022 as
compared to the previous year?
A) 10% B) 25% C) 15% D) 20% Correct Ans: C

Q35) The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of 20,000 employees in a company.

A) 4200 B) 4500 C) 5000 D) 4000 Correct Ans: A

Q36) The given table shows the number of books on different subjects.

What is the ratio of the number of books for subject B1 to the average number of books per subject?

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A) 3 : 5 B) 10 : 11 C) 4 : 5 D) 2 : 5 Correct Ans: B

Q37) The sale of two kinds of bicycles B1 and B2 (in lakhs) manufactured by a company over a period of three
years are shown in the table below.

From 2001 to 2003, the total sale of bicycles B1 is what percent of the total sale of bicycles B2?

A) 70.6% B) 68.2% C) 62.5% D) 56.7% Correct Ans: C

Q38) Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar-graph shows the sales of books (in thousands) from six branches (B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6) of
a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of branch B4 for both
years?
A) 6 : 7 B) 7 : 9 C) 2 : 3 D) 3 : 5 Correct Ans: B

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Q39)

A) 3,10,000 B) 4,50,000 C) 5,00,000 D) 4,10,000 Correct Ans: C

Q40)

A) 870 B) 804 C) 912 D) 930 Correct Ans: B

Q41) Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the sales of three products: P, Q and R by four companies: A, B, C and D.

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 What percentage is the total production by company C, of the total production by company A?
A) 110% B) 90% C) 100% D) 105% Correct Ans: C

Q42)

A) 1600 B) 2200 C) 1800 D) 2000 Correct Ans: D

Q43) The following bar graph shows the sales of a company (in₹ crore) in different years. Study the graph and
answer the question.

The mean of the highest and lowest sales (in₹ crore) is:

A) 326.7 B) 394.5 C) 484.2 D) 412.3 Correct Ans: B

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Q44)

A) 14.63% B) 15.63% C) 15.78% D) 14.34% Correct Ans: B

Q45) The given bar graph shows the number of students enrolled in Institutes A and B during 5 years (2018 to
2022).

What is the ratio of the total students enrolled in Institute B in 2019, 2020 and 2022 to that of the total
students enrolled in Institute A in 2018, 2020 and 2021?

A) 37 : 28 B) 11 : 28 C) 28 : 11 D) 28 : 37 Correct Ans: A

Q46)

A) 54% B) 50% C) 48% D) 52% Correct Ans: D

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Q47) Study the given table answer the question that follows.
The following table shows the income of a person (in thousand rupees) per annum over the given years.

What is the average income from school as a salary per year earned by the person over the given years?

A) ₹1,64,000 B) ₹1,74,000 C) ₹1,58,000 D) ₹1,48,000 Correct Ans: A

Q48) The following table gives the total number of employees in 5 different companies A, B, C, D and E and the
percentage of males and females. Study the table carefully and answer the question. Find the number of
females in companies A, C and E put together.

A) 700 B) 675 C) 650 D) 725 Correct Ans: A

Q49) The pie chart below shows the per cent sale of different fruits in a day for a shop.
If the total number of fruits sold by a fruit seller in a day is 1200, what is the combined central angle in the
pie chart for oranges and apples?

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A) 220° B) 90° C) 180° D) 160° Correct Ans: C

Q50)

A) IT B) English C) Hindi D) Mathematics Correct Ans: A

Q51)

A) 72 : 105 B) 76 : 107 C) 74 : 103 D) 78 : 107 Correct Ans: B

Q52) Study the given table and answer the question.

The table displays the number of cars produced (in lakhs) by six different brands between 2018 and 2023.
Brand 2018 2019 2020 2021 2022 2023
A 36 40 42 45 47 42
B 23 37 28 32 34 26
C 45 47 51 54 56 48
D 35 37 42 32 36 28
E 57 56 52 38 48 42
F 43 45 56 41 52 40
Which brand production is the highest, and in which year?

A) E and 2019 B) E and 2018 C) C and 2022 D) F and 2020 Correct Ans: B

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Q53)

A) 6000 B) 6750 C) 6250 D) 6500 Correct Ans: C

Q54) The table given below shows the marks obtained by four students in 4 different subjects. Maximum
marks for each subject is 175.

What is the aggregate percentage of marks obtained by Gunja in all the four subjects?
A) 67 B) 61 C) 58 D) 71 Correct Ans: B

Q55)

A) 280 B) 298 C) 240 D) 295 Correct Ans: A

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Q56) The table given here represents the distance (in km) travelled by two athletes X and Y in the same
direction.

Y’s average speed (km/hour) during the first five hours is:
A) 33 B) 31 C) 34 D) 32 Correct Ans: A

Q57)

A) 16,436 B) 34,760 C) 16,760 D) 16,636 Correct Ans: A

Q58) The given chart shows the production of different types of cars in the year 2021.
Study the given chart and answer the question that follows.

If the total production in the year 2021 was 2,00,00,000, then what will be the central angle of the sector
representing the production of type D cars in 2021?
A) 50° B) 36° C) 42° D) 72° Correct Ans: D

Q59) The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book.

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 What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on binding?
A) 78.8° B) 61.8° C) 82.8° D) 48.8° Correct Ans: C

Q60)

A) 1471 : 1367 B) 1230 : 1331 C) 1367 : 1471 D) 1331 : 1230 Correct Ans: A

Q61) The below table shows the number of 1 litre bottles of soft drink produced by three companies during
2016-2020. Study the given information carefully and answer the question that follows.

What is the difference in average production of A and C during 2016-2018 (in lakhs)?

A) 7800 B) 14,000 C) 13,000 D) 9500 Correct Ans: C

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Q62)

A) 2020 and 2021 B) 2018 and 2019 C) 2017 and 2018 D) 2018 and 2020 Correct Ans: D

Q63) The monthly production of electric bulbs by a company during the second half of the year 2021 is shown
by the following bar graph. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question given below.

What is the percentage decrement in the production of electric bulbs in October as compared to the
production in July? (Correct up to two decimal places.)
A) 30.28% B) 31.82% C) 29.82% D) 32.28% Correct Ans: B

Q64) The following table shows the expenditures (in thousands of rupees) of a company in different categories
from 2015 to 2019.

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 What is the average amount (in ₹) paid by the company on fuel and transport per year from 2015 to 2019?
A) 1,17,200 B) 1,16,500 C) 1,18,200 D) 1,15,200 Correct Ans: A

Q65)

A) 28% B) 30% C) 33% D) 24% Correct Ans: A

Q66) Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar-graph shows the sales of books (in thousands) from six branches (B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6) of
a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

The total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percentage of the total sales of branch B3 for both
the years (correct up to two decimal places)?

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A) 70.69% B) 73.17% C) 69.25% D) 82.26% Correct Ans: B

Q67)

A) 6 : 5 B) 7 : 8 C) 5 : 6 D) 8 : 7 Correct Ans: D

Q68) The monthly wages (in ₹) of three mess workers, Rahul, Sunil and Vipin, of a boy’s hostel for three
months are given in the following table. Study the table carefully and answer the question given below.

In November, the wages of Sunil is what percentage of the wages of Rahul? (Correct up to two decimal
places.)
A) 90.23% B) 89.30% C) 88.23% D) 91.30% Correct Ans: D

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Q69)

Correct Ans: B
A) B) C) D)

Q70)

A) 56.63 B) 48.75 C) 50.75 D) 45.58 Correct Ans: C

Q71) The given bar graph shows the production of bikes by a company (in thousands) over the years.

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 In how many of the given years was the production of bikes more than the average production of bikes
over the years?.
A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 3 years D) 4 years Correct Ans: C

Q72) The following table gives zone wise survey report of the people of a country who take tea. Study the table
and answer the question.

The ratio of the total number of people surveyed who take tea more than 3 times a day to the number of
people who do not take tea at all is
A) 103 : 8 B) 8 : 103 C) 101 : 5 D) 5 : 107 Correct Ans: A

Q73) Study the given chart and answer the question that follows.
The following chart shows the production of textbooks in thousands in the years
2018, 2020 and 2022 from the print houses A, B and C, respectively.

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 The ratio of textbooks produced by Print house B in the year 2018 to the textbooks
produced by Print house C in the year 2020 is ______.

A) 4 : 5 B) 3 : 4 C) 4 : 3 D) 2 : 3 Correct Ans: C

Q74)

A) Spoon B) Holder C) Plate D) Pipe Correct Ans: B

Q75)

A) 25.93% B) 26.39% C) 28.26% D) 27.62% Correct Ans: A

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Q76)

A) 12600 B) 11880 C) 12000 D) 12960 Correct Ans: D

Q77) The given bar graph shows sugar imports of a country (in thousand tonnes) over the years. Study the
graph and answer the question that follows.

The average imports (in thousand tonnes) of all the years is:

A) 6306 B) 6469 C) 6433 D) 6603 Correct Ans: A

Q78)

A) 12000 B) 18000 C) 14000 D) 16000 Correct Ans: D

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Q79)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q80) The given pie-chart shows the data on A, B, O, and AB blood groups of 240 donors. Study the chart and
answer the question that follows.

What is the ratio of the average donors of blood groups ‘A’, ‘O’, and ‘AB’ to the donors of blood group
‘B’?
A) 3 : 4 B) 4 : 3 C) 2 : 3 D) 1 : 3 Correct Ans: C

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Q81)

A) 75.7 B) 77.5 C) 105 D) 69.8 Correct Ans: B

Q82)

A) 928 B) 934 C) 953 D) 965 Correct Ans: B

Q83) Consider the given table for total imports of goods of 5 companies over 5 years (in lakhs), and
answer the question that follows.

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 If the total exports of all companies together in the year 2013 is ₹300 lakh, then the profit/loss
of all companies together in year 2013 is:
(Assume: Profit = Exports – Imports)

A) loss of ₹27 lakh B) loss of ₹18 lakh C) profit of ₹30 lakh D) profit of ₹35 lakh Correct Ans: D

Q84)

A) Sumit B) Mohit C) Rohit D) Tarun Correct Ans: D

Q85) Study the given pie chart carefully and answer the question that follows.
The given pie chart depicts the expenditure incurred towards different hobby classes of an institute.

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 If the total expenditure is ₹10,70,000, then find the central angle of the sector representing ‘drawing’.
A) 19° B) 90° C) 68.4° D) 70° Correct Ans: C

Q86)

A) 20 B) 38 C) 32 D) 28 Correct Ans: A

Q87) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The given table shows the production of T-shirts by four companies i.e., C1, C2, C3 and C4 over the four
years.

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 Which company had the maximum average production of T-shirts during these four years?
A) C1 B) C3 C) C2 D) C4 Correct Ans: C

Q88) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The following table shows the production of printers by four plants of a company over the five years.

What is the difference between the average production of plant 1 and plant 2 during five years?
A) 1600 B) 3000 C) 3840 D) 1400 Correct Ans: A

Q89)

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A) ₹32 lakh B) ₹42 lakh C) ₹30 lakh D) ₹35 lakh Correct Ans: D

Q90)

A) 5,10,000 B) 4,80,000 C) 4,60,000 D) 4,70,000 Correct Ans: D

Q91) Study the given table and answer the question.

The table displays the number of cars produced (in lakhs) by six different brands between 2018 and 2023.

Find the difference in the average production of B and D during 2018-2023.

A) 6 lakhs B) 4 lakhs C) 5 lakhs D) 5.5 lakhs Correct Ans: C

Q92)

A) 30,00,000 B) 40,00,000 C) 16,00,000 D) 20,00,000 Correct Ans: D

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Q93) The given bar graph shows the actual production and targeted production of electric cars from 2019 to
2022. Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.

What is the ratio of the total targeted production of cars in2021 and2022 tothe actual production of cars
from 2019 to 2022 taken together?
A) 32 : 25 B) 25 : 36 C) 36 : 25 D) 25 : 32 Correct Ans: D

Q94)

A) 302.42% B) 402.42% C) 102.42% D) 202.42% Correct Ans: D

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Q95)

A) 75% B) 90% C) 65% D) 80% Correct Ans: D

Q96) Annual income of five schools (in lakhs)

In case of how many schools, the income by semester fee, is less than three times of donation?

A) 2 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

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Q97)

A) ₹68.75 B) ₹56.25 C) ₹62.15 D) ₹58.45 Correct Ans: B

Q98)

A) 13 : 9 B) 13 : 7 C) 11 : 7 D) 11 : 9 Correct Ans: D

Q99) The following table shows the categorisation of 100 students based on their marks in Physics and
Chemistry in an examination.

If a minimum of 40% marks in Chemistry is required to pursue higher studies in Chemistry, how many
students will be eligible to pursue higher studies in Chemistry?
A) 66 B) 25 C) 45 D) 21 Correct Ans: A

Q100) Study the given table and answer the question.

Year Rice gm/day Wheat gm/day Pulses gm/day Vegetables gm/day

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 2019 450 55 160 280
2020 430 60 150 300
2021 380 65 140 320
2022 350 70 125 400
2023 350 80 120 350

For which year is the daily consumption equal to that of another given year?
A) 2019 and 2022 B) 2019 and 2023 C) 2021 and 2023 D) 2020 and 2022 Correct Ans: A

Q101) The classification of 100 students based on the marks obtained by them in English and Mathematics in
an examination is given in the table below. Study the table and answer the question that follows.
MARKS OUT OF 50
40 and 30 and 20 and 10 and 0 and
SUBJECT
above above above above above
ENGLISH 10 31 80 92 100
MATHEMATICS 3 23 65 81 100
AGGREGATE 7 27 73 87 100

If at least 40% marks in Mathematics are required for pursuing higher studies in Mathematics, how many
students will be eligible to pursue higher studies in Mathematics?

A) 55 B) 65 C) 70 D) 50 Correct Ans: B

Q102) Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar-graph shows the sales of books (in thousands) from six branches (B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6) of
a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

What percentage of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales of
branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?
A) 65.25% B) 87.5% C) 80.25% D) 78.5% Correct Ans: B

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Q103) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The given table shows the production of different types of refrigerators in a company.
Types of Refrigerators
Years A B C
2011 2018 1800 1932
2012 2040 1890 1800
2013 2035 1910 1890
2014 2020 1940 1978
2015 1997 1960 1900
In which of the given year(s) was the production of B type refrigerator closest to its average production
over the given years?

A) Both 2012 and 2013 B) Both 2013 and 2015 C) 2014 D) Only 2012 Correct Ans: A

Q104) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The following table shows the percentage distribution of students in four different schools during the
years 2021-22.

If there was a total number of 16,000 and 18,000 students during the years 2021 and 2022 respectively,
then the difference in number of students in school 4 in 2022 with respect to 2021 is:
A) 240 B) 280 C) 180 D) 380 Correct Ans: B

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Q105)

A) 698 B) 1048 C) 1074 D) 1047 Correct Ans: D

Q106)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q107)

A) 3 B) 1 C) 0 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

Q108)

A) 2019 B) 2018 C) 2015 D) 2016 Correct Ans: D

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Q109) The table shows the production of different types of bikes (in thousands).

The number of years, in which the production of bikes of type C is less than the average production of
type A bikes over the years is

A) 4% B) 3% C) 1% D) 2% Correct Ans: D

Q110) The given bar graph shows the turnover of five companies (in crores).

What is the difference between the average sales turnover of all the companies put together between the
years 2018-2019 and 2019-2020?
A) ₹5 crore B) ₹2 crore C) ₹6.5 crore D) ₹3.5 crore Correct Ans: A

Q111) The given bar graph shows the turnover of five companies (in crores).

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 What is the difference between the average sales turnover of all the companies put together between the
years 2018-2019 and 2019-2020?.
A) ₹6.5 crore B) ₹2 crore C) ₹5 crore D) ₹3.5 crore Correct Ans: C

Q112) The following pie chart shows the distribution of the percentage of students in various courses at the
university. The total number of students (boys and girls only) in the university is 7000.

In B.Com, there are 60% girls and in B.Sc. C.Sci, there are 40% boys. The total number of girls who took
admission in B.Sc C.Sci and B.Com courses is what percentage of the total students admitted to the
university?

A) 25% B) 29% C) 23% D) 27% Correct Ans: D

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Q113)

A) More, 24% B) Less,24% C) Less, 21% D) More, 21% Correct Ans: C

Q114) Consider the following table for total exports of goods of 5 companies over 5 years (in lakhs).

If the ratio of exports to the imports of companies S and U in the year 2015 is 3 : 2 and 1 : 2, respectively,
then, the total imports (in ₹ lakhs) of companies S and U together in the year 2015 is:

A) 121 B) 174 C) 187 D) 157 Correct Ans: B

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Q115)

A) 38,450 B) 42,577 C) 40,263 D) 39,376 Correct Ans: D

Q116) Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the production of refrigerators by three companies in 2018.

The refrigerators produced by company C form what percentage of the total production?
A) 34.35% B) 32.56% C) 30.25% D) 31.25% Correct Ans: D

Q117) The following table shows the expenditure of a company (in ₹ lakh) per annum over the given years.
Study the table and answer the question that follows.

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 The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is what percentage of the total
amount of fuels and transport paid during this period (correct to two places of decimals)?
A) 3.92% B) 2.39% C) 3.29% D) 2.93% Correct Ans: D

Q118) The following table shows the total candidates appeared and number of candidates present, in different
exam centres – P, Q and R.
Study the table and answer the question that follows.

‘Total’ denotes total candidates applied for the centre,‘Present’ denotes the candidates appeared.
In which year was the number of absentees the second highest in total of all centres?
A) 2018 B) 2017 C) 2020 D) 2019 Correct Ans: D

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Q119)

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q120) Study the following table and answer the question that follows.
Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) Per Annum over Different Heads in the Given Years

The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what
percentage of the total amount of salary paid during this period? (Rounded off to the nearest integer.)
A) 2% B) 1.5% C) 2.5% D) 1% Correct Ans: D

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Q121)

A) 1276 B) 1479 C) 1113 D) 1364 Correct Ans: C

Q122) The given pie chart shows the amount of money (₹) spent (in degrees) on various sports by a sports
academy in a particular year. Study the pie chart and answer the question that follows.

If ₹42,000 were spent on Soccer, then the money spent on Badminton, Tennis and Rugby taken together
is what percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal places) more/less than the money spent on Cricket,
Swimming and Hockey taken together?

A) Less, 34.87% B) More, 28.95% C) More, 34.87% D) Less, 28.95% Correct Ans: D

Q123) The bar graph below shows the production of coffee (in lakh tons) by four companies A, B, C and D over
a period of four years from 2010 to 2013. Study the graph and answer the question that
follows.

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 The combined average production for four years of companies A and C is what percentage (rounded off
to 2 decimal places) more/less than the combined average production for four years of companies B and
D?
A) Less, 7.81% B) More, 10.51% C) More, 7.81% D) Less, 10.51% Correct Ans: A

Q124)

A) Mumbai B) Bengaluru C) Hyderabad D) Hyderabad and Mumbai Correct Ans: C

Q125) The bar graph given below shows the sales of books from six schools during two consecutive years,
2013 and 2014.

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 What percentage of the average sales of the schools A, B, and C in 2014 is the average sales of schools
A, C, and F in 2013?
A) 81.08% B) 81% C) 80% D) 80.08% Correct Ans: A

Q126)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

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Q127)

A) 360 B) 480 C) 640 D) 540 Correct Ans: B

Q128)

A) 7.2 B) 12.5 C) 10.4 D) 8.3 Correct Ans: A

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Q129)

A) 6.75 B) 6.25 C) 5.25 D) 5.75 Correct Ans: A

Q130) The given graph represents the data on the ages of various children.
Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.

What is the difference between the mean and mode of the ages?
A) 2 B) 0.5 C) 1 D) 0 Correct Ans: D

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Q131)

A) 86,100 B) 96,100 C) 90,500 D) 80,500 Correct Ans: B

Q132)

A) 94% B) 98% C) 95% D) 96% Correct Ans: D

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Q133)

A) 238.5 B) 271.25 C) 314.75 D) 284.55 Correct Ans: B

Q134)

A) 80 : 79 B) 80 : 71 C) 71 : 80 D) 79 : 80 Correct Ans: A

Q135) The following pie chart shows the percentage distribution of a total of 1600 employees in different
departments of a company. The table shows the ratio of male to female employees in different
departments. Study the information and answer the question that follows.

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 What is the percentage of the number of employees in production department to the number of female
employees of all the departments taken together? (correct to one decimal place)

A) 64.3% B) 50.7% C) 44.9% D) 59.1% Correct Ans: D

Q136)

A) 360 B) 240 C) 480 D) 600 Correct Ans: C

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Q137)

A) 66.09% B) 76.09% C) 76.07% D) 66.07% Correct Ans: C

Q138)

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 5 Correct Ans: A

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Q139)

A) ₹2,52,500 B) ₹2,40,750 C) ₹2,43,750 D) ₹2,48,750 Correct Ans: C

Q140)

A) 3.2% B) 2.4% C) 2.9% D) 3.8% Correct Ans: C

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Q141)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q142)

A) 36.6% B) 26.6% C) 28.4% D) 25.5% Correct Ans: B

Q143) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table represents the number of scooters (in thousands) manufactured by four companies A, B, C
and D from the period 2012 to 2015.

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 The average number of scooters produced by company D is what per cent (rounded off to 2 decimal
places) more than the combined average number of scooters produced by the three companies A, B,
and C?
A) 52.75% B) 27.25% C) 44.66% D) 35.35% Correct Ans: D

CHSL Exam 2024 Tier I

Q1)

A) D B) C C) A D) B Correct Ans: B

Q2)

A) 78 B) 80 C) 82 D) 84 Correct Ans: C

Q3) The distribution of total 1500 students in a school for different games is shown in the following figure.
Study the given figure carefully and answer the question that follows.

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 Find the total number of students selected for cricket and tennis.
A) 825 B) 525 C) 415 D) 625 Correct Ans: A

Q4)

A) 166 B) 168 C) 170 D) 172 Correct Ans: A

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Q5)

A) 30-39 B) 80+ C) <18 D) 50-59 Correct Ans: C

Q6)

A) 100 B) 350 C) 300 D) 400 Correct Ans: B

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Q7)

A) 29400 B) 23500 C) 19400 D) 27400 Correct Ans: A

Q8)

A) 17 B) 19 C) 13 D) 18 Correct Ans: D

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Q9)

A) 10 lakhs B) 2 lakhs C) 5 lakhs D) 15 lakhs Correct Ans: A

Q10)

A) A,B B) C,D C) B,C D) B,D Correct Ans: A

Q11) Refer to the bar graph below and answer the question that follows.

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 What is the difference between the number of students enrolled in Institute A in 2015 and 2017 and that in
Institute B in 2016, 2018 and 2019?
A) 40 B) 150 C) 75 D) 100 Correct Ans: A

Q12)

A) 240 B) 120 C) 160 D) 200 Correct Ans: B

Q13) The bar graph represents the production of different spare parts of computer in different months.

The ratio between the number of pen drives produced in the month of Jan, March and April is:
A) 1 : 1 : 2 B) 1 : 1 : 1 C) 1 : 1 : 3 D) 3 : 1 : 2 Correct Ans: A

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Q14)

A) Yasin B) Vishwanath C) Siva Raman D) Paramjit Kaur Correct Ans: C

Q15)

A) 25 : 23 B) 5 : 3 C) 23 : 25 D) 3 : 5 Correct Ans: C

Q16) The number of subjects in which the students of a class have failed is given in the following table.

Find the total number of students who have failed in more than 3 subjects.
A) 11 B) 10 C) 17 D) 12 Correct Ans: A

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Q17)

A) 766 B) 756 C) 750 D) 700 Correct Ans: B

Q18)

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

Q19)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q20) Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar-graph represents the number of boys and girls in different sections of class 12.

The average number of girls in each section is:

A) 42 B) 43 C) 37 D) 40 Correct Ans: D

Q21) The given line graph shows the number of scooters manufactured (in thousands) by companies X and Z,
over the years.

In which of the following years was the difference between the production by companies X and Z the
maximum among the given years?
A) 2018 B) 2017 C) 2020 D) 2019 Correct Ans: B

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Q22)

A) 80 and 81 B) 81 and 80 C) 78 and 80 D) 80 and 78 Correct Ans: A

Q23) The details of books of 6 subjects on the first floor of the college library are given in the following table.

The ratio of Maths and Computers to Circuit Theory and Graph Theory is:
A) 1 : 3 B) 2 : 1 C) 3 : 1 D) 2 : 3 Correct Ans: C

Q24)

A) 1 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 Correct Ans: B

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Q25)

A) 144% B) 22% C) 35% D) 120% Correct Ans: A

Q26)

A) 30 B) 40 C) 20 D) 10 Correct Ans: B

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Q27)

A) 60% B) 90% C) 47.4% D) 9% Correct Ans: B

Q28)

A) 10000 B) 10080 C) 12300 D) 11000 Correct Ans: B

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Q29)

A) 1997 B) 1998 C) 1995 D) 1994 Correct Ans: B

Q30)

A) 3 : 1 B) 5 : 1 C) 4 : 1 D) 2 : 1 Correct Ans: D

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Q31)

A) 2017 B) 2019 C) 2016 D) 2018 Correct Ans: B

Q32)

A) 230 B) 430 C) 320 D) 340 Correct Ans: D

Q33)

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A) 108° B) 34° C) 120° D) 45° Correct Ans: A

Q34)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q35)

A) 5 B) 4 C) 2 D) 3 Correct Ans: C

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Q36)

A) 140 B) 310 C) 450 D) 224 Correct Ans: C

Q37) The following pie chart represents the percentage domestic expenditure of Raman over his family. Study
the pie chart carefully and answer the question given below.

After paying the House Rent and expending over Food and Children’s Education, what is Raman's
remaining monthly income (in ₹)?

A) 12,750 B) 20,250 C) 15,750 D) 29,250 Correct Ans: C

Q38) Study the given graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

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 On the bases of this multiple bar graph, What is the change in the number of Literature books from the
year 2020 to the year 2023.

A) 1000 more B) 2000 less C) No change D) 2000 more Correct Ans: B

Q39) The following bar graph represents the percentage marks obtained in grade 9, 10, 11 and 12 students in
Economics, English and History. Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the question that
follows.

If the full marks in Economics is 100, English is 80 and History is 50, then find the total marks obtained by
grade 10 students.
A) 190 B) 220 C) 200 D) 245 Correct Ans: A

Q40) The following bar graph represents the production of three types of buses by a company over the years
(in thousands).

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 In which of the following years was the percentage production of B type buses to C type buses, the
maximum?

A) 2015 B) 2013 C) 2016 D) 2014 Correct Ans: A

Q41)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q42)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q43)

A) A and D B) B and E C) D and E D) A and E Correct Ans: D

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Q44)

A) Swift B) Echo C) Zen D) Sx4 Correct Ans: B

Q45)

A) 71% B) 70% C) 29% D) 30% Correct Ans: C

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Q46)

A) Management B) Engineering C) Arts D) Science Correct Ans: A

Q47)

A) 1.165% B) 1.175% C) 1.155% D) 1.185% Correct Ans: B

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Q48)

A) 28.8° B) 27.2° C) 28.6° D) 27.6° Correct Ans: A

Q49) Study the given chart based on the population using different types of transport in the given cities.
Assuming that no person uses more than one type of transport, answer the question that follows.

What is the percentage of people using all types of transportation in Pune to the total number of people
using all types of transportation in all cities?

A) 23.08% B) 22.08% C) 33.08% D) 28.08% Correct Ans: A

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Q50)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q51)

A) 15° B) 48° C) 54° D) 24° Correct Ans: C

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Q52)

A) A and B B) B and C C) C and D D) B and D Correct Ans: C

Q53)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q54) The given line graph shows the number of scooters manufactured (in thousands) by companies X and Z,
over the years.

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 What is the average number of scooters manufactured by company X over the given period?
A) 126500 B) 213000 C) 256000 D) 116500 Correct Ans: D

Q55)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q56)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q57)

A) 9.6 hrs and 84 marks B) 6.4 hrs and 84 marks C) 40 hrs and 21 marks D) 6.4 hrs and 90 marks Correct Ans: B

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Q58)

A) 5,987 B) 4,520 C) 6,993 D) 7,052 Correct Ans: C

Q59) Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.
An electric vehicle company produces three different car models – A, B and C. The production of three
different models over a period of four years (in lakhs) has been shown the bar-graph.

The total production of model C in 2021 and 2022 is what percentage of the total production of model A in
2019 and 2020?
A) 102.26% B) 105.22% C) 115.57% D) 122.22% Correct Ans: D

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Q60)

A) ₹ 1400 crore B) ₹ 1325 crore C) ₹ 1350 crore D) ₹ 1225 crore Correct Ans: B

Q61)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q62)

A) Rs.21,200 B) Rs.26,150 C) Rs.19,450 D) Rs.22,950 Correct Ans: D

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Q63)

A) 10 B) 30 C) 0 D) 20 Correct Ans: C

Q64)

A) D and Q B) Q and C C) C and D D) A and Q Correct Ans: A

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Q65)

A) 1500 B) 500 C) 750 D) 1000 Correct Ans: A

Q66)

A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

Q67) An electric vehicle company produces three different car models: A, B and C. The production of three
different models over a period of four years has been shown in the bar graph below.

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 What is the difference between the average production of Model A in 2019, 2021 and 2022 and the average
production of Model B in 2020, 2021 and 2022?
A) 95,000 cars B) 80,000 cars C) 45,000 cars D) 50,000 cars Correct Ans: D

Q68)

A) 3 B) 1 C) 4 D) 2 Correct Ans: A

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Q69)

A) 1510 B) 1360 C) 1220 D) 1440 Correct Ans: D

Q70) The following graph shows the production of milk in 4 states in 2010 and 2011.

The difference between the average production (in thousand tonnes) for all state in both years is:

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A) 6.25 B) 6.75 C) 7.75 D) 7.25 Correct Ans: A

Q71)

A) June, 4 B) June, 3 C) April, 3 D) May, 3 Correct Ans: B

Q72)

A) 81.32% B) 50% C) 71.43% D) 78.57% Correct Ans: C

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Q73)

A) 7 : 10 B) 7 : 13 C) 7 : 15 D) 17 : 10 Correct Ans: A

Q74)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q75)

A) 2018 B) 2014 C) 2017 D) 2019 Correct Ans: A

Q76)

A) P.G. + M.Phil. B) Entrepreneur + Ph.D. C) Entrepreneur + P.G. D) P.G. + Ph.D. Correct Ans: D

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Q77)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

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Q78)

A) 3,850 B) 385 C) 375 D) 3,750 Correct Ans: D

Q79)

A) ₹32 crores B) ₹30 crores C) ₹35 crores D) ₹40 crores Correct Ans: B

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Q80)

A) ₹5 B) ₹4.50 C) ₹6.50 D) ₹6 Correct Ans: A

Q81)

A) 3 : 1 B) 3 : 2 C) 2 : 3 D) 1 : 3 Correct Ans: C

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Q82)

A) Arts B) Management C) Engineering D) Science Correct Ans: A

Q83)

A) 86.2% B) 88.4% C) 87.5% D) 82.3% Correct Ans: C

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Q84)

A) 25 less B) 30 more C) 25 more D) 30 less Correct Ans: B

Q85)

A) 6.82% B) 5.81% C) 5.82% D) 7.11% Correct Ans: A

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Q86)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q87)

A) B B) A C) C D) D Correct Ans: B

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Q88)

A) B; C B) B; B C) C; C D) C; B Correct Ans: B

Q89)

A) 172 B) 127 C) 610 D) 106 Correct Ans: D

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Q90)

A) O B) M C) N D) P Correct Ans: B

Q91)

A) B; Z B) A; Y C) A; X D) B; Y Correct Ans: D

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Q92)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q93)

A) 2 B) 3 C) 1 D) 4 Correct Ans: B

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Q94)

A) 2 : 1 B) 1 : 4 C) 4 : 1 D) 1 : 2 Correct Ans: A

Q95)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q96)

A) 11 B) 6 C) 10 D) 8 Correct Ans: C

Q97)

A) 98% B) 28% C) 30% D) 70% Correct Ans: A

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Q98)

A) 45.2 B) 46.9 C) 45.9 D) 42.9 Correct Ans: C

Q99)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q100)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q101)

A student is marked as qualified if he/she obtains marks above 40.5. Here, the ratio of the number of
qualified students to that of students who are not qualified is:

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A) 9 : 2 B) 5 : 1 C) 19 : 4 D) 17 : 4 Correct Ans: C

Q102)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q103) The following bar graph represents the total number of students enrolled and the number of students
who got campus placement in six different engineering colleges A, B, C, D, E, and F. Study the graph
carefully and answer the question given below:

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 What per cent (correct up to two decimal places) of total enrolled students have got campus placements
in colleges A, C, and F?
A) 86.67% B) 77.78% C) 82.78% D) 79.67% Correct Ans: B

Q104)

A) 175 B) 160 C) 180 D) 190 Correct Ans: A

Q105)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q106)

A) 1991 B) 1992 C) 1990 D) 1989 Correct Ans: C

Q107)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

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Q108)

A) English B) Math C) Economics D) Science Correct Ans: A

Q109)

A) 0 B) 2 C) 1 D) 3 Correct Ans: B

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Q110)

A) 3600000 B) 5000000 C) 6000000 D) 4600000 Correct Ans: B

Q111)

A) Kiwi, 23 B) Apple, 28 C) Orange, 23 D) Kiwi, 22 Correct Ans: B

Q112)

A) 117.6 lakhs B) 78.4 lakhs C) 201.6 lakhs D) 130.67 lakhs Correct Ans: B

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Q113)

A) 27 B) 81 C) 66 D) 21 Correct Ans: D

Q114) The given line graph shows the number of scooters manufactured (in thousands) by companies X and Z,
over the years.

What is the approximate difference between the total production by companies X and Z in the given
years?
A) 205000 B) 292000 C) 192000 D) 210000 Correct Ans: C

Q115) Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar-graph shows the production (in lakh) of kitchen appliances manufactured by three companies A,
B, and C over a period of six years from 2012 to 2017.

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 In which year was the percentage of rise / fall in production from the previous year the maximum for
company C?
A) 2013 B) 2017 C) 2016 D) 2015 Correct Ans: C

Q116)

A) B) C) D)
Correct Ans: A

Q117)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: C

Q118) The following line graph shows the units manufactured by a company in some months. In which month
did the company report the highest growth (in %) in production as compared with the respective

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 previous month’s production?

A) July B) October C) June D) September Correct Ans: C

Q119)

A) Two wheelers B) Commercial vehicles C) Passenger vehicles D) Two wheelers and Passenger vehicles

Correct Ans: C

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Q120)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q121)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q122)

A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 2 Correct Ans: D

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Q123)

A) 15.8 million B) 16.8 million C) 17.8 million D) 14.8 million Correct Ans: A

Q124)

A) 5175 B) 9000 C) 2250 D) 1575 Correct Ans: D

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Q125)

A) 25 B) 40 C) 30 D) 50 Correct Ans: A

Q126)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

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Q127)

A) 14 B) 6 C) 11 D) 10 Correct Ans: A

Q128)

A) 4.425 years B) 2.425 years C) 1.425 years D) 3.425 years Correct Ans: C

Q129) Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
Ratio of imports to exports from two companies over the years.

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 In how many of the given years were the imports more than the exports of Company N ?

A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 Correct Ans: D

Q130)

A) C B) A C) B D) D Correct Ans: B

Q131) A company has five plants for manufacturing spare parts. Each plant manufactures local quality and
export quality. What is the ratio of the production of local quality and export quality units of the highest
manufacturing plant?

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A) 2 : 11 B) 4 : 1 C) 3 : 1 D) 7 : 3 Correct Ans: C

Q132)

A) 425 B) 444.5 C) 430.5 D) 440.5 Correct Ans: D

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Q133)

A) ₹4.43 lakh B) ₹4.7 lakh C) ₹4.5 lakh D) ₹5.2 lakh Correct Ans: A

Q134)

A) ₹186 crores B) ₹294 crores C) ₹150 crores D) ₹268 crores Correct Ans: B

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Q135)

A) Lead acid B) Sodium C) M-Air D) Li-ion Correct Ans: A

Q136)

A) 5 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4 Correct Ans: B

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Q137)

A) M-Air B) Li-ion C) Sodium D) Lead acid Correct Ans: C

Q138)

A) 88.15% B) 76.53% C) 81.21% D) 80.12% Correct Ans: C

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Q139)

A) 2005 B) 2009 C) 2008 D) 2006 Correct Ans: A

Q140) Study the following graph and answer the question that follows.
The following bar graph shows the percentage profit earned by two companies A and B over the given
years.

The incomes of two companies A and B in 2006 were in the ratio 3 : 4, respectively. What was the
respective ratio of their expenditures in 2006?
A) 14 : 19 B) 7 : 22 C) 27 : 35 D) 15 : 22 Correct Ans: D

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Q141)

A) 65 B) 81.25 C) 84.5 D) 62.5 Correct Ans: C

Q142)

A) 4000 B) 40 C) 400 D) 4 Correct Ans: A

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Q143)

A) 21% more B) 21% less C) 19% less D) 19% more Correct Ans: C

Q144)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

MTS Non Tech Havaldar CBIC and CBN Examination 2024

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Q1) Refer the following data table and answer the question.

What was the increase in the height (in cm) of the child from the 7th birthday to the 8th birthday?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 7 D) 5 Correct Ans: B

Q2)

A) English B) Science C) Mathematics D) Hindi Correct Ans: C

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Q3)

A) 2014 B) 2012 C) 2013 D) 2015 Correct Ans: A

Q4)

A) February B) March C) January D) April Correct Ans: A

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Q5)

A) A B) Both B and C C) C D) B Correct Ans: C

Q6)

A) Tuesday B) Monday C) Friday D) Wednesday Correct Ans: C

Q7)

A) 3AA B) AA C) 5AA D) 2AA Correct Ans: C

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Q8)

A) Company C, in 2011 B) Company A, in 2011 C) Company B, in 2009 D) Company A, in 2010 Correct Ans: B

Q9) Marks (out of 100) of four students in Hindi, English and Mathematics are given in the following table.
Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.

What is the overall percentage marks obtained by Shilpee in the given three subjects?
A) 77% B) 80% C) 79% D) 78% Correct Ans: A

Q10)

A) A4 B) A2 C) A1 D) A3 Correct Ans: B

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Q11)

A) 12320 B) 13690 C) 11230 D) 10290 Correct Ans: B

Q12) The following table shows the marks obtained by five students in five different subjects. Study the table
carefully and answer the question that follows.
The maximum marks in each subject = 100.
Subject/StudentA B C D E
Jacob 56 44 40 33 35
Arjun 90 94 62 86 74
Ashwin 66 72 64 84 92
Rashad 78 42 66 48 76
Neha 58 54 48 72 88

What is the difference between the total marks obtained by Ashwin in all subjects together and that of the
total marks obtained byNeha in all subjects together?
A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q13)

A) 789 B) 826 C) 956 D) 712 Correct Ans: D

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Q14)

A) 2 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3 Correct Ans: B

Q15) The table given below shows the marks obtained by five students in 4 different subjects. Maximum marks
for each subject is 100.

What is the average of total marks obtained by all five students in subject V?
A) 65.3 B) 68.8 C) 72.7 D) 69.2 Correct Ans: B

Q16) The following graph shows the actual and target revenue (in crores) of an industry in five different
branches. Study the graph and answer the question:

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 The ratio of total actual revenue to the total target revenue over all the branches is:
A) 17 : 16 B) 14 : 13 C) 16 : 17 D) 13 : 14 Correct Ans: C

Q17)

A) 820 B) 680 C) 975 D) 790 Correct Ans: D

Q18) The table below shows the number of students enrolled in four colleges over the four years.

What is the average number of students studying per year in college Q over the given years?

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A) 548 B) 505 C) 473 D) 455 Correct Ans: C

Q19)

A) 18 B) 20 C) 25 D) 22 Correct Ans: B

Q20)

A) 1404 B) 1403 C) 1401 D) 1402 Correct Ans: B

Q21)

A) 55% B) 40% C) 50% D) 45% Correct Ans: C

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Q22) The number of three different types of motor bikes B1, B2, and B3 manufactured by a company in three
months is given in the following table. Study the given table carefully and answer the question that
follows.
Motor
Bikes / October November December
Months
B1 107 121 145
B2 95 100 80
B3 43 40 20

What is the average number of motor bikes manufactured by the company in the month of November?
A) 89 B) 87 C) 86 D) 88 Correct Ans: B

Q23) Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar-graph given below shows the average marks scored by six students (A, B, C, D, E and F) in
Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry. The maximum marks of each subject is 100.

Find the difference between the total marks scored by B in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry to the
total marks scored by F in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
A) 42 B) 24 C) 21 D) 12 Correct Ans: C

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Q24)

A) Lucknow B) Delhi C) Mumbai D) Patna Correct Ans: B

Q25)

A) 1898 B) 1799 C) 1678 D) 1520 Correct Ans: B

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Q26)

A) 334 B) 314 C) 374 D) 354 Correct Ans: A

Q27) Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the following question.

What was the difference in the production of food grains between 1991 and 1994?
A) 500 tons B) 5000 tons C) 15000 tons D) 10000 tons Correct Ans: D

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Q28)

A) 25 B) 40 C) 30 D) 35 Correct Ans: C

Q29) The table shows the production of different types of cars (in thousands).

What is the ratio of the total production of cars of type Q in 2020 and type R in 2022 taken together to the
total production of cars of type S in 2019 and type P in 2021 taken together?
A) 16 : 35 B) 35 : 16 C) 17 : 22 D) 22 : 17 Correct Ans: A

Q30) Study the given table carefully and answer the question that follows.
The below table shows the production of the number of bottles (1 L) of soft drinks of three companies
during 2016-2020.
Year A (in lakhs) B (in lakhs) C (in lakhs)
2016 38000 43000 52000
2017 42000 52000 58000
2018 53000 65000 63000
2019 30000 35000 32000
2020 20000 25000 28000
What was the percentage decrease in B's production in 2020 as compared to B's production in 2018
(approximate to two decimals)?
A) 60% B) 75.50% C) 61.54% D) 85.56% Correct Ans: C

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Q31)

A) 259 B) 260 C) 261 D) 262 Correct Ans: C

Q32) The following bar graph represents the annual result of five classes (VI to X) of a school. Study the bar
graph carefully and answer the question given below:

What is the average number of students in the given five classes?

A) 44 B) 57 C) 53 D) 47 Correct Ans: C

Q33) Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph shows the annual exam average marks for five sections of class XI in Biology,
Mathematics and Chemistry. The maximum marks of each subject is 100.

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 Find the ratio between the average marks of five sections scored in Biology to the average marks scored
in Chemistry.
A) 2 : 5 B) 459 : 457 C) 1 : 3 D) 59 : 37 Correct Ans: B

Q34)

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A) 39 : 47 B) 47 : 39 C) 32 : 45 D) 45 : 32 Correct Ans: C

Q35) The data for the production of four products P, Q, R and S by four cities A, B, C and D is given in the
table.

Which product has the highest total production by all cities?

A) S B) R C) Q D) P Correct Ans: C

Q36) The following graph represents the production of electric scooters (in thousands) for the years 2020 and
2021 from five manufacturers P, Q, R, S, and T.

The ratio of the average production by allmanufacturers in 2021 to the average production by
allmanufacturers in 2020 is:
A) 15 : 17 B) 14 : 15 C) 13 : 14 D) 17 : 13 Correct Ans: D

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Q37)

A) 595 : 576 B) 376 : 295 C) 576 : 595 D) 295 : 376 Correct Ans: C

Q38) The demand and production for five businesses, V, W, X, Y, and Z, are shown in the accompanying chart,
which illustrates them using a basic bar graph to provide an answer.

If the demand of company Z is k times than that of company W, then find the value of k.
A) 8 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 Correct Ans: D

Q39) The following bar graph shows the production of cement (in 10,000 tones) by 4 companies X, Y, Z and W
during the period 2018 - 2020. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question.
Which company has the maximum average production over the course of 3 years?

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A) X B) W C) Z D) Y Correct Ans: A

Q40)

A) 368 B) 259 C) 300 D) 332 Correct Ans: A

Q41)

A) 0 to 1 B) 2 to 4 C) 1 to 3 D) 5 to 6 Correct Ans: B

Q42) The given graph shows the production of food grains by a state (in 1000 tons) over the years from 1989 to
1996. Study the graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

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 In how many of the given years was the production of food grains more than the average production of
the given years?
A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 1 Correct Ans: C

Q43) Refer to the following data table and answer the question. The maximum marks for each subject is 100.
Subjects Marks Scored
Math 83
Science 51
Hindi 68
English 62
Sanskrit 71

Seven marks are to be deducted from each subject because of poor attendance. What will be the net
average marks scored by the student?
A) 65 B) 60 C) 67 D) 56 Correct Ans: B

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Q44)

A) 606 : 925 B) 892 : 731 C) 995 : 761 D) 925 : 605 Correct Ans: A

Q45) Refer the following data table and answer the question.
Day of the week Distance jogged (in kms)
Monday 3.5
Tuesday 4
Wednesday 4.2
Thursday 5.3
Friday 6.1
Saturday 3
Sunday 5.9

If 750 calories are burnt by jogging 6 km, how many calories were burnt in the given week?
A) 2500 B) 4000 C) 3500 D) 3000 Correct Ans: B

Q46) Monthly incentives (in ₹) of three employees Rohit, Juli and Ankit of a company during three months are
given in the following table. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follows.

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 What is the ratio of incentives received by Juli and Rohit in May?
A) 89 : 60 B) 10 : 17 C) 60 : 89 D) 17 : 10 Correct Ans: B

Q47) Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar graph given below shows the percentage of marks obtained by four students A, B, C and D in
Maths, Science and English.

If the full marks in Maths are 150, Science are 100 and English are 140, then find the total marks obtained
by Student B in Maths and Student A in English.
A) 275 B) 250 C) 257 D) 247 Correct Ans: D

Q48) The given bar graph shows the production of onions (in quintals) from the year 2018 to 2022. Study the
graph and answer the question that follows.

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 Considering the average production during this period, the number of years in which the production is
above the average is:
A) 1 B) 4 C) 2 D) 3 Correct Ans: C

Q49)

A) 287 B) 267 C) 217 D) 317 Correct Ans: C

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Q50)

A) 6300 B) 6800 C) 7500 D) 8400 Correct Ans: A

Q51) In an office, the data of employees in four different categories from three different cities B, C and D is
given below in bar graph.

In which category is the difference between the numbers of employees from any two different cities
maximum?
A) 4 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1 Correct Ans: B

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Q52)

A) 65 : 42 B) 9 : 5 C) 17 : 13 D) 58 : 55 Correct Ans: C

Q53) The demand and production for five businesses V, W, X, Y, and Z are shown in the accompanying chart,
which illustrates them using a basic bar graph to provide an answer.

The difference between average demand and average production of the four companies (V, W, X, Y) taken
together, is:
A) 75 B) 100 C) 125 D) 50 Correct Ans: B

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Q54)

A) 15% B) 10% C) 25% D) 20% Correct Ans: D

Q55) Annual income of five schools (in lakhs)

For school R, income from Miscellanous is what percentage (in%) of income from Donation?
A) 225 B) 250 C) 125 D) 75 Correct Ans: A

Q56) The bar graph shows the number of cars and the number of total vehicles in thousands, registered in
given months. What was the total number of vehicles other than cars registered in the given months?

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A) 55000 B) 52000 C) 48000 D) 54000 Correct Ans: A

Q57) The given graph shows the production of food grains of a country in different years. Study the graph and
answer the question that follows.

The percentage increase in production from 2010 to 2011 was (Rounded off to 2 decimal places):
A) 6.38% B) 4.23% C) 5.12% D) 7.46% Correct Ans: D

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Q58)

A) 16,100 B) 15,400 C) 15,600 D) 16,300 Correct Ans: C

Q59)

A) Architecture Programme, 2005 B) Computer Science Programme, 2004 C) Architecture Programme, 2004

D) Pure Sciences Programme, 2003

Correct Ans: A

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Q60)

A) 16% B) 18% C) 80% D) 96% Correct Ans: A

Q61) Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the data of the number of accidents by three types of vehicles: X, Y and Z in four cities:
P, Q, R and S.

The maximum number of accidents in all cities are due to vehicles of type:
A) Y B) Z C) X D) X and Z both Correct Ans: B

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Q62)

A) 216 B) 265 C) 162 D) 378 Correct Ans: A

Q63) The below table shows the population of men and women (in ratio) for five cities. Study the below table
carefully and answer the question that follows.
City Population Men : Women
Kanpur 4500 5:4
Bangalore 1547 4:3
Pune 1818 5:1
Mumbai 1547 3:4
Jabalpur 1089 4:5

What is the difference between the total number of men of Mumbai and Pune together and number of
women in Jabalpur and Bangalore together?
A) 572 B) 760 C) 910 D) 747 Correct Ans: C

Q64) The graph given below represents the number of students (in thousands), who opted for the given three
subjects during the given four years.

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 Out of the total number of students who opted for the given three subjects in the year 2022, 42% were
girls. How many boys chose the given three subjects?
A) 40,600 B) 29,300 C) 31,500 D) 38,900 Correct Ans: A

Q65)

A) B and D B) C and E C) Band C D) A and D Correct Ans: D

Q66)

A) 5 B) 6 C) 3 D) 4 Correct Ans: D

Q67) The graph shows the number of students who appeared and passed in class XII final exams in a school in
different years.

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 In which year is the percentage of students passed with respect to students appeared the highest?
A) 2020 B) 2019 C) 2022 D) 2021 Correct Ans: C

Q68)

A) 4.8 B) 4.4 C) 3.7 D) 3 Correct Ans: A

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Q69) The given bar graph shows the income and expenditure (in thousand ₹) of a family in four different years.

What percentage, more or less, is the total savings of the family in the last two years (2019 and 2020)
when compared to the total savings of the family in the initial two years (2017 and 2018)?
(Savings = Income – Expenditure)
A) 10.5% more B) 13.5% less C) 11.5% less D) 12.5% more Correct Ans: D

Q70)

A) 194 : 201 B) 121 : 291 C) 201 : 194 D) 291 : 101 Correct Ans: C

Q71) The actual and targeted production (in thousands) of shoes of a company during the last five years are
given in the following bar graph. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows:

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 The total actual production in 2020 and 2021 is what per cent of the total targeted production in 2021 and
2022? (correct up to two decimal places)
A) 67.59% B) 70.59% C) 80.95% D) 77.67% Correct Ans: B

Q72)

A) ₹780 crores B) ₹760 crores C) ₹800 crores D) ₹820 crores Correct Ans: A

Q73) The bar graph given below shows the sale of toys (in thousands) from five branches of a manufacturer
for two consecutive years, 2021 and 2022.

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 Total sales of branch B4 for both years is what percentage of the total sales of branch B2 for both years?
(up to two decimal places)
A) 108.82% B) 91.89% C) 116.47% D) 85.85% Correct Ans: A

Q74) The graph shows the data of the number of accidents by three types of vehicles: X, Y and Z in four cities:
P, Q, R and S.
Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.

The correct increasing order of the cities as per the total number of accidents by all types of vehicles is:
A) R, Q, P, S B) R, P, Q, S C) S, R, Q, P D) S, R, P, Q Correct Ans: A

Q75) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the marks obtained by three students: A, B and C in Mathematics, Chemistry and
Physics.
Maximum marks for each subject is 100.

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 What is the difference in the average marks per student in Mathematics and Physics, respectively?
A) 8.5 B) 6 C) 6.5 D) 8 Correct Ans: D

Q76) The given table shows the number of students studying Computer Science Engineering and Data
Structures from six colleges.Study the table to answer the question that follows.

What percentage of the students in college A5 study Data Structures out of the students studying CSE
and DS?
A) 42% B) 52% C) 54% D) 46% Correct Ans: D

Q77) The given bar graph represents the number of residents living in a society during the past five years.
Study the graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

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 What is the per cent decrement in the number of residents in 2021 as compared to the previous year?
(correct up to two decimal places)
A) 44.58% B) 53.42% C) 46.58% D) 50.24% Correct Ans: C

Q78) Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the following question.

What was the percentage (in%) drop in the production of food grains from 1991 to 1992?
A) 25 B) 15 C) 30 D) 20 Correct Ans: A

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Q79) The following bar graph shows the failure rates per thousand for different electric components:

Failure rate of Printed circuit board is what percentage of Capacitors?

A) 165% B) 61% C) 154% D) 65% Correct Ans: A

Q80) The bar graph given below shows the earnings of three LIC agents (in rupees lakh) from LIC commission
during the year 2018 to 2022. The total earnings of agent A is what per cent of the total earnings of agent
C during the year 2020 to 2022? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

A) 93.18% B) 91.38% C) 98.13% D) 96.98% Correct Ans: A

Q81) The given bar graph shows the marks obtained by five students in Exam I and Exam II.Study the graph
carefully to answer the question that follows.

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 The marks obtain by Naveen in Exam-II are what per cent of the total marks obtained by all five students
in Exam-II?
A) 25% B) 35% C) 28.5% D) 31.5% Correct Ans: A

Q82) The following bar graph shows the export and import of goods (in lakh numbers) of a company in
consecutive years 2018 to 2022. What will be the growth percentage for imports from 2018 to 2021?
(Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

A) 83.33% B) 76.53% C) 88.53% D) 94.63% Correct Ans: A

Q83) The bar graph presents the quantity of biscuits exported (in lakh tons) and their value (in crore ₹) over

the given years.

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 What was the percentage increase in value of the biscuits exported from 1985 to 1987 (correct to 2 decimal
places)?
A) 44.25% B) 48.48% C) 44.36% D) 44.22% Correct Ans: B

Q84) Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the sales of three products: P, Q and R by four companies: A, B, C and D.

How much more in percentage is the total sales of R than total sales of P (rounded off to one decimal
place)?
A) 26.9% B) 22.9% C) 26.2% D) 29.6% Correct Ans: A

Q85) The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by five students (A,B,C,D and E) in different
subjects. (Maximum marks are given beside subjects)

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 How many more or fewer marks did Student A obtain in English, as compared to the marks obtained by
Student E in the same subject?
A) 20 less B) 15 less C) 20 more D) 15 more Correct Ans: C

Q86) Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph shows the sale of toys (in thousands) from five branches of a manufacturer for two
consecutive years, 2021 and 2022.

What is the difference between the average sales (in thousands) of all the five branches in 2021 and
2022?
A) 15.4 B) 18.4 C) 17.4 D) 16.4 Correct Ans: C

Q87) Study the bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar graph shows the income and expenditure (in ₹ crores) of a company in 5 years during 2018 to
2022.

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 In which year is the ratio of income to expenditure 2nd highest?
A) 2022 B) 2018 C) 2019 D) 2020 Correct Ans: D

Q88)

A) 0 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1 Correct Ans: D

Q89) The bar graph shows the number of books published by a company in different years. In which year(s)
the number of books published is more than the average number of books published in the mentioned

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 years?

A) 2014, 2016, 2018 and 2020 B) 2016, 2018 and 2020 C) 2018 and 2020 D) Only 2020 Correct Ans: C

Q90)

A) 880 B) 860 C) 900 D) 840 Correct Ans: B

Q91)

A) 30.68% B) 30.33% C) 38.06% D) 36.08% Correct Ans: A

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Q92)

A) 7.93% B) 8.02% C) 8.93% D) 9.93% Correct Ans: C

Q93) The distribution of fruit consumption in a sample of 85 sixteen-year-old boys is given in the graph below.
Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

What percentage of these boys ate five or more servings per day? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
A) 17.13% B) 20.04% C) 14.32% D) 21.18% Correct Ans: D

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Q94)

A) Less, 24% B) More, 21% C) More, 24% D) Less, 21% Correct Ans: B

Q95)

A) 3rd hour B) 1st hour C) 4th hour D) 2nd hour Correct Ans: B

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Q96)

A) 957 B) 558 C) 693 D) 782 Correct Ans: C

Q97) Study the given graph and answer the question that follows.
The graph shows the data of production of items: W, R and T by four companies: S, D, F and G as
percentage of their total productions.

If the total productions of F and S are 2000 and 3000, respectively, the difference in the productions of R
by these companies is:
A) 150 B) 100 C) 250 D) 200 Correct Ans: D

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Q98) Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph represents the average percentage marks obtained in English, Hindi and General
Knowledge by students of four centres (A, B, C and D).

If the full marks in English is 150, Hindi is 50 and General Knowledge is 200, then find the difference
between the total marks of the centre A and D.
A) 28.25 B) 29.5 C) 25 D) 27.5 Correct Ans: D

Q99)

Study the below graph carefully and answer the question.

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 What is the percentage increase in the price of Diesel from April to July (rounded off to one digit after
decimal)?

A) 69.5% B) 88.8% C) 76.5% D) 89.3% Correct Ans: B

Q100) Study the table and answer the question.

The number of girls whose height is above 125 cm is

A) 19 B) 23 C) 14 D) 25 Correct Ans: D

Q101) The given bar graph shows the imports and exports (in ₹ crores) of steel of a country during the years
2013 to 2017.

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 .
What is the percentage of the total imports for the years 2013, 2015 and 2017 to the exports for all the
years taken together (correct to one decimal place)?
A) 53.8% B) 51.6% C) 54.7% D) 52.4% Correct Ans: D

Q102) The following graph represents the production of electric scooters (in thousands) for the years 2020 and
2021 from five manufacturers P, Q, R, S, and T.

What is the percentage by which the total production of all manufacturers in the year 2021 exceeds the
total production of manufacturers in the year 2020? (Round to the nearest integer)
A) 31% B) 29% C) 38% D) 42% Correct Ans: A

Q103) The bar graph given below represents the number of students(in thousands), who opted three different
specialization during four given years in a University.

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 The total number of students in the university in 2021 was 1,60,000; find the percentage of the students
who opted for the given three subjects.
A) 47.35% B) 45.73% C) 43.75% D) 73.45% Correct Ans: C

Q104)

A) 21.15% B) 22.93% C) 19.25% D) 26.32% Correct Ans: B

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Q105)

A) 43.75% B) 46.75% C) 56.25% D) 43.25% Correct Ans: A

Q106) The given bar graph shows the distribution of the total expenditure (in hundreds) of a school under
various expense heads in the year 2022.

The total amount of expenditure of the school is how many times of its expenditure on advertisement?
Correct Ans: D
A) B) C) D)

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Q107)

A) 48,250 B) 51,240 C) 45,230 D) 41,360 Correct Ans: B

Q108)

A) 92.04% B) 85.36% C) 82.07% D) 90.25% Correct Ans: A

Q109) The given bar given shows the income and expenditure (in ₹ lakh) of 5 companies (A, B, C, D, and E) in
the year 2022. Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

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 Which company earned the maximum percentage profit in the year 2022?
A) D B) C C) E D) B Correct Ans: A

Q110)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

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Q111)

A) 21.47% B) 20.36% C) 18.27% D) 23.25% Correct Ans: A

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Q112)

A) 67.10% B) 50.71% C) 60.71% D) 61.71% Correct Ans: C

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Q113)

A) 24% B) 35% C) 39% D) 29% Correct Ans: C

Q114) The following table indicates the distances (in km) travelled by 4 vehicles (A, B, C and D) in 2 days and
the bar graph indicates the time (in hours) taken by the vehicles to travel the distances, respectively.
The x - axis indicates the time (in hours) and the y - axis indicates the vehicles. Study the bar graph
carefully and answer the question that follows.

Time taken by 4 vehicles to travel thedistances.

Which of the following vehicles travelled at the same speed on both the days?

A) Only A and C B) A, C and D C) Only A and D D) Only C and D Correct Ans: A

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Q115)

A) 33% B) 39% C) 28% D) 42% Correct Ans: B

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Q116)

A) 88.9% B) 91.1% C) 90.3% D) 93.6% Correct Ans: B

Q117)

A) 26% less B) 34% more C) 34% less D) 26% more Correct Ans: D

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Q118) The given bar graph shows the number of bicycles produced by a company from 1996 to 2000. Study the
given bar graph and answer the question that follows.

The combined number of bicycles produced during 1996, 1997 and 2000 is what percentage (rounded off
to 1 decimal place) of the combined bicycles produced from 1996 to 2000?

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: D

Q119) The x and y co-ordinates of six points are tabulated as below. Observe the table carefully and answer
the given question.
Points X-co-ordinate Y-co-ordinate
A 15 42
B 20 46
C 18 44
D 16 48
E 21 50
F 22 52

Find the distance between F and C.

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: B

Q120) Study the given bar graph and answer the question that follows.
The given bar graph shows the number of students enrolled in institutes A and B during 5 years (2018 to
2022).

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 What is the percentage of the total students enrolled in institute A in year 2019 and 2020 to that of the
total students enrolled in institute B? (Correct to one decimal place)
A) 41.2% B) 40.1% C) 38.6% D) 43.5% Correct Ans: B

Q121)

A) 24.5% B) 18.2% C) 17.5% D) 20.3% Correct Ans: C

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Q122) Study the following graph carefully and answer the question given below it.

In which of the following years was the percentage increase in production from the previous year the
maximum among the given years?
A) 1995 B) 1991 C) 1990 D) 1993 Correct Ans: C

Q123) The following bar graph represents the quantity of grains produced in a state in the years 2014, 2015
and 2016. Study the given bar graph and answer thequestion that follows.

What is the difference in the percentage of wheat production in the year 2014 to the percentage of wheat
production in the year 2016? (Round up to two decimal places)
A) 3.45% B) 1.92% C) 4.23% D) 2.35% Correct Ans: D

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Q124)

A) Civil B) Electrical C) Computer Science D) Mechanical Correct Ans: C

Q125) The given bar graph shows the marks obtained by five students in Exam I and Exam II.Study the bar
graph carefully to answer the question that follows.

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 If the marks obtained by Suresh in Exam-I were increased by 14% of the original marks, what would be
his new approximate percentage in Exam-I if the maximum marks in Exam-I were 140?
A) 41% B) 38% C) 57% D) 47% Correct Ans: A

Q126) Study the given bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

The bar graph given below gives the data of production of paper (in lakh tonnes) by 3 different
companies X, Y and Z over the years 2015 to 2018.

Production of Paper (in lakh tonnes)

In which year was the percentage of production of company Y to the production of company Z the
maximum?
A) 2018 B) 2016 C) 2017 D) 2015 Correct Ans: A

Q127) The following bar graph shows the number of scooters manufactured by 4 different companies, P, Q, R
and S, during the years 2015 - 2017. The x - axis indicates the number of scooters manufactured and the
y - axis indicates the companies. Study the bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows.
Manufacture of scooters by 4 companies

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 In which year(s) was the percentage increase in the manufacturing of scooters as compared to the
previous years the maximum for the company R?
A) Only 2016 B) 2016 and 2017 C) Only 2017 D) 2015 and 2017 Correct Ans: A

Q128)

A) 89% B) 87% C) 93% D) 90% Correct Ans: D

Q129) The following bar graph represents the flow of funds of XYZ India Pvt. Ltd from 2015-2020. Calculate the
percentage of average rate (approx.) of the increase in funds from 2015-2017.

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A) 15% B) 30% C) 16% D) 32% Correct Ans: C

SSC CPO PAPER-1 2024

Q1) The following table shows the gross turnover (in crores) of a company over 5 years.

By what percentage is the gross turnover of 2020 higher than the gross turnover of 2018?

A) 5% B) 25% C) 20% D) 13% Correct Ans: C

Q2)

A) 405 B) 420 C) 410 D) 415 Correct Ans: B

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Q3)

A) 3 : 2 B) 2 : 3 C) 1 : 2 D) 2 : 1 Correct Ans: C

Q4)

A) 6 B) 60 C) 0.06 D) 16 Correct Ans: B

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Q5)

A) 150 B) 120 C) 100 D) 80 Correct Ans: B

Q6) The given bar graph shows the strength of employees (in lakhs) of a company during four different years.

What was the percentage increase in employees in 2020 over 2019?

Correct Ans: C
A) B) C) D)

Q7)

A) 1898 B) 1998 C) 1658 D) 1785 Correct Ans: D

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Q8)

A) 20% B) 75% C) 25% D) 70% Correct Ans: B

Q9)

A) Centre 1 B) Centre 4 C) Centre 3 D) Centre 2 Correct Ans: B

Q10)

A) 200 B) 320 C) 195 D) 225 Correct Ans: D

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Q11)

A) 5∶7 B) 7∶5 C) 7∶9 D) 9∶7 Correct Ans: C

Q12) The below table shows the number of trees of 3 different fruits, planted during 2018-2022. Study the table
carefully and answer the question based on it.

What was the percentage increase in the number of mango trees planted in 2020 compared to the number
of mango trees planted in 2018?
A) 15% B) 17.5% C) 30% D) 23.08% Correct Ans: C

Q13)

A) 120% B) 150% C) 130% D) 100% Correct Ans: D

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Q14) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of students in various courses in various cities A, B, C, D and E in India
during the academic year 2022-2023.

In all the cities altogether, what is the difference between the students of science and those of MBA?
A) 4540 B) 4340 C) 4440 D) 4240 Correct Ans: D

Q15) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the production of five types of cars P, Q, R, S and T by a company from the year 1989 to
1994.

In which year was the total production of cars of types P and Q together equal to the total production of
cars of types R and S together?
A) 1991 B) 1992 C) 1993 D) 1989 Correct Ans: C

Q16) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of students in various courses in various cities A, B, C, D and E in India
during the academic year 2022-2023.

What was the average number of students in Science course in the all the cities altogether during the
academic year 2022-2023?

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A) 2250 B) 2240 C) 2220 D) 2200 Correct Ans: B

Q17) The following table shows the marks of a student in 5 tests in the subjects Maths, Physics, and Chemistry
(out of 100 for each subject). Study the table and answer the question that follows.

The ratio of the average marks obtained by the student in test 2 to the average marks he got in Maths in
all tests, is:
A) 21∶25 B) 4∶7 C) 43∶45 D) 4∶3 Correct Ans: C

Q18)

A) ₹1,694 crores B) ₹6,089 crores C) ₹6,098 crores D) ₹1,649 crores Correct Ans: A

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Q19)

A) R B) P C) Q D) S Correct Ans: D

Q20) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of students in various courses in various cities A, B, C, D and E in India
during the academic year 2022-2023.

In city A, the number of students in Medicine is nearly what percentage of MBA?

A) 89% B) 85% C) 87% D) 92% Correct Ans: D

Q21) The table below shows employees of a company in 5 different towns over the period of 5 years.

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 Note: All figures are fictitious.
Employees from Pune in 2018 are what per cent of the total employees of all towns together in that year?
A) 5% B) 4% C) 3% D) 6% Correct Ans: A

Q22)

A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q23)

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 15 Correct Ans: A

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Q24)

A) May B) January C) June D) March Correct Ans: B

Q25)

A) 275 B) 250 C) 220 D) 180 Correct Ans: C

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Q26)

A) 40000 B) 25000 C) 35000 D) 30000 Correct Ans: A

Q27)

A) 70.82% B) 82.22% C) 80.22% D) 76.52% Correct Ans: B

Q28) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of students studying in 6 different classes of 6 different schools.

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 The number of students studying in class X from school P forms approximately what percentage of the
total number of students studying in class X from all schools together?
A) 8% B) 24% C) 32% D) 16% Correct Ans: D

Q29)

A) 3∶4 B) 1∶2 C) 1∶3 D) 2∶3 Correct Ans: C

Q30) The following table shows the yearly production of bags (in thousands) by different companies.

The total production of company A over the given years is what percentage of the total production of
company D over the given years?
A) 98.21% B) 91.82% C) 82.91% D) 89.21% Correct Ans: B

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Q31)

A) 65.21% B) 53.25% C) 73.17% D) 85.25% Correct Ans: C

Q32)

A) 4000 B) 3000 C) 2500 D) 3500 Correct Ans: A

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Q33)

A) 224 B) 222 C) 230 D) 228 Correct Ans: B

Q34) The following table shows the classification of 100 students based on the marks obtained by them in
Maths and Science in an examination.

What is the difference between the number of students who passed with 60 as cut-off marks in Science
and those who passed with 60 as cut-off marks in aggregate?
A) 6 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 Correct Ans: C

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Q35)

A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 Correct Ans: A

Q36)

A) 500 B) 400 C) 2000 D) 1000 Correct Ans: B

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Q37)

A) 55 B) 46 C) 54 D) 45 Correct Ans: C

Q38)

A) 40 more B) 40 less C) 30 less D) 30 more Correct Ans: A

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Q39)

A) 1985 B) 1986 C) 1988 D) 1989 Correct Ans: A

Q40)

A) 50000 B) 40000 C) 30000 D) 20000 Correct Ans: A

Q41)

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A) B) C) D) Correct Ans: A

Q42)

A) The average achievement of the boys and girls is same.

B) The average achievement of the girls is more than that of the boys.

C) The given data is insufficient to draw any meaningful conclusion.

D) The average achievement of the boys is more than that of the girls.

Correct Ans: B

Q43)

A) 41.18% B) 70% C) 60% D) 54.64% Correct Ans: A

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Q44)

Correct Ans: A
A) B) C) D)

Q45)

A) 1986 B) 1985 C) 1988 D) 1987 Correct Ans: B

Q46)

A) Mumbai B) Rajasthan C) Uttarakhand D) Uttar Pradesh Correct Ans: B

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Q47)

A) ₹3,547 B) ₹4,573 C) ₹3,745 D) ₹4,375 Correct Ans: C

Q48) Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The table shows the number of students studying in 6 different classes of 6 different schools.

The number of students studying in class VII from school U forms approximately what percentage of the
total number of students from all the classes together from that school?
A) 17% B) 19% C) 15% D) 21% Correct Ans: A

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Q49)

A) 50 B) 120 C) 30 D) 40 Correct Ans: C

Q50)

A) 78.20% B) 76.25% C) 82.39% D) 74.19% Correct Ans: D

Q51) Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows.
The pie-chart shows the amount of money (in ₹) spent (in degrees) on various sports by a school
administration in a particular year.

If ₹21,000 was spent on Football, then the money spent on Tennis and Basketball taken together is what
percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal places) of money spent on Hockey and Cricket taken together?

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A) 39.65% B) 47.25% C) 32.75% D) 23.50% Correct Ans: C

Q52) The following table shows the marks obtained out of 100, by four students in four different subjects.

The total marks scored by Ronak in all the subjects is what percentage of the total marks scored by
Shivam, Sonu, Arnav together in all the subjects?
A) 40.63% B) 44.46% C) 34.63% D) 30.46% Correct Ans: D

Q53) The following table gives the number of males, females, educated males and educated females in a
village over the years 2016 - 2020. Study the table carefully and answer the question.

Find the percentage of the total number of educated females to the total number of females over all the
years (up to 2 decimal places).
A) 0.9233 B) 0.8333 C) 0.8923 D) 0.8623 Correct Ans: B

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Q54)

A) 429 B) 356 C) 405 D) 324 Correct Ans: A

Q55)

A) 80.95% B) 80.84% C) 91.95% D) 90.86% Correct Ans: C

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Q56)

A) 256 B) 226 C) 286 D) 206 Correct Ans: C

Q57)

A) 12.93% B) 10.70% C) 11.25% D) 9.77% Correct Ans: D

Q58) The following table shows the classification of 100 students based on the marks obtained by them in
Maths and Science in an examination.

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 Find the number of students scoring less than 40% marks in aggregates.
A) 22 B) 26 C) 24 D) 28 Correct Ans: A

Q59)

A) 6050 B) 6250 C) 6120 D) 6270 Correct Ans: D

Q60) The following pie chart represents the data of movies released in a city throughout a year.

The combined angle made by Jan-Mar and Jul-Sep is ____________ than the combined angle made by
Apr-Jun and Oct-Dec.

A) 80° more B) 40° more C) 80° less D) 40° less Correct Ans: D

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Q61)

A) 1990 B) 1992 C) 1991 D) 1993 Correct Ans: D

Q62)

A) 22.5% B) 28% C) 25% D) 20% Correct Ans: B

Selection Post XII

Q1) The pie-chart below illustrates the different fruit yields from a farmer's land that were sold to a fruit shop
during a specific week. study the chart and answer the question that follows.

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 If a total of 900 kg of fruits were sold that week, find the difference in sales (in kg) between oranges and
grapes.
A) 70 B) 60 C) 75 D) 45 Correct Ans: D

Q2)

A) 95 B) 92 C) 96 D) 97 Correct Ans: D

Q3)

A) 62290 B) 61200 C) 62000 D) 61000 Correct Ans: B

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Q4)

A) 2011 B) 2010 C) 2012 D) 2009 Correct Ans: C

Q5) The pie chart given below shows the monthly expenditure of a family (in rupees) on various items.If the
total earning is ₹70,560, then find the difference between the amount spent on Education and Rent.

A) ₹7,804 B) ₹8,047 C) ₹7,056 D) ₹8,407 Correct Ans: C

Q6)

A) 1850 B) 1450 C) 1520 D) 1625 Correct Ans: C

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Q7)

A) 91 B) 97 C) 94 D) 92 Correct Ans: C

Q8)

A) 2004 B) 2002 C) 2003 D) 2005 Correct Ans: D

Q9)

A) 18 B) 16 C) 17 D) 15 Correct Ans: C

Q10)

A) 532 B) 575 C) 540 D) 552 Correct Ans: A

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Q11) The pie chart given below shows the number of students enrolled in class VI to class X of a school. If
1250 students are enrolled in VI to X, then find the sum of students enrolled in class VIII and IX.

A) 575 B) 616 C) 516 D) 661 Correct Ans: A

Q12)

A) ₹19,220 B) ₹19,210 C) ₹19,200 D) ₹19,230 Correct Ans: C

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Q13)

A) 112 B) 95 C) 75 D) 45 Correct Ans: B

Q14)

A) Krishna B) Rameshwar C) Bitthal D) Ramagya Correct Ans: C

Q15)

A) 60 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50 Correct Ans: C

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Q16)

A) 25% B) 70% C) 65% D) 75% Correct Ans: D

Q17) The following bar graph shows the failure rates (in thousands) for different electric components:

How many times is the failure rate of hybrid micro circuits compared to that of signal devices?
A) 0.4 B) 2.5 C) 5.2 D) 4 Correct Ans: B

Q18) Who among the following scored the maximum overall percentage?

A) Bhumika B) Jyoti C) Sanjana D) Simran Correct Ans: B

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Q19)

A) 2.5 billion B) 2 billion C) 1.5 billion D) 3 billion Correct Ans: B

Q20)

A) 16.1% B) 18.2% C) 16.8% D) 29.1% Correct Ans: A

Q21) The following table shows the percentage of marks obtained by five students in four subjects in an
examination.

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 How many students scored more than 60% of marks in all the four subjects?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2 Correct Ans: D

Q22) The bar graph given below shows sales of table fans (in thousand numbers) from five showrooms during
two consecutive years 2021 and 2022. The total sales of showroom B for both years is what per cent of
the total sales of showroom E for both years? (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)

A) 0.7869 B) 0.7499 C) 0.7694 D) 0.7949 Correct Ans: D

Q23) Which of the following recorded the highest growth rate in manufacturing units from the year 2021 to the
year 2022?

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A) D B) A C) E D) B Correct Ans: A

Q24)

A) More, 25.5% B) Less, 25.5% C) More, 28.5% D) Less, 28.5% Correct Ans: D

Q25) The following table shows the number of voters at 5 different centres P, Q, R, S and T and the percentage
of people who voted in an election.

If the number of invalid votes cast at Centre S was 20% of the total number of votes cast, then what
percentage of the total number of registered voters cast invalid votes at Centre S?

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A) 20% B) 25% C) 18% D) 22% Correct Ans: C

Q26)

A) Rs.160 crores B) Rs.104 crores C) Rs.200 crores D) Rs.145 crores Correct Ans: C

Q27) The following table gives the number of post-graduate students enrolled in 4 different colleges A, B, C,
and D in a city over the years 2015-2018 and also the number of students who passed the final
examination during these years. Study the table carefully and answer the question.

Find the percentage of students who passed from college C over all the years put together to the number
of students enrolled in college A over all the years (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
A) 1.0021 B) 1.0112 C) 1.0321 D) 1.0212 Correct Ans: C

Q28) The following table shows the % of marks obtained by three students in three different subjects in a
school exam. (The maximum marks in each subject are shown in the table at the top)

Find the total marks obtained by Varun and Seema together in Science.
A) 178 B) 189 C) 126 D) 145 Correct Ans: B

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Q29)

A) More, 12.7% B) Less, 14.1% C) Less, 12.7% D) More, 14.1% Correct Ans: B

Q30) The given pie-chart shows the number of students admitted into various schools, A, B, C, D, E, in a town.
The total number of students is 6500. The number of boys in each school is given by the table. Study the
pie-chart and the table carefully and answer the question that follows.

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 The total number of boys in schools A, C, D is what percentage of the total number of girls in schools B,
C, E (rounded to 2 decimal places)?
A) 1.2863 B) 1.2062 C) 1.2662 D) 1.2963 Correct Ans: D

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