Prelims Practice Questions:

1. Consider the following statements regarding alternative dispute resolution mechanisms in India:
1. Mediation is a non-binding process focused on collaboration, often used in family disputes and
business conflicts.
2. Conciliation involves a conciliator who may propose solutions, and it is governed by the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996.
3. Lok Adalats have the authority to enforce legally binding decisions and are established under the
Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
4. Consumer Redressal Forums operate at district, state, and national levels, addressing grievances
related to goods and services.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the Above
Answer: b
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is Correct as mediation is a non-binding process focused on collaboration.
• Statement 2 is Correct; Conciliation is governed by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, and
involves a proactive role for the conciliator.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect as Lok Adalats are established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987,
not the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, and focus on amicable settlements rather than legally binding
decisions.
• Statement 4 is Correct as Consumer Redressal Forums are structured to resolve disputes related to
goods and services at different jurisdictional levels.

2. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Ease of Doing Business' index:
1. The 'Ease of Doing Business' index was published by the IMF to rank countries based on their
regulatory environment for starting and operating a business.
2. In 2023, the 'Ease of Doing Business' report was discontinued due to concerns about data integrity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: The 'Ease of Doing Business' index was published by the World Bank (not
IMF).
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: The World Bank discontinued the 'Ease of Doing Business'
report in 2021 (not 2023), citing concerns about data integrity and other issues
related to the accuracy and reliability of the data used in the rankings.

3. Which of the following correctly describes Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)?

a) Large-scale nuclear reactors that require extensive infrastructure.
b) Solar panels that are modular and can be easily deployed.
c) Small nuclear fission reactors designed for modular construction and flexible deployment.
d) Wind turbines that are smaller in size and output.
Answer: c
Explanation: Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) are smaller nuclear fission reactors that offer modular
construction and flexible deployment, typically producing between 10 MWe to 300 MWe per unit.

4. The Pathogen Access and Benefit Sharing (PABS) system, sometimes mentioned in news, primarily
aims to:
a) Restrict the sharing of pathogen samples to prevent bioterrorism
b) Implement a universal vaccine distribution system independent of sample origins
c) Establish a global repository of pathogen samples for future research
d) Ensure developing countries receive benefits in exchange for providing genetic resources and
pathogen samples
Answer: d
Explanation: Pathogen Access and Benefit Sharing (PABS) aims to ensure that genetic resources and
pathogen samples provided by developing countries are reciprocated with corresponding benefits such
as vaccines and diagnostics, addressing inequitable distribution issues observed during the COVID-19
pandemic.

5. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of a privilege motion is:

a) To address a breach of parliamentary privileges by a member or minister
b) To propose a new law or amendment to existing legislation
c) To allocate additional funds for a specific government project
d) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
Answer: a
Explanation: A privilege motion is specifically designed to address issues where a member or minister
has allegedly violated the privileges or rights of the House or its members. This includes actions like
withholding essential information or presenting misleading facts. The purpose of the motion is to
formally censure the individual involved and ensure adherence to parliamentary standards.

6. Consider the following statements:

1. India currently has 3.3 GW of pumped storage capacity.
2. Nearly 76% of India's pumped storage capacity is in Telangana and West Bengal. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: According to data from the Central Electricity Authority, India's operational
pumped hydro storage capacity stood at 3.3 GW as of March 2024.
Statement 2 is correct: Nearly 76% of this capacity is in Telangana and West Bengal.

7. Which of the following statements correctly describes a revenue deficit in the context of State
finances in India?
a) A revenue deficit arises when a State's capital receipts exceed its revenue receipts, necessitating
borrowing to meet public expenditure.
b) A revenue deficit occurs when a State’s revenue receipts are insufficient to meet its revenue
expenditure, leading to reliance on borrowing for capital investments.
c) A revenue deficit is when a State’s revenue expenditure surpasses its total revenue receipts, including
grants and taxes, indicating a shortfall in covering day-to-day expenses.
d) A revenue deficit is identified when a State’s total expenditure on capital projects exceeds its revenue
receipts, requiring adjustment through central grants.
Answer: c
Explanation: A revenue deficit occurs when a State's revenue expenditure (spending on public services,
salaries, etc.) exceeds its total revenue receipts (taxes, grants, and other income), reflecting an
imbalance between income and essential spending. This type of deficit highlights a gap in covering
regular expenses and can signal the need for financial adjustments or additional support.

8. What is the primary objective of subclassification within SCs and STs, as ruled by the Supreme Court?
a) To eliminate reservation policies altogether
b) To promote political representation among dominant groups
c) To ensure that affirmative action policies are more equitably distributed among the most
marginalized and underserved communities
d) To introduce a creamy layer concept within the SC and ST categories
Answer: c
Explanation: The primary objective of subclassification within SCs and STs is to ensure that affirmative
action policies are more equitably distributed among the most marginalized and underserved
communities. By recognizing the varying levels of disadvantage within these groups, the Supreme Court
aims to tailor reservations to target those who need them most, thereby improving the effectiveness of
social justice measures.

9. Under Article 342 of the Indian Constitution, who has the authority to notify certain tribes as
Scheduled Tribes?
a) The Governor of a State
b) The Prime Minister
c) The President of India
d) The Chief Justice of India
Answer: c
Explanation: Article 342 empowers the President of India to designate certain tribes as Scheduled Tribes
through a public notification. This authority lies solely with the President, not with state governors or
other officials.

9. Consider the following statements regarding Money Bills in the Indian Parliament:
1. Article 110(1) of the Indian Constitution lists the subjects that can qualify a Bill as a Money Bill,
which include taxation, borrowing, and appropriations from the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Article 110(3) grants the Rajya Sabha the final authority to determine whether a Bill is a Money
Bill.
3. The Finance Act, 2017, was challenged in the Supreme Court on grounds that it included
provisions affecting the authority and jurisdiction of tribunals, which went beyond the typical
scope of a Money Bill.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: Article 110(1) defines the subjects that can qualify a Bill as a Money Bill,
including taxation, borrowing, and appropriations from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 110(3) gives the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha, the
final say on whether a Bill is a Money Bill.
Statement 3 is Correct: The Finance Act, 2017, was challenged in the Supreme Court for including
provisions affecting the functioning of tribunals, which was argued to be beyond the scope of a Money
Bill.

10. Consider the following statements regarding the Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC)
Model and the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) for road projects:
1. In the EPC Model, the private company is responsible for the road construction and is paid by
the government.
2. The Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) requires the private player to provide up to 40% of the project
cost, while the government provides the remaining cost and also takes responsibility for
maintaining the road.
3. Under the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM), the private player is responsible for maintaining the
road during the concession period, while the government owns the road and collects the tolls.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 only
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct. Under the EPC Model, the private company is hired to construct the road and is
paid by the government. The private company does not bear financial risks nor does it have
responsibilities related to toll collection; these are handled by the government.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. In the Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM), the government provides up to 40% of
the project cost, and the private player is responsible for the remaining balance, not the government.
Additionally, the private player maintains the road during the concession period.
Statement 3 is Correct. The Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) combines elements of the EPC and Build-
Operate-Transfer (BOT) models. In this model, the private player is responsible for maintaining the road
throughout the concession period, while the government owns the road and collects the tolls.

11. Which of the following models involves the private sector bearing the investment risk, building the
project, maintaining it for a specified period, and recovering costs through toll collection during the
concession period?
a) Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC) Model
b) Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM)
c) Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) Model
d) Public-Private Partnership (PPP) Model
Answer: c
Explanation: The BOT model involves the private sector bearing the investment risk, building the
project, maintaining it for a specified period, and recovering costs through toll collection during the
concession period.

12. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are
related to:
a) Constitutional reforms
b) Ganga Action Plan
c) Linking of rivers
d) Protection of Western Ghats
Answer: d
Explanation: The original recommendations by the Madhav Gadgil committee in 2011 proposed that the
entire Western Ghats region be declared ecologically sensitive. However, due to state objections, a
subsequent committee led by K. Kasturirangan halved the protected area and allowed states to propose
their own ESAs. A new committee, constituted in 2022, is currently examining state concerns and is
expected to recommend a final notification. This committee aims to balance conservation needs with
developmental aspirations.

13. Consider the following statements:

1. Procedural equality aims to achieve equitable outcomes by recognizing and addressing inherent
disparities and systemic barriers, ensuring that all individuals have access to similar results and
benefits.
2. Substantive equality focuses on ensuring fairness and equality in the processes and procedures
used to make decisions, emphasizing equal treatment and opportunities regardless of the
outcome.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) Only statement 1 is correct.
b) Only statement 2 is correct.
c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
d) Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: Procedural equality does not aim to achieve equitable outcomes; rather, it
emphasizes fairness in processes and procedures, ensuring that everyone is treated the same way
without considering outcomes.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Substantive equality is not about equal treatment in processes; it focuses on
achieving equitable outcomes by acknowledging and addressing disparities and systemic barriers,
ensuring similar results and benefits for all individuals.

14. Who is the current Patron-in-Chief of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)?
a) The Prime Minister of India
b) The Chief Justice of India
c) The President of India
d) The Attorney General of India
Answer: b
Explanation: The current Patron-in-Chief of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the Chief
Justice of India. The Chief Justice of India serves as the head of the Indian judiciary and is the highest-
ranking judge in the Supreme Court of India. As the Patron-in-Chief of NALSA, the Chief Justice provides
leadership and direction to ensure the effective functioning of the legal services authority. Having the
Chief Justice of India as the Patron-in-Chief ensures that NALSA's operations align with judicial standards
and principles, reinforcing its mission to provide legal aid effectively.

15. Cloudbursts are most commonly associated with which geographical region in India?
a) The Thar Desert
b) The Indo-Gangetic Plains
c) The Himalayan region
d) The Western Ghats
Answer: c
Explanation:
Cloudbursts are most commonly associated with the Himalayan region because of its unique
geographical and meteorological conditions.
● Orographic Lifting: The Himalayas force moist air from monsoon winds to rise rapidly, leading to
intense rainfall as the air cools and condenses quickly.
● Monsoon Dynamics: Moist air masses from the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea collide with the
mountain range, causing sudden and heavy precipitation.
● Atmospheric Instability: The region's complex topography creates unstable atmospheric
conditions that favor cloudburst formation.
● Localized Weather Patterns: The Himalayan region experiences sudden weather changes,
leading to unexpected and intense rainfall events.
These factors make the Himalayan region particularly prone to cloudbursts compared to other parts of
India, such as the Thar Desert or the Indo-Gangetic Plains, which lack similar geographic features.

16. What is meant by "formal equality" in the context of legal principles?

a) Treating individuals differently based on their backgrounds.
b) Applying identical standards and treatment to all individuals under the law.
c) Allocating resources based on the needs of different groups.
d) Ensuring that outcomes are equal for all groups.
Answer: b
Explanation: Formal equality in the context of legal principles refers to the idea that all individuals
should be treated the same under the law, without consideration for their individual backgrounds or
circumstances. This approach emphasizes uniform application of rules and standards to ensure equal
treatment for everyone.

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the designation of a national disaster and
the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)?
1. A national disaster is declared when the impact of a disaster exceeds the capacity of state
governments to manage, necessitating a coordinated national response.
2. The NDRF is managed by the Ministry of Finance and is used exclusively for infrastructure
development in disaster-affected areas.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct. A national disaster designation is made when the impact is too severe for state
governments to handle alone, requiring national-level intervention and resources.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. The NDRF is managed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of
Finance. Additionally, the NDRF is used for disaster response, relief, and rehabilitation, not exclusively
for infrastructure development.
18. Which of the following countries has introduced guidelines under its Anti Monopoly Act to aid
private businesses in horizontal collaborations for realizing a 'green society'?
a) United Kingdom
b) Japan
c) United States
d) Germany
Answer: b
Explanation:
Japan has introduced guidelines under its Anti Monopoly Act to help private businesses navigate
themselves in horizontal collaborations towards the realization of a 'green society.' These guidelines
suggest that most activities seeking environmental sustainability are unlikely to restrict competition and
may have pro-competitive effects that benefit consumers.

19. With reference to the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), consider the following
statements:
1. ANRF is a statutory body.
2. ANRF was established as per the recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
3. ANRF works under the directions and guidance of the Science and Engineering Research Board
(SERB).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: ANRF is a statutory body established with the Anusandhan National Research
Foundation (ANRF) 2023 Act.
Statement 2 is correct: ANRF was established as per the recommendations of the National Education
Policy (NEP) 2020.
Statement 3 is not correct: ANRF does not work under the directions and guidance of the Science and
Engineering Research Board (SERB). Instead, the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) has
been subsumed into ANRF.

20. Consider the following statements regarding Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) and MUDRA Loans in
India:
1. A loan becomes a Non-Performing Asset (NPA) when the principal or interest payment remains
overdue for a period of 180 days or more.
2. Substandard Assets are those that have remained non-performing for more than 12 months.
3. Under the MUDRA scheme, the 'Kishore' category provides loans ranging from ₹50,001 to ₹5
lakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) 1 and 2 only
c) Only 3
d) None of the Above
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect: A loan becomes an NPA when the principal or interest payment remains
overdue for a period of 90 days or more, not 180 days.
Statement 2 is Incorrect: Substandard Assets are those that have remained non-performing for less
than or equal to 12 months, not more than 12 months.
Statement 3 is Correct: The 'Kishore' category under MUDRA provides loans ranging from ₹50,001 to ₹5
lakh.

21. Arrange the following commissions which were constituted for the upliftment of OBCs in
chronological sequence:
1. Kalelkar Commission
2. Mandal Commission
3. Rohini Commission
Which one of the following is the correct sequence?
a) Kalelkar Commission → Rohini Commission → Mandal Commission
b) Mandal Commission → Kalelkar Commission → Rohini Commission
c) Kalelkar Commission → Mandal Commission → Rohini Commission
d) Rohini Commission → Mandal Commission → Kalelkar Commission
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Kalelkar Commission (1953): The first commission constituted to investigate the conditions of
SEBCs.
● Mandal Commission (1979): The second commission established to investigate the conditions of
OBCs.
● Rohini Commission (2017): The latest commission appointed to examine the sub-categorization
of OBC caste groups.

22. The International Conference of Agricultural Economists (ICAE) is organized by which of the following
associations?
a) International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)
b) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
c) International Association of Agricultural Economists (IAAE)
d) World Food Programme (WFP)
Answer: c
Explanation: The International Conference of Agricultural Economists (ICAE) is a major global event held
every three years, organized by the International Association of Agricultural Economists (IAAE). It
gathers agricultural economists, policymakers, and researchers to discuss critical issues in agriculture
and food systems.

23. Despite India's economic growth, which of the following issues continues to pose a significant
challenge to food security in the country?
a) Overpopulation
b) High rates of malnutrition
c) Excessive food exports
d) Lack of agricultural subsidies
Answer: b
Explanation: Despite India's economic growth, high rates of malnutrition continue to pose a significant
challenge to food security. This is evident as 38% of Indian children under five suffer from stunting due
to insufficient access to nutritious food, highlighting the persistent gap between economic development
and nutritional well-being.

24. Which of the following states is NOT traditionally known for its significant contribution to India's
horticulture sector?
a) Kerala
b) Punjab
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Rajasthan
Answer: d
Explanation: Rajasthan is not traditionally known for its significant contribution to India's horticulture
sector due to its arid and semi-arid climate, which is less suitable for intensive horticulture compared to
other regions. While Rajasthan has made progress in horticulture, especially with the cultivation of
specific crops like kinnow (a type of citrus) and some vegetables, its primary agricultural focus has
historically been on crops like wheat, barley, and pulses, which are more suited to its climate.
In contrast:
● Kerala is known for its extensive cultivation of spices like black pepper, cardamom, and cloves,
as well as tropical fruits like bananas and coconuts.
● Punjab is famous for its production of fruits such as kinnow, guavas, and pears, along with a
strong focus on vegetables.
● Himachal Pradesh is known for its apple orchards and the cultivation of other temperate fruits
like plums, cherries, and peaches.

25. Consider the following statements regarding the Waqf Board and its governance in India:
1. A Waqf is a permanent dedication of property for religious, charitable, or pious purposes and
typically consists of immovable assets used to support public institutions like mosques and
schools.
2. The Waqf Board is the largest landholder in India, with over 8 lakh acres of land.
3. The governance of waqf properties in India is regulated by the Waqf Act of 1995, which was
subsequently amended in 2013.
4. India has separate Waqf Boards for Sunni and Shia communities at the state level, each
responsible for managing waqf properties within their jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, and 3 only
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A Waqf involves the permanent dedication of property for religious, charitable,
or pious purposes, typically consisting of immovable assets used for public welfare.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Waqf Board is not the largest landholder in India; it is said to be the third-
largest landholder after the Railways and the Defence department, covering over 8 lakh acres.
Statement 3 is correct: The governance of waqf properties in India is regulated by the Waqf Act of 1995,
which was amended in 2013 to enhance governance and management practices.
Statement 4 is correct: India has separate Waqf Boards for Sunni and Shia communities at the state
level, each responsible for managing waqf properties in their respective states.
26. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of self-preferencing by tech giants?
a) Google's promotion of Google Shopping over competitors in search results.
b) Facebook's acquisition of Instagram to expand its social media presence.
c) Microsoft's bundling of Internet Explorer with Windows operating systems.
d) LinkedIn's use of user data to suggest job opportunities.
Answer: a
Explanation: Self-preferencing refers to a practice where a company prioritizes its products or services
over those of competitors within its ecosystem. Google has been accused of prioritizing its services like
Google Shopping in search results, exemplifying self-preferencing.

27. Which of the following countries were the initial signatories of the Abraham Accords with Israel in
2020?
a) United Arab Emirates and Bahrain
b) Saudi Arabia and Qatar
c) Oman and Yemen
d) Egypt and Jordan
Answer: a
Explanation: The Abraham Accords were signed in September 2020 between Israel, the United Arab
Emirates (UAE), and Bahrain, marking a historic normalization of diplomatic relations. These agreements
aimed to foster peace, economic cooperation, and cultural exchanges in the Middle East.

28. With reference to the Enforcement Directorate (ED), consider the following statements:
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. It operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
3. ED officials are equivalent to police officers and can make arrests under the PMLA.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The ED is not a constitutional body; it is a specialized law enforcement agency
in India.
Statement 2 is correct: The ED operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court clarified that ED officials are not equivalent to police
officers and cannot make arrests under the PMLA.

29. With reference to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA), consider the following
statements:
1. The act was enacted by India in order to comply with the United Nations Convention Against
Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances, 1988.
2. The act mandates banks and financial institutions to furnish to Financial Intelligence Unit-India
(FIU-IND) information relating to all cash transactions of the value of more than rupees ten
lakhs.
3. The act empowers the ED to freeze and seize assets and bank accounts of individuals involved in
money laundering.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
 a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The PMLA was enacted by India to comply with various international
conventions, including the United Nations Convention Against Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and
Psychotropic Substances, 1988.
Statement 2 is correct: The act mandates banks, financial institutions, and intermediaries to furnish to
FIU-IND information relating to all cash transactions of the value of more than rupees ten lakhs.
Statement 3 is correct: The act empowers the ED to freeze and seize assets and bank accounts of
individuals involved in money laundering.

30. Consider the following statements:

1. Aldermen are elected by the public and have voting rights in all MCD meetings.
2. Aldermen are appointed by the Mayor and have no voting rights in any MCD meetings.
3. Aldermen are nominated by the Lieutenant Governor and play a crucial role in Wards
Committees, but do not vote in MCD general meetings.
4. Aldermen are nominated by the Chief Minister and have significant influence over state
legislative decisions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The statement that aldermen are elected by the public and have voting rights in all MCD
meetings is incorrect. Aldermen in the MCD are not elected by the public; they are nominated.
● The statement that aldermen are appointed by the Mayor and have no voting rights in any MCD
meetings is also incorrect. Aldermen are not appointed by the Mayor.
● The statement that aldermen are nominated by the Lieutenant Governor and play a crucial role
in Wards Committees, but do not vote in MCD general meetings is correct. According to the
Delhi Municipal Corporation Act of 1957, aldermen are nominated by the Lieutenant Governor
and have specific roles within Wards Committees.
● The statement that aldermen are nominated by the Chief Minister and have significant influence
over state legislative decisions is incorrect. Aldermen are nominated by the Lieutenant
Governor, not the Chief Minister, and their influence is within the municipal framework, not
state legislative decisions.

31. Which of the following statements correctly describes the differences between cumulonimbus
clouds and pyrocumulonimbus clouds?
1. Cumulonimbus clouds are primarily driven by intense heat from wildfires or volcanic eruptions,
while pyrocumulonimbus clouds form due to atmospheric instability and convection.
2. Both cumulonimbus and pyrocumulonimbus clouds can reach great heights and produce
thunderstorms.
Choose the correct answer:
 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because cumulonimbus clouds are driven by atmospheric instability and
convection, not by intense heat from wildfires or eruptions. Pyrocumulonimbus clouds, on the other
hand, form due to intense heat from fires or volcanic eruptions.
Statement 2 is correct as it accurately describes that both types of clouds can reach great heights and
produce thunderstorms.

32. Which of the following countries is not a member of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral
Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?
a) Bangladesh
b) Bhutan
c) Maldives
d) Myanmar
Answer: c
Explanation: The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
(BIMSTEC) is a regional organization that includes seven member countries. These countries are:
○ Bangladesh
○ Bhutan
○ Nepal
○ India
○ Sri Lanka
○ Myanmar
○ Thailand
Maldives is not a member of BIMSTEC. The organization focuses on enhancing regional cooperation and
integration across various sectors including trade, technology, and economic development among its
member states.

33. Which of the following agreements is more comprehensive and involves the elimination of tariffs
on a wide range of goods and services between member countries?
a) Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA)
b) Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
c) Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA)
d) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
Answer: b
Explanation: A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is a more comprehensive agreement that aims to eliminate
tariffs and reduce trade barriers on a wide range of goods and services between member countries. It
typically involves a negative list of products, meaning it specifies which items are excluded from the
agreement, covering substantial bilateral trade. In contrast, a Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA)
provides preferential access to certain products by reducing tariffs, often focusing on a narrower range
of goods and serving as a stepping stone to a full FTA.

34. With reference to tiger reserves in India, consider the following statements:
 1. Tiger reserves are notified by State Governments on the advice of the National Tiger
Conservation Authority.
2. Approval of the National Board for Wildlife is necessary to alter the boundaries of a tiger
reserve.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct. Tiger reserves are notified by State Governments as per provisions of Section 38V
of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 on the advice of the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
Statement 2: Correct. Approval of the National Board for Wildlife is necessary to alter the boundaries of
a tiger reserve as per Section 38W (1) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

35. Consider the following statements regarding Ayushman Bharat:

● Ayushman Bharat provides health insurance coverage of Rs. 5 lakh per family per year for both
secondary and tertiary healthcare services.
● The scheme is entirely funded by the Central Government for all states and Union Territories.
● The beneficiaries of the scheme are identified based on the latest Socio-Economic Caste Census
(SECC) data.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Ayushman Bharat provides Rs. 5 lakh coverage per family for secondary and
tertiary healthcare.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The funding is shared between the Central Government and State
Governments (60:40 for most states, 90:10 for certain special category states, and 100% Central funding
for UTs without a legislature).
Statement 3 is correct: Beneficiaries are identified based on the SECC data.

36. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding the "One Nation, One Election"
proposal in India?
1. The proposal suggests holding simultaneous elections for the Lok Sabha and all state legislative
assemblies.
2. The main objective of the policy is to reduce the financial burden on the Election Commission
and minimize election-related disruptions in governance. Select the correct answer using the
codes below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct. The "One Nation, One Election" policy advocates for simultaneous elections to
reduce the financial and logistical challenges of holding separate elections at different times.
Statement 2 is Correct. One of the primary goals of the "One Nation, One Election" policy is to reduce
costs and disruptions caused by frequent elections, thereby making governance more efficient and
stable.

37. Consider the following statements about the Great Indian Bustard:
1. The Great Indian Bustard is found exclusively in the state of Rajasthan.
2. It is listed as "Critically Endangered" on the IUCN Red List.
3. The species faces threats primarily due to habitat loss and collisions with power lines.
4. The Great Indian Bustard is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 4 only
d) 2, 3, and 4 only
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Great Indian Bustard is not found exclusively in Rajasthan; it is
mainly found in Rajasthan and Gujarat, with smaller populations in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra
Pradesh.
Statement 2 is correct as the Great Indian Bustard is listed as "Critically Endangered" on the IUCN Red
List.
Statement 3 is correct as the species faces severe threats primarily due to habitat loss, agricultural
expansion, and collisions with power lines.
Statement 4 is incorrect because the Great Indian Bustard is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972, not Schedule II.

38. With reference to the concept of Just Transition, consider the following statements:
1. The concept of Just Transition originated in the 1970s to address the impact of environmental
regulations on workers.
2. The Paris Agreement of 2015 reinforced the concept of Just Transition by emphasizing equitable
distribution of the burdens and benefits of decarbonization.
3. The concept of Just Transition has been traditionally applied to both human communities and
non-human entities such as wildlife and ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct because the concept of Just Transition did originate in the 1970s to address the
impact of environmental regulations on workers.
Statement 2 is correct as the Paris Agreement of 2015 emphasized the importance of Just Transition in
ensuring that the burdens and benefits of decarbonization are distributed equitably.
Statement 3 is incorrect because Just Transition has traditionally focused on human communities,
particularly vulnerable groups, and has not yet been widely applied to non-human entities such as
wildlife or ecosystems.

39. The SECURE Himalaya Project was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate
Change (MoEFCC) in partnership with the:
a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
c) World Bank
d) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The SECURE Himalaya Project was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate
Change (MoEFCC) in partnership with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
● The project focuses on the conservation of high-altitude Himalayan ecosystems and endangered
species like the snow leopard.

40. Consider the following statements regarding the Appendices of CITES (Convention on International
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora):
1. Species listed in Appendix I are those that are not necessarily threatened with extinction but
require strict regulation to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival.
2. Appendix II includes species that are threatened with extinction and trade in specimens of these
species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances.
3. Appendix III includes species that are protected in at least one country, which has asked other
CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect. Species listed in Appendix I are those threatened with extinction and trade in
specimens of these species is permitted only in exceptional circumstances.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. Appendix II includes species that are not necessarily threatened with
extinction but must be controlled to avoid utilization incompatible with their survival.
Statement 3 is Correct. Appendix III includes species that are protected in at least one country, which
has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade.

41. Which of the following criteria are used to determine if a person belongs to the creamy layer among
the Other Backward Classes (OBC) in India?
1. The annual parental income should be less than ₹8 lakh for the past three consecutive financial
years, excluding salary and agricultural income.
2. If either parent is a Group A/Class I officer, the applicant is considered part of the creamy layer.
3. If both parents are Group B/Class II officers or one is promoted to Group A/Class I before 40
years of age, the applicant is considered part of the creamy layer.
4. Income from agricultural activities is included while calculating the annual income limit for the
creamy layer.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The annual parental income should be less than ₹8 lakh for the past three
consecutive financial years, excluding salary and agricultural income.
Statement 2 is correct: If either parent is a Group A/Class I officer, the applicant is considered part of
the creamy layer.
Statement 3 is correct: If both parents are Group B/Class II officers or if one parent is promoted to
Group A/Class I before the age of 40, the applicant is considered part of the creamy layer.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Income from agricultural activities is not included while calculating the annual
income limit for the creamy layer.

42. Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework for refugees with disabilities in
India:
1. The UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD) mandates equal rights
for persons with disabilities, including special attention to women and girls facing multiple forms
of discrimination.
2. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPWDA) in India fully integrates the term
"psychosocial disability" and extends its protections to refugees.
3. Refugees in India have the same access to public health and nutrition programs as Indian
citizens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct. The UNCRPD mandates equal rights for persons with disabilities and emphasizes
special attention to women and girls who face multiple forms of discrimination.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The RPWDA does not fully integrate the term "psychosocial disability" and does
not explicitly extend protections to refugees.
Statement 3: Incorrect. Refugees in India often do not have the same access to public health and
nutrition programs as Indian citizens, relying primarily on government hospitals for healthcare.

43. Which of the following statements correctly distinguish between Adjournment and Adjournment
Sine Die in the context of the Indian Parliament?
a) Adjournment ends a parliamentary session indefinitely, whereas Adjournment Sine Die temporarily
suspends the sitting for a specific period.
b) Adjournment refers to the temporary suspension of a sitting of Parliament for a specified period,
while Adjournment Sine Die suspends a sitting without setting a date for the next meeting.
c) Both Adjournment and Adjournment Sine Die require the President's approval to take effect.
d) Adjournment Sine Die means the Parliament session is dissolved, leading to general elections.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement A: Incorrect. Adjournment temporarily halts a sitting, while Adjournment Sine Die suspends
the sitting indefinitely.
Statement B: Correct. Adjournment refers to the temporary suspension of a sitting, and Adjournment
Sine Die suspends a sitting without setting a date for the next meeting.
Statement C: Incorrect. Neither Adjournment nor Adjournment Sine Die requires the President's
approval; the presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) handles this.
Statement D: Incorrect. Adjournment Sine Die does not dissolve Parliament; it merely suspends the
sitting indefinitely.

44. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of Prorogation in the context of the
Indian Parliament?
a) Prorogation refers to the temporary suspension of a parliamentary sitting for a specified period, after
which the session resumes.
b) Prorogation is the formal ending of a session of the Parliament by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
c) After Prorogation, all pending business in Parliament is automatically carried over to the next session
without exception.
d) Prorogation refers to the formal ending of a session of the Parliament by the President of India, after
which all pending business is usually dropped unless specific provisions allow it to be carried over.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement A: Incorrect. Prorogation ends a session, not a sitting, and is not temporary.
Statement B: Incorrect. Prorogation is carried out by the President, not the Speaker.
Statement C: Incorrect. Pending business is not automatically carried over; it is usually dropped unless
specific provisions allow for it.
Statement D: Correct. Prorogation is the formal ending of a session by the President, and pending
business is usually dropped unless specific provisions allow it to be carried over.

45. Consider the following statements regarding the Clean Plant Programme (CPP) and the Mission for
Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH):
1. The CPP will be implemented by the Coconut Development Board (CDB) in collaboration with
the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
2. The Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) includes components such as
the National Horticulture Mission (NHM) and the Horticulture Mission for North East and
Himalayan States (HMNEH).
3. The National Horticulture Board (NHB) under MIDH focuses on enhancing the production and
productivity of horticultural crops by improving infrastructure and value chain efficiencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1: Incorrect. The CPP will be implemented by the National Horticulture Board, not the
Coconut Development Board.
Statement 2: Correct. MIDH includes components such as the NHM and HMNEH.
Statement 3: Correct. The NHB under MIDH focuses on enhancing the production and productivity of
horticultural crops by improving infrastructure and value chain efficiencies.
46. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India mandates the Office of the Registrar General and Census
Commissioner of India to conduct the decadal population census in India.
2. The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India works under the aegis of
the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Which of the statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1: Incorrect. The responsibility for conducting the census is defined by the Census Act, 1948,
not the Constitution.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The Office operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not MoSPI.

47. Consider the following statements regarding the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
1. SEBI is a statutory body established under the SEBI Act of 1992.
2. Before the establishment of SEBI, the Controller of Capital Issues was the regulatory authority
for capital markets in India.
3. SEBI is empowered with Quasi-Legislative, Quasi-Executive, and Quasi-Judicial powers.
4. SEBI was initially constituted as a statutory body in 1988 by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
d) 1, 2, and 4 only
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1: SEBI is indeed a statutory body established under the SEBI Act of 1992. This statement is
correct.
Statement 2: Before SEBI, the Controller of Capital Issues was responsible for regulating capital markets
in India. This statement is correct.
Statement 3: SEBI possesses Quasi-Legislative, Quasi-Executive, and Quasi-Judicial powers. This
statement is correct.
Statement 4: SEBI was initially established as a non-statutory body in 1988 and became statutory in
1992. This statement is incorrect.

48. Consider the following statements about the International Space Station (ISS):
1. The ISS is a permanently inhabited space laboratory that orbits the Earth at an altitude of
approximately 400 km.
2. The ISS is managed solely by NASA and is primarily used for the research and development of
space technology.
3. The ISS relies on regular cargo missions, such as NASA's Cygnus and SpaceX Dragon, for essential
supplies.
 4. Prolonged space missions aboard the ISS pose significant health risks due to microgravity and
radiation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1: The ISS orbits the Earth at approximately 400 km and has been continuously inhabited
since 2000. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: The ISS is managed by five space agencies: NASA, Roscosmos, JAXA, ESA, and CSA. It is not
managed solely by NASA and serves a broader range of scientific purposes. This statement is incorrect.
Statement 3: The ISS depends on cargo missions such as NASA's Cygnus and SpaceX Dragon for supplies.
This statement is correct.
Statement 4: Prolonged space missions pose significant health risks due to microgravity and radiation.
This statement is correct.

49. Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES):
1. CITES is an international agreement aimed at ensuring that international trade in specimens of
wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
2. The convention was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members
of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).
3. CITES was signed in Washington, D.C., on March 3, 1973, and entered into force on July 1, 1975.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1: This statement accurately describes the purpose of CITES. It is correct.
Statement 2: The convention was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted at a meeting of the
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), not WWF. This statement is incorrect.
Statement 3: The dates and location for the signing and entry into force of CITES are correct. This
statement is correct.

50. Consider the following statements regarding the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI):
1. The DCGI is responsible for approving licenses for all drug categories and medical devices in
India.
2. The DCGI ensures the uniform implementation of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and is the central
licensing authority for medical devices under the Medical Device Rules 2017.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1: The DCGI approves licenses for certain drugs and medical devices but not all categories, as
state authorities also play a role. This statement is incorrect.
Statement 2: The DCGI does ensure the uniform implementation of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and is
the central licensing authority for medical devices under the Medical Device Rules 2017. This statement
is correct.