1

LAKSHYA NEET PRACTICE SHEET

Date: 11-05-2024 Topic Covered PS - 04

Physics : Electric Charge & Field, Potential

Chemistry : Solution
Botany : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants - Artificial hybridisation, Pollen pistil interaction, Double
fertilization, Endosperm
Zoology : Human Reproduction

PHYSICS
1. A square surface of side L metres is in the plane of 5. Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B
the paper. A uniform electric field E (volt/m), also- respectively which are a distance 2L apart, C is the
in the plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower mid point of A and B. The work done in moving a
half of the square surface (see figure). The electric charge +Q along the semicircle CRD is :
flux in SI units associated with the surface is:

qQ qQ
(1) − (2)
60 L 4 0 L
(1) Zero (2) EL2
EL2 qQ qQ
EL2 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 2 0 L 6 0 L
20 2
2. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is lying
6. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulombs located
along a uniform electric field E . The work within it symmetrically. If f is the electric flux in
done in rotating the dipole by 90° is : units of volt-meter associated with the curved
(1) 2pE (2) pE surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A
pE in units of volt-meters will be :
(3) 2pE (4)
2
3. Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal
surface charge densities( = 26·4 × 10–12 C/m2)
of opposite signs. The electric field between q 1q 
these sheets is : (1) − (2)  − 
0 2 0 
(1) 1·5 N/C (2) 1·5 × 10–10 N/C
q 
(3) 3 N/C (4) 3 × 10–10 N/C (3) (4)
20 3
4. The spatial distribution of the electric field
lines due to charges (A, B) is shown in figure. 7. Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed
Which one of the following statements is at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0),(x = 0, y = 0,
correct? z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The
magnitude and direction of the electric dipole
moment vector of this charge assembly are :
(1) 2 qa along + x direction
(2) 2 qa along + y direction
(1) A is +ve and B is –ve and |A| > |B| (3) 2 qa along the line joining points
(2) A is –ve and B is +ve ; |A| = |B| (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
(3) Both are +ve but A > B (4) qa along the line joining points
(4) Both are –ve but A > B (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

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8. The electric potential at a point in free space 13. Four electric charges + q, +q, –q and – q are placed
due to a charge Q coulombs is Q × 1011 volts. at the corners of a square of side 2L(see figure). The
The electric field at that point is: electric potential at point A, midway between the
(1) 40 Q × 1020 volts/m two charges +q and +q, is:
(2) 120 Q × 1022 volts/m
(3) 40 Q × 1020 volts/m
(4) 40 Q × 1020 volts/m

9. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by:

V = –x2y – xz3 + 4
1 2q 1 2q  1 
The electric field E at that point is :- (1) (1 + 5) (2)  1+ 
( )
(1) E = i 2xy − z3 + jxy2 + k3z2 x
4 0 L 4 0 L  5
1 2q  1 
E = ˆi ( 2xy + z3 ) + ˆjx 2 + k3xz
ˆ 2 (3)  1−  (4) Zero
(2) 4 0 L  5

(3) E = ˆi2xy + ˆj( x 2 + y2 ) + kˆ (3xz − y2 )

14. Three charges each +q are placed at the three
(4) E = iz + jxyz + kz
3 2
corners of an isosceles triangle ABC with sides
BC and AC each equal to 2a. D and E are the
10. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are mid points of BC and CA respectively. The
separated by a distance d. If F is the force of work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is
repulsion between the ions, then the number of
electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the
charge on an electron):
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd2
(1) (2)
q2 e2
4 0 Fe2 4 0 Fd 2
(3) (4)
d2 e2 3qQ 3qQ
(1) (2)
4 0a 8 0a
11. A square surface of side L meters in the plane of the
paper is placed in a uniform electric field E qQ
(3) (4) Zero
(volts/m) acting along the same plane at an angle q 4 0a
with the horizontal side of the square as shown in
figure. The electric flux linked to the surface, in
units of volt–m, is: 15. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z).
(all in metres) in space is given by V = 4x2
volts. The electric field at the point (1, 0, 2) in
volt/meter, is :-
(1) 8 along negative X-axis
(1) Zero (2) El 2 (2) 8 along positive X-axis
(3) EL2cos (4) EL2sin (3) 16 along negative X-axis
(4) 16 along positive X-axis
3R
12. The electric field at a distance from the 16. What is the flux through a cube of side 'a' if a point
2 charge q is at one of its corner?
centre of a charged conducting spherical shell q q
(1) (2) 6a 2
of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance 0 2 0
R 2q q
from the centre of the sphere is: (3) (4)
2 80
0
E
(1) E (2)
2
E
(3) (4) Zero
3

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17. An electrical dipole of moment 'p' is placed in 21. The diagrams below show regions of
an electric field of intensity 'E'. The dipole equipotentials:
acquires a position such that the axis of the
dipole makes an angle q with the direction of
the field. Assuming that the potential energy of
the dipole is zero when q = 90°, the torque and
the potential energy of the dipole will be
respectively :
(1) p E sin , 2p E cos  A positive charge is moved from A to B in each
(2) p E cos , –p E sin  diagram.
(3) p E sin , –p E cos  (1) In all the four cases the work done is the same
(4) p E sin , –2p E cos  (2) Minimum work is required to move q in figure
(a)
18. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as (3) Maximum work is required to move q in figure
V (x, y, z) = 6xy – y + 2yz, the electric field (in (b)
N/C) at point (1,1,0) is: (4) Maximum work is required to move q in figure
(1) −(6iˆ + 9jˆ + k)
ˆ (2) −(3iˆ + 5jˆ + 3k)
ˆ (c)
(3) −(6iˆ + 5jˆ + 2k)
ˆ (4) −(2iˆ + 3jˆ + k)
ˆ
22. Two infinitely long uniformly charged non
conducting sheets of charge density
19.
 = 2 0 10−3 each are placed perpendicular to
each other as shown in figure. What is the
resultant electric field intensity at point P?

Half ring of radius a is uniformly charged with

linear charge density . Find out electric field
intensity at point O.
  (1) 10–3 N/C (2) 2 × 10–3 N/C
(1) (−ˆi) (2) i
20a 40a (3) 2 10−3 N / C (4) 1 N/C
 
(3) (+i) (4) (+i)
20a 20a 23. A point charge q = 10–11 C is placed at 4 cm
above a square plate (8 cm × 8 cm) having
20. charge density 0.5 × 10–8 C/m2. Find the flux
related with it.
(1) 0.188 V– m (2) 0.12 V– m
(3) 0.288 V– m (4) 0.388 V– m

Find out electric field intensity between plates? 24. Radius of a non conducting sphere is R volume
  charge density is . Electric field at a distance
(1) (2)
2 0 0 of r (r < R) is :
3 (1) E  r2 (2) E  r–1
(3) Zero (4)
2 0 (3) E  r (4) E  r–2S

25. If E = 2  i then find volume charge density

inside cube.
(1) 8.85 × 10–11 C/m3 (2) 1.77 × 10–11 C/m3
(3) 8.85 × 10–7 C/m3 (4) 1.77 × 10–7 C/m3

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CHEMISTRY
26. Mole fraction of ethanol in ethanol water mixture with toluene that will boil at 88°C at 1
mixture is 0.25. Hence percentage atm. pressure, benzene – toluene form an ideal
concentration of ethanol by weight of mixture solution:
is: (1) 0.416 (2) 0.588
(1) 25% (2) 75% (3) 0.688 (4) 0.740
(3) 46% (4) 54%
34. If PA0 and PB0 are 108 and 36 torr respectively.
27. Normality of 10% (w\V) H2SO4 solution is What will be the mole fraction of A is vapour
nearly phase if B has mole fraction in solution 0.5.
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (1) 0.25 (2) 0.75
(3) 0.5 (4) 2 (3) 0.60 (4) 0.35

35. What is correct relation between mole fraction in

28. A molal solution is one that contains one mole vapour phase (YA) of A in terms of XA. If mole
of a solute in fraction in solution of A is (XA) (If PA0) is vapour
(1) 1000 g of the solvent pressure of A in pure state)
(2) one litre of the solution XA 0
(1) (1 – XA) PA0 (2) PA
(3) one litre of the solvent 1 − XA
(4) 22.4 litres of the solution
1 − XA 0 PA0 XA
(3) PA (4)
XA PS
29. Two bottles of A and B contains 1M and 1m
aqueous solution (d 1 gmL–1) of sulphuric 36. A solution containing 10g per dm3 of urea
acid respectively- (molecular mass = 60g mol–1) is isotonic with
(1) A is more concentrated than B a 5% solution of a nonvolatile solute. The
(2) B is more concentrated than A molecular mass of this nonvolatile solute is:
(3) Concentration of A = concentration of B (1) 250g mol–1 (2) 300g mol–1
(4) It is not possible to compare the concentration (3) 350g mol–1 (4) 200g mol–1

37. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX)

30. Henry's law constant for dissolution of CH4 in
is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is1.86 K kg
benzene at 298 K is 2 × 105 mm of Hg. Then
mol–1, the lowering in freezing point of the
solubility of CH4 in benzene at 298 K under
solution is:
760 mm of Hg is : (1) –0.56 K (2) – 1.12 K
(1) 1.2 × 10–5 (2) 3.8 × 10–3 (3) 0.56 K (4) 1.12 K
(3) 4 × 10–7 (4) 1 × 10–2
38. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g
31. Which of the follownig gas does not obey mol–1) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g
Henrys's law? of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing
(1) NH3 (2) H2 point of the solution obtained will be:
(3) O2 (4) He (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(1) – 0.570°C (2) –0.372°C
32. 1 mol of heptane (V. P. = 92 mm of Hg) was (3) –0.520°C (4) +0.372°C
mixed with 4 mol of octane (V. P. = 31mm of
39. For an ideal solution of A and B which
Hg). The vapour pressure of resulting ideal
statement is incorrect :
solution is:
(1) The enthalpy change of mixing of A and B is
(1) 46.2 mm of Hg (2) 40.0 mm of Hg
zero
(3) 43.2 mm of Hg (4) 38.4 mm of Hg
(2) The volume change of solution A and B is zero
(3) The intermolecular forces of A and B is same
33. At 88°C benzene has a vapour pressure of 900 as that of A – A and B – B
torr and toluene has a vapour pressure of 360 (4) The entropy change of mixture of A and B is
torr. What is the mole fraction of benzene in the zero

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40. The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which

undergoes dissociation in one solvent and 46. Which one of the following electrolytes has the
association in other solvent is respectively: same value of van't Hoff's factor (i) as that of the
(1) Less than one and greater than one Al2(SO4)3 (if all are 100% ionised)?
(2) Less than one and less than one (1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) Al(NO3)3
(3) Greater than one and less than one (3) K4[Fe(CN)6] (4) K2SO4
(4) Greater than one and greater than one
47. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m
41. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution?
(1) 0.0354 (2) 0.0177
aqueous solution is:
(3) 0.177 (4) 1.770
(1) 0.1770 (2) 0.0177
(3) 0.0344 (4) 1.7700
48. Osmotic pressure of a solution containing 1 g
protein in 100 mL solution at 300 K is 1.66 bar.
42. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in
What is the molecular weight of protein (R = 0.083
100mL of its solution. The concentration of L bar mol–1 K–1)
solution is : (1) 150 (2) 120
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.02 M (3) 130 (4) 300
(3) 0.01 M (4) 0.001M
49. At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5g
43. Strength of H2O2 is 15.18 g L–1, then it is equal of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52
to: °C m–1, the boiling point of this solution will be :
(1) 1 volume (2) 10 volume (1) 101°C (2) 100°C
(3) 5 volume (4) 7 volume (3) 102°C (4) 103°C

44. Of the following 0.10m aqueous solutions, which 50. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous
one will exhibit the largest freezing point solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide
depression? is
(1) KCl (2) C6H12O6 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) K2SO4 (3) 0 (4) 1

45. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution:

(1) Smix (2) Vmix
(3) P = Pobserved – PRaoult (4) Hmix

BOTANY
51. One of the male gamete moves towards the egg (3) The primary endosperm cell develops into
cell & fuses with its nucleus; the process is endosperm
known as :- (4) The ovule develops into seed
(1) Syngamy (2) Triple fusion
(3) Double fertilization (4) Autogamy 54. In a plant, the plant body is differentiated into root,
stem and leaf, embryo is formed, vascular tissues
52. Ploidy of endosperm will be ….. if the male & are present and haploid endosperm is formed. What
female parents are hexaploid and tetrapoid is a very important character that describe this plant
respectively: is a member of gymnosperm?
(1) 8x (2) 7x (1) Development of embryo inside the ovule
(3) 16x (4) 10x (2) Formation of pollen tube for fertilization
(3) Ovules are naked
53. Identify the wrong statements regarding post (4) Pollination by insect
fertilization developement:
(1) The ovary wall develops into pericarp
(2) The ovary wall develops into seed coat

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55. Which of the following is correct for both male and (2) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without
female gametophyte of flowering plant? bringing about pollination are called
(1) Both are highly reduced and have limited pollen/nectar robbers
number of cells (3) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are
(2) Both always develops on same plant regulated by chemical components of pollen
(3) Both produce sporophyte after germination interacting with those of the pistil
(4) (1) and (3) both (4) Some reptiles have also been reported as
pollinators in some plant species
56. In papaya and date palm.
(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy can occur. 61. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged
(2) Autogamy does not occur but geitonogamy in the synergid?
can occur (1) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate (s) in
(3) Xenogamy can occur the synergid
(4) Geitonogamy and xenogamy can occur (2) All fuse with the egg
(3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with
57. Read the following statement and identify the synergid nucleus
correct statements and select correct option from (4) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with
options given below : central cell nuclei.
(1) Fusion of male gamete with polar nuclei is
known as syngamy 62. The coconut water from tender coconut represents:
(2) A typical dicot embryonal axis consist of an (1) Endocarp
embryo and two cotyledons (2) Fleshy mesocarp
(3) After fertilization ovary mature in fruit (3) Free nuclear proembryo
(4) Usually one embryo is present is one seed of (4) Free nuclear endosperm
angiosperms
(E) In maize and wheat, seeds are endospermic 63. In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid
(1) A, B, C, D and E (2) A, C, D and E structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially
(3) B, C, D and E (4) C, D and E are :
(1) Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm
58 How many of the following are haploid structures nucleus.
which are present in male plant of date palm (2) Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
Nucellus, tapetum, middle layer, egg, male (3) Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and
gametes, polar nuclei, generative cell, synergids, zygote
antipodal cell vegetative cell of pollen grains, (4) Antipodals, synergids, and primary
megaspore mother cell endosperm nucleus
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Seven (4) Six 64. Both geitonogamy & autogamy are prevented in
(1) Cucumber (2) Papaya
59. Which of the following are the important floral (3) Maize (4) Castor
rewards to the animal pollinators?
(1) Nectar and pollen grains. 65. For artificial hybridization experiment in
(2) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals bisexual flower, which of the sequence is
(3) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates correct?
(4) Colour and large size flower (1) Bagging → Emasculation → Cross Pollination
→ Rebagging
60. Which of the following statements is not (2) Emasculation → Bagging → Cross Pollination
correct? → Rebagging
(1) Pollen grains of many species can germinated
(3) Cross Pollination → Bagging → emasculation
on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen
→ Rebagging
tube of the same species grows into the style.
(4) Self Pollination → Bagging → Emasculation
→ Rebagging

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66. Continued self-pollination result in ________. 70. While planning for an artificial hybridisation
(1) Variation programme involving dioecious plants, which
(2) Recombination of the following steps would not be relevant?
(3) Heterozygous condition (1) Bagging of female flower
(4) Inbreeding depression (2) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(3) Emasculation
67. The device to prevent inbreeding is (4) Collection of pollen
(1) Self-incompatibility
(2) Autogamy 71. Recognisation of pollens whether that is of
(3) Self pollination right type or wrong type is done by
(4) All of these (1) Pistil (2) Style
(3) Pollen itself (4) Ovary
68. Statement I: If the pollen is of the wrong type,
the pistil rejects the pollen by preventing pollen 72. Pollen pistil interaction is
germination on the stigma or the pollen tube (1) Chemically mediated process
growth in the style. (2) Dynamic process
Statement II: The central cell after triple fusion (3) Genetically controlled process
becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC) and (4) More than one option is correct
develops into endosperm
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 73. Double fertilisation means
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (1) Fusion of two polar bodies
incorrect (2) A male gamete fused with egg and second
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is male gamete fused with secondary nucleus
incorrect (3) Fusion of male gametes and ovum
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is (4) All the above
correct
74. Pollen tube enters into embryo sac of angiosperm
69. From among the situations given below, through the
choose the one that prevents both autogamy (1) Egg cell
and geitonogamy: (2) Any one of the antipodal cell
(1) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers (3) Any one of the synergids
(2) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female (4) None of these
flowers
(3) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers 75. The necessity of bagging is
(4) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers (1) To avoid contamination of stigma with
unwanted pollen
(2) To avoid self pollination
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

ZOOLOGY
76. Certain cells that forms the inner lining of 78. Read the below statements and choose the
seminiferous tubule on damage prevented appropriate ones.
spermiogenesis. The cells are likely to be – I. Ovary and Testis are heterocrine in nature.
(1) Spermatogonia (2) Sertoli cells II. Clitoris and Penis are analogous to each other.
(3) Leydig cells (4) Myeloid cells III. Semen includes seminal plasma and sperm.
Options -
77. Which of the following extra testicular ducts helps (1) I & II (2) I & III
in the functional maturation of sperm? (3) II & III (4) I, II & III
(1) Vas efferens (2) Rete Testis
(3) Epididymis (4) Vas deferens

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79. Choose the correct explanation for the fact that 86. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?
oogenesis is a discontinuous process. (1) Spermatogonia (2) Zygote
(1) It completes during embryonic life. (3) Secondary oocyte (4) Oogonia
(2) It starts at puberty.
(3) It starts in fetal life and completes after 87. The edges of the infundibulum possess finger like
fertilization. projections that
(4) It starts at puberty and ends at menopause. (1) are the sight of fertilisation.
(2) help in the collection of ovum after ovulation.
80. Similarity between spermatogenesis and oogenesis (3) are responsible for the release of egg.
is that - (4) none of these
(1) Both begin at puberty
(2) Both show unequal meiotic division 88. Urethral meatus is
(3) Both produce haploid gametes (1) the urinogenital duct
(4) Both continue for a lifetime (2) opening of vas deferens into urethra
(3) external opening of the urinogenital duct
81. Spermatogenesis starts due to significant increase (4) muscles surrounding the urinogenital duct
in the secretion of
89. The funnel-shaped part of Fallopian tube that
(1) FSH (2) GnRH
remains closer to the ovary is
(3) LH (4) oxytocin
(1) infundibulum (2) fimbriae
(3) ampulla (4) isthmus
82. The anterior portion of the sperm head is covered
by a cap-like structure called 90. Assertion: The scrotum helps in maintaining the
(1) middle piece (2) antrum low temperature of the testes.
(3) acrosome (4) none of these Reason: The low temperature of the testes is
necessary for spermatogenesis.
83. Assertion: Oogenesis is initiated at puberty. (1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
Reason: Millions of oogonia are formed within is the correct explanation of assertion.
each ovary every month. (2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
is the correct explanation of assertion. (3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(2) Both assertion and reason true but reason is not (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. 91. Which of the following events is not associated
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. with ovulation in human female?
(1) LH surge
84. Assertion: Spermatogenesis starts at the age of (2) Decrease in estradiol
puberty. (3) Full development of Graafian follicle
Reason: There is a significant increase in the (4) Release of secondary oocyte
secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone at
puberty 92. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason controlled by circulating levels of :
is the correct explanation of assertion. (1) estrogen and progesterone
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason (2) estrogen and inhibin
is not the correct explanation of assertion. (3) progesterone only
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false. (4) progesterone and inhibin
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
93. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
85. The tertiary follicle is characterized by a fluid filled release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
cavity called – follicle?
(1) antrum (2) corpus luteum (1) High concentration of Estrogen
(3) matrix (4) none of these (2) High concentration of Progesterone
(3) Low concentration of LH
(4) Low concentration of FSH

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94. Select the correct sequence of events : 97. Given below are two statements regarding
(1) Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → oogenesis:
Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division Statement I: The primary follicles get surrounded
(Cleavage) → Cell differentiation → by more layers of granulosa cells, a theca and
Organogenesis shows fluid filled cavity antrum. Now it is called
(2) Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → secondary follicle.
Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division Statement II: Graffian follicle ruptures to release
(Cleavage) → Organogenesis → Cell the secondary oocyte from the ovary by the process
called ovulation.
differentiation
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Gamete
correct answer from the options given below:
transfer → Zygote → Cell division
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(Cleavage) → Cell differentiation
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
→Organogenesis (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Syngamy → Zygote → Cell differentiation
→Cell division (Cleavage) → Organogenesis 98. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle
is also called:
95. At which stage of life the oogenesis process is (1) Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
initiated? (2) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
(1) Adult (3) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
(2) Puberty (4) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
(3) Embryonic development stage
(4) Birth 99. Match the items given in Column I with those in
Column II and select the correct option given
96. Which of the following statements are true for below:
spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Column-I Column-II
Oogenesis? (a) Proliferative (i) Breakdown of
(1) It results in the formation of haploid gametes Phase endometrial lining
(2) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the
(b) Secretory (ii) Follicular Phase
completion of meiosis Phase
(3) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically (c) Menstruation (iii) Luteal Phase
dividing stem cell population
(4) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i) (2) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii)
(LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) (3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i) (4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii)
secreted by the anterior pituitary
(e) It is initiated at puberty 100. What is the most likely outcome of injecting
Choose the most appropriate answer from the progesterone during mid-menstrual cycle of a
options given below: normal human female?
(1) (2), (3) and (e) only (1) Premature ovulation
(2) (3) and (e) only (2) Surge in LH
(3) (2) and (3) only (3) Early menstruation
(4) (2), (4) and (e) only (4) Decline in circulating gonadotropins

7, Indrapuri Colony, Bhawarkuan, Indore, (Madhya Pradesh) – 452001, Mo. +917019243492

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ANSWER KEY
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY
1. (1) 26. (3) 51. (1) 76. (2)
2. (2) 27. (4) 52. (2) 77. (3)
3. (3) 28. (1) 53. (2) 78. (2)
4. (1) 29. (1) 54. (3) 79. (3)
5. (1) 30. (2) 55. (1) 80. (3)
6. (2) 31. (1) 56. (3) 81. (2)
7. (3) 32. (3) 57. (4) 82. (3)
8. (3) 33. (4) 58 (1) 83. (4)
9. (2) 34. (2) 59. (1) 84. (1)
10. (4) 35. (4) 60. (1) 85. (1)
11. (1) 36. (2) 61. (4) 86. (3)
12. (4) 37. (4) 62. (4) 87. (2)
13. (3) 38. (2) 63. (1) 88. (3)
14. (4) 39. (4) 64. (2) 89. (1)
15. (1) 40. (3) 65. (2) 90. (1)
16. (4) 41. (2) 66. (4) 91. (2)
17. (3) 42. (3) 67. (1) 92. (1)
18. (3) 43. (3) 68. (1) 93. (1)
19. (1) 44. (3) 69. (2) 94. (1)
20. (1) 45. (1) 70. (3) 95. (3)
21. (1) 46. (3) 71. (1) 96. (1)
22. (1) 47. (2) 72. (4) 97. (2)
23. (1) 48. (1) 73. (2) 98. (2)
24. (3) 49. (1) 74. (3) 99. (1)
25. (2) 50. (3) 75. (1) 100. (4)

7, Indrapuri Colony, Bhawarkuan, Indore, (Madhya Pradesh) – 452001, Mo. +917019243492