1

MCQ’s of Pathophysiology-II
BY; ZIA UD DIN ZEB COLLEGE OF NURSING DIR LOWER

UNIT-1 GENETIC DISORDERS

1. The tendency of an offspring to resemble its

parents is known as: 6. Down syndrome is associated with trisomy
a) Variation of chromosome.......?
b) Heredity a) 13
c) Resemblance b) 15
d) Inheritance c) 18
2. The alternate form of gene is: d) 21
a) Alternate locus 7. Trisomy is presented as;
b) Recessive character a) 2n+2
c) Dominant character b) 2n+1
d) Allele c) 2n-1
3. Cystic fibrosis is: d) 2n-2
a) Sex-linked recessive disorders 8. The sex chromosomes of human female
b) Autosomal dominant disorders are;
c) Autosomal recessive disorders a) XY
d) Sex-linked dominant disorders b) YY
4. Basic unit of inheritance is: c) XX
a) Chromosome d) YX
b) Nucleus 9. In a cross between two heterozygote’s (Aa)
c) Nucleolus the next generation will be;
d) Genes a) 1:3 heterozygous to homozygous
5. Somatic cells in human have chromosomes? b) 1:1 heterozygous to homozygous
a) 23 c) All homozygous
b) 46 d) All heterozygous
c) 92 10. The physical appearance of an individual is;
d) 21 a) Phenotype

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b) Genotype d) None
c) Physicality 16. The most serious complications of Down
d) None syndrome include:
11. The complete missing of one chromosome a) Neck Defects
is called; b) Ear Defects
a) Monosomy c) Heart Defects
b) Trisomy d) Hand, Feet Defects
c) Polysomy 17. Who is the father of Genetics?
d) None a) Darwin
12. In Down syndrome the person have ....... b) Mendel
number of chromosomes. c) Bridge
a) 45 d) Wiseman
b) 46 18. One of this trait is not seen in a person with
c) 47 Down syndrome;
d) 48 a) High muscle tone
13. The specific location of a gene on a b) Small stature
chromosome is termed as; c) Upward slant eye
a) Genotype d) Short neck
b) Phenotype 19. Down syndrome is
c) Allele a) Sex-linked
d) Locus b) Chromosomal
14. Recessive allele only show their effects if; c) Dominant
a) Have one copy of allele d) Recessive
b) Have both copy of allele 20. The chances of an offspring to have Down
c) Missing one copy syndrome ____ with the mother’s age.
d) All of the above a) Decreases
15. The trait which can be expressed in both b) Increases
homozygous and heterozygous is called? c) Is not influenced
a) Recessive d) There is no correlation
b) Dominant 21. A physical feature of Down's syndrome is
c) Genetic that the fifth finger may be slightly curved

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towards the other fingers. What is this d) Edwards Syndrome

known as? 26. The most common form of aneuploidy is:
a) Clinodactyly a) Trisomy 13
b) Clubbing b) Trisomy 18
c) Dupuytren's contracture c) Trisomy 21
d) Phalanges d) Monosomy X
22. Which of the following is NOT a 27. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of
chromosomal defect? Down syndrome?
a) Turner Syndrome a) Intellectual disability
b) Down Syndrome b) Facial abnormalities
c) Huntington's Disease c) Heart defects
d) Klinefelter Syndrome d) Tall stature
23. Aneuploidy refers to: 28. Which of the following is NOT a sex
a) An abnormal number of chromosomal defect?
chromosomes a) Turner Syndrome
b) Abnormalities in the X chromosome b) Klinefelter Syndrome
c) Structural abnormalities in c) Triple X Syndrome
chromosomes d) Cri-du-chat Syndrome
d) Defects in the DNA sequence 29. Monosomy refers to:
24. 3. Trisomy refers to: a) One missing copy of a specific
a) Three copies of a specific chromosome
chromosome b) Two missing copies of a specific
b) One missing copy of a specific chromosome
chromosome c) Three copies of a specific
c) An extra X chromosome in males chromosome
d) A missing copy of chromosome 21 d) Structural abnormalities in
25. Which chromosomal defect is caused by an chromosomes
additional copy of chromosome 21? 30. Which chromosomal defect is characterized
a) Turner Syndrome by a missing or incomplete X chromosome
b) Klinefelter Syndrome in females?
c) Down Syndrome a) Turner Syndrome

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b) Klinefelter Syndrome d) Having multiple previous

c) Down Syndrome pregnancies
d) Trisomy 18 35. Which type of chromosomal defect is
31. Which of the following is NOT a caused by a piece of a chromosome
characteristic of Klinefelter Syndrome? breaking off and attaching to another
a) Male infertility chromosome?
b) Development of secondary sexual a) Deletion
characteristics b) Duplication
c) Tall stature c) Inversion
d) Extra Y chromosome d) Translocation
32. Which chromosomal defect is associated 36. Which chromosomal defect is associated
with a high-pitched cry and intellectual with a female having three copies of the X
disabilities? chromosome?
a) Down Syndrome a) Turner Syndrome
b) Turner Syndrome b) Klinefelter Syndrome
c) Cri-du-chat Syndrome c) Down Syndrome
d) Edwards Syndrome d) Triple X Syndrome
33. The presence of an extra X chromosome in 37. What is the chromosomal makeup of
males characterizes: individuals with Turner Syndrome?
a) Turner Syndrome a) 46, XX
b) Klinefelter Syndrome b) 47, XY
c) Down Syndrome c) 45, X0
d) Triple X Syndrome d) 44, XX
34. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor 38. Turner Syndrome occurs due to the absence
for chromosomal defects? or abnormality of which chromosome?
a) Advanced maternal age a) X chromosome
b) Exposure to radiation or chemicals b) Y chromosome
during pregnancy c) Autosome 21
c) Family history of chromosomal d) Autosome 18
abnormalities 39. Turner Syndrome is most commonly
diagnosed during:

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a) Infancy a) Estrogen only

b) Childhood b) Progesterone only
c) Adolescence c) Testosterone only
d) Adulthood d) Estrogen and progesterone
40. What is the primary characteristic of 45. In addition to short stature, individuals with
individuals with Turner Syndrome? Turner Syndrome often have:
a) Short stature a) Obesity
b) Intellectual disability b) Delayed puberty
c) Facial abnormalities c) Excessive growth
d) Tall stature d) Hyperactivity
41. Which of the following is NOT a typical 46. What is the typical intelligence level of
physical feature of Turner Syndrome? individuals with Turner Syndrome?
a) Short stature a) Normal intelligence
b) Shield-shaped chest b) Intellectual disability
c) Low hairline c) Above-average intelligence
d) Broad shoulders d) Highly variable
42. The majority of individuals with Turner 47. Which of the following is NOT a common
Syndrome are: complication of Turner Syndrome?
a) Unable to conceive children a) Kidney abnormalities
b) Fertile b) Thyroid dysfunction
c) Always infertile c) Type 2 diabetes
d) Typically have one child d) Celiac disease
43. What cardiac anomaly is commonly 48. What is the average height of adult females
associated with Turner Syndrome? with Turner Syndrome?
a) Hypertension a) 6 feet
b) Aortic stenosis b) 5 feet 2 inches
c) Mitral valve prolapse c) 4 feet 10 inches
d) Ventricular septal defect d) 5 feet 6 inches
44. Which of the following hormone 49. Which of the following is a non-physical
replacement therapies is commonly used to symptom associated with Turner
treat Turner Syndrome? Syndrome?

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a) Anxiety 54. What is the life expectancy of individuals

b) Sleep apnea with Turner Syndrome?
c) Visual impairment a) Same as the general population
d) Hearing loss b) Significantly short
50. Women with Turner Syndrome may c) Significantly long
experience which of the following d) Variable and depends on associated
reproductive challenges? complications
a) Early menopause 55. What is the chance of recurrence of Turner
b) Irregular menstrual periods Syndrome in families with one affected
c) Infertility child?
d) All of the above a) 5%
51. Which of the following is NOT typically seen b) 10%
in individuals with Turner Syndrome? c) 25%
a) Normal hearing d) 50%
b) Normal kidney function 56. Genetic testing for Turner Syndrome is
c) Normal ovarian function typically done through:
d) Normal cardiac function a) Blood test
52. At what age should girls with Turner b) Urine test
Syndrome have regular cardiac screening? c) Genetic counseling
a) 5 years old d) Physical examination
b) 10 years old 57. Which of the following statement is true
c) 15 years old regarding the dominant traits?
d) 20 years old a) Heterozygotes (individuals with one
53. Turner Syndrome is more commonly allele) are generally carriers
diagnosed in females born to: b) Both dominant alleles (homozygous)
a) Younger mothers are required to show the dominant
b) Older mothers trail
c) Fathers with chromosomal c) One dominant allele (heterozygote’s)
abnormalities is sufficient to show the dominant
d) Mothers with chromosomal trait
abnormalities d) None of the Above

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58. Thalassemia is a condition in which the 62. Which of the following is a characteristic
mutation occurs on DNA of RBCs such symptom of Klinefelter's syndrome?
category comes in which mendelian a) Tall stature
disorder? b) Hypogonadism
a) Mitochondrial disorder c) Menstrual irregularities
b) X-linked disorder d) Red hair color
c) Autosomal recessive trait 63. In Klinefelter's syndrome, individuals often
d) Autosomal dominant have an increased risk of developing which
59. Patau’s syndrome is caused due to which of medical condition?
the following a) Osteoporosis
a) Trisomy of 13th chromosome b) Type 2 diabetes
b) Tetrasomy of 13th chromosome c) Hypertension
c) Tetrasomy of 14th chromosome d) Asthma
d) Trisomy of 14th chromosome 64. What is the typical intelligence level of
60. Which of the following is NOT an example individuals with Klinefelter's syndrome?
of a single-gene inheritance disorder? a) Below average
a) Trisomy b) Average
b) Huntington’s disease c) Above average
c) Cystic Fibrosis d) Highly variable
d) Haemophilia 65. Which reproductive organ is typically
61. Males who are sexually under developed affected in individuals with Klinefelter's
with rudimentary testes and prostate syndrome?
glands, sparse pubic and facial hair, long a) Ovaries
arms and legs and large hands & feet are b) Testes
likely to have the chromosome complement c) Uterus
of: d) Prostate
a) 45, XYY 66. Klinefelter's syndrome is a result of an extra
b) 46, XY copy of which sex chromosome?
c) 46, XXY a) X
d) 46, X b) Y

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c) YY b) MRI scan
d) Z c) Urine test
67. Individuals with Klinefelter's syndrome may d) Electrocardiogram
exhibit gynecomastia, which is 72. Klinefelter syndrome is a result of:
characterized by: a) Monosomy
a) Sparse body hair b) Trisomy
b) Low voice pitch c) Tetrasomy
c) Excessive facial hair d) Aneuploidy
d) Enlarged breasts 73. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome are at
68. Frequency of Klinefelter’s Syndrome is: an increased risk of developing:
a) 1 in 100 a) Type 1 diabetes
b) 1 in 300 b) Type 2 diabetes
c) 1 in 500-1000 c) Hypothyroidism
d) 1 in 5000 d) Hyperthyroidism
69. What is the primary hormonal deficiency 74. Medical management of Klinefelter
seen in Klinefelter's syndrome? syndrome may involve:
a) Estrogen a) Anti-androgen medications
b) Progesterone b) Estrogen supplementation
c) Testosterone c) Testosterone replacement
d) Prolactine d) Surgical removal of extra chromosomes
70. Which of the following is a potential 75. The syndrome is named after Dr. Harry
psychological challenge associated with Klinefelter, who first described it in:
Klinefelter's syndrome? a) 1972
a) Anxiety disorders b) 1965
b) Color blindness c) 1942
c) Schizophrenia d) 1935
d) Perfect pitch 76. The XXY karyotype in Klinefelter syndrome
71. How is Klinefelter's syndrome typically results from:
diagnosed? a) Deletion of the Y chromosome
a) Blood karyotype analysis b) A mutation in the X chromosome

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c) Crossing over during meiosis d) Breast cancer

d) Non-disjunction during meiosis 82. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome may
77. Prenatal testing can detect Klinefelter experience:
syndrome through: a) No puberty
a) Ultrasound alone b) Normal puberty
b) Non-invasive prenatal testing c) Delayed puberty
c) Chorionic villus sampling d) Early puberty
d) Amniocentesis 83. Klinefelter syndrome is often diagnosed
78. Klinefelter syndrome is not typically during:
inherited but arises due to: a) Infancy
a) Mitochondrial DNA mutations b) Childhood
b) X-linked recessive inheritance c) Adolescence
c) Autosomal dominant inheritance d) Adulthood
d) Random genetic mutations 84. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome
79. Social challenges associated with Klinefelter typically have:
syndrome may include: a) Male reproductive organs
a) Difficulty making friends b) Female reproductive organs
b) Exceptional social skills c) Both male and female reproductive
c) High self-esteem organs
d) Lack of interest in social interactions d) None of these
80. Treatment options for fertility issues in 85. The extra chromosome in Klinefelter
Klinefelter syndrome may include: syndrome is derived from:
a) Hormone suppression therapy a) Father
b) Natural conception b) Mother
c) Surgery to remove extra chromosomes c) Both parents
d) In vitro fertilization d) None
81. Klinefelter syndrome increases the risk of: 86. At what stage of development does
a) Ovarian cancer Klinefelter's syndrome occur?

b) Prostate cancer a) Fetal stage

c) Testicular cancer b) Childhood

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c) Puberty d) Sex chromosomes

d) Conception 89. What is an example of multifactorial
87. Klinefilter’s syndrome mostly have congenital disorder?
appearance of: a) Type AB blood
a) Feminine b) Down syndrome
b) Masculine c) Cleft lip and palate
c) Both d) Color blindness
d) None 90. ….. is a rare inherited disorder in which the
88. The chromosomes of the same quantity and blood does not clot normally.
type in both sexes (44 in humans). a) Hemophilia
a) Linkage b) Albinism
b) Barr bodies c) Hemochromatosis
c) Autosomes d) Achondroplasia

RW

RECITE DAROOD SHARIF 10 X

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 UNIT-2 ENDOCRINE DISORDERS

1. What hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus 6. Which hormone, produced by the anterior
to stimulate the anterior pituitary to release growth pituitary, stimulates the production of estrogen and
hormone? progesterone in females?
A. Somatostatin A. LH
B. Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) B. FSH
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) C. Prolactin
D. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) D. ACTH
2. Which hormone is primarily responsible for 7. What hormone, released by the hypothalamus, is
stimulating milk production in lactating mothers? key in controlling the release of ACTH?
A. Oxytocin A. TRH
B. Prolactin B. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) C. GnRH
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH) D. GHRH
3. Which hormone, produced by the hypothalamus, 8. What is the main function of the hypothalamic-
inhibits the secretion of growth hormone? pituitary axis?
A. GHRH A. To control the release of hormones
B. Somatostatin throughout the body
C. TRH B. To regulate the immune response
D. GnRH C. To control blood pressure
4. Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates the D. To coordinate muscle contractions
adrenal cortex to produce corticosteroids? 9. Which hormone is released from the posterior
A. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) pituitary to regulate water balance in the body?
B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) A. Oxytocin
C. Luteinizing hormone (LH) B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) C. ACTH
5. Which hypothalamic hormone regulates the D. GHRH
release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)? 10. Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates
A. TRH the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones?
B. GHRH A. LH
C. GnRH B. FSH
D. Somatostatin C. TSH
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 D. Prolactin 16. Which hormone from the hypothalamus
11. What hormone is released from the posterior stimulates the release of prolactin?
pituitary to stimulate uterine contractions during A. TRH
childbirth? B. GnRH
A. Oxytocin C. GHRH
B. Prolactin D. CRH
C. ADH 17. What pituitary hormone is primarily involved in
D. ACTH stimulating testosterone production in males?
12. Which hormone is inhibited by dopamine, thus A. FSH
preventing its excessive secretion? B. LH
A. Oxytocin C. ACTH
B. Prolactin D. TSH
C. ACTH 18. Which hormone, released from the anterior
D. TRH pituitary, plays a key role in human growth and
13. Which pituitary hormone is involved in development?
regulating the menstrual cycle in females? A. Prolactin
A. LH B. Growth hormone (GH)
B. FSH C. TSH
C. Prolactin D. LH
D. Both LH and FSH 19. Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates
14. What hormone is released from the sperm production in males?
hypothalamus to control the release of FSH and LH? A. FSH
A. TRH B. LH
B. GnRH C. Prolactin
C. GHRH D. GH
D. Somatostatin 20. Which hormone is responsible for regulating
15. Which hormone, released by the hypothalamus, stress and the fight-or-flight response?
has a role in the sleep-wake cycle and biological A. ACTH
rhythms? B. CRH
A. GnRH C. Oxytocin
B. Somatostatin D. Epinephrine
C. Melatonin 21. What is the primary role of growth hormone
D. GHRH (GH)?
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 A. Stimulate the production of red blood cells B. It increases blood glucose levels
B. Regulate the growth and development of C. It has no impact on carbohydrate metabolism
tissues and organs D. It promotes the conversion of glucose into fat
C. Control blood pressure and heart rate 27. Which gland releases growth hormone into the
D. Facilitate hormone release from the thyroid bloodstream?
gland A. Hypothalamus
22. Growth hormone stimulates the production of B. Pituitary gland
which of the following in the liver? C. Adrenal gland
A. Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) D. Thyroid gland
B. Glucagon 28. In what way does growth hormone influence
C. Cortisol muscle growth?
D. Epinephrine A. It promotes muscle breakdown
23. What effect does growth hormone have on B. It stimulates muscle hypertrophy
protein synthesis? C. It has no effect on muscle growth
A. It decreases protein synthesis D. It converts muscle into fat
B. It has no impact on protein synthesis 29. What condition can result from excess growth
C. It increases protein synthesis hormone in adults?
D. It converts proteins into carbohydrates A. Acromegaly
24. How does growth hormone affect fat B. Cushing's syndrome
metabolism? C. Gigantism
A. It promotes lipolysis, leading to fat breakdown D. Hypopituitarism
B. It promotes lipogenesis, leading to fat storage 30. Which of the following best describes the role of
C. It has no effect on fat metabolism growth hormone in the regulation of body
D. It promotes fat accumulation in the liver composition?
25. Which process is stimulated by growth hormone A. It leads to increased muscle mass and reduced
to support bone growth during adolescence? body fat
A. Bone resorption B. It causes decreased muscle mass and increased
B. Osteoblast activity body fat
C. Osteoclast activity C. It has no effect on body composition
D. Calcium secretion D. It promotes the accumulation of fat in muscle
26. What is the impact of growth hormone on tissue
carbohydrate metabolism? 31. What is the primary cause of gigantism?
A. It decreases blood glucose levels A. Excess growth hormone secretion in childhood
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 B. Insufficient growth hormone secretion in B. Surgery or medication to reduce growth
childhood hormone levels
C. Excess growth hormone secretion in adulthood C. Insulin therapy
D. Insufficient growth hormone secretion in D. Radiation therapy
adulthood 37. Which of the following conditions is associated
32. Which condition is caused by excess growth with increased risk of developing diabetes and heart
hormone after the epiphyseal plates have closed? disease?
A. Gigantism A. Acromegaly
B. Acromegaly B. Gigantism
C. Pituitary dwarfism C. Pituitary dwarfism
D. Cushing's syndrome D. All of the above
33. What hormone is deficient in pituitary 38. Which hormone, when overproduced in
dwarfism? childhood, can lead to gigantism?
A. Insulin A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
B. Growth hormone B. Growth hormone
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C. Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)
D. Cortisol D. Cortisol
34. What are common symptoms of acromegaly? 39. What surgical procedure is often used to treat
A. Enlarged hands and feet, facial changes, and acromegaly?
joint pain A. Transsphenoidal surgery to remove pituitary
B. Short stature, small hands, and delayed puberty tumor
C. Excessive hair growth, round face, and weight B. Open brain surgery
gain C. Radiation therapy
D. High blood sugar, fatigue, and hair loss D. Endoscopic sinus surgery
35. Which of the following can be a cause of 40. Which hormone is responsible for the linear
pituitary dwarfism? growth of bones during childhood?
A. Lack of growth hormone production A. Growth hormone
B. Excess growth hormone production B. Insulin
C. Lack of insulin production C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
D. Excess cortisol production D. Cortisol
36. What is a common treatment for acromegaly? 41. What are the typical symptoms of gigantism?
A. Growth hormone replacement therapy A. Excessive height, rapid growth, and large
hands and feet
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 B. Stunted growth, short stature, and delayed D. Addison's disease
puberty 47. Which growth hormone disorder results in
C. Weight gain, fatigue, and round face unusually short stature?
D. Hair loss, joint pain, and slow growth A. Gigantism
42. What diagnostic test is commonly used to B. Dwarfism
detect acromegaly? C. Acromegaly
A. MRI scan D. Addison's disease
B. Oral glucose tolerance test 48. Which of the following is a possible symptom of
C. Blood test for IGF-1 levels gigantism?
D. All of the above A. Rapid growth and tall stature
43. Which condition can result from insufficient B. Short stature and delayed puberty
growth hormone during childhood? C. Enlarged facial features
A. Gigantism D. Excessive hair growth
B. Acromegaly 49. Which condition may cause visual disturbances
C. Pituitary dwarfism due to pituitary tumor growth?
D. Cushing's syndrome A. Acromegaly
44. What is a typical complication associated with B. Gigantism
acromegaly? C. Dwarfism
A. Enlarged heart D. Addison's disease
B. High blood pressure 50. What is a common treatment for pituitary
C. Sleep apnea dwarfism?*
D. All of the above A. Growth hormone replacement therapy
45. What hormone, often measured in blood tests, B. Surgery
is elevated in patients with acromegaly? C. Chemotherapy
A. IGF-1 D. Insulin therapy
B. Insulin 51. The most common cause of dwarfism is:
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone A. Pituitary tumor
D. Cortisol B. Hypothyroidism
46. Which disorder is characterized by overgrowth C. Genetic mutation
of bones and soft tissues in adults? D. Malnutrition
A. Gigantism 52. Dwarfism can result in:
B. Acromegaly A. Delayed puberty
C. Dwarfism B. Increased risk of osteoporosis
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 C. Impaired fertility A. Growth hormone
D. All of the above B. Thyroid hormone
52. Gigantism and acromegaly can both lead to: C. Insulin
A. Cardiovascular complications D. Estrogen
B. Respiratory complications 58. Which of the following is NOT a complication
C. Neurological complications of acromegaly?
D. All of the above A. Hypertension
53. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of B. Diabetes
gigantism? C. Cardiomegaly
A. Increased height D. Hypothyroidism
B. Enlarged hands and feet 59. Dwarfism can be diagnosed through:
C. Joint pain A. Physical examination
D. Decreased appetite B. Genetic testing
54. The excessive production of growth hormone C. Hormone level testing
in gigantism is usually caused by a: D. All of the above
A. Pituitary tumor 60. Treatment options for acromegaly may include:
B. Thyroid tumor A. Surgery to remove the tumor
C. Pancreatic tumor B. Medications to lower growth hormone levels
D. Adrenal tumor C. Radiation therapy
55. In acromegaly, the bone deformities and soft D. All of the above
tissue enlargement is primarily due to: 61. Which cells in the pancreas are responsible for
A. Increased production of growth hormone producing insulin?
B. Increased production of cortisol A. Alpha cells
C. Increased production of insulin B. Beta cells
D. Decreased production of thyroid hormone C. Delta cells
56. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic D. PP cells (Pancreatic Polypeptide cells)
of acromegaly? 62. What hormone is produced by the alpha cells of
A. Enlarged hands and feet the pancreas?
B. Facial disfigurement A. Insulin
C. Thickened skin B. Glucagon
D. Excessive weight loss C. Somatostatin
57. The most common cause of dwarfism is a D. Pancreatic polypeptide
genetic mutation that affects the production of: 63. What is the primary role of insulin in the body?
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 A. To raise blood glucose levels 69. Which pancreatic hormone is primarily
B. To lower blood glucose levels responsible for promoting glycogenolysis and
C. To increase fat breakdown gluconeogenesis?*
D. To regulate the release of other hormones A. Insulin
64. Which pancreatic cells produce somatostatin? B. Glucagon
A. Alpha cells C. Somatostatin
B. Beta cells D. Pancreatic polypeptide
C. Delta cells 70. What is the primary cause of type 1 diabetes
D. F cells mellitus?
65. Which of the following is a function of A. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta
glucagon? cells
A. To stimulate glycogen breakdown in the liver B. Insulin resistance in muscle and fat cells
B. To promote glucose uptake in muscle cells C. Excessive insulin production
C. To inhibit insulin release D. Deficiency in glucagon
D. To decrease blood glucose levels 71. Which type of diabetes mellitus is typically
66. What is the primary role of somatostatin in the associated with obesity?
pancreas? A. Type 1
A. To inhibit the release of insulin and glucagon B. Type 2
B. To increase the release of pancreatic enzymes C. Both Type 1 and Type 2
C. To promote the breakdown of fats D. Neither Type 1 nor Type 2
D. To regulate blood pressure 72. What is the primary characteristic of type 2
67. Which pancreatic cells are responsible for the diabetes mellitus?
production of pancreatic polypeptide? A. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells
A. Alpha cells B. Insulin resistance
B. Beta cells C. Excessive insulin production
C. Delta cells D. Lack of insulin
D. F cells 73. Which of the following is a common symptom of
68. Where is the endocrine pancreas primarily type 1 diabetes?
located? A. Polyuria
A. In the islets of Langerhans B. Weight loss
B. In the pancreatic ducts C. Increased thirst
C. Along the pancreatic acini D. All of the above
D. Surrounding the common bile duct
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74. What condition is associated with long-term B. High carbohydrate and low protein
uncontrolled diabetes mellitus? C. High fat and low carbohydrate
A. Neuropathy D. Low fat and low protein
B. Retinopathy 80. Which type of diabetes mellitus is most
C. Nephropathy commonly managed with diet, exercise, and oral
D. All of the above medication?
75. Which type of diabetes mellitus is more likely to A. Type 1
be diagnosed in children and adolescents?* B. Type 2
A. Type 1 C. Both Type 1 and Type 2
B. Type 2 D. Gestational diabetes
C. Both Type 1 and Type 2 81. What is a common complication of poorly
D. Gestational diabetes managed diabetes mellitus?
76. What is a common treatment for type 1 A. Hyperglycemia
diabetes mellitus? B. Ketoacidosis
A. Insulin therapy C. Cardiovascular disease
B. Oral hypoglycemic agents D. All of the above
C. Lifestyle modifications 82. Which of the following is a primary
D. Bariatric surgery characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
77. Which of the following risk factors is associated A. Absolutely Insulin deficiency
with type 2 diabetes mellitus? B. Insulin resistance
A. Obesity C. Increased production of glucagon
B. Sedentary lifestyle D. Decreased production of glucagon
C. Family history of diabetes 83. What is the role of insulin in the body?
D. All of the above A. To decrease blood glucose levels
78. What hormone is absolutely deficient in type 1 B. To increase blood glucose levels
diabetes mellitus? C. To increase fat metabolism
A. Glucagon D. To regulate growth hormone secretion
B. Insulin 84. Which type of diabetes mellitus is typically
C. Growth hormone associated with an older age of onset?
D. Epinephrine A. Type 1
79. What type of diet is commonly recommended B. Type 2
for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus? C. Both Type 1 and Type 2
A. Low carbohydrate and high fiber D. Gestational diabetes
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85. What hormone is produced by the parathyroid 90. What is the primary hormone produced by the
glands? thyroid gland?
A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) A. Triiodothyronine (T3)
B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) B. Thyroxine (T4)
C. Calcitonin C. Calcitonin
D. Triiodothyronine (T3) D. All of the above
86. Which hormone from the thyroid gland helps 91. Which of the following is a function of the
lower blood calcium levels? parathyroid gland?
A. Calcitonin A. Regulation of calcium levels in the blood
B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) B. Control of metabolism
C. Thyroxine (T4) C. Regulation of growth and development
D. Triiodothyronine (T3) D. Secretion of insulin
87. What is the function of thyroid-stimulating 92. What structure connects the two lobes of the
hormone (TSH)? thyroid gland?
A. To stimulate the production of thyroid A. Isthmus
hormones B. Corpus callosum
B. To regulate calcium levels in the blood C. Thyroid cartilage
C. To stimulate the release of parathyroid D. Trachea
hormone 93. Where are the parathyroid glands located?
D. To control the metabolism of glucose A. On the posterior surface of the thyroid gland
88. Which of the following is a common symptom of B. In the adrenal gland
hyperthyroidism? C. In the hypothalamus
A. Weight loss and increased heart rate D. Within the brainstem
B. Weight gain and fatigue 94. Which of the following is a common symptom of
C. Decreased heart rate hypothyroidism?
D. Hair loss and muscle weakness A. Fatigue and weight gain
89. Which hormone regulates metabolism and B. Weight loss and nervousness
energy production?* C. Increased heart rate
A. Thyroxine (T4) D. Hair loss and rapid growth
B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 95. What is the function of calcitonin?
C. Calcitonin A. To lower blood calcium levels
D. Insulin B. To increase blood calcium levels

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 C. To stimulate the production of thyroid C. High calcium levels, kidney stones, and bone
hormones pain
D. To stimulate the adrenal glands D. Excessive sweating, rapid heart rate, and
96. Which condition can result from overproduction anxiety
of parathyroid hormone (PTH)? 101. What condition is associated with
A. Hypercalcemia hypofunction of the adrenal cortex?
B. Hypocalcemia A. Addison's disease
C. Hypothyroidism B. Cushing's syndrome
D. Hyperthyroidism C. Acromegaly
97. Which condition is associated with D. Hyperparathyroidism
hypothyroidism? 102. What is a common symptom of hyperfunction
A. Grave's disease of the parathyroid gland?
B. Addison's disease A. High calcium levels
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis B. Low calcium levels
D. Cushing's syndrome C. Decreased blood pressure
98. What are common symptoms of D. Muscle weakness
hyperthyroidism? 103. What are typical signs of hyperfunction of the
A. Fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance thyroid gland?
B. Nervousness, weight loss, and heat A. Tremors, increased heart rate, and heat
intolerance intolerance
C. Hair loss, dry skin, and joint stiffness B. Fatigue, dry skin, and weight gain
D. Muscle weakness, easy bruising, and round face C. Weight loss, muscle weakness, and sensitivity
99. Which condition results from hyperfunction of to cold
the adrenal cortex? D. High blood pressure, round face, and rapid
A. Addison's disease growth
B. Cushing's syndrome 104. What is the primary cause of non-toxic goiter?
C. Acromegaly A. Iodine deficiency
D. Hypopituitarism B. Excess iodine intake
100. What symptoms are associated with C. Autoimmune disease
hypoparathyroidism? D. Thyroid cancer
A. Muscle cramps, tetany, and numbness 105. Which condition is characterized by mental
B. Increased appetite, hypertension, and and physical developmental delays due to severe
irritability hypothyroidism in infancy or early childhood?
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 A. Cretinism D. Insulin
B. Myxedema 109. What is a common cause of hypothyroidism in
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis adults?
D. Non-toxic goiter A. Autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's disease)
106. What is the primary symptom of myxedema? B. Iodine excess
A. Severe hypothyroidism with characteristic skin C. Adrenal insufficiency
and tissue changes D. Excessive exercise
B. Mental retardation and stunted growth 110. Which condition can result from severe
C. Abnormal thyroid growth untreated hypothyroidism in adults
D. Rapid heart rate and weight loss A. Myxedema
107. Which of the following symptoms is commonly B. Cretinism
associated with hypothyroidism? C. Goiter
A. Fatigue and weight gain D. Thyroid storm
B. Rapid heart rate and weight loss 111. What is a common sign of cretinism in
C. Insomnia and nervousness children?
D. Excessive sweating and heat intolerance A. Mental and physical developmental delays
106. What is a common treatment for non-toxic B. Excessive height and muscle growth
goiter caused by iodine deficiency? C. Increased appetite and weight gain
A. Iodine supplementation D. Insomnia and anxiety
B. Thyroidectomy 112. Which of the following is a characteristic
C. Radiation therapy feature of myxedema?
D. Chemotherapy A. Thickened and dry skin
107. Which thyroid disorder is associated with a B. Rapid heart rate
characteristic swelling of the neck? C. Excessive weight loss
A. Goiter D. Hyperactivity
B. Cretinism 113. What is the primary role of iodine in the
C. Myxedema thyroid gland?
D. Hyperthyroidism A. To produce thyroid hormones
108. Which hormone is typically deficient in B. To inhibit thyroid hormone production
hypothyroidism? C. To stimulate the production of parathyroid
A. Thyroxine (T4) hormone
B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D. To regulate calcitonin secretion
C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
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114. Which condition might require surgical B. Fatigue and weight gain
intervention if the thyroid gland becomes too large? C. Hair loss and brittle nails
A. Goiter D. Reduced heart rate
B. Cretinism 120. What is toxic goiter?
C. Myxedema A. An enlarged thyroid gland that overproduces
D. Hypothyroidism thyroid hormones
115. What hormone is typically low in non-toxic B. An enlarged thyroid gland that underproduces
goiter despite an enlarged thyroid gland? thyroid hormones
A. Thyroxine (T4) C. An inflamed thyroid gland due to infection
B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) D. A benign tumor in the thyroid gland
C. Insulin 121. Which of the following is a common
D. Cortisol complication of hyperthyroidism?
116. What is the primary cause of Grave's disease? A. Thyroid storm
A. Autoimmune reaction causing excessive B. Myxedema
thyroid hormone production C. Cretinism
B. Iodine deficiency D. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Tumor in the thyroid gland 122. What medication is commonly used to treat
D. Autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland hyperthyroidism?
117. What condition is characterized by bulging A. Anti-thyroid drugs (e.g., methimazole)
eyes in patients with hyperthyroidism? B. Insulin
A. Exophthalmos C. Growth hormone replacement
B. Goiter D. Beta-blockers
C. Myxedema 123. What test is commonly used to confirm Grave's
D. Cretinism disease?
118. What is a common treatment for Grave's A. Blood test for thyroid antibodies
disease? B. Ultrasound
A. Anti-thyroid medication or thyroidectomy C. CT scan
B. Insulin therapy D. Biopsy
C. Radiation therapy 124. What are possible complications of a thyroid
D. Growth hormone replacement storm?
119. What is a common symptom of Grave's A. High fever, heart failure, and seizures
disease? B. Hair loss and dry skin
A. Tremors and anxiety C. Reduced heart rate and weight gain
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 D. Excessive hair growth and muscle cramps 130. Which cells in the thyroid gland produce
125. Which of the following conditions can lead to calcitonin?
an overactive thyroid gland? A. C cells (parafollicular cells)
A. Grave's disease B. Follicular cells
B. Toxic goiter C. Alpha cells
C. Thyroid adenoma D. Beta cells
D. All of the above 131. What is the effect of parathyroid hormone on
126. What is the primary function of parathyroid bone tissue?
hormone (PTH)? A. It stimulates osteoclast activity
A. To increase blood calcium levels B. It stimulates osteoblast activity
B. To decrease blood calcium levels C. It inhibits bone resorption
C. To regulate thyroid hormone production D. It has no effect on bone tissue
D. To control insulin secretion 132. What impact does calcitonin have on
127. Which cells produce parathyroid hormone? osteoclasts?
A. Chief cells in the parathyroid glands A. It inhibits their activity
B. Follicular cells in the thyroid gland B. It stimulates their activity
C. Alpha cells in the pancreas C. It has no effect on osteoclasts
D. Beta cells in the pancreas D. It converts them to osteoblasts
128. How does parathyroid hormone (PTH) increase 133. What is a secondary effect of parathyroid
blood calcium levels? hormone (PTH) on the kidneys?
A. By stimulating bone resorption A. It decreases phosphate reabsorption
B. By promoting calcium reabsorption in the B. It increases glucose reabsorption
kidneys C. It decreases sodium reabsorption
C. By increasing calcium absorption from the D. It increases potassium excretion
intestines 134. What is the primary cause of
D. All of the above hypoparathyroidism?
129. What role does parathyroid hormone play in A. Accidental removal of parathyroid glands
the kidneys? during thyroid surgery
A. It promotes calcium reabsorption B. Excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone
B. It decreases phosphate reabsorption (PTH)
C. It stimulates the production of active vitamin D C. Overproduction of calcitonin
(calcitriol) D. Autoimmune thyroiditis
D. All of the above
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135. What is a common symptom of B. Cortisol
hyperparathyroidism? C. Aldosterone
A. Hypercalcemia D. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
B. Hypocalcemia 141. What is the main function of cortisol, a
C. Weight loss hormone produced by the adrenal cortex?*
D. Muscle atrophy A. Regulation of metabolism and stress response
136. Which condition is associated with B. Regulation of calcium levels
hyperparathyroidism? C. Control of blood glucose levels
A. Osteoporosis D. Promotion of muscle growth
B. Myxedema 142. Which zone of the adrenal cortex primarily
C. Addison's disease produces aldosterone?
D. Cushing's syndrome A. Zona glomerulosa
137. What is a common cause of primary B. Zona fasciculata
hyperparathyroidism? C. Zona reticularis
A. Parathyroid adenoma D. Zona compacta
B. Iodine deficiency 143. Which hormone from the adrenal cortex
C. Hypocalcemia regulates sodium and potassium levels in the
D. Autoimmune thyroiditis blood?
138. What condition might result from severe A. Aldosterone
hypoparathyroidism? B. Cortisol
A. Tetany C. DHEA
B. Hypercalcemia D. Epinephrine
C. Osteoporosis 144. The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex
D. Exophthalmos primarily produces which hormone?
139. The adrenal gland is divided into which two A. Cortisol
main regions? B. Aldosterone
A. Cortex and medulla C. DHEA
B. Medulla and parenchyma D. Epinephrine
C. Cortex and stroma 145. What is the primary function of the adrenal
D. Parenchyma and isthmus medulla?
140. Which hormone is primarily produced by the A. To produce catecholamines (e.g., epinephrine
adrenal medulla? and norepinephrine)
A. Epinephrine (adrenaline) B. To regulate glucose levels
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 C. To produce corticosteroids D. Epinephrine
D. To control calcium levels 151. Which hormone from the adrenal cortex is
146. What is a common effect of epinephrine primarily responsible for regulating metabolism and
(adrenaline) on the body? the body's stress response?
A. Increased heart rate and blood pressure A. Cortisol
B. Decreased heart rate B. Aldosterone
C. Increased blood glucose levels C. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
D. Both A and C D. Epinephrine
147. The zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex 152. Which of the following is a function of cortisol
primarily produces which hormone? in the immune system?
A. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) A. Anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive
B. Cortisol effects
C. Aldosterone B. Stimulation of immune cell production
D. Epinephrine C. Increased inflammation
148. What is the effect of aldosterone on the D. Decreased blood glucose levels
kidneys? 153. Which hormone from the adrenal cortex plays
A. Promotes sodium reabsorption and potassium a role in the body's circadian rhythm?
excretion A. Cortisol
B. Promotes potassium reabsorption and sodium B. Aldosterone
excretion C. DHEA
C. Promotes calcium reabsorption D. Epinephrine
D. Promotes glucose reabsorption 154. What is the primary cause of Cushing's
149. Which part of the adrenal gland is responsible syndrome?
for the "fight or flight" response? A. Excess cortisol production
A. Adrenal medulla B. Insufficient cortisol production
B. Adrenal cortex C. Overproduction of aldosterone
C. Zona reticularis D. Insufficient aldosterone production
D. Zona fasciculata 155. Which condition is characterized by insufficient
150. Which hormone produced by the adrenal production of cortisol and aldosterone?
cortex has androgenic effects? A. Addison's disease
A. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) B. Cushing's syndrome
B. Aldosterone C. Conn's syndrome
C. Cortisol D. Hyperparathyroidism
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156. Which of the following is a common symptom B. Cushing's syndrome
of Cushing's syndrome? C. Conn's syndrome
A. Weight gain, moon face, and buffalo hump D. Hyperthyroidism
B. Weight loss, fatigue, and muscle weakness 162. What is a common treatment for Cushing's
C. Rapid heart rate and anxiety syndrome?
D. Hair loss and dry skin A. Surgery to remove the adrenal tumor or
157. What is the primary cause of Addison's reduce cortisol levels
disease? B. Growth hormone replacement therapy
A. Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex C. Radiation therapy
B. Tumor in the adrenal cortex D. Insulin therapy
C. Excessive cortisol production 163. What test is commonly used to diagnose
D. High blood pressure Cushing's syndrome?
158. Which of the following is a common symptom A. Dexamethasone suppression test
of Addison's disease? B. Blood test for thyroid-stimulating hormone
A. Fatigue, muscle weakness, and weight loss C. Blood test for cortisol
B. Weight gain, moon face, and buffalo hump D. Both A and C
C. Rapid heart rate and high blood pressure 164. What is the normal range for fasting blood
D. Hair loss and dry skin glucose levels?
159. What hormone is typically deficient in A. 70-100 mg/dl
Addison's disease? B. 120-150 mg/dl
A. Cortisol C. 200-250 mg/dl
B. Aldosterone D. 300-350 mg/dl
C. Both A and B 165. Which of the following is NOT a clinical
D. Epinephrine manifestation of hyperglycemia?
160. What is a common cause of Cushing's A. Polyuria
syndrome due to external factors? B. Polydipsia
A. Long-term use of corticosteroids C. Polyphagia
B. Autoimmune disease D. Bradycardia
C. Adrenal adenoma 166. HbA1c is a blood test used to measure:
D. Low calcium levels A. Average blood glucose levels over the past 3
161. Which condition is associated with low blood months
pressure, fatigue, and darkening of the skin? B. Insulin levels in the body
A. Addison's disease C. Hemoglobin levels in the blood
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 D. Kidney function D. Pituitary gland
167. The primary goal of treatment for diabetes 173. Hyperthyroidism in female
mellitus is to: A. Menorrhagia
A. Maintain stable blood glucose levels B. Ammenorrhea
B. Prevent complications C. Hirsuitism
C. Improve quality of life D. Vitiligo
168. All of the above Which of the following 174. Diabetic Ketoacidois is caused by
hormone is secreted from anterior pituitary? A. DM Type 1
A. Oxytocin B. DM Type 2
B. TSH C. DM Type 3
C. Thyroid hormone D. DM Type 4
D. Cortisol 175. Hyperosmolar non ketotic coma is caused
169. Which of the following hormone is not by Diabeties Myelitis
secreted from anterior pituitary? A. Type 1
A. ADH B. Type 2
B. GH C. Type 3
C. Prolactin D. Type 4
D. LH/FSH 176. Action of oxytocin includes
170. Which of the following hormone is secreted A. Contraction of smooth muscle
from posterior pituitary B. Contraction of Cardiac muscle
A. GH C. Contraction of Striated muscle
B. Prolactin D. Relaxation of smooth muscle
C. Oxytocin 177. Ejection of milk is the role of
D. TSH A. Oxytocin
171. TRH act on B. Prolactin
A. Thyroid gland C. Thyroid hormone
B. Parathyroid gland D. Adrenal gland
C. Adrenal gland 178. Following hormone causes hyperglycemia
D. Anterior pituitary except
172. TSH acts on A. Glucagon
A. Thyroid gland B. Cortisol
B. Parathyroid gland C. Thyroid hormone
C. Adrenal gland D. ADH
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179. Excess ACTH from anterior pituitary causes 185. Which of the following hormone is
A. Cushing disease concerned with Calcium metabolism
B. Cushing syndrome A. GH
C. Addison disease B. Cortisol
D. Acromegaly C. ACTH
180. Fasting blood glucose level is D. PTH
A. 70-110 mg/dl 186. Following are the clinical features of
B. 80-90 mg/dl cushing syndrome except
C. 110-120 mg/dl A. Cataract formation
D. 120-140 mg/dl B. Osteoporosis
181. Over activity of thyroid gland is called C. Moon face
A. Addison disease D. Cold intolerance
B. Cushing disease 187. Which part of the brain regulates the
C. Hyperthyroidism production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)?
D. Hypothyroidism A. Hypothalamus
182. The master gland of endocrine system B. Amygdala
located at the base of skull is C. Parietal lobe
A. Pituitary gland D. Hippocampus
B. Thyroid gland 188. What is the effect of hypothyroidism on the
C. Parathyroid gland musculoskeletal system?
D. Adrenal gland A. It can cause osteoporosis.
183. Following is the hormone of hypothalamus B. It can cause muscle weakness.
A. GH C. It can cause joint pain.
B. CRH D. It has no effect on the musculoskeletal system.
C. TSH 189. What is the most common cause of
D. FSH hypothyroidism?
184. Following are the complication of diabeties A. Autoimmune disorder
type 1 except B. Thyroid cancer
A. Ketoacidosis C. Exposure to radiation
B. Non-Ketotic hyperosmolar coma D. Viral infection
C. Myocardial infarction 190. What is the main cause of non-toxic goiter?
D. Stroke A. Iodine deficiency
B. Autoimmune disorder
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 C. Genetic mutation A. Increased blood pressure
D. Exposure to radiation B. Decreased blood sugar levels
191. How does Graves' disease affect the eyes? C. Slowed heart rate
A. It can cause bulging eyes. D. No effect on metabolism
B. It can cause double vision. 197. Which hormone is responsible for regulating
C. It can cause blindness. potassium levels in the body?
D. It has no effect on the eyes. A. Adrenaline
192. Which of the following is a symptom of B. Noradrenaline
hyperparathyroidism? C. Cortisol
A. Fatigue D. Aldosterone
B. Increased appetite 198. What is the effect of high levels of aldosterone
C. Weight loss in the body?
D. Muscle weakness A. Increased blood pressure
193. Which hormones are produced by the adrenal B. Decreased blood sugar levels
cortex? C. Slowed heart rate
A. Adrenaline and noradrenaline D. No effect on metabolism
B. Insulin and glucagon 199. What is the function of glucocorticoids?
C. Cortisol and aldosterone A. Regulate glucose and fat metabolism
D. Progesterone and estrogen B. Regulate blood pressure
194. Which hormone is responsible for maintaining C. Regulate body temperature
blood pressure? D. Control heart rate
A. Adrenaline 200. What is the function of mineralocorticoids?
B. Noradrenaline A. Regulate mineral balance and blood pressure
C. Cortisol B. Regulate glucose and fat metabolism
D. Aldosterone C. Regulate body temperature
195. What is the effect of high levels of cortisol in Control heart rate
the body?
A. Increased blood sugar levels
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Slowed heart rate
D. No effect on metabolism
196. What is the effect of low levels of aldosterone
in the body?
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30

UNIT-3 NEUROLOGICAL SYSTEM DISOREDERS

1. The ability to perceive touch, heat, pressure, c. Basilar artery

and pain is known as: d. Femoral artery
a. Central Nervous System 6. What is the function of the blood-brain
b. Peripheral Nervous System barrier?
c. Somatosensory pathway a. To protect the brain from harmful
d. Autonomic Nervous System substances
2. Which one of the following is responsible for b. To regulate blood pressure in the brain
detecting and processing pain? c. To deliver nutrients to the brain
a. Nociceptors d. To remove waste products from the brain
b. Sensory receptors 7. Which of the following are degenerative
c. Motor neurons disorders that affect the nervous tissue?
d. Interneurons a. Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's
3. What is the term used to describe the body's disease
natural pain relief system? b. Epilepsy and multiple sclerosis
a. Nociceptors c. Stroke and TIA
b. Analgesics d. Hydrocephalus and brain tumors
c. Endorphins 8. Which of the following is not a risk factor for
d. Opioids stroke?
4. How does TENS work to relieve pain? a. Obesity
a. By increasing blood flow to the affected b. Smoking
area c. High blood pressure
b. By blocking the transmission of pain d. Low cholesterol level
signals 9. Which type of stroke is caused by a blood
c. By reducing inflammation clot in an artery that leads to the brain?
d. By increasing the number of nociceptors a. Ischemic stroke
5. Which of the following is not one of the b. Hemorrhagic stroke
major vessels in the cerebral circulation? c. Transient ischemic attack
a. Internal carotid artery d. Silent stroke
b. Vertebral artery

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31

10. Which of the following is a common a. Epilepsy

symptom of stroke? b. Parkinson's disease
a. Numbness or weakness on one side of the c. Multiple sclerosis
body d. Dystonia
b. Extreme thirst 15. What is the most common type of
c. Vision changes dementia?
d. Heart palpitations a. Parkinson's disease
11. Why are transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) b. Alzheimer's disease
considered "mini-strokes"? c. Huntington's disease
a. Because they only last a few seconds d. Multiple sclerosis
b. Because they are not serious and do not 16. Which neurotransmitter is primarily
require medical attention affected in Parkinson's disease?
c. Because they are warning signs of a larger a. Dopamine
stroke b. Serotonin
d. Because they only affect a small area of the c. Acetylcholine
brain d. Norepinephrine
12. What is the term used to describe a 17. Which of the following is not a common
sudden, uncontrolled electrical disturbance in symptom of multiple sclerosis?
the brain? a. Muscle weakness
a. Seizure b. Vision changes
b. Stroke c. Tremors
c. TIA d. Nausea and vomiting
d. Migraine 18. What is the term used to describe a
13. Which of the following is a type of seizure condition in which the pressure inside the skull
that affects both sides of the brain? increases and causes brain damage?
a. Absence seizure a. Hydrocephalus
b. Complex partial seizure b. Brain tumor
c. Simple partial seizure c. Encephalitis
d. Generalized tonic-clonic seizure d. Meningitis
14. What is the term used to describe a group 19. Which of the following is a common
of neurological disorders that cause muscle symptom of encephalitis?
stiffness and spasms? a. Muscle weakness
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32

b. Confusion and disorientation 25. A-Delta fibers transmit faster than C fibers.
c. Double vision a. True
d. Chest pain b. False
20. Which of the following is a 26. In Melzack and Wall's Gate Control Model,
neurodegenerative disorder that affects what is pain sensory related to?
voluntary muscle movement? a. Thoughts
a. Parkinson's disease b. Emotion
b. Huntington's disease c. Attention
c. Alzheimer's disease d. All of the above
d. Multiple sclerosis 27. Where is pain sensation first modulated in
21. Pain is BEST described as the Gate Control Model?
a. a creation of a person's imagination a. Brainstem
b. an unpleasant, subjective experience b. Spinal cord
c. a maladaptive response to a stimulus c. Frontal lobe
d. a neurologic event resulting from activation d. Tissues
of nociceptors. 28. In the Gate Control Model, inhibitory
22. Nociceptors are pain receptors in the interneurons are stimulated by A-Delta fibers.
peripheral nervous system. a. True
a. True b. False (A-Beta fibers (this closes the gate)
b. False 29. Classification of pain by duration
23. What are the three parts of the Bottom-Up a. Sharp, burning
pain model? b. Dull
a. Interneuron, Information, Perception c. Chronic
b. Nociception, Myelination, Pericardium d. Throbbing
c. Tactilation, Nociception, Fibration 30. Threshold is :
d. Nociception, Transmission, Perception a. The duration and intensity of pain that a
24. Which of the following fibers are associated person tolerates before openly expressing pain
with fast pain? b. The intensity of the stimulus a person needs
a. A-Delta to sense pain
b. A-Beta c. The intensity of pain that restricts one from
c. C ADLS
d. A-Iota
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33

d. The intensity of pain that prompts one to a. A- beta primary afferent fibers.
seek medical attention b. C- Primary afferent fibers.
31. All are Pain Scales EXCEPT? c. Both C fiber & A- beta fibers.
a. Numeric rating scale d. A- delta primary afferent fibers.
b. Visual analogue scale, 36. The person feels pain which is perceived in a
c. Simple descriptor scale (pains or pqrst) part of the body that is different from the
d. Braden scale part/tissue that is actually causing the pain. This
32. All are Independent non-pharmacological is called ________
measures to treat pain Except? a. Static pain
a. Massage b. Shooting pain
b. Use of heat/cold c. Referred Pain
c. Meditation d. Burning pain
d. Opioids 37. Which one of the following nerve fiber is
33. A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) responsible for touch, vibration, movement
patch for chronic cancer pain suddenly sensation?
complains of rapid onset pain at a level 9 (0 to a. C fibres
10 scale) and requests "something for pain that b. Aδ fibres
will work now." How will the nurse document c. A-β fibres
the type of pain reported by this patient? d. A-βC fibres
a. Somatic pain 38. _____ happens when blood flow to part of
b. Referred pain the brain is blocked or reduced, often by a
c. Neuropathic pain blood clot. After a short time, blood flows again
d. Breakthrough pain and the symptoms go away.
34. ____________fiber is mainly responsible for a. Intraventricular Hemorrhage
‘visceral’ type of pain b. TIA
a. C fibres c. Stroke
b. Aδfibres d. Hemorrhagic stroke
c. A-β fibres 39. What is the primary function of the

d. A-βC fibres somatosensory pathway?

35. While sewing clothes, a needle pierced her a. Transmit visual information

hand and she experienced sharp pain. Which b. Transmit auditory information

fibers were widely distributed in her skin?

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34

c. Transmit sensations like touch, d. In the thalamus

temperature, pain, and proprioception 44. What is the destination of third-order
d. Transmit information related to muscle neurons in the somatosensory pathway?
contractions a. Cerebellum
40. What are the three neurons involved in the b. Somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobe
basic somatosensory pathway, in order of c. Occipital lobe
ascending processing? d. Temporal lobe
a. Primary neuron, secondary neuron, tertiary 45. What type of information is primarily
neuron transmitted through the spinothalamic tract in
b. First-order neuron, second-order neuron, the somatosensory pathway?
third-order neuron a. Fine touch and proprioception
c. Neuron I, Neuron II, Neuron III b. Pain and temperature
d. First neuron, secondary neuron, last neuron c. Visual information
41. Where do first-order neurons typically enter d. Auditory information
the central nervous system in the 46. What is the primary mechanism by which
somatosensory pathway? heat therapy can provide pain relief?
a. Through cranial nerves or spinal nerves a. Increases blood flow and relaxes muscles
b. Through the optic chiasm b. Reduces blood flow
c. Through the vestibular system c. Constricts blood vessels
d. Through the peripheral ganglia d. Stimulates nerve regeneration
42. What structure serves as a major relay 47. How does cold therapy (cryotherapy)
center for somatosensory information before it primarily help with pain relief?
reaches the cerebral cortex? a. By increasing blood flow
a. Hypothalamus b. By numbing the affected area and reducing
b. Thalamus inflammation
c. Medulla oblongata c. By relaxing muscles
d. Cerebellum d. By stimulating nerve regeneration
43. In the somatosensory pathway, where does 48. What is the key concept behind the Gate
decussation (crossing over) typically occur? Control Theory of pain relief, which is used in
a. At the level of the medulla or spinal cord TENS therapy?
b. In the cerebral cortex a. Pain signals can be blocked by non-painful
c. In the pons signals
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b. Pain is related to the intensity of the b. Increases blood flow to the area
stimulus c. Increases nerve sensitivity
c. Pain signals bypass the brainstem d. Stimulates pain receptors
d. Pain is always proportional to tissue 54. What are the two main arteries supplying
damage blood to the brain?
49. What frequency range is commonly used in a. Carotid arteries and vertebral arteries
TENS to provide pain relief? b. Brachial arteries and radial arteries
a. 1-10 Hz c. Femoral arteries and popliteal arteries
b. 50-100 Hz d. Aorta and pulmonary arteries
c. 100-150 Hz 55. What structure connects the major arteries
d. 10-50 Hz at the base of the brain, providing collateral
50. What is a common effect of cold therapy on circulation?
nerve conduction? a. Circle of Willis
a. Slows down nerve conduction b. Cerebellum
b. Speeds up nerve conduction c. Hippocampus
c. No effect on nerve conduction d. Thalamus
d. Stimulates nerve regeneration 56. Which artery is responsible for supplying the
51. How does TENS therapy typically work to medial parts of the frontal and parietal lobes?
relieve pain? a. Anterior cerebral artery
a. By blocking or interfering with pain signals b. Middle cerebral artery
b. By causing muscle contractions c. Posterior cerebral artery
c. By constricting blood vessels d. Basilar artery
d. By relaxing muscles 57. The basilar artery is formed by the union of
52. What is a common physiological response to which two arteries?
heat therapy? a. Vertebral arteries
a. Vasodilation b. Carotid arteries
b. Vasoconstriction c. Subclavian arteries
c. Reduction in nerve sensitivity d. Brachial arteries
d. Increase in inflammation 58. What artery supplies blood to the lateral
53. What is a key benefit of using cold therapy aspects of the cerebral hemispheres, including
after an injury? the motor and sensory cortices?
a. Reduces swelling and inflammation a. Middle cerebral artery
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b. Anterior cerebral artery c. Subclavian vein

c. Posterior cerebral artery d. Basilic vein
d. Basilar artery 64. What is the primary function of the blood-
59. Which artery supplies the occipital lobe and brain barrier (BBB)?
the inferior temporal lobe? a. To protect the brain from harmful
a. Posterior cerebral artery substances in the blood
b. Anterior cerebral artery b. To allow immune cells easy access to the
c. Middle cerebral artery brain
d. Basilar artery c. To circulate cerebrospinal fluid throughout
60. What structure does the internal carotid the brain
artery pass through to enter the cranial cavity? d. To control blood flow in the brain
a. Carotid canal 65. Which type of cell primarily forms the
b. Jugular foramen blood-brain barrier?
c. Foramen magnum a. Endothelial cells
d. Foramen ovale b. Astrocytes
61. What artery provides the primary blood c. Oligodendrocytes
supply to the brainstem and cerebellum? d. Microglia
a. Basilar artery 66. What unique feature do the endothelial
b. Middle cerebral artery cells of the blood-brain barrier have compared
c. Posterior cerebral artery to other endothelial cells?
d. Anterior cerebral artery a. Tight junctions
62. What is the primary artery responsible for b. Gap junctions
supplying the anterior portion of the brain, c. Desmosomes
especially the frontal and parietal lobes? d. Loose connections
a. Anterior cerebral artery 67. Which cells play a supportive role in
b. Middle cerebral artery maintaining the blood-brain barrier by signaling
c. Posterior cerebral artery to endothelial cells?
d. Basilar artery a. Astrocytes
63. Which vein is a major channel for draining b. Microglia
blood from the brain? c. Neurons
a. Internal jugular vein d. Schwann cells
b. External jugular vein
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68. What type of molecules can typically cross 72. What type of molecule typically has
the blood-brain barrier? difficulty crossing the blood-brain barrier?
a. Lipid-soluble molecules a. Large and water-soluble molecules
b. Water-soluble molecules b. Lipid-soluble molecules
c. Large proteins c. Small ions
d. Immune cells d. Gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide
69. What happens when the blood-brain barrier 73. What is one approach to overcoming the
is disrupted? blood-brain barrier for drug delivery?
a. Increased risk of infection and a. Using nanoparticles to carry drugs across
inflammation in the brain the barrier
b. Improved nutrient and drug delivery to the b. Injecting drugs directly into the brain
brain c. Increasing blood pressure to force drug
c. Enhanced brain function and cognition entry
d. Increased blood flow to the brain d. Diluting drugs to increase absorption
70. What is one reason why certain neurological 74. Which of the following is a common risk
drugs have limited effectiveness due to the factor for ischemic stroke?
blood-brain barrier? a. Low blood pressure
a. The blood-brain barrier prevents many b. Smoking
drugs from entering the brain c. Young age
b. Drugs are metabolized too quickly in the d. Low cholesterol
brain 75. Which type of stroke is caused by a blood
c. The brain has limited blood supply clot blocking a blood vessel in the brain?
d. Drugs are diluted by cerebrospinal fluid a. Ischemic stroke
71. What role does the blood-brain barrier play b. Hemorrhagic stroke
in regulating the brain's microenvironment? c. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
a. It controls the composition of substances d. Cardioembolic stroke
entering the brain 76. What is a common risk factor for
b. It stimulates neuron growth and hemorrhagic stroke?
differentiation a. Hypertension
c. It enhances brain's immune response b. Hypotension
d. It stimulates blood vessel formation c. Anemia
d. Low blood sugar
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77. Which type of stroke involves bleeding into 82. Which type of hemorrhagic stroke occurs
the brain? when a blood vessel on the brain's surface
a. Ischemic stroke bursts?
b. Hemorrhagic stroke a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) b. Intracerebral hemorrhage
d. Embolic stroke c. Subdural hematoma
78. Which condition is also known as a "mini- d. Epidural hematoma
stroke" and involves temporary stroke-like 83. What is a common cause of embolic
symptoms? strokes?
a. Hemorrhagic stroke a. Blood clot from another part of the body
b. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) b. Trauma to the brain
c. Ischemic stroke c. High blood sugar
d. Lacunar stroke d. Obesity
79. Which of the following is a common 84. Which type of stroke is generally caused by
treatment for ischemic stroke? atherosclerosis in the carotid arteries?
a. Anticoagulants a. Ischemic stroke
b. Surgery b. Hemorrhagic stroke
c. Blood transfusions c. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
d. Physical therapy d. Lacunar stroke
80. Which factor is most closely associated with 85. Which medical test is commonly used to
an increased risk of stroke? diagnose a stroke?
a. High cholesterol a. CT scan
b. High blood pressure b. X-ray
c. Low body mass index c. Ultrasound
d. Low heart rate d. ECG
81. What is a potential outcome of an ischemic 86. What is a common early symptom of a
stroke if left untreated? transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
a. Brain tissue damage due to lack of oxygen a. Sudden weakness or numbness on one
b. Increased heart rate side of the body
c. Excessive blood flow to the brain b. Chronic fatigue
d. Blood clots in the veins c. Joint pain
d. Difficulty swallowing
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87. Which of the following lifestyle factors can 92. Which of these is a typical symptom of a
reduce the risk of stroke? Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?
a. Regular exercise a. Sudden weakness or numbness on one
b. High sodium diet side of the body
c. Smoking b. Slow heart rate
d. Excessive alcohol consumption c. Chronic back pain
88. Which type of stroke is most likely to occur d. Persistent fever
in older adults? 93. How long do symptoms of a Transient
a. Ischemic stroke Ischemic Attack (TIA) typically last?
b. Hemorrhagic stroke a. Less than 24 hours
c. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) b. 24 to 48 hours
d. Embolic stroke c. Several days
89. What is a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) d. Longer than a week
often referred to as? 94. Which of the following is a key risk factor for
a. Mini-stroke Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs)?
b. Full-blown stroke a. High blood pressure
c. Heart attack b. Low blood sugar
d. Minor heart issue c. Low heart rate
90. How does a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) d. High calcium levels
differ from a full-blown stroke? 95. What should a person do if they experience
a. A TIA doesn't cause permanent brain symptoms of a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?
damage a. Seek immediate medical attention
b. A TIA is caused by hemorrhage b. Wait for the symptoms to pass
c. A TIA only affects the heart c. Take over-the-counter medication
d. A TIA has more severe symptoms d. Drink more water
91. Which of the following is a common cause 96. What can a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
of a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)? be a warning sign for?
a. A temporary blood clot a. A future stroke
b. Burst blood vessel b. Heart attack
c. Low blood pressure c. Low blood pressure
d. High cholesterol d. Muscle strain

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97. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to 99. Cerebral blood receive …………… of cardiac
evaluate Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs)? output.
a. MRI scan a. 75%
b. Blood test b. 45%
c. Urinalysis c. 15%
d. X-ray d. 5%
98. What type of medication is often prescribed 100. Which of the following is the most potent
to prevent Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs) symptom of hemorrhagic stroke?
from progressing to a stroke? a. Ataxia
a. Anticoagulants b. Seizure
b. Pain relievers c. Head ach
c. Anti-inflammatories d. Weakness
d. Sedatives

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UNIT-4 SPECIAL SENSES (EYE & EAR) DISORDERS

1. Which is NOT part of the inner ear? a. The utricle.

a. The vestibule. b. The semicircular canals.
b. The semicircular canals. c. The spiral organ.
c. The cochlea. d. The basilar membrane.
d. The pharyngotympanic tube. 9. Which is the middle layer of the eyeball wall?
2. Which of the auditory ossicles is anvil-shaped a. The sclera.
and has long and short processes? b. The cornea.
a. The malleus. c. The uveal tract.
b. The incus. d. The retina.
c. The stapes. 10. The choroid:
d. The saccule. a. Lines the posterior five-sixths of the sclera.
3. In the inner ear: b. Is devoid of blood vessels.
a. The membranous labyrinth lies within the c. Gives attachment to the extrinsic muscles of
bony labyrinth. the eye.
b. The bony labyrinth is filled with endolymph. d. Gives attachment to the intrinsic muscles of
c. The auditory receptors are dendrites of the eye.
specialised efferent nerve endings. 11. Which of the following is NOT true of the
d. The cochlear duct contains perilymph. ciliary body?
4. Sound is perceived by the: a. It gives attachment to the lens through
a. Inner ear. suspensory ligaments.
b. Cochlear hair cells. b. The ciliary muscle consists of radiating
c. Auditory ossicles. muscle fibres that dilate the pupil when
d. Temporal lobe of the cerebrum. stimulated.
7. Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: c. It contains epithelial cells that secrete
a. Ototoxic drugs, e.g., aminoglycoside aqueous fluid.
antibiotics. d. It is supplied by parasympathetic branches of
b. Acute otitis media. the third cranial nerve.
c. Long-term exposure to excessive noise. 12. Eye colour is determined by the:
d. Ménière’s disease. a. Cornea.
8. Hair cells for balance are located in: b. Choroid.

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c. Iris. 18. Raised intraocular pressure causes:

d. Retina. a. Retinal detachment.
13. Opacity of the lens is caused by: b. Strabismus.
a. Retinal detachment. c. Cataracts.
b. Colour blindness. d. Glaucoma.
c. Strabismus. 19. The optic tracts contain:
d. Cataracts. a. Nasal fibres from one eye and temporal
14. The fovea centralis is found in the: fibres from the other eye.
a. Macula lutea. b. Nasal and temporal fibres from the same eye.
b. Optic disc. c. Nerve fibres from the visual area in the
c. Ciliary body. cerebrum.
d. Iris. d. Nerve fibres from the visual area in the
15. The central retinal artery and vein are cerebellum.
encased within the optic nerve that enters the 20. Where do the optic radiations terminate?
eye a. The lateral geniculate bodies.
at the: b. The occipital lobes of cerebrum.
a. Macula lutea. c. The cerebellum.
b. Optic disc. d. The optic chiasma.
c. Fovea centralis. 21. Which of the following is involved in
d. Scleral venous sinus. producing a clear visual image of nearby
16. Structures in the eye that have no blood objects?
supply include: a. Refraction of light rays.
a. The cornea. b. A change in the size of the pupils.
b. The lens. c. Accommodation of the lens.
c. The lens capsule. d. All of the above.
d. All of the above. 22. Which of the following have the longest
17. Normal intraocular pressure is wavelength?
approximately a. Microwaves.
a. 2–8 mmHg. b. Violet light rays.
b. 10–20 mmHg. c. X-rays.
c. 20–40 mmHg. d. Gamma rays.
d. None of the above.
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23. Which of the following are sensitive to c. Presbycusis.

colour? d. Otosclerosis.
a. Rods. 29. Which of the following is the most common
b. Cones. refractive error?
c. Rhodopsin. a. Hyperopia
d. All of the above. b.Myopia
24. The ability to judge the speed and distance c. Astigmatism
of an approaching vehicle is impaired in: d. Presbyopia
a. Colour blindness. 30. What condition involves difficulty focusing
b. Dark adaptation. on nearby objects, often associated with
c. Binocular vision. aging?
d. Monocular vision. a. Hyperopia
25. The abducent nerve supplies the: b. Myopia
a. Medial rectus muscles. c. Presbyopia
b. Superior oblique muscles. d. Astigmatism
c. Lateral rectus muscles. 31. Which visual dysfunction is characterized by
d. Intrinsic muscles of the iris and ciliary body. blurred vision due to irregularities in the
26. Which of the extraocular muscles rotates shape of the cornea or lens?
the eyeball upwards and outwards? a. Myopia
a. The superior rectus. b. Hyperopia
b. The inferior rectus. c. Astigmatism
c. The superior oblique. d. Presbyopia
d. The inferior oblique. 32. Which condition refers to the loss of
27. The tarsal glands are found in the: peripheral vision, often caused by optic
a. Eyebrows. nerve damage?
b. Eyelids. a. Glaucoma
c. Lacrimal apparatus. b. Cataracts
d. Conjunctiva. c. Macular Degeneration
28. By the age of 40 years, most adults require d. Retinitis Pigmentosa
spectacles for reading due to development of: 33. What is the leading cause of blindness in
a. Cataracts. the elderly in developed countries?
b. Presbyopia. a. Cataracts
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b. Glaucoma a. Strabismus
c. Macular Degeneration b. Amblyopia
d. Retinitis Pigmentosa c. Astigmatism
34. Which condition is caused by clouding of d. Hyperopia
the eye's lens, leading to blurry vision? 39. What condition involves the brain favoring
a. Glaucoma one eye over the other, leading to reduced
b. Cataracts vision in the weaker eye?
c. Macular Degeneration a. Amblyopia
d. Retinitis Pigmentosa b. Strabismus
35. What visual dysfunction involves damage to c. Myopia
the retina, commonly due to complications d. Hyperopia
from diabetes? 40. Which visual dysfunction is characterized by
a. Diabetic Retinopathy central vision loss due to damage to the
b. Retinitis Pigmentosa macula?
c. Glaucoma a. Macular Degeneration
d. Cataracts b. Retinitis Pigmentosa
36. Which condition is characterized by night c. Glaucoma
blindness and a gradual loss of peripheral d. Cataracts
vision, eventually leading to tunnel vision? 41. What condition involves a sudden increase
a. Retinitis Pigmentosa in eye pressure, leading to severe pain and
b. Macular Degeneration possible blindness if not treated quickly?
c. Glaucoma a. Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
d. Cataracts b. Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma
37. What is the most common cause of vision c. Cataracts
loss in people with diabetes? d. Macular Degeneration
a. Diabetic Retinopathy 42. Which condition is characterized by
b. Cataracts repeated involuntary eye movements,
c. Glaucoma affecting vision and balance?
d. Macular Degeneration a. Nystagmus
38. Which condition involves misalignment of b. Strabismus
the eyes, leading to double vision or a loss c. Amblyopia
of depth perception? d. Glaucoma
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43. What is the common term for age-related a. Central scotoma

vision decline that affects the ability to see b. Tunnel vision
fine details up close? c. Complete loss of central vision
a. Presbyopia d. Double vision
b. Hyperopia 49. Which process leads to damage in the optic
c. Myopia nerve in glaucoma?
d. Astigmatism a. Inflammation
44. Which of the following is a key risk factor b. Compression from elevated intraocular
for glaucoma? pressure
a. Low intraocular pressure c. Degeneration of retinal cells
b. High intraocular pressure d. Increased blood flow to the optic nerve
c. Low blood pressure 50. Which type of glaucoma can occur due to
d. High blood sugar levels injury or other eye diseases?
45. Glaucoma primarily affects which part of a. Primary open-angle glaucoma
the eye? b. Secondary glaucoma
a. Retina c. Congenital glaucoma
b. Cornea d. Angle-closure glaucoma
c. Optic nerve 51. In glaucoma, the increased intraocular
d. Iris pressure results from which of the
46. The most common type of glaucoma is: following?
a. Angle-closure glaucoma a. Blocked drainage of aqueous humor
b. Primary open-angle glaucoma b. Decreased production of aqueous humor
c. Secondary glaucoma c. Rapidly growing lens
d. Congenital glaucoma d. Thickening of the retina
47. What is the hallmark symptom of acute 52. Glaucoma can lead to irreversible vision loss
angle-closure glaucoma? due to:
a. Gradual vision loss a. Damage to the optic nerve
b. Sudden eye pain and blurred vision b. Damage to the retina
c. Decreased peripheral vision c. Inflammation of the cornea
d. Increased tear production d. Thickening of the lens
48. Which visual field defect is commonly 53. Which of the following is not typically a
associated with glaucoma? symptom of primary open-angle glaucoma?
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a. Gradual loss of peripheral vision c. Severe headache

b. Eye pain d. Double vision
c. Tunnel vision 59. Which of the following is a common cause
d. Frequent changes in eyeglass prescription of sensorineural hearing loss?
54. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to a. Earwax blockage
assess intraocular pressure in glaucoma? b. Aging
a. Tonometry c. Eardrum perforation
b. Ophthalmoscopy d. Otitis media
c. Visual field test 60. What auditory dysfunction involves
d. Optical coherence tomography (OCT) inflammation and fluid accumulation in the
55. Glaucoma is most commonly treated with: middle ear?
a. Eyedrops to lower intraocular pressure a. Otitis media
b. Laser surgery b. Otosclerosis
c. Conventional surgery c. Meniere's disease
d. Eyeglasses with prisms d. Tinnitus
56. Which lifestyle factor is known to increase 61. Which condition is characterized by
the risk of glaucoma? persistent ringing or buzzing in the ears?
a. Excessive alcohol consumption a. Tinnitus
b. Smoking b. Vertigo
c. High caffeine intake c. Otosclerosis
d. Sedentary lifestyle d. Hyperacusis
57. Primary open-angle glaucoma is most 62. Which auditory condition involves abnormal
common among which age group? bone growth in the middle ear, leading to
a. Under 40 years hearing loss?
b. 40-60 years a. Otosclerosis
c. Over 60 years b. Otitis media
d. Over 70 years c. Meniere's disease
58. Which of the following is a common d. Acoustic neuroma
manifestation of glaucoma in its early 63. What type of hearing loss is caused by
stages? damage to the cochlea or auditory nerve?
a. No noticeable symptoms a. Sensorineural hearing loss
b. Eye pain b. Conductive hearing loss
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c. Mixed hearing loss a. Aging

d. Central hearing loss b. Exposure to loud noises
64. Which auditory condition is characterized c. Genetic factors
by episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, d. Ear infections
tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness in the ear? 69. Which condition involves heightened
a. Meniere's disease sensitivity to normal sounds, leading to
b. Acoustic neuroma discomfort or pain?
c. Otosclerosis a. Hyperacusis
d. Otitis externa b. Tinnitus
65. Which auditory dysfunction is associated c. Acoustic neuroma
with tumors on the vestibulocochlear d. Meniere's disease
nerve, leading to hearing loss and balance 70. Which type of hearing loss involves a
issues? combination of sensorineural and
a. Acoustic neuroma conductive hearing loss?
b. Meniere's disease a. Mixed hearing loss
c. Otosclerosis b. Sensorineural hearing loss
d. Otitis media c. Conductive hearing loss
66. What type of hearing loss occurs due to a d. Central hearing loss
blockage or damage to the outer or middle 71. Which condition is characterized by a
ear? perforated eardrum due to trauma or
a. Conductive hearing loss infection?
b. Sensorineural hearing loss a. Tympanic membrane perforation
c. Mixed hearing loss b. Otitis media
d. Central hearing loss c. Otosclerosis
67. Which of the following conditions is not d. Acoustic neuroma
typically associated with hearing loss? 72. What is the most common cause of
a. Otosclerosis conductive hearing loss in children?
b. Otitis externa a. Otitis media
c. Hyperacusis b. Otitis externa
d. Presbycusis c. Tympanic membrane perforation
68. Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss d. Otosclerosis
primarily associated with:
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73. Which of the following is a common 78. What is the most common manifestation of
treatment for sensorineural hearing loss? tinnitus?
a. Hearing aids a. Ringing in the ears
b. Ear drops b. Dizziness
c. Cochlear implants c. Sudden hearing loss
d. Earwax removal d. Ear pain
74. Which of the following best describes 79. Which of the following could be a possible
tinnitus? cause of tinnitus in older adults?
a. A sensation of ringing or buzzing in the a. Aging-related hearing loss
ears without an external source b. High blood pressure
b. A sensation of dizziness or spinning c. Earwax buildup
c. Sudden loss of hearing in one or both ears d. All of the above
d. A condition of abnormal bone growth in the 80. Tinnitus that occurs due to a specific
middle ear physical action, like clenching teeth, is
75. Which of these is a common cause of known as:
tinnitus? a. Somatosensory tinnitus
a. Exposure to loud noises b. Objective tinnitus
b. Otitis media c. Subjective tinnitus
c. Otosclerosis d. Pulsatile tinnitus
d. Presbycusis 81. Which type of tinnitus is perceived by both
76. Tinnitus can be associated with which type the patient and an examiner using a
of hearing loss? stethoscope?
a. Sensorineural hearing loss a. Objective tinnitus
b. Conductive hearing loss b. Subjective tinnitus
c. Mixed hearing loss c. Pulsatile tinnitus
d. All of the above d. Somatosensory tinnitus
77. Which of the following conditions is least 82. What is pulsatile tinnitus?
likely to cause tinnitus? a. Tinnitus that follows the rhythm of the
a. Acoustic neuroma heart or blood flow
b. Hyperacusis b. Tinnitus that occurs intermittently
c. Presbycusis c. Tinnitus caused by head trauma
d. Chronic ear infections d. Tinnitus linked to changes in weather
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83. Which of the following treatments might 88. Which of the following can cause
help manage tinnitus symptoms? sensorineural hearing loss?
a. White noise therapy a. Exposure to loud noises
b. Medications like anti-anxiety drugs b. Certain medications
c. Hearing aids c. Infections like meningitis
d. All of the above d. All of the above
84. Which type of hearing loss results from 89. What type of hearing loss results from
damage to the cochlea or auditory nerve? problems with sound processing in the
a. Sensorineural hearing loss brain?
b. Conductive hearing loss a. Central hearing loss
c. Mixed hearing loss b. Conductive hearing loss
d. Central hearing loss c. Sensorineural hearing loss
85. What causes conductive hearing loss? d. Mixed hearing loss
a. Blockage or damage to the outer or middle 90. Which type of hearing loss can result from
ear repeated ear infections?
b. Damage to the auditory nerve a. Conductive hearing loss
c. Damage to the auditory cortex b. Sensorineural hearing loss
d. Damage to the inner ear c. Mixed hearing loss
86. Which of the following is a common cause d. Central hearing loss
of mixed hearing loss? 91. Which type of hearing loss is often treatable
a. A combination of conductive and with surgical intervention or hearing aids?
sensorineural hearing loss a. Conductive hearing loss
b. Otitis media b. Sensorineural hearing loss
c. Age-related changes and earwax buildup c. Mixed hearing loss
d. All of the above d. Central hearing loss
87. What is the most common type of hearing 92. Which condition is associated with age-
loss in older adults? related sensorineural hearing loss?
a. Presbycusis a. Presbycusis
b. Conductive hearing loss b. Otosclerosis
c. Central hearing loss c. Otitis media
d. Mixed hearing loss d. Acoustic neuroma

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93. Which of the following is not a common b. High blood pressure

cause of hearing loss? c. Genetic factors
a. Earwax buildup d. Exposure to loud noises

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UNIT-5 CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM DISORDERS

1. Which of the following is a common risk c. Usually relieved by rest

factor for developing atherosclerosis? d. Occurs mostly in older patients
a. Low blood pressure 6. Which type of angina is often associated with
b. High cholesterol underlying coronary artery disease?
c. Frequent exercise a. Stable angina
d. High water intake b. Variant angina
2. What is angina? c. Microvascular angina
a. Chest pain or discomfort due to reduced d. All of the above
blood flow to the heart 7. What is a common treatment approach for
b. A respiratory infection stable angina?
c. Inflammation of the heart muscle a. Rest and nitroglycerin
d. Pain caused by a heart attack b. Chemotherapy
3. Which type of angina typically occurs during c. Radiation therapy
physical exertion or stress and is relieved by d. Surgical intervention
rest? 8. What are typical symptoms of angina?
a. Stable angina a. Chest pain, pressure, or discomfort
b. Unstable angina b. Shortness of breath
c. Variant angina c. Nausea or dizziness
d. Microvascular angina d. All of the above
4.Which type of angina is often a sign of an 9. What is the key difference between unstable
impending heart attack and is not relieved by angina and a heart attack?
rest? a. Unstable angina does not cause permanent
a. Unstable angina heart muscle damage
b. Stable angina b. Unstable angina is caused by a blood clot
c. Variant angina c. Unstable angina leads to an irregular heart
d. Microvascular angina rhythm
5.Which of the following is a characteristic of d. Unstable angina occurs only at rest
variant (Prinzmetal's) angina? 10. Which lifestyle change can help manage
a. Occurs due to coronary artery spasm stable angina?
b. Triggered by physical exertion a. Regular exercise and a healthy diet
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b. Smoking and alcohol consumption b. Nausea and sweating

c. Avoiding physical activity c. Pain radiating to the left arm or jaw
d. High-fat and high-sugar diet d. All of the above
11. Which type of angina may require surgical 16. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to
intervention like angioplasty or coronary artery confirm a myocardial infarction?
bypass grafting (CABG)? a. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
a. Unstable angina b. X-ray
b. Stable angina c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c. Variant angina d. Ultrasound
d. Microvascular angina 17. Which cardiac biomarker is typically
12. What is a myocardial infarction? elevated during a myocardial infarction?
a. A heart attack caused by a blockage of a. Troponin
blood flow to the heart muscle b. Hemoglobin
b. An infection of the heart muscle c. Sodium
c. A sudden drop in blood pressure d. Glucose
d. A type of heart rhythm disorder 18. What is the primary treatment for acute
13. Which is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?
myocardial infarction? a. Restoration of blood flow to the heart
a. Atherosclerosis muscle
b. Viral infection b. Antibiotics
c. Heart valve disease c. Physical therapy
d. Hypertension d. Radiation therapy
14. What is the primary symptom of a 19. Which medication is often given during a
myocardial infarction? myocardial infarction to help dissolve blood
a. Chest pain or discomfort clots?
b. Persistent cough a. Thrombolytics
c. Frequent urination b. Painkillers
d. Sore throat c. Anti-inflammatories
15. Which of the following symptoms is d. Antivirals
commonly associated with myocardial 20. What is the primary risk factor for
infarction? myocardial infarction?
a. Shortness of breath a. High blood pressure
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b. Obesity d. Motor neurons

c. Smoking 26. Which disorder is associated with
d. All of the above demyelination of nerve fibers in the central
21. Which of the following lifestyle changes can nervous system?
help prevent myocardial infarction a. Multiple Sclerosis
a. Regular exercise and a balanced diet b. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
b. Smoking and high-fat diet c. Huntington's Disease
c. Avoiding fruits and vegetables d. Guillain-Barré Syndrome
d. Consuming excess alcohol 27. Huntington's disease is caused by a
22. What condition involves the narrowing of mutation in which type of gene?
arteries due to plaque buildup? a. Dominant gene
a. Aneurysm b. Recessive gene
b. Hypertension c. Sex-linked gene
c. Atherosclerosis d. Mitochondrial gene
d. Myocardial infarction 28. Which condition is characterized by the
23. What is the primary cause of coronary progressive destruction of alveoli, leading to
artery disease (CAD)? breathing difficulties?
a. Atherosclerosis a. Asthma
b. Heart valve defects b. Pneumonia
c. Arrhythmias c. Emphysema
d. Cardiomyopathy d. Bronchitis
24. Which of the following is a common 29. Which of the following is a common cause
symptom of Alzheimer's disease? of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
a. Memory loss (COPD)?
b. Muscle weakness a. Smoking
c. Vision impairment b. High-fat diet
d. Loss of appetite c. Lack of exercise
25. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the d. Low calcium intake
loss of which type of brain cell? 30. What condition is characterized by chronic
a. Dopaminergic neurons inflammation and narrowing of the airways,
b. Serotonergic neurons leading to difficulty breathing?
c. Glial cells a. Asthma
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b. Emphysema b. High-protein diets

c. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Excessive exercise
d. Chronic bronchitis d. Low sugar intake
31. Which of the following is a characteristic of 36. Which of the following arteries primarily
degenerative disorders? supplies blood to the left side of the heart?
a. Progressive worsening of symptoms a. Right coronary artery
b. Rapid onset and resolution b. Left coronary artery
c. Inflammation and swelling c. Circumflex artery
d. Acute, temporary symptoms d. Posterior interventricular artery
32. Which of the following is a common 37. The coronary arteries arise from which part
treatment for many degenerative disorders of of the aorta?
the cardiovascular, nervous, or respiratory a. Ascending aorta
systems? b. Aortic arch
a. Surgery c. Descending aorta
b. Medications to manage symptoms d. Thoracic aorta
c. Physical therapy 38. Which artery supplies blood to the right
33. In which condition is plaque buildup in the atrium and right ventricle?
arteries a primary characteristic? a. Left anterior descending artery
a. Coronary artery disease b. Circumflex artery
b. Parkinson's disease c. Right coronary artery
c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. Left coronary artery
d. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 39. The left anterior descending artery supplies
34. Which degenerative disease involves the blood to which part of the heart?
loss of motor neurons leading to muscle a. Right ventricle and posterior septum
weakness and paralysis? b. Left ventricle and anterior septum
a. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Right atrium and right ventricle
b. Multiple sclerosis d. Left atrium and circumflex artery
c. Parkinson's disease 40. Which vein collects blood from the heart
d. Huntington's disease and returns it to the right atrium?
35. What is a common cause of degenerative a. Great cardiac vein
respiratory disorders? b. Coronary sinus
a. Environmental pollutants c. Small cardiac vein
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d. Middle cardiac vein b. To deliver oxygenated blood to the heart

B. Coronary sinus muscle
41. What is the primary function of the c. To regulate blood pressure within the heart
coronary circulation system? d. To provide a passage for nerves to the heart
a. Supply oxygen and nutrients to the heart A. To collect deoxygenated blood from the
muscle heart muscle
b. Circulate blood to the rest of the body 46. What is the primary role of the heart's
c. Provide a pathway for nerves conduction system?
d. Regulate heart rate a. To generate and transmit electrical signals
42. Which artery supplies the lateral wall of the for heart contraction
left ventricle? b. To control the heart's blood supply
a. Circumflex artery c. To regulate blood pressure
b. Left anterior descending artery d. To manage nutrient and oxygen delivery to
c. Right coronary artery the heart
d. Posterior interventricular artery 47. Which structure is known as the heart's
43. The blockage of a coronary artery can lead natural pacemaker?
to which condition? a. Sinoatrial (SA) node
a. Myocardial infarction b. Atrioventricular (AV) node
b. Stroke c. Bundle of His
c. Hypertension d. Purkinje fibers
d. Peripheral artery disease 48. Where is the sinoatrial (SA) node located?
44. Which artery provides blood to the inferior a. Right atrium
aspect of the heart? b. Left atrium
a. Right coronary artery c. Right ventricle
b. Circumflex artery d. Left ventricle
c. Left anterior descending artery 49. What is the role of the atrioventricular (AV)
d. Posterior interventricular artery node in the heart conduction system?
45. What is the primary purpose of the coronary a. To delay the electrical signal before it
sinus? reaches the ventricles
a. To collect deoxygenated blood from the b. To act as a secondary pacemaker
heart muscle c. To speed up the electrical signal
d. To deliver blood to the ventricles
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50. The Bundle of His is a part of the conduction 54. What condition occurs when the heart's
system that is located in which area? conduction system is unable to properly
a. The interventricular septum transmit electrical signals?
b. The right atrium a. Heart block
c. The left atrium b. Heart failure
d. The coronary sinus c. Atrial fibrillation
51. What is the primary function of the Purkinje d. Myocardial infarction
fibers? 55. Which type of device is commonly used to
a. To distribute electrical signals throughout correct issues in the heart's conduction system?
the ventricles a. Pacemaker
b. To initiate heartbeats b. Stent
c. To provide structural support to the heart c. Defibrillator
To control heart rate d. Catheter
52. In which sequence does the heart's 56. What is atherosclerosis?
electrical signal travel? a. Hardening and narrowing of arteries due
a. SA node -> AV node -> Bundle of His -> to plaque buildup
Purkinje fibers b. Softening of arteries due to lack of exercise
b. AV node -> SA node -> Purkinje fibers -> c. Inflammation of veins
Bundle of His d. Abnormal thickening of the heart muscle
c. SA node -> Bundle of His -> AV node -> 57. What is the primary component of the
Purkinje fibers plaque in atherosclerosis?
d. Purkinje fibers -> SA node -> AV node -> a. Calcium deposits
Bundle of His b. Cholesterol
53. Which term describes an irregular heart c. Blood clots
rhythm due to a problem in the conduction d. Fibrous tissue
system? 58. Which risk factor is most strongly associated
a. Arrhythmia with the development of atherosclerosis?
b. Hypertension a. High cholesterol
c. Tachycardia b. Low blood pressure
d. Bradycardia c. Regular exercise
d. High fiber diet

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59. Atherosclerosis primarily affects which type b. It transports cholesterol from the liver to
of blood vessel? the arteries
a. Arteries c. It forms plaques in the arteries
b. Veins d. It prevents blood clots
c. Capillaries 64. Which of the following medical
d. Lymphatic vessels interventions is commonly used to treat severe
60. What condition can result from atherosclerosis?
atherosclerosis in the coronary arteries? a. Angioplasty with stent placement
a. Coronary artery disease b. Blood transfusions
b. Deep vein thrombosis c. Lung transplant
c. Pulmonary embolism d. Chemotherapy
d. Mitral valve prolapse 65. What is preload in cardiac physiology?
61. Which lifestyle change is most likely to a. The pressure in the aorta during diastole
reduce the risk of atherosclerosis? b. The volume of blood in the ventricles at
Increased consumption of processed foods the end of diastole
a. Regular physical activity c. The resistance against which the heart
b. Sedentary lifestyle pumps
c. Smoking d. The contractile force of the heart muscle
62. Atherosclerosis can lead to a reduction in 66. Which of the following increases preload?
blood flow to which of the following? a. Vasodilation
a. The heart, leading to angina or myocardial b. Decreased venous return
infarction c. High arterial pressure
b. The legs, leading to peripheral artery d. Decreased ventricular compliance
disease 67. Preload is most directly affected by which
c. The brain, leading to transient ischemic factor?
attacks or strokes a. Heart rate
d. All of the above b. Venous return
63. What is the role of high-density lipoprotein c. Contractility
(HDL) in atherosclerosis? d. Afterload
a. It transports cholesterol from the arteries 68. Which condition would most likely decrease
to the liver for removal preload?
a. Hypovolemia
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b. Increased fluid intake b. The volume of blood in the heart at the end
c. Bradycardia of diastole
d. Hypertension c. The force against which the heart must
69. What does afterload represent in cardiac pump
physiology? d. The duration of heart muscle contraction
a. The force against which the heart must 74. Which of the following increases
work to eject blood contractility?
b. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the a. Increased preload
end of diastole b. Increased sympathetic stimulation
c. The pressure in the ventricles during systole c. Increased heart rate
d. The rate of blood flow through the heart d. Increased afterload
70. What can increase afterload? 75. Contractility is most directly influenced by:
a. High blood pressure a. Calcium levels in cardiac muscle cells
b. Increased heart rate b. Venous return
c. Increased preload c. Systemic vascular resistance
d. Decreased systemic vascular resistance d. Heart rate
71. Which condition might lead to a decrease in 76. Decreased contractility could result from:
afterload? a. Myocardial infarction
a. Vasodilation b. Increased sympathetic stimulation
b. Hypertension c. High venous return
c. Arterial stenosis d. Tachycardia
d. Ventricular hypertrophy 77. What does the Frank-Starling law state?
72. What is the effect of increased afterload on a. Increased preload leads to increased force
cardiac output? of contraction
a. Increased cardiac output b. Increased afterload leads to increased heart
b. Decreased cardiac output rate
c. No effect on cardiac output c. Increased heart rate leads to increased
d. Variable effect on cardiac output cardiac output
73. What does contractility refer to in the d. Increased contractility leads to increased
heart? preload
a. The ability of the heart muscle to contract 78. What is the mechanism underlying the
Frank-Starling law?
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a. Stretching of ventricular muscle fibers a. Increased ventricular radius

increases contraction force b. Increased heart rate
b. Increased calcium release in cardiac muscle c. Decreased preload
cells d. Decreased afterload
c. Increased sympathetic stimulation 83. In the context of Laplace's law, which factor
d. Decreased heart rate leads to increased decreases wall stress in the heart?
contraction a. Increased ventricular wall thickness
79. According to the Frank-Starling law, an b. Increased ventricular radius
increase in venous return leads to: c. Increased preload
a. Increased stroke volume d. Decreased contractility
b. Decreased heart rate 84. How does Laplace's law explain the effects
c. Decreased contractility of ventricular dilation?
d. Decreased stroke volume a. Ventricular dilation increases wall stress,
80. Which condition could impair the Frank- which can impair cardiac function
Starling mechanism? b. Ventricular dilation decreases wall stress,
a. Ventricular hypertrophy leading to improved cardiac function
b. Vasodilation c. Ventricular dilation has no effect on wall
c. Tachycardia stress
d. Hypertension d. Ventricular dilation leads to decreased
81. What does Laplace's law state regarding 85. Which of the following is a common
cardiac physiology? complication of atherosclerosis?
a. The pressure in a hollow structure is a. Stroke
proportional to the product of its radius b. Appendicitis
and the tension in its walls c. Asthma
b. The tension in the heart wall is proportional d. Gout
to the force of contraction 86. What structure/structures support cardiac
c. The heart's contraction force is proportional metabolism?
to its volume a. Coronary circulation
d. The pressure in a hollow structure is b. Heart action
inversely proportional to its radius c. Conduction system
82. According to Laplace's law, what can lead to d. All of the above
increased wall stress in the ventricles?
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87. What is the main cause of blood vessel c. Premature ventricular contractions
obstruction in atherosclerosis? d. All of the above
a. Excess salt consumption 92. Which of the following is a measure of the
b. Bacterial infection amount of blood that the heart pumps in
c. Buildup of plaque in the artery walls one minute?
d. Physical trauma a. Stroke volume
88. Which of the following factors specifically b. Cardiac output
affects cardiac performance in the light of c. Heart rate
Frank-Starling and Laplace's Law? d. Blood pressure
a. Preload 93. Which of the following conditions is
b. Afterload characterized by abnormally high blood
c. Contractility pressure?
d. All of the above a. Hypertension
89. Which of the following is a b. Hypotension
pathophysiological change that occurs in c. Aneurysm
patients with ischemic heart diseases? d. Stroke
a. Thickening of the artery walls 94. What is the term used to describe the
b. Irregular heartbeats buildup of fluid in the lungs?
c. Buildup of fatty deposits in the arteries a. Pulmonary edema
d. Inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle b. Pleural effusion
tissue c. Respiratory failure
90. Which of the following terms describes the d. Bronchitis
condition where the heart fails to pump 95. Which of the following is a common
blood adequately? symptom of acute myocardial infarction
a. Tachycardia (heart attack)?
b. Bradycardia a. Chest pain
c. Heart failure b. Headache
d. Arrhythmia c. Nausea
91. What is the most common type of heart d. Fatigue
arrhythmia? 96. Which of the following factors can
a. Ventricular fibrillation contribute to the development of
b. Atrial fibrillation hypertension?
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a. Obesity a. Shortness of breath

b. High salt intake b. Dizziness
c. Lack of exercise c. Rapid heartbeat
d. All of the above d. All of the above
97. What is the term used to describe the 102. What is the term used to describe the
abnormal fluttering of the heart muscles? buildup of fatty deposits in the liver?
a. Aneurysm a. Hepatitis
b. Arrhythmia b. Cirrhosis
c. Angina c. Steatosis
d. Embolism d. Cholecystitis
98. Hypertension can cause damage to which of 103. Which of the following is NOT a
the following organs? common symptom of heart failure?
a. Heart a. Swelling in the legs and ankles
b. Kidneys b. Fatigue and weakness
c. Brain c. Chest pain
d. All of the above d. Irregular heartbeat
99. Which of the following is NOT a common 104. What is the term used to describe the
risk factor for atherosclerosis? condition where the heartbeat is slower
a. High blood pressure than normal?
b. Smoking a. Tachycardia
c. Family history b. Bradycardia
d. Low levels of cholesterol c. Fibrillation
100. Which of the following conditions is d. Palpitations
characterized by the inflammation of the 105. Which of the following is a common
blood vessel walls? symptom of angina pectoris?
a. Atherosclerosis a. Shortness of breath
b. Myocarditis b. Chest pain or discomfort
c. Vasculitis c. Vomiting
d. Thrombosis d. Decreased appetite
101. Which of the following is a common
symptom of atrial fibrillation?

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UNIT-6 MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM DISORDERS

1. There are how many bones in adult body? a) Bone to bone

a) 306 b) Muscle to bone
b) 270 c) Muscle to muscle
c) 206 d) Nerves to bone
d) 600 7. There are how many phases of bone
2. Ribs, scapula and skull are examples of ...... fracture healing?
Bones. a) 2
a) Flat b) 3
b) Irregular c) 4
c) Long d) 5
d) Short 8. Only flexion and extension occur in which
3. The part of long bones that takes part in the joint?
growth of bone is; a) Ball and socket joint
a) Diaphysis b) Hing joint
b) Metaphysis c) Pivot joint
c) Epiphysis d) Plane joint
d) None of the above 9. Spongy bone contain......?
4. What is the formal term for a broken bone? a) Yellow bone marrow
a) Strain b) Red bone marrow
b) Sprain c) Fibers
c) Dislocation d) All
d) Fracture 10. A partial or complete tearing of the
5. The most active bone cells are......? ligaments that hold various bones together
a) Osteocytes to form a joint is called.....?
b) Osteoblasts a) Dislocation
c) Osteoclasts b) Strain
d) Lacunae c) Sprain
6. Which one of the following is connected by d) Fracture
ligament?

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11. All of the following are the most commonly b) Paget Disease
sprained joints Except? c) Carpel tunnel syndrome
a) Ankle d) None
b) Knee 15. A nurse is writing a care plan for a patient
c) Intercarpal admitted to the emergency department
d) Wrist (ED) with an open fracture. The nurse will
12. More severe pain (Moderate) especially assign priority to what nursing diagnosis for
with weight bearing; swelling and bleeding a patient with an open fracture of the
into joint; some loss of function is radius?
considering which grade of sprain? a) Risk for Ineffective Role Performance
a) Grade I b) Risk for Infection
b) Grade II c) Risk for Pre operative Positioning Injury
c) Grade III d) None of the above
d) Grade IV 16. Radiographs of a boys upper arm show that
13. A pulling or tearing of a muscle, a tendon, the humerus appears to be fractured on
or both is known as; one side and slightly bent on the other. This
a) Strain diagnostic result suggests what type of
b) Sprain fracture?
c) Compound Fracture a) Compound
d) Green stick Fracture b) Simple
14. A patient tells the nurse that he has pain c) Greenstick
and numbness to his thumb, first finger, d) Comminuted
and second finger of the right hand. The 17. A fracture in which the bone is broken and
patient is employed as an auto mechanic, shattered into more than two fragments is
and that pain is increasing while working. called?
This may indicate what health problem? a) Transverse Fracture
a) Impingement syndrome b) Complete Fracture
c) Comminuted Fracture d) Green Stick Fracture
18. Which of the following is not a complication b) Nerve injury
of fractures? c) Compartment syndrome
a) Vascular injury d) Stroke

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19. A patient with kyphosis is scheduled for b) Compound

dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) c) Impacted
testing. The nurse will plan to; d) Transverse
a) Start an intravenous line 21. A patient has sustained a long bone fracture
b) Screen the patient for shellfish allergies and the nurse is preparing the patients care
c) Teach the patient that DEXA is plan. Which of the following should the
noninvasive nurse include in the care plan?
d) Give an oral sedative a) Administer vitamin D and calcium
20. A nurse admits a patient who has a fracture supplements as ordered.
of the nose that has resulted in a skin tear b) Monitor temperature and pulses of
and involvement of the mucous membranes the affected extremity.
of the nasal passages. The orthopedic nurse c) Perform passive range of motion
is aware that this description likely indicates exercises as tolerated.
which type of fracture? d) Administer corticosteroids as ordered.
a) Compression
22. which longest bone commonly experience 25. Infants and child are most commonly suffer
the fracture ; from which type of bone injury?
a) Humerus a) Oblique
b) Spine b) Open
23. Radial Which one of the following a c) Compound Fracture
common symptom of soft tissue injury?? d) Greenstick Fracture
a) Fever 26. Which surgical procedure is used to relieve
b) Rapid breathing the pressure on the median nerve?
c) Swelling and bruising a) Open reduction and internal fixation
d) Hearing loss b) Carpal tunnel release
24. Which action performed when you suspect c) Arthroplasty
fracture along with Soft tissue injury?? d) Knee replacement
a) Splint the fracture 27. What is known as the fibrous membrane
b) Apply heat immediately covering the bone?
c) Massaged the fracture area a) Periosteum
d) Ignore the area b) Epiphysis
c) Diaphysis
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d) Medullary Cavity a) Excessive intake of vitamin C

28. Which type of bone fracture that is caused b) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in
by a disease which leads to the weakness of joints
the bone? c) Low blood sugar levels
a) Compound fracture d) Overproduction of red blood cells
b) Colle’s fracture 34. Which dietary factor is known to contribute
c) Pathological fracture to elevated uric acid levels in Gout?
d) Greenstick fracture a) High intake of fruits
29. What is the purpose of traction? b) Low intake of water
a) Increase the muscle spasm c) Excessive alcohol consumption
b) Reduce the infection d) Lean protein consumption
c) Immobilize the fractured part 35. What is the recommended treatment for an
d) All of the above acute Gout attack?
30. An open fracture is a fracture that----? a) Antibiotics
a) Results in multiple pieces of bone b) Antiviral medication
b) Occurs when a broken bone pierces c) Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
through the skin (NSAIDs)
c) Ruptures a blood vessel d) Insulin therapy
d) Damages a nerve 36. Which demographic is more prone to
31. What is the primary cause of Gout? developing Gout?
a) Bacterial infection a) Children
b) Genetic predisposition b) Young adults
c) Viral infection c) Middle-aged and older adults
d) Environmental pollution d) Elderly individuals
32. Which of the following joints is most 37. What is the term for the deposits of uric
commonly affected by Gout? acid crystals that form in the joints during
a) Knee Gout?
b) Elbow a) Amyloid plaques
c) Hip b) Atherosclerotic plaques
d) Big toe c) Tophi
33. What is the underlying mechanism that d) Granulomas
leads to Gout?
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38. What role does genetics play in the 43. How does obesity contribute to the
development of Gout? development of Gout?
a) No genetic influence a) It reduces uric acid production
b) Moderate genetic influence b) It increases uric acid excretion
c) Strong genetic influence c) It is not associated with Gout
d) Genetic influence only in women d) It leads to elevated uric acid levels
39. Which medical condition is commonly 44. What is the role of NSAIDs in the treatment
associated with Gout? of Gout?
a) Hypertension a) Lowering cholesterol levels
b) Asthma b) Relieving pain and inflammation
c) Diabetes c) Controlling blood sugar levels
d) Osteoporosis d) Strengthening bones
40. What lifestyle modification can help 45. What lifestyle advice is commonly given to
prevent Gout attacks? Gout patients to prevent flare-ups?
a) Smoking a) Avoiding high-purine foods
b) Regular exercise b) Increasing alcohol consumption
c) Sedentary behavior c) Limiting water intake
d) Excessive caffeine intake d) Engaging in excessive physical activity
41. What is the normal range for serum uric 46. What is the primary affected tissue in
acid levels in the blood? Paget's disease?
a) Below 2 mg/dL a) Liver
b) 3.5 to 5.5 mg/dL b) Bone
c) 7 to 9 mg/dL c) Kidney
d) Above 12 mg/dL d) Skin
42. Which of the following medications is 47. Which of the following is a common
commonly used for long-term management symptom of Paget's disease?
of Gout? a) Chest pain
a) Antibiotics b) Joint pain
b) Corticosteroids c) Headache
c) Colchicine d) Abdominal pain
d) Allopurinol 48. What imaging technique is commonly used
to diagnose Paget's disease?
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a) CT scan c) Osteosclerosis
b) X-ray d) Osteomalacia
c) MRI 54. Which of the following is a potential
d) Ultrasound complication of Paget's disease?
49. Which bone is most frequently involved in a) Hypertension
Paget's disease? b) Pathological fractures
a) Femur c) Diabetes
b) Radius d) Asthma
c) Spine 55. What role do bisphosphonates play in the
d) Tibia management of Paget's disease?
50. What is the primary goal of treatment for a) Antifungal treatment
Paget's disease? b) Antiresorptive therapy
a) Pain relief c) Immunosuppression
b) Cure the underlying cause d) Analgesic medication
c) Prevent complications 56. Which of the following is not a form of
d) Improve joint flexibility Paget's disease?
51. What biochemical marker is often elevated a) Monostotic Paget's
in Paget's disease? b) Polyostotic Paget's
a) Creatinine c) Focal Paget's
b) Alkaline phosphatase d) Polyarticular Paget's
c) Hemoglobin 57. What is the most common presenting
d) Cholesterol symptom of Paget's disease?
52. Which age group is most commonly a) Fatigue
affected by Paget's disease? b) Bone pain
a) Children c) Headache
b) Adolescents d) Shortness of breath
c) Young adults 58. Which of the following is a risk factor for
d) Elderly developing Paget's disease?
53. In Paget's disease, what term is used to a) Low calcium intake
describe the excessive bone formation? b) Genetic predisposition
a) Osteoporosis c) Sedentary lifestyle
b) Osteoclastoma d) Smoking
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59. What is the characteristic appearance of b) Left leg

bones affected by Paget's disease on X-ray? c) Lower leg
a) Decreased bone density d) Left arm
b) Bowing deformities 65. What is a major consideration in selecting
c) Osteolytic lesions the level of amputation?
d) Pencil-in-cup deformity a) Patient's hair color
60. Which hormone imbalance is associated b) Proximity to the hospital
with Paget's disease? c) Blood type
a) Hyperthyroidism d) Vascular and neurological status
b) Hypothyroidism 66. What is a phantom limb sensation?
c) Hyperparathyroidism a) Sensation experienced in a removed
d) Hypoparathyroidism body part
61. What is amputation? b) Tingling in the fingers
a) Surgical removal of a limb or part of a c) Temporary numbness after surgery
limb d) A type of prosthetic device
b) Orthopedic joint replacement 67. Which medical specialist typically performs
c) Physical therapy technique amputation surgery?
d) None of the above a) Cardiologist
62. Which of the following is a common reason b) Gastroenterologist
for amputation? c) Orthopedic surgeon
a) Arthritis d) Dermatologist
b) Diabetes complications 68. What is the purpose of a prosthetic limb?
c) Migraines a) Cosmetic enhancement
d) Allergies b) Functional replacement
63. What is the primary goal of amputation c) Psychological support
surgery? d) All of the above
a) Pain reduction 69. What is a common complication after
b) Limb preservation amputation surgery?
c) Restoration of function a) Enhanced sensory perception
d) Aesthetic improvement b) Phantom limb pain
64. Which limb is most commonly amputated? c) Improved blood circulation
a) Right arm d) Reduced joint mobility
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70. Which factor is crucial for successful b) Assessing mental health and coping
rehabilitation post-amputation? abilities
a) Avoiding any physical activity c) Predicting the weather
b) Early mobilization and physical therapy d) Evaluating taste preferences
c) Prolonged bed rest 75. Which of the following is a key aspect of
d) Dependence on pain medications long-term care for amputees?
71. What is the purpose of the residual limb a) Ignoring psychological well-being
bandaging after amputation? b) Regular prosthetic adjustments
a) Preventing blood circulation c) Avoiding any physical activity
b) Enhancing phantom limb sensations d) Rare follow-up appointments
c) Reducing swelling and shaping the limb 76. What is the primary cause of osteomyelitis?
d) Improving joint flexibility a) Viral infection
72. When is a revision amputation considered? b) Fungal infection
a) Routine procedure after every c) Bacterial infection
amputation d) Parasitic infection
b) When there is infection or healing 77. Which of the following is a common
issues pathogen associated with acute
c) Only in cases of cosmetic dissatisfaction hematogenous osteomyelitis in children?
d) Never, once amputation is done, it a) Staphylococcus aureus
cannot be revised b) Escherichia coli
73. What is heterotopic ossification in the c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
context of amputation? d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a) Excessive hair growth on the residual 78. What is the most common route of
limb infection leading to osteomyelitis?
b) Formation of bone in soft tissues a) Direct trauma
c) Development of a secondary phantom b) Blood borne spread
limb c) Lymphatic spread
d) Allergic reaction to prosthetic materials d) Airborne transmission
74. What is the role of preoperative 79. Which imaging technique is often used to
psychological assessment in amputation diagnose osteomyelitis?
cases? a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
a) Determining the patient's favorite color b) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
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c) Positron emission tomography (PET) 85. Which laboratory test is often elevated in
d) Electroencephalogram (EEG) the presence of osteomyelitis?
80. What is the initial treatment of choice for a) Serum creatinine
acute osteomyelitis? b) White blood cell count
a) Surgical debridement c) Hemoglobin level
b) Intravenous antibiotics d) Blood glucose level
c) Physical therapy 86. The term "sequestrum" in the context of
d) Analgesics osteomyelitis refers to:
81. Chronic osteomyelitis is characterized by: a) Infected bone segment
a) Rapid onset of symptoms b) Scar tissue
b) Persistent inflammation c) Joint inflammation
c) Exclusively affects children d) Nerve damage
d) Localized infection 87. What is the primary goal of surgical
82. What is a common complication of intervention in chronic osteomyelitis?
untreated or inadequately treated a) Complete bone removal
osteomyelitis? b) Bone grafting
a) Hypertension c) Infection control and bone
b) Renal failure preservation
c) Bone deformities d) Joint replacement
d) Vision loss 88. Which population is more susceptible to
83. Which bone is commonly affected in developing vertebral osteomyelitis?
vertebral osteomyelitis? a) Children
a) Femur b) Older adults
b) Tibia c) Adolescents
c) Spine d) Pregnant women
d) Humerus 89. How is chronic osteomyelitis typically
84. In diabetic individuals, which extremity is diagnosed?
more commonly affected by osteomyelitis? a) Blood culture
a) Upper extremity b) Skin biopsy
b) Lower extremity c) Bone biopsy
c) Both extremities equally d) Urine analysis
d) Spine
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90. What is the recommended duration of d) Salmonella

antibiotic therapy for acute osteomyelitis? 95. Osteoarthritis occurs as a result of:
a) 3-5 days a) High levels of estrogen in older women
b) 7-10 days b) Low levels of estrogen in older women
c) 14-21 days c) Gradual degeneration of the movable
d) 30 days joints, due to wear and tear of the
91. High level of uric acid in the blood can articular cartilage
result in; d) Deficiency of calcium in young people
a) An autoimmune response 96. Osteoarthritis affecting the distal inter
b) Paget disease phalangeal joints (i.e. first finger joint from
c) Gout disease the finger tip) is known as:
d) Osteoarthritis a) Richard's node
92. The first step performed during amputation b) Bouchard's nodes
is; c) Heberden's nodes
a) Cut the sharp and rough edges of the d) Both a & b
bone 97. Osteoarthritis is characterized by the
b) Ligate the supplying artery and vein breakdown of which joint component?
c) Transect the muscles a) Synovial fluid
d) Saw the bone b) Cartilage
93. A condition in which excessive breakdown c) Ligaments
and formation of bone tissue occurs and d) Tendons
disorganized pattern of bones developed is 98. Which age group is most commonly
called ; affected by osteoarthritis?
a) Gout disease a) Children
b) Osteomyelites b) Adolescents
c) Paget disease c) Young adults
d) Osteoarthritis d) Older adults
94. Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused 99. Which of the following is a common
by? symptom of osteoarthritis?
a) S-pyogenes a) Rash
b) H. Influenza b) Joint swelling
c) Staph Aurous c) Chest pain
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d) Vision changes b) Maintaining a sedentary lifestyle

100. Which lifestyle factor is NOT typically c) Engaging in regular exercise
associated with an increased risk of d) Smoking cessation
osteoarthritis? 105. What surgical intervention may be
a) Obesity considered for severe cases of
b) Physical inactivity osteoarthritis when conservative
c) Smoking treatments fail?
d) Poor nutrition a) Appendectomy
101. What imaging technique is commonly b) Knee arthroscopy
used to diagnose osteoarthritis? c) Heart bypass surgery
a) CT scan d) Joint replacement surgery
b) MRI 106. Which weather condition is often
c) X-ray associated with increased joint pain in
d) Ultrasound individuals with osteoarthritis?
102. Which of the following medications is a) Sunny and warm
often recommended for managing pain in b) Rainy and humid
osteoarthritis? c) Windy and cold
a) Antibiotics d) Foggy and mild
b) Corticosteroids 107. What dietary component is believed to
c) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have a positive impact on joint health in
(NSAIDs) osteoarthritis?
d) Antidepressants a) Caffeine
103. What role does physical therapy play in b) Omega-3 fatty acids
the management of osteoarthritis? c) Saturated fats
a) Preventing the condition d) Processed sugars
b) Replacing damaged joints
c) Managing pain and improving function 108. What is the main difference between
d) Administering medication osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
104. Which joint protective measures are a) The affected joints
commonly recommended for individuals b) The age of onset
with osteoarthritis? c) The involvement of the immune
a) Avoiding physical activity system
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d) The cause of inflammation c. Avulsion fracture

109. Which of the following activities is d. Compression fracture
generally considered low-impact and 114. Which type of bone fracture is caused
suitable for individuals with osteoarthritis? by a disease that leads to the weakness of
a) Running the bone?
b) Swimming a. Compound Fracture
c) Basketball b. Greenstick Fracture
d) High-intensity interval training (HIIT) c. Pathological Fracture
110. What is the primary cause of d. Stress Fracture
osteoarthritis? 115. Incomplete fracture are classified to all
a) Autoimmune response of following types which are most
b) Genetic factors commonly occurred in children's except
c) Bacterial infection one?
d) Viral infection a. Torus
111. The bone remodeling process taken b. Bowing
how many time in maintaining a normal c. Avulsion
bone ? d. Greenstick
a. 2_3 weeks 116. Tearing or stretching of muscle or
b. 3_6 months tendon known as .....
c. 24_48 hour's a. Bursitis
d. 48_72 hour's b. Strain
112. Which type of fracture involves a break c. Sprain
in the bone that does not penetrate the d. Tendinitis
skin? 117. When the tendon or ligament
a. Open fracture completely separate from its bony
b. Closed fracture attachment such a process known as ....
c. Greenstick fracture a. Complete fracture
d. Comminuted fracture b. Avulsion
113. A fracture that occurs due to repetitive c. Extra Capsular fracture
stress or overuse is known as: d. Tranchondral fracture
a. Pathological fracture 118. Which sites are commonly involved in
b. Stress fracture fracture because of osteoporosis .......
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a. Spine 123. What are the main contributing factor

b. Femoral Neck in development of Osteomalacia?
c. Wrist e. Vitamin D
d. All of these a. Calcium
119. Which of the following is a contributing b. Magnesium
factor to the onset of osteoporosis? c. Phosphate
a. Genetic factors 124. Which of the following is a
b. Lifestyle factors characteristic radiological appearance
c. Exogenous factors associated with osteomalacia?
d. All of the above a. Pseudofractures(Looser zone)
120. After age 30 how the bone homeostasis b. Osteophytes
is disturbed....... c. Bone spurs
a. Formation slows & resorption exceed d. Joint effusion
b. Osteoblastic activity at peak 125. How is osteomalacia differentiated
c. Increase Osteocytes activity from osteoporosis?
d. None of them a. Osteomalacia is a deficiency of vitamin
121. Which complications considered the D, while osteoporosis is a loss of bone
most common one in case of osteoporosis? matrix
a. Fracture b. Osteomalacia affects the bone matrix,
b. Cholethiasis while osteoporosis affects bone
c. Osteopenia mineral density.
d. Hypertension c. Osteomalacia primarily affects the
122. When the mineralization of osteoid in spine, while osteoporosis primarily
nature process inadeuate/delayed in affects the hips.
spongy and compactbone of adult pt such a d. Osteomalacia is a genetic disorder,
problem indicate which form of while osteoporosis is primarily caused
abnormality? by aging.
a. Osteomalacia 126. A patient presents with bone pain,
b. Ricket muscle weakness, difficulty walking
c. Osteopenia (Waddling Gait) face & leg deformity (knock
d. Osteomyelitis knee). Which of the following conditions is

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most likely to be associated with these 131. A chronic systemic inflammatory

symptoms? autoimmune condition of jointsy specially
a. Osteoporosis affected thesynovial membrane such a
b. Osteomalacia disease known as .......
c. Rheumatoid arthritis a. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Osteoarthritis b. Osteoarthritis
127. What is the most common feature of c. Anklyosing spondylitis
Paget's disease? d. osteomyelitis
a. Skeletal deformity 132. An abnormal thickening in synovial
b. Pain membrane blc of chronic inflammation this
c. Osteolysis process called.......
d. Sclerosis a. Osteopytes
128. Which gene abnormality has been b. Joint Mice
linked with Paget's disease? c. Pannus
a. BRCA1 d. Hyperplasia
b. TP53 133. What are the typical laboratory findings
c. SQSTM1(Sequestosome_1) in rheumatoid arthritis?
d. EGFR a. Elevated rheumatoid factor and ACPAs
129. What is the role of macrophage-colony b. Elevated serum calcium levels
stimulating factor (M-CSF) in Paget's c. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation
disease? rate (ESR)
a. Inhibits bone resorption d. Normal C-reactive protein (CRP) levels
b. Stimulates osteoclast formation 134. What is the most commonly affected
c. Promotes bone mineralization area in early rheumatoid arthritis?
d. Inhibits osteoblast activity a. Large weight-bearing joints
130. What is the most common location for b. Small joints of the hands and feet
skeletal deformity in Paget's disease? c. Spine and vertebral column
a. Skull d. Hip and shoulder joints
b. Upper extremities 135. When attack develop with
c. Lower extremities hyperuricemia, warmth and swelling of joint
d. Spine this condition referred as..........
a. Asymptomatic gout
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b. Gouty arthritis 140. Which of the following is NOT a first-

c. Tophaceous Gout line option for the pharmacologic treatment
d. Intercritical Gout of acute gout?
136. ............. considered as a chronic a. NSAIDs
condition when urate crystals deposit over b. Corticosteroids
the subcutaneous tissue Appear like a small c. Oral colchicine
white or chalky like nodules . d. Aspirin
a. Podegra 141. All of following classify as cartilage
b. Tophi forming Benign tumor except ;
c. Pannus a. Osteochondroma
d. Osteopytes b. Chondroma
137. How many percent of Gout or Elevated c. Chondrosarcoma
level of uric acid because of underexcretion d. Chondroblastoma
has been occurred. 142. Which of the following considered as
a. 10% most common malignant forming bone
b. 80% tumor or osteogenic tumor.....
c. 90% a. Osteochondroma
d. 60% b. Osteoblastoma
138. The most common site for tophi is c. Osteoid osteoma
.............and is considered as a diagnostic d. Osteosarcoma
lesion of chronic gout . 143. What is the most prevalent malignant
a. Helix of ear bone tumor that involves cartilage
b. Knee formation?
c. Heart a. Osteosarcoma
d. Kidney b. Chondrosarcoma
139. What is the typical first symptom of an c. Ewing's sarcoma
acute gout attack? d. Multiple myeloma
a. Lower back pain 144. Which of the following is a benign
b. Severe pain in the big toe joint cartilage tumor that usually affects the
(podegra) hands and can also affect other areas?
c. Widespread joint stiffness a. Osteochondroma
d. Chronic fatigue b. Enchondroma
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c. Chondromyxoid fibroma b. Fibrosarcoma

d. Chondroblastoma c. Giant cell tumor
145. What is the most common primary d. Lymphoma of bone
bone cancer that involves bone formation? 148. Which tumor has an unknown tissue of
a. Osteosarcoma origin but commonly presents in the
b. Chondrosarcoma diaphysis of long bones in children and
c. Multiple myeloma young adults?
d. Ewing's sarcoma a. Multiple myeloma
146. Which of the following is a treatment b. Ewing sarcoma
approach for malignant bone tumors? c. Liposarcoma
a. Simple observation d. Leiomyosarcoma
b. Surgery to remove the tumor 149. ________is a bone disease that
c. Adjuvant chemotherapy develops when bone mineral density and
d. All of the above bone mass decreases.
147. A cartilage-forming tumor that is often a. Osteoporosis
found in the metaphysis of long bones is b. Osteomalacia
known as: c. Hyperparathyroidism
a. Osteochondroma d. Paget’s diseases
150. A fracture that does not break through the 152. Which of the following injuries involves the
entire bone but results in a bending or crack- displacement of a bone from its normal position
like effect is called: at a joint?
a. Comminuted fracture a. Subluxation
b. Greenstick fracture b. Dislocation
c. Transverse fracture c. Avulsion
d. Spiral fracture d. Fracture
151. Which of the following is a common 153. A fracture in which the bone fragments
complication of open fractures? into three or more pieces is known as a:
a. Infection a. Spiral fracture
b. Malunion b. Compression fracture
c. Nonunion c. Comminuted fracture
d. All of the above d. Oblique fracture

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154. The most common type of fracture seen in 159. Which injury involves a bone fragment
osteoporosis is: being pulled away from its main structure by a
a. Hip fracture tendon or ligament?
b. Vertebral compression fracture a. Avulsion fracture
c. Wrist fracture b. Comminuted fracture
d. Rib fracture c. Oblique fracture
155. Which term describes a fracture where the d. Transverse fracture
bone is broken into two separate pieces, with 160. A transverse fracture is characterized by:
no external wound? a. A break along the axis of the bone
a. Simple fracture b. A break at an angle to the bone's axis
b. Open fracture c. A horizontal break across the bone
c. Comminuted fracture d. A fragmented break with multiple pieces
d. Compound fracture 161. The primary treatment for a fracture
156. A fracture in which a bone is crushed due involves:
to pressure or impact is called a: a. Immobilization
a. Comminuted fracture b. Surgery
b. Compression fracture c. Physical therapy
c. Oblique fracture d. Antibiotics
d. Transverse fracture 162. Which of the following is a potential sign of
157. A fracture resulting from repetitive stress a bone fracture?
or overuse is known as a: a. Swelling and bruising
a. Spiral fracture b. Pain and tenderness
b. Compression fracture c. Deformity or unusual alignment
c. Stress fracture d. All of the above
d. Greenstick fracture 163. A type of fracture commonly occurring in
158. Which type of fracture is typically seen in a children, characterized by a partial break in one
twisting injury? side of the bone, is known as a:
a. Spiral fracture a. Stress fracture
b. Oblique fracture b. Greenstick fracture
c. Transverse fracture c. Transverse fracture
d. Comminuted fracture d. Oblique fracture

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164. Which bone is most likely to be injured in a d. Low carbohydrate intake

FOOSH (fall on an outstretched hand) injury? 169. Which of the following hormones plays a
a. Radius significant role in the development of
b. Ulna osteoporosis in women?
c. Scaphoid a. Insulin
d. All of the above b. Estrogen
165. Which of the following best describes c. Testosterone
osteoporosis? d. Thyroxine
a. A disease causing the inflammation of 170. Which lifestyle change can reduce the risk
joints of osteoporosis?
b. A condition in which bones become weak a. Increased caffeine consumption
and brittle b. Weight-bearing exercises
c. A disorder leading to excessive bone c. Reduced calcium intake
growth d. Increased alcohol consumption
d. A disease causing bone tumors 171. Osteoporosis can be diagnosed through
166. Which population is most at risk for which medical test?
osteoporosis? a. Blood test
a. Young children b. X-ray
b. Postmenopausal women c. Bone density scan (DEXA)
c. Middle-aged men d. MRI scan
d. Teenagers 172. Which of the following is NOT a common
167. What is a common symptom of risk factor for osteoporosis?
osteoporosis? a. Sedentary lifestyle
a. Joint pain b. Smoking
b. Sudden bone fractures c. Excessive physical activity
c. Muscle cramps d. Excessive alcohol consumption
d. Deformities in joints 173. Which medication is often prescribed to
168. Which dietary factor is most closely manage osteoporosis?
associated with osteoporosis risk? a. Antibiotics
a. High vitamin C intake b. Bisphosphonates
b. Low calcium intake c. Beta-blockers
c. High protein intake d. NSAIDs
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174. Which type of fracture is commonly 179. What can cause rickets in children?
associated with osteoporosis? a. Lack of sun exposure
a. Compression fracture b. Excessive protein intake
b. Spiral fracture c. High-fat diet
c. Transverse fracture d. Low sodium intake
d. Greenstick fracture 180. Which of the following bones is commonly
175. What is osteomalacia? affected by rickets in children?
a. A condition characterized by softening of a. Long bones, like the femur
the bones in adults b. Skull bones
b. A disease causing the formation of bone c. Carpals
tumors d. Tarsals
c. A disorder involving inflammation of the 181. Osteomalacia can be diagnosed using
joints which medical test?
d. A condition in which bones become weak a. Bone density scan (DEXA)
due to loss of bone mass b. Blood tests for vitamin D and calcium
176. Rickets primarily affects which age group? levels
a. Infants and young children c. MRI scans
b. Teenagers d. Genetic testing
c. Middle-aged adults 182. Which of the following is a key component
d. Older adults of treating osteomalacia?
177. Which deficiency is commonly associated a. Increased calcium and vitamin D intake
with osteomalacia? b. Reduced exercise
a. Calcium c. High-protein diet
b. Iron d. Reduced carbohydrate intake
c. Vitamin D 183. A common sign of rickets in children is:
d. Vitamin C a. Bowed legs
178. What is a common symptom of b. Abdominal pain
osteomalacia in adults? c. Sudden weight loss
a. Bone pain and muscle weakness d. Joint stiffness
b. Frequent headaches 184. Which of the following can increase the
c. Skin rashes risk of developing osteomalacia in adults?
d. Muscle cramps a. Living in regions with limited sunlight
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b. High-sugar diet c. Radiation therapy

c. High-intensity exercise d. Chemotherapy
d. Low-fiber diet 190. Which of the following best describes
185. Which hormone is overproduced in Paget's Disease?
hyperparathyroidism? a. A chronic condition resulting in abnormal
a. Calcitonin bone remodeling and overgrowth
b. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) b. A disease characterized by softening of
c. Insulin the bones
d. Thyroxine c. A condition causing brittle and fragile
186. What is a common consequence of bones
hyperparathyroidism? d. A disorder causing bone tumors
a. Increased bone density 191. What is a common symptom of Paget's
b. Increased blood calcium levels Disease?
c. Decreased blood calcium levels a. Bone pain and deformities
d. Reduced bone resorption b. Loss of hair
187. Which of the following is NOT a typical c. Skin rashes
symptom of hyperparathyroidism? d. Frequent nosebleeds
a. Fatigue and weakness 192. Which diagnostic test is commonly used
b. Increased hair growth for Paget's Disease?
c. Kidney stones a. X-ray
d. Bone pain b. Bone density scan (DEXA)
188. Primary hyperparathyroidism is usually c. Blood tests for alkaline phosphatase
caused by: d. All of the above
a. A parathyroid gland adenoma 193. What is a common complication of Paget's
b. A thyroid tumor Disease?
c. Chronic kidney disease a. Osteosarcoma (bone cancer)
d. Excessive dietary calcium intake b. Kidney stones
189. A common treatment for primary c. Muscle cramps
hyperparathyroidism involves: d. Asthma
a. Surgery to remove the overactive 194. Which medication is often used to treat
parathyroid gland(s) Paget's Disease?
b. Medication to reduce blood calcium levels a. Bisphosphonates
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b. Antibiotics a. Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs

c. Corticosteroids (DMARDs)
d. Beta-blockers b. Beta-blockers
195. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is characterized c. Antibiotics
by: d. Statins
a. Chronic inflammation of the joints 200. Gout is caused by the accumulation of
b. Deterioration of cartilage due to wear and which substance in the joints?
tear a. Uric acid
c. Excessive bone growth b. Lactic acid
d. An autoimmune response targeting the c. Calcium
joints d. Cholesterol
196. Which of the following is NOT a common 201. What is the classic symptom of gout?
symptom of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Sudden, intense joint pain, often in the
a. Joint stiffness in the morning big toe
b. Symmetrical joint pain b. Mild joint stiffness and aching
c. Red, hot, swollen joints c. Chronic muscle pain
d. Sudden high fever d. Recurrent headaches
197. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to 202. Which lifestyle factor can increase the risk
confirm rheumatoid arthritis? of developing gout?
a. Rheumatoid factor (RF) and anti-CCP a. High-purine diet (e.g., red meat,
antibody tests seafood)
b. Complete blood count (CBC) b. Low-sugar diet
c. MRI scans c. High-fiber diet
d. X-ray d. Low-protein diet
198. Rheumatoid arthritis primarily affects 203. Which medication is commonly used to
which parts of the body? treat acute gout attacks?
a. Joints a. Colchicine
b. Muscles b. Aspirin
c. Tendons c. Acetaminophen
d. Bones d. Antibiotics
199. Which medication is commonly used to 204. Which complication can result from
manage rheumatoid arthritis? chronic gout?
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a. Formation of tophi (uric acid deposits) 209. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to
b. Bone tumors confirm the presence of bone tumors?
c. Muscle cramps a. X-ray
d. Respiratory issues b. Bone density scan (DEXA)
205. Which of the following best describes an c. Blood test for tumor markers
osteosarcoma? d. Skin biopsy
a. A malignant bone tumor originating from 210. Which type of bone tumor is generally
osteoblasts considered benign?
b. A benign bone tumor involving cartilage a. Osteochondroma
c. A bone tumor characterized by blood cell b. Osteosarcoma
proliferation c. Chondrosarcoma
d. A tumor originating from fatty tissue in d. Ewing's sarcoma
bone 211. What is a characteristic feature of multiple
206. Which is a common location for myeloma?
osteosarcoma to develop? a. Abnormal proliferation of plasma cells in
a. Long bones, like the femur the bone marrow
b. Vertebrae b. Overproduction of red blood cells
c. Carpals c. Excessive formation of cartilage
d. Skull bones d. Mutation of osteoblasts
207. What is a common symptom of bone 212. Which of the following is a common
cancer? treatment for bone cancer?
a. Bone pain, particularly at night a. Surgery to remove the tumor
b. Joint stiffness b. Antibiotics
c. Muscle cramps c. Vitamin D supplements
d. Frequent headaches d. Corticosteroids
208. Ewing's sarcoma is a type of bone tumor 213. Which of the following can be a risk factor
that primarily affects which age group? for developing bone cancer?
a. Children and adolescents a. Radiation exposure
b. Middle-aged adults b. Sedentary lifestyle
c. Elderly adults c. High-protein diet
d. Infants d. Low-sodium diet
214. Metastatic bone cancer refers to:
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a. Cancer that has spread from another part excessive bone resorption followed by an
of the body to the bone increase in bone formation.
b. Cancer that originates in the bone a. Osteomyelitis
c. A rapidly growing benign tumor b. Paget disease
d. A type of bone cancer with a high survival c. Scoliosis
rate d. Osteoporosis
215. TB primarily affects the lungs, but in some 218. ___________A condition caused by the
cases it can spread to other parts of the body. invasion by one or more pathogenic
When TB spreads, it’s referred to as microorganisms that stimulates the
a. Secondary TB inflammatory response in bone tissue
b. Tertiary TB a. Osteoporosis
c. Extrapulmonary TB b. Osteomyelitis
d. All of these c. Paget’s Disease
216. For Tuberculosis, the drugs used to d. Osteomalcia
combat it are 219. .________trauma is happen in connection
a. Streptomycin, Pyrazinamide with sports or other accidents, being struck by
b. Isoniazid, Rifampicin an object or falling.
c. Both (a) and (b) a. Direct trauma
d. None of these b. Indirect trauma
217. ________disease is a localized disorder of c. Acceleration
bone remodeling that typically begins with d. Deceleration
220. _____________Osteoporosis is a multifactorial progressive metabolic bone disease that decreases
bone density with deterioration of bone structure
a. Arthritis
b. Osteomalacia
c. Osteoporosis

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