The relationship between the intensity of incident light falling on one side of a

processed film and intensity of the light transmitted through the film is ameasure of
radiographic
*Density
Which of the density readings taken from the densitomers is out of the acceptable
range
*3.0 density units
An increase of atleast 30% in mAsis required to produced significant increase in
*Detail
An increase of film density results from an increase in
*MAs
Which of the following is the most opaque?
*Bone
When a Technologist is radiographing a PA chest, using an air gap technique which
of the following would used?
*A 6-in OFD
Which of the following will affect have a dramatic effect on a radiographic contrast?
A change in grid ratio
A change in kilovoltage (15%)
A decrease in field size
*1,2,3
A radiograph that demonstrate numerous shades of similar densities is reffered to
asfilm with
*Long scale contrast
Increasing the OFD will mngnify the image and increase the
*Contrast
When going from medium speed to a high screen, thee will be a ecrease in an
amount of exposure and
*Increased detail
The TONAL relationship between one density and another constitutes the
*Radiographic ccontrast
Which of the following radiographictechniques would be produce a radiograph with
longest contrast?
*200 Ma, h s, 85kvp
In order toproduce 2x magnification for a craniumin the lateral position with an FFD
at 40 in OFD should be
*84 in
The geometric unsharpness (UG)of margins in a radiograph image to as the
Umbra
Penumbra
Edge gradient
*1 only
Which of the following is the method of producing motion and decreasing the effects
of tissue?
*using a compression device
Which of the following is the major cause of the magnification?
*OFD
Which of the following conditions is unrelated to a high incidence of penumbra?
*high kvp
Size distortion when increases when fouincrease the
 *OFD
which of the following is the controlling factorof minimizing distortion?
*mA
Magnification distortion can be reduced by a decrease in
*OFD
Penumbra can be lessen by increasing the
*mAs
Asupine chest taken in 40 in SID will demonstrate?
*A larger heart size
Which of the following conditions is not related to a high incidence of penumbra?
*large effective focal spot
Which type of motion usually present when a seriously injured patients is
radiograph?
*involuntary
Which of the following is unrelated to recorded detail?
*immobilzation of the body part
Which of the following is detrimental to recorded detail?
*non-screen film
The smaller the effective focal spot the
*greater the tube capacity

Which of the following does not affect image sharpness or recorded detail?
*object_film distance
Definition is directly influenced by the
*wavelength used
Shorter exposure time increases
*fogging
Which of the following exerts the greatest control on radiographic definition
*size of the tube focal spot
Radiographic definition is lost when a film demonstrate excessive
*motion
Which of the following combination of milliamperage and time would be ideal for an
uncooperative irrational patient recquirong a KUB?
*1000 mA , 1/100 sec.
Which of the following Radiographic techniques would produce the greatest quantity
of photons
* 600mA , 2/5 seconds
A technique of 200 mA , 3/20 seconds at 110 kVp could properly be converted to a
technique of 100 mA, 94 kV at how many seconds?
*3/10 seconds
An original technique of 200mA 1/2seconds and 75kV may be adjusted to 400mA ,
80kV at how many seconds?
* 1/4th seconds
If the milliamperage selector where set at 1000mA, what exposure time would be
required to produce 80mAs?
*2/25 seconds
Which of the followig techniques would produce the greatest amount of radiographic
density ?
*300mA , 2/5 seconds
A technique of 100 mA, 1/2 sec convert to an equivalent mAs at 500 mA , 2 secs at
how many kilovolts to maintain the density?
*92 kV
Wich technique would produce most density?
*400mA, 3/20 sec

At which of the following exposure times does 200 mA at 1/2 sec convert to an
equivalent mAs at 500 mA?
*1/5 sec
Wich of the following is not a factor in controlling the exposure rate of an x-ray
beam?
*Filtration

If the milliampere was set at 300 and the mAs produced was 15, the exposure would
be
*1/20 sec
If the kilovoltage were at 46 kV , how much of a minimum change would have to
occur in order to produce a noticeable increese in density?
*7kV
To convert, maintaining the same density, the technique of non grid, 60 mAs, 70
kVp, 80-in FFD to 6:1 grid, 22.5 mAs, 40 in FFD, how many kilovolts would be
required?
*80 kV
If the standard is 300 mA , 1/20 sec, 80 kVp, the adjustment should be 75 mA, 1/5
sec and how many kilovolts?
*80 Kv
The intensification factor of the screens refers to their?
*density
High relative humidity will decrease?
* reticulation
The KV required to penetrate an adult skull adequately is approximately ?
*65 Kv
Which of the following anatomic parts would attenuate the most radiation ?
*psoas muscle
A decrease in kilovoltage is required for?
*atrophy
The purpose of the fixing agent is to ?
*remove fixing solution
The hardener in the fixing solution is?
*potassium hydroxide
Which of the following DOES NOT greatly affect imaging quality but is expensive ?
*over replenishment of the fixer
What solution is carried over the top of the tanks into a wire to a drain?
*overflow
What system that keeps the solution at proper strength and extending solution life?
*replenishment
Which of the following does not include the replenishment system
*heat exchanger
In the department without a central replenishment facility, developer and fixer
replenishment tank up to how how many gallons of each solutions?
 *50
What developing agent helps to provide upper scale density?
*hydroquinone
What developing agent helps to provideintermediate densities?
*phenidone
What agent is the activator in the developer or a source of alkali?
*hydroxide
What is the advissable time/period change processing solutions in an automatic
processors?
*every three months
What device is used to evaluate the sensitometric readings from the processed
image ?
*sensitometer
What filter is available for photo-flourographic and cine-flourographic panchromatic
films?
*dark green
What artifacts caused by raisednick on roller scratching film as it passes by?
*pi lines
What is the flexible support of the emulsion?
*emulsion
What is the very good vehicle for the siver coumpound?
*Base
Which of the following devices are employed to reduced patient exposure to x-rays
1.Grids
2.collimators
3.filters
*1,2and 3
A 16:1 grid compared to an 8:1 grid will
*absorbed more soft x-ray
Which of the following has a direct effect on the efficiency of a bucky grid in
removing scattered radiation?
*grid ratio
Unabsorbed radiation is also called?
*secondary
A grid has a lead strip of 0.25mm apart and high will have a ratio of ?
*8:1
Which type of grid has lead lines running only in one direction?
*linear
Which of the following terms does not apply to grid?
*amplitude
The use of grid will protect the ?
*patient from scattered radiation
Barium sulfate on the film surface of a cassette would cause an artifact that would
appear as a?
*high-density spot
The anode heel effect is an important consideration when taking radiographs of the
*skull
Aluminum filtration modifies the x-ray beam by removing most of the?
*Shorter wavelength rayS
An increase in filtration from 1mm Al to 3mm Al will reduce the skin exposure rate
dose?
*1/5
When non screen films is used, the developing time is ?
*Decreased by 2 min
In order to prevent pressure marks, x-ray film should stored
*on end
The silver hallide latent image is produced by ?
*sodium sulphite
The manifest image is composed of ?
*Sodium thiosulfate
Which of the following substances does not emit light when bombarded by x-rays ?
*barium platinocyanide
The visible image is composed of
*potassium-bromide cyrstals
High speed film and intensifying screens enable the use of
*lower mAs values
Poor film screen contact results in?
*Decreased definition

Which of the following does NOT influence the basic fog level of radographic film?
*Film speeed
What is the cause of abrassion?
*Dirty rollers
The conditin of osteolysis required?
The use of a large focal spot
A decrease in exposurevfactors
The utilization of a high ratio grid
*1,2,3
350 ma and 120 mn providing
*42 mas
Whenusing bucky with a focused grid, if the lateral edges of the film loss density, it ia
an indication that the________.
*tube is not perpendicular to the grid
Type of grid that is NOT grid placement error
*air gap grid
Wich of the fpllowing is not related to hoghpenumbra?
*high mas
A decrease kilovoltage idequired for________
*osteomalacia
Grid frequency is defined as the
*number of lead strip per centimetre

Which of the following will causethe advantage of moving grid to a stationary grid?
*increase effective focal spot
Which of the following has an effect on the producing of secondary and scaterred
radiation?
1.Thickness of the part being x rayed
2.Density of the tissue being x rayed
3kilovoltage
 *1,2,3
An increase in film density results from an increase
*mas
Definitin is directly influenced by the
*OFD
Motion unsharpness is controlled primarily by______
*suspending respiration
When going to a medium speed to a high speed, there will be a decrease in
necessary amount of exposure and
*increase detail
Poor storage or handling practices that can esult in film fog include
1.Outdated film
2.Expsure to excessive temperature
3.Exposure to chemical fumes
*1,2,3
Increased object film distance would primarily decrease__________
*density
When proper rdiographic detail cannot be obtained because of excessive part film
distance,...change in technique may be used to improve deatil?
*increase in focalfilm distance
Density in the radiograph s the __________
*overall blackness of the radiograph
Grid measures 15 inches in width, with 32 grid frequency. How strip are there in this
total width?
*480
Unabsorbed radiation is called
*Scattered
to convert single phase to three exposure factors, the mAs should be______
*tripled
The KV required to penetrate an adult skulladequately is approximately
*85 kv
Effective methods of controllin motion include
1.carefull explanation of procedure to the patient
3.restraining devices
*1 and 3 only
Which of the following radiographic techniques would produce a radioraph with the
shortest contrast?
*100 ma, 3/5 sec., 6:1 grid, 6 in OFD
Other new benifits of using intensifying screens.
1.reduce output requirement of the x rays system
2.shorter exposure time andmotion artifacts are reduced
3.reduced dose equivalent value
*1,2,3
Which of the following factors does NOTaffect image sharpness or recorded detail?
*kilovoltage
Compared with the small focal spot, the advantage of using large focal spot is____
*faster image receptor canbe used
Which of the following is the controlling factor in minimizing distortion?
*OFD
Beam quality is primarily controlled by
 *kilovoltage
Focal spot size selection is most critical during
1.magnification radiography
*1 only
Which type of grid has lead iner running only in one direction?
*linear
The primary purpose of a filter used in the diagnostic x ray machine is
*to reduce the skin dose
Which of the following BEST describe the primary radiation?
*emerges from the tube and rachs the patient
Which of the following grid types shouldbe used so that xray tube may be angled
along the (cut) of the grid without cut off
*focused
Intensifying screen speed increases, therefore recorded detail decreases
as________
*phosphor size increases
Non flammable polyeste is also called
*film base
What is the color of radiographic film base to minimize the effect of ambient light
passing through large unexposed areas of the radiograph?
*Tinted blue
Orthochromatic emulsions are sensitive to wavelength:
*less than 620 nm
Panchromatic emulsions are sensitive to which of the following wavelength:
1.Whole visible spectrum
2.Shorte wavelength
3.Wavelength less than 620 nm
*1,2,3
If 100 speed intensifying screen were matched to 100 speed radiographic film the
system would e rated
*100
What time is often reffered to as of stadard, medium or fast speed?
*direct
A quantitative measurement of the response of the film to exposure and
development is known as:
*densitometer
What term is often erronously substituted for exposure technique?
*non screen
What x ra film usualy dual emulsion is designed to be used in combination with
intensifying screens?
*medical screen
What film that response to the flouroscence light given off by activated intensifying
screens
*intensifying screen
What i the ideal temperature for the storage of fresh, unexposed radiographic film?
*60 to 80 degrees fahrenheit
What artifacts wich occur because of rapid movement of the film on the darkroom?
*tree like static
What is the storage temperature of the radiographic film after processing?
*90 to 95 degree farenheit
What film changes using a film magazine that is preload in the darkroom prior to the
angiographic study?
*multi cassette changer
What is the primary reason why blue tint is added to the base of radiographic film?
*decrease the parallax effect
If you measure the the minimum size and space between objects that can be
visulized on the final image is called?
*line pairs per millimeter
What is the other term for food replenishment?
*Timed
Which ofthe following is NOT classified as artifacts?
*location
Which of the following is not one of the major systems of an automatic processor?
Development system
Which of the following is not classified as artifacts?
Location
Which of the following is preventing the reduction of unexposed emulsion?
*NaCO3
unwanted markings on a radiograph that are darker than the sorrounding image are
called:
*artifacts
Which of the following are the distinct pattern of static artifacts?
Tree, crown, and smudge
When sodium sulphite is used as an x ray processing chemical, it is
*preservative
What is the common cost of contamination of the solution?
*splashing
The other term for green sensitive films is
*orthocromatic film
If the x ray is partially absorbed, its ineraction is called______
*photoelectric

The invisible image is that produced in the film emulation b exposure to ligth or x ray
is called
*latent image
To remove the algae in the processing tank, requires a filter of_____
*10 micron
Too much density is caused by______.
*overexposure
Which of the following is thinner than 5um?
*turn arround assembly
The most common reason for contaminated developer is
*mixing fixer in the developer tank
What is the cause of kink marks?
*rough handling
An x ray intensifying screen is composed of all of the followingEXCEPT
*AN EMULSION LAYER
When the film passes through the fixing tak and wash tank it will sees through a
*recieving film
Pnchromatic emulsion are sensitive to wich of the following wavelengths?
1.Whole vision spectrum
*1 only
Which of the following ingridient is not normally found in the film emulsion?
*silver nitrate
Which of the following does not apply when you compare the base cellulose nitrate?
*thicker
Without the hardener the emusion becomes so soft that it will cause
*all of the choices
Which segment of the circulation system is most important to achive quality?
*washing

The segment of circulation most likely to contain a filter is:

*developer
A non screen technique is used in radiography primarily because it
Produces higher contrast
How many years an original radiograph is stored?
*3-5
What chemical that rapidly produces fine detail shades of gray?
*phenidone
A small amount of fixer, if splashed into the developing solution, can render the
developer
*contaminated
What system is designed so that a precise amount of developer and fixer is fed into
the (cut) every centimetre of film that passes over the entrane roller?
*replenihment
Wich of the following statement is true?
*solutions in the manual processing have a longer solution life that
that....
What chemistryacts as a buffer and a source of alkali?
*hydroxide
what is the active ingridients of the radiographic fine emulsion?
*silver halide
Which of the factos does not influence the basic fog level of radiographic film?
*film speed

What is /are the primary agents of the developer?

1Reducing
2.Phenidone
3.Hydroquinone
*1 only
What agent is usedto minimize fog and maintain chemical balance between fresh...
and chemicals?
*potassium bromide
Which of the following can cause oxidation of the developer and diminishing its
chemistry?
*exhaustion
What material is used for cassettes to reduce attenuation by up to and permits
reduction in patient dose?
*bakelite
Quantum mottle refers to?
 1.The source of noise in the image
2.It is caused when too few x ray photons hit the IR
4.Salt and pepper appearance
*1,2 4 only
The principal reason why radiographic intensifying screen is used
*reduce patient radiation exposure
The invisible image is composed of
*metallic silver grains
Film should be stored at
*10-21degree celcius
The most factor which which affect film sensitometry includes
1.Time developer
2.Temperature of developer
3.Activity of developer
*1,2,3
Average gradient refers to
*the slope of a curve
A warped casstte result in
*blurring ofthe radiographic image
Screen contact is tested by
*making an exposure of a fine wire mesh placed on the top of cassette
and sreen
A common cause of transitory poor screen contact is
*air trapping within the cassette
The light output from the calcium tunstate screens in what light spectrum?
*blue
Poor screen contact resul in
*blurring of radiographic image
The back of cassette is made of material opaque to x rays because
*it tends to prevent fogging of film by scattered radiation from behind
the cassette
Poor screen contact will result in
*decreased sharpness of detail in the radiograph
The sharpness of detail of a thin part is increased by the used of
*non screen exposure
Screen are cleened
*according to the manufacturers specifications
The posphor most commonly used in manufacturing intensifying a screen is
*calcium tungstate
Newer phosphors used in manufacturing intensifying screen is include all except:
*cesium iodide
Increase speed of calcium tungstate screen is obtained primary by
*increasing the thickness of the phosphor
The primary light output from a gadolinium oxy sulfide screen in what light spectrum
*green
What part of the developer chemistry is most affected by changes in temperature
*phenidone
The average replenishing rate for developer solution is
*60-70 cc per film
A crossover rack is located
 *at the top of the vertical rack assembly
How often should a crossover rack be cleaned?
*daily
Development temperature should be checked
*periodically throughout the working period
An easily observable difference between x-ray film and regular photographic film is
*thickness and rigidity film of the base
Average silver halide crystal size in radiographic film is approximately
*1.0 um
Which of the following has been employed as a film base
*cellulose nitrate

The photographic emulsion commonly used in x-ray fil consist of

*silver halide and gelatin
A common base of contemporary x-ray film is
*polyester
In the manufacture of radiographic film
*direct exposure film contains a thicker emulsion layer with more silver
halide crystals than screen fim
Dimensional stability is the property of maintaining the size and shape of the
*base
The principal purpose of gelatin in the emulsion is to
*support the silver halide crystals uniformity
Conventional x-ray film used with intensifying screens has
*emulsion coated on both sides of the base
Which of the is usually thinner than 5um
*supercoating
Conventional radiographic screen film is approximately ____ thick
*0.25 mm
The special imaging properties of crystals known as the phorographic effect are
though to be due to
*silver sulfide
The term sensitivity spect refers to
*an emulsion contaminant
The latent image is actually formed in the
*silver halide crystal
In the manufacture of the emulsion, which of the following molecules is particularly
light sensitive
*AgBr
What do we call the radiation exiting the patient that is responsible for latent image
formation
*remnant
The formation of a manifest image follows many sequential steps, the first of which is
*ionization
The most common employed radiologic image
*screen film

Which of the following is not a characteristics the technology should consider when
reaching film
*light emission
Fast films differ from slow films principally in ____ of the silver halide crystals
*concentration
The spectral response of a emulsion refers to its
*absorption of visible light
Calcium tungstate screen emit
*blue light
Orthrochromatic film is sensitive to
*green lights
Whwn green emitting rare earth screens are used with properly matched film ____
safelights are required
*red
Which of the following is most likely to fog film?
I.An improper safelight filter
II.Storage of film for longer than 1 month
III.0.2 mR
IV.High humidity
*I
The most commonly employed radiographic image receptor is ____ film
*screen
Which of the following is the least important characteristics of screen film
*cost
A high contrast emulsion is characterized by
*small, uniform grain size
The component of the developer that helps to keep unexposed crystals from the
developing agent
*potassium bromide
Which of the following automatic processing chemistries best controls the image on
a radiographic density range that is most important
*phenidone

The most common result of inadequate washing is

*excess hypo retention
Which of the following ingredients of the developer is responsible for producing the
black part of the radiograph
*hydroquinone
The temperature of the wash water should be approximately
*5 degrees F below the developer
The developer ingredient that controls ph is
*sodium carbonate
Which of the following will not be found in the fixer
*glutaraldehyde
Radiographic Cones and cylinders are employed principally to reduce
*patient dose
The two general types of divices designed to control scatter radiation are
*grids and beam restrictors
One helpful feature of a light localizing collimator is increased
*filtration
This principal reason for using a grid is to
*increases radiographic contrast
The use of a grid will result
*control of scatter radiation
The efficiency of a grid for reducing scatter radiation is related principally to the
*grid ratio
Use of which of the following devices will reduce radiographic contrast
*filters
Added filtration influences selection of
*high energy x-rays
Which of the following is the least important indicator of grid performance
*grid strip height
The simplest type of grid is the
*linear grid
The undesirable absorption of primary beam x-rays by a grid is called
*grid cut-off
Which of the followiing would be included in the three major classifications of moving
grids?
*reciprocating grid
One factor that does not affect the percentage of scatter radiation reaching the
image receptor is
*mAs
Which of the following is not a grid positioning error
*air gap grid
In general, which of the following has the greatest contrast improvement factor?
*crosshatched grids
The diagnostically usefull portion of the characteristics curve includes the
*straight-line portion
The main component of radiographic noise
*quantum mottle
The sharpness of detail in the radiograph is best increased by the use of
*small effective focal spot
The best way to control focal spot blur without affecting optical density with be to use
a very
*small focal spot
Focal spot blur can be reduce by
*decreasing OID
High spatial resolution is affected principally by which of the following
*focal spot size
The step in processing is designed to
*soften the emulsion
The purpose of stop bath is to
*removed excess from the emulsion
What stage of processing involve a synergistic reaction ?
*the time of fixation
Replinishment of which tank in the procssing system is most important?
*developer

When films in the receiving bin are damp, least likely cause is
*reduced transport time
Double capacity can process a film is
*180 sec.
The minimum flow rate for wash water is _____ gallon(s) per minute
 *3

The principal purpose of the circular system is to

*agitate the chemistry
Under replishment of the developer will result in a
*great decrease in contrast
Control of the replishement system is acomplished by a
*micro switch
The approximate developer conditions in ta 90-s processor are
*95 degree F, 22 s
Circulation of the developer at the rate of approximately____ will ensure adequate
*15 1/m
The transport system includes all but the following
*drying chamber
The three ____ in master roller is the part of a
*turn around assembly
If a radiograph turns yellow during storage, it maybe the result of
*incomplete washing
With a 90-s processor, immersion time in the developer is approximately
*20-s
The classification of artifact include all except
*location artifacts
Which of the following would be identified as a handling artifact
*kink marks
The distinct patterns of static artifact do not include
*finger static

Which of the following would be considered a storage artifact?

*radiation fog
Which of the following types of artifacts is most distinctive
*Pi lines
Artifacts caused by wet pressure sensitization usually occur
*in the developing tank
Guide shoe artifacts will be found on the ____ of theradiograph
*leading and trailling edges
Intensifying screen speed increases with increasing
*phosphor thinkness
A phosphor currently used in radiographic intensifying screens is
*barium fluorochoride
Concerning luminescence , which of the following statements is truth ?
*there are two kinds: fluroscence and phosphoresence
Quantum detection efficiency (QDE) refers to
*ability to absorb x-ray
The principl advantage of rare earth screens over calcuim tungstate screens is
*faster speed
Rare earth screens exhibit higher x-ray absoprtion than the calcium tungstate screen
*only over an intermmediate x-ray energy range
Which of the following contributes to the increased speed pf rare earth screens ?
*conversion efficiency
Reare earth screens
 *show higher x-ray absoprtion in the diagnostic range than calcium
tungstate screens
In comparison with calcium tungstate screens, rare earth screens
*absorb three to five times as many x-rays

Rare earth intensifying screens

*are more expensive than calcium tungstate screens
The routine care screen requires that they be
*periodically cleaned

Remnant x-rays includes those that

*exit the px toward the image receptor
As the field size is increased, scattered radiation
*increase
One factor that influences the production of scattered radiation that is generally not
under the control of the technologist is
*patient thickness
In some radiographic techniques the primary purpose of adding a compensating filter
is to
*change the distribution of radiation
In general, as the thickness of the part being radiographed increases
*the patient exposure increases
X-ray beam restriction to the area of interest is principaly required to reduce
*patient dose
An aperture diaphragm should allow x-rays to expose an area
*just smaller than the image receptor
The simplest of all beam restricting devices is an
*aperture diaphragm
A properly designed light localizing variable aperture collimator will
*be designed to reduce off focus radiation
Which of the following radiographic techniques is likely to produce best visualization
of lower structures
*72 kVp, 100 Ma 100 ms
The principal cause of motion blur is movement of the
*patient
Sharpness of detail n radiograph is principal improved by
*reducing px motion
Sharp resolution of detail in a radiograph is improved by the use of
*slower screens
In radiographic examination of the lumbar spine ,which of the following techniques
would produce greatest exposure to the patient?
*70 kVp/200 mAs

If other factors remains constant, which of the following would result in highest
radiographic dansity
*200 ma, 500 ms , 90cm SID
General purpose x-ray tube usually inherent filtration of
*0.5mm Al
Dyes are added to intensfying screens primarily to
*control lateral dispersion of light
The primary purpose of a filter used in the diagnostic x-ray machine is
*to reduce the skin dosage
The total amount of filtration ( including inherent filtration) for the average diagnostic
machine above 70 Kv is
*2.5 mm Al
The chief purpose of a filter of aluminum placed beneath the aperture of radiographic
tube is to
*absorb some of the longer wavelength

When using a Bucky with a focuse grid, if the lateral edges of the film lose density, it
is an indication that the
*focal film distance is not correct
High ratio grids, in the control of radiographic quality
*filter out a high degree of scattered radiation
The type of radiation called parimary is that which
*emerges from the tube and reaches the patient
A wege filter is used to
*compensate for varying tissue densities
The Potter Bucky diaphragm and the stationary grid are used to
*eliminate a large portion of secondary radiation
The factor which produces the greatest unsharpness is
*motion
The waveleght of an x-ray beam is determined by
*voltage differential between anodeand cathode
Geometric unsharpness is controlled primarily by
*decreasing OID
The average developer immersion time in an automatic “90 second” processor is
approximately
*20 sec.
For orthochromatic sensitive x-ray film, a sutable darkroom light is
*Kodak GBX
Film density in development is primarily related to
*time of development
The average replinishing rate for fixer is approximately
*100-110 cc/film

One of the most common causes of wet film emerging from an automatic procesor is
*general lack of hardener in developer or fixer
Fresh x-ray film should be stored at approximately
*60-70 degree F/ 50-60% relative humidity
Starter solution is composed of
*potassium bromide
The most common for contaminated developer is
*dripping fixer from the fixer rack into the developer tank when
removing or replacing fixer rack
The normal fixing time in an automatic processor is
*about twice developing time
 Radiographic Positioning

• What is the central ray that demonstrates inferior orbital fissures?

- 20-25 degrees cephalad
• The following are used to demonstrates the tangential view of sesamoid bone of
the foot, except.
- Fuch
• What structure best demonstrate in Kuchendorf Method?
• -Patella
• What postion best demonstrate the talofibular joint?
- Ankle mortise
• The line that is perpendicular in performing Rhese method.
- AML
• What is the central ray demonstrated the rotondum foramina?
- 25-30 degrees caudad
• What is best demonstration of medial oblique foot Isherwood method?
- Anterior talar articulating surface
• What is best demonstration of medial oblique ankle Isherwood method?
- Middle talar articulating surface
• What is best demonstration of lateral oblique ankle Isherwood method?
- Posterior talar surface
• What is best demonstrates the calcaneotalar joint?
- Coalition method
• What is the central ray angulation that will demonstrate high and transverse
stomach of hypersthenic patients?
- 35-45 degrees cephalad
• What will be demonstrated by medial oblique of the foot?
- 1-2 digits
- 3-5 metatarsals
- Cuboid
• What is the central ray angulation that demonstrates posterior talar surfaces?
- 10 degrees cephalad at 1-inch distal to medial malleolus
• What projection demonstrate hallux valgus?
- AP Axial Weight bearing of the foot
• What of the following demonstrates pelvic inlet, EXCEPT?
- Taylor
• What will demonstrate Fovea Capitis?
- Teufel
• What projection is in sitting position?
- Lilienfeld/Lilienfield
• What shoulder projection will demonstrate the anterior oblique projection,
EXCEPT?
- Alexander
• What shoulder projection will demonstrate posterior oblique projection, EXCEPT?
- Blackett-Healey
• What trans axillary projection will be in lateral recumbent position?
- Clements
• What projection will demonstrate atlas and axis?
- Open Mouth
• What method will demonstrate an axial view of the sphenoid sinuses?
- Pirie
• That is the best demonstrated in Clements-Nakayama of the wrist?
- Trapezium/Greater Multangular
• What position demonstrates the hepatic flexure?
- LPO
- RAO
• What position demonstrates the splenic flexure?
- RPO
- LAO
• What line is parallel in the cassette or IR in submentovertical projection o
Schuller’s Method?
 - IOML
• What is the central ray angulation for the Hickey Method?
- 20-25 degrees cephalad
• What is the central ray that will demonstrate the anterior clinoid process?
- 30 degrees caudal
- 10 degrees cephalad
• All of the following demonstrates the scaphoid, EXCEPT?
- Clements-Nakayama
• What method demonstrates the sphenoid strut?
- Hough Method
• What projection will demonstrate the entire cervical bodies?
- Otonello/Wagging-Jaw Technique
• What is the simplest type of filter?
- Wedge
• What type of filter is used in AP projection of the hip, knees and ankles?
- Supertech
• What type of filter is used in swimmers view & Danelius-Miller of the hip?
- Ferlic collimator mounted filter
• Type of filter used in AP Thoracic?
- Through collimator mounted Al filter
• Type of filter used in shoulder AP & facial bones?
- Boomerang
• What projection will not demonstrate Bennet’s fracture?
- Folio (Skier’s Thumb Projection)
• What projection will demonstrate suprapatellar effusion?
- Lateral (Knee)
• What projection will demonstrate medial femoral condyle?
- Medial Oblique
• What projection demonstrate calcaneal spur?
- Lateral
• What is the term for the outer layer of the skull?
- Pericranium
• What structure forms the highest level of the facial bones?
- Supraorbital Groove
• What structure that covers & supports the pons portion of the brain?
- Clivus
• What additional communication of the orbits for numerous nerves & blood
vessels?
- Supraorbital Fissures
• A leaf-like structure that covers the trachea during the act of swallowing?
- Epiglottis
• What point of bifurcation of the trachea with the right and left main bronchi?
- Carina
• What is the recommended landmark of AP chest projection?
- Jugular Notch
• What projection demonstrates the epiglottis?
- Lateral
• What position are provided best image of the left atrium?
- RAO
• In order to demonstrate the sternum, the body rotates how many degrees?
- 15-20 degrees
• The body obliquity for sternoclavicular joint?
- 10-15 degrees
• Best demonstrates in the Moore Method
- Sternum
• Sternum is best demonstrated in what method?
- Moore Method
• The central ray angulation for axiolateral of the sternoclavicular articulation?
- 15 degrees
• What is the posterior oblique projection of the cervical spine?
 - Kasabach
• What is the most anterior portion of the vertebra?
- Body
• What is the line perpendicular in Fuchs method of the cervical spine?
- MML
• What projection will demonstrate posterior ethmoid sinuses?
- Rhese Method
• What is the line perpendicular the cassette for the parieto-occipital projection?
- AML
• What is the line that is perpendicular for the Stenver’s Method
- IOML
• What is the central ray angulation of the AP Axial of the occipital bone if the OML
is perpendicular to the cassette or IR?
- 30 degrees caudal
• What is the central ray angulation for PA Axial of the occipital bone?
- 25 degrees cephalad
• What is the reference point for PA Axial of the occipital bone?
- Inion
• What projection demonstrates the petrous pyramid in the lower portion of the
maxillary sinuses?
- Water Method (Parieto-orbital Projection)
• What is the landmark for the general survey of the skull?
- Nasion
• For male patients in the outlet view of the pelvis, what is the central ray
angulation?
- 20-35 degrees cephalad
• What projection best demonstrates the posterior hip dislocation?
- Hseish
• What is the central ray angulation pf the PA Axila projection of the outlet view of
the pelvis?
- 35 degrees cephalad
• Which does not would demonstrates the pelvic inlet?
- Taylor
• An intercondyloid fossa projection uses curved cassette?
- AP Axial
• What projection best demonstrate cervical intervertebral foramina and pedicles
• -Oblique
• What is the CR for sacrum if the patient is in supine position
• -15 degrees cephalad
• What is demonstrated in judet method with the affected hip place contact with the
cassette
- Ilioischial and anterior acetabulum
• What structure is demonstrated in may method
- Zygoma
• What is placed in contact with the cassette demonstration of the mandibular body
- Chin and Nose
• In parietoacanthial projection, the OML forms an angle from the cassette
- 37 degrees
• From the lateral position the body is rotated how many degrees for the
demonstration of the thoracic zygapophyseal joint
- 20 degrees
• What projection will demonstrate pronator pads stripe of the wrist
- Lateral
• What projection will demonstrate scaphoid pads stripe of the wrist
- PA
• Which of the following where the T-tube is left in placed
- Common Bile Duct
• What is the best imaging modalities to delineate the gall bladder
- Ultrasonography
• What is the rotation of the heel for PA projection of the patella
 - 5-10 degrees
• What is also known as AP axial projection for intercondyloid fossa
- Beclere
• What is the CR for kutchendurf method
- 25-30 degrees
• What projection would demonstrate the petrous pyramid with in the orbit
- PA
• What projection demonstrated at the lower the lower 1/3 of the orbits
- PA Axial
• What structure best demonstrate if the CR enters 2” above the EAM
- Skull
• What structure is best seen if the CR is perpendicular posterior to outer canthus
- Paranasal Sinuses
• What is best demonstrated in acute flexion of the elbow
- Olecranon process
• What is the degree of flexion for Coyle method demonstration of the coronoid
process
- 80 degrees
• What elbow projection would demonstrate olecranon process seen in the
olecranon fossa?
- Medial Oblique
• Elbow projection that demonstrates trochlea?
- Lateral Oblique
• What projection best demonstrates elbow fat pads?
- Elbow Lateral
• What projection would demonstrate bow leg & knock knee?
- AP Weight-bearing of the knee
• Which of the following positions will demonstrate right cervical intervertebral
foramina & pedicles?
- LPO & RAO
• What position will demonstrate the left thoracic zygapophyseal joint or
articulation?
- RPO & LAO
• What is the central ray used to demonstrate the thumb, EXCEPT?
- Clements-Nakayama
• Which of the following line is parallel in the cassette in submentovertical
projection of the skull?
- IOML
• Which of the following are performed in PA Oblique projection, EXCEPT?
- Garth Method
• Which of the following is not performed in AP Oblique projection, EXCEPT?
- Clement-Nakayama
• What projection of the shoulder where the patient is in lateral recumbent
position?
- Clements
• Degree of PA axial of the scaphoid
- 20 degrees
• Central ray of PA of the hand
- Perpendicular to the 3rd metacarpo-pharngeal joint
• Which of the following will best demonstrate the atlas, axis and zygapophyseal
- Open mouth
• What is the CR for posterior oblique position of the cervical
- 15 degrees cephalad
• How many hours does it takes for telepaque contrast agent to reach the
gallbladder
- 10 hours
• Which of the following is the main pancreatic duct
- Duct of Wirsung
• Which of the following is UNTRUE regarding AP in external rotation
- Palmar aspect of the hand is in the hip area
• Best projection to demonstrate the structure status of the longitudinal arch of the
foot
- Lateral in Weight bearing
• Degree of obliquity of medial or lateral projection of the foot angulation to the film
- 30 degrees
• What is the best demonstrated in the acute flexion of the elbow?
- Olecranon Process
• Which of the following uses is used to demonstrates the unilateral frog leg,
EXCEPT?
- Cleaves
• What position best demonstrates the left retro gastric space?
- Upright left lateral
• What position best demonstrates the right retro gastric space, duodenal loop and
the duodeno-jejunal junction?
- Right Lateral Recumbent
• What position best demonstrates the anterior and posterior aspect of the
stomach canal?
- Lateral
• What position best demonstrates the pyloric canal and duodenal bulb in
hypersthenic patients?
- Lateral
• If the patient is in erect position, the stomach will move ______?
- Downward
• If the patient is in supine position, the stomach will move _______?
- Superiorly
• In what position will the fundus moves in its highest position?
- Supine
• In what position will the fundus moves in its lowest position?
- Prone
• What position demonstrate the size shape and relative position of the stomach
but not the unfilled esophagus?
- PA Erect
• What body habitus greatest visceral movement occur between prone and erect
position?
- Asthenic
• Compression is not advisable in special radiographic examination of the stomach
and intestine because.
- May cause filling defects
- Can cause alter in filling and emptying of the duodenal bulb
• What is the central ray for the PA Projection of the stomach in asthenic patients?
- 2 inches below L1
• What projection/position will demonstrate the fundus of the stomach filled with
barium and pylorus with air?
- Prone
• What projection/position will demonstrate pyloric canal and duodenal bulb in
profile for asthenic and hyposthenic patients?
- PA
• What projection/position will demonstrate pyloric canal and duodenal bulb
partially superimposed by the pre-pyloric portion of the stomach in an average
patient?
- PA
• What projection/position will demonstrate pyloric canal and duodenal bulb
partially superimposed by the prepyloric portion of the stomach in Hypersthenic
patient?
- PA
• This modification opens up the high transverse stomach in hypersthenic patients.
- Gordon’s Method
• This is a modification used to demonstrate the stomach in infants.
- Gugliantini’s Method
• What is best demonstrated in the RAO position of the stomach?
- Duodenal bulb in profile
 - Air in the fundus
- Barium in the pylorus and duodenal bulb
• What position demonstrates the pylorus and duodenal on hypersthenic patient?
- LPO
• What position demonstrates the double contrast study of the body, pylorus and
duodenal bulb?
- LPO
• What position demonstrates the barium filled fundus?
- LPO
• What position is gastric peristalsis is more active?
- RAO
• What position is best to demonstrate hiatal hernia?
- Trendelenburg
• What position will fill the fundus of thin asthenic body habitus?
- Trendelenburg
• What is modification of trendelenburg?
- Wolf
• What is best position to demonstrate esophageal varices?
- Recumbent
• What is the most common breathing exercise?
- Valsalva
• What maneuver will demonstrate esophageal reflux and hiatal hernia?
- Toe-touch
• What position is used for water test?
- LPO
• Best single projection for barium filled esophagus?
- RAO
• What position will demonstrate upper esophagus without superimposition of the
arm and shoulder?
- Swimmers lateral
• What is the central ray for Gordon's Method?
- 35-45 degrees cephalad
• What is the central of wolf method?
- 10-20 degrees caudal
• What is the best position in post motor meal cholecystogram?
- RPO
• What projection best demonstrate like calcium bile?
- LPO
• Projection best to demonstrate gallbladder away from the spine?
- LAO
• Position for the wolf method?
- RAO
• What is the common basic position to demonstrate gallbladder?
- LAO
• What position will demonstrate GB away from the vertebral spine & bowel loops.
- Lateral
• Position for differentiating GB stone from renal stone & calcified mesentric nodes.
- Lateral
• Position to demonstrate stratification & layering of gallstones.
- Erect
• Position to demonstrate mobility of GB to detect small stones.
- Erect
• Position/projection that demonstrate multiple stones that cannot detect in other
projections.
- Right lateral decubitus
• Position to demonstrate stones heavier than bile.
- Upright
- Right lateral decubitus
• What examination is most invasive for demonstrating GB?
- Percutaneous Transhepatic Cholangiography
• What examination that uses chibba needle?
- PTC
• In performing intermediate operative cholangiography, what position use to
project biliary duct away from the spine usually for hyposthenic patient.
- RPO
• In IOC, the contrast medium is introduced in?
- Common Bile Duct
• Which is true in supine position for Barium Enema?
- Air is in transverse colon
- Air is in sigmoid colon
- Barium is in descending colon
- Barium is in ascending colon
• What is the most important modification in Barium Enema?
- Robin’s
• What position demonstrates the transverse colon filled with air?
- AP
• What position demonstrates the transverse colon filled with barium?
- PA
• What method demonstrates an elongated view of the recto-sigmoid area?
- Butterfly
• What position will demonstrate the splenic flexure and descending colon?
- RPO/LAO
• What position will demonstrate the splenic flexure and descending colon?
- RAO/LPO
• In ERCP, the intrahepatic duct is filled with contrast. In what position technique?
- Trendelenburg
• What position best demonstrate the anatomic branching of the hepatic duct?
- Lateral
• What position demonstrates the posterior portion of colon?
- Ventral Decubitus
• What method demonstrates the axial projection of recto sigmoid colon?
- Chassard Lapine
• What method demonstrates the leaf like pattern and demonstrate the pylorus and
duodenal bulb?
- Hampton
• What method demonstrates the retrogastric space and evaluate pancreatic
mass?
- Poppels
• What position demonstrates the serial studies of duodenal bulb and pylorus?
- RAO
• What method demonstrates the right angle view of stomach?
- Poppels
• What is the central ray of billings for the barium enema?
- 35 - 45 cephalad
• What is the central ray of Oppenheimer for barium enema?
- 12 caudal
• What is the central ray of fleischner for barium enema?
- 30-35 cephalad
• What is the central ray of Robins for barium enema?
- Perpendicular to IR
• The AP recumbent projection for stomach will be usually demonstrated
- Barium filled fundus
- Double contrast body and antral portions
• Position of gallbladder in an asthenic patient
- Inferior and medial
• In myelography, CM is generally injected into the
- L3 and L4 subarachnoid space
• Common passageway for both air and food
- Pharynx
• In ERCP, injected contrast media stay and leave normal common bile duct in
approximately
 - 5min
• With the patient in RPO position, which are best demonstrated in IVU?
- Right Ureter
- Left Kidney
• To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in?
- Recumbent
• When sialography is performed the patient is given a slice of lemon?
- To Stimulate Orifice
• Demonstrate lateral ascending colon and lateral descending colon filled w/ air?
- Left Lateral Decubitus
• Demonstrate medial ascending colon and medial descending colon filled with
air?
- Right Lateral Decubitus
• Projection employed to open up high transverse type of stomach to demonstrate
greater and lesser curvature?
- Gordon
• Period of time most reaction to contrast media occur?
- 2-10min.
• Generic name of telepaque
- Iopanoic acid
• Muscle contraction of gall bladder is activated by these hormones called
- Cholecystokinin
• T-tube cholangiography is done
- After surgery of gall bladder
• How many hours does telepaque contrast agent reaches the gall bladder
- 10 hours
• In operative cholangiography, the surgical table is usually elevated with the left
side of the body at approximately
- 15-20 degrees
• Common site of ulcer in the stomach
- Duodenal bulb
• In RAO view, flow of barium and air is seen
- BaSo4 filled the pylorus, air moves up to the fundus
• In LPO view, flow of barium and air is seen
- Baso4 Filled The Fundus, Air Moves Up To The Pylorus
• Cystouretrogram is the radiographic examination
- Urinary bladder and ureter
• The term applied for abnormal downward placement of kidney
- Nephroptosis
• The name of the S-shape portion of the colon that terminates at rectum is
- Sigmoid
• The contraindication of using barium when performing examination in large
intestine is
- Perforation of Wall
• The oblique axial projection is done primarily to demonstrate
- Rectosigmoid Colon
• Lateral decubitus is helpful in diagnosing?
- Polyps
• The most common position for imaging the gallbladder which is it closest to the
IR.
- LAO
• In a normal adult undergoing IVU, the bladder ____ minutes after injection of
contrast.
- 15 to 30 minutes
• The oblique position of the stomach is performed to demonstrate the.
- Fundus duodenum
- Duodenal loop
- Duodenal bulb
• What projection would demonstrate the humerus in true anatomical position?
- External rotation
• What projection is employed in demonstrating jugular foramina?
 - Kemp Harper
• Which is not true regarding medial oblique of the elbow?
- Hand in internal rotation
• What projection demonstrates the posterolateral & posterosuperior aspect of the
humerus?
- Stryker Notch
• What projection demonstrates the atlas and axis zygophophyseal joints?
- Open Mouth
• How much degree difference between the medial and lateral condyle of the
femur?
- 5-7 degrees
• The body of the femur slants how many degrees?
- 5-15 degrees
• What is the position for the visualization of the lateral projection of the dislocation
of hip joint and the patient is in frog-leg position?
- Cleaves
• What is the central ray angulation of the knee PA Axial projection (Camp-
Coventry Method)?
- 40-50 degrees caudal to the popliteal depression
• What is the knee position wherein the patient is in kneeling position and knee is
flexed 70 degrees, a film under the knee and what is the best demonstrates
intercondylar foosa?
- Holmblad
• What projection best demonstrates intercondylara fossa and the patient is flexed
60 degrees form the long axis of the femur?
- Beclere Method
• What projection best demonstrates the suprapatellar effusion?
- Knee Lateral
• In the projection of PA Oblique (Grashey Method) to demonstrates the
interspaces between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal, the heel is rotated?
- 30 degrees medially
• In the projection of PA Oblique (Grashey Method) to demonstrate the interspaces
between the 2nd and 3rd, 3rd and 4th, 4th and 5th interspaces, the heel is rotated?
- 20 degrees internally
• The Grahey Method for the foot demonstrates the navicular, what is the heel
rotation?
- 30 degrees medially
• The degree of lower extremity varus and valgus deformity?
- AP knee weight bearing
• All are true regarding patella PA Oblique axial projection (Kuchendorf method)
EXCEPT:
- Central ray is directed to the joint space 25-30 degrees cephalad
• What is the central ray for the axial outlet Taylor method- Male patient?
- 20-35 degrees to center 2 inches distal to the appear border of
symphysis bone
• What is the CR for the Staunig method for anterior pelvic bone?
- 35 degrees cephalad
• What is the CR for Teufel method for the demonstration of acetabulum?
- 12 degrees through the acetabulum
• What is the CR for Cahoon method?
- 25 degrees cephalad
• What projection best show the alveolar ridges fractures
- Caldwell
• Which of the following statements is not about Caldwell method?
- Primary projection for frontal bone
• What central ray demonstrate the rutundom foramina?
- 25 to 30 degrees caudal
• What is the best projection demonstrate the vestibule cochlear region?
- Valdini
• What projection demonstrate Sella turcica and clivus in profile?
- Lateral
• What projection demonstrates the sphenoidal effusion?
- Crosstable Lateral
• What projection is used to demonstrate anteral cranial base and sphenoid
sinuses?
- Verticosubmento
• What is the alternative position of submentovertico projection if the patient cannot
hyperextend his neck?
- Lysholm
• Demonstrate largest sinuses.
- Parieto-acanthial
• Line perpendicular for HAAS
- OML
• Line perpendicular for Rhese
- AML
• Line perpendicular for Waters
- MML
• Line perpendicular for Stenvers
- IOML
• Demonstrates sphenoid in axial view within open mouth
- Pirie
• Structure demonstrated by modified Titterington
- Zygoma
• Which of the following method will demonstrate of bilateral view of zygoma?
- Townes method
• What is the CR for the axiolateral oblique projection for the demonstration of
mastoid air cells?
- 15 degrees caudad
• What is the CR for posterior profile projection for the petrous bone?
- 12 degrees cephalad
• What is the CR for anterior profile projection for the petrous bone?
- 10 degrees caudad
• What is the CR axial oblique projection of the mastoid air cell?
- 45 degrees caudad
• What is the CR in Hirtz method for the tympanic cavity.
- 5 degrees
• When performing Hickey method for visualization of mastoid process the
midsagittal plane should formed an angle of the cassette.
- 55 degrees
• What projection best demonstrate an image similar to Stenvers method?
- Low Beer
• The Haas method is often used to produce image similar to.
- AP AXIAL
• With the patient prone position, the glabellomeatal line and midsagittal plane
perpendicular to cassette and the CR is directed.
- 23 degrees caudad
• The patient is prone, orbitomeatal line and mid sagital plane perpendicular to
field. The CR is angled 25 degrees caudad. This position best visualize is the
- Superior orbital fissure
• The following best describe a parieto- acanthial projection, EXCEPT:
- MSP is 37 degrees to the cassette
• What position best demonstrate polyp in the left side of the left colon?
- Right lateral decubitus
• Which will demonstrate axial view of opacified gallbladder?
- PA Upright
• The angled PA Projection for the hypersthenic patients is also known as?
- Gordon Method
• In the lateral projection of the stomach, which of the following are true?
- Anterior and posterior of the stomach is visualized
- Best demonstrate retrogastric space
• In the AP projection for the stomach the following are true, EXCEPT?
- Anterior and Posterior of the Stomach is well demonstration
• The following are true regarding PA Oblique Projection (Wolf Method) for the
stomach, EXCEPT;
- Patient in LPO position
• The RAO position for the large colon will best demonstrate the following?
- Splenic Flexure
• In the SMV projection for the skull, which of the following are true?
- IOML is parallel to IR
- CR perpendicular to IR
- MSP is perpendicular to IR
• The structure best demonstrated if the patient is place in prone position, with
chin, nose and cheek resting on the x-ray table and mid-sagittal plane oriented
53 degrees to the cassette?
- Optic Foramen
• What structure is best seen if the patient is in supine position, the OML is
perpendicular to the cassette and the CR is directed 30 degrees caudal to 2.5”
above the glabella?
- Occipital
• If the central ray directed perpendicular to 1-inch to posterior outer canthus. What
is best seen?
- Paranasal Sinuses
• All are true regarding outlet view of true pelvis in Taylor method, EXCEPT
- Reference point is 4” distal to upper boarder of the symphysis pubis
• The structure being demonstrated the patient place supine and the CR is
directed 40 degrees caudal to ASIS is:
- Pelvic inlet
• What method employs a CR angulation of 35 degrees to the symphysis pubis?
- Staunig
• In the final statements which is not true in Teufel method?
- Patient in semi supine position
• In order to demonstrate mandibular body in rami the following are used EXCEPT:
- IOML perpendicular to the casette
• To demonstrate the symphysis menti in the axiolateral projection, the head is
rotated how many degrees?
- 45 degrees
• In AP axial oblique projection (Garth method). The radiologic technologist noticed
that the humerus is projected superiorly, this is an example of posterior
displacement
- Ligamentous
• A patient is suffering from impingement greater tuberosity and soft tissue coraco-
acromial ligamentous and osseous arc. He is having difficulty abducting his arm.
What method clearly demonstrates his pathology?
- Neer
• An emergency room physician suspect the patient that has anterior dislocation of
the humeral head, that may result a compression fracture of articular surface of
the humeral head called the Hillsach defect. He asks the x-ray technologist to
demonstrate his pathology. What should the x-ray technologist suggest to the
physician to demonstrate his anomaly?
- Inferior superior projection
• A patient comes to the emergency room complaining persistent of abdominal
pain the physician suspect bowel obstruction in orders an acute abdominal
series. The patient can’t stand what should the radiologic technologist to
demonstrate air fluid level.
- Left lateral decubitus
• Upon performing of parieto-acanthial projection of the facial bones. The
radiologic technologist noticed that the petrous pyramids is seen obstructing the
maxillary sinuses.
- Chin raised not enough
• A bystander was involved by incident. A physician rules out a blowout fracture.
The following are criteria’s in demonstrating of anomaly, EXCEPT;
- Head resting in chin and nose
• The orthopedic doctor was assigned at the emergency room and orders a routine
AP/L elbow. What is the possible cause of radiographic position?
- Displacement posterior fat pads
• In the cervical oblique projection in the mandibular angle is seen superimposed
in the upper cervical vertebrae, what should the RT do to correct the error?
- Slightly tilt and extend head
• In the LPO and RPO position for the cervical intervertebral foramina. The patient
head is extended and turn excessively. What should the RT do to maintain
alignment in the midsagittal plane to IR?
- Slightly pad the upper skull
• In performing the cervical AP Axial Oblique projection, which statements are
true?
- Central ray is angulated 15-20 degrees
- The body is rotated 45 degrees
• In the AP odontoid projection, which evaluation criteria that is used?
- The density is seen in the foramen magnum
• What error may cause the mandible on an AP Axial projection of the cervical
vertebra?
- Failure to angle the central ray
• A properly positioned parieto-acanthial projection. The following are true,
EXCEPT;
- Petrous pyramid above the maxillary sinuses
• The patient rotated 45-60 degrees from the plane of the film. The central ray is
directed 10-15 degrees caudal to superior aspect of the humeral head. What
structure is best seen in this projection?
- Supraspinatus Outlet
• Which positioning criteria should the RT following in order to demonstrate greater
tubercle in profile?
- Hand in supination
• The AP shoulder rotation is generally used with trauma patient because the arm
is not rotated in cases of acute injury. The following are evaluation criteria in
performing the examination, EXCEPT;
- The humeral epicondyle be perpendicular to the cassette.
• The following are true regarding inferosuperior projection of the shoulder?
- 15-20 lateral angulation, of the patient cannot abduct fully the arm
• The open mouth projection is a supplemental view to demonstrate the upper
cervical vertebra. The following are true, EXCEPT;
- Long SID to decrease magnification of the odontoid
• This structure is considered the most frequently fractured carpal bone. What
projection best demonstrate this anatomy?
- Wrist PA axial
• This carpal bone is also known as greater multangular. What is the
projection/method is sued to demonstrate this structure?
- Clements-Nakayama
• In AP anterior carpal bone is best seen in what projection?
- AP Oblique
• Which bone is located at the lateral aspect of the foot between 3rd and 4th
metatarsal, 4th and 5th metatarsal?
- Medial Oblique of the Foot
• In anatomy, it is considered as the keystone of the cranial floor because of its
articulations with other cranial bones. What projection best visualizes?
- Submentovertico
• A physician requested for true shoulder AP projection. Which of the following
statements does not belong to the evaluation criteria of this view?
- Humeral epicondyles is perpendicular to cassette
• The RT position the patient prone on the table with the knee flex 40 degrees and
the central ray to the long axis of the leg. What structure is being demonstrated?
- Intercondyloid Fossa
• The RT on duty directs the central ray 30-45 degrees t o2 inches distal to the
superior border of the symphysis pubis. What structure is best seen?
- Elongated and magnified pubic bone in ischial rami
• The following statements are true regarding PA Axial oblique projection of the
cervical spine, EXCEPT?
- Image demonstrate zygophophyseal joint
• The hypersthenic is being examined for upper gastro-intestinal series. The RT
needs a profile view of the duodenal bulb and pyloric canal?
- Right lateral
• Air contrast study of the duodenum after injection of the antispasmodic drug?
- Air contrast duodenography
• “Scotty Dog Sign” in an oblique position of the lumber spine demonstrates?
- Articular Process
• What is the reference point for PA Axial projection for occipital bone?
- Inion
• Dorsoplantar projection of the foot will clearly demonstrate the joint space
between the metatarsals mid-foot when the tube is angled ____.
- Right Lateral
• A well-positioned AP projection of the skull to demonstrate the following
structures on the lower half of the orbits?
- Petrous Ridges
• Which specific term refers to a radiograph study of biliary duct?
- Cholangiography
• A lateral projection of the knee, the knee is preferable flexed for 20 degreed
because_____.?
- Position relaxes muscles & shows the maximum volume of the joint
cavity
• Which of the following statements is NOT an evaluation criteria projection of the
hand?
- Close metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints
• Generally, x-rays in the upper limb requires that the following position is
preferable on the table?
- Forearm and arm
• In medial oblique positon of the foot requires rotation of the leg and foot;
- Medially
• What type of drug should be made readily available for patient, who may develop
high several minutes after injection of iodinated contrast media/
- Antihistamine
• The Lilienfeld method in weight-bearing position is employed demonstrates the
____.
- Pubic Symphysis
• Which projection of the foot best demonstrates the cuboid and its articulations?
- AP Medial Oblique
• What projection comprise typical series best demonstrate the calcaneus?
- Axial Planto-dorsal & Lateral
• How many degree differences exist between the medial and lateral condyles of
the femur?
- 5-7 degrees
• Which projection of the knee best demonstrates the proximal tibiofibular joints
without superimposition?
- Medial Oblique
• When performing AP projection of the foot to demonstrate better the
tarsometatarsal joint space in the midfoot. The central ray angulation is directed
to _____?
- 10 towards the heel of the base of the 3rd metatarsal
• What projection best demonstrates with the degree of lower extremity varus and
valgus deformity?
- Knee PA weight bearing
• What knee projections best for evaluating split and displaced cartilage in
osteochondritis flattening or underdevelopment of the lateral femoral condyle?
- Camp-Coventry
• All are true regarding patella PA Oblique axial projection (Kuchendorf Method),
EXCEPT;
- Central ray enter s at posterior surface of the patella
• Failure to dorsiflex the patient’s ankle during AP medial oblique projection of the
ankle will result _______.
- Inaccurate demonstration of the distal tibiofibular articulation
• In lateral transcranial projection demonstrates the ______.
- TMJ
• The Rhese method for the study of the orbits is used properly, the optic foramen
can be seen in the ______.
- Upper Outer Quadrant
• For a lateral skull survey the central ray is directed perpendicular to the
• EAM, what location?
- 2-inches above EAM
• For the PA projection of the skull the image of the frontal bone is ______
- Central ray is directed perpendicular and exit to glabella
- OML is perpendicular to the cassette
• In radiographing mandibular body the patient in SMV position?
- IOML is parallel with the plane of the film, head resting in vertex,
MSP is perpendicular to the IR.
• When modifying PA Axial of the skull to demonstrate the inferior orbital fissure,
the central ray is directed to ___?
- 20-25 degrees cephalad
• A radiograph of the AP elbow projection demonstrates total separation between
the proximal radius and ulna. What must be done to correct this positioning error
on the repeat exposure?
- Rotate upper limb laterally
• Which one of the following structure is considered to be the most posterior?
- Acromion
• Which place the projection of the shoulder requires the humeral epicondyle
parallel to the cassette?
- External Rotation
• Which of the following is the radiographic examination of choice evaluation of
esphagogastric reflux?
- Water Test
• The merchant method is an xray examination, for which of the following
structures?
- Patella
• A sella turcica projection will demonstrates superimposed anterior clinoid process
as well as posterior clinoid process?
- Lateral
• What is the central ray for the demonstration of an inferior orbital fissure?
- 20-25 degrees cephalad
• Air contrast study of the duodenum after injection of antispasmodic drug;
- Air contrast duodenography
• Which of the following projection best demonstrates hallux valgus?
- AP Axial weight bearing foot
• What is the other name of the os magnum?
- Capitate
• Which of the following is primarily useful demonstrating orbital floor and inferior
orbital fissure between the shadows of the lateral pterygoid lamina of the
sphenoid bone in the condylar process of the mandible?
- Bertel Method
• In performing Hickey method for the hip joints, demonstration of the central ray is
directed?
- Perpendicular to the hip joint
• The most common contraindications for intravenous urography are related to the
___.
- Ability of the kidney to filter contrast medium
- Patient history of allergies
- Patient elevated creatinine level
• In urinary system examination used for evaluation of the collecting system in
patient renal efficiency or who is allergic to contrast media ____.
- Retrograde Urogram
• Which of the following method for an obtaining a radiograph of the hip should be
performed when a fracture is suspected?
- Danelius-Miller Method
• During arthrography, which of the following is the most common action to the
contrast medium used _____.
- Anaphylactic Response
• Which of the following will help to obliterate the shadows of the vascular
markings obtaining of the lateral position of thoracic vertebrae?
- Employing a soft breathing technique
• In performing Hickey Method to demonstrate the hip joint, the central ray is
directed ___.?
- Perpendicular to the hip joint
• Air contrast study of the duodenum after injection of antispasmodic drug;
- Air contrast duodenography
• Which of the following statement is not true regarding functional study of cervical
spine in lateral position?
- To demonstrate anterolateral movement or absence of movement
• What contrast media is used in OCG to permit rapid visualization of the biliary
ducts and gallbladder?
- Sodium Iopodate
• What position will separate the superimposition of the gallbladder in a thin
patient?
- RPO
• In the AP odontoid projection, which evaluation criteria is used?
- Lower jaw bone is seen below the odontoid process
RADIOLOGICAL SCIENCES 14. WHICH IS TRUE TO CT?

1. WHAT INFLUENCES THE CHARACTER OF AN MRI TWO ESSENTIAL COMPONENTS OF DIGITAL IMAGE
PIXEL? PROCESSING SYSTEM ARE ANILOG TO DIGITAL AND
DIGITAL TO ANALOG CONVERTERS
PROTON DENSITY
15. THE THRESHOLD IN TESLA FOR INDUCTION OF
2. TO MAKE THE USE OF A PARAMAG NETIC AGENT MAGNETIC PHOSPHENES AT LOW FREQUENCIES.
EFFECTIVE. WHAT SHOULD BE CHANGED?
3 PER SECOND
T1 RELAXATION TIME
16. WHICH OPERATION IS AN EXAMPLE OF
3. WHAT PULSE SEQUENCE INVOLVES REPETITION WINDOWING IN CT?
TIME, ECHO TIME, AND RELAXATION TIME?
POINT PROCESSING OPERATION
INVERSION RECOVERY
17. THE GOAL OF SPIRAL/HELICAL CT SCANNING
4. REFERRED TO AS A PULSE SEQUENCE.
IMPROVE THE VOLUME COVERAGE SPEED
GRADIENT MAGNETIC FIELD PULSES AND PERFORMANCE
RADIOFREQUENCY PULSES
18. THE HAZARD TO PATIENTS AND PERSONNEL IN AN
5. THE FUNCTION OF FOURIER TRANSFORM IS TO MRI FACILITY THAT CAN CAUSE BIOLOGICAL EFFECT.
CHANGE
FERROMAGNETIC PROJECTILES
THE MR SIGNAL INTO A FREQUENCY SPECTRUM
19. THE APPLICATION OF VOLUME CT BASED ON
6. WHAT SIGNAL IS RECEIVED FROM THE PATIENT VOLUME FORMULATION, CLASSIFICATION, AND IMAGE
AFTER A 90 DEGREES RADIOFREQUENEY (RF) PULSE? PROJECTION

FREE INDUCTION DECAY THREE DIMENSIONAL IMAGING

7. THE CT GENERATION THAT INTRODUCED THE DATA 20. WHERE WILL THE DATA FROM THE CT DETECTORS
ACQUISITION SCHEME USING A FAN BEAM OF X-RAYS ARE FIRST SENT?
AND A 360° ROTATION OF X-RAY TUBE AND
DETECTORS PRE PROCESSOR

THIRD 21. WHAT ARTIFACT IS CAUUSED BY POOR SAMPLING

OF THE SIGNAL TO BE DIGITIZED BY THE ANALOG TO
8. SMOOTH OBJECTS IN MR ARE REPRESENTED BY DIGITAL CONVERTER IN CT?

LOW FREQUENCIES ALIASING

9. THE CT NUMBER FLUCTUATION FROM PIXEL IN THE 22. WHAT CONTRAST EFFECT WILL OCCUR WHEN AN
IMAGE FOR A SCAN OF WATER PHANTOM. MRI CONTRAST AGENT CAUSES TISSUE TO APPEAR
BRIGHTER?
NOISE
POSITIVE
10. PATIENT DISEASE THAT IS NOT AN INDICATION
FOR CT OF THE SPINE? 23. REFERRED TO AS RANGE OF CT NUMBERS

STROKES WINDOW WIDTH

11. THE INDICATION WRITTEN ON THE REQUEST THAT 24. REFERRED TO AS THE SIZE, SHAPE, MOTION, AND
WOULD NOT NECESSITATE PERFORMING A CT OF PATH TRACED BY THE X-RAY BEAM IN CT
NECK
BEAM GEOMETRY
POLYPS
25. MR SIGNAL AFTER THE RELAXATION OF NET
12. AN MRI PROCEDURE ON A PREGNANT PATIENT MAGNETIZATION IS
CAN BE DONE
ZERO
AT ANY TIME PROVIDED RESULT WILL MATERIALLY
AFFECT PATIENT MANAGEMENT 26. WHICH WOULD DESCRIBE A MR IMAGE?

13. IMAGE RECEPTOR TYPE USED FOR MRI. REPRESENTATIONAL

COIL 27. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BEST EXHIBIT

AN ABNORMAL TISSUE CHARACTER IN AN MRI?

UNEXPECTED PIXEL BRIGHTNESS

28. ATTRIBUTED TO BE THE CAUSE OF PATIENT 42. WHAT MEASURES TRANSIENT MAGNETIC FIELDS?
ANXIETY AT THE START OF AN MRI EXAMINATION.
TESLA PER SECOND
CLAUSTROPHOBIA
43. WHAT EFFECT MAY RESULT IN AN MRI PATIENT
29. THE PRINCIPAL MECHANISM IN THE PRODUCTION WITH JOINT PROSTHESIS?
OF AN MRI SIGNAL.
IMAGE MAY BE DEGRADED
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
44. WHAT PARTICULATE EMISSION OCCURS DURING
30. GYROMAGNETIC RATIO FOR HYDROGEN ITS RADIOACTIVE DECAY ALLOWING I-131 TO
DESTROY THE THYROID FOLLICULAR CELLS.
IS EQUAL TO 42 MEGAHERTZ PER TESLA
BETA
31. WHAT REGIONS ARE THE RELAXATION CENTERS IN
MRI? 45. USE OF A GASTRIC EMPTYING STUDY IN NUCLEAR
MEDICINE
INCREASED MAGNETIZATION
DETERMINE THE TIME TAKEN FOR FOOD TO BE
32. THE PRIMARY POTENTIAL FOR BIOLOGICAL DIGESTED BY THE STOMACH
RESPONSE FROM RADIOFREQUENCY
46. MALIGNANCY THAT IS LEAST LIKELY TO PRESENT
TISSUE HEATING AS A PHOTOPENIC LESION OR COLD DEFECT ON TC-
99M MDP BONE SCINTIGRAPHY
33. THE ELECTROMECHANICAL DEVICES MADE UP OF
RINGS AND BRUSHES TO TRANSMIT ELECTRICITY METASTATIC BREAST CARCINOMA
ACROSS A ROTATING INTERFACE.
47. TYPE OF HYPERPARATHYROIDISM THAT IS OFTEN
SLIP DETECTED IN PARATHYROID IMAGING.

34. X-RAY GENERATOR USED IN MODERN CT PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM

SCANNERS.
48. RADIOPHARMACEUTICALS USED FOR HOT-SPOT
HIGH-FREQUENCY MYOCARDIAL IMAGING

35. WHAT IS THE REASON FOR USING A FILTER IN CT? TC-99M PYP

PRODUCE A MORE UNIFORM BEAM AT THE 49. THE DISEASE PROCESS RESULTING IN INCREASED
DETECTOR RADIOIODINE UPTAKE BY THE THYROID GLAND.

36. THE MEASURES OF ELECTRIC CURRENT DENSITY IODINE DEFICIENCY-INDUCED HYPOTHYROIDISM

INDUCED BY TRANSIENT MAGNETIC FIELDS
50. THYROID CARCINOMA THAT CAN BE EVALUATED
AMPERE PER SQUARE CENTIMETER USING IN-111 PENTETREOTIDE.

37. THE CT SCANNER CONTROL CONSOLE MEDULLARY

COMPONENT THAT CONTROLS PICTURE CONTRAST.
51. TYPE OF DETECTORS USUALLY USED AS DOSE
WINDOW CONTROLS CALIBRATORS

38. WHAT DEFINES WINDOW LEVEL IN CT? IONIZATION CHAMBERS

MIDDLE RANGE OF COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY 52. EVALUATED BY A THIN-LAYER OR PAPER

NUMBERS CHROMATOGRAPHY
39. SOFTWARE PROGRAM THAT GENERATES LABELING EFFICIENCY
SAGITTAL AND CORONAL IMAGES FROM THE
TRANSAXIAL DATASET. 53. THE CONDITIONS WHEREIN PET IMAGING IS
ESPECIALLY USEFUL IN EVALUATING.
MULTI PLANAR REFORMATTING
PRERADIATION AND POSTRADIATION
40. THE REQUIRED PERIODIC QUALITY CONTROL IN A
MRI SYSTEM FOR TEST OBJECT IMAGING 54. BASIS FOR THE UPTAKE OF TC-MDP IN BONE
TISSUE.
DAILY
SURFACE ADSORPTION OF LABELED PHOSPHATE ON
41. WHAT CAN DEFINE PROTON DENSITY? HYDROXYAPATITE CRYSTALS

HYDROGEN CONCENTRATION 55. THE HALF-LIFE OF F-18.

110 MINUTES
56. RADIOPHARMACEUTICAL THAT IS LEAST LIKELY TO 69. WHERE WILL TC-99M MDP LOCALIZE WITHIN THE
LOCALIZE WITHIN THE MYOCARDIUM AS A PART OF BODY?
NORMAL PHYSIOLOGIC UPTAKE.
CALCIUM HYDROXYAPATITE
F-18 FLORBETABEN
70. THE PRIMARY OSSEOUS LESION THAT USUALLY
57. RADIOPHARMACEUTICAL THAT IS USED AS DEMONSTRATES NOMAL ACTIVITY ON BONE
INDICATOR OF CELULAR PROLIFERATION SCINTIGRAPHY

F-18 FLUOROTHYMIDINE CORTICAL DESMOID

58. HOW OFTEN SHOULD THE SPATIAL RESOLUTION IS 71. STUDIES OR COMBINATION OF STUDIES THAT ARE
TESTED IN NUCLEAR MEDICINE APPROPRIATE IN THE EVALUATION OF A SUSPECTED
HIP JOINT REPLACEMENT INFECTION.
WEEKLY
LABELED LEUKOCYTE AND SULFUR COLLOID
59. THE MAXIMUM ALLOWED EXPOSURE TO OTHER MARROW IMAGING
MEMBERS OF THE PUBLIC FROM A PATIENT WHO HAS
RECEIVED AN OUTPATIENT I--131 THERAPY. 72. THE DIAGNOSTIC IMAGING PROCEDURE
PREFERRED FOR PREOPERATIVE LOCALIZATION OF A
5 MS HYPERFUNCTIONING PARATHYROID ADENOMA

60. THE DEVICE THAT COULD BE UTILIZED TO RADIONUCLIDE SCINTIGRAPHY

IDENTIFY SPILLED RADIONUCLIDE
73. THE IMPURITY MEASURED WHEN MO-99/TC-99M
WELL COUNTER GENERATOR ELUATE IS PLACED ON A SPECIAL TEST
PAPER THAT CHANGES COLOR
61. THYROID CARCINOMA THAT CAN BE EFFECTIVELY
DETECTED AND STAGED THROUGH A WHOLE-BODY CHEMICAL
RADIOIODINE SCINTIGRAPHY
74. WHAT QUANTITATE RADIOCHEMICAL IMPURITIES
PAPILLARY
CHROMATOGRAPHY
62. WHAT IS ASSESSED IN A CAPTOPRIL RENAL SCAN?
75. CONDITION THAT IS MEDICALLY CONSIDERED AS A
RENAL ARTERY STENOSIS SIGN

63. RADIOPHARMACEUTICALS USED FOR DUAL ABDOMINAL TENDERNESS

TRACER GASTRIC EMPTYING STUDY
76. CONDITION WITH PRESENCE OF FIBRO PURULENT
TC-99M DTPA IN WATER AND TE-99M SULFUR FLUID IN THE PLEURAL SPACE
COLLOLD LABELED EGGS
EMPYEMA
64. WHAT IS THE RESULTANT EFFECT WHEN ONE
USES A LOW ENERGY COLLIMATOR TO IMAGE A 77. CONDITION WHEREIN THE HALLMARK
MEDIUM ENERGY ISOTOPE? MANIFESTATION IS THE INVOLVEMENT OF THE
PLEURA WITHY PLEURAL THICKENING APPEARING AS
DECREASE RESOLUTION LINEAR PLAQUES OF OPACIFICATION ALONG THE
LOWER CHEST WALL AND DIAPHRAGM DUE TO
65. THE COINSIDENCE RESULTING FOM TWO
DEPOSITION OF INDUSTRIAL SUBSTANCES
PHOTONS DETECTED AND STAGED AT THE SAME TIME
BUT ORGINATE FROM TWO INDEPENDENT EVENTS IN ASBESTOSIS
A PET
78. A NONINFECTIOUS ARTHRITIS CHARACTERIZED BY
RANDOM OSTEOPOROSIS, SOFT TISSUE SWELLING AND
EROSIONS OF THE METACARPOPHALANGEAL JOINTS
66. RESPONSIBLE FOR THE INCREASED DETECTION
AND ULNAR STYLOID PROCESSES.
OF COUNTS WITH PET COMPARED TO SPECT
RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
ELECTRONIC COLLIMATION
79. OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA IS USUALLY
67. TOMOGRAPHIC UNIFORMITY OF PET SCANNERS
LOCATED IN THE
SHOULD BE CHECKED
LONG BONES
DAILY
80. AN INHERITED GENERALIZED DISORDER OF
68. INDICATION FOR TESTICULAR SCINTIGRAPHY
CONNECTIVE TISSUE CHARACTERIZED BY MULTIPLE
TESTICULAR TORSION FRACTURES AND A BLUISH COLOR OF THE SCLERA OF
THE EYE

OSTEOGENESIS
81. RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF ATELECTASIS 93. A FRACTURE CONSISTING OF MORE THAN TWO
FRAGMENTS
AIRLESS LUNG, WHICH MAY VARY FROM THIN PLATE-
LIKE STREAKS TO LOBAR COLLAPSE COMMINUTED

82. AN ABNORMAL PERMANENT ENLARGEMENT OF 94. CONDITION INDICATING INFLAMMATION OF THE

THE AIR SPACES DISTAL TO THE TERMINAL SMALL FLUID-FILLED SACS THAT ARE LOCATED
BRONCHIOLES AROUND JOINTS CAUSING REDUCED FRICTION

EMPHYSEMA BURSITIS

83. BRAIN INJURY CAUSE BY SEVERE IMPACT. 95. FRACTURE CLASSIFICATION OF A SMALL BONY
FRAGMENT PULLED FROM A BONY PROCESS.
CONTUSION
AVULSION
84. WHEN A PATIENT'S VENTRICLES ARE FILLED WITH
A LARGE AMOUNT OF CEREBROSPINAL FLUID THIS 96. FEMALES WHO ARE LIKELY TO HAVE THE
CONDITION IS REFERRED TO AS; HOMOGENEOUS, GLANDULAR BREAST TISSUE.

HYDROCEPHALUS POSTPUBERTAL ADOLESCENT

85. RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF LARGE 97. CONDITION THAT RESULTS IN THE FORWARD
AMOUNTS OF GAS AND FLUID IN THE SMALL AND SLIPPING OF ONE VERTEBRA ON THE ONE BELOW IT.
LARGE BOWELS ESSENTIALLY REPRESENTING
PARALYSIS OF INTESTINAL MOTILITY SPONDYLOLISTHESIS

ADYNAMIC ILEUS 98. A PATHOLOGIC CONDITION WHEREIN THE

POSTERIOR ELEMENTS OF ONE OR MORE VERTEBRAE
86. A RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF THE FAIL TO UNITE
GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT AS HAVING NUMEROUS
THICKER FOLDS OF THE STOMACH ABOVE THE SPINA BIFIDA
DIAPHRAGM
99. A FRACTURE THAT CAN OCCUR FROM FALLING ON
HIATAL HEMIA AN OUTSTRETCHED HAND INVOLVING THE DISTAL
PORTION OF THE RADIUS?
87. RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF A DEEPER
ULCERATION WITH STRICTURE FORMATION IN THE COLLES
ESOPHAGUS
100. FRACTURE WHEREIN THE SPLINTER ENDS OF
INGESTION OF CORROSIVE AGENTS BONE FORCED THROUGH THE SKIN.

88. A PREMALIGNANT LESIONS CAUSED BY FREQUENT COMPOUND

GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX
101. HALLMARK OF RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF
BARRETS ESOPHAGUS EMPHYSEMA

89. A FRACTURE THAT OCCURS IN BONES WEAKENED PULMONARY OVERINFLATION WITH FLATTENING OF
BY SOME PRE-EXISTING CONDITION, SUCH AS DOMES OF DIAPHRAGM
METASTATIC LESION OR MULTIPLE MYLOMA
102. RADIOLOGIC ASSESSMENT OF THE BRAIN THAT
PATHOLOGIC SHOWS OCCLUSION IN THE CEREBRAL BLOOD
VESSEL
90. CONDITION THAT SOMETIMES OCCURS AFTER
TRAUMA CAUSING AN INTERRUPTED BLOOD SUPPLY COMPUTED ANGIOGRAPHY
TO THE BONE.
103. CONSIDERED AS A SERIOUS INFECTION OF THE
ISCHEMIC NECROSIS BRAIN

91. CONDITION CHARACTERIZED BY FLATTENING OF ENCEPHALITIS

THE HEMIDIAPHRAGMS.
104. MANIFESTATION OF
EMPHYSEMA LARYNGOTRACHEOBRONCHITIS RADIOGRAPHICALLY

92. THE LIKELY AREA WHERE ASPIRATED FOREIGN HOUR GLASS SIGN
BODIES WILL BE LODGED IN OLDER CHILDREN AND
105.RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE THAT SHOWS A
ADULTS
ROUNDED THICKENING SHADOW WITH A
RIGHT MAIN BRONCHUS CONFIGURATION OF AN ADULT’S THUMB ON THE
LATERAL NECK RADIOGRAPH.

EPIGLOTTITIS
106.A COMMON CAUSE OF HEMORRHAGIC STROKE 120. AN EXAMPLE OF A RADIOPROTECTOR
COMPOUND
ANEURYSM
CYSTEAMINE
107.CONDITION CHARACTERIZED BY AN ESOPHAGUS
THAT ENDS IN A BLIND POUCH 121.IMMOBILIZATION IS PARTICULARLY IMPORTANT IN
THE RADIATION THERAPY TREATMENT OF HEAD AND
ESOPHAGEAL ATRESIA NECK CANCER BECAUSE OF ITS

108. CONDITION THAT IS MEDICALLY CONSIDERED AS PROXIMITY OF SEVERAL RADIOSENSITIVE ORGANS

A SYMPTOM AND OFTEN SMALL TUMOR MARGINS
VERTIGO 122. THE APPROXIMATE DEPTH THAT OCCURS WITH A
MAXIMUM DOSE OF A 6 MV PHOTON BEAM
109. THE SYSTEM USED FOR SINGLE AND DOUBLE
PLANE IMPLANTS IN BRACHYTHERAPY 1.5 CM

PARIS 123. IN RADIATION THERAPY, THE THREE PLANES IN A

PATIENT: ACROSS THE BODY, ALONG THE BODY IN
110. WHAT TYPE OF THERAPY MACHINE COULD BE
LATERAL VIEW, AND ALONG THE BODY IN ANTERIOR
USED FOR TREATMENT OF CANCERS USING 10-15 KVP
VIEW ARE REFERRED AS
GRENZ-RAY
AXIAL, SAGITTAL, AND CORONAL
111. WHAT IS THE RANGE THAT SUPERVOLTAGE X-
124. RADIATION THERAPY UNIT THAT OPERATES AT 50
RAY UNITS USUALLY OPERATE?
TO 120 KVP
500 TO 1000 KVP
SUPERFICIAL
112. THE DEPTH OF MAXIMUM DOSE OF 18 MV X-RAYS.
125.AN EXAMPLE OF A RADIOSENSITIZER.
3.0 TO 3.5 CM
HYDROXYUREA
113. WHAT IS THE USEFUL DEPTH DOSE RANGE OF
126. THE DEPTH OF MAXIMUM DOSE OF 4 MV X-RAYS.
GRENZ-RAY THERAPY MACHINES?
1.0 CM
0.50 UM
127.THE ORGAN IRRADIATED CAUSING XEROSTOMIA
114. WHAT IS AN "ISOCENTER"
SALIVARY GLANDS
THE POINT AROUND WHICH THE SOURCE OF BEAM
ROTATES 128. WHEN USING SOURCE-SKIN-DISTANCE
TECHNIQUE AND A PHOTON BEAM, WHAT IS THE
115. PRECAUTIONS TO REDUCE THE RISKS OF
DEFINED FIELD SIZE AREA FOR RADIATION THERAPY
INGESTION OF SMALL FRAGMENTS OF CERROBEND
METAL IN A BLOCK CUTTING ROOM THE ROTATIONAL AXIS OF MACHINE
GOOD HYGIENE: WASH HANDS BEFORE EATING, 129. WHAT IS THE EQUIPMENT THAT IS PRIMARILY
DRINKING, AND SMOKING USED TO TREAT SUPERFICIAL SKIN LESIONS?

116.AT A GIVEN DEPTH, WHAT IS THE RESULTANT CONTACT THERAPY

EFFECT OF PERCENTAGE DEPTH DOSE.
130. THE GOAL OF RADIATION THERAPY IN PATIENTS
INCREASES WITH HIGHER BEAM ENERGIES WITH BONE METASTASIS.
117. WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF A LUCITE TRAY REDUCE THE PAIN AND PREVENT FRACTURES
INSERTED IN THE PATH OF THE BEAM?
131. THE PURPOSE FOR A TESTICULAR SHIELD IN
BEAM SPOILER RADIATION THERAPY.

118. REFERS TO PROCEDURE AND PATIENT POSITION SHLELD THE TESTES FROM THE PRIMARY BEAM
DURING A TREATMENT-PLANNING COMPUTERIZED
TOMOGRAPHY SCAN. 132. SHAPE OF RADIOACTIVE SOURCES FREQUENTLY
USED IN TANDEMS AND OVOIDS IN RADIATION
MUST BE SUPINE ON FLAT SURFACE THERAPY

119.RADIOTHERAPY MACHINE THAT OPERATES ON TUBES

THE PRINCIPLE THAT AN ELECTRON WILL
ACCELERATE IN A CIRCULAR ORBIT IN A CHANGING
MAGNETIC FIELD.

BETATRON
133. THE PURPOSE OF A FLATTENING FILTER IN 146. CONDITION THAT WOULD CAUSE ACOUSTIC
RADIATION THERAPY. ENHANCEMENT

REDUCE DOSE RATE AT CENTER OF UNFILTERED FLULD-FILLED MASS

BEAM
147. WHAT WOULD CHARACTERIZE THE FLOW IN A
134. THE INTERNATIONAL COMMISSION ON NORMAL BLOOD VESSEL DURING ULTRASOUND
RADIOLOGICAL UNITS (ICRU) DEFINES CLINICAL EXAMINATION?
TARGET VOLUME AS;
BLUNT
TISSUE VOLUME THAT CONTAINS A DEMONSTRABLE
GTV AND/OR SUBCLINICAL MICROSCOPIC MALIGNANT 148. ULTRASOUND DISPLAY SIGN THAT IS IN BOWEL
DISEASE, WHICH HAS TO BE ELIMINATED INTUSSUSCEPTIONS.

135. THE PRIMARY USE OF SIMULATORS IS TO TRIDENT

DUPLICATE MECHANICAL MOVEMENTS OF THERAPY 149. FACTOR THAT DETERMINES THE AMOUNT OF
MACHINE REFLECTION AT THE INTERFACE OF TWO DISSIMILAR
MATERIALS
136. WHAT IS REFERRED TO AS ORTHOVOLTAGE X-
RAY BEAMS. SPECIFIC ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE

MORE PENETRATING THAN SUPERFICIAL BEAMS 150. TYPE OF RESOLUTION WHEREIN THE SLICE
THICKNESS IS CLOSELY RELATED TO ULTRASOUND
137. UNIT OF MEASURE OF RADIATION IN AIR. IMAGES OBTAINED USING A CONVEX ARRAY.

ROENTGEN ELEVATIONAL

138. THE RESULTANT DOSE OF ELECTRON 151. NORMAL SONOGRAPHIC TEXTURE OF THE
CONTAMINATION OF THE INCIDENT BEAM AS WELL AS SPLEEN.
THE BACKSCATTERED RADIATION (BOTH ELECTRONS
AND PHOTONS) FROM THE MEDIUM. MODERATELY ECHOGENIC BUT LESS ECHOGENIC
THAN LIVER
SURFACE
152. DESCRIBED AS A WELL-DEFINED STRUCTURE
139. THE FACTOR IN ULTRASOUND THAT IS WITH INCREASED ECHOGENICITY
UNCHANGED OR CONSTANT WHEN A SOUND BEAM IS
REFRACTED. SOLID TUMOR

FREQUENCY 153. REFERRED TO AS A PROGRESSIVE WEAKENING

OF THE SOUND BEAM AS IT TRAVELS.
140. SONOGRAPHIC TEXTURE OF THE NORMAL TESTIS
ATTENUATION
HOMOGENEOUS WITH MEDIUM LEVEL ECHOGENICITY
154. WHERE DOES THE "SOUND" ORIGINATES FROM IN
141. CHARACTERISTICS OF TRANSDUCER AN ULTRASOUND EQUIPMENT?
FREQUENCIES THAT ARE LIKELY USED IN BREAST
IMAGING FROM AN OSCILLATING ELECTRON

HIGH (10 MHZ) 155. SONOGRAPHIC DEMONSTRATION THAT MAY AID

IN DIAGNOSING OBSTRUCTIVE JAUNDICE WITH
142. ULTRASOUND SPATIAL COMPOUNDING WILL DILATED CBD
LIKELY OFFER AN IMPROVED
MASS ON HEAD OF PANCREAS
LESION CONTRAST
156. CONDITION THAT IS OFTEN USED TO EVALUATE
143. CONDITION WHEREIN RENAL CALCULI COMPOSED GESTATIONAL SAC.
OF CALCIUM SALTS CAN BE OBSERVED
ANECHOIC SAC SURROUNDED BY THICK RING OF
HYPERECHOIC ECHOES

144. ARTIFACT THAT WILL NOT BE EXHIBITED IN 157. ULTRASOUND DISPLAY THAT IS SEEN IN
DOPPLER IMAGES. SPLENOMEGALY

ZIPPER INCREASED ECHOGENECITY

145. TEMPORAL RESOLUTION IN ULTRASONOGRAPHY 158. REFERRED TO AS THE CHARACTERISTIC OF

IS INDEPENDENT OF SOUND PROPAGATION THAT DEPENDS ON THE
DENSITY OF THE MEDIUM IT TRAVELS
PULSE LENGTH
ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE
159. THE PREFIX “PIEZO” DENOTES 172. THE PATIENT LIKELY TO BE IMAGED USING
LINEAR ARRAYS RATHER THAN PHASED OR
PRESSURE CURVILINEAR ARRAYS.

160. FOCUSING METHOD THAT WILL OFFER VARIABLE INFANTS

FOCAL DEPTHS IN ULTRASOUND
173. THE ARRAY THAT WOULD LIKELY BE USED IN AN
PHASED ARRAY ULTRASOUND TRANSCRANIAL IMAGING OF THE
VASCULATURE (VIA TEMPLES)
161. A FACTOR IN DETERMINING THE ACOUSTIC
POWER OUTPUT OF THE TRANSDUCER PHASED ARRAY
MAGNITUDE OF VOLTAGE SPIKE 174. CONDITIONS WHEREIN THE THYROIDITIS WILL
USUALLY APPEAR SONOGRAPHICALLY
162. WHAT IS THE RESULTANT EFFECT WHEN PLEZO
ELECTRIC CRYSTALS (PEC) RESPOND TO APPLIED DIFFUSELY ENLARGED THYROID LOBES WITH
VOLTAGE? DECREASED ECHOGENICITY

SOUND PRODUCTION 175. NUMBER OF "LINES OF SIGHT” THAT WOULD MAKE

UP AN ULTRASOUND IMAGE
163. FACTOR THAT DETERMINES THE AMOUNT OF
REFLECTION AT THE INTERFACE OF TWO DISSIMILAR 100
MATERIALS.
176. COLOR OF BLOOD FLOW IN A COLOR DOPPLER
SPECIFIC ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE THAT WOULD BE DISPLAYED IF DOPPLER IS ANGLED
90 DEGREES
164. THE RESULTANT EFFECT TO THE NEAR FIELD
LENGTH IF A TRANSDUCER ELEMENT DIAMETER IS BLACK
DOUBLED
177. ULTRASOUND IMAGE RESOLUTION THAT WOULD
QUADRUPLED LIKELY BE AFFECTED BY ULTRASOUND LINE DENSITY

165. THE VARVING VALUES THAT SOUND WAVES WILL LATERAL

LIKELY CONTAIN.
178. PART OF A COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY GANTRY
PRESSURES TO REDUCE PATIENT DOSE AND ENHANCE IMAGE
CONTRAST
166. THE IMPROVEMENT THAT WILL RESULT WITH THE
USE OF FOCUSING IN ULTRASOUND COLLIMATOR ASSEMBLY

AXIAL RESOLUTION 179. WHAT IS A GRAY MATTER APPEARANCE IN

COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY?
167.THE FREQUENCY THAT IS LIKELY A HARMONIC
FREQUENCY OF A 2.5 MHZ TRANSDUCER HYPERDENSE

5 MHZ 180. WHAT IS ROUTINE HEAD COMPUTED

TOMOGRAPHY PROTOCOL FOR ACQUISTION OF A
168. MEDIUM THAT HAS THE LOWEST VELOCITY OF
SCOUT TO SET UP THE SCANS AT THE APPROPRIATE
SOUND
ANGLE
AIR
LATERAL
169. WHAT IS THE APPROACH FOR THE EVALUATION
181. WHAT IS THE PROCESS IN WHICH THE PLANNED
OF THE LEFT KIDNEY IN AN ULTRASOUND
FIELD ARRANGEMENT IS VERIFIED USING AN XRAY
EXAMINATION?
MACHINE THAT MIMICS THE GEOMETRY OF THERAPY
CORONAL MACHINE AND PRODUCES DIAGNOSTIC QUALITY
RADIOGRAPHS?
170. THE ENTITY THAT MAY BE CONFUSED
SONOGRAPHICALLY WITH “HORSESHOE” KIDNEYS. SIMULATION

LYMPHADENOPATHY 182. WHAT IS ISOCENTER

171. WHAT IS THE POSITION OF THE PORTAL VEIN POINT AROUND WHICH THE SOURCE OF BEAM
SEEN AS A CIRCULAR ANECHOIC STRUCTURE ON A ROTATES
SAGITTAL SCAN?
183. WHAT IS THE PRIMARY REASON WHY THE USE OF
ANTERIOR TO THE INFERIOR VENA CAVA BETATRONS IN RADIATION THERAPY BECAME
UNPOPULAR?

PRODUCE LOW DOSE RATES AND LIMITED FIELD

SIZES
184. WHAT RADIOACTIVE ISOTOPES ARE USED IN 198. WHAT IS THE LIKELY CONDITION WILL INDICATE A
TANDEMS AND OVOIDS NONSHADOWING, NONMOBILE, ECHOGENIC FOCI
SEEN WITHIN THE GALLBLADDER?
IRIDIUM 192
POLYPS
185. THE REASON WHY TECHNITIUM-99M
PERTECHNETATE IS TAKEN UP BY THE THYROID 199. WHY IS IMMOBILIZATION IS PARTICULARLY
GLAND IMPORTANT IN THE TREATMENT OF HEAD AND NECK
CANCER
SAME ION SIZE WITH IODINE
PROXIMIITY OF SEVERAL RADIOSENSITIVE ORGANS
186. THE MECHANISM OF RADIOPHARMACEUTICAL AND OFTEN SMALL TUMOR MARGINS
LOCALIZATION IN LUNG SCANNING
200. THE COIL WHICH IS DIRECTLY PLACED ON THE
CAPILLARY BLOCKAGE PATIENT IN ORDER TO IMAGE SUPERFICIAL
STRUCTURES
187. WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR THE ROLE OF
SOUND ATTENUATION IN TISSUE? SURFACE

HALF-VALUE LAYER 200. THE MOST SENSITIVE AND SPECIFIC

NONINVESIVE METHOD OF DIAGNOSING MITRAL
188. THE CHARACTERISTIC OF A FIRST GENERATION
STENOSIS
COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY IMAGER
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
5-MINUTE IMAGING TIME
202. THE RADIOPHARMACEUTICAL USED FOR "HOT-
189. THE PERCENTAGE DEPTH DOSE IS DEPENDENT
SPOT" MYOCARDIAL IMAGING
ON
TC-99M PYP (PYROPHOSPHATE)
FIELD SIZE, DISTANCE, ENERGY
203. MOST COMMON LONG-TERM ADVERSE EFFECT
190. THE INSTRUMENT USED TO DETECT FREQUENCY
OBSERVED FOLLOWING ADMINISTRATION OF AN I-131
SHIFT
NAI THERAPY DOSE FOR TREATMENT OF GRAVE’S
DOPPLER DISEASE

191. IN A COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY IMAGER, WHAT HYPOTHYROIDISM

COMPONENT OF COLLIMATOR CONTROLS PATIENT
204. WHAT IS THE CONCERN OF CARDIAC TOXICITY
DOSE PROFILE
FROM BREAST IRRADIATION?
PRE-PATIENT
IS SOMETIMES A SERIOUS PROBLEM?
192. IN COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY, WHAT IS THE MOST
205 IN THE ULTRASONIC FIELD, WHAT WILL BE THE
COMMON MATRIX SIZE USED
RATIO OF PRESSURE TO PARTICLE VELOCITY AT A
512 X 512 GIVEN POINT?

193. IN THE SCANNING SYSTEM WHAT IS THE MAJOR IMPEDANCE

COMPONENT OF MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING
206. WHAT IS THE UNIT USED TO EXPRESS THE RATIO
MAGNET OF TWO QUANTIES OF ELECTRICAL SIGNAL OR
SOUND ENERGY?
194. WHAT IS THE COMMON CAUSE OF CYSTITIS
/URINARY TRACT INFECTION? DECIBEL

ASCENDING INFECTION FROM THE URETHRA 207. WHAT INCREASES SCANNING TIME

195. WHAT IS A NON-MALIGNANT TUMOR? INCREASE NUMBER OF EXCITATIONS

ADENOMA 208.WHAT COULD BE CONFUSED FOR PANCREAS

WHEN SCANNING THE TAIL OF THE PANCREAS FROM
196. WHAT IS THE PENUMBRA OF A LINEAR PRONE POSITION?
ACCELERATOR BEAM?
SPLENIC FLEXURE OF COLON
SMALLER THAN THAT OF A COBALT-60 MACHINE
209. WHAT DECREASES MOTION ARTIFACTS
197. WHAT WILL PROVIDE A VISUAL REPRESENTATION
OF THE DOSE AT VARIOUS POSITIONS ACROSS THE DECREASE IN REPETITION TIME
RADIATION FIELD
210. WHAT CONDITION IS CHARACTERIZED WITH AN
ISODOSE CURVE ESOPHAGUS THAT ENDS IN A BLIND POUCH
ESOPHAGEAL ATRESIA ROUNDED THICKENING SHADOW WITH A
CONFIGURATION OF AN ADULT'S THUMB.
211. WHAT WILL CONNECT BETWEEN ESOPHAGUS
AND TRACHEOBRONCHIAL TREE THAT CAN BE EPIGIOTITIS
RADIOGRAPHICALLY DEMONSTRATED
224. WHAT IS MEDICALLY CONSIDERED A SYMPTOM
FISTULA
VERTIGO
212.WHAT DETERMINES THE AMOUNT OF REFLECTION
AT THE INTERFACE OF TWO DISSIMILAR MATERIALS 225. IN SOURCE-SKIN-DISTANCE (SSD) TECHNIQUE
AND A PHOTON BEAM, WHAT DEFINE THE FIELD SIZE
SPECIFIC ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE
AT THE ROTATIONAL AXIS OF MACHINE
213. WHAT IS EQUAL TO THE RATIO OF THE
OPERATING FREQUENCY TO THE FREQUENCY 226. THE MANIFESTATION OF INTRABRONCHIAL
BANDWIDTH FOREIGN BODY AFFECTING THE LUNGS

TRANSDUCER QUALITY FACTOR RIGHT SIDE WITH ATELECTASIS

214. IN DOSE CALIBRATOR QUALITY CONTROL, WHEN 227.WHAT IS OBSERVED DURING BREAST
IS THE LINEARITY CHECKED ULTRASONOGRAPHY

QUARTERLY LACTIFEROUS DUCT

215. WHAT IS THE PRIMARY PURPOSE FOR A 228. WHAT WILL SPLENOMEGALY DISPLAY
TESTICULAR SHIELD?
INCREASED ECHOGENICITY
SHIELD THE TESTES FROM THE PRIMARY BEAM
229. WHAT MODALITY WOULD BEST DEMONSTRATE
216. WHAT IS THE MAIN GOAL OF RADIATION THERAPY RUPTURE OF THE SPLEEN AS A RESULT OF BLUNT
IN PATIENTS WITH BONE METASTASIS? ABDOMINAL TRAUMA

PREVENT FRACTURES AND REDUCE THE PAIN COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY

217.WHAT SCAN PARAMETER IS CHOSEN FOR FIELD 230. THE EFFECT OF INSERTION OF ALUMINUM,
ECHO SEQUENCE TO SATISFY A UNIQUE CONTRAST COPPER, AND TIN FILTERS INTO THE X-RAY BEAM
APPEARANCE OF THE RESULTANT IMAGE
LOW ENERGY X-RAYS WILL BE ABSORBED
FLIP ANGLE
231. THE DEVICE PLACE BETWEEN THE KLYSTRON
218. WHAT IS A NECROTIC AREA OF PULMONARY AND WAVEGUIDE SYSTEM IN A LINEAR ACCELERATOR
PARENCHYMA WITH A DENSE CENTER AND HAZY,
CIRCULATOR
POORLY DEFINED PERIPHERY WITH A TYPICAL AIR-
FLUID LEVEL WITHIN THE STRUCTURE? 232.WHAT GEOMETRIC FACTOR WOULD GREATLY
AFFECT SPATIAL RESOLUTION IN CT
CAVITARY LUNG ABSCESS
DETECTOR APERTURE WIDTH
219. THE TIME BETWEEN THE INVERTING 180-DEGREE
RADIO-FREQUENCY PULSE AND THE 90-DEGREE 233.THE PRESENCE OF A FILLING DEFECT WITHIN THE
EXCITATION PULSE PULMONARY ARTERY INDICATING COMPLETE
OBSTRUCTION OF A PULMONARY VESSEL
INVERSION TIME
PULMONARY EMBOLISM
220. A GASTRIC EMPTYING STUDY IN NUCLEAR
MEDICINE 234. WHAT IS A HOSPITAL ACQUIRED INFECTION AND
INFLAMMATION OF THE ALVEOLI?
TO DETERMINE THE TIME TAKEN FOR FOOD TO BE
DIGESTED BY THE STOMACH NOSOCOMIAL PNEUMONIA
221. WHAT IS A WELL-DEFINED STRUCTURE WITH 235. WHAT IS THE MAIN PATHOLOGIC PROBLEM
INCREASED ECHOGENECITY BROUGHT ABOUT BY EMBOLISM?
SOLID TUMOR OBSTRUCTION
222. THE TREATMENT OF PATIENTS UNDERGOING 236. THE PITCH IN A MULTI-SLICE CT IS DEFINED AS
NUCLEAR MEDICINE THERAPY FOR POLYCYTHEMIA PATIENT COUCH MOVEMENT PER ROTATION DIVIDED
BY
P-32 SODIUM PHOSPHATE
BEAM WIDTH
223.IN A LATERAL RADIOGRAPH OF THE NECK THE
RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE WILL SHOW A
237. WHAT SONOGRAPHIC STUDY IS USED TO DETECT 250. WHAT IS THE BEST SONOGRAPHIC WINDOW TO
IRREGULARITIES OF BLOOD FLOW THE LEFT HEMIDIAPHRAGM

DOPPLER SPLEEN

238. WHAT WOULD MOST LIKELY CAUSE ACOUSTIC 251. THE PORTAL VEIN A SAGITTAL SCAN WHICH IS
ENHANCEMENT SEEN AS A CIRCULAR ANECHOIC STRUCTURE

FUID-FILLED MASS ANTERIOR TO THE INFERIOR VENA CAVA

239. WHAT GALBLADDER SEGMENT IS 252.WHAT IS THE PROPER SEQUENCE FOR

ULTRASONOGRAPHICALLY OBSERVABLE AT ITS NECK PRODUCING A CT IMAGE?
CLOSEST TO THE CYSTIC DUCT
DATA ACQUISITION, IMAGE RECONSTRUCTION, IMAGE
HARTMANN'S POUCH POST PROCESSING

240. WHAT WILL DEFINE THE BRIGHTNESS OF THE 253.WHAT HYPERPARATHYROIDISM IS OFTEN
IMAGE IN MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING DETECTED IN PARATHYROID IMAGING?

MRI SIGNAL STRENGTH PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM

241. WHAT RADIOGRAPHIC POSITION WILL CLEARY 254. WHAT CT SCANNER GENERATION
DEMONSTRATE THE EPIGLOTTIS CHARACTERIZED BY RING ARTIFACTS

NECK LATERAL THIRD

242. WHAT IS THE HALL MARK MANIFESTATION 255. WHAT POSITION IS BEST TO VISUALIZE A
INVOLVING THE PLEURA, WITH PLEURAL THICKENING TRANSPLANT KIDNEY IN NUCLEAR MEDICINE
APPEARING AS LINEAR PLAQUES OF OPACIFICATION
ALONG THE LOWER CHEST WALL AND DIAPHRAGM LATERALLY
DUE TO DEPOSITION AND CALCIFICATION OF
256. WHAT IS THE BASIS FOR THE FORMULA IN
INDUSTRIAL SUBSTANCES?
COMPUTING THE VALUE OF CT NUMBER?
ASBESTOSIS
LINEAR ATTENUATION COEFFICIENT FOR WATER
243. WHAT SONOGRAPHIC DEMONSTRATION WILL AID
257. WHAT CONDITIONS IS CHARACTERIZED BY A
IN DIAGNOSING OBSTRUCTIVE JAUNDICE
DILATED CALYCES AND RENAL PELVIS
MASS ON HEAD OF PANCREAS WITH DILATED
HYDRONEPHROSIS
COMMON BILE DUCT
258. WITH WHAT WILL BE CONFUSED AS A
244. WHAT TECHNOLOGY MADE SPIRAL COMPUTED
HORSESHOE KIDNEY SONOGRAPHICALLY
TOMOGRAPHY POSSIBLE
LYMPHADENOPATHY
SLIP RINGS
259. WHAT WILL BE DETERMINED BY A
245. WHAT IS LEFORT'S METHOD FOR CLASSIFICATION
CHROMATOGRAPHY PROCEDURE IN NUCLEAR
OF FRACTURE INVOLVING THE CRANIOFACIAL BONES
MEDICINE
TYPE 3
RADIOCHEMICAL PURITY
246. WHAT IS THE REASON A LUCITE TRAY IS
260 WHAT IS THE MAJOR FACTOR IN DETERMINING
INSERTED IN THE PATH OF THE BEAM?
THE ACOUSTIC POWER OUTPUT OF THE TRANSDUCER?
BEAM SPOILER
MAGNITUDE OF THE VOLTAGE SPIKE
247. WHAT LOW-Z MATERIAL IS USED FOR PATIENT
261. WHAT IS THE LEAST OBSTACLE TO THE
SUPPORT COUCH IN A CT UNIT
TRANSMISSION OF ULTRASOUND?
CARBON FIBER
BLOOD
248. WHAT CONDITION WOULD MANIFEST ASPIRATION
262. THE RADIOPHARMACEUTICALS USED FOR DUAL
PNEUMONIA
TRACER GASTRIC EMPTYING STUDY
VOMITING
TC99M DTPA IN WATER AND TC99M SULFUR COLLOID
249. THE MEDICAL DIAGNOSIS FOR PATIENT WHO IS LABELED EGGS
EXPERIENCING SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF
263. THESE ARE THE HALLMARK OF THE
BRONCHIECTASIS DUE TO MUCUS PLUGS
RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF EMPHYSEMA
CYSTIC FIBROSIS
PULMONARY OVER INFLATION WITH FLATTENING OF ⚫ CHEMOTHERAPY
THE DOMES OF THE DIAPHRAGM
⚫ RADIOTHERAPY
264. ASPIRATION PNEUMONIA IS DUE TO:
⚫ SURGICAL RESECTION
VOMITING
275. THIS IS THE MAJOR TYPE OF LUNG CANER
265. THIS IS POSSIBLE MEDICAL DIAGNOSIS FOR
PATIENT WHO IS EXPERIENCING SIGNS AND SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
SYMPTOMS OF BRONCHIECTASIS DUE TO MUCUS
276.ASPIRATION PNEUMONIA IS OTHERWISE KNOWN
PLUG
AS
CYSTIC FIBROSIS
CHEMICAL PNEUMONITIS
266. THE RADIOGRAPHIC LANDMARK OF
277. THE PRESENCE OF A FILLING DEFECT WITHIN THE
LARYNGOTRACHEOBRONCHITIS IS
PULMONARY ARTERY OR AS AN ABRUPT CUTOFF
HOUR GLASS SIGN INDICATION COMPLETE OBSTRUCTION OF A
PULMONARY VESSEL IS A MANIFESTATION OF THIS
267. THE FOLLOWING ARE TRUE STATEMENTS ABOUT CONDITION
EMPHYSEMA
PULMONARY EMBOLISM
⚫ THE APPEARANCE OF THE RETROSTERNAL
SPACE IS RADIOLUCENT WITH DIRTY CHEST 278. MEDICALLY, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS
APPEARANCE CONSIDERED A "SIGN"?

⚫ THE CHEST IS BARREL-SHAPED ABDOMINAL TENDERNESS BY PALPATION

268. IF THE FRONTAL RADIOGRAPHS OF THE LOWER 279. THIS IS AN INFECTION AND INFLAMMATION OF
NECK SHOW A CHARACTERISTIC SMOOTH, FUSIFORM, THE ALVEOLI ACQUIRED IN THE HOSPITAL
TAPERED NARROWING SUBGLOTTIC AIRWAY CAUSED
PNEUMONIA, NOSOCOMIAL
BY THE EDEMA, THIS MUST BE THE HALL MARK OF:
280. RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF TUBERCULOMA
SPASMODIC CROUP
IS
269.ACCORDING TO THE CLASSIFICATION OF
PRESENCE OF SINGLE OR MULTIPLE NODULES 1-3 CM
FRACTURE BY LEFORT'S METHOD, A FRACTURE
IN DIAMETER COMMONLY THE PERIPHERY OR UPPER
INVOLVING THE CRAIOFACIAL BONES IS CLASSIFIED
LOBES OF THE LUNGS
AS
281. THE MAIN PATHOLOGIC PROBLEM BROUGHT
TYPE 3
ABOUT BY EMBOLISM IS:
270. BECAUSE OF THIS CONDITION IS CONSIDERED A
OBSTRUCTION
MEDICAL EMERGENCY.
282. THE RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF THIS
EPIGLOTTITIS
CONDITION WILL SHOW A ROUNDED THICKENING
271. PATHOPHYSIOLOGICALLY, THE EFFECT OF SHADOW WITH A CONFIGURATION OF AN ADULT'S
EMPHYSEMA IN THE LUNGS ARE THE FOLLOWING THUMB ON THE LATERAL NECK RADIOGRAPH.

⚫ DYSPNEA AND DECREASED IN RESPIRATORY EPIGLOTITIS

RATE
283.MEDICALLY, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS
⚫ DECREASE AREA FOR GAS EXCHANGE CONSIDERED A "SYMPTOM"?

272.EPIGLOTTITIS CAN BE SEEN CLEARLY IN: VERTIGO

NECK LATERAL 284. IF THE RADIOGRAPHIC DIAGNOSIS IS SEPTIC

EMBOLISM, THE RADIOGRAPHIC TECHNOLOGIST
273. THE HALL MARK MANIFESTATION OF THIS KNOWS THAT MANAGEMENT IS:
PATHOLOGIC CONDITION IS THE INVOLVEMENT OF
THE PLEURA WITH PLEURAL THICKENING APPEARING HIGH DOSE OF ANTIBIOTICS
AS LINEAR PLAQUES OF OPACIFICATION ALONG THE
285. INTRABRONCHIAL FOREIGN BODY USUALLY
LOWER CHEST WALL AND DIAPHRAGM DUE TO
MANIFESTED AS;
DEPOSITION AND CALCIFICATION OF INDUSTRIAL
SUBSTANCES. AFFECTING THE RIGHT SIDE OF THE LUNGS WITH
ATELECTASIS
ASBESTOSIS

274.MAIN MANAGEMENT OF LUNG CANCER ARE THE

FOLLOWING
286. THIS IS THE SINGLE MOST EFFECTIVE NON- ⚫ REDUCTION IN THE NUMBER AND SIZE OF
INVASIVE TECHNIQUE IN EVALUATING LUNG CANCER, PERIPHERAL ARTERIES
ITS LOCATION METASTASIS AND EXTENT OF MASSES
⚫ CHEST BARREL CHEST
CT-SCAN
⚫ VASCULAR MARKINGS ARE MORE PROMINENT
287.THIS TREATMENT IS EFFECTIVE FOR LOCALLY THAN USUAL BUT LOOKS IRREGULAR AND
ADVANCED LUNG CANCER BUT THE COMMON SIDE INDISTINCT
EFFECTS ARE SKIN IRRITATION, SKIN PEELING,
FATIGUE AND TASTE CHANGES 297. A SEPTIC EMBOLISM IS BROUGHT ABOUT BY:

RADIOTHERAPY MICROORGANISM

288. WHEN PATIENT WITH PTB IS BROUGHT TO THE X- 298.THE PRESENCE OF FIBROPURULENT FLUID IN THE
RAY ROOM FOR RADIOGRAPHIC EVALUATION, THE RT PLEURAL SPACE INDICATES THIS CONDITION;
ON DUTY KNOWS THAT HE MUST FOLLOW THIS TYPE
EMPYEMA
OF PRECAUTION.
299.THE FOLLOWING WILL CAUSE PULMONARY EDEMA;
STANDARD AIRBORNE PRECAUTION
⚫ SEVERE BRONCHOPNEUMONIA
289. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISEASES IS CAUSED
BY A VIRUS? ⚫ RIGHT SIDED HEART FALLURE
SARS ⚫ LEFT SIDED HEART FAILURE
290. THESE ARE THE RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF 300. ACCORDING TO THE CLASSIFICATION OF
ASTHMA: FRACTURE BY LEFORT'S METHOD, A FRACTURE
INVOLVING THA NASOFRONTAL SUTURE IS;
⚫ HYPERLUSCENT LUNG
TYPE 2
⚫ INCREASED RETROSTERNAL SPACE
301.THIS IS THE MAIN FUNCTION OF THE ESOPHAGUS
291. THIS CONDITION APPEARS INITIALLY IN THE
RADIOGRAPH AS NORMAL IN EARLY STAGES BUT IN FOR PASSAGE OF BOLUS
PROGRESSIVE’S STAGE APPEARS WITH FOCAL TO
GENERALIZED PATCHY INTERSTITIAL INFILTRATES. 302. THE CHARACTERISTIC OF THIS CONDITION IS AN
THIS IS COMMONLY CONSIDERED AS AN ATYPICAL ESOPHAGUS AND TRANCHEOBRONCHIAL TREE IS
PNEUMONIA SEEN IN;

SARS FISTULA

292. THIS IS A NECROTIC AREA OF PULMONARY 303. DEMONSTRATION OF CONNECTION BETWEEN

PARENCHYMA THAT HAS A DENSE CENTER WITH A ESOPHAGUS
HAZY, POORLY DEFINED PERIPHERY WITH A TYPICAL
AIR-FLUID LEVEL WITHIN THE STRUCTURE. FISTULA

CAVITARY LUNG ABSCESS 304.PHYSIOLOGICALLY, CHOKING, CYANOSIS AND

COUGHING ARE ALL PRESENT IN:
293. THIS IS AN ABNORMAL PERMANENT
ENLARGEMENT OF THE AIR SPACES DISTAL TO THE TRACHEOESOPHAGEAL FISTULA
TERMINAL BRONCHIOLES
305. THE RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF THIS
EMPHYSEMA CONDITION ARE THE FOLLOWING: DEEPER
ULCERATION WITH STRICTURE IN THE ESOPHAGUS
294. THESE ARE THE RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF
ATELACTASIS. INGESTION OF CORROSIVE AGENTS

AIRLESS LUNG, WHICH MAY VARY FROM THIN PLATE- 306. THE MOST DEFINITIVE TEST FOR ESOPHAGEAL
LIKE STREAKS TO LOBAR COLLAPSE TUMOR IS:

295. THE BEST POSITIONS FOR TAKING AN X-RAY FOR ESOPHAGOGASTRODUODENOSCOPY

AN ADULT PATIENT WITH PLEURAL EFFUSION ARE
307. INGESTION OF THIS TYPE OF SOLUTION IS MORE
POSTERO-ANTERIOR VIEW AND LATERAL DECUBITUS SEVERE THAN THE OTHER TYPE OF SUBSTANCES
ON THE AFFECTED SIDE
ALKALINE INGESTION
296. THE FOLLOWING ARE THE RADIOGRAPHIC
APPEARANCE OF EMPHYSEMA

⚫ PULMONARY HYPERINFLATION
308. THE RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF THIS 319. LOCAL DILATION OF VESSEL WALL
CONDITION AS SEEN IN GI SERIES AS HAVING
NUMEROUS THICKER FOLDS OF THE STOMACH ABOVE ANEURYSM
THE DIAPHRAGM
320. THE SINGLE ELONGATED CYTOPLASMIC
HIATAL HERNIA EXTENSION CARRYING NERVE IMPULSE AWAY FROM
THE CELL BODY IS
309. THE PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF ACHALASIA IS:
AXON
FUNCTIONAL OBSTRUCTION
321.SUFFIX WORD WHICH MEANS A TAPPING OR
310. PRESENCE OF CURRENT JELLY STOOLS WITH A PUNCTURE IS
PALPABLE SAUSAGE SHAPED MASS AND A
RADIOGRAPHIC STRING AND STAIRCASE CENTHESIS
APPEARANCE ARE CLASSIC SIGNS OF THIS
322. THE SUBARACHONOID SPACE IN THE SKULL IS
CONDITION
LOCATED BETWEEN THE
INTUSSUSCEPTION
PIA MATER AND ARACHNOID
311. WHAT IS THE MODERN WAY OF CRUSHING A
323. THE GENUS NONMOTILE ACID-FAST AEROBIC
STONE WITHIN THE URINARY BLADDER OR URETHRA?
BACTERIA THAT INCLUDE THE CAUSATIVE AGENTS OF
LITHOTRIPSY THE LUNGS IS TERMED AS;

312. THE CLIENT WITH CHRONIC RENAL FAILURE MYOBACTERIUM

COMPLAINS OF FEELING NAUSEATED AT LEAST PART
324. THE SUBARACHNOID SPACE IN THE SKULL IS
OF EVERYDAY. THE RAD. TECH ON DUTY KNOWS THAT
LOCATED BETWEEN THE
SUCH CONDITION IS BROUGHT ABOUT BY:
PIA MATER AND ARACHNOID
ACCUMULATION OF WASTE PRODUCTS IN THE BLOOD
325. THE BRANCHES THAT SUPPLY BLOOD TO THE
313.A CLIENT IS SCHEDULED FOR IVP. THE RAD. TECH
BRAIN IS
ON DUTY SHOULD:
CIRCLE OF WILLIS
CHECK FOR ALLERGIES TO SHELLFISH
326. WHAT IS VERTIGO?
314. THE COMMON CASE OF CYSTITIS /UTI IS:
DIZZINESS
ASCENDING INFECTION FROM THE URETHRA
327. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TUMOR IS
316.A 54 YR/OLD CLIENT COMES TO THE AMBULATORY
NONMALIGNANT?
CLINIC IN MODERATE STRESS WITH PROBABLE
DIAGNOSIS OF BLADDER CANCER. WHICH OF THE ADENOMA
FOLLOWING SYMPTOMS WOULD A MEDICAL
PERSONNEL MOST LIKELY TO EXPECT THE CLIENT TO 328. THIS CONDITION SHOWS A LARGE AMOUNT OF
REPORT DURING THE ASSESSMENT? CEREBROSPINAL FLUID IN THE VENTRICLES.

PAINLESS HEMATURIA HYDROCEPHALUS

315. USUALLY WHAT IS THE CAUSATIVE AGENT THAT 329.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE VERY SERIOUS
WOULD CAUSE UTI? INFECTION OF THE BRAIN?

ESCHERICHIA COLI ENCEPHALITIS

317. A RAD. TECH IS WITH A CLIENT WHO HAS BEEN 330. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN INJURY OF THE
DIAGNOSED AS HAVING A KIDNEY MASS. THE CLIENT BRAIN CAUSE BY SEVERE IMPACT?
ASKS HIM THE REASON FOR RENAL BIOPSY, WHEN
OTHER TESTS SUCH AS CT SCAN AND ULTRASOUND CONTUSION
ARE AVAILABLE. IN FORMULATING A RESPONSE, HE
331. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COMBINING WORD
INCORPORATES THE KNOWLEDGE THAT RENAL
MEANS TO BE NUMB OR ANALGESIC?
BIOPSY
NARC/O
GIVES SPECIFIC CYTOLOGICAL INFORMATION ABOUT
THE LESION. 332.ANATOMICALLY, THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF
BACK PAIN IN A 55-YEAR-OLD MALE CLIENT IS;
318. THE RAD. TECH ON DUTY EXPECTS THAT AFTER
AN INTRAVENOUS PYELOGRAM OF A CLIENT, A LUMBOSACRAL
PRIORITY POST PROCEDURAL CARE IS
333.IN THE PRACTICE OF FUNDAMENTALS IN THE
ENCOURAGING INCREASED INTAKE OF ORAL FLUIDS TRANSFER OF PATIENT IN THE RADIOLOGY ROOM, IN
ORDER TO AVOID BACK PAINS, THIS PRINCIPLE MUST 344. CLIENTS WITH MYASTHENIA GRAVIS, GUILLAIN-
BE OBSERVED BARRE SYNDROME, OR AMYOTROPHIC LATERAL
SCLEROSIS TO EXPERIENCE;
USE PROPER BODY MECHANICS
INCREASED RISK OF RESPIRATORY COMPLICATIONS
335.WHEN A PERSON FALLS FROM THE THIRD FLOOR
OF THE BUILDING AND LANDS ON FEET, THE 345. A CLIENT WITH MYASTHENIA GRAVIS WHILE
MECHANISM OF INJURY IS: UNDERGOING A RADIOGRAPHIC PROCEDURE ASKS
THE RADTECH BASES THE REPLY ON THE
AXIAL LOADING KNOWLEDGE THAT THERE IS;

334. TETRAPLEGIA MEANS: DECREASED NUMBER OF FUNCTIONING

ACETYLCHOLINE RECEPTORS SITES
PARALYSIS FROM THE NECK DOWN
346. FOLLOWING A SPINAL CORD INJURY THE
336.A PATIENT FROM A MAJOR VEHICULAR ACCIDENT
PHYSICIAN INDICATES THAT A CLIENT IS A
NEEDS TO BE ASSESSED IMMEDIATELY BEFORE ANY
PARAPLEGIC. THE FAMILY ASKS THE RADTECH ON
RADIOLOGIC PROCEDURE IS DONE. THE FOLLOWING
DUTY WHAT THIS MEANS. HE EXPLAINS THAT;
ARE THE COMPONENTS OF INITIAL ASSESSMENT
EXCEPT; LOWER EXTREMITIES ARE PARALYZED

ASSESSMENT OF THE GAG REFLEX 347.A CLIENT WITH SPINAL CORD INJURY HAS
PARAPLEGIA. THE RAD.TECH RECOGNIZES THAT ONE
337. AUTONOMIC DYSREFLEXIA IS ASSOCIATED WITH;
MAJOR EARLY PROBLEM WILL BE
NEUROGENIC BLADDER
BLADDER CONTROL
338. THE MAIN INITIAL MANAGEMENT FOR CERVICAL,
348. THESE ARE THE PARTS OF THE CENTRAL
LUMBAR AND SACRAL INJURIES OF FRACTURES IS:
NERVOUS SYSTEM
IMMOBILIZATION
BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD
339. IN THE DIAGNOSIS AND MANAGEMENT OF
349. WHICH IS NOT PART OF THE AUTONOMIC
MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS, CERTAIN TERMINOLOGIES
NERVOUS SYSTEM?
MUST BE UNDERSTOOD THE FOLLOWING ARE THE
CORRECT COMBINATION EXCEPT; SKELETAL MUSCLES

INTENTION TREMOR (DECREASED MOTOR 350. THE FOLIOWING INCREASES THE RATE OF
COORDINATION) TRANSMISSION OF IMPULSES IN THE NERVOUS
SYSTEM:
340. A 23-YEAR-OLD PATIENT WAS ADMITTED DUE TO
AN ASCENDING PARALYSIS. IN THE ICU, AN NODES OF RANVLER AND MYELLN SHEATH
EMERGENCY TRACHEOSTOMY WAS DONE DUE TO
THE DEVELOPMENT OF DECREASING RESPIRATORY 351.A LABORER FELL FROM THE THIRD FLOOR OF THE
RATE. AS THE RT ON DUTY PREPARES THE MRI BUILDING WHERE HE IS EMPLOYED AS A MASON. IPON
EQUIPMENT AND PROCEDURES, HE UNDERSTANDS THOROUGH NEUROLOGICAL EXAMINATION, HE WAS
THAT THE PATHOLOGY OF THIS DISEASE IS; FOUND TO HAVE DEFICITS IN THE CEREBELLUM. THE
RAD. TECH ON DUTY KNOWS THAT THE FUNCTION OF
IMMUNE SYSTEM STARTS TO DESTROY THE MYELIN THE CEREBELLUM IS;
SHEATH THAT SURROUNDS THE AXONS RESULTING
TO SEGMENTAL DEMYELINATION (NODES OF COORDINATES VOLUNTARY MOVEMENT AND
RANVIER) MAINTAINS TRUNK STABILITY AND EQUILIBRIUM

341. THE END RESULT OF GUILLAIN BARRE 352. CRANIAL NERVES III, IV AND VI ARE TESTED
SYNDROME IS: TOGETHER. THESE ARE TESTS FOR:

RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION CONSTRICTION, CONVERGENCE AND

ACCOMMODATION
342. RADIOGRAPHIC ASSESSMENT OF THE BRAIN
THAT WILL SHOW OCCLUSION IN THE CEREBRAL 353. TEST FOR CEREBELLAR FUNCTION ARE THE
BLOOD VESSELS FOLLOWING EXCEPT;

COMPUTED ANGIOGRAPHY PROPRIOCEPTION SENSE. LIGHT TOUCH AND FINGER

TO NOSE TEST
343. THE FOLLOWING ARE THE SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS
OF PARKINSONS DISEASE EXCEPT 354. A PATIENT WHO IS A VICTIM OF MAULING AND
STONING INCIDENT IS ADMITTED IN THE ER WITH THE
HEADACHE FOLLOWING NEUROLOGIC MANIFESTATION. HE HAS
INAPPROPRIATE WORDS, ABNORMAL FLEXION AND
EYES OPEN ONLY IN RESPONSE TO PAIN. THE GLASS RED JELLY-LIKE MATERIAL IN THE SYRINGE. WHICH OF
GLOW COMA SCALE IS: THE FOLLOWING CELL TYPES IS MOST LIKELY TO BE
NUMEROUS ON MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION OF THIS
7 ASPIRATE?

355. WHICH AMONG THE TYPES OF STROKE DOES GIANT CELLS

NOT BELONG TO THE GROUP?
364. AN 11-YEAR OLD BOY HAS PAIN IN HIS LEFT LEG
HEMORRHAGIC STROKE THAT HAS PERSISTED FOR 3 WEEKS. ON PHYSICAL
EXAMINATION, HIS TEMPERATURE IS 37.9°C. A
356. THE COMMON CAUSE OF HEMORRHAGIC STROKE
RADIOGRAPH OF LEG REVEALS A MASS IN THE
IS:
DIAPHYSEAL REGION OF THE LEFT FEMUR WITH
ANEURYSM OVERLYING CORTICAL EROSION AND SOFT TISSUE
EXTENSION. A BONE BIOPSY IS PERFORMED AND THE
357.ALL STATEMENT ARE TRUE REGARDING LESION ON MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION SHOWS
DEMENTIA EXCEPT; NUMEROUS SMALL ROUND BLUE CELLS. WHICH OF
THE FOLLOWING NEOPLASMS IS HE MOST LIKELY TO
DEBILITATING DISEASE AFFECTING MOTOR ABILITY HAVE?
AND IS CHARACTERIZED BY TREMOR AND AKINESIA
EWING SARCOMA
358. WHILE WAITING FOR THE TRANSFER OF THE
PATIENT WHO HAS SUSTAINED A HEAD INJURY, THE 365. A 14-YEAR OLD WEST AFRICAN MAN HAS A
RT ON DUTY EXPECT THAT THIS AREA SHOULD BE HISTORY OF MULTIPLE EPISODES OF SUDDEN ONSET
ASSESSED OF SEVERE ABDOMINAL PAIN AND BACK PAIN LASTING
FOR HOURS. HE NOW HAS PAINFUL RIGHT HIP THAT IS
ALTERED LEVEL OF CONSCIOUSNESS TENDER TO PALPATION. A RADIOGRAPH REVEALS
IRREGULAR BONY DESTRUCTION OF THE FEMORAL
359.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD THE HEALTH
HEAD. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INFECTIOUS
PERSONNEL EXPECT TO ASSESS MOST COMMONLY IN
AGENTS IS MOST LIKELY RESPONSIBLE FOR HIS
A SCHOOL-AGED CHILD WITH A POSSIBLE INCREASED
FINDINGS?
IN INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE?
SALMONELLA ENTERICA
HEADACHE AND VOMITING
366.A 69-YEAR OLD MAN HAS NOTED INCREASING
360.HYDROCEPHALUS CAN BE MOST ACCURATELY
BACK AND LEG PAIN FOR 3 YEARS. HE HAS GREATER
DEFINED AS
DIFFICULTY HEARING ON THE LEFT. ON PHYSICAL
PROGRESSIVE ENLARGEMENT OF THE HEAD DUE TO EXAMINATION HE HAS DECREASED RANGE OF
EXCESSIVE ACCUMULATION OF CEREBROSPINAL MOTION AT THE HIPS. RADIOGRAPHS REVEAL BONY
FLUID SCLEROSIS OF THE SACROILIAC, LOWER VERTEBRAL
AND UPPER TIBIAL REGIONS. HIS HATS DON'T EVEN
361.HYDROCEPHALUS IS CAUSED BY FIT HIM ANYMORE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING
CONDITIONS IS HE MOST LIKELY TO HAVE;
EXCESSIVE PRODUCTION OF IMPAIRED ABSORPTION
OF CEREBROSPINAL FLUID PAGET DISEASE OF BONE

362. A 51-YEAR OLD MAN HAS NOTED CONSTANT, 367. AN 18-YEAR OLD WOMAN HAS NOTED PAIN AND
DULL RIGHT HIP PAIN FOR THE PAST 3 MONTHS. ON SWELLING OF HER RIGHT DISTAL THIGH ASSOCIATED
PHYSICAL EXAMINATION HE HAS DIMINISHED RANGE WITH ACTIVITY FOR THE PAST YEAR. SHE HAS NO
OF MOTION OF THE RIGHT HIP. A RADIOGRAPH HISTORY OF ANY TRAUMA. ON EXAMINATION AFTER
REVEALS A 10 X 43 CM MASS INVOLVING THE RIGHT PERFORMING PHYSICAL EXERCISE, THERE IS
ISCHIUM OF THE PELVIS. THE MASS HAS IRREGULAR TENDERNESS ON PALPATION ABOVE THE RIGHT KNEE.
BORDERS AND THERE ARE EXTENSIVE AREAS OF RADIOGRAPHS SHOW AN EXPANSILE, ECCENTRIC,
BONY DESTRUCTION ALONG WITH SOME SCATTERED LYTIC LESION LOCATED IN THE METAPHYSIS OF THE
CALCIFICATIONS. THE LESION IS RESECTED AND DISTAL FEMUR THAT IS SURROUNDED BY RIM OF
GROSSLY THE MASS HAS A BLUISH-WHITE CUT REACTIVE NEW BONE AS A HOST RESPONSE. WHICH
SURFACE. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MOST OF THE FOLLOWING BONE DISEASES IS SHE MOST
LIKELY DIAGNOSIS? LIKELY TO HAVE?

CHONDROSARCOMA ANEURYSMAL BONE CYST

363. A 62-YEAR OLD MAN HAS HAD BACK PAIN FOR 4 368.A 16-YEAR OLD BOY HAS NOTED PAIN IN HIS LEFT
MONTHS. NO ABNOMAL FINDINGS ARE NOTED ON KNEE AFTER EACH HOCKEY PRACTICE SESSION FOR
PHYSICAL EXAMINATION. A CHEST RADIOGRAPH PAST MONTH. ON EXAMINATION THERE IS
SHOW NO ABNORMALITIES OF HEART OR LUNG TENDERNESS TO PALPATION OF HIS LEFT KNEE, WITH
FIELDS, BUT THERE ARE SEVERAL LUCENCIES NOTED REDUCED RANGE OF MOTION. A PLAIN FILM
IN THE VERTEBRAL BODIES. A STERNAL BONE RADIOGRAPH OF LEFT LEG REVEALS A MASS OF THE
MARROW ASPIRATE IS PERFORMED YIELDS A DARK PROXIMAL TIBIAL METAPHYSIS THAT ERODES BONE
CORTEX, LIFTING UP THE PERIOSTEUM WHERE 373.AN 80-YEAR OLD WOMAN HAS HAD NO MAJOR
REACTIVE NEW BONE IS APPARENT. THE MASS DOES MEDICAL PROBLEMS, BUT SHE HAS NEVER BEEN
NOT EXTEND INTO THE EPIPHYSEAL REGION. A BONE PHYSICALLY ACTIVE FOR MOST OF HER LIFE. ONE
BIOPSY IS PERFORMED AND MICROSCOPIC DAY SHE FALLS OUT OF BED AND IMMEDIATELY
EXAMINATION SHOWS A TYPICAL ENLONGATED CELLS NOTES A SHARP PAIN IN HER LEFT HIP. SHE IS
WITH HYPERCHROMATIC NUCLEI IN AN OSTEOID SUBSEQUENTLY UNABLE TO AMBULATE WITHOUT
STROMA. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NEOPLASMS IS SEVERE PAIN. RADIOGRAPHS SHOW NOT ONLY A
HE MOST LIKELY TO HAVE? FRACTURE OF THE LEFT FEMORAL HEAD, BUT ALSO A
COMPRESSED FRACTURE OF T10. WHICH OF THE
OSTEOSARCOMA CONDITIONS IS SHE MOST LIKELY TO HAVE?

369. A 15-YEAR OLD GIRL IS NOTED TO BE OSTEOPOROSIS

DEVELOPING ODD, TWISTED APPEARANCE TO HER
BACK FOR THE PAST 3 YEARS. ON EXAM SHE IS TALL 374.AN OTHERWISE HEALTHY 44-YEAR OLD MAN WITH
AND THIN. A RADIOGRAPH REVEALS AN ABNORMAL NO PRIOR MEDICAL HISTORY HAS HAD INCREASING
LATERAL BOWING OF THE SPINE WITH 20 DEGREES BACK PAIN AND RIGHT HIP PAIN FOR THE PAST
OF LATERAL CURVATURE IN THE MID-THORACIC DECADE. THE PAIN IS WORSE AT THE END OF THE
REGION. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS MOST LIKELY DAY. ON PHYSICAL EXAMINATION HE HAS BONY
TO PRODUCE THESE FINDINGS? ENLARGEMENT OF THE DISTAL INTERPHALANGEAL
JOINTS. A RADIOGRAPH OF THE SPINE REVEALS THE
ASYMMETRIC CARTILAGE GROWTH OF VERTEBRAL PRESENCE OF PROMINENT OSTEOPHYTES INVOLVING
BODY END PLATES THE VERTEBRAL BODIES. THERE IS SCLEROSIS WITH
NARROWING OF THE JOINT SPACE AT THE RIGHT
370. A 23-YEAR OLD MAN NOTES SOME MINOR
ACETABULUM SEEN ON A RADIOGRAPH OF PELVIS.
DISCOMFORT OVER THE LATERAL OF HIS RIGHT KNEE
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING;
AFTER A DAY WORKING IN A CRAMPED CUBICLE
(BECAUSE IT PUT THE 'DESKTOP WORKSTATION ON OSTEOARTHRITIS
THE FLOOR). ON PHYSICAL EXAMINATION HE HAS A
PALPABLE 'BUMP' IN THIS REGION. A RADIOGRAPH OF 375. THE EARLIEST SONOGRAPHIC FINDING SEEN IN A
THE KNEE REVEALS A LATERAL BONY PROJECTION NORMAL PREGNANCY IS
FROM THE LOWER FEMORAL METAPHYSIS. THERE IS
NO ADJACENT SOFT TISSUE SWELLING. THE LESION IS THE INTRADECIDUAL SAC SIGN
EXCISED AND IS COMPOSED OF A 3 CM STALK OF
376. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE
BONY CORTEX CAPPED BY CARTILAGE. WHICH OF
CONSIDERED ABNORMAL IN A FIRST TRIMESTER
THE FOLLOWING IS THE MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS?
PREGNANCY
OSTEOCHONDROMA
AN EMBRYO WITH A HEART RATE OF 70 BPM
371. A 45-YEAR OLD WOMAN HAS HAD WORSENING
377. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING COMBINATION
SHORTNESS OF BREATH FOR 3 YEARS. SHE NOW HAS
OF MEASUREMENTS ARE ROUTINELY OBTAINED TO
TO SLEEP SITTING UP ON TWO PILLOWA. SHE HAS
DETERMINED GESTATIONAL AGE?
HAD DIFFICULTY FOR THE PAST YEAR. SHE HAS NO
HISTORY OF CHEST PAIN. A MONTH AGO, SHE HAD A BIPARIETAL DIAMETER, HEAD CIRCUMFERENCE,
'STROKE' WITH RESULTANT INABILITY TO MOVE HER ABDOMINAL CIRCUMFERENCE AND FEMUR LENGTH
LEFT ARM. SHE IS AFEBRILE, A CHEST RADOGRAPH
REVEALS A NEAR-NORMAL LEFT VENTRICULAR SIZE 378. THE THREE MINIMUM STRUCTURES REQUIRED IN
WITH A PROMINENT LEFT ATRIAL BORDER. WHICH OF IMAGING THE FETAL BRAIN ARE:
THE FOLLOWING CONDITION IS MOST LIKELY TO
ACCOUNT FOR HER FINDINGS? CAVUM SEPTI PELLUCIDI, CISTERNA MAGNA AND
VENTRICULAR ATRIUM
MITRAL VALVE STENOSIS
379. WHEN PERFORMING CT UROGRAPHY, WHEN IS IT
372. A 72-YEAR OLD WOMAN HAS HAD NO MAJOR BRST TO ADMINISTER IV FUROSEMIDE IN ADDITION TO
ILLNESSES THROUGHOUT HER LIFE. SHE HAS HAD 3 IV CONTRAST MATERIAL?
SYNCOPAL EPISODES DURING THE PAST 2 WEEKS.
OVER THE PAST 2 DAYS SHE HAS DEVELOPED IN ALL PATIENTS AS LONG AS THERE IS NO HISTORY
SHORTNESS OF BREATH AND COUGH WITH OF ALLERGY TO SULFA DRUGS
PRODUCTION OF FROTHY WHITE SPUTUM. ON
380. IN WHICH OF THE FF. PATIENTS IS CT
PHYSICAL EXAMINATION SHE IS AFEBRILE. HER
UROGRAPHY (NCLUDING SCANS BEFORE AND AFTER
BLOOD PRESSURE IS 135/90 MM HG. SHE HAS NO
IV CONTRAST MATERIAL) INDICATED?
PERIPHERAL EDEMA. A CHEST RADIOGRAPH REVEALS
A PROMINENT LEFT HEART BORDER IN THE REGION 70-YEAR-OLD WOMAN WITH GROSS HEMATURIA
OF THE LEFT VENTRICLE, BUT THE OTHER CHAMBERS
DO NOT APPEAR TO BE PROMINENT OF THE 381. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS ALSO
FOLLOWING IS THE MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS? ADMINISTERED IN ADDITION TO IV GADOLINIUM WHEN
PERFORMING EXCRETORY MR UROGRAPHY?
CALCIFIC AORTIC STENOSIS
IV SALINE AND FUROSEMIDE 391.A POSSIBLE SIGN OF FEMORAL-ACETABULAR
IMPINGEMENT INCLUDES:
382. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE ABOUT
USING GADOLINIUM-ENHANCED MR UROGRAPHY FOR AN OSSEOUS PROMINENCE (BUMP) AT THE FEMORAL
THE UPPER TRACT TRANSITIONAL CELL CARCINOMA? HEAD-NECK JUNCTION

IT SHOULD BE PERFORMED AS THE FIRST LINE 392. THE BEST IMAGING EXAM FOR ACETABULAR
IMAGING TEST INSTEAD OF CT UROGRAPHY LABRAL TEAR IS

383. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE ABOUT T2- MR ARTHROGRAM

WEIGHTED MR UROGRAPHY?
393. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE IN REGARD
IT REQUIRES IV GADOLINIUM TO MR ARTHROGRAPHY OF THE HIP?

384. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE CHANGES OF MR ARTHROGRAPHY HAS A HIGH SENSITIVITY AND
CIRHOSIS THAT MAY BE SEEN IN THE LIVER ON ACCURACY OF AT LEAST 90% FOR LABRAL TEARS
IMAGING EXCEPT;
394. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING CAN SIMULATE MRI
DILATATION AND BEADING OF THE BILIARY TREE FINDINGS OF ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS EXCEPT:

385.A 1.5 CM NODULE IN A CIRRHOTIC LIVER THAT SPLENECTOMY

DEMONSTRATES HYPERINTENSITY ON T1-W IMAGING,
ISOINTENSITY ON T2-W IMAGING, BUT WITHOUT 395.A NEWBORN CHEST SHOWS DIFFUSE
INCREASED ENHANCEMENT IN THE ARTERIAL PHASE OPACIFICATION WITH "GROUND-GLASS" APPEARANCE,
OF IMAGING RELAIVE TO THE SURROUNDING LIVER WHICH ONE QUESTION IS MOST HELPFUL IN MAKING A
PARENCHYMA IS LIKELY TO REPRESENT: CORRECT DIAGNOSIS?

DYSPLASTIC NODULE WHAT IS THE GESTATIONAL AGE?

386. IN REGARD TO HEPATIC FIBROSIS, WHICH OF THE

FOLLOWING IS TRUE;

FIBROSIS IS USUALLY ASSOCIATED WITH VOLUME 396. WITH GROUND GLASS WHAT ONE IS THE MOST
LOSS AND A RETRACTION OF THE LIVER CAPSULE HELPFUL ANCILLARY FINDING?
RATHER THAN BUILDING AND MASS EFFECT
PLEURAL EFFUSION
387. IN PSEUDOCIRRHOSIS ASSOCIATED WITH
METASTATIC BREAST CANCER, THE LIVER MAY 397. A NEWBORN HAS ASPIRATED THICK MECONIUM
DEMONSTRATE THE FOLLOWING PATTERNS OF AND HAS RESPIRATORY DISTRESS. WHAT PATTERN
LOVER CONTOUR ABNOMALITY: DO YOU EXPECT TO SEE ON CXR?

⚫ ABSENT COARSE RETICULAR

⚫ LIMITED RETRACTION OF CAPSULE 398.ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE DIAGNOSED

PRENATALLY BY ULTRASOUND (JS) OR MRI EXCEPT:
⚫ WIDESPREAD RETRACTION OF THE CAPSULE
PULMONARY INTERSTITIAL EMPHYSEMA
⚫ DIFFUSE NODULARITY
399. THE PATTERN OF APPARENT CARDIOMEGALY
388. FOR ESOPHAGEAL CANCER FOLLOWING WITH INCREASED PULMONARY BLOOD FLOW IS SEEN
NEOADJUVANT THERAPY, FDG PET/CT WITH ALL BUT;
IS USED FOR DETECTION OF NEW INTERVAL RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME (RDS)
METASTASES NOT PRESENT AT BASELINE IMAGING
400. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE POSSIBLE
389. IN LUNG CANCER STAGING, WHICH ONE OF THE COMPLICATION FOR BACTERIAL INFECTION IN
FOLLOWING STATEMENTS IS TRUE REGARDING CHILDREN EXCEPT:
PET/CT?
PLEUROPULMONARY BLASTOMA
IT IMPROVES DETECTION OF DISTANT METASTASIS
COMPARED CONVENTIONAL IMAGING 401.WHAT IS THE MOST DEFINITIVE TEST FOR
DIAGNOSING CNS VASCULITIS?
390. WHICH IS A POTENTIAL CAUSE OF ACETABULAR
LABRAL TEAR? CT ANGIOGRAPHY WITH 3D VOLUME RENDERING

⚫ TRAUMA 402. WHAT ARE THE CHARACTERISTIC MRI FINDINGS

OF DISSEMINATED CEREBRAL ASPERGILLOSIS IN
⚫ FEMORAL-ACETABULAR IMPINGEMENT IMMUNOCOMPROMISED PATIENTS?
⚫ HIP DYSPLASIA
NUMEROUS FOCI OF RESTRICTED DIFFUSION IN THE 415. NAME THE "SIGN" ASSOCIATED WITH A DILATED
CORTICOMEDULLARY JUNCTION, BASAL GANGLIA COMMON BILE DUCT
AND THALAMI, WITH MINIMUM OR NO ENHANCEMENT
SHOTGUN
403. IF A PATIENT IS TO RECEIVE AN IODINE
CONTRAST MEDIUM, YOU SHOULD ASK THE PATIENT 416.A BENIGN MASS COMPOSED OF A TANGLE OF
WHICH QUESTION? BLOOD VESSELS IN THE LIVER IS CALLED?

"ARE YOU ALLERGIC TO SHELLFISH?" HEMANGIOMA

404. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTION WOULD 417. MEMBRANOUS OBSTRUCTION OF THE IVC,
YOU ASK A PATIENT BEFORE A CHEST X-RAY? HYPERCOAGULATION STATES COMPRESSION OF
HEPATIC VEINS (LIVER TUMORS AND CIRRHOSIS) OR
"DID YOU EAT BEFORE COMING FOR THE TEST?” TUMOR INVASION. THESE ARE ALL CAUSES OF WHAT
SYNDROME?
405. WHICH RADIOLOGIC TEST IS USED TO DIAGNOSE
GALLSTONE? BUDD-CHIARI SYNDROME

BARIUM ENEMA 418. WHAT STRUCTURE MAY CAUSE THE IVC TO BE

PUSHED ANTERIORLY?
406. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OUTLINES THE SIZE
SHAPE AND POSITION OF URINARY ORGANS? LYMPH NODES

KUB RADIOGRAPHY 419. WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON AGE TO CONTRACT

A SEMINOMA?
407.WHICH PROCEDURE IS DIAGNOSTIC FOR
IRREGULARITIES OR COMPRESSION OF THE SPINAL 15-35
CORD?
420. FOCAL FATTY INFILTRATION FOCAL FATTY
ULTRASOUND SPARING, ENLARGED CAUDATE LOBE AND AN
INCREASE IN LIVER EHOGENECITY ARE ALL
408. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS USED TO INDICATORS OF WHAT?
DIAGNOSE UPPER GASTROINTESTINAL BLEEDING?
FATTY LIVER DISEASE (FLD)
RETOGRADE PYELOGRAM
421. IT IS THE MOST COMMON ORGANISM CAUSING
409. WHICH PROCEDURE INCLUDES NONIONIZING OPPORTUNISTIC INFECTION IN PATIENTS WITH AIDS.
RADIATION AND A STRONG MAGNETIC FIELD TO
ALLOW THE PHYSICIAN TO EXAMINE INTERNAL PNEUMOCYSTIS CARINII PNEUMONIA (PCP)
STRUCTURE AND SOFT TISSUES OF ANY AREA OF THE
BODY? 422. THE TYPICAL FRAME RATE OF AN ULTRASOUND
SYSTEM IS?
NUCLEAR MEDICINE IMAGING
BETWEEN 5 HZ AND 50 HZ
410. WHAT WOULD YOU TELL A PATIENT IN
PREPARATION FOR A BARIUM ENEMA? 423. WHAT IS THE TERM FOR THE CONCENTRATION
OF MATTER?
INSTRUCT THE PATIENT TO FOLLOW AN ALL-LIQUID
DIET BEGINNING THE MORNING OF THE PROCEDURE DENSITY

411. USING ULTRASOUND HARMONICS WHAT CHANGE 424. WHEN THE LENGTH OF A VESSEL IS HALVED
DO WE SEE IN THE WAVELENGTH?
RESISTANCE IS HALVED
IT IS HALVED
425. THE BEAM IS NARROWEST AT WHAT POINT?
412.RELATING TO THE THYROID IF THE LAB VALUE
FOCUS
FOR T3 AND T4 IS INCREASED THE VALUE FOR TSH
WILL BE? 426. THE AREA WHERE THE VELOCITY IS THE HIGHEST
DECREASED WITHIN THE CENTER OF THE LUMEN
413. SONOGRAPHICALLY ECHINOCOCCUS CYSTS 427. THIS TYPE OF ARTIFACT CAUSES AN
(HYDATID DISEASE) WILL HAVE WHAT ULTRASOUND REFLECTION TO BE PLACED AT AN
CHARACTERISTICS? INCORRECT DEPTH
CYSTIC STRUCTURE WITH A DOUBLE WALL RANGE AMBIGUITY
414. THE MAJORITY OF SECRETIONS OF THE ADRENAL 428. THE WIDTH OF THE BEAM IS DEPENDENT ON
MEDULLA AND CORTEX IS WHAT? WHAT?
EPINEPHRINE DEPTH
429. THE DIAMETER OF A DISC SHAPED UNFOCUSED 442.THE WIDTH OF THE ULTRASOUND BEAM AT FOCUS
PIEZOELECTRIC CRYSTAL IS 5 MM. ESTIMATE THE WILL DECREASE IF
MINIMUM LATERAL RESOLUTION OF THE SYSTEM
BOTH THE FREQUENCY AND THE APERTURE ARE
2.5 MM INCREASED

430. I-P / AREA IS WHAT EQUATION? 443.IMAGING WITH TISSUE HARMONICS:

INTENSITY IMPROVES IMAGE RESOLUTION

431. ULTRASOUND IS CYCLIC SOUND PRESSURE WITH REDUCES SLICE THICKNESS ARTIFACT
A FREQUENCY GREATER THAN THE UPPER LIMIT OF
HUMAN HEARING. AT WHAT VALUE DOES REDUCES SIDELOBE ARTIFACTS
ULTRASOUND BEGIN?
444. ECHO ENHANCEMENT IN IMAGES INDICATES THE
GREATER THAN 20 KHZ PRESENCE OF TISSUES WHICH HAVE:

432.THE MAXIMUM PULSE REPETTION FREQUENCY LOW ATTENUATION

(PRF) THAT THE MACHINE CAN USE WHEN IMAGING IS
445. HARMONIC IMAGING IS OFTEN USED IN
LIMITED BY THE:
CONJUNCTION WITH ULTRASOUND CONTRAST
DEPTH OF PENETRATION AGENTS BECAUSE IT:

433. MIRROR IMAGE ARTIFACTS ARE CAUSED BY: INCREASES THE ECHOGENICITY OF THE CONTRAST
AGENT RELATIVE TO TISSUE
REFLECTION OF ULTRASOUND BY HIGHLY
REFLECTIVE TISSUE INTERFACES 446. YOU ARE SCANNING A PATIENT WITH A KNOWN
MASS IN THE LEFT MEDIAL SEGMENT OF THE LIVER.
434. THE SLICE THICKNESS (OR ELEVATION PLANE) OF WHAT ANATOMICAL LANDMARK CAN YOU USE TO
THE ULTRASOUND BEAM CAN CAUSE: IDENTIFY THE LEFT MEDIAL SEGMENT SEPARATE
FROM THE RIGHT ANTERIOR SEGMENT OF THE LIVER?
LIQUID FILLED STRUCTURES TO FILL WITH ECHOES
FROM ADJACENT TISSUES AT THE SAME DEPTH MIDDLE HEPATIC VEIN

435. THE TERM “DUTY-FACTOR” REFERS TO: 447. YOU SUSPECT ENLARGEMENT OF THE CAUDATE
LOBE IN A PATIENT WITH LIVER DISEASE. WHAT
THE TRANSMIT PULSE DURATION DIVIDED BY THE STRUCTURE LOCATED IN THE ANTERIOR BORDER OF
TIME BETWEEN ONE TRANSMIT PULSE AND THE NEXT THE CAUDATE LOBE WILL HELP YOU IDENTIFY THIS
LOBE OF THE LIVER?
436. WHEN THE ULTRASOUND FREQUENCY IS
INCREASED, THE DOPPLER SHIFT; FISSURE FOR THE LIGAMENTUM VENOSUM

INCREASE 448. YOU ARE ASKED TO RULE OUT THE PRESENCE

OF A RECANNALIZED PARAUMBILICAL. WHICH
437. AN ADVANTAGE OF SPATIAL COMPOUND IS THAT
ANATOMIC STRUCTURE A USEFUL LANDMARK IN
IT;
LOCATION OF THIS STRUCTURE?
REDUCES SPECKLE
LIGAMENTUM TERES
438. IF THE ULTRASOUND PROPAGATION SPEED IN
449. WHICH VESSEL COURSES WITH THE MAIN LOBAR
THE TISSUES UNDER EXAMINATION IS HIGHER THAN
FISSURE?
THE VALUE ASSUMED BY THE MACHINE (1540 M/S),
OBJECT WILL BE DISPLAYED IN THE IMAGE AS BEING MIDDLE HEPATIC VEIN
______ THEIR TRUE LOCATION.
450.OXYGENATED BLOOD IS SUPPLIED TO THE LIVER
LESS DEEP THAN VIA THE:

439.IN DOPPLER ULTRASOUND, THE SPECTRAL PORTAL VEIN AND HEPATIC ARTERY
MIRROR ARTIFACT OCCURS WHEN
451. YOU ARE PERFORMING A SONOGRAM ON A
THE DOPPLER ANGLE IS 90° SLENDER FEMALE AND NOTICE A LONG, THIS
EXTENSION OF THE INFERIOR ASPECT OF THE RIGHT
440. IN COLOUR DOPPLER, FREQUENCY ALIASING
LOBE OF THE LIVER. THIS MOST LIKELY REPRESENTS;
OCCURS
REIDELS LOBE
WHEN THE COLOUR DOPPLER PRF IS TOO LOW
452. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FORMS THE CAUDAL
441. DOPPLER FREQUENCY ALIASING CAN BE
BORDER OF THE LEFT PORTAL VEIN?
REDUCED OR ELIMINATED BY:
LIGAMENTUM TERES
DECREASING THE ULTRASOUND FREQUENCY
453. WHAT LIGAMENT DIVIDES THE LEFT LOBE OF THE HISTORY OF ORAL CONTRACEPTIVE USE. A SOLID,
LIVER INTO MEDIAL AND LATERAL SEGMENTS? HYPOECHOIC MASS IS IDENTIFIED IN THE RIGHT LOBE
OF THE LIVER. COLOR DOPPLER REVEALS
LIGAMENTUM TERES HYPERVASCULARITY OF THE MASS. WHICH OF THE
FOLLOWING SCENARIOS IS MOST LIKELY?
454. YOU ARE ASKED TO PERFORM A DOPPLER STUDY
ON THE HEPATIC VEINS IN THE LIVER. WHAT HEPATIC ADENOMA
DIFFERENTIATES THE HEPATIC VEINS FROM THE
PORTAL VEINS? 464.A LIVER ULTRASOUND ON A 49-YEAR-OLD OBESE
MALE DEMONSTRATES DIFFUSE INCREASED
PORTAL VEINS ARE ACCOMPANIED BY BRANCHES OF ECHOGENICITY WITH A FOCAL HYPOECHOIC AREA
THE BILIARY TREE AND HEPATIC ARTERY ANTERIOR TO THE PORTAL VEIN. THIS MOST LIKELY
REPRESENT:
455. YOU HAVE DETECTED A MASS ANTERIOR AND TO
THE LEFT OF THE LIGAMENTUM VENOSUM. THIS MASS FATTY METAMORPHOSIS OF THE LIVER WITH FOCAL
IS LOCATED IN WHAT LOBE OF THE LIVER? SPARING
CAUDATE LOBE 465. A 52-YEAR OLD MALE WITH KNOWN LIVER
CIRRHOSIS PRESENTS FOR AN ABDOMINAL
456. THE THIN CAPSULE SURROUNDING THE LIVER IS
ULTRASOUND. YOU WILL CAREFULLY EVALUATE THE
KNOWN AS
LIVER TO RULE OUT THE PRESENCE OF ANY FOCAL
GLISSONS CAPSULE MASS BECAUSE OF WHICH TRUE STATEMENT BELOW?

457.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COURSE INTERLOBAR PATIENTS WITH LIVER CIRRHOSIS ARE AT INCREASED
AND INTERSEGMENTAL WITHIN THE LIVER? RISK FOR HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA

HEPATIC VEINS 466. YOU ARE SCANNING A PATIENT WITH SUSPECTED

LIVER CIRHOSIS. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE
458. YOU ARE PERFORMING AN ULTRASOUND EXAM SONOGRAPHIC FEATURES OF CIRRHOSIS EXCEPT:
OF THE LIVER ON A SMALL PATIENT WITH A 5 MHZ
CURVED NEAR ARRAY. ALTHOUGH HAVE INCREASED SHRUNKEN CAUDATE LOBE
THE OVERALL GAIN TO ITS MAXIMUM SETTING, THE
467.AN ULTRASOUND EVALUATION OF LIVER
POSTERIOR ORDER OF THE LIVER AND DIAPHRAGM
CIRRHOSIS SHOULD INCLUDE A SEARCH FOR WHICH
ARE NOT VISUALIZED, WHAT SHOULD YOU DO?
ASSOCIATED COMPLICATION?
RESCAN THE LIVER WITH A LOWER FREQUENCY
PORTAL HYPERTENSION
TRANSDUCER
468. ULTRASOUND FINDINGS OF AN ABDOMINAL
459. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CORRECTLY
STUDY ON A 51-YEAR-OLD FEMALE INCLUDE
DESCRIBES THE PROBE PLACEMENT AND IMAGING
ENLARGEMENT OF VEINS AND IVC IN AN OTHERWISE
PLANE YOU WOULD USE TO DEMONSTRATE THE 3
NORMAL APPEARING LIVER. THESE FINDING ARE
HEPATIC VEINS AND IVC IN ONE VIEW?
MOST CONSISTENT WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
SUBCOSTAL OBLIQUE APPROACH WITH THE PROBE
RIGHT SIDED HEART FAILURE
ANGLED SUPERIORLY AND TO THE RIGHT
469. FOCAL FATTY LIVER IS MOST COMMONLY FOUND
460. A PATIENT IS REFERRED FOR A LIVER
IN WHICH LOCATION?
ULTRASOUND WITH THE CLINICAL HISTORY OF
RAISED SERUM ALPHA FETOPROTEIN LEVEL. WHAT ANTERIOR TO THE PORTAL VEIN AT THE PORTA
SHOULD YOU LOOK FOR? HEPATIS

HCC 470. YOU HAVE PERFORMED AN ULTRASOUND STUDY

ON A PATIENT WITH ENLARGED CAUDATE LOBE.
461. YOU ARE REVIEWING LAB WORK PRIOR TO
SHRUNKEN RIGHT LOBE AND SPLENOMEGALY. THE
PERFORMING AN ABDOMINAL ULTRASOUND EXAM.
HEPATIC VEINS COULD NOT BE IDENTIFIED. NO OTHER
ELEVATED LAB VALUES IN GGT AND ALP. WHICH
ABNORMALITIES WHERE DISCOVERED. WHAT SHOULD
STATEMENT IS TRUE?
YOU DO?
CONCOMITANT ELEVATION OF BOTH GGT AND ALP
EVALUATE THE HEPATIC VEINS AND IVC WITH COLOR
INDICATES THE SOURCE OF THE ELEVATED ALP IS
DOPPLER TO CONFIRM PATENCY
THE LIVER
471. A PATIENT IS REFERRED TO RULE OUT
462. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LAB TESTS IS NOT
HEPATOMEGALY. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE
USED IN THE EVALUATION OF LIVER FUNCTION?
USEFUL INDICATORS OF HEPATOMEGALY EXCEPT;
LIPASE
INCREASED DIAMETER OF THE MAIN PORTAL VEIN
463.A PATIENT IS REFERRED WITH RIGHT UPPER GREATER THAN 1 CM
QUADRANT PAIN AND TENDERNESS. PATIENT HAS A
472. YOU HAVE IDENTIFIED A SINGLE HOMOGENOUS 484. THE TIME FROM THE BEGINNING OF A PULSE
HYPERECHOIC LESION MEASURING 2.4 CM IN THE UNTIL THE END IS?
POSTERIOR ASPECT OF THE RIGHT LOBE OF THE
LIVER. WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON ETIOLOGY OF A PULSE DURATION
MASS FITTING THIS DESCRIPTION?
485. THE TIME THAT A TRANSDUCER IS PULSING IS
CAVERNOUS HEMANGIOMA MEASURED AT 18 SECONDS OF TOTAL ELAPSED TIME.
WHAT IS THE DUTY FACTOR?
473.A PATIENT IS REFERRED FOR A SONOGRAM OF
THE LIVER TO RULE OUT METASTATIC DISEASE. 0.005
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBED THE
486.IF A WAVE'S AMPLITUDE IS DOUBLED, WHAT
SONOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF LIVER METASTASIS?
HAPPENS TO THE POWER?
ALL OF THE ABOVE APPEARANCES MAY BE
QUADRUPLED
ENCOUNTERED WITH LIVER METASTASIS
487. IF THE LEVEL OF AN ACOUSTIC VARIABLE
474. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A FEATURE OF
RANGES FROM 55 TO 105, WHAT IS THE AMPLITUDE?
HEPATIC CYSTS?
25
INCREASE ATTENUATION
488. IF THE INTENSITY OF A SOUND BEAM REMAINS
475. YOU ARE SCANNING THE LIVER AND NOTICE
UNCHANGED WHILE THE BEAM AREA IS REDUCED IN
IRREGULARITY OF THE SURFACE. A NODULAR LIVER
HALF, WHAT HAPPENED TO THE POWER?
SURFACE IS ASSOCIATED WITH WHICH OF THE
FOLLOWING ABNORMALITIES? HALVED
CIRRHOSIS 489. PUT THESE INTENSITIES IN DECREASING ORDER
476. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT TRUE SPTP, SATP, SATA
REGARDING FATTY LIVER?
490. THE DUTY FACTOR FOR CONTINUOUS WAVE
IT IS AN IRREVERSIBLE DISORDER ULTRASOUND IS

477.THEN MOST COMMON BENIGN TUMOR IN THE 1.0

LIVER IS:
491. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM VALUE OF THE SP/SA
CAVERNOUS HEMANGIOMA FACTOR?

1.0
478. YOU ARE SCANNING THROUGH THE LIVER AND
NOTICE LUMINAL NARROWING OF THE HEPATIC VEINS 492. WHICH PAIR OF INTENSITIES HAS THE SAME
COLOR AND SPECTRAL DOPPLER REVEAL HIGH VALUE FOR CONTINUOUS WAVE US?
VELOCITIES THROUGH THE STRICTURES, THESE
FINDINGS ARE MOST COMMONLY ASSOCIATED WITH PULSE AVERAGE AND TEMPORAL AVERAGE
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING; 493.THE FUNDAMENTAL FREQUENCY OF A
TRANSDUCER IS 2.5 MHZ. WHAT IS THE SECOND
CIRRHOSIS HARMONIC FREQUENCY?
479. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS MOST COMMONLY 4.8 MHZ
ASSOCIATED WITH INVASION OF THE PORTAL VEIN?
494.A PULSE IS EMITTED BY A TRANSDUCER AND IS
HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA TRAVELLING IN SOFT TISSUE. THE GO-RETURN TIME,
OR TIME OF FIGHT, OF A SOUND PUISE IS 130
480. WHICH IS NOT AN ACOUSTIC VARIABLE? MICROSECONDS. WHAT IS THE REFLECTOR DEPTH?

INTENSITY 10 CM

481. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SOUND WAVES IS 495. THE RELATIVE OUTPUT OF AN US INSTRUMENT IS
CALIBRATED IN DB. THE BEAM INTENSITY IS
ULTRASONIC AND LEAST USEFUL IN DIAGNOSTIC
INCREASED BY WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING?
IMAGING?
ONE MILLION TIMES
30 KHZ
496. THE MORE PIXELS PER INCH:
482. WHAT IS THE FREQUENCY OF A WAVE WITH
1MSEC PERIOD? THE BETTER IS THE SPATIAL RESOLUTION

1 KHZ 497. IF WE INCREASE THE TRANSDUCER DIAMETER,

THE BEAM DIAMETER IN THE FAR ZONE IS
483.IF THE FREQUENCY OF AN US WAVE IS DOUBLED,
DECREASED
WHAT HAPPENS TO THE PERIOD?

HALVED
498 IF THE TRANSDUCER INCREASES, THE LATERAL THE BEAM WIDTH IN THE NEAR FIELD IS INCREASED
RESOLUTION AT IT’S SMALILEST DIMENSION IS
514. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SETS OF
INCREASED PROPERTIES OF A TEST PHANTOM IS MOST
RELEVANT WHEN ASSESSING DEPTH CALIBRATION
499. IF WE INCREASE THE FREQUENCY THE NEAR ACCURACY?
ZONE LENGTH IS
REFLECTOR SPACING AND PROPAGATION SPEED
INCREASED
515. FILL IN THE ANECHOIC STRUCTURE SUCH AS
500. IF THE FREQUENCY IS DECREASED, THE CYST IS KNOWN AS ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?
NUMERICAL VALUE OF THE RADIAL RESOLUTION IS
GHOSTING ARTIFACT
INCREASED

501. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE BEST LATERAL

RESOLUTION?

0.06 CM 516. ACCORDING TO THE AIUM STATEMENTS ON

BIOEFFECTS, THERE HAVE BEEN NO CONFIRMED
502. WHAT IS THE MEANING OF THERMAL INDEX= 37? BIOEFFECTS BELOW INTENSITIES OF ________ WATTS
PER SQUARE CENTIMETER SPTA.
TISSUE TEMPERATURE MAY RISE 3 DEGREES
CELCIUS 0.1
503. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HAS THE GREATEST 517.WHAT COMPONENT OF THE US UNIT CONTAINS
OUTPUT INTENSITY THE MEMORY BANK?
PULSED DOPPLER SCAN CONVERTER
504. THE PROPAGATION SPEED US IN THE AIUM TEST 518. CHANGING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD
OBJECT IS? NOT CAUSE ANY CHANGE IN A HARD COPY IMAGE
OUTPUT?
1.54 MM/US
DISPLAY BRIGHTNESS & CONTRAST
505. ENHANCEMENT, MULTIPATH AND SIDE LOBES
RESULT IN: 519. WHAT ARE THE TYPICAL CLINICAL DOPPLER
FREQUENCIES?
ARTIFACT
1-10 MHZ
506. IF THE TRANSDUCER DIAMETER INCREASES, THE
LATERAL RESOLUTION AT IT'S SMALLEST DIMENSION 520. IF 3 MHZ SOUND HAS 2DB OF ATTENUATION IN
IS 1CM OF TISSUE, WHAT IS THE AMOUNT OF
ATTENUATION.OF 6MHZ SOUND IN 0.5CM OF THE SANE
INCREASED TISSUE
507. IF WE INCREASE THE FREQUENCY, THE NEAR 2DB
ZONE IS
521. THE DISTANCE TO A TARGET IS DOUBLED. THE
INCREASED TIME OF FLIGHT FOR A PULSE TO TRAVEL TO THE
TARGET AND BACK IS
508. IF THE FREQUENCY IS DECREASED, THE
NUMERICAL VALUE OF THE RADIAL RESOLUTION IS 2 TIMES
INCREASED 522. HOW MANY BITS ARE NEEDED TO REPRESENT 14
SHADES OF GRAY?
509. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE BEST LATERAL
RESOLUTION? 4
0.06 CM 523. WHAT ARTIFACT HAS A GRAINY APPEARANCE
AND IS CAUSED BY THE INTERFERENCE EFFECTS OF
510. WHAT ARE THE UNITS OF LONGITUDINAL SCATTERED SOUND?
RESOLUTION?
SPECKLE
FEET
524. MULTIPLE REFLECTIONS THAT ARE EQUALLY
511. THE RANGE EQUATION RELATES DISTANT FROM SPACED ARE CALLED?
THE REFLECTOR TO ______ AND _______
REVERBERATIONS
TIME OF FLIGHT, PROPAGATION SPEED
525. THE ANGLE BETWEEN AN US PULSE AND THE
512.WHAT IS THE MOST TYPICAL DOPPLER SHIFT BOUNDARY BETWEEN TWO MEDIA IS 90 DEGREES.
MEASURED CLINICALLY? WHAT IS THIS CALLED?
2 KHZ ORTHOGONAL INCIDENCE
513.ASSUMING CONSTANT FREQUENCY, WHAT 526. REFRACTION ONLY OCCURS IF THERE IS
HAPPENS IF THE DIAMETER OF AN UNFOCUSED
CIRCULAR TRENSDUCER IS INCREASED?
OBLIQUE INCIDENCE AND DIFFERENT PROPAGATION -3DB
SPEEDS
540.AN ULTRASOUND SYSTEM IS SET AT O DB AND IS
527.SOUND IS TRAVELLING FROM THE MEDIUM 1 TO TRANSMITTING AT FULL INTENSITY. WHAT IS THE
MEDIUM 2. PROPAGATION SPEEDS OF M1 AND M2 ARE OUTPUT POWER, WHEN THE SYSTEM IS
1600M/S AND 1500M/S RESPECTIVELY. THERE IS TRANSMITTING AT 10% OF FULL INTENSITY?
OBLIQUE INCIDENCE
-10DB
ANGLE OF INCIDENCE ANGLE OF REFLECTION
541. A DOPPLER EXAM IS PERFORMED WITH A 5MHZ
528. DEPTH CALIBRATION OF A MACHINE MEASURES PROBE AND A PRF OF 15KHZ. WHICH OF THESE
100MM SPACED WIRES TO BE 90 MM APART, DOPPLER SHIFTS WILL CREATE ALIASING?
REFLECTORS 50 MM APART, WHAT WILL THE MACHINE
CALCULATE THE DISTANCE TO BE? 14 KHZ

45 MM 542. ACCORDING TO THE AIUM STATEMENT ON

BIO EFFECTS, THERE HAVE BEEN NO CONFIRMED
529. IN AN ANALOG SCAN CONVERTER, WHAT BIOEFFECTS BELOW INTENSITIES OF _______ WATTS
COMPONENT STORES THE IMAGE DATA? PER SQUARE CENTIMETER SPTA

DIELECTRIC MIX 0.1

530. WHEN THE US MACHINE DISPLAYS ONLY STRONG 543. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A MEASURE
REFLECTING OBJECTS AND NOTHING ELSE, THE OF AREA?
SONOGRAPHY SHOULD
CUBIC METERS
INCREASE OUTPUT POWER
544. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE OF ALL
531. YOU ARE PERFORMING A QUALITY ASSURANCE WAVES?
STUDY ON AN ULTRASOUND SYSTEM USING A TISSUE
EQUIVALENT PHANTOM. YOU MAKE AN ADJUSTMENT ALL CARRY ENERGY FROM ONE SIDE TO ANOTHER
USING A KNOB ON THE SYSTEM CONSOLE THAT
CHANGES THE APPEARANCE OF REFLECTOR
BRIGHTNESS FROM FULLY BRIGHT TO BARELY
VISIBLE. WHAT ARE YOU EVALUATING?
545.A FORCE IS APPLIED TO A SURFACE. IF THE
SYSTEM SENSITIVITY FORCE IS TRIPLED AND THE SURFACE AREA OVER
WHICH THE FORCE IS APPLIED IS ALSO TRIPLED,
532.AT WHAT LOCATION IN A SOUND BEAM IS THE WHAT IS THE NEW PRESSURE?
SPTA INTENSITY THE HIGHEST?
UNCHANGED
FOCAL POINT
546. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING UNITS ARE
533. THE IMPEDANCE OF TISSUE IS 3 X 10^5 RAYIS AND APPROPRIATE TO DESCRIBE THE PERIOD OF AN
FOR THE PZT CRYSTAL IS 6 X 10^6 RAYIS. WHAT IS ACOUSTIC WAVE? MORE THAN ONE ANSWER MAYBE
THE BEST IMPEDANCE FOR THE MATCHING LAYER? CORRECT.
9.5 X 10^5 MINUTES
534. WHAT CAN PULSED DOPPLER MEASURE THAT 547. TWO WAVES ARRIVE AT THE SAME LOCATION
CONTINUOUS WAVE CANNOT? AND INTERFERE, THE RESULTANT SOUND WAVE IS
SMALLER THAN EITHER OF THE TWO ORIGINAL
LOCATION
WAVES. WHAT IS THIS CALLED?
535. WHAT IS THE FRACTION OF TIME THAT SOUND IS
DESTRUCTIVE INTERFERENCE
TRANSMITTING?
548. ULTRASOUND IS DEFINED AS A SOUND WITH A
DUTY FACTOR
FREQUENCY OF
536. IF THE SPTA OF THE FOLLOWING WERE EQUAL,
GREATER THAN 0.02 MHZ
WHICH WOULD HAVE THE LOWEST SPPA?
549.COMPARE TWO SOUNDWAVES A AND B. THE
CONTINUOUS WAVE
FREQUENCY OF WAVE A IS ONE-THIRD THAT OF
537. THE DB IS DEFINED AS THE _______ OF TWO WAVES B. HOW DOES THE PERIOD OF A WAVE A
INTENSITIES COMPARE THE PERIOD OF WAVE B?

RATIO A IS THREE TIMES AS LONG AS B

538. IF THE POWER OF A SOUND WAVE IS INCREASED 550.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WAVE IS ULTRASONIC
BY A FACTOR OF 8. HOW MANY DECIBLES IS THIS? AND LEAST USEFUL IN DIAGNOSTIC ULTRASOUND?

9 DB 24 KHZ

539. AN ULTRASOUND SYSTEM IS SET AT 0 DP AND IS 551.THE POWER OF AN ULTRASOUND WAVE CAN BE
TRANSMITTING AT FULL INTENSITY. WHAT IS THE REPORTED WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING UNITS?
OUTPUT POWER, WHEN THE SYSTEM IS MORE THAN ONE ANSWER MAY BE CORRECT
TRANSMITTING AT 50% OF FULL INTENSITY?
WATTS 565. IF WE INCREASE THE FREQUENCY, THE NEAR
LENGTH ZONE IS
552. THE MAXIMUM VALUE OF THE DENSITY OF AN
ACOUSTIC WAVE IS 60LB/IN^2 WHILE THE MINIMUM DECREASED
DENSITY IS 20LB/IN^2. WHAT IS THE AMPLITUDE OF
THE WAVE? 566. A COMPLICATION OF CUSHING'S SYNDROME
THAT THE ATTENDING RADIOLOGIC TECHNOLOGIST
20LB/IN^2 MUST BE CAUTION OF IS

553. THE FINAL AMPLITUDE OF AN ACOUSTIC WAVE IS SPONTANEOUS FRACTURES

REDUCED TO ONE-HALF OF ITS ORIGINAL VALUE. THE
FINAL POWE IS ____ THE ORIGINAL POWER.

NONE OF THE ABOVE 567. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE REASON WHY
F-18 FDG (FLUORODEOXYGLUCOSE) LOCALIZES IN
554. WHAT ARE THE UNITS OF INTENSITY? MALIGNANT?

WATTS/CM2 IT UNDERGOES METABOLIC TRAPPING

555. THE POWER IN AN ULTRASOUND BEAM IS 568.A CLAY SHOVELER'S FRACTURE INVOLVED WHICH
UNCHANGED, WHILE AT THE SAME TIME, THE BEAM AREA OF THE SPINE?
AREA DOUBLES, THEN THE BEAM'S INTENSITY
CERVICAL ONLY
IS HALVED
569.FOD AT A GIVEN DEPTH
556. WHEN THE POWER IN AN ACOUSTIC BEAM IS
DOUBLED AND THE CROSS SECTIONAL AREA OF THE INCREASES WITH LOWER BEAM ENERGIES
BEAM IS HALVED, THEN INTENSITY OF THE BEAM IS
570. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A HOSPITAL
FOUR TIMES LARGER ACQUIRED INFECTION AND INFLAMMATION OF THE
ALVEOLI?
557. WHAT DETERMINES THE INTENSITY OF AN
ULTRASOUND BEAM AFTER IT HAS TRAVELED NOSOCOMIAL PNEUMONIA
THROUGH THE BODY?
571.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RADIONUCLIDE IS NOT
BOTH A AND B USED IN RADIOSYNARTHROSIS?

558. WHAT HAPPENS TO THE INTENSITY OF AN YTTRIUM 90

ULTRASOUND BEAM, WHEN THE BEAM'S CROSS-
SECTIONAL AREA REMAINS UNCHANGED WHILE THE 572. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD
AMPLITUDE OF THE WAVE TRIPLES SONOGRAPHICALLY APPEAR AS A CYSTIC MASS
SURROUNDING A TESTICLE?
INCREASES NINEFOLD
HYDROCELE
559. THE WAVELENGTH OF A CYCLE IN AN
ULTRASOUND WAVE CAN BE REPORTED WITH WHICH 573. THE ABILITY OF AN IMAGING SYSTEM TO DETECT
UNITS? WEAK REFLECTION IS

UNITS OF DISTANCE (FEET,CM) SENSITIVITY

560. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS BEST 574. CHROMATOGRAPHY PROCEDURES IN NUCLEAR
DESCRIBES THE RELATIONSHIPS BETWEEN MEDICINE ARE USED TO DETERMINE
FREQUENCY AND WAVELENGTH FOR SOUND
TRAVELLING IN SOFT TISSUE? RADIONUCLIDE PURITY

INVERSE 575.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SIGN OR

SYMPTOM OF PARKINSON'S DISEASE?
561. FREQUENCY CLOSEST TO THE LOWER LIMITS OF
US IS: HEADACHE, FEVER AND ANOREXIA

15,000 HZ 576. THE APPROXIMATE CT NUMBER OF WATER WHEN

EXPRESSED IN HU.
562. _______ IS THE DISTANCE COVERED BY ONE
CYCLE 0

WAVELENGTH 577. MULTIBEAM COLLIMATORS ARE DIFFERENT FROM

CUSTOM-SHAPED BLOCKS BECAUSE
563. IF THE FREQUENCY OF US IS INCREASED FROM
0.77 MHZ TO 1.54 MHZ, WHAT HAPPENS TO THE THEY PRODUCE SCALLOPED ISODOSE
WAVELENGTH? DISTRIBUTIONS IN THE PENUMBRA, ARE EXTREMELY
HEAVY AND CAN PRODUCE ANY FIELD SHAPE OR
HALVED SIZE

564. IF THE FREQUENCY IS DECREASED, THE 578. THE PORTION OF THE MAGNETIC FIELD
NUMERICAL VALUE OF THE RADIAL RESOLUTION IS EXTENDING AWAY FROM THE CONFINES OF THE
HIGHER THAT CONNECT BE USED FOR IMAGING BUT
INCREASED CAN AFFECT NEARBY OR PERSONNEL IS CALLED;
FRINGE FIELD IMAGE MATRIX

579. EPIGLOTTITIS CAN BE DEMONSTRATED CLEARLY 594. THE CHARACTERISTIC ULTRASOUND PATTERN OF
IN A; DUODENAL ATRESIA IS

NECK LATERAL CHADWICK'S SIGN

580. RUPTURE OF THE SPLEEN AS A RESULT OF 595. THE APPROPRIATE QUANTITY USED FOR DOSE
BLUNT ABDOMINAL TRAUMA CAN BE BEST CALCULATION IS FIXED SSC TECHNIQUE.
DEMONSTRATED BY
PDD
COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY
596.THE ISOCENTER IS
581. THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF NOISE IN CT SCAN
THE POINT ON THE CENTRAL AXIS WHERE THE
QUANTUM NOISE MAXIMUM DOSE OCCURS

582.THE MOST SENSITIVE AND SPECIFIC NONINVASIVE 597.RING ARTIFACTS ARE CHARACTERISTIC OF
METHOD OF DIAGNOSING MITRAL STENOSIS
THIRD GENERATION CT
ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY
598. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF A
583. CAPTOPRIL RENAL SCAN ARE USED TO ASSESS RADIOSENSITIZER?

RENAL ARTERY STENOSIS HYDROXYUREA

584.PATIENTS WITH HYPERTHYROIDISM HAVE THE 599. WHEN AN 0.5 CM MARGIN IS ADDED TO ALL SIDES
FOLLOWING THYROID FUNCTION TEST: OF A 15 X 15 CM FIELD, THE ADDED ARE IS

INCREASE TSH, HIGH T4 15 CM2

585. THE RADIOGRAPHIC APPEARANCE OF THIS 600. WHEN PELVIC IRRADIATION IS DELIVERED IN AN
CONDITION WILL SHOW A ROUNDED THICKENING OBESE PATIENT, THE ADVANTAGE OF THE PRONE
SHADOW WITH A CONFIGURATION OF AN ADULT'S POSITION IS THAT
THUMB IN A LATERAL RADIOGRAPHY OF THE NECK.
THE ABDOMEN IS FLATTENED AGAINST THE COUCH,
EPIGLOTITIS CAUSING THE SMALL BOWEL TO MOVE ANTERIORLY

586. IN THE TREATMENT OF HEAD AND NECK CANCER, 601. NORMAL AVERAGE UTRASONIC MEASUREMENT
IMMOBILIZATION IS PARTICULARLY IMPORTANT OF THE GALLBLADDER DIAMETER
BECAUSE
3 MM
FIELDS ARE OFTEN VERY LARGE AND COULD
INCLUDE RADIOSENSITIVE ORGANS 602.SURVEY METERS' CAN

587.THE FIRST PORTION OF THE KIDNEY TO BECOME LOCATED SOURCE OF RADIATION

VISIBLE AFTER INJECTION OF CONTRAST MEDIUM
603. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURE IS NOT
CALYCES PERFORMED WITH TC99M SULFUR COLLOID?

588. WHAT RADIOTHERAPY MACHINE OPERATES ON GI BLEED STUDY

THE PRINCIPLE THAT AN ELECTRON WILL
ACCELERATE IN A CIRCULAR ORBIT IN A CHANGING 604. THE COMPUTATION OF AN UNKNOWN VALUE
MAGNETIC FIELD? USING KNOWN VALUES ON EITHER SIDE

BETATRON EXTRAPOLATION

589.WHAT RADIOTHERAPY MACHINE USES 50-156 KV 605. THE MECHANISM OF RADIOPHARMACEUTICAL

POTENTIAL RANGE? LOCALIZATION IN LUNG SCANNING.

ORTHOVOLTAGE THERAPY ACTIVE TRANSPORT

590. A FLATTENING FITER
606. IF THE SONOGRAM SUGGESTS A MASS IN THE
REDUCES THE DOSE RATE IN THE CENTER OF THE HEAD OF THE PANCREAS, THE SONOGRAPHER
UNFILTERED BEAM SHOULD

591. THE GEOMETRIC FACTOR THAT GREATLY OUTLINE THE HEPATIC ARTERY AND SPLENIC
AFFECTS SPATIAL RESOLUTION IN CT SCAN ARTERIES TO DETERMINE WHETHER THEY ARE
DILATED
FOCAL SPOT SIZE
607. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIAGNOSES DOES
592. THE RATIO OF PRESSURE TO PARTICLE VELOCITY NOT MIMIC THE SONOGRAPHIC CHARACTERISTIC OF
AT A GIVEN POINT WITHIN THE ULTRASOUND FIELD IS HYDATIDIFORM MOLE?

IMPEDANCE MISSED ABORTION

593.A PROCESS BY WHICH THE ENTIRE DATA SET IS 608. THE COMMON CAUSE OF CYSTITIS/URINARY
USED FOR HIGH-QUALITY, IS IMAGES TRACT INFECTION IS:
INFECTION FROM THE URETER AND KIDNEY TISSUES WITH THEIR APPROPRIATE CT NUMBER. THIS
REFERS TO
609. WHAT STANDARD MRI PULISE SEQUENCE CAN
PROVIDE T1, T2, OR PROTON DENSITY-WEIGHTED UNIFORMITY
IMAGES?
622. WHEN THE TREATMENT FIELDS ARE DESIGNED
ECHO PLANAR IMAGING BY THE RADIATION ONCOLOGIST, MARGINS ARE
ALWAYS ADDED AROUND A TUMOR BECAUSE OF
610.THE AXIAL SCAN CAN BE OBTAINED BY PLACING
THE TRANSDUCER ON THE PARIETAL BONE JUST UNCERTAINTIES IN DETERMINING THE TUMOR
ABOVE THE EXTENT, PENUMBRA OF THE BEAM AND PATIENT
MOTION
EXTERNAL AUDITORY MEATUS
623. THIS IS A REDUCTION OF AVAILABLE SPACE IN
611. FIBROPURULENT FLUID IN THE PLEURAL SPACE THE SPINAL COLUMN CAUSING COMPRESSION OF THE
INDICATES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS? NEURAL ELEMENTS

EMPYEMA SPINAL STENOSIS

612. WHAT TYPE OF COIL IS DIRECTLY PLACED ON 624. IN AN ULTRASOUND EXAMINATION, IF THE
THE PATIENT AND IS USED IN THE IMAGING OF PROSTATE IS FOUND TO BE ENLARGED, THE
SUPERFICIAL STRUCTURES? SONOGRAPHER SHOULD ALSO CHECK THE

SURFACE COILS SCROTUM FOR HYDROCELES

613.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COMBINATION 625. THE DIFFERENTIATION OF DENSITIES IN A CT

QUALITY CONTROL TEST ARE TO BE PERFORMED SCAN IMAGE IS TERMED AS
DAILY ON GAMMA CAMERAS?
CONTRAST RESOLUTION
FIELD UNIFORMITY, PHOTOPEAKING
626. A GUIDE FOR DETERMINING THE NEEDED
614.THE PROCESS IN WHICH THE PLANNED FIELD ELECTRON BEAM ENERGY (IN MEV) IS TO
ARRANGEMENT IS VERIFIED USING AN X-RAY
MACHINE THAT MIMICS THE GEOMETRY OF THE DIVIDE THE 80 PERCENT ISODOSE LINE BY 10 AND
THERAPY MACHINES AND PRODUCES DIAGNOSTIC THEN BY THE MAXIMUM TUMOR DEPTH IN
QUALITY RADIOGRAPHS CENTIMETERS

SIMULATION 627. THYROIDITIS WILL USUALLY APPEAR

SONOGRAPHICALLY AS
615. WHAT IS THE MOST POPULAR RF PULSE
SEQUENCE BECAUSE OF THE REDUCTION IN SCAN DIFFUSELY ENLARGED THYROID LOBES WITH
TIME, WHICH CONSISTS OF A 90 DEGREES' PULSE DECREASED ECHOGENICITY
THAT INITIATES A PARTIAL SATURATION SEQUENCE
AND FOLLOWED BY A 180 DEGREES PULSE AT 50% OF 628. PATHOPHYSIOLOGICALLY, THE EFFECTS OF
THE ECHO-TIME (TE)? EMPHYSEMA IN THE LUNGS INVOLVED THE
FOLLOWING:
SPIN-ECHO
1.DYSPNEA AND DECREASED IN RESPIRATORY RATE
616. HEMORRHAGE ON CT SCANS BECOMES
ISODENCE AFTER 2.AIR IS TRAPPED IN THE ALVEOLI

24 HOURS 1 AND2

628. WHAT PERCENTAGE IS CONSIDERED

ACCEPTABLE IN A PRIMARY BEAM TRANSMISSION
617. A LUCITE TRAY INSERTED IN THE PATH OF THE THROUGH THE BLOCK?
BEAM CAN BE CONSIDERED A
5%
BEAM SPOILER
630.THE ABILITY OF THE GIVEN AMOUNT OF
618. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES IS RADIOACTIVITY OF A RADIONUCLIDE TO IONIZED AIR
ALSO KNOWN AS “SHORT-DISTANCE" THERAPY MOLECULES IS REFERRED TO AS

BRACHYTHERAPY IONIZING CONSTANT

619. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A LOW LET 631.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE LEAST
RADIATION? OBSTACLE TO THE TRANSMISSION OF ULTRASOUND?

PROTON FAT

620. THE MECHANISM OF UPTAKE OF 632. THE RELATIVE COMPARISON OF X-RAY

RADIOPHARMACEUTICAL IN LIVER-SPLEEN SCANNING ATTENUATION OF VOXEL TISSUE TO AN EQUAL
VOLUME OF WATER IS REFERRED TO AS
PHAGOCYTOSIS BY THE RE SYSTEM
LINEAR ATTENUATION COEFFICIENT
621. CT EQUIPMENT MUST BE FREQUENTLY
CALIBRATED SO THAT WATER IS CONSISTENTLY 633.A VIRAL INFLAMMATION OF THE BRAIN AND
REPRESENTED BY CT NUMBER ZERO AND OTHER MENINGES IS REFERRED TO AS
ENCEPHALITIS DIRECTION AND THE ANGLE ELECTRON EMISSION
DEPENDS ON THE ENERGY?
634.TC99M DMSA SCAN IS USED FOR DETERMINING
GAZING HIT
NEPHROLITHIASIS
649.WHAT IS THE APPROXIMATE VELOCITY OF SOUND?
635. A MAGNETIC RESONANCE SEQUENCE USES A
180-DEGREE PULSE FOLLOWED BY A 90-DEGREE 5,000 METER/SEC
PULSE. THIS IS REFERRED TO AS

INVERSION-RECOVERY
650. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DETECTORS YIELD
636. CT ARTIFACT THAT IS MOST COMMON IN INFORMATION ABOUT ENERGY DISTRIBUTION OF AN
SCANNING THE BASE OF THE SKULL INCIDENT RADIATION?

BEAM HARDENING DOSIMETERS

637. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN INJURY OF THE 651.THE PRINCIPAL ADVANTAGE OF CT OVER
BRAIN CAUSE BY SEVERE IMPACT? CONVENTIONAL TOMOGRAPHY IS

CONTUSION REDUCED PATIENT DOSE

638. SONOGRAPHICALLY, THE GASTROESOPHAGEAL 652. WHICH TYPE OF MONITORING DEVICE IS USED TO
JUNCTION CAN BE VISUALIZED MEASURE RADIATION, BASED ON THE CHANGE IN
THERMAL ENERGY?
SONOGRAPHICALLY, CANNOT BE RECOGNIZED
CALOMETRY
639. THE MOST DEFINITIVE TEST FOR ESOPHAGEAL
TUMOR IS 653. WHAT IS XEROPHTHALMIA?

COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY DRYNESS OF THE CONJUNCTIVA

640. THE CHARACTERISTIC OF THIS CONDITION IS AN 654. WHAT DOES THE TERM “METASTASIS" MEAN?
ESOPHAGUS THAT ENDS IN A BLIND POUCH.
SPREAD OF CANCER TO A DISTANT SITE TUMOR
ESOPHAGEAL DIVERTICULA
655. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISEASE INVOLVES
641. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS REFERS TO CHRONIC INFLAMMATION OF THE INTESTINES?
AN EXCESSIVE CARBON DIOXIDE IN THE BLOOD?
CROHN'S DISEASE
HYPERCAPNIA
656. WHAT CELL IS CONCERNED WITH THE
642.WHAT TERM REFERS TO HERNIA PROTRUSION OF FORMATION OF BILE AND ARE OFTEN SEEN TO
THE URINARY BLADDER? CONTAIN FRAGMENTS OF RED BLOOD CELLS AND
PIGMENT GRANULES THAT ARE DERIVED FROM THE
VESICOCELE BREAKDOWN OF HEMOGLOBIN?
643. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INVOLVES EMISSION KUPFFER CELL
OF A SIGNAL FROM A PATIENT?
657.A COBALT 60 SOURCE COMES FROM WHAT
PROJECTION RADIOGRAPHY STABLE ELEMENT?
644. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REFERS TO THE COBALT 59
MEASUREMENT OF RADIATION DOSE THAT
DEMONSTRATE HEW RADIATION THROUGHOUT THE 658. WHAT PART OF LINAC MACHINE PRODUCE
PATIENT'S BODY? ELECTRON?

DOSIMETRY ELECTRON GUN

645. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEALS WITH THE 659. WHAT IS THE SSD OF A LINEAR ACCELERATOR?
MEASUREMENT OF ABSORBED DOSE FROM IONIZING
RADIATION WITH MATTER? 100 CM

RADIATION DOSIMETRY 660. WHAT IS THE COMMON FIELD ARRANGEMENT IS

USED FOR PALLIATIVE TREATMENT?
646. WHAT IS THE CONDITION REFERS TO THE
PRESENCE OF CAVITIES IN THE PONS? PARALLEL OPPOSED

PONTOBULBIA 661. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MOST

COMMONLY USED POSITRON EMISSION
647. WHAT IS THE ANOTHER TERM FOR ALPHA TOMOGRAPHY RADIOPHARMACEUTICAL WORLDWIDE?
PARTICLE?
F-18 PDG (FLOURODEOXYGLUCOSE)
2 PROTONS
662. THE MAJOR FACTOR IN DETERMINING THE
648. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBED THE CAUSTIC POWER OUTPUT OF THE TRANSDUCER IS
SPECIAL CASE OF COMPTON EFFECT IF THE PHOTON THE
IS SCATTERED RIGHT ANGLE TO ITS ORIGINAL
SIZE OF THE TRANSDUCER
663. WAVELENGTH IS A MEASURE OF; 677.WHAT AREA OF THE SPINE IS INVOLVED IN A
CLAY-SHOVELER'S FRACTURE?
DISTANCE
LOWER CERVICAL AND UPPER THORACIC
664. WHICH ANALYTICAL TECHNIQUE IS USED TO
RECONSTRUCT MOST COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY 678. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INCREASES
IMAGES? SCANNING TIME?

ITERATIVE RECONSTRUCTION INCREASE IN NUMBER OF EXCITATIONS

665. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TECHNOLOGY MADE 679. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MOST
SPIRAL COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY POSSIBLE? COMMON CAUSE OF NOISE IN COMPUTED
TOMOGRAPHY SCAN?
SLIP RINGS
QUANTUM NOISE
666. DETERMINE THE IMAGING MODALITY THAT
WOULD BEST DEMONSTRATE THE POSTERIOR FOOSA, 680. DETERMINE THE PATHOLOGY THAT IS
CEREBELLUM, AND BRAINSTEM DIAGNOSED IN A MAG3
(MERCAPTOACETYLTRIGLYCINE) RENAL SCAN WITH
MAGNETIC RESONANCE LASIX (FUROSEMIDE).
667. WITH ADVANCED CHRONOLOGIC AGE, THE OBSTRUCTIVE UROPATHY
PANCREAS;
681. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING POSITIONS IS THE
DECREASES IN SIZE WITH INCREASED ECHOGENICITY PROTOCOL FOR ROUTINE HEAD COMPUTED
TOMOGRAPHY WHICH INVOLVES THE ACQUISITION OF
668. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS REFERRED TO AS A SCOUT TO SET UP THE SCANS AT THE
THE GRAY MATTER APPEARANCE ON COMPUTED APPROPRIATE ANGLE?
TOMOGRAPHY?
LATERAL
MIDBRAIN
682. IN AN ULTRASOUND EXAMINATION, THE BEST
669. IDENTIFY THE TYPE OF HYPERPARATHYROIDISM APPROACH FOR THE EVALUATION OF THE LEFT
OFTEN DETECTED IN PARATHYROID IMAGING KIDNEY IS,
PRIMARY HYPERPARATHYROIDISM SUPINE
670. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SYSTEMS AIMS TO 683. THE DEPTH OF MAXIMUM DOSE OF 4 MV X-RAYS
PLAN AND DELIVER A UNIFORM DOSE (+/- 10% FROM IS AT
THE PRESCRIBED DOSE) THROUGHOUT THE VOLUME
TO BE TREATED? 1.0 CM

PATTERSON-PARKER 684. WHAT COMPONENT OF THE COLLIMATOR IN A

COMPUTED TOMOGRAPHY IMAGER CONTROLS
671. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MAIN PATIENT DOSE PROFILE?
PATHOLOGIC PROBLEM BROUGHT ABOUT BY
EMBOLISM? PRE-PATIENT

OBSTRUCTION 685. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEVICES MEASURES

THE RADIATION EXITING THE PATIENT AND FEEDS
672. THE MOST COMMON BACTERIAL PNEUMONIA IS A BACK THE INFORMATION TO THE HOST COMPUTER?
STREPTOCOCCAL PNEUMONIA DATA ACQUISITION SYSTEM
673. WHAT TERM IS USED FOR ABNORMAL 686. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RADIONUCLIDES ARE
ACCUMULATION OF SEROUS FLUID IN THE USED IN RADIONUCLIDES ARE USED IN
PERITONEAL CAVITY? RADIOSYNOVIAORTHESIS?
ASCITES I. RHENIUM 187
674. IDENTIFY THE FACTOR THAT DETERMINES THE II. STRONTIUM 89
AMOUNT OF REFLECTION AT THE INTERFACE OF TWO
DISSIMILAR MATERIALS III. ERBIUM 169

INDEX OF REFRACTION I,II & III

675. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A RADIOGRAPHIC 687.POINT OUT WHICH WILL PROVIDE A VISUAL
APPEARANCE OF ATELECTASIS? REPRESENTATION OF THE DOSE AT VARIOUS
POSITIONS ACROSS THE RADIATION FIELD
AIRLESS LUNG, WHICH MAY VARY FROM THIN PLATE-
LIKE STREAKS TO LOBAR COLLAPSE ISODOSE CURVE

676. ATTENUATION IS 688. THE PRIMARY MECHANISMS THAT PRODUCE

SOUND CHANGES IN CELLS AND TISSUES ARE
A PROGRESSIVE WEAKENING OF THE SOUND BEAM
AS IT TRAVELS ABSORPTION AND REFLECTION
689. DETERMINE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING
QUANTITATE RADIOCHEMICAL IMPURITIES

GAMMA RAY SPECTRAL ANALYSIS

690. WHICH OF THE FOLOWING ULTRASOUND

DISPLAYS IS SEEN IN BOWEL INTUSSUSCEPTIONAL?

TRIDENT SIGN

691. MEDICAL TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE ENTRY

OF AIR INTO THE PLEURAL SPACE.

PNEUMOTHORAX

692. THE CHARACTERISTICS OF SOUND

PROPAGATION THAT DEPENDS ON THE DENSITY OF
THE MEDIUM IT TRAVELS, IS CALLED THE;

ACOUSTIC IMPEDANCE

693. IN AN ULTRASOUND EXAMINATION, WHICH OF

THE FOLLOWING WOULD DESCRIBE A SIMPLE CYST?

CONTAINS FLUID-FLUID LEVELS

694. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS MEDICALLY

CONSIDERED A “SYMPTOM"?

VERTIGO

695. POINT OUT WHAT IS ASSESSED IN A CAPTOPRIL

RENAL SCAN.

RENAL ARTERY STENOSIS

696. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN INFLAMMATION

OF THE SMALL FLUID-FILLED SACS THAT ARE
LOCATED ATOUND THE JOINTS THAT REDUCE
FRICTION?

BURSITIS

697. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCESSES IS USED

FOR DIFFERENT TISSUES ATTENUATION VALUES THAT
ARE AVERAGED TO PRODUCE ONE LESS ACCURATE
PIXEL READING?

LINEAR ATTENUATION COEFFICIENT

698. ULTRASONOGRAPHICALLY, WHICH OF THE

FOLLOWING STRUCTURE CLASSIFICATIONS ARE
GALLSTONE, RENAL CALPS, BONE, FACE, TISSUES,
AND LIGAMENTS?

HYPERECHOIC

699.DETERMINE THE MAIN GOAL OF RADIATION

THERAPY IN PATIENTS WITH BONE METASTASIS.

REDUCE THE PAIN AND PREVENT FRACTURES

700. CHOOSE THE PROCESS BY WHICH THE ENTIRE

DATA SET IS USED FOR HIGH-QULALITY, 3D IMAGES.

VOLUMETRIC RENDERING
Normal Blood pressure What is the most common way of
-100/60-140/90 mmhg contamination?
-Human hands
Magic angle effect
-55 Normal spleen sonography
-Moderately echogenic but less echogenic
Restricter in vein that does not allow than liver
backflow of the blood
-Valves What is the root word for ear
-aur-
CPD units to acquire to be able to renew
PRC licensed for RT Hard bone
-45units -Metacarpal

What type of grieving process, a patient What should be check first if the patient
diagnose breast cancer and patient may suffering from cardiac/respiratory arrest?
be very silent and unresponsive at this time? -Circulation
-Depression
“Orchid”
The condition where pulmonary alveoli lose -Testis
their elasticity, become permanently inflated
causing the patient to consciously exhale is? Absorption of nutrients of digested food is the
-Emphysema main function of what part of the GI?
-Jejunum
Part of colon is appendix located
-Cecum “Steatorrhea”
-Presence of excess fat in the feces
Not part of the practice of XRT
-UTZ “Aphasia”
-An impairment of language
Who can give the most valid informed consent?
-The patient himself RT week
-by Joseph Estrada, every 2nd week of July
Fear of seeing blood
-Hemaphobia President of the ph when the RA4713 was
signed
Certificate of XRT and RT is issued by -Corazon Aquino
-BORT
May 28, 1993
“New hire RT” -”Radtech credo” by Atty. Oscar Romero
-Read
Liver
Subcutaneous -Secretes bile
-Dermis and muscle
Bile and pancreatic juices
Virtue for what is good for the patient -Common bile
-Beneficence
What comprises the ankle joint?
-Tarsal
What are the sign of cerebrovascular accident?
-Body
-Loss of speech, drooping of eyes and face
(one side/hemiplegia), severe headache, CPD years
loss of consciousness -3 years

A 2y/o_________________________ Type of contrast media given to a 4y/o children

-Called a pedia, sedate the patient until the -“Iopanic acid” (brand name telepaque)
baby cal
Not a qualification of a member of the BORT
Part of the kidney where urine flows -Has atleast 12 years of practice in their
-Renal Pelvis specialty

Possible source of hepatitis Person that is not affected but transports

-Food handler harmful bacteria
-Carrier
BORT members/ representative aside from RT
-XRT What should a radiographer do if he had a
problem with another colleague regarding
Illegal practice fine schedule of duties in department?
-40,000pesos -Discuss the problem with colleague for
possible solution
What is the position of the kidney in relation
to abdominal viscera? CPD unit for XRT
-Hypochondriac -3Ounits

Excessive urination at night “K” chemical symbol for

-Nocturia -Potassium

Greek root term of lipids Location of left atrium in chest PA

-Fats -Posterior

Collection of pus Blood vessel empty into left atrium

-Abscess -Pulmonary artery

“Endocrine system” Bone compomises medial malleolus

-Feedback mechanism -Tibia

Radiographic appearance of asthma Free from contamination

I. Elevation of diaphgram -Aseptic
II. Pulmonary vascular markings
III. Radiolucent Most common name of spreading infection
-I,II, and III -Hands

“Seldinger” Lower arm long bone on the little finger

-Technique for artiography procedure -Ulna

Number of sacral that is fused into one bone

-5 Chief Radiographer be recommended as the
“Corpus” radiation safety officer
-6 years -Descending

Blood travels from aorta to capillaries Diaphragm

-Resistance increases -Phrenic

Insertion for crebrovascular Coronary artery supply to the heart comes

-Superior and inferior vena cava from
-Aortic root
Radiologic technologist-radiologic relationship
-Contractual relationship What is the possible source of hepatitis B for
health care workers?
Area between muscle and skin -Food handlers
-Subcutaneous
Cardiac arrest happen in the hospital
Longest bone in upper torso -CBA
-Humerus
Cardiac arrest happen outside
Mastoid air cells located at -ABC
-Temporal bone
80% of death in elderly patient
Virtue of RT deciding what is right without -Heart disease, stroke, cancer
due fear
-Courage Ankle bone is composed of
-Metatarsals
Where is the Islet of langerhans found?
-Pancreas What is the foremost duty of RT to his patient?
-To avoid repeat exposure unnecessarily
Patient who is informed by his physician that
he has lung cancer, refuse to talk, dose not Performing an interventional procedure in
eat and does not want any treatment radiology
-Depression -Informed consent

Appendix located at In radiologic department what will be the

-Cecum response of RT to tha patient whose having
cardiac arrest?
Radiation science which deal with diagnosis -Check circulation
and treatment
-Nuclear Medicine

What is the condition where the lungs collapse

due to accumulation of air in pleural cavity?
-Pneumothorax

Informed consent means

-Valid document if patient is given enough
information

Part of duodenum and pancreatic, common

bile enter
 Radiologic Sciences
• Type of computed tomography to reduce patient dose and enhanced image contrast.
-Collimator assembly
• What is the gray matter appearance of computed tomography?
-Hyper dense
• What routine head CT protocol is the acquisition of scout for determining the appropriate angle
-Lateral
• What is the process in which the X-ray machine and determines the production of diagnostic
quality geometry
-Simulation
• What is isocenter?
-Point around which the source of beam rotates
• Increase primary reason of the use of betatron radiation therapy became unpopular.
- Produce low dose rate and limited field sizes
• What radioactive isotopes are used in tandems and oviods ?
- Iridium 192
• The reason of Tc99m Pertechnetate is taken to the thyroid gland?
• Same ion size with iodine
• The mechanism of radiopharmaceuticals qualification in lung scanning.
• Capillary blockage
• What is the term used for the role of sound attenuation tissue?
- Half value layer
• Characteristic of 1st generation in CT Scan imaging.
- 5 min imaging time
• The percentage depth dose depends on
- Field size, distance, energy
• Instrument used to detect frequency shift
- Doppler
• In a computed tomography imaging what component of collimator controls patient dose profile
- Pre-patient
• In CT, what is the most common matrix size used?
- 512 x 512
• In the scanning system, what is the major component of magnetic resonance imaging?
- Magnet
• What is the common cystitis/ UTI?
- Ascending infection from the urethra
• What is non- malignant tumor?
- Adenoma
• What is the penumbra of a linear accelerator beam?
- Smaller than that of cobalt60 machine
• What will provide a visual representation of the dose the values
- Isodose curve
• What is likely condition indicate a non- shadowing, non-motile pathogenic foci seen with in the
gallbladder?
- Polyps
• Why immobilization is particularly important in the treatment of head and neck?
- Proximity of several radiosensitive and smooth tumor margins
• The coil which is directly place to the patient in MRI imaging
- Surface coil
• The most specific non-invasive method of diagnosing mitral stenosis
- Echocardiography
• A radiopharmaceutical used for “hot spot” myocardial imaging
- Tc99m PYP (Pyro Phosphate)
• Most common long term observed in administration of I-131 NAL therapy dose treatment of
Grave’s diseases
- Hypothyroidism
• What is the concern of cardiac toxicity from breast
- Sometimes a serious problem
• Ultrasonographically, what would be the ratio of article velocity of a given point
- Impedance
• What is the unit used to expressing the ratio of electrical signal or sound energy
- Decibel
• What increases scanning time
- Increase in number of excitation
• What could be confused for pancreas in scanning the tail of the pancreas, from prone position
- Splenic flexure
• What decreases motion artifacts
- Decrease in repetition time
• What condition characterize with an esophagus that extends a blind pouch
- Esophageal atresia
• What will connect between esophagus and tracheobronchial that can be radiographically
demonstrated
- Fistula
• What determines the amount of reflection to interphase material
- Specific acoustic impedance
• What is equal to the ratio, operating frequency and frequency bandwidth
- Transducer quality factor
• In dose calibrator quality control, when is the linearity checked
- Quarterly
• What is the primary purpose of a testicular shield
- Shield the testes from the primary beam
• What is the main goal of radiation therapy in patient with bone metastasis
- Prevents fracture and reduce pain
• What scan parameter is chosen for field echo sequence to satisfied a unique contrast
appearance of resultant image
- Flip angle
• What is the necrotic area of pulmonary parenchyma with a dense center and hazy, poorly
defined periphery with a typical air fluid level with in the structures
- Cavitary lung abscess
• The time between inverted 180 degrees RF pulse and 90 degrees’ excitation pulse
- Inversion time
• Gastric emptying study in NUCLEAR MEDICINE imaging
- Determine the time taken for food digestive to stomach
• What is the well-defined structure which increased echogenicity
- Solid tumor
• The treatment of patient undergoing nuclear medicine therapy polycythemia
- P-32 sodium phosphate
• In a lateral radiograph of the neck, radiographic appearance would show a rounded thickening
shadow with a configuration of an adult’s thumb
- Epiglottitis
• What is medically considered a symptom
- Vertigo
• what is observed during ultrasonography
- Lactiferous duct
• What will splenomegaly display?
- Increased echogenicity
• Main pathologic condition brought about by embolism?
- Obstruction
• Infection acquired in the hospital and inflammation of alveoli?
- Nosocomial pneumonia
• Intrabronchial foreign body manifested as?
- Right side w/ atelectasis
• Medically considered symptom?
- Vertigo
• Round thickening wall with a configuration of adult's thumb?
- Epiglotitis
• Best demonstrate rupture of spleen and intra-abdominal?
- Computed Tomography
• What sonographic study is used to detect irregularities of blood flow
- Doppler
• What would most likely be seen in acoustic enhancement
- Fluid filled mass
• What urinary bladder segment is ultrasonographically observable to the cystic duct
- Hartmann’s pouch
• What will define the brightness in MRI
- MRI signal strength
• What radiographic position well demonstrate the epiglottitis
- Neck lateral
• What is the hallmark manifestation of removing pleural thickening in a plaque opacification wall
of diaphragm to the position?
- Asbestosis
• What sonographic demonstration in diagnosing obstructive jaundice
- Mass in pancreas with dilated common bile duct
• What technology may spiral CT has
- Slip rings
• What is Lefort’s method fracture involving cranial facial bones
- Type 3
• What is the reason why Lucite tray is inserted in the path of the beam
- Beam spoilers
• What low Z material used for patient couch
- Carbon Fiber
• What condition would manifest aspiration pneumonia
- Vomiting
• Medical diagnosis for patient who is experiencing sign and symptoms of bronchiectasis due to
mucus plug
- Cystic Fibrosis
• What is the best sonographic window to the left hemi diaphragm
- Spleen
• The portal vein sagittal scan which is seen circular echoic structure
- Anterior to the inferior Vena Cava
• What is the proper sequence producing a CT image
- Data acquisition
- Image reconstruction
- Image post processing
• What hyperparathyroidism is often detected in thyroid imaging
- Primary hyperparathyroidism
• What CT scan generation characterize by a Ring Artifact
- Third
• What position is best to visualize a transplant kidney in NUCLEAR MEDICINE
- Laterally
• What is the basis for the formula computing the value of CT number
- Linear Attenuation Coefficient for water
• What conditions is characterizing by a dilated calyces and renal pelvis
- Hydronephrosis
• What will be confused as a horseshoe kidney sonographically
- Lymphadenopathy
• What will be determine by chromatography procedure in NUCLEAR MEDICINE
- Radiochemical Purity
• What is the major factor determining the acoustic power output of the transducer
- Magnitude of the voltage spike
• What is the least obstacle of the transmission of the ultrasound
- Blood
• The radiopharmaceuticals used for dual tracer gastric emptying study
- Tc99m DTPA in water and Tc99m Sulfur Colloid Labeled eggs
• These are the hall mark of the radiographic appearance of the emphysema
- Pulmonary over inflation with flattening of domes of the diaphragm
• Aspiration Pneumonia is due to
- Vomiting
• This is possible medical diagnosis for patient who is experiencing sign and symptoms of
bronchiectasis due to mucus plugs
- Cystic Fibrosis
• A radiographic landmark of laryngotracheobronchitis is
- Hour glass sign
• The following are true statement about in emphysema
- Appearance of retrosternal is radiolucent with dirty chest appearance
- The chest is barrel shape
• If the frontal radiograph of the lower neck shows a characteristic of smooth, fusiform, tapered
narrowing subglottic airways cause by edema, this must be the hall mark of
- Spasmodic Croup
• Fracture involving cranio facial bone is classified as
- Type 3
• Because of this condition this is considered as a medical emergency
- Epiglottitis
• Pathophysiologically, the effect of emphysema in the lungs are the following
- Dyspnea in respiratory rate
- Decrease area in gastric change
• Epiglottitis can be seen clearly in
- Neck Lateral
• The hall mark manifestation in pathologic conditions is the involvement of the pleura and pleural
thickening in a plaque opacification along the lower chest due to disposition of calcification
- Asbestosis
• Main management of the lung cancer are the following
- Chemotherapy
- Radiotherapy
- Surgical resection
• This is the major type of lung cancer
- Squamous Cell Carcinoma
• This is the major type of lung cancer
- Squamous Cell Carcinoma
• Aspiration pneumonia otherwise known as
- Chemical Pneumonitis
• The presence of filling defect in the pulmonary artery complete obstruction of the pulmonary
vessel is the manifestation of
- Pulmonary Embolism
• Medically which of the following is considered a sign
- Abdominal tenderness to palpation
• This is an infection or inflammation of the alveoli acquired in the hospital
- Pneumonia Nosocomial
• The radiographic appearance of tuberculoma presence in
- Single multi nodules 1-3 cm diameter commonly the periphery of upper
lobes of the lungs
• The main pathologic problem brought above embolism
- Obstruction
• A radiographic appearance condition shows rounded thickening shadow with a configuration of
adult’s thumb
- Epiglottitis
• Medically, which of the following considered a symptom
- Vertigo
• If a radiographic diagnosis in septic embolism, the radiographic technologist knows that the
management is
- High dose of Antibiotic
• Intra bronchial foreign body usually manifested as
- Affecting the right side of the lungs with atelectasis
• This is the single most affective non-invasive technique in evaluating lung cancer and its
metastasis
- CT scan
• This treatment is effective in locally advance lung cancer, the common side effect skin irritation,
skin peeling, fatigue and taste changes
- Radiotherapy
• Patient with PTB is brought to the X-ray room for radiographic evaluation. The RT on duty must
follow this type of precaution
- Standard airborne pre-caution
• Which of the following disease is caused by a virus
- SARS
• This are the radiographic appearance of asthma
- Hyper lucent lung increase retrosternal space
• This condition appears initially in radiograph as normal in the early stage but in progressive
stage. This is considered as a typical pneumonia
- SARS
• Necrotic area in pulmonary parenchyma that has a dense center with a hazy, defined periphery
with a typical air fluid level with in the structure
- Cavity lung abscess
• This is an abnormal permanent enlargement of an air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles
- Emphysema
• This are the radiographic appearance of atelectasis concerned
- Airless lung, varying tissue in a thin plate like
• Best position for taking an adult patient with pleural effusion are
- PA view and Lateral decubitus in the affected side
• The following are the radiographic appearance emphysema
- Pulmonary hyperinflation
- Reduction in the number in size of peripheral arteries
- Chest barrel
- Chest vascular marking is prominent than usual
• A septic embolism is brought about by
- Microorganism
• The presence of Fibro Purulent fluid in the pleural space indicates this condition
- Empyema
• The following cause of pulmonary edema
- Right sided heart failure
- Left sided heart failure
- Severe bronchopneumonia
• According to the classification of the fracture in Lefort’s method involving naso-frontal suture
- Type 2
• This is the main function of esophagus
- For passage of Bulos
• Characteristic of this conditions esophagus of tracheobronchial tree is seen
- Fistula
• Demonstration of connection between esophagus
- Fistula
• Physiologically, choking and cyanosis are all present in
- Tracheoesophageal fistula
• Radiographic appearance of deeper ulceration obstruction of the esophagus condition are the
following
- Ingestion of corrosive agent

• The most definitive test for esophageal tumor is

- Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
• Ingestion of type of solution is more severe than the other type of substances
- Alkaline Ingestion
• Radiographic appearance of this condition is seen in GI series having numerus thicker folds of
the stomach above the diaphragm
- Hiatal Hernia
• Pathophysiologically Achalasia is
- Functional obstruction
• Presence of Jelly stool with a palpable shape mass and radiographic string stair case are classic
signs of this condition
- Intussusception
• What is the modern way of crushing a stone with in a urinary bladder in the urethra
- Lithotripsy
• The client with chronic renal failure complains a filling nauseated at least part of everyday. The
RT on duty knows that
- Accumulation of waste product of blood
• A client is schedule for IVP. The RT on duty should
- Checked for allergies to shellfish
• The common case of cystitis/UTI is
- Ascending infection from the urethra
• Usually what is the causative agent that could cause UTI
- Escherichia Coli
• A 54-year-old client comes to an ambulatory clinic in moderate stress, and considered as a
bladder cancer. Which of the following symptoms medical personnel most likely to expect the client
to report during assessment?
- Painless Hematuria
• A RT is with a client that has been diagnosed as having a kidney mass. The patient ask him the
reason of renal biopsy is to
- Gives specific cytological information about the lesion
• The RT on duty expect that after an intravenous pyelogram
- Encouraging increase intake pleural fluids
• Local dilation if vessel wall
- Aneurysm
• The single elongated cytoplasmic extension carrying impulses away the cell bodies
- Axon
• suffix word which is tapering or puncture
- Synthesis
• Subarachnoid space is located between in the
- Pia mater and Arachnoid
• The Genus non motile fast aerobic bacteria that include a causative agent in the lungs is termed
as
- Mycobacterium
• The subarachnoid space is located between the
- Pia mater and Arachnoid
• What is vertigo?
- Dizziness
• Which of the following tumor is malignant?
- Adenoma
• This condition shows a large amount of cerebro spinal fluid in the ventricles
- Hydrocephalus
• Which of the following is the very serious infection of the brain
- Encephalitis
• Which of the following is the injury of the brain cause by severe impact
- Contusion
• Which of the following combining means to be numb or analgesic
- Narc/o
• Anatomically, most common cause of back pain in a 55 years old men is a
- Lumbosacral
• In the practice of fundamentals transfer of patient in the radiology room in order to avoid back
pain, least principle
- Must be observed a used of proper body mechanics
• Tetraplegia known as
- Paralysis of neck down
• When a poisons fall form the 3rd floor of the building the mechanism of injury is
- Axial Loading
• Patient from vehicle accident needs to be assist immediately except
- Assessment of gags reflux
• Autonomic dysflexia is associated with
- Neurogenic bladder
• Main management of cervical, lumbar, and sacral injuries fracture is
- Immobilization
• Diagnosis and knowledgement of multiple sclerosis EXCEPT
- Intension tremor decrease motor coordination
• A 23 years old patient was admitted due to paralysis in the ICU, an emergency tracheostomy
due to the development of decreasing respiratory. The RT on duty must prepare an MRI equipment
and procedure and understand that the pathology was
- Immune starts to destroy myelin sheath that surrounds the axon resulting
to segmental dymyelation
- (Nodes of Ranvier)
• Radiographic assessment of the brain in the cerebral blood vessels
- Computed Angiography
• The following are the signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease EXCEPT
- Headache
• The client with myasthenia Gravis in Gillian Barrie syndrome or amyotrophic internal sclerosis to
experience
- Increase risk of respiratory complications
• The client with myasthenia gravis while undergoing radiographic procedure
- Decrease the number of function acetylcholine receptor
• Following spinal cord injury that the physician indicates client’s paraplegic. The family ask the RT
what does it means and he explain that the
- Lower extremity are paralyze
• A client with spinal cord injury has a paraplegia. The RT recognized that one major early problem
will be
- Bladder control
• This are the parts of central nervous system
- Brain and spinal cord
• Which is not part of autonomic nervous system
- Skeletal muscle
• The following increases transmission of impulses in the nervous system
- Nodes of Ranvier and myelin sheaths
• A laborer fell from the 3rd floor of the building where he is employed as a Mason. Upon through
neurological examination, he was found to have a deficit cerebellum. The RT on duty knows that the
function of cerebellum
- Coordinate voluntary movement and maintains trunk stability and
equilibrium
• Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI are tested together for
- Constriction, Converging, and Accommodation
• The test for cerebellum are the following EXCEPT
- Proprioception test, light touch, finger to nose
• A patient who is a victim of mauling and stoning is admitted to ER and has neurologic
manifestations. He has an abnormal injury and eyes that reacts only when response to pain. The
Glass glow scale is
- 7”
• Which type of stroke is not included in the group
- Hemorrhagic stroke
• Hemorrhagic stroke
- Aneurysm
• All statements are true regarding dementia EXCEPT
- Debilitating decrease affecting ability and is characterize tremor and
achalasia
• While waiting to transfer the patient, the RT expect that this area should be
- Assist either the level of unconsciousness
• Which of the following have a personal expect to assist most commonly possible increase in
intracranial pressure
- Headache and Vomiting
• Hydrocephalus can be most accurate. Defined as
- Progressive enlargement of head due to excessive accumulation of
cerebro spinal fluid
• Hydrocephalus is caused by
- Excessive production of impaired absorption of cerebrospinal fluid
• A 51 yr./old man has noted constant dull, right hip pain for the past 3 months. The physical
examination he has diminished range of motion of the right hip, a radiograph reveals 10 x 43 cm
mass involving the right ischium pelvis. The mass has irregular borders and there are extensive of
bony obstruction. The lesion was resected grossly, and the mass was bluish- white. Which of the
following most likely diagnosis?
- Chondrosarcoma
• A 62 years old man, no abnormal finding on his physical examination. A chest radiograph shows
no abnormality of heart or lung field but there are several lucenses noted in the vertebral bodies.
The sternal bone marrow aspirate performed yields a dark red jelly like material in the syringe.
Which of the following cell type most likely to have a numerous microscopic examination of this
aspirate?
- Giant cell
• An 11 years old boy has a pain in his left leg that has persisted for 3 weeks. On physical
examination, his temperature was 37. 9-degree C. A radiograph of his leg reveals a mass
interdiaphyseal region and the left femur overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue extension. A bone
biopsy performed and microscopic examination shows a numerous small round cell. Which of the
following neoplasm most likely to have?
- Ewing’s Sarcoma

• A 14 years’ old west African man has a history of multiple episodes’ sudden onset of severe
abdominal pain and back pain for hours. He now has a painful right hip that is tender to palpation. A
radiograph reveals irregular bony destruction of the femoral head. Which of the infections agent
most likely responsible for his findings?
- Salmonella enterica
• A 69 years old man has noted increasing back and leg pain for 3 yrs. He has greater difficulty of
healing in the left leg. On physical examination he has a decrease range in motion of the hips. A
radiograph bony sclerosis of the sacroiliac and upper tibial regions. Which of the following
conditions most likely to have?
- Paget’s disease of the bone
• An 18 years old woman, was noted pain and swelling of her right distal thigh associated activity
for the past years. She has no history of trauma, on examination after performing exercise
tenderness of the palpation of the right knee. A radiograph shows expansive eccentric lytic lesion
located in the metaphysis of the distal femur that is surrounded by rim of reactive new bone. Which
of the following bone disease is she most likely to have?
- Aneurysmal Bone cyst
• A 16 years old boy has noted a pain in his left knee after each hockey practice session for the
past months. On examination there is tenderness to palpation of his left knee, with reduced range of
motion. A plain radiograph of the left leg reveals a mass of the proximal tibial metaphysis that
erodes bone cortex, lifting up into the periosteum reacted new bone is apparent. The mass due to
not extend of the epiphyseal region. A bone biopsy is performed and microscopic examination
shows atypical elongated cells with hyperchromatic nuclei in a osteoid stroma. Which of the
following neoplasm is he most likely to have?
- Osteosarcoma
• A 15 years old girl is noted to be developing odd, twisted appearance to her back for the past 3
years. On examination she is tall and thin. A radiograph reveals an abnormal lateral bowing of the
spine with 20 degree lateral curvature in the mid-thoracic region.
- Asymmetrical cartilage growth of the vertebral body end plates
• A 23 years old man notes some minor discomfort over the lateral of his right knee after a day
working in a cramped (because the IT put the desktop work station on the floor). On the physical
examination he has a palpable “bump” in this region. A radiograph of the knee lateral bony
projection from the lower femoral metaphysis there is no adjacent soft tissue swelling compose of 3
cm of bony cortex. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?
- Osteochondroma
• A 45 years old woman has had a worse breathing for 9 years. She has known to sleep in sitting of
2 pillows. She has had a difficulty for the past years. She has now a history. A month ago she had a
stroke with resultant ability to move her left arm she is fibril. A chest radiograph reveals normal
ventricular with a prominent left atrial border. Which of the following conditions is most likely to
account for her finding?
- Mitral Vein Stenosis
• A 72 years old woman had no major illness. Throughout her life she has had three syncopal
episodes during the past 2 weeks after the past 2 days she has develop short breathing and cough.
On physical examination she has a febrile her blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. She has no proliferal
edema. A chest radiograph reveals a prominent region of the left ventricle. Which of the following is
most likely diagnosing?
- Calcific Aortic Stenosis

• An 80 years old woman has had no major problems, but she has never been physically active for
most of her life. One day she falls out to her bed and immediately notes a sharp pain in her left hip,
she is subsequently unable to ambulate without severe pain. A radiographs show not only a fracture
for the left femoral head but also a compress fracture of a T10. Which of the following condition is
most likely to have?
- Osteoporosis
• An otherwise 44 years old man with no prior medical history has had increasing bad pain and
the right hip pain for past decay. The pain is worst at the end of the day. On the physical
examination he has bone enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. A radiograph of the spine
reveals the presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies. There is a sclerosis
narrowing the joint space of the right acetabulum seen in the radiograph of the pelvis. Which is
likely to have the condition?
- Osteoarthritis
• The earliest sonographic findings seen by a normal pregnancy
- Intradecidual Sac Sign
• Which of the following would be considered abnormal in the first trimester of pregnancy
- An embryo with a heart rate of 70 bpm
• Which one of the following combination of measurement are routinely obtained to determine
gestational age
- Bicipital diameter, head circumference, abdominal circumference and
femur length
• Three minimum structures of fetal brain are
- Cavuum septi pellucidi, cisterna magna, and ventricular atrium
• In performing the Ct urography, when it is best to administered fluorocimide
- In all patients, as long as there is no history of allergic drug
• In which of the following patient with CT urography (including scans before and after IVP
contrast material) indicated a
- 70 years old woman with a gross hematuria
• Which of the following is also administered in addition to IVP gadolinium when performing
excretory MRI urography
- IV Saline and Flourocimide
• Which of the following is true about using gadolinium enhance MR urography for the upper
trunk transitional carcinoma
- It should be perfomed as the first line imaging instead of CT urography
• Which is true regarding T2 weighted MR urography
- It requires an IV Gadolinium
• All of the following are changes in cirrhosis that maybe seen in the liver imaging EXCEPT
- Dilatation heading of biliary tree
• A 1.5 nodule in cirrhotic liver that demonstrate per intensity T1 weighted imaging, ISO intensity
on T2 weighted imaging but without enhancement of arterial imaging relative parenchyma to
represent
- Dysplastic nodule
• Hepatic fibrosis, which of the following is true
- Fibrosis is usually associated with volume and refraction of liver capsules
rather than mass affect
• Pseudo cirrhosis associated with metastatic breast cancer, the liver may demonstrate of the
following patterns of lobes contour abnormality
- Absent refraction of capsule
- Wide spread refraction of the capsule
- Diffused nodularity
• For esophageal cancer, Which of the following neo adjuvant. FDG, PET/CT.
- Used for detection of new interval metastasis that is not present in the
base line imaging
• In lung cancer staging which one of the following statement is true regarding PET/CT
- Improves detection of distant metastasis compared conventional imaging
• Which is a potential cause of acetabular labial tear
- Trauma
- Femoral acetabular impingement
- Hip dysplasia
• Possible sign of femoral acetabular impingement includes
- An osseous prominent
- Bump in a femoral neck junction
• The best imaging exam for acetabular labral tear
- MR Arthrography
• Which of the following is true regarding to arthrography of the hip
- MR arthrography has a high sensitivity in accuracy of at least 90% of labral
tear
• In newborn chest shows diffuse opacification with hour glass appearance. Which one question is
most helpful in making a correct diagnosis
- What is the gestational age
• With ground glass, which one is the most helpful in ancillary findings
- Pleural effusion
• A newborn has aspirated meconium respiratory distress. What is pattern do expect to see the
CXR
- Coarse reticular
• All of the following are diagnose prenatally by ultrasound or MRI Except
- Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
• All of the following can stimulate MR ankylosing spondylitis EXCEPT
- Splenectomy
• The pattern of a current cardiomegaly with increased pulmonary blood flow is seen with
- Respiratory distress syndrome
• All of the following are possible complication bacterial infection in children EXCEPT
- Pulmonary blastoma
• What is the most definitive test for diagnosing CNS vasculitis
- CT angiography with volume rendering
• What are the characteristic MRI findings of the disseminated cerebral aspergalosis in immuno
compromise patients
- Numerous Foci of restricted diffusion in the corticum medullary junction
• If a patient is to receive an iodine contrast medium you should ask the patient which question
- Are you allergic to shellfish?
• Which of the following questions would you ask the patient before the chest x-ray
- Did you eat before coming for the test?
• If the Intensity decreasing order
- SPTP, SATP, SATA
• If the intensity of sound beam remains unchanged and the beam area is reduced in half, what
happens to the power
- Halved
• Which procedure is diagnostic irregularity compression of the spinal cord
- Ultrasound
• Which of the FF used to diagnose upper, gastro intestinal bleeding
- Retrograde pylogram

• Which procedure include non-ionizing radiation and strong, magnetic field allow the physician
to exam internal structures and soft tissue of the body
- Nuclear medicine imaging
• What would you tell in a patient for preparation of barium enema
- Instruct the patient to follow all liquid diet beginning in the morning
procedure.
• Using ultrasound harmonics, what change do we see in the wavelength
- Halved
• Relating to the thyroid of the value of T3 and T4 is increased with a value of THS
- Decrease
• Sonogrophically Echinococcus granulosus or (Hydatid disease) will have characterize
- Cystic structure of the double wall
• Majority secretion of the adrenal medulla and cortex is what?
- Epinephrine
• Name the “sign” of associated dilated common bile duct
- Shotgun
• A benign mass composed of a tangled in the blood vessel of the liver.
- Hemangioma
• Local fatty infiltration, enlarge caudate lobe increase liver echogenicity.
- Fatty liver disease
• What structure may cause the IVC to push anteriorly?
- Lymph nodes
• What age can contact seminoma?
- 15-35
• Focal fatty infiltrate, focal fatty sparring, enlarged caudate lobe and increased liver echogenecity
is what disease?
- Fatty liver
• What common microorganism is opportunistic in infection of px. with AIDS?
- Pneumocytis carinii pnuemonia
• What is the ultrasound frame rate?
- BETWEEN 5mhz to 50mhz
• Term for concentration of matter.
- Density
• When the length of a vessel is halved,
- The resistance is halved
• Beam is narrowest in what the portion?
- Focus
• Area where the velocity is the highest.
- Within the center of the lumen
• Type of artifact causes an ultrasound reflection to be placed at an incorrect depth.
- Range ambiguity
• The width of the beam depends on what?
- Depth
• The diameter of a disc shaped unfocused piezoelectric crystal is 5 mm. Estimate the minimum
lateral resolution of the system.
- 2.5 mm
• I-P / area is equation of what?
- Intensity
• Ultrasound is a cyclic sound pressure with a frequency greater than the upper limit of human
hearing. At what value does ultrasound begin?
- Greater than 20 kHz
• The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that the machine can use when imaging is
limited by the
- Depth of penetration
• Mirror image artifact is caused by;
- Reflection of ultrasound by highly reflective tissue interfaces
• The slice thickness (or elevation plane) of ultrasound can cause?
- Liquid filled structure to fill echo on adjacent structure on the same depth
• The term DUTY FACTOR is defined as?
- The transit pulse duration divided by the time between one transit pulse
to the next
- (rationale: duty factor = pulse duration / pulse repetition period)
-
• When ultrasound frequency increases, the doppler shift?
- Increases
• An advantage of spatial compound scanner is that it:
- Reduce speckle
• The doppler ultrasound spectral mirror artifact occurs when?
- The doppler angle is at 90%
• The color doppler frequency alliasing occurs?
- When the color doppler prp is too low
• Doppler frequency alliasing can be reduce or eliminate by?
- decreasing the ultrasound frequency
• Imaging tissue harmonic:
- Increase image resolution
- reduce slice thickness artefact
- reduce side lobe artifact
• The width of ultrasound beam on focus will be decrease by?
- Both frequency and aperture width will be increase
• Harmonic imging is used in conjuction with contrast agent because it?
- Increases in echogenecity on contrast agent relative on tissue
• Echo enhancement is present on tissue that have?
- Low attenuation
- (RATIONALE: acoustic/ echo enhancement has increased echogenic energy
or hyperechoic energy behind low attenuating tissue such as fluid filled
structure: ex cyst, urinary bladder gallbladder)
• A patient with a known mass in the left medial segment. What anatomical landmark is used to
separate left medial segment to right anterior segment?
- Medial hepatic vein
• A patient with an enlargement on the caudate lobe of the liver. What anatomical landmark is
used to differentiate the anterior border of the caudate lobe?
- Fissure of ligamentum venousum
• You are to rule out the recannulization of paraumbilical. What anatomical landmark is used to
differentiate this structure?
- Ligamentum teres
• Which vessel courses of main lobar
- Middle hepatic vein
• Oxygenated blood is supplied to the liver
- Portal vein and hepatic artery
• You are performing sonogram slender female, notice the extension of inferior aspect of the right
lobe of the liver. This is most likely represent
- Riedel’s lobe
• The slice thickness (or elevation plane) of the ultrasound can cause:
- Liquid filled structure to fill echo on the adjacent structure on the same
depth.
• The duty factor is defined as:
- The transit pulse duration divided by the time between one transit pulse
to the next. (FORMULA: DF=PD/PRP)
-
• You identified a single, homogenous, hyperechoic lesion measuring 2.4cm on the posterior
aspect of the right lobe of the liver. What describes this mass?
- Cavernous Hemangioma
• A patient is referred for sonographic liver to rule out metastatic disease, what best describe for
the appearance of liver metastasis?
- All of the above are associated with liver metastasis
• Which is NOT a feature of hepatic cyst?
- Increase attenuation
• You scan the liver a noticed an irregularities on the surface of the liver. A nodular liver surface is
characterized by this classic abnormality?
- Cirrhosis
• Which is NOT TRUE on fatty liver?
- Is an irreversible disorder
• It is the common term on benign tumor on the liver?
- Cavernous Hemangioma
• You scan the liver and noticed a luminar narrowing on the hepatic vein. The Color and Specular
Doppler reveals high velocity on the stricture, this describes what abnormality?
- Cirrhosis
• This is associated with invasion of the portal vein?
- Hepatocellular Carcinoma
• Which is not an acoustic variable?
- Intensity
• What sonographic wave is ultrasonic and is least useful in the diagnostic imaging?
- 30 kHz
• What is the frequency of wave with a 1msec period?
- 1 kHz
• The unit output of sound intensity
- Decibel (DB)
• The beam intensity is increase by which of the ff:
- One million times
• The more pixel per inch
- Better spatial resolution
• Greater output intensity
- Pulse doppler
• The thermal index=30 indicates
- Tissue temperature may rise 3 degrees
• What is the best lateral resolution
- 0.06 cm
• If the frequency decreases, the numerical value of radial resolution
- Increase
• If the transducer diameter increases, the lateral resolution at its smallest dimension is
- Increase
• Subarachnoid space in the skull is located between the
- Pia Mater & Arachnoid
• The branch that supply the blood to the brain?
- Circle of Willis/ Arterial Circle
• What is the other term for vertigo?
- Dizziness
• Which of the following is nonmalignant tumor?
- Adenoma
• Which of the following have increased amount of CSF in the ventricles?
- Hydrocephalus
• What is the severe inflammation of the brain?
- Encephalitis
• In radiology department, what is the method to reduce or minimize back strain?
- Body Mechanics
• Enhancement, multipath & side nodules result in
- Artifact
• When the transducer increases, the lateral resolution of its smallest dimension is
- Increased
• When we increase frequency the near zone
- Increased
• When the frequency is decreased, the numerical value of the radial resolution is
- Increased
• Which of the following has the best lateral resolution?
- 0.06 cm
• Which is/are of the following the unit of longitudinal resolution?
- Feet/Foot
• The range equation relates the distance of the reflector to ____ & ____
- Time flight & propagation speed
• Which of the following sets of properties of a test phantom is the most relevant in measuring
the depth collimation accuracy?
- Propagation Speed
• Assuming a constant frequency, and an increase in the diameter of an unfocused circular
transducer will result to
- Beam of the near field increased
• Changing which of the ff would not affect the hard copy imaging
- Display brightness and contrast
• What are the typical chemical Doppler frequency
- 1 to 10 MHz
• What is the amount of attenuation of 6 MHz in 0.5 cm of the same tissue
- 2dB
• How many bits are needed to represent 14 shades of gray?
- 4
• What artifact has a grainy appearance and caused by interference effects of scattered sound?
- Speckle
• Multiple reflections are equally in space is called
- Reverberation
• The angle between ultrasound pulse and two medium at 90°. What it is called?
- Orthogonal Incidence
• Refraction occurs when:
- Oblique surface and different propagation speed
• Sound travelling from medium 1 to medium 2 propagation speed measures 1600 m/s, 1500 m/s
respectively. The oblique incidence
- Angle of incidence= angle of reflection
• Depth calibration measures 100 mm spaced wires to be 90 mm reflectors 50 mm. what will the
machine calculate the distance?
- 450 mm
• In an analog screen converter. What components store the image data?
- Dielectric mix
• When the ultrasound machine displays only high reflective objects sonography should?
- Increase Output Power
• At what location of the sound beam SPTA intensity the highest?
- Focal point
• What can pulse Doppler measures that a continuous wave cannot?
- Location
• What is the fraction of time that is sound transmitting?
- Duty Factor
• If the ff. SPTA is equal which would have the lowest SPPA?
- Continuous wave
• The DB is defined as the ______ two intensities.
- Ratio
• You undergo quality assurance study using a tissue equivalent phantom. By adjustment using
the knob of the control console system by changing the range from highly bright to fairly visible.
What are you evaluating?
- System sensitivity
• Which of the following is not a measure of area?
- Cubic Meter
• If a power of a sound wave is increased by 8, how many decibel is this?
- 9db
• Which of the following is true of all waves?
- All carry energy from one to another
• If the system is set at 0db at full intensity, what is the output power when uses 10db at full
intensity.
- 10 db
• According to AIUM, statement of bioeffect, that no confirm of bioeffect below intensity _____.
Watt per square cm SPTA.
- 0.1
• Which of the following is not a measure of area?
- Cubic meter
• Which of the following is true of all waves?
- Both carry energy to one side to the other
• Force is applied to a surface, if the force is tripled with the surface area were the force is applied
is also triple. What is the pressure?
- Unchanged
• Which of the following units are appropriate to describe the period of acoustic wave.
- Minutes
• Two waves arrive at the same location and interfere the resultant sound wave smaller than
either of the two original wave is called
- Destructive interference
• ultrasound is defined with frequency of
- Greater than 0.02 MHZ
• Compare two sound wave. A and B. The frequency of wave A is one third to the wave B. How
does the period of wave A is compared to wave B?
- Is three time longer than B
- Note: Frequency and wavelength is inversely proportional!
• What sound wave is ultrasonic and least useful in diagnostic imaging?
- 24 kHz
• What is the unit of power?
- Watts
• The maximum value of density is 60lb/in squared, while the maximum value of density is 20lb/in
squared. What is the amplitude wave?
-
20lb/in2
• The final amplitude of sound wave is reduced to one half. The final power is _____ to the
original power?
- None of the above
• If the frequency is decreased the numerical value of radial exposure is
- Increased
• A complication of cushing syndrome the attending radiologic technologist must be caution
- Spontaneous fracture
• Which of the following is the reeaon why F-18 (Flourodioxideglucose)?
- Undergoes metabolic trapping
• Clay shoveler fracture include which area of the spine?
- Cervical only
• With a given FOD measures with lower limb energies
- PDD
• Which of the following should sonographically appear as a cystic mass surrounding?
- Hydrocele
• The ability of an imaging system to detect ______ reflection.
- Sensitivity
• The chromatography procedure in nuclear medicine are used to determine
- Radionuclide purity
• Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
- Headache, Tumor and Anorexia
• The time that the transducer is crossing, 1 measured at 18s of total elapsed time. What is the
duty factor?
- 0.005
• If the frequency of a US is doubled, what happen to the period
- Halved
• If the waves amplitude is doubled, what happens to the power
- Quadrupled
• Which of the following terms best describe the relation between frequency and the length
percent
- Inverse
• Frequency closest to the lower limits of the ultrasound.
- 15,000 Hz
• The frequency of the ultrasound is increased from 0.77 MHZ to 1.54 MHZ, what happened to
the wavelength?
- Halved
• A complication of Cushing syndrome the attending Radtech must be cautious
- Spontaneous Fracture

• Clay shovelers fracture involve which area of the spine?

- Cervical only
• Which of the following infection acquired in the hospital with the inflammation of alveoli?
- Nosocomial Pneumonia
• Which of the following should sonographically appear as a cystic mass surrounding
- Hydrocele
• The ability of imaging system to detect ____reflection.
- Sensitivity
• Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of parkinsons disease
- Headache, vomiting and anorexia
• The approximate CT number of water is express in HU.
- Zero
• The portion of the magnetic field extending away from the confines of the that connect and
used for imaging but can affect nearby and personnel is called
- Motion Blur
• Multi beam collimator are different from custom shape block because
- They produce scalp isodose distribution of penumbra, extremely heavy
can be produce in any size or shape
• Position to demonstrate Epiglottitis
- Neck Lateral
• Most common CT noise
- Quantum Noise
• Rupture of the spleen can be best demonstrated via
- CT
• Non- invasive technique to diagnose mitral valve
- Echocardiography
• Captopril renal scan
- For renal stenosis
• In hyperthyroidism, most common functional study
- Increase in SHF and high T4
• In the treatment of head and neck immobilation is important because
- In close proximity with radiosensitive organ
• Thickening shadow with a thumb like appearance can be best demonstrated in lateral neck.
- Epiglottitis
• The 1st portion of the kidney to become visible after injection of contrast medium?
- Calyces
• What radiotherapy machine operates of the principle of the electron accelerate in a circular
orbit in changing magnetic field?
- Betatron
• The appropriate quality use for dose calculation speck
- HDD
• Which of the following procedures is also known as short distance therapy?
- Brachytherapy
• The sonogram such as mass in the head of the pancreas. The sonographer should
- Outline the hepatic artery and splenic artery to determine weather they
are dilated

• The mechanisms of Radiopharmaceutical localization in Lung Scanning

- Active Transport
• What type of radiotherapy machine operates 50-156 kv potential range
- Orthovoltage
• A flattening filters
- Reduces the dose rate in the center of unfiltered beam
• The geometric factor that greatly affects spatial resolution in CT Scan
- Focal Spot Size
• The ratio of pressure of particle velocity of a given point between an ultrasound beam is
- Impedance
• The process by which the entire data is set is used for high quality images
- Image Matrix
• The characteristics of ultrasound pattern of duodenal atresia
- Chadwick’s sign
• Isocenter is
- The point of central axis where the maximum dose occurs
• Ring artifacts are characteristics of
- 3rd Generation CT
• Which of the following is an example of a radiosensitizers
- Hydroxyurea (hydroxyures)
• When an 0.5 cm margin is added to all sites to a 15x15 cm field the added are
- 15 cm2
• When pelvic radiation delivered in an obese patient the advantage of prone position is that
- The abdomen is flattened against the couch and compressed and causing
the small bowel to move anteriorly
• Normal appearance of structures in ultrasonic measures of gb diameter
- 3mm
• Survey meters are
- Detect the source of radiation
• Which of the following procedure is not performed with Tc99m Sulfur Colloid?
- GI Bleed studies
• The computation of an unknown value to known value
- Extrapolation
• Which of the following diagnosis does not limit the sonographic characteristic of hyaditid form
mole?
- Missed Abortion
• The common cause of cystitis or urinary tract infection
- Infection from the ureters and kidneys
• What is the standard MRI pulse sequence can provide T1, T2 and Proton density weighted
images?
• - - planar Imaging
• The axial scan can be obtained by placing the transducer in the parietal bone just above the
- External Auditory Meatus
• Fibro purulent fluid in the pleural spaces indicates which of the following condition?
- Empyema
• What type coil is directly placed in the patient that is used in imaging of superficial structure?
- Surface Coil
• The process in which the arrangement is be required using a x-ray machine that works and
mimics as therapy machine that produces a quality radiograph
- Simulation
• What is the most popular RF pulse sequence because of the reduction of scan time which
consist of 90-degrees pulse that initiates upon saturation sequence and followed by 180-degree
pulse and 50% of the echo time?
- Spin Echo
• Hemorrhage on CT scans becomes isodense after how many hours?
- 24 hrs.
• A Lucite tray inserted in the path of the beam can be considered
- Beam spoiler
• Which of the following procedures short distance therapy?
- Brachytherapy
• Which of the following has not a low LET radiation
- Proton
• The mechanism of radiopharmaceutical uptake liver spleen scanning
- Phagocytosis by the RA system
• CT equipment must be frequently calibrated so that water is consistently represented by CT
number zero and other tissue with their appropriate CT number
- Uniformity
• Treatment fields a are designed by radiation oncologist margins are always added around the
tumor because of;
- Uncertainties of the tumor extent, penumbra of the beam and patient’s
motion
• This is the reduction of available space in the spinal column causing of the compression of
neural elements
- Spinal Stenosis
• Ultrasound examination of the prostate is found to be enlarged the sonographer should also
check the;
- Scrotum or Hydrocele
• The differentiation in densities in CT scan image refers to as
- Contrast resolution
• A guide for determining electron beam energy; in MeV is to
- Divide the 80% isodose line by 10 and then the maximum tumor depth in
centimeters
• Thyroiditis will appear sonographically as a
- Diffusely enlarged thyroid lobe with decreased echogenicity
• Physiologically in the effects of emphysema in the lungs involves the
 - Dyspnea and decrease in respiratory rate
- Air is stuck in alveoli
• Percentage is considered acceptable in an primary beam transmission to the __.
- 5%
• The activity of the given amount of a radioactive nuclide to ionize air molecules
- Ionizing constant

• Which of the following is the least obstacle to the transmission of UTZ?

- Fat
• Relative comparison of x-ray attenuation of voxels fat tissue to equal of matter
- Linear attenuation coefficient
• A viral inflammation of the brain in meninges is referred to as
- Encephalitis
• A technetium 99m DMSE scan is used for determining in
- Nephrolithiasis
• A magnetic resonance sequence uses a 180 degree pulse followed by a 90 degree pulse this
refers to as ____.
- Inversion Recovery
• CT artifact that is most common in scanning the base of the skull?
- Beam Hardening
• Which of the following is an injury of the brain caused by severe impact?
- Contusion
• Sonographically the gastroesophageal junction can be visualized?
- Sonographically cannot be recognized
• The most definitive test for esophageal tumor?
- CT
• The characteristic of this condition that ends in a blind pouch?
- Esophageal Diverticula
• Which of the following term refers to the excessive carbon dioxide in the blood?
- Hypercapnia
• What term refers to hernia protrusion of the urinary bladder?
- Vesicocele
• Which of the following involves the emission of a signal from a patient?
- Projection Recovery
• Which of the following refers to the net measurement of radiation dose that demonstrate of
radiation throughout patient’s body?
- Dosimetry
• Which of the following deals with the measurement of absorbed dose from ionizing radiation
with matter?
- Radiation Dosimetry
• What is the condition refers to the presence of cavities in the pons
- Punto bulbia
• What is the another term for alpha particle
- 2 Protons
• Which of the following describe the special case of Compton effect if the photon scattered right
angle to its original direction and the angle emission depends on the energy
- Gazing hit
• What is the approximate velocity of sound
- 5000 m/s
• Which of the following detectors gives information about energy distribution of an incident
radiation
- Dosimetry
• The principal advantage of CT over conventional tomography is
- Reduced patient dose
• Which type of monitoring device is used to measure radiation base on the change of thermal
energy per unit mass of the medium
- Calometry
• The approximate CT number of water is expressed in HU
- Zero

• What does the term metastasis mean

- Spread of cancer to a distant side tumor
• Which of the following disease involves chronic inflammation in the intestine?
- Crohn’s disease
• Multi beam collimator are different from custom shape block became,
- They produce scalloped isodose distribution of penumbra, extremely
heavy can be produced in any size
• A cobalt 60 source comes from what stable element
- Cobalt 59
• What part of LINAC machine produce electron
- Electron Gun
• The portion of the magnetic field extending away from the confines of the _____ that connect
and use for imaging but can affect nearby or personnel is called.
- Fringe field
• What is the common fringe is used for palliative treatment
- Parallel opposed