UNIT

1 ELECTROSTATICS

SECTION - E
43. (A) (c) (D) (b) lose potential energy.
Explanation: The electric field exerts a
constant force on the charge and thus
the charge is moving under a constant
acceleration. The velocity of charge will
Explanation: Electric field lines originate keep on increasing as long as it is in
at the positive charge and terminate at the field. Since the field is always in the
the negative charge. Hence, electric lines of direction of higher to lower potential hence
force cannot form closed loops. the potential energy of the charge will
decrease as it moves along the direction of
Caution
the electric field.
 The student should not get confused between electric
and magnetic field lines. Analogous in many areas
they have certain differences. The magnetic fields Related Theory
do not have isolated poles which make the magnetic  Electric potential can be defined as the amount of
field lines a closed loop. Whereas electric field lines do work done to bring the unit positive charge from
not form closed loops.
infinity to that particular point. The electric field lines
(B) (c) EA = EB > EC go from higher potential to lower potential. So, the
electric field points out in the direction in which the
Explanation: Given,
potential energy function decreases.
B
A 44. (A) (d) 9 × 109 Nm2C–2

Explanation:
C
1
K=
4πε0
= 9 × 109 N m2 C–2

We know that, number of electric field lines (B) (a) 1 : 1
crossing is proportional to the magnitude q1q2
Explanation: F =
of charge. 4πε0r 2
A point ‘C’ there is no electric field line
and charge on electron = charge on proton
crossing so we can say charge at that point ⇒ Ratio will be 1 : 1.
is negligible or zero.
(C) (c) 1 : 1
EA = EB > EC
Explanation: Force between two charges
(C) (b) They always form closed loops.
are equal and opposite. Therefore, the
Explanation: Electric field lines originate required ratio is 1 : 1.
at the positive charge and terminate at
the negative charge. Hence, electric lines
(D) (c) 6 N
of force cannot form closed loops. The Explanation: As, F' ∝ q1q2
field inside a conductor is always zero
F' = q1' q2' ( +8 + 4 )( −6 + 4 )
due to presence of the free electrons =
F q1q2 ( +8)( −6 )
hence conductors behave as equipotential
surface. Therefore, field lines are always
F' −24 1
perpendicular to a conducting surface. In = =
12 −48 2
an uniform electric field, lines of force are
equally spaced. So, F' = 6 N

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 45. (A) (d) independent of a 46. (A) (c) 25 N
Explanation: Electric field at r = R Explanation:
KQ q1 q2
E= 2
, F1 = k =100
R d2
Q = total charge on the nucleus
= Ze 2q1 2q2
F2 = k
(4d )2
KZ
E= e 1 (F )
R2 = 1
4
So, electric field is independent of a.
F1
3Ze F2 = =25

(B) (a) 4
πR3
Explanation: (B) (a) +x-axis
Q = ∫ ρ.4πr dr 2 Explanation: Protons being positively
charged follow the field and hence go in
d the same direction as the field i.e., + x-axis.
r= (R − r )
R (C) (b) Towards +3q
R
d Explanation: Since the net field is pointed
Q= ∫ (R − r )4πr 2dr away from the +3q charge hence the
0
R
electron move towards the +3q charge.
(D) (b) Repulsive
4πd  
R R
 R ∫ r 2dr − ∫ r 3dr 
Q= R   Explanation: After coming in contact
 0 0 
briefly, they both will acquire same charge
+ q − 2q = −q .
4πd  R 4 R 4  πdR 3
Q=  − = 2 2
R  3 4 3
Since, they both have same sign. Hence,
πdR 3 they will repel each other.
Q = Ze =
3 47. (A) (a) increases
3Ze Explanation: The electron has negative
d= 3
. charge. When an electron is approaching
πR
towards another electron, then due to

(C) (c) a = R same negative charge repulsive force is
Explanation: For a uniformly charged solid, produced between them. So, to bring them
ρr closer a work is done against the repulsive
E=
3ε0 force. This work is stored in the form
of electrostatic potential energy. Thus,
⇒ E ∝ r, ρ should be constant through out
electrostatic potential energy of system
the volume of nucleus. This is possible only
when, a = R increases.

E (B) (d) Zero

Explanation: If UA and UB are the

electrostatic potential energies of the
r
charges at the points A and B respectively,
a=R then work done.
(D) (c) Electric field cannot be calculated as
W = UB – UA
data is insuffcient.
Since, QA = QB = –Q,
Explanation: We do not know the exact
location of the point P whether it lies −KQq
UB = UA =
between r = 0 to r = a or r = a to r = R. a
So, we can't calculate electric field. W = UB – UA = 0

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 (C) (c) 8q2 1
E= CV2
Explanation: 2
dU = UD – UC 1 εA
E= (Udd)2
2 d
1 q2q3
Now, UC = . 1  εA 
4πε0 BC = eA dUd2 ∵C = 
2  d 
1 q2q3
= . (C) (b) 0.221 nF
4πε0 (0.3)2 + ( 0.4 )2 Explanation: The capacitance of parallel
plate capacitor is given as,
1 q2q3 ε0 A
= .
4πε0 0.5 C=
d
1 1 q2q3 q2q3
8.85×10-12 ×30×50×10-4
and UD = 4πε . BD = 4πε . 0.1 C=
0 0 (6×10-3 )

1 q2q3 1 q2q3 C = 0.221 × 10–9 F
∴ dU = . – .
4πε0 0.1 4πε 0 0.5 C = 0.221 nF.
(D) (c) 5 µF
q3 q3 Explanation: The arrangement is equivalent
dU =
4πε0
(10q2 − 2q2 ) =
4πε0
(8q2 ) to a parallel combination of two capacitor,
A
Hence, from question, each with plate area and separation d,
2
q3 q3
k = 8q2 C = C1 + C2
4πε
0 4πε 0 ε0 A
k = 8q2 C = (k1 + k2)
2d 
(D) (b) r
 Aε 
Explanation: V = – xy ∵C 0 = 0 = 1 µF 
 d 
δV
Now, Ex = – =y
δV 1
C = (k1 + k2)
2
δV
Ey = – =x 1
δx \ C = (4 + 6) = 5 mF
So, E =r 2
49. (A) (c) 2 : 1
ε0 ( n − 1) A
48. (A) (c) Explanation: Effective separation between
d the plates becomes half due to introduction
Explanation: For n number of plates in an d
of metallic slab of thickness .
interleaved capacitor, the total capacitance 2
would be
As capacitance is inversely proportional to
Aε0
C= (n – 1) = (n – 1) C0. separation between plates so capacitance
d
becomes double of the initial capacitance.
ε0 A
where, C0 = is the capacitance for Related Theory
d
 The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is,
a single plate and n is the number of ε0 A
interleaved plates. C=
d

1 (B) (c) 9 mF
(B) (c) εAdUd2
2 Explanation: Let C be the capacity of each
condenser
Explanation: A parallel plate capacitor can
only store a finite amount of energy before 1 1 1 1
= + +
dielectric breakdown occurs. The maximum Cs C C C
energy that the capacitor can store is, 3
=
therefore, C

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 C
(B) (d) zero
Cs =
= 1 µF
3 Explanation: The electrical potential at any
∴ C = 3 mF point on circle of radius a due to charge Q
Cp = C1 + C2 + C3 at its center,
= 3C = 3 × 3 = 9 mF
(C) (b) halved I Q
V=
4πεo a
Explanation: Common potential difference
across capacitors,
q1 + q2
VC = a
C1 + C 2

q+0 q Q
= =
C +C 2C
V
⇒ VC =
2 It is an equipotential surface. Hence, work
1 done in carrying a charge q round the circle
Initial energy, Ui = CV2
2 is zero.
2
1 V 1 Related Theory
Final energy, Uf = [2C]   = Ui
2 2
  2  Students should know that the electrostatic field
1
Hence, total electrostatic energy of varies as , whereas the electrostatic potential
resulting system decreases by a factor of 2. r2
1
varies as . This requirement must be kept in mind
CV 2 r
(D) (a)
2d when trying tasks, both conceptual and numerical.
Explanation: Total electric field between

(C) (b) the electric field is zero
the plates of the capacitor,
V Explanation: As we know that electric field
ET =
d
dV
intensity, E=−
Then, electric field due to only one plate, dr
V
E= dV = 0
2d
So by the above relation,
∴ Force of one plate on another,
F =E×Q dV
E =−
= E × CV dr
E =0
V
= × CV
2d Hence, the electric field is not uniform.
CV 2 If some charge is present inside the region
=
2d then electric field cannot be zero at that

50. (A) (d) zero region, for this V = constant is not valid.
Explaination: Work done to move a unit
Related Theory
charge along an equipotential surface from
P to Q,  The electric field intensity E and electric potential V is
Q→ → dV
related as E = − .
W =– dr
∫ E . dl
P
(D) (c) Only charges C and A are positive.
→ →
On equipotential surface E ⊥ dl Explanation: Here, in the figure, the electric

Q
lines of force emanate from (A) and (C).
Therefore, charges (A) and (C) must be
W =– ∫ E( dl ) cos 90° = 0
P positive.

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 UNIT

2 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
SECTION - E
21. (A) (b) non-ohmic conductors Equivalent resistance,
Explanation: 1 1 1 1
= + +
The electric current is proportional to the RP R1 R 2 R 3
voltage, in ohmic conductors.
1 1 1 1 6
I ∝V = + + =
RP 4 6 12 12
It gives linear relationship. The graph
between the electric current and voltage is RP = 2 Ω
straight line passing through the origin. So, the total resistance, R = (2 + 2) Ω
The I – V characteristics shown in the figure
V 4
is non-ohmic conductor. Battery current, I = = =1A
R 4

(B) (a) V

(B) (d) 1 V
Explanation: The effective voltage will be
E1r + E2r
Eeff =
r +r

I 1.25 + 0.75
= =1V
2
Explanation: According to ohm’s law, for a
good conductor, the graph between voltage
(C) (b) 2 Ω
and current does not obey ohms law. It Explanation: Let the internal resistance of
shown some deviation from straight line. the two cells be r.
V = IR When cells are connected in series, then
current,

(C) (a) resistivity
2E
Explanation: I1 = ...(i)
R +2r 
J=sE
When cells are connected in parallel,
⇒ Jr = E Then current,
J is current density, E is electric field. E 2E
I2 = = ...(ii)
So, B = r = resistivity. r 2R + r 
R+

(D)  (a) zero 2
But, I1 = I2
Explanation: In the absence of electric field,
the electron moves in zig-zag direction as 2E 2E
⇒ =
shown in figure. So net displacement is zero, R +2r 2R + r
hence mean velocity of free electrons in a 2R + r = R + 2r
conductor at absolute temperature is zero
⇒ r= R = 2 Ω

(D) (b) 6 V

Direction of electron
Explanation: Let the internal resistance of
Net Direction or movement
(in the absence of (in presence of electric  eld) the two cells be r.
electric  eld)
1 1 1 1
22. (A) (b) 1 A = + + ......... +
req r r r
Explanation: Here, R1 = 4 Ω, R2 = 6 Ω and
R3 = 12 Ω 1 6
=
req r
Potential difference V = 4 V

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 r P R
req =
(D) (a) =
6 Q S1 +S2

Eeq 6 6 6 6 6 6 Explanation: Here, S = S1 +S2

= + + + + +
req r r r r r r Condition for balancing of the Wheatstone
36 r P R
Eeq = × bridge is, =
r 6 Q S
Eeq = 6 V
P R
23. (A) (a) 10 Ω ∴    =
Q S1 +S2
.
Explanation: Here, R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = 10 Ω
24. (A) (b) Kirchhoff's law is an extension of Ohm's
R1 R3
Since, = = 1, law.
R2 R4
Explanation: Kirchhoff's law only explains
So, it is a balanced Wheatstone bridge and conservation of charge and conservation of
no current passes through the galvanometer. energy.
As all arm resistances are equal so its
equivalent resistance of the bridge across Related Theory
the battery will be 10 Ω.  As per Kirchhoff's first law, the algebraic sum of the
currents at any junction is zero and the currents
(B) (b) 3 Ω
flowing towards the junction are always taken
Explanation: Here, R1 = R2 = R3 = 2 Ω and positive while the currents flowing away from the
new resistance of fourth arm junction are taken negative.
6 × R4
= 6+R (B) (d) 2I3 + 5I1 = 12
4

6 × R4 R  Explanation: Mathematically,
⇒ = R3  2  = 2 W
6 + R4  R1  ΣE = ΣIR
⇒ 6R4 = 12 + 2R4 Starting from BE, the product of current I3
⇒ R4 = 3 Ω and a resistor 2 Ω and the sum of product
of current I1 and the register 5 Ω in AF will

(C) (b) 2 A be equal applied voltage 12 V.
Explanation: Here, P = 10 Ω, Q = 30 Ω,
(C) (c) i1 + i2 + i4 – i3 – i5 = 0
R = 30 Ω and S = 90 Ω
It is balanced Wheatstone bridge as Explanation: In the figure, i1, i2 and i4 are

P R entering the junction while i3 and i5 are

=
Q S leaving the junction. So, we take i1, i2 and i4 are
Hence, no current flows in the galvanometer positive and i3 and i5 as negative in Kirchhoff’s
arm, so resistance 50 Ω becomes ineffective. law. This gives i1 + i2 + i4 – i3 – i5 = 0.
∴ The equivalent resistance of the circuit is:
1
(10 + 30 )(30 + 90 )
Req = 5 + (D) (c)
(10 + 30 ) + (30 + 90 ) 1A
1V 1V
Req = 35 Ω
Current drawn from the cell,
7
I= = 0.2 A 1V
35
Caution
 Students are often confused about the current flows Explanation: In circuit (c) two battery of 1 V
in the galvanometer arm. For it check the balancing are connected such that Kirchhoff's law
of the Wheatstone bridge by applying the condition
when applied gives 1 V = –1 V.
P R This is not possible. Hence, circuit (c) is not in
=
Q S
accordance with Kirchhoff's law.


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UNIT
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT
3 AND MAGNETISM
SECTION - E
41. (A) (d) 3.84 × 10–14 N, in the positive y-direction µ 0I
Explanation: Here, q = 1.6 × 10–19 C, ⇒ = 0.5 × 10–4 T
2 × (0.12)
→ ^
v = 3 × 105 i m/s µ0I
⇒ = 0.5 × 10–4 × (0.12)  ...(i)
→ ^ 2
and B = 0.8 T k At the distance of 5 cm i.e., 0.05 m from the
centre of the axis of circular loop,
The magnetic force on the electron, µ 0IR 2
→ → →
F = q[ v × B ] B= 3
→ –19
F = –1.6 × 10 ^ 2( x 2 + R 2 )2
 [3 × 105 × 0.8](- j )
→ –14
^ From equation (i)
F = 3.84 × 10 N(+ j )
Hence force is in the positive y-direction. [0.5 ×10−4 × 0.12 ×( 0.12)2 ]
–14
B=
(B) (d) 6.4 × 10 N [( 0.12)2 + ( 0.05)2 ]3 / 2
Explanation: Here, q = 1.6 × 10–19 C, = 0.39 × 10–5 T
^
5^
velocity vector, v = 3 × 10 i + 5 × 105 j , 1
^
(B) (d) x 3
B = 0.8 i
The magnetic force on the electron Explanation: Magnetic field due to current
→ →
→ carrying circular loop on its axis is:
F = q[ v × B ]
^ ^
= –1.6 × 10–19[(3 × 105 i + 5 × 105 j ) µ 0IR 2
^ B=
× 0.8 i ] 3

 2( x 2 + R 2 )2
= 6.4 × 10–14 k N
If x >> R

(C) (b) equal in magnitude but opposite in µ 0IR 2
direction Then, B=
3
Explanation: As both of the particle having 2( x 2 )2
same speed and in the same field at same
angle, they will be experiencing same 1
B∝
force but in opposite direction as they are x3
opposite in charge.
(C) (c) 2 : 1
1

(D) (d) moving in the perpendicular direction Explanation: Here, B ∝ R
Explanation: Force on a charge due to a
magnetic field B1 R2 10
= = =2
F = qvB sin θ B2 R1 5
If θ = 90°,
The ratio of magnetic field inductions pro-
Then F = qvB
duced at the centre of the coils is 2 : 1.
42. (A) (b) 0.39 × 10–5 T (D) (c) 2.5 × 106 A
Explanation: Magnetic field due to current
Explanation: Here, B = π T, R = 0.5 m
carrying circular loop on its axis is,
Magnetic field due to circular loop at the
B= µ 0IR 2
centre due to the current I is given by,
2( x 2 + R 2 )3 / 2
µ 0I 4π ×10−7 ×I
B= =
Now at the centre of circular loop, 2r 2 × 0.5
µ 0I ⇒ π × 1 = 4π × 10–7 I
B0 =
2R ⇒ I = 2.5 × 106 A

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 43. (A) (a) 2 × 10–4 N (attractive) 44. (A) (a) towards the wire.
Explanation: Here, current in each wire, Explanation: If current in parallel wires is in
I1 = I2 = 10 A, l = 1 m same direction, force of attraction is there
µ 0 I1I2 and if current in opposite direction repulsive
Force on the wire F = . l force is there.
2π d
This force is inversely proportional to
( 4π ×10−7 )×10 ×10 ×1
F= distance between two wire hence loop
2π × 0.1
will experience more attractive force then
F = 2 × 10–4 N repulsive. Therefore, loop moves towards
The current is flowing in the same direction. the wire.
Therefore the force will be attractive. (B) (c) becomes four times.
Related Theory mv
Explanation: R =
 Parallel currents attract, and antiparallel currents qB
repel in two current carrying conductors.
So, on doubling velocity and halving B will
−2F make radius four times.

(B) (c)
3
(C) (c) there may be a point on C where B and
Explanation: Force acting between two dl are perpendicular.
current carrying conductors,
Explanation: Applying Ampere's circuital
µ 0 I1I2 law,
F= . l  ...(i)
2π d
∫ B.dl = µ0(I – I) = 0
Where, d = distance between the conductors
and l = length of small conductor Also there may be the point on C, where, B
µ 0 ( −2I1 )I2 and dl are perpendicular
Now, F'= . l ...(ii) and hence,
2π (3d ) 
By dividing equation (ii) by (i), ∫ B.dl = 0
we get,
Caution
F' 2
= −  Students are often confused that which formula
F 3 they should use for finding the magnetic field.
Ampere's law gives another method to calculate the
2
⇒ F' = − F magnectic field due to a given current distribution.
3
(D) (a) 
The magnitude of magnetic moment
Related Theory now diminishes.
 Force acting between two current carrying conductors Explanation: In first case, direction of
µ0 I2I2 magnetic field is only in perpendicular
F= . l
2π d direction but when it is bent then B due to
(C) (c) 0.4 m half loop is along x-axis magnetic field due
to the other half loop is along + x-axis and
Explanation: Force per unit length acting equal in magnitude so vector sum of equal
between two current carrying conductors, and opposite B cancel out each other.
µ 0 I1I2
F= . Related Theory
2π d
 Direction of magnetic field of circular loop is
µ II perpendicular to the loop by right hand thumb rule.
d = 0 . 12
2π F 45. (A) (a) 0.6 J
−7
( 4π ×10 )×5 ×12 Explanation:
d= −5
= 0.4 m W = MB[cos q1 – cos q2]
2π ×3 ×10

(D) (d) a net attractive force towards the = 2.0 × 104 × 6 × 10–5[cos 0° – cos 60°]
conductor  1
Explanation: Two vertical forces of the = 2 × 104 × 6 × 10–5 1 − 
square loop cancel each other. The upper  2
side of the square experience more 12
= × 10–1
force than the lower side results in a net 2
attractive force towards the conductor.
= 0.6 J

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(B) (c) magnetic monopoles do not exist.  20  4 
=   = 
Explanation: For any given surface S, the  10  1 
field lines entering the surface and leaving
the surface are equal, therefore, there is no m1 5
  ⇒ =
total 'magnetic charge' build up in any point m2 3
of the space, which simply implies there is (D) (b) 2
no thing called 'magnetic monopole’s in
magnetism. Explanation: W1= MB(cos 0° – cos 90°)
W1 = MB (1 – 0) = MB
Ans. (C) (b) 8
Explanation: For a short magnet at a point Similarly, W2 = MB (cos 0° – cos 60°)
along its axial line, magnetic field is given by,  1
µ 2M W2 = MB  1 − 
B= o  2
4π r 3
3 MB
B1 r  W2 =
=  2 2
B2  r1 
3
Therefore, W1 = 2W2
B1  48  8
=   = =8 or n = 2
B2  24  1
(D) (d) 8 J 47. (A) (b) MB)
Explanation: Potential energy of a bar
magnet is given by, Explanation: q1 = 0°
U = – MB cos q and q2 = 90°
U = – 8 x 2 x cos 120° ⇒ W = MB (cos 0° – cos 90°)
−1 W = MB
As, cos 120° =
2 (B) (c) q = 0°
U =+8J
Explanation: The magnet will be in stable
46. (A) (c) 25 : 16
equilibrium in the magnetic field if, t = 0
Explanation: We know that,
⇒ MB sin q = 0
2
mA T  ⇒ q = 0°
=  B
mB  TA  i.e., When magnet aligns itself parallel to
2
the field.
mA  2.5  25 (C) (a) –4.8 × 10–2 J
d =  =
mB  2  16 Explanation: The bar magnet is aligned
along the magnetic field. This system is
36

(B) (b) considered as being in stable equilibrium.
25
Explanation: As we know, Hence, the angle q, between the bar magnet
2 and the magnetic field is 0°.
(BH )A T 
=  B Potential energy of the system = – MB cos q
(BH )B  TA  P.E. = – 0.32 × 0.15 cos 0°
(BH )A 2
36 P.E. = – 4.8 × 10–2 J
 6
d =   = –2
(D) (a) 4.8 × 10 J
(BH )B  5 25
Explanation: The bar magnet is oriented
5 180° to the magnetic field. Hence, it is in

(C) (a)
3 unstable equilibrium.
Explanation: q = 180°
2 2 Potential energy = – MB cos q
 m + m2 T  ν 
 1 =  2 = 1 P.E. = – 0.32 × 0.15 cos 180°
 m1 − m2  T1   ν2  P.E. = + 4.8 × 10–2 J

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UNIT
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
4 AND ALTERNATING CURRENTS
SECTION - E
vBl (C) (b) 6.25 mW
41. (A) (a)
R Explanation:
Explanation: The emf induced in the loop is Here, l = 0.1 m, v = 1 ms–1
due to the motion of the wire MN. The emf I = 50 A,
is, e = vBl with the positive end at N and the
v Bl B = 1.25 mT = 1.25 × 10−3 T
ε
negative end at M. The current is, I = = The induced emf is,
R R
in the clockwise direction. E = Blv
2 2
B l v The mechanical power is;
(B) (b)
R P = EI = BlvI
Explanation: The magnetic force on the P = 1.25 × 10−3 × 0.1 × 1 × 50
wire MN is, F1 = Il × B. P = 6.25 × 10−3 W
22
vB l P = 6.25 mW
The magnitude is, F1 = IlB = and is
R
(D) (a) 3.5 V
opposite to the velocity. The force on the
parts of the wire NO and PM lying in the Explanation: Given,
field cancel each other. The resultant V = 3.2 V
magnetic force on the loop is,
I = 0.6 A
2 2
therefore, F1 = B l v opposite to the velocity. r = 0.5 W
R
Blv 2 2 Using the formula,
(C) (a)
R E = V + Ir
Explanation: To move the loop at a E = 3.2 + 0.6 × 0.5
constant velocity, the resultant force on it E = 3.2 V + 0.3 V
should be zero. Thus, one should pull the
E = 3.5 V
loop with a force
So, the emf of the circuit is 3.5 V.
vB2l2
F = F1 = 43. (A) (c) Food will not be cooked.
R
Explanation: Induction cooktop uses
B2l2v 2 principle of mutual induction to generate
(D) (d)
R heat. Hence a DC source will not be able to
Explanation: The power delivered by the produce any heating effect.
B2l2v 2 .
external force is, P = F1v = (B) (a) increases when they are brought nearer.
R
Explanation: The mutual inductance M12
42. (A) (d) Fleming’s right hand rule. of coil 1 with respect to coil 2 increases
Explanation: Direction of current induced when they are brought nearer and is the
in a wire moving in a magnetic field is same as M21 of the coil 2 with respect to
found by using Fleming's right hand rule. coil 1 i.e.

(B) (d) BlvR µ0N1N2 πR12

M12 = M21 = M =
Explanation: Induced e.m.f, l
E = Blv
Current in the rod, Related Theory
 Whenever the current passing through a coil or circuit
E
I= changes the magnetic flux linked with a neighbouring
R coil or circuit will also change. Hence an emf will
Blv be induced in the neighbouring coil or circuit. This
Hence, I=
R phenomenon is called ‘mutual induction’.

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 (C) (c) contact is broken 45. (A) (b) Current
Explanation: When contact is broken, Explanation: As a step-down unit, the
current in the circuit decreases. To oppose
transformer converts high-voltage, low-
the inductor releases current and emf is
induced. This induced emf is having high current power into low-voltage, high-
value. Hence, the bulb will become suddenly current power.
bright. (B) (a) less, more
(D) (b) The device will stop working.
Explanation: If the secondary voltage
Explanation: This is because flux linkage
will be extremely low due to which the is greater than the primary voltage it is
efficiency of the device will plummet. known as a step-up transformer. Hence, in a
44. (A) (a) decreases step-up transformer, the number of turns in
Explanation: When an AC circuit contains the primary is less than the number turns in
resistor only, its power is maximum but if it
the secondary.
is replaced by an inductor, the power of the
AC circuit decreases. (C) (c) to 440 V output at 5A
(B) (d) Zero Ip εs Ns
Explanation: As the average power Explanation: = =
Is εp Np
consumed per cycle in an inductive AC
circuit is zero, there is no heating in the Ns
circuit but the inductive reactance plays the =2
Np
same role in an AC circuit as the resistance
in DC circuit. So, an inductance reduces Is = 5 A
current in an AC circuit. es = 440 V
(C) (b) returned to the source in next quarter
(D) (b) 75%
cycle.
Explanation: The average power consu- Explanation: Input voltage = 220 V
med per cycle in an inductor connected
Input current = 2 A
to an AC source is always zero. During the
first quarter of each cycle, magnetic flux Input power = Input voltage × Input current
through the inductor builds up and energy = 440 W
is stored in the inductor from the external
Output voltage = 22 V
source as the current in the circuit increases.
In the next quarter of cycle, as the current Output current = 15 A
decreases, the flux decreases and the stored Output power = Output voltage × Output
energy is returned to the source.
      current
(D) (d) 0 W
= 330 W
Explanation: In an AC circuit containing
inductor only, the voltage leads the current Output power
Effiiciency ==
π Input power
by phase angle of , so average power
2
330
=
consumed per cycle is zero. 440
π = 0.75
Pav = Vrms. Irms cos =0
2 = 75%
46. (A) (a) 70.7 V and 70.7 mA
In an AC circuit containing capacitor only,
lags voltage behind the current by the Explanation:
π The Instantaneous value of voltage is
phase angle of , so average power
2 e = 100 sin (100t)
consumed per cycle is zero Compare it with, e = e0 sin (ωt)
π We get,
Pav = Vrms. Irms cos =0
2 e0 = 100 V, ω = 100 rad s–1

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 The rms value of voltage is, (C) (b) 2.828 A

ε0 Explanation:
100
erms = = V = 70.7 V
2 2 Given equation,
e = 80 sin 100 πt ...(i)
The Instantaneous value of current is,
Standard equation of instantaneous voltage
 π is given by,
I = 100 sin  100t + 
 3  e = em sin ωt ...(ii)
Compare it with, I = I0 sin(ωt + φ) Compare (i) and (ii), we get em = 80 V
we get, where em is the voltage amplitude
–1
I0 = 100 mA, ω = 100 rad s em
Current amplitude, Im =
The rms value of current is, Z
I0 100 80
Irms = = = 70.7 mA where, Z = impedance = =4A
2 2 20
Effective current or root mean square
(B) (a) 220 2 sin (100πt)
current
Explanation: 4 4 2
Irms = = = 2 2 = 2.828 A
Here, Vrms = 220 V, f = 50 Hz 2 2

Peak value of voltage, (D) (b) 5 3 V

Explanation:
V0 = 2 Vrms = 220 2 V 2πt
ε = ε0 cos ωt = ε0 cos
The instantaneous value of voltage is, T
2π×50 ×1
V = V0 sin 2πft ε = 10 cos
600
V = 220 2 sin 2π × 50t
π
ε = 10 cos =5 3 V
V = 220 2 sin (100πt) 6

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 UNIT

5 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
SECTION - E
19. (A) (a) Electric field (C) (a) Y

E
Explanation: Electric field has zero average
value in a plane electromagnetic field. X

(B) (c) a magnetic field
Z
Explanation: The change in either field B

(electric/magnetic ) produced the other.

Explanation: The electromagnetic waves

(C) (a) the frequency of the microwaves must are transverse in nature and the electric
match the resonant frequency of the and magnetic field components vibrate
water molecules. mutually perpendicular and both
are perpendicular to the direction of
(D) (a) 2 m–1
propagation of the wave. Also both electric
ω 6 × 108 field and magnetic field have crests and
Explanation: k= = = 2 m–1 troughs at same time.
c 3 × 10 8
(D) (d) It is propagating along +ve x-axis with
20. (A) (a) speed of EM waves = speed of light
electric field oscillation along +ve y-axis.
Explanation: The speed of electromagnetic
wave is equal to the speed of light. Explanation: Given Bz = Bosin(100t – 20πx)
(B) (a) Microwaves On comparing with wave equation,
Explanation: Microwaves are used in tele- A = Aosin(kx – wt)
communication. We can deduce that wave is propagating
along +ve x-axis. Also, electric field and
Caution magnetic field and direction of propagation
 Students should memorize the uses of various parts are mutually perpendicular. Hence,
of electromagnetic spectrum. direction of electric field is along +ve y-axis.

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UNIT

6 OPTICS

SECTION - E
Now, the area will be pR2.
43. (A) (a) WATER
Therefore,
18º πd 2
Surface area, pR2 =
Explanation: When a ray of light travel
from denser to rarer medium, the refracted
(µ − 1)
2

ray bends away from the natural path.

(C) (b) 30º
Correct option is (a).
Explanation: A is denser medium with n1 =
πd 2 2.0 and B is rarer medium with n2 = 1.0

(B) (a)
(µ − 1)
2
Critical angle,
n 
θ = sin−1  1 
Explanation: The depth is d and the  n2 
refractive index of water is µ.
θ = sin–1 (sin 30º)
Depth = d
Refractive index = µ θ = 30°
A 90º O 90º C (D) (b) 1.5 × 108 ms–1

i i Explanation: Let x is refractive index of

d material, Then,
−1  1 
q = sin  
x
B
Now, we know that, 1
sin q =  
sin 90º x
µ=
sin i
x =2
1
Then, sin i = c
µ
x=
vm
1
Then, tan i = ...(i)
µ2 − 1
c
v=
From the diagram, in triangle OBC, x
OC
tan i = 3 × 108
OB v=
2
OC is the radius of the circle of emergent
light beam and OB is the depth. v = 1.5 × 108 m/s
Therefore,
44. (A) (b) 2.5 cm
R Explanation:
tan i = ...(ii)
d
h’ = – 2 cm, f1 = 30 cm, v1 = 30 cm
Equating (i) and (ii),
f2 = – 20 cm, h = 2 cm,
1 R
u2 = 30 cm – 26 cm = 4 cm
=
2
µ −1 d
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + = + =
d v2 f2 u2 −20 4 5
R=
2
µ −1
v2 = 5 cm, from concave lens.

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 Magnification,  δm + 60° 
Þ 3 × sin 30° = sin  
v2 5  2 
(m) = = = 1.25
u2 4  δ + 60°  1
Þ sin  m  = 3 × = sin 60°
New image size, h’’ = h’ × 1.25 = 2 × 1.25 = 2.5 cm  2  2

(B) (a) virtual and larger than the object  δm + 60° 
Explanation: Convex lens is the converg-
Þ   = 60°
 2 
ing lens and when an object is in front of
a convex lens, at a distance less than the Þ δm = 60°
focal length from the lens, it means object
(B) (c) becomes parallel to the base of prism
is placed between F and P, then the image Explanation: At the minimum deviation,
formed will be virtual and larger than the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
object. emergence and inside the prism refracted

(C) (d) at one of the foci, virtual and double its ray becomes parallel to the base of the
size prism.
f (C) (c) i = 45°, e =45°
Explanation: Here, u = –
2 Explanation: In the position of minimum
deviation
1 1 1
− = A + δm 60 + 30
v u f i=e= = = 45°
2 2
1 1 1
= + (D) (a) 7.5°
v f u
Explanation: Here, ray emerges from other
1 1 2 surface of the prism normally
= −
v f f So, angle of incidence at second surface r’ = 0
v=–f r + r’ = A
⇒ r = A − r’ = 5° − 0° = 5°
Therefore image is virtual, on the negative
focal point, also image is double in size. (V0 – V0 )

R
d
(D) (b) only
2 ⇒ sin i = µ sin r = 1.5 × sin 5°
Explanation: To form a real image of an ⇒ θ = i = sin-1(0.131) = 7.5°
object on a screen by a convex lens, the
46. (A) (b)
distance between the source and the screen v
(D) should be equal to 4f, where f is the focal
length of the lens.
D
u=v= =d u
2 Explanation: The relation between u and v is
D d given by the lens equation,
f= =
4 2 1 1 1
− + =
u v f
45. (A) (b) 60°
It is the equation of hyperbola. Since the
Explanation: By using prism formula, object distance u is negative, the u-v graph
 A + δm  will be,
sin 
 2  (B) (d) Objective: lens 1, Eyepiece: lens 3
µ =
A
sin Explanation: The objective of an
2 astronomical telescope should have large
 δ + 60°  focal length and large aperture. This is
sin  m  because it has to gather as much light as
 2
Þ 3 = possible in order to form the bright images
60° of distant cosmic bodies. Here, lens 1 has
sin
2 the greatest aperture and focal length. Also,

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 eyepiece of the telescope have short focal of such a wavefront at a large distance from
length in order to increase the magnifying the source will be a plane wavefront.
power of the telescope. So, lens 3 will be
48. (A) (a) 0.3 mm
most suitable to be used as the eyepiece. β
Explanation: β’ =
(C) (b) Between 2F and O. µ
Explanation: The focal length of convex
lens is +f and focal length of concave lens is 0.4
β’ = = 0.3 mm
-2f. 4
This means focal length of the combination 3
1 1 1 1 (B) (d) 6 × 10–5 cm

is given by reciprocal of = – = Explanation: For dark fringe
i.e. f = 2f > 0. f eq
f 2f 2f
eq
λD
x = (2n – 1)
Hence, the combination behaves as the 2d
converging lens of focal length 2f. Therefore
2 xd 2 ×10−3 × 0.9×10−3
virtual image can be obtained by placing ∴ λ = =
the object between focus and optical centre (2n − 1)D (2 ×2 − 1)×1
of the combination. λ = 6 × 10–5 cm.
(D) (d) becomes infinite (C) (c) 12
Explanation: When the lens is dipped in a Explanation: The length of the screen used
liquid, its focal length is given by, portion for 15 fringes, and also for n fringes
Lens maker's formula  D  D
15 × 5896 ×   = n × 7370 ×  
  d   d
1  1 1 
= ( l µ g − 1)  − ,
fliquid R 
 1 R2  ⇒ n=
15 × 5896
= 12
7370
a
µg
where, l
mg =
(D) (b) 2.5 cm
a
µl Explanation: Shift in the fringe pattern,

Now, a
mg = aml ( µ −1)t .D
x=
d
a
µg
\ l
mg = =1 (1.5 − 1)×2.5 ×10−5 ×100 ×10−2
a
=
µl 0.5 ×10−3
= 2.5 cm
1  1 1  49. (A) (b) 10 × 10–5 cm
Hence, = (1 – 1)  −  =0
fliquid R R 
 1 2 Explanation: Here, θ = 30°, λ = 5000 Å

47. (A) (c) wave = 5000 × 10–10 m

Explanation: Huygen’s suggested that nλ
The width of slit, d =
light travels in a form of longitudinal waves sin θ
just as sound propagates through air. He
1×5000 ×10−10
proposed that light waves propagate d=
through an all-pervading hypothetical sin 30°
medium, called luminiferous ether. 5000 ×10−10
d=

(B) (d) the propagation of wavefronts 0.5

Explanation: Huygen’s wave theory
d = 10 × 10–7 m
explain the propagation of wavefronts and
d = 10–4 cm
secondary wavelets.
(C) (a) phase
(B) (b) 3y
Explanation: A wavefront is the continuous 2λD
locus of all such particles of the medium Explanation: Width of central maxima =
d
which are vibrating in the same phase at
2λ1D
any instant. y = y1 = and y2
d1

(D) (c) planar
Explanation: As a spherical or cylindrical 2λ2D
wavefront advances, its curvature =
d2
decreases progressively. So a small portion

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 y2 λ2d1 600× d 2 × 600 × 10−9
⇒ = = =3 =
y1 λ1d2 400× d / 2
10−3
∴ y2 = 3y [y1= y] = 12 × 10–4 m.

(C) (d) no diffraction pattern (D) (b) 2A
Explanation: Slit width, a = 0.6 mm Explanation: At point P both waves are
= 0.6 ×10–3 m in phase as can be seen in the figure. Thus,
there will be constructive interference and
Wavelength of X-rays = λ ≈ 1 Å = 10–10 m
resultant amplitude at P will be sum of the
a amplitude of two waves.
= 0.6 × 107 >> 1
λ i.e., Aeff = A + A = 2A.
a is very large compared to the wavelength 51. (A) (a) 49 : 9
λ. In this case, the diffraction pattern Explanation: According to the question,
disappears.
I1 25 a1
2

(D) (c) I0 = = 2
I2 4 a2
Explanation: For diffraction pattern,
2
 sin φ 
I = I0  , a1 5
 φ  =
a2 2
where, φ denotes path difference,
For principal maxima, φ = 0. We know that,
2
lim  sin φ  2
Hence, φ →0  φ 
=1 a +a  I
 1 2  = max
Hence, intensity remains constant at I0,  a1 − a2  Imin

I = I0 (1) = I0
2
50. (A) (a) 5+2 Imax
⇒  5 − 2  = I
min


Imax 49
 ⇒ =
Imin 9
1 ν ω
Explanation: ν= = =
Hence, the ratio of intensities of maxima
λ v 2πv
and minima is 49 : 9.
or ω = 2πv ν (B) (b) The crests of two waves and troughs of
Graph between wave number and angular two waves coincide.
frequency is a straight line with slope equal Explanation: Constructive interference
to 2πv. occurs when the phase difference between
the waves is an even multiple of π.
(B) (a) Shift towards X
(C) (c) there shall be no interference fringes.
Explanation: When a thin film of mica is
Explanation: The light from this Young's
inserted in the path of one beam, entire
double slit experiment are passed through
fringe pattern shifts towards the side where
different colour filters.
the film is inserted.
The wavelength and frequencies are also
(C) (c) 0.12 µm
different for the different waves.
Explanation: Given:
Thus, there will be no interference fringes.
d = 1 mm = 10–3 m, D = 2 m
l = 600 nm Caution
= 600 × 10–9 m  Students should always check if the sources given are
coherent or not before attempting such questions. The
Dλ interference pattern is only visible if the coherence
Fringe width, b =
d condition is satisfied.

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 (D) (a) 834 Å For least thickness, n = 1
Explanation: Given, Path difference between reflected beam
l = 5000 Å, m = 1.5 and refracted beam will be 2µt cos r.
λ
2mt cos r = (2n − 1)
2
Incident ray

λ
2mt = (2n − 1)
2

Refracted ray
5000 Å
t =
Film is illuminated normally with light. 6
So, Angle of incidence (i) = Angle of
refraction (r) = 0° t = 833.33 Å

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 UNIT

7 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND

MATTER
SECTION - E
21. (A) (d) Photoelectric current increases Since l1 > l2
Explanation: If radiation of a fixed ⇒ v2 > v1
frequency is allowed to fall on the plate By law of conservation of angular
and the accelerating potential difference momentum the particle moves faster when
between the two electrodes is kept fixed, it is closer to focus.
then the photoelectric current is found So, origin O is closer to B than A.
to increase linearly with the intensity of
incident radiation.

(B) (d)
Related Theory

→
p
 The number of photoelectrons emitted per second is
proportional to the intensity of incident radiation.
λ→
(B) (b) 10–10 s
Explanation: de- Broglie wavelength,
Explanation: The photoelectric effect is an
h
instantaneous phenomenon (experimentally λ=
p
proved). It takes approximate time of the
order of 10–10 s. 1,
λ∝

(C) (c) frequency p
Explanation: For a photosensitive material, lP = constant
there exists a certain minimum cut-off This represents the rectangular hyperbola.
frequency below which no photoelectrons (C) (b) 10–9 m
are emitted. This frequency is called Explanation: Here, v = 6.6 × 105 m/s,
threshold frequency. mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg

(D) (c) electrons can be emitted with any h
energy, with a maximum of E0 − φ . λ =
mv
Explanation: The electrons can be emitted
with maximum energy E0 and with any 6.6 ×10−34
λ =
energy less than E0 − φ . The part of incident 9.1×10−31 ×6.6 ×105
energy of electron is used in liberating the λ = 10–9 m
electrons from the surface of metal. (D) (c) momentum
22. (A) (b) The particle could be moving in an Explanation: Wavelength λ =
h
=
h
elliptical orbit with origin as its focus. mv p
Explanation: Let v1 and v2 be the velocity Therefore for same wavelength of electrons
of the particle at A and B respectively and and photons, the momentum should be
origin is at O. same.
v2
23. (A) (c) It will be quadrupled
A B
O h
Explanation: λ =
v1 mv
Then,
h v mv 2
f= =
l1 = λ h
mv1
Now, if velocity is doubled then frequency
and h will be quadrupled.
l2 =
mv 2 (B) (a) half of that of car A
Explanation: We know that,
λ1 v2
\ = h
λ2 v1 λA =
mv A

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 h (D) (a) 2 : 1
and λB = Explanation: Given,
mvB
K1 1
h =

= K2 4
m (2v A )

h p12 2m2 1

= i.e. × =
2 mv A 2m1 p22 4

λA Here, m1 = m2 = m
λB =
2
p12 1
–33 ⇒ =
(C) (b) 10 m.  
p22 4
Explanation: We know that,
h p1 1
λ= ⇒
  =
mv p2 2

6.63×10−34 λ1 h p2 p2 2
= = 10−33 m
m  i.e., = p ×h = =
60×10 ×11−3 λ2 1 p1 1

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UNIT

8 ATOMS AND NUCLEI

SECTION - E
40. (A) (a) Zero 41. (A) (c) 9r0
Explanation: The impact parameter is the Explanation:
perpendicular distance of the initial velocity We know that radius of orbit is given by,
vector of the α-particle from the centre of rn = r0n2
the nucleus. In case of head on collision, the r3 = 9 r0
impact parameter is minimum that is zero. (B) (c) 1 : 4 : 9
Explanation:
(B) (b) A1/3

rn = r0n2
Explanation: The radius of a nucleus Taking n = 1, 2, 3 we get,
is proportional to the cube root of its r1 : r2 : r3 = 1 : 4 : 9
mass number. So, the size of the atom is
(C) (d) directly proportional to n square
proportional to A1/3.
Explanation:
-12

(C) (c) 10 cm Centripetal force = electrostatic force
Explanation: Here, mv 2 e2
=
K = 5 MeV = 5 × 1.6 × 10-19 × 106 J, Z = 92 r 4πεor 2

1 Ze2 Since,
r0 = .
4πε 0 K nh
mvnrn =
2π
( )
2
9 × 109 × 92 × 1.6 × 10−19
r0 = m We get:
5 × 1.6 × 10−19
n2h2 4πεo
mr =
r0 = 5.29 × 10-14 m 4π2 e2
= 5.29 x 10-12 cm the radius of stationary orbit is directly
proportional to n2.
Related Theory (D) (a) 15.3 eV
 As alpha particle approaches the positive nucleus, it Explanation:
experiences coulomb repulsion and its kinetic energy
e2
gets converted into electrical energy. At a certain K =
8πε or
distance r0 from the nucleus, the alpha particle stops
for a moment and then begins to retrace its path, that 9 × 109 × (1.6 × 10−19 )2
K = eV
2 × 4.7 × 10−11 × 1.6 × 10−19
is it is scattered through an angle of 180°.
e2 K = 15.3 eV
(D) (b) – k ˆ
r
3
r 42. (A) (a) mass of atom and its positive charge
Explanation: Here, were concentrated at centre of atom
Explanation: Through scattering
q1 = –e,
experiment, Rutherford was able to explain
q2 = Ze, the most of the alpha particles passed
Where, Z = 1 for hydrogen atom, through the atom suggesting most of
the space is empty and most deflection
Then, q2 = e
(180°) was observed when alpha particles
e2 retaliated from the nucleus due to like
Thus, F =– k r
r3 charge.

Atoms and Nuclei 21

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 (B) (a) in general to any of the state with Therefore required energy,
lower energy = –30.6 eV
Explanation: A set of atoms in excited state (D) (b) 28.4 MeV
decays to any state with lower energy Explanation:
because they are more stable than the
excited state. Mass defect DM = 2Mp + 2Mn – MHe
(C) (b) Balmer ∆M = 2 × 1.0073 + 2 × 1.0087
Explanation: Spectal line wavelength 4860 – 4.0015
Å lies in visible region of spectrum which is ∆M = 0.0305 amu
Balmer series of spectrum. Binding energy = (931 × mass defect) MeV
–E0 B. E. = 931 × 0.0305 MeV
(D) (b)
16 B. E. = 28.4 MeV
Explanation: A
44. (A) (c) Boron
Eo
E= Explanation: Boron will absorb the neutrons
n2 instead of slowing the neutrons down due to
For third excited level, n = 4, which self-sustaining chain reaction will not
Eo Eo be achieved.
Kinetic Energy, Ek = – =–
n2 16 (B) (d) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: Control rods are made of
43. (A) (a) 8 MeV
neutron absorbing material such as boron
Explanation: The binding energy curve
shows that the average binding energy which help to control the rate of chain
per nucleon, excluding the lighter nuclei, is reaction by keeping the neutron population
about 8 MeV. So, average binding energy constant and absorbs leak of neutrons to
per nucleon in nuclei is of the order of
prevent radiation leak.
8 MeV.
(B) (c) 4(x2 – x1) (C) (d) high specific heat
Explanation: Number of nucleon on Explanation: Radioactive reaction produces
reactant side = 4 high amount of heat for which coolant
Binding energy for one nucleon = x1 with high specific heat is required to absorb
Binding energy for 4 nucleon = 4x1 maximum amount of heat without raising
On product side the binding energy = 4x2
its own temperature.
Therefore, the energy released Q = 4(x2 – x1)
(D) (d) U-238

(C) (a) 30.6 eV
Explanation: Explanation: Neutrons fired at U-238 would
need much higher energy in order to fission
−Z2E0
E= to take place. U-238 has an even mass and
n2
odd nuclei are more fissile because the extra
− (3)2 × 13.6 neutron adds energy because of which
E=
22 U-238 will not undergo fission in nuclear
E = 30.6 eV reactor.

22 Physics Class XII

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UNIT

9 ELECTRONIC DEVICES

SECTION - E
20. (A) (c) knee voltage (B) (d) zero
Explanation: Knee voltage for an ideal
Explanation: Cut-in voltage or threshold
diode = 0 V, whereas for a silicon diode, knee
voltage is the forward bias voltage value at voltage = 0.7 V. Hence, the ratio is 0.
which the forward current increases rapidly.
(C) (c) the reverse bias voltage should not

(B) (b) decreases exceed 15 V.
Explanation: The semiconductor diode is Explanation: The reverse breakdown
said to be forward-biased when the external voltage is defined as the voltage above
voltage across it is set up so that the n-side is which a reverse bias voltage experiences a
linked to the negative terminal of the battery breakdown of the depletion region. Hence,
a p-n junction diode should not be operated
and the p-side is connected to the positive
in the breakdown region i.e., reverse bias
terminal. In this instance, the diode's inherent
voltages should not exceed 15 V as it can
potential diminishes, narrowing the depletion damage the diode permanently.
zone and lowering the barrier's height.
(D) (c) 4 mA

(C) (d) fixed donor and acceptor ions Explanation: The equivalent resistance in
Explanation: There is a difference in the forward bias, R = 4800 + 75 = 4875 Ω.
concentration of charge carriers in the The diode will only pass current in positive
provided junctions in a p-n junction. As an half cycle of AC. The potential drop across
electron from the n-section diffuses into diode in forward bias, VB = 0.5 V.
the p-section, a process known as electron (V0 – VB )
Hence, the peak current, I0 =
hole recombination occurs, resulting in the R
formation of a covalent bond. Between the 20 – 0.5
two portions of the junction, a potential =
4875
barrier is created by the accumulation of = 0.004 A
electric charges with opposing polarities. = 4 mA
The fixed acceptor and donor ions on each
22. (A) (a) 5.4 eV
side of the junction cause the electric field to
Explanation: Due to the difference in
create a potential barrier in the junction that
orbits, the space between the energy
prevents further diffusion.
band of C is higher than Ge and Si. At

(D) (b) the junction current at equilibrium is room temperature, very few electrons
zero as equal but opposite carriers are are able to jump to the conduction band
crossing the junction crossing the space of 5.4 eV.
Explanation: When the p-n junction is (B) (c) 4.5 × 10–9 m–3
unbiased, the junction current at equilibrium
Explanation: Given that, ni = 1.5×1016 m–3.
is zero because equal, but opposite carriers
Thermally generated electrons are
cross the junction. negligible small compared to those
21. (A) (b) Light emitting diode. produced by doping.
Explanation: In an LED, on the p-side, a nenh = ni2
positive voltage is applied, while a negative
2.25×1032
voltage is applied to the n-type. Free electrons nh =
5×1022
in the conduction band recombine with holes
= 4.5 × 109 m–3
in the valence band which result in release
(C) (d) a p-type semiconductor
of photons. The LED is forward biased as a
Explanation: The material is a p-type
result. Whereas, zener diode, photodiode and semiconductor because holes are the
solar cells all operate in reverse biasing. majority charge carries in the valence bond.

Electronic Devices 23

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 (D) (d) CB Explanation: In semiconductors, the
forbidden energy gap between the valence

Eg = K T
band and conduction band is very small,
almost equal to KT. Moreover, valence band
VB
is completely filled whereas the conduction
band is empty.

24 Physics Class XII

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