Adobe Scan 24-Feb-2024 (2)
Adobe Scan 24-Feb-2024 (2)
Physics Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current Electricity
[PHYSICS]
100se the correct answer:
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All India Aakash Test Series for
9
NEET:2023
Two metal bobs carrying unequal charges are 13.
Test-5(Code-Ey
Current passing through the 20 Qresistor as showvn
Suspended from common point by strings of equal in figure is
length. The equilibrium separation between them is
r. Now the given arrangement is taken into a 6 2
12 2
satellite orbiting the earth then the.angle made by
each strings with the vertical is 20 S2
24'2 12 2
15 V
(1) 0° (1)3A: (2) 2A
(2) 450
(3) 90° (4)60 (3) 5A (4) Zero
10.:Choose the graph which represents the variation of. 14. Ten 60 W,220Vbulbs are connected in parallel to
resistivity (p) with temperature(D for semi 220 Vsupply. The power consumed in circuit is
Conductor material. (1), 600W (2) 120-W
(3) 12W (4):60 W
(1). (2) 15. Resistance of the plátinum wire of a platinum
resistance thermometer at the ice point is 5 2 and
at
at steam point is 5.23 2. The temperature
coefficient of resistance of platinum wire i
(3), (4) 1)1.70:x104 0C-1. (2)4:6 x 109C!
(3) 9.8x 1040C1 (4) 3,2 x104 9C1
11. Acurrent carrying copper conductor of increasing 162 Choose the correct relation among the following,
diameter is shown in figure where symbols have their usual meaning.
(2) J ne
B m m
net
(3)p. (4) Both (1) and (2).
Choose the correct statements with respect to the
abovesituation. 17 The correct dimensional formula for electrical
(1) The electrical conductivity decreases as we potential difference is
move from section A to section B () MLTA:) (2) [MLT'A1
(2) The resistivity increases as we mOve from (3) (MLTA:) (4) (ML2TA-)
sectionBto section A
18.A potential difference of 10 Vis applied across a
(3)The électric field is higher at section A as conductor of length 20 cm. If drift velocity of
compared to section B electrons is 2.5 x104 m/s, then electron mobility
(4)There is no ch¡nge in current density however will be
current changes as wemove from Ato B. (1) 5x10- m? V1 s-1
a
12.The internalresistance of a 4.2 Vcell.which gives (2). 3x105 m²Vs1
10 Qis
current of 0.4 A.through aresistance of
(2) 0.6 Q, (3) Zero
(1) 0.7Q
(4) 0.8 2 (4) 5:x 10 m² V-1s-1
(3) 0.52
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TestS (Code E) Alllndia Aakash Test Series tor NEET-2023
In a pntimete circuit if a cell of EMF 3 V gives
balane oinat 72 cm lengh of wire. Now another
DOtential orop nssNN3gstan is e of EE 2 V replaces the frst cell, the length of
(1) 2:3 wire at which balane ntobtained. w be
(3) 1:2 () (1) 0 m (2) 21.6 cm
Five identical s h .emt E a ntenal 3) 4S m (4) 31 cm
resistanerae n in senes, Four out of ive
cells ar Onec n simar manNNT Wie one is A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has a
CoNnactad in opsite manner. The aQUNalent anf resistae af 10Rtis onncted in series with a
of combìnaton wìll be rasistane Rand a cel of emf 10 Vhaving negigible
(1) 5E intenal resistanN The length at which asource of
(3) 3E mf4Vwi be balancdis
4V
The magnmude of lactnc feld due to a unitom
chargad large pkane sheet wth surtae chage
density a is
(1)
28
10VR=202
(3) Zero (4) (1) 40 cm
2)31 m
Through asmall area A, density of feld ines is
wice, the density of field lines passing through area (3)21.6 cm
B. The cross sections of Aand Bare same. Basad
(4) No nul point woukd be obtained
upon the above infomnation choose he correct
concdusion. potentiometer wire
(1) Ea> s (2) ESEs 27. A cument of 3A fows through the 2 Q resistor
(3) EA = Es (4) Either (2) or (3) shown in the iuit given below. The power
When a test charge is brought in from infiniy along dissipata in 1Q resistor is
the axis of an electric dipole, the work done is 252
(1) Positive 3A:
42
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) May be positive or negative
A point.charge q is kept on the axi_ of an electric
dipole having dipole moment p at distance r from its
centre a£s shown in figure. Electric potential at centre
of dipole is (1) 1W (2) 3 W
(3) 4 W (4) 8 W
28. A wire of resistance 4Qiscompressed to half of its
(1) (2) Zero oniginal length unifornly. The resistance
Compressed wire would be
(1) 1 Q (2) 32
(3) (4)
4neor (3) 5Q (4) 16Q
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Test-5 (Code-E)
AIlIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023
Choose the correct
statement with respect to
The potential difference (VA - Va) between points 33.
Gauss law in electrostatiçs.
A and B in the given circuit is Gaussian sürface is due to
496V2o (1): The electric field.on inside and outside the
all Charges present both
A wwB
i=4 A surface
should be selectedin
(1) -18 V (2) 18V (2): The Gaussian surface pass through
(3) 30 V (4)+21 V Such. a way that it.does not through
discrete charge however it can pass
Two metal wiresof. identical dimensionsare. continuous charge distributioni.
(3) Gausslaw i s m i c h e
connected in parallel. lIf o1 andÞ2 are
are.the usefulwhere the
conductivities of metal wires respectively, then system is having'" some symmetry of charge
effective electrical conductivity of combination is distribution.
(2) +o2 (4) All'of these
(1): 2 34. The electric flux through the circular base of
henmisphere is
(3) (4) 2o,d
2
:A battery of emf 2 volts and. internal resistance
010 9 is beingcharged witha current of 5 A. The
potential difference across termninals'of battery
(1) Will.be more than theemf of battery
(2) Willbeless than the emf of battery (1)3tRE (2) 2tRE
(3) Will beequal to the emfof battery (3)TRE NRAS^R (4) Zero
(4) Cannot be determined 35 Along charged cylinder of linear charge density is
Si,:S2, Ss are three concentric, shells. S1 and S2 surrOunded byaco-axial holow. conducting
have charges 4Q and 8Q respectively. The electric cylinder. The radius of inner cylinder isi while that
field atpoint Ajust outside shell Sz is of the outer cylinder is (2. The electric field at a
distance rwhere
(1) (2)Zero
+8Q
2S0
(3) (4)
2Q
SECTION B
(1) 36, Apositive charge particle of charge g accelerates in
uniform electric field Eo. The particle started from
3Q rest on an equipotential plane ofpotential Vi. After t
(2) time the particle is on an equipotential plane of
potential V2. The distance travelled by the particle is
(3):
(2)
(V -M)
2TbE0 Eo
4Q:
(4) (4) Zero
(3)
Eo
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est-5 (Code-E)
AllIndia Aakash Test Series for
A positive point charge q is placed at distance 2R NEET-2023
from the surface of a metallic shell of radius R. The 40. A large non conducting sheet carries uniform
potential at the centre of shell due to induced charge surface charge density o. Ashort dipole is hinged at
on shell is point O and makes an angle 9 with normal to
sheet. The torque experienced by the dipole is the
2R
(3) -k (4) -k
6R 3R Gqr
Charges +q and -g are placed at points Aand B (1) sin 9 (2) Zero,
respectively which are at a distance 22 apart andC 280
is the mid-point between Aand B.
The work done in (3) Gqr-COs (4) GqL tan20
slowly moving a charge +Q from point Cto D.along 280
the path CRD, is
4.1. Electric field'at centre O.of semicircle rod of radius
R
rhaving linear charge density as shown is given
giv
as
A
B
(1) +qQ
(2
R
R -R (load
R
w w resistance)
E i,+i,
13
(3) 23 (1) (2) 2R+2r
Rtr.
17, 2V
(4) 23 (3) R+2r.
Choose the correct statement with respectto (4)R2r
48.In the following diagram, the length of wire AB and
rules. BC of same conducting material are equal, but the
r¡dius of wire AB.is double that of BC: If the
(1) The junction ule holds good for. steady state
current resistance, of the wire BC 0s Ro then the current
lowing throughcircuit is
(2) The loop ruleutilizes the fact that potential
difference is path independent
(3) The junction rule is based:upon conservation of
charge
(4) All of these 4E
(1): 3Ro (2)
Acellof emf E and internal resistance ris.connected 5Ro
acrossavariable load resistance R. The variation of 2E E
power (across load resistance) with load resistance (3) (4)
is as shown.
3Ro 2Ro
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est-5 (Gode-E) AlllndiaAakash Test Series for NEET-2023
A resistance of R draws curent from a
(1) 3R,R 3R,R
potentiometer. The potentiometer wire has total 3R, + 4R (2)
4Ro +3R
resistance Ro. A voltage V is supplied to the
potentiometer wire. The equivalent resistance 3R; 3R?
between points A
and C, when the sliding contact is (3) (4)
4R, +3R 4R + 3R
at point C and point Cis at distance from the right
4 50. When a metallic plate (having thickness less than
end (where is length of potentiometer wire), will the distance between the plates) is kept between
be
two plates of a parallel plate capacitor, then the
V
capacitance of the capacitor will
H
(1) Decrease
(2) Increase
(3) Remains same
R
(4) Cannot be determined
[CHEMISTRY]
SEGTION-A 55. Theè major -product Cobtained in the following
reaction sequence is
Which among the following compounds is most
Br 0) KOH, aicohol B 333C
reactive towards electrophilic aromatic substitution? CH,-CH=CH, pA (i). NaNH,
CHO OCH,
(1) (2) (1) CH3CH2COOH (2) CHC CH
OH
COOH C
(3) CHsCHaCH2OH (4) .CH,H CÒOH
(3) (4) 56. -Which of the following is most acidic in nature?
(1) HC = CH (2) CH3CH2CH3
Which of the following alkanes can be made in good
(3) CH3-CH= CH2 (4) CH3-C= CH
yield by Wurtz reaction?
57.Which among the following has highest boiling
(1) 2, 3-Dimethyibutane point?
(2) n-Pentane
(1) 2-Methylpropane
(3) n-Propane (2) Pentane
(4) n-Heptane (3) 2-Methylbutane
The product obtained at anode upon Kolbe's
electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium
(4) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
propanoate is
58. Which of the following compounds will form
(1) CHsCHCH3
maximum number of monochloro derivatives (only
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH3 structural isomers) on. treatment with Clz in
(3) CH3CH; (4) H2 presence of sunlight?
The total number of geometrical isomers possible (1) Cyclopentane
for 2, 5-heptadiene is (2) Methyl cyclopropane
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1, 3-Dimethylcyclopentane
(3) 5 (4) 3 (4) n-pentane
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IIndia Aakash Test Serles for NEET-2023 Test-5 (Code-E)
Consider the following statements regarding SN2 63.:Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?
Br
reaction mechanism
1. Occurs in one step
1)
I. Carbocation intermediate is formed
III. Inversion of configuration takes place in case of CH,
optically active alkyl halides CH,
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) I| and Ill only (2) ll only.
(3) land lll only (4) ll only F
Strongest nucleophile in the polar protic solvent is CH,CI
(1) F (2) 8r:
(3) CI (4) E (3)
Which among the following is an example of
aromatic nucleophilic substitution reaction? Br.CH,y
C OH
(),aq, NaOH, 443-K
(1)
() H
NO, NO 64.The most suitable reagent for the following
CI
Conversion is
Br,.
(2)
Anhyd. AlICI, OHCHZOHCH,CH,CI
(1) PCls (2) Clhý
Br
Br BI
(3) HCIZnC. (4) SOCh
fai
"65. The ambidentate nucleophile among the following is
Conc. HNO,
(3) (1) CN (2) OH
Conc. H,SO,
(3) CHsO (4) N(CH3)
NO, 66. The compound which will react most easily with
CH, CH,CI aqueousKOH is
OH OH
(4)
(2)
The product C in the following reaction sequence is
NH, CH,
CH,CI +Na
NaNO, +HCI
05°C
A cuClh
HCI): B Dry etheri C(major) (3) CHSCHOH (4) CH,C CH,OH
C CH,
CH,
67. Which one of thefollowing will most readily be
dehydrated in acidic condition?
(1) 2) OOH OH
(1) (2)
CH,
ÇH,CI ÇC,
(3) (4)
(3) (4) OH OH
(1)
(2)
OH
,NaOHICO,
A(CH,CO}OB
The major product B is
OH OH COOH:
OH CoOCH, COoCH, ocoCH,
(3) (4) (1) (2)
Listl List l|
NO, CH,
a. Acrolein: RCHO
() (1) (l) CHO
A
(1):C=NNH Ph
2)\ COOH
Sc=NNH, (2)
(3) >C=N OH
(3) HCOOH
(4)CNNA 4) CF3OOOH:
82: Sodium salt of propanoic(acid on heating with
Which among the föllowing cannot give Fehling's sodälime produce
test? (1) Propane
CH,CHO 2) Ethane
(1) CH3CHO 3)Propanone
(4) Ethanol
CHO 83: Which among the following compounds can be
CH
distinguished by lodoformtest?
(4) CHCH CHO
) CH3COCH3 and CH3CHO
CH, (2) CHsCHO and CH3CH2CHO
Which of the following compounds is obtained when 3) CH3CH2COCH3 and CH3CH2OH
cyclopentanone reacts with dil, NaOH folowed by (4) CH3CH(OH)CH and CsHsCOCH3
heating? 84. Clemmensen reduction of carbonyl compound is
carried out in presence of which of the following
reagent?
(1) 2) (1).Ammonical AgNOs
OH. OH
(2) CH,CH A
(3) (4) (3) NH2NH/KOH
OH
OH (4) Zn-Hg/HCI
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est-5 (Code-E)
All lndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023
The product P in the given reaction is
The correct statements about products (A) and (B)
are
KMn0, H,sDp A and B are geometrical isomers
OH Il. B has higher meltingpoint than A
III. Aand B are positional isomers
-OH
IV. Ais less polar than B
(2) CHO CHO (1) land il only (2) land IV only
(3) HOOC COOH (3) and IV only (4) 1, Iland IV only
89. Which of the following carboxylic acid undergoes
(4) HOOC CHO esterification most readily?
COOH COOH
SECTION-8 (1) (2)
The major product obtained in the following reaction
cOOH
COOH
(3) (4)
CHO CHO
90.The major product obtained in the following reaction
conc. NaOH is
N Cr
OCH, HBE;
CH,OH CH,OH CH,OH cOONa
CI
(1) (2)
(1):
OCH, OCH, N, ct
COONa CH,OH COONa COONa. N, BF,
4
(3) (4)
F
91. The major product obtained in the following reaction
OCH, OCH, is
The products obtained upon reductive ozonolysis of
2-Methybut-2-ene are
CH,CHCH=CH, +HBr (C,H,CO),0,,
(1) CH3COCH3 andCHsCHO CH,
Br
(2) CHsCH2CHO and CHsCHO
(3) CH:COCH3 and CHsCH;OH
(1) CH,-CH CH-CH,
(4) CH3CHCHzOH and CH3CH;0H
Donsider the following reaction
(2) CH,-c-CH,-CH,
H,Pd/C
’A
[BOTANY]
TION:A 105: Read, the following statementsand, choose the
Choose thecorrect statement w.r.t. life span. correct option.
(1) It is necessarily correlated with s0ze or (A) Water hyacinth is also known as Terror of
complexity of organisms. Benigal or scourge of water. bödies.
(2) Peepal tree has a much shorter life span as (B) It drains oxygen from the water, which leads to
compared to mango tree. the death of fishes.
(3) It is not specific trait of each organism. (1). Only statement Ais.correct
(4) It is the period from birth to the natural death of. (2): Only staterment Bis correct
an organism.
(3)-Both the statements are corect
!. In which of the following plants male and female
reproductive organs are mostly presenton same (4) Both the statements are incorrect
body? 106. The period of growth, from birth to reproductive
(1) Chara (2) Marchantia maturity is calledAphase It is known as
(3) Date palm (4) Papaya Bphase in plants.
3. Read the following statements and choose correct
one(s) w.r.t. asexual reproduction. Choose the.correct'option to fill in the blanksA'and
B.
(a) Two parents of opposite sex are involved.
(b) Occurs with'or without involvement of.gamete R
formation.
(c) Involves fusion of male and.female gametes. (1) Vegetative Recovery
(d) Clones are produced. (2) Juvenile Mature
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (c) (3) Vegetative, Mature
(3) (b) and (d) (4) Only (d) (4) Juvenile
1. Select the correct match. Vegetative
(1).Bryophyllum Tuber
107.Cho0se the odd one' w.r.ti plants showing flowering
and fruiting only once in their life span.
(2) Water hyacinth Offset
(1) Mango
(3) Agave Leaf buds (2) -Rice
(4) Ginger Bulbil (3)Bamboo
(4) Strobilanthes kunthiana
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India Aakash TestSeries for NEET-2023 Test-5 (Code-E)
113. Pollengrains are generally A structures
Howmany among the following produce(s)
morphologically dissimilar gametes? measuring in diameter.
(a) Ulothrix
Choose correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.
(b) Cladophora
A B
(c) Fucus
(d) Chara (1) Cuboidal 50-100 pm
(e) Humans (2) Spherical. 25-50 m
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Trigonal 25-30-um
(3) -Four (4) Five
(4) Disc shaped 25-50um
State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements
andselect the correct option. 114. State true(T)or false, (F) for the following
(A) Gametes are produced by meiotic division only statements and select the correct option.
(B) Meiocyte of apple contains 34 chromosomes AA) Pollens ofParthenium can cause pollen allergy.
(C) In majority of organisms, male gamete is motile (B) Pollens are nutritious, thus are used as food
and the female gamete is stationary.
supplements.
(C) Pollen viability is upto 30 minutes in all
AB C members of Rosaceae, Legumínosae and
(1) F F Solanaceae.
A B C
(2)T
)T
(3)FT
(4) T 2)T
(3) F
In which of the following, parent cel loses its identity.
and disappears during asexual reproduction? e(4)T T
(1).Binary fission 115. Which of the following assures seed set without
(2)· Budding pollinating £ aent?
(3) Conidia formation (1) Geitonogamy (2) Chasmogamy
(4) Zoospores formation 3)Cleistogamý (4) Xenogamy
116. Which of thefollowing plants has gynoecium
gy that is
Cells: of which layerof; microsporangium are
multinucleate? muticarpellary and apocarpous?
(1) Hibiscus (2) Papaver
(1) Endothecium (2) Middle layers
(3)Tomato (4) Michelia
(3) Epidermis (4) Tapetum
117, How many mëioticdivisions are required to produce
Select the incorrect option w.r.t. stamen. 64 male gametophytes in angiosperms?
(1) Atypical stamen has two parts afilament and (1) 63 (2) 32
an anther, (3)16 (4) 80.
(2) Filament is the long and slender stalk.
118. Mass, of cells enclosed iwithin the integuments of
(3) Anther is terminal trilobed 'structure.* ovule.isknown as
(4)-The proximal end of thefilament is attached to (1) Chalaza (2) Nucellus
the thalamus or the petal of the flower. (4) Funicle
(3)-Micropyle
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est-5 (Code-E)
Al India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023
). ChoOse the correct feature for largest cell of the
embryo sac. 124, How mány types of gametes can be produced by a
diploid organism, if it is homozygous for three loci
(1) It is three nucleated, present towards añd heterozygous for two loci?
micropylar end. (1) 4 (2) 8
(2) It is binucleated and participates in syngamy. (3) 16 (4) 2
(3) It hàs filiform apparatus, to guide the entry of 125. Occurrence of more than two alleles for one
pollen tube. particular gene is known as
(4) It has two polar nuclei and participates in triple (1) Multiple allelism
fusion. (2) Pleiotropism
: Select the incorrect option w.r.t. geitonogamy. (3) Co-dominance
(1) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the (4) Incomplete dominance
stigma of anóther flower of the same plant. 126. Match the following columns and select the correct
(2) It is functionally cross-pollination but genetically option.
similar to autogamy. Column I Column l
(3) Dioecious condition can prevent geitonogamy. (a) Down's syndrome () Mendelian
(4) Geitonogamy helps to increase genetic disorder
variations. (b) Klinefelter's (ü) Monosomy of
Select the correct match. syndrome sex
chromosomes
(1) Apomixis Fomation of seed without
fertilization. (c) Tumer's syndrome (ii) Trisomy of sex
chromosomes
(2) Parthenocarpy Formation of new
(d) Phenylketonuria (iv) Autosomal
individual directiy from
egg without fertilization. trisomy
(3) Polyembryony Occurrence of more than (a) (b), (c) (d)
one egg in one embryo () (v) ) ) (0)
sac. (2):(v) ()): (i)
(4) Emasculation Covering stigma of. (3) (ii)iv) ()
fowers to prevern its (4) ()(v) 0 (i)
contaminatioD from 127. Choose the incorrectstatement. w.r.t law of
unwanted pollen grains. dominance.
Which of the given traits of pea plants expresses (1)Characters are controlled by -discrete units
caled factors.
itself in heterozygous as well as homozygous (2)Factors occur.in.pairs.
condition?
(3)It is used to eexplain the expression of only one
(1)Green seed; (2) Terminal flower of the characters in a dihybrid cross.
(3) Green pod (4) White flower (4) Ina dissimilar pairof factors one member of the
Read the following statements and choose the pair domiñates (dominant) the other
correct option. (recessive).
(A)Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits 128. Which of the following combination of blood groups
are known as alleles. of parents cannot produce progeny with 0 blood
(B) Alleles are slightly different forms of the same group?
gene. Mother Father
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s t - 5
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st5 (Code-E)
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023
, Select the correct genotypic and
phenotypic ratios 147. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. colour blindness.
of monohybrid test cross respectively.
(1) Patients fail to discriminate between red and
(1) 1:2 :1 and 3:1 (2) 3:1 and 1:2:1 green colour.
(3) 1:1 and 9:3:3:1 (4) 1:1 and 1:1 (2) It occurs in about 8 percent of females and 0.4
. in which of the following, 50% sperms are without percent of males in äpopulation.
sex chromosomes? (3) The son of a carier but normal woman has 50%
chance of being colour blind.
(1) Birds (4) A daughter will not normally be colour blind,
(2) Butterflies unless her mother is a carrier and her father is
colour blind.
(3) Drosophila
148. Who carried out dihybrid cross on Drosophila to
(4) Grassshopper study genes that were sex linked and coined the
term linkage?
(1): Thomas Hunt Morgan
(2) Alfred Sturtevant
(3) Walter Sutton
(4).Theodore Boveri
149. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell
division cycle results in the gain or loss of
Consider the atbove pedigree chart and determine wchromosome(s) is called
the trait JDark filled. circles and squaresshow (1).'Substitution (2) Frameshift mutation
affected individualj. (3):Aneuploidy: (4) Polyploidy
(1) X-inked recessive trait 150. Which of the following are related to Down's
syndrome?
(2) Y-linked dominant trait
a. Occurs due to non-disjunction of
(3) X-linked dominant traiti chromosomes.
(4) Autosomal dominant trait b. First described by Langdon. Down (1866).
. Which of the following diseases shows its C: It is á result of polyploidy.
transmission from unaffected (carrier) female to id.Individuals suffering from it are short statured.
some of the male progenies? e. Mental development is retarded.
(1) Sickle cellanaermia (2) Phenylketonuria (1)a, b and c (2) b, c, d and e
(3) Thalassermia (4) Haemophilia (3)· Allexcept a (4) All except c
(ZOOLOGY]
SECTION A Animal possessing the above features is
(1) Carcharodon
1. AlI of the following are hermaphrodite animals, f2 Pavo
except
(3) PBeropus
(1) Eartfworrn
(4) Exocoetus
Cockroach 153. The vital link that ensures continuity of species
(3) Leech between organisms of one generation and the next,
(4) Spongilla is
2. Consider the following features. (1) Egg
Internalfertilisation (2) Gemmule
b Fertilised eggs are covered by hard calcareous A8 Zygote
shell (4) Sperm
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India Aakash TestSeries for NEET-2023,
enter directly in which
The signals for parturition originate from 162. Sperms from epididymis
among the given ducts?
(1) The fully developed foetus and the trophoblast (2) Rete testis
(2) Chorionic villi and the embryo M Vas deferens
(3) Vasa efferentia (4) Ejaculatory duct
3 The fully developed foetus and the placenta
(4) The placenta and trophoblast 163. In humans, testes are situated outside the
Hormones secreted only during pregnancy are abdominal cavity within a pouch called
(1) hCG, hPL and estrogens (1) Foreskin
(2) hCG, hPL,estrogens and (2) Testicular lobules
progestogens
(3) Relaxin, hCG and progestogens (3) Seminiferous tubules
4 hCG and hPL 45 Scrotum
. The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called 164. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. female external
(1) Blastula (2) Gastrula genitalia.
43} Morula (4) Blastocyst. (1) Hymen Partially covers the
Selèct the correct statement w.r.t. hormone levels openingof vagina
in anormal pregnant woman.
(1) High levels of circulating hcG stimulate the 2) Labia majora Non-fleshy folds.of tissue
degeneration of corpus luteum. (3) Clitoris Tiny finger-like structure
(2)High levels of cirçulating oxytocin stimulate milk (4) Labia minora Paired folds of tissue
secretion in mammary glands.
3 High levels ofcirculating hcG stimulate 65 Completethe analogy by selecting the correct
estrogen and progesterone synthesis. option w.c.t. the wall of the human uterus.
(4). High levels of FSH and LH in uterus stimulate Myometrium :Middle thick layer of smooth muscle
endometrial thickening. Perimetrium:
Life span of parrotis approximately (1) Innerglandular layer
(1)15 years: (2)60.years Outer thick membranous layer
(3)100 years 4) 140 years (3) Outer glandular layer
The a and become interdigitated with
each otther and jointly formplacenta.
9erExtemalt I thin membranous layer
166. Select the correct sequence of reproductive events
Select the option that fills the blanks correctly. in human.
(1) Chorionic villi and ovarian tissue Spermiogenesis Spermiation Ejaculation
(2) Inner cell.mass and trophoblast Insemination
8 Chorionic villi and uterine tissue (2) Spermiogenesis Spermiation
(4) Uterine Sue and,ovarian tisSue Inseminaion> Ejaculation
Select the odd one w.r.t:ploidy. (3) Spermiation -’ Spermiogenesis ’ Ejaculation
(1) Polar body Insemination
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Test-5 (Code-E)
inhumans. dung fertilisation, the secretions of the 189, Oral contraceptive pills have to be taken daily for a
acrosome heip the spem to first dissoBve
period of A starting preferably within the first B
1 Corona radiata
of menstrual cycle.
(2) Zona pellucida
3) Piasma Select the option. that fills the blanks A and B
membrane of ovum correctly.
(4) Perivitelline space
A B
Al of the following are the
actions of IUDs, except m21 days 5 days
(1) Make the cervix hostile to the
(2) Make uterus unsuitable for
sperms, (2) 21 days 10 days
implantation. (3) 28 days 7 days
(3) Suppress the fertilising
capacity spems
of
(4) 28 days
A increase the spem motility 10days
In fruitfy, number of chromosomes in a 190. Read the given statements and select the correct
8, while the meiocyte is
number of chromosomes in a gamete of option.
butterfty is Statema A : In human
female, blastocyst gets
{) 6 2 190 implanted in myometriun by the trophoblast cells.
(3) 16 (4)-12 Statement B:The second maturation division of the
Regeneration of endometrium of uterus is a part of human sperm occurs only after the nucleus of the
which ghase of uterine cyde? OVum has fused with that of the sperm.
(1) Foliicular phase (1) Both statements A and B are correct
J2) Proliferative phase
(3) Secretory phase 2) Both statements Aand B are incorrect
(4) Luteal phase
(3) Only statement A.is correct
SECTION-B
(4) Only statement B is correct
During ectopic pregnancy, implantation may occur 191. The STI caused by bacteria is
in al, except
(1) Genital warts
(1) Oviduct y Uterus
(2) AIDS
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Ovary
Read the given statements w.r.t. capacitation. Aa Syphilis
Statement A: it occurs in female reproductive tract. (4) Trichomoniasis
Statement B: It refers to changes in sperm after 192. The:surge in which hormone induces rupture of
fertilization. graafian follicle in,ovary to release ovum?
Select the most appropriate option. (1) Prolactin
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (2). Oxytocin
(2) Botth statements A and B are incorrect LH
43) Only statement A is correct (4) Progesterone
193. Morula has
(4) Oniy statement B is correct
Primary spermatocyte shows similarity with primary Almost equal. quantity of cytoplasm as an
o0cyte jn all, except uncleaved zygote but much moro DNA
(1) Divide by 1s meiotic division to form haploid (2) More quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved
zygote and much more DNA
structure
(2) Fomed after mitosis differentiation (3) Same quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved
zygote and same amount of DNA
f3 Possess sanme number of X-chromosome
number of autosome (4) Same quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved
(4) Possess Same
zygote but less amount of DNA
chromosomes
32
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