UNIT 12 - TEST 1

Indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation .
Question 1: A. interfered B. allowed C. visited D. played
Question 2: A. water B. swimming C. between D. rowing
Indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions.
Question 3: A. water B. football C. begin D. meter
Question 4: A. personal B. penalty C. defensive D. vertical
Indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Because the highway system was built 40 years ago , most of the roads now need to repair.
A. was built B. most of C. to repair D. because
Question 6: Pointing in someone is usually considered impolite but it is acceptable when a teacher wants
to get someone’s attention in class.
A. when B. impolite C. Pointing in D. to get
Question 7: If a student takes a course on Computer Science, it will take him four years doing the course.
A. doing B. If C. take D. take a course
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: Many applicants find a job interview if they are not well-prepared for it.
A. impressive B. stressful C. threatening D. time-consuming
Question 9: He still hasn’t really__________ the death of his mother.
A. recovered B. got over C. cured D. treated
Question 10 : Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of devices.
A. environment-friendly B. time-consuming
C. labor-saving D. pollution-free
Question 11: The book is so interesting that I can't ______________ .
A. put down it B. put it down C. put down D. be put down
Question 12: The results of the __________ were satisfactory.
A. competition B. competitor C. competitive D. compete
Question 13 : "The natural environment in which a plant or animals lives" means ________
A. conservation B. extinction C. biodiversity D. habitat
Question 14: We want everyone to begin the test __________.
A. continuously B. simultaneously C. indefinitely D. particularly
Question 15: __________ from several countries competed in many Olympic Games.
A. Singers B. Athletes C. Painters D. Workers
Question 16: He managed to win the race hurting his foot before the race.
A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of
Question 17 : Hardly when the argument began.
A. when he arrived B. he had arrived
C. than he arrived D. had he arrived
Question 18: By the end of the 22nd century, scientists a cure for the common cold.
A. will find B. will have found
C. will be finding D. will have been finding Question
Question 19: Last Sunday was that we took a drive in the country.
A. so beautiful day B. such a beautiful day
C. so a beautiful day D. such beautiful day
Question 20:Widespread forest destruction in this particular area.
A. must have seen B. ought to see C. could have seen D. can be seen
Question 21:The greater the demand, the price.
A. the highest B. the high C. higher D. the higher
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
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Question 22: Sue: “I love pop music.” – Alice: “____________.”
A. I do, too B. No, I won’t C. Yes, I like it D. Neither do I
Question 23: Ann: “What do you usually do on Sundays?” – Mary: “__________.”
A. I used to drive to work B. I’d be sleeping all day
C. I’m not doing anything D. I usually sleep until noon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
A. terrified B. troubled C. happy D. disappointed
Question 25: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.
A. interested B. dissatisfied C. excited D. shocked
Question 27: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 28: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.
A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship.
B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb.
C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb.
D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb.
Question 29: Neil always forgets his wife’s birthday.
A. At no time Neil remembers his wife’s birthday.
B. Neil never remembers his wife’s birthday.
C. Neil sometimes remembers his wife’s birthday.
D. Neil remembers his wife’s birthday all the time.
Question 30: If you practise harder you will have better results.
A. The harder you practise, the best results you will have.
B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
C. The hardest you practise, the most results you will have.
D. The harder you practise, the better results you will have.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.
A. A waitress who served us, was very impolite and impatient.
B. A waitress which served us, was very impolite and impatient.
C. A waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient.
D. A waitress whom served us, was very impolite and impatient.
Question 32: She wasn’t wearing a seat-belt. She was injured.
A.If she hadn’t been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
B. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she would have been injured.
C. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t be injured.
D. If she had been wearing a seat-belt, she wouldn’t have been injured.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
Rowing is a sport in which athletes race against each other on river, lakes or on the ocean, (33) _____ on the
type of race and the discipline. The boats are propelled by the reaction forces on the oar blades as they are
pushed against the water. The sport can be both recreational, focusing (34) _____ learning the techniques
required and competitive where overall fitness plays a large role. It is also one of (35) _____ oldest Olympic
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sports. In the United States, Australia and Canada, high school and collegial rowing is sometimes referred to as
crew.
While rowing, the athlete sits in the boat facing backwards, towards the stern and uses the oars which are held
in place by the oarlocks to propel the boat forward, towards the bow. It is a demanding sport requiring strong
core balance as well as physical (36 ) ___________ and cardiovascular endurance.
Since the action of rowing has become fairly popular throughout the world, there are many different types of
competition. These include endurance races, time trials, stake racing, bumps racing, and the side-by-side format
used in the Olympic Games. The many different formats are a result of the long (37) _____ of the sport, its
development in different regions of the world and specific local requirements and restrictions.
Question 33. A. depending B. creating C. interesting D. carrying
Question 34. A. of B. on C. with D. about
Question 35. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 36. A. strong B. strongly C. strength D. strengthen
Question 37. A. work B. history C. period D. race
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
A warm drink of milk before bed has long been the best choice for those wanting a good night’s sleep.
But now a study has found it really does help people nod off - if it is milked from a cow at night.
Researchers have discovered that “night milk” contains more melatonin, which has been proven to help
people feel sleepy and reduce anxiety.
The study, by researchers from Seoul, South Korea, involved mice being fed with dried milk powder
made from cows milked both during the day and at night.
Those given night milk, which contained 10 times the amount of melatonin, were less active and less
anxious than those fed with the milk collected during daytime, according to the study published in The Journal
of Medicinal Food.
Night milk quickened the start of sleep and caused the mice to sleep longer.
While the effect of cow milk harvested at different time has not been tested on humans up to now, taking
melatonin drugs has been suggested to those who are struggling to fall asleep at night.
Previous studies have also indicated that milk can be excellent for helping sleep because of the calcium
content, which helps people to relax.
Milk is also sugar-free and additive-free with nutritionists recommending skimmed milk as the best
choice before bed as it is the least fattening. The more fat you take in before bedtime, the greater burden you
will put on your body at night.
Question 38: According to the text, the mice fed with daytime milk _________.
A. started sleep more easily B. were more anxious
C. were less active D. woke up later
Question 39: Which of the following is true of melatonin according to the text?
A. It’s been tested on mice for ten years B. It can make people more energetic
C. It exists in milk in great amount D. It’s used in sleeping drugs
Question 40: What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Night Milk and Sleep B. Fat Sugar and Health
C. An Experiment on Mice D. Milk Drinking and Health
Question 41: How does the author support the theme of the text?
A. By giving examples. B. By stating arguments.
C. By explaining statistical data. D. By providing research results.
Question 42: The word “nod off” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. feel relaxed B. stay awake C. fall asleep D. shake head
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
One of the factors contributing to the intense nature of twenty-first-century stress is our continual
exposure to media – particularly to an overabundance of news. If you feel stressed out by the news, you are far
from alone. Yet somehow many of us seem unable to prevent ourselves from tuning in to an extreme degree.
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 The further back we go in human history, the longer news took to travel from place to place, and the less
news we had of distant people and lands altogether. The printing press obviously changed all that, as did every
subsequent development in transportation and telecommunication.
When television came along, it proliferated like a population of rabbits. In 1950, there were 100,000
television sets in North American homes; one year later there were more than a million. Today, it’s not unusual
for a home to have three or more television sets, each with cable access to perhaps over a hundred channels.
News is the subject of many of those channels, and on several of them it runs 24 hours a day.
What’s more, after the traumatic events of September 11, 2001, live newscasts were paired with
perennial text crawls across the bottom of the screen – so that viewers could stay abreast of every story all the
time.
Needless to say, the news that is reported to us is not good news, but rather disturbing images and
sound-bytes alluding (đề cập) to disaster (natural and man-made), upheaval, crime, scandal, war, and the like.
Compounding the problem is that when actual breaking news is scarce, most broadcasts fill in with scare stories
about things that possibly might threaten our health, safety, finances, relationships, waistline, hairline, or very
existence in the future. This variety of story tends to treat with equal alarm a potentially lethal flu outbreak and
the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream that over- promises smooth skin.
Are humans meant to be able to process so much trauma – not to mention so much overblown
anticipation of potential trauma – at once? The human brain, remember, is programmed to slip into alarm mode
when danger looms. Danger looms for someone, somewhere at every moment. Exposing ourselves to such input
without respite and without perspective cannot be anything other than a source of chronic stress.

(Extracted from The Complete Idiot’s Guide to Beating Stress by Arlene Matthews Uhl - Penguin Group 2006)

Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following has contributed to the intense nature of
twenty-first-century stress?
A. The degree to which stress affects our life B. Our inability to control ourselves
C. An overabundance of special news D. Our continual exposure to the media
Question 44: In the past, we had less news of distant people and lands because _________.
A. printing, transportation, and telecommunications were not developed
B. means of communication and transportation were not yet invented
C. most people lived in distant towns and villages
D. the printing press changed the situation too slowly
Question 45: The pronoun “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. TV channels B. TV news C. television sets D. cable access
Question 46: According to the passage, when there is not enough actual breaking news, broadcasts ______.
A. are full of dangerous diseases such as flu
B. send out live newscasts paired with text across the screen
C. are forced to publicise an alarming increase in crime
D. send out frightening stories about potential dangers
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The only source of stress in our modern life is the media.
B. Many TV channels supply the public with breaking news.
C. Many people are under stress caused by the media.
D. The news that is reported to us is not good news.
Question 48: The word “slip” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. fail B. bring C. release D. fall
Question 49: According to the passage, our continual exposure to bad news without perspective is obviously
__________.
A. the result of an overabundance of good news
B. the result of human brain’s switch to alarm mode
C. a source of defects in human brain
D. a source of chronic stress
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Question 50: What is probably the best title for this passage?
A. Developments in Telecommunications B. The Media – A Major Cause of Stress
C. More Modern Life – More Stress D. Effective Ways to Beat Stress

UNIT 12 - TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. lie B. goalie C. achieve D. belief
Question 2: A. punch B. synchronized C. March D. touching
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. award B. prevent C. visit D. except
Question 4: A. goalie B. advanced C. above D. depend
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Windsurfing, which is a water sport combining elements of surfing and sailing first developed in
the United States in 1968 and also called boardsailing.
A. first developed B. which C. combining D. also called
Question 6: The windsurfer stands on a board that is propelled and steering by means of a sail attached to a
mast that is articulated at the foot.
A. attached B. that C. steering D. is propelled
Question 7: Since 1984 the sport has included in the Olympic Games as part of the yachting events.
A. has included B. as C. the D. Since 1984
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: How many players are there in _______ water polo team?
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 9: _______ swimming is considered to be __________ good way of losing weight.
A. Ø / a B. The / a C. A / the D. The / the
Question 10: They are going to _______ the pool to 1.8 meter.
A. deep B. depth C. deepen D. deeply
Question 11: The referee had no hesitation in awarding the visiting team a _______.
A. penalty B. penalize C. penal D. penalization
Question 12: The crowd cheered as the goalkeeper deflected the _______.
A. shoot B. shooting C. shooter D. shot
Question 13: _______ defense, the players work to regain possession of the ball and prevent a goal
A. About B. Over C. Without D. On
Question 14: Players can move the ball by throwing it _______ a teammate or swimming while pushing the
ball in front of them.
A. for B. into C. to D. from
Question 15: Shots usually succeed when the goalie is out _______ position.
A. into B. for C. of D. off
Question 16: In water polo, a shot is successful if the ball completely passes between the goal posts and
underneath the _______.
A. net B. crossbar C. ball D. goalie
Question 17: A defensive player may only hold, block or pull a / an ____ who is touching or holding the ball.
A. audience B. referee C. goalie D. opponent
Question 18: If a defender _______ a foul within the five meter area that prevents a likely goal, the attacking
team is awarded a penalty throw or shot.
A. commits B. interferes C. punches D. touches
Question 19: The more goals the players _______, the more exciting the match became.
A. marked B. made C. scored D. sprinted
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Question 20: After twenty years collecting stamps, Mike __________ interested in them.
A. is not longer B. no longer C. no longer is D. is no longer
Question 21: He asked me .
A. since when I’m waiting B. how long I have been waiting
C. how long I had been waiting D. since when I waited
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 22: Jack: “I’ve got to go, Sarah. So long.” – Sarah: “So long, Jack. And_____.”
A. be careful B. don’t hurry C. take care D. don’t take it seriously
Question 23: Mary: “That’s a very nice skirt you’re wearing.”- Julia: “_________.”
A. That’s nice B. I like it C. That’s all right D. I’m glad you like it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: When I mentioned the party, he was all ears.
A. using both ears B. listening neglectfully C. listening attentively D. partially deaf
Question 25: John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings.
A. spending on B. putting out C. using up D. saving up
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: A trial must be fair and impartial.
A. apprehensive B. hostile C. biased D. unprejudiced
Question 27: After her husband's tragic accident, she took up his position at the university.
A. incredible B. boring C. mysterious D. comic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 28: He could escape from hurt because he was wearing protective clothes.
A. Thanks to his protective clothes, he could escape from hurt.
B. His protective clothes made him hurt.
C. Due to his protective clothes, he was hurt.
D. His being hurt made his unable to wear protective clothes.
Question 29: We were unable to type the contract because the computer malfunctioned.
A. Despite a computer malfunction, we managed to finish typing the contract.
B. The computer malfunction helped us complete the contract.
C. The fact that the computer malfunction prevented us from typing the contract.
D. Thanks to the computer malfunction, we could type the contract.
Question 30: The roads were slippery because it snowed heavily.
A. It snowed too heavily to make the roads slippery.
B. The heavy snow prevented the roads from-being slippery.
C. Thanks to the slip of the roads, it snowed heavily.
D. The heavy snow made the roads slippery.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: He felt tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain
B. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 32: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
B. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
C. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.
D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
Sailing or boating may seem to be very interesting with the high level of technical elements (33) _____ in the
sport. Whether you choose a small boat or a catamaran, whether you choose lake or ocean sailing, there are (34)
_____ number of things you need to master before you can start enjoying the pure pleasure of being on the
water.
Getting the sailing skills which you need to start sailing your own boat is easy if you just sign up with a sailing
school. You can learn to sail at any age. There are no restriction. The best schools and instructors will teach
you all you need to know about sailing in a friendly and pleasant manner. As with all sports, sailing will get you
into (35) _____ with new friends. There is a closeness that develops out at sea, however, (36) _____ not many
other sports have. Being on the water in any capacity demands a healthy outlook and way of life. Sailing and
boating are two sports that demand all our senses to be at their peak. Sailing calls upon physical strength,
intelligence and intuition. It is one sport that allows you to leave all your daily concerns and (37) _____ back on
the land and to be off with only your bare self.
Question 33. A. invented B. consisted C. involved D. contained
Question 34. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 35. A. allowance B. pace C. contact D. keeping
Question 36. A. which B. that C. when D. whom
Question 37. A. cultures B. habits C. traditions D. customs
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial
problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s
inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend
that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its
desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The
giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it
holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely
nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to
their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the world.
The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like
mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most
of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only
by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the
temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 38: The title for this passage could be .
A.“Desert Plants” B. “Life Underground”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”
Question 39: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as
.
A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
B. water is an essential part of his existence
C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
D. very few large animals are found in the desert
Question 40: According to the passage, creatures in the desert .
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. live in an accommodating environment
C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
Question 41: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means .
A. wild B. cunning
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 C. unmanageable D. unhealthy
Question 42: The word “them” means .
A. animals B. people C. water D. minutes
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50 .

The hippopotamus is the third largest land animal, smaller only than the elephant and the rhinoceros. Its name
comes from Greek words which mean “river horse”. The long name of this animal is often shortened to the
easier to handle term “hippo”.
The hippo has a natural affinity for the water. It does not float on top of water, instead, it can easily walk
along the bottom of a body of water. The hippo commonly remains underwater for three to five minutes and has
been known to stay under for up to half an hour before coming up for air.
In spite of its name, the hippo has relatively little in common with the horse and instead has a number of
interesting similarities in common with the whale. When a hippo comes up after a stay at the bottom of lake or
river, it releases air through a blowhole, just like a whale. In addition, the hippo resembles the whale in that they
both have thick layers of blubber for protection and they are almost completely hairless.
Question 43: The topic of this passage is_____________.
A. The largest land animals B. The derivation of animal names
C. The characteristics of the hippo D. The relation between the hippo and the whale
Question 44 : It can be infered from the passage that the rhinoceros is________________.
A. Smaller than the hippo B. Equal in size to the elephant
C. A hybrid of the hippo and the elephant D. One of the two largest types of land animals
Question 45 : The possessive “Its” in line 1 refers to
A. Hippopotamus’ B. Elephant’s C. Rhinoceros’ D. Horse’s
Question 46 : It can be inferred from the passage that the hippopotamus is commonly called a hippo
because the word ”hippo” is______________.
A. Simpler to pronounce accurately B. Scientifically more accurate
C. The original name D. Edtasier for the animal to recognize
Question 47 : The word “float” in line 4 is closest in meaning to
A. sink B. drift C. eat D. flap
Question 48 : According to the passage, what is the maximum time that hippos have been known to stay
uderwater?
A. Three minutes B. Five minutes C. Thirty minutes D. Ninety minutes
Question 49 : The passage states that one way in which a hippo is similar to a whale is that____________.
A. They both live on the bottoms of rivers B. They both have blowholes
C. They are both named after horses D. They both breathe underwater
Question 50 : The passage states that the hippo does not __________.
A. Like water B. Resemble the whale
C. Have a protective coating D. Have much hair

UNIT 12 - TEST 3
Indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation
Question 1: A. caps B. meters C. swimmers D. lines
Question 2: A. pool B. good C. look D. book
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. overtime B. decision C. period D. penalize
Question 4: A. scuba-diving B. swimming C. gymnastics D. skating
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The sport was became very popular in Europe and by the late 70's there was windsurfing fever in
Europe with one in every three households having a sailboard.
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A. having B. was became C. popular D. there was
Question 6: The first world championship of windsurfing held in 1973. Windsurfing first became an
Olympic sport in 1984 for men and 1992 for women.
A. The first B. held C. championship D. an
Question 7: This class has cancelled because too few students had registered before registration closed.
A. before B. had registered C. too few D. has cancelled
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: After a tie, there are two overtime periods of three minutes each.
A. penalty B. draw C. score D. goal
Question 9: The goalkeeper can also be ejected for twenty seconds if a major foul is committed.
A. advanced B. sprinted C. played D. excluded
Question 10: A goalie who aggressively fouls an attacker in position to score can be charged with a _______
shot for the other team.
A. penalty B. preventing C. scoring D. ranging
Question 11: _______ is a sport in which people or teams race against each other in boats with oars.
A. Rowing B. Windsurfing C. Swimming D. Water polo
Question 12: I have never taken part in any water sports _______ I cannot swim.
A. because B. because of C. due to D. partly because of
Question 13: Many people do not like scuba diving _______.
A. because it is dangerous B. because of it is dangerous
C. because its danger D. due to it is dangerous
Question 14: New Zealand _______ 1,000 miles southeast of Australia.
A. lies about B. is lain C. is lying D. is laid about
Question 15: John _______ across the lawn.
A. danced wildly B. was wildly danced
C. was dancing wild D. was being danced wildly
Question 16: John _______ every summer.
A. plays softball and tennis B. plays with softball and tennis
C. is played softball and tennis D. is played with softball and tennis
Question 17: The eagle _______ higher and higher in the sky.
A. soar B. soared C. is soared D. was soared
Question 18: The baby _______.
A. was sleeping depth B. was slept deeply C. slept in depth D. was sleeping deeply
Question 19: ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 20: My brother is interested in doing __________ research.
A. scientific B. science C. scientist D. Scientifically
Question 21: Lorie is very thin, ____________her young sister, who is quite fat.
A. unlike B. dissimilar C. dislike D. unlikely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 22: David: “Happy Christmas!”- Jason: “____________”
A. You are the same! B. Same for you! C. The same to you! D. Happy Christmas with you!
Question 23: A: “________?”- B: “Once a week.”
A. How often do you go shopping B. How much do you want
C. Are you sure D. When will you get there
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust.
A. polluted B. occupied C. filled D. concentrated
Question 25: Over a long time, customs can erode. They are gradually replaced by newer customs.
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A. grow stronger B. grow weaker C. develop rapidly D. disappear completely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 26: “ Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the
back”, the teacher said.
A. visible B. edible C. eligible D. inaudible
Question 27: The funny story told by the man amused all the children.
A. pleased B. entertained C. saddened D. frightened
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 28: The accident happened because she was careless.
A. The accident was prevented due to her carelessness.
B. Her carelessness was responsible for the accident.
C. It was the accident that made her careless.
D. The more careless she was, the less accident happened.
Question 29: I did not understand what the lecturer was saying because I had not read his book.
A. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
B. The lecturer's book which I had not read was difficult to understand.
C. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
D. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his book.
Question 30: Because the weather was bad, we didn’t go camping.
A. If the weather wasn’t bad, we would go camping.
B. If the weather weren’t bad, we would go camping.
C. If the weather is good, we will go camping.
D. If the weather had not been bad, we would have gone camping.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.
A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health.
B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.
C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.
D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.
Question 32: The student was very bright. He could solve all the math problems.
A. He was such bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
B. The student was very bright that he could solve all the math problems.
C. He was so bright a student that he could solve all the math problems.
D. Such bright was the student that he could solve all the math problems.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
Water polo is a rapidly growing sport in the United States and internationally as (33) ______. For anyone
involved in playing or being a spectator, it is important to understand the rules of the game.
Each team (34) ______ of one goalie and six field players. Each field player plays both offense and defense,
and the goalie is not allowed on the other half of the pool. There are many different arrangements of players in
front of the goal. The position of the players depends on the play that is being run, similar to basketball or
hockey.
One important rule is that the ball can only be handled by one hand at a time. If a player holds the ball, which is
the size of a volley ball, yellow and with rubber grip, with both hands, the referee calls a turnover and the
possession of the ball goes to the opposing team.
The playing time, (35) ______ on the rules of play and the level of competition. Usually, men play four 7-
minute quarters while women play four 6-minute quarters. Teams are usually allowed 2 time outs per game, but
this may vary. Uniforms consist of swimsuits for both men and women, as well as a cap on the head with plastic
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ear protectors and the player's number on both sides. Visiting teams wear lighter color caps, while home wears
the darker color. In scoring, one point is given for each time the ball is thrown into the goal, and in some
leagues there is a 2-point line several meters out of the goal. Each quarter begins with a (36) ______ in which
the fastest members of each team race toward the ball, which is placed at the halfway point on the water by the
referee.
Water polo is an exciting, challenging, and fun sport. It is full contact and its competitiveness cannot be
underestimated. The game is great to watch and (37) ______ better to play. You may not imagine what goes on
underwater that no one, especially not the referee, can see. Water polo is a growing sport for good reason, and it
may soon be one of the leading sports for both men and women's athletics.
Question 33: A. well B. too C. so D. also
Question 34: A. contains B. includes C. consists D. involves
Question 35: A. takes B. depends C. interests D. attracts
Question 36: A. jog B. sprint C. walk D. run
Question 37: A. as B. even C. than D. more
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 38 to 42 .

One of the greatest advantages of robots is that they can work in situations that are dangerous or
harmful for human workers. For example, the continuous smell of paint has a harmful effect on
painters, but it doesn't "bother" a robot. Robots can work in nuclear power plants and in undersea
research stations that might be dangerous for humans. Already, robots are working in the plastics
industry and in chemical and industrial equipment industries. One of the most common uses of robots is
still in automobile factories. They can do the heavy, unpleasant, or dangerous work. These kinds of
industrial robots are not usually "mobile". The work they need to do is brought to them, like cars on an
assembly line, for example. The robot industry is a big business. By the middle of the 1990s, Japan' led
the world in robot production with more than 71,000 industrial robots at work. Both the United States
and Japan, as well as other countries, continue to develop more advanced robots. Robots can now be
made to perform more complex jobs. Robots can make decisions while they are working and learn from
their mistakes. Robots can now see with TV camera "eyes." They can easily hear and can even speak
using a voice made by a computer. But it is difficult to make a robot "understand." Thinking. and
understanding are very human qualities. The robots of the future will probably be very complex. They
will be able to perform many humanlike tasks. Robots and other technology will make the future a very
interesting place!
Question 38: We can infer from the passage that by the middle of the 1990s__________.
A. only Japan had used robots in production
B. Japan and the USA were the only countries to use robots
C. some countries had used robots in industrial production
D. Japan led the world in production thanks to robots
Question 39 : Which of the following are robots NOT be able to do?
A. To speak using a voice made by a computer
B. To think and understand
C. To make decisions at work
D. To learn from mistakes
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the robots of the
future?
A. They will probably be very complicated.
B. They will be able to do humanlike tasks.
C. They will contribute to making the future more interesting.
D. They will replace human workers in all kinds of work.
Question 41: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "bother" in the first paragraph?
A. “cancel” B. “change” C. “upset” D. “terminate”
Question 42: Which of the following can be the opposite of the word "mobile" in the first paragraph?
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 A. "stationary" B. "movable" C. "unthinkable" D. "repairable"
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 43 to 50 .

Ocean water plays an indispensable role in supporting life. The great ocean basins hold about 300 million
cubic miles of water. From this vast amount; about 80,000 cubic miles of water are sucking into the
atmosphere each year by evaporation and returned by precipitation and drainage to the ocean. More
than 24,000 cubic miles of rain descend annually upon the continents. This vast amount is required to
replenish the lakes and streams, springs and water tables on which all flora and fauna are dependent.
Thus, the hydrosphere permits organism existence.
The hydrosphere has strange characteristics because water has properties unlike those of any other
liquid. One anomaly is that water upon freezing expands by about 9 percent, whereas most liquids
contract on cooling. For this reason, ice floats on water bodies instead of sinking to the bottom. If the ice
sank, the hydrosphere would soon be frozen solidly, except for a thin layer of surface melt water during
the summer season. Thus, all aquatic life would be destroyed and the interchange of warm and cold
currents, which moderates climate, would be notably absent.
Another outstanding characteristic of water is that it has a heat capacity which is the highest of all
liquids and solids except ammonia. This characteristic enables the oceans to absorb ard store vast
quantities of heat, thereby often preventing climatic extremes. In addition, water dissolves more
substances than any other liquid. It is this characteristic which helps make oceans a great storehouse for
minerals which have been washed down from the continents. In several areas of the world these minerals
are being commercially exploited. Solar evaporation of salt is widely practiced, potash is extracted from
the Dead Sea, and Magnesium is produced from seawater along the American Gulf Coast.
Question 43: A characteristic of water NOT mentioned in this passage is that water ______.
A．expands on freezing B．is a great solvent
C．is like ammonia D．has a very high heat capacity
Question 44: Fish can survive in the oceans because ______.
A．there are currents in the ocean B．ice floats
C．evaporation and condensation create a water cycle D．water absorbs heat
Question 45 : The word “ replenish” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by_________ .
A. fill again B. replace C. evaporate D. form
Question 46 : The author’s main purpose in this passage is to ___________.
A. illustrate the importance of conserving water
B. describe the properties and uses of water
C. compare water with other liquids
D. explain how water is used in commerce and industry
Question 47 : The phrase “this vast amount” in line 4 of paragraph 1 refers to_________.
A. 80,000 million cubic miles of water
B. 24,000 cubic miles of rain
C. 80,000 cubic miles of water
D. 300 million cubic miles of water
Question 48 : According to the passage , the hydrosphere is NOT ___________.
A. the part of the earth covered by water
B. responsible for all forms of life
C. in danger of freezing over
D. a source of natural resources
Question 49 : The author organizes the passage by ______.
A. juxtaposition of true and untrue ideas
B. comparison and contrast
C. general statement followed by examples
D. hypothesis and proof
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Question 50: The word "outstanding" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________ .
A. exceptionally good B. special C. amusing D. important

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