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Inhouse GS Test - 04 - Question Paper

This document is a test booklet for the VAJIRAM & RAVI Prelims Test Series 2025, specifically for GS Test 04 focusing on Environment, Science & Technology and Major Government Schemes. It includes instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, marking responses, and penalties for incorrect answers. The test consists of 100 multiple-choice questions, covering various topics related to environmental science and biodiversity.
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
71 views

Inhouse GS Test - 04 - Question Paper

This document is a test booklet for the VAJIRAM & RAVI Prelims Test Series 2025, specifically for GS Test 04 focusing on Environment, Science & Technology and Major Government Schemes. It includes instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, marking responses, and penalties for incorrect answers. The test consists of 100 multiple-choice questions, covering various topics related to environmental science and biodiversity.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI


Prelims Test Series – 2025
GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and
Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully and
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
to take this Test Booklet with you.
9. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN ALL THE
QUESTIONS.
i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
iii. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. Consider the following statements regarding 4. Consider the following statements regarding
ecological succession: the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction
1. The composition and structure of a (BBNJ) Treaty:
community changes in response to its 1. It is a global treaty for the conservation and
physical environment. sustainable use of biological resources in the
2. A climax community is where a plant High Seas.
community reaches a state of ecological 2. It was developed within the United Nations
equilibrium in a specific climate. Framework Convention on Climate Change
3. ‘Sere’ is the entire sequence of communities (UNFCCC).
that successively changes in a given area. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct 5. Consider the following plants:
regarding the Living Planet Index (LPI), 2024?
1. Pea
1. It is released by the World Wildlife Fund
2. Spinach
(WWF).
3. Soyabean
2. It tracks changes in the relative abundance
4. Clover
of wild vertebrate species populations over
5. Cowpea
time.
How many of the above are nitrogen-fixing
3. It shows a 73% decrease in monitored wildlife
plants?
populations from 1970 to 2020.
(a) Only two
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(b) Only three
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) Only four
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All five
(d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Wetlands are often referred to as ‘nature’s sponges’
3. Consider the following: for which one of the following reasons?
1. Water cycle (a) They provide an environment for certain
2. Phosphorus cycle animals to reproduce and for their early
3. Nitrogen cycle survival.
4. Carbon cycle (b) They are excellent absorbers of carbon and
How many of the above are biogeochemical cycles? other greenhouse gases.
(a) Only one (c) They can absorb heavy metals and excess
(b) Only two nutrients.
(c) Only three (d) They absorb and store large amounts of water,
(d) All four which helps to prevent floods and drought.

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VAJIRAM & RAVI
7. Consider the following statements regarding 10. Barnacles growing on a whale is an example of
seaweeds: which one of the following population interactions?
1. Some seaweeds are used in traditional (a) Mutualism
medicine due to their anti-microbial (b) Commensalism
properties. (c) Amensalism
2. Some seaweeds are used to make (d) Competition
biodegradable packaging as an alternative to 11. Consider the following information:
plastic. Marine Protected Category State/Union
3. Some seaweeds are used as emulsifiers in Area (MPA) Territory
toothpaste and cosmetics. 1. Coringa Wildlife Andhra
Sanctuary Pradesh
Which of the statements given above are
2. Gulf of National Tamil Nadu
correct?
Mannar Park
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Point Calimere Wildlife Karnataka
(b) 1 and 3 only Sanctuary
(c) 2 and 3 only 4. Haliday Island National Andaman
Park and Nicobar
(d) 1, 2 and 3
In which of the above rows is the given information
8. Which one of the following is the correct correctly matched?
sequential order of a food chain, starting from (a) 1 and 2
producer to apex consumer? (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(a) Grass > Rabbit > Coyote > Fox
(d) 3 and 4
(b) Grass > Grasshopper > Frog > Snake
(c) Algae > Frog > Owl > Snake 12. In which one of the following ways do Sea otters
(d) Leaves > Bluebird > Caterpillar > Hawk contribute to the health of kelp forests?
(a) By feeding on small fishes
9. Which of the following practices are used for (b) By reducing sea urchin populations
carbon farming? (c) By feeding on kelp directly
(d) By protecting kelp from ocean currents
1. Silvopasture
2. Alley cropping 13. Consider the following statements:
3. Rotational grazing 1. Lichens are used as a bioindicator for air
4. Cover cropping pollution.
2. Mayflies are used as a bioindicator for water
5. Stubble retention
pollution.
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. Bats are used as a bioindicator for light
below: pollution.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2 Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025
GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
14. Which one of the following species has been 18. Consider the following statements regarding the
known to do “tapping” behaviour on the water’s Global Tiger Forum (GTF):
surface to attract its prey? 1. It provides a common approach to safeguard
(a) Fishing Cat the survival of the tiger, its prey and its
(b) Smooth-coated Otter habitat.
(c) Rusty-spotted Cat 2. All tiger range countries are currently
(d) Indian Pangolin members of GTF.
3. The secretariat of GTF is based in New Delhi,
15. Consider the following: India.
1. Adaptation Fund
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Green Climate Fund
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Loss and Damage Fund
(b) 2 and 3 only
4. Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund
(c) 1 and 3 only
5. Climate Investment Funds
The World Bank serves as the trustee to how many (d) 1, 2 and 3
of the above?
19. Consider the following statements regarding the
(a) Only two
Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur Supplementary Protocol:
(b) Only three
(c) Only four 1. It establishes international rules in the field
of liability and redress relating to living
(d) All five
modified organisms.
16. Which one of the following Biosphere Reserves is 2. It clearly defines ‘damage’ as an adverse
spread over three States in India? effect on the conservation and sustainable use
(a) Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve of biological diversity.
(b) Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve 3. It is a legally binding instrument.
(c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve 4. It has not been ratified by India.
(d) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
17. Consider the following:
(b) Only two
1. Convention on International Trade in
(c) Only three
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES) (d) All four
2.  International Criminal Police Organization
20. The “Emissions Gap Report (EGR)” is released
(INTERPOL)
annually by the United Nations Environment
3. United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
Programme (UNEP) to:
(UNODC)
(a) monitor the progress of countries in reducing
4. Trade-Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in
their carbon emissions through voluntary
Commerce (TRAFFIC)
commitments
5. World Customs Organization (WCO)
How many of the above are part of the (b) track the gap between projected global
International Consortium on Combating Wildlife emissions and the levels needed to limit
Crime (ICCWC)? warming to 1.5°C
(a) Only two (c) assess the gap in funding from developed and
(b) Only three developing nations for climate adaptation
(c) Only four (d) evaluate the role of individual countries in
(d) All five the global climate finance system

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GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
21. Consider the following: 24. The exchange of animals between foreign and
1. Microalgae cultivation Indian zoos is approved by:
2. Artificial upwelling and downwelling (a) National Tiger Conservation Authority
3. Carbon capture at emission sources (b) Biodiversity Management Authority
How many of the above activities are often (c) Animal Welfare Board of India
considered and discussed for ocean-based carbon (d) None of the above
dioxide removal (CDR)?
25. Consider the following:
(a) Only one
1. Gulf of Kachchh
(b) Only two
2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) All three
3. Lakshadweep Islands
(d) None
4. Palk Bay
How many of the above are declared as hope spots
22. In which of the following cases the approval is
in India?
required from the National Biodiversity Authority
(a) Only one
(NBA)?
(b) Only two
1. When results of research involving
(c) Only three
the country’s biodiversity are to be
(d) All four
commercialised
2. When results of research are shared with a 26. Which of the following are the common causes of
foreign individual or institution coral bleaching?
3. When an Indian institution accesses the 1. Increased ocean temperature
country’s biodiversity for research 2. Surface water runoff
4. When intellectual property protection is 3. Overexposure to sunlight
sought on Indian biological resources 4. Frequent high tides
Select the correct answer using the code given Select the correct answer using the code given
below: below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

23. With reference to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 27. Consider the following statements regarding
1972, consider the following statements: Ocean acidification:
1. Any wild animal and their parts found in the 1.  It reduces the pH of the ocean caused
wild are the property of the State Government. primarily by the uptake of carbon dioxide
2. It completely prohibits the hunting of wild (CO2) from the atmosphere.
animals for academic purposes. 2. Acidification makes it harder for calcifying
3. It prohibits the sale of wild animals even if organisms to build and maintain calcium
they have been obtained legally. carbonate structures.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4 Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025
GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
28. Which of the following is/are the criteria used to 31. Consider the following statements regarding the
identify biodiversity hotspots? adaptations found in mangroves to survive in
1. It should contain at least 1,500 species of intertidal zones:
vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth. 1. They exhibit viviparous reproduction, where
germinated seeds attach to the parent plant to
2. It must have lost at least 90 percent of its
enhance survival rates in unstable substrata.
primary native vegetation.
2. Prop roots provide stability by broadening
Select the correct answer using the code given
the tree base in soft soils.
below:
3. Salt Glands actively excrete absorbed salts to
(a) 1 only regulate internal salt concentrations.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
29. Match the following:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Type of Grassland Location
in India
32. Which one of the following best describes the
A. Alpine moist 1. Manipur
Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
meadows
(a) The capacity of a greenhouse gas to contribute
B. Chaurs 2. Greater
Himalayas to the depletion of the ozone layer
(b) The ability of a greenhouse gas to trap heat in
C. Terai 3. Himalayan
foothills the atmosphere relative to carbon dioxide
D. Phumdis 4. Gangetic and (c) The level of greenhouse gas concentrations
in the atmosphere at any particular moment
Brahmaputra
floodplains (d) The amount of energy needed to reduce the
Select the correct answer using the code given impacts of a greenhouse gas
below:
33. Consider the following pairs:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Type of Hydrogen Produced through
(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
1. Pink Hydrogen Electrolysis powered
(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 by nuclear energy
(d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 2. Turquoise Gasification of black
Hydrogen coal
30. What does the Ecological Footprint measure?
3. Yellow Hydrogen Natural gas using
(a) The ecological assets that a given population
steam methane
requires to produce the natural resources it reforming
consumes and to absorb its wastes 4. White Hydrogen Electrolysis powered
(b) The ability of ecosystems to produce natural by solar energy
resources needed for the survival of all How many of the pairs given above are correctly
species matched?
(c) The total greenhouse gas emissions by an (a) Only one pair
ecosystem that contributes to global warming (b) Only two pairs
(d) The maximum number of populations that (c) Only three pairs
can be sustained indefinitely by an ecosystem (d) All four pairs

Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025 5


GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
34. Consider the following statements regarding the 37. Consider the following information:
trophic states of lakes: Forest Vegetation Found in
1. The trophic state of a lake represents the total 1. Tropical Orchids and Western and
biomass present at a given place and time. Rainforests Bromeliads Central
2. Oligotrophic lakes are characterised by low Africa
oxygen levels and low species diversity. 2. Te m p e r a t e Robles and North
Rainforests laurels America
3. 
Mesotrophic lakes exhibit higher primary 3. Boreal Spruce and Scottish
productivity than eutrophic lakes. coniferous pine Highlands
Which of the statements given above is/are In which of the above rows is the given information
correct? correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 only
38. Which of the following are the effects of ocean
35. The majority of primary productivity in the ocean warming on biodiversity?
is attributed to which of the following? 1. Warmer waters cause corals to expel algae
(a) Marine sponges leading to coral bleaching.
2. Species are forced to migrate to meet their
(b) Microscopic algae
temperature needs for feeding and breeding.
(c) Seaweed
3. 
Ocean warming reduces upwelling which
(d) Kelp forest limits nutrient availability at the surface.
Select the correct answer using the code given
36. Consider the following statements regarding the below:
World Commission on Protected Areas (WCPA): (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is a component of the International Union (b) 2 and 3 only
for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). (c) 1 and 3 only

2. It aims to develop area-based conservation (d) 1, 2 and 3


measures for the conservation of biodiversity.
39. Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA), sometimes
Which of the statements given above is/are
seen in the news, was established under:
correct?
(a) Kyoto Protocol (1997)
(a) 1 only
(b) Paris Agreement (2015)
(b) 2 only
(c) Glasgow Climate Pact (2021)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Sharm El-Sheikh Implementation Plan
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (2022)

6 Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025


GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
40. Consider the following: 43. Which of the following statements are correct
1. Ocean heat storage regarding the Plastic Waste Management
(Amendment) Rules, 2024?
2. Carbon absorption by plants and soil
1. It makes the Producers, Importers and Brand
3. Increased water vapour in the atmosphere
Owners who introduce any plastic packaging
4. Cloud formation
in the market responsible for the collection of
Which of the above activities generates negative such plastic packaging.
climate feedback?
2. 
It makes local bodies responsible for
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only developing and setting up infrastructure for
(b) 1 and 2 only plastic waste management.
(c) 3 and 4 only 3. It requires manufacturers of biodegradable
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only plastic products to obtain certification from
the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

41. Consider the following statements regarding the Select the correct answer using the code given
sixth mass extinction on the Earth: below:

1. 
It is primarily driven by human activities (a) 1 and 2 only
such as unsustainable land, water and energy (b) 2 and 3 only
use.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. It has been aggravated by agriculture which
has been responsible for 90% of global (d) 1, 2, and 3
deforestation.
Which of the statements given above is/are 44. With reference to the challenges of patenting
correct? traditional knowledge, consider the following
statements:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 1.  Bio-prospecting involves the exploration
of biological diversity for commercially
(c) Both 1 and 2
valuable genetic or biochemical resources.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2.  Biopiracy refers to the unauthorized use
of indigenous knowledge without proper
42. The Accredited Compensatory Afforestation compensation to the local communities.
(ACA) mechanism, used for obtaining prior
Which of the statements given above is/are
approval for non-forestry use of forest, is set up
correct?
under which one of the following Acts?
(a) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 (a) 1 only

(b) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (b) 2 only

(c) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
45. Which of the following statements is/are correct 48. Consider the following:
regarding the Environment (Protection) Act, 1. Spiders
1986? 2. Snails
1. It fixes the maximum allowable limits of 3. Leeches
various environmental pollutants (including 4. Earthworms
How many of the above have an open blood
noise) for different areas.
circulatory system?
2. It lays down the safeguards for the prevention
(a) Only one
of accidents which may cause environmental (b) Only two
pollution. (c) Only three
3. It establishes the standards of air, water & (d) All four
soil in different areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given 49. Consider the following statements:
below: 1.  MicroRNA, a new class of tiny RNA
molecules play a crucial role in gene
(a) 1 and 2 only
regulation.
(b) 2 only
2. Human genome codes for over one thousand
(c) 1 and 3 only microRNAs.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
46. Excess glucose in the human body is primarily (a) 1 only
stored as: (b) 2 only
(a) glucagon (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) lactose (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) glycogen
50. The “POLIX” and “XSPECT” payloads were
(d) saturated fat recently seen in the news in the context of:
(a) investigating potential for human habitation
47. Consider the following information: on inner planets
Vitamin Function Deficiency (b) space-based observatory mission for studying
Disease
cosmic X-rays
1. Vitamin B12 Blood Pernicious (c) advanced weather forecasting systems
formation anaemia
(d) detecting gravitational waves produced by
2. Vitamin C Healing Scurvy supermassive black holes
of wounds
3. Vitamin A Synthesis Blindness 51. Consider the following:
of visual 1. Groundhogs
pigment
2. Ground Squirrels
4. Vitamin E Clotting Angular 3. Marmots
of blood stomatitis
4. Bats
In which of the above rows is the given information How many of the above hibernate to survive the
correctly matched? winters?
(a) 1 and 3 (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 4 (b) Only two
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All four
8 Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025
GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
52. With reference to neuromorphic computing, 55. Consider the following:
consider the following statements: 1. Radar systems in aircraft
1. It is modelled after systems in the human
2. Studying atomic properties of matter
brain and nervous system.
2. It uses an artificial neural network composed 3. Tele-communication
of spiking neurons and synapses. How many of the above are the applications of
3. Each spiking neuron has its own charge, microwaves?
delay and threshold values.
(a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) All three
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None
(d) 1, 2 and 3
56. The phenomena of ‘Gravitational Lensing’ is
53. In the context of India and U.S. deal for the 31
mainly used for:
MQ-9B, consider the following statements:
1.  These are unarmed High Altitude Long (a) measurement of the speed of light
Endurance (HALE) Remotely Piloted (b) observation of distant space objects
Aircraft Systems (RPAS) manufactured by
(c) determining the composition of nearby
General Atomics.
planets
2.  Out of 31 MQ-9B, the Indian Navy (IN)
will get 15 naval variants dubbed the Sea (d) mapping the gravitational field of Earth
Guardians for maritime missions, whereas
the Indian Army (IA) and the Indian Air 57. Consider the following statements:
Force (IAF) will get eight each dubbed the Statement-I:
Sky Guardian.
Helium is used in rockets to pressurise fuel tanks
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only and purge fuel lines.
(b) 2 only Statement-II:
(c) Both 1 and 2 Helium has a low density and does not react with
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 rocket fuel.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
54. Consider the following statements regarding the
quasars: the above statements?
1. They are rapidly rotating neutron stars (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
emitting beams of light. and Statement–II explains Statement–I
2. They are intense sources of X-rays as well as (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
visible light.
correct, but Statement–II does not explain
3. All quasars are Active Galactic Nucleus
Statement–I
(AGN), but not all AGNs are quasars.
How many of the above statements are correct? (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
(a) Only one incorrect
(b) Only two (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
(c) All three correct
(d) None

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GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
58. Consider the following statements: 61. Which of the following is the correct proportion
1. Quantum dots are fluorescent nanocrystals of gases, present in the biogas, from highest to
with a semiconductor material at its core. lowest?
2. Smaller quantum dots emit photons with (a) Methane > Nitrogen > Carbon Dioxide
shorter wavelength.
(b) Carbon Dioxide > Methane > Nitrogen
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Methane > Carbon Dioxide > Nitrogen
(a) 1 only
(d) Nitrogen > Carbon Dioxide > Methane
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
62. In the context of Metaverse, consider the following
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
59. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, 1. It is a massive virtual environment parallel
consider the following statements: to the physical world, in which users interact
1. The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) through digital avatars.
utilises liquid propulsion in all its stages, 2.  Avatar refers to the digital representation
similar to the Geosynchronous Satellite
of players in the metaverse, where players
Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
interact with the other players or the computer
2. Unlike the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
agents through the avatar.
(PSLV) and GSLV, the SSLV can be
assembled either vertically or horizontally. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. The PSLV is a four-stage vehicle, with two (a) 1 only
of its stages utilising solid rocket motors, and (b) 2 only
the other two stages powered by liquid rocket (c) Both 1 and 2
engines. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. The GSLV Mk-III is a three-stage vehicle
with an indigenous high-thrust cryogenic 63. Consider the following statements:
upper stage. 1. Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells do
How many of the above statements are correct? not possess membrane-bound organelles.
(a) Only one
2. Prokaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus,
(b) Only two
whereas eukaryotic cells do not.
(c) Only three
3.  Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells
(d) All four
contain only one chromosome per cell.
60. Consider the following pairs: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Enzyme Used in (a) 1 only
1. Proteases Detergents (b) 1 and 3 only
2. Amylases Breads (c) 2 and 3 only
3. Gluco Isomerase Artificial sweeteners (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Lipases Biodegradable plastics
How many of the pairs given above are correctly 64. Which one of the following cell organelles is
matched? called a ‘protein factory of the cell’?
(a) Only one pair (a) Lysosomes
(b) Only two pairs (b) Mitochondria
(c) Only three pairs (c) Ribosomes
(d) All four pairs (d) Golgi apparatus
10 Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025
GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
65. Consider the following: 68. Consider the following:
1. Fingerprint verification 1. Thalassemia
2. DNA matching
2. Down syndrome
3. Voice recognition
4. Signature recognition 3. Haemophilia
5. Knowledge-based authentication 4. Colour blindness
How many of the above are biometric identification How many of the above are primarily hereditary
technologies? disorders?
(a) Only two
(a) Only one
(b) Only three
(b) Only two
(c) Only four
(d) All five (c) Only three
(d) All four
66. Consider the following statements regarding the
End-to-End Encryption (E2EE):
69. Consider the following statements regarding the
1. It keeps messages private from everyone,
cyber security:
including the messaging service.
2. It uses public key encryption without having 1. Both worms and viruses can only spread
to send the secret key over an insecure through executable files.
channel. 2. 
Worms modify programs or data, while
3. It is based on symmetric encryption that uses viruses often slow down systems.
only one key to both encrypt and decrypt. 3. Worms can replicate and spread on their own,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? while viruses cannot.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
67. With reference to active immunity, consider the
(c) 2 only
following statements:
1. It is developed when a person’s own immune (d) 1 and 3 only
system produces antibodies in response to
exposure to a pathogen. 70. The “Bridge Recombinase Mechanism (BRM)”,
2. It provides long-lasting protection compared recently seen in the news, refers to:
to passive immunity. (a) a method for the detection of pathogens in
3. It may be induced naturally through infection patients
or artificially through vaccination.
(b) a naturally occurring tool for DNA editing
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) a mechanism for detecting genetic mutations
(b) 1 and 3 only in cells
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) a methodology for the manufacture of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 bioartificial organs

Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025 11


GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
71. Consider the following statements: 73. Consider the following statements regarding
Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry
Statement-I: Vehicle (MIRV) technology:
Chloroplasts and Mitochondria are semi- 1.  It has been developed by the Defence
autonomous organelles. Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) under the ‘Mission Divyastra’.
Statement-II: 2. It allows a single missile to carry multiple
warheads, each capable of targeting different
Chloroplasts and Mitochondria cannot exist
locations independently.
outside the cytoplasm for a long period.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement III: correct?
(a) 1 only
Chloroplasts and Mitochondria contain their own (b) 2 only
DNA and ribosomes. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements? 74. The cryogenic technology has applications in
(a) Both Statement–II and Statement–III are which of the following?
correct and both of them explain Statement–I 1. Development of cooling systems
2. Conservation of species
(b) Both Statement–II and Statement–III are 3. Development of rocket engines
correct, but only one of them explains 4. Smelting of metals
Statement–I 5. Preservation of food
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Only one of the Statements–II and III is
below:
correct and that explains Statement–I
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither Statement–II nor Statement–III is (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
correct (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

72. mRNA vaccines have been demonstrated as 75. Consider the following pairs:
a powerful alternative to traditional vaccines Isotope Use
because: 1. Cobalt-60 Treatment of cancer
2. Cesium-137 Treatment of goitre
(a) mRNA vaccines introduce a weakened form
3. Deuterium Production of nuclear
of the virus to stimulate immunity energy
(b) mRNA vaccines do not alter DNA or expose 4. Chlorine-35 Study the toxicity of
environmental pollutants
individuals to the virus
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(c) mRNA vaccines integrate into the cell’s DNA matched?
(a) Only one pair
(d) mRNA vaccines provide a permanent change
(b) Only two pairs
in immune cell DNA (c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

12 Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025


GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
76. Which of the following statements are correct 78. Consider the following statements regarding the
regarding the salient features of Digital Personal Internet Protocol (IP) address:
Data Protection Act 2023? 1. It is a unique identifier assigned to a device
1. It protects the personal data that is made or that connects to the internet.
caused to be made publicly available by the 2. Each IP packet contains both the IP addresses
Data Principal. of the sender and the recipient.
2. It will apply to processing of digital personal 3. 
It is allocated by the International
data outside India, if it is for offering goods Telecommunication Union (ITU).
or services in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
3. 
It does not apply to processing of digital (a) 1 and 2 only
personal data within the territory of India
(b) 2 and 3 only
where the personal data is collected in non
(c) 1 and 3 only
digital form and digitised subsequently.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
79. Consider the following statements regarding the
(a) 1 and 2 only
Outer Space Treaty, 1967:
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. It was negotiated and drafted under the United
(c) 1 and 3 only
Nations.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It prohibits the placement of all conventional
weapons in outer space.
77. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: 3. It covers the Moon and other celestial bodies.

In proteins, amino acids are linked together in long 4. It has been signed and ratified by India.
strings that fold up to make a three-dimensional How many of the above statements are correct?
structure. (a) Only one
Statement-II: (b) Only two
Using the information stored in DNA as a (c) Only three
blueprint, the amino acids are linked together in (d) All four
our cells to form long strings.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 80. The term “Domain Flipping,” sometimes
the above statements? mentioned in the news, refers to:
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct (a) the practice of renting internet domains to
and Statement–II explains Statement–I businesses for short-term use
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are (b) creating new domains and selling them
correct, but Statement–II does not explain directly to domain registrars for a fixed profit
Statement–I (c) acquiring domains for Search Engine
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is Optimization (SEO) enhancement of multiple
incorrect websites
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is (d) buying existing domain names at low prices
correct and selling them at a higher price for profit

Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025 13


GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
81. Consider the following statements: 84. Consider the following pairs:
Statement-I: Model of Feature
Nitrogen gas is used in potato chip packets to Cloud
preserve their crispiness. Computing
Statement-II:
Nitrogen maintains the moisture content in the 1. Software as a It requires subscribers to
Service install software on their
packaging.
Statement-III: (SaaS) own computers.
Nitrogen enhances the chips’ flavor.
2. Infrastructure It is based on a cloud
Which one of the following is correct in respect of computing model.
the above statements? as a Service
(IaaS)
(a) Both Statement–II and Statement–III are
correct and both of them explain Statement–I 3. Platform as a It provides applications
(b) Both Statement–II and Statement–III are Service needed to create, deploy
correct, but only one of them explains (PaaS) and host websites.
Statement–I
(c) Only one of the Statements–II and III is 4. Desktop as a Its resources can be
correct and that explains Statement–I Service accessed only through a
(DaaS) web browser.
(d) Neither Statement–II nor Statement–III is
correct
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
82. Consider the following: matched?
1. Chikungunya (a) Only one pair
2. Tuberculosis (TB)
(b) Only two pairs
3. Measles
(c) Only three pairs
4. Cholera
5. Hepatitis A (d) All four pairs
Which of the above diseases are transmitted
through aerosols? 85. Which of the following is/are the findings revealed
(a) 2 and 3 only by Boltzman machine?
(b) 1 and 4 only 1. It can recognise familiar traits in information
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only it has not previously seen.
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 2. It can be used to recommend films or television
series based on the viewer’s preferences.
83. Consider the following statements regarding the
TRISHNA mission: 3. Unlike the Hopfield model, it focuses on
1. It is a joint initiative launched by ISRO and statistical distributions of patterns rather than
NASA. individual patterns.
2. It aims to monitor the energy and water Select the correct answer using the code given
budgets of the continental biosphere. below:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14 Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025


GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
86. In the context of Marburg virus, consider the 89. Consider the following statements:
following statements: 1.  Misinformation refers to deliberately
1.  Rousettus aegyptiacus, fruit bats of the misleading or biased information spread with
Pteropodidae family, are considered to be the intention to deceive or manipulate others.
natural hosts of Marburg virus.
2. Disinformation refers to false or inaccurate
2. It is transmitted to people from fruit bats and
information that is spread unintentionally
spreads among humans through human-to-
or without harmful intent, often due to
human transmission.
misunderstanding or mistake.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 3.  Deepfake refers to synthetic media,
(a) 1 only typically images or videos, where a person’s
(b) 2 only appearance, voice, or facial expressions
(c) Both 1 and 2 are convincingly altered or replaced with
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 someone else’s using artificial intelligence
(AI) and machine learning (ML) techniques.
87. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement-I:
correct?
Satellites in Geostationary Orbit (GEO) provide a
constant view of the same area on Earth. (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement-II: (b) 2 and 3 only
Satellites in GEO move above the equator at the
(c) 3 only
same speed as Earth’s rotation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of (d) 1, 2 and 3
the above statements?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct 90. In the context of Artificial General Intelligence
and Statement–II explains Statement–I (AGI), consider the following statements:
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
1. It refers to AI systems that are designed and
correct, but Statement–II does not explain
trained to perform a single, narrow task or a
Statement–I
specific set of tasks.
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
incorrect 2.  It does not possess the ability to reason,
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is generalize, or adapt knowledge beyond its
correct predefined purpose.
Which of the statements given above is/are
88. Which one of the following malwares allows correct?
access to an endpoint device by breaching the
(a) 1 only
application and driver levels of privilege to finally
reach the core of the system? (b) 2 only
(a) Adware (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Trojan
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Rootkit
(d) Spyware
Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025 15
GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
91. Which of the following are the objectives of the 93. Which one of the following is the objective of the
SVAMITVA Scheme? Scheme for Residential Education for Students in
High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA)?
1. Enable rural citizens to use property as a
(a) To promote technical education among rural
financial asset for loans
youth through vocational training
2. Support direct cash transfers for poverty (b) To provide financial assistance for school
alleviation infrastructure development in tribal areas
(c) To bridge the digital divide by providing
3. Determine property tax for Gram Panchayats
e-learning tools to marginalized students
(GPs)
(d) To provide access to high-quality education
4. Create survey infrastructure and Geographic to the students from Scheduled Caste
Information System maps for multiple uses communities
5.  Improve Gram Panchayat Development
94. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana
Plans (GPDP) using GIS maps
Yojana (PMMVY), consider the following
Select the correct answer using the code given statements:
below: 1.  It provides a cash incentive directly in
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only the bank account of Pregnant Women and
Lactating Mothers (PW&LM).
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only 2.  It excludes PW&LM who are in regular
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only employment with the Central Government or
the State Governments.
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. It is implemented under the provisions of the
National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013.
92. With reference to the Carbon Credit Trading Which of the statements given above are correct?
Scheme (CCTS), consider the following (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. It has been notified by the Central Government (d) 1, 2 and 3
in consultation with the Bureau of Energy
Efficiency (BEE). 95. Which of the following are the eligibility criteria
2. It outlines the structure of the Indian carbon to apply for the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijlee
Yojana?
market for both obligated entities and non-
1. She/he must be an Indian citizen.
obligated entities.
2. She/he must own a house with a roof.
3. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 3. The household must have a valid electricity
is responsible for identifying sectors and connection.
obligated entities under the compliance 4. The household must not have availed of any
mechanism. other subsidy for solar panels.
5. The household must use non-domestic content
Which of the statements given above are correct? requirement modules in solar installation.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

16 Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025


GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)
VAJIRAM & RAVI
96. With reference to the National Pension System 99. Match the following:
(NPS) Vatsalya Scheme, consider the following Scheme Objective
statements: A. Swayamsiddha 1. Establish self-reliant
1. Parents or guardians can contribute on behalf Scheme women’s self-help
of their minor children with a minimum groups.
annual contribution of Rs 1,000, with no B. Sukanya 2. To offer integrated
maximum limit on contributions. Samriddhi support services to
2. Upon the child turning 18, the NPS Vatsalya Yojana women affected by
violence.
Scheme account will automatically convert
C. One Stop 3. To provide financial
into a standard NPS account.
Centre Scheme support for the
Which of the statements given above is/are
education and
correct?
welfare of the girl
(a) 1 only child.
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Both 1 and 2
below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) A-2, B-1, C-3
97. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma (b) A-1, B-3, C-2
Scheme, consider the following statements: (c) A-3, B-2, C-1
1. It aims to provide end-to-end support to (d) A-1, B-2, C-3
artisans through access to collateral-free
credit. 100. Consider the following statements regarding the
2. Only one member of a family can apply for Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-
the scheme. SYM) scheme:
3. A person in government service and their
1. It is a voluntary pension scheme with a shared
family members shall not be eligible to apply.
contribution made by the beneficiary and the
4. Only Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are
eligible to lend under the scheme. Central Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. It provides a minimum assured pension of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Rs 3000/- per month to each subscriber after
(b) 2 and 3 only reaching the age of 60 years.
(c) 1 and 4 only 3. It is implemented through the Employees’
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
98. Which one of the following is the primary (a) 1 and 2 only
objective of the PM E-DRIVE scheme?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) To establish government-owned electric
(c) 1 and 3 only
vehicle production units
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) To expedite the adoption of Electric Vehicles
(EVs) by providing incentives for their
purchase
(c) To promote research and development in the
manufacturing of the batteries in EVs
(d) To provide tax exemptions for electric vehicle
manufacturers

Vajiram & Ravi Prelims Test Series – 2025 17


GS Test – 04 – Environment, Science & Technology and Major Schemes of Government (IN4404)

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