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CompTIA
Exam Questions N10-009
CompTIA Network+ Exam

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following can have multiple VLAN interfaces?

A. Hub
B. Layer 3 switch
C. Bridge
D. Load balancer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Topic 3)
A PC and a network server have no network connectivity, and a help desk technician is attempting to resolve the issue. The technician plans to run a constant ping
command from a Windows workstation while testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. Which of the following should the technician use?

A. ping —w
B. ping -i
C. ping —s
D. ping —t

Answer: D

Explanation:
ping -t is an option for the ping command in Windows that allows the user to send continuous ping requests to a target until stopped by pressing Ctrl-C. This can
help the technician run a constant ping command while testing various possible reasons for the connectivity issue. ping -w is an option for the ping command in
Windows that allows the user to specify a timeout value in milliseconds for each ping request. ping -i is an option for the ping command in Linux that allows the
user to specify the time interval in seconds between each ping request. ping -s is an option for the ping command in Linux that allows the user to specify the size of
the data payload in bytes for each ping request.
References: How to Use the Ping Command in Windows - Lifewire (https://www.lifewire.com/ping-command-2618099)

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Topic 3)
An organization has a security requirement that all network connections can be traced back to a user. A network administrator needs to identify a solution to
implement on the wireless network. Which of the following is the best solution?

A. Implementing enterprise authentication

B. Requiring the use of PSKs
C. Configuring a captive portal for users
D. Enforcing wired equivalent protection

Answer: A

Explanation:
Enterprise authentication is a method of securing wireless networks that uses an external authentication server, such as RADIUS, to verify the identity of users and
devices. Enterprise authentication can provide user traceability by logging the network connections and activities of each authenticated user. This can help the
organization meet its security requirement and comply with any regulations or policies that mandate user accountability12.
References:
? CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Exam Objectives, page 83
? CompTIA Network+ Cert Guide: Wireless Networking, page 13

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Topic 3)
A network technician is troubleshooting a port channel issue. When logging in to one of the switches, the technician sees the following information displayed:
Native VLAN mismatch detected on interface g0/1
Which of the following layers of the OSI model is most likely to be where the issue resides?

A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 5
D. Layer 6

Answer: A

Explanation:
Layer 2 of the OSI model is the data link layer, which is responsible for transferring data between adjacent nodes on a network. It uses protocols such as Ethernet,
PPP, and HDLC to encapsulate data into frames and add MAC addresses for source and destination identification. It also uses protocols such as STP, LACP, and
CDP to manage the physical links and prevent loops, aggregate bandwidth, and discover neighboring devices12
A native VLAN mismatch is a common Layer 2 issue that occurs when two switches are connected by a trunk port, but have different native VLANs configured on
their interfaces. A native VLAN is the VLAN that is assigned to untagged frames on a trunk port. If the native VLANs do not match, the switches will drop the
untagged frames and generate an error message. This can cause connectivity problems and security risks on the network345
To resolve a native VLAN mismatch, the network technician should ensure that both switches have the same native VLAN configured on their trunk ports, or use a
different port mode such as access or general.

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Topic 3)
A Chief Information Officer wants to monitor network breaching in a passive, controlled manner. Which of the following would be best to implement?

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A. Honeypot
B. Perimeter network
C. Intrusion prevention system
D. Port security

Answer: A

Explanation:
A honeypot is a decoy system that is designed to attract and trap hackers who attempt to breach the network. A honeypot mimics a real system or network, but
contains fake or non- sensitive data and applications. A honeypot can be used to monitor network breaching in a passive, controlled manner, as it allows the
network administrator to observe the hacker’s behavior, techniques, and tools without compromising the actual network or data. A honeypot can also help to divert
the hacker’s attention from the real targets and collect forensic evidence for further analysis or prosecution.

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Topic 3)
A user in a branch office reports that access to all files has been lost after receiving a new PC. All other users in the branch can access fileshares. The IT engineer
who is troubleshooting this incident is able to ping the workstation from the branch router, but the machine cannot ping the router. Which of the following is MOST
likely the cause of the incident?

A. Incorrect subnet mask

B. Incorrect DNS server
C. Incorrect IP class
D. Incorrect TCP port

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Topic 3)
A user is required to log in to a main web application, which then grants the user access to all other programs needed to complete job-related tasks. Which of the
following authentication methods does this setup describe?

A. SSO
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. Multifactor authentication
E. 802.1X

Answer: A

Explanation:
The authentication method that this setup describes is SSO (Single Sign- On). SSO is a technique that allows a user to log in once to a main web application and
then access multiple other applications or services without having to re-enter credentials. SSO simplifies the user experience and reduces the number of
passwords to remember and manage. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 371; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student
Guide (Exam N10-008), page 14-5.

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Topic 3)
A company streams video to multiple devices across a campus. When this happens, several users report a degradation of network performance. Which of the
following would MOST likely address this issue?

A. Enable IGMP snooping on the switches.

B. Implement another DHCP server.
C. Reconfigure port tagging for the video traffic.
D. Change the SSID of the APs

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following IP packet header fields is the mechanism for ending loops at Layer 3?

A. Checksum
B. Type
C. Time-to-live
D. Protocol

Answer: C

Explanation:
The time-to-live (TTL) field is the mechanism for ending loops at Layer 3, which is the network layer of the OSI model. The TTL field is an 8-bit field that indicates
the maximum time or number of hops that an IP packet can travel before it is discarded. Every time an IP packet passes through a router, the router decrements
the TTL value by one. If the TTL value reaches zero, the router drops the packet and sends an ICMP message back to the source, informing that the packet has
expired. This way, the TTL field prevents an IP packet from looping endlessly in a network with routing errors or cycles123.
The other options are not mechanisms for ending loops at Layer 3. The checksum field is a 16-bit field that is used to verify the integrity of the IP header. The
checksum field is calculated by adding all the 16-bit words in the header and taking the one’s complement of the result. If the checksum field does not match the
calculated value, the IP packet is considered corrupted and discarded12. The type field, also known as the type of service (TOS) or differentiated services code
point (DSCP) field, is an 8-bit field that is used to specify the quality of service (QoS) or priority of the IP packet. The type field can indicate how the packet should
be handled in terms of delay, throughput, reliability, or cost12. The protocol field is an 8-bit field that is used to identify the transport layer protocol that is
encapsulated in the IP packet. The protocol field can indicate whether the payload is a TCP segment, a UDP datagram, an ICMP message, or another protocol12.

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NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 3)
A user calls the help desk to report being unable to reach a file server. The technician logs in to the user's computer and verifies that pings fall to respond back
when trying to reach the file server. Which of the following would BEST help the technician verify whether the file server is reachable?

A. netstat
B. ipconfig
C. nslookup
D. traceroute

Answer: D

Explanation:
Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool that allows you to trace the path that network packets take from one device to another. By running traceroute to the file
server, the technician can see the sequence of devices and networks that the packets pass through on their way to the file server. This can help the technician to
determine if there is a problem with the network connection between the user's computer and the file server, or if the issue is with the file server itself.

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 3)
A network engineer needs to create a subnet that has the capacity for five VLANs. with the following number of clients lo be allowed on each:

Which of the following is the SMALLEST subnet capable of this setup that also has the capacity to double the number of clients in the future?

A. 10.0.0.0/21
B. 10.0.0.0/22
C. 10.0.0.0/23
D. 10.0.0.0/24

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
- (Topic 3)
A customer is adding fiber connectivity between adjacent buildings. A technician terminates the multimode cable to the fiber patch panel. After the technician
connects the fiber patch cable, the indicator light
does not come on. Which of the following should a technician try first to troubleshoot this issue?

A. Reverse the fibers.

B. Reterminate the fibers.
C. Verify the fiber size.
D. Examine the cable runs for visual faults.

Answer: A

Explanation:
One of the most common causes of fiber connectivity issues is the reversal of the fibers. This means that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) ports on one end of
the fiber link are not matched with the corresponding ports on the other end. For example, if the TX port on one device is connected to the TX port on another
device, and the same for the RX ports, then the devices will not be able to communicate with each other. This can result in no indicator light, no link, or no data
transmission12.
To troubleshoot this issue, the technician should first try to reverse the fibers. This can be done by swapping the connectors at one end of the fiber patch cable, or
by using a crossover adapter or cable that reverses the polarity of the fibers. The technician should then check if the indicator light comes on and if the devices can
communicate properly12. The other options are not the first steps to troubleshoot this issue. Reterminating the fibers is a time-consuming and costly process that
should be done only if there is evidence of physical damage or poor quality of the termination. Verifying the fiber size is not relevant in this scenario, as multimode
fiber is compatible with multimode fiber, and any mismatch in core diameter or bandwidth would result in high attenuation, not complete loss of signal. Examining
the cable runs for visual faults is a useful technique, but it requires a special tool called a visual fault locator (VFL) that emits a visible red light through the fiber and
shows any breaks or bends along the cable. However, a VFL cannot detect polarity issues or connector problems, so it is not sufficient to troubleshoot this issue

NEW QUESTION 19
- (Topic 3)
A company receives a cease-and-desist order from its ISP regarding prohibited torrent activity. Which of the following should be implemented to comply with the
cease-and-desist order?

A. MAC security
B. Content filtering
C. Screened subnet
D. Perimeter network

Answer: B

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Explanation:
Content filtering is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of web content, based on predefined criteria or policies. Content filtering can be used
to comply with the cease-and-desist order by preventing users from accessing torrent sites or downloading torrent files, which are often used for illegal file sharing
or piracy. Content filtering can also protect the network from malware, phishing, or inappropriate content. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide -
O’Reilly Media, Chapter 14: Securing a Basic Network, page 520

NEW QUESTION 23
- (Topic 3)
A network technician 13 troubleshooting a specific port on a switch. Which of the following commands should the technician use to see the port configuration?

A. show route
B. show Interface
C. show arp
D. show port

Answer: B

Explanation:
To see the configuration of a specific port on a switch, the network technician should use the "show interface" command. This command provides detailed
information about the interface, including the current configuration, status, and statistics for the interface.

NEW QUESTION 24
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following protocols is widely used in large-scale enterprise networks to support complex networks with multiple routers and balance traffic load on
multiple links?

A. OSPF
B. RIPv2
C. QoS
D. STP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 28
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following technologies would MOST likely De used to prevent the loss of connection between a virtual server and network storage devices?

A. Multipathing
B. VRRP
C. Port aggregation
D. NIC teaming

Answer: D

Explanation:
NIC teaming is a technology that allows multiple network interface cards (NICs) to work together as a single logical interface, providing redundancy and load
balancing. This can prevent the loss of connection between a virtual server and network storage devices if one of the NICs fails or becomes disconnected.
References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Networking Concepts, Objective 2.5: Explain the purposes and use cases for
advanced networking devices, Subobjective: NIC bonding/teaming

NEW QUESTION 31
- (Topic 3)
A large number of PCs are obtaining an APIPA IP address, and a number of new computers were added to the network. Which of the following is MOST likely
causing the PCs to obtain an APIPA address?

A. Rogue DHCP server

B. Network collision
C. Incorrect DNS settings
D. DHCP scope exhaustion

Answer: D

Explanation:
DHCP scope exhaustion means that there are no more available IP addresses in the DHCP server’s pool of addresses to assign to new devices on the network.
When this happens, the devices will use APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) to self-configure an IP address in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.2541.
These addresses are not routable and can only communicate with other devices on the same local network.
A rogue DHCP server (A) is an unauthorized DHCP server that can cause IP address conflicts or security issues by assigning IP addresses to devices on the
network. A network collision (B) is a situation where two or more devices try to send data on the same network segment at the same time, causing interference and
data loss. Incorrect DNS settings © can prevent devices from resolving domain names to IP addresses, but they do not affect the DHCP process.

NEW QUESTION 33
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following records can be used to track the number of changes on a DNS zone?

A. SOA
B. SRV
C. PTR
D. NS

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Answer: A

Explanation:
The DNS ‘start of authority’ (SOA) record stores important information about a domain or zone such as the email address of the administrator, when the domain
was last updated, and how long the server should wait between refreshes. All DNS zones need an SOA record in order to conform to IETF standards. SOA
records are also important for zone transfers.

NEW QUESTION 35
- (Topic 3)
A security engineer is trying to connect cameras to a 12-port PoE switch, but only eight cameras turn on. Which of the following should the engineer check first?

A. Ethernet cable type

B. Voltage
C. Transceiver compatibility
D. DHCP addressing

Answer: B

Explanation:
The most likely reason why only eight cameras turn on is that the PoE switch does not
have enough power budget to supply all 12 cameras. The engineer should check the voltage and wattage ratings of the PoE switch and the cameras, and make
sure they are compatible and sufficient. The Ethernet cable type, transceiver compatibility, and DHCP addressing are less likely to cause this problem, as they
would affect the data transmission rather than the power delivery.
References:
? CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 181
? CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Deluxe Edition, page 352
? PoE Troubleshooting: The Common PoE Errors and Solutions3

NEW QUESTION 39
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following combinations of single cables and transceivers will allow a server to have 40GB of network throughput? (Select two).

A. SFP+
B. SFP
C. QSFP+
D. Multimode
E. Cat 6a
F. Cat5e

Answer: CD

Explanation:
QSFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 40 gigabit Ethernet (40GbE) over four lanes of 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) each. QSFP+ stands for quad small form-
factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into a QSFP+ port on a network device. QSFP+ transceivers can support various
types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable. Multimode is a type of fiber optic cable that
supports multiple modes of light propagation within the core. Multimode fiber optic cable can carry higher bandwidth and data rates than single-mode fiber optic
cable, but over shorter distances. Multimode fiber optic cable is commonly used for short-reach applications, such as within a data center or a campus network.
Multimode fiber optic cable can be paired with QSFP+ transceivers to achieve 40GbE connectivity.
The other options are not correct because they do not support 40GbE. They are:
? SFP+. SFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over a single lane. SFP+ stands for small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a
compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP+ port on a network device. SFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors,
such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable. However, SFP+ transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless
they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
? SFP. SFP is a type of transceiver that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over a single lane. SFP stands for small form-factor pluggable, and it is a compact and
hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP port on a network device. SFP transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as twisted-
pair copper, coaxial cable, or fiber optic cable. However, SFP transceivers cannot
support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
? Cat 6a. Cat 6a is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 10 gigabit
Ethernet (10GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 6a stands for category 6 augmented, and it is an enhanced version of Cat 6 cable that offers better
performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 6a cable can be paired with 10Gbase-T transceivers to achieve 10GbE connectivity. However, Cat 6a cable cannot
support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
? Cat 5e. Cat 5e is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 1 gigabit
Ethernet (1GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 5e stands for category 5 enhanced, and it is an improved version of Cat 5 cable that offers better
performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 5e cable can be paired with 1000base-T transceivers to achieve 1GbE connectivity. However, Cat 5e cable cannot
support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
References1: QSFP+ - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: Multimode Fiber - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics3: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT
Certifications4: SFP+ - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics5: SFP - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics6: Cat 6a - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics7: [Cat 5e -
an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

NEW QUESTION 42
- (Topic 3)
A bank installed a new smart TV to stream online video services, but the smart TV was not able to connect to the branch Wi-Fi. The next day. a technician was
able to connect the TV to the Wi-Fi, but a bank laptop lost network access at the same time. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. DHCP scope exhaustion

B. AP configuration reset
C. Hidden SSID
D. Channel overlap

Answer: A

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Explanation:
DHCP scope exhaustion is the situation when a DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses to assign to clients. DHCP stands for Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol, which is a network protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and other configuration parameters to clients on a network. A DHCP
scope is a range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can distribute to clients. If the DHCP scope is exhausted, new clients will not be able to obtain an IP address
and connect to the network. This can explain why the smart TV was not able to connect to the branch Wi-Fi on the first day, and why the bank laptop lost network
access on the next day when the TV was connected. The technician should either increase the size of the DHCP scope or reduce the lease time of the IP
addresses to avoid DHCP scope exhaustion. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], DHCP Scope Exhaustion - What Is It? How Do You
Fix It?

NEW QUESTION 44
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?

A. LC
B. SC
C. ST
D. MPO

Answer: A

Explanation:
LC (local connector) is the most likely fiber connector type to be used on a network interface card, because it is a small form factor connector that can fit more
interfaces on a single card. LC connectors use square connectors that have a locking mechanism on the top, similar to an RJ45 copper connector. LC connectors
are also compatible with SFP (small form-factor pluggable) modules that are often used to link a gigabit Ethernet port with a fiber network12.
References:
? Optical Fiber Connectors – CompTIA Network+ N10-007 – 2.11
? CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives2

NEW QUESTION 48
- (Topic 3)
A network administrator would like to purchase a device that provides access ports to endpoints and has the ability to route between networks. Which of the
following would be BEST for the administrator to purchase?

A. An IPS
B. A Layer 3 switch
C. A router
D. A wireless LAN controller

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 51
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following, in addition to a password, can be asked of a user for MFA?

A. PIN
B. Favorite color
C. Hard token
D. Mother's maiden name

Answer: A

Explanation:
MFA stands for Multi-Factor Authentication, which is a method of verifying the identity of a user by requiring two or more pieces of evidence that belong to different
categories: something the user knows, something the user has, or something the user is. A password is something the user knows, and it is usually combined with
another factor such as a PIN (Personal Identification Number) or a hard token (a physical device that generates a one- time code) that the user has. A favorite
color or a mother’s maiden name are not suitable for MFA, as they are also something the user knows and can be easily guessed or compromised.
References
? 1: Multi-Factor Authentication – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.1
? 2: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13
? 3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 250
? 4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 14

NEW QUESTION 53
- (Topic 3)
A network technician wants to find the shortest path from one node to every other node in the network. Which of the following algorithms will provide the FASTEST
convergence time?

A. A static algorithm
B. A link-state algorithm
C. A distance-vector algorithm
D. A path-vector algorithm

Answer: B

Explanation:
A link-state algorithm is a routing algorithm that uses information about the state of each link in the network to calculate the shortest path from one node to every
other node. A link-state algorithm requires each router to maintain a complete map of the network topology and exchange link-state advertisements with its
neighbors periodically or when a change occurs. A link-state algorithm uses a mathematical formula called Dijkstra’s algorithm to find the shortest path based on
the link costs. A link-state algorithm provides the fastest convergence time because it can quickly detect and adapt to network changes. References: [CompTIA

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Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], [Link-state routing protocol - Wikipedia]

NEW QUESTION 57
- (Topic 3)
A company is considering shifting its business to the cloud. The management team is concerned at the availability of the third-party cloud service. Which of the
following should the management team consult to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider?

A. Memorandum of understanding
B. Business continuity plan
C. Disaster recovery plan
D. Service-level agreement

Answer: D

Explanation:
A Service-level agreement (SLA) is a document that outlines the responsibilities of a cloud service provider and the customer. It typically includes the agreed-upon
availability of the cloud service provider, the expected uptime for the service, and the cost of any downtime or other service interruptions. Consulting the SLA is the
best way for the management team to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, page 28.

NEW QUESTION 60
- (Topic 3)
A customer is hosting an internal database server. None of the users are able to connect to the server, even though it appears to be working properly. Which of the
following is the best way to verify traffic to and from the server?

A. Protocol analyzer
B. nmap
C. ipconfig
D. Speed test

Answer: A

Explanation:
A protocol analyzer is the best way to verify traffic to and from the server. A protocol analyzer, also known as a packet sniffer or network analyzer, is a tool that
captures and analyzes the network packets that are sent and received by a device. A protocol analyzer can show the source and destination IP addresses, ports,
protocols, and payload of each packet, as well as any errors or anomalies in the network communication. A protocol analyzer can help troubleshoot network
connectivity issues by identifying the root cause of the problem, such as misconfigured firewall rules, incorrect routing, or faulty network devices12.
To use a protocol analyzer to verify traffic to and from the server, the customer can follow these steps:
? Install a protocol analyzer tool on a device that is connected to the same network
as the server, such as Wireshark3 or Microsoft Network Monitor4.
? Select the network interface that is used to communicate with the server, and start capturing the network traffic.
? Filter the captured traffic by using the IP address or hostname of the server, or by using a specific port or protocol that is used by the database service.
? Analyze the filtered traffic and look for any signs of successful or failed connection attempts, such as TCP SYN, ACK, or RST packets, or ICMP messages.
? If there are no connection attempts to or from the server, then there may be a problem with the network configuration or device settings that prevent the traffic
from reaching the server.
? If there are connection attempts but they are rejected or dropped by the server, then there may be a problem with the server configuration or service settings that
prevent the traffic from being accepted by the server.
The other options are not the best ways to verify traffic to and from the server. nmap is a tool that can scan a network and discover hosts and services, but it
cannot capture and analyze the network packets in detail. ipconfig is a command that can display and configure the IP settings of a device, but it cannot monitor or
test the network communication with another device. Speed test is a tool that can measure the bandwidth and latency of a network connection, but it cannot
diagnose or troubleshoot specific network problems.

NEW QUESTION 61
- (Topic 3)
A company is reviewing ways to cut the overall cost of Its IT budget. A network technician suggests removing various computer programs from the IT budget and
only providing these
programs on an as-needed basis. Which of the following models would meet this requirement?

A. Multitinency
B. laaS
C. SaaS
D. VPN

Answer: C

Explanation:
SaaS stands for Software as a Service and is a cloud computing model where software applications are hosted and delivered over the internet by a service
provider. SaaS can help the company cut the overall cost of its IT budget by eliminating the need to purchase, install, update, and maintain various computer
programs on its own devices. The company can access the programs on an as-needed basis and pay only for what it uses. Multitenancy is a feature of cloud
computing where multiple customers share the same physical or virtual resources. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service and is a cloud computing model
where computing resources such as servers, storage, and networking are provided over the internet by a service provider. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network
and is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 1.9: Compare and contrast common network service types.

NEW QUESTION 66
- (Topic 3)
The power company notifies a network administrator that it will be turning off the power to the building over the weekend. Which of the following is the BEST
solution to prevent the servers from going down?

A. Redundant power supplies

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B. Uninterruptible power supply

C. Generator
D. Power distribution unit

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 67
- (Topic 3)
A technician installed an 8-port switch in a user's office. The user needs to add a second computer in the office, so the technician connects both PCs to the switch
and connects the switch to the wall jack. However, the new PC cannot connect to network resources. The technician then observes the following:
• The new computer does not get an IP address on the client's VLAN.
• Both computers have a link light on their NICs.
• The new PC appears to be operating normally except for the network issue.
• The existing computer operates normally.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to address the situation?

A. Contact the network team to resolve the port security issue.

B. Contact the server team to have a record created in DNS for the new PC.
C. Contact the security team to review the logs on the company's SIEM.
D. Contact the application team to check NetFlow data from the connected switch.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 69
- (Topic 3)
A network engineer designed and implemented a new office space with the following characteristics:

One month after the office space was implemented, users began reporting dropped signals when entering another room and overall poor connections to the 5GHz
network. 'which of the following should the engineer do to best resolve the issue?

A. use non-overlapping channels

B. Reconfigure the network to support 2.4GHz_
C. Upgrade to WPA3.
D. Change to directional antennas-

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best solution to resolve the issue of dropped signals and poor connections to the 5GHz network is to change to directional antennas. Directional antennas are
antennas that focus the wireless signal in a specific direction, increasing the range and strength of the signal. Directional antennas are suitable for environments
where there are obstacles or interference that can weaken or block the wireless signal. In the image, the office space has several walls and doors that can reduce
the signal quality of the 5GHz network, which has a shorter wavelength and higher frequency than the 2.4GHz network. By using directional antennas, the network
engineer can aim the wireless signal towards the desired areas and avoid the signal loss caused by the walls and doors. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008
Certification Study Guide, page 76; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 2-19.

NEW QUESTION 73
- (Topic 3)
A wireless technician is working to upgrade the wireless infrastructure for a company. The company currently uses the 802.11g wireless standard on all access
points. The company requires backward compatibility and is requesting the least expensive solution. Which of the following should the technician recommend to
the company?

A. 802.11a
B. 802.11ac
C. 802Hax
D. 802.11n

Answer: D

Explanation:
* 802.11n is a wireless standard that supports data rates up to 600 Mbps and operates in both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands. 802.11n is backward
compatible with 802.11g, which operates only in 2.4 GHz band. 802.11n is the least expensive solution that can upgrade the wireless infrastructure for the
company, as it does not require replacing all the access points or wireless devices

NEW QUESTION 77
- (Topic 3)
While setting up a new workstation, a technician discovers that the network connection is only 100 full duplex (FD), although it is connected to a gigabit switch.
While reviewing the interface information in the switch CLI, the technician notes the port is operating at IOOFD but Shows many RX and TX errors. The technician
moves the computer to another switchport and experiences the same issues.

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Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the low data rate and port errors?

A. Bad switch ports

B. Duplex issues
C. Cable length
D. Incorrect pinout

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 79
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following best describe the functions of Layer 2 of the OSI model? (Select two).

A. Local addressing
B. Error preventing
C. Logical addressing
D. Error detecting
E. Port addressing
F. Error correcting

Answer: AD

Explanation:
Layer 2 of the OSI model, also known as the data link layer, is responsible for physical addressing and error detecting. Physical addressing refers to the use of
MAC addresses to identify and locate devices on a network segment. Error detecting refers to the use of techniques such as checksums and CRCs to identify and
correct errors in the data frames.
References:
? OSI Model | Computer Networking | CompTIA1

NEW QUESTION 81
- (Topic 3)
A malicious user is using special software 10 perform an on-path attack. Which of the following best practices should be configured to mitigate this threat?

A. Dynamic ARP inspection

B. Role-based access
C. Control plane policing
D. MAC filtering

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 83
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following architectures is used for FTP?

A. Client-server
B. Service-oriented
C. Connection-oriented
D. Data-centric

Answer: A

Explanation:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a client-server based protocol, meaning that the two computers involved communicate with each other in a request-response
pattern. The client sends a request to the server and the server responds with the requested data. This type of architecture is known as client-server, and it is used
for many different types of applications, including FTP. Other architectures, such as service-oriented, connection- oriented, and data-centric, are not used for FTP.

NEW QUESTION 88
- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is working to configure a new device to provide Layer 2 connectivity to various endpoints including several WAPs. Which of the following
devices will the administrator MOST likely configure?

A. WLAN controller
B. Cable modem
C. Load balancer
D. Switch
E. Hub

Answer: D

Explanation:
A switch is a device that provides Layer 2 connectivity to various endpoints by forwarding frames based on MAC addresses. A switch can also connect to several
WAPs (wireless access points) to provide wireless connectivity to wireless devices.

NEW QUESTION 91
- (Topic 3)
A technician completed troubleshooting and was able to fix an issue. Which of the following is the BEST method the technician can use to pass along the exact
steps other technicians should follow in case the issue arises again?

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A. Use change management to build a database

B. Send an email stating that the issue is resolved.
C. Document the lessons learned
D. Close the ticket and inform the users.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Documenting the lessons learned is the best method for passing along the exact steps other technicians should follow in case the issue arises again. Lessons
learned are the knowledge and experience gained from completing a project or solving a problem. Documenting the lessons learned helps to capture the best
practices, challenges, solutions, and recommendations for future reference and improvement. Documenting the lessons learned can also help to update the
knowledge base, standard operating procedures, or policies related to the issue. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Lessons
Learned: Definition & Examples for Project Managers

NEW QUESTION 93
- (Topic 3)
A customer needs to distribute Ethernet to multiple computers in an office. The customer would like to use non-proprietary standards. Which of the following blocks
does the technician need to install?

A. 110
B. 66
C. Bix
D. Krone

Answer: A

Explanation:
A 110 block is a type of punch-down block that is used to distribute Ethernet to multiple computers in an office. A punch-down block is a device that connects one
group of wires to another group of wires by using a special tool that pushes the wires into slots on the block. A 110 block is a non-proprietary standard that
supports up to Category 6 cabling and can be used for voice or data applications. References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-
guide (page 64)

NEW QUESTION 98
- (Topic 3)
Which of the following protocols uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to calculate the LOWEST cost between routers?

A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. EIGRP

Answer: B

Explanation:
OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First and is a link-state routing protocol that uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to calculate the lowest cost between routers. OSPF
assigns a cost value to each link based on factors such as bandwidth, delay, or reliability, and builds a map of the network topology. OSPF then uses Dijkstra’s
algorithm to find the shortest path from each router to every other router in the network1. RIP stands for Routing Information Protocol and is a distance-vector
routing protocol that uses hop count as the metric to find the best path. BGP stands for Border Gateway Protocol and is a path-vector routing protocol that uses
attributes such as AS path, local preference, or origin to select the best route. EIGRP stands for Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol and is a hybrid
routing protocol that uses a composite metric based on bandwidth, delay, load, and reliability.
References: 1 Dijkstra’s algorithm - Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dijkstra%27s_algorithm)

NEW QUESTION 101

- (Topic 3)
A company's web server is hosted at a local ISP. This is an example of:

A. allocation.
B. an on-premises data center.
C. a branch office.
D. a cloud provider.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 106

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following ports is a secure protocol?

A. 20
B. 23
C. 443
D. 445

Answer: C

Explanation:
This is the port number for HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. HTTPS is a secure version of HTTP, which is the protocol used to
communicate between web browsers and web servers. HTTPS encrypts the data sent and received using SSL/TLS, which are cryptographic protocols that provide
authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. HTTPS is commonly used for online transactions, such as banking and shopping, where security and privacy are
important

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NEW QUESTION 110

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following should a network administrator configure when adding OT devices to an organization's architecture?

A. Honeynet
B. Data-at-rest encryption
C. Time-based authentication
D. Network segmentation

Answer: D

Explanation:
Network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnets or segments, each with its own security policies and access controls. This can help
isolate OT devices from IT devices, guest networks, and other potential threats, as well as improve network performance and efficiency. Network segmentation is a
recommended security practice for OT environments, as it can limit the attack surface, contain the damage of a breach, and comply with regulatory standards.
https://sectrio.com/complete-guide-to-ot-network-segmentation/

NEW QUESTION 113

- (Topic 3)
A company is designing a SAN and would like to use STP as its medium for communication. Which of the following protocols would BEST suit me company's
needs?

A. SFTP
B. Fibre Channel
C. iSCSI
D. FTP

Answer: B

Explanation:
A SAN also employs a series of protocols enabling software to communicate or prepare data for storage. The most common protocol is the Fibre Channel
Protocol (FCP), which maps SCSI commands over FC technology. The iSCSI SANs will employ an iSCSI protocol that maps SCSI commands over TCP/IP.
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a protocol used to prevent loops in Ethernet networks, and it is not a medium for communication in a storage area network (SAN).
However, Fibre Channel is a protocol that is specifically designed for high-speed data transfer in SAN environments. It is a dedicated channel technology that
provides high throughput and low latency, making it ideal for SANs. Therefore, Fibre Channel would be the best protocol for the company to use for its SAN. SFTP
(Secure File Transfer Protocol), iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface), and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) are protocols used for transferring files over a
network and are not suitable for use in a SAN environment.

NEW QUESTION 116

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following issues are present with RIPv2? (Select TWO).

A. Route poisoning
B. Time to converge
C. Scalability
D. Unicast
E. Adjacent neighbors
F. Maximum transmission unit

Answer: BC

Explanation:
The disadvantages of RIP (Routing Information Protocol) include the following.
---Outdated, insecure, and slow. This is your parents' protocol. It was a thing before the Web was born.
---The more well-known problem of the 15 hop limitation in which data must travel
---Convergence time is terrible for information propagation in a network
---Metrics. It determines the number of hops from source to destination, and gives no regard to other factors when determining the best path for data to travel
---Overhead. A good example would be routing tables. These are broadcast at half-minute intervals to other routers regardless of whether the data has changed or
not. It's essentially like those old cartoons where the town guard in the walled city cries out, '10 o' the clock and all is well!'.
RIPv2 introduced more security and reduced broadcast traffic, which is relevant for some available answers here.

NEW QUESTION 119

- (Topic 3)
The lack of a formal process to grant network permissions to different profiles of employees and contractors is leading to an increasing number of security
incidents Non-uniform and overly permissive network accesses are being granted. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate method to improve the
security of the environment?

A. Change the default permissions to implicit deny

B. Configure uniform ACLs to employees and NAC for contractors.
C. Deploy an RDP server to centralize the access to the network
D. Implement role-based access control

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most appropriate method to improve the security of the environment would be to implement role-based access control (RBAC). With RBAC, users are granted
access to the network based on their role within the organization. This allows for more granular access control, as different roles may require different levels of
access. Additionally, this ensures that users only have access to the resources they need and no more. This helps to reduce the risk of unauthorized access or
misuse of the network. References and further information can be found in the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, Chapter 8, Access Control.

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RBAC is a method of restricting network access based on the roles of individual users within the organization. With RBAC, users are granted access only to the
resources they need to perform their specific job functions. This approach reduces the risk of unauthorized access, provides greater visibility into user activity, and
simplifies network management. Changing the default permissions to implicit deny may improve security, but it could also cause issues for legitimate users who
require access to specific resources. Configuring uniform ACLs and NAC for contractors is a step in the right direction, but it may not be enough to address the
overall lack of a formal process for granting network permissions. Deploying an RDP server to centralize access to the network is not a viable solution, as it would
not address the root cause of the security incidents.
Therefore, the most appropriate option is to implement role-based access control. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Fourth Edition, Chapter 7, section
7.4.

NEW QUESTION 121

- (Topic 3)
A network client is trying to connect to the wrong TCP port. Which of the following responses would the client MOST likely receive?

A. RST
B. FIN
C. ICMP Time Exceeded
D. Redirect

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 126

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator wants to test the throughput of a new metro Ethernet circuit to verify that its performance matches the requirements specified m the SLA.
Which of the following would BEST help measure the throughput?

A. iPerf
B. Ping
C. NetFlow
D. Netstat

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 127

- (Topic 3)
A company wants to invest in new hardware for the core network infrastructure. The management team requires that the infrastructure be capable of being
repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails. Which of the following metrics is MOST likely associated with this requirement?

A. RPO
B. MTTR
C. FHRP
D. MTBF

Answer: B

Explanation:
MTTR is directly related to how quickly a system can be repaired if any major part fails3. The management team requires that the infrastructure be capable of
being repaired in less than 60 minutes, which means they have a low MTTR requirement.
MTTR stands for Mean Time To Repair and is a metric used to measure the average amount of time it takes to repair a failed component or system. In this case,
the requirement is for the infrastructure to be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails, which means the MTTR should be less than
60 minutes.

NEW QUESTION 130

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following would be the BEST choice to connect branch sites to a main office securely?

A. VPN headend
B. Proxy server
C. Bridge
D. Load balancer

Answer: A

Explanation:
Host-to-Site, or Client-to-Site, VPN allows for remote servers, clients, and other hosts to establish tunnels through a VPN gateway (or VPN headend) via a private
network. The tunnel between the headend and the client host encapsulates and encrypts data.

NEW QUESTION 133

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following cloud components can filter inbound and outbound traffic between cloud resources?

A. NAT gateways
B. Service endpoints
C. Network security groups
D. Virtual private cloud

Answer: C

Explanation:

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Network security groups are cloud components that can filter inbound and outbound traffic between cloud resources based on rules and priorities. Network security
groups can be applied to virtual machines, subnets, or network interfaces to control the network access and security. Network security groups can allow or deny
traffic based on the source, destination, port, and protocol of the packets. Network security groups are different from NAT gateways, service endpoints, and virtual
private clouds, which are other cloud components that have different functions and purposes.
References
? 1: Network Security Groups – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.2
? 2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 329-330
? 3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 17
? 4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 10

NEW QUESTION 138

- (Topic 3)
All packets arriving at an interface need to be fully analyzed. Which of me following features should be used to enable monitoring of the packets?

A. LACP
B. Flow control
C. Port mirroring
D. NetFlow exporter

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port mirroring is a feature that can be used to enable monitoring of all packets arriving at an interface. This feature is used to direct a copy of all traffic passing
through the switch to a monitoring device, such as a network analyzer. This allows the switch to be monitored with the network analyzer in order to identify any
malicious or suspicious activity. Additionally, port mirroring can be used to troubleshoot network issues, such as latency or poor performance.

NEW QUESTION 139

- (Topic 3)
A company has wireless APS that were deployed with 802.11g. A network engineer has noticed more frequent reports of wireless performance issues during the
lunch hour in comparison to the rest of the day. The engineer thinks bandwidth consumption will increase while users are on their breaks, but network utilization
logs do not show increased bandwidth numbers. Which Of the following would MOST likely resolve this issue?

A. Adding more wireless APS

B. Increasing power settings to expand coverage
C. Configuring the APS to be compatible with 802.1la
D. Changing the wireless channel used

Answer: C

Explanation:
* 802.11g is an older wireless standard that operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps. 802.11a is a newer wireless
standard that operates in the 5 GHz frequency band and has a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps. By configuring the APS to be compatible with 802.11a, the network
engineer can reduce interference and congestion in the 2.4 GHz band and improve wireless performance.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 2.5: Implement network troubleshooting methodologies

NEW QUESTION 144

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following connectors and terminations are required to make a Cat 6 cable that connects from a PC to a non-capable MDIX switch? (Select TWO).

A. T1A-568-A - TIA-568-B
B. TIA-568-B - TIA-568-B
C. RJ11
D. RJ45
E. F-type

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 149

- (Topic 3)
A network technician needs to select an AP that will support at least 1.3Gbps and 5GHz only. Which of the following wireless standards must the AP support to
meet the requirements?

A. B
B. AC
C. AX
D. N
E. G

Answer: B

Explanation:
Wireless AC is a wireless standard that supports up to 1.3Gbps data rate and operates in the 5GHz frequency band only. Wireless AC is also backward compatible
with wireless A and N devices that use the 5GHz band. Wireless AC is suitable for high-performance applications such as HD video streaming and online gaming.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 2.2: Explain the purposes and properties of routing and switching. Subobjective: Wireless standards and their
characteristics.

NEW QUESTION 154

- (Topic 3)

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A network administrator is in the process of installing 35 PoE security cameras. After the administrator installed and tested the new cables, the administrator
installed the cameras. However, a small number of the cameras do not work. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

A. Incorrect wiring standard

B. Power budget exceeded
C. Signal attenuation
D. Wrong voltage

Answer: B

Explanation:
The power budget is the total amount of power that a PoE switch or injector can provide to the connected PoE devices. If the power budget is exceeded, some of
the PoE devices may not receive enough power to function properly. To troubleshoot this issue, the network administrator should check the power consumption of
each PoE device and the power capacity of the PoE switch or injector.
References:
? PoE Troubleshooting: The Common PoE Errors and Solutions1
? Security Camera Won’t Work - Top 10 Solutions to Fix2
? CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Objectives https://www.comptia.org/certifications/network#examdetails

NEW QUESTION 156

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is installing a new server in the data center. The administrator is concerned the amount of traffic generated will exceed 1GB. and higher-
throughput NiCs are not available for installation. Which of the following is the BEST solution for this issue?

A. Install an additional NIC and configure LACP.

B. Remove some of the applications from the server.
C. Configure the NIC to use fun duplex
D. Configure port mirroring to send traffic to another server.
E. Install a SSD to decrease data processing time.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 160

- (Topic 3)
A network technician is troubleshooting a connection to a web server. The Technician Is unable to ping the server but is able to verify connectivity to the web
service using Tenet. Which of the following protocols is being blocked by me firewall?

A. UDP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. TCP

Answer: C

Explanation:
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a protocol that is used to send error and control messages between network devices, such as ping requests and
replies. ICMP is being blocked by the firewall, which prevents the network technician from pinging the web server. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a
protocol that provides reliable and ordered delivery of data between network devices, such as web service requests and responses using HTTP (Hypertext
Transfer Protocol). TCP is not being blocked by the firewall, which allows the network technician to verify connectivity to the web service using Telnet. UDP (User
Datagram Protocol) is a protocol that provides fast and efficient delivery of data between network devices, but does not guarantee reliability or order. UDP is used
for applications such as streaming media or online gaming. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol that resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses on a
local network. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Networking Concepts, Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast OSI and
TCP/IP models, Subobjective: TCP/IP model layers (Application/Transport/Internet/Network Interface)

NEW QUESTION 162

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is a requirement when certifying a network cabling as Cat 7?

A. Ensure the patch panel is certified for the same category.

B. Limit 10Gb transmissions to 180ft (55m).
C. Use F-type connectors on the network terminations.
D. Ensure the termination standard is TIA/EIA-568-A.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Category 7 (Cat 7) is a cabling standard that supports 10GBASE-T Ethernet connections up to 100 meters (328 feet). In order for a cabling system to be certified
as Cat 7, all components, including the patch panel, must meet the TIA/EIA-568-A standard. This standard requires the use of shielded cables with F-type
connectors for the network terminations. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, 8th Edition, page 158.

NEW QUESTION 166

- (Topic 3)
A network deployment engineer is deploying a new single-channel 10G optical connection. Which of the following optics should the engineer MOST likely use to
satisfy this requirement?

A. QSFP
B. QSFP+
C. SFP
D. SFP+

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Answer: D

Explanation:
SFP+ is a type of optical transceiver that supports 10G single-channel transmission over fiber optic cables. SFP+ stands for small form-factor pluggable plus, and it
is compatible with SFP slots on switches and routers.

NEW QUESTION 170

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is a valid alternative to maintain a deployed proxy technology while saving physical space in the data center by moving the network service
to the virtualization infrastructure?

A. NFV
B. SDWAN
C. Networking as code
D. VIP

Answer: A

Explanation:
The valid alternative to maintain a deployed proxy technology while saving physical space in the data center by moving the network service to the virtualization
infrastructure is NFV (Network Function Virtualization). NFV is a technique that allows network functions, such as proxies, firewalls, routers, or load balancers, to
be implemented as software applications running on virtual machines or containers. NFV reduces the need for dedicated hardware devices and improves
scalability and flexibility of network
services. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 440; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page
16-11.
NFV can be used to virtualize a wide variety of network functions, including proxy servers. By virtualizing proxy servers, organizations can save physical space in
the data center and
improve the scalability and efficiency of their networks.
To virtualize a proxy server using NFV, an organization would need to deploy a virtualization platform, such as VMware ESXi or Microsoft Hyper-V. The
organization would then need to install a virtual proxy server appliance on the virtualization platform.
Once the virtual proxy server appliance is installed, it can be configured and used just like a physical proxy server.
NFV is a relatively new technology, but it is quickly gaining popularity as organizations look for ways to improve the efficiency and scalability of their networks.

NEW QUESTION 172

- (Topic 3)
A technician is concerned about unauthorized personnel moving assets that are installed in a data center server rack. The technician installs a networked sensor
that sends an alert when the server rack door is opened. Which of the following did the technician install?

A. Cipher lock
B. Asset tags
C. Access control vestibule
D. Tamper detection

Answer: D

Explanation:
Tamper detection is a physical security feature that can alert the technician when someone opens the server rack door without authorization. Tamper detection
sensors can be installed inside the equipment or on the rack itself, and they can send an alert via email, SMS, or other methods. Tamper detection can help
prevent unauthorized access, theft, or damage to the network assets.
References:
? Physical Security – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 4.51

NEW QUESTION 177

- (Topic 3)
A technician is consolidating a topology with multiple SSlDs into one unique SSiD deployment. Which of the following features will be possible after this new
configuration?

A. Seamless roaming
B. Basic service set
C. WPA
D. MU-MIMO

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 180

- (Topic 3)
A network engineer is concerned about VLAN hopping happening on the network. Which of the following should the engineer do to address this concern?

A. Configure private VLANS.

B. Change the default VLAN.
C. Implement ACLs on the VLAN.
D. Enable dynamic ARP inspection.

Answer: B

Explanation:
VLAN hopping is a type of attack that allows an attacker to access or manipulate traffic on a different VLAN than the one they are connected to. One way to
prevent VLAN hopping is to change the default VLAN on a switch. The default VLAN is the VLAN that is assigned to all ports on a switch by default, usually VLAN
1. If an attacker connects to an unused port on a switch that has not been configured with a specific VLAN, they can access or spoof traffic on the default VLAN.

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By changing the default VLAN to an unused or isolated VLAN, the network administrator can prevent unauthorized access or interference with legitimate traffic on
other VLANs. References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 308)

NEW QUESTION 184

- (Topic 3)
Following the implementation of a BYOO policy. some users in a high-density environment report slowness over the wireless connection. Some wireless controller
reports indicate high latency and airtime contention. Which of the following is the most probable root cause?

A. The AP is configured with 2.4GHz frequency, which the new personal devices do not support.
B. The AP is configured with 2.4GHz frequency without band-steering capabilities.
C. The AP is configured with 5Ghz frequency with band-steering capabiäties.
D. The AP is configured with 5Ghz frequenc
E. which the new personal devices do not support

Answer: B

Explanation:
Band-steering is a feature that allows an AP to steer dual-band capable clients to the less congested 5GHz frequency, leaving the 2.4GHz frequency for legacy
clients. Without band- steering, the AP may have more clients competing for the same channel on the 2.4GHz frequency, resulting in high latency and airtime
contention.
References:
? According to the CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, one of the topics covered in the exam is “Given a scenario, use appropriate wireless
technologies and configurations”. One of the subtopics is “Band steering” 1.
? According to the PoliFi: Airtime Policy Enforcement for WiFi paper, “Band steering allows the access point to disable the 2.4 GHz band from probing the client
device, so it responds only to the 5 GHz band, reducing the congestion on the 2.4 GHz band while taking advantage of the faster 5GHz band to improve user’s
network experience.” 2.
? According to the Aruba Air Slice Tech Brief, “Air Slice minimizes airtime contention and efficiently groups Wi-Fi 6 and non-Wi-Fi 6 client devices to guarantee bit
rate, and provide bounded latency and jitter simultaneously.” 3.

NEW QUESTION 189

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator installed a new data and VoIP network. Users are now experiencing poor call quality when making calls. Which of the following should the
administrator do to increase VoIP performance?

A. Configure a voice VLAN.

B. Configure LACP on all VoIP phones.
C. Configure PoE on the network.
D. Configure jumbo frames on the network.

Answer: A

Explanation:
"Benefits of Voice VLAN
It ensures that your VoIP (Voice over Internet Phone) devices do not have to contend directly with all the broadcasts and other traffic from the data VLAN. A voice
VLAN can simplify network configuration in some circumstances."
https://community.fs.com/blog/auto-voip-vs-voice-vlan-what-s-the-difference.html Jumbo Frames
"When jumbo frames on a VoIP/UC network are enabled, it can cause the same kind of
delay to your network transmissions."
"VoIP uses will always not benefit from jumbo frame, as VoIP like gaming, is latency and time sensitive. Jumbo Frame for Internet Purpose: You will not see any
performance boost as the files that came across the internet does not support jumbo frame."
https://www.ankmax.com/newsinfo/1358641.html#:~:text=VoIP%20uses%20will%20always
%20not,does%20not%20support%20jumbo%20frame.
"To summarize this general best practice guide, you should NOT enable jumbo frame feature as a general home user."

NEW QUESTION 193

- (Topic 3)
A company needs a redundant link to provide a channel to the management network in an incident response scenario. Which of the following remote access
methods provides the BEST solution?

A. Out-of-band access
B. Split-tunnel connections
C. Virtual network computing
D. Remote desktop gateways

Answer: A

Explanation:
Out-of-band access is a remote access method that provides a separate, independent channel for accessing network devices and systems. Out-of-band access
uses a dedicated network connection or a separate communication channel, such as a dial- up or cellular connection, to provide access to network devices and
systems. This allows an administrator to access the management network even if the primary network connection is unavailable or impaired. Out-of-band access is
a good solution for providing a redundant link to the management network in an incident response scenario because it can be used to access the network even if
the primary connection is unavailable or impaired.

NEW QUESTION 196

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following would be used to forward requests and replies between a DHCP server and client?

A. Relay
B. Lease

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C. Scope
D. Range

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 197

- (Topic 3)
A technician is equipped with a tablet, a smartphone, and a laptop to troubleshoot a switch with the help of support over the phone. However, the technician is
having issues interconnecting all these tools in troubleshooting the switch. Which Of the following should the technician use to gain connectivity?

A. PAN
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. MAN

Answer: A

Explanation:
A PAN stands for Personal Area Network and it is a type of network that connects devices within a small range, such as a few meters. A PAN can use wireless
technologies such as Bluetooth or Wi-Fi to interconnect devices such as tablets, smartphones, and laptops. A technician can use a PAN to gain connectivity
among these tools and troubleshoot the switch.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.2: Explain devices, applications, protocols and services at their appropriate OSI layers.

NEW QUESTION 201

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology would most likely include checking through each level of the OSI model after the problem has
been identified?

A. Establish a theory.
B. Implement the solution.
C. Create a plan of action.
D. Verify functionality.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Creating a plan of action is the step of the troubleshooting methodology that would most likely include checking through each level of the OSI model after the
problem has been identified. According to the web search results, the troubleshooting methodology consists of the following steps: 12
? Define the problem: Identify the symptoms and scope of the problem, and gather relevant information from users, devices, and logs.
? Establish a theory: Based on the information collected, hypothesize one or more possible causes of the problem, and rank them in order of probability.
? Test the theory: Test the most probable cause first, and if it is not confirmed, eliminate it and test the next one. Repeat this process until the root cause is found
or a new theory is needed.
? Create a plan of action: Based on the confirmed cause, devise a solution that can resolve the problem with minimal impact and risk. The solution may involve
checking through each level of the OSI model to ensure that all layers are functioning properly and that there are no configuration errors, physical damages, or
logical inconsistencies34
? Implement the solution: Execute the plan of action, and monitor the results. If the problem is not solved, revert to the previous state and create a new plan of
action.
? Verify functionality: Confirm that the problem is fully resolved and that the network is restored to normal operation. Perform preventive measures if possible to
avoid recurrence of the problem.
? Document the findings: Record the problem description, the solution, and the outcome. Update any relevant documentation, such as network diagrams, policies,
or procedures.
References1: Troubleshooting Methods for Cisco IP Networks 2: Troubleshooting Methodologies - CBT IT Certification Training 3: How to use the OSI Model to
Troubleshoot Networks 4: How is the OSI model used in troubleshooting? – Sage-Answer

NEW QUESTION 203

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for enforcing bandwidth limits when the performance of an application is not affected by the use of buffering but is
heavily impacted by packet drops?

A. Traffic shaping
B. Traffic policing
C. Traffic marking
D. Traffic classification

Answer: B

Explanation:
Traffic policing is a mechanism that monitors the traffic in any network and enforces a bandwidth limit by discarding packets that exceed a certain rate1. This can
reduce congestion and ensure fair allocation of bandwidth among different applications or users. However, discarding packets can also affect the performance and
quality of some applications, especially those that are sensitive to packet loss, such as voice or video. Traffic shaping is a congestion control mechanism that
delays packets that exceed a certain rate instead of discarding them1. This can smooth out traffic bursts and avoid packet loss, but it also introduces latency and
jitter. Traffic shaping can be beneficial for applications that can tolerate some delay but not packet loss, such as file transfers or streaming.
Traffic marking is a mechanism that assigns different priority levels to packets based on their type, source, destination, or other criteria2. This can help to
differentiate between different classes of service and apply different policies or treatments to them. However, traffic marking does not enforce bandwidth limits by
itself; it only provides information for other mechanisms to act upon.
Traffic classification is a process that identifies and categorizes packets based on their characteristics, such as protocol, port number, payload, or behavior. This
can help to distinguish between different types of traffic and apply appropriate policies or actions to them. However, traffic classification does not enforce
bandwidth limits by itself; it only provides input for other mechanisms to use.

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NEW QUESTION 207

- (Topic 3)
A coffee shop owner hired a network consultant to provide recommendations for installing a new wireless network. The coffee shop customers expect high speeds
even when the network is congested. Which of the following standards should the consultant recommend?

A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

Answer: B

Explanation:
802.11ax is the latest and most advanced wireless standard, providing higher speeds, lower latency, and more capacity than previous standards. It also supports
OFDMA, which allows multiple devices to share a channel and reduce congestion. The other options are older standards that have lower bandwidth, range, and
efficiency than 802.11ax. Therefore, 802.11ax is the best option for the coffee shop owner who wants to provide high speeds even when the network is congested.

NEW QUESTION 212

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following types of connections would need to be set up to provide access from the internal network to an external network so multiple satellite offices
can communicate securely using various ports and protocols?

A. Client-to-site VPN
B. Clientless VPN
C. RDP
D. Site-to-site VPN
E. SSH

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 213

- (Topic 3)
A network technician receives a report about a performance issue on a client PC that is connected to port 1/3 on a network switch. The technician observes the
following configuration output from the switch:

Which of the following is a cause of the issue on port 1/3?

A. Speed
B. Duplex
C. Errors
D. VLAN

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 214

- (Topic 3)
After a company installed a new IPS, the network is experiencing speed degradation. A network administrator is troubleshooting the issue and runs a speed test.
The results from the different network locations are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely issue?

A. Packet loss
B. Bottlenecking
C. Channel overlap
D. Network congestion

Answer: B

Explanation:
The most likely issue is bottlenecking. Bottlenecking occurs when a component or device limits the performance or capacity of the network. In this case, the IPS
(intrusion prevention system) may be causing a bottleneck by inspecting and filtering the incoming and outgoing traffic, which reduces the speed and bandwidth
available for the network devices12
To confirm this issue, the network administrator can compare the speed test results before and after installing the IPS, and check the IPS configuration and logs for
any errors or warnings. The network administrator can also try to bypass the IPS temporarily and run the speed test again to see if there is any improvement3
If the IPS is indeed the cause of the bottleneck, the network administrator can try to optimize the IPS settings, such as adjusting the inspection rules, thresholds,
and priorities, to reduce the processing overhead and latency. Alternatively, the network administrator can upgrade the IPS hardware or software, or add more IPS
devices to balance the load and increase the throughput45
1: What is Network Congestion? Common Causes and How to Fix Them? -
GeeksforGeeks 2: Network congestion - Wikipedia 3: How to Fix Packet Loss - Lifewire 4: How to Optimize Your IPS Performance - Cisco 5: How to Avoid
Network Bottlenecks - TechRepublic

NEW QUESTION 219

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following fouling protocols is generally used by major ISPs for handing large- scale internet traffic?

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A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 223

- (Topic 3)
A customer has an attached USB printer that needs to be shared with other users. The desktop team set up printer sharing. Now, the network technician needs to
obtain the necessary information about the PC and share it with other users so they can connect to the printer. Which of the following commands should the
technician use to get the required information? (Select TWO).

A. arp
B. route
C. netstat
D. tcpdump
E. hostname
F. ipconfig

Answer: EF

Explanation:
The hostname and ipconfig commands should be used to get the required information about the PC and share it with other users so they can connect to the
printer. The hostname command displays the name of the computer on a network. The ipconfig command displays the IP configuration of the computer, including
its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. These information are necessary for other users to locate and connect to the shared printer on the
network. For example, other users can use the UNC path \\hostname\printername or \\ipaddress\printername to access the shared printer. References: [CompTIA
Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], How to Share a Printer in Windows 10

NEW QUESTION 225

- (Topic 3)
When accessing corporate network resources, users are required to authenticate to each application they try to access. Which of the following concepts does this
BEST represent?

A. SSO
B. Zero Trust
C. VPN
D. Role-based access control

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 226

- (Topic 3)
A user reports that a crucial fileshare is unreachable following a network upgrade that was completed the night before. A network technician confirms the problem
exists. Which of the following
troubleshooting Steps should the network technician perform NEXT?

A. Establish a theory of probable cause.

B. Implement a solution to fix the problem.
C. Create a plan of action to resolve the problem.
D. Document the problem and the solution.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Establishing a theory of probable cause is the third step in the general troubleshooting process, after identifying the problem and gathering information.
Establishing a theory of probable cause involves using the information gathered to formulate one or more possible explanations for the problem and testing them to
verify or eliminate them. In this scenario, the network technician has confirmed the problem exists
and should proceed to establish a theory of probable cause based on the information available, such as the network upgrade that was completed the night before.
Implementing a solution to fix the problem is the fifth step in the general troubleshooting process, after establishing a plan of action. Implementing a solution
involves applying the chosen method or technique to resolve the problem and verifying its effectiveness. In this scenario, the network technician has not
established a plan of action yet and should not implement a solution without knowing the cause of the problem.
Creating a plan of action to resolve the problem is the fourth step in the general troubleshooting process, after establishing a theory of probable cause. Creating a
plan of action involves selecting the best method or technique to address the problem based on the available resources, constraints, and risks. In this scenario, the
network technician has not established a theory of probable cause yet and should not create a plan of action without knowing the cause of the problem.
Documenting the problem and the solution is the seventh and final step in the general troubleshooting process, after implementing preventive measures.
Documenting the problem and the solution involves recording the details of the problem, its symptoms, its cause, its solution, and its preventive measures for
future reference and improvement. In this scenario, the network technician has not implemented preventive measures yet and should not document the problem
and the solution without resolving and preventing it.

NEW QUESTION 229

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following use cases would justify the deployment of an mGRE hub-and-spoke topology?

A. An increase in network security using encryption and packet encapsulation

B. A network expansion caused by an increase in the number of branch locations to the headquarters
C. A mandatory requirement to increase the deployment of an SDWAN network
D. An improvement in network efficiency by increasing the useful packet payload

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Answer: B

Explanation:

mGRE (Multipoint GRE) is a type of GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) tunnel that allows a single interface to support multiple tunnel endpoints, instead of
having to configure a separate point-to-point tunnel for each destination. mGRE simplifies the configuration and management of large-scale VPN networks, such
as DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN), which is a Cisco technology that uses mGRE, NHRP (Next Hop Resolution Protocol), and IPsec to create secure and
dynamic VPN connections between a hub and multiple spokes1.
A network expansion caused by an increase in the number of branch locations to the headquarters would justify the deployment of an mGRE hub-and-spoke
topology, because it would reduce the complexity and overhead of configuring and maintaining multiple point- to-point tunnels between the hub and each spoke.
mGRE would also enable spoke-to- spoke communication without having to go through the hub, which would improve the network performance and efficiency23.
The other options are not directly related to the use case of mGRE hub-and-spoke topology. An increase in network security using encryption and packet
encapsulation can be achieved by using IPsec, which is a separate protocol that can be applied to any type of GRE tunnel, not just mGRE. A mandatory
requirement to increase the deployment of an SDWAN network can be met by using various technologies and vendors, not necessarily mGRE or DMVPN. An
improvement in network efficiency by increasing the useful packet payload can be achieved by using various techniques, such as compression, fragmentation, or
QoS, not specifically mGRE.
ReferencesUnderstanding Cisco Dynamic Multipoint VPN - DMVPN, mGRE, NHRPMGRE Easy Steps - Cisco CommunityWhat is DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint
VPN), NHRP, mGRE and How to configu - Cisco Community

NEW QUESTION 232

- (Topic 3)
After a firewall replacement, some alarms and metrics related to network availability stopped updating on a monitoring system relying on SNMP. Which of the
following should the network
administrator do first?

A. Modify the device's MIB on the monitoring system.

B. Configure syslog to send events to the monitoring system.
C. Use port mirroring to redirect traffic to the monitoring system.
D. Deploy SMB to transfer data to the monitoring syste

Answer: A

Explanation:

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol that allows network devices to communicate with a monitoring system and provide information about
their status, performance, and configuration. SNMP relies on MIBs (Management Information Bases), which are collections of objects that define the types of
information that can be accessed or modified on a device1.
When a firewall replacement occurs, the new firewall may have a different MIB than the old one, which means that the monitoring system may not be able to
recognize or interpret the data sent by the new firewall. This can cause some alarms and metrics related to network availability to stop updating on the monitoring
system. To fix this, the network administrator should modify the device’s MIB on the monitoring system, so that it matches the MIB of the new firewall and can
correctly process the SNMP data2.
The other options are not relevant to the issue. Configuring syslog to send events to the monitoring system would not affect the SNMP data, as syslog is a different
protocol that sends log messages from network devices to a central server. Using port mirroring to redirect traffic to the monitoring system would not help, as port
mirroring is a technique that copies traffic from one port to another for analysis or troubleshooting purposes, but does not change the format or content of the
traffic. Deploying SMB to transfer data to the monitoring system would not work, as SMB is a protocol that allows file sharing and access between network devices,
but does not support SNMP data.
ReferencesGrafana & Prometheus SNMP: advanced network monitoring guideConfiguring Windows Systems for Monitoring with SNMP - ScienceLogic

NEW QUESTION 236

- (Topic 3)
Clients have reported slowness between a branch and a hub location. The senior engineer suspects asymmetrical routing is causing the issue. Which of the
following should the engineer run on both the source and the destination network devices to validate this theory?

A. traceroute
B. ping
C. route
D. nslookup

Answer: A

Explanation:

Asymmetric routing occurs when traffic does not traverse the same path in both directions of a conversation. This can cause problems when there are stateful
devices, such as firewalls or NAT devices, in the path that expect the traffic to be symmetrical. Asymmetric routing can also result in suboptimal TCP performance,
as TCP assumes that the SYN and ACK packets take the same path1.
To validate the theory of asymmetric routing, the engineer should run the traceroute command on both the source and the destination network devices. The
traceroute command shows the route that packets take to reach a destination, by displaying the IP addresses and hostnames of the routers along the path, as well
as the time taken for each hop. By comparing the output of the traceroute command from both ends, the engineer can determine if the traffic is taking different
paths in each direction, and identify where the asymmetry occurs2.
The ping command is not sufficient to validate the theory of asymmetric routing, as it only tests the connectivity and latency between two devices, but does not
show the intermediate hops or the path taken by the packets. The route command shows the routing table of a device, but does not show the actual path taken by
the packets. The nslookup command resolves a hostname to an IP address, or vice versa, but does not show the route or the connectivity between two devices.
ReferencesHow to Find & Fix Asymmetric Routing Issues | AuvikIdentifying and Troubleshooting Asymmetric Routing in WAAS - Cisco Community

NEW QUESTION 238

- (Topic 3)
A network engineer has added a new route on a border router and is trying to determine if traffic is using the new route. Which of the following commands should
the engineer use?

A. ping

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B. arp
C. tracert
D. route

Answer: C

Explanation:

The tracert command is a network diagnostic tool that traces the route of packets from the source host to the destination host. It displays the IP addresses and
hostnames of the routers along the path, as well as the time taken for each hop. The tracert command can be used to determine if traffic is using the new route by
comparing the output before and after adding the route. If the new route is effective, the tracert command should show a different or shorter path to the destination
host.
ReferencesNetworking Commands For Troubleshooting Windows - GeeksforGeeksNine Switch Commands Every Cisco Network Engineer Needs to Know

NEW QUESTION 240

- (Topic 3)
A network technician is configuring a wireless network that consists of multiple APS for better coverage and allows roaming between the APS. Which of the
following types of SSIDs should the technician configure?

A. Basic Service Set

B. Independent Basic Service Set
C. Extended Service Set
D. Distribution System Service

Answer: C

Explanation:

An extended service set (ESS) is a type of SSID that allows multiple access points (APs) to share the same SSID and provide seamless roaming for wireless
clients. An ESS consists of two or more basic service sets (BSSs), which are individual APs with their own SSIDs. A distribution system (DS), such as a wired
Ethernet LAN, connects the BSSs and enables data transfer between them. A wireless client can associate with any AP in the ESS and move from one BSS to
another without losing connectivity or reauthenticating.
References:
? CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Exam Objectives, page 51
? CompTIA Network+ Cert Guide: Wireless Networking, page 12

NEW QUESTION 243

- (Topic 3)
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on flle_server 2. The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between
networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identity any Issues, and configure the appropriate solution
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of trie simulation, please click the reset All button;

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
See the solution configuration below in Explanation.

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NEW QUESTION 245

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following ports should a network administrator enable for encrypted log-in to a network switch?

A. 22
B. 23
C. 80
D. 123

Answer: A

Explanation:
Port 22 is used by Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that provides a secure and encrypted method for remote access to hosts by using public-key
cryptography and challenge-response authentication. SSH can be used to log in to a network switch and configure it without exposing the credentials or
commands to eavesdropping or tampering. Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an insecure and plaintext protocol for remote access. Port 80 is used by HTTP,

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which is a protocol for web communication. Port 123 is used by NTP, which is a protocol for time synchronization

NEW QUESTION 246

- (Topic 3)
A medical building offers patients Wi-Fi in the waiting room. Which of the following security
features would be the BEST solution to provide secure connections and keep the medical data protected?

A. Isolating the guest network

B. Securing SNMP
C. MAC filtering
D. Disabling unneeded switchports

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 250

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following would be increased by adding encryption to data communication across the network?

A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Accountability
D. Confidentiality

Answer: D

Explanation:
Confidentiality is the property of preventing unauthorized access or disclosure of data. Encryption is a method of transforming data into an unreadable format that
can only be decrypted by authorized parties who have the correct key. Encryption can increase the confidentiality of data communication across the network by
making it harder for attackers to intercept or eavesdrop on the data. References: Network+ Study Guide
Objective 4.1: Summarize the purposes of physical security devices. Subobjective: Encryption.

NEW QUESTION 253

- (Topic 3)
A network technician is implementing a solution that will allow end users to gain access to multiple applications after logging on. Which of the following
authentication methods would allow this type of access?

A. SSO
B. LDAP
C. EAP
D. TACACS+

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 257

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator has received calls every day for the past few weeks from three users who cannot access the network. The administrator asks all the users
to reboot their PCs, but the same users still cannot access the system. The following day, three different users report the same issue, and the administrator asks
them all to reboot their PCs; however, this does not fix the issue. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

A. Incorrect firewall settings

B. Inappropriate VLAN assignment
C. Hardware failure
D. Overloaded CAM table in switch
E. DHCP scope exhaustion

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 262

- (Topic 3)
Many IP security cameras use RTSP to control media playback. Which of the following default transport layer port numbers does RTSP use?

A. 445
B. 554
C. 587
D. 5060

Answer: B

Explanation:
RTSP stands for Real Time Streaming Protocol and is an application-level network protocol designed for controlling media playback on streaming media servers.
RTSP uses the default transport layer port number 554 for both TCP and UDP1. Port 445 is used for SMB (Server Message Block), a protocol for file and printer
sharing. Port 587 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), a protocol for sending email messages. Port 5060 is used for SIP (Session Initiation Protocol),
a protocol for initiating and managing multimedia sessions.
References: 1 Real Time Streaming Protocol - Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_Time_Streaming_Protocol)

NEW QUESTION 263

- (Topic 3)

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A network administrator is notified that a user cannot access resources on the network. The network administrator checks the physical connections to the
workstation labeled User 3 and sees the Ethernet is properly connected. However, the network interface's indicator lights are not blinking on either the computer or
the switch. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. The switch failed.

B. The default gateway is wrong.
C. The port is shut down.
D. The VLAN assignment is incorrect.

Answer: C

Explanation:
If the port is shut down, it means that the switch has disabled the port and is not sending or receiving any traffic on it. This would explain why the network
interface’s indicator lights are not blinking on either the computer or the switch, and why the user cannot access resources on the network. The port could be shut
down manually by the network administrator, or automatically by the switch due to security or error conditions.
References
? Port shutdown is one of the common switch configuration options covered in Objective 2.3 of the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 certification exam1.
? Port shutdown can cause the network interface’s indicator lights to stop blinking2.
? Port shutdown can prevent the user from accessing resources on the network3.
1: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 5 2: CompTIA Network+ N10- 008: Switch not forwarding frames on trunked port3 3: Cable
Management – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.3

NEW QUESTION 268

- (Topic 3)
A network security engineer is investigating a potentially malicious Insider on the network. The network security engineer would like to view all traffic coming from
the user's PC to the switch without interrupting any traffic or having any downtime. Which of the following should the network security engineer do?

A. Turn on port security.

B. Implement dynamic ARP inspection.
C. Configure 802.1Q.
D. Enable port mirroring.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port mirroring is a feature that allows a network switch to copy the traffic from one or more ports to another port for monitoring purposes. Port mirroring can be
used to analyze the network traffic from a specific source, destination, or protocol without affecting the normal operation of the network. Port mirroring can also
help to detect and troubleshoot network problems, such as performance issues, security breaches, or policy violations.
The other options are not correct because they do not meet the requirements of the question. They are:
? Turn on port security. Port security is a feature that restricts the number and type
of devices that can connect to a switch port. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, MAC address spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks. However,
port security does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user’s PC to the switch.
? Implement dynamic ARP inspection. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a feature
that validates the ARP packets on a network and prevents ARP spoofing attacks. DAI can help to protect the network from man-in-the-middle, denial-of-service, or
data interception attacks. However, DAI does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user’s PC to the switch.
? Configure 802.1Q. 802.1Q is a standard that defines how to create and manage
virtual LANs (VLANs) on a network. VLANs can help to segment the network into logical groups based on function, security, or performance. However, 802.1Q
does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user’s PC to the switch.
References1: Port Mirroring - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications3: Port Security - an overview |
ScienceDirect Topics4: Dynamic ARP Inspection - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics5: 802.1Q - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

NEW QUESTION 272

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following connector types would be used to connect to the demarcation point and provide network access to a cable modem?

A. F-type
B. RJ45
C. LC
D. RJ11

Answer: A

Explanation:
An F-type connector is a type of coaxial connector that is commonly used to connect a cable modem to the demarcation point, which is the point at which the
cable provider's network ends and the customer's network begins. The F-type connector is a threaded connector that is typically used for television, cable modem,
and satellite antenna connections.

NEW QUESTION 275

- (Topic 3)
An administrator would like to create a fault-tolerant ring between three switches within a Layer 2 network. Which of the following Ethernet features should the
administrator employ?

A. Spanning Tree Protocol

B. Open Shortest Path First
C. Port mirroring
D. An interior gateway protocol

Answer: A

Explanation:

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Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that ensures a loop-free topology in Ethernet networks by actively blocking certain links and enabling others.
STP prevents loops by putting some of the links in a blocking state, effectively creating a loop- free topology. This ensures that there is only one active path
between two devices, which helps prevent network loops and the associated problems (such as broadcast storms) that can result from them. STP is used to create
a fault-tolerant ring between three switches within a Layer 2 network.

NEW QUESTION 277

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator is trying to add network redundancy for the server farm. Which of the following can the network administrator configure to BEST provide
this capability?

A. VRRP
B. DNS
C. UPS
D. RPO

Answer: A

Explanation:
VRRP is an open standard protocol, which is used to provide redundancy in a network. It is a network layer protocol (protocol number-112). The number of routers
(group members) in a group acts as a virtual logical router which will be the default gateway of all the local hosts. If one router goes down, one of the other group
members can take place for the responsibilities for forwarding the traffic.

NEW QUESTION 278

- (Topic 3)
A Fortune 500 firm is deciding On the kind or data center equipment to install given its five- year budget Outlook. The Chief Information comparing equipment
based on the life expectancy Of different models. Which Of the following concepts BEST represents this metric?

A. MTBF
B. MTRR
C. RPO
D. RTO

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 279

- (Topic 3)
A new office space is being designed. The network switches are up. but no services are running yet A network engineer plugs in a laptop configured as a DHCP
client to a switch Which ol the following IP addresses should be assigned to the laptop?

A. 10.1.1.1
B. 169.254.1.128
C. 172 16 128 128
D. 192 168.0.1

Answer: B

Explanation:
When a DHCP client is connected to a network and no DHCP server is available, the client can automatically configure a link-local address in the 169.254.0.0/16
range using the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) feature. So, the correct answer is option B, 169.254.1.128. This is also known as an APIPA address.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, by Todd
Lammle (Chapter 4: IP Addressing)

NEW QUESTION 280

- (Topic 3)
An IT technician is working on a support ticket regarding an unreachable web-site. The technician has utilized the ping command to the website, but the site is still
unreachable. Which of the following tools should the technician use NEXT?

A. ipconfig
B. tracert
C. arp
D. netstat

Answer: B

Explanation:
tracert is a command-line tool that can trace the route of a packet from the source to the destination. It can show the number of hops, the IP address and
hostname of each router, and the round-trip time for each hop. tracert can help the technician troubleshoot the unreachable website by identifying where the
packet is dropped or delayed along the path. ipconfig is a command-line tool that can display and configure the IP settings of a network interface. arp is a
command-line tool that can display and manipulate the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache, which maps IP addresses to MAC addresses. netstat is a
command-line tool that can display network connections, routing tables, and statistics. References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0
(N10-007), Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to troubleshoot connectivity issues.

NEW QUESTION 285

- (Topic 3)
An organization has a guest network with a network IP range of 192.168.1.0/28 using a DHCP pool. One visitor reported difficulties connecting and configured a
static IP address. Following this action, another visitor reported intermittent connection issues. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

A. Address pool exhaustion

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B. Duplicate IP addresses
C. Misconfigured default gateway
D. Incorrect subnet mask

Answer: B

Explanation:
A duplicate IP address occurs when two devices on the same network have the same IP address assigned to them. This can cause intermittent connection issues,
as the network devices may not be able to distinguish between the two conflicting devices. A duplicate IP address can be caused by a visitor manually configuring
a static IP address that is already in use by another device on the guest network. The network IP range of 192.168.1.0/28 has only 14 usable host addresses, so
the chances of a duplicate IP address are higher than a larger network.
References
? 1: Troubleshooting IP Configurations – CompTIA Network+ N10-006 – 4.6
? 2: Troubleshooting Duplicate IP Addresses - CompTIA Network+ N10-005: 2.5
? 3: Network Address Translation – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.4

NEW QUESTION 288

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following will reduce routing table lookups by performing packet forwarding decisions independently of the network layer header?

A. MPLS
B. mGRE
C. EIGRP
D. VRRP

Answer: A

Explanation:
Multiprotocol Label Switching, or MPLS, is a networking technology that routes traffic using the shortest path based on “labels,” rather than network addresses, to
handle forwarding over private wide area networks. As a scalable and protocol- independent solution, MPLS assigns labels to each data packet, controlling the
path the packet follows. MPLS greatly improves the speed of traffic, so users don’t experience downtime when connected to the network.

NEW QUESTION 291

- (Topic 3)
A user is unable to reach any resources on the internet. A technician goes to the site and obtains the following output from the workstation:

Which of the following commands should the technician use to correct the issue?

A. route ADD 0.0.0.0 MASK 0.0.0.0 10.10.51.10 metric 35

B. route CHANGE 10.10.51.0 MASK 255.255.255.255 10.10.52.1 metric 5
C. route CHANGE 10.10.51.255 MASK 255.0.0.0 On-Link metric 1
D. route DELETE 127.255.255.255

Answer: A

Explanation:
The route command is used to view and manipulate the IP routing table in Windows operating systems456 The routing table contains information about how to
reach different network destinations. The output from the workstation shows that the routing table does not have a default gateway, which is a router that forwards
packets to other networks that are not directly connected to the local network. A default gateway is usually specified by a route with a destination of 0.0.0.0 and a
netmask of 0.0.0.0, which matches any IP address. To correct the issue, the technician can use the route ADD command to add a default gateway to the routing
table. The syntax of the command is:
route ADD <destination> MASK <netmask> <gateway> metric <metric>
The destination and netmask parameters should be 0.0.0.0 to indicate a default route. The gateway parameter should be the IP address of the router that can
reach the internet, which is 10.10.51.10 in this case. The metric parameter is an optional value that indicates the cost or preference of the route, which can be used
to choose between multiple routes to the same destination. A lower metric means a higher preference. The metric parameter can be any integer between 1 and
9999. In this case, the metric parameter can be 35 or any other value.
Therefore, the correct command is:
route ADD 0.0.0.0 MASK 0.0.0.0 10.10.51.10 metric 35

NEW QUESTION 294

- (Topic 3)
Due to concerns around single points of failure, a company decided to add an additional WAN to the network. The company added a second MPLS vendor to the
current MPLS WAN and deployed an additional WAN router at each site. Both MPLS providers use OSPF on the WAN network, and EIGRP is run internally. The

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first site to go live with the new WAN is successful, but when the second site is activated significant network issues occur. Which of the following is the MOST likely
cause for the WAN instability?

A. A routing loop
B. Asymmetrical routing
C. A switching loop
D. An incorrect IP address

Answer: B

Explanation:
Asymmetrical routing is the most likely cause for the WAN instability. When two different routing protocols are used, like OSPF and EIGRP, it can cause
asymmetrical routing, which results in traffic being routed differently in each direction. This can lead to instability in the WAN. A CDP neighbor change, a switching
loop, or an incorrect IP address are not likely causes for WAN instability.

NEW QUESTION 299

- (Topic 3)
A building was recently remodeled in order to expand the front lobby. Some mobile users have been unable to connect to the available network jacks within the
new lobby, while others have had no issues. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the connectivity issues?

A. LACP
B. Port security
C. 802.11ax
D. Duplex settings

Answer: B

Explanation:
Port security is a feature that allows a network device to limit the number and type of MAC addresses that can access a port. Port security can prevent
unauthorized devices from connecting to the network through an available network jack. Therefore, port security is the most likely cause of the connectivity issues
for some mobile users in the new lobby.

NEW QUESTION 300

- (Topic 3)
A network technician is selecting a replacement for a damaged fiber cable that goes directly to an SFP transceiver on a network switch. Which of the following
cable connectors should be used?

A. RJ45
B. LC
C. MT
D. F-type

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 302

- (Topic 3)
An IT administrator received an assignment with the following objectives
• Conduct a total scan within the company's network tor all connected hosts
• Detect all the types of operating systems running on all devices
• Discover all services offered by hosts on the network
• Find open ports and detect security risks.
Which of the following command-line tools can be used to achieve these objectives?

A. nmap
B. arp
C. netatat
D. tcpdump

Answer: A

Explanation:
Nmap (Network Mapper) is a free and open source command line tool that can be used to scan a network for all connected hosts, detect the types of operating
systems running on all devices, discover all services offered by hosts on the network, find open ports, and detect security risks. Nmap is commonly used by
system administrators and security professionals to audit a network’s security and identify possible vulnerabilities. Nmap can be used to discover active hosts,
scan ports, fingerprint operating systems, detect running services, and more. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, 8th Edition, page 592.

NEW QUESTION 305

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is the NEXT step to perform network troubleshooting after identifying an issue?

A. Implement a solution.
B. Establish a theory.
C. Escalate the issue.
D. Document the findings.

Answer: B

Explanation:
1 Identify the Problem.

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2 Develop a Theory. 3 Test the Theory.

4 Plan of Action.
5 Implement the Solution.
6 Verify System Functionality.
7 Document the Issue.

NEW QUESTION 307

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following routing protocols is BEST suited for use on a perimeter router?

A. OSPF
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. BGP

Answer: D

Explanation:
BGP stands for Border Gateway Protocol and it is used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems (AS) on the Internet. A perimeter router is
a router that connects an AS to another AS or to the Internet. Therefore, BGP is the best suited routing protocol for a perimeter router.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast the characteristics of network topologies, types and technologies.

NEW QUESTION 312

- (Topic 3)
A public, wireless ISP mounts its access points on top of traffic signal poles. Fiber-optic cables are installed from a fiber switch through the ground and up the pole
to a fiber-copper media converter, and then connected to the AP. In one location, the switchport is showing sporadic link loss to the attached AP. A similar link loss
is not seen at the AP interface. The fiber-optic cable is moved to another unused switchport with a similar result. Which of the following steps should the assigned
technician complete NEXT?

A. Disable and enable the switchport.

B. Clean the fiber-optic cable ends.
C. Replace the media converter.
D. Replace the copper patch cord.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Fiber-optic cables are cables that use light signals to transmit data over long distances at high speeds. Fiber-optic cables are sensitive to dirt, dust, moisture, or
other contaminants that can interfere with the light signals and cause link loss or signal degradation. To troubleshoot link loss issues with fiber-optic cables, one of
the steps that should be completed next is to clean the fiber-optic cable ends with a lint-free cloth or a specialized cleaning tool. Cleaning the fiber-optic cable ends
can remove any dirt or debris that may be blocking or reflecting the light signals and restore the link quality.

NEW QUESTION 313

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? {Select two).

A. KVM size
B. Switch depth
C. Hard drive size
D. Cooling fan speed
E. Outlet amperage
F. Server height

Answer: BF

Explanation:
The size of a rack for installation depends on several factors, such as the available space, the power and cooling requirements, and the dimensions of the
equipment to be installed. Two of the most important dimensions to consider are the switch depth and the server height. Switch depth refers to the length of the
switch from front to back, which determines how much space is needed inside the rack. Server height refers to the vertical space occupied by the server, which is
measured in rack units (RU) or U. One rack unit is equal to 1.75 inches. The height of the rack should be able to accommodate the total number of rack units
needed for the servers and other devices, as well as some extra space for cable management and airflow. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide,
Chapter 2, Section 2.5

NEW QUESTION 316

- (Topic 3)
A network administrator needs to provide remote clients with access to an internal web application. Which of the following methods provides the highest flexibility
and compatibility while encrypting only the connection to the web application?

A. Clientless VPN
B. Virtual desktop
C. Virtual network computing
D. mGRE tunnel

Answer: A

Explanation:
A clientless VPN is a method of providing remote clients with access to an internal web application without installing any additional software or dedicated VPN
client on their devices. Instead, users access the VPN through a web browser, utilizing a web portal or gateway provided by the VPN service. This method
provides the highest flexibility and compatibility, as it supports various operating systems and devices, and encrypts only the connection to the web application, not

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the entire traffic of the device.

NEW QUESTION 317

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is the physical security mechanism that would MOST likely be used to enter a secure site?

A. A landing page
B. An access control vestibule
C. A smart locker
D. A firewall

Answer: B

Explanation:
An access control vestibule is a physical security mechanism that consists of a small room or chamber with two doors, one leading to the outside and one leading
to the secure site. The doors are controlled by an electronic system that verifies the identity and authorization of the person entering before allowing access to the
next door. A landing page is a web page that appears when a user clicks on a link or advertisement. A smart locker is a physical security mechanism that allows
users to store and retrieve items using a code or biometric authentication. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing
traffic based on predefined rules. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Network Operations, Objective 4.1: Explain the
importance of documentation and diagrams, Subobjective: Physical security devices (locks, cameras, etc.)

NEW QUESTION 320

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following network topologies involves sending all traffic through a single point?

A. Mesh
B. Hybrid
C. Hub-and-spoke
D. Point-to-point

Answer: C

Explanation:
Hub-and-spoke is a network topology where each node connects to a central switching device, such as a hub or a switch. All traffic between the nodes must pass
through the central device, which acts as a single point of communication and control. Hub-and-spoke topology is simple, easy to manage, and cost-effective, but it
also has drawbacks, such as low redundancy, high latency, and scalability issues.
References:
? Network Topologies – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.21
? CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 92

NEW QUESTION 325

- (Topic 3)
A company cell phone was stolen from a technician's vehicle. The cell phone has a passcode, but it contains sensitive information about clients and vendors.
Which of the following should also be enabled?

A. Factory reset
B. Autolock
C. Encryption
D. Two-factor authentication

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 327

- (Topic 3)
A technician is investigating a misconfiguration on a Layer 3 switch. When the technician logs in and runs a command, the following data is shown:
Which of the following commands generated this output?

A. show route
B. show config
C. show interface
D. tcpdump
E. netstat —s

Answer: C

Explanation:
The output shown in the image is from the show interface command, which displays information about the status and configuration of a network interface on a
switch or router. The output includes the interface name, description, MAC address, IP address, speed, duplex mode, status, and statistics. The show route
command displays the routing table of the device. The show config command displays the current configuration of the device. The tcpdump command captures
and analyzes network traffic. The netstat -s command displays statistics for each protocol.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to
troubleshoot connectivity issues.

NEW QUESTION 329

- (Topic 3)
A local service provider connected 20 schools in a large city with a fiber-optic switched network. Which of the following network types did the provider set up?

A. LAN

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B. MAN
C. CAN
D. WAN

Answer: B

Explanation:
MAN stands for Metropolitan Area Network, and it is a type of network that covers a large geographic area, such as a city or a county. MANs are often used to
connect multiple LANs (Local Area Networks) within a region, such as schools, offices, or government buildings. MANs typically use high-speed and high-capacity
transmission media, such as fiber-optic cables, to provide fast and reliable data communication. MANs can also provide access to WANs (Wide Area Networks),
such as the Internet, or other services, such as cable TV or VoIP.
The other options are not correct because they are not the type of network that covers a large city. They are:
? LAN. LAN stands for Local Area Network, and it is a type of network that covers a
small geographic area, such as a home, an office, or a building. LANs are often used to connect multiple devices, such as computers, printers, or phones, within a
single network. LANs typically use low-cost and low-capacity transmission media, such as twisted-pair cables, to provide data communication. LANs can also
provide access to other networks, such as MANs or WANs, through routers or gateways.
? CAN. CAN stands for Campus Area Network, and it is a type of network that
covers a moderate geographic area, such as a university, a hospital, or a military base. CANs are often used to connect multiple LANs within a campus, such as
different departments, buildings, or facilities. CANs typically use medium-cost and medium-capacity transmission media, such as coaxial cables, to provide data
communication. CANs can also provide access to other networks, such as MANs or WANs, through routers or gateways.
? WAN. WAN stands for Wide Area Network, and it is a type of network that covers
a very large geographic area, such as a country, a continent, or the world. WANs are often used to connect multiple MANs or LANs across different regions, such
as
different cities, states, or countries. WANs typically use high-cost and high- capacity transmission media, such as satellite links, to provide data communication.
WANs can also provide access to various services, such as the Internet, email, or VPN.
References1: What is a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)? - Definition from
Techopedia2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications3: What is a Local Area Network (LAN)? - Definition from Techopedia4: What is a Campus
Area Network (CAN)? - Definition from Techopedia5: What is a Wide Area Network (WAN)? - Definition from Techopedia

NEW QUESTION 330

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following policies outlines the software and hardware requirements for using personally owned devices to conduct business?

A. DLP
B. AUP
C. BYOD
D. NDA

Answer: C

Explanation:
The policy that outlines the software and hardware requirements for using personally owned devices to conduct business is BYOD (Bring Your Own Device).
BYOD is a practice that allows employees to use their own devices, such as laptops, tablets, or smartphones, to access corporate resources and applications.
BYOD can offer benefits such as increased productivity, flexibility, and satisfaction for employees, as well as reduced costs for employers. However, BYOD also
poses challenges and risks, such as security, compatibility, and support issues. Therefore, a BYOD policy is needed to define the rules and expectations for using
personal devices in a business environment. A BYOD policy typically covers topics such as device eligibility, security requirements, acceptable use, data
ownership, privacy, and liability. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 362; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide
(Exam N10-008), page 14-2.

NEW QUESTION 334

- (Topic 3)
A WAN technician reviews activity and identifies newly installed hardware that is causing outages over an eight-hour period. Which of the following should be
considered FIRST?

A. Network performance baselines

B. VLAN assignments
C. Routing table
D. Device configuration review

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 335

- (Topic 3)
A network engineer turned on logging to assist with troubleshooting a suspected configuration issue informative log information?

A. FATAL
B. ERROR
C. DEBUG
D. WARN

Answer: C

Explanation:
DEBUG is the log level that provides the most informative log information for troubleshooting a suspected configuration issue. Logging is a feature that allows
network devices to record events and messages related to their operation and status. Logging can help network engineers to monitor, diagnose, and resolve
network problems. Log levels are categories that indicate the severity or importance of a log message. Different log levels provide different amounts of detail and
verbosity. DEBUG is the lowest log level, which means it provides the most detailed and verbose information about every action and event that occurs on a
network device. DEBUG can help network engineers to identify configuration errors, misbehaving processes, or unexpected outcomes. However, DEBUG can also
generate a lot of noise and overhead, which can affect the performance and availability of the network device. Therefore, DEBUG should be used sparingly and
only when necessary. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam

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Objectives], Understanding Logging Levels - Cisco

NEW QUESTION 337

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following uses the link-state routing algorithm and operates within a single autonomous system?

A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP

Answer: B

Explanation:
OSPF uses a link state routing algorithm and falls into the group of interior routing protocols, operating within a single autonomous system (AS). OSPF is perhaps
the most widely used interior gateway protocol (IGP) in large enterprise networks

NEW QUESTION 341

......

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