GEOGRAPHY (029)

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Class: XII: 2024 – 25
Time allowed: 3 Hours Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:
(i) This questions paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 18 and 19 are Source-based questions. Each question carries 3
marks.
(v) Section C Questions no. 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
3 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions. Each question carries
5 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 29 and 30 are Map-based questions. Each question carries 5
marks.
(viii) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.
(ix) There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal choice has
been provided in a few questions in all sections other than Section A.

Section A

Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions. (17X1) 17

1 The Human Poverty Index measures the shortfall in human development on the 1
basis of which parameter/s?
A. The adult literacy rate and the life expectancy at birth.
B. Access to resources in terms of purchasing power.
C. The number of small children who are underweight.
D. The number of children enrolled in the school .
2 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer 1
as per the codes provided below.
Assertion (A): Often smaller countries have done better than larger ones and
relatively poorer nations have been ranked higher than richer neighbours in terms of
human development.
Reason (R): Size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to
human development. Countries with higher human development are those where a
lot of investment in the social sector has taken place.

Options:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
1 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25
 C. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
D. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

3 Which of the following statements are correct related to rural marketing centres? 1
Choose the correct option.
i. Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements.
ii. Rural Marketing centres are quasi-urban trading centres of the most rudimentary
type.
iii. They offer manufactured goods as well as many specialized markets develop, e.g.
markets for labour, housing, semi or finished products.
iv. Personal and professional services are not well-developed. These form local
collecting and distributing centres.

Options:
A. i, ii, iv
B. i, iii, iv
C. ii, iii, iv
D. i, ii, iii

4 Arrange the following facts related to the history of international trade in sequence. 1

i. The Silk Route is an early example of long distance trade connecting Rome to
China – along the 6,000 km route.
ii. After the disintegration of the Roman Empire, European commerce grew during
twelfth and thirteenth century with the development of ocean going warships trade
between Europe and Asia grew and the Americas were discovered.
iii. Fifteenth century onwards, the European colonialism began and along with trade
of exotic commodities, a new form of trade emerged which was called slave trade.
iv. During the World Wars I and II, countries imposed trade taxes and quantitative
restrictions for the first time.

Codes
A. i, ii, iv, v
B. iv, ii, iii, i
C. i, ii, iii, iv
D. iii, ii, iv, i

5 The act of opening up economies for trading by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs 1
and allowing goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products
and services is called .

A. Dumping
B. Trade liberalization
C. Balance of trade
D. Bilateral trade

6 Arrange the following states in order of their population from highest to lowest. 1

1. Bihar
2. Maharashtra
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal

2 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25

 Codes:
A. 1, 3, 2, 4
B. 4, 3, 2, 1
C. 3, 2, 1, 4
D. 2, 1, 4, 3

7 There are four distinct phases of population growth identified in India over the last one 1
century. Identify the phase from the given description.

This period is referred to as the period of population explosion in India, which was
caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the
country. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent. It is in this
period that developmental activities were introduced through a centralized planning
process and economy started showing up ensuring the improvement of living
condition of people at large. Consequently, there was a high natural increase and
higher growth rate.

A. Phase I 1901-1921
B. Phase II 1921-1951
C. Phase III 1951-1981
D. Phase IV post 1981 till present

8 The objective of protective irrigation is to___________________: 1

A. protect the crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency.

B. provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.
C. double water input per unit area of cultivated land so that multiple cropping can be
done.
D. increase the productivity of soil.

9 There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Mark your 1
answer as per the codes provided below.
Assertion (A): There has been a significant increase in agricultural output and yield,
of many crops such as rice and wheat among the other crops like sugarcane, oilseeds
and cotton, due to improvement in technology during the last 50 years.
Reason (R): Expansion of irrigation has played a crucial role in enhancing agricultural
output in the country. It provided basis for introduction of modern agricultural
technology during the last 50 years.
Options:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
C. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
D. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

3 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25

 10 Identify the statement that is NOT true with regard to watershed management? 1

I. It refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater

resources.
II. Watershed management includes judicious use of all resources –
Both natural and human with in a watershed.
III. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural
resources on the one hand and society on the other.
IV. The success of watershed development solely depends upon the state
government.

Options:
A. Statement I and IV
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Statement IV

11 A group of students were conducting research on water Pollution level in Delhi. Which 1
organization will students need to visit to gather information on water quality?

A. Delhi Pollution Control Committee (DPCC)

B. Indian Council of Environmental Research (ICER)
C. National water development Agency (NWDA)
D. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)

12 Which one of the following is incorrectly matched? 1

List I (Name of the state) List II (Coal mining Centre)

A. West Bengal I. Raniganj
B. Tamil Nadu 2. Neyveli
C. Maharashtra 3. Korba
D. Odisha 4. Talcher
1
13 Satellite is mode of communication in themselves as well as they regulate the use of
other means of communication. Choose the correct satellite system used by India.
1. India Remote Sensing Satellite System (IRS)
2. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
3. Indian Nation Satellite System (INSAT)
4. India Regional Navigation Satellite System
Codes
A. Both I and III
B. Only I
C. Both II and III
D. Only IV

4 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25

 14 Setubharatam Pariyojana launched by the Indian government aims to achieve? 1

A. Development of State roads along coastal border areas.

B. The construction of about 1500 major bridges and 200 rail over bridges and rail
under bridges.
C. Development of border roads.
D. Construction of more water ways.

15 Read the graph and answer the following questions no.15-17: 1

Identify the highest populous country?

A. Russia
B. India
C. Canada
D. China

15.1 The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.15.
Identify the highest populous country?
A. Russia
B. India
C. Canada
D. China
16 Identify the African country that has very high population. 1
A. Mexico
B. Brazil
C. Pakistan
D. Nigeria

16.1 The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.16.
What does the term population distribution refer to?

A. The total number of people living in specific area.

B. The arrangement or spread of people across a given area.
C. The rate at which population increases over time.
D. The number of births per 1,000 people in the population.

5 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25

 17 Which continent has the highest number of the world's most populous countries? 1
A. Africa
B. North America
C. Asia
D. South America

17.1 The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. 17.
Which continent has the highest number of the world's most populous countries?
A. Africa
B. North America
C. Asia
D. South America

Section B

Questions number 18 and 19 are Source-based Questions. 2x3=6

18 Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follows: 3 x1=3
Tourism
Tourism has become the world’s single largest tertiary activity in total registered jobs
(250 million) and total revenue (40 per cent of the total GDP). Besides, many local
persons, are employed to provide services like accommodation, meals, transport,
entertainment and special shops serving the tourists. Tourism fosters the growth of
infrastructure industries, retail trading, and craft industries (souvenirs). In some
regions, tourism is seasonal because the vacation period is dependent on favourable
weather conditions, but many regions attract visitors all the year round.

The warmer places around the Mediterranean Coast and the West Coast of India are
some of the popular tourist destinations in the world. Others include winter sports
regions, found mainly in mountainous areas, and various scenic landscapes and
national parks, which are scattered. Historic towns also attract tourists, because of
the monument, heritage sites and cultural activities.

(I) What constitutes tourism?

(II) List two renowned global tourist destinations.
(III) “Tourism has become the largest tertiary activity in the world”. Comment.

19 Study the following table and answer the questions: 3 x1=3

6 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25

 (I) Identify the human development score for the countries classified as having
Medium Human Development?
(II) What can you infer about the well-being of people living in countries with a high
level of human development?
(III) Give reasons for low level of human development in 33 countries.

Section C
Questions number 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions 4x3=12
20 Explain humanisation of nature with the help of a real life example. 3
OR
“The concept of Neo- determinism is compared with traffic lights on the cross road”.
Analyze the statement with examples.

21 Study the map of Suez Canal and answer the following questions: 1+1+1
=3

(I) Name the two seas connected by the Suez Canal.

(II) Why do we consider this as Europe’s gateway to the Indian Ocean?
(III) Write one characteristic of the Suez Canal.
21.1 The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of 1+1+1=
Q.21 3
(I) Name the two oceans connected by the Panama Canal.
(II) Write one unique feature of the Panama Canal.
(III) Why is this canal vital for the economies of Latin America?

7 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25

 22 Prepare a proposal for a smart city that integrates advanced technology to enhance 3
urban living while prioritising sustainability, cleanliness and affordability.

23 Enumerate the challenges confronting society regarding the adolescent population. 2+1=3
Enlist a few measures to overcome these problems.

Section D
Questions number 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions- 5X5=25

24 How does food gathering as an economic activity differ between primitive and modern 3+2=5
societies, and why is it unlikely to significantly influence the global economy today?

25 A. Assess the factors that contributed to the development of large-scale industries 5

all over the world.
OR
B. Access to transportation and communication facilities are essential for the
development of industries.’ Justify the statement with suitable example.

26 A. Evaluate the benefits derived from Integrated Tribal development Project 5

implemented in Bharmaur Region.
OR
B. 'Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated for the specified areas
keeping in view their topographical, ecological, social and economic conditions'.
Justify the statement.
27 A. The composition of commodities in India’s international trade has been 5
undergoing a change over the years. Substantiate the statement with suitable
arguments.
OR
B. ‘Air transport plays an important role in the international trade’. Justify the
statement with suitable arguments.
28 A. ‘Environmental pollution by solid wastes has now got significance due to 5
enormous growth in the quantity of waste’”.

OR
B. Give reasons for the unsustainable increase in solid waste and discuss two
strategies to control waste generation at the source in urban areas.

8 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25

 Section E

Question numbers 29 & 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub-parts each. 2X5=10

29 On the given political map of the World, seven geographical features have been 5
marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following
information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near each feature.

A. A major seaport.
B. An international airport.
C. An important Seaway.
D. An area of subsistence gathering in South America.
E. An important seaport of Asia.
F. An area of Nomadic Herding.
G. Region of extensive commercial grain agriculture.

9 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25

 The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Question No.29.
Answer any five questions out of the following:
29 A. Name a major seaport situated at the southernmost tip of Africa.
29 B. Name an important international airport of Italy.
29 C. Which river in North America connects the Great Lakes to the Atlantic
Ocean?
29 D. Name an area of subsistence gathering in South America.
29 E. Name an important sea port of China.
29 F. Mention an area of nomadic herding in North Africa.
29 G. Name the area of extensive commercial grain agriculture in New Zealand.

30 Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the Political 5
Outline map of India with appropriate symbols:
A. An important coal mine in Orisha.
B. An important seaport in Karnataka.
C. Jharia – Coal mines.
D. An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.
E. The state with lowest population density.
F. The state leading in the production of Tea.
G. An international airport in Punjab.

The following questions are for visually impaired students in lieu of

Question No.30. Attempt any five.

30.A Name an important coal mine in Orisha.

30.B Name an important seaport in Karnataka.
30.C Name one important coal mine of Maharashtra
30.D Name one oil refinery of Uttar Pradesh.
30.E Name the state with lowest population density.
30.F Name one leading tea producing state of India.
30.G Name the international airport of Punjab.

10 Geography SQP Class-XII 2024-25

General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This questions paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 18 and 19 are Source-based questions. Each
question carries 3 marks.
(v) Section C Questions no. 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions. Each
question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in
80 to 100 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to
150 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 29 and 30 are Map-based questions. Each question
carries 5 marks.
(viii) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for
Visually Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map
etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.
(ix) There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal
choice has been provided in a few questions in all sections other than Section A.

SECTION A
Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions. 17 1=17
1. Which one of the following language groups is the smallest in India ?
(A) Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri
(B) Kannada, Tamil and Telugu
(C) Dogri, Punjabi and Konkani
(D) Maithili, Gujarati and Bangla
2. Which one of the following is able to purchase merchandise more
economically, by contacting the manufacturers to produce the goods
according to their specification ?
(A) Trading Centres (B) Consumer Cooperatives
(C) Departmental Stores (D) Chain Stores
3. Synthetic fibre and plastic manufacturing is an example of which one of
the following ?
(A) Mineral-based industry (B) Chemical-based industry
(C) Forest-based industry (D) Animal-based industry

64/1/1-11 3 P.T.O.
4. Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly ?
(Target Area Planning ) (Area)
(A) Hill Area Development Semi-arid and Arid tracts
Programme of India
(B) Drought Prone Area Programme 15 Hilly Districts
(C) Indira Gandhi Canal Command Ganganagar,
Area Hanumangarh
(D) Integrated Tribal Development Rajasthan and Gujarat
Project

5. Read the following objectives regarding National Policy for Skill

Development and Entrepreneurship (2015) carefully and choose the most
appropriate option :
I. To improve the literacy rate of different age groups in India.
II. To provide umbrella framework to all skilling activities.
III. To align all skilling activities to common standards.
IV. To link skilling activities with demand centres.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

6. What is the other name of Rainfed type of farming ?

(A) Productive farming (B) Protective farming
(C) Barani (D) Zaid

7. Which one of the following is not the objective of Namami Gange

Programme ?
(A) Developing sewerage treatment systems in towns
(B) Monitoring of industrial effluents
(C) Afforestation along the banks of the river
(D) To divert the flow of the river from the cities

64/1/1-11 5 P.T.O.
8. Choose the correct option regarding the stretch of National Waterways
No. 1 :
(A) Allahabad/Prayagraj Haldia
(B) Sadiya Dhubri
(C) Kottapuram Kollam
(D) Kakinada Puducherry
9. Study the following statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Statement I : In India, after independence, some old towns around
metropolitan cities developed as satellite towns.
Statement II : Delhi is a good example of such metropolitan cities.
Options :
(A) Only statement I is correct.
(B) Only statement II is correct.
(C) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct
example of statement I.
(D) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the
correct example of statement I.
10. Which one of the following is a reason for the emergence of clustered
settlements in Rajasthan ? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) For the maximum utilization of land resources.
(B) For external security and defence.
(C) For maximum utilization of available water resources.
(D) For internal security and defence.
11. Which one of the following is the biggest government undertaking in the
country ?
(A) Indian Railways
(B) National Highways Authority of India
(C) Border Roads Organization
(D) All India Radio
12. Choose the correct option regarding mining towns of India :
(A) Kandla, Kochchi and Kozhikode
(B) Ankaleshwar, Singrauli and Digboi
(C) Mumbai, Salem and Modinagar
(D) Varanasi, Roorki and Aligarh
64/1/1-11 7 P.T.O.
13. Read the given statement carefully and answer the question that follows :

Which among the following group of industries are the major source of
water pollution ? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) Leather, pulp and paper
(B) Iron, copper and sugar
(C) Sugar, petrochemical and fertilizer
(D) Cotton textile, chemical and power plant
14. Which of the following organisations sets the rules for the global trading
among its member nations ? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) United Nations
(B) World Trade Organisation
(C) North American Free Trade Association
(D) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
Read the case study given below and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.
Stages of Demographic Transition Theory
The first stage of demographic transition theory has high fertility and
high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the
deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth
is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture, where large
families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate
and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago, all the countries
of the world were in this stage.
Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines
with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements
in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of
this gap, the net addition to population is high.
In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The
population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes
urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately
controls the family size.
This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to
adjust their fertility.
In the present day, different countries are at different stages of
demographic transition.
64/1/1-11 9 P.T.O.
15. Which among the following stage/stages has/have high growth of
population ?
(A) Only the first stage (B) Only the second stage
(C) Both first and second stages (D) Both second and last stages
16. Choose the most appropriate option from the following regarding
components of population change :
(A) Births, deaths and migration
(B) Births, density and migration
(C) Density, literacy and age structure
(D) Deaths, literacy and sex ratio
17. Which of the following stage/stages has/have a slow growth of
population ?
(A) Only the first stage
(B) Only the second stage
(C) Only second and last stages
(D) Only first and last stages

SECTION B
Questions number 18 and 19 are Source-based Questions. 2 3=6
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3 1=3
Services
Services occur at many different levels. Some are geared to industry,
some to people, and some to both industry and people, e.g., the transport
systems. Services, such as grocery shops and laundries are more common
and widespread than high-order services or more specialized ones like
those of accountants, consultants and physicians. Services are provided to
individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. For example, the
gardener, the launderers and the barber do primarily physical labour.
Teachers, lawyers, physicians, musicians and others perform mental
labour.
Many services have now been regulated. Making and maintaining
highways and bridges, maintaining fire fighting departments and
supplying or supervising education and customer care are among the
important services most often supervised or performed by governments or
companies. State and Union legislation have established corporations to
supervise and control the marketing of such services as transport,
telecommunication, energy and water supply. Professional services are
primarily health care, engineering, law and management. The location of
recreational and entertainment services depends on the market.

64/1/1-11 11 P.T.O.
 (18.1) Mention any one example of common and widespread services. 1
(18.2) Who supervises and controls the marketing of services ? 1
(18.3) 1

19. Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that
follow : 3 1=3

(19.1) In 2014 15, which category of land use has undergone the
highest net increase in comparison to 1950 51 ? 1
(19.2) In 2014 15, which category of land use has undergone the
highest net decline in comparison to 1950 51 ? 1
(19.3) Mention any two reasons for the decline in land under culturable
1 1
wasteland. + =1
2 2

Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 19.
, to a large extent, is influenced by the nature of

three points. 3
64/1/1-11 13 P.T.O.
 SECTION C

Questions number 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions. 4 3=12

20. (a) Explain the criticisms faced by the World Trade Organization. 3
OR
(b) he characteristics of Balance
of Trade . 1+2=3

21. Explain any three characteristics of Phase II of growth of population in

India. 3

22. (a) Explain with example the concept of environmental determinism. 3

OR
(b) al and human is not a very valid
3

23. Explain any three problems of slums in India. 3

SECTION D
Questions number 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions. 5 5=25

24. red ? Explain key areas of

human development. 2+3=5

25. (a) Name the canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific
Ocean. Explain its main features. 1+4=5
OR
(b) Explain the main features of the Rhine Waterways. 5

26. (a) Analyze the main features of Plantation Agriculture in the world. 5
OR
(b) Analyse the main features of extensive commercial grain cultivation
in the world. 5

27. Explain the Indian sea ports as gateways of international trade. 5

28. (a) Analyze the relationship between the conservation of mineral

resources and sustainable development in India. 5
OR
(b) Analyze the advantages of non-conventional energy sources by
giving the example of solar energy in India. 5
64/1/1-11 15 P.T.O.
 SECTION E

Questions number 29 and 30 are Map-based Questions. 2 5=10

29. On the given political outline map of the World (on page 21), seven
geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
Identify any five with the help of the following information and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5 1=5

A. An area of extensive commercial grain farming

B. A shipping canal
C. A major sea port in Australia
D. A major airport in Japan
E. A major sea port of South America
F. An area of subsistence gathering
G. A major inland waterway

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 29.
Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5

(29.1) Name a major area of extensive commercial grain farming in

Africa.

(29.2) Name the canal linking Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.

(29.3) Name the major sea port located in western part of Australia.

(29.4) Name the major airport of Japan.

(29.5) Name the major sea port of Brazil.
(29.6) Name the main area of subsistence gathering in Africa.

(29.7) Which is the major inland waterway in North America ?

64/1/1-11 17 P.T.O.
30. On the given political outline map of India (on page 23), locate and label
any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate
symbols : 5 1=5

(30.1) Tuticorin : Major sea port

(30.2) Khetri : Copper mines

(30.3) An international airport in Punjab

(30.4) Leading rice producing state

(30.5) State with the highest density of population

(30.6) Oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh

(30.7) Jharia : Coal mines

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 30.
Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5

(30.1) Name the state where Tuticorin sea port is located.

(30.2) Name the state where Khetri copper mines are located.

(30.3) Name the place where an international airport is located in

Punjab.

(30.4) Name the leading rice producing state.

(30.5) Name the state with highest density of population.

(30.6) Name the place where oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.

(30.7) Name the state where Jharia coal mines are located.

64/1/1-11 19 P.T.O.
àíZ g§. 29 Ho$ {bE For question no. 29

64/1/1-11 21 P.T.O.
àíZ g§. 30 Ho$ {bE For question no. 30

^maV H$m aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (amOZr{VH$)

Outline Map of India (Political)

64/1/1-11 23 P.T.O.
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This questions paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 18 and 19 are Source-based questions. Each
question carries 3 marks.
(v) Section C Questions no. 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions. Each
question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in
80 to 100 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to
150 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 29 and 30 are Map-based questions. Each question
carries 5 marks.
(viii) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for
Visually Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map
etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.
(ix) There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal
choice has been provided in a few questions in all sections other than Section A.
SECTION A
Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions. 17 1=17
1. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I Column II
(Area) (Animal Domestication)
1. Tropical Africa (i) Camel
2. Asiatic Deserts (ii) Cattle
3. Mountainous areas of Tibet (iii) Reindeer
4. Sub-Arctic areas (iv) Llamas
Options :
(A) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
(D) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
2. Which of the following countries was at the highest rank in Human
Development Index in 2020 ?
(A) Denmark (B) Norway
(C) Netherlands (D) Switzerland
64/2/3-12 3 P.T.O.
3. Read the following factors of migration carefully and choose the correct
option related to pull factors :
I. Peace and stability
II. Unfavourable climate
III. Protection of property
IV. Economic backwardness

Options :
(A) Only I and II are correct.
(B) Only I and III are correct.
(C) Only II and IV are correct.
(D) Only II and III are correct.

4. Which one of the following diseases is caused by water pollution ?

(A) Hepatitis (B) Asthma
(C) Pneumonia (D) Deafness

5.
(A) Government of Madhya Pradesh
(B) Government of India
(C) Non Governmental Organisation
(D) World Health Organisation

6. Read the programmes related to the proposed Bharatmala umbrella

scheme carefully and choose the correct option :
I. Backward areas, religious and tourist places connectivity
programme
II. To interconnect the four metropolitan cities of the country
III. To develop State roads in adjoining coastal areas
IV. To connect non-major ports in coastal states
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct. (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct. (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
64/2/3-12 5 P.T.O.
7. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the flow chart :

Options :
(A) Gold (B) Bauxite
(C) Graphite (D) Manganese

8.

(A) Iran India via Pakistan

(B) Iran China via Afghanistan

(C) Hazira Vijaypur to Jagdishpur

(D) Gulf of Mexico to northeastern USA

9. What is the other name of Rainfed type of farming ?

(A) Productive farming

(B) Protective farming

(C) Barani

(D) Zaid

64/2/3-12 7 P.T.O.
10. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : Countries need to be cautious about dumped goods under
free trade.
Reason (R) : Dumping of goods can harm the domestic producers.
Options :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

11. -West

(A) Gandhinagar (B) Porbandar

(C) Vadodara (D) Jamnagar

12. Read the following characteristics of retail trading carefully and choose
the correct option :
I. This is concerned with the sale of goods directly to the consumers.
II. Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments or
stores.
III. It is formed by many middlemen, traders and suppliers.
IV. Hawkers, street peddling, automatic vending machines, etc. are its
examples.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

13. Production of information is related to which one of the following

sectors ?
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary
64/2/3-12 9 P.T.O.
14. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of
places.
Reason (R) : The important factor in the location of foot loose
industries is accessibility by transport network.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Study the following diagram carefully and answer Q. No. 15 to 17.

15. In comparison to 1950 51, which of the following categories has

decreased the most in 2014 15 ?
(A) Forests
(B) Permanent pasture and grazing land
(C) Barren and unculturable wasteland
(D) Culturable wasteland

64/2/3-12 11 P.T.O.
16. In comparison to 1950 51, which one of the following categories has the
highest difference of increase in 2014 15 ?
(A) Barren and unculturable wasteland
(B) Net area sown
(C) Area under non-agricultural uses
(D) Current fallow

17.
between 1950 51 and 2014 15 ?
(A) 3·6% (of reporting area)
(B) 3·7% (of reporting area)
(C) 3·8% (of reporting area)
(D) 3·9% (of reporting area)

Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 15 to 17.

15. Which of the following is an example of barren and unculturable

wasteland ?
(A) Permanent pasture
(B) Desert and ravines
(C) Land used for infrastructure
(D) Land used in settlements

16. If any land remains uncultivated for more than five years, then it falls in
which of the following categories ?
(A) Current fallow land
(B) Culturable wasteland
(C) Barren land
(D) Fallow other than current fallow

17. Which of the following departments maintains the record of land-use in

India ?
(A) Revenue (B) Income Tax
(C) Sales Tax (D) Estate

64/2/3-12 13 P.T.O.
 SECTION B
Questions number 18 and 19 are Source-Based Questions. 2 3=6
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :
1+1+1=3
Land Degradation
The pressure on agricultural land increases not only due to the
limited availability but also by deterioration of quality of agricultural
land. Soil erosion, waterlogging, salinisation and alkalinisation of land
lead to land degradation. What happens if land is consistently used
without managing its fertility ? Land is degraded and productivity
declines. Land degradation is generally understood either as a temporary
or a permanent decline in productive capacity of the land.
Though all degraded land may not be wasteland, but unchecked
process of degradation may lead to the conversion to wasteland.
There are two processes that induce land degradation. These are
natural and created by human beings. National Remote Sensing Centre
(NRSC) has classified wastelands by using remote sensing techniques
and it is possible to categorise these wastelands according to the
processes that have created them. There are a few types of wastelands
such as gullied/ravinous land, desertic or coastal sands, barren rocky
areas, steep sloping land, and glacial areas, which are primarily caused
by natural agents. There are other types of degraded lands such as
waterlogged and marshy areas, land affected by salinity and alkalinity
and land with or without scrub, which have largely been caused by
natural as well as human factors. There are some other types of
wastelands such as degraded shifting cultivation area, degraded land
under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures, and mining
and industrial wastelands, that are caused by human action.
(18.1) 1
(18.2) Explain any one man-
1
(18.3)
1 1
degr + =1
2 2
64/2/3-12 15 P.T.O.
19. Study the given map and answer the questions that follow : 1+1+1=3

(A)

(B)

(19.1) Name the railway line given in the map. 1

1 1
(19.2) e given map. + =1
2 2

(19.3) Explain the importance of the railway line given on the map. 1

Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 19.

Explain any three cha -Continental

3 1=3

64/2/3-12 17 P.T.O.
 SECTION C

Questions number 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions. 4 3=12

20. (a)
obstacles ? Analyse. 3
OR
(b) How does neo-determinism try to achieve balance between two
concepts of man environment relationship ? Analyse. 3

21. Explain with examples, any three physical factors affecting the
distribution of world population. 3

22. Explain with examples, the classification of Indian towns on the basis of
their evolution. 3

23. (a) Explain the characteristics of countries falling under medium level
of human development. 3
OR
(b)
human development. 3

SECTION D

Questions number 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions. 5 5=25

24. (a) Explain the importance of rail transport in India. 5

OR
(b) Explain sea port as a gateway for international trade in India. 5

25. Explain five types of industries classified on the basis of raw materials. 5

26. (a) Analyse the major problems of youth population in India. Suggest
two measures to overcome the problems. 3+2=5
OR
(b) How is discrimination on the basis of gender a crime against
humanity ? Suggest two measures to overcome the problem. 3+2=5

64/2/3-12 19 P.T.O.
27.

Haryana. 5

28. (a) Describe any five features of 5

OR
(b)
in the world. 5

SECTION E
Questions number 29 and 30 are Map-based questions. 2 5=10

29. On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven
geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
Identify any five with the help of the following information and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5 1=5
A. An area of extensive commercial grain farming

B. A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway

C. An area of
D. An area of commercial livestock rearing
E. A major sea port of Asia

F. A major international airport of Europe

G. A major shipping canal

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 29.
Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5

(29.1) Name a major area of extensive commercial grain farming of

South America.

(29.2) Name the eastern terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway .

(29.3) Name an area of nomadic herding in Africa.

64/2/3-12 21 P.T.O.
 (29.4) Name the major country of commercial livestock rearing of
South America.
(29.5) Name the place where a major international airport is located in
Japan.
(29.6) In which country is Vancouver International Airport located ?
(29.7) Name the shipping canal linking Mediterranean Sea and Red
Sea.

30. On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label
any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate
symbols : 5 1=5
(30.1) State with highest density of population
(30.2) State leading in cotton production
(30.3) State leading in rice production

(30.4) Major iron-ore mines of Maharashtra

(30.5) An oil refinery of Uttar Pradesh

(30.6) A major sea port of Odisha

(30.7) An international airport of Assam

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in
lieu of Q. No. 30.
Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5

(30.1) Name the state with highest density of population.

(30.2) Name the state which is leading in cotton production.

(30.3) Name the state which is leading in rice production.

(30.4) Name the area of iron-ore mines in Maharashtra.
(30.5) Name the state where Jamnagar oil refinery is located.

(30.6) Name the state where Tuticorin sea port is located.

(30.7) Name the place where an international airport is located in

Assam.
64/2/3-12 23 P.T.O.
àíZ g§. 29 Ho$ {bE For question no. 29

64/2/3-12 25 P.T.O.
àíZ g§. 30 Ho$ {bE For question no. 30

^maV H$m aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (amOZr{VH$)

Outline Map of India (Political)

64/2/3-12 27 P.T.O.
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This questions paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into five sections Sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 18 and 19 are Source-based questions. Each
question carries 3 marks.
(v) Section C Questions no. 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions. Each
question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in
80 to 100 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 24 to 28 are Long Answer type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions shall be written in 120 to
150 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 29 and 30 are Map based questions. Each question
carries 5 marks.
(viii) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for
Visually Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, Map
etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.
(ix) There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal
choice has been provided in few questions in a sections other them Section A.
SECTION A
Questions no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions. 17 1=17
1. Two statements are given below as I and II. Read both the statements
carefully and choose the correct option :
Statement I : Most of the quaternary activities can be outsourced.
Statement II : These services are not necessarily based on resources and
market.
Options :
(A) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(B) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(C) Statements I and II both are correct and Statement II is the
correct explanation of Statement I.
(D) Statements I and II both are correct, but Statement II is not the
correct explanation of Statement I.
2. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : Manpower is an important component of the service
sector.
Reason (R) : Most of the tertiary activities are performed by skilled
labour and professionally trained experts.
Options :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
64/3/3-13 3 P.T.O.
3. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I Column II
(Industry) (Example)
1. Agro-based (i) Soaps
2. Forest-based (ii) Salts
3. Chemical-based (iii) Lac
4. Product-based (iv) Vegetable oil
Options :
(A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
(B) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
(C) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
(D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(ii)

4. Which one of the following types of agriculture is concerned with the

production of a single crop ?
(A) Intensive subsistence agriculture
(B) Plantation agriculture
(C) Mixed farming
(D) Mediterranean agriculture

5.
approaches of Human Development ?
(A) Income (B) Welfare
(C) Capability (D) Basic Needs

6. Read the following factors of migration carefully and choose the correct
option related t p
I. Peace and stability
II. Protection of property
III. Epidemics
IV. Unpleasant climate
Options :
(A) Only I and II are correct (B) Only II and III are correct
(C) Only III and IV are correct (D) Only I and IV are correct

64/3/3-13 5 P.T.O.
7. Which one of the following waterways is related to United States of
America ?
(A) Danube (B) Volga
(C) Rhine (D) Mississippi

8. Which one of the following is an example of an Oil Port ?

(A) Tripoli (B) Honolulu
(C) Singapore (D) Kochchi

9. Read the following sources of land pollution carefully and choose the
correct option :
I. Improper human activities
II. Untreated industrial waste
III. Practice of primitive subsistence agriculture
IV. Use of pesticides and fertilizers
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct
(D) Only I, III and IV are correct

10. Which one of the following is an example of solid waste ?

(A) Kitchen discarded items
(B) Polythene bags
(C) Plant leaves and branches
(D) Old newspapers

11. -South
C ?
(A) Srinagar and Kanyakumari
(B) Delhi and Kanyakumari
(C) Amritsar and Chennai
(D) Srinagar and Chennai
64/3/3-13 7 P.T.O.
12. Which of the following sea ports in India has been developed specially to
import petroleum and fertilizers ?

(A) Mumbai (B) Marmagao

(C) Kandla (D) Kochchi

13.
descending order of their percentages and choose the correct option :
I. Crude and petroleum products
II. Manufactured goods
III. Agriculture and allied products
IV. Ore and minerals
Options :

(A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, I, IV, III

(C) III, II, I, IV (D) II, III, I, IV

14. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I Column II
(Railway Zones) (Headquarters)
1. North Eastern (i) Jabalpur
2. West Central (ii) Hajipur
3. East Central (iii) Secunderabad
4. South Central (iv) Gorakhpur

Options :
(A) 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)
(B) 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)

(C) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)

(D) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(ii)

64/3/3-13 9 P.T.O.
Study the given diagram carefully and answer Q. No. 15 to 17 :
National Waterway

(A)

(B)
15. The given diagram is related to which of the following National
Waterways of India ?
(A) National Waterway Number 2
(B) National Waterway Number 3
(C) National Waterway Number 4
(D) National Waterway Number 5
16. Mark (A) on the diagram is related to which of the following places ?
(A) Kakinada (B) Dhubri
(C) Kottapuram (D) Sadiya
17. Mark (B) on the diagram is related to which of the following places ?
(A) Kollam (B) Haldia
(C) Dibrugarh (D) Vallamkali
64/3/3-13 11 P.T.O.
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 15 to 17.
15. Which of the following is the longest National Waterway ?
(A) National Waterway Number 1
(B) National Waterway Number 2
(C) National Waterway Number 3
(D) National Waterway Number 4
16. National Waterway Number 2 is related to which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga (B) Periyar
(C) Brahmaputra (D) Mahanadi
17. Choose the correct option related to the two end points of National
Waterway Number 2.
(A) Prayagraj Haldia (B) Godavari Krishna rivers
(C) Brahmani Matai rivers (D) Sadiya Dhubri

SECTION B
Questions number 18 and 19 are Source-based Questions. 2 3=6
18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : 3 1=3
Dharavi
There is only one main road that traverses Dharavi, which has been
reduced to less than half of that for most of its length. Some of the side
alleys and lanes are so narrow that not even a bicycle can pass. The
whole neighbourhood consists of temporary buildings, two or three
storeyed high with rusty iron stairways to the upper part, where a single
room is rented by a whole family, sometimes accommodating 10 12
people; it is a kind of tropical version of the industrial dwelling of

But Dharavi is a keeper of more sombre secrets than the revulsion it

inspires in the rich; a revulsion, moreover, that is, in direct proportion to
the role it serves in the creation of the wealth of Bombay. In this place of
shadowless, treeless sunlight, uncollected garbage, stagnant pools of foul
water, where the only creatures are the shining black crows and long
grey rats, some of the of the most beautiful, valuable and useful articles
in India are made. From Dharavi come delicate ceramics and pottery,
exquisite embroidery and zari work, sophisticated leather goods,
high-fashion garments, finely-wrought metalwork, delicate jewellery
settings, wood carvings and furniture that would find its way into the
houses, both in India and abroad.
64/3/3-13 13 P.T.O.
 (18.1) Describe the physical condition of Dharavi. 1
(18.2) Explain one major problem of Dharavi. 1
(18.3) Explain the main objective of Swachh Bharat Mission in the
context of Dharavi. 1
19. Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that
follow : 3 1=3
Inland Waterway
80 79 30

(A)

(B)
80 79 30

(19.1) With which waterway is the given diagram related ? 1

(19.2) Mention the names of places marked (A) and (B) in the given
1 1
diagram. + =1
2 2
(19.3) Explain the importance of the waterway given in the diagram. 1
Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only
lieu of Q. No. 19.
19. Mention the name of the canal that links the Mediterranean Sea and the
Red Sea and explain its any two features. 1+2=3
64/3/3-13 15 P.T.O.
 SECTION C

Questions number 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions. 4 3=12

20.
3

21. Explain migration as a component of population change in the world. 3

22. (a) Describe any three factors responsible for the development of
different types of rural settlements in India. 3

OR

(b) Describe any three characteristics of hamleted settlements in

India. 3

23. (a) A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some
3

OR

(b) Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality.

Support the statement with examples. 3

64/3/3-13 17 P.T.O.
 SECTION D

Questions number 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions. 5 5=25

24. (a) Explain any five features of mixed farming in the world with
examples. 5
OR

(b) Explain any five features of dairy farming in the world, with
examples. 5

25. (a) Describe any five types of ports in the world, on the basis of
specialized functions. 5
OR

(b) Describe any five basis of international trade in the world. 5

26. (a) Explain any five factors affecting the uneven distribution of
population in India. 5
OR

(b) Explain the main characteristics of the Phase III (1951 81) of
population growth in India. 5

27. Suggest any five measures for conservation of mineral resources in India
and explain them. 5

28. Suggest any five measures for prevention of water pollution in India and
explain them. 5

64/3/3-13 19 P.T.O.
 SECTION E

Questions number 29 and 30 are Map based Questions. 2 5=10

29. On the given political outline map of the World (on page 25), seven
geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
Identify any five with the help of the following information and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them : 5 1=5

A. A major area of subsistence gathering

B. A major area of nomadic herding

C. Terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway

D. A major sea port of South America

E. A major airport of Asia

F. An inland waterway

G. A major shipping canal

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only,
in lieu of Q. No. 29.
Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5

(29.1) Name a major area of subsistence gathering of North America.

(29.2) Write the name of a major area of extensive commercial grain

cultivation of Eurasia.

(29.3) Name t -

(29.4) Name a major sea port located on the western coast of Canada.

(29.5) Write the name of a major airport of Japan.

(29.6) With which continent is Rhine Waterway related ?

(29.7) Name the shipping canal connecting Atlantic Ocean to Pacific

Ocean.
64/3/3-13 21 P.T.O.
30. On the given political outline map of India (on page 27), locate and label
any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate
symbols : 5 1=5

(30.1) The state with the lowest level of population density

(30.2) The leading state in the production of sugarcane

(30.3) The leading state in the production of coffee

(30.4) Katni : Major bauxite mines

(30.5) Barauni : Oil refinery

(30.6) Paradwip : Major sea port

(30.7) Hyderabad : Major airport

Note : The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 30.
Answer any five questions out of the following : 5 1=5

(30.1) Name the state with the lowest level of population density.

(30.2) Which state of India is leading in sugarcane production ?

(30.3) Name the leading state of coffee production.

(30.4) In which state are the Katni bauxite mines located ?

(30.5) Name the state where Barauni Oil refinery is located.

(30.6) Name the state where Paradwip sea port is located.

(30.7) Name the state where Thiruvananthapuram airport is located.

64/3/3-13 23 P.T.O.
àíZ g§. 29 Ho$ {bE For question no. 29

64/3/3-13 25 P.T.O.
àíZ g§. 30 Ho$ {bE For question no. 30

^maV H$m aoIm-_mZ{MÌ (amOZr{VH$)

Outline Map of India (Political)

64/3/3-13 27 P.T.O.