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The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions designed to assess English language proficiency. It covers various topics including grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, and reading comprehension. The questions are structured to test the understanding of language use in context, as well as the ability to interpret and analyze written passages.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
8 views

tutor

The document consists of a series of multiple-choice questions designed to assess English language proficiency. It covers various topics including grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, and reading comprehension. The questions are structured to test the understanding of language use in context, as well as the ability to interpret and analyze written passages.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to

each of the following questions.

Question 1:

English is useful _______ your future career.

A. at B. about C. on D. for

Question 2:

He is looking for a flat in the city centre, _______?

A. isn’t he B. was he C. doesn’t he D. does he

Question 3:

I stopped _______ in order to get something to drink because I was so thirsty.

A. to read B. reading C. to reading D. read

Question 4:

Being a sociable girl, Mary finds it easy to _______ friends at her new school.

A. do B. go C. get D. make

Question 5:

The alarm clock didn’t _______ this morning and I was late for work.

A. make up B. go off C. put on D. check in

Question 6:

Some animals come out to find food at _______ night.

A. an B. the C. Ø (no article) D. a

Question 7:

A small bridge was built across the stream, _______ the children easy access to the local
school.

A. given B. giving C. to giving D. give

Question 8:
Everest is _______ mountain in the world.

A. higher B. the higher C. the highest D. highest

Question 9:

The students will get the results _______.

A. as soon as the teacher finished marking B. when the teacher finishes marking the
the papers papers

C. until the teacher will finish marking the D. after the teacher had finished marking
papers the papers

Question 10:

On such a nice day, there is nothing more enjoyable than lying on the grass, watching clouds
forming and then _______ again.

A. dissolving B. shrinking C. blending D. distributing

Question 11:

My father is proud of his _______ of over 10,000 old books.

A. collectively B. collect C. collective D. collection

Question 12:

Hoi An Ancient Town attracts large numbers of _______ every year.

A. commuters B. spectators C. sightseers D. viewers

Question 13:

Lunch _______ by my sister every day.

A. is preparing B. prepares C. is prepared D. prepared

Question 14:

The final decision to go ahead with the project has already been made, so there’s no point in
_______ the toss.

A. quarrelling B. disapproving C. dismissing D. arguing

Question 15:

Jane _______ a report when she received a call from her boss.
A. writes B. has written C. is writing D. was writing

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 16:

Ann is thanking Lisa for fixing her laptop.

- Ann: “It’s very kind of you to help me. Thank you.”

- Lisa: “_______.”

A. So do I B. My pleasure C. Yes, please D. Here you are

Question 17:

Tim and Dave are talking about e-waste.

- Tim: “E-waste should be treated properly.”

- Dave: “_______. E-waste is harmful to our health and the environment.”

A. I disagree with B. I completely C. You’re wrong D. I don’t think so


you agree

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of stress in each of the following questions.

Question 18:

A. computer B. elephant​ C. cinema​ D. hospital

Question 19:
A. complete​ B. improve​ C. decide​ ​ D. borrow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.

Question 20:

A. question B. painter C. party D. dentist

Question 21:
A. cake B. gate C. space D. dance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22:

Companies should be careful not to fall foul of government safety regulations or they might
have to pay a heavy fine.

A. impose B. violate C. break D. obey

Question 23:

Most children are taught not to take gifts from strange people

A. unusual B. familiar C. normal D. famous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 24:

The little boy impressed the judges with his excellent performance.

A. poor B. great C. popular D. boring

Question 25:

There seems to be a serious technical issue with the system; it’s not working.

A. action B. report C. problem D. control

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 26:

You should read the contract thoroughly. You shouldn’t sign it until then.

A. Were you to read the contract thoroughly, you would sign it.

B. Not until you have signed the contract should you read it thoroughly.

C. Only after you have read the contract thoroughly should you sign it.

D. Hardly had you signed the contract when you read it thoroughly.
Question 27:

My mother is on business. She can’t drive me to school.

A. If my mother weren’t on business, she couldn’t drive me to school.

B. If my mother weren’t on business, she can’t drive me to school.

C. If my mother weren’t on business, she will drive me to school.

D. If my mother weren’t on business, she could drive me to school.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 28:

They last went camping five weeks ago.

A. They have gone camping for five B. They started going camping five weeks
weeks.​ ago.

C. They haven’t gone camping for five D. They didn’t go camping five weeks
weeks. ago.

Question 29:

“He has offered me an office job,” Susan said.

A. Susan said that he offered her an office B. Susan said that he has offered me an
job. office job.

C. Susan said that he had offered her an D. Susan said that he had offered me an
office job. office job.

Question 30:

You aren’t allowed to enter the construction site.

A. You can’t enter the construction site. B. You needn’t enter the construction site.

C. You should enter the construction site. D. You must enter the construction site.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 31:
​ Many wild animals are suffering from losing its natural habitats.

A B C D

Question 32:

​ The manager spends two hours talking with us yesterday.

A B C D

Question 33:

​ ​ Like the former village chief, his perceptive successor has an admirable ability to
put aside his

A B C

emotions and remain impassioned while resolving local conflicts.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34
to 38.

To bring up children, many qualities are required. Apart from love, patience, and
understanding, a sense of humour is important. In fact, it is quite an art to transform a child’s
bad mood into behavior (34) _______ everyone in the family can live with. Another aspect of
child rearing is teaching children limits and rules so that children are aware of what their
rights and what (35) _______ people’s are, too. Setting limits on must occur on a daily (36)
_______ because temporary measures will not be effective enough. A common mistake,
however, is that parents often become far stricter than necessary. Instead, they must be
willing to allow their children the opportunity to explore and learn from experience.
Moreover, parents must know the importance of routine as it gets children to become used to
certain everyday activities. (37) _______, eating at the same time as their parents gets
children into the habit of sitting at a table and teaches them how to (38) _______ themselves
properly. Overall, child rearing is certainly a challenge and a learning experience.

(Adapted from Use of English B2; Solution)

Question 34:

​ A. who​ B. whom​ C. whose​ D. which

Question 35:
A. other​ B. each​ C. another​ D. every

Question 36:

A. basis​ B. demand​ C. essence​ D. ground

Question 37:

A. In contrast​B. However​ C. For example​ D. Because

Question 38:

A. conduct​ B. regulate​ C. administer​D. supervise

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.

Have you ever tried playing the kind of video games that your parents played? Over the last
few years, the Museum of Science in Manchester has held an exhibition which invites visitors
to do exactly that. It offers them the chance to play games from the last 40 years, in various
sessions throughout the day.

These video games sessions have now become one of the main attractions of the museum.
They are full of people playing a wide range of games every day. However, visitors often
choose the ones they are familiar with. For example, parents will choose the games they used
to play in their childhood.

There’s also an educational purpose to the games. For instance, some old types of computers,
dating back 40 years, are also available. They were originally employed in classrooms to
teach pupils to write their own computer programs. Now, the museum is holding workshops
encouraging children to learn similar skills - and they’re still very popular.

The sessions are also seen as social events, as people discover how much fun it is to play
video games with other family members. And there’s also an area called Power Up! where a
number of visitors can enjoy playing the same game together.

However, through the exhibition, the organisers also aim to show that video gaming is an
important industry that employs many skilled people. People who enjoy gaming will also
understand all the hard work, talent, and imagination that go into creating these amazing
games.

(Adapted from Preliminary for Schools)

Question 39:
What is the passage mainly about?

A. An opportunity to play games all day long

B. A traditional way to teach computer programming skills

C. An exhibition of video games of the past

D. A group of experts working in the gaming industry

Question 40:

The word them in paragraph 1 refers to _______.

A. parents B. games C. sessions D. visitors

Question 41:

The word employed in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. used B. connected C. removed D. fixed

Question 42:

Visitors to the museum can play the same game together _______.

A. in all museum sessions B. at the workshops

C. in the classroom D. at Power Up!

Question 43:

Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?

A. The visitors often choose the video games they have never played before.

B. The video games sessions are considered social events where family members can get
together.

C. The video games serve both entertainment and educational purposes.

D. The organisers of the exhibition want to show the importance of the video gaming
business.

Question 44:

What is the passage mainly about?

A. The influence of personality on many musical genres’ development


B. Past and present studies on the link between music and personality

C. Findings on the relationship between personality and choice of music

D. Surprising research evidence of musical tastes determining personality

Question 45:

The word loquacious in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. talkative B. passive C. indecisive D. adaptive

Question 46:

The word express in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. popularise B. deny C. hide D. communicate

Question 47:

The word them in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. participants B. researchers C. personality tests D. musical tastes

Question 48:

In paragraph 3, Professor North explains that both classical music fans and heavy metal fans
are _______.

A. easy-going and imaginative B. sad and dissatisfied

C. confident and sociable D. hard-working and friendly

Question 49:

Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to the passage?

A. People participating in Professor North’s research come from different countries.

B. The research data includes participants’ answers given in interviews and personality
tests.

C. Like lovers of indie or soul music, pop music fans are found to be imaginative.

D. Professor North believes that what people wear might say something about who they
are.

Question 50:
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. If a person likes many kinds of music, he or she must have a perfectly balanced
identity.

B. Personality tests were the most effective means of eliciting information about
participants’ favourite music.

C. The conclusion that musical tastes reflect personality seems inapplicable to a certain
group of music fans.

D. Before the study, the participants had no idea about stereotypical images of music
fans.

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