GENERAL STUDIES History

01
HISTORY
After analysing the previous year question papers, we have noticed that around 12-15 questions are asked
from the History section. From Ancient India, questions are asked from topics like Harappan civilization,
Rig Vedic age, Mauryan age, Six Indian philosophies, Gupta age, Literature during Ancient era. Questions
from Medieval India covers the topics like Delhi Sultanate, Mughal empire, Foreign travellers during
medieval age, Maratha empire, Vijayanagar empire, Art, Architecture and Literature. From Modern India,
questions are mainly asked from the Indian National Movement. Topics from World History asked in the
paper includes American war of Independence, Russian revolution, French revolution, World Wars I and II.

PART I ANCIENT INDIA

THE PRE-HISTORY OR STONE AGE
The age, when the pre-historic man began to use stones for utilitarian purpose is termed as the Stone age.
The Stone age is divided into four category—the Paleolithic age or the Old Stone age, the Mesolithic age or
the Middle Stone age, the Neolithic age or the New stone age and the Chalcolithic age.

1. The Paleolithic Age

• The Paleolithic culture of India developed in the pleistocene period or the Ice age. The Paleolithic men
belonged to the Negrito race. Homo Sapiens first appeared in the last phase of this age.
• Paleolithic men were hunters and food gatherers. They had no knowledge of agriculture, fire or pottery,
they used tools of unpolished, undressed rough stones and lived in cave rock shelters. They are also called
Quartzite men. In India, Uttar Bahini in the Jammu area has revealed early paleolithic artifacts in the
upper Shiwaliks.
• According to the nature of the stone tools used by the people and change in the climate. This age
is divided into three phases, like Early or Lower Paleolithic, Middle Paleolithic and Upper Paleolithic.
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• The people of Chalcolithic culture were the first to use

2. The Mesolithic Age painted pottery. Black and red pottery painted with
• It is a transition phase between the Paleolithic age and white line design was most popular. The ceramics
the Neolithic age. The Mesolithic people lived on obtained from malwa is considered the richest among the
hunting, fishing and food gathering. At a later stage they Chalcolithic ceramics.
also domesticated animals. • Important sites of this phase are spread in Rajasthan,
• The characteristics tools of the Mesolithic age are Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh etc.
microliths, pointed cresconic blades, scrapers etc made
up of stones.
• Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh and Bagor in Rajasthan INDUS VALLEY CIVILISATION
provide the earliest evidence for the domestication of
animals. Indus Valley Civilisation is one of the four earliest
civilisations of the world along with the civilisations of
• The people of Paleolithic and Mesolithic ages practiced
Mesopotamia, Egypt and China.
painting. Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh is a striking site
• The civilisation forms part of the Protohistory of India
of Pre-historic painting.
and belongs to the Bronze age. Also called Harappan
civilisation because, first excavated site is Harappa.
3. The Neolithic Age – Time Period According to Radio Carbon dating
• The people of this age used tools and improved approximately 2350 BC, according to Wheeler 2500
implements of polished stone. They particularly used BC-1500 BC.
stone axes. – Extension From W-E (1550 km) Sutkagen dor in
• The neolithic settlers were the earliest farming Balochistan (Pakistan) to Alamgirpur in Meerut (Uttar
communities. They produced ragi and horse-gram Pradesh). From N-S (1100 km) Manda (Jammu and
(kulathi). They domesticated cattle, sheeps and goats. Kashmir) in North to Daimabad (Maharashtra) in
They wove cotton and wool to make clothes. Hand South.
made pottery and use of potter wheel first appears • In Indus Valley Civilisation basic administration
during the Neolithic age.
decisions were taken by group of people.
• Neolithic men lived in caves and decorated their walls with
hunting and dancing scenes. They knew the art of making
boats. In the later phase, people lived a more settled life
Town Planning
and lived in circular and rectangular houses made of mud • It was not uniform. A unique feature was the grid
and reed. It is interesting that in Burzahom domestic system i.e. streets cutting across one another at right
dogs were buried with their masters in their graves. angles, dividing the town into large rectangular blocks.
• Koldihwa in Uttar Pradesh revealed a three fold cultural • The towns were divided into two parts: upper part or
sequence i.e. Neolithic, Chalcolithic and Iron age. citadel and lower part.
Mehrgarh in Balochistan is the oldest Neolithic site in • The fortified citadel on the Western side housed public
Pakistan (7000 BC). buildings and members of ruling class.
• Important sites include Chotanagpur region, Central • Below the citadel on the Eastern side, lay the lower
India and South of the Krishna river. Belan valley of town inhabited by the common people.
Vindhays and middle part of the Narmada valley shows • Underground Drainage System connected all houses to
all the three phases of Stone age. the street drains.
The Great Bath (Mohenjodaro) It was used for
4. The Chalcolithic Age •
religious bathing. Steps at either end leads to the surface.
• The end of the Neolithic period saw the use of metals. There were changing rooms alongside.
Copper was the first metal to be used. Chalcolithic • The Granaries (Harappa) Six granaries in a row were
culture refers to the stone-copper phase. People also found in the citadel at Harappa.
used hand-axes and other objects made up of
copperware.
• Houses were made up of burnt bricks. They were often
two or more storeyed, varied in size, with a square
• Chalcolithic people were primarily rural communities. courtyard around, which had a number of rooms.
They domesticated animals and practised agriculture. Windows did not face the main streets. They had tiled
They were not acquainted with burnt bricks and lived in bathrooms.
thatched houses. They venerated the mother Goddess
and worshipped the bull.
• Lamp-posts were erected at regular intervals. It indicates
the existence of street lighting.
GENERAL STUDIES History 755

Major Harappan Sites, their Excavators and Findings Social Life

Name of • It was a highly developed urban way of life.
Excavator(s) Region/River Excavational Findings
Sites
Society principally consisted of middle class
Harappa Dayaram Montgomery district Rows of six granaries, stone urban people. Presence of various classes like
Sahni (1921) of Punjab lingam and yoni figurines, virgin priests, merchants, craftsmen, peasants and
(Pakistan) on the goddess seal, wheat and barley in
left bank of the river wooden mortar, nude dancing labourers can be seen.
Ravi male and female made of stone, • The dress of the men consisted of two
dancing Nataraja
garments, the upper and the lower cotton
Mohenjodaro RD Banerjee Larkana district in Pashupati seal, bronze image of a garments, which were generally used. Wool
(1922) Sindh on the right dancing girl, three cylindrical
bank of Indus seals, mother goddess figurines, was also used. Different kinds of necklaces
(Pakistan) seated male sculpture of the have been discovered. Bracelets were used quite
Priest King, the Great Granary and commonly. The vanity case found at Harappa
the Great Bath
reveals, that the Harappan women knew the art
Chanhudaro M Gopal Situated in Sindh Shops of shell ornament makers, of wall painting.
Majumdar, on the bank of the bead makers, metal workers
Mackey (1931) Indus river (metals so, discovered were gold, • They domesticated buffaloes, bulls, oxens,
silver, tin, copper etc.) sheeps, asses, goats, elephants, pigs and dogs.
Kalibangan A Ghosh Situated in Seven fire altars, a ploughed field, • Harappans produced wheat, barley, pulses etc.
(1953-60) Rajasthan on the cylindrical seals, wheels of toy In some areas evidence of rice have been found.
left bank of the river carts, houses with their own wells,
Ghaggar black bangles
Rangpur Rangnath Rao Situated on the left Rice was cultivated
Trade and Commerce
(1953-54) bank of Mahi river Internal (in India) as well as external (foreign)
(Gujarat)
trade prevailed during Harappan Civilisation.
Ropar YD Sharma Situated in Punjab Evidence of burying a dog with a No metallic money but barter system was
(1953-54) on the banks of the human burial
river Sutlej practised.
Surkotada JP Joshi Situated in Kutch Provides the first actual remains
• Agriculture, industry and forest produce
(1954) (Bhuj) (Gujarat) of horse bones, bead making provided the basis for internal and external
shops trade.
Lothal Rangnath Rao Situated in Gujarat Only site with an artificial brick • Weights and measure of Harappa were made of
(1957) on the confluence dockyard, Persian Gulf seal, limestone, steatite etc. They were in the
of the Sabarmati terracotta model of Egyptian
and Bhargava mummies, sacrificial fire altar, multiples of 16.
rivers near the Gulf remains of rice husk, the only • The inter-civilisational trade is evident from the
of Cambay other site with remains of rice
husk being Rangpur (Ahmedabad) mention of word ‘Meluha’ (probably Indus
valley) in the Sumerian literature.
Banawali RS Bisht Situated on the left Terracotta model of the plough,
(1973) bank of the river good quality of barley
Mesopotamian cylindrical seals have been
Saraswati found from Mohenjodaro.
Dholavira BB Lal (1959), Situated in Gujarat Giant reservoirs, dams and
RS Bisht in the Rann of embankments unique water Art and Craft
(1990-91) Kutch management systems,
10-alphabet sign board, • Harappans used stone tools and were well
Megalithic burials acquainted with bronze. Bronze was made by
mixing copper (from Khetri) with tin.
Religion • Bead Making and jewellery of gold, silver
precious stone were made. Cotton fabrics were
The chief male deity was Pashupati Mahadeva (Proto shiva), which used in summers and woollen in winters.
is represented on a seal surrounded by elephant, tiger, rhino and
buffalo (all facing in different direction) and two deers appear at his
• Both men and women were very fond of
ornaments and dressing up.
feet.
• Pottery both plain (red) or painted (red and
• Female deity i.e. Mother Goddess—depicted in various style.
black) pottery was made. Pots were decorated
Symbolic worship was also there—Phallus worship, Yoni worship. with human figures, plants, animals and
• Evidence of fire worship was also found at Lothal, Kalibangan geometrical patterns and ochre was painted
and Harappa. Animal (Unicorn Bull) and tree worship (Pipal) also over it.
found there. • Seals were made of steatite pictures of one
• The harappans also believed in evil-powers and might have used horned bull, buffalo, tiger, rhinocerous, goat
amulets as protection against them. and elephant are found on the seals. They
marked ownership of property.
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Script and Language The Aryans

• Script and language is undeciphered, script is The word Aryan is derived from Arya, which mean
pictographic in nature. Fish symbol is most favourably disposed towards new corners and later it implied
represented. high birth, but generally, it refers to a language and not race.
• Overlapping of the letters show that it was • There are many theories about the origin of these people.
written from right to left in the first line and then left The most accepted view is that they lived in the great
to right in the second line. The style is called steppe land which stretches from Poland to Central Asia.
boustrophedon. A signboard inscription bearing 10 They were semi-nomadic people. In 2nd millennium BC,
pictographs has been found from Dholavira in Gujarat. they started moving from their original home and
migrated Eastwards and Southwards.
Decline of • The Boghaz Koi inscriptions dated to 1400 BC gives the
information about peace treaty between the Hittites and
Indus Valley Civilisation the Mittanis rulers of the Hittani, in which the names of
It is believed by historians many factors contributed to the Vedic Gods Indra, Mitra, Nasatya and Varuna are
decline of this ancient civilisation. mentioned. This supports the view, of the Central Asian
homeland theory that Central Asia being the homeland, of
Decline of Indus Civilisation : Different Views Aryan. Vedic age was divided into two parts
Cause of Declines Thinkers
External Aggression Wheeler, Piggot, Gordan-childe Early Vedic or Rigvedic Age
Inundation MR Sahani • The main source of information for the study of early
Epidemic KVR Kennedy Vedic age people is the Rigveda. The founders of the
Vedic culture, were the Aryans, probably immigrant
Tectonic Disturbances (e.g. Dholavira) Marshall and Raikes
people whose first arrival in India is dated around
Sudden Decline Wheeler 2000-1500 BC.
Climatic Change RL Stein, AN Ghosh • The Rig Veda gives us information that Aryans first
Deforestation, scarcity of resources, Walter Fairservis settled at the region called ‘Sapta Sindhu or the land of
ecological imbalances seven rivers’ (Presently that region is — East Afghanistan,
Flood (e.g., Mohenjodaro) Marshal, SR Rao, Maickey Punjab and West Uttar Pradesh)-Indus, Jhelum, Ravi,
The destruction due to change in GF Holes
Chenab, Beas, Sutlej and Saraswati.
course of river Ghaggar
The Rig Vedic Economy
• Early Aryans were semi-nomadic and later on, they became
Contribution of cultivator. They gave great preference to the cattle, so the
Indus Valley Civilisation ruling class was warriors, who were able to fight for cattle.
• The Harappan Civilisation which flourished between • In cattle, ‘cow’ was preferable. The word ‘Gauri’ (cow) is
2600 BC and 1900 BC had major contributions. Some mentioned 176 times in Rig Veda. Many more terms
of them include standardised weight and measures, related with the word ‘Gau’ like Gavishti means search for
planned city construction, public buildings like Great cows, Godhuli for daughter are found. The term Aghanya
Bath. The Harappans worshipped fire, Mother goddess, (not to be killed) has been used for cows.
tree, phallus which was carried forward by the Aryans.
• The agricultural practise, use of seals for trade,
The Rig Vedic Society
ornaments and dresses were also great contribution of • The Rig vedic society was based on kinship. The early
Harappans. Hence, the impact of Harappan civilisation Aryans were essentially tribal and egalitarians. Tribe was
could be seen on socio, economic, political and called Jana. Society was patriarchal, male child (who
religious life of the people. fought for the cattle) was preferred.
• Existence of joint family pattern. Eldest male member of
the family was known as Kulapa.
THE VEDIC AGE • ‘Varna’ was the term used for colour and it seems that the
Aryan language speakers were fair and the indigenous
The history of Vedic Age is known largely through its inhabitants were dark in complexion.
religious texts, the vedas, which gave the period its name. • No evidence of caste system is found. Members of same
The vedas recorded not only the religion of the vedic family indulged in different occupation. This is well
people, but also details of their lives that give us a look illustrated in a hymn of 9th mandala. Non-Aryans were
at their Political, Social and Economic pattern. called Dasas or Shudras.
GENERAL STUDIES History 757

• Women possessed respectable status in the society, took

part in tribal assemblies, in religious sacrifices along with
The Later Vedic Age
their husbands. Child marriage was not in existence. The The expression later Vedic age comprises the far reaching
marriageable age was 16 or 17 years for girls. Polygamy changes and developments that took place in the religion,
and polyandry both existed, but monogamy was in social, economic and political conditions of the people
fashion. There was no Purdah system. during the period when the later Sanhitas Sama Veda,
• Widow remarriage and Niyoga prevailed in society. Yajur Veda and Atharva Veda and the Brahmanas, Arayank
and Upanishads were composed. The age is also known as
The Rig Vedic Polity Painted Grey Ware (PGW) iron phase.
• The head was the supreme of the tribe or Jana. He
Geographical Extent
worked on the collective response of the tribal
assemblies. Tribal assemblies were Sabha, Samiti, Gana • During the later Vedic period, Aryans moved into
and Vidhata. Vidhata was the oldest one. These Eastward and Southward areas. A study of the literature
assemblies upheld every important activity (like social, reveals that moving from Punjab, the Aryans settled in
military, religious, etc). Delhi and upper gangetic doab.
• The samitis were comprising the whole clan. The sabha • The story of Agni and Videha Madhava moving
was a selected group of elderly people. Vidhata was Eastward, as narrated in Satapatha Brahmana, gives a
engaged in redistributive functions. Chief was called proof of the Eastward march.
Gopati. Women were allowed in Sabha and Vidhata.
Social Life
• Vajrapati was the officer of pasture, led by Kulapa (the
• The four-fold division of society became clear-initially
family head) and Gramini in war. Senani was another
important functionary after Purohita. Military functions based on occupation, which later became hereditary
were performed by tribal units like rata, gana, grama. Brahmins (Priests), Kshatriyas (Warriors), Vaishyas
Tax known as Bali was voluntary. (Agriculturists, cattle-rearers, traders) and Sudras (servers
of the upper three).
The Rig Vedic Religion • Women enjoyed freedom and respect, but their status
• The early vedic people were nature worshippers. Neither deteriorated compared to earlier time. The institution of
they had temples nor idols. They prayed by the means gotra appeared in this age first time. Gotra signified
of recitation of Mantra. descent from common ancestors.
• The motive of worship was to get Praja (children), Pasu • Concept of four Ashrams came into being it consisted
(cattle) and Dhana (wealth), till that time they didn’t four stages of life– Brahmacharya, Grihastha,
aspire for spiritual upliftment. Vanaprastha and Sanyas. Chariot racing was main sport
Rivers Mentioned in the Rig Veda and gambling was the main past time.

Rig Vedic Name Modern Name

Sindhus Indus
PURUSHASUKTA THEORY
Vitasta Jhelum
Purushasukta is a late hymn of 10th Mandal of Rigveda.
The hymn says that four persons originated from the
Askini Chenab
body of the Purusha or the primeval creator. The
Parushni Ravi Brahmana (mouth), the Kshatriya (arms), the Vaishya
Vipasa Beas (thighs) and the Shudra (feet).
Shatudri Sutlej
Gomal Gomati Political Organisation
Krumu Kurram • Tiny tribal settlements were replaced by strong
Drishadvati Ghaggar kingdoms. A regular army was maintained for the
Suvasthu Swat protection of kingdom.
Kubha Kabul • Powers of the king (Samrat) was increased. Importance of
Naditarna Saraswati assemblies declined. Women were no longer permitted to
Sadanira Gandak attend assemblies. The term ‘rashtra’ indicating territory
first appeared in this period.
Gods • References of priest (Purohita), Commander in chief
During Rig vedic period Agni, Indra, Varuna, Soma, (Senapati), Charioteer (Suta), Treasurer (Sangrahita), Tax
Dyaus, Ashwin, Pushan and Surya were the prominent collector (Bhagdugha), Chief queen (Mahisi) and the
gods. Usha, Aditi, Ratri and Sandhya were the worshipped game companion (Aksavapa).
goddess.
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Religion The Rig Veda

Rise of Vishnu alongside Rudra new Gods (Vishnu, It is divided into 10 books or mandalas. Mandala II to VII
Rudra, Prajapati etc) came into prominence. Rig Vedic are considered the oldest and known as family mandalas.
Gods (Indra, Varuna etc) lost prominence. Sacrifices Book I, VIII and X seem to be added later.
became more elaborate. Increase in the prestige and It dated 1500 BC-1000 BC. It has 1028 hymns written by
importance of priestly class. Emergence of new number of priestly families. The Rig Veda was written
philosophical concepts. when Aryans were still in Punjab. Book II to VII are
Sacrifices Performed in Later Vedic Period earliest and are attributed to Gritsamada, Vishvamitra,
Vasudeva, Atri, Bhardwaj, Vashishtha, Kanva and Angiras.
• Rajasuya Consecration Ceremony This conferred
Rig Veda is recited by Hotri. Gayatri mantri is in 3rd
supreme power on the king. The Rajasuya sacrifice
mandal of Rig Veda.
consists of five major ritual or ceremonies. Asvamedha
horse sacrifice which was meant to establish kings
supremacy over his neighbours. The Aitareya and
The Yajur Veda
Shatapatha Brahmana mention the names of some It is a ritualistic Veda. Written in prose, it deals with
monarchs, who performed the sacrifice. procedure for performance of sacrifices and contain rituals
as well as hymns. It is divided into Shukla Yajur Veda
• Ratnahanimasi Ceremony The king had to approach
(poetry) (including Vajasneyi samhita) and Krishna Yajur
dignitaries who lived in permanent dwellings. Vajapeya
Veda (prose and poetry) (Katha, Matriyani and Taittiriya,
chariot race which was meant to re-establish his
Vapisthal samhita in which mantra and Brahamanas part are
supremacy over his own people within the kingdom.
not separated). Yajur Veda is recited by Adhvaryu.
Pottery The Sama Veda
The later Vedic people used black and redware,
Word Sama derived from the root word saman means
black-strippedware, painted greyware pottery. Redware
melody/music. It has 1603 verses, but except 99, all the rest
was most popular with them and has been found almost
of the hymns have been borrowed from the Rig Veda. It
all over Western Uttar Pradesh. However, the most
contains Dhrupada Raga. The Sama Veda shows that the
distinctive pottery of the period is known as Painted
Aryans loved music and were not merely puritans. Sama
Greyware, which comprised bowls and dishes, used either
Veda is recited by udgatri.
for rituals or for eating by the upper classes.

Economic Life The Atharva Veda

The Atharva Veda is entirely different from the other three
• The shift towards Gangetic valley with the use of iron
Vedas and is the last of the four Vedas. The Satapatha
and fire made possible the growth of agriculture.
Brahmana used the term trayi, i.e. the Rig Veda, Yajur
Pastoralism was no longer the main subsistence activity
Veda and Sama Veda.
of the people, though cattle rearing was also practised.
Atharva Veda mentions beliefs and practices of non-Aryans.
• Shatapatha Brahmana describes the various stages of
It contains magical mantra etc. In it, the sabha and the
agriculture such as ploughing, sowing, reaping and
Samiti are described as sisters and the two daughters of
threshing. Both kharif and rabi crops were grown.
prajapati. This Veda is also known as Brahma Veda.
• Rice (Vrihi) and wheat (Godhuma) become the chief
crops of the later Vedic Aryans, though they continued Smriti Literature
to produce barley (Yava).
The Smriti literature contains following
The Brahamanas
VEDIC LITERATURE These are the prose commentaries on various Vedic hymns.
They explain the vedas in an orthodox way. They explain
• The word ‘Veda’ is derived from Sanskrit word vid,
the hidden meanings behind the hymns of Brahamans. They
meaning to know, signifying knowledge par excellence. are expressions of the cause (hetu). Shatapatha
The Vedic text are shruti i.e. directly revealed to authors Brahamana is the largest Brahamana book. It has the story
by God. of Madhav.
• Smritis are remembered and collected parts of literature
of later period. They are also called samhitas in the The Aranyakas
sense that they represent oral tradition of the time. The authors of the Aranyakas were sages dwelling in the
• Four vedas and their Samhitas, the Brahmanas, the forest and explained vedic texts for their pupils in the form
Aranyakas and the Upanishads form a class of literature of Aranyakas. So, these Aranyakas are known as forest
known as shruti. books. They form the concluding part of Brahamanas.
GENERAL STUDIES History 759

Upavedas SHAD DARSHAN

These are subsidiary Vedas dealing with secular subjects. (Six Systems of Philosophy)
Four important upavedas are as follow ●
Nyaya (Analysis) Gautam
i. Ayur Veda Pertains to medicine. ●
Vaisesika (Atomic characteristic) Kanada
ii. Dhanur Veda Pertains to art of warfare. ●
Sankhya (Enumeration) Kapil
iii. Gandharva Veda Pertains to music. ●
Yoga (Application) Patanjali
iv. Shilpa Veda Pertains to art and literature. ●
Purva Mimansa (Enquiry) Jaimini
Uttar Mimansa (Vedanta) Vyasa
The Upanishads
●

The term Upanishads indicates knowledge acquired

by sitting close to the teacher. Mahajanapadas
• Under it, many metaphysical topics were discussed, such During the age of Buddha, we find 16 large states called
as the origin of universe, the nature of God, the origin Mahajanapadas mentioned in Buddhist text Angkuttar
and death of mankind etc. Nikaya. These Mahajanapadas were either monarchical or
• They do not believe in orthodox rituals and sacrifices. republican in character.
On the contrary, they are the followers of Karma The sixteen Mahajanapadas are as follow
(Action), Atma (Soul) and God (Brahma). They are
spiritual and philosophical in nature. Also known as Mahajanapada Capital Mahajanapada Capital
Vedanta or the end of Vedas. They always preaches the Kashi Varanasi Kuru Hastinapur,
Indraprastha
Jnana marga (knowledge path). and Isukara
• Upanishads are 108 in number. Satyamev Jayate is Kosala Shravasti Panchala Ahichhatra
extracted from Mundako Upanishad. Brihadaranyaka and Kampilya
Upanishad provides the first reference of the idea of Anga Champa Matsya Viratnagar
rebirth. Later, this idea appears in full form in the Magadh Girivraj or Rajgriha Surasena Mathura
Chandogya upanishad.
Vajji Vaishali Ashmaka Pratisthana

Vedangas (Limbs of Vedas) Malla Kushinagar and

Pavapuri
Avanti Mahismati

• These are treatises on Science and Arts. The six vedangas Chedi Shuktamati Gandhara Taxila
are as follow Vatsa Kausambi Kamboja Rajpur ot
– Shiksha (phonetics), Kalpa (rituals), Vyakarna Hataka
(grammar), Chanda (metrics), Nirukta (etymology),
Jyotisha (astronomy). Yaska’s Nirukta (5th century
BC) is the oldest linguistic text. RISE OF JAINISM AND
Epics BUDDHISM
Mahabharata It is believed to be written by Ved Vyas
During 5th-6th centuries BC two new religion emerged in
and is older than ‘Ramayana’. Originally Mahabharata
consisted of 880 verses then it was raised to 24000 the form of Jainism and Buddhism.
verses. The final compilation brought the number of
verses to 100000. Razmnama is translation of Jainism
Mahabharata in Persian language. • The founder of Jainism was Mahavira. He was born in
Ramayana It is known as Aadikavya, written by Valmiki 540 BC as Vardhamana (childhood name) at
in Sanskrit. In it, capital of Kaushal Mahajanapad, Kundagrama near Vaishali. His father Siddhartha was
Ayodhya (Saket) has been mentioned. Persian the head of a famous Kshatriya clan, and his mother,
translation of Ramayana is written by Badayuni. named Trishala, was the sister of Chetaka, the king of
Tamil translation of Ramayana is written by Kamban. Vaishali. He was also related to Bimbisara, the ruler of
It is also known as Bible of South India. Presently, Magadha, who had married Chellana, the daughter of
Ramayana have 24000 shlokas. Ramcharitmanas was
Chetaka.
written by Tulsidas in Awadhi language.
• During the early stages Mahavira joined a group of
Puranas The word ‘Purana’ means old. Writer of Puranas
is Lomharsh’s son Ugrvarsh. It was written in AD 4th ascetics called Nirgranthas. Parsa was the founder of this
century in Gupta age. Number of Puranas are 18. sect. Mahavira attained Kaivalya (perfect knowledge)
Oldest Purana is Matasya Purana. It tells about under sal tree, near village Jimbhikagrama, on the bank
Satvahana dynasty. In Purana, 10 avtar of Vishnu has of the river Rijupalika and died at the age of 72 at
been mentioned. Vayu Puran gives details about Gupta Pavapuri near modern Rajgir in 468 BC.
dynasty.
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• After the death of Mahavira, during the reign of king • Second council was held at Vallabhi (Gujarat) in the AD
Chandragupta Maurya (the founder Mauryan empire), a 512 under the leadership of Devardhi and resulted in
severe famine led to the migration of some Jains under final compilation of 12 Angas and 12 Upangas.
Bhadrabahu to the Deccan. Sthula bhadra remained in
North and allowed wearing white garments. Bhadrabahu Jain Literature
maintained nudity leading to division as Digambaras The sacred books of the Jainas are known as Siddhartha
(sky clad or naked) and Svetambaras (white clad). or Agama, it include
• There are 24 Tirthankaras in the history of Jainism. i. Twelve Angas ii. Twelve Upangas
Mahavir Swami was the last and the 24th Tirthankara of iii. Ten Prikarnas iv. Six Chhedasutras
Jainism.
v. Four Mulasutras vi. Two Sutra Granthas
Preachings of Mahavira They are written in Prakrit language. Among the Jaina
• Rejected the authority of the Vedas and the Vedic writers, the most important were Bhadrabahu
rituals. Did not believe in the existence of God. (Kalpa-Sutra), Siddhasena, Divakara, Manibhadra, Siddha,
Hemachandra (Parisistha Parvan), Nayachandra and
• Attainment of salvation (Moksha) by believing penance
Mallinath. The Jainas wrote narrative literature, kavyas,
and dying of starvation. Laid great emphasis on equality
novels, dramas and hymns.
or universal brotherhood.
• In Jainism, there are three Ratnas and they are called
the Way of Nirvana.
Buddhism
i. Right faith—Samyak Vishwas Founded by Gautam Buddha (Sakyamuni or Tathagat)
known originally as Siddhartha (childhood name).
ii. Right knowledge—Samyak Gyan
iii. Right conduct—Samyak Karma Buddha’s Life
• There are five main teachings of Jainism • He was born in 563 BC (widely accepted) in a sal
i. Non-injury (Ahimsa) groove of Lumbini garden in Kapilavastu. His mother
ii. Non-lying (Satya) was Mahamaya (a Kosalan princess) and his father was
iii. Non-possession (Aparigraha) Sudhodhana (of Sakya tribe).
iv. Non-stealing (Asteya) • Buddha’s name was Siddhartha and gotra was Gautama.
v. Observe continence (Brahmacharya) His mother died after 7 days of his birth and he was
brought up by his Step-mother Mahaprajapati Gautami.
• The first four principles were given by Parsavanath and
Devadutta was his cousin. Buddha’s wife was Yashodhara
fifth one i.e. Brahmacharya was added by Mahavira.
and she gave birth to their son Rahul. Buddha’s charioteer
Tirthankaras and their Symbols was Channa and favourite horse was Kanthak.
Name Symbol Name Symbol • He was moved by the misery, which people suffered in
Rishabha Bull Vimalnath Boar the world and looked for its solution. He left home at
Ajitnath Elephant Ananthnath Falcon the age of 29. This incident became famous as
Mahabhinishkramana– ‘great going forth’.
Sambharanath Horse Dharamnath Vajra
• He first became a disciple of Alara Kalam. Kalam was
Abhinandan Swami Monkey Shantinath Deer
the specialist of Samakhya philosophy. After sometime,
Sumathinath Curlew Kunthunath He-Goat
he left Alara and joined Rudraka. From there, he went
Padamprabhu Red Lotus Arnath Fish
to Uruvela and practised great penance. His conception
Suparshvanatha Swastik Mallinath Jar (Kalash) of religion was purely ethical.
Chandraji Prabhu Moon Muniswasth Tortoise • Buddha got enlightenment under the pipal tree known as
Suvidhinath Crocodile Naminath Blue Lotus Bodhi tree at Gaya in Bihar. He gave his first sermon at
Shitalnath Kalpa-Vriksha Neminath Conch Shell Sarnath (ancient name was Rishipattan) first sermon
Shreyansnath Rhinoceros Parsavanath Serpent (Snake) became famous by the name of Dharma Chakrapravartan
Vasupujya Buffalo Mahavira Lion
(or the turning of wheel of law).
• He spent his last days near Vaishali. At Pava, a man
Jain Councils named Chunda fed him pork, after eating it Buddha died
of dysentery at the age of 80 in 483 BC in Kushinagar,
• First council was held at Pataliputra (Bihar) by
the capital of Mallas. His death is known
Sthulbhadra, in the beginning of the 3rd century BC and
resulted in the compilation of 12 Angas to replace 14 Mahaparinirvana i.e. final blowing out. His favourite
Purvas. disciple was Ananda.
GENERAL STUDIES History 761

Teachings of Buddha Buddhist Texts

• His four noble truths (Arya Satyas) Tripitakas refers to Buddhists scriptures, it includes Vinay
–The world is full of sorrows (Sabbam Dukham). Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.
– The cause of sorrow is desire (Dwadash • Vinaya Pitaka It contains the rules and regulations of
Nidan/Pratitya Samutpada). monastic discipline for monks. An account of the life
– If desires are conquered, all sorrows can be removed and teaching of the Buddha is also given.
(Nirvana). • Sutta Pitaka Few discourses delivered by many
– This can be achieved by following the 8-fold path Buddhist scholars like Sariputta, Ananda and others are
(Ashtangika Marga). given in it. It lays down the principles of Buddhism. It
is a collection of Buddha’s sermon and is divided into
The second truth, is based on Buddha’s doctrine of
five groups.
Paticheha samutpada or Pratitya samutpada i.e. law of
dependent origination or causation. • Abhidhamma Pitaka Having the philosophy of
Buddha’s teachings. It investigates mind and matter to
• Eight-Fold Path (Ashtangika marga) help the understanding of things as they truly are
i. Right understanding ii. Right thought – Jatak Stories It tells about 550 previous births of
iii. Right speech iv. Right action Buddha.
v. Right livelihood vi. Right effort – Milindapanho A conversation among Greco-Bactrian
vii. Right mindfulness viii. Right concentration king, Menander and a Buddhist monk, Nagasena. It is
• Three Jewels (Triratnas) written in the form of question and answer type.
i. Buddha (the enlightened) ii. Dhamma (doctrine) – Kathavastu It is hinayana granth. It is the first book

iii. Sangha (order) written in Sanskrit language in Buddhist religion.

– Mahavibhashashastra Written by Vasumitra,
• Code of Conduct
encyclopedia of Buddhist religion.
i. Do not convert the property of others
– Dipavamsha and Mahavamsha In Pali language, it
ii. Do not commit violence
tells about the history of Sri Lanka.
iii. Do not use intoxicants
iv. Do not speak a lie Buddhist Councils
v. Do not indulge in corrupt practices • The First Council (483 BC) It was held at Sattapanni
• Belief in Nirvana Also known as moksha or salvation. It (Saptaparni) cave near Rajagriha under the chairmanship
refers to belief in the concept of ultimate bliss, whereby of Mahakassapa. Here Vinaya Pitaka and Sutta Pitaka
the person gets freedom from the cycle of birth and were compiled by Upali and Ananda respectively.
death. Ajatashatru was the king at that time.
• Belief in Ahimsa Law of Karma and Madhya • The Second Council (383 BC) It was held at Vaishali
Marga/Madhyama Pratipada (the middle path). during the reign of Kalashoka, the king of Shishunaga
• Kutagorshala It is a place where Buddhist monks dynasty. The chairman was Sabakami. The monk of
discusses religious issues. Vaishali wanted some changes in the rites. It resulted in
division of sect into Sthavirvadins and Mahasamghikas.
Division of Buddhism • The Third Council (250 BC) It was held at
The Buddhism was divided into following sects Pataliputra during the reign of Ashoka (the Mauryan
i. Hinayana or Lesser Wheel The followers of ruler). This council was held under the Presidentship of
Hinayana believed in the original teachings of Buddha. Mogaliputta Tissa, to revise the Buddhist texts.
They believed in individual salvation. They do not • The Fourth Council (AD 72) It was held during the
believe in idol-worship. reign of Kanishka (the Kushana ruler) in Kashmir under
ii. Mahayana or Greater Wheel The follower of the presidentship of Vasumitra and Ashwaghosha.
Mahayana sect believed in the heavenliness of Buddha Buddhism got divided into Hinayana and Mahayana.
and sought the salvation through the grace and help
of Buddha and Bodhisattvas. It came into existence Stupa and Vihara
during the reign of Kanishka. • Stupas are doomed monuments containing relies of the
iii. Vajrayana or Vehicle of Thunderbolt The followers Buddha. The stupas are carved with symbols of Buddha
of Vajrayana believed that salvation could be attained foot print, bodhi tree, vase.
by acquiring the magical powers i.e. Vajra. The chief • Viharas are monastery halls, which the monks would
divinities of their sect were Taras. Vajrayana became originally have used for study, solitary, meditation and
popular in Eastern part of India, particularly in Bengal communal worship.
and Bihar.
762 CDS Pathfinder

• Nandas were fabulously rich and enormously

MAGADHA EMPIRE powerful. Maintained 200000 infantry, 60000 cavalry
and 6000 war elephants. This is supposed to have
The period from 6th to 4th centuries BC saw the struggle for check on Alexander’s army from advancing towards
supremacy among four Mahajanapadas-Magadha, Kosala, Magadha.
Vatsa and Avanti. The founder of Magadha was Jarasandha
and Brihadratha. But the growth started under the Haryankas. ALEXANDER’S INVASION
Magadha embraced the former districts of Patna, Gaya and
●
Alexander (356 BC-323 BC) was the son of Philip of
parts of Shahabad and grew to be the leading state of the
Macedonia (Greece) who invaded India in 326 BC. At
time.
that time North-West India was split up into a number
Following are the causes for rise of Magadha of small independent states like Taxila, Punjab (kingdom
• Magadha become prominent under the leadership of of Porus), Gandharas etc.
Bimbisara of the Haryanka dynasty. Advantageous ●
Porus fought the famous Battle of Hydaspes (on bank
geographical location with both Rajgriha and Pataliputra of Jhelum) with Alexander. When Alexander reached
situated at strategic locations. Beas, his soldiers refused to go further, so he was
forced to retreat.
• Abundance of natural resources, such as iron enabled
●
He erected 12 huge stone altars on the Northern bank
Magadha rulers to equip with effective weapons. Use of
of Beas to mark the farthest point of his advance.
elephants on large scale in war. The alluvial soil of the Remained in India for 19 months and died in 323 BC
Gangetic valley and sufficient rainfall were very conducive at Babylon.
for agriculture.

Haryanka Dynasty The Mauryan Empire

Originally founded in 566 BC by the grandfather of The most immediate and unexpected by product of
Bimbisara, but actual foundation was laid by Bimbisara. Alexander’s invasion of North-West was that it hastened
Bimbisara He was contemporary of Buddha. He conquered the Mauryan conquest of the whole country.
Anga (East-Bihar) to gain control over trade route with
the Southern states. His capital was Rajgriha (Girivraja).
Chandragupta Maurya (321-298 BC)
He strengthened his position by matrimonial alliance • The founder of the Mauryan empire was Chandragupta
with the ruling families of Kosala, Vaishali and Madra. Maurya. He overthrew the last Nanda ruler,
His capital was surrounded by 5 hills, the openings in Dhanananda with the help of Kautilya also known as
which were closed by stone walls on all sides. This Chanakya.
made Rajgir impregnable. • In 305 BC Chandragupta defeated Seleucus Nicator
Ajatshatru Son of Bimbisara, killed his father and seized (the Greek ambassador), who surrendered a big
the throne. Annexed Vaishali and Kosala (annexed territorial part to him including Kabul, Afghanistan,
Vaishali with the help of a war engine, which was used Baluchistan and Herat also received a Greek
to throw stones.) Kosala was ruled by Prasenajit at that ambassador i.e. Megasthenese (wrote Indica having the
time. Buddha died during his reign; arranged the first description of Mauryan administration, society etc.)
Buddhist Council. • Chandragupta adopted Jainism and went to
Udayin He founded the new capital at Pataliputra, situated Sravanabelagola with Bhadrabahu where he died by
at the confluence of the Ganga and Son. Starvation (Sallekhana Santhara) at Chandragiri hill.

Shishunaga Dynasty Bindusara (298-273 BC)

• Founded by a minister Shishunaga. He was succeeded by
The son and successor of Chandragupta Maurya. Called
Kalasoka (II Buddhist Council held during his period). Amitraghata (slayer of foes) by Greek writers. He is
Dynasty lasted for two generations only. said to have conquered “the land between the two seas,”
i.e. the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal. At the time of his
• Greatest achievement was the destruction of power of
death, almost the entire sub-continent came under the
Avanti. Last Ruler was Nandivardhan.
Mauryan rule. Greek Ambassador, Deimachus visited the
court sent by Antiochus.
Nanda Dynasty
• It is considered as first of the non-Kshatriya dynasties. Ashoka (273-232 BC)
Founder was Mahapadma Nanda. He added Kalinga to his • The son and successor of Bindusara. It is said that he
empire. He claimed to be the ekarat, the sole sovereign became king by killing his 99 brothers. When he
who destroyed all the other ruling princes. Alexander
became the king, Radhagupta, a Minister of Bindusara
attacked India in the reign of Dhana Nanda-the last ruler.
also helped him.
GENERAL STUDIES History 763

• Under Ashoka the empire reached its Zenith. And in Major Pillar Edicts
the history first time the entire Indian sub-continent These are a set of 7 edicts found at Allahabad, Meerut, Sopara,
came under a single umbrella (except extreme Lauriya Areraj, Lauriya Nandangarh and Rampurva. These
Southern India). He fought a battle known as Kalinga edicts are engraved on Monolithic pillars. Kausambi edicts are
War in 261 BC in the 8th year of his coronation, in known as Queen’s Edict. They indicate about donations given
which one lakh people died. by queen Karuvaki.
• Ashoka sent peace missionaries inside India as well Minor Pillar Edicts
as abroad. Ashoka Dhamma was made up of tenets
• Rummindei Pillar Inscription It mentions the exemption
of most of famous sect of that time though tenets
from Buddhism were predominant. of Lumbini (birth place of Buddha) from tax.
• Nigalisagar Pillar Inscription It is located in Kapilvastu. It
• Ashoka used his policy of Dhamma to promote
religious tolerance in society. He also used Dhamma informs about Ashoka increasing the size of stupa of
based policy to promote Buddhism in foreign land Buddha Konakamana to double of its former size.
and Dhamma as a foreign policy to promote peace. • Scheism Edict It is located at Kausambi, Sanchi and
• A stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka has been found Sarnath. It appeals for maintaining unity in Buddhist order.
at Kanaganahalli. This is situated near Bhima river in • Barabara Cave Inscriptions It is located in Bihar. They
Gulbarga district of Karnataka. speak about Ashoka’s donation of cave to the Ajivikas.
Ashoka’s Edicts
Ashokan edicts are inscribed either on pillars of stone
Later Mauryas
or on rocks. They consists of major and minor group. According to Buddhist tradition, Ashoka ruled for 27 years.
They give information on the life and reign of the The disintegration of the Mauryan empire seemed to have set
king. in immediately after Ashoka’s death. The tenth and the last of
the Mauryas was Brihadratha, who was murdered by his
Major Rock Edicts General Pushyamitra Shunga. This was the end of Mauryan
• They are a set of 14 inscriptions found at 8 places– dynasty.
Dhauli, Girnar, Jauguda, Kalsi, Mansehra,
Shahbazgarhi, Sopara and Yerragudi. Mauryan Administration
• The major rock edicts also include two separate • The Mauryan state was a welfare state with highly
edicts found at Kalinga. They deal with Centralised Government. King was the Nucleus, assisted by
administration and ethics. Mantri Parishad, which included
i. Yuvaraj The crown prince.
Some Important Rock Edicts
ii. Gopa The Purohit Chief Priest.
Major Rock Edicts Content iii. Senapati Commander-in-Chief of army and other
MRE I Prohibition of animal sacrifice ministers.
MRE II Refers to Cholas, Pandyas, Satya putras and • Coins of Mauryan Empire was called Pana and it was made
Kerala putra (kingdom of South) and care for up of silver and copper.
man and animals
• The later Maurya’s and Post Maurya Kingdom started votive
MRE III Liberality to Brahmins inscription to record the religious offering made to
MRE IV Non-violence; courtesy to relations institutions and land grants made to official or any other
MRE V Appointment of Dhamma Mahamatras citizen.
MRE VII Tolerance among all sects Facts about Mauryans by Megasthenese
MRE VIII Dhammayatras • According to Megasthenese, the administration of army was
MRE IX Charity, kinship, Dhamma carried by a board of 30 officers divided into six committees,
MRE XII Religious tolerance each consisting of five members. They are as follow
i. Army ii. Cavalry iii. Elephants
MRE XIII Kalinga war; Bheri Ghosha to Dhamma Ghosha
iv. Chariot v. Navy vi. Transport.
Minor Rock Edicts • Though, Megasthenese said that there was no slavery in
These are spread over 13 places i.e. Bairat, Brahmagiri, India, yet according to Indian sources slavery was a
Gavimath, Gujarra, Jatinga-Rameshwar, Maski, recognised institution during Mauryans reign.
Palkigunda, Maadagiri, Rupanath, Sasaram, Siddhapur, • Tamralipti in the Gangetic delta was the most prosperous
Suvarnagiri and Yerragudi. Bhabru Inscriptions is part on the East coast of India.
located at Bairat in Rajasthan and deals with Ashoka’s • Megasthenese in his Indica had mentioned 7 castes in Mauryan
conversion to Buddhism. society.
764 CDS Pathfinder

Art and Architecture • First evidence of land grants to Brahmins was found
(started by Satavahanas). Satavahanas built Nagarjuna
• Mauryan art is classified into two groups
Konda stupa and Amravati Stupa.
i. Popular/Folk Art Sculpture of Yaksha and Yakshini
• Mostly issued lead coins (apart from copper and
e.g. Yaksha of Parkham (Mathura), Yakshini from
bronze). Acted as a bridge between North and South
Vidisha (Madhya Pradesh) and Didarganj (Patna).
India. Satavahana rulers called themselves Brahmins.
ii. Royal/Court Art Royal Palace of Chandragupta They performed Vedic rituals and worshipped Gods
Maurya at Kumharar, Patna (Fa-hien referred it as the like Krishna, Vasudeva and others. However, they
creation of God), city of Patliputra, Ashokan pillars, also promoted Buddhism by granting land to the
stupas and caves. monks.
• Mauryans introduced stone masonry on large scale. Pillars • The two common religious constructions were the
represent the masterpiece of Mauryan sculpture, e.g. Buddhist temple that was called Chaitya and the
– Single lion capital at Rampurva and Lauriya Nandangarh. monastries, which was called Vihara. The most
– Four lion capital at Sarnath and Sanchi. famous Chaitya is that of Karle in West Deccan.
– Carved elephant at Dhauli and engraved elephant at • Their provinces were called Ahara, as it was in
Kalsi. Ashoka’s time. Their officials were known as amatyas
• Stupas were built throughout the empire to enshrine the and mahamatyas, as they were known in Mauryan
relics of Buddha e.g. Sanchi and Bharhut. times.
• Varanasi was the best producer of silk.
Chedis
• Chedis capital was Kalinganagara.
POST MAURYAN PERIOD • The greatest and the most powerful king of the
dynasty was Kharvela. His capital was Kalinganagara.
Mauryans were succeeded by many ruling dynasties from • The only source of information about the king
Central Asia in North-West India and by native rulers
Kharvela is the Hathigumpha inscription written in
(Sungas, Kanvas, Satavahanas) in the Eastern, Central and
Prakrit language and Brahmi script. In the 9th year of
Deccan region of India.
his reign Kharvela built Mahavijaya Prasad (place of
Great Victory) on both the banks of the river Prachi,
The Shunga Dynasty (185 BC-73 BC) in order to commemorate his victories in the North.
• Pushyamitra founded this dynasty. His dominions extended
• In the 13th year of his reign, Kharvela undertook
to South as far as the Narmada river and included cities of
many welfare schemes like building caves for the Jaina
Patliputra, Ayodhya and Vidisha.
monks in the Udaigiri hills i.e. Hathigumpha and
• The fifth king was Bhagabhadra, to whose court Ranigumpha caves.
Heliodorus, the Greek ambassador visited. A Shunga king,
Agnimitra was the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitram. Ikshavaku
• This period saw the revival of Bhagvatism. Patanjali’s classic The Ikshavaku dynasty was founded by the legendary
Mahabhashya was written during this time. The famous king Ikshavaku. The important personalities belonging to
book on Hindu Law, Manusmriti was compiled during this this royal house are Bharata, Harish Chandra, Dilipa,
period. Sagara, Raghu, Rama and Paseuadi.
The Kanva Dynasty Kingdoms After the Mauryas
The founder of this short-lived dynasty was Vasudeva, who
killed the last Shunga king Devabhuti. They were swept away The Indo-Greeks
by Satavahanas of the Deccan. • A number of invasions took place around 200 BC.
The first to invade India were the Greeks, who
The Satavahanas were also called the Indo-Greeks or Bactrian Greeks
• Founder of Satavahanas was Simuka. They were the (because they ruled Bactria).
successors of the Mauryans in the Deccan and the Central • The most famous Indo-Greek ruler was Menander
India. Important king was Gautamiputra Satakarni (165-145 BC), also known as Milinda. He had his
(AD 106-130) who raised the power and prestige of capital at Sankala (modern Sialkot) in Punjab. He was
Satavahanas to greater heights. He set-up his capital at
converted to Buddhism by Nagasena or Nagarjuna
Paithan on the bank of river Godavari in Aurangabad
(described in Milindapanho or the Question of Milinda).
district.
Greeks were the first to issue gold coins in India.
GENERAL STUDIES History 765

The Shakas or Scythians (90 BC) The Pandyas

• The Greeks were followed by the Sakas, who controlled First mentioned by Megasthenese, who says that their
a larger part of India than the Greeks did. There were 5 kingdom was famous for pearls and was ruled by a
branches of the Shakas with their seats of power in woman. Their capital was Madurai. Important king was
different parts of India and Afghanistan. Nedunjeliyan.
• The most famous Shaka ruler in India was Rudradaman
I (AD 130-150). He is famous for the repairs of The Cholas
Sudarshana lake in Kathiawar. His inscription was The kingdom was called Cholamandalam or Coromandal.
Junagarh inscription.
The chief centre was Uraiyur, a place famous for cotton
• A king of Ujjain, who called himself Vikramaditya trade. Capital was Kaveripattanam/Puhar. A Chola king
defeated Shakas in 58 BC and started Vikram era (58 BC). named Elara conquered Sri Lanka and ruled it over for 50
years. Karikala was their famous king.
The Parthians/Pahalvas (AD 1st-3rd Century)
Originally, they lived in Iran, invaded at the beginning of The Cheras
Christian era, from where they moved to India. In Their capital was Vanji (also called Kerala country). It
comparison to Greeks and Shakas, they occupied only a owed its importance to trade with the Romans. The Romans
small portion in North-West India in the 1st century. The
set-up two regiments at Vanji to protect their interests.
most famous Parthian King was Gondophernes
Greatest king was Senguttuvan, the Red Chera. Fought
(AD 19-45), in whose reign St Thomas is said to have come
against the Cholas about
to India for the propagation of Christianity.
AD 150.
The Kushans (AD 45)
Other Aspects of Sangam Age
• Came from North Central Asia near China. Their
empire included a good part of Central Asia, a portion All the gathered information is based on Sangam literature.
of Iran, a portion of Afghanistan, Pakistan and almost Sangam was a college or assembly of Tamil poets held
the whole of North India. probably under Royal patronage (especially Pandyas).
• Kanishka was the most famous king. He patronised the Silappadikaram by Ilango Adigal (story of a married couple)
following scholars and Manimekalai by sattanar are the famous epics of this time.
– Ashvaghosha (wrote Buddhacharita, which is the
biography of Buddha and ‘Sutralankar’). Nagarjuna
(wrote Madhyamik Sutra). Charaka (a physician, THE GUPTA PERIOD
wrote Charakhsamhita).
After the decline of Mauryas, Guptas came into existence.
• Kanishka is known in history because of two reasons Actually, we found two names related with Gupta dynasty,
i. He started an era in AD 78 , which is now known as before Chandragupta I. These are Sri Gupta and
Saka era and is used by the Government of India. Ghatotkacha.
ii. He extended his whole-hearted patronage to Buddhism
(held a Buddhist council in Kashmir). Some of the Chandragupta I
successors of Kanishka bore typical Indian names as
Vasudeva. He was the first prominent ruler of Gupta dynasty and
assumed the title of Maharajadhiraja. He made his empire
• During Kanishka’s rule, foreign trade fluorished and it
stronger by his own efforts and also by making marriage
was at peak. Trade flourished through silk routes and
with Lichchavi princess. Lichchavi were a very powerful
oceanic routes. During Kanishka reign, Gandhara School
family or ruling class of Mithila at that time.
of Art and Mathura School of Art flourished and
developed.
Samudragupta (AD 335-375)
Sangam Age (300 BC-AD 600) • Samudragupta has been called the ‘Indian Napoleon’ by

The age of 3 Southern kingdoms Cheras, Pandyas, Cholas VA Smith because of his extensive military conquests.
was known as Sangam Age. The word ‘Sangam’ means He assumed the titles of Vikramanka and Kaviraja.
assembly. It was an assembly of Tamil poets and scholars. • Virasen was his commander-in-chief during Southern
campaign. Vasubandhu, a famous Buddhist scholar was
The Three Sangam Kingdom his minister.
Kingdom Capital Royal Emblem • He subjugated 5 kingdoms in lower Bengal, upper
Cholas Uraiyur later Puhar Tiger Assam, Nepal and the territories farther West as well as
Cheras Vanji or Karur Bow number of republican clans.
Pandyas Madurai Carp (fish)
766 CDS Pathfinder

• Samudragupta also advanced through the forest tract

of Madhya Pradesh to the coast of Orissa and then
Kumaragupta I
moved upto Kanchi, the capital of Pallavas. Kumaragupta adopted the title of Mahendraditya. Founded
• Some coins of the Samudragupta represent him as Nalanda University (a renowned university of ancient India).
playing on the Veena. He also performed Asvamedha Kalidas (The Shakespeare of India) flourished in the reign of
sacrifice. both Chandragupta II and Kumargupta I. Kumaragupta was the
worshipper of Lord Kartikeya (son of Lord Shiva, his vehicle
• He was a devotee of Vishnu though a follower of the
is peacock).
Brahmanical religion, he was tolerant of other faiths
he granted permission to the Buddhist king of
Ceylon, Meghavarman, to build a monastery at Bodh Skandagupta (Fall of Gupta Empire)
Gaya. He faced Hunas (a fierce nomads of Central Asia) effectively.
The weak successors of Skandagupta could not check the
Chandragupta II (AD 380-412) growing Huna power. Feudatories rose in Bihar, Bengal,
Madhya Pradesh, Vallabhi etc.
(Chandragupta Vikramaditya)
• Samudra Gupta was succeeded by Chandra Gupta II Administration
around AD 375. However, some historians put • Kings were called Parameshwara/Maharajadhiraja/
Ramagupta between Samudra Gupta and Chandra Parambhattaraka. They issued the largest number of gold
Gupta II. coins in Ancient India, which were called Dinars.
• In the play Devichandraguptam of Visakhadatta, • The most important officer in the Gupta Empire was
Ramagupta is the elder brother of Chandra Gupta II. Kumaramatyas and they were appointed by the king in
It was during the rule of Ramagupta that Shakas home province and they were mostly paid in cash. The
attacked Gupta Empire. Finding his position Guptas has system of provincial and local administration
precarious, Ramagupta agreed to surrender Queen empire was divided into bhukti and each bhukti was under
Dhruvadevi to a Shaka ruler. charge of uparika. Bhukti was divided into district (vishyas)
• Chandra Gupta II objected to it and saved the and it was placed under vishyapati. Village headman was
honour of the family by killing the Shaka chief and very important during Gupta period.
rescuing Dhruvadevi. He later on married her.
• Lands were gifted to brahmanas by the Gupta kings and
However, the Gupta records do not refer to
such grants were known as Agraharas.
Ramagupta.
• Political marriages occupied a prominent place in Social Development
the foreign policy of the Guptas. Chandra Gupta II
The castes were further divided into sub-castes. The practice of
followed the same policy when he conciliated the
untouchability intensed (especially hatred for Chandalas).
Naga chieftains of the upper and central provinces
Fa-hien mentions that the Chandalas lived outside the village
by accepting the hand of the princess Kubernaga
and were distanced by the upper class. Varna-Shankar became
and allied himself with the powerful family of the
highlighted during this era.
Vakatakas of the Deccan by marrying his daughter
Prabhavati with Rudrasena II. Religion
• He issued silver coins (first Gupta ruler to issue
The Bhagwad Gita was written and Buddhism declined during
silver coins) and adopted the title Vikramaditya and
this period. Vishnu temple at Deogarh (near Jhansi), a small
Sakari in memory of his victory.
temple near Sanchi and a brick temple at Bhitargaon (near
• The Mehrauli iron pillar inscription near Qutub Kanpur) belong to the Gupta architecture.
Minar enumerates the exploits of a king called
Chandra. Gupta Art and Crafts
• During his reign the Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hein • In art, architecture, sculpture, painting and terracotta
(399-414) visited India. figurines, the Gupta period witnessed unprecedented
activities and development all over India. That is why, the
NAVRATNAS IN period is also referred to as the Golden Age of Ancient
CHANDRAGUPTA II’S COURT India.
Chandragupta II is credited with maintaining in his • The brick temples of the Gupta period include those of
court 9 Luminaries or great scholars viz., Kalidas, Bhitargaon in Kanpur, Bhitari in Ghazipur and Deogarh in
Amarsimha, Dhanvantri, Varahamihira, Vararuchi Jhansi. The Buddhist University at Nalanda was set-up in
(Vartika-a comment on Ashtadhyayi), Ghatakarna, the 5th century.
Kshapranak, Velabhatt and Shanku.
GENERAL STUDIES History 767

• The rock-cut architecture of the period is represented • Lilavati of Bhaskara is written as standard text of
by the two conventional types - the Chaityas and the mathematics.
Vihara. They are mostly found at Ajanta, Ellora, • Varahamihira wrote the Panchasidhantika and the
Bagh and Udaigiri caves of Orissa. Brihatsamhita. He said that the Moon moves around the
• Gupta age marks the beginning of the main style of Earth and the Earth, together with the Moon, move round
temples architecture in India namely the Nagara style the Sun.
and Dravida style. The finest example of temple • Brahmagupta was a great Mathematician. He wrote the
architecture is the Dasavatara temple at Deogarh. It is Brahma-sphutic Siddhanta in which he hinted at the ‘Law
also an example of early stone temple with a Shikara. of Gravitation.’
It has a square grabhagriha with exquisitely carved • University of Nalanda was set-up during the rule of
doorway. Other examples of temple architecture are Kumaragupta I, who become king in AD 415. This
Parvati temple at Nachna Kuthara, Shiva temple at University of Nalanda is called Oxford of Mahayan
Koh, Cave temple at Udaigiri etc. Buddhism.
Famous Temples of the Gupta Age • Palakapya wrote the Hastyagarveda, a treatise on the
disease of elephants. Kamandaka’s Nitasara was written on
Temple Location the political morality.
Vishnu Temple Tigawa (Jabalpur) • Court language was Sanskrit. Dhanvantri was a physician
Shiva Temple Bhumara (Nagaud) famous for Ayurveda knowledge.
Parvati Temple Nachna Kuthara
Dasavtar Temple
Shiva Temple
Deogarh (Jhansi)
Koh (Nagaud)
POST GUPTAS
Bhitargaon Temple Bhitargaon
With the decline of the imperial Guptas at the end of 5th or
Lakshman Temple Kanpur (Brick made) the beginning of 6th century, Magadha and its capital
Lakshman Temple Sirpur (Raipur) Pataliputra, lost their importance. After the fall of the
Mukund Darra Temple Kota Guptas, five major centres of power and their centres
Jarasangh’s Sitting emerged in North India.
Rajgriha (Bihar)
The Age of Smaller Kingdoms
Literature The disintegration of the Gupta empire gradually paved the
Kalidas, the great Sanskrit dramatist, belonged to this way for the growth of many smaller kingdoms. The
period. His books are Abhigyanashakuntalam, Maukharis started gaining political power towards the end of
Bhagwad Gita, Ritusamhara, Meghadutam, 5th century and hold over modern Uttar Pradesh and parts of
Kumarsambhavam, Malvikagnimitram, Raghuvamsa, Magadha. From the middle of 6th century till about AD 675
Vikramovarshiyam etc. the kings who ruled Magadha were known as Later Guptas.
Other Literary Works
Author Book
VARDHAN DYNASTY
Sudraka Mrichchakatikam Founder of Vardhan dynasty was Pushyabhuti Vardhan.
Bharavi Kiratarjuniya
Dandin Dasa Kumar Charita and Kavyadarshan Harshavardhana (AD 606-647)
Bhasa Svapnavasavadattam, Charudatta • Harshavardhana was the younger son of
Vishakhadatta Mudrarakshasa Devichandraguptam Prabhakaravardhana. Hiuen Tsang gave account of his
reign, in his book, Si-Yu-Ki. Bana’s Harshacharita,
Science and Technology inscriptions, coins and Harsha’s own writings i.e.,
Ratnavali, Priyadarshika and Nagananda, are other
• Aryabhatt the great Mathematician wrote the authentic sources of Harsha’s era.
Aryabhattiya and the Suryasiddhanta. In the
• Shashanka, the ruler of Gauda killed Grahavarman
Aryabhattiya, he described the place value of the
(Maukhari ruler) in alliance with Devagupta and
first nine numbers and the use of zero. He also imprisoned his wife Rajyasri (Harsha’s sister). Later
calculated the value of π and invented Algebra. In Rajyavardhana killed Devagupta, but he was assassinated by
the Suryasiddhanta, he proved that the Earth Shashanka in AD 606.
revolves around the Sun and rotates on its axis.
• The news of the death of Rajyavardhan reached his
• In this way, he discovered the cause of the solar and younger brother Harshavardhana, who now coronated
lunar eclipses and the methods for calculating the himself in AD 606 and proceeded to avenge his brother’s
timings of their occurrence. He also said that the death and release his sister. From this year started the
heavenly bodies, like the Moon, were spherical. Harsha era.
768 CDS Pathfinder

• The Gopuram style of art developed under Cholas.

Later Southern Indian Kingdoms Local self-government was practiced during the reign
The Vakatakas of Cholas (concept of Panchayati Raj has been
borrowed from it).
• Beginning of the 7th century, the Chalukyas of Badami, the
Vakatakas and the Ikshavakus emerged as the three major The Rashtrakutas
states in Deccan. While in South India after the fall of
• The Rashtrakutas rose up against the Chalukyas
Satavahanas, the Pallavas established a powerful kingdom.
under Dantidurga. Dantidurga founded this dynasty
• The kingdom was founded by Vindhyasakti, basically
in AD 753 and made Manyakheta his capital.
Brahmins. Most important king was Pravarsena-I who
• King Krishna-I further expanded the kingdom, but is
performed Ashwamedha Yajnas.
best remembered in history as the builder of the
• Chandragupta II married his daughter Prabhavati to a
rock-cut Kailash temple at Ellora.
Vakataka king Rudrasenar-II and with his support
• Rashtrakuta king Amoghavarsha I (814-880 AD) is
succeeded in conquering Gujarat.
compared to Vikramaditya in giving patronage to men
• It is said that the magnificent caves of Ajanta, Vihara caves
of letters. He wrote the first Kannada poetry Kaviraj
and Chaitya caves belong to the Vakataka age. marg and Prashnottar Mallika.
The Chalukyas of Badami • The King Krishna-III set-up a pillar of victory and a
temple at Rameshvaram.
• The Chalukyas grew powerful in Deccan in the middle of
the AD 6th century. The dynasty had two branches viz. Bhakti Movement
Vatapi (Badami) and Kalyani.
During AD 7th century, Bhakti Movement started in
• Pulakesin-I was the founder of the Chalukya dynasty, but
South India. Two prominent saints came to fore
the most important ruler of the dynasty was Pulakesin-II (i) Alvars and (ii) Nayanars.
who ruled from AD 610-642. He sent an ambassador to the
i. Alvars These saints were worshipper of Vishnu.
Persian king Khusro II. The greatest achievement of They venerated vaishnavism and regard vishnu as
Pulakesin II was that, he inflicted a defeat on supreme. Collection of their hymns are called
Harshavardhana. Divya Prabandha.
ii. Nayanars These saints were bhakti saints who
The Pallavas (Kanchi) worshipped the Hindu god Shiva. Women’s
Simha Vishnu was founder of Pallavas dynasty. They set up participation was prominent in Nayanar. Both
their capital at Kanchi (identical with modern Kanchipuram). above bhakti movement started in present day
Pallava temples were usually free-standing. But one example Tamil Nadu.
of temple cut out of large rocks are the seven ratha temple
(seven pagodas) at Mahabalipuram. Northern Indian Kingdoms
The Gangas (AD 750-1200)
First and famous king of Gangas of Odissa was Ananta The powerful kingdom arose between AD 750-1000.
Varman (1076-1147) who established his power over the The Rashtrakutas were ruling Northern Deccan, the
whole territory between the Ganga and the Godavari. He Pratiharas in Avanti and parts of Southern Rajasthan
built the famous temple of Lord Jagannath at Puri. Kesari and the Palas in Bengal. All three were engaged in a
who used to rule Odissa before Gangas, built the famous continual tripartite struggle.
Lingaraja temple at Bhubhaneswar.
The Rajputs
The Cholas • Rajputs came into prominence in 9th and 10th
centuries.
• Founder of Cholas was Vijayalya with Capital-Tanjore
Cholas were feudal of Pallavas. Important king was Rajaraj • There is also a body of opinion claiming that some of
I. He built Brihadeshwar temple at Tanjore devoted to them were foreign immigrants assimilated into Hindu
Shiva. This temple is also known as Rajrajeshwar Temple. fold over the centuries. Lastly there were the
Agnikulas, the fire family. They were as follow
• His son Rajendra I annexed the whole of Sri Lanka. In the
– The Pratiharas or Parihars, not the same as the main
Pala king Mahipala, he took title of Gangaikonda after
that. The empire was divided into 6 mandalas or province Pratiharas but with whom they had connections.
– The Chahamanas or (Chauhans)
administered by Governors. Mandalams were further
divided into Valanadus, Valanadus into Nadus and Nadus – The Chalukayas (or Solankis)

into Taniyars. – The Paramaras (or Pawars)

GENERAL STUDIES History 769

The Pratiharas (or Gurjara Pratihara) • Bhoja (1910-1055) is the best king of the Paramara rulers,
also called as Kaviraj. He wrote the Samaraganasutradhar
• The foundation of one branch of Pratiharas was laid
(a rare work on architecture) and the Ayurvedasaravasva
down by Harichandra, a Brahaman near modern
Jodhpur in the middle of the AD 6th century. Bhoj (work on medicine).
was the greatest ruler of this vast empire from
Kannauj. He was also known as Adivaraha and Mihira. Kingdoms in Bengal
• Mahendrapala is believed to have started his reign The Palas of Bengal
about 893. His teacher was Rajashekhara a celebrated
• In the middle of the AD 8th century, the Pala dynasty
poet, dramatist and critic author. Rajashekhara has the
literary work like Bal-Bharata, Bal Ramayan came into power. Its founder was Gopal (AD 750) who
Bhuvanosh, Harvilas, Karpuramanjari, Kavya Mimansa, was elected to the throne as he had proved his valour and
Prapanch Pandav, Vidhsaal etc. capability as a leader.
• He was a Buddhist. He was succeeded by Dharmapala
The Chandellas
(AD 770-810) who won Kannauj.
• The Chandellas became rulers in Southern
• Dharmapala was succeeded by Devapala who won Orissa
Bundelkhand under Nannuka early in the 9th century.
and Assam and was followed by Mahipala I. Mahipala was
• They had their capital at Kharjuravahaka (modern
attacked and defeated by Rajendra Chola.
Khajuraho).
• Suleiman (an Arab merchant) visited them and was
• They were a patron of learning and fine arts and built
Kandariya Mahadeva temple at Khajuraho in AD 1000. impressed. The Palas were patrons of Buddhism.
Dharmapala founded the University of Vikramashila and
Chauhan revived Nalanda University.
• Ruled over Shakambri (modern Sambhar–Rajasthan).
Founder of Chauhan was Semharaja. Important king The Senas
was Prithviraj Chauhan. • After the Palas, the Senas established an empire in Bengal.
• First Battle of Tarain, 1191 Prithviraj Chauhan The earliest member of the Sena dynasty was Samanta
defeated Mohammad Ghori. Second Battle of Tarain, Sena.
1192 Mohammad Ghori defeated Prithviraj Chauhan. • The greatest ruler of this dynasty was his grandson
• His court Poet was Chandbardai who composed Vijayasena. Vijayasena was a devotee of Shiva. The muslim
Prithviraj Raso. ruler Muhammad Bakhtyar Khilji attacked its capital
Gahadavals Nadia and captured it.
They ruled over Kannauj. Important king was Jai Chand,
he was defeated by Mohammad Ghori in 1194 in Battle Kingdoms in Kashmir
of Chandawar. Following were the two important dynasties of Kashmir
The Chalukayas (Anhilwara)
Karkota Dynasty
• The Chalukayas or Solankis were rulers of Gujarat and
The Karkota dynasty was founded by Durlabh Vardhan in
Kathiawar for about three and a half centuries.
7th century. Lalitaditya Muktapid was the most important
• Important ruler—Pulakesin II, Aihole inscription is
ruler of this dynasty. He constructed the Martand temple in
associated with him, composed by his court poet Kashmir.
Ravikirti.
The Paramaras Lohar Dynasty
• The dynasty was founded by Upendra or Krishnaraja. Sangramraj was the founder of Lohar dynasty. Kalhan was
The main branch of the Paramaras comprised the court poet of Harsha, Lohara king. He wrote
descendants of the Rashtrakutas who ruled Malwa. ‘Rajtarangiri’ which contains the history of Kashmir.
770 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Read the following statement(s) 1. Surya Varman II built the 8. Match the following
with reference to the 6th century temple of Angkor Vat.
List I List II
to 4th century BC. 2. Aphsad inscription throws (Harappan Sites) (States)
1. The Mahajanapadas bear the light on later Guptas.
A. Kalibangan 1. Haryana
names of the dominant 3. Hathigumpha inscription B. Mohenjodaro 2. Rajasthan
Kshatriya lineage in most cases. provides information on C. Rangpur 3. Gujarat
2. People in the 6th century BC Kharavela. D. Banawali 4. Sindh
did not know the use of iron. Select the correct answer
3. By the 6th century BC a class Codes
using the codes given below. A B C D A B C D
of free peasants and merchants (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
had emerged. (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 2 1 3
4. Private property in the form of
animals, land and its produce 5. With regards to the early 9. The early Buddhism incorporated
had emerged by the 6th century ancient Indian monuments pre-Buddhist elements, as is best
BC. and sculpture and their demonstrated
Which of the statement(s) given patrons, identify the correct (a) in the worship of Buddha as icons
above is/are correct? (b) by the presence of large standing Yaksas
pairs. and Yaksis
(a) Only 2 (b) 3 and 4
1. Amaravati : Satavahana (c) in the elaborate narrative scenes from the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Only 4
2. Cave shrines at : Ashoka life of Buddha and from the Jatakas which
2. Consider the following statements Barabar hills reveal a strong ethical bias
with regard to the Vedic texts. 3. Kailash temple at : Rashtrakutas (d) in the incorporation of non-Buddhist deities
Ellora and mythical concepts
1. Brahmanas deal with
4. Stupa at Shahji ki : Kanishka
metaphysical problems. dheri near Peshawar 10. The available information on the later
2. Upanishad deal with methods of Vedic age comes from different sources,
performing Vedic rituals. Codes including excavations, these have
3. Atharva Veda documents folk (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 yielded archaeological evidence of
tradition. (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these different types at different places.
4. Rig Veda carries linguistic 6. Regarding the early Vedic Examine the following statement(s).
similarities with the Avesta. 1. Iron axe at Noh.
age, which of the following
Which of the statements given statements is correct? 2. Iron ploughshare at Jakhera.
above are correct? 3. Bones of cattle at Hastinapur and
(a) The purohita or priest had no
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Atranjikhera with indications that
special place in the society
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these these were used as a source of food.
(b) The ‘Sabha’ and ‘Samiti’ had
3. In the context of later Vedic age, no power in the selection of
Select the correct answer using the codes
read the following statement(s) the Raja
given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
and select those that may not be (c) Religion was not based on (c) All of these (d) None of these
correct? magico-ritual formulae
1. It cannot be said that the Vedic (d) Gods were worshipped for the 11. The Sun temple of Konark was built by
society shifted to East. spiritual upliftment of the Narasimhadeva I. To which dynasty did
2. The Vedic society used iron people he belong to?
technology mostly for weapons (a) Somavamsi dynasty
of war. 7. The Atharvaveda informs us (b) Imperial Ganga dynasty
3. In agriculture only labour about (c) Suryavansi Gajapti dynasty
intensive technology was used. 1. the folk traditions of later (d) Bhoi dynasty
4. People married outside their Vedic period. 12. In the context of later Vedic period,
‘gotra’. 2. the elite traditions of later what may not be correct?
Select the correct answer using the Vedic society. (a) Mixed farming which included cultivation
codes given below. 3. the socio-religious and herding were the main subsistence
(a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 conditions of the common activity
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 2 people of Vedic society. (b) The importance of both Sabha and Samiti
declined
4. The following statement(s) provide Select the correct answer (c) Public and private sacrifices became very
interesting information on the using the codes given below. important
rulers/dynasty of the ancient (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (d) The important Later Vedic and Early Vedic
period. (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 Gods were different
GENERAL STUDIES History 771

13. With reference to Prehistoric 18. Which of the following were the 24. Which one of the following pairs is
India, which of the following yajnas that were performed during correctly matched?
statements may not be correct? the Vedic age? (a) Bhavabhuti : Kiratarjuniya
(a) It can be said that the Harappan 1. Vratyastama yajna (b) Bharavi : Mehmadhava
people inherited the knowledge of 2. Asvamedha yajna
wheat, barley and cotton cultivation (c) Banabhatta : Harshacharita
from the earlier inhabitants of
3. Rajasuya yajna (d) Bhartuhari : Geet Govinda
Mehragarh Select the correct answer using the
25. The God with there heads and
(b) Excavations at Belan valley sites codes given below.
have helped us in determining the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 horns, surrounded by animals,
nature of the transition from food (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these represented on a seal from
gathering to food producing stage Mohenjodaro is said to be
(c) The earliest crop cultivated in South 19. Who were Tirthas in the Mauryan (a) Varuna (b) Indra
India was millets period? (c) Vishnu (d) Pashupati
(d) Excavations at Cachar hills have (a) Highest category of officials and
yielded no traces of Neolithic culture they were 14 in number 26. Mohenjodaro is also known as
(b) Concerned with economic functions (a) mound of the great
14. Which one of the following is not (b) mound of the survivors
(c) Military head
an important factor in the (c) mound of the living
(d) Had administrative and judicial
Mauryan decline? (d) mound of the dead
(a) Increase in imperial expenditure powers
(b) Weakening of state control 20. Consider the following statements 27. Which of the following animals
(c) Inactivity of the army regarding Indus Valley Civilisation were domesticated by the
(d) Invasion by foreign powers and its site Harappans?
15. Which of the following statements 1. Evidence of dockyard was found (a) Goat, oxen, pig, buffalo
at Lothal. (b) Oxen, elephant, horse, pig
regarding Ashoka’s Dhamma is not
2. An inscription comprising ten (c) Buffalo, sheep, dog, pig
correct?
large sized signs of the (d) Camel, oxen, buffalo, pig
(a) Rock edict XIII is of paramount
importance in the understanding of Harappan script was found at 28. Consider the following animal(s),
Ashokan policy of Dhamma. Banawali.
with reference to the Indus Valley
(b) The fifth Rock edict introduces the 3. Replica of plough and evidence
Civilisation
institution of Dhamma maha-mattas. of ploughed field were found at
Dholavira and Kalibangan 1. the bull
(c) Ashoka’s Dhamma could not survive
him. respectively. 2. the elephant
(d) The policy of Dhamma was an Which of the statements given 3. the rhinoceros
attempt at founding a new religion. above are incorrect? The figure(s) of which of the above
16. Match the following (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 animal is/are found on the Indus
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these seals?
List I List II (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
21. The main characteristic of the
A. Fractional Burial 1. Maharashtra (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Chalcolithic Indus Valley Civilisation was
B. Complete Extended 2. South Indian
(a) town planning 29. In Ashoka’s administration,
Burial Chalcolithic (b) drainage system Rajukas looked after
(c) well laid out roads (a) religious matters
C. Dead body in 3. West Indian
East-West Portion Chalcolithic (d) pucca houses (b) collection of taxes
D. Dead body in 4. East Indian 22. Consider the following statement(s) (c) municipal administration
North-South Portion Chalcolithic (d) administration of justice
1. The people of Harappan culture
Codes used themselves in gambling. 30. Match the following
A B C D A B C D 2. The Aryas at first settled in
List I List II
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 Western Uttar Pradesh. (Works) (Authors)
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1 Which of the statement(s) given
A. Manimekalai 1. Puhalendi
17. Consider the following statements above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 B. Maduraikanji 2. Thiruvalluvar
regarding Vedas
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 C. Kural 3. Konnguvelir
1. Rig Veda consists of hymns and
prayers. D. Perungadai 4. Mangudi Marudan
23. Which one of the following pairs is
2. Musical hymns are found in E. Nalavenba 5. Sittalai and
not correctly matched? Sattanar
Yajur Veda while Sam Veda
comprises of rituals. (a) Birth : Lotus and
seal Codes
3. Charms and spells are A B C D E
mentioned in the Atharva Veda. (b) Mahabhiniskramna : Horse
(renunciation) (a) 1 2 3 4 5
Which of the statements given (b) 2 4 5 1 3
(c) Nirvana (Enlightment) : Bodhitree
above are correct? (c) 3 1 5 2 4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (d) Mahaparinirvana : Wheel
(Death) (d) 5 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
772 CDS Pathfinder

31. Which of the following is the Who among these were associated 42. Which of the following can
correct chronological order? with the first excavations carried definitely be said to be the beliefs
(a) Kushans, Guptas, Sungas, Mauryas out at Harappa and Mohenjodaro? and the practices of the Indus
(b) Mauryas, Sungas, Kushans, Guptas (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 people?
(c) Guptas, Kushans, Mauryas, Sungas (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 1. Worship of nature.
(d) Sungas, Mauryas, Guptas, Kushans 2. Phallic and Yonic worship.
37. Consider the following statements
32. Match the following and which are correct ones? 3. Belief in ghosts and spirits.
List I List II 1. Kushana minted the gold coins 4. Belief in life after death.
of very high quality. Select the correct answer using the
A. Chaitya 1. Amravati
B. Stupa 2. Shravanabelagola 2. Satavahanas minted the lead codes given below.
coins. (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
C. Gomateswara 3. Karle
3. Shakas minted the bronze coins. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
D. Brick temple 4. Rajgir
5. Halebid Codes 43. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 and 2 regarding sites of Indus Valley
Codes (b) 1 and 3
A B C D A B C D
Civilisation
(c) 2 and 3
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 2 3 4 1. Mohenjodaro was situated on
(d) All of the above
the bank of river Indus.
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 1 2 5
38. Indus Valley Civilsation is also 2. Harappa was located on the
33. Match the following known as Harappan culture Bank of river Ravi.
List I List II because 3. Kalibangan was located on the
(Temples) (Built by) (a) the site of the Harappa is six times bank of river Ghaggar.
A. Khajuraho 1. Thirumalai Nayak larger than the Mohenjodaro site Which of the statement(s) given
temples (b) The Indus Valley Civilisation is above is/are correct?
B. Dilwara temple 2. Chandellas considered the elementary/initial (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
at Mount Abu stage of vedic culture and the (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
C. Jagannath 3. Chalukyas Harappa is believed to be the same
temple at Puri as the Harappa mentioned in the 44. In which among the following
D. Vithalaswami 4. Anantavaram Vedas sacrifices, the sacrificial material
temples Choda Ganga (c) the Harappa was the first site to be used was sura in vedic era?
5. Vijayanagara rulers excavated in the Indus Valley (a) Rajasurya (b) Agnistoma
Codes (d) the most important evidence of the (c) Sautramani (d) Vajapeya
A B C D A B C D achievements of this civilisation have 45. The head of a district (Ahara), the
(a) 2 1 5 3 (b) 4 5 3 2 been excavated from Harappa
principal coordinator of the revenue
(c) 3 4 5 2 (d) 2 3 4 5 39. The 9th mandala of the Rig Veda and the officer incharge of general
34. The great grammarian Patanjali of samhita is devoted wholly to and military functions in his
ancient India was whose (a) Urvashi and the Heaven jurisdiction during Mauryan empire
contemporary among the (b) ‘Soma’ and the God who is named was known as
following? after the drink (a) Krori (b) Rajuka
(a) Chandragupta Maurya (c) Indra and his elephant (c) Foujdar (d) Chirastadar
(b) Ashoka (d) Gods related to plants and drugs
(c) Pushyamitra Sunga
46. Which of the following causes have
(d) Susarman Kanva
40. The main cause of the tribal wars been attributed to the eclipse of
among the early Aryan settlers, the Indus Valley Civilisation?
35. Match the following the most famous of which 1. Frequency of floods.
List I List II mentioned in Rig Veda as ‘Battle 2. Foreign invasions.
(Important Finds) (Sites) of Ten Kings’, was 3. Onset of the drought conditions.
A. Dockyard 1. Harappan (a) cattle and land disputes Select the correct answer using the
B. Ploughed Field 2. Lothal (b) foreign invasions
codes given below.
C. Horse 3. Kalibangan (c) showing supremacy (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
D. Great Bath 4. Sarkotda (d) intrigues of the leaders (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
5. Mohenjodaro 41. According to the Dharmashastras, 47. Indus Valley Civilisation is called
Codes ‘Anuloma’ is a marriage between a Harappan Civilisation because
A B C D A B C D (a) higher caste man and a lower caste (a) Harappa was six times larger than
(a) 1 4 2 5 (b) 2 3 4 5 woman Mohenjodaro
(c) 4 3 5 1 (d) 2 5 4 3 (b) lower caste man and a higher caste (b) Harappa has more features
woman
36. Consider the following persons (c) Harappa was excavated first
(c) man and a woman of the same
1. John Marshall (d) Indus Valley Civilisation was believed
caste
2. SR Rao to be early Vedic Civilsation, hence
(d) man and a woman of the same it is named after Mythological World
3. RD Bannerjee gotra Harappa
4. Dayaram Sahni
GENERAL STUDIES History 773

48. Consider the following statement(s) Codes Select the correct answer using codes
1. The Harappan people did not A B C A B C given below.
know the art of writing. (a) 3 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 (a) 1, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 2
2. The period when man began to (c) 2 3 1 (d) 3 2 1 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) All of these
use metal is called the 55. Consider the following 60. Consider the following statements
Neolithic age.
statements regarding authors about the events and their time of
Select the correct answer using the and their creations occurence.
codes given below. 1. Somnath Temple was plundered in
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Megasthenese wrote Indica
and Vishakhadutta wrote 1026 AD.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Mudrarakshasa. 2. Saka era commenced in 78 AD.
49. Match the following 2. Kautilya wrote Arthashastra. 3. Death of Harshavardan and birth
List I List II 3. Banbhatta wrote Ratnavali. of astronomer Aryabhatta took
place in 476 AD.
A. Kosala 1. Sravasti Which of the statements given
Which of the statements given above
B. Avanti 2. Mahishamati above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
are correct?
C. Vatsa 3. Kausambi (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
D. Lichchhavi 4. Vaishali (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
Codes 56. Match the following 61. Consider the following statements
A B C D A B C D List I List II 1. Hieun-Tsang visited India in the
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 days of Chandragupta II.
A. Dhanvantri 1. Chandragupta
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 3 1 2 Vikramaditya 2. Alberuni came to India at the time
50. Which of the following pairs are B. Banabhatta 2. Harshavardhana of Mahmud of Ghazni.
correctly matched? C. Harisena 3. Samudragupta 3. Fa-Hein visited India during the
D. Amir Khusrau 4. Alauddin Khilji days of Samundragupta.
1. Allahabad Prashasti : Samudragupta
2. Aihole inscription : Pulakesin II 5. Kanishka Which of the statements given above
3. Gwalior Prashasti : Devapala Codes
are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
4. Hathigumpha : Rudradaman A B C D A B C D
inscription (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 5
Codes (c) 3 5 2 1 (d) 4 1 3 5 62. Which one of the following pairs is
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 correctly matched?
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
57. Kanishka was a great patron of (a) Harappan Civilisation : Painted Grey Ware
art and literature, which of the (b) The Kushans : Gandhara
51. Which one of the following was following personalities adorned School of Art
initially the most powerful city his court? (c) The Mughals : Ajanta Paintings
State of India in the 6th century (a) Aswaghosa Parsva, Vasumitra (d) The Marathas : Pahari School of
BC? and Charaka Painting
(a) Gandhara (b) Kamboj (b) Aswaghosa, Nagarjuna, 63. Match the following
(c) Kashi (d) Magadh Nagasena and Vasumitra
(c) Aswaghosa, Parsva, List I List II
52. An example of the Dravida style of (Dynasities) (Kingdoms)
Hemachandra and Nagarjuna
architecture is provided by the
(a) Kailashanatha temple, Kanchipuram (d) Aswaghosa, Vasumitra, Asanga A. Chalukyas 1. Kanchipuram
and Hemachandra B. Pallavas 2. Badami
(b) Lingaraja temple, Bhubhaneshwar
C. Pandyas 3. Vengi
(c) Sun temple, Konark 58. Who among the following was
D. Satavahanas 4. Madurai
(d) Kandariya Mahadeva temple, the author of Abhidhamma
Khajuraho treatise Kathavatthu? Codes
53. Which of the following works and (a) Maha Kassapa A B C D A B C D
(b) Mahindra (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
authors is/are correctly matched?
(c) Milinda (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
1. Kiratarjuniya : Bharavi (d) Moggaliputta Tissa
2. Panchatantra : Shudraka
64. Consider the following statement(s)
3. Kumarsambhava : Kalidasa 59. Which of the following features 1. In Deccan, the first iron object
are common to Jainism and appears after the late Jorwe
4. Surya Sidhanta : Varahamihira
Chalcolithic phase (900 BC-800 BC).
Codes Buddhism?
2. The sites in Deccan such as
(a) Only 2 (b) 3 and 4 1. Denial of the authority of
Nevasa, Chandoli, Inamgaon,
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 the Vedas. Prakash show continuity between
2. Condemnation of animal the iron phase and the Chalcolithic
54. Match the following sacrifice. phase.
List I List II 3. Pursuing severe ascetism. Which of the statement(s) given above
A. First Sangam 1. Madurai 4. Existence of a soul. is/are correct?
B. Second Sangam 2. Tenmadurai 5. Rejection of existence of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
C. Third Sangam 3. Kavatupram God. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
774 CDS Pathfinder

65. Mahavir Swami belonged to which (b) music, dance, ragas and wrestling Codes
clan? (c) ministers, civil servants, subalterns A B C D A B C D
(a) Kosala (b) Huna and those involved in espionage (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) Jantriak (d) Sakya (d) aristocrats, acharyas, traders and (c) 3 1 5 2 (d) 5 4 3 2
monks
66. Match the following 76. Which one of the following
71. Who was Paura during the
List I List II inscriptions mentions Pulakesin
Maurya Empire?
(Places of Historical (Located in the (a) Chief Judge II’s military success against
Movements) Country) (b) Dandapal Harashavardhana?
A. Angkorwat 1. Afghanistan (c) Governor of the city (a) Allahabad Pillar inscription
B. Borobudur 2. Sri Lanka (d) Mantri (b) Aihole inscription
C. Barmiyan 3. Java (c) Damodarpur Copperplate inscription
72. Consider the following statement(s) (d) Bilsad inscription
D. Anuradhapuram 4. Cambodia
and which among them is correct
5. Nepal 77. Which one of the following
statement?
Codes (a) First Buddhist council took place in statements is not true about the
A B C D A B C D Saptaparni cave near Rajgriha. Chalcolithic cultures of India?
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 3 1 2 (b) Second Buddhist council was held (a) They were primary communities in
(c) 3 4 1 3 (d) 5 4 3 1 at Kashi under the Kala Ashoka. the hilly and riverine areas
(c) Third Buddhist council was held at (b) They mostly used stone and copper
67. Which of the following statements Patliputra.
regarding temples/monuments are objects and occasionally low grade
(d) Fourth Buddhist council was held by bronze
correct? Kanishka at Kashmir.
1. Brihadeswara temple is located (c) A large number of them appeared
at Thanjavur in the state of 73. Consider the following statements after the end of the bronze
Tamil Nadu. and find the incorrect statements. Harappan culture
2. Dilwara temple is located in 1. Abhidhamma pitaka discusses (d) They were restricted to the Ganga,
state of Rajasthan. about philosophical principle of Yamuna doab and foothills of the
Buddhism. Himalayas
3. Lingraja temple is located in
2. Milindapanho discusses
state of Odisha. 78. Which one of the following is the
dialogues between Meander and
4. Hampi monument are found in Nagsena. most fundamental difference
the state of Karnataka. 3. Suttapitaka deals with rules between Mahayana Buddhism and
Select the correct answer using the and regulation for Buddhist Hinayana Buddhism?
codes given below. monks. (a) Emphasis on Ahimsa
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 4. Vinaya pitaka deals with (b) Casteless Society
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these religious discourses of Buddha. (c) Workship of Gods and Goddesses
Which of the statements given (d) Worship of the Stupa
68. Which of the following statements
regarding ancient kingdoms and above are correct? 79. Match the following
capitals is incorrect? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these List I List II
(a) Mahishmati was capital city of
Avanti kingdom. 74. Match the following A. Practice of fire cult 1. Lothal
(b) Capital of Vatsa kingdom was at B. Granary 2. Kalibangan
Kausambi. List I C. Great Bath 3. Mohenjodaro
List II
(Schools of D. Shipbuilding 4. Harappa
(c) Viratnagri was capital city of ancient (Persons)
Thought)
kingdom matsya. Codes
(d) Badami was capital city of A. Mimansa 1. Aksapada Gautama
B. Nyaya 2. Isvarakrishna
A B C D A B C D
Satavahana kingdom.
C. Sankhya 3. Jaimini (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 4 3 2
69. ‘Sangam literature’ is D. Vedanta 4. Shankaracharya (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 3 4 2
(a) classical Sanskrit literature
patronised by the Guptas Codes 80. Who amongst the following Chola
(b) Pali literature dealing with the history A B C D A B C D king fought against the Shailendra
of the sanghas (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 king of Shri Vijaya and defeated
(c) early Tamil literature attributed to the (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4 him?
first 3 centuries of the Christian era 75. Match the following (a) Parantaka I (b) Sundar Chola
(d) Sanskrit works of Puranic nature (c) Rajaraj Chola I (d) Rajendra Chola I
List I List II
dealing with the sanctity of the 81. Arrange in chronological order the
(Ancient Names of (Modern Names
place where there is confluence of
rivers in Prayaga
the Rivers) of the Rivers) following foreign invasions.
A. Vitasta 1. Chenab 1. Indo Greek 2. Shakas
70. The nation of saptanga that was B. Asikini 2. Beas 3. Parthians 4. Kushans
introduced in the Arthashashtra C. Parushni 3. Jhelum Codes
includes D. Vipasa 4. Sutlej (a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(a) kings, territory, administration and
5. Ravi (c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
treasury
GENERAL STUDIES History 775

82. Arrange the following events in (b) He was the 23rd tirthankara, the first In the early history of the far South
chronological order. 22 tirthankaras being considered in India, three tribal principalities
legendary are mentioned in Ashokan
1. Reign of Kanishka
(c) He was the last and 24th inscriptions of the 3rd century BC
2. Visit of Hieun Tsang
tirthankara, who was not considered
3. Alexander’s invasion and in Kharavela inscription of the
as the founder of the new faith but
4. Ashoka’s Kalinga War as a reformer of the existing 1st century BC.
Codes religious sect (a) Vakatakas, Cholas and Satvahanas
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) He was not one of the 24 (b) Cholas, Pandyas and Cheras
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1 tirthankaras (c) Ikshvakus, Vakatakas and Pandyas
(d) Pallavas, Cholas and Pandyas
83. Match the following 88. Which of the following statement
List I List II is/are regarding “Uparika tax”? 93. The Ashtadhyayi of Panini, the
1. It is an additional and Mahabhasya of Patanjali and the
A. Hinduism 1. Eight Fold Path
oppressive tax. Kashika Vritti of Jayaditya deal
B. Jainism 2. Monotheism
2. It is the tax paid by cultivators. with
C. Buddhism 3. Divinity (a) Principles of Law
D. Islam 4. Three Fold Path 3. It is an extra tax levied on all
subjects. (b) Principles of Phonetics
Codes (c) Principles of Grammar
4. It was a land tax on
A B C D A B C D (d) Principles of Linguistics
cultivators.
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 94. Fa-Hien’s mission to India was to
Select the correct answer using the
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 4 2 1 (a) learn about the administrative
codes given below.
84. Consider the following (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 system of the Gupta kings
statement(s) related to life events (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 (b) understand the social position of
of Buddha is incorrect? women during the Gupta period
89. Which one among the following (c) visit the Buddhist institutions and to
(a) Buddha was born at Lumbini and statements about Ashokan edicts
he was younger contemporary of collect copies of Buddhist
is correct? manuscripts
Mahavira.
(a) The Pillar edicts were located in all (d) get full knowledge about the
(b) Buddha got enlightenment under parts of the empire
Peepal tree at Bodh Gaya. condition of peasants during the
(b) The edicts give details of his period of Gupta kings
(c) Buddha delivered his first Seromon personal concerns but are silent on
at Rajgir. events of the empire 95. What are the great epics that help
(d) Death of Buddha or Mahaparinirvana (c) The subject of inscribed matter on to know the Sangam Age?
took place at Kusinagar. Rock edicts differs completely with (a) Silappadikaram and Manimekalai
that of the Pillar edicts (b) Ramayana and Mahabharatha
85. Which one among the following is
(d) The Greek or Aramaic edicts are (c) Illiad and oddessey
not a characteristic of Rig Vedic
versions or translations of the texts (d) Psalms and Proverbs
Aryans?
(a) They were acquainted with horses, used in other edicts 96. The style in which Tamil and
chariots and the use of bronze 90. Which one of the following Sanskrit mixed is called
(b) They were acquainted with the use statements regarding Harappan (a) Malayalam (b) Creyole
of iron (c) Manippravalam (d) Thulu
civilisation is correct?
(c) They were acquainted with the cow, (a) The standard harappan seals were 97. The ruins at harappa were
which formed the most important made of clay professionally examined for the
form of wealth (b) The inhabitants of harappa had first time by
(d) They were acquainted with the use neither knowledge of copper nor (a) Sir John Marshall
of copper and the modern bronze (b) Cunningham
ploughshare (c) The Harappan civilisation was rural (c) Mortimer Wheeler
86. The earliest Buddhist literature based (d) Bishop Caldwell
which deal with the stories of the (d) The inhabitants of Harappa grew
and used cotton 98. Which of the following statement(s)
various birth of Buddha are is/are correct about Jainism.
(a) Vinaya pitakas 91. In Buddhism, what does
(b) Sutta pitakas
1. Rig Veda mentions two
“Patimokkha stand for”? Tirthankaras-Rishabh Dev and
(c) Abhidamma pitakas (a) A description of Mahayana Arishtanemi
(d) Jatakas Buddhism 2. The 24th Tirthankara was
87. The Jainas believe the Jainism is (b) A description of Hinayana Buddhism Vardhaman Mahavira
the outcome of the teachings of 24 (c) The rules of Sangha (Emblem-lion)
tirthankaras. In the light of this (d) The questions of king mehander 3. The sacred books of Jainas are
statement, which one among the written in Pali language.
92. Consider the following passage and
following is correct of Vardhamana identify the three tribal Select the correct answer using the
Mahavira? principalities referred to there, in codes given below.
(a) He was the first tirthankara and the (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
using the codes given below.
founder of Jainism (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
776 CDS Pathfinder

99. Consider the following statement(s) Select the correct answer using the Codes
regarding Sankhya school codes given below. (a) Both the statements are individually
1. Sankhya does not accept the (a) 1 and 4 (b) 4 and 2 true and Statement II is the correct
theory of rebirth or (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 explanation of Statement I
transmigration of soul. (b) Both the statements are individually
106. Which of the following ruler of true, but Statement II is not the
2. Sankhya holds that it is the Satavahana Empire composed correct explanation of Statement I
self-knowledge that leads to Gathasaptashati?
liberation and not any exterior (c) Statement I is true, but Statement
(a) Simuka II is false
influence or agent.
(b) Pulumayi (d) Statement I is false, but Statement
Select the correct answer using the (c) Gautamiputra Satkarni II is true
codes given below. (d) Hala
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 112. Which of the following marriage is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 107. “Heliodorus" a greek ambassador especially practised by warriors?
of the Indo-Greek king was sent (a) Daiva (b) Pisaka
100. Who among the following is to the court of which ruler? (c) Rakshasa (d) Gandharva
known to have maintained the (a) Bhagbhadra (b) Devabhuti
Silk Route and trade? (c) Pushyamitra (d) Ghosha 113. In which of the following
(a) Ashoka (b) Kanishka inscriptions Ashoka made his
(c) Vima Kadphises (d) Vasudeva
108. Which among the following rulers famous declaration, “All men are
is often described as “the first my children”?
101. The ruler of Kushan dynasty, empire builder of Indian History”?
(a) Minor Rock Edict (Ahravra)
Kanishka was the follower of (a) Dhanananda
(b) Pillar Edict VII
(a) Jainism (b) Hinayanism (b) Bimbisara
(c) Separated Kalinga Rock Edict I
(c) Hinduism (d) Mahayanism (c) Mahapadmananda
(d) Chandragupta Maurya (d) Lumbini Pillar Edict
102. The famous book ‘Brihat Katha’
was written by 109. Who was the author of the book 114. Rajashekhara was the teacher of
‘Silappadikarma’? which of the following ruler?
(a) Gunadhya (b) Panini
(a) Bhoj
(c) Sarva Varman (d) Radhagupt (a) Ilango Adigal
(b) Vijayalya
(b) Perudevanar
103. Which of the following inscription (c) Mahendrapala
(c) Seethalai Saathanaar
are related to Satavahana period? (d) Gopal
(d) Tiruttakrdeva
(a) Nanaghat (b) Nasik
115. Statement I Harsha is called the
(c) Paithan (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ 110. Which among the following is/are
last Great Hindu Emperor of
104. Consider the following place(s) the terms used for coins of the
India, but he was neither a
Gupta period?
1. Ajanta Caves staunch Hindu nor the ruler of
1. Dinara 2. Dramma
2. Lepakshi Temple the whole country.
3. Rupaka 4. Suvarna
3. Sanchi Stupa Statement II Harsha defeated
Select the correct answer using the Pulakesin-II, the maitraka ruler
Which of the above places is/are
codes given below. of Vallabhi.
also known for mural paintings?
(a) Only 4 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 Codes
(c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) All of these (d) None of these (a) Both the statements are individually
111. Statement I Virasen was the true and Statement II is the correct
105. Who among the following were explanation of Statement I
Commander-in-chief of
teachers of Gautama Buddha (b) Both the statements are individually
Samudragupta during Northern
before his enlightenment? campaign. true, but Statement II is not the
1. Alara Kalama correct explanation of Statement I
Statement II Samudragupta’s
2. Rudraka Ramputra (c) Statement I is true, but Statement
arms reached as far as Kanchi, II is false
3. Makkhali Gosala Tamil Nadu, where the Pallavas (d) Statement I is false, but Statement
4. Nigantha Nataputta were compelled to recognise his II is true
suzerainty.
GENERAL STUDIES History 777

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) (c) Silk routes existed before the 2013 (I)
Christian era and thrived almost
1. The site of Harappa is located on upto 15th century 13. In the Gupta age, Varahamihira
the bank of river (d) As a result of silk route trade, wrote the famous book, ‘Brihat
(a) Saraswati (b) Indus precious metals like gold and silver, Samhita’. It was a treatise on
(c) Beas (d) Ravi flowed from Asia to Europe (a) astronomy
(b) statecraft
2. Ashokan inscriptions of Mansehra 8. Which among the following (c) ayurvedic system of medicine
and Shahbazgadhi are written in statements regarding the Gupta (d) economics
(a) Prakrit language, Kharoshthi script Dynasty is/are correct?
(b) Prakrit language, Brahmi script 1. The Kumaramatyas were the 14. Which of the following was/were
(c) Prakrit-Aramaic language, Brahmi most important of the and they not related to Buddha’s life?
script were appointed directly by the 1. Kanthaka
(d) Aramaic language, Kharoshthi script king in the home provinces. 2. Alara Kalama
3. Who among the following Chinese 2. The village headmen lost 3. Channa
importance and of the 4. Goshala Maskariputra
travellers visited the Kingdoms of
transactions began to be effected
Harshavardhana and Kumar without their consent.
Select the correct answer using the
Bhaskar Varma? codes given below.
(a) I-Tsing (b) Fa-Hien Select the correct answer using the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 4
(c) Hiuen Tsang (d) Sun Shuyun codes given below. (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
4. Which one among the following (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Indus cities was known for water Directions (Q. Nos. 15-16) The
management? 9. Which among the following following questions consist of two
(a) Lothal (b) Mohenjodaro materials were used for minting statements, Statement I and
(c) Harappa (d) Dholavira coins during the rule of the Statement II. You are to examine
Mauryas? these two statements carefully and
5. Who among the following scholars (a) Gold and Silver select the answer to these questions
were contemporary of Kanishka? (b) Silver and Copper using the codes given below.
1. Ashvaghosa 2. Nagarjuna (c) Copper and Bronze
Codes
3. Vasumitra 4. Chanakya (d) Gold and Copper
(a) Both the statements are true and
Select the correct answer using the 10. What was the Kutagarashala Statement II is the correct explanation
codes given below. literally, a hut with a pointed roof? of Statement I
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (b) Both the statements are true, but
(a) A place where animals were kept
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement II is not the correct
(b) A place where intellectual debates
explanation of Statement I
among Buddhist mendicants took
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
2012 (II) place
false
(c) A place where weapons were stored
6. The polity of the Harappan people, (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
(d) A place to sleep true
as derived from the material
evidence, was 11. The Dhamma propagated by 15. Statement I There was great
(a) secular-federalist Ashoka was exodus of Jaina monks under the
(b) theocratic-federalist (a) the tenets of Buddhism leadership of Bhadrabahu to the
(c) oligarchic (b) a mixture of the philosophies of Deccan following severe famine in
(d) theocratic-unitary Ajivikas and Charvakas the Ganga valley towards the end
(c) a system of morals consistent with of Chandragupta’s reign.
7. Silk routes are a good example of the tenets of most of the sects of
vibrant pre-modern trade and the time
Statement II Chandragupta
cultural links between distant Maurya joined the Jaina order as a
(d) the religious policy of the state
parts of the world. Which one monk.
among the following is not true of 12. Which one among the following 16. Statement I Mahavira initially
silk routes? pairs is not properly matched? joined a group of ascetics called
(a) Megasthenese : Indica
(a) Historians have identified several silk Nirgranthas.
route over land and sea (b) Ashvaghosa : Buddhacharita
Statement II The sect was
(b) Silk routes have linked Asia with (c) Panini : Mahabhashya founded 200 years earlier by
Europe and Northern Africa (d) Vishakhadatta : Mudrarakshasa Parsva.
778 CDS Pathfinder

4. Vedic sacrifices were of two

2013 (II) 2014 (I) kinds — those conducted by the
17. Statement I Kali age reflects 21. The only inscribed stone portrait of householder and those that
the presence of deep social Emperor Ashoka has been found at required ritual specialists.
crisis characterised by (a) Sanchi (b) Amaravati Select the correct answer using the
varnasankara i.e. (c) Kanaganahalli (d) Ajanta codes given below.
intermixture of varnas or (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2
22. Which one of the following statements
social orders. (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
about Rig Veda is not correct?
Statement II The Vaisyas (a) Deities were worshipped through prayer
and Sudras (peasants, and sacrificial rituals 2015 (II)
artisans and labourers) either (b) The Gods are presented as powerful,
who could be made to intervene in the 27. Patanjali was
refused to perform producing (a) a philosopher of the ‘Yogachara’
world of men via the performance of
functions or pay taxes or school
sacrifices
supply necessary labour for (b) the author of a book on Ayurveda
(c) The Gods were supposed to partake of
economic production resulting the offerings as they were consumed by (c) a philosopher of the ‘Madhyamika’
in weakening of Brahminical the fire school
social order and social tension. (d) The sacrifices were performed in the (d) the author of a commentary on
Codes temples Panini’s Sanskrit grammar
(a) Both the statements are true
23. Consider the following statement(s) 28. Match the following
and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I 1. The Jains believed that Mahavira List I List II
(b) Both the statements are true, had twenty-three predecessors. (King) (Region)
but Statement II is not the 2. Parshvanatha was twenty-third A. Shashanka 1. Assam
correct explanation of Tirthankara. B. Kharavela 2. Maharashtra
Statement I 3. Rishabh was immediate successor of C. Simuka 3. Odisha
(c) Statement I is true, but Mahavira. D. Bhaskara Varman 4. Bengal
Statement II is false Which of the statement(s) given above
(d) Statement I is false, but Codes
is/are correct?
Statement II is true A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3 (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 2 4
18. Among the precious stones,
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
the most extensive foreign 24. Which one of the following statements
trade during the Gupta age about ancient Indian Mahajanapadas 29. In ancient India, the ‘Yaudheyas’
was that of were
is correct? (a) a sect of the Buddhism
(a) diamonds (b) ruby
(a) All Mahajanapadas were oligarchies (b) a sect of the Jainism
(c) pearl (d) sapphire where power was exercised by a group
(c) a republican tribe
19. Which of the following of people
(d) vassals of the Cholas
statement(s) is/are not correct (b) All Mahajanapadas were located in
about Bhakti tradition in Eastern India
South India? (c) No army was maintained by the 2016 (I)
Mahajanapadas
1. Earliest Bhakti Movements 30. Who among the following
in India were led by Alvar (d) Buddhist and Jaina texts list sixteen
Mahajanapadas archaeologists was the first to
and Nayanar saints. identify similarities between a
2. Naalayira Divya 25. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held pre-Harappan culture and the
Prabandham, frequently in Kashmir under the leadership of mature Harappan culture?
described as Tamil Veda is (a) Bindusara (b) Ashoka (a) Amalananda Ghosh
an anthology of compositions (c) Kunal (d) Kanishka (b) Rakhaldas Bannerjee
by the Alvars. (c) Daya Ram Sahni
3. Karaikkal Ammaiyar, (d) Sir John Marshall
women Alvar saints, 2015 (I)
supported patriarchal 31. Consider the following statement(s)
norms.
26. Which of the following characteristic(s)
1. Abhinavagupta wrote a
describes the nature of religion comprehensive treatise called
Select the correct answer
according to the Rig Veda? the Tantraloka which
using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
1. Rig Vedic religion can be described systematically presents the
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these
as naturalistic polytheism. teachings of the Kula and Trika
2. There are striking similarities systems.
20. Sangam literature formed a between the Rig Vedic religion and 2. The Samaraichchakaha by
very important source for the the ideas in the Iranian Avesta. Haribhadra Suri written in
reconstruction of the history of 3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in Gujarat around the 8th century
South India. It was written in the house of the priest who was is technically not a tantric work
(a) Tamil (b) Kannada but is saturated with tantric
called yajaman.
(c) Telugu (d) Malayalam ideas and practices.
GENERAL STUDIES History 779

Which of the statement(s) given 34. The Lilavati of Bhaskara is a Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? standard text on above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (a) Mathematics (b) Surgery (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Only 2 (c) Peotics (d) Linguistics (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 35. The Agrahara in early India was
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. Which of the following
(a) the name of a village or land statement(s) is/are true?
32. Which one among the following granted to Brahmins 1. Faxian’s Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan
was not an attribute of (b) the garland of flowers of Agar was the earliest first-hand
Samudragupta described in (c) the grant of land to officers and Chinese account of Buddhist
Prayag Prashasti? soldiers sites and practices in India.
(a) Sharp and polished intellect (d) land of village settled by Vaishya 2. Faxian was only 25 year old at
(b) Accomplished sculptor farmers the time of writing the text.
(c) Fine musical performances 36. Consider the following statement(s) 3. Faxian’s main aim in coming to
(d) Poetical talent of a genius about votive inscriptions in the India was to obtain and take
33. Kamandaka’s Nitisara is a 2nd century BC back texts containing monastic
contribution to 1. They record gifts made to rules.
(a) Logic and Philosophy religious institutions. Select the correct answer using the
(b) Mathematics 2. They tell us about the idea of codes given below.
(c) Political morality transference of the meritorious (a) Only 3 (b) Only 2
(d) Grammar results of the action of one (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
person to another person.

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 b 2 d 3 b 4 d 5 b 6 c 7 a 8 a 9 c 10 b
11 b 12 b 13 d 14 c 15 c 16 d 17 b 18 d 19 a 20 b
21 a 22 a 23 d 24 c 25 d 26 d 27 c 28 d 29 d 30 d
31 b 32 c 33 d 34 c 35 b 36 c 37 a 38 c 39 b 40 a
41 a 42 d 43 d 44 b 45 b 46 d 47 c 48 d 49 a 50 b
51 d 52 a 53 c 54 c 55 a 56 a 57 a 58 a 59 b 60 c
61 b 62 b 63 a 64 c 65 c 66 b 67 d 68 d 69 c 70 a
71 c 72 b 73 a 74 a 75 c 76 b 77 d 78 c 79 a 80 d
81 d 82 c 83 c 84 c 85 b 86 d 87 c 88 d 89 a 90 d
91 c 92 b 93 c 94 c 95 a 96 c 97 c 98 a 99 c 100 b
101 d 102 a 103 d 104 b 105 d 106 d 107 a 108 c 109 a 110 d
111 b 112 c 113 c 114 c 115 c

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 d 2 d 3 c 4 d 5 d 6 c 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 b
11 c 12 c 13 a 14 b 15 b 16 b 17 a 18 d 19 b 20 a
21 c 22 d 23 a 24 d 25 d 26 c 27 d 28 c 29 c 30 a
31 c 32 b 33 c 34 a 35 a 36 a 37 c
780 CDS Pathfinder

PART II MEDIEVAL INDIA

MUSLIM INVASION • Fall of Delhi and Ajmer laid the foundation of Muslim Rule
in India. Ghori also defeated Jaichand (Ruler of Kannauj) at
Arab Conquest of Sind Battle of Chandawar in 1194. Bakhtiyar Khilji, his general,
annexed East India and destroyed Nalanda and Vikramshila
• As Harshvardhana and Pulakesin II were struggling University. Ghori died in 1206, leaving Qutub-ud-din
for supremacy in India, a revolutionary change was Aibak as incharge.
taking place, i.e. the emergence of Islam in Arabia.
• Sufi Saint Khawaja Moin-ud-din Chisti came with him from
• The Arabs, for long the carriers of Indian trade with Afghanistan. Tomb of Moin-ud-din Chisti is in Ajmer also
Europe, were attracted by rich sea-ports of Sind. known as Ajmer Sharif. He founded Chisti Silsila.
However, two expeditions sent by Al-Hajjaj the
Governor of Iraq failed.
• The third expedition under his nephew and THE DELHI SULTANATE
son-in-law Mohammed-bin-Qasim, managed to
acquire control over Sind in AD 712. Multan was • Qutub-ud-din Aibak was Turkish slave by origin. He was
conquered in AD 713. purchased by Mohammad Ghori who later made him his
Governor. After the death of Ghori, Aibak became the
Mahmud of Ghazni master of Hindustan and founded the slave dynasty in 1206.
The Delhi Sultanate (AD 1206-1526) had five ruling
• Mahmud came to the throne of Ghazni in AD 997. dynasties
He moved towards India in AD 1001 by attacking
i. The Ilbari (Slave) ii. The Khilji
and killing Jaipala, the King of Punjab in the First
Battle of Waihind. The first attack was made against iii. The Tughlaq iv. The Sayyid
frontier post and many forts and districts were v. Lodhis
captured. • Of these five dynasties the first three were of Turkish
• The sixth expedition (the Second Battle of Waihind) origin and the Lodhis were Afghans.
was against Anandapala (Hindu shahi ruler of
Punjab) in AD 1008. The expedition in AD 1009 was The Slave or Ilbari Dynasty
against Nagarkot in the Kangra hills. The first dynasty of the Sultanate has been designated by
• Ghazni led 17 expeditions between AD 1001 and various scholars as the Slave dynasty or the Mamluq dynasty
AD 1027. He plundered Thaneshwar, Mathura, or the Ilbari dynasty.
Kannauj and Somnath. The temple of Somnath
dedicated to Shiva was plundered in 1025 situated on Qutub-ud-din Aibak
the sea coast of Kathiawar (Gujarat). • He was the founder of the Sultanate of Delhi.
• Utbi regarded as a great literary figure at that time, Qutub-ud-din Aibak was the first Muslim King of India.
he was Mahmud’s court historian. His He began his reign with the modest little Malik and
Kitab-ul-Yamini or Tarikh-I-Yamini is a book on Sipahsalar, which had been conferred upon him by
Mahmud’s life and times. Mohammed Ghori. Lahore and later Delhi were his capitals.
• Firdausi (Persian poet) known as the immortal • He was famous for his generosity and earned the sobriquet
Homer of the East wrote the Shahanama, Al Beruni of lakh-baksh (giver of lakhs).
a brilliant scholar from Central Asia wrote • He laid the foundation of Qutub Minar in Delhi after the
Tahqiq-i-hind. Farukhi was also court poet of name of the famous Sufi Saint Khwaja Qutub-ud-din
Ghazni. Bakhtiyar Khilji. Aibak constructed the first mosque in
India Quwat-ul-Islam (Delhi) and Adhai Din Ka Jhopara
Mohammed Ghori (At Ajmer).
• Muizzuddin Mohammed-bin-Sam (known as • Hasan Nizami and Fakhr-ud-din (whom Aibak patronised)
Mohammed Ghori), the last Turkish conqueror of were all praised for the qualities of head and heart of Aibak
North India, had no son. and sense of justice in their works Taj-ul Massir and
• The King of Delhi Prithviraj Chauhan completely Tarikhi Mubarik Shahi respectively.
routed the Ghori’s forces in AD 1191 at Tarain (First • His task was only half done, when he died of a sudden fall
Battle of Tarain). But Prithviraj was defeated in the from a horse at Lahore in 1210 while playing Chaugan
Second Battle of Tarain (AD 1192), Delhi and Ajmer (Polo).
were captured by Mohammed Ghori.
GENERAL STUDIES History 781

Shams-ud-din Iltutmish • He impressed upon the people that kingship was the vice
regency of God on Earth (Niyabat-i-Khudai) and its
• He was the real founder of the Delhi Sultanate. He
dignity was next only to prophethood. The King was the
made Delhi as the capital of the empire. He suppressed
shadow of God (Zil-i-Ilahi). Balban abandoned the chalisa.
the revolts of ambitious nobles, fought with the sons
of Aibak and sent expeditions against the Rajputs in • Balban introduced Sijdah or Paibos and started Nauroz
Ranthambore, Jalor, Mewar. festival. Balban took strong measures to safeguard the
North-West frontier against the Mongol invasions.
• His governing class was entirely of foreign origin. It
consisted of two groups, Turkish slave officers and • His son Mohammed’s death was a mashing blow to Balban
Tazik. He introduced the silver coin (tanka) and the and the death-knell to his dynasty. He was deeply racist
copper coin (jital). He organised the Iqta system and and excluded non-Turks from the administration. The last
introduced reforms in civil administration and army, ruler of dynasty was Kaiqubad, he was killed by
which was now paid and recruited. Jalal-ud-din Khilji, who established Khilji dynasty.
• He set-up official nobility of slaves known as
Turkan-i-Chalgani or Chalisa (a group of forty The Khiljis
powerful turkish nobles). • The coming of the Khiljis to power was more than a
• On 18th February, 1229 the Khalifa sent emissaries dynastic change. Their ascendancy is known as Khilji
from Baghdad with a decree registering the Revolution, because it marked the end of monopolisation
independent status of the Delhi Sultanate. Iltutmish of power by the Turkish nobility and racial dictatorship.
was called the father of Tomb building (built Sultan • The accession of Jalal-ud-din, Firoz Khilji marked the end
Garhi). He completed Qutub Minar. of an epoch and signified a ‘revolution’ in the political and
• He saved Delhi Sultanate from the wrath of Chengiz cultural history of medieval India.
Khan, the Mongol leader, by refusing shelter to
Khwarizm Shah, whom Chengiz Khan was chasing. Jalal-ud-din Firoz Khilji
• He was an old man of 70, when he came to the throne
Razia Sultan and was unable to deal firmly with the problem of those
• She was the first and the last Muslim woman ruler of troubled times.
medieval India. The first rebellion against her was • In order to win goodwill of Mongols, the Sultan married
raised by Kabir Khan, the Governor of Lahore. one of his daughter to the Mongol leader Ulugh Khan, a
• Altunia the Governor of Bhatinda was also a descendant of Chengiz Khan.
revolutionary. So, she moved straight towards Bhatinda, • One of the most important events of Jalal-ud-din’s reign
but was defeated and taken as prisoner by Altunia, who was the invasion of Devagiri the capital of the Yadava
married her. kingdom in the Deccan by Ala-ud-din (his nephew) and
• Razia with her husband was moving towards Delhi. son-in-law of the Sultan and Governor of Kara.
She was defeated by Bahram Shah, a son of Iltutmish.
Deserted by her soldiers, she was murdered by Ala-ud-din Khilji
robbers. • His first major conquest was the rich kingdom of Gujarat,
• Razia succession continued, in which three rulers ruled which was then ruled by the Vaghela King Karna.
in continuity • In 1299, Ala-ud-din’s army under the joint command of
i. Bahram Shah (AD 1240-1242) Ulugh Khan and Nusrat Khan invaded Anhilwad, the
ii. Ala-ud-din Masud Shah (AD 1242-1246) capital of Gujarat.
• During plunder of the rich port of Cambay, Ala-ud-din’s
iii. Nasir-ud-din Mahmud (AD 1246-1266)
Commander Nusrat Khan acquired a Hindu turned
• Nasir-ud-din was the grandson of Iltutmish. Muslim slave Kafur (also known as Hazar Dinari), who
later on rose to become a great Military General and the
Balban Malik Naib of Ala-ud-din.
• Balban ascended the throne in 1266-67 with host of
• After the conquest of Gujarat, Ala-ud-din moved to
problems. The first and foremost among these was the
Rajputana, where he conquered Ranthambore in 1300-1301
future relationship of the nobility with the king.
from Hamir Deva a descendant of Prithviraj III. In 1303
• He ordered the separation of the military department AD, he attacked Chittor the capital of Mewar, which was
from the Finance Department (Diwan-i-Wizarat) and being ruled by Gahlot King Ratan Singh, whose queen
the former was placed under a Minister for Military Padmini committed Jauhar when her husband was
Affairs (Diwan-i-Ariz). defeated.
782 CDS Pathfinder

• Ala-ud-din Khilji is known for his market reform policy. The value of token coin was equal to a silver coin.
He established four separate market in Delhi. Market was But, this experiment failed on account of the
put under control of officer called Shahna-i-Mandi. Price of circulation of counterfeit coins on a very large scale
commodities were fixed, merchants were registered with and rejected by foreign merchants. So, he withdrew
market. Separate department Diwani Riyasat was created the token currency. He offered to exchange all the
and Naib-i-Riyasat was officer responsible for new token coins for silver coins.
department. Secret agent ‘Munhiyas’ were appointed to – The Sultan planned an expedition for the conquest
inform Sultan about condition of market. of Khurasan and Iraq, but the scheme was
• Ala-ud-din Khilji started measurement of land and land abandoned, when the Sultan learnt that conditions
revenue were collected in cash also. He also introduced in Iraq had improved.
dagh system (branding of horse), huliya (list of soldier) and – The plan for the conquest of Quarachil (Kumaun
cash payment to soldier. Hills) met with a disastrous end. Quarachil has
• Hauz Khas, Mahal Hazar Satoon and Jamait Khana Mosque been identified with Rajput state in the
were built by Ala-ud-din. He adopted the title Kumaun-Garhwal region.
Sikandar-i-Sani. • He increased the revenue and set-up new department
• Added the entrance door to Qutab Minar, built Alai for agriculture Diwan-i-Amir Koh. Ibn Battuta (the
Darwaza and built his capital at Siri fort. Last Ruler was famous traveller) came to Delhi in 1334. He acted as
Qutub-ud-din Mubarak Khilji. Qazi of the capital for 8 years.
• He patronised the famous Persian poet Amir Khusrau, who • Ibn Battuta has recorded the contemporary Indian
was known as Tuti-i-Hind (Parrot of India). Khusrau also scene in his Safarnamah called Rehla. Battuta was a
invented sitar by modifying veena. moroccan explorer. His travel account tell us about
his journey through the Delhi Sultanate period.
The Tughlaqs • During his period, Vijayanagara empire was
established in AD 1336 by Harihara and Bukka, and
The Tughlaqs were a Muslim family of Turkish origin. They
Bahamani Kingdom AD 1346 by Hasan Gangu
provided three competent rulers- Ghiyas-ud-din,
Behman Shah.
Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq and Firoz Shah Tughlaq.

Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq Firoz Shah Tughlaq

• Firoz Shah Tughlaq, who became Sultan in AD 1351
• Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq (real name Ghazi Malik) founded
was a patron of arts and literature. He did not give
the third dynasty of the Sultanate. He also discarded
any harsh punishment and banned the inhuman
Ala-ud-din’s system of measurement of land for the
practices like cutting hands, nose etc.
assessment of land revenue.
He abolished as many as twenty-three taxes and
• He took keen interest in the construction of canals for
substituted them with only the following four taxes
irrigation and formulated a famine policy to provide relief
to peasants in the time of drought. i. Kharaj (a land tax equal to 1/10 of the produce of
the land)
• He built the fortified city of Tughlaqabad and gave a new
touch to the architecture of the Sultanate period. ii. Jaziya (a tax paid by non-Muslims)
• He established his capital at Tughlaqabad. He came in
iii. Zakat (tax on property (2.5%))
conflict with Sufi Saint Nizam-ud-din Auliya. iv. Khams (1/5th of booty captured in war)
• He also made the civil and military post hereditary.
Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq One remarkable feature of his reign was his interest
• Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq (real name Jauna Khan) succeeded in civil works. He founded a number of new cities
Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq under title Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq. and towns, three most famous being Hissar,
He was the most remarkable personality among the Sultans of Fatehabad, Jaunpur and Firozabad, Firoz Shah Kotla
Delhi. (in Delhi).
Few ambitious projects taken up by Mohammed during his • To beautify his new capital Firozabad in Delhi the
period are as follow Ashokan pillars were brought, one from Topara in
– Shifting the capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad) Ambala and the other from Meerut.
in 1327. He wanted to control South India better, from • He was very fond of collecting a large number of
Daulatabad but Daulatabad was found to be unsuitable slaves (about 180000 slaves) and had a separate
because it was not possible to control North India from department for it known as Diwan-i-Bandagan.
there. So, he decided to re-transfer the capital to Delhi. • He set-up a separate department, called the Diwan-i-
– Introduction of the token currency (1329-30).
Khairat, for the help of the poor and the needy. He
(introduction of bronze tankas in place of silver tankas). built Dar-ul-Shafa or a charitable hospital.
GENERAL STUDIES History 783

• Ziauddin Barani (the historian was in his court) • He founded Agra in 1504 and made it as his capital. He
wrote two well- known works of history the reimposed Jaziya. Women were prohibited to go on saint
Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and the Fatwa-i-Jahandari. graves during his reign. He imposed ban on any language
• He introduced two new coins Adha (50% jital) and
other than Persian.
Bikh (25% jital). He wrote his autobiography The Ibrahim Lodhi
Fatuhat-Firozshahi. Timur invaded India during his
reign. He was not ablest ruler. He was defeated and killed by Babur
in the first Battle of Panipat (1526) and sultanate period ended.
TIMUR INVASION
During Nasir-ud-din Mahmud’s (last ruler) reign, Timur
Administration under
the Mongol leader of Central Asia invaded India. Timur Delhi Sultanate
reached Delhi in December 1398 and ordered general
• Administration/Kingdom was divided into iqtas. The head of
massacre.
the civil administration was a Wazir (head of finance
department).
The Sayyids • The Wazir was assisted by a deputy or Naib Wazir, an
• Khizr Khan, the founder of the Sayyid dynasty, Accountant General (Mushrif-i-mumalik) and the Auditor
General (Maustauji-i-mumalik).
had collaborated with Timur and as a reward for
services to the invader and was given the • The chief justice was Qazi-i-mumalik (having both religious
governorship of Lahore and Multan. and secular functions). He was responsible for the
enforcement of the shariat.
• Khizr Khan’s three successors—Mubarak Shah
(1421-33), Mohammed Shah (1434-43) and • The officer-in-charge of the royal correspondence army head
Ala-ud-din Alam Shah (1443-51) assumed the royal was known by the name of Ariz-i-mumalik and he was
responsible for all military works like–recruitment, payment,
title of Sultan and ruled as sovereign rulers, but all
inspection of the troops.
were incapable rulers.
• Barid-i-Mumalik The officer-in-charge of royal post and
• During the 27 years of Sayyid dynasty the sultanate
news agency.
of Delhi remained in trouble due to external
invasions, internal intrigue, chaos and confusion. • The provinces were divided into ‘shiqs’ under the control of
These conditions provided an opportunity to Bahlol ‘Shiqdars’. The next unit was paraganas headed by munsifs.
Lodhi. • Iqta system prevailed under which land of the empire was
• Yahya-bin-Ahmed-bin-Abdullah Sirhindi wrote the
divided into several large and small tracts called Iqta and
were given to soldiers, officers and nobles.
Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi (a history of Sultans of
Important departments were as follow
Delhi from time of Muizz-ud-Din,
– Diwan-i-Insha Department of correspondence
Muhammad-bin-Sam).
– Diwan-i-Ariz Military department
– Diwan-i-Risalat Department of appeals
The Lodhis – Diwan-i-Qaza-i-Mumalik Department of Justice
The Lodhis, who ruled for 75 years were Afghans by
– Diwan-i-Ishtikak Department of pensions
race. The Lodhis were ruling over Sirhind when
Sayyids, were in India.

Bahlol Lodhi Books Author Books Authors

Bahlol Lodhi was the founder of the Lodhi dynasty. Alberuni Tahkik-i-Hind Amir Khusrau Tarikh-i-Alai
He was one of the Afghan Sardars, who established Alberuni Qanun-i-Masudi Zia-ud-din Barani Fatwa-i-Jahandari
themselves in Punjab after the Timur’s invasion. He Alberuni Jawahar-i-Jawahar Zia-ud-din Barani Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi
introduced coins, he called his Sardar Masnad-i-Ali. Minhaj-us-Siraj Tabaqat-i-Nasiri Firoz Shah Fatwa-i-Firoz Shahi
Amir Khusrau Laila-Majnu, Firozabadi Qamus
Sikandar Lodhi Quran-us-Saadin
• He was the noblest and ablest ruler of the 3rd Lodhi Amir Khusrau Khazain-ul-Futuh Hassan Nizami Taj-ul-Maathir
rulers. He set-up an efficient coinage system, Amir Khusrau Tughlaqnama Abu Bakr Chach Namah
military, spy network and also introduced the Amir Khusrau Nuh-Siphir Fakhruddin Tarikh-i-Mubarak
system of auditing of accounts. Shahi
Amir Khusrau Miftah-ul-Futuh Shams-i-Shiraj Afif Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi
• He repaired Qutub Minar. He introduced the
Amir Khusrau Ayina-i-Sikandari Ibn Batutta Kitab-ul-Rehla
measuring scale ‘Gaz-i-Sikandari’ for measuring
cultivated fields. He wrote Persian verses with the Amir Khusrau Hasht Bihisht Isami Futuh-us-Salatin
name of the Gul-rukhi. Amir Khusrau Shirin Khusrau Firdausi Shahnamah
784 CDS Pathfinder

• This expansion was responsible for the alliance of the

Bahmani kingdom with Warangal, which lasted for
Structure Location Builder about 50 years and was a major factor in the inability of
Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque Delhi Qutub-ud-din Aibak the Vijayanagara Empire to overrun the Tungabhadra
Adhai din ka Jhopra Ajmer Qutub-ud-din Aibak doab or to stem the Bahmani offensive in the area.
Qutub Minar Delhi IItutmish (Founded by
Qutub-ud-din Aibak) Deva Raya I
Tomb of Hazarat Nizamuddin Delhi Alauddin Khilji
• He assumed the title of Maharajadhiraja. The reign of
Auliya
Deva Raya I began with a renewed fight for the
Alai Darwaza Delhi Alauddin Khilji
Tungabhadra doab.
Jammat Khana Masjid Delhi Alauddin Khilji
• He was defeated by the Bahmani ruler, Firoz Shah and
Tomb of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq Delhi Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
had to pay a huge indemnity. He also agreed to marry
Tughlaqabad Fort Delhi Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
his daughter to the Sultan Deva Raya I who undertook a
Moth ki Masjid Delhi Wazir Miya Bhoiya (Prime
Minister of Sikandar Lodhi)
number of schemes for the welfare of the people.
• In AD 1410, he got constructed a dam across the
Tungabhadra, with canals leading to the city. This
THE VIJAYANAGARA EMPIRE greatly helped in agriculture. He was also a great patron
of the scholars.
• Vijayanagara kingdom was founded by Harihar I and • Nicolo De Conti, an Italian (Venetian), visited the
Bukka I (Sons of Sangama), who were feudatories of Vijayanagara empire under Deva Raya I. Conti describes
Kakatiyas and later became ministers in the court of the city of Vijayanagara as having a circumference of 96
Kampili. km and employing 90000 potential soldiers and also
• Harihara and Bukka were brought to the centre by mentions the festivals like Deepawali, Navratri etc.
Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq, converted to Islam and were
sent to South again to control rebellion. Few foreign travellers to India during Medieval Period
• Harihar and Bukka founded the Vijayanagara Empire in ●
Marco Polo was an Italian traveller from Venice, who
1336 on the advice of Vidyaranya, who converted them visited India in AD 1295.
back to Hindu. ●
Nicolo De Conti an Italian (Venetian) visited the
• Vijayanagara Empire ruler believed in divinity and said Vijayanagara empire in 1419, is author of India
they ruling by will of God Virupaksha. Idols of Recognita.
Vijayanagara rulers were also started to be kept in ●
Abdur Razzaq was an Uzbek Islamic scholar and
temples. Colonel Colin Mackenzie brought Hampi of ambassador of Shah Rukh, visited India from 1442-1445.
Vijayanagara Empire into light in the AD 19th century. ●
Duarte Barbosa was a missionary from Portugal and
visited India in 1560.
Sangama Dynasty ●
Fernao Nuniz Portuguese traveller visited Vijayanagara
Harihara I during reign of Achayuta Raya.
●
Nikitin Russian merchant visited Bahmani kingdom.
He made Anagundi his capital. He annexed the Hoyasala
State in AD 1364. When, the Muslim ruler of Mandurai
defeated and killed the Hoyasala ruler Vir Ballal III. Deva Raya II
• He was the greatest ruler of the Sangama dynasty. In
Bukka I order to strengthen his army, he inducted more Muslims
• He made Gutti his capital. The war with Bahmanis and asked all his Hindu soldiers and officers to learn the
started in AD 1367, during the reign of Bukka I. The art of archery from them.
Bahmani Sultan defeated Bukka I and after a long war
• With his new army, he crossed the Tungabhadra river
concluded a treaty which restored the old positions.
and tried to recover Mudkal, Bankapur etc which were
• The empire saw expansion under Bukka I. His son
to the South of the Krishna river and had been lost to
Kumara Kampan successfully led an expedition against
the Bahmani Sultans. Three hard battles were fought, but
Madurai and annexed it. This is mentioned in Madura
at the end, the two sides had to agree to the existing
Vijayam written by Ganga Devi (Kampan’s wife).
frontiers.
Harihara II • Deva Raya II was called Immadi Devaraya and also
• Bukka I was succeeded by his son Harihara II, who Proudha Devaraya or the great Devaraya by his subjects.
embarked upon a policy of expansion towards the Some quarter varahas (gold coins of Vijayanagara) of
Eastern sea coast. This new policy of expansion Deva Raya II describe him as Gajabetakara (the elephant
consequently led the Vijayanagara Empire into fresh hunter).
conflicts.
GENERAL STUDIES History 785

• Deva Raya II was a great patron of literature and • Timma, who wrote Parijatapahara-vam.
himself an accomplished scholar in Sanskrit. He is • Madaya, who wrote Raja Shekarcharitam.
credited with the authorship of two Sanskrit works • Dhurjate, who wrote Kalahasti Mahatyam.
Mahanataka Sudhanidhi and a commentary on the
• Surona, who wrote Raghav Pandaviyam and Prabhavati
Brahma Sutras of Badarayana.
Pradyuman.
• The king had leaning for Vira Saivism, yet he showed
• Tenali Ramalingam, who wrote Ponduranga Mahatyam.
tolerance in religious views. He appointed people
belonging to different religions as his minister. He got • Ayyalaraju Ramabhadra, who wrote Sakalamata sara
constructed a mosque in the Vijayanagara and ordered Sangraha.
that a copy of Quran be placed before his throne. • Rama Raja Bhushan was the eighth poet.
After Krishnadeva Raya, there was a period of confusion,
The Saluva Dynasty following which Achayuta Rai ascended the throne and
ruled upto 1542. Sadasiva Raya followed Achyuta Ray and
• Vijayanagara witnessed chaos and disorder after 1465
ruled upto 1570.
due to weak rulers. However, the situation was saved by
the Governor of Chandragiri, Narasimha Suluva, who
seized the throne in about 1485 in what is known in The Aravidu Dynasty
history as the First Usurpation. The Aravidu Dynasty was founded by Thirumala II, the
brother of Rama Raja, who ruled in the name of Sadasiva
• Narasimha was succeeded by Timma and Imadi
Raya. On his failure to repopulate Vijayanagara, he shifted
Narasimha, who were minors at the time of their the capital to Penugonda. During his rule, the Nayaks
coronation. The real power was in the hands of Narsa became independents. Tirumala then divided his empire
Nayak, who was the Reagent. into three practically linguistic sections and placed them
under his sons.
The Tuluva Dynasty
Following the death of Narsa Nayak in 1505, his son Vira BAHAMANI KINGDOM
Narasimha, succeeded as the reagent. He deposed Imadi
Narasimha and laid the foundation of the Tuluva Dynasty • The Bahamani kingdom of Deccan was founded by
by what is known in history as the Second Usurpation. Hasan Gangu, whose original name was Ismail Mukh.
Babur referred Krishna Deva Raya (1509-1529) as the The capital was Gulbarga. Hasan Gangu took the title
greatest ruler of the Tuluva Dynasty. of Ala-ud-din Hasan, Bahaman Shah (AD 1347-58) and
became the first king of Bahamani in AD 1347.
Krishnadeva Raya • He renamed Gulbarga as Ahsanabad. At the time of his
• He maintained friendly relations with Albuquerque, the death his dominion had four provinces Gulbarga,
Portuguese Governor, whose Ambassador Friar Luis Daulatabad, Berar and Bidar.
was a resident in Vijayanagara. • Mahmud Shah I (1358-75) son of Bahaman Shah
• He gave Albuquerque permission to built a Fort of established a council consisting of eight ministers and
Bhatkal. He built the Vijaya Mahal (House of Victory) decentralised his provincial administration. He fought
and expanded the Hazara Rama temple and the Vithal with Vijayanagara.
Swami temple. • Firoz Shah (1397-1422) was the most remarkable figure
• He took the titles of Yavanaraja Sthapanacharya (restorer in Bahamani kingdom. He was determined to make
of the Yavana kingdom, i.e. Bahmani) and Deccan the cultural centre of India. He inducted Hindus
Abhinava-Bhoja. in his administration to large extent. He built an
observatory at Daulatabad. He founded city of
• He was also known as Andhra Pitamaha and Andhra
Firozabad on the bank of river Bhima. Firoz defeated
Bhoja. He was a gifted scholar in both Telugu and
Devaraya I.
Sanskrit of which only two works are extant.
• Firoz Shah was succeeded by his brother Ahmed Shah I
• The Telugu work on polity Amuktamalyada and the
(AD 1422-36). He shifted his capital from Gulbarga to
Sanskrit drama Jambavati Kalyanam is also written by Bidar, Ahmed Shah is known as Wali or saint due to his
him. Krishna Deva Rai was also a great patron of art association with Gesu Daraz.
and literature, and was known as Andhra Bhoj.
• Humayun was succeeded by his son Nizam Shah
Krishnadeva Raya’s Ashtadiggajas (1461-63) and then by Mohammed Shah III (AD
Krishnadeva Raya’s court was adorned by following 1463-82). Mahmud Gawan was the Prime Minister of
Ashtadiggajas (the eight celebrated poets) Mohammed. Bahamani kingdom saw a resurgence under
Mahmud Gawan’s guidance. His military conquests
• Peddana, who wrote Manucharitam and Harikathasaran- included Konkan, Goa and Krishna-Godavari Delta,
samu. Nikitin a Russian merchant, visited Bidar during his reign.
786 CDS Pathfinder

• Adilshahi of Bijapur (1490-1686) founded by Yusuf Adil Qadiri

Shah. Greatest ruler of the kingdom was Ibrahim Adil
• Founder was Sheikh Mohi-ud-din Qadir Zilani in
Shah. He introduced ‘Dakhini’ in place of Persian
India. It was popularised by Shah Nizamat Ullah,
language. Another ruler Mohammed Adil Shah built the
Makhdum Zilani Dara Shikoh (son of Shah Jahan) was
Gol Gumbaz. It was annexed by Aurangazeb.
the disciple of Mullah Shah Badakshi.
• Imad Shahis of Berar (1490-1574) founded by Fateullah
• He (Dara) wrote the Safinat-ul-Auliya, Sakinat-ul-Auliya.
Khan II Mad-ul-Mulk with Daulatabad as capital. Later, it
These are the biographies of the saints. Dara Shikoh also
was conquered and annexed by one of the Nizam Shahi
translated some books as Sir-e-Akbar, Sir-e-Asrar.
rulers of Ahmednagar.
• Qutub Shahis of Golconda (1518-1687) founded by Quli Naqshabandi
Qutub Shah. He built the famous Golconda fort and • Founder father Khwaza Baha-ud-din Naqshabandi in
made it his capital.
India. It was popularised by Khwaza Khwand Mahmud
Mohammed Quli Qutub Shah was the greatest of all. He
(his centre was in Kashmir).
founded the city of Hyderabad. He built the famous
Charminar. Most important port of Qutub Shahi kingdom • Other saints Baqi-Billah, Shahwali ullah, Khwaza Mir
was Masulipatnam. The kingdom was annexed by Dard Naqshaband. Mir Dard wrote the Dard-e-Dil, the
Aurangzeb (1687). Sham-e-Mahfil, the Ilm-ul-Khitab.
• Barid Shahis of Bidar (1528-1619) founded by Ali Barid. • Other famous silsilah were Firdausi, Quadiri, Satari etc.
Annexed by Adil Shahis of Bijapur.
Bhakti Movement
• Bhakti is a devotional worship of God with the
RELIGIOUS MOVEMENTS ultimate objective of attaining Moksha or Salvation.
• Initially, Bhakti Movement started in South India in
The Sufis the form of alvar and nayanar. Gradually Bhakti
• Sufism is a mystical Islamic belief and practice in which Movement spread to North. In North India, Bhakti
Muslim seeks the truth of divine love and knowledge Movement started to fluorish in 13th century.
through direct personal experience of God. Sufis are • Bhakti saint were against the casteism, ritualism,
against the orthodoxy and fanaticism of religion. religious sacrifices. Bhakti saints professed equal
• In India, Sufism appealed not only to Muslims but also to participation of women in religious practices. These
Hindus and these sufi saints became venerated figure for saints used the local dialect to promote their ideas and
all. communicate with masses.
• In Islam visiting pilgrimage site associated with Bhakti Movement is divided into two branches
Muhammad or other venerated figure such as sufi saints i. Nirguna ii. Saguna
etc is called Ziyarat. The abode of sufi was called
Khanqah. Nirguna Saints
• During 13th century, the Sufism was divided into 14
He was born at Talwandi in Lahore. He
silsilas. Sufis had many branches in India. propogated Monotheism, Hindu-Muslim unity and
denounced Idol worship. His disciple Mardana
The Chistis played Rabas. He established Sikh religion. His
Founder was Khwaza Abu-e-Chisti, but in India teachings are found in Guru Granth Sahib.
Moin-ud-din Chisti popularised it. His tomb is situated at He was born in Ahmedabad to Muslim
Ajmer in Rajasthan. parents, bought up by a Hindu. His teachings are
• Main disciple of Moin-ud-din was Khwaza Qutub-ud-din collected in a book called Bani. His disciples were
Bakhtiyar Kaki (after him Qutub Minar was named). Sundaradasa, Rajjab, Bakham and Warid. He founded
• Famous saint Nizam-ud-din Auliya saw the reign of seven Brahma sect or Param Brahma Sampradaya.
Delhi Sultans. He was also known as Mahboob-i-Ilahi He was opposed to caste, creed, idol worship and
(beloved of God) and Sultan-ul-Auliya (king of the saints). propogated Hindu-Muslim unity. His works are
His tomb is situated in Delhi. Sabada Doha, Holi, Rekhtal etc. Verses of Kabir
• Sheikh Nasir-ud-din (Chirag-i-Delhi) was also a disciple of Namdev, Ravidas, Dhanna, Pipa etc were included in
Mahboob-i-Illahi. Amir Khusrau and Al-Biruni were also Adi Granth.
follower of Chisti.
GENERAL STUDIES History 787

Saguna Saints Important Philosopher and

Tulsidas Contemporary to Akbar. Works- Bhakti Saints
Ramcharitamanas, Kavitawali, Gitawali, Parvati
Shankaracharya He was born at Kalodi, Kerala. He taught
Mangal, Janki Mangal, Vinay Patrika etc.
concepts of Maya (illusion), Advaita and importance of
Ramananda Propagated Bhakti in North India. Vedanta. He established four Mathas at Badrinath, Puri,
Organised a group of cadres called Bairagi. Sringeri and Dwarka. He wrote commentaries on
Surdas He was disciple of Vallabhacharya. He was a Upanishads, Bhagwad Gita and Brahmasutras of Badrayana.
blind poet from Agra. He sang the glory of He is also known as Pseudo-Buddhist as many of his
Krishna in his Sursagar. doctrines were similar to that of Buddhist doctrines.
Gorakhnath Founder of Nath Hindu monastic Abhinava Gupta He was a philosopher, mystic and aesthetican
movement in India. His followers are mostly from Kashmir. His most famous work is Tantraloka, a
found in Himalayan states. Followers are called treatise on all philosophical and practical aspects of Kashmir
yogis. Shaivism.
Mirabai Rathor princess of Merta and Ramanuja Acharya He was Tamil Vaishnavite saint. He gave
daughter-in-law of Rana Sanga of Mewar philosophy of Visist-advait. Wrote Vedanta Samgraha,
commentaries on Brahmasutras and Bhagwad Gita.
(husband-Bhoja Raja). She wrote the verse
Padavali. She believed in Krishna. Madhavacharya He was Kannada Vaishnavite saint. He gave
philosophy of Dvaita.
Chaitanya He was known as Gaudiya Mahaprabhu.
Nimbarka Telugu Vaishnavite saint, contemporary of Ramayana.
He was founder of Gaurang or Bengal Concept of Dvaitadvaita was promoted by him.
Vaishnavism. His teacher was Ishwapuri.
Vallabhacharya He was a Telugu Vaishnavite saint. He was
Shankara Deva He established EK Sharan born at Varanasi in 1479 and went to Vrindavan, where he
Sampradaya or Mahapurushiya Sampradaya. He resided permanently. He established the philosophy of
divided universe into two parts Aswatantra and Shuddhadvaita. Vallabhacharya’s teachings are also known as
Swatantra. Pushtimarga. He was the contemporary of Vijayanagara King
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu He was also a great saint. Krishna Deva Raya.
There had been Vaishnavism in Bengal long Raghunandan He belonged to Nabadwip (Nadia) in Bengal. He
before his birth, but Chaitanya accepted that was considered to be the most influential writer in the
Krishna alone is the most perfect God. ‘Kirtan’ Dharamashastras.
system was given by Chaitanya.

Bhakti Saints of Maharashtra The Sikh Gurus

Namdev By profession he was a tailor. Earlier he and Their Contribution
believed in Saguna stream, but later on diverted Guru Nanak First Guru of Sikhs, Founder of Sikhism.
towards Nirguna branch. He was poet saint of (1469-1539)
Maharashtra. Earlier he was influenced by Guru Angad Compiled the biography of Guru Nanak Dev, known as
Vaishnavism. He worshipped Vithoba. He (1504-1552) Janam Sakhi introduced Gurumukhi Script; 63 hymns of
formed a varkari sect of Hinduism. Guru Angad Dev included in Guru Granth Sahib.

Tukaram Tukaram was contemporary of Shivaji. He Guru Amar Das He promoted inter-caste dining at his kitchen. Akbar granted
(1479-1574) villages to finance the scheme, out of which grew Amritsar.
was part of varkari devotionalism tradition, he is
Guru Ram Das Son-in-law of Guru Amar Das.
also known for Abhanga devotional poetry. His (1534-1581)
poetry was devoted to vithoba (avatar of
Guru Arjun Son of Guru Ram Das died after torture in Mughal (Jahangir)
Vishnu). Dev (1563-1606) detention for sheltering rebellious Mughal prince Khusrau.
Ramdas A noted spiritual poet of Maharashtra. He Guru Hargobind Son of Guru Arjun Dev, put on two words–one signifying Miri
is famous for his Advaita vedantist text and (1595-1644) (secular power) and other Piri (spiritual power), Built the Akal
Takht in 1608.
Dashbodh. He was spiritual guru of Shivaji.
Guru Har Rai Son of Guru Hargobind supported Dara’s claim in the wars
Eknath He was famous religious Marathi poet of (1630-1661) of succession between Shah Jahan’s sons.
Varkari Sampradaya. He wrote Bhavarth Guru Harikishan Son of Guru Har Rai, Gurudwara Bangla Sahib in New Delhi,
Ramayan and a variant of Bhagvata Purana. (1656-1664) was constructed in his memory.
Taneshwara He was 13th century Marathi saint, Guru Tegh Bahadur Son of Guru Hargobind, Gurudwara Rakab Ganj Sahib in
poet, philosopher and yogi. He wrote (1621-1675) New Delhi, is where Guru’s body was cremated. He was
executed on Mughal orders.
Dnyaneshwari (commentary on Gita) and
Guru Govind Singh Son of Guru Tegh Bahadur, tenth and the last sikh guru.
Amrutobhava. His works are considered gem of (1666-1700) Guru Granth Sahib was finally completed.
Marathi language.
788 CDS Pathfinder

• Akbar then consolidated his empire through a series of

THE MUGHAL EMPIRE conquests, the most difficult and most memorable being
the campaign against Rana Pratap of Chittor, whom he
Babur defeated in the famous Battle of Haldighati in 1576.
• The Mughal empire was founded by Zahir-ud-din
• Akbar introduced Mansabdari system system, it means
rank or position. So rank of government official was
Muhammad Babur. He was a turk. In 1523, the
determined.
invitation came from Daulat Khan Lodhi, the Governor
of Punjab and Alam Khan, uncle of Sultan Ibrahim • He abolished the pilgrim tax. In 1564, he abolished
Lodhi of Delhi to invade India. Jaziya. Land revenue system during Akbar’s Rule was
known as Zabti. Todar Mal was the incharge of Revenue
• He defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in the first Battle of Panipat
System.
in 1526. Babur possessed a large part of artillery, a new
• Akbar formulated an order known as Din-i-Ilahi (Divine
kind of weapon coming into use in Europe and Turkey.
Monotheism) in 1582. Birbal, Abul Fazal and Faizi
Babur introduced gunpowder and artillery in war in
joined the order. Akbar issued the ‘Decree of
India.
Infallibility’ in 1579. Abul Fazal wrote the Ain-i-Akbari.
• Defeated the Rana Sangram Singh of Mewar in the
• Navratna of his court were Birbal, Todar Mal, Abul
decisive Battle of Khanwa which took place on 16th Fazal, Tansen, Abdur Rahim Khan-i-Khana, Mullado
March, 1527 at Khanwa. Defeated Rajput Chief Medini Pyaja, Hakim Hukkam, Faizi, Maan Singh.
Rai in the Battle of Chanderi in 1528. Defeated the
• Chand Bibi revolted during the reign of Akbar. Akbar
Afghan Chief under Mahmud Lodhi in the Battle of
built Buland Darwaza in 1601 AD in Fatehpur Sikri to
Ghaghra in Bihar in 1529. Tomb of Babur is situated in
communicate his victory over Gujarat. He also built
Kabul.
Ibadat Khana.
Father Monserrate wrote a commentary on his journey
Humayun •
to the court of Akbar. He wrote about personality of
• Babur’s eldest son Humayun divided the empire Akbar, lavishness, customs, rituals of the palace. He also
inherited from his father among his three brothers wrote about revenue and justice systems.
Kamran, Hindal and Askari.
• Humayun built the Dinpanah at Delhi as his second
capital. He was attacked by Sher Shah at Chausa (Battle Year Territory Specific
of Chausa) in 1539 and was defeated badly. In Battle of 1561 Malwa The ruler of Malwa was Baz Bahadur.
Kannauj (1540) he was defeated again by Sher Shah Suri. 1564 Garhkatanga Rani Durgawati and her minor son, Bir
• After wandering for 15 years and after the death of Sher (a kingdom in Narayan, died fighting Mughals. The Mughal
Gondwana) army was led by Asaf Khan.
Shah, Humayun regained his lost kingdom in 1555,
1567 Chittor The storming of the fortress of Chittor was
defeating Sikander Shah with the help of Bairam Khan. one of the most famous military feats of
• Humayun died in 1556, after an accidental fall from the Akbar. Rana Udai Singh was its ruler.
stairs of his library building (Sher Mandal, Delhi). 1572-73 Gujarat Akbar built the famous Buland Darwaza at
Fatehpur Sikri in commemoration of this
• Humayunnama is the account of Humayun’s life written victory.
by Gulbadan Begum (his half-sister). 1574-76 Bihar and Akbar personally marched against Bihar and
Bengal drove out Daud from Patna and Hajipur.
Akbar 1576 Battle of Rana Pratap, the son of Udai Singh of Mewar,
Haldighati was severely defeated by the Mughal army
• Akbar (AD 1556-1605) was undoubtedly the brightest under Maan Singh and Asaf Khan.
star of the Mughal empire. Jalal-ud-din Mohammed 1581 Kabul Mirza Hakim was defeated.
Akbar was born in 1542 at Amarkot when his father
1586 Kashmir and
Humayun and mother Hamida Banu were struggling. Baluchistan
• At the time of his father’s death Akbar was merely
1591 Sindh
13 years old and was in the guardianship of Bairam
1592 Orissa The Mughal army was led by Maan Singh.
Khan, who on hearing of Humayun’s death coronated
Akbar at Kalanaur. 1595 Qandhar The Mughal army in this battle was
commanded by Abdur Rahim Khan-i-Khanan.
• In November 1556, the Mughal army under Bairam
Khan moved towards Delhi and defeated Hemu in the 1601 Asirgarh The capture of Asirgarh marked the climax of
Akbar’s career of conquest.
Second Battle of Panipat.
GENERAL STUDIES History 789

• Many foreign travellers visited India during the reign

Jahangir of Shah Jahan. Two Frenchman Bernier and Travenier
• Akbar’s eldest son Salim assumed the title ‘Nur-ud-din and an Italian adventurer Manucci, the author of the
Mohammed Jahangir’ and ascended the throne. He mostly Storio Dor Magor are specially noteworthy.
lived in Lahore, which he adorned with gardens and
buildings. A few months after his accession, his eldest son
Khusrau revolted against him.
Aurangzeb
• Aurangzeb ascended the throne with the title of
• Jahangir’s first political success was against the Mewar Alamgir (conqueror of the world) and ruled for almost
Rana Amar Singh (1615). In 1620, Prince Khurram 50 years.
conquered Kangra. Jahangir followed the policy of his • During his reign the Mughal empire reached territorial
father with regard to the Deccan. climax. He first defeated the Imperial army at
• In 1617, Ahmednagar fell and Khurram was rewarded Dharmatt and then defeated a force led by Dara in the
with the title ‘Shah-Jahan’. Jahangir married Mehr-u-nisa, Battle of Samugarh.
whom he gave the title ‘Nur-Jahan’. • He ordered the arrest and later executed the ninth Sikh
• Nur-Jahan was a politically shrewd and ambitious woman Guru, Guru Teg Bahadur. He discontinued the
who dominated the royal household especially when practice of inscribing the Kalima on the coins and
Jahangir fell ill. She had great influence on Jahangir’s life abolished the celebration of the new year’s day
as she had the status of Pad Shah Begum, coins were (Nauroz). He was constantly involved in trying to
struck in her name and on all farmans her name was curtail the rising maratha power, however he failed to
attached to the imperial signature. subdue them.
• Nur Jahan’s influence secured high positions for her father • Aurangzeb’s reign was marked by growing agrarian
I’timad-ud-Daulah and for her brother Asaf Khan. She crisis and popular rebellions, such as those of the Jats,
married Asaf’s daughter Mumtaz Mahal to Khurram. the Satnamis, the Sikhs and the Rajputs (when Jodhpur
was annexed).
• Problem arose, when Nur Jahan married her daughter Sher
Afghani to Jahangir’s youngest son, Shaharyar. Now, Nur • His religious policies were great setback to the
Jahan supported him for the heir-apparent. standards of tolerance and liberalism set by his
predecessors. Mulhitasib (regulator of moral conduct)
• The Mughal court was divided into Pro-Nur Jahan and
was appointed in the reign. Aurangzeb was called a
Anti-Nur Jahan. These events hampered the military
Darvesh or Zinda Pir. He also forbade Sati. He
operation for the recovery of Kandahar.
patronised the greatest digest of Muslim law in Indian
• Captain Hawkins (1608-11) and Sir Thomas Roe (1615-19) Fatawa-i-Alamgiri. He was a diplomat and capable
visited his court to gain favourable concessions for English general.
trade with India. As a result of the efforts of Thomas Roe,
• He imposed Jaziya on the Hindus in 1679. He banned
English factories were established at Surat, Agra,
music and dancing. He died in 1707 in the Deccan.
Ahmedabad and Broach.

Shah Jahan Later Mughals

Bahadur Shah He was generous, learned and pious
• Shah Jahan, the third son of Jahangir, ascended the throne without any bigotry. He assumed the title of Shah
in AD 1628 and married Mumtaz in 1612. Alam and was known as Shah-i-Behkhabar.
• He was an able general and administrator. In the first year Jahandar Shah Jahandar Shah’s three brothers namely
of his reign Shah Jahan had to overcome the revolts of the Azim-us-Shan, Rafi-us-Shan and Jahan Shah lost
Bundela chief, Juzhar Singh and the Afghan noble named their lives in the Battle of successions. He became
Khan Jahan Lodhi an ex-viceroy of the Deccan. king with the help of Zulfikar Khan. He abolished
• Shah Jahan’s reign of 30 years is regarded as the Golden Jaziya.
age of Mughal in art and architecture during which Farrukhsiyar He had succeeded the throne with the help
monument like the famous Taj Mahal at Agra in the of Sayyid brothers Abdullah Khan and Hussain Ali.
memory of his wife Mumtaz, the Red fort at Delhi with In 1717, Farrukhsiyar gave tax free trade permission
its Diwan-i-Khas and Diwan-i-Aam, the Jama Masjid and to British East India Company to trade through
the famous Jewel-studded peacock throne were built Bengal. This Royal farman became Magna Carta for
among other numerous pieces of architecture. British East India Company. In 1719, Sayyid Brothers
• At the time of Shah Jahan’s sickness in 1657 his eldest son killed him with the help of Maratha Peshwa Balaji
was in Agra, Shuja was Governor in Bengal, Aurangzeb Vishwanath.
was viceroy in the Deccan and the youngest Murad was Mohammed Shah Nadir Shah invaded India in 1738-39.
Governor in Gujarat. Nadir Shah defeated him in the Battle of Karnal
• Aurangzeb took control of the fort and crowned himself
(1739) and took away peacock throne and Kohinoor
diamond. He was the most pleasure loving ruler of
at Delhi, after defeating his brothers. Shah Jahan was kept loose morals and therefore, called Mohammed Shah
in strict confinement at Agra fort till his death in 1666. Rangeela.
790 CDS Pathfinder

Ahmed Shah Mohammed Shah was • Sipah Salar Commander of the • A civilian was to be head of entire
succeeded by his only son force. province and was given a small
Ahmed Shah, born through a • Kotwal was primarily the chief of army. In the field of central
dancing girl whom the emperor the city police. administration Sher Shah followed
had married. During this period, • The Mansabdari system introduced the Sultanate pattern.
Safdarjung the nawab of Awadh
by Akbar was a unique feature of There were four main central
was the Wazir of the empire.
the administrative system of the departments, which were as follow
During Ahmed Shah’s reign
Ahmed Shah Abdali invaded Mughal empire. i. Diwan-i-Wijarat This department
India twice in 1749 and 1752, • In Akbar’s reign the empire was was concerned with financial
when he marched upto Delhi. divided into 15 Subas. matter.
Alamgir II After the de-thronement • The territory of the empire was ii. Diwan-i-Ariz Headed by
of Ahmed Shah, Aziz-ud-din a divided into Khalisa, Jagirs and Ariz-i-mumalik. It was a military
grandson of Jahandar Shah was Inam. department.
placed on the throne with the • Zabti system was based on the iii. Diwan-i-Insha Working as a
title Alamgir II. secretariat.
measurement and assessment of
Shah Alam II Shah Alam II joined land. iv. Diwan-i-Rasalat Headed by
hands with Mir Qasim of Bengal Sadar, this department dealt with
• During Mughals Tins-i-Kamil refers
and Shuja-ud-Daula of Awadh in foreign affair matter.
the Battle of Buxar against the to cash crop and earning from cash
crop. Diwan-i-Kaza headed by Qazi.
British in 1764. They were
The Qazi looked after the judicial
defeated.
Akbar II He gave the title of Raja to
Revenue System administration.
Ram Mohan Roy. He started the • Land was measured using the There were two important officials at
Hindu-Muslim unity festival Sikandari-gaz one-third of the the Sarkar level, which were as follow
Phool-Walon-Ki-Sair. average produce was fixed as tax. i. Shiqdari-i-Shiqadaran to maintain
Bahadur Shah II During the revolt • The peasant was given a Patta and law and order.
of 1857, he was proclaimed the a Qabuliyat, which fixed the ii. Munshif-i-Munshifan to supervise
emperor by the rebels. He was peasants rights and taxes. the revenue collection.
confined by the British to the Zamindars were removed and taxes • Sher Shah is known for the
Red Fort. were directly collected.
construction of the Grand Trunk
Road, that stretched from the river
Mughal THE AFGHAN Indus in the West to Sonargaon in
Administration INTERLUDE Bengal in East.
• Sarais (rest house) were built on
• Babur and Humayun had a Prime
roads. Markets developed around
Minister known as Vakil. After
Bairam Khan’s fall all important
Sher Shah Suri these and some of them were even
departments of finance were taken • He founded second Afghan dynasty used for new service as Dak-Chowki.
away from the Vakil. (1st Lodhi dynasty). Sher Shah’s • He introduced coins of unalloyed
• Wazir or Diwan was the head of original name was Farid. In AD gold, silver and copper of fixed
the revenue department. 1522, Farid took service under standards. The silver ‘Rupaya’ and
Babur Khan Lohani (Governor of the copper ‘Dam’ were also
• Mir Bakshi Military department.
Bihar) ruler in Bihar. available.
• Mir Saman Held independent
• Sher Shah was an Afghan, who
charge of the household department • He built a tomb at Sasaram (Bihar)
and the Karkhanas. ruled Agra and Delhi. Sher Shah for himself which is a masterpiece of
• Chief Qazi Judicial department. was particularly perturbed by architecture.
activities of Raja Maldev of Marwar.
• Sadr-us-Sadr Charitable and • He built a new city on the bank of
Sher Shah got better of him in the
religious endowments. Yamuna river (present day Purana
Battle of Sammel in 1544. Sher Shah
• Mustaufi Auditor-General. Qila).
divided his empire into 47 Sarkars.
• Amil Judicial officer in civil court. Each sarkar was divided into smaller • Abbas Khan Sarwani was the
• Kanungo Head accountant. units called parganas. Sher Shah died historian in the court of Sher Shah
• Lambardar Head of village. in 1545 in an explosion during his who wrote (The Tarikh-i-Sher
• Patwari Accountant of village. conquest of Kalinjar fort. Shahi).
GENERAL STUDIES History 791

Sambhaji’s son Shahu after his Prants) helped in establishing a

THE MARATHAS release from the Mughals in 1707 strong revenue system.
had to contend with his aunt Tara • The revenue system seemed to have
Shivaji, the son of Shahaji, was the Bai for the Maratha throne. been patterned on the Kathi system
creator of the Maratha nation. He of Malik Ambar, in which land was
united the Maratha chiefs from carefully measured with the help of
Malwa, Konkan and Desh regions to Pradhan Post/Responsibility a measuring rod or kathi.
carve out a small kingdom. Peshwa or the Prime Minister, he looked after • The assessment of revenue was
He took control of the hereditary Chief Minister/ general administration and later made after a careful survey and
Jagir after the death of his guardian Mukhya assumed great importance.
Pradhan
classification of the lands according
Konadev in 1647. to their quality and yield. The
• Shivaji was born in the hill fort of Pratinidhi Rajaram created the new post share of the state was fixed at
of Pratinidhi, thus, taking the
Shivner in 1627. Shivaji began his total number of Ministers to two-fifths of the gross produce.
military career at a young age. He nine. • The cultivator was given the option
captured the fort of Toran in 1656. Amatya or Accountant general, he later of paying either in cash or kind. A
From 1656, he started capturing Majumdar became Revenue and Finance new revenue assessment was
many other forts from the local Minister. completed by Annaji Datto in
officers of Bijapur. Sachiv or Also called Chitnis, he looked AD 1679.
• After sometime, Shivaji raided Surunavis after the royal correspondence.
(Surnis)
Bijapur. Ali Adil Shah of Bijapur
sent his General Afzal Khan to Sumant or Foreign affairs and the master
The Peshwas
Dabir of royal ceremonies. • The period of Peshwa domination
capture Shivaji. But Shivaji was too
clever for him and killed him with Senapati or Military Commander, he looked in Maratha history started during
Sar-i-Naubat after the recruitment, training Shahu’s reign with the appointment
a deadly weapon called Baghnakh and discipline of the army.
or tiger’s claw. of Balaji Vishwanath as the Peshwa
Mantri or Personal safety of the king, he of King Shahu in 1713.
• Shivaji now began to attack the Waqianavis looked after the intelligence,
Mughal territories. Aurangzeb sent posts and household affairs. • Balaji Vishwanath was an able
Shaista Khan, the Viceroy of the Nyayadhish Administration of justice. administrator as well as an excellent
Deccan, with a big army against Pundit Rao Looking after charitable and
diplomat. He was followed by Baji
Shivaji. Shaista Khan captured religious affairs of the state. He Rao I (son of Balaji Vishwanath)
Poona. But Shivaji managed to worked for the moral upliftment who was the Peshwa from 1720 to
of the people. 1740. During this period, the
outwit the Mughals in 1663.
• Aurangzeb sent his own son, Maratha kingdom was transformed
Prince Muazzam and then, on his into an empire.
failure, Mirza Raja Jai Singh of Kingdom Territory • Balaji Baji Rao succeeded Baji Rao
Amber was sent against Shivaji. Scindia Gwalior I and was formally made the head
Raja Jai Singh won a few victories Holkar Indore of the state after the death of King
against Shivaji and besieged him in Pawar Dhar
Shahu in 1749. During Balaji Baji
Purandhar in 1665. Rao reign, the Maratha empire
Gaekwad Baroda
• Shivaji visited the Mughal Court of further expanded and Maratha
Bhonsle Nagpur Army overran the whole of Delhi.
Agra at the persuasion of Jai Singh, Peshwa Puna
but he was put there in detention. • The Marathas came into conflict
However, Shivaji escaped in 1666 with Ahmed Shah Abdali of
and resumed his career of conquests.
Revenue Administration Afghanistan. The result was the
• Shivaji abolished the Jagirdari Third Battle of Panipat in 1761.
• In 1674, Shivaji made Raigarh as
system and replaced it with The Maratha Army was completely
his capital and celebrated his Ryotwari system. Shivaji brought
•
coronation and assumed the title of routed and the Peshwa’s son,
about changes in the position of Vishwas Rao and Sadashiva Rao
‘Chhatrapati’. He died in 1680 at hereditary revenue officials,
the age of 53. Bhau were killed.
variously called Deshmukhs,
• Shivaji’s son Sambhaji ascended the Deshpandes, Patils and Kulkarnis. • The Peshwa ruled from Poona, but
throne in the face of a hostile Shivaji strictly supervised the four semi-independent Maratha
faction which supported his Mirasdars, i.e., those with states emerged. These states were
step-brother Rajaram. His raiding hereditary rights in land. Baroda ruled by Gaikwad, Nagpur
the Mughal territories and giving ruled by Bhonsle, Indore ruled by
• Though, he did not completely do
shelter to Akbar II the rebel son of Holkar and Gwalior ruled by
away with these officials, he Scindhia.
Aurangzeb, prompted the later to considerably reduced their powers
capture and execute Sambhaji in by close supervision and strict • Last Peshwa was Baji Rao II. He
1689. collection of revenue from them. signed Treaty of Bassein 1802,
• Rajaram was crowned the King under it he signed subsidiary alliance
• Appointment of revenue officials
but when he died, his widow Tara with British and thus, Maratha
(Subahdars or Karkuns, in charge kingdom slowly diminished.
Bai ascended the throne. of revenue administration of
792 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Arrange the following dynasties (c) to control South India better 12. Arrange the following dynasties in
in correct chronological order. (d) All of the above correct chronological order.
1. Saluva 2. Sangama 6. Who was the first Sultan of 1. Tughlaq 2. Khilji
3. Tuluva 4. Aravidu Delhi to introduce the practice 3. Pallava 4. Kushana
Codes Codes
of Sijda?
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(a) Firoz Tughlaq
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 (c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) Alauddin Khilji
2. Match the following (c) Balban 13. Which of the following pairs incorrectly
(d) Mohammed Tughlaq matched?
List I List II
(Name of the Books) (Authors) 7. ‘Ijara’ revenue system was (a) The Hindi classic : Malik Mohammed Jaisi
padmavat
A. Prithviraja Raso 1. Somadeva started during the reign of
(b) The title of Saadi : Hasan-i-Dehlvi
B. Shahnama 2. Alberuni (a) Bahadur Shah Zafar
(c) Ibn Battuta’s : Kitab-i-Rehla his
C. Tahquiq-i-Hind 3. Firdausi (b) Farrukhsiyar account of foreign travels
D. Kathasaritsagara 4. Chandbardai (c) Jahandar Shah (d) Language : Turki the rulers of Delhi
5. Bilhana
(d) Mohd Shah patronised by

Codes 8. Mahmud of Ghazni attacked 14. Which of the following pair(s) is/are
A B C D A B C D India mainly incorrectly matched?
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 5 3 (a) to plunder the wealth of India 1. Alberuni : Tahqiq-i-Hind
(c) 5 3 1 2 (d) 2 4 3 5 (b) to establish his empire in India 2. Firdausi : Shahnama
(c) to spread Islam in India 3. Utbi : Tarikh-i-Firozshahi
3. Match the following (d) to take the famous artisans of 4. Barni : Tariq-Yamini
List I List II India to his court Codes
A. Char Minar at 1. Alauddin Khilji 9. Which of the following battles (a) Only 4 (b) 1 and 2
Hyderabad was fought in AD 1192? (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
B. Moti Masjid at Agra 2. Qutub-ud-din (a) First Battle of Tarain
Aibak 15. Consider the following statement(s)
(b) Second Battle of Tarain 1. Muhammad Shah (1719-48) was the
C. Quwwat-ul-Islam 3. Shahjahan
Mosque at Delhi (c) Battle of Talikota first Mughal ruler to patronise urdu.
D. Fort of Siri 4. Adil Shah of (d) Battle of Khanwa 2. Malik Muhammad Jayasi wrote the
Bijapur 10. Arrange the following in correct famous epic ‘Padmavat’ in Hindi.
5. Aurangzeb
chronological order. Which of the statement(s) given above
Codes 1. Tughlaqabad Fort is/are correct?
A B C D A B C D (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. Lodhi Gardens
(a) 1 3 2 5 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Qutub Minar
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 5 4 3 1 16. In Krishna Deva Raya’s court, Ashta
4. Fatehpur Sikri
4. Match the following Diggajas were the
Codes
(a) eight great poets of his court
List I List II (a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) eight great ministers in his court
(Dynasties) (Capitals) (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
(c) eight elephants placed at eight corners
A. Hoysalas 1. Madurai 11. Match the following of his capital
B. Yadavas 2. Warangal (d) eight great scholars of his kingdom
C. Kakatiyas 3. Dwarasamudra List I List II
D. Pandyas 4. Devagiri A. Tarikh-i-Alai 1. Gulbadan
17. The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to
Begum have built the biggest network of
Codes canals in India was
B. Tarikh-i-Mubaraksahi 2. Nizamuddin
A B C D A B C D Auliya (a) lltutmish
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 2 4 1 (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
C. Tarikh-i-Hind 3. Yahya-bin-
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 2 1 Ahmed (c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodhi
5. Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq D. Humayunnama 4. Amir Khusrau
transferred his capital from Delhi 5. Al-Beruni 18. Who was the last ruler of the Tughlaq
to Daulatabad Codes
dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?
(a) to develop cultural and trade (a) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
A B C D A B C D
relations with the Deccan (b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq Shah-II
(a) 4 3 5 1 (b) 5 4 3 2
(b) to protect his country from the (c) Nasir-ud-din-Mahmud
(c) 4 1 5 3 (d) 3 1 2 4
attack of Mongols (d) Nusrat Shah
GENERAL STUDIES History 793

19. Consider the following statements 24. Consider the following historical 32. The first Muslim ruler to formulate
1. He organised an efficient spy personalities the theory of kingship similar to the
system. 1. Abdur Razzak theory of divine right of king was
2. To prevent fraudulent musters, (a) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
2. Edordo Barbosa
he began the practice of (b) Alauddin Khilji
3. Marco Polo
branding horses (Daag) and (c) IItutmish
4. Nicolo di Conti (d) Balban
preparing descriptive rolls of
soldiers (Chehra). What is the correct chronological
order in which they visited India? 33. For his unbounded generosity, who
3. One of the most remarkable of amongst the following Sultans was
(a) 4, 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2
his reforms was that of titled by all writers of the time as
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
market regulation.
‘Lakh Baksh’ or giver of lakhs?
4. He set aside the supremacy of 25. Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq’s (a) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
the Ulema in the discharge of experiment of producing token (b) Balban
state duties. currency failed on account of the (c) Qutubuddin Aibak
These statements are about (a) rejection of token coins for (d) Babar
(a) Sikandar Lodhi purchase by foreign merchants
(b) Firuz Shah Tughlaq (b) melting of token coins
34. What does the word iqta stand for?
(c) Alauddin Khilji (a) Law of primogeniture
(c) large scale minting of spurious
(d) Qutub-ud-din Aibak coins (b) Crown lands donated to army officers
(d) poor quality of token currency (c) State’s share of one-third of the spoils
20. Which of the following pairs is of war
correctly matched? 26. Who amongst the following (d) The grant of revenue from a territory in
(a) Diwan-i-Bandgani : Firoz Tughlaq Sultans of the Slave dynasty lieu of salary
(b) Diwani-i-Mustakhraj : Balban reigned for the longest period? 35. Match the following
(c) Diwan-i-Kohi : Alauddin Khilji (a) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
(d) Diwan-i-Arz : Mohammed (b) Ghiyas-ud-din Balban List I List II
Tughlaq (c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud A. Land tax paid by the Hindus 1. Kham
21. In the Delhi Sultanate an (d) Shams-ud-din lltutmish B. State’s share one/fifth of the 2. Kharaj
spoils of war
administrative unit called 27. Who among the following
C. Land tax paid by the Muslims 3. Ushar
‘Paragana’ was headed by an introduced the famous Persian D. Property tax 4. Zakat
official known as festival of Navroz in India?
(a) Shiqdar (b) Barid (a) Balban (b) Firoz Tughlaq Codes
(c) Ariz (d) Amil (c) IItutmish (d) Alauddin Khilji A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 2 3 4
22. Match the following 28. Which of the following pairs is (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
List I List II correctly matched?
(a) Guru Amar Das : Miri and Piri 36. In which order did the following
A. Muftis 1. Intelligence Agency
(b) Guru Arjun Dev : Adi Granth dynasties rule Delhi?
B. Barid 2. Expounder of Law (c) Guru Ram Das : Dal Khalsa 1. Slave 2. Khilji
C. Kotwal 3. Minister Incharge of (d) Guru Govind Singh : Manji 3. Lodhi 4. Sayyid
Army 5. Tughlaq
D. Arz-i-Mamalik 4. Head of City 29. The founder of the first Afghan Codes
Administration dynasty in India was (a) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(a) Ibrahim Lodhi (b) Bahlul Lodhi (c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (d) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
Codes (c) Sikandar Lodhi (d) Sher Shah Suri
A B C D A B C D 37. Babar laid the foundation of the
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 30. Which of the following pairs is not Mughal empire in AD 1526, by
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3 correctly matched? defeating
23. Match the following (a) Alai Darwaza : Ala-ud-din Khilji (a) Daulat Khan Lodhi
(b) Jamait Khana : Balban (b) Ibrahim Lodhi
List I List II Masjid (c) Rana Sanga
(Authors) (Works) (c) Qutub Minar : Iltutmish (d) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Hissar : Firoz Shah Tughlaq
A. Minhaj-us-Siraj 1. Tarikh-i-Firuzshai 38. What was the occasion for Rana
B. Zia-ud-din Barni 2. Tabaqat-i-Nasiri 31. Who was the first monarch in the Kumbha’s construction of the ‘tower
C. Firzu Shah 3. Haquiqi Hindi Delhi Sultanate to start direct of victory’ at Chittor?
(Tughlaq) relations with the cultivators to (a) His victory against Rao Jodha of
D. Abdul-Wahid 4. Fatuhat-i-Firuzshahi know the actual amount they Marwar
Bilgrami paid as land revenue? (b) His victory against Mahmud Khilji of
(a) Balban Malwa
Codes
(b) Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq (c) His victory against Ahmed Shah of
A B C D A B C D Gujarat
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Sikandar Lodhi (d) His victory against Ibrahim Shah of
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 Bengal
794 CDS Pathfinder

39. Which of the following are true 43. Who was the founder of Chishti 49. Which of the following statements are
about the Manasabdari system? Silsila? true regarding Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq?
1. It meant organisation of civil (a) Khwaza Moin-ud-Din 1. He introduced measures of regulate
and military services of the (b) Shiabuddin Shuarawardi markets.
state on the basis of (c) Sheikh Abdul Kadir Jalani 2. He introduced monetary reforms.
gradation of ranks. (d) Shah Abdul Satari 3. He increased the taxes paid by the
2. The word ‘mansab’ is derived people of the Doab region.
44. Which of the following Bhakti
from the Arabic word 4. He invited leaders of different faiths
Saints in chronological order? for religious discussions.
meaning ‘fixing the place’.
(a) Guru Nanak, Tulsidas, Ramdas,
3. Mansab in the Mughal Select the correct answer using the codes
Tukaram
administration fixed the rank, given below.
(b) Tulsidas, Guru Nanak, Tukaram,
dignity and office of the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Ramdas
public servant. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Guru Nanak, Tulsidas, Tukaram,
Select the correct answer using Ramdas 50. Which of the following were not included
the codes given below. (d) Tulsidas, Guru Nanak, Ramdas, in the market regulation introduced by
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 Tukaram Alauddin Khilji?
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these 45. Match the following 1. The Sultan fixed the prices of
40. Which of the following were the foodgrains far below the usual rates.
List I List II 2. He imported the necessaries by
features of the Mansabdari
A. Second Battle of 1. Decline of relaxing important duties.
system introduced by the Panipat Vijayanagara 3. He followed a non-intervention policy
Mughals? empire as far as the civil supplies were
1. Periodic inspection of B. Second Battle of 2. British rule in India concerned.
artillery. Tarain
4. Advances were given to merchants if
2. Branding horses. C. Battle of Talikota 3. Turkish rule in
India they did not posses enough capital.
3. Hereditary grant of Jagirs. Select the correct answer using the codes
D. Battle of Plassey 4. Mughal rule in
4. Lack of distinction between India given below.
civil and military departments. 5. Slave dynasty in (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using India (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
the codes given below. Codes 51. Match the following
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 A B C D A B C D
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 1 2 4 List I List II
41. Match the following (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 5 3 2 1 A. Iqta 1. Maratha
B. Jagir 2. Delhi Sultanate
List I List II 46. With reference to the Medieval
C. Amaram 3. Mughals
A. Battle of Haldighati 1. Babar Indian rulers, which one of the D. Mokasa 4. Vijayanagara
B. Battle of Bilgarm 2. Akbar following statements is correct?
Codes
C. Second Battle of Panipat 3. Humayun (a) Alauddin Khilji first set-up a
separate ariz department A B C D A B C D
D. Battle of khanwa 4. Jahangir
(b) Balban introduced the branding (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
Codes system of horses of his military (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 2 4 1
A B C D A B C D (c) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq was 52. Which one among the following books
(a) 2 3 2 1 (b) 1 3 2 1 succeeded by this uncle to the was authored by a lady of the Mughal
(c) 3 2 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 Delhi throne
Royal House?
42. Which of the following are true (d) Firoz Tughlaq set-up a separate (a) Akbar Nama (b) Babur Nama
with regard to Akbar? department of slaves (c) Humayun Nama (d) Badshah Nama
1. He abolished Jaziya and the 47. Who laid the foundation of the 53. Amir Khusrau’s ‘Khazain-ul-Futuh’
Pilgrim Tax in AD 1564 and first independent Turkish gives information about the reign of
AD 1563 respectively. kingdom in India? (a) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
2. He erected the ‘Ibadatkhana’ (a) Mohammad-bin-Qasim (b) Alauddin Khilji
for holding religious (b) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (c) Qutub-ud-din Mubarak Shah Khilji
discussions. (c) Ghiyasuddin Balban (d) Jalal-ud-din Khilji
3. His Din-i-Ilahi was a code of (d) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
social conduct. 54. Which of the following pairs are
48. Who among the following first correctly matched?
4. He got the Khutba to be read
divided his empire into Iqtas
in his name in AD 1574. 1. Amir Khusrau : Alauddin Khilji
during the process or civil 2. Zia-ud-din Barni : Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
Select the correct answer using
administration? 3. Ibn Batutah : Firoz Shah
the codes given below. (a) Aibak
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 4. Minhaj-us-Siraj : Iltutmish
(b) lltutmish
(c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these Codes
(c) Razia Sultan
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(d) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
GENERAL STUDIES History 795

55. Match the following 61. Which of the following pairs is Codes
incorrectly matched? A B C D E
List I List II (a) 5 1 4 3 2
(a) Athanasius : Bahmani kingdom
A. Kabir 1. Weaver Nikitin (b) 1 2 3 4 5
B. Ravidas 2. Barber (c) 4 5 3 2 1
(b) Nicolo Conti : Deva Raya I
C. Namdev 3. Tailor (d) 3 2 5 4 1
(c) Abdur Razzaq : Deva Raya II
D. Sena 4. Cobbler (d) None of the above 67. Consider the following statement(s)
Codes about Sufism
62. Consider the following 1. The Sufism were critical of the
A B C D A B C D statements regarding the
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 dogmatic definitions and
Vijayanagara empire. scholastic methods of interpreting
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 1 3 2 1. It was named after the city the Quran and Sunna (traditions
56. Match the following of Vijayanagara. of the prophet) adopted by the
2. Krishna Dava Raya was the theologians.
List II
List I greatest of all the
(Language of the 2. The Sufis sought an
(Saint-Poets) Vijayanagara rulers.
Compositions) interpretation of the Quran on
3. Kings of Vijayanagara ruled
A. Mirabai 1. Malayalam the basis of their personal
on behalf of Shaivite deity
B. Tyagaraja 2. Bengali Virupaksha. experience.
C. Chandidas 3. Hindi 4. Vijayanagara empire Which of the statement(s) given
D. Purandardasa 4. Telugu successfully resisted the above is/are correct?
5. S Kannada march of the Delhi Sultans (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
to the South. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Codes
A B C D A B C D Which of the statement(s) given 68. Match the following
(a) 2 4 1 5 (b) 3 4 2 5 above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 List I List II
(c) 2 5 1 4 (d) 3 5 2 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 A. Nizamuddin Auliya 1. Firdausi
57. For the first, time, the land was B. Sheikh Bahauddin Zakaria 2. Chisti
divided into different categories of 63. The Portuguese traveller, Nuniz C. Sheikh Abdulla 3. Suhrawardi
purposes of revenue on the basis of visited Vijayanagara during the D. Badruddin Samarqandi 4. Shattariya
the quality of land and its capacity reign of which one of the
for production during the reign of following? Codes
(a) Alauddin Khilji (a) Vira Narasimha (b) Deva Raya I A B C D A B C D
(b) Firuz Tughlaq (c) Achyuta Raya (d) Sadasiva Raya (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) Sher Shah Suri (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 2 1 4
64. Which one of the following is the
(d) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
correct chronological order of 69. Akbar’s land revenue system was
58. Consider the following statement(s) the Afghan rulers on the throne known as
1. Shivaji biography by Sabhasad of Delhi? (a) Bandobast system
is known as Bakhar. (a) Sikandar Shah-Ibrahim Lodhi- (b) Zabti system
2. Watandars were the local Bahlul Khan Lodhi (c) Todar Mal’s revenue system
elements in Maratha kingdom. (b) Sikandar Shah-Bahlul Khan Lodhi- (d) All of the above
3. The lowest unit of the country Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Bahlul Khan Lodhi-Sikandar Shah-
70. Match the following
was termed as ‘‘prants’’ in the
Maratha Kingdom. lbrahim Lodhi List I List II
Which of the statement(s) given (d) Bahlul Khan Lodhi-lbrahim Lodhi- (Structures) (Places)
above is/are correct? Sikandar Shah A. Akbar’s Mausoleum 1. Lahore
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 65. Which one of the following B. Gola Mendola 2. Chittorgarh
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these departments was created by C. Jahangir’s Mausoleum 3. Sikandara
59. The ruler of which one of the Alauddin Khilji to improve the D. Vijayastambha 4. Udaipur
following was not invited to join the functioning of the state Codes
revenues? A B C D A B C D
confederacy of fight against (a) Diwan-i-Mustakharaj
Vijayanagara in the Battle of (b) Diwan-i-Kohi
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2
Talikota? (c) Diwan-i-Arz (c) 3 4 3 1 (d) 3 4 1 2
(a) Ahmadnagar (b) Berar (d) Diwan-i-Insha 71. Akbar founded the Din-i-Ilahi
(c) Bijapur (d) Golconda
66. Match the following primarily to
60. Which one of the following (a) put an end to differences between the
sequences indicates the correct List I List II Hindus and the Muslims
chronological order? A. Adil Shahi 1. Berar (b) establish a national religion which
(a) Shankaracharya, Ramanuja, Chaitanya B. Imad Shahi 2. Bidar would be acceptable to the Muslims
(b) Ramanuja, Shankaracharya, Chaitanya C. Qutub Shahi 3. Ahmadnagar and Hindus
(c) Ramanuja, Chaitanya, Shankaracharya D. Nizam Shahi 4. Golconda (c) ensure racial and communal harmony
(d) Shankaracharya, Chaitanya, Ramanuja E. Barid Shahi 5. Bijapur (d) form a religious club
796 CDS Pathfinder

72. Consider the following statement(s) (d) He was responsible for the security (c) Diwan-i-Bandagan or the
1. Mirabai was a contemporary of of foreign travellers on the highways Department of Slaves was created
Guru Nanak. of the empire by Feroz Shah Tughlaq
2. Ramdas was a contemporary of 78. Consider the following statement(s) (d) Diwan-i-Khairat or the Department
Shivaji. 1. Humayun regained his Delhi of Public Charities was created by
throne from Sher Shah in AD Sikander Lodhi
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? 1555. 83. The introduction of token
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. Humayun defeated Hemu at the currency by Mohammad-bin-
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Second Battle of Panipat in AD Tughlaq did not succeed because
1556. (a) the scarcity of silver for minting the
73. Which one among the following
Which of the statement(s) given silver Taka was over
depicts the correct meaning of the
above is/are correct? (b) merchants refused to accept the
term Jins-i-Kamil concerning crops
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 token currency
in Mughal India?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) extensive counterfeiting of token
(a) Paddy crop
currency
(b) Cash crop 79. Silk routes are a good example of (d) foreign trade suffered badly
(d) Coarse crop vibrant pre-modern trade and
(d) Crop grown in the arid cultural links between distant 84. Which of the following was not one
74. Al-Beruni came to India along with parts of the world. Which one of the long-term benefits of the
(a) Mahmud of Ghazni among the following is not true of transfer of capital by
(b) Mohammed-bin-Qasim silk routes? Mohammed-bin-Tughlaq to
(c) Mohammed Ghori (a) Historians have identified several silk Daulatabad?
(d) Timur route over land and sea (a) It led to a better control of the
(b) Silk routes have linked Asia with peninsula by the Sultanate
75. Which one of the following pair is Europe and Northern Africa (b) It helped in bringing North and
correctly matched? (c) Silk routes existed before the South India closer together by
(a) Zia-ud-din Barni : Tarikh-i- Christian era and thrived almost upto improving communications
Mohammedi 15th century (c) It resulted in a new process of
(b) Shams-i-Siraj : Tarikh-i-Firozshahi (d) As a result of silk route trade, cultural interaction between North
Afif precious metals like gold and silver, and South India
(c) Ibn Batuta : Fatwa-i-Jahandari flowed from Asia to Europe (d) It shifted the centre of political
(d) Amir Khusrau : Tabaqat-i-Nasiri
80. Which one among the following gravity from the North to the South
76. Which of the following was/were statements is incorrect of the
steps taken by Sher Shah to 85. Which of the following
Jajmani system? statement(s) is/are correct?
promote trade and commerce? (a) It was a non-market exchange (a) Balban did not go for fresh
1. Making travel safe for traders. system conquests, rather he concentrated
2. Building a new highway (b) It was practised in many villages on consolidation of the infant state
between Delhi and Warangal. and regions during the pre-colonial at Delhi
3. Abolishing internal duties and period
(b) He set about a policy for
levying taxes only at the points (c) It was introduced under pressure
liquidation of the Challisa or 40
of import and sale. from the colonial regime
nobles
4. Building sarais along roadways. (d) It was incorporated into wider
(c) Balban did not differentiated in
Select the correct answer using the networks of exchange through which
matters of administration and
agricultural products and other
codes given below. justice
goods circulated
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these 81. The first Muslim invasion of India
86. Match the following
was led by
77. Which one among the following is
(a) Mahmud of Ghazni List I List II
not a function of Mir Bakshi, the (b) Mohammad Ghori
Head of the Military Department A. Urdu 1. Composed verses
(c) Mohammad-bin-Qasim in Hindavi using
as well as of the nobility under (d) Timur Persian
Mughal rule? B. Amir Khusro 2. Literal meaning of
(a) He made recommendations for 82. Which of the following statements the world is Army or
appointment of Mansabs to the about the creation of departments Camp
emperor by the various Sultans is not C. Sher Shah Suri 3. Built old fort in Delhi
(b) He collected reports of intelligence correct? Codes
and information agencies of the (a) Diwan-i-Mustakhraj or the Department A B C
empire and presented them to the of Revenue to realise the areas was
(a) 2 1 3
emperor at the court created by Alauddin Khilji
(b) 1 2 3
(c) He was responsible for all incomes (b) Diwan-i-Amirkohi or the Department
of Agriculture became more (c) 3 1 2
and expenditures and held control (d) 1 3 2
prominent during the reign of
over Khalisa, Jagir and Inam lands
Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
GENERAL STUDIES History 797

87. Which of the following Codes 96. Which of the following

statement(s) is/are correct? A B C D A B C D administrative officers is not
(a) During the reign of Nasiruddin (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 correctly matched with their duties?
Mahmud Tughlaq, Timur (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 1 4 2 3
(a) Wakil-i-Dar : Controller of the royal
(Timurlang), a central Asian Turk, 91. Which one of the following pairs household
invaded India and sacked Delhi is correctly matched? (b) Hamir-i-Hajib : Master of ceremonies at
(b) The dynasty founded by Khizr (a) Umarah : Group of officers the court Hajib
Khan, Timur’s nominee, is known called nobles (c) Akhurbek : Superintendent of royal
as the Sayyid dynasty because (b) Barids : The news reporters (d) Naib-i-Mulk : Deputy Prime Minster
Khizr Khan was a descendant of and secret spies
the prophet 97. Which of the following is/are not
(c) Majlis-i-Am : Council of friends and
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ or Majlis-i- trusted officers of the correct with regard to the
(d) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’ Khalawant Sultan, which he architecture of the Turks?
consulted on 1. In the sphere of decoration, the
88. Which of the following is/are important affairs of
Turks eschewed representation of
wrong in context of Alauddin state
(d) All of the above human and animal figures in
Khilji? their buildings.
1. Alauddin’s Southern expedition 92. Alam Khan, one of those who 2. The Turks used geometrical and
was led by Malik Kafur. invited Babur to invade India was floral designs, combining them
2. Malik Kafur marched with his (a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodhi and a with panels of inscriptions
army upto Madurai. pretender to the throne of Delhi
containing, verses from the Quran.
3. North Indian army had not (b) a cousin of Ibrahim Lodhi, who was
ill-treated and expelled from the 3. The Turks did not borrow from
managed to cross Vindhyas country Hindu motifs.
other than that of Alauddin (c) the father of Dilawar Khan to 4. The Turks did not add colour to
Khilji Army. whom cruel treatment was meted their buildings, they used only
4. Alauddin established a direct out by Ibrahim Lodhi white marble.
control over the defeated (d) a high official in Punjab province, Select the correct answer using the
States of Deccan. who was very much discontented
codes given below.
Select the correct answer using with Ibrahim Lodhi’s treatment to
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
his tribe
the codes given below. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) Only 3 93. Amir Khusrau gave the first
(c) Only 4 (d) 3 and 4 graphic description of Jauhar of 98. In Delhi Sultanate, the struggle
Rajput women, after victory of between the monarchy and the
89. Consider the following Turkish Chiefs continued till one of
statement(s) about Iltutmish Alauddin Khilji over which
Rajput State? the Turkish Chiefs gradually
1. He was the first sovereign arrogated all power to himself and
(a) Ranthambhor (b) Chittor
ruler of the Sultanate of Delhi. ascended to throne in 1265. Name
(c) Jalor (d) Sevana
2. He was the first Sultan of this Turkish Chief.
Delhi to issue regular currency 94. Consider the following (a) Nizan-ul-Mulk Junaidi
and declare Delhi as the statement(s) (b) Nasiruddin Mahmud
capital of his empire. 1. Amir Khusrau created a new (c) Ulugh Khan
3. He created the Turkish literary style in Persian, which (d) Iltutmish
nobility called the chalisa or came to be known as
the group of forty. Sabaq-i-Hind. 99. Consider the following statement(s)
2. Amir Khusrau was disciple of about Alauddin Khilji.
Which of the statement(s) given
Nizammudin Auliya. 1. The maximum number of Mongol
above is/are correct?
3. He introduced the perso-arabic invasions took place during his
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
ragas etc. reign.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Which of the statement(s) given 2. He was the first sultan to adopt
90. Match the following above is/are correct? the principle of measurement of
(a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 cultivable land for determining
List I List II
(c) All of these (d) None of these land revenue.
A. Mohammad- 1. Land revenue
bin-Tughlaq assessment based 95. The story that Alauddin Khilji Which of the statement(s) given
on actual invaded Chittor to secure above is/are correct?
measurement (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Padmini, the queen of Rana
B. Firoz Tughlaq 2. Restoration of the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
prestige of the
Ratan Singh of Mewar, was
crown vividly described by 100. After the capture of Delhi and Ajmer
C. Balban 3. Creation of (a) Amir Khusrau in Khazainul Futuh by Mohammed Ghori the successor
department of (b) Col J Todd in Annals and of Prithviraj Chauhan founded a
agriculture Antiquities of Rajasthan new kingdom with its capital at
D. Alauddin Khilji 4. Creation of the (c) Malik Mohammed Jayasi in the (a) Mewar (b) Ranthambhore
employment bureau epic Padmavat
(c) Chittor (d) Ajmer
(d) Ibn Battuta in his Rehla
798 CDS Pathfinder

101. Alauddin Khilji’s market control (c) The basis of the demand by the 110. Who among the following has
system died instantaneously government was to get-hasil issued the coin rupee for the first
with his death because (actual recovery) with enough time?
provision for crop failures (a) Muhammed-bin-Tughlaq
(a) it was not based on the principle
of demand and supply (d) He made a large reduction in the (b) Alauddin Khilji
scale of revenue fixed by Alauddin
(b) Alauddin Khilji’s successors had (c) Sher Shah
and brought it down to one-sixth
no will to continue the system (d) Akbar
of the gross produce
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
106. Which of the following was not 111. Which of the following was the
(d) the whole system was kept alive
one of the revenue and agrarian original name of Tansen, the
by the use of brute force
measures of Firoz Shah Tughlaq? famous musician in the court of
102. Consider the following Akbar?
(a) He retained only four kinds of
statements about Balban taxes sanctioned by the Quran
(a) Mahananda Pande
1. He called himself (Kharaj, Zakat, Jaziya, and khums) (b) Lal Kalwant
Naib-i-Khudai or Deputy of (b) He undertook revaluation of land to (c) Baz Bahadur
the God. certain its assessment (d) Ramtanu Pande
2. He created Diwan-i-Arz or (c) Religious endowments which had
112. Which one among the following
department of military affairs. reverted to the state under
was/were reason/reasons for the
3. He propounded the theory of previous rulers were returned to
the earlier holders or their
success of European trading
kingship and restored peace companies in South India during
in the Doab. descendants
(d) He was generous in granting land
the 17th century?
4. He liquidated the Turkish 1. The presence of the Mughals in
to civil and military officers and in
nobility chalisa or the group the South was not as much as
farming out land
of forty. in the North.
Which of the statements given 107. Which of the following
2. The Vijayanagara Kingdom had
above are correct? statement(s) is/are correct about
been overthrown in the late
Sultan Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq? 16th century.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(a) He was the first Sultan to
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these 3. The South had many small and
formulate the ‘Famine code’ to
weak states.
103. Consider the following statements provide relief to famine affected
people Select the correct answer using the
1. Firoz Shah Tughlaq created
Diwan-i-Khairat for helping (b) He was the most learned Muslim codes given below.
poor Muslim parents in the ruler who was well versed in (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
marriage of their daughter. various branches of (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
learning-including astronomy,
2. Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq was mathematics and medicine 113. Which one of the following
known as a ‘Prince of
(c) He granted Sondhar loan to the
statements about the teachings of
Moneyers’. poor for promoting agriculture Kabir is not correct?
3. Firoz Shah Tughlaq wrote in (a) He was not against pilgrimage and
(d) All of the above
verses in Persian under the idol worship
name of Gulrakhi. 108. Which of the following statements (b) He believed in universal love
about Iqta system is correct? (c) He emphasised on one God and the
Which of the statements given
(a) Iqta means revenue assignment of spread of devotionalism
above are correct? a particular area in lieu of cash (d) He did not consider it necessary of
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 salary abandon the normal life of a
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these (b) The principle of hereditary Iqta was householder
104. Which of the following is true completely rejected by Balban
114. The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar
about Firoz Shah Tughlaq? (c) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq differentiated
between the allotment of the
draws attention of scientists due to
(a) He established a department of its
revenues within an Iqta for the
public works (a) antiquity (b) glitter
personal income of the muqta and
(b) He constructed a water clock and that for the payment of salaries to (c) hardness (d) restlessness
sun clock at Delhi the troops placed under his charge
(c) He formed a charity department 115. Which one among the following was
(d) All of the above a possible reason for the success of
(d) All of the above
109. ‘A Forgotten Empire’, written by Nadir Shah’s military compaign in
105. Which of the following agrarian the renowned historian Robert Delhi?
measures was not taken by Sewell is about which one of the (a) Weak Mughal Emperor
Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq? following Empires? (b) Lack of strong defence in the
(a) He discarded measurement in (a) Kushan empire North-West Frontier
favour of sharing (c) Late preparation for the defence of
(b) Mauryan empire
(b) The chiefs and headmen of Delhi
(c) Vijayanagara empire
villages were given back their (d) Use of superior military technology
perquisites (d) Mughal empire
by the invading army
GENERAL STUDIES History 799

116. Shaikh Moinuddin, Bakhtiyar 120. Consider the following 2. He further divided these sarkars
Kaki and Farid-ud-din statement(s) about the famous into smaller administrative units
Ganj-i-Shakar were traveller Ibn Battuta. called Parganas.
(a) prominent military leaders of the 1. He was a Moroccan traveller. 3. His land revenue policy is an
Sultanate period important land mark in the
2. He narrated his experiences
(b) prominent painter from the history of Indian agrarian system.
while travelling the
Sultanate period
subcontinent in the 14th 4. His silver rupia after elimination
(c) prominent Chisti Saints century in Kitab-ul-Hind. of its inscription was current till
(d) prominent poets from the courts 1835 and formed the basis of the
3. He was sent as an envoy of
of the Sultanate period Sultan of Delhi to China. later British Indian currently.
117. Match the following Which of the statement(s) given These statements are about
List I List II above is/are correct? (a) Alauddin Khilji
(Events) (Places/Persons) (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 (b) Sher Shah Suri
A. Tarmashirin 1. Vijayanagara (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these (c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Khan’s invasion of (d) Jahangir
India 121. Which one among the following
B. Visit of Farnao 2. Zainul Abidin was not a reform measure 126. Consider the following statement(s)
Martinz carried out by Mahmud Gawan about Vijayanagara Empire
Evangelho, the of Bahmani Kingdom?
Portuguese factor 1. Vijayanagara was noted for its
C. Visit of the traveller 3. Champaner
(a) The kingdom was divided into markets dealing in spices,
Nuniz eight provinces or Tarafs textiles and precious stones.
D. Network of canals 4. Mohammed (b) Nobles were paid salaries and 2. Krishnadeva Raya’s rule was
in Kashmir valley Tughlaq were asked to maintain characterised by the strain
contingents of horses
Codes within the imperial structure.
(c) A tract of land, Khalisa, was set
A B C D A B C D 3. The amara-nayakas were military
apart for the expenses of he
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 Tarafdar commanders who were given
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d 4 1 3 2 (d) Lands were measured and land territories to govern by the
118. Consider the following taxes were fixed on that basis Royas.
statement(s) relating to Sher 122. The Nayakas in the Which of the statement(s) given
Shah. Vijayanagara period were often above is/are correct?
1. During Sher Shah’s reign, the called as the Amara nayakas (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2
village panchayat and because (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
zamindars were not allowed
(a) their position was hereditary 127. Consider the following observation(s)
to deal with civil and
criminal cases at the local (b) they granted the amaram lands relating to the reign of the Mughal
level. (c) for their maintenance they were Emperor Akbar.
given revenue and tax free
2. Sher shah set-up army 1. Akbar strengthened his control
amaram lands
cantonments in different parts on the nobility and the army by
(d) their exploits were considered introducing the mansabdari
of the empire and a strong
immortal (amara)
garrison was posted in each system.
of them. 123. The meaning of word Bantai 2. Under the mansabdari system
Which of the statement(s) given during medieval period was every officer was assigned a rank
above is/are correct? (a) religion tax (mansab).
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) wealth tax 3. The ranks were divided into
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) system of calculating revenue three : Zat and Chera.
(d) property tax Which of the statement(s) given
119. Which one among the following
pairs is correctly matched? 124. The sufi saint who maintained above is/are correct?
that devotional music was one (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) The Second : Defeat of Jaichand (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Only 3
way of coming close to God was
Battle of of Kannauj by
Tarain Mohammad Ghori (a) Moin-ud-din Chisti 128. Chishti order became the most
(b) The First (b) Baba Farid popular sufi order in India on
: Defeat of Sikander
Battle of Lodhi by Babar (c) Sayyid Muhammad Gesudaraz account of
Panipat (d) Shah Alam Bukhari (a) Its high ethical ideals
(c) The Battle of : Defeat of 125. Consider the following (b) the identification of the Chisti saints
Chausa Humayun by Sher with the common masses
Shah statement(s)
1. He divided his whole empire (c) the liberal outlook of many of its
(d) The Battle of : Defeat of Rana saints
Khanwa Pratap by Akbar into 47 divisions called
sarkars. (d) All of the above
800 CDS Pathfinder

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (II) 5. Which one among the following 9. Ibn Battuta’s work, Rihla,
books was authored by a lady of the completed in 1355, is
1. Which one among the following is
Mughal Royal House? (a) an autobiography
not a function of Mir Bakshi, the
(a) Akbar Nama (b) Babur Nama (b) an account of the Delhi Sultans from
Head of the Military Department
(c) Humayun Nama (d) Badshah Nama Aibak to Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
as well as of the nobility under
(c) a religious text
Mughal rule? 6. Consider the following statement(s)
(a) He made recommendations for (d) an account of trade with Morocco
about the European travellers to
appointment of Mansabs to the
India.
emperor
(b) He collected reports of intelligence 1. Sir Thomas Roe, the 2013 (II)
and information agencies of the Representative of the East India 10. Rajatarangini, authored by
empire and presented them to the Company, was granted the Kalhan, describes the history of
emperor at the court permission by Jahangir to open a (a) Gujarat (b) Bengal
(c) He was responsible for all incomes factory at Surat. (c) Kashmir (d) Punjab
and expenditures and held control
over Khalisa, Jagir and Inam lands
2. Captain Hawkins was driven out 11. Which of the following did not
(d) He was responsible for the security from Agra by the Mughals at the constitute part of the army reforms
of foreign travellers on the instigation of Portuguese. of Sher Shah?
highways of the empire 3. Father Monserrate travelled with (a) Keeping a large army at the centre
2. Consider the following Akbar on his journey to (b) Introduction of a swiftly moving
statement(s) about Shivaji’s Kashmir. artillery
military acumen Which of the statement(s) given (c) Cash payment to soldiers
1. He was a master in guerrilla above is/are correct? (d) Introduction of the practice of
tactics and swift cavalry warfare. (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 branding horses
2. He had built a series of (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 12. The Mansabdari system of the
fortified strongholds on the Mughals was a complex system. Its
table mountains of the
Western Deccan. 2013 (I) efficient functioning depended
upon
Which of the statement(s) given 7. What was Ziyarat in the language
above is/are correct? 1. the practice of offering the title
of the Sufis? of ‘Mansabdar’ to military
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Pilgrimage to the tombs of Sufi personnel only.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
saints for seeking barkat (spiritual 2. proper functioning of the dagh
3. Consider the following grace) (branding) system.
statement(s) about Sufism. (b) Reciting divine name 3. proper functioning was of the
1. The Sufism were critical of the (c) Offering free kitchens run on futuh jagirdari system.
dogmatic definitions and (unasked for charity) Select the correct answer using the
scholastic methods of (d) Setting up of auqaf (charitable trusts) codes given below.
interpreting the Quran and (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
Sunna (traditions of the 8. Between 1309 and 1311, Malik
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
prophet) adopted by the Kafur led two campaigns in South
theologians. India. The significance of the 13. Which one among the following
2. The Sufis sought an expeditions lies in it that thinkers argued that Maratha rule
interpretation of the Quran on in general and Shivaji in particular
1. they reflected a high degree of
the basis of their personal represented early nationalist
boldness and spirit of adventure
experience. consciousness in India?
on the part of the Delhi rulers.
Which of the statement(s) given (a) Pandita Ramabai
2. the invaders returned to Delhi
above is/are correct? (b) MG Ranade
with untold wealth.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Bipin Chandra Pal
3. they provided fresh geographical (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
knowledge.
4. Which one among the following 4. Alauddin promoted Malik Kafur
depicts the correct meaning of the to the rank of Malik-naib or 2014 (I)
term Jins-i-Kamil concerning Vice-Regent of the empire. 14. Consider the following statement(s)
crops in Mughal India? Select the correct answer using the regarding Indian Feudalism in the
(a) Paddy crop
codes given below. early medieval period
(b) Cash crop (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 1. The revenue assignments were
(c) Coarse crop (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these called Bhoga.
(d) Crop grown in the arid
GENERAL STUDIES History 801

2. The hereditary chiefs neither 24. Which empire did Nicolo de Conti,
collected revenues nor assumed
2014 (II) Abdur Razzaq, Afanasy Nikitin and
administrative powers. 19. Statement I The 12th century Fernao Nuniz visit?
Which of the statement(s) given witnessed the emergence of a new (a) The empire of Kannauj
above is/are correct? movement in Karnataka led by a (b) Vijayanagara empire
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Brahmana named Basavanna. (c) Hoysala empire
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement II The Lingayats (d) Rashtrakuta empire
15. Consider the following worshipped Shiva in his
statement(s) from Kalhana’s manifestation as a Linga. 2015 (II)
Rajatarangini. Codes
(a) Both the statements are individually
25. Consider the following statement(s)
1. The common people ate rice
true and Statement II is the correct about Alauddin Khilji’s market
and Utpala-saka (a wild
vegetable of bitter taste). of Statement I policy
2. Harsha introduced into (b) Both the statements are individually 1. He placed markets under the
Kashmir a general dress true, but Statement II is not the control of a high officer called
befitting a king which included correct of Statement I ‘Shahna’ for strictly controlling
a long coat. (c) Statement I is true, but Statement the shopkeepers and prices.
II is false 2. In order to ensure a regular
Which of the statement(s) given (d) Statement I is false, but Statement supply of cheap foodgrains, he
above is/are correct? II is true ordered the land revenue from
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
20. Which of the statements given Doab region to be paid directly to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the state.
below about the Mughal rule in
16. Match the following India is false? Which of the statement(s) given above
List I List II (a) Peasant communities were a united is/are correct?
(Authors) and homogeneous group (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(Texts)
(b) There was an abundance of food (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A. Kitab-al-Hind 1. Ibn Battuta
grain 26. Match the following
B. Rehla 2. Al-Biruni
(c) The state encouraged those crops
C. Humayun Nama 3. Lahori that brought in more revenue List I List II
D. Badshah Nama 4. Gulbadan Begum (d) Most regions produced two crops (Terms) (Meanings)
Codes in a year A. Mihrab 1. Stepped pulpit
A B C D A B C D 21. The ruins of the Vijayanagara at B. Mimbar 2. Direction towards the
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 Kaba for prayer
Hampi were brought to light in
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 1800 by C. Khutba 3. Arch
(a) Colonel Colin Mackenzie D. Kibla 4. Sermon
17. Consider the following
(b) Sir John Shore
statement(s) about Sher Shah’s Codes
(c) Andrew Fraser
administration A B C D A B C D
(d) John Marshall
1. He divided his empire into (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
Sarkars, which were further 22. Marco Polo’s trip to India (AD (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
subdivided into Parganas. 1271) earned much fame in
Europe on account of 27. Match the following
2. The Sarkars and the Parganas
were directly administered by (a) his having discovered a safe route List I List II
Sher Shah without the help of to India (Persons) (Works)
any other officials. (b) his having established amicable A. Uddanda 1. Sudhanidhi
relations with many Kings of India B. Sayana 2. Mallikamaruta
Which of the statement(s) given
(c) his account of commercial, C. Yadavaprakasha 3. Malatimadhava
above is/are correct?
religious and social conditions in D. Bhavabhuti 4. Vaijayanti
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the East
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Codes
(d) All of the above
18. Match the following A B C D

List I List II 2015 (I) (a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 3 4 1 2
(Temples) (Towns) 23. Upari refers to which one of the (c) 2 4 1 3
A. Kailasanatha 1. Bhubaneswar following? (d) 3 1 4 2
B. Lingaraj 2. Khajuraho (a) A form of Marathi poetry that
emerged during the Maratha period 28. The ‘Sur Sagar’ is
C. Kandariya Mahadev 3. Mount Abu
(b) A category of tenancy tenure held (a) a medieval treatise on music
D. Dilwara 4. Kanchipuram
under the Maratha regime composed by Tansen
Codes (c) A court official during Maratha rule (b) a poetic work of Surdas
A B C D A B C D (d) A group of peasants who repelled (c) memories of Bahadur Shah Zafar
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3 against their oppressive landlords (d) None of the above
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4 under Maratha rule
802 CDS Pathfinder

29. After the death of Shivaji, there 32. The Rihla was written in 1. The kings claimed to rule on
was a fight for succession (a) Arabic in the 14th century by Ibn behalf of the God Virupaksha.
between Battuta 2. Rulers used the title ‘Hindu
(a) Shambhaji and the widow of Shivaji (b) Persian in the 15th century by Suratrana’ to indicate their close
(b) Shambhaji and Bajirao Abdur Razzaq links with Gods.
(c) Rajaram and Shambhaji (c) Persian in the 13th century by Ibn 3. All royal orders were signed in
(d) None of the above Battuta Kannada, Sanskrit and Tamil.
(d) Italian in the 13th century by 4. Royal portrait sculpture was now
30. Match the following Marco Polo displayed in temples.
List I List II Select the correct answer using the
(Authors) (Works)
2016 (I) codes given below.
A. Somadeva 1. Malavikagnimitram (a) Only 4
B. Kalidasa 2. Kathasaritsagara 33. The followers of Gorakhnath (b) 1 and 2
C. Bhasa 3. Chaurapanchasika were called (c) 1, 2 and 3
D. Bilhana 4. Svapnavasavadatta (a) Jogis (b) Nath-Panthis (d) 1, 2 and 4
Codes (c) Tantriks (d) Sanyasis
36. Iqta in medieval India meant
A B C D A B C D 34. What were the 12 states of the (a) land assigned to religious personnel for
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 Sikh confederacy called? spiritual purposes
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 (a) Misl (b) Gurmata (b) land revenue from different territorial
31. Who among the following was not (c) Sardari (d) Rakhi units assigned to army officers
a painter at Akbar’s Court? 35. Which of the following (c) charity for educational and cultural
(a) Daswanth (b) Abdus Samad activities
statement(s) about the
(c) Kalyan Das (d) Basawan (d) the rights of the Zamindar
Vijayanagara empire is/are true?

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 a 2 a 3 c 4 c 5 c 6 c 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 b
11 a 12 d 13 d 14 d 15 c 16 a 17 c 18 c 19 c 20 c
21 d 22 c 23 d 24 b 25 c 26 d 27 a 28 c 29 b 30 b
31 c 32 d 33 c 34 d 35 a 36 a 37 b 38 b 39 d 40 b
41 a 42 a 43 a 44 c 45 c 46 d 47 b 48 b 49 b 50 c
51 b 52 c 53 b 54 b 55 a 56 a 57 c 58 b 59 a 60 b
61 d 62 c 63 c 64 c 65 c 66 a 67 c 68 a 69 b 70 d
71 b 72 c 73 b 74 a 75 d 76 c 77 a 78 a 79 d 80 d
81 c 82 d 83 c 84 c 85 c 86 a 87 c 88 d 89 d 90 a
91 d 92 a 93 a 94 c 95 c 96 d 97 c 98 c 99 c 100 b
101 a 102 d 103 c 104 d 105 d 106 a 107 d 108 d 109 c 110 c
111 d 112 a 113 a 114 d 115 d 116 c 117 c 118 b 119 c 120 c
121 d 122 c 123 c 124 b 125 b 126 d 127 c 128 d

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 c 2 c 3 c 4 b 5 c 6 b 7 a 8 d 9 d 10 c
11 b 12 c 13 b 14 a 15 c 16 d 17 a 18 b 19 b 20 a
21 a 22 c 23 b 24 b 25 c 26 c 27 a 28 b 29 c 30 a
31 c 32 a 33 a 34 a 35 d 36 b
GENERAL STUDIES History 803

PART III MODERN INDIA

ADVENT OF THE Danes
EUROPEANS IN INDIA Danes East India Company was founded in AD 1616. They
established their settlement at Bengal (Serampur),
In the AD 17th-18th centuries India became a centre of Tranqueber (Tamil Nadu). They were forced to sell their
attraction for many European nations, who were inspired settlements to the British in 1854.
by the new spirit of adventure and discovery. Following is
the order in which Europeans came to India French
• ‘Compagnie des Indes Orientales’ popularly known as the
The Portuguese French East India Company was formed by Colbert,
• Vasco da Gama was sent in 1498 from Lisbon to find under state patronage in AD 1664.
the direct sea-route from Europe to India. Francisco • In AD 1667, an expedition was sent under
Almeida was the first Governor of Portuguese in India Francois Caron, who established the first French factory
(1505-09). He introduced ‘The Policy of Blue Water’. India at Surat. In AD 1669, Marcara founded another
Albuquerque, the next Governor, built a great French factory at Masulipatam by securing patent from
territorial power in India. the Sultan of Golconda.
• They established trading settlements at Calicut, Cochin • In July 1672, French squadron under De La Haye
and Cannanore. Cochin was the early capital of the occupied San Thome near Madras.
Portuguese in India. The Portuguese maritime empire • In 1673, Francois Martin, director of the Masulipatam
acquired the name of Estado da India which intended factory, obtained from Sher Khan Lodi, Governor of
to monopolise the pepper and spice trade of the East. Valikondapuram, a site for a factory, which later
• The Portuguese were able to establish their settlements developed into Pondicherry and its first governor was
near the sea in Diu, Daman, Salsette, Bassein, Chaul Francois Martin.
and Bombay on the Western coast and San Thome near • In Bengal, the French laid the foundation of their famous
Madras and Hooghly in Bengal. settlement of Chandranagar in AD 1690 on a site granted
to them by Shaista Khan.
Dutch
• In 1602, the Dutch East India Company was formed by The European Commerce
the Dutch Parliament through a charter which gave India had maintained its trade relations with the foreign
them powers to fight wars. merchants even during the earlier centuries. There was a
• The Dutch gradually set-up factories at Masulipatnam, great difference between the foreign merchants who had
Pulicat, Surat, Bimilipatnam, Karikal, Chinsura, earlier settled in and conducted brisk trade from India and
Kasimbazar, Boranagore, Patna, Balasore, Nagapatnam the Europeans who came to India in the 16th and 17th
and Cochin. In 18th century, Dutch power in India centuries.
began to decline and finally, collapsed with their defeat
by English in the Battle of Bedara in 1759. GOVERNOR-GENERAL
English OF BENGAL
• English East India Company was founded in AD 1600 Warren Hastings (1773-85)
by the merchants of London, for trade with India. It • He became Governor of Bengal in 1772 and first
was chartered on 31st December, 1600 by Queen
Governor-General of Bengal in 1773, through the
Elizabeth and granted the monopoly of Eastern trade.
Regulating Act. He abolished the dual system of
• Jahangir permitted the East India Company to establish administration.
factories at several places in the empire. Gradually, the • He divided Bengal into districts and appointed collectors
company established factories at Agra, Ahmedabad, and other revenue officials. He established India’s first
Baroda, Broach, Bombay, Surat, Madras, Masulipatnam Supreme Court in Calcutta.
and different parts of Orissa, Bihar, Bengal.
• He founded Asiatic Society of Bengal with William Jones
• The Island of Bombay was acquired by the East India in 1784 and wrote introduction to the first English
Company from the British Government in 1668 and translation of the Gita by Charles Wilkins.
was immediately fortified. The first factory of English • Started Diwani and Faujdari adalats and the district level
was established at Surat (1608). Sadar diwani and Nizmat adalats (appellate courts).
804 CDS Pathfinder

• He redefined Hindu and Muslim • In 1800, he set-up Fort William College Lord Ellenborough
laws. A translation of code in in Calcutta. He was famous as Bengal
(1842-44)
Sanskrit appeared under the title Tiger. He brought the censorship of
‘Code of Gentoo laws’. Press Act, 1799. Brought an end to the Afghan
• First Anglo-Maratha War was
War (1842). The main events
fought during his period, which Sir George Barlow (1805-07) which took place during his
ended with Treaty of Salbai Vellore mutiny (1806, by soldiers) took tenure were as follow
(1776-82). Second Anglo-Mysore place. Second Anglo-Maratha War ended. • Annexation of Sindh to
War (1780-84), ended with Treaty British Empire (1843).
of Mangalore. Rohilla War (1774) Lord Minto I (1807-13) • Charles Napier was replaced
look place. Treaty of Amritsar (1809) with Ranjit Singh by Major Outram as the
• Pitts India Act, 1784 and Edmund was signed. Charter Act of 1813 ended the resident in Sindh.
Burke Bill, 1783 was passed. monopoly of East India Company in India.
Deprived Zamindars of their Lord Hardinge (1844-48)
judicial powers. Maintenance of Lord Hastings (1813-23) The main events during his
records was made compulsory. Adopted the policy of intervention and tenure were First Anglo-Sikh
• Impeachment proceedings started war. Anglo-Nepal War (1813-23) took War and the Treaty of Lahore.
against him in Britain on the place.
charges of taking bribe. After a Lord Dalhousie (1848-56)
trial of 7 years, he was finally GOVERNOR-GENERALS The main events during his
acquitted. tenure were Second Anglo-Sikh
OF INDIA War (1848-49) and annexation of
Lord Cornwallis (1786-93) Punjab. Abolished title and
• First person to codify laws (1793). Lord William Bentinck (1828-35) passed pensions. Widow
The code separated the revenue • Most liberal and enlightened among all Remarriage Act (1856).
administration from the Governor-General of India. Regarded as Introduced Doctrine of Lapse.
administration of justice. He the ‘Father of Modern Western Woods Educational Despatch of
introduced Izaredari System in Education in India’. Abolition of Sati in 1854 was passed. Introduction of
1773. He started the permanent 1829 by Regulation XVII. Thugi was the Railway, Telegraph and
settlement of Bengal. suppressed in 1830. Passed the Charter
the Postal System in 1853.
• He created the post of District Act, of 1833.
Second Anglo-Burmese War
Judge. He is called the father of • Deposition of Raja of Mysore and (1852) took place. Santhal
Civil Services in India. Third annexation of his territories (1831). uprisings (1855-56) took place.
Anglo-Mysore War and the Treaty Abolition of provincial court of appeal Charter Act of 1853 was passed.
of Seringapatam. He undertook and appointment of commissioners
police reforms. instead.
DOCTRINE OF LAPSE
• He was first Governor-General of India.
Sir John Shore (1793-98) First Medical College was opened in
●
The Doctrine of Lapse was
planned by Lord Dalhousie to
He played an important role in Calcutta in 1835. Signed Treaty of deal with questions of
planning the permanent settlement. Friendship with Ranjit Singh (1831). succession to princely states or
Introduced First Charter Act (1793). Annexed Coorg (1834) and Central Territory of India. According
Famous for his policy of Cachar (1831). to the doctrine, if ruler of any
non-interference. Battle of Kharla princely states under the
between Nizam and Marathas (1759). Sir Charles Metcalfe (1835-36) paramountry of the company
Passed the famous press law, which died without a natural heir, the
Lord Wellesey (1798-1803) liberated the press in India. He is known state would automatically be
• Introduced the system of as liberator of press. annexed to the British Empire.
Subsidiary alliance. Madras ●
The company took over the
presidency was formed during his Lord Auckland (1836-42) princely states of Satara
(1848), Jaitpur and Sambalpur
tenure. Fourth Anglo-Mysore In 1839, Lord Auckland had started (1849), Nagpur and Jhansi
war in 1799, Tipu Sultan died. First construction of Grand Trunk Road from (1854), Tanjore and Arcot
subsidiary treaty with Nizam of Calcutta to Delhi. In his period, Sher Shah (1855), Udipur (Chhattisgarh)
Hyderabad. Second Anglo-Maratha Suri Marg was also renamed as the Grand and Oudh (1856) under the
War took place. Trunk Road (GT Road). terms of the Doctrine of
Lapse.
GENERAL STUDIES History 805

Commission under the Presidency • Appointment of Universities

VICEROYS of Richard Strachey in 1878. He Commission in 1902 and passing of
OF INDIA was also called as the Viceroy of
reverse characters.
Indian Universities Act in 1904.
• Establishment of Department of
Lord Canning (AD 1858-62) • Under his governorship, the Commerce and Industry. Passed
• The last Governor-General and the Vernacular Press Act was passed in the Indian Coinage and Paper
first Viceroy. Withdrew Doctrine 1878 to curtail the freedom of the Currency Act (1899) and put India
of Lapse. Transfer of control from Indian language press. The Act was on a gold standard.
East India Company to the crown, intended to prevent the vernacular
the Government of India Act, in press from expressing criticism of Lord Minto II (AD 1905-10)
1858. British policies. Establishment of Muslim League by
• ‘White Mutiny’ by European Aga Khan in 1906. Split of Congress
troops in 1859 took place. Indian Lord Ripon (AD 1880-84) in annual session of 1907 in Surat. The
Councils Act of 1861 was passed. The first Factory Act in 1881 to Indian Council Act of 1909 or the
improve labour conditions. Morley-Minto Reforms was passed.
Lord Elgin (AD 1862-63) Continuation of financial Popularisation of anti-partition and
Wahabi Movement, took place. decentralisation. Government Swadeshi Movement.
Inauguration of High Court resolution on local self-government in
judicature in Bengal. Transfer of 1882. Appointment of Education Lord Hardinge II (AD 1910-16)
Indian Navy to admiralty. Commission under chairmanship of • Annie Besant announced the Home
Sir William Hunter in 1882. Rule Movement. Coronation
Lord John Lawrence durbar of king George V held in
(AD 1864-69) Lord Dufferin (AD 1884-88) Delhi in 1911. Creation of Bengal
He created the Indian Forest Establishment of the Indian National Presidency (like Bombay and
Department. Bhutan War of 1865 Congress. He was Governor-General Madras) in 1911 or partition of
took place. Setting up of the High and Viceroy of India. Punjdeh Affair Bengal was cancelled (1911).
Courts at Calcutta, Bombay and (1884). He celebrated the silver jubilee Transfer of capital from Calcutta to
Madras in 1865. Opened the of Queen Victorica on 16th February, Delhi in 1911.
Telegraphic Communication with 1887. • Establishment of the Hindu
Europe.
Mahasabha in 1915 by Madan
Lord Lansdowne (AD 1888-94) Mohan Malaviya. Gandhiji came
Lord Mayo (AD 1869-72) • Second Factory Act of 1891 was back to India from South Africa
Opening of the Rajkot College in passed which, granted a weekly (1915).
Kathiawar and the Mayo College at holiday.
Ajmer for political training of Indian
Princes. Establishment of Statistical • Categorisation of civil services into Lord Chelmsford (AD 1916-21)
Survey of India. Establishment of imperial, provisional and • Formation of Home Rule Leagues
Department of Agriculture and subordinate. Indian Council Act of by Annie Besant and Tilak in 1916.
Commerce. Started the process of 1892, was passed. Lucknow Pact between the
financial decentralisation in India. • Setting up of Durand Commission Congress and Muslim League in
in 1893 to define the Durand Line 1916.
Lord Northbrook (AD 1872-76) between India and Afghanistan • Appointment of Saddler’s
Important events took place during (now between Pakistan and Commission in 1917 for reforms in
his rule are Kuka Movement, Trial of Afghanistan). educational policy. Jallianwalla
Gaekwad of Baroda and Bihar Bagh massacre of 1919. Launch of
Famine. He abolished income tax. Lord Elgin II (AD 1894-99) Non-cooperation and Khilafat
British officials assassinated by Movement.
Lord Lytton (AD 1876-80)
Chapekar brothers in 1897. Lyall • Appointment of SP Sinha as the
• Royal titles in 1876, Queen commission appointed after famine of Governor of Bihar (the first Indian
Victoria assuming the title of 1896-97. to become a governor). Death of
‘Kaiser-i-Hind’ or Queen Empress Tilak (1st August, 1920).
of India. The Arms Act of 1878 Lord Curzon (AD 1899-1905)
was passed. Lord Reading (AD 1921-26)
• Appointment of Police
• Famine of 1876-78 affecting Commission in 1902 under Sir • Moplah rebellion in Kerala in 1921.
Madras, Bombay, Mysore, Andrew Frazer to review police Communist Party was founded in
Hyderabad, parts of Central India administration. 1920 by MN Roy.
and Punjab, appointment of Famine
806 CDS Pathfinder

• Chauri Chaura incident on Lord Linlithgow (AD 1936-44)

5th February, 1922 and
• First general elections in 1936-37,
LAND REVENUE
subsequent withdrawal on
non-cooperation movement. Congress attained absolute majority SYSTEM
in 6 states.
• Vishwabharati University started
in 1922. Establishment of Swaraj • Resignation of the Congress Permanent Settlement
party by CR Das and Motilal ministries after the outbreak of the
World War II in 1939. • Introduced in Bengal, Bihar-Orissa,
Nehru in 1922.
districts of Banaras and Northern
• Decision to hold simultaneous • Escape of Subhash Chandra Bose
districts of Madras by Lord
examinations for the ICS both in from India in 1941 and organisation Cornwallis in 1793. Sir John Shore
Delhi and London, with effect of the Indian National Army. planned this settlement.
from 1923. Kakori train robbery • Cripps Mission and Cripps plan to • It declared zamindars as the
of 1925. offer dominion status to India and owners of the land. Hence, they
Lord Irwin (AD 1926-31) setting up of a Constituent could keep 1/11th of the revenue
Assembly, its rejection by the collected to themselves while the
• Appointment of the Harcourt British got a fixed share of 10/11th
Congress.
Butler Indian States Commission of the revenue collected. The
in 1927. Visit of Simon • Passing of the ‘Quit India
zamindars were free to fix the
Commission to India in 1928 and Resolution’ by the Congress in rate. Assured of their ownership,
boycott of the Commission by 1942. Outbreak of ‘August many zamindars stayed in towns
the Indians. Revolution’ or Revolt of 1942 after and exploited their tenants.
• An All-Parties Conference held at the arrest of national leaders. • The zamindars collected the rents of
Lucknow in 1928 for suggestions land through different intermediate
for the (future) Constitution of Lord Wavell (AD 1944-47) collectors. As a result of such
India, the report of which was • Wavell Plan and the Shimla practice there had been creation of
called the Nehru Report or the Conference in 1942. C multi-level ranks of collector under
Nehru Constitution. Rajagopalachari’s CR formula in the zamindar.
• Murder of Saunders, the assistant 1944, failure of Gandhi-Jinnah talks
superintendent of police of in 1944. End of World War II in Ryotwari Settlement
Lahore, bomb blast in the 1945. Proposals of the Cabinet • It was introduced in Bombay,
Assembly Hall of Delhi in 1929, Mission Plan in 1946 and its Madras and Assam. Munro and
the Lahore conspiracy case and acceptance by the Congress. Charles Reed recommended it. In
bomb accident in train in Delhi in this system, the direct settlement
• Observance of ‘Direct Action Day’
1929. was made between the Government
on 16th August, 1948 by the Muslim
and the Ryots. The revenue was
Lord Willingdon (AD 1931-36) League. Announcement of the end of
based on the basis of the quality of
British Rule in India by Clement the soil and the nature of the crop.
• Second Round Table Conference
Atlee (Prime Minister of England) on
in 1931 and failure of the • The revenue was fixed for a period
20th February, 1947.
conference, resumption of Civil not exceeding 30 years. It was
Disobedience Movement. based on the Scientific Rent Theory
Lord Mountbatten of Ricardo. The position of the
• Announcement of Communal
(AD March 1947-August 1947) cultivator became more secure.
Award in 1932 under which
separate communal electorates Last Governor-General of India.
were set-up. Introduction of Indian Independence Mahalwari System
• ‘Fast unto death’ by Gandhiji in Bill in the House of Commons. India • It was introduced in the area of
Yervada prison, broken after the Independence Act passed by the British Ganga valley NWFP, parts of
Poona Pact in 1932. Parliament on 4th July, 1947 by which Central India and Punjab. Revenue
India became independent on 15th settlement was to be made by
• Third Round Table Conference of village or estates with landlords.
1932. The Government of India August, 1947.
• In this system, a settlement was
Act of 1935. Burma separated
from India in 1935. C Rajagopalachari (AD 1948-50) made with the village which
maintained a form of common
• Establishment of All India Kisan The last Governor General of
ownership known as Bhai Chara or
Sabha in 1936 and Congress free India (The first being
with Mahals, which were group of
Socialist party by Acharya Mountbatten). The only Indian
villages. Revenue was periodically
Narendra Dev and Jaya Prakash Governor General, remained in office
revised.
Narayan in 1934. till January, 1950.
GENERAL STUDIES History 807

• Religious Discrimination The William Taylor and Edgre

Taluqdari System social reforms by British was against
•
suppressed the revolt at Arrah.
• The Mahalwari system did not the people’s will (widow remarriage, Tantia Tope was betrayed by a
cover the whole of the Uttar abolition of sati, school for girls, friend. He was captured and
Pradesh. In the district of Oudh, Christian missionaries etc). Soldiers executed on 15th April, 1859.
there existed another system were asked to use the Enfield Rifles
known as Taluqdari system. Under with greased (by pork or beef) Causes Behind the
it a number of villages were put cartridges. Failure of the Revolt
under the Taluqdari system. The • Economic Grievances Heavy
government entered into an • Lack of unity and poor
taxations, discriminatory tariff organisation of the revolt. All the
agreement with the Taluqdar for a policy; destruction of traditional
period of 30 years. classes of the society were not
handicrafts that hit peasants, effected or participated in the
• The Taluqdar collected the artisians and small zamindars. revolt. Lack of common motive for
stipulated revenues from different
participating in the revolt.
villages put under his charge and Outbreak of the Revolt
deposited them with the Scindhias,
• Some of the rulers like
• Bengal Resentment in 19 native
government, after deducting the Nizam and Holkars helped
infantry of Behrampur, which
cost of collection of the revenues Britishers in repressing the revolt.
refused to use the newly introduced
and his own remuneration for the The military equipment of rebels
Enfield Rifle.
arduous work. was inferior.
• Mangal Pandey 34th native
• Unlike the Bengal Zamindars the
infantry fired at the sergeant major
Oudh Taluqdars had no real rights
of his regiment. Known as a part of
over the lands under their charge.
Mutiny of Barrackpur. Place Leaders
Moreover, they worked as revenue
collectors for the fixed period of • Where the rulers were loyal to the Barrackpore Mangal Pandey
the settlement, and not in British, the soldiers revolted, as in Delhi Bahadur Shah II, Bakht
perpetuity. Gwalior and Indore. In some places, Khan Hakim Ahsanullah
people revolted before the sepoys. (Chief advisor to Bahadur
Shah II)
• In the beginning, the rebels were Lucknow Begum Hazrat Mahal, Bijris
REVOLT OF 1857 successful. Europeans were killed, Qadir, Ahmadullah (advisor
of the ex-Nawab of Awadh)
police stations and law courts were
The mighty upsurge of 1857, swept attacked and revenue records were Kanpur Nana Sahib, Rao Sahib
over many parts of Northern and (nephew of Nana), Tantia
destroyed. But, the revolt was soon Tope, Azimullah Khan
Central India like an avalanche. The suppressed. (advisor of Nana Sahib)
British Empire in India was rattled Jhansi Rani Laxmibai
to its foundation. It was the most Suppression of the Revolt Bihar (Jagdishpur) Kunwar Singh, Amar Singh
significant movement of resistance • John Lawrence remarked, ‘‘Had a Allahabad and Maulvi Liyakat Ali
against European colonial rule. single leader of ability arisen among Banaras
them we must have been lost Faizabad Maulvi Ahmadullah (he
Causes of the Revolt beyond redemption.’’ Delhi was declared the revolt as
Jihad against English)
• Political Cause Nana Sahib was recaptured on 20th September, 1857
Farrukhabad Tufzal Hasan Khan
refused pension as he was the by John Nicholson and Bahadur
adopted son of Peshwa Baji Bijnor Mohammed Khan
Shah II was deported to Rangoon,
Rao-II. He later led the revolt where he died in 1862. His sons Muradabad Abdul Ali Khan
from Kanpur. were shot dead at Delhi. Bareilly Khan Bahadur Khan
• Awadh (Lucknow) was annexed • Jhansi was recaptured by Hugh Mandsor Firoz Shah
in 1856, on charge of Rose on 17th June, 1858. Rani Gwalior/Kanpur Tantia Tope
maladministration and Jhansi was Lakshmi Bai died in the battle field. Assam Kandapareshwar Singh,
annexed owing to Doctrine of Manirama Datta
Kanpur was recaptured on
Lapse. 6th December, 1857 by Colin Orissa Surendra Shahi, Ujjwal
Shahi
• Military Discrimination Indian Campbell. Lucknow was recaptured
Kullu Raja Pratap Singh
soldiers were paid low salaries, on 21st March, 1858 by Colin
Rajasthan Jaidayal Singh and
they could not rise above the rank Campbell, Havelock and Outram. Hardayal Singh
of Subedar and were racially Nana Sahib and Hazrat Mahal both Gorakhpur Gajadhar Singh
insulted. escaped to Nepal.
Mathura Devi Singh, Kadam Singh
808 CDS Pathfinder

• A paper named Subodh Patrika was started in order

OTHER IMPORTANT EVENTS
to spread the teaching of the society. Some prominent
●
At Jhansi, Rani Laxmibai, the widow queen of Raja
Prarthana Samajist like Ramkrishna Gopal Bhandarkar,
Gangadhar Rao, the last Maratha ruler of Jhansi, led
Narayan Ganesh Chandarvarkar, Gopal Ganesh
the rebellion.
Agarkar, KT Telang etc contributed for overall
●
In Bihar, Kunwar Singh of Arrah, raised the banner
development of the society.
of rebellion, which soon spread to many parts of Bihar,
including Danapur, Chhotanagpur, Ranchi, Palamau
etc. The tribals of the region also joined the rebellion.
Arya Samaj
Kunwar Singh overthrew the British authority in Arya Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati or
Shahabad and established his own government. He Mulshankar (1824-83).
marched to Kalpi to help Nana Sahib for a joint • The first Arya Samaj unit was formally set up by him
attack on Kanpur. at Bombay in 1975 and later the headquarter of the
●
Prince Firoz Shah raised the banner of revolt at Samaj was established at Lahore.
Mandsor (Madhya Pradesh) and kept the British forces
• Dayanand’s views were published in the famous work
engaged in Central India. Driven out of central
provinces, he campaigned in Ruhelkhand and Awadh. of Satyarth Prakash (The True Exposition). He gave
He also joined the forces of Tantia Tope in Rajputana. slogan “Go Back to the Vedas”. He disregarded
●
Khan Bahadur Khan raised the banner of revolt in Puranas, idol worship, casteism and untouchability. He
Ruhelkhand with epicenter at Bareilly. He proclaimed advocated widow remarriage.
himself the Nawab Nazim. • Arya Samaj has established a large number of
educational institutions in India particularly in the
North, like Kanya Gurukuls and DAV (Dayanand
Social and Cultural Uprisings Anglo-Vedic) Schools and College.
Brahmo Samaj • Dayanand was the first man to use the term Swaraj
• Brahmo Samaj was founded by Raja Rammohan Roy in and recognise Hindi as the National Language of
1828 at Calcutta. India.
• Roy believed in the modern scientific approach and • The Arya Samaj opposed all social evils of the Hindu
principles of human dignity and social equality. He put society like sati, polygamy, child marriage, purdah,
his faith in monotheism. casteism etc and started the Shudhi movement.
• He wrote the Gift to Monotheists (1809) and translated it Rama Krishna Mission
into Bengali the Vedas and five Upanishads to prove his
• The first Rama Krishna Math was established by the
conviction to that ancient Hindu text.
disciple of Rama Krishna, Swami Vivekananda at
• In 1814, he set-up Atmiya Sabha in Calcutta to campaign Baranagar in 1897.
against idolatry, caste rigidities, meaningless rituals and
• Vivekananda went to America in 1893 and attended the
other social evils.
World Parliament of Religious Conference at Chicago.
• In 1825, he established a Vedanta college where courses
• Vivekananda revived Hindu Spiritualism and thus,
in both Indian learning and Western social and physical
science were offered. established its superiority over Islam and Christianity.
Irish woman Margaret Nobel (known as sister Nivedita)
• Roy was a gifted linguist. He knew more than a dozen popularised the mission.
language including Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic, English,
French, Latin, Greek and Hebrew. He proposed English Young Bengal Movement
system of education.
• During the late 1820 and early 1830 there emerged a
Prarthana Samaj radical intellectual trend among the youth in Bengal,
which came to be known as the ‘Young Bengal
• Mahadev Gobind Ranade along with Dr Atmaram
Movement’.
Pandurang reorganised Paramhansa Sabha under the
• Founded by Henry Vivian Derozio, who taught in
guidance of Keshab Chandra Sen and founded Prarthana
Samaj in 1867. It was primarily a Social Reform and Hindu College Calcutta from 1826 to 1831. Derozio is
Social Work Movement. considered as the first nationalist poet of Modern India.
• He also edited Hosperus and Calcutta Literary Gazette.
• Beyond the religious concerns, the primary focus of the
Prarthana Samaj was to improve the condition of women He urged the students to live and die for truth. Derozio
and depressed classes. The samajist demanded to end the also supported women rights and education.
caste system, abolish the child marriages and infanticide, • The movement was too radical, therefore it could not
educate the women and remarriage of windows. survive for long.
GENERAL STUDIES History 809

Satya Shodhak Samaj

• Satya Shodhak Samaj (Truth Seeker’s Society) Movement Founder Feature
was founded by Jyotiba Phule in 1873. He Ved Samaj Keshab Chandra ● K Sridharula renamed it as Brahmo Samaj of South
belonged to the Mali (gardener) community Sen and India in 1871.
K Sridharula in
and organised a powerful movement against 1864
● K Sridharula translated Brahmo Samaj into Tamil
and Telugu languages.
upper caste domination and Brahminical
supremacy. Deva Samaj Shiv Narain ● Teachings were compiled in book form named
Agnihotri in 1887 Deva Shastra.
• Phule’s works ‘Sarvajanik Satyadharma’ and at Lahore
● Belief in the Supreme Being, Eternity of Soul,
‘Gulam Giri’ became sources of inspiration Supremacy of Guru.
for the common masses. Ahmadiya Mirza Ghulam in ● Belief that Islam is the final dispensation for
Movement Punjab in 1889 humanity.
• Phule opened with the help of his wife, a
girls school at Poona and was a pioneer of Dravida John Rathinam and ● Goals were to eradicate the ills of the existing caste
Kazhagam EV Ramaswamy system including untouchability.
widow remarriage movement in Maharashtra.
● Name of Dravida Kazhagam was changed to
Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.
JAJMANI SYSTEM Dravida C Iyothee Thass ● Movement emphasised that Scheduled caste
●
This system was an Indian social caste Mahajana in 1891 people to register themselves as “casteless
Sabha Dravidians” instead of identifying themselves as
system and was an interaction between Hindus.
upper castes and lower castes. It was an
Self-Respect EV Ramaswamy ● Aim of achieving a society where backward castes
economic system where lower castes Movement in 1925 have equal human rights.
performed various functions for upper
● To encourage backward castes to have
castes. self-respect in the context of a caste-based society
●
The terminology of Jajmani system was that considered them to be a lower end of the
hierarchy.
introduced by William Wiser. He found
in his study on a village in Uttar Deoband Rashid Ahmad ● The movement was inspired by scholar Shah
Movement Gangohi, Waliullah Dehlawi.
Pradesh, that how different castes (Deobandis) Muhammad Yaqub
interacted with one another in the ● The group founded an Islamic seminary known as
Nanautawi in 1867
Darul Uloom Deoband, where Islamic revivalist and
production and exchange of goods and anti-imperialist ideology of the Deobandis began to
services. develop.
●
The system is based on the agricultural ● Deobandis advocated a notion of composite
system of production and distribution of nationalism by which Hindus and Muslims were
goods and services. seen as one nation.
Radha Tulsi Ram popularly ● Belief in one Supreme Being, Supermacy of Guru
Swami known as Dayal and Simple Social Life.
The Theosophical Movement Movement Sahib or Swamiji
Maharaj, in 1861
• The Theosophical Society was founded by
Madame Blavatsky and Col. Olcott in New

•
York in 1875.
The founders arrived in India in January 1882
NATIONAL MOVEMENTS
and established the headquarters of the
society at Adyar near Madras. Indigo Revolt (AD 1859-60)
• The society belief in the universal • The European planters used totally arbitary and ruthless methods to
brotherhood of humanity without any force peasants to grow the unremunerative Indigo crop on a part of
discrimination, study of comparative religion, their land in Eastern India.
philosophy and science and the unexplained • In 1860, the terribly oppressed indigo peasants launched
laws of nature and the powers latent in ‘non-cultivation of indigo’ movements. Beginning with the Ryots of
human. Govindpur village in Nadia district (Bengal) the Indigo strikes
• In 1888, Mrs Annie Besant joined the society rapidly spread to other areas by the spring of 1860.
in England. Her membership provided an • Important role was played by Harish Chandra Mukherji, editor of
asset of greatest values to the society. Hindu Patriot. ‘Deen Bandhu Mitra’s’ play Neel Darpan was based
• Annie Besant (1847-1933) became its on this. Michel Madhusudan Dutta eminent Bengali poet cum
President after the death of Olcott in 1907. play-writer, translated Neel Darpan into English.
She laid the foundation of the Central Hindu • The government appointed an Indigo Commission in 1860. Indigo
College in Banaras in 1898, which became riots took place in 1867-68 in Champaran (Bihar).
BHU in 1916.
810 CDS Pathfinder

• An important aspect of the Swadeshi Movement was

The Indian National Congress emphasis placed on self-reliance. At the Calcutta session
• Founded in 1885 by Allan Octavian Hume (AO Hume) the Congress decided to boycott British goods on 7th
a retired British member of Indian Civil Service. It is August, 1905.
thought, his main purpose was to encourage the • Lala Lajpat Rai, BG Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal (Lal,
foundation of Congress to provide a ‘safety valve’ or Bal and Pal) and Aurbindo Ghosh played important role
‘safety outlet’ to growing discontent among the educated in Swadeshi Movement.
Indians.
• The first session of the Indian National Congress was Muslim League (1906)
held on 28th December, 1885. Dadabhai Naoroji changed In 1906, the All India Muslim League was founded under
the name of the organisation to Indian National Congress the leadership of Agha Khan, Nawab Salim-ul-lah of Dacca
(INC). Wyomesh Chandra Banerjee a leading lawyer of and Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk. The League supported
Calcutta was elected its President. Its session was held in separate electorate for the Muslim community and opposed
Bombay under WC Banerjee in 1885 (72 delegates the Nationalist moves of the Congress. In return, the
attended it). British declared that they would protect the ‘special
• In 1890, Kadambini Ganguly, the first woman graduate interest of the Muslims’.
of Calcutta university, addressed the Congress session.
The most outstanding representative of this school was The Surat Split or
Bal Gangadhar Tilak later popularly known as Surat Session of INC (1907)
Lokamanya Tilak. He was born in 1856. The most • The Indian National Congress (INC) split in two
outstanding extremist leaders were Bipin Chandra Pal, groups, the moderate and extremist groups at the Surat
Aurobindo Ghosh and Lala Lajpat Rai. session in 1907. Extremists were led by Lal Lajpat Rai,
BG Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal and the moderates by
The Partition of Bengal Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
• On 20th July, 1905 Lord Curzon issued an order to • The government launched a massive attack on the
divide the province of Bengal into two parts. It was extremists (between 1907 and 1911) by suppressing their
done with a partial motive to set-up a communal gulf newspaper (Incitement to offences) and their leaders.
between Hindus and Muslims.
• The Anti-Partition Movement was started by most
The Ghadar Party Movement (1913)
prominent leaders like Surendranath Banerjee and • Taraknath Das, Sohan Singh Bhakana and Lala Hardayal
Krishna Kumar Mitra. There were cries of ‘Bande founded the Ghadar Party Movement.
Mataram’ which became a national song of Bengal. • In November, 1913, the Hind Association of America
• Rabindranath Tagore composed the national song ‘Amar was founded by Sohan Singh Bhakana. It decided to
Sonar Bangla’ for the occasion which was sung by huge publish a weekly paper Ghadar or Hindustan Ghadar in
crowd parading the streets. This song was adopted as commemoration with the Revolt of 1857.
national anthem by Bangladesh in 1971 after liberation. • The organisation headquarter was at San Francisco. Lal
• The ceremony of Raksha Bandhan was observed on Hardayal, Bhai Parmanand and Ram Chandar were
16th October, 1905. Hindu and Muslim tied ‘rakhi’ in leading figures of the Ghadar Party Movement.
one another’s wrists as a symbol of the unbreakable • Ghadar party planned to initiate as armed revolt in
unity. India, in 1915. They planned to start revolt in Punjab
firstly, then followed by Bengal and rest of India. India
Swadeshi Movement units as far as Singapore were planned to participate in
the revolt.
• The leader of Bengal felt that mere demonstrations,
public meetings and resolutions were not enough and • British intelligence infiltrated the Ghadarite movement
something more concrete was needed and the answer felt and crushed the plan before started.
was Swadeshi and Boycott. People burnt foreign clothes
and foreign goods. Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
• The leaders of Bengal took up the work of national • The major problem at Champaran in Bihar was of the
education in right earnest. National educational Indigo planters. The European planters forced the
institutions were opened by them and literary, technical peasant to grow indigo on 3/20th of the total land area
and physical education was given there. (tin katie system). Peasants were also forced to sell their
produce at the prices fixed by the Europeans. When the
• On 15th August, 1906 a national council of education
German syntactic dyes replaced indigo, the planters
was set-up and Aurobindo Ghosh was appointed as the
demanded high rents and illegal dues from the peasants
first Principal of the National College.
in order to maximise their profit.
GENERAL STUDIES History 811

• Through tours in rural areas, he established direct Home Rule Leagues (1916)
contact with ordinary people and talked about their
• Home Rule Leagues having been inspired by the Irish
concerns in the language which they understood. This
was a novel political technique; it had never been rebellion, Mrs Annie Besant (September, 1916) and BG
practiced by the educated leaders of the congress. Tilak (April, 1916) set-up the Home Rule League.
• For the first time, the peasants were drawn into political • BG Tilak linked up Swaraj with the demand for the
agitation under a new type of leadership. formation of linguistic states and education in Vernacular
• For the first time in India, Gandhi was displaying that language. Tilak gave the popular slogan, “Freedom is my
magnetic personality, which was to draw multitudes to birth right and I shall have it.”
him and to earn him the title of Mahatma and the
nickname of Bapu. Under pressure from the Lucknow Pact (1916)
Government of India, the Government of Bihar The Lucknow session of the INC in 1916 was memorable
appointed a committee of enquiry (June, 1917). The event on account of two important development. First was
recommendations of the committee were implemented, re-admission of the extremists who had been expelled from
by the Champaran Agrarian Act of 1917. He was also the INC 9 years earlier. The second development was the
member of this committee. alliance between the Congress and Muslim League.
• Some of leaders associated with Gandhiji in this
Satyagraha were JB Kripalani, Rajendra Prasad, Mahadev Rowlatt Act (1919)
Desai, Narhari Parikh etc. The government passed the Rowlatt Act in March 1919,
• Based on this movement, a book Neel Darpan was which empowered the British Government to detain any
written by Dinbandhu Mitra. person without trial. The act was a serious betrayal of the
promises made by the government during the world war
Ahmedabad Satyagraha (1918) period.
• While Gandhiji was still engaged in his task in Bihar, he
received a letter from Shrimati Anasuyabai. She informed Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy (1919)
him about the condition of workers in Ahmedabad mills • People were agitating against arrest of their popular
and requested him to take up their cause with the mill
leaders Dr Saif-ud-din Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal.
owners.
• On 13th April, 1919, Baisakhi Day, hundreds of people
• The terrible plague of 1917-18, led to a heavy decline in
the number of workers in the major industrial city of were massacred and several thousand wounded in
Ahmedabad. In order to attract the workers, the mill Jallianwala Bagh where they had assembled to held a
owners started paying them 75% of their wages as protest meeting against the repressive policies of the
plague bonus. government.
• The mill-owners declaration of locking out the mills on • The troops led by General Dyer opened fire on the
22nd February, 1918 made the situation even more unarmed men and women, young and old, Hindu and
serious. At last, the issue was resolved with the Muslim. It was regarded as the worst massacre during
intervention of Mahatma Gandhi. The mill owners the entire freedom struggle. Hunter Commission was
agreed to give 35% of wages as bonus. This offer was appointed to enquire into it.
accepted by the workers. • Sardar Udham Singh killed General Dyer on 13th
• Gandhiji intervened in a dispute between the workers March, 1940, when the latter was addressing a meeting
and mill owners and he took a fast unto death to force a in Caxton hall in London.
compromise.
Kheda Satyagraha (1918) The Khilafat Movement (1920-22)
The All India Khilafat Conference held at Delhi in
• It was first Non-Cooperation Movement in India. In
November, 1919. Gandhiji was the head of Khilafat
1917 most of the kharif crops of the farmers of Kheda
district in Gujarat were destroyed due to heavy rains Committee. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad also led the
thus, incapacitating them to pay the land revenue to the movement. Later a Khilafat Manifesto was published which
government. When the government refused to comply called upon the British to protect the Khalifa (Caliphate).
with the peasant’s demand to remit the land revenues,
Gandhiji advised them to withhold the payment and Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22)
launch a struggle against the government on 22nd • The Non-Cooperation Movement under the leadership
March, 1918. of Mahatma Gandhi, was launched to press three main
• Gandhiji with his lieutenants like Vallabhbhai Patel, the demands
young lawyer of Kheda (who had become Gandhiji’s i. The Khilafat issue.
follower during this Satyagraha), Indulal Yagnik and ii. The redressal of the Punjab wrongs.
many other youth, toured villages to encourage the
peasants. iii. The attainment of Swaraj.
812 CDS Pathfinder

• The programme of the movement had two main aspects Simon Commission (1927)
i. Destructive ii. Constructive • In November 1927, the British Government appointed the
• Under the first category came Indian Statutory Commission known as the Simon
– Surrender of titles and honorary offices and Commission (after the name of Chairman).
resignation from nominated seats in local bodies. • John Simon, a British politician, was appointed as
– Refusal to attend official functions. Chairman of the commission to review the situation in
– Gradual withdrawal of children from officially India with a view to introduce further reforms and
controlled schools and colleges. extension of parliamentary democracy.
– Boycott of British Courts by lawyers and litigants. • At Madras Session in 1927 presided over by Dr Ansari,
– Refusal on the part of the military, clerical and the Indian National Congress decided to boycott the
labour classes to offer themselves as recruits for commission.
service in Mesopotamia. • The police came down heavily on demonstrators. The
– Boycott the elections to the Legislative Council. lathi-charge at Lahore, led to the death or Lala Lajpat
– Boycott of the foreign goods. Rai because of injuries (30th October, 1928).
• Under the second category came • The agenda for the second round table conference held in
– Use of Swadeshi goods.
London was to discuss the report of Simon Commission.
– Hand spinning and weaving.
Bardoli Movement (1928)
– Removal of social evils like casteism and
• Bardoli Movement against the payment of land tax led by
untouchability. Vallabhbhai Patel in a village called Bardoli in Gujarat.
– Hindu-Muslim unity.
• Vallabhbhai Patel got the title Sardar from the women of
– Collection of money for Tilak Swaraj fund.
this movement.
– Setting up national educational institutions.

• The Prince of Wales visited India during this period. The Nehru Report (1928)
• Having boycotted the Simon Commission, the Indian
Chauri Chaura Incident (1922) political parties tried to hammer out a common political
• In Chauri Chaura (Near Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh), a programme.
police station including 22 policemen was burnt on • All parties conference met in February, 1928 and
5th February, 1922. On 12th February, 1922, Gandhiji appointed a sub-committee under the chairmanship of
decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement. Motilal Nehru to draft a Constitution. This was the first
• Most of the nationalist leaders including CR Das, major attempt by the Indians to draft a constitutional
Motilal Nehru, Subhash Chandra Bose, Jawaharlal framework for the country.
Nehru, however, expressed their bewilderment at • The committee also included Tej Bahadur Sapru. The
Gandhi’s decision to withdraw the Non-Cooperation report was finalised on August, 1928.
Movement on 12th February, 1922. In March 1922,
Gandhiji was arrested and sentenced for 6 years in jail. Other Political Parties
The Swarajya Party (1923) and Movements (1922-27)
• The moderates who had walked out of the INC in 1918,
• CR Das, Motilal Nehru and NC Kelkar suggested that
formed National Liberal League, later known as the All
instead of boycotting the councils, they should enter
India Liberal Federation and cooperated with the
and expose them.
government.
• In December 1922, Das and Motilal Nehru formed the
• The All India Khilafat Committee also ceased to function
Congress Khilafat Swarajya Party with CR Das as the
after the abolition of Khilafat in Turkey by Mustafa
President and Motilal Nehru as one of the secretaries.
Kamal Pasha in 1924.
• The Swarajists contested elections to the Legislative
• The Hindu Mahasabha, a communal organisation of the
Assembly and Provincial Councils. In 1923, elections
Hindus, founded in December 1915, also gained strength
they got 42 seats out of 101 elected seats in Bengal and
and Madan Mohan Malaviya was elected as its President at
Central Province. The party broke in 1926 after the
Belgaum Session.
death of CR Das.
GENERAL STUDIES History 813

Revolutionary Movements Movements After

Hindustan Republic Association Simon Commission
• In October 1924, a meeting of revolutionaries from all parts Lahore Session or Poorna Swaraj (1929)
of India was called at Kanpur. This meeting was attended • On 19th December, 1929, under the Presidentship of
by old revolutionary leaders like Sachindranath Sanyal, Pandit JL Nehru, the Lahore Session of the Congress
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee and Ram Prasad Bismil and also gave voice to the new militant spirit. It passed a
by some new revolutionaries like Bhagat Singh, Shiv Verma, resolution declaring Poorna Swaraj (complete
Sukhdev, Bhagwati Charan Vohra and Chandra Shekhar independence) to be the Congress objective.
Azad.
• On 31st December, 1929 the newly adopted
• At this meeting, it was decided to set-up the Hindustan
tri-colour flag of freedom was hoisted. On 26th
Republican Association which was later recognised as the January, 1930, it was fixed as the first Independence
Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). The Day, which was to be celebrated every year.
HSRA was founded at Kanpur in October, 1924 by
Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, The Civil Disobedience Movement
Ramprasad Bismil and Chandra Shekhar Azad and declared
its objectives. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started by
Gandhiji on 12th March, 1930 with his famous Dandi
Kakori Conspiracy Case March.
• Revolutionaries decided to commit a dacoity in a running Dandi March
train on 9th August, 1925 at Kakori on the
Lucknow-Saharanpur section of the Northern railway. 29 Mahatma Gandhi launched the Salt Satyagraha on 12th
arrested and tried in the Kakori Conspiracy Case. March, 1930. Gandhiji marched from his Sabarmati
Ashram (Ahmedabad) with 78 followers. After 24 days
• Four revolutionaries Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqullah Khan, long march, he symbolically broke the Salt Law at Dandi
Roshan Lal and Rajendra Lahiri were sentenced to death. on 6th April, 1930. The breaking of the Salt Laws
formally inaugurated the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Saundar’s Murder This movement sparked off patriotism also among the
• The first revolutionary act of the HSRA was the murder of Indian soldiers in British Army. The Garhwali soldiers
Mr Saundars, the Assistant Superintendent of Police, refused to open fire on the people of Peshawar.
Lahore, who had ordered Lathi-charge and brutally
wounded Lala Lajpat Rai during Anti-Simon Commission First Round Table Conference
protest march at Lahore on 17th December, 1928. (12th November, 1930– January 1931)
• Saundars was killled at Lahore railway station on 30th The First Round Table Conference was held in London.
October, 1928 by Bhagat Singh, Chandra Shekhar Azad and 57 political leaders from India participated the
Rajguru. conference. Congress didn’t participate.
Bomb at Legislative Assembly Gandhi-Irwin Pact
• Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw two crude In March 1931, the famous Gandhi-Irwin Pact was
bombs in Central Legislative Assembly on 8th April, 1929, signed. Gandhi was appointed as the representative of
when assembly was discussing the Public Safety Bill and the the Congress of the Second Round Table Conference.
Trade Disputes Bill.
• Bhagat Singh and Dutt were arrested and tried in Central Second Round Table Conference
Assembly Bomb Case. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru (1st September - 1st December, 1931)
were hanged to death on 23rd March, 1931 at Lahore jail The Second Round Table Conference opened in
for their role in Saunder’s murder case. September, 1931 in London. Gandhiji represented the
INC and went to London to meet British PM Ramsay
Chittagong Armoury Raid MacDonald. Indian National Congress in 1932 was
Surya Sen (1930), a revolutionary of Bengal masterminded the declared an illegal organisation. British Government also
raid on Chittagong armoury. He was hanged in 1933. On 27th refused to concede the basic nationalist demand for
February, 1931 Chandra Shekhar Azad was surrounded by the freedom on the basis of immediate grant of dominion
police at Alfred Park, Allahabad where he shot himself dead. status.
814 CDS Pathfinder

The Communal Award (16th August, 1932) • The demand for a separate state was opposed by
Congress and large sections of Muslims such as,
Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald announced his Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
‘Communal Award’ on 16th August, 1932. According to and others.
this award, the Muslim, European and Sikh voters would
elect their candidates by voting in separate communal
electorates. The award declared the depressed class (Scheduled
The Individual Satyagrahas
caste of today) also to be Minority Community entitled to • There were two opinions in Congress about the
separate electorate and thus, separated them from the rest of the launching of civil disobedience. Gandhi felt that the
Hindus. atmosphere was not in favour of civil disobedience as
there were differences and indiscipline within the
Poona Pact (25th September, 1932) Congress. While some leaders of Congress, socialists
• Gandhiji started his fast unto death in Yeravada jail near and the All India Kisan Sabha were in favour of
Poona, an 25th September, 1932. He wanted the immediate struggle.
Communal Award to be withdrawn. The Poona Pact • The August Offer had disillusioned the Congress.
according to which the idea of separate electorates for the Finally, Gandhiji had a long meeting with the Viceroy
depressed classes was abandoned, but the seats reserved for at Simla in September, 1940, after which he was
them in the provincial legislatures were increased from 71 convinced that the British would not modify their
in the Award to 147 and in the Central Legislature to 18% policy in India.
of the total.
• He therefore, decided to launch Individual Satyagraha.
• Poona Pact agreed upon to appoint electorate for upper The aim of the satyagraha was to disprove the British
and lower classes. Upliftment of harijan now became claim of India supporting the war effort wholeheartedly.
Gandhi’s main concern. He started an All India
• On 17th October, 1940, Acharya Vinoba Bhave (the
Anti-Untouchability League in September, 1932 and the
first Satyagrahi) inaugurated the satyagraha by
weekly Harijan in January, 1933 even before his release.
delivering an anti-war speech at Paunar; Bhave had
8th January, 1933 was observed a ‘Temple Entry Day’.
been personally selected by Gandhiji for this.
• After the Poona Pact, Mahatma Gandhi lost interest in
• Mahatma Gandhi suspended it on 17th December, 1940
the Civil Disobedience Movement and fully engrossed in
due to little enthusiasm it created. Jawaharlal Nehru
the Anti-Untouchability Movement, which led to the
was the second to offer Satyagraha after Vinoba Bhave.
foundation of the Harijan Sevak Sangh.
It was during Individual Satyagraha that Gandhi
Third Round Table Conference (1932) declared Nehru as his chosen successor. Individual
Satyagraha was also known as Delhi Chalo Satyagraha.
Held from 24th November to December, 1932. The
Congress boycotted it and only 46 delegates attended the August Offer (1940)
session.
• To get Indian cooperation in the war effort the viceroy
Lahore Resolution of League announced the August Offer (August 1940), which
proposed dominion status as the objective for India,
• In 1940 at the Lahore, a resolution called for independent expansion of viceroy’s Executive Council, setting up of
state for Muslims i.e. Pakistan, which was totally based a Constituent Assembly would frame the Constitution
on the Two-Nation Theory of Muslim League. after war according to their social, economic and
• The term Pakistan had been coined by Choudhary political conceptions.
Rahmat Ali in his Pakistan Declaration in 1933. He • Subject to fulfillment of obligation of the government
referred to the names of the five northern regions of the regarding defence, minority rights treaties with states.
British India namely; Punjab, Afghania, Kashmir, Sindh All India Services and no future Constitution to be
and Baluchistan. adopted without the consent of minorities. The
Congress rejected the August Offer, but it was
Demand for Pakistan accepted by the Muslim League.
• In March, 1940 at the Lahore, demand for Pakistan was
called. The session was chaired by Muhammad Ali Jinnah. Cripps Mission (1942)
• The Muslim League demanded that the areas in which the • In March 1942, when Japan occupied Rangoon, after
Muslims are numerically in a majority as in the having overrun almost the whole of South-East Asia.
North-Western and Eastern Zones of India should be • The British Government, with a view to get support
grouped to constitute Independent states. from India, sent Sir Stafford Cripps, leader of the
• The Muslim League was encouraged by the British House of Commons to settle terms with the Indian
Government to press its demand for a separate state. leaders.
GENERAL STUDIES History 815

• For the first time, through the Cripps Mission, British • INA had three fighting brigades named Gandhi, Azad
Government recognised the Right of Dominion for and Nehru. Even a women’s regiment named the Rani
India. The mission promised for fulfillment of past Jhansi Regiment was formed.
promises to ‘self government’ of Indian people. • In July 1944, Subhash Chandra Bose asked for Gandhi’s
• The Indian leaders refused to accept more promise for blessings for India’s last war of independence. Subhash
the future and Gandhiji told the proposals as a Chandra Bose who was now called Netaji by the soldiers
post-dated cheque on a crashing bank. of the INA gave his followers the battle cry of ‘Jai Hind’.
Subhash Chandra bose also gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’.
The Quit India Movement (1942) • The last echo of the INA Movement was heard when the
INA prisoners were tried at the Red Fort in Delhi and
• Also known as proposal and leaderless revolt. The
were defended by a panel of lawyers which included Tej
Congress met at Bombay on 8th August, 1942 and Bahadur Sapru, Bhulabhai Desai and Jawaharlal Nehru.
passed the famous Quit India Resolution. Gandhiji gave
the slogan ‘Do or Die.’
• Rangoon and Singapore were the two INA headquarters.
• The Quit India Movement became a powerful mass
• 12th November, 1945 was celebrated as the INA Day.
compaign galvanising people into vehemently demanding
freedom from the British rule. Towards the Dominion States
• On 9th August, 1942, Gandhiji and other Congress Rajagopalachari Formula
leaders were arrested and the Congress party was
• C Rajagopalachari (CR) the veteran Congress leader,
declared illegal once again.
prepared a formula for Congress-League Cooperation. It
• The violence had broken out in different parts of the was an acceptance of the league’s demand for Pakistan.
country. Many government offices were destroyed, The main points in CR plan were as follows
telegraph wires were cut and communication paralysed. – Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for
• Mahatma Gandhi disclaimed all responsibilities for the independence.
violence which was the consequence of repressive – League to cooperate with Congress in forming a
measure taken by the British. The parallel government provisional government at centre.
was set-up in Ballia in Eastern Uttar Pradesh, by Chittu
– After the end of the war, the entire population and
Pandey.
Muslim majority areas in the North-West and
• The movement was finally crushed. Span of the North-East of India decide by plebiscite.
movement was short lived, but the importance of the – In case of acceptance of partition agreement to be
movement lay in demonstrating the intensity of the
made jointly for safeguarding defence, commerce
nationalist feeling that people displayed and the extent to
communication etc.
which people would go to make sacrifices in order to
– The above terms to be operative only if England
achieve freedom.
transferred full powers to India.
• The Muslim League did not support the Quit India
• Jinnah wanted the Congress to accept the Two Nation
Movement. Achyut Patwardhan, Ram Manohar Lohia,
Jayaprakash Narayan and Aruna Asaf Ali were the Theory. He wanted only the Muslim of North-West and
movement’s leaders. North-East to vote in the plebiscite and not the entire
population. Hindu leaders led by VD Savarkar
condemned the CR Plan.
The Indian National Army (INA)
• The Indian National Army led by Subhash Chandra Wavell Plan and Shimla Conference
Bose was in cooperation with the Japanese. (1945)
• Subhash Chandra Bose, after founding the Forward In May 1945, Lord Wavell, the Viceroy of India, went to
Bloc, in January 1941, escaped from India and went to London and discussed his ideas about the future of India
Berlin (Germany) via Moscow. with the British administration. The talks resulted in the
• Subhash Chandra Bose, who had escaped from his formulation of a plan of action that was made public in
confinement in Calcutta in 1941 formed the Indian June 1945. The plan is known as Wavell Plan.
National Army in 1943, in Singapore, along with
Rasbehari Bose. Wavell Plan
• The plan suggested reconstitution of the Viceroy’s
• The Azad Hind Fauj as the INA was aimed at a
military campaign for the liberation of India. The INA Executive Council in which the Viceroy was to select
consisted mostly of Indian soldiers of the British Army persons nominated by the political parties. Different
who had taken prisoners by the Japanese after they had communities were also to get their due share in the
conquered the British colonies in South-East Asia. council and parity was reserved for Caste-Hindus and
Muslims.
816 CDS Pathfinder

• While declaring the plan, the Secretary of State for Jinnah’s Direct Action Resolution
Indian Affairs made it clear that the British Government
• The set back in the election to the Constituent
wanted to listen to the ideas of all major Indian
communities. Assembly forced the league to reject the Cabinet
Mission Plan. Jinnah gave the call for ‘Direct Action’
Simla Conference which postulated a campaign for the creation of
• To discuss these proposals Wavell called for a conference Pakistan. Muslim League withdrew its acceptance of the
at Shimla on 25th June, 1945. Leaders of both the Cabinet Plan on 29th July, 1946.
Congress and the Muslim League attended the • From 16th August, 1946 the country witnessed
conference, which is known as the Simla Conference. communal riots on an unprecedented scale. The League
• However, differences arose between the leadership of the passed a Direct Action Resolution which condemned
two parties on the issue of representation of the Muslim both British Government and Congress (16th August,
community. 1946). 27th March, 1947 was celebrated as Pakistan Day
All this resulted in a deadlock. Finally, Wavell announced by Jinnah.
the failure of his efforts on 14th July, 1945.
Constituent Assembly
The Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) The Constituent Assembly met in New Delhi on
• The Attlee Government announced in February 1946, the 9th December, 1946, without the participation of the
decision to send a high-powered mission of three British league. Rajendra Prasad was elected as its President.
Cabinet members : Pethick Lawrence–Stafford Cripps and
AV Alexander to India to find out ways and means for a Mountbatten Plan (3rd June, 1947)
negotiated peaceful transfer of power of India. • The freedom with partition formula was coming to be
• The mission rejected the Muslim League’s demand for widely accepted well before Mountbatten came.
Pakistan. The mission proposed a Two Tier Federal Plan, The important points of the plan were as follow
which was initially accepted by both the Congress and – Punjab and Bengal Legislative Assemblies would meet
Muslim League. The Muslim League eventually decided in two groups: 1. Hindus and 2. Muslims to vote for
to keep away. partition.
Reaction to the Plan – In case of partition, two dominions and two

• The Muslim League joined the cabinet but decided to Constituent Assemblies would be created.
boycott the Constituent Assembly which started its work – Sindh would take its own decision.
of framing the Constitution on December, 1946. – The provision of referendum was provided in case of
• The Muslim League on 6th June and the Congress on NWFP and Sylhet.
24th June, 1946 accepted the long-term plan, but forward – Referendum in NWFP and Sylhet, district of Bengal
by the Cabinet Mission. would decide the fate of these areas.
• July 1946, elections were held in provincial assemblies for – Freedom would come on 15th August, 1947.
the Constituent Assembly. The Congress got 209 of the
total 273 seats. The Partition of India
• 29th July, 1946, the league withdrew its acceptance of the • A Boundary Commission would be set-up if partition
long-term in a reaction against Nehru’s statement and was to be effected. On July 1947 the British Parliament
gave a call for ‘direct action’ from 16th August, 1946 to ratified the Mountbatten Plan as the ‘Independence of
achieve Pakistan. India’ Act, 1947. The act was implemented on 15th
August, 1947.
Interim Government (2nd September, 1946)
• Pakistan became independent on 14th August, 1947. MA
• Lord Wavell invited Jawaharlal Nehru, the leader of the
Jinnah became the first Governor-General of Pakistan.
largest party in India to form an Interim Government
which was sworn-in on 2nd September, 1946. At midnight of 15th August, 1947 as the clock struck
12, India became free. Nehru proclaimed it to be the
• It was composed of 12 members (including 3 Muslims)
nation with his famous ‘tryst with destiny’ speech.
nominated by the Congress, Jawaharlal Nehru was its
Vice-President. It was for the first time since the coming • On the morning of 15th August, 1947, Lord
of the British that the Government of India was in Mountbatten was sworn-in as Governor-General and
Indian hands. Jawaharlal Nehru as the first Prime Minister of free India.
• The Muslim League at first refused to join the Interim • At the time of freedom, there were 562 small and big
Government. But later, it changed its stand. Muslim princely states. Sardar Patel, the first Home Minister
League joined the Interim Government not to work used iron hand in this regard.
sincerely.
GENERAL STUDIES History 817

Movement Location Leaders Causes

Awadh Kisan Oudh JL Nehru, Baba To organise peasants
Revolt Years Area Sabha (1920) Rama Chandra
Kol Uprising 1824-1828, 1839, Gujarat Andhra Ryots Andhra NG Ranga Abolition of Zamindari
1899 Association Pradesh
(1928)
Bhils Uprising 1818-1831 Western Ghat
All India Kisan Lucknow Swami Sahajananda Protection of peasants
Khasi Rising 1846-48, 1855, 1914 Orissa Sabha (1936) from economic
exploitation
Kuki Rising under Rani 1917-1819 Manipur
Gaidinliu Bijolia Rajasthan Sitaram Das, Vijay The movement arose due
Movement Pathhik Singh to imposition of 86
Singpo Rising 1830-1839 Assam (1905, 1913, different types of cesses
Kol Rising under Buddha 1831-1832 Chhotanagpur 1916, 1927) of peasants
Bhagat Tibhaga Bengal Communists Against Zamindars and
Movement moneylenders
Khond Rising under 1846-48, 1855, 1941 Khandmal area in
(1946)
Chakrabisai Orissa
Telangana Hyderabad — Against moneylenders
Tharo Kuti Rising under 1917-1919 Manipur Movement and officials of Nizam of
Jadonand and Rani (1945-1951) Hyderabad
Gaidinliu
All India Bombay Lala Lajpat Rai, To establish a social
Ramsoi Revolt under 1822-1829 Western Ghats Trade Union, Joseph Baptista, state in India and to
Vasudeo Balwant Fadke 1920 NM Joshi watch, promote,
(Robin-hood of
safeguard and further
Maharashtra)
the interests, rights and
Munda Revolt under Birsa 1899-1900 Chhotanagpur area privileges of the workers
Munda in all matters relating to
their employment

FAMOUS PEASANT IMPORTANT NATIONAL

MOVEMENTS LEADERS
Movement Location Leaders Causes
Pagal Panthi Bengal Karam Shah, Tipu Against hike in rents in Annie Besant (1847-1933)
Movement Shah (Hajong and Bengal
(1825-1835) Garo tribes) • She founded the Theosophical Society in India and
Moplah Malabar Sayyid Ali, Sayyid Against the oppression
started the Home Rule League. She established Central
Rebellion region, Fazl and exploitation of Muslim Hindu School and College at Banaras (later BHU). She
(1921) Kerala Moplah peasants by was elected the President of the Calcutta Session of
Hindu Zamindars and INC, 1917.
British Government
• She did not attend the 1920 Session at Nagpur due to
Indigo Revolt Nadia, Digambar Biswas, Peasants were forced to
(1860) district of Bishnu Bishwas, grow indigo in their fields growing difference with Gandhiji as she felt that
Bengal Harish Chandra by the European factory Government of India Act, 1919 were means to free
Mukherjee (editor of owners Dinbandhu Mitra India.
newspaper Hindu had written about this
Patriot) revolt in his play Neel • She edited famous Newspapers — New India and
Darpan (translated into Commonwealth. She prepared — The Lotus Song, a
English by Madhusudan
translation of Gita into English.
Datta)
Poona Pune By MG Ranade To popularise the
Sarvajanik peasant’s ‘legal rights’ Bal Gangadhar Tilak (1857-1920)
Sabha (1870) • He was given the title of Lokmanya. He established new
Eka Movement Awadh Madari Pasi Higher extraction of rent English school at Poona. He joined INC in 1891 and
(1921)
moved an Arms Act Resolution. He started the Ganapati
Champaran Bihar Gandhiji Dr Rajendra Against the Tin Kathia
Satyagraha
pooja and the Shivaji festival, in 1893 and 1896
Prasad System imposed by the
(1917) European Indigo planters respectively.
Kheda Gujarat Gandhiji Against ignored appeal • He was called Bal, Lala Lajpat Rai was called Lal and
Satyagraha for remission of band Bipin Chandra Pal was called Pal. He constituted the
(1918) revenue in case of crop
failure trio of Lal, Bal, Pal, an extremist group.
UP Kisan Uttar Indira Narain — • He founded the Home Rule League in 1916 and helped
Sabha (1918) Pradesh Dwivedi, Madan in ushering the Lucknow Pact and the Reforms Act at
Mohan Malviya
the Amritsar Congress in 1919.
818 CDS Pathfinder

• He used swaraj word first time in political sense and Dadabhai Naoroji (1825-1917)
accepted Hindi as the national language of India. He
• He was the first Indian to demand Swaraj in the
gave the slogan ‘Swaraj is my birth right and I shall
have it.’ Calcutta Session of INC, 1906. He was also known as
the Indian Gladstone, Grand Old Man of India.
• Valentine Chirol Shirol described him as the Father of
• He was first Indian to be selected to the House of
Indian unrest. He wrote the books, ‘The Arctic Home in
the Vedas’ and ‘Gita Rahasya’. Commons on Liberal Party ticket. He highlighted the
draining of wealth from India by the British and its
Bhagat Singh (1907-1931) effect in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
(1901).
• He started Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926. The
sabha was to carry out political work among the youth, Dr Bhimrao Ambedkar (1891-1956)
peasants and workers on the basis of Marxism
ideologies. Dr Ambedkar was the great leader of the depressed class
and an eminent jurist. He set-up a network of colleges in
• Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev organised the Lahore students
the name of Peoples Education Society. He founded the
union for open legal work among the students. Depressed Classes Institute (1924) and Samaj Samata Sangh
• In 1928, he came in contact with revolutionaries like (1927). He participated in all the Three Round Table
Chandrashekhar Azad, Bejoy Kumar Sinha, Shiv Verma, Conferences and signed the Poona Pact with Gandhiji in
Jaidev Kapur and Bhagwati Charan Vohra to consolidate 1932. Towards the end of his life, he embraced Buddhism.
Kriti Kisan Party and Hindustan Republican Association
into one revolutionary organisation i.e. Hindustan Dr Rajendra Prasad (1884-1963)
Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). He founded the National College at Patna. He was the
• He killed British official Saunders in 1928 and was minister incharge of Food and Agriculture in the Interim
involved in Lahore conspiracy and bombed the Central Government (1946). He was the President of the
Legislative Assembly. He was executed on 23rd March, Constituent Assembly. He became the first President of
1931. the Indian Republic. He was honoured with Bharat Ratna
in 1962. He edited the newspaper — Desh (Hindi weekly).
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(1833-1894) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (1886-1915)
• He was a great scholar best known for the composition Gandhiji regarded him as his political guru. He was the
of the hymn Bande Mataram. President of the Banaras Session of INC, 1905, supported
the Swadeshi Movement. He was the founder of the
• His novel was Durgesnandini, published in 1864 and
servants of Indian Society in 1905, to train people, who
he also published the journal Bangadarsan. would work as national missionaries. He gave the
statement on the establishment of INC i.e., “No Indian has
Bipin Chandra Pal (1858-1932) started the INC; he edited newspaper sudharak.”
• He was awarded with the title Mightiest Prophet of
Nationalism by Aurobindo Ghosh. He supported Age of Jawaharlal Nehru (1889-1964)
Consent Bill, 1891, Swadeshi Movement and fought for • He became the General-Secretary of INC in 1928 and its
the cause of the Assam tea-gardeners. President in 1929. The Independence resolution was
• He started newspapers- Paridaashak (weekly); Public passed under his Presidentship at the Lahore Session.
Opinion and Tribune (editor); Swaraj (English weekly in • He was the first Prime Minister of Republic India (from
London); Hindu Review (English monthly); Independent 1947 to 1964), also known as architect of Modern India.
(daily); Democrate (weekly) and wrote book New India. He authored the Doctrine of Panchseel and believed in the
policy of non-alignment.
Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari (1879-1972)
• Books — The Discovery of India, Glimpses of World
• He was a politician and lawyer from Tamil Nadu. He
History, A Bunch of Old Letters, The Unity of India,
gave up his practice during NCM. He started the CDM Independence and After, India and the World etc.
in Tamil Nadu and was arrested for leading a Salt March
from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast. Lala Lajpat Rai (1865-1928)
• He served as the Governor of Bengal
• He was called The Lion of Punjab (Sher-a-Punjab). He
(August-November, 1947) and was the first and last
was inspired by Mahatma Hans Raj. Being an Arya
Indian Governor-General of India (1948-50).
Samajist, he helped in establishment of the DAV College
• He became the Minister of Home Affairs in the at Lahore.
country’s first cabinet. He founded the Swatantra Party • He was the President of the special session of the
in 1959. His rational ideas are reflected in the collection
Congress at Calcutta, 1920. He opposed the withdrawal
Satyameva Jayate. He was awarded the Bharat Ratna of NCM in 1922.
in 1954.
GENERAL STUDIES History 819

• He founded Swaraj Party with Motilal Nehru and CR • He founded the Forward Bloc (1939). He escaped to
Das. He was injured during a demonstration against Berlin in 1941 and met Hitler. He took the charge of
Simon Commission in 1928. He was the editor of the Indian Army (Azad Hind Fauz) in 1943 in Singapore
‘Bande Matram’, ‘the Punjab’ and ‘the People’. and set-up Indian Provisional Government there.
• He addressed Mahatma Gandhi as the Father of the
Mahatma Gandhi Nation, in a broadcast on Radio. He supposedly died in
• Gandhi came to India in 1915. He already had started a plane crash in 1945. He gave the famous slogans —
Satyagraha in South Africa. In 1907, he started Dilli Chalo and Jai Hind. The India Struggle was his
Satyagraha against compulsory registration and passes autobiography.
for Indians. In 1910, Satyagraha against immigration
restrictions, derecognition of Non-Christian Indian Sarojini Naidu (1879-1949)
marriages was also initiated. • Popularly known as the Nightangle of India. She became
• He led Champaran Satyagraha in 1917 against the the first woman to participate in the India’s struggle for
tinakathia system. In 1918, he led Ahmedabad mill strike independence. She participated in the Dandi March with
on the demand of plague bonus by the mill workers. Gandhiji and presided over the Kanpur Session of
Kheda Satyagraha was led by him in 1918 for the Congress in 1925. She was the first woman to become
demand of non-payment of tax due to famine. the Governor of Uttar Pradesh State.
• The Ahmedabad Satyagraha, where there was dispute • Her famous books include — The Golden Threshold
between the mill owner and workers over the ‘plague (1905), The Feather of the Dawn; The Bird of Time
bonus’ was also a success. Gandhi then advised the (1912) and The Broken Wing (1917).
workers to go on strike and he undertook hunger strike,
after which the mill owners were pressurised to accept
the tribunal award of 35% increase in wages.
• Kheda Satyagraha The peasants of Kheda district were
Newspapers, Journals and Books Writer/Editor
in extreme distress due to the failure of crops and the Abhyudaya, Leader, Hindustan Madan Mohan Malviya
government ignored their appeals for the remission of
Indian Mirror Keshub Chandra Sen
land revenue. Gandhiji advised them to withhold the
Comrade, Hamdard Muhammad Ali Jauhar
revenue and fight to death.
Kesari (Marathi), The Maratha (English), Gita Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Rahasya
Rabindranath Tagore (1861-1941)
Young India, Harijan, Nawjiwan, Mahatma Gandhi
• He was a poet, philosopher, educationist, internationalist Hindu Swaraj, My Experiment With Truth
and a patriot. His elder brother was Satyendranath Commonweal, New India Annie Besant
Tagore, the first Indian to become an ICS. He founded Sanwad Kaunudi (Bengali), Mirat-ul-Akhbar Raja Ram Mohun Ray
Shantiniketan near Bolpore on 22nd December, 1901. He (Persian)
wrote Gitanjali, which fetched him the Nobel Prize in Anand Math, Devi Chaudhrani Bankimchandra
1913. Chattopadhyay
• On nationalism he said, “Nationalism is a great menance. Neel Darpan Deenbandhu Mitra
It is the particular thing which for years has been at the Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, Rast Dada Bhai Naoroji
Guftur
bottom of India’s troubles. And in as such as we have
been ruled and dominated by a nation that is strictly Amrit Bazaar Patrika Shishir Kumar Ghosh
political in its attitude, we have tried to develop within India Wins Freedom, Gubar-e-Khatir, Al-Hilal Abul Kalam Azad
ourselves despite our inheritance from the past, a belief Soj-e-Watan, Karmbhoomi, Prem Chandra
Shatranj ke Khiladi
in our eventual political destiny”.
Indian Struggle Subhash Chandra Bose
• His compositions were chosen as National Anthem by
India for Indians Chitranjan Das
two nations
Krmyogi, Yugantar, Vande Mataram, Arvind Ghosh
i. India — Jana Gana Mana Life Divine, Savitri
ii. Bangladesh — Amar Sonar Bangla Gandhi vs. Lenin, The Socialist, Literature Shripad Amrit Dange
and People
Subhash Chandra Bose (1897-1945) Amar Jiban-o-Bharater Communist Party Muzaffar Ahmad
(Bengali), Navyug, Langal
• He passed the Indian Civil Services Examination in 1920
Inquilab (Revolution) Ghulam Hussain
in England, but left it on Gandhiji’s call of NCM. He
founded the independence for India League with The Labour Kisan Gazette, Thozhilalar Singaravelu Chettiar
(Tamil)
Jawaharlal Nehru. He was elected as the President of
The Revolutionary Shachindranath Sanyal
INC at its Haripura Session (1938) and Tripuri Session
(1939), but resigned from Tripuri due to differences with Independent Moti Lal Nehru
Gandhiji.
820 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Under the forceful thrust of 4. Which of the following was the 8. After the death of Raja Rammohan
British rule, a rapid immediate cause which Roy, the Brahmo Samaj split into
transformation of the Indian precipitated the Sepoy Mutiny of two sections; the Brahmo Samaj.
economy took place. In this 1857? Who were the leaders of the two
context, which of the following (a) Wide disparity between the salaries sections respectively?
statement is/are correct? of native sepoys and the British (a) Keshabh Chandra Sen and
1. Indian economy was soldiers Debendranath Tagore
transformed into a colonial (b) Bid to convert the Indians to (b) Radhakanta Deb and Debendranath,
economy in the 19th century Christianity Tagore
whose structure was (c) Introduction of catridges greased (c) Keshab Chandra Sen and Radhakanta
determined by Britain’s fast with cow’s and swin fat Deb
developing industrial economy. (d) Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse (d) Debendranath Tagore and Radhakanta
2. The influx of cheap Indian Deb
5. What was the main objective of
products into England gave a 9. Which of the following is significance
Lord Wellesley in concluding a
great blow to English textile of Chauri Chaura in the history of
industries.
subsidiary treaty (1798) with the
Nizam? the Indian National Movement?
3. The 19th century saw the (a) The crowd burnt the police station and
collapse of the traditional (a) Create a buffer state between the
killed 22 policemen so due to violence
Indian village economy and British possessions and the
Gandhi withdrew his Non-Cooperation
dominions of Tipu Sultan
fresh economic alignment along Movement
commercial lines. (b) Exterminate French influence and
(b) Gandhiji stated his Satyagraha from
intrigues in India
Select the correct answer using here
(c) Improve his relations with the
the codes given below. (c) Gandhiji started his Non-Cooperation
Nizam with a view of creating a
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 Movement from here
permanent rivalry against Tipu
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 2 Sultan (d) Gandhiji started his Dandi March from
here
2. Which of the following pairs is (d) Eliminate the possibility of an
incorrectly matched? alliance between the Nizam and 10. Which one among the following
the Marathas statements about the Swadeshi and
(a) Charter Act : To regulate
of 1853 company’s affairs 6. Match the following Revolutionary Movements in Bengal
is not correct?
List I List II (a) It gave a great push forward to the
(b) Charter Act : Company’s debt
of 1833 taken over by the A. Government of 1. Provincial Indian Nationalist Movement
Government of Indian Act, 1919 Autonomy (b) It gave a great stimulus to indigenous
India B. Government of 2. Dyarchy business and industry Swadeshi
Indian Act, 1935 enterprise
(c) Charter Act : Company’s
of 1813 monopoly of trade C. Act of 1858 3. Assumption of (c) The Government of East Bengal and
with India ended power by the
British Crown Assam became sympathetic to the
(d) The Pitt’s : Board of control to revolutionaries
India Act of guide and control Codes (d) It gave a great stimulus to the
1784 company’s affairs A B C A B C development of vernacular literature
(a) 2 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 and revolutionary literature in particular
3. Match the following (c) 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2
11. 13th April, 1919 marked the brutal
List I List II 7. Which among the following was massacre at Jallianwala Bagh. What
A. Permanent 1. Parts of Madras the reason for the resignation of was the occasion for the gathering at
Settlement and Bombay the Indian Ministers from all the the Jallianwala Bagh ground before
Presidencies
provinces in the year 1939? the massacre took place?
B. Ryotwari 2. Gangetic valley, (a) To condole the death of a local leader
Settlement North-West (a) The Governors refused to act as
Provinces, Punjab constitutional heads in police custody
C. Mahalwari 3. Bengal and Bihar (b) The Centre did not provide the (b) To protest against the passing of the
Settlement required financial help to provinces Rowlatt Act
(c) The Governor-General converted (c) To organise a Satyagraha against the
Codes generally rude behaviour of General
Indian help to provinces
A B C A B C Dyer
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 1 2 (d) India was declared a party to the
(d) To demonstrate protest against the
World War II without the consent of
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 arrest of their popular leaders, Dr
the provincial government
Saiffudin Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal
GENERAL STUDIES History 821

12. In Delhi Congress Session on 17. For which of the following reasons (b) To oppose the Indian Government for
14th June, 1947, the resolution for was the Simon Commission not taking action against the
India’s partition was passed. The appointed by the British Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919)
session was presided over by Government? (c) All of the above
(a) Rajendra Prasad (a) To suggest reforms in the system of (c) None of the above
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel government established under the 23. British colonialism in India saw the
(c) Acharya JB Kripalani Act of 1919 emergence of new cities. Calcutta,
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) To Indianise the defence force now Kolkata, was one of the first
(c) To inquire into the causes of cities. Which of the following
13. Initially, the Mughals tried to
growing violence in India villages were amalgamated to form
develop friendly relations with the
(d) All of the above
English. Why? the city of Calcutta?
1. They could use the English to 18. Arrange the following events in (a) Midnapur, Chittagong, Burdwan
counter the Portuguese on the correct chronological order. (b) 24-Parganas, Kalikata, Thakurgaon
sea. 1. Partition of Bengal (c) Sutanuti, Kalikata, Gobindapur
(d) Midnapur, Thakurgaon, Gobindapur
2. They could use English to keep 2. Permanent Settlement
them in opening trading points 3. Subsidiary Alliance 24. Arrange the following in correct
in spice islands. 4. Doctrine fo Lapse chronological order.
3. Indian, merchants could Codes 1. Partition of Bengal
certainly benefit by competition (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 2. Chauri-Chaura Incident
among their foreign buyers. (c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 3. First Round Table Conference
Select the correct answer using Codes
19. Match the following
the codes given below. (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 List I List II (c) 1, 3, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these A. Lord Wellesley 1. Permanent 25. Which one among the following
14. Several socio-political Settlement
statements about Civil
B. Lord Dalhousie 2. Subsidiary
organisations were formed in the Alliance Disobedience Movement is correct?
19th and 20th centuries in India. C. Lord Cornwallis 3. Abolition of Sati (a) It started with Gandhiji’s march to
Anjuman-e-Khawatin-e-Islam D. Lord William 4. Doctrine of Lapse Champaran
founded in the year 1914 was Bentinck (b) Under Gandhi-Irwin agreement
(a) All India Muslim Ladies Conference Congress agreed to give up Civil
Codes
(b) A radical wing of the All India Disobedience Movement
A B C D A B C D (c) The British Government was quite soft
Muslim League
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 towards the movement from the
(c) All India Muslim Student’s
Conference (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 4 1 3 beginning
(d) All India Islamic Conference 20. Which one among the following (d) There was no violence during the
was the primary reason behind movement
15. Consider the following statement(s)
1. At the time of independence,
the failure of the Young Bengal 26. Which of the following pairs is
the Government of India Movement in Bengal? incorrectly matched?
followed the calender based on (a) It did not appeal to educated (a) Kunwar Singh : Gorakhpur
Saka era. people
(b) Lakshman Rao : Jhansi
(b) Its economic programme was not
2. The National Calender (c) Birjis Qadir : Lucknow
popular
commenced on Chaitra 1 Saka,
(c) It was too radical (d) Khan Bahadur : Barielly
1879 corresponding to 22nd
March, AD 1957. (d) It did not have good leaders
27. Which of the following launched the
Which of the statement(s) given 21. Which of the following was the Home Rule Movement during
above is/are correct? agenda for the Round Table 1915-16?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Conference (1930-32)? (a) The Congress when Mrs Annie
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Discuss the Simon Commission Besant was President
Report (b) Annie Besant and Mahatma Gandhi
16. Which of the following was the (b) Discuss the British Government’s together
object of the Rowlatt Act passed white paper on constitutional
(c) Annie Besant and BG Tilak separately
by the Government in 1919? reforms
(c) Decide upon a Constitution for (d) Annie Besant and BG Tilak together
(a) Dispense with ordinary procedure
for the trial of accused persons India acceptable to all parties 28. Why was the Swadeshi Movement
and to secure arbitrary confinement (d) Find a solution to the communal started?
(b) Provide for different sets of rules problem
(a) Lord Curzon divided Bengal
and procedures for dealing with 22. Why was the Non-Cooperation (b) Of de–Industrialisation in India
ordinary and political criminals Movement launched in 1920? (c) The British Government did not grant
(c) To terrorise the people (a) To oppose the Indian Government’s responsible government to India
(d) To break the strength of the failure to restore the authority of the (d) The British massacred people at
nationalist movement Khilafat Jallianwala Bagh
822 CDS Pathfinder

29. Which of the following was the Which of the statement(s) given (c) of the introduction of the idea of a
reason behind Gandhiji’s above is/are correct? Planning Commission
Champaran Movement. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) of the acceptance of the Government
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of Indian Act, 1935 by the Congress
(a) Solving the problem of the indigo
workers
34. The first individual Satyagrahi, 39. Which of the following Acts were
(b) Maintaining the Unity of Hindu
Acharya Vinoba Bhave offered passed by the British Government in
Society 1856?
Satyagraha in which among the
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement 1. Hindu widow Remarriage Act.
following way?
(d) The Security of Rights of Harijans 2. Abolition of Sati (Regulation
(a) By not paying taxes
30. Who among the following were (b) By burning British flag XVII).
involved in throwing bomb at (c) By making a speech against the 3. General Service Enlistment Act.
Lord Hardinge in 1912? viceroy of India 4. Religious Disabilities Act.
1. Awadh Bihari 2. Amir Chand (d) By making antiwar speech Select the correct answer using the
3. Pulin Bihari 4. Balmukand 35. Which one of the following is the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using correct chronological order of the
(c) 4, 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
the codes given below. freedom movements of India?
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4 (a) Quit India Movement, 40. Consider the following statements
(c) 1, 2, 4 (d) 3, 4, 1 Non-cooperation Movement, Civil 1. Dayanand Saraswati founded the
Disobedience Movement Arya Samaj in 1875.
31. Consider the following
(b) Non-cooperation Movement, Civil 2. The Arya Samaj repudiated the
statement(s) Disobedience Movement, Quit India authority of the caste system.
1. Hindu Widow Remarriage Act Movement
was passed during Lord 3. Dayanand Saraswati was born in
(c) Quit India Movement, Civil the Brahman family.
Dalhousie’s Governorship. Disobedience Movement,
2. Foundation of the universities Non-cooperation Movement Which of the statements given above
at Calcutta, Bombay and (d) Non-cooperation Movement, Quit are correct?
Madras was laid during Lord India Movement, Civil Disobedience (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Canning’s tenure. Movement (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
3. During the times of Lord 36. Which of the following was not 41. Match the following
Ripon the First Factory Act
one of the major political causes List I List II
for the welfare of child was
of the Revolt of 1857?
passed. A. Raj Kumar 1. Kheda Satyagraha
(a) the withdrawal of the pension of Shukla
Which of the statement(s) given Nana Sahib B. Ambalal 2. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
above is/are correct? (b) Lord Dalhousie’s policy of Sarabhai
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 discriminate annexation and C. Indulal Yagnik 3. Bardoli Satyagraha
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these Doctrine of Lapse D. Vallabhbhai 4. Champaran
32. Consider the following statement(s) (c) The absence of sovereignship of Patel Satyagraha
1. Wellesley converted East India British rule in India
Codes
Company into British Empire (d) After the defeat of the Sikhs and
A B C D A B C D
annexation of the Punjab, the
by encouraging subsidiary (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
properties of the Lahore, Durbar
alliance system. were auctioned and the Kohinoor (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1 4
2. Wellesley continued permanent was sent to England 42. Which of the following statements on
settlement in Bengal.
37. The Lucknow Congress Session of Gandhian movements is not correct?
3. Fort William College was (a) Mahatma Gandhi was in favour of
opened for private training to 1916 is noted for
(a) the concession given by the mass movement
both aspirants and serving (b) Gandhian movements were non-violent
Congress to the Muslim League in
civil servants about India. in nature
the former’s acceptance of
Which of the statements(s) given separate electorates (c) In Gandhian movements, leadership
above is/are correct? (b) the electron of a Muslim President had no role
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 3 of the Congress (d) Mahatma Gandhi was in favour of
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (c) the merger of the Muslim League passive resistance
33. Consider the following statement(s) with the Congress temporality 43. Which one among the following works
about the First Session of the (d) None of the above of Mahatma Gandhi provides a
Indian National Congress. 38. The Haripura Congress (1938) critique of modern machine-oriented
1. It was held in Bombay in remains a milestone in Indian civilisation?
1885. Freedom Struggle, because (a) The Story of My Experiments with Truth
2. Surendranath Banerji could (a) it declared war on the British (b) Hind Swaraj
not attend the session due to Empire (c) Constructive Programme
the simulations session of the (b) it appointed Jawaharlal Nehru as (d) Anasakti Yoga (Commentary on ‘Gita’)
Indian National Conference. the future Prime Minister of India
GENERAL STUDIES History 823

44. Consider the following statements Codes 55. The Cripps Proposals which were
about Swami Vivekananda A B C D E given in 1942, put forward
1. He said that Vedanta was the (a) 1 2 3 4 5 (a) creation of central and provincial
religion of all. (b) 5 4 3 2 1 government
(c) 2 3 4 1 5 (b) establishment of a Constitution making
2. He believed in reviving all the
(d) 5 4 2 3 1 body
best traditions of Hinduism.
3. He was impressed by the 50. Several nationalist leaders in (c) giving proper representation to princely
status of women in the West. India wrote commentaries on states
the Bhagvad Geeta to argue the (d) None of the above
Which of the statements given
case for an ethical foundation to 56. Consider the following campaigns
above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Indian nationalism, who among
1. Imposition of import duty on cotton
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
the following is an exception to
in 1875.
it?
45. What was the motto of Home (a) Sri Aurobindo 2. Against Arms Act of 1878.
Rule Movement? (b) Mahatma Gandhi 3. Against Inland Emigration Act.
(a) Self-government for India (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 4. In support of llbert Bill.
(b) Complete Independence to India (d) Ram Manohar Lohia Which of the above campaigns were
(c) Introduction of Universal Adult 51. Arrange the following events of organised by pre-congress association
Franchise AD 1919 in correct chronological were before the struggle begins?
(d) None of the above order. (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
1. Rowlatt Act. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
46. Which of the following statements
about Annie Besant are correct? 2. Hunter Report. 57. Which of the following was the earliest
1. She founded the Central 3. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. public association to be formed in
Hindu College at Banaras. 4. Return to Knightwood by Modern India?
2. She organised the Home Rule Rabindranath Tagore. (a) The Madras Native Association
League. Codes (b) The British Indian Association
3. She introduced the Theosophical (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2 (c) The Bengal British Indian Society
Movement in India. (c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) The Landholder’s Society
Select the correct answer using 52. The Cabinet Mission proposed 58. Which of the following is correct
the codes given below. (a) setting up of an Interim regarding the lease of Madras to the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 Government English by the local Raja in 1639?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (b) a federal union consisting of (a) The Raja authorised them to fortify
British India Provinces and Indian Madras
47. Arrange the following events in States
correct chronological order. (b) The Raja did not authorised them to
(c) a Constitution making body administer Madras
1. Rowlatt Act elected by the Provincial
(c) The Raja did not authorised them to
2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact Assemblies
coin money
3. Morley-Minto Reforms (d) All of the above
(d) The English built a small fort around
4. Illbert Bill 53. The first tribal leader who was their factory
Codes
inspired by Mahatma Gandhi 59. Match the following
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2
and his ideology was
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2 (a) Jadonang List I List II
48. Who among the following had (b) Rani Gaidinliu (Maratha Powers) (Places)
moved the objectives resolution (c) Alluri Sitaram Raju A. Bhonsle 1. Baroda
which formed the basis of the (d) Thakkar Bapa B. Holkar 2. Nagpur
Preamble of the Constitution of 54. Consider the following C. Peshwa 3. Poona
India in the Constituent statement(s) D. Gaekwad 4. Indore
Assembly on 13th December, 1. The All India Trade Union Codes
1946? Congress was formed in A B C D A B C D
(a) Dr BR Ambedkar 1920. (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 3 4 1 2
(b) Dr Rajendra Prasad 2. Lokamanya Tilak played an (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel important role in the
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru formation of the AITUC.
60. The Dastaks issued by the Nizam to
the company involved conflict. Why it
49. Match the following 3. Lala Lajpat Rai was
appointed as its first
is so?
List I List II President and Dewan Chaman (a) The company was granted permits
A. Independent 1. MK Gandhi dastaks for the duty-free import-export
Lal as its General Secretary.
trade, but the company was mis-using it
B. Hindu 2. Motilal Nehru Which of the statement(s) given for internal trades also
C. Maratha 3. G Subramanya Iyer above is/are correct? (b) The dastaks were granted to the
D. New Delhi 4. BG Tilak (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 company, but they were being mis-used
E. Young India 5. Annie Besant (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these by the company servants
824 CDS Pathfinder

(c) The company and its servants 66. Consider the following statement(s) (b) Indian merchants were at the
were selling the dastaks even to relating to the famous disadvantageous situation on account
private merchants Muzaffarpur murders (1908). of payment of duties by them while
(d) All of the above the English trade was duty free
1. The bomb, which was hurled
(c) Producers were forced through the use
61. Which one of the following was at their carriage of Mrs
of violent methods to sell their
the historical significance of the Pringle and her daughter was commodities at lower prices
Battle of Buxar (1764)? actually intended for
(d) All of the above
(a) It demonstrated the superiority of Mr Kingsford, the District
English arms over the combined Judge of Muzaffarpur. 71. Consider the following statement(s)
army of two of the major Indian 2. The revolutionaries wanted to 1. The Battle of Plassey was fought
Powers kill Mr Kingsford, because he on 22nd October, 1757.
(b) It firmly established the British as had inflicted severe 2. The Battle of Buxar was fought at
Master of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa punishments of Swadeshi the time when Peshwa Madhav
(c) It placed Awadh at the mercy of activists. Rao was ruling the Marathas.
the English 3. Khudiram and Prafulla chaki Which of the statement(s) given
(d) It formally abolished the Mughal had to pay the penalty for above is/are correct?
empire their action by death. (a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2
62. ‘In this instance, we could not Which of the statement(s) given (c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
play off Mohammedans against above is/are correct? 72. Consider the following statements
the Hindus’. To which one of the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
1. The Anglo-French Wars were
following events did this remark fought in Carnatic region.
of Atkinson relate? 67. In the context of the Indian 2. Madras was captured by the
(a) Revolt of 1857 Freedom Struggle 16th October, French during First Anglo-French
(b) Champaran Satyagraha (1917) 1905 is well known for which one War and was given back to the
(c) Khilafat and Non-Cooperation of the following reasons? English in 1748.
Movement (a) The formal proclamation of 3. Battle of St Thome was fought
(d) August Movement of 1942 Swadeshi Movement was made in between Nawab of Carnatic and
63. Which is not true about the Calcutta town hall the French.
French East India Company? (b) Partition of Bengal took effect Which of the statements given above
(a) It was not dependent on the (c) Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the are correct?
French Government goal of Indian National Congress (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(b) It received treasury grants, was Swaraj (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
subsidies and loans from the (d) Lokmanya Tilak started Swadeshi
French Government
73. The advantage(s) secured by the
Movement in Poona
(c) It was controlled by the French
English from the Treaty of Calcutta
State 68. Consider the following statement(s) (1757) with Nawab Sirajud Daula
(d) None of the above 1. The Portugese were the first was
to follow mercantilist (a) the English were granted permission to
64. Arrange the correct chronology of philosophy in India. fortify Calcutta
the establishment of the French 2. Blue ocean Policy meant vast (b) the English were given permission to
factories. control over sea routes but mint their own coins
1. Chander Nagar only where environment was (c) All of the above
2. Surat sustainable. (d) None of the above
3. Masulipatnam
Which of the statement(s) given 74. The Treaty of Alinagar signed
4. Pondicherry
Codes above is/are correct? between the English and the Nawab
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 (a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2 on February, 1757 did not provide for
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 (c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) compensation for damages to the East
India Company
65. Which of the following was the 69. Who was Sir George Oxenden?
(b) permission to fortify Fort William
object of the Rowlatt Act passed (a) First President of Council of Surat
(c) property that had been seized by the
(b) First Governor of Bombay and
by the Government in 1919? Nawab to be restored
responsible for its rise into
(a) Dispense with ordinary procedure (d) acknowledgment of the East India
prominence
for the trial of accused persons Company as the paramount power by
and to secure arbitrary confinement (c) First President of council of
the Nawab
Madras
(b) Provide for different sets of rules
and procedures for dealing with (d) None of the above 75. After Bengal, the English seemed the
ordinary and political criminals right of duty- free trade in the
70. Why did the trade and industries
(c) To terrorise the people dominion of
of Bengal suffer heavily after the
(a) Raja of Banaras
(d) To break the strength of the Battle of Plassey?
nationalist movement (b) Nawab of Awadh
(a) Indian merchants faced stiff (c) The Nizam of Hyderabad
competition from the English
(d) The Jats of Bharatpur
GENERAL STUDIES History 825

76. How did the Mughal Emperor 82. Who among the following were Which of the statement(s) given
Jahandar Shah’s reign come to an official Congress negotiators with above is/are correct?
early end? Cripps Mission? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) He was deposed by his wazir (a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) He died due to a slip while climbing (b) Acharya JB Kripalani and C
down steps 88. Consider the following statement(s)
Rajagopalachari
(c) He was defeated by his nephew in 1. The Hindustan socialist
(c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
a battle Republican Association was
(d) Dr Rajendra Prasad and Rafi
(d) The died of sickness due to too founded in 1928 in Delhi,
Ahmed
much consumption of wine 2. The most successful revolutionary
83. Consider the following statement(s) operation in the entire history of
77. Cornwallis’ code of 1793 separated 1. Lord Irwin was popularly the freedom struggle was led by
(a) revenue collection for administration known as Christian Viceroy. Surya Sen.
of civil justice
2. A separate state of Bihar and 3. Sohan Singh Bakha was the
(b) Civil administration from judicial Orissa was created during the founder President of the Ghadar
administration
governorship of Lord Hardinge. Party in USA.
(c) The Bengal administration for
3. During Lord Wellington’s Which of the statement(s) given
central administration
tenure communal award was above is/are correct?
(d) The civil administration from military
propagated in August, 1932. (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
administration
Which of the statement(s) given (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
78. Consider the following statement(s) above is/are correct?
1. Subhash Chandra Bose formed 89. Which of the following may be
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 1
the forward bloc. (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
considered drawbacks of the early
2. Bhagat Singh was one of the phase of the congress activities?
founders of Hindustan 84. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast 1. It was confined to the educated
Republican Socialist Association unto death mainly because middle class.
[HRSA] (a) Round Table Conference failed to 2. Misplaced faith in the
satisfy India political aspirations benevolence and fair mindedness
Select the correct answer from the
(b) Congress and Muslim League had of the British policies.
codes given below. differences of opinion
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 3. No proper understanding of the
(c) Ramsay MacDonald announced the exploitative nature of British
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
communal award economic policies.
79. Which of the following held the (d) None of the above
4. Preservation of caste and
chief spirit behind the Shimla communal considerations
85. The French East India Company
Conference in early 1945? preventing mass involvement.
was founded in 1664. It made
(a) C Rajagopalachari
rapid progress and was finally Select the correct answer using the
(b) Amery, Secretary of State for India
established at codes given below.
(c) Lord Wavell, the Viceroy
(a) Calicut and Pondicherry (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(d) None of the above
(b) Madras and Chandernagar (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
80. In the battle of Buxar, nawab (c) Chandernagar and Pondicherry
90. The Europeans in India launched a
Shuja-ud Daula of Awadh joined (d) Chandernagar and Bassein
Mir Qasim under the terms that vigorous campaign for the repeal of
86. Consider the following the llbert Bill for
(a) Mir Qasim would meet the
expenses of Shuja’s army personalities 1. monopolisation of higher judicial
(b) Mir Qasim would lead to the 1. JP Narayane posts for Europeans.
province of Bihar to Awadh after 2. JL Nehru 2. exclusion of Indians from
his restwatia. 3. Narandra Dev Viceroy’s Council.
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ 4. Minu Masani 3. their exemption from the
(d) Mir Qasim would get Shuja jurisdiction Indian judges and
Which was/were two founder of
appointed as wazir of Shah magistrates.
Alam II
congress Samajvadi Party?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statement(s) given
81. Consider the following statement(s) (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 above is/are correct?
1. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
was the first graduate of
87. Consider the following
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
Calcutta University. statement(s)
2. Satyendranath Tagore was the 1. The book ‘The Indian War of 91. The Doctrines of ‘Non-Violence’ and
first Indian to qualify for the Independence, 1857’ was ‘Civil Disobedience’ associated with
Indian Civil Service written by VD Savarkar. Mahatma Gandhi were influenced
Which of the statement(s) given 2. Mirza Ghalib, the famous Urdu by the works of
poet, witnessed the massacre (a) Churchill-Irwin-Tolstoy
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 of male civilians of Delhi by (b) Ruskin-Tolstoy-Thoreau
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the British soldiers after it (c) Thoreau-Humen-Shaw
was recaptured. (d) Cripps-Tolstoy-Howes
826 CDS Pathfinder

92. Consider the following statement(s) Which of the statements(s) given (c) Develop the felling of national unity
1. Wellesley converted East India above is/are correct? among the people
Company into British empire (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Create and nurture and Indian
by encouraging subsidiary (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 nationhood
alliance system. 100. Match the following
2. Wellesley continued permanent 96. Consider the following events
settlement in Bengal. during the British rule List II
List I
3. Fort William college was opened 1. Pundering of begums of (Areas under
(Leaders)
for private training to both the Awadh. their Operation)
aspirants and serving civil 2. The permanent settlement A. Maulavi Ahmed Shah 1. Barrackpore
servants in India. system in Bengal. B. Mangal Pandey 2. Faizabad
Which of the statement(s) given 3. Beginning of the dual C. Bakht Khan 3. Kanpur
above is /are correct? Government in Bengal.
D. Nana Saheb 4. Delhi
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 3 4. Beginning of Drain of Wealth
form India. Codes
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Which of the following is the A B C D A B C D
93. Consider the following statement(s) (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
correct chronological order of the
about Gandhiji’s Movements (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
above given events?
1. The movement was based on (a) 4, 3, 1, 2 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
truth and non-violence.
101. Consider the following statements
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 with regard to the Government of
2. Only the brave and strong
97. An important aspect of the Cripps India Act, 1935.
could practice stayagraha and
be the part of movements. Mission of 1942 was 1. The act provided for the
3. Non-cooperation movement (a) that all Indian states should join establishment of an all India
withdrew because the followers the Indian union as a condition to Federation.
were not practising satyagraha. consider any degree of autonomy 2. The all India Federation was to
for India be based on a union of the
Which of the statement(s) given (b) the creation of an Indian Union provinces of British India and
above is/are correct? with Dominion status very soon
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 the princely states.
after the world war
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 3. There was to be a bicameral
(c) the active participation and
federal legislature.
94. Consider the following statement(s) cooperation of the Indian people,
communities and political parties in 4. Only 10% of total population in
and mark the correct answer British India was given right to
the British war effort as a condition
1. Lord Ripon usually said vote.
for granting independence with full
‘‘Judge me by my works and
sovereign status to India after the Which of the statements given above
not by my words.’’ war
2. Lord Lansdowne passed the are correct?
(d) the framing of a Constitution for
age of Consent Act which (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
the entire Indian Union, with no
forbade marriage of girl below separate Constitution for any (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
12 years. province and a Union Constitution 102. Consider the following statements
3. Lord Irwin was responsible for to be accepted by all provinces about Socio-economic condition of
creation of a new province
98. Which one of the factors given the 18th century of India.
called the North-West Frontier
below did not help the 1. The socio-economic condition of
Province.
money-lenders to exploit the the 18th century of India was
Which of the statement(s) given cultivators under the British rule infected by political conclusion
above is/are correct? in India?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
and instability.
(a) The new legal system and new 2. The institution of the castes was
(c) All of these (d) None of these
land revenue policy introduced by
the striking feature.
95. Consider the following statement(s) the British
(b) The introduction of transferability of 3. Dowry system was prevalent
in respect of the Chittagong
land among the upper castes.
Armoury Raid Case.
1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh led the (c) The growing commercialisation of 4. Polygamy was in common and
revolutionaries of the agriculture was mainly practiced by the
Chittagong Armoury Raid (d) Support to money lending aristocrats.
Case. traditions, prevalent for a very long 5. The Peshwas discouraged Sati in
time
2. The raid was undertaken in the their dominion with limited
name of the Indian Republican 99. Which of the following is not success.
Army. considered as the objective of the Which of the statements given above
3. Pritilata Weddedar was one of Indian National Congress? are correct?
the female revolutionaries of (a) Found a regional movements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
the Chittagong Armoury Raid (b) Develop and propagate
Case. (c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) All of these
anti-colonical nationalist ideology
GENERAL STUDIES History 827

103. Consider the following event(s) 2. The Christians missionaries (d) That the British goods were being
during India’s freedom struggle. tried to cast Christianity in the imported to India making the
light of a better religion and country poorer day-by-day
1. Chauri-chaura outrage
2. Dandi-March with economic inducements 111. Which among the following was the
3. Morley Reforms convinced the poor Indians into most immediate factor for the
Christianity. spread of Swadeshi and boycott of
Which of the above is/are foreign goods during the first
responsible for the withdrawal of Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? decade of the last century?
the non-cooperation movements?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Curzon’s design to curtail the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 sphere of local self-governance
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(b) Curzon’s attempt to control the
104. Which among the following was 108. Consider the following statement(s) universities
not one of the provisions of the 1. Namdhari movement also (c) Curzon’s partition of Bengal
‘Communal Award’? known as Kuka movement (d) Curzon’s plan to curb the growing
(a) Members of the depressed because of the followers popularity of the Indian National
classes were assigned reserved resorting to shricks while in Congress
seats and separate electorates ecstasy.
112. Which of the following statement(s)
(b) Separate electorates for the 2. Mahar Satyagraha was led by regarding permanent settlement
Muslims Dr Ambedkar claiming the is/are correct?
(c) Separate electorates for the rights of Mahar’s to use tanks
Europeans and the Sikhs 1. The permanent settlement was
and temples.
introduced in parts of the
(d) The separate electorates were to 3. Sati was abolished in 1829 by
lapse at the end of 10 years Madras and Bombay
the efforts of Raja Rammohan Presidencies.
105. Consider the following Roy. 2. The permanent settlement
statement(s) Which of the statement(s) given created a new class of landlords
1. One significant development in above is/are correct? with hereditary rights on land.
the second half of the 19th (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 3. The landlords created by the
century was the establishment (c) All of these (d) None of these permanent settlement could
of large-scale machine based never be removed under any
industries in India. 109. Match the followings circumstance.
2. The first textile mill was List I List II Select the correct answer using the
started in Bombay by
Cowasjee Nanabhoy in 1863 A. Asiatic Society of 1. John Eillot codes given below.
Bengal Drinkwale (a) Only 1
and the first jute mill in
Rishra (Bengal) in 1865. B. Anglo-Hindu 2. Willim Jones (b) Only 2
College (c) 2 and 3
Which of the statement(s) given C. Bethune School 3. Raja Rammohan (d) All of the above
above is/are correct? Roy
(a) Only 1 D. Cental Hindu 4. Madan Mohan 113. Gandhiji led the Indian Nationalist
(b) Only 2 College at Banaras Malaviya Movement from the front and his
(c) Both 1 and 2 Codes leadership was motivated by a
(d) Neither 1 nor2 A B C D A B C D wider philosophy, he nurtured
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 throughout the course of the
106. Arrange the following events in movement. Which one among the
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
correct chronological order. following was a continuous
1. Ilbert Bill controversy.
110. Which one among the following
statements appropriately defines movement based on this
2. The First Delhi Darbar. philosophy and not a specific
the term ‘Drain Theory’ as
3. The Queen’s Proclamation. movement?
propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji
4. First Factory Act. (a) Non-Cooperation Movement
in his work ‘Poverty and
Codes (b) Swadeshi Movement
Un-British Rule in India’?
(a) 1, 2, 3 , 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 (c) Quit India Movement
(a) That a part of India’s national
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) Civil Disobedience Movement
wealth or total annual product was
107. Consider the following being exported to Britain for which 114. In 1856, Awadh would not have
statement(s) India got no material returns been annexed with the British
1. Impact of British rule in India (b) That the resources of India were empire, if the Nawab of Awadh had
being utilised in the interest of (a) allied with the British
was started with the very first
Britain (b) not refused to introduce reforms as
Christian missionaries arriving
to India, with the intention to (c) That the British industrialists were suggested by the British
being given a opportunity to invest (c) fought against the British
turn a majority of population
in India under the protection of the
into Christians. (d) a natural heir
imperial power
828 CDS Pathfinder

115. Which of the following (c) Deletion of communal question 122. Consider the following events in the
statements about Fourth from the agenda of the history of British India.
Anglo-Mysore War are correct? conference
1. Santhal Rebellion
1. The Madras Council (d) Release of political prisoners
2. Indigo Revolt
suggested a policy of rigorous excepting those guilty of arson
and violence 3. Sanyasi and Fakir Rebellion
and intense attack on Mysore.
4. Birsa Munda Rebellion
2. Lord Wellesley tried to revive 119. Which one among the following
the triple alliance. statements regarding the social Which one of the following is a correct
3. Tipu sent emissaries to and religious reform ideas of chronological sequence of the above
Arabia, Versailles, Mauritius events starting with the earliest?
Raja Rammohan Roy is not
and Kabul enlisting support (a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 1, 4, 2, 3
correct?
against the English. (c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
(a) His efforts led to the formation of
4. The war was of a very short Brahmo Samaj in 1828 123. Which of the following statement(s)
duration though decisive (b) He considered different religions about Ryotwari settlement is/are
Select the correct answer using as embodiments of universal correct?
the codes given below. theism 1. It recognised the cultivators as
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) His Vedantic monism was the owner of land.
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 strengthened after 1815 since an 2. It was a temporary settlement.
exposure to Christian Unitarianism
116. In addition to Macaulay’s 3. It was introduced later than the
(d) He paid attention exclusively to permanent settlement
Minutes on Education, another the problems/Issues of the
landmark draft is also attributed emerging middle class of India Select the correct answer using the
to him. Identify the draft from the codes given below.
following. 120. Which of the following (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Draft of Indian Penal Code statement(s) regarding Mahatma (c) Only 1 (d) All of these
(b) Draft of Indian Forest Policy Gandhi’s philosophy of
Satyagraha is/are correct? 124. Consider the following statement(s)
(c) Draft of the Abolition Act about Dr Ram Manohar Lohia
(d) Draft of the Trade Policy 1. Truth and non-violence are
its two vital ingredients. 1. He believed the Satyagraha
117. Consider the following 2. The follower of Satyagraha
without constructive work is like
statements and identify with the a sentence without a verb.
would resist evil but not hate
help of the codes given below, the evil doer. 2. He wrote his PhD thesis paper
the person who made the on the topic of Salt Satyagraha,
3. The Satyagrahi would, if focusing on Mahatma Gandhi’s
statement necessary, inflict suffering on socio-economic theory.
‘It would be quite impossible for himself and also on the evil
3. He recognised that caste, more
a few hundred British to doer. than class was the huge
administer against the active Select the correct answer using stumbling block to India's
opposition of the whole of the the codes given below. progress.
politically minded of the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Which of the statement(s) given
population’. (c) Only 1 (d) All of these above is/are correct?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru in April, 1947 in (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
an address to Congressmen at 121. Consider the following
statement(s) about the (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Lucknow
(b) Clement Attlee January, 1947 in a Non-Cooperation Movement. 125. Which of the following statement(s)
private letter addressed to Ernest 1. The movement was a mixture about Warren Hasting is/are
Bevin of nationalism, middle class correct?
(c) Lord Mountbatten in December, politics, religion, feudalism, 1. He was the last Governor of
1946 in a note given to British agrarian discontent and Bengal.
Parliament working class agitation. 2. He wrote introduction to the first
(d) Viceroy Wavell in January 1946 in 2. The movement was much English translation of “Gita” by
a letter to Secretary of State greater in intensity than any Charles Wilkins.
118. Which one among the following other political agitation which 3. He started Diwani and Faujadari
was part of Gandhi-Irwin came before it. Adalats at the district level and
Agreement of 1931? 3. The movement helped to Sadar Diwani and Nizamat
(a) Sterm action against policemen foster Hindu-Muslim unity. Adalats (appellate courts) at
guilty of brutal assault on Which of the statement(s) given Calcutta.
Satyagrahis above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
(b) Nehru to represent Congress at (a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 codes given below.
the Round Table Conference of
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
1931
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
GENERAL STUDIES History 829

126. Which one among the following 1. He knew that the spread of (a) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
prompted Rabindranath Tagore Western education was (b) Lala Lajpat Rai
to surrender his title of ‘Sir’? necessary to develop a (c) Mangal Singh
(a) The Passing of the Rowlatt Act national and scientific (d) Motilal Nehru
(b) The Passing of the Act of 1919 attitude in the Indian society.
132. Which of the following was/were the
(c) To support Mahatma Gandhi’s 2. He played a pioneering role main features (s) of the Government
Satyagraha Movement in the religious and social of India Act, 1919?
(d) To protest against the massacre reform movements of 19th
1. Introduction of separate
at Jalianwala Bagh and the century Bengal. electorates for Muslims.
imposition of martial law in Which of the statement(s) given 2. Devolution of legislative authority
Punjab above is/are correct? by the centre to the provinces.
127. Which one of the following was (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 3. Expansion and reconstitution of
not a result of British colonial (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 central and provincial
rule in India? legislatures.
130. To which among the following
(a) Ruin of Indian agriculture the residuary powers were Select the correct answer using the
(b) Ruin of Indian industries conferred by the federation codes given below.
(c) Ruin of India trade established by the Act of 1935 (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3
(d) Ruin of Indian feudalism (a) Federal legislature (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3
128. Prior to 1813, which among the (b) Provincial legislatures 133. 26th October, 1947 is an important
following measures, was not (c) Governor-General date in the Indian history, because of
adopted by the British to exploit (d) Provincial Governors (a) Maharaja Hari Singh’s signing on
Indians economically? instrument of accession
131. Consider the following paragraph (b) cease-fire with Pakistan
(a) Monopolising the trade of raw
goods wherever possible and He was seriously injured in police (c) merger of Sind
selling them at high rates lathi charge in Lahore during the (d) declaration of war over India by
(b) Forcing Indian craftsment to demonstration against Simon Pakistan
produce quality products in fixed Commission, for which he 134. Which one of the following
quantity and at fixed price subsequently died in November commissions, committees was
(c) Free Trade Policy 1928. Later on, the British officer, appointed by the British Government
(d) Elimination of Indian traders from who was responsible for the lathi to investigate into the massacre in
competition by every means charge on him, was shot dead by Jallianwala Bagh?
129. Consider the following Bhagat Singh and Rajguru. (a) Welby Commission
(b) Hunter Committee
statement(s) relating to Raja The revolutionary referred to in
Rammohan Roy? (c) Simon Commission
the above paragraph is (d) Butler Committee

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) (c) Belief in Vedantic Philosophy (a) Warren Hastings
(d) Belief in the Eradication of (b) Lord Cornwallis
1. Which one among the following Untouchability (c) Lord Wellesley
statements regarding Bal
3. Which one among the following (d) Lord William Bentinck
Gangadhar Tilak is not correct?
(a) He propounded the theory of the statements is correct? 5. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India
Arctic Home of the Aryans (a) The Revolt of 1857 was not envisaged a
(b) He founded the Anti-Cow Killing supported by the Nizam of (a) Federation
Society Hyderabad (b) Confederation
(c) He set-up the Home Rule League at (b) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author of (c) Unitary form of Government
Poona the book, Unhappy India (d) Union of States
(d) He supported the Age of Consent (c) The Sindhias of Gwalior gave shelter 6. Which one among the following
Bill to the Rani of Jhansi states was first annexed by Lord
2. Which one among the following (d) Mangal Pandey led the Sepoys Dalhousie under the Doctrine of
principles was not propagated by March to Delhi Lapse?
the Theosophical Society? 4. Who among the following Governor (a) Nagpur
(a) Belief in Karma and Rebirth (b) Jhansi
Generals formed the Triple
(b) Belief in Universal Brotherhood and (c) Sambalpur
Alliance against Tipu Sultan?
Humanity (d) Satara
830 CDS Pathfinder

7. Identify the correct sequence of 12. Match the following (c) Siraj-ud-Daulah wanted to drive out the
the following events of Indian English from Bengal
List I List II
history (starting with the (d) Refusal of the English to demolish the
(Battles) (Treaties)
earliest) fortification of Calcutta
A. The Third Carnatic War 1. Treaty of Salbai
1. The Doctrine of Lapse 17. The suppression of Indian language
B. The Third Mysore War 2. Treaty of Lahore
2. The Subsidiary Alliance newspapers under the Vernacular
C. The First Maratha War 3. Treaty of Paris Press Act of 1878 was caused by the
3. The Treaty of Lahore
D. The First Anglo-Sikh 4. Treaty of criticism of
4. The Pitt’s India Act War Srirangapatam
(a) lavish lifestyle of the English officials
Select the correct answer using
Codes (b) ill-treatment given to Indigo workers by
the codes given below.
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 A B C D A B C D their English masters
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) inhuman approach of English officials
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 towards the victims of the famine of
8. Match the following 1876-77
(d) misuse of religious places of India by
List I List II 2012 (II) English officials
A. lyothere Thass 1. Satyashodhak
Samaj 13. Several nationalist leaders in India 18. Dalhousie has been regarded as the
wrote commentaries on the maker of modern India because he
B. Jyotiba Phule 2. Dravida
Kazhagam Bhagvad Geeta to argue the case for brought about reforms and made a
an ethical foundation to Indian beginning in many fields. Which one
C. John Rathinam 3. Self-Respect
Movement nationalism, who among the among the following was not one of
following is an exception to it? his schemes of reforms?
D. EV Ramaswami 4. Dravida Mahajana
(a) Sri Aurobindo (a) Educational reforms
Naickar Sabha
(b) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Construction of railways and
Codes (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak introduction of telegraph and postal
A B C D A B C D (d) Ram Manohar Lohia services
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) Establishment of a public works
14. Which one among the following
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 2 1 4 department
statements is not true of the
(d) Factories Act to improve the condition
9. Which of the following Jajmani system? of Indian labour
statement(s) about Permanent (a) It was a non-market exchange system
Settlement is/are correct? (b) It was practised in many villages and
1. It conferred proprietary regions during the pre-colonial period 2013 (I)
rights to peasants. (c) It was introduced under pressure
19. The fortification of Calcutta by the
2. The Zamindars were from the colonial regime
British in 1756 was regarded by the
recognised as the proprietors (d) It was incorporated into wider
Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah,
of land. networks of exchange through which
agricultural products and other goods
as
3. The government permanently (a) growth of large-scale British trade
fixed the land revenue circulated
(b) an attack upon his sovereignty
demand. 15. Which one among the following (c) insecurity of the British in India
4. The Zamindars acted as the correctly describes Gandhiji’s
middlemen between the (d) British control over Bengal
attitude towards the Swarajist
peasants and the 20. Several socio-political organisations
government. leaders?
(a) He was not opposed to their entry
were formed in the 19th and 20th
Select the correct answer using into council centuries in India,
the codes given below. (b) He had full trust in their bonafides
Anjuman-e-Khawatin-e-Islam
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 founded in the year 1914 was
and considered them most valued
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 (a) All India Muslim Ladies Conference
and respected leaders
10. The Name of Ram Prasad (c) He was not in favour of maintaining (b) A radical wing of the All India Muslim
warm personal relations with them League
Bismil is associated with
(a) Kanpur Conspiracy Case (d) He was neutral to government’s (c) All India Muslim Student’s Conference
(b) Alipore Conspiracy Case offensive against the Swarajists and (d) All India Islamic Conference
(c) Kakori Conspiracy Case did not defend them 21. British colonialism in India saw the
(d) Meerut Conspiracy Case 16. Which one among the following was emergence of new cities. Calcutta,
11. Which one among the following the immediate cause of attack by (now Kolkata), was one of the first
was not a demand of the Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah on Calcutta cities. Which of the following villages
in 1756? were amalgamated to form the city of
Prarthana Samaj?
(a) Women education (a) Refusal of the English Company to Calcutta?
(b) Widow remarriage pay the overdue trade tax (a) Midnapur, Chittagong, Burdwan
(b) The English conspired against the (b) 24-Parganas, Kalikata, Thakurgaon
(c) Raising the age of marriage for
boys and girls Nawab with a view to depose him (c) Sutanuti, Kalikata, Gobindapur
(d) Abolition of untouchability from the Throne (d) Midnapur, Thakurgaon, Gobindapur
GENERAL STUDIES History 831

22. Statement I The Permanent 27. Consider the following Directions (Q. Nos. 32-34) The
Zamindari Settlement of land statement(s) about Satyagraha following questions consists of two
created a new class of landlords. 1. It was first experimented by statements, Statement I and Statement
Statement II The new class of Gandhiji in South Africa. II. You are to examine these two
landlords became strong political 2. It was first experimented in statements carefully and select the
allies of the British and were India at Champaran. answers to these items using the codes
interested in the continuance of Which of the statement(s) given given below.
British dominion. above is/ are correct? Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Both the statements are true and
Codes
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement II is the correct explanation
(a) Both the statements are true and of Statement I
Statement II is the correct 28. Who among the following first (b) Both the statements are true, but
explanation of Statement I used the word ‘Swarajya’ in its Statement II is not the correct of
(b) Both the statements are true, but political sense and accepted Hindi Statement I
Statement II is not the correct as the national language of India? (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
explanation of Statement I (a) Ram Mohan Roy false
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II (b) Swami Vivekananda (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
is false true
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak 32. Statement I The economy of India
II is true in the 19th century came to a state
29. Which one among the following of ruin under English East India
23. Which chemical was an important was the primary reason behind
symbol in our struggle for freedom? Company.
the failure of the Young Bengal
(a) Glucose (b) Fertilizer Statement II English East India
Movement in Bengal?
(c) Medicine (d) Sodium chloride Company’s acquisition of Diwani
(a) It did not appeal to educated
right led to the miseries of the
24. Who among the following was not people
peasants and those associated with
associated with the foundation of (b) Its economic programme was not
the traditional handicrafts industry
the All India Trade Union popular
of India.
Congress? (c) It was too radical
(a) NM Joshi (b) Lajpat Rai (d) It did not have good leaders 33. Statement I In India tribal
(c) V V Giri (d) Joseph Baptista movements of 19th century resulted
30. Which one among the following out of the process of land
25. In his lectures on nationalism, statements about the Swadeshi displacements and the introduction
Ravindranath Tagore argued that and Revolutionary Movements in of forest laws.
1. nationalism frees men and Bengal is not correct? Statement II The Indian national
women from narrow loyalties (a) It gave a great push forward to the movement resolved the problems
and bonds and connects them Indian Nationalist Movement faced by the tribals.
to wider and better community (b) It gave a great stimulus to
of fellowship. 34. Statement I The social
indigenous business and industry
institutions of caste in India
2. nationalism will foster a feeling or Swadeshi enterprise
underwent major changes in the
of rootedness and cultural (c) The Government of East Bengal
colonial period.
belongingness and put an end and Assam became sympathetic to
to warmongering. the revolutionaries Statement II Caste, in
contemporary society is more a
Select the correct answer using the (d) It gave a great stimulus to the
development of vernacular literature
product of ancient Indian tradition
codes given below.
and revolutionary literature in than of colonialism.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 particular
31. Consider the following 2014 (I)
2013 (II) ‘India would be far more reliable 35. Which among the following was the
as a base for operations. reason of the resignation of the
26. Which one among the following Moreover, the prospect of a Indian Ministers in all the
statements about Civil settlement will be greatly provinces in the year 1939?
Disobedience Movement is correct? enhanced by the disappearance of (a) The Governors refused to act as
(a) It started with Gandhiji's march to Gandhi, who had for years constitutional heads
Champaran torpedoed every attempt at a (b) The Centre did not provide the
(b) Under Gandhi-Irwin agreement settlement.’ required financial help to provinces
Congress agreed to give up Civil
Disobedience Movement The above statement was made by (c) The Governor-General converted
the British in the context of Indian administration from federal to
(c) The British Government was quite
(a) Kheda Satyagraha unitary one because of the beginning
soft towards the movement from the
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement of the World War II
beginning
(c) Quit India Movement (d) India was declared a party to the
(d) There was no violence during the
(d) Non-Cooperation Movement World War II without the consent of
movement
the provincial government
832 CDS Pathfinder

36. Who among the following was 41. Consider the following 2. The French East India Company
not associated with the activities statement(s) built a fort near the Fort William
of the Theosophical Society? 1. Battle of Buxar provided the in Calcutta.
(a) Madame HP Blavatsky key to the English to establish Select the correct answer using the
(b) Mr AO Hume their rule in India. codes given below.
(c) Col HS Olcott 2. The Treaty of Allahabad, (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) Mrs Annie Besant concluded in 1765, enabled the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
British to establish their rule
37. Consider the following in Bengal. Directions (Q. Nos. 46-48) The
statement(s) about the First Which of the statement(s) given following questions consist of two
Session of the Indian National above is/are correct? statements, Statement I and Statement
Congress (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 II. You are to examine these two
1. It was held in Bombay in (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 statements carefully and select the
1885. answers to these items using the codes
2. Surendranath Bannerji could 2014 (II) given below.
not attend the session due to
the simultaneous session of Codes
42. The Ghadar party, formed in the
the Indian National USA, was determined to start a (a) Both the statements are individually true
Conference. and Statement II is the correct of
revolt in India. Which among the
Statement I
Which of the statement(s) given following provinces did the party
above is/are correct? (b) Both the statements are individually true,
choose to begin its armed revolt? but Statement II is not the correct of
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Punjab (b) Bengal Statement I
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) United Provinces (d) Bihar
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
38. Consider the following 43. Consider the following false
statement(s) statement(s) about colonial (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
1. BG Tilak founded the Home economy of Vietnam (Indo-China). true
Rule League in April 1916, in 1. The colonial economy in 46. Statement I Ram Mohan Roy in his
Maharashtra. Vietnam was primarily based famous work Gift to Monotheism put
2. NC Kelkar was not associated on rice cultivation and rubber forward weighty arguments against
with Home Rule Movement. plantations. belief in many Gods and for the
Which of the statement(s) given 2. All the rubber plantations in worship of a single God.
Vietnam were owned and
above is/are correct? controlled by a small Statement II Ram Mohan Roy in
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 his Precepts of Jesus tried to separate
Vietnamese elite.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the moral and philosophic message of
3. Indentured Vietnamese labour
39. The social ideals of Mahatma was widely used in the rubber the New Testament.
Gandhi were first put forth in plantations. 47. Statement I The Bethune School,
(a) Hind Swaraj 4. Indentured labourers worked founded in Calcutta in 1849 was the
(b) An Autobiography–The Story of My on the basis of contracts that first fruit of the powerful movement
Experiments with Truth did not specify any rights of
for women’s education that arose in
(c) History of the Satyagraha in South labourers but gave immense
power to the employers.
the 1840s and 1850s.
Africa
Which of the statement(s) given Statement II The first step in
(d) The Bhagavad Geeta–According to
Gandhi above is/are correct? giving modern education to girls was
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 undertaken by Vidyasagar in 1800.
40. Consider the following (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 48. Statement I The annexation of
statement(s) about Syed Ahmed Awadh by Lord Dalhousie in 1856
Khan, the founder of 44. Which of the four linguistic regions
in South India remained adversely affected the financial
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental conditions of the sepoys.
College, Aligarh unaffected by the Non-Cooperation
Movement (1921-22)? Statement II The sepoys had to pay
1. He was a staunch supporter higher taxes on the land where their
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
of Indian National Congress. family members stayed in Awadh.
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
2. Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental
45. Which of the following
College was set-up with the
objective of promoting learning statement(s) about the
2015 (I)
of Islamic education among penetration of English into 49. Which of the following statement(s)
the Muslims. Bengal is/are correct? about Mahatma Gandhi’s South
1. Job Charnock arrived in African experiences (1893-1914)
Which of the statement(s) given
Sutanati in August, 1690 and is/are true?
above is/are correct? laid the foundation of Calcutta
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Muslim merchants were actively
which later became the heart involved in Gandhian political
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of the British Indian empire. movements in South Africa.
GENERAL STUDIES History 833

2. In 1906, Gandhi led a 54. The interest of the British 2. One reason for the uprising was
campaign in Cape Town Government of India in the ban on free movement of the
against the ordinance on Afghanistan in the 19th century Sannyasis along pilgrimage routes.
compulsory registration and came about in order to 3. In the course of the uprisings in
passes for Indians. 1773, Warren Hastings issued a
(a) make use of the natural resources
3. Gandhi began his political of Afghanistan proclamation banishing all
career with struggles against (b) ensure that the Russian empire Sannyasis from Bengal and Bihar.
the imposition of excessive did not have an influence over 4. Are contemporaneous with the
taxes on Indians in Cape Town. Afghanistan Non-Cooperation Movement.
Select the correct answer using (c) increase the reach of the British Select the correct answer using the
the codes given below. Empire codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (d) establish a monopoly over the (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these markets of Afghanistan (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
50. Which of the following sets of 55. Which of the following features of 58. Which of the following
newspapers reflected the concerns the State of Arcot in 18th century characteristic(s) about the state of
of educated Indian Muslims South India are correct? Travancore in 18th century Kerala
during the Khilafat Movement? 1. The founders of the dynasty is/are correct?
(a) Comrade and Hamdard that ruled Arcot were Daud 1. Travancore was ruled by Martanda
(b) Comrade and Hindustan Times Khan Panni and Saadatullah Varma from 1729 to 1758.
(c) Zamindar and Muslim Voice Khan. 2. Travancore built a strong army
(d) Comrade, Hamdard, Zamindar and 2. Arcot became the site of a and defeated the Dutch in 1741.
Al Hilal 3. Travancore was an important
protracted struggle between
51. Which would be the most the English and Dutch East centre of learning.
appropriate description India Companies from the Select the correct answer using the
concerning the Punjab Naujawan 1740s. codes given below.
Bharat Sabha? 3. Decentralisation was a key (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
feature of the State of Arcot (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
It aspired to
(a) do political work among youth, in the 18th century.
peasants and workers 4. The other major State to 2015 (II)
(b) spread the philosophy of revolution emerge in South India at this
among students time was Mysore.
59. Which of the following statement(s)
(c) initiate discussions regarding about the Hastings Plan of 1772
Select the correct answer using is/are correct?
anti-imperialism among workers
the codes given below.
(d) help the formation of a Trade Union 1. Each district was to have a civil
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Movement in Punjab and a criminal court.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
52. Match the following 2. The judges were helped by native
56. Which of the following assessors who were skilled in
List II statements about the social Hindu and Islamic laws.
List I
(Journals/ reformer, Raja Ram Mohan Roy, 3. The Sadar Diwani Adalat was
(Editors)
Newspapers) is false? mainly meant to settle mercantile
A. SA Dange 1. Labour-Kisan Gazette (a) Ram Mohan Roy belonged to the cases exceeding ` 10000 in value.
B. Muzaffar Ahmed 2. Inquilab gentry class whose power has 4. These courts did not put into
been diminished because of the place any procedural
C. Ghulam Hussain 3. Navayug
imposition of the Permanent improvements.
D. M Singaravelu 4. The Socialist Settlement
Select the correct answer using the
Codes (b) He studied both Vedantic Monism
codes given below.
and Christian Unitarianism
A B C D A B C D (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) He translated the Upanishads into (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 2
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 3 1
Bengali
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 3 2 4 60. Which of the following statement(s)
(d) His first organisation was the
53. Which of the following was/were Atmiya Sabha, founded in Calcutta about Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah, who
connected primarily to the in 1815 played an important part in the
communist ideology? 57. Which of the following is/are the Revolt of 1857 is/are correct?
1. Kirti Kisan Party characteristic(s) of the Sannyasi 1. He was popularly known as
2. Labour Swaraj Party and Fakir uprisings? Danka Shah or the Maulvi with a
drum.
Select the correct answer using 1. These uprisings refer to a
series of skirmishes between 2. He fought in the famous Battle of
the codes given below.
the English East India Chinhat.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Company and a group of 3. He was killed by British troops
Sannyasis and Fakirs. under the command of Henry
Lawrence.
834 CDS Pathfinder

Select the correct answer 62. Which of the following 2016 (I)
using the codes given below. statement(s) about the formation
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 of the Indian National Congress 63. Consider the following statement(s)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 is/are true? 1. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi
1. The Indian National Congress formulates a conception of good life
61. Which of the following for the individual as well as the
was formed at a national
statement(s) about Jyotirao society.
convention held in Calcutta in
Phule’s Satyashodhak Samaj 2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the
December 1885 under the
Movement in Maharashtra presidency of Motilal Nehru. experience of Gandhi’s prolonged
is/are true? struggle against Colonial Raj in India.
2. The Safety Valve Theory
1. The Satyashodhak Samaj regarding the formation of the Which of the statement(s) given above
was set-up in 1873. Indian National Congress is/are correct?
2. Phule argued that emerged from a biography of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Brahmins were the AO Hume written by William (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
progeny of ‘alien’ Aryans. Wedderburn.
64. Consider the following statement(s)
3. Phule’s focus on the Kunbi 3. An early decision was that the
President would be from the 1. The province of Assam was created in
peasantry in the 1880s
same region where the session the year 1911.
and 1890s led to a
was to be held. 2. Eleven districts comprising Assam
privileging of Maratha
4. WC Bannerjee was the first were separated from the Lieutenant
identity. Governorship of Bengal and
Select the correct answer President of the Indian
established as an independent
using the codes given below. National Congress.
administration under a Chief
(a) 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using Commissioner in the year 1874.
(b) Only 2 the codes given below. Which of the statement(s) given above
(c) 1 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 is/are correct?
(d) All of the above (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 a 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 b 6 d 7 d 8 a 9 a 10 c
11 d 12 a 13 c 14 a 15 b 16 a 17 a 18 c 19 d 20 c
21 a 22 c 23 c 24 a 25 b 26 a 27 c 28 a 29 a 30 c
31 d 32 a 33 c 34 d 35 b 36 b 37 a 38 c 39 b 40 d
41 c 42 c 43 b 44 d 45 a 46 d 47 d 48 d 49 c 50 c
51 b 52 a 53 a 54 d 55 d 56 d 57 d 58 d 59 a 60 d
61 d 62 d 63 a 64 b 65 a 66 d 67 b 68 a 69 b 70 d
71 d 72 d 73 c 74 a 75 b 76 c 77 b 78 c 79 b 80 c
81 c 82 c 83 d 84 c 85 c 86 d 87 c 88 d 89 a 90 d
91 b 92 a 93 c 94 a 95 d 96 a 97 c 98 d 99 a 100 c
101 d 102 d 103 b 104 d 105 a 106 d 107 b 108 c 109 c 110 a
111 c 112 c 113 b 114 d 115 a 116 a 117 b 118 d 119 d 120 a
121 b 122 a 123 d 124 d 125 b 126 d 127 d 128 d 129 c 130 c
131 b 132 d 133 a 134 b

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 d 2 d 3 a 4 b 5 d 6 d 7 a 8 c 9 a 10 c
11 d 12 c 13 d 14 c 15 a 16 d 17 b 18 d 19 b 20 b
21 c 22 a 23 d 24 c 25 d 26 b 27 c 28 c 29 c 30 c
31 c 32 a 33 c 34 d 35 d 36 b 37 c 38 a 39 a 40 d
41 c 42 a 43 a 44 d 45 a 46 b 47 c 48 a 49 a 50 d
51 a 52 a 53 c 54 b 55 b 56 a 57 c 58 d 59 a 60 d
61 d 62 c 63 a 64 c
GENERAL STUDIES History 835

PART IV WORLD HISTORY

CIVILISATION OF THE WORLD • Each city also had its own primary God. Sumerian
Civilisation are organised in densely populated settlements divided writing, government and culture would pave the way
into hierarchical social classes with a ruling elite and subordinate for future civilisations.
urban and rural population, which engage in intensive agriculture, • The Sumerian language was orginally that of the
mining small-scale manufacturing and trade. Civilisation hunter and fisher people, who lived in the marshland
concentrates power, extending human control over the rest of and the Eastern Arabian littoral region and were part
nature. Civilistions have their own specialisation and their own of the Arabian bifacial cultural.
traditions.
Following are the ancient civilisations of the world Babylonian Civilisation
• The founder of this civilisaton was the Amorites. The
Egyptian Civilisation appearance of Hammurabi, the great king of the
• It was a civilisation of ancient North-eastern Africa, Amorites made this civilisation progressive.
concentrated along the lower reaches of the Nile River. • Hammurabi was the first law given in the history of
• Egyptian civilisation followed Pre-historic Egypt and the world. He codified all these laws in a simple
coalesced around 3150 BC with political unification of form which become famous as the code of
upper and lower Egypt under the first Pharaoh Narmer. Hammurabi. There were four parts in the code of
Hammurabi, viz Civil Code, Penal Code, Code of
• This civilisation reached the Pinnacle of its power in the
Procedure and Commercial Code.
New Kingdom, during the Ramessids period, where it
rivalled the Hittite Empire, Assyrian Empire and Mitanni • The Babylonian wrote 200 books. They composed
Empire. books on religion, Science, Mathematics and
astrology. In the domain of Babylonian literature,
• The success of Eyptian Civilisation came partly from its
‘Gilgamesh’ carved a special position.
ability to adopt to the conditions of the Nile River Valley
for agriculture. Assyrian Civilisation
• The achievement of this civilisation includes the quarrying, • Assyrian was an integral part of the ancient
surveying and construction techniques that supported the Mesopotamian world, and had come increasingly
building of monumental pyramids, temples and obelisks. under the influence of Sumerian civilisation from the
millennium onwards.
Mesopotamian Civilisation • Assyria was a monarchy, the king was the divinety
• This civilisation was developed between the area of appointed, all powerful ruler and claimed the
Tigris-Eupharates river system. In Greek word, the meaning universal sovereignty.
of Mesopotamia is land between rivers.
• The King of Assyria was the national God's
• The people living here hunted and gathered the plants and appointed representative on Earth. He was the chief
animals. Ancient Mesopotamia and the surrounding area is lawmaker, the chief administrator and
often called the fertile crescent or the credle of civilisation. commander-in-chief of the army.
• Mesopotamian invented new technology, they were the first • The original capital, Ashur, was also the centre of the
to use the wheel. They also created architectural structures worship of the chief God of the same name, and long
such as the dome, the column and the arch. after it had ceased to be the centre of government
• They developed a number system based on 60, this explains was revered as a holy city.
why we have 60 seconds in minute and 60 minutes in an
hour. Chinese Civilisation
• Division of a year into 12 months, month into 4 weeks is • The earliest civilisation was by the Shang (chou)
given by the Mesopotamian civilisation. dynasty, followed by the chin and han dynasties.
• In 3rd century BC, the ruler of China dynasty built
Sumerian Civilisation the Great wall. Chinese script was pictographic and
• The Sumerians were the first humans to form civilisation their calender was combination of both solar and
and they invented writing and government. lunar calender.
• They were organised in city-states where each city has its • Silk became the chief item of export during Han rule.
own independent government ruled by a king that • The two major religion were taoism and
controlled the city and surrounding farmland. confucianism. They invented water clock, paper
printing press and umbrella.
836 CDS Pathfinder

Greek Civilisation Reformation

• The civilisation developed around 8 BC, when the small • It was a Schism from the Roman catholic church
villages clustered to form city-states. initiated by Martin Luther and continued by John
• They worshiped Zens (Sky God), Poseidon (Sea God), Calvin, and other early protestant reformers in early
Apollo (Sun God), Athena (Goddess of victory) etc. 16th century in Europe.
• In the Battle of Marathon in 490 BC Greeks defeated • Luther began it by criticising the selling of indulgences,
king Darius I. Alexander was the Greek ruler. insisting that pope had no authority over Purgatory and
• The olympic games originated in Greece. Iliad and that the catholic doctrine of the merits of saints had no
Odyssey are among the best epic of the world written foundation in the Gospel.
by Homen of Greece. • The new movement influenced the Church of England
decisively after 1547 under Edward VI and Elizabeth I.
Roman Civilisation • The Church of England had been made independent
• Italy was the centre of civilisation. The city of Rome under Henry VIII in the early 1530s for political rather
was founded by Romulus in 1000 BC on the bank of than religious reasons.
Tiber River. The war between Carthage and Rome is
known as Punic War (264 BC to 146 BC). Industrial Revolution
• Julius Caesar, one of the generals, murdered Pompey,
• Industrial revolution was started around the second half
another general and occupied the throne. He was of the 18th century. This period witnessed changes in
attached to the Egyptian queen Cleopatra. Caesar was the manufacturing processes from slow to faster and
succeeded by Octavian and Diocletion. expensive hand production to cheaper machine
• Romans worshiped the planets and developed latin production.
language. • Industrial revolution started in England to fulfil the
• Concrete was invented by Roman which is even today growing demands for goods, both at domestic and
used for construction of buildings. international level.
• A number of factors contributed to industrial revolution
in England. They are as follows
MAJOR REVOLUTIONS – England had great deposits of coal and iron ores.

• Revolutions have occurred through human history and – England was a politically stable society as well as the
vary widely in terms of methods, duration and world’s leading colonial power, which meant its
motivating ideology. Their results includes major colonies could serve as a source for raw materials, as
changes in culture, economy and socio-political well as a market place for manufactured goods.
institutions. – As demand for goods increased, merchants needed
• Several generations of scholarly thoughts on revolutions more cost-effective methods of production, which led
have generated many competing theories and to rise of mechanisation and the factory system.
contribution much to the current understanding of this – The agricultural sector of the British economy had
complex phenomenon. been steadily growing during the 18th century.
Agricultural stability allowed the British population to
The Renaissance increase.
• The renaissance is a period in European history from • The industrial revolution started chiefly from the Textile
14th to 17th centuries regarded as the cultural bridge Industry. In 1733, a weaver called John Kay invented a
between the Middle Ages and Modern History. Flying Shuttle, by which the work of weaving could be
done quickly.
• The intellectual basis of the Renaissance was its own
• In 1785, Edmund Cartwright invented ‘Powerloom’ Elly
invented version of humanism, derived from the
Whitley invented a cotton ginning machine called cotton
rediscovery of the classical Greek Philosophy. Such as
gin. James Watt invented the steam engine, the first
that of Protagoras, who said that, “Man is the measure
railway line was built between Manchester and Liverpool
of all things”. in 1830.
• In politics, the Renaissance contributed to the • The growth of production increased the wealth of the
development of the customs and conventions of Great Britain and by 1815, England emerged as the
diplomacy, and in science to an increased reliance on greatest banker and the largest carrier of goods in the
observation and inductive reasoning. world.
• During the Renaissance, money and art went hand in • Due to the industrial revolution, by the close of the 19th
hand. Artists depended entirely on Patron while the century, science and technology became an integral part
Patrons needed money to foster artistic talent. of Western society.
GENERAL STUDIES History 837

• Guerilla Warfare British armies were not acclimated to

The American Revolution guerilla warfare, which the colonists had used during
• American revolution is also called as American their wars with the Indians. Therefore, the British could
Revolutionary War (1775-83). The conflict arose from not defend themselves well against a fighting strategy
growing tensions between residents of Great Britain’s they had never seen before. Washington’s use of these
13 North American colonies and the colonial and other defensive strategies allowed for considerable
government, which represented the British crown. American advantage.
• In 1765, members of American colonial society rejected • Popular Support Many colonists, even if they weren’t
the authority of the British Parliament to tax them and fighting, were supportive of the cause. Popular support
to create other laws affecting them without colonial boosted morale among soldiers and encouraged them to
representatives in the government. push through the tough times.
• The Battles of the American revolution started in
Lexington on 19th April, 1775. These were over 20 The French Revolution
major battles during the revolution spanning over a • The French revolution took place between 1789 and 1799.
period of 6 years.
It ended in 1799 with the overthrow of the government
• General George Washington, with the help of France (Council of 500 in Paris) by Napoleon Bonaparte.
and his continental army defeated British General • The French revolution paved the way for the secular
Cornwallis at the Battle of Yorktown on 19th October,
system of governance, which is prevalent in most of the
1781.
countries of the modern world.
• Finally, the Treaty of Paris ended the revolution
officially on 3rd September, 1783. Causes of French Revolution
• Social and economic unrest triggered the revolution. The
BOSTON TEA PARTY country was facing a deteriorating economic condition
●
During the following decade, protests continued to coupled with a lag between the intellectual development
escalate by colonists (known as Patriots) in the and social political condition that was stagnant.
Boston Tea Party in 1773, during which patriots
• The middle class, also known as the Bourgeoisie was in
destroyed a consignment of taxed tea from the
Parliament controlled and favoured East India
worst condition. This educated class was heavily taxed
Company. whereas the ruling nobles and the clergy were exempted
from taxation.
●
The British responded by imposing punitive laws
on Massachusetts in 1774 known as the Coercive • During the summer of 1789, France faced a financial
Acts. crisis, caused primarily by military expenditures and a
●
In late 1774, the Patriots set-up their own parasitic aristocracy.
alternative government to better coordinate their • The revolution was further consolidated by the oath of
resistance efforts against Great Britain, while other the ‘Tennis Court’. From there onwards, began the civil
colonists, known as Loyalists remained align to the disobediences that would eventually pave the way for the
British Crown. revolutionary regime.
• In the events that were to follow the National Assembly
Causes of Success did frame a Constitution, which could restore the social
• French Involvement After the American victory at unrest, but the differences led to further mishaps.
Saratoga, the French in 1778 (later Spain in 1779 and • The period is known as the reign of terror as many
Holland in 1780) realised the Britain could be defeated, executions were held and all efforts were taken to curb
and they joined the fight against the British. Without any counter revolutionary activities.
France’s military power, the Americans would never
have had the capacity of defeating the superior British
• The Thermidorian Reaction, which was eventually
army. overthrown by means of a military coup under the
leadership of Napoleon Bonaparte, who put an end to
• Distance Since, the British Government was
the revolution by declaring himself the ‘First Council of
geographically separated from the places of battle, it France’.
was difficult for it to effectively manage and
communicate with troops.
• After the defeat of Napoleon, the old ruling dynasty of
France was restored to power. However, within a few
• Fighting on Home Soil British armies were not years in 1830, there was another outbreak of revolution.
familiar with the climate and rugged terrain of America.
Therefore, the colonists had the geographical advantage
• In 1848, the Monarchy was again overthrown though it
because they knew how to survive the land. soon reappeared. Finally, in 1871, the Republic was again
proclaimed.
838 CDS Pathfinder

Significance of the French The February Revolution

Revolution • The February revolution, which removed Tsar Nicholas II
• The French revolution led to the preservation and from power, developed spontaneously out of a series of
popularisation of the important theories and ideals increasingly violent demonstrations and riots on the streets of
of liberty, equality and fraternity and the theories Petrograd.
of nationalism, democracy etc. • Though, the February revolution was a popular uprising, it
• The ‘Napoleonic Code’, which consisted of a civil did not necessarily express the wishes of the majority of
code, codes of civil procedure and criminal Russian population.
procedure, a penal code and a commercial code
proved beneficial not only to the France, but also The October Revolution
to the whole world.
• The October revolution is also called as Bolshevik
Revolution, overturned the interim provisional government
Imperialism and Colonialism and established the Soviet Union.
Imperialism is a policy of a nation to extend its control • The Bolsheviks, who led this coup, prepared their coup in
outside its own boundaries, by acquisition of colonies or
only six months.
dependencies or by jurisdiction over other races.
• By October 1917, the Bolsheviks popular base was much
• During the 17th and 18th centuries the policy of
larger, they built up a majority of support within petrograd
mercantilism became popular, which accentuated
and other urban centres.
the importance of competition, for overseas trade
and colonies. • After October revolution, the Bolsheviks faced major
opposition from Russia and for many different reasons.
• The process of colonisation of Asia began towards
the close of 15th century, when Vasco da Gama • The result was the Russian Civil War, which would be
discovered the sea route to India. horrifically painful for the country and that, in the end,
would cost even more lives than World War I.
• The weakness of Chinese Empire became apparent
during the first Opium war of 1840-42. At that
time England occupied Hong Kong. In 1857-58, World War I
England and France forced China to subscribe to • The four basic causes that led to the horrifying conflict of
the Treaty of Tientsin according to which China World War I were as follow
had to give special facilities to Britain, France, i. The system of alliances
Russia and America.
ii. The militarism and arms race
• Taking advantages of the Chinese weakness France iii. The force of nationalism
took Cochin China under its protection, occupied
Annam and Tokin in 1882 and formed the iv. Imperialism and economic rivalry
protectorate of Indo-China. • Often nationalism led to rivalries and conflicts between
• In Central Asia, Russia and Britain tried to increase nations. Additionally various ethnic groups resented
their influence. While the Northern part of Persia domination by others and wanted independence.
was to be controlled by Russia, the Southern part • By 1890, Germany built a strong army and developed a navy
was opened for the British. to rival England’s fleet. By 1907, there were two major
• The motives of imperialism and empire building alliances
were selfish and the people in the colonies were i. Allies or Triple Entente : Consisting of France, Britain
frequently exploited for the benefit of the mother and Russia.
country. ii. Central powers or Triple Alliance : Consisting
Germany Austria, Hungary, Italy and Rumania.
The Russian Revolution • The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand, heir to the
• The Russian revolution was a time of economic and Austrian throne in June, 1914 sparked the initiation of World
social reconstruction in the Soviet Union. War I.
• The March revolution (First revolution) overthrew • The Great War of 1914 was probably outcome of the Balkan
the Tsar and set-up a moderate provisional Wars. In these wars Germany exercised restraint over Austria
government. and France over Russia. War started as soon as the restrains
were not exercised in 1914.
• When, this government coped no better than Tsar,
it was itself overthrown by the Bolshevik • The World War I caused great economic loss, wastage and
revolution in November. vast destruction. Nearly 10 billion rupees were directly spent
over the war.
GENERAL STUDIES History 839

iv. Dissatisfaction of National Minorities of Europe.

The Treaty of Versailles v. Economic Depression in Western countries.
• Germany had to sign the Treaty of Versailles that led to
vi. Failure of the League of Nations.
many harsh restrictions on Germany.
vii. Failure of Disarmament.
• The provinces of Alsace and Lorraine were taken away
from Germany and they were given back to France. viii. Ideological conflict between fascism and democracy.
• Germany had to give Eupen and Malmedy to Belgium.
ix. Attitude of Western powers towards Russia.
The polish territories were taken back from the x. Imposed Treaty of Versailles.
possession of Germany, Austria and Russia.
• Germany lost her rights in China, Turkey, Egypt, Capitalism
Morocco and Bulgaria. • Capitalism is a social system based on the principle of
individual rights. Politically, it is the system of
World War II laissez-faire (freedom).
• Between 1939 to 1945 World War II remains the most • Following the demise of feudalism, the capitalism became
geographically widespread military conflict the world has the dominant economic system in the Western world.
ever seen. • A remarkable confluence of advances in agriculture,
• The Treaty of Versailles been drafted with a foresight cotton spinning and weaving iron manufacture and
machine tool design and the harnessing of mechanical
and Germany meted with a lenient treatment, the World
power began to alter the character of capitalism
War II might have been averted. Hence, the short
profoundly in the last years of the 18th century and the
sighted and selfishness of the victor powers was the root
first decades of the 19th century.
cause of World War II.
• The form of capitalism differs between nations, because
• The German people were angered that their government the practice of it is embedded within cultures. Markets
accepted the lopsided Treaty of Versailles. These cater to national culture as much as national culture
sentiments allowed Adolf Hitler to seize power in mutates to conform to the discipline of profit and loss.
Germany.
• The Great Depression of the 1930 brought the policy of
• Firstly in order to avoid war, Europe gave in to Hitler’s laissez-faire (non-interference by the state in economic
demands. But, when Hitler invaded Poland in 1939, matters) to an end in most countries and for a time cast
England and France promptly declared war of Germany. doubt on the capitalist system as a whole.
• Nazi secret police brutally enforced German policies, • The performance of capitalism since World War II in the
Millions of Hitler’s enemies were sent to the United States the United Kingdom, West Germany and
concentration camps. Japan, however, has given evidence of its continued
• Hitler denounced the clauses of the Treaty of Versailles vitality.
on 16th March, 1935. On 1st April, 1935, the League of
Nations formally condemned Germany’s repudiation of Communism
the treaty. • Communism is the political and economic doctrine that
• Hitler re-occupied the Rhineland in March, 1936 by aims to replace private property and a profit-based
sending German troops into the Western German zone. economy with public ownership atleast the major means
• Hitler was a success in concluding several pacts and of production. (e.g. mines, mills, factories) and the
ultimately he alienated the sympathies of France from natural resources of a society.
Italy. • Marx and Engels maintained that the poverty, disease
• Japan entered World War II with an aim to dominate and early death that afflicted the proletariat were
for East. Encouraged by Hitler’s success she bombed the endemic to capitalism. These problems could be resolved
American naval base at Pearl Harbour. only by replacing capitalism with communism.
• About 50 million people are estimated to die in the • Under communism the major means of industrial
World War II, with 17 million of these deaths having production such as mines, mills, factories and railroads
occurred in Asia and the Pacific. would be publicly owned and operated for the benefit of
all.
Causes of the World War II • Today, Mao’s version of Marxism-Leninism remains are
There are nine main causes of World War II, which are as active, but ambiguous force else where in Asia, most
follows notably in Nepal.
i. Aggressive nationalism of Germany. • After a decade of armed struggle, Maoist insurgents in
Nepal agreed in 2006 to lay down their arms and
ii. Rise of Fascism in Italy.
participated in national elections to choose an assembly
iii. Japanese Imperialism. to rewrite the Nepalese Constitution.
840 CDS Pathfinder

Socialism Nazism and Fascism

• Socialism as a political philosophy is the social and • Adolf Hitler made his first appearance in German political
economic doctrine that calls for public rather than scene in 1923. Hitler’s Nazi Party conducted its activities with
private ownership or control of property and military fanfares. By November 1923, Hitler was in total
natural resources. control of Nazi Party.
• The origins of socialism as a political movement lie • Hitler followed a three fold plan to consolidate the Nazis in
in the Industrial revolution. power. It comprised capturing the legal authority to rule,
crashing the country’s political opposition and eliminating
• According to the socialist view, individuals do not
rivals within his party.
live or work in isolation, but live in cooperation
with one another. • Hitler infused the German people with the ideas of racism,
which convinced them that they were superior people with the
• Everything that people produce is in some sense a right to rule over inferior people.
social product and everyone, who contributes to
• Fascism was political ideology antithetical to democracy,
the production of a good is entitled to a share in
parliamentarism, individual liberty, freedom of expression and
it.
state control over businesses.
• The World War II forged an uneasy alliance
• Mussolini organised the fasci di combattimento (Band of
between communists and socialists and between Combatants) in Milan in 1919, providing the basis for the rise
liberals and conservatives in their common struggle of fascism.
against fascism.
• Mussolini won popularity among the ordinary masses of
• The terms such as African socialism and Arab Italians by starting huge public projects.
socialism were frequently invoked in the 1950s and • Fascism contributed significantly to the unstable security
60s, partly because the old colonial powers were environment of Europe, which took the world towards the
identified with capitalist imperialism. World War II.
GENERAL STUDIES History 841

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which among the following 5. Simon Bolivar and Miguel Hidalgo, 10. The main reason the Chinese
regarding the Carnatic wars fought leaders of Latin American Communists gained control of
between French and EIC is/are not Independence Movements, were mainland China in 1949 was that
true? inspired by successful revolutions (a) they were supported by many warlords
1. The First Carnatic War was in and upper class Chinese
provoked by the outbreak of (a) the United States and France (b) the United States has supported the
hostilities in Europe in 1742 (b) the Soviet Union and China Chinese Communist Party during World
between France and England. (c) Cuba and Costa Rica War II
2. Dupleix, the French (d) Egypt and Kenya
(c) the dynamic leadership of Mao Zedong
Governor-General in India 6. The Great Leap Forward in China had the support of the peasant class
played a significant role in the and the Five-Year Plans in the (d) they had superior financial resources
Third Carnatic War. Soviet Union were attempts to and were supported by Japan
3. The Second Carnatic War was increase
fought purely on domestic issue. (a) private capital investment 11. The Tiananmen Square massacre in
4. The Battle of Wandiwash in (b) religious tolerance China was a reaction to
1760 marked the elimination of (c) individual ownership of land (a) Deng Xiaoping’s plan to revive the
French influence in India and (d) industrial productivity Cultural Revolution
the resultant Treaty of Paris in (b) student demands for greater individual
1763 reduced the French 7. Peace-keeping missions are rights and freedom of expression
Company to a pure trading body operating in more than a dozen of (c) China’s decision to seek Western
without any political privileges. the world’s many trouble spots. The investors
authority to intervene and use (d) Great Britain’s decision to return Hong
Select the correct answer using the
force, if necessary, is found in Kong to China
codes given below. several articles in the Charter.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 12. An immediate result of the Cultural
Which organisation is referred to in
(c) Only 2 (d) 3 and 4 these statements? Revolution in China was that it
2. The modernisation of Japan during (a) United Nations (a) helped to establish democracy in
the Meiji Restoration resulted in (b) Organisation of American States urban centers in China
(a) a return to a feudal system of (OAS) (b) led to economic cooperation with
government (c) European Union (European Japan and South Korea
(b) the rise of Japan as an Community) (c) disrupted China’s economic and
imperialistic nation (d) International Court of Justice educational systems
(c) an alliance between China, Korea, (d) strengthened political ties with the
8. Consider the following statements United States
Russia and Japan 1. Switzerland became the member
(d) a strengthening of Japan’s of UNO in 2002. 13. During the mid-1930s, which
isolationist policies 2. Year 2003 was announced characteristic was common to Fascist
3. Who among the following was the ‘International Fresh Water Year’ ltaly, Nazi Germany and Communist
author of ‘Common Sense’ the by UNO. Russia?
revolutionary pamphlet of the 3. The headquarters of (a) Government ownership of the means
American Revolution? International Civil Aviation of production and distribution
(a) Thomas Paine Organisation is in Montreal. (b) One-party system that denied basic
(b) Thomas Jefferson Which of the statements given human rights
(c) George Washington above are correct? (c) Encouragement of individual freedom
(d) Samuel Adams (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 of expression in the arts
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (d) Emphasis on consumer goods rather
4. What was the one reason that made than on weapons
Nazi programmes and policies of 9. During the Scientific Revolution
the early 1930s appealed to many and the Enlightenment, one 14. Which was the major reason behind the
people in Germany? similarity in the work of many Holocaust being considered as unique
(a) The people were frustrated with scientists and philosophers was event in modern European history?
their current economic and political that they (a) Jews of Europe have seldom been
situation (a) relied heavily on the ideas of victims of persecution
medieval thinkers (b) Civilians rarely were killed during air
(b) Germany had been denied
membership in the United Nations (b) favoured an absolute monarchy as raids on Great Britain
a way of improving economic
(c) A coup d’etat had forced (c) Adolf Hitler concealed his anti-Jewish
conditions
communism on the German people feelings until he came to power
(c) received support from the Catholic
(d) The German people feared that the Church (d) The genocide was planned in great
French of the British would soon (d) examined natural laws governing detail and required the cooperation of
gain control of the polish corridor the universe many people
842 CDS Pathfinder

15. Which one of the following 19. The Russian revolutionaries 24. During the 1980’s in the Soviet Union,
statements related to the Boston derived their ideology from the a major element of the economic policy
Tea Party of 16th December, 1773 doctrines of of Perestroika was
during the American War of (a) Lenin and Stalin (a) increased collectivisation of farms
Independence is correct? (b) Marx and Lenin (b) more reliance on local and regional
(a) The revolutionaries stealthily (c) Marx and Engels decision-making
entered into the ships and threw (d) Lenin and Engels (c) the expanded use of national Five-Year
all the chests of tea into the water plans
(b) The revolutionaries hosted a Tea 20. Which of the following statement(s) (d) an emphasis on the redistribution of
Party in the honour of Charles relating to the Non-Alignment wealth.
Townshend, the British Chancellor Movement is/are not correct?
of the Exchequer in order to place 1. Non-alignment came to symbolise 25. The withdrawal of France from
their grievances before him the struggle of India and other Indo-China, the involvement of the
(c) It marked a celebration when Lord newly independent nations to Soviet Union in Cuba, and the United
North, the successor of retain and strengthen their States support of the Contras in
Townshend, repealed some of the independence from colonialism Nicaragua illustrate that nations
duties imposed by Townshend and imperialism. (a) consistently discard traditional foreign
(d) It was a protest against the 2. Non-alignment advanced the policy goals after changes in
Quebec Act process of democratisation of administration
international relations. (b) tend to base foreign policy decisions
16. Which one among the following was 3. Military alliances formed a on what they believe to be their
a reason for which the French could major part of non-alignment. self-interests
not succeed in India in the 18th (c) no longer use warfare as a means to
Select the correct answer using the
century? resolve international conflict
codes given below.
(a) They sided with the weak Indian (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (d) tend to refer foreign policy conflicts to
sides such as Chanda Sahib and (c) Only 3 (d) Only 1 the United Nations
Muzaffar Jang
26. What was one reason the Nazi
(b) Dupleix was called back at a 21. Which one among the following programmes and policies of the early
crucial time sums up Marx’s view about history? 1930s appealed to many people in
(c) They conspired against the Indian (a) History is a record of the wars Germany?
powers between various people (a) The people were frustrated with their
(d) Their trading company was heavily (b) History is a succession of struggle current economic and political situation
dependent on the French between the oppressor and the (b) Germany had been denied
Government oppressed classes membership in the United Nations.
(c) History is a faithful record of the (c) A coup d’etat had forced communism
17. Match the following
past events on the German people
List I List II (d) None of the above (d) The German people feared that the
A. Hargreaves 1. Invented a machine French of the British would soon gain
22. Industrial Revolution in Europe control of the Polish corridor.
which speed up
spinning mainly emerged due to
1. locating the production process 27. Communist government(s) were
B. Crompton 2. Combined the established in most nations of Eastern
advantage of the in the countryside.
earlier invented 2. declining of the guilds because Europe shortly after World War II
machines of non-farming production because
C. Arkwright 3. Adopted the speed up coming under a single roof (the 1. The region had a long tradition of
spinning machine for factory). strong communist parties.
running with water
3. growing role of merchant 2. The Soviet Union used military and
diplomatic pressures to install their
Codes capitalists in the production
governments.
A B C A B C process.
3. Members of the Communist party
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3 Which of the statement(s) given won free elections in these nations.
(c) 2 3 1 (d) 3 2 1 above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 codes given below.
18. Which of the following statement(s) (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
regarding the American Revolution (a) Only 1 (b) Only 3
23. Match the following (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
is/are correct?
1. The American Revolution was a List I 28. Which is generally a characteristic of a
conflict between British settlers List II communist economy?
(Renaissance
and native Americans. (Works) 1. Government agencies are involved in
Writers)
2. The Americans refused to pay production planning.
A. Dante 1. Pantagruel
taxes imposed by the British 2. The role of government in the
Parliament, in which the B. Machiavelli 2. Don Quixote
economy is restricted by law.
Americans had no representation. C. Rabelais 3. The Prince
3. Investment is encouraged by the
Select the correct answer using the D. Cervantes 4. Divine Comedy promise of large profits.
codes given below. Codes Select the correct answer using the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 A B C D A B C D codes given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 4 2 1 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 3 1 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these
GENERAL STUDIES History 843

29. In Eastern Europe during the 1950’s 3. The immediate cause of the 32. Industrial Revolution in Britain
and 1960’s, the Soviet Union revolution was the extravagant began in AD 1750 with the invention
expenditure and inefficiency by of
responded to challenges to its control
Louis XV and Louis XVI. 1. Spinning Jenny by Hargreaves.
by Select the correct answer using the
1. Allowing free elections, when 2. Water Frame by Richard
codes given below. Arkwright.
necessary (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 3. Mule by Samuel cromption.
2. Imposing prompt and Severe (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these 4. Steam engine by James Watt.
repression
31. Which of the following statement is Select the correct answer using the
3. Obtaining United Nations
regarding unification of Germany? codes given below.
assistence (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
1. This was the result of the Blood
Select the correct answer using the and Iron policy of Bismarck, the (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
codes given below. PM of King William I. 33. Consider the following question(s)
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. Bismark defeated Austria and regarding American Revolution.
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these dissolved the German 1. George Washington, the first
confederation. President of America was the
30. Consider the following statement(s) 3. William I, the king of Prussia pioneer of the revolution.
regarding French Revolution. was declared as the Emperor of 2. On 4th June, 1776, the
1. The revolution initiated on 5th May, Germany at Versailles in France. declaration of Independence was
1989 during the kingship of Louis Select the correct answer using the issued by Thomas Jafferson.
XVI. Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
2. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 codes given below.
were the watch of the revolution. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2013 (II) Codes Which of the statement(s) given above
(a) Both the statements are true and is/are correct?
1. Which one among the following Statement II is the correct (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
events was associated with explanation of Statement I (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3
American War of Independence? (b) Both the statements are true, but
(a) Tennis Court Oath (b) Boston Tea Party
(c) Fall of Bastille (d) Reign of Terror
Statement II is not the correct 2014 (I)
explanation of Statement I
2. Which one among the following (c) Statement I is true, but Statement 5. Consider the following statement(s)
events was not associated with II is false concerning the initial phase of the
French Revolution? (d) Statement I is false, but Statement Industrial Revolution in England.
(a) Calling of the Estates General II is true 1. England was fortunate in that coal
(b) Guillotine and iron ore were plentifully
4. Consider the following statement(s) available to be used in industry.
(c) Battle of Concord about the causes of success of the 2. Until the 18th century, there was a
(d) Tennis Court Oath American Revolution scarcity of usable iron.
3. Statement I The Russian 1. the remoteness of the American Which of the statement(s) given above
Revolution of 1917 inspired the continent and British ignorance is/are correct?
of the American continent led (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Indian Working Class Movement. to the success of the Americans.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement II The Non-Cooperation 2. the fierce spirit of liberty drove
Movement (1921-22) saw the the Americans to success. 6. The Society of Jesus, whose followers
involvement of the Indian Working 3. the American military forces were called Jesuits, was set-up by
were superior to the British. (a) Martin Luther (b) Ulrich Zwingli
Class.
(c) Erasmus (d) Ignatius Loyola

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 d 2 b 3 a 4 a 5 a 6 d 7 a 8 a 9 d 10 c
11 b 12 c 13 b 14 d 15 a 16 a 17 a 18 c 19 c 20 d
21 d 22 a 23 d 24 b 25 b 26 a 27 b 28 a 29 a 30 c
31 c 32 d 33 c

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 b 2 c 3 b 4 b 5 c 6 d
844 CDS Pathfinder

PART V ART AND CULTURE

Indian Culture Chola Architecture
• The culture of India is one of the oldest and unique. In • The Imperial Chola rulers of Tanjore developed the
India, there is amazing cultural diversity throughout the Dravidian sytle of temple architecture almost to
country. The South-North and North-East have their own perfection. Their works taken up on a stupendous
distinct cultures and almost every state has carved out its scale include irrigation schemes, embankment of
own cultural niche. artificial lakes, dams across the cauvery and well
• There is hardly any culture in the world that is as varied planned cities. A special feature of the Chola
and unique as India. India is a home to some of the most architecture is the purity of artistic tradition.
ancient civilisation including four major world religions i.e. • The two magnificent temples at Tanjore and
Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and Sikhism. Gangaikonda Cholapuram in Tiruchinrapalli district
built in early AD 11th century show the best of
Indian Philosophy Chola art. The Brihadeswara or Rajarajeswara Temple
• Philosophy is the study of general and fundamental of Shiva in Tanjore built by Rajaraja Chola in AD
problems, such as those connected with reason, values, 1010 is the largest and highest of Chola temples and
knowledge, reality and existence. stands as a symbol of greatness of Chola.
• According to a traditional principal of classification, most Vijayanagara Architecture
likely adopted by orthodox Hindu thinkers, the schools or
• By the 16th century almost all of Southern India was
systems of Indian philosophy are divided into two broad
part of the Vijayanagara empire. The Vijayanagara
classes, namely, orthodox (astika) and heterodox (nastika).
rulers were great patrons of art and architecture. The
• In the 1st group, there are 6 chief philosophical systems Vijayanagara tradition shows a distinct scheme of
(popularly known as sad darsana), namely Mimamsa, decoration in terms of architectural space.
Vedanta, Samkhya, Yoga, Nyaya and Vaisesika. These are
• Decorative friezes are utilised horizontally on the
regarded as orthodox (astika), not because they believe in
plinth moulding, caves and pillars of the temple
God, but because they accept the authority of the Vedas.
interiors. They appear vertically on the composite
• Under the other class of heterodox systems, the chief 3 are pillars, plasters of the walls and doorways of the
schools of materialists like the Charvaka, the Buddhas and gopuras as well as the inner part of temples.
the Jainas. They are called heterodox (nastika) because they
do not believe in the authority of Vedas. Rajput Architecture
• The Rajput rulers had a keen sense of beauty in art
Indian Architecture and architecture which is seen in the artistic excellence
of their temples, forts and palaces. The Indo-Aryan
Harappan Architecture style of architecture developed in North India and
• Architecture of Indus Valley Civilisation is contained in the upper Deecan and the Dravidian style in South India
structures of Mohenjodaro, which were found by the during the Rajput period.
archaeologists and in the existence of Harappan city. • Both sculpture and architecture attained a high degree
Harappans were known for their excellent town planning of excellence. The palaces of Jaisalmer, Bikaner,
skills. Their civic planning was based on a rectangular grid Jodhpur, Udaipur and Kota represent the maturity of
oriented to cardinal points and standardised brick was the the Rajput style. The foundation of Jaipur, the fabled
main building material. pink city, represents the final phase of Rajput
• In Mohenjodaro, the streets run in straight lines and are architecture.
crossed by others at right angles. This shows planning and
existence of some authority to control the development of Indian Temple Architecture
the city existed. • Almost all Indian art has been religious and almost all
forms of artistic tradition have been deeply
Pallava Architecture conservative. The Hindu temple developed over two
The temple architecture of the Pallavas is divided into thousands years and its architectural evolution took
rock-cut and structural architecture. The greatest place within the boundaries of strict models derived
accomplishment of Pallava architecture are the rock-cut solely from religious considerations.
temples at Mahabalipuram. Kailasanathar temple located in • Therefore the architect was obliged to keep to the
Kanchipuram is one of the most beautiful temple in India ancient basic proportions and rigid forms which
built during the reign of king Narsimha mvaraman. remained unaltered over many centuries.
GENERAL STUDIES History 845

North Indian Temples

• The Nagara style which developed in the 5th century is
PAINTINGS
characterised by a beehive shaped tower (called a shikhara, The history of Indian Paintings is just about as old as
in Northern terminology) made up of layer upon layer of the history of the people of India. The most primitive
architectural elements such as kapotas and gavaksas, all instances of paintings in India can be traced back to
topped by a large round cushion-like element called an cave paintings.
amalaka.
• The plan is based on a square, but the walls are sometimes Cave Paintings
so broken up that the tower often gives the impression of • These are the earliest evidences of Indian paintings
being circular. Moreover, in later developments such as in made on cave walls and palaces, whereas miniature
the Chandela temples, the central shaft was surrounded by paintings are small-sized vibrant, sophisticated
many smaller reproductions of itself, creating a spectacular handmade artworks.
visual effect resembling a fountain. • Paintings on caves and temples walls mostly describe
South Indian Temples numerous characteristics of Hinduism and Buddhism.
• From the 7th century the Dravida or Southern style had a
Ajanta Paintings
pyramid shaped tower consisting of progressively smaller
storeys of small pavilions, a narrow throat and a dome on • The paintings here were done between 200 BC and
the top called a shikhara (in Southern terminology). 7th century AD during the period of Sunga, Kushan
and Gupta rulers, the main characteristics of these
• The repeated storeys give a horizontal visual thrust to the
paintings are-these are fresco wall paintings and uses
Southern style. limited colours.
Temples of the Deccan • Variety of life has been expressed, emotions are
• In the border areas between the two major styles, expressed using hand postures, stories of Jatakas are
particularly in the modern states of Karnataka and Andhra depicted.
Pradesh, there was a good deal of stylistic overlap as well as
several distinctive architectural features. A typical example is Ellora Paintings
the Hoysala temple with its multiple shrines and remarkable • So far as the style is concerned, Ellora painting is a
ornate carving. In fact such features are sometimes so departure from the classical form of Ajanta paintings.
significant as to justify classifying distinct sub-regional • Most important characteristic features of ellora
group. painting are the sharp twist of the head, painted
• The type of raw materials available from region-to-region angular bents of the arms, sharp projected nose and
naturally had a significant impact on construction long drawn open eyes.
techniques, carving possibilities and consequently the overall
appearance of the temple. The soft soap-stone type material Bagh Paintings
used by the Hoysala architects of the 12th and 13th • These are located on the banks of river Bagh in
centuries allowed sculptors working in the tradition of ivory Madhya Pradesh. The paintings here are quite similar
and sandalwood carving to produce the most intricate and to those of Ajanta in terms of subject matter and
ornate of all Indian styles. characteristics.
• The period of these paintings is still not accurately
Udaygiri Caves During Chandragupta’s reign at Vidisha, known. The best paintings were in the cave number
Madhya Pradesh 4 though many have now been removed and kept in
Angkor Wat Temples Suryavarman a museum for preservation.
Vikramashila University Pala King Dharampala
Kailash Temple (Ellora) Rashtrakuta king Krishna I
Other Styles of Paintings
Dilwara Temple Tejapala Mughal School
Rathas of Mamallapurram Mahendravarman I (Pallava King) • This school has a specific style of South Asian
Khajuraho Temples Chandelas painting. Usually, it was confined to miniatures
Martanda Temple (Kashmir) Lalitaditya Muktapida either as book depictions or as individual works to
Gommateswara (Son of Chamundraya, Minister of the Ganga King, be kept in albums. This practice materialised from
Rishabnath) Rajamalla (Sravanbelagola, Karnataka) Persian miniature painting, with India influence of
Hoysaleswara Temple Ketamalla, Minister of King Hindu, Buddhist and Jain.
(at Halebid) Vishnukvardhana (Karnataka)
846 CDS Pathfinder

• It wonderfully blossomed during the Mughal empire. Ragas

Later, this school of painting reached other Indian courts
• The gamut of several note woven into a composition
of Muslims and Hindus and afterwards Sikhs. Akbar and
may be called a raga. The ragas can be sung without any
Jahangir were exceptionally great patrons of this painting.
instrumental accompaniment, but generally take tabla
Rajput School (drum) for the purpose besides any stringed instrument.
They are sung at particular seasons and time of the day
• This school progressed and thrived during the 18th
or night.
century in the majestic Rajputana courts. This school of
• Indian classical music consists of 6 principle ragas and
painting flooded from the approach of Mughal painting.
30 raginis. Music is adapted to the season of the year,
• A typical style of painting with particular common
hours of the day and mood of the performer. The
characteristics came up in every Rajput realm. Indian year is divided into 6 seasons and each season
has its own raga. The principle ragas are Bhairavi,
Pahari School of Painting Hindol, Megha, Sriraga, Deepak and Malkaus.
• This school is an umbrella expression which is used for a
type of Indian painting starting off from Hill kingdoms of Hindustani Classical Music
North Indian Himalayan region, during 17th to 19th • It is the Hindustani or North Indian style of Indian
century. classical music found throughout the Northern Indian
• Remarkably Mankot, Basohli, Chamba, Nurpur, Kangra, subcontinent.
Garhwal, Mandi and Guler were the places of creating • The style is sometimes called North Indian Classcial
these exotic paintings. They were frequently created in Music or Shastriya Sangeet. It is a tradition that originated
miniature forms. in Vedic ritual chants and has been evolving since, the
12th century CE.
Name of Rangoli State Carnatic Music
Kolam Tamil Nadu
• It is a system of music commonly associated with the
Alpana West Bengal Southern part of the Indian sub-continent, with its area
Mandana Rajasthan roughly confined to 4 modern States of India: Andhra
Pookalam Kerala Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Rangoli Karnataka • The main emphasis in Carnatic music is on vocal
Sathiya Gujarat music; most compositions are written to be sung and
Chaitrangan Maharashtra
even when played on instruments, they are meant to be
performed in Gayaki (singing) style.
Chowkpurana Uttar Pradesh
• Carnatic music was mainly patronised by the local
Muggulu Andhra Pradesh
kings of the kingdom of Mysore and Kingdom of
Alikhthap Kumaon Travancore in the 18th through 20th centuries.

Indian Music Indian Dance Forms

• Indian music has developed through very complex • Dancing is one of the most ancient arts in Indian
interaction between different people of different races and culture. From as early as the Vedic times, it established
cultures over thousand of years. India’s classical music its root in the Indian soil, being deeply associated with
tradition including Carnatic and Hindustani music, has a religious rites, representing the supposed performances
hisotry spanning millennia and developed over several of the Gods and Goddesses themselves and maintaining
eras. the divine and spiritual concepts of the race.
• The Indian music is of 2 types namely Marga-Sangeet • The religious purpose being diverse, the styles of dance
(mystical) and Desi Sangeet (secular). Indian music is were equally varied. Classical dances in India, folk
divided into ragas or melody types. dances in India, tribal dances in India.
GENERAL STUDIES History 847

Types of Theatre in India

States Dances
The theatre in India has encompassed all the other forms
Maharashtra Kathakeertan, Lezim, Dandaniya, Tamasha, Gafa, of literature and fine arts into its physical presentation
Dahikala, Lavani, Mauni, Dasavtar
literature, mime, music, dance, movement, painting,
Karnataka Huttari, Suggi Kunitha, Yakashagana sculpture and architecture all mixed into one and being
Kerala Kaikottikali, Kaliyattam, Tappatikkali called ‘Natya’ or ‘Theatre’ in English. Roughly, the
Indian theatre can be divided into three distinctive kinds
Tamil Nadu Kolattam, Pinnal Kolattam, Kummi, Kavadi,
Karagam i.e. the Classical or the Sanskrit theatre, the Traditional
or the Folk theatre and Modern theatre.
Andhra Pradesh Ghanta Mardala, Veedhi Natakam, Burrakatha
Odisha Ghumara Sanchar, Chadya Dandanata, Chhau
Paschim Banga Kathi, Chhau, Baul, Kirtan, Jatra, Lama Author Name of Play
Shudraka Mrichha Katika
Assam Bihu, Khel, Gopal, Rash Lila, Tabal Chongli, Canoe
Bhasa Svapna Vasavadattam, Pancharatra, Pratijna
Punjab Giddha (women), Bhangra (men) Yaugandharayaanam Charudatta, Kamabhara
Jammu and Rauf, Hikat Kalidasa Vikramorvasiyam, Malavikagnimitram,
Kashmir Abhijnanasakuntalam
Himachal Pradesh Jhora, Jhali, Dangli, Mahasu, Jadda, Jhainta, Bhavabhuti Mahaveeracharita, Uttararamacharita,
Chharhi Malati-Madhava
Harsha Ratnavali, Priyadarshika, Nagananda
Haryana Jhumar, Ras Leela, Phag dance, Daph, Dhamal,
Loor, Gugga, Khoria, Gagor
Gujarat Garba, Dandiya Rass, Tippani, Gomph Modern Indian Theatre
Rajasthan Ginad, Chakri, Gangore, Teratali, Khayal, Jhulan • Modern Indian theatre started after the advent of the
Leela, Jhuma, Suisini British in India. The British developed Calcutta in the
Bihar Jata Jatin, Jadur, Chhau, Kathaputli, Bakho, East, Bombay and Surat in the West and Chennai in
Jhijhiya, Samochakwa, Karma, Jatra, Natna the South as important centres of trade and
Uttar Pradesh Nautanki, Thora, Chappeli, Raslila, Kajri
administration. They also set-up theatres in these cities
for their entertainment.
Madhya Pradesh Karma
• The first Bengali theatre was established as early as
Meghalaya Laho 1795, Russian Indologist Gerasim Lebedev is credited
Goa Mando to have founded it. Prasanna Coomar Tagore
Mizoram Khantumm established the first Indian owned Bengali theatre in
1831 named as Hindu theatre.
Uttarakhand Garhwali

Cinema in India
• India has one of the oldest and largest film industries
Dance Dancer
in the world. When Lumiere brothers invented cinema
Bharatnatyam Bala Saraswati, CV Chandrasekhar, Leela Samson, in the last decade of the 19th century, they did not
Mrinalini Sarabhai, Padma Subramanyam, Rukmini
Devi, Sanyukta Panigrahi, Sonal Mansingh, Yamini quite realise the fact that their invension would, in
Krishnamurti years to come, entertain millions across the world in
an unprecedented manner.
Kathak Bharti Gupta, Birju Maharaj, Damayanti Joshi, Durga
Das, Gopi Krishna, Kumudini Lakhia, Sambhu • India may have lagged behind other countries in many
Maharaj, Sitara Devi fields, but has maintained near parity in the field of
Kuchipudi Josyula Seetharamaiah, Vempathi Chinna Sathyam cinema, Only 7 months after its inauguration (premier
show) in France, Lumiere brothers’ films were shown
Manipuri Guru Bipin Sinha, Jhaveri Sisters, Nayana Jhaveri,
Nirmala Mehta, Savita Mehta in Bombay for the first time on 7th July, 1896.
• In 1899, Harishchandra Sakharam Bhatwadekar made a
Odissi Debaprasad Das, Dhirendra Nath Patnaik, Indrani
Rahman, Kelucharan Mahapatra, Priyambada Mohanty film on a wrestling match in Bombay. In 1901,
Bhatwadekar made the first news reel. The honour of
Kathakali Mrinalini Sarabhai, Guru Shankaran, Namboodripad,
Thottam Shankaran, Kutti Nayyar, Shankar Kurup, KC making the first feature film goes to Dadasaheb
Pannikar, TT Ram Kulti Nayyar, etc (Dhundiraj Govind) Phalke, who made the first film
Raja Harishchandra in 1913. Indian cinema has thus
Mohiniattam Protima Devi, Sanyukta Panigrahi, Sonal Mansingh,
Pankaj Charan Das, Kelucharan Mahapatra, Madhvi completed about a 100 years and feature films have
Mudgal, etc completed a span of more than 80 years.
848 CDS Pathfinder

Types of Traditional Indian Puppets

India’s first Alam Ara (Light of the Universe) was
talking film released by Ardeshir Irani of Imperial String Puppets
Movietone 14th March, 1931 was a historic • String puppets or marionettes having jointed limbs controlled
day for Indian cinema. The film was based
on a successful Passi play, which was by strings allow far greater flexibility and are, therefore, the
written by Joseph Daeeid. most articulate of the puppets.
Film with most Indra Sabha with 71 songs is film with • Rajasthan, Orissa, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are some of the
number of songs most number of songs. The film was made regions where this form of puppetry has flourished.
in 1932 by Madan Theatres and the director
of the film was JJ Madan. Rod Puppets
Longest Indian Loc Kargil at 4 h 25 min is the longest • Rod puppets are an extension of glove-puppets, but often much
movie Indian movie made so far. The story is of larger and supported and manipulated by rods from below.
Indian soldiers fighting in Kargil. Mera
Naam Joker at 4h 14 min is a close • This form of puppetry now is found mostly in West Bengal
second. and Orissa.
First colour film Kisan Kanya is the first colour film in India. Glove Puppets
in India It was a 1937 Hindi feature film, which was
directed by Moti B Gidvani and produced • Glove puppets, are also known as sleeve, hand or palm puppets.
by Ardeshir Irani of imperial pictures. The head is made of either papier mache cloth or wood, with
First Indian to Bhanu Athaiya was the first Indian to get two hands emerging from just below the neck. The rest of the
get an Oscar an Oscar. She won the award for the best figure consists of along flowing skirt.
costume designer for Rich and
Attenborogh’s film Gandhi in 1982. • These puppets are like limp dolls, but in the hands of an able
puppeteer, are capable of producing a wide range of
Longest Hindi The song Ab Tumhare Hawale Watan
film song Saathiyon in the film by the same name is movements. The manipulation technique is simple, their
the longest film song. The length of the movements are controlled by the human hand the first finger
song is 20 min and the song is featured in inserted in the head and the middle finger and the thumb are
three installments in the film. the two arms of the puppet.

Puppetry Shadow Puppets

• Almost all types of puppets are found in India. • Shadow puppets are flat figures. They are cut out of leather,
Puppetry throughout the ages has held an which has been treated to make it translucent. Shadow puppets
important place in traditional entertainment. Like are pressed against the screen with a strong source of light
traditional theatre. behind it.
• Themes for puppet theatre are mostly based on • The manipulation between the light and the screen kame
epics and legends. silhouettes or colourful shadows, as the case may be, for the
viewers who sit in front of the screen.
GENERAL STUDIES History 849

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Consider the following statement(s) Which of the statement(s) given above Which of the statement(s) given above
1. Thabal Chongba is a popular is/are correct? is/are correct?
Manipuri folk dance associated (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
with the festival of Holi. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The literal meaning of ‘Thabal’ is 6. Consider the following statements 10. Consider the following statement(s)
‘moonlight’ and ‘Chongba’ means
regarding Bharhut Stupa. regarding Vesara styles of temple
‘dance’.
1. This Stupa was located 21 km building.
Which of the statement(s) given South of Satan in Madhya 1. The Vesara style combined the
above is/are correct? Pradesh. feature of Nagara and Dravida
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. There are as in other Stupa style of temple building.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 railing, representation of Buddhist 2. Earliest temples are of the North
2. Consider the following statement(s) themes like Jataka stories in Indian type e.g. Ladkhan temple
1. The Art of Miniature Painting combination with various natural at Aihole.
was introduced to India by the element.
Which of the statement(s) given above
Mughals. 3. The main Stupa structure no
is/are correct?
2. In the 16th century, the Mughal longer exists.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
ruler Humayun brought artists Which of the statements given above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
from Persia, who specialised in are correct?
Miniature Paintings. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 11. Consider following regarding
Which of the statement(s) given (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Dravidian style of temple building.
above is/are correct? 1. The Dravid or Southern style has
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
7. Consider the following statement(s) a polygonal often octagonal
1. ‘Khayal’ came into prominence Shikharas and a pyramidal
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
due to the efforts of Sultan Mohd Vimana, which is rectangular in
3. Consider the following statement(s) Sharqi (15th century). plan.
1. Garba is a popular folk dance 2. The Kirana Gharana of Khayal is 2. A temple of Dravida type is also
from the State of Gujarat. considered as the morden school notable for the towering
2. It is a circular dance performed of Khayal singing. Gopurams or Gate towards the
by women around an Which of the statement(s) given above additional Mandapas.
Earthenware pot called a Garbo, is/are correct? Which of the statement(s) given above
filled with water. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 is/are correct?
Which of the statements(s) given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
8. Consider the following regarding
Amaravati Stupa. 12. Consider the following statement(s)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. This Stupa is located 46 km from 1. Kummi is one of the most
4. Consider the following statement(s) Guntur in Karnataka. important and ancient forms of
1. The rock-cut caves of Ajanta was 2. The Stupa was built with white village dances of Tamil Nadu.
built between the 2nd century BC marble. 2. This is performed by men only.
and the AD 6th century. 3. The Stupa was primarily built Which of the statement(s) given above
2. The paintings that adorn the with the help of city chief and is/are correct?
walls and ceilings of the caves the donation from the public. (a) Only 1
depict incidents from the life of
Which of the statements given above (b) Only 2
Lord Buddha and various
are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
Buddhist divinities.
(a) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statement(s) given (b) 1 and 3
above is/are correct? (c) 2 and 3
13. Consider the following statement(s)
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Mohiniattam is the female
(d) All of the above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 semi-classical dance form of
9. Consider the following statements Kerala.
5. Consider the following statement(s) 1. Nagara and Dravida temples are 2. Laterally, the dance of the
regarding Sanchi Stupas. generally identified with the enchantress, Mohiniattam was
1. Sanchi Stupa is located in Sanchi, Northern and Southern temple mainly performed in the temple
Madhya Pradesh, 14 km from styles respectively. premises of Kerala.
Vidisha. 2. The earliest temples of Dravidian
2. It has three Stupas all the Which of the statement(s) given above
style temple are the rock cut is/are correct?
gateway around them, but the temples known as Dharmaraja
most famous is the great Stupa (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Ratha at Mamallapuram and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
which was originally made of structural temples at Kanchi.
brick in Ashoka’s time.
850 CDS Pathfinder

14. Match the following 19. Arrange the following monuments in Which of the statement(s) given above
a chronological order. is/are correct?
List I List II
1. Brihadeswara temple, Thanjavur (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
A. Babar 1. Jama Masjid (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(Sambhal) 2. Draupadipath, Mamallapuram
B. Humayun 2. Din Panah 3. Kailasa temple, Ellora 24. Consider the following statements
4. Meenakshi temple, Madurai regarding temples of Chandella Art.
C. Akbar 3. Jahangiri Mahal
Codes 1. Kandariya Mahadev temple is the
D. Jahangir 4. Akbar’s Mausoleum (a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4 largest, best preserved and
Codes (c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1 architecturally the most evolved
A B C D A B C D and contains the largest number
20. Consider the following statements of scluptures.
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 1 3 4 regarding Rajasthan paintings
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 3 4 2 2. Vishwanath temple contains some
1. Rajasthani miniature resulted of the most lyrical images of
15. Consider the following statement(s) from the amalgamation of Jaina women.
1. The Brihadeswara temples are School with Mughal style and
influenced by contemporary
Which of the statement(s) given above
situated at Thanjavur, the is/are correct?
ancient capital of the Chola literature and music.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
kings. 3. The central theme of love is
represented by Radha Krishna (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. King Rajaraja Chola constructed
this temple in 10th century BC, legend. 25. Consider the following statements
designed by the famous architect Which of the statement(s) given above with reference to the Bagh Paintings,
Sama Verma. is/are correct? 1. Bagh Painting is on the same line
Which of the statement(s) given (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 of Ajanta.
above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. There are 9 caves at Bagh, the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 4th cave Rang Mahal has got the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
21. Consider the following statements maximum number of paintings.
1. The caves of Kanheri were built
16. Consider the following statements by Buddhists. Which of the statement (s) given above
about Ajanta paintings. 2. The caves of Elephanta were built is/are correct?
by Rashtrakuta rulers. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
1. These are frescoe paintings
painted on the rocks of its caves. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The caves of Elephanta were built
2. These belong to the-period of 3rd by Gupta rulers. 26. Which one of the following
century BC to AD 7th century. Which of the statement(s) given above inscriptions mentions Pulakesin II’s
3. The theme is concerned with the is/are correct? military success against
Buddha and Bodhisatva. (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 Harshavardhana?
Which of the statements given above (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these (a) Allahabad Pillar inscription
are correct? (b) Aihole inscription
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
22. With reference to Rajasthani (c) Damodarpur copper plate inscription
miniature paintings features, (d) Bilsad inscription
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
consider the following statements.
17. Consider the following statements 1. The miniature artists use paper 27. The first major inscription in classical
about Bagh Paintings. ivory, panels, wooden tabletes, Sanskrit is that of
1. There are 9 caves at Bagh (near leather, marble, cloth and walls (a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
Gwalior) on the banks of the for their paintings. (b) Kanishka I
river Bagh (a tributary of 2. The colours are made from (c) Rudradman
Narmada). minerals and vegetables, precious (d) Samundragupta
2. The fourth cave Rangmahal has stones, as well as pure silver and
28. Which one of the following pairs
got the maximum number of gold.
is/are correctly matched?
paintings. Which of the statement(s) given above (a) Harappan : Painted Grey Ware
Which of the statement(s) given is/are correct? Civilisation
above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) The Kushans : Gandhara School
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 of Art
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Consider the following statements (c) The Mughals : Ajanta Paintings
18. Consider the following statement(s) regarding Khajuraho temples. (d) The Marathas : Pahari School of
1. The Dilwara Jain temple in 1. Khajuraho temples are dedicated Painting
Mount Abu constructed out of to Shiva, Vishnu and Jain
white marble.
29. Which one of the following statement
Tirhankaras. about Brihadeswara temple at
2. Dilwara Jain temple enshrines 2. The underlying plan of these
various Jain ‘Tirthankars’.
Thanjavur, is not correct?
temples of Nagara style consist of
(a) The temple is a splendid example of
Which of the statement(s) given the Ardhamandaps (an entrance Chola architecture
above is/are correct? porch), the Mandaps (the
(b) It was built by Emperor Rajaraja
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 assembly half), Antarala (the
(c) The temple is constructed of granite
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 vestibule) and the Garbhagriha
(the sanctum). (d) The temple is a monument dedicated
to Lord Vishnu.
GENERAL STUDIES History 851

30. The Sun temple of Konark was built 33. Which one of the following dances Which of the statements(s) given
by Narasimhadeva I. To which involves solo performance? above is/are correct?
dynasty did he belong to? (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kuchipudi (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Somavamsi dynasty (c) Kathak (d) Odissi (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Imperial Ganga dynasty
34. Who among the following was a 36. Which one of the following is an
(c) Suryavanshi Gajapati dynasty
Jahangiri painter? Octagonal Tomb?
(d) Bhoi dynasty (a) Tomb of Sikander Lodi
(a) Abul Hasan (b) Abdus Samad
31. Whose philosophy is called the (c) Daswant (d) Mir Sayyid Ali (b) Tomb of Balban
Advaita? (c) Tomb of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
35. Consider the following statement(s) (d) Tomb of Ferozshah Tughlaq
(a) Ramanujacharya (b) Shankaracharya
regarding Sanchi Stupas
(c) Nagarjuna (d) Vasumitra
1. Sanchi Stupa is located in Sanchi, 37. Which of the following tomb is placed
32. Which one of the following was the Madhya Pradesh, 14 km from in the centre of a large garden and
original name of Tansen, the famous Vidisha. resembles as a prototype of the Taj
musician in the court of Akbar? 2. It has three Stupas all the Mahal?
(a) Mahananda Pande gateway around them but the (a) Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara
(b) Lal Kalwant most famous is the great Stupa (b) Itmad-ud-daulah tomb at Agra
(c) Baz Bahadur which was originally made of (c) Shershah’s tomb at Sasaram
(d) Ramtanu Pandey brick in Ashoka’s time. (d) Humayun’s tomb at Delhi

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) 4. Who among the following cultures which suggests that certain
were the first to paint their pottery? iconographic conventions were
1. The Viceregal Lodge at Shimla is a (a) Mesolithic (b) Chalcolithic already well-established in the
well-known ancient monument. (c) Neolithic (d) Iron age pre-Kushana period.
Which of the following statements
about the monument is/are correct? 7. The highly polished monolithic
1. The Lodge was built by 17th
2013 (I) Ashokan Pillars were carved out of
Viceroy, Earl Dufferin. Directions (Q. Nos. 5-6) The following single pieces of a buff-coloured
2. The present shape of the building questions consist of two statements, sandstone, usually mined from the
was given by Earl of Marquis of Statement I and Statement II. You are to quarries of
Lansdowne. examine these two statements carefully (a) Chunar near Mirzapur
and select the answers to these questions (b) Lauriya in Nandangarh
3. It is famous for holding three using the codes given below. (c) Sarnath near Varanasi
meetings before Independence of
Codes (d) Udayagiri near Bhubaneswar
India including the Cabinet Mission.
(a) Both the statements are true and
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
Statement II is the correct explanation of 2014 (I)
Statement I
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (b) Both the statements are true, but 8. Which one of the following was a
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Statement II is not the correct explanation temple built by the Chola Kings?
of Statement I (a) Brihadiswara Temple, Tanjavur
2. Which one among the following (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is (b) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
statements regarding Jorwe Culture false (c) Srirangam Temple, Thiruchirapalli
is not correct? (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is (d) Durga Temple, Aihole
(a) Pravara-Godavari Valley was the true 9. The University of Nalanda was
nuclear zone of Jorwe Culture
5. Statement I Lomash Rishi and set-up by which Gupta ruler?
(b) The main sites of Jorwe Culture are
Sudama caves in the Barabar hills, (a) Kumaragupta II (b) Kumaragupta I
Daimabad, Inamgaon, Jorwe and
Nevasa modelled on wooden architectural (c) Chandragupta II (d) Samudragupta
(c) At Daimabad, one gets archaeological prototypes are examples of the earliest
cave architecture in India. 10. Match the following
evidence of symbolic burial
(d) Practically all settlement in the Northern Statement II Barabar hills caves were List I (Temples) List II (Towns)
Deccan were suddenly deserted dedicated by Chandragupta Maurya to A. Kailasanatha 1. Bhubaneswar
Ajivika monks.
B. Lingaraj 2. Khajuraho
2012 (II) 6. Statement I Sculptures of the C. Kandariya Mahadev 3. Mount Abu
Gandhara School stylistically and
3. The first Indian ruler to be shown in typically linked to the Greco-Roman
D. Dilwara 4. Kanchipuram
images as wearing a dress akin to
and the Parthian art of Iran. Codes
trousers is
Statement II The earliest stone A B C D A B C D
(a) Chandragupta (b) Ashoka
Buddha images in the Swat valley (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) Kanishka (d) Samudragupta pre-dated the Kushana period, (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4
852 CDS Pathfinder

experimented with the kriti form 17. Consider the following statements:
2014 (II) to set the foundations for modern 1. The inscriptions on the pillar at
11. Which of the following statement(s) Carnatic music. Rummindei give vivid details of
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the Ashoka’s Dhamma.
1. Early Buddhist literature is codes given below. 2. The Nigalisagar inscription
generally composed of the (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 records the fact of Ashoka having
canonical text. (c) Only 3 (d) All of these visited the Konagamana stupa.
2. The Buddhist schools classify Which of the statement(s) given
14. Which of the following statement(s) above is/are correct?
their canonical literature as only about visual culture in 18th and (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the Pitakas. early 19th century North India (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the is/are correct?
codes given below. 1. Painters from Patna and
18. Which one of the following books was
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 not illustrated with paintings in
Murshidabad flocked to Calcutta
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Akbar’s court?
and produced water colours in the
(a) Hamzanama (b) Razmnama
English mode.
(c) Baburnama (d) Tarikh-i-Alfi
2015 (I) 2. Landscape and portraiture became
extremely important at this time. 19. Which one among the following
12. Which of the following statement(s) 3. The artists Zayan-al-Din, Bhawani statements about the coins of the
about the musical culture in 18th Das and Ram Das were adopted Gupta rulers is correct?
and 19th centuries North India by the English East India (a) The obverse and reverse, both, had
Company to produce albums of only the king’s portrait and date
is/are not correct?
India birds and animals. (b) The obverse and reverse, both, had
1. The period was marked by the only an image of a deity and date
growing eminence of Sadarang 4. While Indians were influenced by
European artistic styles, (c) The obverse generally had king’s
Neamat Khan who introduced the portrait and reverse had an image
khyal form. Europeans artists did not visit
of a deity or a motif
2. A large number of musicians regional courts.
(d) The obverse generally had king’s
move out of regional centres to Select the correct answer using the portrait and reverse always had a
Delhi where they hoped they codes given below. date
would receive more employment (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
and patronage. 20. Which of the following is/are not
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) Only 4 depicted in the Rajput paintings?
3. The period was marked by the
formation of specific region based 1. The stories of Krishna
2. Ragas and Raginis
gharanas. 2015 (II) 3. The deeds of Hamza
Select the correct answer using the
15. Borobudur is the site of 4. The deeds of Babur
codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (a) a huge temple of Vishnu and Shiva Select the correct answer using the
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these in Java, built in the AD 12th century codes given below.
(b) an enormous Stupa in Java, built in (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
13. Which of the following statement(s) the AD 8th century (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
about the musical culture in 18th (c) a magnificent palace of a Chola 21. Which one of the following is the
and 19th centuries South India King in Tamil Nadu common element between the
is/are correct? (d) a Jain monastery in Gujarat Kailasanatha temple at Ellora and
1. Musical developments were the Shore temple at Mamallapuram?
spearheaded by the Arcot court.
2. Thanjavur replaced Madras as the 2016 (I) (a) Both are examples of Nagara
architecture
cultural capital of classical music (b) Both are carved out from solid
in the second half of the 19th 16. Which kingdom did the temple of
Hazara Rama belong to? rocks
century.
(a) Avadh (b) Travancore (c) Both are Gupta period temples
3. Three great composers, Tyagaraja, (d) Both were built under the patronage
Dikshitar and Syama Sastri (c) Vijayanagara (d) Ahom
of Pallava Kings

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 c 2 c 3 c 4 c 5 c 6 d 7 c 8 c 9 c 10 c
11 c 12 a 13 c 14 c 15 c 16 b 17 c 18 c 19 b 20 c
21 d 22 c 23 c 24 c 25 c 26 b 27 c 28 a 29 d 30 b
31 b 32 d 33 a 34 a 35 c 36 a 37 d

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 d 2 c 3 c 4 c 5 a 6 d 7 a 8 a 9 b 10 b
11 d 12 c 13 c 14 a 15 b 16 c 17 b 18 c 19 c 20 c
21 b
02
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 853

GEOGRAPHY

The Geography section of the CDS examination plays an important role as around 12-14 questions are
asked every year. It includes both Indian as well as world geography. Topics which are asked include Earth
structure, Atmosphere, Rivers, Mountains, Oceanography, Latitude and Longitude, Location of important
industries etc.

PART I PHYSICAL AND WORLD GEOGRAPHY

THE UNIVERSE
• The Universe is commonly defined as the totality of everything that exists including all physical matter like the planets,
stars, galaxies and the contents of intergalactic space and energy. The study of Universe is known as Cosmology.
• The Universe comprises of billions of galaxies. Galaxy is giant assemblies of stars, planets, gases and dust. These galaxies
are made up of millions of stars held together by the force of gravity and these stars account for most of the masses of the
galaxy. Andromeda is our nearest galaxy.
• Our own galaxy is called the Milky Way (the Akash Ganga) and it contains about 300 billion stars and one of these is
our Sun. Planets and other objects go round the Sun and make up the solar system with the Sun at the centre.
• In AD 140, Ptolemy propounded the theory that the Earth was at the centre of the Universe and the Sun and the other
heavenly bodies revolved around it.
• In 1543, Copernicus said that the Sun is at the centre of the Universe and not the Earth. Kepler supported Copernicus
but said that the Sun is the centre of solar system and not the Universe.
• In 1924, Edwin Hubble first demonstrated the existence of galaxies beyond Milky Way.
Structurally, the galaxies are found in three forms as follow
i. Spiral have a central nucleus with great spiral arms. Milky Way and Andromeda are the examples of it.
ii. Elliptical without spiral arms.
iii. Irregular with no shape.
854 CDS Pathfinder

Evolution of Universe • Aurora The constituent particles of the solar

wind are trapped by the Earth’s magnetic field and
The three main theories put forward to explain the origin and enter the Earth’s upper atmosphere as Aurora. It is
evolution of the Universe are as follows : described as Aurora Borealis in the Northern
i. Big Bang Theory (Proposed by Georges Lemaitre) Big hemisphere and Aurora Australis in Southern
Bang was an explosion that occurred 13.8 billion years ago, hemisphere.
leading to the formation of galaxies of stars and other • Plages and Sunspots The surface of the Sun is
heavenly bodies. continuously changing. Bright spots are called
ii. Steady State Theory This theory was proposed by Bondi, Plages and dark spots are called Sunspots. The
Gold and Fred Hoyle. According to this theory, new Sunspots are cold and dark regions on the Sun’s
galaxies are continuously being formed and older ones are surface with a periodicity of 11 years. These spots
destroyed. The overall size of the Universe remains constant. greatly influence the global climate.
iii. The Pulsating Theory According to this theory, the
Universe is supposed to be expanding and contracting Planets
alternately i.e. pulsating. At present, the Universe is
expanding. A planet is a heavenly body that moves in an orbit
around a star, such as the Sun. There are 8 planets in
solar system. These planets move around the Sun in
SOLAR SYSTEM the fixed path.
• The solar system comprises the Sun and 8 planets and their
moons and other non-stellar objects, which are believed to Mercury
have been developed from the condensation of gases and other • It is the innermost and smallest planet in the solar
lesser bodies. The size of solar system has been estimated system.
about 10 5 Astronomical Unit (AU). • Mercury is nearest to the Sun, having rotation
• The Sun is at the centre of the solar system and all the planets period is 58.65 days and revolution period is of
revolve around it in elliptical orbit. It is the nearest star to the 88 days (fastest in solar system) with no satellite,
Earth. it has the highest diurnal range of temperature and
• It also consists of Interstellar debris such as asteroids, has the shortest year.
meteoroids, comets, electrically charged gases, called Plasma and
interplanetary dust particles. The components of solar system Venus
other than planets, dwarf planets and satellites are called as • Also known as Earth’s twin, morning star and
Small Solar System Bodies (SSSB). evening star. Brightest heavenly body after the
Sun and the Moon because of 70% albedo. Venus
is closest planet to Earth.
THE SUN • It is hottest planet in our solar system because of
• The Sun accounts for more than 99% of the mass of the solar 97% CO2 . It is slightly smaller than the Earth (500
system and due to this, the Sun exerts immense gravitational km less in diameter). It rotates clockwise (East to
pull to keep the planets rotating around it in definite elliptical West) and it does not have satellite.
orbits. • It has slowest rotation period in our solar system
• The Sun is the major source of energy in the solar system. The (257 days) and have almost equal rotation and
energy is provided by the nuclear fusion reaction, that revolution (224.7 days) period.
converts hydrogen into helium in the core of the Sun.
• Super-imposed on Sun’s white light are hundred of dark lines Mars
called Fraunhofer lines. Each line indicates some elements • Mars is the fourth nearest planet to the Sun. It is
present in the solar system. also known as Red Planet because it appears as a
reddish ball when looked through a telescope.
Concepts Associated with the Sun • Its revolution period is 687 days and rotation
period is of 24.6 hrs (almost equal to that of Earth),
• Solar Winds The Sun is continuously emitting streams of
it has two satellites Phobos and Deimos and it has
proton in all directions either as spiral streams called Solar
signs of water, hence, there a possibility of life.
Wind or bouts of incandescent material called Solar Flares.
Solar flares being hot ionised gases pose danger to satellite • Various space missions have been sent e.g. Vikings,
communication. Pathfinder, Mars Odyssey, Mars Obriter Mission.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 855

Jupiter PLUTO Asteroids

• Largest of all planets, almost 11 Pluto was discovered in 1930 and • Asteroids or minor planets circle in a broad
times of the Earth, it is also was considered as ninth planet in belt between the orbits of Mars and
called Lord of the Heavens. our solar system. However, it is Jupiter.
no longer considered a planet • It is the debris left over from the formation
• It has fastest rotational time in
now. It orbits beyond the orbit of of inner planets, also called ‘planetoids’ or
our solar system (9.8 hrs) and Neptune.
revolution period is of 12 small planets and they are chunks of rock
It is much smaller than any of covered in frozen gases.
years, it has 16 satellites the official planets and now
(prominent are Europa, classified as a dwarf planet. It is Meteoroids, Meteors and
Ganymede and Callisto). the second largest dwarf planet in
the solar system.
Meteorites
• Europa resembles the living
• Meteoroids are small bodies that travel
condition like that of the Earth.
through space. Meteoroids are smaller than
Ganymede is the largest satellite Facts Related to Planets Asteroids, most are smaller than the size of
of our Solar system. • Biggest planet – Jupiter a pebble.
• Smallest planet – Mercury • A meteor is a meteoroid that has entered
Saturn • Biggest satellite – Ganymede the Earth’s atmosphere, usually making a
• Second largest planet (in size)
• Smallest satellite – Deimos fiery trail as it falls. It is sometimes called a
after Jupiter and Least dense of shooting star or a falling star.
• Blue planet – Earth
all (30 times less dense than the
• Green planet – Uranus • A meteor shower is a phenomenon in which
Earth). It has revolution period
• Brightest planet – Venus many meteors fall through the atmosphere
of 29 years and rotation period in a relatively short time and in
is of 10.3 hours. • Brightest star – Sirius (Dog Star)
approximately parallel trajectories. A very
• It has around 62 satellites. Titan • Closest Star of solar system – intense meteor shower is called a Meteor
is the most prominent one. Its Proxima Centauri storm.
atmosphere is dominated by • Coldest planet – Neptune • A Meteorite is a meteor that has fallen to
presence of nitrogen. It has a • Evening star – Venus Earth. Meteorites are made up of rock
system of three well defined • Red planet – Mars and/or metals.
rings. • Slowest revolution in solar
Uranus system – Neptune The Moon
• Slowest rotation in solar system
• Identified as a planet in 1781 by • Moon is the only natural satellite of Earth.
– Venus
William Hershal. It rotates from It has no atmosphere as due to weak
• Earth’s twin – Venus gravitational force the gases easily escape
North to South as it is
• Only satellite with an atmosphere from its surface.
inclined at an angle of 98° to its
like Earth – Titan • Only 59% of Moon surface is directly
orbit, and it has revolution
period of 84 years and rotation visible from Earth. It takes 27 days, 7 hrs,
Comet 43 min and 11.47 sec to complete one
period is of 10.8 years.
• A comet is a member of the revolution around the Earth. It rotates on
• Like Saturn, it is also Sun’s family, part of the solar its axis in exactly the same time as that in
surrounded by a system of 5 system. Comet travels on a path revolution. That is why we see only one
faint rings and it has 21 or elliptical orbit around the Sun side of the Moon.
satellites (Miranda, Ariel etc.)
on a regular schedule.
• It may have originated from a
Phases of the Moon
Neptune
huge cloud the ‘oort cloud’ that • Due to its spherical shape, only one-half of
• Appears as ‘Greenish Star’
is thought to surround the solar the Moon gets illuminated by the Sun.
because of presence of
system. • Visible surface of Moon is not same
‘Methane’. It has revolution
• It has a head and a tail. Its tail
everyday because it revolves round the
period of 165 years and
Earth and visible shape of the Moon are
rotation period is of 15.7 days. originates once it gets closer to referred to as the phases of the Moon.
• Discovered by JG Galle of the Sun. The brightest part of the
– New Moon This is the phase when the
Berlin in 1846. Its prominent comet is head (coma) and it is
Moon is between the Earth and the Sun
satellite are ‘Trion and Neroid’. made up of solid matter and consequently the part of the Moon
Uranus and Neptune are called combined with gases. facing us is in complete darkness.
Jovion Twins. (New Moon = No Moon)
856 CDS Pathfinder

– Full Moon This occurs on the 14th day after the The Earth’s Movement
New Moon. The Moon at this time shows its fully
lighted surface. (Full Moon = Complete Moon) The Earth moves in space in two distinct ways rotation and
• When two full Moons occurs in a single month, the revolution, which are as follow
second full Moon is called a Blue Moon. i. It rotates on its own axis from West to East once in
every 24 hrs. It causes day and night.
Stars ii. It revolves around the Sun in an orbit once in every
• Stars are heavenly bodies made up of hot burning gases, 365¼ days. It causes the seasons and the year.
thus shine by their own light. If the star is bigger than
the Sun but not more than twice as big, it will turn into Rotation of the Earth
a Neutron star or Pulsar. They are formed due to • Earth spins on its imaginary axis from West to East in
novae and supernovae explosion. 23 hrs, 56 min and 40.91 sec. The rotational speed at
• A star’s colour indicates the temperature of its surface. equator is maximum (1667 km/hr) and then decreases
Blue colour denotes maximum temperature. Then comes towards the poles, where it is zero.
yellow, then red etc. • The rotation of the Earth causes day and night, change
in the direction of winds and ocean currents, rise and
Evolutionary Stages of a Star fall of tides everyday and a difference of 1 hr between
i. Adult Star It is the stage, where the helium core the two meridians which are 15° apart.
becomes increasingly heavy, accompanied with
• The division between day and night over the Earth is
expanding outer layers.
considered by the circle of illumination. The circle of
ii. Red Giant This stage results into swelling and illumination always bisect the equator and divides Earth
reddening of the outer regions of the star. Such star into light and dark halves i.e. a day hemisphere and a
of gigantic dimension is called Red star.
night hemisphere.
iii. White Dwarf If the mass of the star is relatively
small like that of our Sun, the gases that reach the Revolution of the Earth
outer layer are expelled. As these expelled gases cool • It is the Earth’s motion in elliptical orbit around the
and contract, the star becomes a white dwarf.
Sun. It takes 365 days, 5 hrs, 48 min and 45.51 sec. It
leads to one extra day in every fourth year.
THE EARTH The revolution of the Earth results in
• It is the 5th largest planet of our solar system. Only i. change of season.
planet of our solar system where life exists. It is also ii. variation of the length of the days and nights at
called ‘Blue Planet’. It has circumference of 40008 km different times of the year.
(polar) and equatorial circumference 40075 km and area iii. shifting of the wind belts.
of nearly 510 million sq kms. The figures below shows the revolution of the Earth and
• Perigee Nearest position of Earth to Moon (356000 km). its effects on seasons and the variations of lengths of day
• Apogee Farthest position of Earth from Moon and night.
(407000 km). Equal Day and Night

• Aphelion Farthest position of Earth from Sun on 4th North Pole D

July, about 152 million km. isphere
Sum
mer
.Hem e in N
in N Hemispher Win . He
• Perihelion Nearest position of Earth to Sun on 3rd n . ter in mis
phe
utum g in S S. H re
North A rin emis
January, about 147 million km. Pole Sp 23rd September phe
re
• The history of the Earth is studied in terms of geological
Equator 21st June
years, periods and the epochs. A
22nd December
SUN
Equator
C
Artic Antartic
Circle Su Circle
Shape of the Earth W
mm
e
int r in S 21st March .H em isph
ere South
er in S phe
re Pole
in N .Hemisph mn mis
The Earth is an oblate spheroid, a sphere flattened along the .Hem ere Autu . He
ispher in S
e ing
axis from pole to pole such that there is a buldge around the Spr

equator. Earth bulges at the equator and is flattened at B South Pole

the poles. The shape of Earth is also called Geoid. Geodesy Equal Day and Night
is a branch of science which deals with measuring the
Earth’s size and shape.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 857

Equinoxes
• These are the days, when days and nights are equal.
Universal Time (Standard Time)
Under this situation, the Sun is vertically overhead at and Time Zones
the equator. It happens on 2 days of the year i.e.
• The Earth is divided in 24 longitudinal zones, each being
21st March and 23rd September.
15° or 1 hrs apart in time (360° = 24 hours, 360/24 =15° in
• 21st March Vernal equinox and 23rd September
1 hrs or 1° in 4 minute) called Standard Time Zones.
Autumnal equinox.
• Larger countries such as USA, Russia and Canada, which
Summer Solstice have greater East-West stretch have to adopt several time
• After the March equinox, the Sun appears to move zones for practical purposes.
Northward and is vertically overhead at the Tropic • Russia has as many as 11 time zones.
of Cancer on 21st June. This is known as Summer
• Both USA and Canada have five time zones, viz the
Solstice.
Atlantic, Eastern, Central, Mountain and Pacific time zones.
• On 21st June, the Northern hemisphere will have its
• To avoid confusion about having many local times within
longest day and shortest night. The Southern
one country, a particular meridian is chosen for the whole
hemisphere will have shortest day and longest night.
country, whose time is known as Standard Time.
Winter Solstice • The Indian Government has accepted the meridian of 82.5°
On 22nd December, the Sun is overhead at the Tropic East for standard time, which is 5 hrs 30 min ahead of the
of Capricorn and this is the winter solstice. Southern Greenwich Mean Time GMT and is situated at Naini near
hemisphere will have its longest day and shortest night. Allahabad.

Latitude INTERNATIONAL DATE LINE

• Latitude is the angular distance of a point on Earth
●
It is the 180° meridian running over the Pacific ocean
deviating at Fiji, Samoa and Gilbert Islands. This
surface from the centre of Earth, measured in degree.
meridian is considered to be deviated at the land
These lines are called parallels of latitude and on the
masses, so that the travellers do not feel inconvenient.
globe they are circles. The circumference of the ●
One who is crossing the Date Line from West to East
circles decreases from equator to pole and at the pole
repeats a day and the one who travellers crossing it
it converge to a point.
from East to West losses a day.
• The distance between any two parallels of latitude is
always equal. One degree latitude = Approx 111 km
• The most important lines of latitudes are equator ECLIPSES
(0°), the Tropic of Cancer (23½°N), the Tropic of
• An eclipse occurs when the Sun, Moon and Earth are in a
Capricorn (23½°S), the Arctic Circle (66½°N) and
straight line. There are two types of eclipses-Solar and
the Antarctic Circle (66½°S).
Lunar eclipse.
Longitude • Generally, a total of seven eclipse including solar and lunar
eclipses, take place in a year.
• Longitude is the angular distance of a point on the
Earth surface along the equator, East or West from Solar Eclipse
the Prime meridian. On the globe, they form semi
circles from pole to pole passing through the • Solar eclipse occurs when Moon comes between the Sun and
equator. the Earth. It can be partial or total.
• Prime meridian is the semi circle from pole to pole, • It happen only on a new Moon day when the Moon is in
from which all the other meridians radiate Eastwards line with the Sun. A solar eclipse doesn’t occur on every
and Westwards up to 180°. In 1884, it was decided new Moon day.
that the zero meridian is one that passes through the M oon
he
Royal Astronomical Observatory at Greenwich near Moon
ft
o
P a th

London.
Sun
• 180° meridian (International Date Line) is exactly
Earth
opposite to the Prime meridian. Such points are
called Antipodal Points.
Solar Eclipse
858 CDS Pathfinder

Lunar Eclipse The Mantle

Lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth comes in • It is about 2900 km in thickness, composed of minerals in a semi
between the Sun and the Moon. It occurs only on solid state. It is further divided into two layer upper mantle and
a full Moon day but not on every full Moon day lower mantle. The upper part of the mantle is called
because the Moon is not in the same position in Asthenosphere, which is about 250 km thick.
relation to that of the Earth and the Sun on every • Due to presence of minerals like silica and magnesium in the
full Moon day. rocks forming this layer of the Earth, the mantle layer is also
known as Sima (silica and magnesium). The average density of
this layer is about 5.68 gm/cm 3 .
Earth
• The transitional zone separating the mantle from the core is
Sun
called the Gutenberg Discontinuity.
Moon
Path
o f the
Moo
n
The Core
Lunar Eclipse • The core is the innermost layer of the Earth and occupies its
center. It is about 3500 km in radius. This layer is also known as
Nife (nickel and iron), because this layer contain large
concentration of iron and nickel.
STRUCTURE OF • Density of this part of the Earth is 17.2 gm/cm 3 and is many
EARTH’S INTERIOR times greater than the average density of the Earth (5.53
gm/cm 3 ).
The interior of Earth is divided into three parts
DISCONTINUITIES
The Crust The various layers are separated by dicontinuities, which are
• The crust is the outermost and the thinnest layer evident in seismic data.
of the Earth. This layer has the least density and
●
Conrad discontinuity lies between upper crust and
its thickness varies about 8 to 40 km. lower crust.
Mohorovic or Moho Discontinuity, marks
●
Mohorovicic discontinuity between crust and mantle.
the lower limit of the crust and this ●
Repetti discontinuity lies between upper mantle and
discontinuity is identified on the basis of rock lower mantle.
density. ●
Gutenberg discontinuity between core and mantle.
Here, the Earth’s density as well as velocity of P waves
• The rocks forming the crust of the Earth are
increases.
rich in lighter minerals like silica and aluminium. ●
Lehmann discontinuity divides upper core and lower
Hence, this layer is also called as Sial (silica core.
and aluminium). The average density of this
layer is 2.7 gm/cm 3 .
Composition of Whole Earth
Density Crust Depth (km)
Iron (35%), Oxygen (30%), Silicon (15%), Magnesium (13%),
2.90 0 Nickel (2.4%), Sulphur (1.9%).
3.3 Upper Mantle 30
Composition of Earth’s Crust
200
Oxygen (46%), Silicon (28%), Aluminium (8%), Iron (6%),
4.3 Lower 700
Magnesium (4%), Calcium (2.4%), Potassium (2.3%), Sodium
Mantle (2.1%).

Outer
Continental Drift Theory
5.5 2900
10.0 Core • This theory was given by Alfred Wagener, in 1915, to explain
the origin and evolution of the continents and the oceans.
12.3 5150 • According to this theory, about 250 million years ago, there was
13.3
6371
only one continent named Pangea means All Earth and it was
Inter surrounded by one mass of water body, named Panthalassa.
Core
• The present shape of the continents and oceans is due to the
13.6
Interior Structure of Earth break up of Pangaea. This breaking process started about 200
million years ago.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 859

• The Northern rift cuts Pangaea from East to West These forces are classified into endogenetic and exogenetic forces
creating Laurasia in the North and Gondwanaland
in South. A shallow sea called Tethys was situated
Endogenetic Forces
The forces coming from within the Earth are called
between the Laurasia and the Gondwanaland.
Endogenetic Forces. The heat inside the Earth is primary
driving force of these forces. These forces are further classified
Plate Tectonics Theory into two categories
• The theory of Plate tectonics states that the i. Sudden or Catastrophic Forces These forces act very
lithosphere is divided into several rigid segments, swiftly and often in an unpredictable manner. Earthquake
which include both oceanic and continental crusts. and volcanoes are major sudden forces.
These segments are called plates and they are ii. Slow or Diastrophic Forces These forces act in an
moving on the asthenosphere, which is not a liquid, imperceptible manner where changes are discernible after
but a solid which flows under stress. millions of year. These forces are further classified into
tensional and compressional forces.
• About 20 such plates have been identified. There are
seven major plates Eurasia, Antarctica, North Exogenetic Forces
America, South America, Pacific, African and Indian
Plate. These forces and processes occur over the Earth’s surface and
modify the landforms from outside. Erosion and weathering
• Most of the Earth’s seismic activity, volcanism and are two major phenomena of denudation of geomorphic
mountain building occur along with these dynamic features by exogenetic forces.
boundaries.
Depending upon the type of movement, plate margins
are of three types
EARTHQUAKES
• It refers to the vibration of the Earth’s surface caused by the
i. Divergent Plate Margin (Constructive margins) endogenetic forces. The magnitude or intensity of energy
ii. Convergent Plate Margin (Destructive margins) released by an earthquake is measured by the Richter Scale,
iii. Parallel Plates Margin (Conservative margin or whereas the damage caused is measured by modified Mercalli
Transform boundary) Intensity Scale.
• The place of origin of earthquake is called focus. The place
• Collision can occur between two oceanic plates, one
on the ground surface, which is perpendicular to the focus
oceanic and one continental plate or two continental
or hypocentre is called epicentre. Seismology is the special
plates. branch of geology that deals with the study of earthquake.
Due to collision three types of plate boundaries appears, • The waves generated by earthquake are called seismic waves
which are as follow and they are classified into three types :
Divergent Plate Convergent Plate Transform Fault i. Primary Wave (P Waves) These are the waves of short
Boundary Boundary Boundary wavelength and high frequency. They are longitudinal
When the plates move A convergent plate They are located, waves and can travel through solid, liquid and gases.
apart with the upwelling boundary is one, where where plates ii. Secondary Wave (S Waves) These are the waves of
of material from the two plates collide, one slide past one short wavelength and high frequency. They are
mantle, divergent plate plate bending downward another without
boundary results. and subducting below the creation or transverse waves, which travel through all solid particles.
the other. destruction of iii. Surface Waves or Long Waves (L Waves) They are
crust.
the waves of long wavelength, confined to the upper
Formation of the mid Deep oceanic trench is San Andreas
oceanic ridges are the formed adjacent to the Fault along the
layer of the Earth’s crust. It causes most of the
example of divergent zone of subduction. West coast of earthquake’s structural damage.
plate margin. Fold mountains are the Mexico is a • Imaginary lines on map connecting the places where the
result of convergent famous transform
plate boundary. fault. seismic wave arrives generated by an earthquake, at the same
Example Example Example
time are known as Homoseismal Lines.
Surtsey Island was born Himalayan boundary San Andreas
along with mid-Atlantic fault, Pacific ring of fire. Fault along the Distribution of Earthquakes
ridge. Western coast of
USA. Most of the world earthquake occurs in
• The zones of young fold mountain, zones of folding and

Forces Affecting Earth’s Crust faulting, junction of continental and oceanic margin, zone
of active volcanoes and along different plate boundaries.
Study of forces affecting the crust of the Earth is very The traditional zones of earthquake are
important as these forces and resultant movements are
• Circum Pacific belt, Mid Continental belt and Mid
responsible for creation, modification and destruction
Atlantic belt.
of various landforms over the Earth’s surface.
860 CDS Pathfinder

Mid-Continental Belt (Volcanic zones of convergent continental

VOLCANISM plate Margins). It includes volcanoes of Alpine mountain
• Volcanism includes all phenomena connected with chain, the Mediterranean sea and the fault zone of Eastern
the movement of heated material from the interior Africa of Stromboli, Vesuvius, Etna, Kilimanjaro etc.
towards the surface of the Earth. Mid-Atlantic Belt The volcanoes are fissure eruption type e.g.
• A volcano is a vent or opening, through which Iceland, Canary Islands, Cape Verde, Azores etc.
heated materials consisting of gases, water, liquid
lava, fragments of rocks are ejected from the ROCKS
highly heated interior to the surface of the Earth.
The solid part of the Earth’s crust are called rocks. The rocks are
• Volcanic eruptions are closely associated with
made up of two or more minerals.
several integrated processes such as gradual
increase in temperature with increasing depth, due Rocks are classified in three main types depending on the process
of their formation
to the heat generated by degeneration of
radioactive elements inside the Earth.
1. Igneous Rocks
• Origin of magma due to the lowering of the
• Formed due to the cooling, solidification and crystallisation of
melting point caused by reduction in pressure of
hot and molten magma. They are called as the primary rocks
overlying rocks due to fractures caused by as all the other rocks are formed directly or indirectly from the
splitting of plates. igneous rocks.
• It is believed that the igneous rocks were formed during each
Classification of Volcanoes period of geological history of the Earth. They are hard,
On the basis of mode of eruption : granular and crystalline rock, less affected by chemical
weathering. Moreover, it does not have any fossil or does not
Central Eruption or Explosive Type Here, the
form any strata or layers of lava.
magma comes with great force through the
small vent and spread to a distant position. e.g., Classification of Igneous Rocks
Hawaiian type, Strombolian type, Pelean type, On the basis of mode of occurrence :
Vesuvius type, Volcanion type. • Intrusive Rocks They are formed due to the solidification of
Fissure Eruption or Quiet Eruption Large rising magma below the surface of the Earth. e.g. Granite,
quantities of lava quietly flow up from fissures Lapolith, Batholiths, Sills etc.
and spread out over the surrounding areas. • Extrusive Rocks They are formed due to cooling and
Successive flow of lava results in the growth of solidification of hot and molten magma at the Earth surface.
lava plateau. e.g., Deccan Plateau. e.g. Basalt, Gabbro etc.
On the basis of periodicity of eruptions : • On the basis of silica content :
Active Volcano Volcano which errupt periodically. – Acidic It has more silica content e.g. Granite.
e.g., Etna, Stromboli, Mayon – Basic It has less silica content e.g. Gabbro.
Dormant Volcano Volcano which become quiet
after their eruption for sometime. e.g., Fujiyama, 2. Sedimentary Rocks
Krakatoa, Barren Island • It is formed due to the aggregation and compaction of sediments
Extinct Volcano They have no indication of future derived from the older rocks, plants, animals and contains fossils
eruption. of plants.
• Sedimentary rocks can be classified on the basis of the nature
Various Volcanic Belts of sediments as mechanically, chemically and organically
formed rocks.
Circum-Pacific Belt (Fire girdle of the Pacific or
the fire ring of the Pacific). It extends across the 3. Metamorphic Rocks
Kamchatka Peninsula, Kurile Islands, the Islands • These are the changed form of igneous and sedimentary rocks.
of Japan, Philippines, New Guinea, New These are the rocks, which change either in form or
Zealand and the Soloman Islands. composition without disintegration.
Highest Volcanic Peaks Cotopaxi (South • Already formed metamorphic rocks are metamorphosed and
America), Fujiyama (Japan), valley of ten this process is called Metamorphosis. The agents of
metamorphism are heat, compression and solution.
thousand smokes (Alaska).
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 861

Sedimentary Rocks Metamorphic Rocks • Tectonic plate movement under the Earth can create landforms by
Limestone Marble pushing up mountains and hills.
Sandstone Quartzite Major classification of landforms on the basis of their process of origin is
Shale/Clay Slate, Phyllite, Schist, given as under :
Coal Diamond or Graphite
Fluvial Landforms
Original Rocks Metamorphic Rocks A fluvial landform is a feature resulting from the movement of water on
Sandstone Quartzite the Earth’s surface. Flowing water is the most important force shaping
Limestone Marble the Earth.
Shale and mudstone Slate i. Erosional Landforms Erosional landforms made by river are
Granite Gneiss u-shaped valley, potholes, plunge pools, meanders, river terraces etc.
Coal Graphite coal
Clay
ii. Depositional Landforms Depositional landforms made by river are
Slate
alluvial fans, deltas, floodplains, natural levees, point bars etc.

WEATHERING Karst Landforms

• It is the process of disintegration Any limestone or dolomite region showing typical landforms produced
or decomposition of rocks in Situ by the action of ground water through the processes of solution and
by natural agents. It is a static process. deposition is called Karst Topography.
There are three types of weathering as given i. Erosional Landforms Pools, sinkholes, lapies and limestone
below pavement, caves are important erosional landforms made by
underground water.
i. Physical Weathering (or mechanical
weathering) ii. Depositional Landforms Stalactites, stalagmites, pillars etc are
important depositional landforms of underground water.
(a) It involves rock disintegration
without any change in the chemical
constituents of the rocks.
Glacial Landforms
(b) The factors responsible for physical The movement of glaciers is slow unlike the water flow. The movement
weathering are temperature change, could be a few centimetres to a few metres a day or even less. Glaciers
crystallisation of water into ice and move basically because of the force of gravity.
pressure release mechanism. i. Erosional Landforms Cirque/Corrie U–shaped valley, horns,
ii. Chemical Weathering It involves serrated ridges, glacial troughs, hanging valleys etc are important
decomposition due to chemical changes. erosional landforms made by glaciers.
There are various chemical processes, ii. Depositional Landforms Moraines, eskers, outwash plains,
which cause chemical weathering such as drumlins etc are depositional landforms made by glaciers.
Solution, Oxidation, Carbonation,
Hydration, Hydrolysis and Chelation. Coastal Landforms
iii. Biological Weathering Plants and Coastal landforms are formed by erosion or deposition through sea
animals including man largely control it. waves, aided by currents tides and storms in coastal areas.
It is divided into three types i. Erosional Landforms Cliffs, terraces, caves, stacks etc are
(a) Faunal weathering important landforms made by oceanic waves.
(b) Floral weathering ii. Depositional Landforms Beaches, dunes, bars, barriers, spits etc
(c) Anthropogenic weathering are important depositional landforms made by sea and oceanic
waves.
Erosion Aeolian Landforms
It involves removal of rock material and then
its transportation. Therefore, erosion is Wind is one of the most dominant agents in hot deserts. The wind action
performed by mobile agents such as streams, creates a number of interesting erosional land depositional features in the
wind, waves and underground water. deserts.
Aeolian landforms are regions where erosion and deposition by wind are
dominant geomorphic forces in shaping the landform. They are formed
LANDFORMS in hot deserts, coastal zones and fields.
• A landform is a feature on the Earth’s i. Erosional Landforms Pediments, pediplains, playas, deflation
surface. It may be either the terrain, hollows, mushroom rock, table rock, pedestal rocks etc are erosional
mountains, hills, plateaus or plains. landforms in deserts.
• Minor landforms include buttes, canyons, ii. Depositional Landforms Sand dunes, barchans, seifs etc are
valleys and basins etc. depositional landforms made by wind.
862 CDS Pathfinder

MOUNTAINS
Mountain Range Location Highest Point
Based on their mode of formation four main types of
mountains can be distinguished. Himalayas Asia Mount Everest
Karakoram Asia K2
Fold Mountains Hindu Kush Asia Tirich Mir
• It is formed due to the compressive forces generated by Andes South America Aconcagua
endogenetic forces (earthquake, landslide etc.) Alps Europe Mount Blanc
• Example of Fold mountains are Himalayas, Alps, Andes, Rockies North America Mount Elbert
Rockies, Atlas etc. Urals Asia/Europe Mount Narodnaya
• On the basis of age, fold mountains are grouped into Alaska Range North America Denali (Mount Mckinley)
– Young/New Fold Mountains It came into existence Transantarctic Range Antarctica Mount Kirkpatrick
after the continental drift, e.g. Himalayas, Andes, Caucasus Europe/Asia Mount Elbrus
Rockies, Alps. Himalayas are regarded as the youngest Tien Shan Asia Jengish Chokusu
mountains in the world. Great Dividing Range Australia Mount Kosciuszko
– Old Fold Mountains They belong to pre-drift era,
e.g. Pennines (Europe), Appalachians (US), Aravallis
(India) etc. PLATEAUS
Tabular upland having relief of more than 500 feet may be
defined as plateau. Tibetan plateau (5000 m) is the highest
plateau in the world.

Fold Mountains Types of Plateau

According to their mode of formation and their physical
Block Mountains appearance, plateau may be grouped into the following types :
• It is formed when a huge block of Earth’s crust may be
raised or lowered due to tectonic activities. The land Tectonic Plateau
between the two paralled faults either rises forming
• These are formed by Earth movements, which cause
block mountains or horsts or subsides into a depression
uplift and are normally of a considerable size and fairly
termed as Rift valley or Graben. uniform altitude.
• Examples of Block mountain are Vindhya and Satpura in – When plateau are enclosed by Fold moutains, they are
India, the Vosges in France and Black forest in Germany known as Intermontane plateau.
(through which Rhine river flows). – Examples of Tectonic plateau are Tibetan plateau
Horsts between the Himalayas and the Kunlun and the
Graben Bolivian plateau between two ranges of the world.

Volcanic Plateau
Block Mountains These are formed by accumulation of lava. e.g. Deccan
Plateau (India).
Volcanic Mountains Dissected Plateau
• They are formed due to the accumulation of volcanic
• Through the continual process of weathering and erosion
material. They are also known as Mountains of by running water, ice and winds, high extensive plateau
Accumulation. are gradually worn down and their surface made
• Examples of Volcanic mountain are Mt Fuji (Japan), irregular.
Cotopaxi in Andes, Vesuvius and Etna in Italy, Mt • The Scottish Highlands is a good example of dissected
Mayon (Philippines) etc. plateau.
Residual or Dissected Mountain
• They are formed as a result of erosion of plateaus and PLAINS
high planes by various agents of erosion.
A relatively low-lying and flat land surface with least
• Examples of Residual or Dissected mountain are Catskill difference between its highest and lowest points is called a
mountains of New York, Sierras of Spain, Girnar and plain. The plains are divided into structural, erosional and
Rajmahal of India. depositional plains.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 863

Types of Plain Coral Island Rift Valley Lake

There are three types of plain as • It is an island that forms a ring and • Rift valley lakes occur in areas
follow : partially or totally encloses a where rock is pulling apart. As a
i. Structural Plain Formed due to shallow body of water or lagoon. narrow wedge of land drops from
the uplift of a part of the sea Coral islands, which are large the movement, a long, narrow lake
collections of coral a top rock often forms.
floor e.g. the great plain of USA.
(usually volcanic) in the ocean.
ii. Erosional Plain Formed when • The Rift valley, which cuts
• Lakshadweep island in Indian ocean through Africa and Asia, contains
the elevated tract of land is worn is best example of Coral islands.
down to a plain by the process the largest group of such lakes,
of erosion. e.g. Plain of North including lake Nyasa.
Alluvial Island
Canada. • They are formed by the outward Crater Lake
iii. Depositional Plain Formed by flow of water depositing silt and • Crater lakes form at a volcanic
filling up of sediments into gravel at the mouth of a river.
peak. When an extinct volcano
depressions along the foothills, • New Moore island at the mouth of collapses, it often leaves a
lakes and seas e.g. Indo Ganga Ganga river in West Bengal is somewhat circular depression;
Plain. known as alluvial island. water from rain and runoff
eventually fills the lake.
Barrier Island
ISLANDS They are formed by waves depositing
• Crater lake in Oregon is a good
example of such a lake.
An island is any piece of land that is sand on the shallow ocean bottom as
surrounded by water. A grouping of they crash on the shoreline.
Deflation Lake
geographically or geologically related • Deflation lakes usually occur in
islands is called an Archipelago. The
Tectonic Island
• They are formed by the result of deserts as the wind blows out
various types of islands are named depressions in the sand. If the hole
according to the way they were tectonic activity. By the tectonic
movement long island arcs reaches the local groundwater
formed. table, it can create an oasis.
(archipelagoes) are formed.
• Indonesia, Philippines, Japan groups • Such features dot the Sahara desert
Types of Island of island are best examples of in Africa which are locally called
Types of island are as follow tectonic island Oasis.

Continental Island Oxbow Lake

• It is simply an island that rests on
LAKES • Oxbow lakes are created by a
the continental shelf. Because of A lake is a body of water surrounded curved river meander that was cut
this, these islands are always quite by land from all the sides. A lake can off by sediment or other means,
close to a given continent. Also, the be fed and drained by rivers and creating a bowed shaped lake.
water level around a continental streams. • The Mississippi river shows
island is very shallow, typically less evidence of past Oxbow lakes.
than 600 feet. Types of Lake
• Canadian Island of Newfoundland Lakes can be classified as follow : Artificial Lake
is a continental island, as is • Artificial lakes are those usually
Greenland. Great Britain is the Tarn Lake formed by the damming of a river.
largest continental island in Europe. Tarn lakes (also often classified as • These lakes are usually created to
Alpine lakes) are usually associated regulate the flow of a seasonal
Volcanic Island with glacial regions areas that have flooding river and many times
They are formed when volcanoes been glaciated in the past. These
offer a constant supply of potable
deep in the ocean rise above the follows form as the ice scours out the
(drinkable) water or generated
water’s surface. side of a hill, creating what is called a
electricity.
cirque.
864 CDS Pathfinder

• Tropopause separates troposphere from stratosphere.

Troposphere accounts for practically the entire water
Lakes Countries Area (km2)
vapour, all dust particles and most of the carbon dioxide
Caspian Sea Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran, 436000
Azerbaijan, Russia contained in the atmosphere. Due to this all weather
phenomena such as condensation, precipitation and storms
Superior Canada, United States 82414
etc occur in the troposphere only.
Victoria Uganda, Kenya, Tanzania 69485
Huron Canada, United States 59,600
TEMPERATURE INVERSION
Michigan United States 58000 ●
It refers to reversal of normal behaviour of temperature
Tanganyika Burundi, Tanzania, Zambia 32893 in troposphere such that a layer of cool air at the surface
Baikal Russia 31500 is overlain by a layer of warmer air.
Great Bear Lake Canada 31080
●
Inversion plays an important role in determining cloud
forms, precipitation and visibility. Long nights with clear
Malanei Malawi Tanzania, Malawi, Mozambique 30044 skies and, calm and stable air are ideal conditions for
Great Slave Lake Canada 28930 temperature inversion.
Balkhash Kazakhstan 18428
Ladoga Russia 18130 Stratosphere
Nicaragua Nicaragua 8001 • The stratosphere extends upto about 50 km, where
Great Salt Lake United States 4662 stratopause separates it from the mesosphere.
• In stratosphere, the temperature increases with increase in
height. This phenomenon is known as Temperature
ATMOSPHERE Inversion.
• Atmosphere is a thick gaseous envelope which • The temperature rises in this layer from about–60 °C at the
surrounds the Earth from all sides and it is attached to tropopause to 0 °C at stratopause. The part of the
Earth through the force of gravitation. stratosphere, in which there is a concentration of ozone is
• Extent of Atmosphere Almost 97% of effective often called Ozonosphere. It absorbs ultraviolet radiation,
atmosphere confines within the height 29 km of the which is harmful for us.
Earth’s surface. So, the vertical distribution of the • Stratosphere is free from dust particles and also from
atmosphere is not uniform and even not atmospheric turbulences. Hence, this layer is considered
homogeneous. It extends between 16-29000 km from ideal for flying of jet aircrafts.
the sea level.
Mesosphere
Composition • Mesosphere extends above the stratopause upto a height of
about 80 km. In this layer, the temperature decreases with
• The atmosphere is mainly composed of gases, water
height like in the troposphere and it falls from about 0 °C
vapour and particulates. The main gases found in at its base to about – 100 °C at 80 km height. It is
atmosphere are nitrogen (78%), oxygen (21%), argon considered the coldest layer of the atmosphere.
(0.33%), carbon dioxide (0.03%), neon, helium, ozone,
• The upper limit of the mesosphere is marked by the
hydrogen etc.
Mesopause, a transitional layer separating it from the
• Besides these gases, water vapour, dust particles and
ionosphere.
other particulate matter are also present. Ozone gas is
found in a belt lying at an altitude of around 20-25 Ionosphere
km. The amount of water vapour present in the
• Ionosphere is located above the mesosphere and extends
atmosphere varies from region to region between
0-4% by volume. upto about 600 km. This layer is called as ionosphere
because it contains electrically charged ions that reflect the
radio waves back to the Earth, thus making radio
Layers of Atmosphere communication possible.
Troposphere • Absorption of solar radiation by ionised particles cause an
increase in temperature with increasing height in the
• It extends upto 16 km from the Earth’s surface.
ionosphere.
Thickness varies from 8 km at the poles to 18 km at
• Due to large concentration of ionised particles in this layer
the equator. At every 165 m, there is a drop of 1°C (or
6 . 4°C per km). This is called normal lapse rate of the ionosphere acts as a protective layer against meteorites,
that are burnt in this layer.
temperature.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 865

Thermosphere Atmospheric Pressure

• The zone between the 85 km and 400 km above the
surface is often called Thermosphere. In this layer, the Air is an extremely compressible gas having its own weight.
The pressure exerted by air due to its weight is called
temperature increases with increasing altitude. The
atmospheric pressure on the Earth’s surface. Atmospheric
upper limit of the thermosphere, the thermopause is
pressure is neither same for all the regions nor same for one
generally taken at an altitude of about 600 km. region all the time.
• The day temperature at 600 km altitude exceed 1400 °C
while night temperature remain about 225°C . Factor Affecting Atmospheric Pressure
• The upper part of the thermosphere contains only the Atmospheric pressure is affected by various factors such as
lighter gases like helium and hydrogen. altitude, temperature and Earth’s rotation.
Altitude Air pressure increases, when air descends due to
Exosphere and Magnetosphere the decrease in volume. When air rises its volume
• The outermost part of the atmosphere of the Earth is increases and the outward pressure of its molecule is
called Exosphere. This zone of the atmosphere extends spread over a larger area and its pressure decreases.
upto a height of about 900 km. Temperature The pressure of air rises, when its
• The upper limit of the exosphere is uncertain as this temperature falls. Low temperatures at the poles cause
layer acts as a transitional layer between the Earth’s the air to contract–high pressure develops; whereas the
atmosphere and the space. The outer part of the high temperature along the equator cause the air to
exosphere is called Magnetosphere. The presence of air expand–low pressure develops.
is extremely rare in this layer.
Pressure Belts
Insolation and Solar Radiation Earth can be divided into regions of broader pressure belts,
• Sun is the main source of energy on Earth. Energy even though it has regional anomalies or deviations.
from Sun is received in the form of radiation. Solar
radiation that is intercepted by Earth is known as Equatorial Low Pressure Belt (or Doldrums)
Insolation. • It is located on either side of the geographical equator in a
The amount of insolation depends on following factors : zone extending between 5°N and 5°S. Its location is not
– The area and nature of the surface. stationary and there is a seasonal drift of this belt with the
– The inclination of the rays of the Sun.
Northward (summer solstice) and Southward (winter
solstice) migration of the Sun.
– Distance between the Earth and the Sun.
• It is thermally induced because of the intense heating of
– Length of the day.
the ground surface by the almost vertical Sun rays.
– The transparency of the atmosphere.
• It represents the zone of convergence of North East and
• As the angle of the Sun rays decreases poleward, the South East trade winds. Due to the frequent calm
amount of insolation received also decreases in that conditions this belt is called as a belt of calm or
direction. doldrums.
• The Earth’s surface does not absorb all the energy that
it receives. The proportion of the solar radiation Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
reflected from the surface is called Albedo. • The ITCZ is a low pressure zone located at the equator
• On an average, insolation is highest near the equator, where trade winds converge and so, it is a zone where air
marginally lower at the tropic and lowest at the poles. tends to ascend.
• In July, the ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N latitudes
Heat Budget of the Earth cover the gangetic plain), sometimes called the Monsoon
Trough. This monsoon trough encourages the development
The Earth receives energy continuously from the Sun, its of thermal low over North and North-West India.
temperature is almost constant except the long-term
• Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the Southern
climate changes. This is because the atmosphere loses an
hemisphere cross the equator between 40° and 60° E
amount of heat equal to the gain through insolation. This
longitudes and start blowing from South-West to
mechanism of maintaining the same temperature by the
North-East due to the Coriolis force. It becomes
atmosphere is called the Heat Budget or Heat Balance. South-West monsoon.
The heated surface of the Earth radiates energy in the • In winter, the ITCZ moves Southward and so the reversal
form of long waves. This process is called Terrestrial of winds from North-East to South and South-West, takes
Radiation. place. They are called North-East monsoons.
866 CDS Pathfinder

Sub-tropical High Pressure Belt • The slope of pressure from high to low is called as Pressure
Gradient, which is also called as Barometric Slope.
• It extends between 30° to 35° N and S in both the
hemispheres. The high pressure along this belt is • The imaginary line joining the points having same pressure is
due to subsidence of air coming from equatorial called Isobars. The direction of air movement should be
regions and also due to blocking effect of coriolis perpendicular to the isobars because the direction of pressure
force. gradient is perpendicular to the isobars, but the direction is
deviated from the expected one due to coriolis force caused
• The convergence of winds at higher altitude above
by the rotation of the Earth.
this zone results in the subsidence of air from
higher altitudes. Thus, decent of wind results in
concentration of their volume and ultimately causes
Wind Direction and Related Laws
high pressure. This zone of high pressure is also • The Coriolis force generated due to the rotation of Earth acts
called as Horse Latitude. as a deflective force to the wind direction.
• Because of the coriolis force, all the winds are deflected to
Sub Polar Low Pressure Belt the right in the Northern hemisphere while they are deflected
• It extends between 60° to 65° in both the to the left in the Southern hemisphere with respect to the
hemisphere. The low pressure belt does not appear rotating Earth. This is referred to as Ferrel’s law.
to be thermally induced because there is low • The coriolis force is absent along the equator, but increases
temperature throughout the year and as such there progressively towards the poles.
should have been high pressure belt instead of low
pressure belt. Thus, it is dynamically induced. Types of Winds
• It is more developed and regular in Southern (i) Permanent Winds
hemisphere than in Northern hemisphere because of
These winds include trade wind, westerlies and polar winds,
the over dominance of water (ocean) in the
Southern hemisphere. these are as follows :
• Trade Wind These are steady currents of air blowing from
Polar High the sub-tropical high pressure belt towards the equatorial low
High pressure persists at the poles throughout the pressure belt. Under the influence of the coriolis forces they
year because of the prevalence of very low flow from the North-East in the Northern hemisphere and
temperature all the year round. Polar highs are small from South-East in the Southern hemisphere.
in area and extend around the poles. • Westerlies The permanent winds blowing from the
sub-tropical high pressure belt to the sub polar low pressure
Shifting of Pressure Belts belt in both the hemisphere is called Westerlies. The general
• The entire system of pressure and wind belts direction of the Westerlies is South-West to North-East in
follows the movement of mid-day Sun. In June, the Northern hemisphere and North-West to South-East in
when the overhead Sun is over the Tropic of the Southern hemisphere. Westerlies are best developed
Cancer, all the belts move about 5 °− 10 ° North of between 40° and 65° S latitude, these latitudes are often
their average position. called Roaring forties, furious fifties and shrieking sixties.
• In the same manner, when the Sun is overhead at • Polar Winds These winds blows from polar high pressure
the Tropic of Capricorn in December, all the belts belt to sub polar low pressure belt. They are North Easterly
swings 5 ° − 10 ° South of their average position. in Northern hemisphere and South Easterly in the Southern
hemisphere.
Wind System (ii) Seasonal Winds
The pressure difference is the major cause of the genesis The winds, which reverse its direction completely every
of the wind system. The air moves from high pressure 6 months are called Seasonal Winds. The best example is
to low pressure. monsoon winds.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 867

(iii) Local Winds

Cyclones
Local winds are horizontal movement of winds on
small-scale. Movement of these winds is mainly caused • Cyclones are the centres of low pressure surrounded by
by local factors such as water body, mountain etc. closed isobars having increasing pressure outward and
closed air circulation from outside towards the central low
pressure in such a way that air blows inward direction.
Winds Nature Region • Air blows inward in anti-clockwise direction in the
Land breeze Warm Experienced along coastal Northern hemisphere and clockwise direction in the
areas. Land breeze blows
from land to sea.
Southern hemisphere.
Sea breeze Cold Experienced along coastal
areas. Sea breeze blows Types of Cyclone
from sea to land. Cyclone are mainly of two types :
Chinook (snow eater) Warm Rockies (USA and Canada)
i. Tropical Cyclone They have thermal origin, they acquire
Sirocco Hot North Africa whirling motion due to coriolis force. Wind speed varies
Fohn Warm Alps/Europe from zero to 1200 km/h
Khamsin Hot Egypt ii. Temperate Cyclone They develop over mid-latitudes.
Blizzard Cold Siberian, Canada, USA Range 35° to 65° N and S. They are also called extra
Bora Cold Yugoslavia tropical or wave cyclones.
Southerly burster Cold Australia
Purga Cold Russian, Tundra
Bire Cold France Cyclone Region
Typhoons China sea
Cape doctor Cold South Africans’s coast
Tropical cyclones Indian ocean
Harmattan (the doctor) Hot Sahara to Guinea coast
(Ghana, Nigeria, etc) Hurricanes Caribbean sea
Zonda Warm Argentina, Chile/Andes Tornadoes USA
Brick fielder Hot Australia Willy Willies Northern Australia
Samun Hot Iran
Levanter Cold Wind Spain Anticyclone
Norwester Hot Wind New Zealand
• Anticyclones are the wind system, which have the highest
Leveche Hot Algeria, Morocco air pressure at the centre and lowest at the outer margins
Santa Ana Warm USA (California) surrounded by circular isobars.
Berg Warm South Africa • Air blows from centre to outward in clockwise direction in
Yoma Warm Japan Northern hemisphere and anti–clockwise direction in
Karaburan Hot Tarim basin Southern hemisphere.
Black roller Hot/Dusty North America • They are high pressure system and common in sub-tropical
Kalbaisakhi/ Bardoli Hot North India belts and practically absent in the equator region. They are
Chheerha
generally associated with rainless fair weather and that’s
Mistral Cold France to Mediterranean
(Rhine valley)
why they are called as Weatherless Phenomena.
Loo Hot/Dry North Indian Plains (Punjab
to Bihar) Thunderstorms
• Thunderstorms are local storms characterised by swift
Jet Stream upward movement of air and heavy rainfall with cloud
thunder and lighting.
• The strong and rapidly moving circumpolar Westerly
• Structurally, thunderstorms consist of several convective
air circulation in a narrow belt of a few 100 km width
cells, which are characterised by strong updraft of air.
in the upper limit of troposphere is called Jet Stream.
Their circulation path is wavy and meandering. Tornado
• The extent of the jet streams narrows down during
• Tornadoes are very strong tropical cyclones of smaller size.
the summer season because of their Northward In the Mississippi valley (US), they are called Twisters.
shifting while these extend up to 20° North latitude
during winter season. • They are more destructive than cyclones as the speed of
winds is very high, exceeding 320 km per hour.
868 CDS Pathfinder

• Fog is made from the droplets of water suspended in the

Humidity and Related Aspects lower layer of the atmosphere. Fog is not considered as a
• Humidity of air refers to the content of the water form of precipitaion. Visibility of less than 1 km is the
vapour present in the air at a particular time and place. internationally recognised definition of fog.
• Humidity is measured by an instrument called • Smog (Smoke + Fog) is a form of fog that occurs in areas,
Hygrometer. Another instrument used for the same where the air contains a large amount of smoke.
purpose is sling psychrometer. • Haze is formed by water particles that have condensed in
• The atmospheric humidity is expressed in a number of the atmosphere and visibility lie between 1 km to 2 km.
ways such as : • Frost is the moisture on the ground surface that
– Humidity Capacity The capacity of air of certain condenses directly into ice i.e. when condensation occurs
volume at certain temperature to retain maximum below freezing point.
amount of moisture content.
– Absolute Humidity The total weight of moisture
Clouds
content per volume of air at definite temperature is • Clouds are a mass of small water droplets or tiny ice
called Absolute Humidity. crystals.
– Specific Humidity The mass of the water vapour in • Clouds are classified according to their appearance, form
grams contained in a kilogram of air and it and height. There are four groups as follow
represents the actual quantity of moisture present in
i. High clouds 6000 m to 12000 m.
a definite air.
ii. Middle clouds 2100 m to 6000 m.
– Relative Humidity It is the ratio of the amount of
water vapour actually present in the air having iii. Low clouds below 2100 m.
definite volume and temperature (i.e. absolute iv. Clouds with great vertical extent 1500 m to 9000 m.
humidity) to the maximum amount the air can hold The different types of clouds are given Latin names, which
(i.e. humidity capacity). are the combination of the following words :
Absolute Humidity – Cirrus means looking like a feather and used to describe
Relative Humidity = × 100
Humidity Capacity the very high clouds.
– Cumulus means looking like a heap. It is used to
• Condensation is the change of physical state of
matter from gaseous phase into liquid phase. It is the describe the clouds having flat bases and rounded tops.
reverse of vaporisation. – Stratus means lying in level sheets. It is used for layer

• When the relative humidity reaches 100%, the air is

type of clouds.
completely saturated. The air temperature is said to be – Alto means mid-level cloud.
as dew point. – Nimbus means rain cloud.

High Clouds Middle Clouds Low Clouds Clouds with Great Vertical Extent
Cirrus Composed of small ice crystal, Alto Cumulus Composed of water Strato Cumulus Large globular Cumulus Round topped and flat based
white wispy and fibrous in droplets in layers and patches. masses, bumpy looking, soft and forming a whitish grey globular mass,
appearance. grey in appearance forming a consists of individual cloud units.
pronounced regular and
sometimes wavy pattern.
Cirro Cumulus Composed of ice Alto Stratus Composed of water Nimbo Stratus Dark grey and Cumulo Nimbus They have a great vertical
crystals but rippled in appearance. droplets, forming sheets of grey or rainy looking, dense and extent, white or black globular masses,
watery looking clouds. shapeless, often gives continuous whose rounded tops often spread out in the
rains. form of anvil. It is characterised by
convectional rain, lightning and thunder.
Cirro Stratus Looks like a thin white Stratus These are low, grey and
almost transparent sheet, which layered, almost fog like in
causes the Sun and Moon to have appearance, bringing dull weather
halos. and often accompanied by
drizzle.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 869

PRECIPITATION
On the basis of its origin, precipitation may be Name Country/ Region
classified into three main types Sahara (Libyan, Nubian) North Africa
Australian (Gibson, Simpson, Victorian Great Sandy) Australia
• Convectional Rainfall It occurs due to thermal
Arabian (Rub-al-Khali, An-Nafud) Arabia
convection currents caused due to insolational
Dast-e-Lut (Barren desert) Iran
heating of ground surface. e.g. Rainfall over
Dast-e-Kavir (Salt-e-Kavir) (Salt desert) Iran
Congo basin, Amazon basin and South-East Asia.
Desierto de Sechura Peru
• Orographic Rainfall It occurs due to ascent of Atacama North Chile
air forced by mountain barrier. e.g. Patagonia Argentina
Mahabaleshwar, Western Ghat recieves about 600 Kalahari Botswana
cm rainfall. Namib Namibia
• Frontal Rainfall It occurs due to upward Great Indian Desert India
movement of air caused by convergence of cold
air masses against warm air masses. e.g. Heavy
rainfall in North-West Europe due to Isopleth Reaction
convergence of cold continental and warm Isohels Sunshine
oceanic air. Isohyets Rainfall
Isonif Snow
WEATHER AND CLIMATE Isocline
Isotherms
Slope
Temperature
• Weather refers to the sum total of the Isobars Equal pressure
atmospheric conditions in terms of temperature, Isobath Equal depth in sea
pressure, wind, moisture, cloudiness, precipitation Isohaline Salinity
and visibility of a particular place at any given Isohypse (or contour lines) Elevation above sea-level
time. Isodapane Equal transportation cost
• The average weather conditions over a large area Isobrants Thunderstorm at the same time
are called the Climate of a Place. The factors,
which control the weather and the climatic
conditions are latitude, altitude, unequal Grasslands Countries Grasslands Countries
distribution of land and water, ocean current, air Steppe Eurasia Veld South Africa
pressure and wind, mountain barrier, nature of Puszta Hungary Downs Australia
ground surface, different types of atmospheric Prairie USA Canterbury New Zealand
storms etc. Pampas Argentina

Climatic Zone Climatic Types Rainfall Natural Vegetation

Equatorial Zone Hot, wet equatorial Rainfall all the year Equatorial rain forest– special term selva is used to
(10°N-10°S) Ebony, mahogany, dye woods are found.
Hot Zone (30°N-30°S) (i) Tropical Monsoon Heavy summer rain Monsoonal forest– Teak sal, sisam, eucalyptus acacia
(ii) Tropical Marine Summer rain savana (Tropical grassland)– grasses
(iii) Sudan type Rain mainly in summer
(iv) Desert Little rain Desert vegetation and scrub– cacti
(a) Saharan type (b) Mid latitude type
Warm Temperate Zone (i) Western margin (Mediterranean type) Winter rain Mediterranean forests– Oak, pine fir, eucalyptus, giant
(30°N-45°S) sequoia, cedar
(ii) Central Continental type (Steppe type) Light summer rain Steppe, temperate grass
(iii) Eastern Margin Heavier summer rain Warm, wet forests– Parapine, oak
(a) China type Parapine, oak
(b) Gulf type Walnut, oak, hickory
(c) Natal type Parapine, eucalyptus, wattle
Cool Temperate Zone (i) Western Margin (British Type ) Rain in autumn and Deciduous forest–Oak, elm, birch, poplar, chestnut,
(45°N-65°S) winter mapple
(ii) Central Continental (Siberian Type) Light summer rain Coniferous forest– Pine fir, spruce larch
(i) Eastern Margin (Lauritian Type ) Moderate summer rain Mixed forest– Oak, beech, mapple
Cold Zone (65°N-90°S) (ii) Arctic or Polar Mountain Climate Very light summer rain Tundra, mosses, lichens
Heavy rainfall (variable) Alpine, fern, conifers
870 CDS Pathfinder

• Parts of the Abyssal plains are occupied by raised

HYDROSPHERE ridges or submarine mountains and by very deep
The water components of the Earth is called Hydrosphere. trenches or canyons.
It includes the oceans, seas, lakes, ponds, rivers and streams.
The hydrosphere covers about 70% of the surface of the Deeps/Trenches
Earth. • Trenches are narrow and steep sides depressions.
Trenches are formed, when two plates of the Earth’s
crust are moving together and one is being pushed
Total Percentage down below the other.
Storage Component
of Water • Marina trench (challenger deep) is the deepest trench in
Oceans 97.6 the world situated in the NW Pacific oceans, near
Saline lakes and inland seas 0.008 philippines. It is approx 11 km deep.
Ice capes and glaciers 1.9
Ground water 0.5 Oceanic Ridges
Soil moisture 0.01 • Oceanic ridges are of tectonic origin and they provide
Lakes 0.009 evidence in support of the Plate Tectonics Theory.
Freshwater rivers 0.0001 They are formed by the volcanic activity along the
Atmosphere 0.0009 spreading boundary of plates.
• These ridges are thousands of km long and hundreds of
Relief Features of the Oceans km wide mountain ranges on the oceanic floor.
• Their summits may rise above the sea level in the form
Continental Shelf of islands i.e. Iceland, Azores Island are such examples.
• The shallow submerged extension of the continent is
called the continental shelf. Extends to a depth of 100
Coral Reefs
fathoms (1 fathoms = 1.8 m). It has average width 70 km; • Coral reefs are formed due to accumulation and the
average slope 17 ft/mile or about 1°. compaction of skeletons of lime secreting organisms
• Continental shelf covers 7.5% area of the oceans. It
known as Coral Polyps.
extends over 13.3% of the Atlantic ocean, 5.7% of Pacific • Corals are found mainly in the tropical oceans and seas
ocean and 4.2% of Indian ocean. because they require high mean annual temperature of
• In cases, where the mountains extend along the coast, the
ranging between 20°C to 25°C.
continental shelf will be narrower. About 20% petrol and • Corals do not live in deeper waters due to lack of
gas are found here. They also provide the richest fishing sufficient sunlight and oxygen.
ground in the world. On the basis of nature, shape and mode of occurrence, the
coral reefs are classified into three types :
Continental Slope i. Fringing Reefs It develop along the continental
• Extends seawards from the continental shelf. It has margins or along the islands.
depth—200-2000 fathoms (3660m) and average slope 20 to – The seaward slope is steep and vertical while the
50 degrees. landward slope is gentle. These reefs run as a narrow
• The boundary between shelf and slope is known as belt of about 0.5 km to 2.5 km width.
Andesite Line, on the names of the Andesite rock. – They are usually attached to the coastal land, but
Continental slope covers about 8.5% of the total ocean occasionally they are separated from the shore by a
area. shallow and narrow lagoon called ‘Boat Channel’.
– This type of reefs are found near Rameshwaram in
Continental Rise the Gulf of Mannar.
• Continental rise is an area at the foot of the slope, slightly
ii. Barrier Reefs Largest coral reefs off the coastal
rising due to the accumulation of debris transported over platform, but parallel to them.
the slope.
– The reef lies at a distance away from the coast.
• It has average slope— 0.5° to 1°. Oil deposits occur here. Hence, a broad lagoon develops between the reef and
the shore. They are hundreds of kilometer long and
Abyssal or the Deep Sea Plains few kilometers wide.
• It is the deepest and most extensive part of the oceanic – The Great Barrier Reef of Australia is the largest
floor having average depth of 3000m to 6000m. It covers barrier reef in the world.
about 75.9% of total oceanic area.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 871

iii. Atoll A reef of narrow growing corals of horse— Straits

shoe shape and crowned with plam trees is called an
A strait is a narrow body of water that connects two larger
Atoll.
bodies of water and separates two landmasses.
– Atoll partly or completely encloses a lagoon. It is
formed around an island in an elliptical form on a
submarine platform. Funafuti atoll of Ellice Islands is Name Joins Location
a famous atoll.
Malacca Strait Andaman Sea and Indonesia-Malaysia
South China Sea
CORAL BLEACHING Palk Strait Palk Bay and Bay of Bengal India-Sri Lanka
When corals are stressed by changes in conditions such Sunda Strait Java Sea and Indian Ocean Indonesia
as temperature, light or nutrients, they expel the symbiotic Yucatan Strait Gulf of Mexico and Mexico-Cuba
algae living in their tissues, causing them to turn Carribbean Sea
colourless, this phenomenon is known as Coral Mesina Strait Mediterranean Sea Italy-Sicily
Bleaching. Bab-el-Mandeb Red Sea and Gulf of Aden Yemen-Djibouti
Strait
Cook Strait South Pacific Ocean New Zealand
SALINITY (N and S Islands)
Mozambique Strait Indian Ocean Mozambique-Malagasy
Salinity is defined as the total amount of salts and
Bass Strait Tasman Sea and South Sea Australia
minerals in grams contained in 1 kg of sea water and
Bering Strait Bering Sea and Chukchi Sea Alaska-Russia
is expressed as part per thousand. The oceanic salinity not
only affects the marine organism and plant community, but Bosphorus Strait Black Sea and Marmara Sea Turkey
also affects the physical properties of the ocean such as Davis Strait Baffin Bay and Greenland-Canada
Atlantic Ocean
temperature, pressure, density, waves and currents.
Denmark Strait North Atlantic and Greenland-Iceland
• Average salinity of seawater is about 35‰ and average Arctic Ocean
salinity in Southern hemisphere is more than that of Dover Strait English Channel and England-France
Northern hemisphere. North Sea
• Iso-halines represent the salinity distribution in the Florida Strait Gulf of Mexico and USA-Cuba
Atlantic Ocean
surface of the sea. These are the lines joining places
Hormuz Strait Gulf of Persia and Oman-Iran
having an equal degree of salinity. Gulf of Oman
• The main source of salinity is dissolution of the rocks of Hudson Strait Gulf of Hudson and Canada
oceanic crust, which contains salts. Poles have minimum Atlantic Ocean
salinity because of addition of fresh water in the form of Gibraltar Strait Mediterranean Sea and Spain-Morocco
icebergs and excessive snowfall. Atlantic Ocean

• Variation in salinity causes vertical circulation of water. Magellan Strait Pacific and South Atlantic Chile
Ocean
• Salinity also increases the density of water. More saline Tsugaru Strait Japan Sea and Japan
water freezes slowly while the boiling point of saline Pacific Ocean (Hokkaido-Honshu
water is higher than the fresh water. Island)

Controlling Factor Relation with Salinity

MOVEMENTS
Evaporation Greater the evaporation, higher the salinity. OF OCEANIC WATER
Precipitation Higher the precipitation, lower the salinity.
Influx of river water Big voluminuous rivers pour down immense Waves
volume of fresh water into the oceans and • Waves are the oscillatory movements in water mainly
salinity is reduced at the mouth.
produced by winds, manifested by an alternate rise and
Atmospheric pressure Anticyclonic conditions with stable air and fall of the sea surface. The waves are the important
high temperature increases the salinity of
the surface water of the ocean. agents of erosion in the coastal regions, where they carve
Circulation of oceanic Ocean currents affect the spatial distribution of
out various landforms like caves, bays, gulfs, capes and
water salinity by mixing sea waters. cliffs.
• Seismic waves or tsunamis are the waves caused by
• Salinity on an average decreases from equator to poles.
earthquakes in volcanic eruptions in the sea bottom. The
The highest salinity is recorded near the tropics rather
tsunamis, which hit the coast in South–East Asia on 26th
than the equator because of the heavy precipitation in
December, 2004, caused havoc in that region.
the equatorial region.
872 CDS Pathfinder

Ocean Currents Currents of North Atlantic Ocean

• An ocean current is a continuous, directed movement of (i) Warm Currents
ocean water generated by the forces acting upon it, such • North Equatorial Current It is present between
as breaking waves, wind, coriolis effect, temperature and equator and 10°N.
salinity differences shape and configuration of the
coastline and tides caused by the gravitation pull of the • Cayenne Current It flows adjacent to French Guinea
Moon and the Sun. and enters into Carribean Sea and Gulf of Mexico.
• Ocean currents circulate in clockwise direction in • Florida Current Cayenne current near Florida
Northern hemisphere and in anti-clockwise direction in (US coast) is called Florida Current.
Southern hemisphere. Ocean currents are of two types : • Antilles Current It flows to the East of West Indies
i. Warm Ocean Currents The ocean currents and other islands.
flowing from lower latitude to higher latitude are
called as warm currents.
• Gulf Stream It flows from US coast towards
North-West Europe under the influence of Westerly
ii. Cold Ocean Currents The ocean currents
winds.
flowing from higher latitude to lower latitude are
called as cold currents. • North Atlantic Drift Gulf Stream bifurcates into
– North Atlantic drift (warm).
Currents of North Pacific Ocean – West Wind drift (cold) and Canaries current (cold).
(i) Warm Currents (ii) Cold Currents
• North Equatorial Current It flows Westwards from • Labrador Current It orginates in Baffin bay and Davis
the Western coast of Mexico to the Philippines. Strait and merges with Gulf Stream near Newfoundland.
• Kuroshio Current It is an extension of North Newfoundland is a famous zone of fishing, commonly
Equatorial current near Japan coast. It flows towards known as Grand Bank.
North.
• Alaska Current It flows along the coast of British
• Irminger Current or Greenland Current It flows
Columbia and the Alaska Peninsula. between Greenland and Iceland and merges with North
Atlantic drift.
(ii) Cold Currents
• Canaries Current It flows along the Western coast of
• Oyashio Current It flows down from Bering sea
North Africa between Madeira cape verde and it joins
towards Japan from North pole and it joins Kuroshio
currents. North equatorial current.
• Okhotsk Current and Kuril Current It flows down • West Wind Drift It flows towards UK.
from sea of Okhotsk and joins Kuroshio current to the
North of Japan. Currents of South Atlantic Ocean
• West Wind Drift It flows towards Alaska. (i) Warm Currents
• Californian Current It is an extension of Alaskan • South Equatorial Current It flows between equator
currents. It finally joins North Equatorial current and and 10°S.
completes clockwise circulation of water.
• Brazilian Current It flows to the East coast of Brazil
Currents of South Pacific Ocean from equator towards pole.
(i) Warm Currents (ii) Cold Currents
• East Australian Current or Great Barrier Current • Falkland Current It flows along the South-East coast
It flows towards East coast of Australia from equator of South America from South to North.
towards Pole. • Benguela Current It flows from South to North near
• South Equatorial Current It originates due to South the ‘Cape of Good Hope’.
East trade winds and flows Westwards and bifurcates • West Wind Drift It is the continuence of Brazilian and
near New Guinea.
Falkland current.
• Counter Equatorial Current It extends upto Panama
Bay. It flows exactly on equator from West to East. • Guinea Current It flows near coast of Guinea (Africa).
(ii) Cold Currents Currents of the Indian Ocean
• Peruvian Current (Humboldt current) It flows from • The Asiatic Monsoon It influences the currents of the
South towards equator on the coast of Chile and Peru. North Indian Ocean, while the currents of South Indian
• West Wind Drift It flows from Tasmania to Chile ocean are influenced by the atmosphere’s anticyclonic
coast of South America. circulation.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 873

• North Equatorial Current The current flows from East Hardwood trees like rosewood, teak, sal, ebony and
to West and upon reaching the East coast of Africa, a good mahogany are most common trees. Such forests are
portion turns Southward, crosses the equator and becomes found near the equator in amazon basin, zaire basin and
the Mozambique current. South-East Asian region.
• Mozambique Current The Mozambique current flows
South along the East coast of Africa from the vicinity of
Tropical Deciduous Forests
the equator to about 35°, where it is known as Agulhas These forests are also known as Monsoon Forests.
stream. These forests are found in regions having monsoon
climate i.e. India, Myanmar, Thailand, parts of
• Agulhas Stream The Agulhas stream flows Westward
Indonesia, Malaysia, Indo-China, Philippines etc. Trees
along the Southern West of Madagascar and joins the
are adopted to a long dry season and shed their leaves
Mozambique current along the East African coast.
during dry season. Teak, sal, bamboo, khair, bargad,
• West Wind Drift Current It flows across the Indian peepal are important trees. Forest are not very dense,
ocean to the South-West of Australia. therefore, commercial exploitation of these forests is
• North-East Monsoon Drift It flows along the coast of possible.
India during winter.
• South-West Monsoon Drift It flows along the coast of
Mediterranean Forests
India during summer. These forests are found in areas around Mediterranean
Sea, Central Chile, South-West USA, Australia and
• South Equatorial Current It is a significant Pacific, Northern Africa. Such vegetations are found in regions
Atlantic and Indian ocean current that flows East-West with hot and dry summers and mild and wet winters.
between the equator and about 20 degrees South. Xerophytic plants constitute the natural vegetation.
• Somalia Current It is an ocean boundary current that Mediterranean regions are known as ‘Orchards of the
runs along the coast of Somalia and Aman in the Western World’ for their fruit cultivation. Citrus fruits like
Indian ocean and is analogous to the Gulf stream in the oranges, figs, olives and grapes are commonly cultivated.
Atlantic ocean.
Coniferous Forests
Tides These forest extend in a band across Northern North
The rises and fall of the sea level as a result of the forces America and Eurasia to the edge of the Arctic Tundra,
between the Earth, the Moon and the Sun is called a Tide. constituting the largest terrestrial biome in the world.
The interval between two tides is 12 hrs and 26 min. Forests consist of tall, softwood evergreen trees.
Northern coniferous forests are dominated by
There are two types of tides, which are as follows : cone-bearing trees, such as pine, spruce, fir and
i. Spring Tides When the Earth, the Moon and the Sun hemlock. Trees are conical shaped with needle shaped
are in a straight line (also called SYZYGY (straight line leaves and trees are found in large groups.
configuration of three celestial bodies) the Sun enhances
the gravitational pull of the Moon, creating a condition Tropical Grasslands
of higher high tides and lower low tides known as Spring These grasslands are known as ‘Savanna’ in Africa and
Tides. ‘Campos’ in Brazil. The grasses are very tall and grows
ii. Neap Tides When the Sun and Moon are at right angles upto a height of 3 to 4 metres. The scattered trees
to the Earth. The Sun partially contracts the pull of the found at different densities are thorny and have small
Moon producing lower high tides typical of a Neap Tide. leaves, an apparent adaptation to relatively dry
conditions. Fires are common in dry season and
Natural Vegetation dominant plant species are fire-adapted and tolerant of
seasonal drought.
Natural vegetation refers to those vegetations which grows
naturally on the Earth’s surface without any human
interference. Different vegetation regions that are identified
Temperate Grasslands
have distinct types of plants, soil and weathern patterns. These grasslands are also known as Prairies in North
Major vegetation types of the world has been discussed below : America, Pampas in South America, Down in Australia,
Velds in South Africa and Steppes in Europe. These
Tropical Evergreen Rainforests regions have warm and moist summers and cold and
snowy winters. Dominant plants are grasses and forbs,
These vegetations are characterised by long and evergreen
which vary in height from few centimetres to 2 m.
trees. Forest of these types have layered structure that form
These areas are also known as ‘Bread Basket’ of the
canopy at the top. Almost two-thirds of all the world’s
world due to large scale cultivation of maize and wheat.
flowering plants are found in rainforests.
874 CDS Pathfinder

Tropical Deserts Intensive Subsistence Agriculture

These are located on the western margins of the • This type of agriculture is practised on wide scale in densely
continents between 15°-30° North and South of populated regions of monsoonal Asia.
equator. These regions have hot and dry summers and • In this type of agriculture the farmer owns a small piece of
receive very less rainfall. Vegetation is very scant, with land, grown crops with the help of his family members and
succulent stems, long roots and leaves are reduced to consumes almost the entire farm produce with little surplus
spines. to sell in the market.
• This type of agriculture widely practised in Thailand,
Tundra
Myanmar, Vietnam, Cambodia and India.
Tundra covers large area in North Canada, North
Russia, North Sweden and Finland. The vegetation of Plantation Agriculture
tundra is mostly herbaceous, consisting of a mixture of
• Plantation agriculture is a form of commercial farming
mosses, grasses and forbs, alongwith some dwarf
where crops are grown for profit. Large land areas are
shrubs, trees and lichens. A permanently frozen layer
needed for this type of agriculture.
of soil called permafrost restrict growth of plant roots.
• It was introduced by the Europeans in colonies situated in
the tropics. The major products of this type of farming are
AGRICULTURE the tropical crops such as tea, coffer, rubber and oil palm
• Agriculture is a primary economic activity. It includes etc has developed in parts of Asia, Africa and Latin
both, cultivation of crops and rearing of animals, to America.
provide food and other products.
Extensive Commercial Grain Farming
• Agriculture is practised under different combination
• It is commercial form of agriculture where entire operations
of physical and socio-economic conditions which
gives rise to different types of agriculture systems. from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised. Grain crops,
especially wheat is grown under extensive farming methods.
Types of Agriculture • This kind of farming is done by developed countries like
USA, Australia and Russia.
Shifting Cultivation Mixed Farming
• It is also known as slash and burn cultivation as field
• In this type of agriculture, equal importance is given to both
to be cultivated is cleared by burning the vegetation.
crop cultivation and animal husbandry.
• The cultivated patches are very small and cultivation
• It give earning to the farmers.
is done with very primitive tools.
• This type of farming is widely practised by many tribes Nomadic Herding
in the tropics, especially in Africa, South and Central
• It is a primitive subsistence activity, based upon rearing of
America and South-East Asia.
animals on natural pastures.
• People in this system keep on moving along with their
animals in search of grazing areas.
Shifting Cultivation Country • In Africa, cattle are the most important livestock, while in
Ladang Malaysia and Java Sahara and Asiatic deserts, sheep, goats and camels are
Tamrai Thailand reared.
Taungya Myanmar (Burma) • In the mountainous areas of Tibet and Andes, Yak and
Caingin Philippines llamas are reared and in arctic and sub-arctic regions,
Chena Sri Lanka
reindeer is most important animal.
Milpa Mexico
Mediterranean Agriculture
Roca Brazil
• Specialised commercial farming practised in Mediterranean
Konuko Venezuela
climatic region. Crops like wheat, barley and vegetables are
Masole Congo
grown for domestic consumption, while citrus fruits, olives
Tavy Madagascar and grapes are grown on commercial scale for export purpose.
Ray Vietnam and Laos
• Main regions include countries on either side of
Proka Ghana Mediterranean in Europe, Southern California, Central
Jhuming India Chile, South-Western South Africa and Western Australia.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 875

Market Gardening • Top Beef producer of world are USA, Brazil, European
Union, China and India.
• It is concerned with cultivation of high value crops like
vegetables, fruits and flowers for urban markets. It is • India is the world’s largest producer of milk. It is the
also known as Truck Farming. leading exporter of skimmed milk powder. The world’s
largest exportes of milk and milk products are
• It is well developed in densely populated industrial
New Zealand, the European Union, Australia and the
districts of North-West Europe, North Eastern USA and
United States.
Mediterranean regions.
DAIRY FARMING
Types of Cultures Description
●
It is highly capital intensive and advanced form of
farm activity.
Apiculture Raising of bees for commercial purpose
●
It is practised mainly near urban and industrial
Aquaculture Rearing of aquatic animals or plants for food
centres.
Floriculture Cultivation of flowers ●
Denmark and Sweden have witnessed the
Horticulture Cultivation of fruits, flowers and vegetables on maximum development of this type of farming.
commercial scale
Mariculture Rearing of fish or other marine life for food • Some animals like sheeps, goats and rabbits reared for
Pisciculture Controlled breeding and rearing of fish wool production also. Australia is the leading producer
Sericulture Commercial level production of silk worms of wool followed by New Zealand and China.
Silviculture Commercial cultivation of trees
Temperate grasslands like Steppes in Russia, Prairies in
North America, Pampas in Argentina, Veldt in South
Viticulture Cultivation of grapevines
Africa and Downs in Southern Australia supports highly
intensive livestock industry.

Crops Countries Rankwise Fisheries

Food Crops • Fisheries constitute an important economic activity in
Rice/Paddy 1. China 2. India 3. Indonesia the coastal regions of the world, especially in the
Wheat 1. China 2. India 3. United States temperate latitudes. Fisheries can be classified into two
Millet 1. India 2. Niger 3. China groups – fresh water fisheries and marine fisheries.
Maize/corn 1. United 2. China 3. Brazil • Around 90% of the fishes are caught from the sea while
States
remaining is obtained from fresh water. The top ten
Oat 1. Russia 2. Canada 3. Finland largest fish producing countries in the world are China,
Pulses 1. India 2. Pakistan 3. Canada Peru, India, Indonesia, USA, Chile, Japan, Thailand,
Fibre Crops Vietnam and Russia.
Cotton 1. China 2. India 3. United States • Major exporters of fish and fishery products in the
Jute 1. India 2. Bangladesh 3. China world are China, Norway, Thailand, USA and Denmark
Plantation Crops and major importers of fish and fishery products are
Rubber 1. Thailand 2. Indonesia 3. Vietnam 4. India Japan, USA, Spain, France and Italy.
Tobacco 1. China 2. Brazil 3. India There are four major fishing grounds in the world :
Coconut 1. Indonesia 2. Philippines 3. India i. North-East Atlantic Region Dogger Bank located in
Sugarcane 1. Brazil 2. India 3. China the North Sea is one of the most important fishing
Tea 1. China 2. India 3. Kenya ground. Important species of this region are Cod and
Coffee 1. Brazil 2. Vietnam 3. Indonesia Herring.
ii. North-West Atlantic Region Grand Bank and
Georges Bank are important fishing grounds.
LIVESTOCK FARMING/ Important species of this region are Cod, Lobster,
Oyster and Herring.
ANIMAL HUSBANDRY iii. North-West Pacific Region Countries involved in
• It refers to rearing of animals for food and other human fishing in this region are China, Japan, Russia, North
uses. The world ‘Livestock’ applies primarily to cattle, and South Korea.
chickens, goats, pigs, horses and sheeps. iv. North-East Pacific Region This region include
• Poultry farmers keep chickens, turkeys, geese and other coastal regions of Canada and USA. Important species
birds for meat and eggs. of this region are Halibut, Sardine, Salmon and Tuna.
876 CDS Pathfinder

MINERALS AND ENERGY

Industries Major Countries
RESOURCES Iron and Steel Russia, China, Usa, Japan, India, Britain
Industry
• A naturally occuring substance that has a definite
Cotton Textile China, India, USA
chemical composition and physical properties is
Jute Industry India, Bangladesh, China
called mineral.
Woolen Textile Australia, China, USA
• Minerals are formed in different types of
Paper Industries China, USA, Germany, Japan
geological environments, under varying
Ship Building China, South Korea, Japan
conditions. They are created by natural processes
Aircraft Building USA, Britain, Russia, France
without any human interference.
Automobile Industry China, USA, Japan, Germany, South Korea, India
Petro Chemical USA, Belgium, Japan, Netherlands, China, South Korea,
Taiwan
Minerals Countries in Decreasing Order of Production
Iron ore China, Australia, Brazil, India, Russia
Maganese China, South Africa, Australia, Brazil, Gabon TRANSPORT
Bauxite Australia, China, Brazil
Aluminium China, Russia, Canada, UAE, India
Transport along with communication is considered as lifeline of an
economy. The principle modes of transportation includes land
Copper Chile, China, Peru, USA, Congo
transport, waterways, airways and pipelines.
Silver Mexico, China, Peru, Russia, Australia
Gold
Tin
China, Australia, Russia, USA, Canada
China, Indonesia, Peru, Bolivia, Brazil
Road Transport
• Roadways are the most universal and accessible form of
Zinc China, Peru, Australia, USA, Canada
transportation. It is also very economical for short distances.
Uranium Kazakhstan, Canada, Australia, Niger, Namibia
• Germany was the first country in the world to establish a nation
• Energy resources are generally defined as wide highway network.
anything that can be used as a source of energy.
• USA has world’s longest and biggest road network followed by
Some energy resources are coal, petroleum and
China, India, Brazil and Russia.
natural gas etc.
• Pan-American Highway is the longest highway in the world.

Resources Major Producer Countries Rail Transport

Coal China, USA, Australia, India • It is preferred mode of land transport for bulky goods
Petroleum USA, Saudi Arabia, Russia, China passengers over long distances.
Natural Gas USA, Russia, Qatar, Iran
• The first train was started on 27th September, 1825 between
Uranium Kazakhistan (First), Canada, Australia, Niger, Stockton to Darlington in England.
Namibia
Wind Energy China, USA, Germany, Spain, India
• United States has world’s longest rail network, followed by

Solar Energy Germany, China, Italy, Japan, USA, Spain,

Russia and China.
France • Trans-Siberian Railway is the longest railway line in the world.
Hydro-electricity China (First), Canada, Brazil, USA, Norway,
New Zealand, India
Air Transport
• Air transport is the fastest but costliest mode of transport. The
INDUSTRIES development of air transport started after the World War I. But
the actual development of this transport took place after the
• All economic activities namely; primary,
World War II.
secondary, tertiary and quaternary, revolve
around obtaining and utilising resources • Three types of services are performed by air transport :
necessary for survival. i. Inter-Continental Global This includes the longest services.
• Among all, these secondary activities add value to e.g. services between the continents.
natural resources by transforming raw materials ii. Continental Air Route These services are performed among
into valuable products. the countries within a continent. e.g. India-China.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 877

iii. National Air Route Perform services for long

distance within the country. e.g. Mumbai-Delhi.
Inland Waterways
• Inland waterways were the chief mode of transportation
INTERNATIONAL AIR TRANSPORT before the advent of railways.
AUTHORITY (IATA) • The major oceans of world are connected with each other
●
It is an international trade body created over 60 years
thus, forming a continuous expanse of water providing links
ago by a group of airlines. Today, IATA represents to most parts of the world.
240 airlines comprising 84% of total air traffic.
●
The organisation also represents, leads and serves the
Major Inland Waterways of the World
airline industry in general. Rhine Waterways It is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam
(Netherlands) to Basel (Switzerland). This is world’s most
heavily used waterways.
Water Transport Danube Waterway Danube river rises in Black Forest and
• Both ocean water transport and Inland transport form flow Eastward in Eastern Europe. It is navigable upto
the part of water transport. Taurna Severin.
• Waterways are the most suitable and cheapest mode Volga Waterways It is an important waterways of Russia and
of transport for carrying international trade. is navigable for 11200 km. The Volga-Moscow Canal
connects it with Moscow region and Volga-Don canal
Important Sea Routes of the World with Black sea.
North Atlantic Sea Route (Big Trunk) It links Great Lakes-St. Lawrence Seaway The Great lakes of North
North-Eastern USA and North-Western Europe. It America, Superior, Hurie, Erie and Ontario are connected
is busiest route in the world. by Soo canal and Welland canal. Great Lakes along with
South Atlantic Sea Route This route connects North estuary of St. Lawrence river form the waterways.
America and Europe with South America. Mississippi Waterways The Mississippi-Ohio waterway
Mediterranean-Indian Ocean Sea Route It connects connects interior part of USA with Gulf of Mexico.
highly industrialised West European region with
East Africa, South Africa, South-East Asia and Races
Australia and New Zealand. • Race is a term used for large group of people with some basic
Cape of Good Hope Route It connects West European inherited physical characteristics common. e.g. skin colour,
and West African countries with Brazil, Argentina hair, facial features, eye colour, head shape etc.
and Uruguay in South America. • Four major human races are Caucasoid, Australoid,
North Pacific Sea Route This route links the ports of Mongoloid and Negroid.
West-coast of North America with those of Asia.
South Pacific Sea Route This route is an important
connecting link between South and North America Trait Caucasoid Mongoloid Negroid Australoid
with Australia, New Zealand and various Pacific Skin colour Pale reddish Saffron to Brown to Skin colour is
islands via Panama Canal. white to olive yellow brown brown-black of chocolate
brown
Major Canal System of the World Head form Long to broad Predominantly Predominantly Dolichocephalic
and short, broad, height long height
Suez Canal It was constructed in 1869. This is the medium high to medium low to medium
largest canal in the world, that connects Port Said very high
in North and Port Suez in South Linking Red Sea Face Narrow to Medium Medium broad Large heavy
and Mediterranean Sea. medium broad, broad to very to narrow, jaws and
tends to high, broad, malars tends to prognathism
Panama Canal It is constructed across the Panama no prognathism high and flat, medium high,
Isthmus between Panama city and Colon, tends to strong
medium high prognathism
connecting the Pacific Ocean and the Caribbean
Hair Hair colour, Hair colour, Hair colour, Hair is silky,
Sea. light blonde to brown to brown black black and wavy
Kiel Canal This canal in Germany connects the North dark brown brown black
Sea with the Baltic Sea. Eye colour Light blue to Brown to dark Brown to dark brown
dark brown brown brown black
Manchester Shipping Canal It connects Manchester
with Eastham. Nose Bridge usually Bridge usually Bridge usually
high low to low
North-Sea Canal It joins North-sea with Amsterdam. medium
878 CDS Pathfinder

Major Tribes of the World Population

• The term tribe refers to a cultural or social rather
Population refers to the whole number of people living in country
than a biological or racial groups. or region. Demography is the scientific study of human
population.
Tribe Country/Region Population Distribution
Aborigines Australia
• Population is not distributed evenly in all parts of the world.
Apache South-West America
Some places have sparse (scattered) population and some have
Ainu Japan dense population.
Amerinds America
• Sparsely populated places tend to be difficult places to live.
Acta Philippines
These are usually places with hostile environment e.g. desert
Bantu Central and Southern America areas of the world.
Beja Egypt
• More than 75% of the world’s population lives in the
Berber Northern coast of Africa continents of Africa and Asia.
Beduoins Arabia, Syria, North Africa
Bora Columbia, Brazil
Bushmen Kalahari Desert in Africa Population Population
Country Country
Buryats Siberia, Central Asia (million) (million)
Chukchi Chukchi Peninsula (Russia) 1. China 1369 2. India 1270
Dayak Borneo (Indonesia) 3. USA 321 4. Indonesia 255
Fellah Middle East, North Africa 5. Brazil 204 6. Pakistan 189
Fulani Nigeria 7. Nigeria 183 8. Bangladesh 158
Han China 9. Russia 146 10. Japan 126
Hottentots South-West Africa
Hausa Nigeria Population Density
Hadza Tanzania • Density is defined as number of persons in per unit area. The
Inca Peru, Mexico density varies not only from one country to another within a
Inuit Greenland, Canada, Alaska continent but also from one part to the other within a country.
Jarawa Andaman (India) • The highest densities are found in North- Eastern USA,
Kamasin Siberia North-West Europe, South Asia, South-East Asia and East
Karakalpak Central Asia Asia.
Kirghiz Kyrgyzstan • The lowest densities are found in hot and cold deserts, areas
Kubu Sumatra (Indonesia) around pole, high rainfall area near equator.
Kurds Turkey, Iran, Iraq, Syria
Kung Southern Africa Demographic Variables
Kamba Kenya Birth Rate Number of live births per 1000 population in a given
Kikuyu Kenya year. High birth rate found in Africa while lowest is in
Lapps Finland, Sweden, Norway, Russia
Europe.
Lepcha Sikkim Death Rate Number of deaths per 1000 population in a given
year.
Maori Australia
Papuan New Guinea
Infant Mortality Rate The number of deaths of infants under per
1000 live births in a year.
Red Indian USA
Semang Malaysia
Maternal Mortality Rate The number of women who die as a
result of pregnancy and child birth complications per 100000
Shan Myanmar
live births in a year.
Swahili Kenya, Tanzania
Total Fertility Rate The average number of children that would
Tatars Mongolian Plateau
be born alive to a women.
Tungus Siberia
Population Pyramid A bar chart that is arranged vertically to
Vedda Sri Lanka
show the distribution of population by age and sex. Males are
Yuit Alaska, Siberia on the left and females on the right.
Zulu South Africa
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 879

Doubling Time The number of years required for the • Internally Displaced Person A person who is
population of an area to double itself, at current rate of forced to leave his/her home region due to
population growth. unfavourable conditions, but does not cross any
Age-Dependency Ratio The ratio of persons in the ages defined boundary.
as dependent (under 15 years and over 64 years) to persons
in the ages defined as economically productive (15-64 Human Development
years). • Development means qualitative change, which is
Demographic Transition It refers to shift of birth and death always value positive.
rates from high to low levels. The decline in fertility is • The concept of human development was introduced
always delayed leading to population growth.
by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq. Dr Haq has described
human development as that development that
Migration enlarges people choices and improves their lives.The
Migration means the movement of people from one place to the four pillars of human development are equality,
other. sustainability, productivity and empowerment.

Types of Migration Human Development Index

• In the context of domestic migration, migration can be either • The Human Development Report is an annual
in-migration or out-migration. milestone publication by the Human Development
– In-migration The process of entering one administrative Report office of the United Nations Development
sub-division of a country from another sub-division. Programme (UNDP).
– Out-migration The process of leaving one sub-division of • The Report was first launched in 1990 by the world
a country to take up residence in another. renowned Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq and
Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.
• International migration can be classified into the following :
• Human development is measured in terms of life
– Emigration It refers to the process of leaving one country
expectancy at birth, education and per capita
to take up permanent or semi-permanent residence in
income.
another.
– Immigration It is a process of entering one country from • Norway has highest HDI ranking. India ranks
another to take up permanent or semi-permanent residence. 130th in the list.
• Refugee A person who is residing outside country of his/her (i) HDi ranking (2016)
origin due to fear of persecution for reasons of race, religion, (ii) India ranks 131
nationality or political opinion. (iii) Norway topped the Index
880 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which of the following is the chief 4. North-Eastern America Codes
characteristic of ‘mixed farming’? Select the answer using the codes A B C D A B C D
(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and given below. (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 3 1 4
food crops (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 11. Match the following
the same field
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation
6. Consider the following countries List I List II
1. Bangladesh 2. Brazil (Islands) (Countries)
of crops together
(d) None of the above 3. Indonesia 4. Japan A. Corsica 1. Italy
The correct sequence of these B. Sardinia 2. Greece
2. Consider the following statements C. Crete 3. France
countries in descending order of
1. Areas with high density of their population is D. Balearic Island 4. Spain
population have generally (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
longer jhum cycle. Codes
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 A B C D A B C D
2. In New Zealand, cattle are
7. Match the following (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
kept on fairly small farms and
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 2 4 1
carefully fed to give quality List I List II
meat. 12. Match the following
A. Masai 1. North America
3. Cash crops are never grown in List I List II
B. Berbers 2. East Africa
jhuming cultivation. (Mines) (Minerals)
C. Red Indians 3. Asia
4. Livestock farming is usually a A. Flin Flon 1. Coal
D. Kirghiz 4. North-West Africa
response to difficult conditions. B. Sudbury region 2. Petroleum
Codes
Which of the statements given C. Kuzbass 3. Copper and Tin
above are incorrect? A B C D A B C D
D. Baku 4. Gold
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 1 4 2 3 Codes
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
A B C D A B C D
3. Match the following 8. Match the following (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
List I List II List I List II (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2
(Russian Regions) (Industrials) 13. Match the following
A. Ranchos 1. India
B. Favelas 2. Brazil A. Central Industrial 1. Agro-based List I List II
C. Kavettits 3. Venezuela B. Grozny 2. Cotton textiles
A. Ivanovo 1. Cotton textile industry
D. Bustee 4. Myanmar C. Volga 3. Machinery
B. Magnitogorsk 2. Engineering industry
D. Urals 4. Metallurgy
Codes C. Moscow 3. Iron and steel industry
A B C D A B C D Codes D. St Petersburg 4. Ship-building industry
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 A B C D A B C D
Codes
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 3 5 4
A B C D A B C D
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 1 4 3
4. Infant mortality rate (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 3 2 4
(a) the ratio of number deaths of 9. Consider the following mangrove (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 2 1 4
children under 3 months to the areas 14. Which water separates Australia
number of live births 1. Bhitarkanika from New Zealand?
(b) the ratio of number deaths of 2. Pichavaram (a) Cook straits (b) Megallan
children under 6 months to the 3. Coondapur (c) Tasman sea (d) Great Barrier Reef
number of live births
Which among the above is/are 15. The reasons for under exploitation of
(c) the ratio of number deaths of
situated on the Eastern Coast of tropical forests are
children under 1 year to the
number of live births India? 1. few transport routes.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(d) the ratio of number deaths of 2. mixed species forest.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
children under 1 year to the 3. willingness of governments to
number of children below 5 years 10. Match the following conserve forests.
5. Which of the following is a low List I List II
4. the paper made of hardwood is
density area? usually costly.
A. Iron and steel 1. Dortmund
1. Equatorial forest Select the answer using the codes
B. Automobile 2. Seattle
2. Tropical deserts given below.
C. Ship building 3. Detroit
3. Eastern Asia (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
D. Aircraft 4. Portsmouth
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 881

16. Match the following 21. Match the following Codes

A B C D A B C D
List I List II List I List II (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 1 2
(Categories) (Industries) (Countries) (Capitals) (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
A. Primary industry 1. Ship building A. Iraq 1. Lusaka
26. Match the following
B. Secondary industry 2. Pulping of log B. Zambia 2. Buenos Aires
C. Tertiary industry 3. Entertainment C. Uganda 3. Baghdad List I List II
and tourism D. Argentina 4. Kampala (Countries) (Commodities)
Codes Codes A. Argentina 1. Gold
A B C A B C A B C D A B C D B. Australia 2. Nickel
(a) 2 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 C. USA 3. Meat
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 1 3 2 D. South Africa 4. Wool
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
E. Canada 5. Cotton
17. Match the following 22. Which of the following factors
Codes
List I List II supports the hypothesis of the
A B C D E
(Ethnic Communities) (Countries) permanency of ocean basins and
(a) 3 5 4 1 2
A. Apatani 1. China continents? (b) 3 4 5 1 2
B. Dyak 2. India 1. Absence of normal sedimentary (c) 1 2 3 4 5
C. Dinka 3. Indonesia rocks on the oceanic islands. (d) 5 4 3 2 1
D. Uighur 4. Sudan 2. The cross-section of the ocean
27. Match the following
basin, comprising the broad
Codes abyssal through flanked by rim List I List II
A B C D A B C D like continental shelves. (Types of Coal) (% of Carbon Contents)
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 3. Occurrence of shallow-water A. Magnetite 1. 70%
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 2 1 4 sands and muds limited to the B. Siderite 2. 72%
18. Match the following continental shelf and slope, C. Haematite 3. Lowest categories
while that of pelage oozes D. Limonite 4. 60%
List I List II being limited to the abyssal
(Oil Fields) (Countries) Codes
plain.
A. Masjid-e-Suleiman 1. China A B C D A B C D
Select the correct answer using (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
B. Daqing 2. Columbia the codes given below.
C. Magdalene 3. Iran (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 4 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
D. Maikop fields 4. Russia (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 28. Match the following
Codes 23. The American cotton textile List I List II
A B C D A B C D industry moved from New A. Coffee plantation 1. Flutionte
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 1 4 2 England to the Southern states B. Copper 2. Fazenda
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 2 1 4 because C. River houses 3. Bahia
19. Match the following (a) the latter have a more humid D. National dish 4. Feijoada
climate Codes
List I List II
(b) New England diversified its A B C D A B C D
(Landform Types) (Locations)
manufacturing industries (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 3 1 4
A. Mariana Trench 1. Atlantic ocean (c) the population growth in the South (c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
B. Sunda Trench 2. Arabian sea provided a major market
C. Pureto Ricotrench 3. Indian ocean (d) the South offered lower cost of
29. Consider the following area(s)
Puerto Rico Trench production 1. Central Africa
D. Carlsberg Ridge 4. West-Pacific 2. Borneo and Papua-New Guinea
ocean 24. Which of the following is/are 3. Amazon basin
Codes
plantation crop?
In which of the above area(s) is the
A B C D A B C D 1. Cashew 2. Cocoa
primitive agriculture such as
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2 3. Areca nut 4. Oil palm shifting cultivation or rotational
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 3 2 1 Select the correct answer using bush-fallow type of cultivation
codes given below. found?
20. Identify the correct ascending (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
order in terms of human (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
population.
(a) Africa, Oceania, North America, 25. Match the following 30. Which of the correct decreasing order
Europe, Latin America List I List II in terms of area of countries of the
(b) Oceania, Africa, North America, Indian subcontinent?
A. Gove and Weipa 1. Oil
Latin America, Europe (a) India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh
B. Mount lsa 2. Gold
(c) Oceania, North America, Latin (b) India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal
America, Europe Africa C. Broken hill 3. Copper
(c) India, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal
(d) Oceania, Latin America, North D. Barrow island 4. Bauxite
(d) India, Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh
America, Africa, Europe
882 CDS Pathfinder

31. The term ‘Monsoon Asia’ is 36. Match the following Which of the statements given above
generally used for are correct?
List I List II
(a) Indian subcontinent (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 2
(Canals) (Connects)
(b) South Asia (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
A. Kiel Canal 1. Eire to ontario
(c) East Asia, South Asia, South-East 42. The two areas having continental
Asia and the islands that rings B. Soo Canal 2. North sea to Black
sea glaciers are
South-East Asia (a) Glacier National Park/Waterton Lakes
C. Panama Canal 3. Atlantic to Pacific
(d) South Asia and East Asia National Park
D. Welland Canal 4. Superior to Huron
32. What is the name of the strait (b) Antarctica/Greenland
Codes (c) Norway/Sweden
where ‘Adams bridge’ is situated? A B C D A B C D
(a) Bering strait (d) Canada/Siberia
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(b) Cook strait 43. Which of the following are the
(c) Palk strait (c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
examples of Block mountains?
(d) Taiwan strait 37. Which one of the following sets of 1. Black forest 2. Sierra Nevada
33. Which of the following statements conditions is necessary for a good 3. Satpura 4. Alpine
are correct? cultivation of wheat? Select the correct answer using the
(a) Moderate temperature and codes given below.
1. Cod is pelagic fish.
moderate rainfall (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
2. Toba in Ise Bay, Japan is (b) High temperature and heavy rainfall
renowned for its pearl (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) High temperature and moderate
industry. rainfall 44. The factors that encourage fishing
3. Stavanger, Norway specialises (d) Low temperature and low rainfall industries are
in canning of a fish brisling. 1. Long continental shelves.
4. Norway’s fishing industry 38. Radio waves are reflected back to 2. Meeting of warm and cold ocean
shifts to Lotofen island from Earth from the currents.
Bergen in autumn. (a) Troposphere 3. Little availability of agricultural
(b) Exosphere land.
Select the correct answer using
(c) Stratosphere 4. Indented coastline.
the codes given below.
(d) Ionosphere
(a) 2 and 4 Select the correct answer using the
(b) 2, 3 and 4 39. Hypsometric graph is a codes given below.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (a) graph of area-altitude distribution (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above (b) graph of area-latitude distribution (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
34. Match the following (c) graph of salinity-temperature 45. Match the following
distribution
List II (d) graph of temperature-pressure List I List II
List I (Countries) (Primary Exports)
(First Place distribution below the sea level
(Energy Resources)
in the World) A. Venezuela 1. Soyabean products
40. Consider the following climatic B. Panama 2. Crude petroleum and
A. Coal production 1. USA
and geographical phenomena petroleum products
B. Petroleum production 2. Saudi Arabia
1. Condensation C. Paraguay 3. Bananas
C. Petroleum deposits 3. Africa
2. High temperature and humidity D. Dominican 4. Ferro-nickel Republic
D. Potential water power 4. China
3. Orography Codes
Codes 4. Vertical wind
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
Thunder cloud development is (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 3 1
due to which of these phenomena? (c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
46. Which of the following is not a
35. The reasons for the development (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
consequence of EI Nino?
of fishing industry in tropics are 41. Consider the following statements (a) Drought in India
1. tropical fish are oily, and so (b) Heavy rainfall in Chile
1. Almost all of the Africa’s coal
less popular as food. (c) Killing of large number of fishes
concentrated in Transvaal and
2. continental shelves are almost Natal provinces of South across Peruvian
absent. Africa. (d) Floods in Australia
3. the different species are 2. The largest producer of coal in 47. Arrange the major seas of the world
usually mixed and shoals of Canada is Saskatchewan in descending order.
same species are rare. province. 1. Bering sea
4. the tropical fishing industry is 3. The coalfields in spain are 2. South China sea
less mechanised. concentrated in its Northern 3. East China sea
Which of the statements given around Oviedo. 4. Red sea
above are correct? 4. Cebu island in Indonesia is its Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 main coal producing area. (a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 883

48. The sand dune type that forms 54. Which of the following pairs are (b) The energy content between high
long, parallel ridges and occurs in correctly matched? insolation tropical latitudes and the
areas of limited sand supply low insolation polar latitudes
1. Nomadic herding : Afro-Asian arid
owing to convergent wind Isands (c) Higher rotational speed of lower
latitudes lower rotational speed of
directions is called 2. Livestock ranching : Amazon basin
higher latitudes
(a) barchan 3. Mixed farming : Eastern USA
(d) Equatorial radius of the Earth is
(b) transverse Codes longer than the polar radius
(c) longitudinal (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(d) parabolic (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 60. In development of synclinal ridges
49. The lower zones where water and anticlinal valley in a folded
55. Estuaries possess distinct blooms of region is named as
accumulates and from which the excessive growth of a pigmented (a) parallel belt of valleys and ridges
air has been expelled is dinoflagellates. These blooms are (b) abrasion platform
(a) zone of aeration called (c) topography of inversion of relief
(b) zone of saturation (a) red tides (b) sea tides (d) ridge and valley landscape
(c) zone of intermittent saturation (c) black tides (d) sea flowers
(d) zone of near saturation 61. The fault that connects spreading
56. Which one of the following factors ridges in the Gulf of California and
50. Match the following is responsible for the change in the on the Juan de Fuca plate is an
List I List II regular direction of the ocean example of a plate boundary
A. U-shaped valley 1. Limestone landforms currents in the Indian ocean? (a) continental-continental
B. Dolines 2. Glacial landforms (a) Indian ocean is half an ocean (b) oceanic-continental
C. Stack 3. Marine landforms (b) Indian ocean has monsoon drift (c) divergent
D. V-shaped valley 4. Riverine landform (c) Indian ocean is a land-locked ocean (d) transform
(d) Indian ocean has greater variation in
Codes salinity 62. Strike is defined as the
A B C D A B C D (a) number of degrees a plane is
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 57. Match the following inclined from horizontal
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 1 3 2 (b) intensity of folding and faulting in a
List II
List I region
51. Population density is (Major Mining
(Minerals) (c) line formed by the intersection of a
(a) number of people per unit of land Countries)
horizontal plane with an inclined
(b) agricultural population per unit area A. Bauxite 1. India plane
of land B. Manganese 2. Japan (d) amount of stress stored in rocks
(c) agricultural population per unit area C. Mica 3. Jamaica
of cultivated land D. Tin 4. Russia 63. A pyramid-shaped peak known as a
(d) ratio between the requirements of 5. Malaysia horn is formed
population and the resources (a) by headward erosion of a group of
made available to it Codes cirque on a mountain peak
A B C D A B C D (b) when two or more valley glaciers
52. The region with grasslands, (a) 5 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 2 5 merge to form a much a larger
extensive rolling plains dull (c) 5 1 2 3 (d) 3 4 1 5 glacier
uniformity and monotony of 58. The main reason that the Earth (c) as till is modified by floods of
scene, no trees, extreme cold and experiences highest temperatures glacier melt water
dryness in winter, can be in the subtropics in the Northern (d) when a continental glacier freezes to
described as having hemisphere rather than at the its underlying surface and ceases
(a) Steppe type of climate equator is moving
(b) Tundra type of climate (a) subtropical areas tend to have less 64. The erosive power of a river
(c) China type of climate cloud cover than equatorial areas depends mostly upon its
(d) Warm temperature Eastern margin (b) subtropical areas have longer day (a) width and depth
type of climate hours in the summer than the (b) speed and depth
53. Match the following equatorial (c) gradient and width
(c) subtropical areas have an enhanced (d) speed and volume
List I List II ‘green house effect’ compared to
(Tribes) (Places of Habitat) equatorial areas 65. The Andes of South America and
A. Innuit 1. Northern Russia (d) subtropical areas are nearer to the the Himalayas in Asia are still
B. Bantu 2. Nicobar Islands oceanic areas than the equatorial forming and are the result of plates
C. Shompen 3. Northern Canada locations colliding at .... and plate
D. Chukchi 4. Central Africa boundaries.
59. Which one of the following provides
(a) divergent/transform
Codes the force needed to drive the
atmospheric circulation? (b) oeanic-oceanic/continental continental
A B C D A B C D
(a) Higher biotic content of the tropical (c) transform/passive continental margin
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 4 2 1
latitudes and lower piotic content of (d) oceanic-continental/continental
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3
the polar latitudes continental
884 CDS Pathfinder

66. According to the currently 72. Identify which of the following Codes
accepted theory for the origin of statements is incorrect. A B C D A B C D
the Solar System (a) Reunion Island is of volcanic origin (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) a huge nebula collapsed under its (b) The submarine ridge in the Indian (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
own gravitational attraction ocean is called St Paul Ridge in 78. The process by which rock particles
(b) the nebula formed a disc with the the middle portion are reduced in size by rubbing
sun in the centre (c) The Atlantic ocean lacks in troughs against each other or against the
(c) planetesmials accreted from and trenches
gaseous, liquid and solid particles
surface during transport by wind,
(d) Puerto Rico trench lies in South water or ice is referred to as
(d) All of the above Atlantic ocean (a) deflation (b) exfoliation
67. The 2004, Tsunami was the result 73. Which one of the following (c) solution (d) attrition
of represents the correct North to 79. Under which one of the following
(a) subduction of India plate below the
eurasian plate
South order of trenches in the conditions is physical weathering
(b) subduction of Indian plate below Pacific ocean? most effective?
(a) Kuril, Japan, Bonin, Tonga (a) Hot and dry all the time
the burmese plate
(b) Japan, Kuril, Bonin, Tonga (b) Hot and wet all the time
(c) subduction of eurasian plate below
the Indian plate (c) Japan, Kuril, Tonga, Bonin (c) Hot season alternating with dry season
(d) Kuril, Japan, Tonga, Bonin (d) Large diurnal temperature range
(d) subduction of burmese plate below
the Indian plate 74. Which one of the following 80. Consider the following statement(s)
68. Various coastal features are statements is incorrect about the 1. Nearly 99% of the total mass of
formed before a stack is finally red clay deposits in the oceans? the atmosphere lies within 30 km
produced. In what order to the (a) It consists mainly of inorganic of the Earth’s surface.
features produced, take place? material 2. The proportion of ozone in the
(a) Cave, Headland, Arch, Stack (b) Silicon and aluminium dioxide are atmosphere increases to a
(b) Headland, Cave, Arch, Sack the chief constituents maximum at about 60 km from
(c) It is the most widely spread Earth’s surface.
(c) Arch, Cave, Headland, Stack
(d) Headland, Arch, Cave, Stack pelagic deposite Which of the statement(s) given
(d) It covers about 58% of the total above is/are correct?
69. When a submerged highland oceanic area (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
coast is subject to wave action (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
over a long period of time, all of 75. Identify the following statements
the following features may is incorrect. 81. What type of vegetation occurs where
develop except (a) Limestone is both porous and the following conditions prevail?
(a) a spit (b) a cliff permeable 1. Podzol solis.
(c) a lagoon (d) a raised beach (b) Limestone consists chiefly of 2. Annual temperature range 38°C.
insoluble calcium carbonate 3. Annual precipitation about 300
70. Consider the following mm which is fairly uniform
(c) Karst landscape is well developed
1. Electromagnetic radiation. distributed throughout the year.
in Yucatan peninsula (Mexico)
2. Geothermal energy.
(d) A rock which is impermeable, does Select the correct answer using the
3. Gravitational force. codes given below.
not contain water
4. Plate movements. (a) Thorn shrub
5. Rotation of the Earth. 76. Which of the following statements (b) Coniferous forest
6. Revolution of the Earth. is incorrect (c) Temperature grassland
Which of the above are (a) Continental shelf is almost absent (d) Monsoon forest
responsible for bringing dynamic in the Eastern Pacific, especially in
South America 82. Mediterranean climate is
changes on the surface of Earth? characterised by very dry summers
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 (b) Flat topped seamounts are know
as guyots because
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 (d) All of these
(c) A shoal is a detached elevation (a) the relative humidity is low
71. Which one of the following with shallow depths (b) the skies are cloudless
sentences best defines the term (d) Along the Eastern coast of the US, (c) the trade winds blow from the land to
‘Lapies’? continental shelf is almost absent
the sea
(a) A small to medium sized shallow (d) there are no off-shore winds
depression 77. Match the following
83. Which one of the following is not a
(b) A landform whose opening is more
or less circular at the top and
List I List II characteristic of the equatorial and
funnel shaped towards bottom
(Geological Era) (Geological Period) tropical rain forest?
A. Mesozoic 1. Permian (a) A lush green biome
(c) A landform formed due to dripping
water from surface B. Proterozoic 2. Pre-cambrian (b) Broadleaf evergreen trees
(d) An irregular surface with sharp C. Cenozoic 3. Triassic (c) Dense canopy usually arranged in
pinnacles, grooves and ridges D. Palaeozoic 4. Tertiary three levels
(d) Low diversity in plants and animals
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 885

84. Cloudy nights are warmer (c) liquid iron-nickel alloy makes up 96. Longshore currents are generated,
compared to clear cloudless most of the asthenosphere when
nights, because clouds (d) Magnetic inclination is 90° at the (a) isostatic rebound occur more rapidly
poles than sea-level rise
(a) prevent cold waves from the sky
from descending of Earth 90. Consider the following statements (b) the orbital motion of water in waves
(b) reflect back the heat given off by 1. Ocean currents are the stirs up seafloor sediment
Earth slow-surface movement of water (c) the amount of sand reaching a
in the sea. beach diminishes
(c) produce heat and radiate it
2. Ocean currents assist in (d) waves approach a shoreline at an
towards Earth
angle
(d) absorb heat from the atmosphere maintaining the Earth’s heat
and send it towards Earth balance. 97. Continental shelf is
3. Ocean currents are set in motion (a) a part of oceanic crust made of
85. Which one of the following facts primarily by prevailing winds. granite
was not considered by those while 4. Ocean currents are affected by (b) a part of continental crust made of
discussing the concept of sea floor the configuration of the ocean. basalt
spreading? Which of the statements given (c) a part of oceanic crust made of
(a) Volcanic activity along the basalt
above are correct?
mid-oceanic ridges (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) a part of continental crust made of
(b) Stripes of normal and reverse granite
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
magnetic field observed in rocks of 98. South Pacific island nation Samoa,
ocean floor 91. Which one of the following is the positioned to the East of the
(c) Distribution of fossils in different highest plateau in the world? International Date Line, on May
continents (a) Colorado plateau
(b) Tibetan plateau
2011 decided to forego a day and
(d) Age of rocks from the ocean floor shift to the time zone on its West.
(c) Patagonia plateau
86. The Pacific Islands from new (d) Potwar plateau
The reason for this shifting is to
Guinea South-Eastwards to the (a) facilitate smooth internal
Fiji Islands’ group is called 92. Which of the following statements administration throughout the country
(a) the Polynesia (b) the Mellanesia is the reason for ‘Seasons’ on the (b) attain political stability in the country
(c) the Autralasia (d) the Micronesia surface of the Earth? (c) facilitate trade with Australia and
(a) Rotation of the Earth New Zealand
87. Consider the following statements (b) Revolution of the Earth around the (d) promote tourism industry in the
1. Galaxies are the major Sun country
building block of the universe. (c) The 23.5° inclination of the Earth’s 99. Which one among the following is
2. Galaxies may be regular or rotation axis with respect to the not an important factor of climate
irregular in shape. plane of the ecliptic
of an area?
3. Each galaxy comprises an (d) Revolution of Earth in elliptical orbit (a) Latitude
around the Sun (b) Longitude
average of 100 billion stars.
4. A galaxy is a huge mass of 93. Which of the following statements (c) Altitude
stars, nebulae and inter-stellar is incorrect? (d) Distance from the sea
material. (a) The largest plutonic form is batholith 100. Renewable energy can be obtained
Which of the statements given from
(b) Limestone is the most common (a) Fossils
above are correct? clastic sedimentary rock
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Radioactive elements
(c) Anthracite coal is a sedimentary rock (c) Biomass
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(d) The cementation, compaction and (d) Natural gas
88. Which of the following statements hardening of sediments into
is incorrect? sedimentary rock is called lithification Directions (Q. Nos. 101-102) The
(a) RA Daly gave the glacial control 94. Which of the following pairs is following two items consist of two
theory for origin of coral reefs incorrectly matched? statements, Statement I and
(b) The Neritic province and oceanic Statement II. You are to examine
Metamorphic
province are separated by the Rock
Equivalent
these two statements carefully and
edge of continental slope select the answers to these items
(c) The Benthic realm is subdivided (a) Clay : Slate
using the codes given below.
into littoral and deep-sea zones, (b) Granite : Gneiss
which are separated by a depth of (c) Gabro : Serpentine Codes
200 m (d) Sandstone : Marble (a) Both the statements are individually true
(d) Corals grow more rapidly on and Statement II is the correct
seaward side 95. Which of the following pairs is explanation of Statement I
incorrect? (b) Both the statements are individually true,
89. Which one of the following but Statement II is not the correct
statements is correct? (a) North-East Pacific : Dogger Bank explanation of Statement I
(a) A buried body of magnetite (b) North-West Atlantic : Grand Banks (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
generates the magnetic field (c) North-East Atlantic : Great Fisher Bank false
(b) isostatic rebound results in (d) North-West Atlantic : Chesapeake Bay (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
subsidence of the crust true
886 CDS Pathfinder

101. Statement I El-Nino is a 109. Horse latitudes lie within the 1. The valley of a river is widest in
temperature rising phenomenon atmospheric pressure belts of its lower course.
over the Pacific Ocean and (a) Polar high 2. The velocity of a river in its
usually causes dry monsoon in (b) Equatorial low lower course is low.
South Asia. (c) Sub-tropical high 3. The delta sometimes develops in
(d) Sub-polar low a river’s lower course.
Statement II Tsunamis are
110. The warm and dry winds that 4. Much of the river water is
usually not noticed as the drawn for irrigation in the
massive ocean waves move blow down the steep valleys in
lower course.
silently but assume destructive Japan are called
(a) Zonda (b) Yamo Select the correct answer using the
form as these travel through codes given below.
(c) Tramontane (d) Santa Ana
shallow waters of continental (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
shelves. 111. Match the following (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
102. Statement I Anticyclone, List I List II 116. Why South-East Asia has the
which is a high pressure wind (Local Winds) (Areas of Prevalence) largest concentration of peasant
system, does not bring about A. Chinook 1. North African desert population at the global scale?
significant change in weather B. Foehn 2. Rocky mountain (a) The area is dominated by shifting
condition. slopes of the USA cultivation due to favourable terrain
C. Sirocco 3. Northern slopes of character
Statement II The outward Alps (b) Intensive subsistence farming is
movement of wind from the high D. Mistral 4. Southern slopes of practised in the region
pressure centre keeps limited Alps (c) The region has favourable and
scope for weather disturbance. Codes healthier climate
103. Israel has common borders with A B C D A B C D (d) The area has a large forested area
(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 which is cleared for cultivation of
(b) Turkey, Syria, Jordan and Yemen (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2 various crops
(c) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan 117. Which among the following
(d) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt 112. Which one of the following
monoculture crops provide(s)
countries is located South of the
104. How many kilometres are immediate cash to the farmers?
equator?
represented by 1° of latitude? (a) Cameroon (b) Sudan 1. Tea in Assam
(a) 321 km (b) 211 km (c) Nigeria (d) Rwanda 2. Rubber in Africa
(c) 111 km (d) 91 km 3. Sugarcane in Malaysia
113. Mr X has been invited to
105. Climate change resulting in the participate in a conference to be 4. Coffee in Brazil
rise of temperature may benefit held at Buenos Aires. He has Select the correct answer using the
which of the countries/regions? choosen the following shortest codes given below.
(a) South Africa flight route (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(b) East Indies islands comprising of (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Mumbai to Frankfurt (non-stop)
Java, Sumatra and Borneo Frankfurt to Sao Paulo (non-stop) 118. Which one among the following
(c) The Western coasts of South Sao Paulo to Buenos Aires best explains the reason for the
America
(non-stop) Eastern and Western boundaries
(d) Russia and Northern Europe
Which one of the following seas of the Pacific Ocean experiencing
106. The broken hills famous for zinc will likely to be flown over by frequent earthquake?
and lead are located in Mr X? (a) There are deep ocean trenches
(a) Turkey (b) France (a) Tasman Sea (b) Labrador Sea along these margins
(c) Germany (d) Australia (c) Beautfort Sea (d) Black Sea (b) High mountain stretch along the
continental margins adjacent to this
107. When we consider 15° meridian 114. Why do fold mountains have ocean
on a world map or globe and enormous thickness of (c) The currents of the vast Pacific
count them in an Eastward sedimentary rocks? Ocean continue to dash against the
direction starting with (a) Due to deposition of sediments in continental margins
Greenwich meridian (0°), we a valley for millions of years (d) These margins coincide with the
find that the time of this (b) Due to accumulation of sediments plate margins
meridian is in a geosyncline
(a) same as Greenwich (c) The plains were folded into
119. Asia has large areas of inland
(b) 1 hour fast mountains drainage. Why is it so?
(c) 1 hour slow (d) The sediments were folded into (a) Rainfall is seasonal and scanty
(d) 12 hours fast recumbent and nappe folds (b) There is a number of intermontane
plateaus
108. A nautical mile is equal to 115. Which of the following best (c) River channels are obstructed by
(a) 5060 feet (b) 5280 feet explain why the lower course of a lava flows
(c) 6060 feet (d) 6080 feet river is sometimes choked with (d) It is a very large continent
sediments?
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 887

120. The Earth revolves around the 125. Which one among the following 131. Statement I Wind is deflected to
Sun in an elliptical path and the statement is correct? the right in Northern hemisphere
Sun is located at one focus of (a) In summer season, the duration of and to the left in Southern
day is more in Northern hemisphere from its normal course.
the ellipse. Imagine a situation
hemisphere
in which the Earth goes around (b) In winter season, the duration of Statement II Earth rotates from
the Sun on a circular path. day is more in Northern West-to-East.
Which one among the following hemisphere Codes
would result in under that (c) In summer season, the duration of (a) Both the statements are individually
situation? day is less in Northern hemisphere true and Statement II is the correct
(d) In winter season, the duration of explanation of Statement I
(a) It would not make any difference
day is more in Southern (b) Both the statements are individually
(b) Difference between seasons will hemisphere true, but Statement II is not the
be reduced correct explanation of Statement I
(c) The Earth would become very 126. What is the similarity between
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II
hot Milwaukee Deep, Java Trench
is false
(d) The Earth would become very and Challenger Deep?
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II
cold (a) They all are trenches in the Pacific is true
Ocean
121. In the interior of the Earth (b) They are the deepest points of the 132. At high altitudes, pressure cooker
(a) the temperature falls with Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Oceans, is preferable for cooking, because
increasing depth respectively the boiling point of water
(b) the pressure falls with increasing (c) They all are trenches in the India (a) reduces due to higher atmospheric
depth Ocean pressure
(c) the temperature rises with (d) They all are deeps of the Atlantic (b) reduces due to lower atmospheric
increasing depth Ocean pressure
(d) both temperature and pressure 127. Wind is often found to blow in a (c) increases due to reduced
fall with increasing depth gravitational force
hot summer day due to
(d) reduces due to increased ozone
122. Currently half of the world’s (a) conduction of heat between air content in the atmosphere
population live in just six and soil on the Earth
(b) radiation from the soil 133. Which one of the following pairs is
countries. Identify them from not correctly matched?
(c) convection current of air
the following (a) Kuroshio : Warm ocean current
(d) None of the above
(a) India, China, Pakistan, Brazil, (b) Labrador : Warm ocean current
Bangladesh, Indonesia 128. Most of the communication (c) Benguela : Cold ocean current
(b) India, China, Bangladesh, South satellites today are placed in a
(d) Oyashio : Cold ocean current
Africa, Pakistan, Indonesia geostationary orbit. In order to
(c) China, India, United States, stay over the same spot on the 134. Which one among the following is
Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan Earth, a geostationary satellite the idealised global pattern of
(d) China, India, Bangladesh, United has to be directly above the surface wind from the Equator to
States, Pakistan, Indonesia (a) Tropic of Cancer Pole?
(b) Either North or South Pole (a) Doldrum - Westerlies - Trade wind -
123. The angular speed of a (c) Equator Easterlies
whirlwind in a Tornado towards (d) Tropic of Capricorn (b) Easterlies - Westerlies - Trade wind -
the centre Easterlies
(a) decreases rapidly 129. The term ‘demographic gap’ (c) Doldrum - Trade wind - Westerlies -
(b) increases signifies the difference Easterlies
(a) in sex ratio (d) Westerlies - Trade wind - Doldrum -
(c) remains constant
(b) in age Easterlies
(d) slowly becomes zero
(c) in child/woman ratio
124. Global Positioning System (GPS) (d) between the birth and the death 135. The Earth is an oblate spheroid
is associated with rate and not a perfect sphere. This is
because
1. determining latitude and 130. Consider the following
longitude. 1. the Earth has a rotational
statement(s) motion and the rotational speed
2. constellation of satellites. 1. Suez Canal is an important increases as one goes from the
3. US system of GPS and link between developed poles towards the equator.
Russian system of GLONASS. countries and developing 2. the equator experiences greater
4. navigation. countries. gravitational pull from the sun.
2. It joins the Mediterranean sea 3. the intensity of sunlight received
Select the correct answer using
with the Gulf of Suez. at the equator is greater than
the codes given below. that at the poles.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 3. It is not a sea level canal.
(b) 1 and 4 Which of the statement(s) given Select the correct answer using the
(c) 2 and 3 above is/are correct? codes given below.
(d) All of the above (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
888 CDS Pathfinder

136. Which one of the following is the 2. The Earth moves fastest at (a) Trans-Siberian
correct sequence of increasing perihelion and slowest at (b) Cape-Cairo
aphelion. (c) Orient Express
velocity of wind? (d) Union and Central Pacific
(a) Light breeze - Fresh breeze - The above statements are true of
Gale - Hurricane which one of the following laws? 150. Match the following
(b) Fresh breeze - Light breeze - (a) Kepler’s second law
List I List II
Hurricane - Gale (b) Newton’s second law of motion (Spheres of the (Main Constituents
(c) Light breeze - Gale - (c) Ohm’s law
Earth) of the Sphere)
Fresh breeze - Hurricane (d) Newton’s law of gravitation
(d) Hurricane - Light breeze - Gale - A. Lithosphere 1. Living objects
144. Consider the following B. Hydrosphere 2. Mixture of gases
Fresh breeze
statement(s) C. Atmosphere 3. Water
137. Which one of the following 1. A hurricane acquires its spin D. Biosphere 4. Soil
mountain ranges separates from the coriolis effect.
Europe from Asia? Codes
2. The diameter of the hurricane A B C D A B C D
(a) Apenine (b) Black Forest decreases as it moves away
(c) Ural (d) Sulaiman (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1
from low latitudes. (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
138. Which one among the following 3. The diameter of a hurricane is
never below 150 km. 151. Which of the following seas are
is not a Baltic nation?
enclosed?
(a) Lativia (b) Slovakia Which of the statement(s) given
(c) Lithuania (d) Estonia above is/are correct? 1. Andaman Sea 2. Arab Sea
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 3. Sea of Azov 4. Bering Sea
139. During the Indian monsoon
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Select the correct answer using the
season
codes given below.
(a) the Westerly jet stream alone 145. Which among the following pairs (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
exists in the Indian region are correct? (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
(b) the Easterly jet stream alone
exists in the Indian region 1. Cirque and Col Glacial topography 152. The jet streams are
(c) both Westerly and Easterly jet 2. Barkhans and Desert topography (a) wind systems with a pronounced
Yardans
streams exist in the Indian region seasonal reverse at a direction
3. Eddies and Fluvial topography
(d) both Westerly and Easterly jet Potholes (b) winds blowing from the sub-tropical
streams disappear high-pressure belts towards the
Select the correct answer using the subpolar low-pressure belts
140. Which one of the following is the code given below. (c) narrow meandering bands of swift
correct sequence of the following (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 winds which blow in the midlatitudes
topographical features found (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 near the tropopause and encircle the
from upper to lower course of a 146. Which one of the following is a globe
river? (d) winds blowing from the sub-polar
correct sequence in the increasing
(a) Ox-bow lake-Rapids-Estuary low-pressure belts towards the
(b) Rapids-Estuary-Ox-bow lake order of salinity concentration?
sub-tropical high-pressure belts
(c) Rapids-Ox-bow lake-Estuary (a) Gulf of California, Baltic Sea, Red
(d) Estuary-Ox-bow lake-Rapids Sea, North Sea 153. If the movement of the Earth’s
(b) Baltic Sea, North Sea, Gulf of crust or a major climatic change
141. The Earth moves around the California, Red Sea makes an old stream young, it is
Sun in an elliptical trajectory (c) Red Sea, Gulf of California, North called
due to gravity. If another Sun Sea, Baltic Sea (a) consequent stream
like star is brought near the (d) North Sea, Gulf of California, Baltic (b) rejuvenation
Earth, what will be the shape of Sea, Red Sea (c) subsequent stream
(d) aggradation
the trajectory? 147. If the Earth did not have an
(a) Ellipse
atmosphere, temperature extremes 154. Tsunamis are not caused by
(b) Parabola (a) hurricanes
(c) Circle between day and night would (b) Earthquakes
(d) It will be undeterministic (a) increase (b) decrease (c) undersea landslides
(c) stay the same (d) fluctuate rapidly (d) volcanic eruptions
142. Which one of the following
countries does not have a border 148. The time at Cairo is 2 hours 155. An earthquake epicentre is the
with China? ahead of Greenwich. Hence, it is (a) point where the seismograph is
(a) Myanmar (b) Afghanistan located at located
(c) Thailand (d) Kazakhstan (a) 30°W longitude (b) 30°E longitude (b) point within the Earth where the
(c) 28°E longitude (d) 28°W longitude movement along the fault occurs
143. Consider the following (c) approximate centre of a group of
statement(s) 149. Which one of the following related earthquakes
1. The Earth does not move trains/railways passes through (d) point on the surface directly above
Germany, France, Austria, where the rupture along the fault
along its orbit at a constant
zone occur
rate. Hungary and Romania?
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 889

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) 8. The imaginary line on the Earth’s Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17) The
surface that closely follows the following questions consist of two
1. If news is broadcast from London 1800 Meridian is
at 10 : 30 am, at what time it will statements, Statement I and
(a) Prime Meridian
be heard at Baghdad (45° E)? (b) Equator Statement II. You are to examine these
(a) 7 : 30 am (b) 9 : 00 am (c) International Date Line two statements carefully and select the
(c) 1 : 30 pm (d) 12 : 00 noon (d) Tropic of Cancer answers to these items using the codes
2. Which one among the following 9. Which one among the following is given below.
statements is correct with regard not a landlocked country in Codes
to the C-5M Super Galaxy? Africa? (a) Both the statements are individually true
(a) It is a large military helicopter (a) Botswana (b) Zambia and Statement II is the correct
(b) It is a large military transport (c) Lesotho (d) Nigeria explanation of Statement I
aircraft (b) Both the statements are individually true,
10. The distance between two
(c) It is a galaxy of stars very close to but Statement II is not the correct
the Sun
consecutive longitudes (91°E and
92° E) at the Poles is explanation of Statement I
(d) It is a US fighter aircraft to be (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
(a) 0 km (b) 18 km
completed in 2014 false
(c) 25 km (d) 111 km
3. Lack of atmosphere around the (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
true
Moon is due to 2012 (II)
(a) low escape velocity of air molecule 15. Statement I The planet Neptune
and low gravitational attraction 11. Which one among the following is
appears blue in colour.
(b) high escape velocity of air called terrestrial planet?
molecule and low gravitational (a) Mercury (b) Jupiter Statement II The presence of
attraction (c) Saturn (d) Uranus methane gas in the atmosphere of
(c) low gravitational attraction only 12. Which among the following Neptune is responsible for its colour.
(d) high escape velocity of air phenomenas can occur when very 16. Statement I Comets revolve around
molecule only warm and humid air is rising the Sun only in long elliptical orbits.
4. What are G arboreum, over a mass of a very cold air?
G herbaceum G hirsutum and 1. Calm weather Statement II A comet develops a
G barbadense whose all the four 2. Snowfall tail when it gets close to the Sun.
species are cultivated in India? 3. Storms and cyclonic storms 17. Statement I Tsunami is small in
(G=Gossypium) 4. Intense rain and hail open ocean yet may be over 30 m
(a) Species of wool Select the correct answer using high when it reaches a coastline.
(b) Species of cotton the codes given below.
(c) Species of silk Statement II Tsunamis have long
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Species of jute (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 wavelength and they travel across
the open ocean at high speed. As
5. The soil formed by wind dust in 13. During the recent venus transit
and around hot deserts is called they approach shore, the wavelength
(June, 2012) bracket, the planet
(a) silty soil (b) loamy soil decreases and the wave height
appeared as a tiny black circle
(c) sandy soil (d) loess soil moving on the Sun. The black increases.
6. Logically, what does a continually colour on the Sun is because the 18. There are three distinct characters of
rising air pressure indicate? planet temperature stratification of
(a) Advent of unsettled and cloudy (a) is black in colour atmosphere around the Earth. Which
weather (b) obstructed all light from the Sun one among the following is the
(b) Advent of a cyclone (c) was invisible due to bright rays correct arrangement of the layers
(c) Fine and settled weather from the Sun
(from the Earth’s surface upwards)?
(d) Fine and unsettled weather (d) behaved as a black hole during its
transit (a) Thermosphere - Stratosphere -
7. Which one among the following is Troposphere
the type of the Comoros Islands, 14. The waves that help scientists to (b) Troposphere - Thermosphere -
understand the internal structure Stratosphere
which lie in the Indian Ocean
of the Earth are (c) Troposphere - Stratosphere -
between Northern Madagascar (a) primary waves Thermosphere
and the African Coast? (b) secondary waves
(a) Volcanic (b) Glacial eroded (d) Thermosphere- Troposphere -
(c) surface waves Stratosphere
(c) Eolian deposited (d) Folded (d) longitudinal waves
890 CDS Pathfinder

19. Consider the following diagram 25. In absorption of insolation, the 31. Confirmation of the presence of
North Pole most significant part is played by Higgs Boson will justify
(a) carbon dioxide (b) ozone (a) both the standard model and
Horse Latitude (c) oxygen (d) haze superstring theory
A 26. The riverbank is weakest where (b) the unification of all the four
fundamental forces
Polar High Pressure Belts the river turns. This is because
(c) the steady-state model of the universe
water
(d) the mass of the fundamental particles
South Pole (a) gets concentrated on the inner
bank of the turn, making it 32. Nearly 30% of the solar radiations
In the diagram given above, what denser return back to the space without
does A denote? (b) effectively bounces off the outer contributing anything to the Earth’s
(a) Doldrums (b) Trade winds bank as it turns exerting an extra
(c) Westerlies (d) Easterlies surface temperature. This amount of
pressure on the bank
(c) flows faster as it turns
radiation is known as
20. Sargasso sea is characterised by (a) black body (b) tropopause
(a) very cold water (d) reacts more effectively with the
(c) Earth’s albedo (d) mesopause
(b) very warm water bank at a turn
(c) highly saline water 27. Why do we have a leap year 33. The planetary winds that blow from the
(d) typical marine vegetation every four years? sub-tropical high pressure belts to the
(a) The Earth gets shifted out of equator are known as
21. Which one among the following
orbit every four years (a) westerlies (b) doldrums
statements regarding Chinook (c) polar winds (d) trade winds
winds is not correct? (b) The revolution slows down a little
once every four years 34. Which one among the following is a
(a) These are local winds
(c) The length of a year is not an cold ocean current?
(b) They descend along the Eastern
integer number of days
slopes of the rocky mountain in (a) Canary current (b) Brazil current
mid-latitudes (d) It is a convention (c) Gulf stream (d) Kuroshio current
(c) They bring lots of rain with them 28. Rain bearing clouds look black 35. Which parts of the Earth’s surface
(d) They benefit agriculture because experience least variation in
22. The expression South Asia usually (a) all light is scattered by them
incoming solar radiation throughout
includes (b) the large number of water
droplets in them absorb all the the year?
(a) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, (a) Poles
sunlight
Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka (b) Equatorial regions
(c) they reflect the sunlight back into
(b) Nepal, Bhutan, India, Afghanistan, (c) Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn
the atmosphere
China, Pakistan and Sri Lanka (d) Arctic and Antarctic circles
(d) there is a lot of dust condensed
(c) Bangladesh, India, China, Nepal,
on the water vapour in such 36. The highest of all spring tides occurs
Japan, Pakistan and Maldives
clouds at the time of
(d) Bangladesh, Bhutan, China,
Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and 29. Which one among the following (a) full or new moon in association with
Sri Lanka sequences of water bodies, from winter solstice
lower to higher salinity (b) full or new moon in association with
23. Farmers are requested to mix lime equinox
with soil while farming their fields. concentration, is correct?
(a) Gulf of California - Baltic Sea - (c) full or new moon in association with
This is because summer solstice
Red Sea - Arctic sea
(a) lime is very helpful in maintaining (d) winter as well as summer solstices
the water content in the soil (b) Baltic Sea - Arctic Sea - Gulf of
California - Red Sea 37. Which one among the following is not
(b) lime decreases the acidity of soil
(c) Red Sea - Gulf of California - a cause of generation of ocean
(c) lime decreases the basicity of soil
Arctic Sea - Baltic Sea
(d) high concentration of lime is currents?
(d) Arctic Sea - Gulf of California -
necessary for the plant growth (a) Planetary winds
Baltic Sea - Red Sea
24. Consider the following statement(s) (b) Variation in ocean water temperature
1. Rural forestry aims to raise the (c) Revolution of the Earth
trees on community land and on
2013 (I) (d) Shape and configuration of the
privately owned land. coastlines
30. ‘Global Dimming’ means
2. Farm forestry encourages (a) gradual increase of the 38. If the time of a place located on 165°
individual farmers to plant trees temperature of ionosphere E meridian is 11:00 pm on Sunday,
on their own farmland to meet (b) gradual loss of biodiversity hot what would be the time at the place
the domestic need of the family. spots located on 165° W meridian?
Which of the statement(s) given (c) gradual reduction in the amount (a) 11:00 pm on Sunday
above is/are correct? of global direct irradiance at the (b) 12:00 noon on Sunday
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Earth surface
(c) 1:00 am on Sunday
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) gradual increase in the melting of (d) 11:00 pm on Saturday
ice in polar regions
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 891

39. Which one among the following Directions (Q. Nos. 47-48) The 4. Examples of matrilineal societies
statements about the following questions consist of two are those of the Khasi and
International Date Line is not Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya.
statements, Statement I and
correct? Statement II. You are to examine Select the correct answer using the
(a) The International Date Line is
codes given below.
these two statements carefully and (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
largely based on the 180° meridian select the answers to these items (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these
(b) The difference in time between the using the codes given below.
places just either side of the 53. In soil, water that, is readily
International Date Line is almost Codes available to plant roots is
1 day (a) Both the statements are individually (a) gravitational water
(c) The difference in time to the extent true and Statement II is the correct (b) capillary water
explanation of Statement I (c) hygroscopic water
of 1 day on either side of the
International Date Line is caused (b) Both the statements are individually (d) bound water
true, but Statement II is not the
by inclined axis of the Earth 54. Red soil colour is caused by
correct explanation of Statement I
(d) The International Date Line mostly (a) aluminium compounds
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
passes through the Pacific Ocean (b) mercury compounds
false
(c) iron compounds
40. Which one among the following is (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II
(d) clay
not an igneous rock? is true
(a) Granite (b) Basalt 47. Statement I Typical laterite 55. Mid-latitude cyclones
(c) Gabbro (d) Gneiss (a) usually move across North-America
soils in India are generally fertile.
from East to West
41. On which one among the Statement II Laterite soils (b) are generally found only over the
following islands, does the generally experience leaching. ocean
Negrito tribe called ‘the Onge’ (c) generally bring clear skis and little
48. Statement I Southern part of
live? precipitation
France is famous for wine making
(a) North Andaman (b) Little Andaman (d) are formed in regions of strong
(c) Little Nicobar (d) Great Nicobar
industry. temperature contrasts
Statement II Southern part of 56. The westerlies have their origin in
France produces a variety of
2013 (II) fruits due to Mediterranean
the
(a) polar highs (b) subtropical highs
42. Chinook is a climate. (c) equatorial lows (d) sub polar lows
(a) cold wind in Europe
49. Satellite having the same orbital 57. Which one among the following
(b) tropical desert storm in West Asia
(c) warm wind in North America
period as the period of rotation of statements is not correct?
(d) depression to South Africa the Earth about its own axis is (a) Solar noon occurs simultaneously at
known as locations with the same longitude
43. The humidity of air measured in (a) polar satellite (b) One meridian, which is directly under
percentage is called (b) stationary satellite the Sun, experiences solar noon at a
(a) absolute humidity (c) geostationary satellite given time
(b) specific humidity (d) INSAT (c) Places having same longitude
(c) relative humidity experience solar noon at different
(d) All of the above
50. Which one among the following times
African countries is not (d) Solar noon occurs at different times at
44. Cordillera in North America is a landlocked? locations with the same latitude
(a) river basin (a) Zambia (b) Uganda
(b) high plateau (c) Angola (d) Zimbabwe 58. Oil is found in petroliferous rock.
(c) inland lake Which one among the following
(d) mountain system 51. Which one among the following is structures demonstrates an ideal
a sea without having a coastline? trap?
45. Composite volcanic cone is also (a) North sea (b) Sargasso sea (a) Horizontal structure
called strata cone because of the (c) Baltic sea (d) Bering sea (b) Fault structure
(a) alternating sheets of lava and 52. Which of the following is/are true (c) Synclinal structure
pyroclastic materials (d) Anticlinal structure
statement(s) of matrilineal
(b) uneven streams of lava flow
societies?
(c) cataclysmic eruption
(d) eruption of lava flow from a fissure
1. Newly married couple stays 2014 (I)
with the woman’s parents.
46. Albedo effect would be relatively 2. As per the rules of
59. A typical black hole is always
higher in inheritance, the property specified by
(a) early morning and late evening passes from mother to (a) a (curvature) singularity
(b) early morning only daughter. (b) a horizon
(c) noon 3. Women play a dominant role (c) either a (curvature) singularity or a
(d) late evening only in the family. horizen
(d) a charge
892 CDS Pathfinder

60. Which of the following 66. Which of the following is/are the 70. Match the following
statement(s) relating to stage(s) of demographic List I List II
earthquakes is/are correct? transition? (Phenomenons) (Dates)
1. The point of origin of 1. High death rate and birthrate,
low growth rate. A. Summer Solstice 1. 21st June
earthquake is called epicenter.
B. Winter Solstice 2. 22nd December
2. The lines joining the places 2. Rapid decline in death rate,
continued low birthrate, very C. Vernal Equinox 3. 23rd September
which were affected D. Autumnal Equinox 4. 21st March
earthquake at the same point low growth rate.
of time are called homoseismal 3. Rapid decline in birthrate, Codes
lines. continued decline in death A B C D A B C D
rate. (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3
Select the correct answer using 4. Low death rate and birthrate, (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
the codes given below. low growth rate.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 71. Arrange the following features
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using formed by rivers in its course
the codes given below.
starting from upstream.
61. ‘Population dividend’ refers to (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 1. Meanders 2. Falls
(a) total number of population
(b) youthful age structure of a 3. Delta 4. Oxbow Lake
population Select the correct answer using the
(c) relatively high proportion of
2014 (II) codes given below.
experienced aged people 67. Plate tectonics is a scientific (a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) migration from richer region to theory that describes the large (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 4, 2, 3
poorer region scale motions of Earth’s 72. Collision-Coalescence process of
62. On 8th November, 2013, many lithosphere. Which one among precipitation is applicable to
people died in Philippines after a the following statements (a) clouds which extend beyond freezing
regarding plate tectonics is not level
super typhoon ravaged the
correct? (b) those clouds which do not extend
country. What was the name of (a) Tectonic plates are composed of
the typhoon? beyond the freezing level
Oceanic lithosphere and thicker
(a) Haiyan (b) Utor Continental lithosphere. (c) all types of clouds
(c) Phailin (d) Nesat (b) Tectonic plates are able to move (d) cumulonimbus cloud
63. Which of the following is/are because the Earth’s lithosphere 73. Baiji oil refinery is located at
has a higher strength than the (a) Iran (b) Iraq
direct source(s) of information underlying asthenosphere.
about the interior of the Earth? (c) South Sudan (d) Russia
(c) The Earth’s lithosphere is broken
1. Earthquake wave up into tectonic plates. Directions (Q. Nos. 74-75) The
2. Volcano (d) Along divergent plate boundaries, following items consist of two
3. Gravitational force subduction carries plates into the
mantle. statements, Statement I and Statement
4. Earth magnetism II. You are to examine these two
Select the correct answer using 68. MONEX is associated with statements carefully and select the
the codes given below. (a) Montreal experiment
(b) monetary experiment
answers to these items using the codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 given below.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these (c) lunar experiment
(d) monsoon experiment Codes
64. Which one of the following is (a) Both the statements are individually true
depositional landform? 69. Consider the diagram given below
and Statement II is the correct
(a) Stalagmite (b) Lapis 1012 mb 1020 mb explanation of Statement I
(c) Sinkhole (d) Cave (b) Both the statements are individually true,
A B but Statement II is not the correct
65. Which of the following statements
regarding the duration of day and explanation of Statement I
998 mb
night is correct? (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
false
(a) Difference is least near the Equator C
and progressively increases away (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
from it true
(b) Difference is maximum at the The diagram represents the 74. Statement I A tsunami is a series
Equator and progressively pressure conditions of three
of water waves caused by
decreases away from it different places, viz,. A, B and C.
displacement of a large volume of
(c) Difference is least at the Tropics Which of the following is the
water of an ocean.
and progressively increases correct direction of movement of
towards the Equator and Poles winds? Statement II A tsunami can be
(d) Difference is maximum at the (a) Blow from B towards A and C. generated when thrust faults
Tropics and progressively (b) Blow from C towards A and B. associated with convergent or
decreases towards the Equator (c) Blow from B to A and from A to C. destructive plate boundaries move
and Poles (d) Blow from B to C and C to B. abruptly.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 893

75. Statement I The Atacama is the 79. In the absence of Cold Labrador 83. The Earth without rotational
driest among the deserts of the Current, which one among the movement would result into
World. following would happen? 1. no Sun-rise and Sun-set.
Statement II The aridity of the (a) There will be no North-East Atlantic 2. no occurrence of day and night
fishing grounds
Atacama is explained by its cycle.
(b) There will be no North-West
location between two mountain Atlantic fishing grounds 3. only one season.
chains of sufficient height to (c) There will be no fishing ground in Select the correct answer using the
prevent moisture advection from the North Atlantic ocean codes given below.
either the Pacific or the Atlantic (d) Semi-arid condition of the Atlantic (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
Ocean. coast of the USA and Canada (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
76. Which among the following is/are would prevail
84. Match the following
correct statement(s) about 80. Match the following
Malawi? List I List II
List I List II (Ocean Currents) (Locations in Map)
1. Malawi is a landlocked country (Ocean Currents) (Coasts)
in South-East Africa that was A. Guinea current
formerly known as Nyasaland. A. Humboldt 1. Namibia-Angola
2. It has presidential system with B. North Atlantic 2. Chile-Peru B. Oyashio current 1

unitary form of government. Drift C. Canaries current

3. Malawi’s economy is highly C. Benguela 3. Mozambique- D. Kuroshio current
dependent on agriculture and Madagascar
majority of the population is D. Agulhas 4. Norway-United Codes
rural. Kingdom
A B C D A B C D
Select the correct answer using Codes (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
the codes given below. A B C D A B C D (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 1 3 2
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) All of these (d) 1 and 3 (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 85. Arrange the following layers of
atmosphere vertically from the
2015 (I) Directions (Q. Nos. 81-82) The surface of the Earth
following items consist of two 1. Mesosphere 2. Troposphere
77. Seismic gaps are
statements, Statement I and 3. Stratosphere 4. Thermosphere
(a) parts of plate boundaries in
oceans where tsunamis occur Statement II. You are to examine Codes
frequently these two statements carefully and (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) sections of plate boundaries that select the answers to these items (c) 2, 3,1, 4 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1
have ruptured repeatedly in the using the codes given below.
recent past
Codes 2015 (II)
(c) sections of plate boundaries that
have not ruptured in the recent (a) Both the statements are individually 86. Which one of the following is the
true and Statement II is the correct
past pattern of circulation around a low
explanation of Statement I
(d) plate boundaries having no pressure area in the Northern
volcanic activity (b) Both the statements are individually
true, but Statement II is not the hemisphere?
78. Consider the contour plot given correct explanation of Statement I (a) Counter-clockwise and away from the
below (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II centre
is false (b) Clockwise and away from the centre
1800
1700

1600
1500
1400
1300

1200

1100

(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II (c) Counter-clockwise and towards the
is true centre
1000
(d) Clockwise and towards the centre
81. Statement I Tides are the rise
900 and fall of sea levels caused by 87. Which one of the following
800
the combined effects of the statements about the atmosphere is
gravitational forces exerted by correct?
700 the Moon and the Sun and the (a) The atmosphere has definite upper
600 rotation of the Earth. limits, but gradually thins until it
500 Statement II The Earth rotates becomes imperceptible
from the West towards the East (b) The atmosphere has no definite upper
once in 24 hours with respect to limits, but gradually thins until it
Contour in Metres the Sun. becomes imperceptible
(c) The atmosphere has definite upper
The above contours of an area 82. Statement I Sideral day is limits, but gradually thickens until it
indicate several relief features. shorter than Solar day. becomes imperceptible
Which one among the following (d) The atmosphere has no definite upper
Statement II The motion of the
relief features is not depicted here? limits, but gradually thickens until it
(a) Steep slope (b) River valley Earth in its orbit around the Sun
becomes imperceptible
(c) Conical hill (d) Gentle slope is termed as revolution.
894 CDS Pathfinder

88. Which one of the following Codes 3. Rainy and dry seasons are found
statements is correct? A B C D A B C D in both the climates.
(a) Cold fronts move at slower rate (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 Select the correct answer using the
than warm fronts and therefore, (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 codes given below.
cannot overtake the warm fronts (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
92. Match the following
(b) Cold fronts normally move faster (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
than warm fronts and therefore, List II
List I 96. Which one of the following is the
frequently overtake the warm fronts (Landforms/
(Weathering Types) correct sequence of the given planets
(c) Cold fronts move at slower rate Processes)
and eventually, they are overtaken A. Chemical weathering 1. Till
in increasing order of their size
by the warm fronts B. Mechanical weathering 2. Oxidation
(diameter)?
(d) Cold fronts move faster than warm (a) Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Uranus
C. Glacial deposits 3. Plant roots
fronts, but they cannot overtake the (b) Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth, Uranus
D. Deposition by ground water 4. Stalactite
warm fronts (c) Mercury, Mars, Venus, Uranus, Earth
Codes (d) Venus, Mercury, Mars, Earth, Uranus
89. Statement I The Kuroshio is a A B C D A B C D
warm North-flowing ocean 97. Which of the following statement(s)
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 is/are correct?
current on the West side of the (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
North Pacific ocean. 1. The Earth is nearest to the Sun
93. If a ship has to go from Chennai at Perihelion, which generally
Statement II Presence of a to Kochi, it has to go around Sri occurs on 3rd January.
number of volcanoes at the Lanka rather than crossing 2. The Earth is farthest away from
bottom of the sea of Japan is through the Palk Strait. Why? the Sun at Perihelion, which
responsible for the Kuroshio (a) The Palk Strait has disputed islands generally occurs on 4th July.
becoming warm. and the Sri Lankan Navy does not 3. The Earth is farthest away from
allow the ships to cross through the Sun at Aphelion, which
Codes
(b) It is too shallow for ships to cross generally occurs on 4th July.
(a) Both the statements are individually
(c) Shipping is prohibited through the
true and Statement II is the correct 4. The Earth is nearest to the Sun
strait due to its religious
explanation of Statement I significance connected with the at Aphelion, which generally
(b) Both the statements are individually epic Ramayana occurs on 3rd January.
true, but Statement II is not the (d) The around Sri Lanka route is Select the correct answer using the
correct explanation of Statement I actually shorter than crossing codes given below.
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II through the Palk Strait (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 4
is false (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
94. Which of the following facts are
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement
II is true
related to Burma (Myanmar)? 98. Which one of the following is the
1. It shares its borders with cause of long-term sea-level change?
90. Which of the following elements India, China, Bangladesh and (a) Atmospheric disturbance
are found in highest and lowest Vietnam. (b) Change in marine water density
quantities respectively in the 2. It is ruled by a military (c) Melting of icebergs
crust of the Earth? government. (d) Melting of ice sheets
(a) Oxygen and silicon 3. The National League for
(b) Calcium and sodium Democracy was not allowed to 99. Which one of the following is the
(c) Sodium and magnesium contest the elections held in reason due to which the wind in the
(d) Oxygen and magnesium the year 2010. Southern hemisphere is deflected
4. Myanmar is a member of towards its left?
91. Match the following ASEAN. (a) Difference in the water masses of
List I List II Select the correct answer using Northern and Southern hemisphere
(Climates) (Characteristics) the codes given below. (b) Temperature and pressure variations
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (c) Inclined axis of the Earth
A. Mediterranean 1. Temperature cycle is
moderated by marine (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 (d) Rotation of the Earth
influence
100. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has
B. Marine West 2. Warm summers and
Coast cold winters with 3 2016 (I) (a) abnormally high temperature and
lowest pressure
months below freezing.
Very large annual 95. Which of the following statements (b) abnormally low temperature and
temperature range regarding Mediterranean and pressure
C. Dry 3. Strong temperature Monsoon climate is/are correct? (c) clear sky and lowest temperature
Mid-Latitude cycle with large annual 1. Precipitation in Mediterranean
range. Warm summers
(d) dense cloud cover and low pressure
to hot and cold winters climate is in winter while in
Monsoon climate it is mostly 101. Stalactites and stalagmites are
to very cold
in summer. features of
D. Moist 4. Temperature range is
Continental moderate with warm to 2. The annual range of (a) glacial topography
hot summers and mild temperature in Mediterranean (b) volcanic topography
winters climate is higher than the (c) karst topography
Monsoon climate. (d) fluvial topography
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 895

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 c 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 b 6 c 7 c 8 d 9 b 10 c
11 a 12 b 13 b 14 c 15 d 16 c 17 a 18 a 19 b 20 c
21 c 22 d 23 d 24 d 25 d 26 c 27 a 28 a 29 d 30 a
31 a 32 c 33 a 34 a 35 c 36 c 37 a 38 d 39 a 40 d
41 c 42 b 43 a 44 d 45 d 46 d 47 a 48 b 49 a 50 c
51 a 52 a 53 b 54 d 55 a 56 b 57 d 58 a 59 b 60 c
61 d 62 c 63 a 64 d 65 d 66 c 67 b 68 b 69 b 70 d
71 d 72 c 73 b 74 d 75 b 76 d 77 d 78 d 79 d 80 a
81 b 82 c 83 d 84 b 85 c 86 b 87 d 88 c 89 d 90 b
91 b 92 c 93 c 94 d 95 a 96 d 97 d 98 c 99 b 100 c
101 b 102 d 103 b 104 c 105 d 106 d 107 b 108 d 109 c 110 b
111 a 112 c 113 d 114 b 115 c 116 b 117 c 118 d 119 a 120 b
121 c 122 c 123 c 124 d 125 a 126 b 127 c 128 c 129 d 130 b
131 c 132 b 133 c 134 c 135 b 136 a 137 c 138 b 139 c 140 c
141 a 142 c 143 a 144 d 145 a 146 b 147 a 148 b 149 c 150 d
151 c 152 c 153 b 154 a 155 d

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 c 2 b 3 a 4 b 5 d 6 c 7 a 8 c 9 d 10 a
11 a 12 d 13 b 14 b 15 a 16 b 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 d
21 c 22 a 23 b 24 c 25 a 26 b 27 c 28 a 29 b 30 c
31 d 32 c 33 d 34 a 35 b 36 b 37 c 38 c 39 c 40 b
41 b 42 c 43 c 44 d 45 a 46 a 47 d 48 a 49 c 50 c
51 b 52 d 53 b 54 c 55 d 56 b 57 c 58 d 59 b 60 b
61 b 62 a 63 b 64 a 65 a 66 d 67 d 68 d 69 a 70 b
71 b 72 b 73 b 74 a 75 a 76 c 77 c 78 c 79 b 80 b
81 b 82 b 83 b 84 b 85 c 86 c 87 b 88 b 89 c 90 d
91 d 92 a 93 b 94 b 95 c 96 b 97 c 98 d 99 d 100 c
101 c
896 CDS Pathfinder

PART II INDIAN GEOGRAPHY

India occupies a South-Central position in the Asian Indian Standard Time (IST)
continent, looking across the Arabian sea to Arabia and
• India has only one standard time.
Africa on the West and across Bay of Bengal to
Myanmar, Malaysia and the Indonesian Archipelago on • India is 5.5 hours ahead of GMT/UTC, 4.5 hours behind
the East. Geographically, the Himalayan ranges keep Australian Eastern standard time and 10.5 hours ahead of
India apart from the rest of Asia. India derives her name American Eastern standard time.
from river Indus. 1°
• The 82 E longitude that passes through Allahabad city is
2
Location choosen as standard longitude for Indian standard time.
India is often described as a tropical country although a
large part of India lies in sub-tropics. The territorial RELIEF AND
limits of the Indian mainland extend between 8° 4´ N and
37° 6´ N latitudes and 68° 7´ E and 97° 25´ E longitudes. PHYSIOGRAPHIC DIVISIONS
Physiography is the branch of geography, which studies the
Area and Extent present relief features of the Earth’s surface or of natural
• India ranks 7th in the world in terms of area after features in their causal relationships. The physiographic
Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil and Australia. diversity of India embraces fold mountains, flat plains and
one of the oldest plateaus of the world.
• It has a total land area of about 3287263 sq km, i.e.
about 33 lakh sq km. India is divided into five physiographic units :
• It is second largest in terms of population and holds
17.4% of the total world population, the land area of
1. The Himalayas
India amounts only to 2.4% of the total world The Northern mountain wall is a series of high mountain
landmass. ranges stretching over the Northern borders of India.
• India is the second largest country in Asia both in • The geologically young and structurally fold mountain
terms of area as well as population, after China. ranges, the Himalayas run in West-East direction from the
Indus to the Brahmaputra.
• They form an arc, which covers a distance of about
2400 km. Their width varies from 400 km in Kashmir to
Country States 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh.
Pakistan Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat • The altitudinal variations are greater in the Eastern half
China Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, than those in the Western half.
Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh
The Himalayas range is classified into four longitudinal
Nepal Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Sikkim series of mountains, which are as follow
Bhutan Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh i. Trans-Himalayas North of the Greater Himalayas lie
Myanmar Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram the Trans-Himalayas or the Tibet Himalayas. This
Bangladesh West Bengal, Meghalaya, Assam, Tripura, Mizoram section is older than Himalayas. This range acts as a
watershed between rivers flowing towards South and
• State with longest coastline is Gujarat. those flowing towards North. These ranges are about 40
• Active volcanoes are in Barren island in Andaman km wide and rise in height upto 5000 m. They include
and Nicobar islands. the Karakoram, Zanskar and Ladakh ranges.
• Northern most point of India is Indira Col. ii. Greater Himalayas or Himadri The Northern most
• Southern most point is Indira point or Pygmalion important range is known as the Great or Inner
point in Great Nicobar. Himalayas or the Himadri.
• Southern most tip of mainland is Kanyakumari. iii. Himachal Himalayas The range lying to the South of
• Eastern most point is Kibithu, Arunachal Pradesh. the Himadri, forms the most rugged mountain system
and is known as Himachal or Lesser Himalayas or
• Western most point is Guhar moti in Kutch, Gujarat.
Middle Himalayas.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 897

iv. Shivaliks The outermost range of the Himalayas is Name State Features
called the Shivaliks. They extend over a width of Rohtang pass Himachal It is a high mountain pass on Eastern Pir
10-50 km and have an altitude varying between 900 and Pradesh Panjal range of the Himalayas around 51
1100 m. These ranges are composed of unconsolidated km from Manali. It connects the Kullu of
Himachal Pradesh, India.
sediments brought down by rivers from the main
Himalayan ranges located in North. Shipki La Himachal The river Sutlej enters India through this
Pradesh pass.
v. The Purvanchal After crossing the Dihang Gorge,
Jelep La Sikkim Jelep La is a high mountain pass
the Himalayas take a sudden Southward turn and
between India and Tibet in East Sikkim
form a series of comparatively low hills in the shape District of Sikkim. The famous Menmecho
of crescent with it’s convex side pointing towards the lake lies below the Jelep La pass.
West. These hills are known as Purvanchal. Nathu La Sikkim It connects the Indian State of Sikkim
with China’s tibet autonomous region.
IMPORTANT PEAKS Lipulekh pass Uttarakhand It is a Himalayan pass connecting the
●
Highest mountain peak in India K2 or Godwin Kumaon region of Uttarakhand in the
Pithoragarh district in India with the old
Austin (PoK).
trading town of Talakot in Tibet.
●
Highest peak of India in Himalaya is Kangchenjunga.
Highest peak in Eastern Ghats Arma Konda (AP).
●

●
Highest mountain peak in Western ghats Annaimudi.
2. The Great Indian Plain
●
Highest peak in Aravali is Gurushikhar in Mount • To the South of Himalayas and North of Peninsula lies
Abu. the Great Plain of North India. It is an aggradational
●
Highest peak in Satpura and Mahadeo hills
plain formed mainly by the work of 3 rivers systems
Dhupgarh. viz, the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
• This is the largest alluvial tract of the world, extending
●
Highest peak in Nilgiris Doda Betta.
for a length of 3200 km and width varies between 150
●
Highest peak in Andaman and Nicobar Islands
to 300 km.
Saddle Peak.
Regional division of Great Plain of India are as follows :
●
Highest peak of Naga hills Saramati Peak.
Punjab-Haryana Plain
• The western part of the Northern Plain is known as
Punjab-Haryana Plain. Its Eastern boundary in Haryana
Name State Features is formed by the Yamuna river. It also includes
Banihal pass Jammu and Banihal pass is a pass across the Pir North-Eastern part of Rajasthan.
Kashmir Panjal range at 2832 m. This mountain • Depositional processes by the rivers continuing since
range separates the Kashmir valley in the long, has united these doabs. However, this mass of
Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir from
the outer Himalayas and plains to the
alluvium is broken by bluffs, locally known as Dhayas.
South.
Ganga Plain
Changla pass Jammu and Highest mountain pass in Ladakh. The
Kashmir Changla is on the route to Pangong lake This is the largest unit of Great Plain of India. Depending
from Leh. upon its geological variations, this plain can be furthur
Khardung La Jammu and Khardung La is historically important as it sub-divided into the following three divisions :
Kashmir lies on the major caravan route from Leh (i) Upper Ganga Plain
to Kashgar in Central Asia.
• Compacting the upper part of Ganga plain, this plain is
Namika La Jammu and Namika La is one of two high passes
Kashmir between Kargil and Leh, the other is the
delimited by 300 m contour in Shiwaliks in the North,
even higher Fotu La pass. the Peninsular body in the South and course of Yamuna
river in the West and 100 m contour in East.
Zoji La pass Jammu and Zoji La is a high mountain pass in India,
Kashmir located on the Indian National Highway-1 • The gradient is comparatively steeper in the North.
between Srinagar and Leh in the Western
sections of mountain range.
(ii) Middle Ganga Plain
• To the East of upper Ganga plain, lies middle Ganga
Bara-lacha La Himachal Also known as Bara-lacha pass. Highest
Pradesh mountain pass in Zaskar range plain occupying Eastern part of Uttar Pradesh and
connecting Lahaul district in Himachal Bihar.
Pradesh to Ladakh in Jammu and • This plain is drained by the Ghaghara, the Gandak and
Kashmir.
the Kosi rivers.
898 CDS Pathfinder

• Major unit of this plain are valley, divides the region into two Hill Ranges of Peninsula
Ganga-Ghaghara doab, Ghaghara- parts namely, the Central Highlands
Gandak doab and Gandak-Kosi in its North and the Deccan plateau The Aravalli Ranges
doab (Mithila plain). in its South. • It runs North-East to South-West
for 800 km from Delhi through
(iii) Lower Ganga Plain
Plateaus of Rajasthan to Palanpur in Gujarat.
• Some districts of Bihar and whole
of West Bengal are part of this Peninsular India • It has a lower elevation between
Delhi and Ajmer, where it is
plain. The Northern part of this The Deccan Plateau
characterised by a chain of
plain has been formed by sediment • It is the largest unit of the
discontinuous ranges.
deposited by the Tista, Jaldhaka Peninsular plateau of India with an
and Torsa. • Gurushikhar (1722 m) is the
elevation of 600 m. It is higher in
• This area is marked by drawn and the South than in its North. highest peak of the range, located
in Abu hills of Rajasthan.
barren plain, a tract of old alluvium • It generally slopes from West to East
between Kosi-Mahananda corridor and various big rivers of Southern The Vindhyan Ranges
in the West and the river Sankosh India like Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri • It runs parallel to the Narmada
in the East. etc flow through it. Rift valley as an escarpment in an
• The delta formation accounts for • Karnataka plateau with Archean East-West direction from Jobat in
about two-thirds of this plain. This formations lies to the South of Gujarat to Sasaram in Bihar for a
is the largest delta in the world. Maharashtra plateau having rocks of distance of 1200 km.
Large part of the coastal deltas is lava origin in Northern Karnataka The Satpura Ranges
coverd by thick inaccessible tidal called Malnad region and the rest • It is a series of seven mountains
forests called Sunderbans. of the red soil region of the plateau that run in the East-West
Brahmaputra Plain called Maidan. direction in between Narmada
• Western boundary of these plains Meghalaya Plateau and Tapi rivers. It is an example
are formed by Indo-Bangladesh • It is extension of peninsular plateau,
of block mountain.
border as well as boundary of which has been separated by huge • Amarkantak is meeting point of
lower Ganga plain. The fault. Fault is between Rajmahal hills Vindhyan and Satpura range.
Brahmaputra river enters this plain and Meghalaya plateau.
near Sadiya and flows further to The Eastern Ghats
Bangladesh after turning The Chotanagpur Plateau • These are discontinuous and
Southwards near Dhubri. • It lies East of Baghelkhand in the irregular and dissected by rivers
• There are large marshy tracts in state of Jharkhand covering some draining into the Bay of Bengal.
this region and Southern tributaries parts of Chhattisgarh and • The Eastern ghats stretch from
of Brahmaputra also have West Bengal. Its average elevation is the South of Mahanadi valley to
meandering course and there are 700 m above sea level. the Nilgiris in the South. The
good number of bhils and ox-bow • It is the storehouse of minerals and a Eastern ghats are comparatively
lakes. large scale mining of iron, broader and do not form a
manganese, coal, uranium etc is done continuous water divide.
3. The Peninsular in this region. The Western Ghats or
• Damodar river valley is well-known Sahyadris
Plateau for its coal deposits. • Sahyadris form the Western edge
• The Peninsular plateau is a The Malwa Plateau of the Deccan plateau and lie
tableland composed of mainly • Largely in Western Madhya Pradesh parallel to the Western coast.
Archean gneisses and schists. It and South-Eastern Rajasthan forms a They form a continuous water
was formed due to the breaking triangular shape and is typical for divide.
and drifting of the Gondwana land having two systems of drainage. • It run continuously for 1600 km
and thus making it a part of the from Maharashtra to
oldest landmass. This region of the The Marwar Uplands Kanyakumari and can be crossed
country is surrounded on three • The Marwar uplands of Eastern through passes only.
sides by water and thus is a Rajasthan lie to the East of Aravalli
• Highest mountain peak in
Peninsular plateau. ranges. They are made up of
Western ghat is Annaimudi. The
• The plateau has broad and shallow sandstones and limestones of the
Western ghats are higher than the
valleys and rounded hills. Narmada Vindhyan period.
Eastern ghats.
river, which flows into a Rift
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 899

• The islands North of 11° N latitude • It originates from a glacier near

4. The Coastal Plains are known as Amindivi islands and Bokhar Chu in the Tibetan region
The Peninsular plateau is flanked by those South of it are Cannanore near Mansarovar lake. In Tibet, it is
stretch of narrow coastal strips, running islands. known as Singi Khamban or Lion’s
along the Arabian sea on the West and mouth.
the Bay of Bengal on the East. Andaman and Nicobar • In Jammu and Kashmir, its

Eastern Coastal Plains Islands Himalayan tributaries are Zanskar,

• Andaman and Nicobar archipelago Dras, Gartang, Shyok, Shingar,
• The plains along the Bay of Bengal, Nubra, Gilgit etc. Its most
has been formed by the extension of
i.e. the Eastern coastal plains are the tertiary mountain chains of important tributaries, which join
wide and level. Arakan yoma. These islands lie close Indus at various places, are Jhelum,
• In the Northern part, they are to equator and experience equatorial Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej.
referred to as the Utkal plains and climate and have thick forest cover.
Northern Circars, while the Southern Some of the islands are fringed with The Ganga River System
part is known as the Coromandel coral reefs. • The Ganga system is the second
coast. • The entire group of islands is major drainage system of India. It
divided into two broad rises in the Gangotri glacier near
Western Coastal Plains categories–The Andamans in the Gaumukh (3900 m) in the
• It run almost parallel between North and the Nicobars in the Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as
Sahyadris and Arabian sea, from South. The Great Andaman group the Bhagirathi. At Devprayag,
Kanyakumari to Surat. of islands in the North is separated the Bhagirathi, meets the
by the Ten Degree Channel from Alaknanda, hereafter, it is known as
• North to South it has seen classified
the Nicobar group in the South. the Ganga.
as Kathiawar plain, Konkan plain,
• The Alaknanda has its source in
Karnataka plain and Malabar plain
the Satopanth glacier above
along the Kerala coast. DRAINAGE Badrinath. The Alaknanda consists
Rajasthan Desert SYSTEM OF INDIA of the Dhauli and the Vishnu
Ganga, which meet at Joshimath or
• Also known as Thar or Great Indian • India is blessed with hundreds of Vishnu Prayag. The other
desert, which covers Western large and small rivers, which drains
Rajasthan and the adjoining part of tributaries of Alaknanda such as the
the length and breadth of the Pindar joins it at Karna Prayag,
Pakistan. Desert is called Marusthali. country. Water drains in two
while Mandakini or Kali Ganga
• The Eastern part of the Marusthali is direction of the main water divide
meets it at Rudra Prayag.
rocky, while its Western part is line of India. 90% of land water
covered by shifting sand dunes drains into Bay of Bengal and the • The left bank tributaries of Ganga
locally called dhrian. rest drains into Arabian sea. are Ramganga, Gomti, Kali or
• The Eastern part of Thar desert upto • The Indian rivers are divided into Sharda, Gandak, Kosi and
Aravalli range is semi-arid plain, following two major groups Mahanadi. The right bank
which is known as Rajasthan tributaries of Ganga are Yamuna
i. The Himalayan Rivers
Bagar. It is drained by a number of and Son. Yamuna joins the Ganga at
ii. The Peninsular Rivers Allahabad.
seasonal streams creating fertile tracts
locally known as Rohi. • Kosi is called as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’
The Himalayan Rivers while Damodar is called as ‘Sorrow
The Himalayan river system is divided
5. The Islands into three major river system, which
of Bengal’ as these cause floods in
these regions. Hooghly is a
Apart from the large number of islands are as follow distributory of Ganga flowing
in the near proximity of the Indian
through Kolkata.
coast, there are two main groups of The Indus River System
islands in the Indian Ocean far away
from the coast.
• The Indus, also known as Sindhu, is The Brahmaputra River
the Western most of Himalayan System
rivers in India. It is one of the
Lakshadweep Islands largest river basins of the world • It is one of the largest river of the
• These islands group lies close to the covering an area of 1165000 sq km world. It is known as Tsangpo in
Malabar coast of Kerala. This group (in India it is 321289 sq km) and a Tibet, Dihang or Siang in Arunachal
of 25 islands is composed of small total length of 2880 km (in India Pradesh, Brahmaputra in Assam and
coral islands. 1114 km). Jamuna in Bangladesh.
900 CDS Pathfinder

• Brahmaputra forms largest number of riverine islands.

Majuli is the largest riverine island in the world. The
combined stream of Ganga and Brahmaputra forms the Name of Dam State River
biggest delta in the world, the Sunderbans, covering an Srisailam Dam Andhra Pradesh Krishna River
area of 58752 sq km. Its major part is in Bangladesh. Ukai Dam Gujarat Tapti River
• Brahmaputra is volume wise largest river of India, Pandoh Dam Himachal Pradesh Beas River
whereas lengthwise Ganga is the longest in India. Bhakra Nangal Dam Himachal Pradesh Sutlej River
Tributaries of river are–Manar, Subanshri, Dibang and and Punjab Border
Lohit. Nathpa Jhakri Dam Himachal Pradesh Sutlej River
Chamera Dam Himachal Pradesh Ravi River
The Peninsular River System Baglihar Dam Jammu and Kashmir Chenab River
• The Peninsular drainage system is older than the Uri Hydroelectric Dam Jammu and Kashmir Jhelum River
Himalayan one. A large number of the Peninsular rivers Maithon Dam Jharkhand Barakar River
are seasonal, as their flow is dependent on rainfall. Panchet Dam Jharkhand Damodar River
• Most of the major rivers of the Peninsula such as
Tungabhadra Dam Karnataka Tungabhadra
Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery flow River
Eastwards and drain into the Bay of Bengal. These rivers Krishna Raja Sagara Dam Karnataka Kaveri River
make deltas at their mouths.
Idukki Dam Kerala Periyar River
• Narmada and Tapi are the only long rivers, which flow
Parambikulam Dam Kerala Parambikulam
Westward and make estuaries rather than making a delta River
because of their swift flow and steep slopes. The drainage Mullaperiyar Dam Kerala Periyar River
basins of the Peninsular rivers are comparatively smaller
Bargi Dam Madhya Pradesh Narmada River
in size.
Bansagar Dam Madhya Pradesh Sone River

Lakes Gandhi Sagar Dam Madhya Pradesh Chambal River

Koyna Dam Maharashtra Koyna River
A lake is an area of variable size that is filled with water Indravati Dam Odisha Indravati River
and surrounded by land. Lakes from due to receding Hirakud Dam Odisha Mahanadi River
glaciers, plate tectonics, volcanism, meandering rivers, Mettur Dam Tamil Nadu Kaveri River
landslides and human damming. Man-made lakes are
Govind Ballabh Pant Uttar Pradesh Rihand River
referred as reservoirs. Facts related to Indian lakes are given Sagar Dam also Rihand
below Dam
• Wular lake (Jammu and Kashmir) is the largest fresh Tehri Dam Uttarakhand Bhagirathi River
water lake in India. Tulbul Navigation Project is located RESERVOIRS
on this. Himayat Sagar Reservoir Telangana Osman Sagar
• Sambhar, Didwana, Lunkaransar, Panchpadra are some of Gobind Sagar Reservoir Himachal Pradesh Sutlej River
the important saline lakes of Rajasthan. Maharana Pratap Sagar Himachal Pradesh Pong Dam Lake
• Ukai reservoir (Gujarat) is a man-made lake on river Reservoir
Tapi. Ranapratap Sagar and Jawahar Sagar (Rajasthan) and Salal Project Jammu and Kashmir Chenab River
Gandhi Sagar (Madhya Pradesh) are located on river Chutak Hydroelectric Jammu and Kashmir
Chambal. Govind Sagar (Himachal Pradesh) is a huge Project
reservoir. Indirasagar Project Madhya Pradesh Narmada River
• Nagarjuna Sagar (Andhra-Telangana) on river Krishna, Narmada Dam Project Madhya Pradesh Narmada River
Nizam Sagar (Telangana) on Manjra and Tungabhadra Rihand Project Uttar Pradesh Rihand River and
(Karnataka) on Tungabhadra are man-made lakes. Son River
• Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar (Chhattisgarh-Uttar Pradesh)
has been constructed on Rihand. Stanley reservoir is
located in Tamil Nadu on Kaveri. THE CLIMATE OF INDIA
• Loktak lake (Manipur) is the largest fresh water lake in • India has tropical monsoon type of climate. It is greatly
North-Eastern India. Keibul Lamjao is a floating national influenced by the presence of Himalayas in the North
park located inside the lake. as they block the cold masses from Central Asia. It is
• Chilika lake (Odisha) is the largest lagoon in India. because of Himalayas that the monsoons shed their
Kolleru lake (Andhra Pradesh) is a lake located around water in India.
delta region. Pulicat lake (Andhra Pradesh) is a lagoon. • The Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N) divide India into two
• Vembanad is located in Kerala. Lonar lake is a crater lake almost equal climatic zones, namely; the Northern zone
located in Buldhana, Maharashtra. (sub-tropical) and the Southern zone (tropical).
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 901

• The warm temperature or the Indian vegetation can be divided • It include areas—along the
sub-tropical climate of the Northern into the following groups Western ghats surrounding the
zone gives it cold winter seasons and belt of evergreen forests, a strip
hot summer seasons. The Southern Tropical Forests along the Shiwalik range including
tropical climate zone is warmer than Terai and Bhabar from 77°E to
the North and does not have a clear cut Tropical forests are divided
into–Moist Forest and Dry Forest 88°E, hills of Eastern Madhya
winter season. Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
• The Southern zone has the midday Sun Moist Forest Chhotanagpur and part of Odisha
almost vertically overhead at least twice and West Bengal.
Moist forest can be classified as :
every year and the Northern zone does • Species of trees found in this
not have the mid-day Sun vertically Tropical Wet Evergreen
forests are teak, sal, laurel, white
overhead during any part of the year. Forests
chuglam, badam, mahua and
• There are various factors which • It is found in the areas where bamboo etc.
influence the climate of India. Location the annual rainfall exceeds 250
and latitude plays an important role in cm. Littoral and Swamp Forests
affecting climate of India. Tropic of • The annual temperature is about • These forests occur in and around
Cancer divides, India into tropical and 25°-27°C, the average annual the deltas, estuaries and creeks.
sub-tropical climatic regions. Indian humidity exceeds 77% and the • Species of trees found
ocean influences the climate of dry season is distinctly short. are—sundari, rhizophora, srwpines,
peninsular.
• It includes areas—the Western sonnoratic etc.
• Himalayan range protects India from side of the Western ghats, a • These forests can survive and
bitterly cold and dry winds from strip running from North-East
Central Asia and moreover acts as grow both in fresh as well as
to South-West direction across brackish water.
barrier in bringing monsoonal rainfall. Arunachal Pradesh, upper
Heating of interior part during summer Assam, Nagaland, Andaman and
attracts monsoon winds and cause Dry Forest
Nicobar Island mahogony,
monsoon rainfall. In winter Western eboagle. Dry forest can be classified as :
disturbance cause snowfall in mountains
• Species of trees found in this Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests
and rainfall in plains.
forests are white cedar, mesua, • These are found along the coasts
jamun, hopea, mahogony, ebony of Tamil Nadu, these forests occur
Seasons in India etc. in short stature.
Indian climate is characterised by distinct
Tropical Semi-Evergreen • Annual rainfall is about 100 cm
seasonality. Indian Meteorological
Forests and the mean annual temperature
Department (IMD) has recognised the
following four distinct seasons • These are found in the region is about 28°C.
where the annual rainfall is • The mean humidity is about 15%,
i. The cold season or winter season.
200-250 cm. species of trees found here are
ii. The hot weather season or summer
• The mean annual temperature khirni, jamun, tamarind, neem etc.
season.
varies from 24°-27°C and the
iii. The South-West monsoon season or Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
relative humidity is about 75%.
rainy season. • These are similar to moist deciduous
• It includes areas—Western coast,
iv. The season of the retreating monsoon forests and shed their leaves in dry
Assam lower slopes of the
or cool season. season.
Eastern Himalayas, Odisha and
Andamans. • These forests can grow in areas of
even less rainfall of 100-150 cm
NATURAL • Species of trees—aini, semul,
per annum.
kadam, rosewood, kusum etc.
VEGETATION OF INDIA • Species of trees— teak, axlewood,
Tropical Moist Deciduous tendu, palas, bel etc.
India is a land of great variety of natural Forests
vegetation. Himalayas are marked with Tropical Thorn Forests
• These are found in the areas
temperate vegetation; Western Ghats and • These forests generally occur in
having rainfall of 100 to 200 cm the area of low rainfall and high
Andaman and Nicobar islands have per annum.
tropical rain forests; deltaic regions have temperature.
• Mean annual temperature of
tropical forests and mangroves; desert and • Species of trees found are—Khair,
about 27°C the average relative
semi desert areas are known for variety of Neem, Babul, Cacti, Palas etc.
humidity of 60 to 70%.
bushes and thorny vegetation.
902 CDS Pathfinder

• The areas are North-Western parts • They are found in the higher hills of
of the country including Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Kerala, in the Eastern
Major Soils of India
South-Western Punjab, Western Himalayan region to the East of 88° E On the basis of genesis, colour,
Haryana, Kutch etc. longitude. composition and location, the soils of
Himalayan Moist Temperate Forests India have been classified into the
Sub-tropical Forest • These forests are mainly composed of
following types
Sub-tropical forest are of three types coniferous species such as pines, cedars,
silver, firs, spruce etc are most
Alluvial Soil
Sub-tropical Broad-leaved Hill
important trees. • They cover the largest area in
Forests
India (40%) and is the most
• These forests occur in the Eastern • These forests occur in the temperate
important soil from agricultural
Himalayas to the East of 88°E zone of the Himalayas between 1500
and 3300 m. Rainfall varies from 150 point of view. Alluvial soil is
longitude at altitudes varying from widespread in the Northern
1000 to 2000 m. cm to 250 cm.
plains and the river valleys.
• The mean annual rainfall is 75 cm to Himalayan Dry Temperate Forests Through a narrow corridor in
125 cm, average annual temperature • These are coniferous forests with Rajasthan, they extend into the
is 18°-21°C. They form luxurious xerophytic shrubs. Deodar, chilgoza, plains of Gujarat.
forests of evergreen species. oak, olive etc are the main trees. • Geologically, the alluvium is
• Species of trees—Oaks, Chestnuts, • Such forests are found in the inner dry divided into new alluvium which
Sals and Pines (on lower and higher ranges of the Himalayas. is known as Khadar and old
margin respectively) etc.
alluvium, as Bhangar. The newer
• They also occur in the Nilgiri and MANGROVES alluvium is sandy and light
Palni Hills at 1070-1525 m above sea Mangroves are very specialised forest coloured, whereas, older alluvium
level. These forests are generally ecosystem of tropical and sub-tropical is more clayey, dark coloured and
called shales. regions of the world bordering sheltered contains lime concretions.
Sub-tropical Moist Pine Forests sea-coasts. They occur all along the
• The conglomerate deposits in
Indian coastline in the sheltered
• They are found at the height of 1000 piedmont area are generally
estuaries, tidal creeks, backwaters, salt
to 2000 m above sea level in the marshes and mudflats. known as Bhangar. This soil is
Western Himalayas between 73°E Mangroves are dominated by salt suitable for rice, wheat,
and 88°E longitudes. tolerant halophytic plants of diverse sugarcane, oil seeds and jute
• Chir is the most dominant tree. structure and are invaluable marine cultivation.
Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen nurseries for a large variety of fish
Forests and other marine fauna. They support a Black Soil/
• Found in the Bhabar, the Shivaliks
large variety of birds, amphibians and Regur Soil
many other local arboreal, benthic and • The principal region of black soil
and the Western Himalayas upto water creatures.
about 1000 m above sea-level. is the Deccan plateau and its
Rainfall is between 50 to 100 cm. Mangroves have a dense network of periphery. This is formed from
aerial roots, which help to aerate the Deccan basalt trap rocks and
• Olive, Acacia, Modesta and Pistacia
root system and anchor the tree. Sundari occur in areas under the monsoon
are the important species of trees. is widespread in sunderbans, screw climate, mostly of semi-arid and
pines, canes and palms are common in sub-humid
Temperate Forest deltas, cracks are often lined with Nipa. types.
Temperate forest is further divided into • This soil is characterised by dark
3 types futher are of three types
Montane Wet Temperate Forests
SOIL grey to black colour, high
swelling and shrinkage, plasticity,
• The forests grow at a height of 1800 • Soil is formed when rocks are broken deep cracks during summer and
to 3000 m above sea level. The mean down by the action of wind, water and poor status of organic matter,
annual rainfall is 150 cm to 300 cm, climate. This process is called nitrogen and phosphorus while
the mean annual temperature is weathering. this is rich in lime, iron, magnesia
about 11°C-14°C and the average • Soil forms different layers of particles and alumina.
relative humidity is over 80%. of different sizes called Horizons. Each • Impeded drainage and low
• Species of trees—deodar, chilauni, layer is different from the other in permeability are the major
Indian chestnut, birch, blue pine etc. thickness texture, colour and chemical problems. Cotton is mostly
composition. grown on this soil.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 903

Red and Yellow Soils productivity of the soil can be

increased, which involves addition of
Types of Farming
• These soils are derived from
organic matter and clay. Various geographical, physical and
granite, gneiss and other socio-economic factors are
metamorphic rocks. These soils are Swampy/Peaty Soil responsible for giving birth to
formed under well drained different types of farming in
condition. These soils are high Peaty soil originate in areas of heavy
rainfall, but inadequate drainage facility. different parts of the country.
textured and contain low soluble
salts. This soil is usually found at the foot
hills and extend in strips of varying Subsistence Farming
• They are slightly acidic to slightly Farmers cultivate small and
widths at the foot of Himalayas in
alkaline, well drained with Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand, scattered holdings with the help of
moderate permeability. They are Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal. draught animal and family members.
also poor in nitrogen, phosphorus, The tools and techniques used are
lime, humus etc. Saline Soil primitive and simple and main focus
• Red soils cover a large part of is on food crops. The farmers and
Saline soil is formed due to
Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra accumulation of soluble salts which his family members consume the
Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, consists of chlorides and sulphates of entire farm production.
Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and calcium and magnesium. In India, areas
Odisha. around 7 million hectares are salt Plantation Farming
affected distributed in different states. It involves growing and processing
Laterite Soil of a single cash crop purely meant
• Laterite soil is peculiar to India and Forest Soil for sale. It is capital intensive and
some of the tropical countries As the name suggests, forest soil is the other necessary things needed
where there is high temperature formed in the forest areas, where are vast estate, managerial ability,
and heavy rainfall with alternating sufficient rainfall is available. The soil technical know how, fertilizer, good
wet and dry periods. During vary in structure and texture depending transport facilities, processing
rainfall silica is leached downwards on the mountain environment where factory etc. This type of agriculture
and iron and aluminum oxide these are formed. is mainly practiced in Assam,
remains in the top layers. sub-Himalayan West Bengal and in
Nilgiri, Anaimalai and Cardamom
• In hilly areas they are more acidic Soil Erosion and hills in South.
than that of low areas. They are
less fertile and poor in humus, Degradation
nitrogen, phosphate and calcium. Shifting Agriculture
• The destruction of the soil cover is
• It is practised by the tribals in the
• Lateritic soils are found in Odisha, described as soil erosion, while
West Bengal, in some parts of decrease in its fertility is soil forest areas of Assam, Meghalaya,
Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura,
Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, degradation. Wind and water are
Kerala, Jharkhand and Maharashtra. Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh,
powerful agents of soil erosion
Odisha, Madhya Pradesh and
because of their ability to remove
Desert Soil Andhra Pradesh. In this type of
soil and transport it.
agriculture, a piece of forest land
• In the North-Western part of Wind erosion is significant in arid
• is cleared mainly by tribal people
India, desert soil occurs over the and semi-arid regions. In regions with felling and burning of trees
major parts of Rajasthan, South of with heavy rainfall and steep slopes, and crops are grown.
Haryana and Punjab and Northern erosion by running water is more
• Dry paddy, buck wheat, maize,
part of Gujarat. The soil in the significant.
plains are mostly derived from small millets, tobacco and
alluvium and pale brown to brown sugarcane are the main crops
to yellow brown and fine sandy to AGRICULTURE grown under this type of
agriculture. This is a very
loamy fine sand and is
structureless.
IN INDIA primitive method of cultivation
India is a vast country endowed with a which results in large scale
• The clay contents low and presence great variety of natural environments deforestation and soil erosion
of alkaline Earth carbonates is an and thus provides conditions for a large especially on the foothill sides.
important feature. By increasing the number of crops to be grown in
water holding capacity, the various parts.
904 CDS Pathfinder

Organic Farming Major Crops

• A new trend of farming in which all input used for
• With varied types of climate relief, soil and with plenty
farming are natural, no chemicals are used. of sunshine and long growing season, India is capable of
• Green manures and compost are used. Sikkim is the first growing almost each and every crop.
organic state of India. • Crops requiring tropical, sub-tropical and temperate
climate can easily be grown in one or the other part of
Cropping Seasons India.
Indian crops are divided into the following categories :
Three types of cropping seasons are found in India
– Food Crops Rice, wheat, maize, millets, jowar, bajra,
Kharif It requires much water, long hot weather for their growth, grown
in June with the arrival of South-East monsoon. e.g. rice, jowar,
ragi, pulses, gram and tur.
maize, cotton, groundnut, jute, tobacco, bajra, sugarcane, pulses – Cash Crops Cotton, jute, sugarcane, tobacco,
etc. oilseeds, groundnut, linseed, sesamum, castorseed,
Rabi Grown in winter, required cool climate during growth and warm rapeseed and mustard.
climate during germination of seeds and maturation. Sowing is
done in November and harvested in April-May. e.g. wheat, gram – Plantation Crops Tea, coffee, spices, cardamom,
and oilseeds like, mustard and rapeseed etc. chillies, ginger, turmeric, coconut and rubber.
Zaid A brief cropping season practised in irrigated areas, sown in – Horticulture Fruits Apple, peach, pear, apricot,
February- March, harvested in June. e.g. urad, moong,
watermelons. almond, strawberry, mango, banana, citrus food and
vegetables.

Crops Temperature (0°C) Rainfall (cm) Soil Distribution

Cash Crops
Cotton 21-30 50-75 Black Soil Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab
Jute 24-35 125-200 Sandy or Clayed Loams, Deep Rich West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, Assam
Sugarcane 20-26 150 Loamy Soil Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
Tobacco 15-38 50 Friable Sandy Soil Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka
Food Crops
Rice 24-27 150 Clayed and Loamy Soil West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab
Wheat 10-15 5-15 Light, Sandy, Clayed Loamy Soil Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
Jowar 27-32 30-65 Black Clayed Loamy Soil Maharashtra, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
Bajra 25-35 40-50 Loamy Soil Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Maharashtra, Gujarat
Plantation Crops
Tea 24-30 150-250 Loamy Forest Soil Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Assam
Coffee 16-28 150-250 Friable Forest Loamy Soils Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
Rubber 25-35 300 Loamy Soils Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu

RESOURCES Natural Resources

Human beings interact with the nature through technology • These resources are naturally occurring substances that
and create institutions to accelerate their economic are considered valuable in their relatively unmodified
development. A resource is a source or supply from which (natural) form.
benefit is produced. It is an economic or productive factor • A natural resource’s value rests in the amount of the
required to accomplish an activity or as means to material available and the demand for it. The latter is
undertake an enterprise and achieve desired outline. determined by its usefulness to production.

Human Resources Classification of Natural Resources

• Human being themselves are essential components of Natural resources are mostly classified into renewable and
resources. They transform material available in non-renewable resources :
our environment into resources and use them. i. Renewable Resources These resources can renew
• This is the set of individuals who make up the themselves if they are not over harvested but used
workforce of an organisation or economy. Human sustainably. The rate of sustainable use of renewable
capital is sometimes used synonymously with human resource is determined by replacement rate and
resources. amount of standing stock of that particular resource.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 905

ii. Non-Renewable Resources It is a natural resource

which are present in a fixed quantity and it cannot
Non-Metallic
be used again once it gets exhausted. Mineral
Mines

Limestone Found in Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh,

Mineral Resources Gujarat, Chhattisgarh

• A mineral is an aggregate of two or more than two Dolomite About 90% of the dolomite is found in Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Gujarat, Karnataka, West Bengal
elements. A mineral has a definite chemical
Asbestos Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
composition, atomic structure and is formed by
inorganic processes. In economic geography, the term Gypsum Found in Rajasthan, Jammu and Kashmir
mineral is used for any naturally occurring material that Graphite Occurs in Kalahandi, Bolangir (Odisha) and Bhagalpur
is mined and is of economic value. (Bihar)

• Minerals generally occur in the Earth’s crust in the

form of ore. The availability and per capita Energy Resources
consumption of minerals is taken as an important
indicator to assess the economic development of a India is a fast growing country and therefore, the demand for
country. the energy is also continuously growing. India has exploited
almost all the sources of energy such as hydroelectricity,
The Mineral Regions of India thermal energy, nuclear energy, solar energy, wind energy etc.
The mineral regions of India are as follow : Energy Resources in India
The North-Eastern Peninsular Belt It comprises of • The natural resources for electricity generation in India are
Chota Nagpur plateau, Odisha plateau and West unevenly dispersed and concentrated in a few pockets.
Bengal. It is the richest mineral belt of India. Coal and Hydro resources are located in the Himalayan foothills and
Iron are very abundant in the region. in the North-Eastern Region (NER). Coal reserves are
Central Belt It comprises of Chhattisgarh, Madhya concentrated in Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal,
Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra. It Chhattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh, whereas lignite is
contains deposits of manganese, bauxite, limestone, located in Tamil Nadu and Gujarat.
marble, coal, gems, mica, iron etc. • North Eastern region, Sikkim and Bhutan have vast
The Southern Belt It comprises Karnataka plateau but untapped hydro potential estimated to be about 35000
extends upto Tamil Nadu upland. It is rich in ferrous MW in NER, about 8000 MW in Sikkim and about 15000
minerals and bauxite but lacks in coal deposits. MW in Bhutan.
The South-Western Belt It includes Southern Karnataka,
Kerala and Goa. It has deposits of iron-ore, garnet Conventional Sources of Energy
and China clay, Monazite sand etc.
The conventional sources of energy are generally non-
The North-Western Belt It extends along the Aravalis
renewable sources of energy, which are being used since a
in Rajasthan and in adjoining part of Gujarat. It is
rich in non-ferrous minerals (copper, lead, zinc), long time. Conventional sources of energy are coal,
uranium, mica, precious stones, aquamarine and petroleum and natural gas.
emerald etc. Thermal Energy Thermal electricity is produced with the
help of coal, petroleum and natural gas. About 65% of
the total electricity produced is thermal in character.
Metallic Thermal electricity has special significance in those
Mines
Mineral
areas, where geographical conditions are not very
Iron Kemmangundi, Sandur and Hospet (Karnataka) favourable for generation of hydroelectricity. It
Barbil-Koira (Odisha), Bailadila and Dalli-Rajhara
(Chhattisgarh), North Goa accounts for more than half of the installed capacity in
Manganese Found in Karnataka, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, 14 states.
Maharashtra Hydroelectricity The hydroelectric power generation in
Chromite Found in Odisha, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra and India made a humble start at the end of the 19th
Andhra Pradesh
century, with the commissioning of electricity supply in
Copper Malanjkhand Belt (Balaghat, Madhya Pradesh), Darjeeling during 1897, followed by a hydropower
Khetri-Singhana Belt (Jhunjhun), Singhbhum
(Jharkhand) station at Sivasamudram in Karnataka during 1902.
Bauxite Found in Odisha,Gujarat, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Atomic Energy Nuclear power is fourth largest source of
Chhattisgarh electricity in India after, thermal, hydroelectricity and
Gold Kolar and Hutti (Karnataka), Ramgiri in Anantapur conventional source of power.
(Andhra Pradesh)
906 CDS Pathfinder

• In 1992, DNES was converted into Ministry of

Non-Conventional Energy Sources, which is renamed in
Power Station Location Power Station Location
2006 as Minister of New and Renewable Energy
Tarapur Maharashtra Rawatbhata Rajasthan
(MNRE). The minister now has taken up some
Kalpakkam Tamil Nadu Narora Uttar Pradesh
programmes on various new technologies.
Kakrapara Gujarat Kaiga Karnataka
Kudankulam Tamil Nadu Banswara Rajasthan Renewable Energy Plants
Types of Energy Plants States
(UMPP)
Wind energy Muppandal Tamil Nadu
Plants States Capacity (MW) Awarded to Perungudi
Sasan Madhya Pradesh 4000 Reliance Kayattar Tamil Nadu
Mundra Gujarat 4000 Tata Satara Maharashtra
Krishnapatnam Andhra Pradesh 4000 Reliance Jogimati Karnataka
Girye Maharashtra 4000 NA
Lamba Mandvi Gujarat
Tadri Karnataka 4000 NA
Geothermal energy Manikaran Himachal Pradesh
Puga Valley Jammu and Kashmir

States Name of the Plant Tattapani Chhattisgarh

Haryana Faridabad, Panipat Tidal energy Gulf of Khambat Gujarat
Punjab Bathinda, Ropar Gulf of Kachchh Gujarat
Delhi Badarpur, Indraprastha Sunderban West Bengal
Rajasthan Kota Wave energy Vizhinjam Kerala
Uttar Pradesh Obra, Panki, Singrauli Solar energy Tirupati Andhra Pradesh
Gujarat Ukai, Sikka, Ahmedabad Sabarmati
Madhya Pradesh
Chhattisgarh
Satpura, Amarkantak, Pench
Korba, Bhilai
Economic Activities
Maharashtra Nashik, Uran, Chandrapur Trombay, Dabhol
Human activities which generate income are known as
economic activities. Economic activities are broadly
Andhra Pradesh Ramagundam, Kotha-gundam, Nellore, Vijayawada
grouped into primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary and
Tamil Nadu Ennore, Tuticorin, Neyveli
quinary activities.
Bihar Barauni
• Primary Activities are directly dependent on
Jharkhand Bokaro
environment as these refer to utilisation of Earth’s
Odisha Talcher, Rourkela
surface such as land, water, vegetation, minerals etc.
West Bengal Kolkata, Titagarh, Durgapur
Thus, includes hunting and gathering, pastoral activities,
Assam Namrup, Bongaigaon fishing, forestry, agriculture, mining and quarrying.
Jammu & Kashmir Pampore
• Secondary Activities add value to natural resources by
Tripura Rokhia
transforming raw materials into valuable products.
• Tertiary Activities include all types of services that
Non-Conventional or Renewable required special skills provided in exchange of payments.
Energy Sources These are health, education, law, governance etc.
• Quaternary Activities centre around research,
• The non-conventional energy sources include solar
energy, wind energy, biomass energy, fuel cell, electric development and may be seen as an advanced form of
vehicles, tidal energy, hydrogen energy and geothermal services involving specialised knowledge and technical
energy. The renewable energy programme started with skills.
the establishment of the Department of • Quinary Activities are services that focus on the
Non-Conventional Energy Sources in 1982 in India. creation, re-arrangement and interpretation of new and
Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency was existing technologies.
set-up in 1987.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 907

INDUSTRIES
The industries sector is regarded as the growth engine for economic development of a nation. As India is an emerging
economy, in the post reform era 22% of the employment generation has been attributed to industrial sector.

Industries Details
Cotton Textile The first modern cotton textile mill was established in Bombay in 1854 by local parsi entrepreneurs with the name of Bombay spinning
Industry and weaving company. Mumbai is called cottonopolis of India and Ahmedabad is called Manchester of India. Coimbatore is called
Manchester of South India and Kanpur is called Manchester of Uttar Pradesh.
Distribution Maharashtra (Mumbai, Sholapur, Pune, Kolhapur, Satara, Wardha, Aurangabad and Amravati), Gujarat (Ahmedabad,
Vadodara, Rajkot, Surat, Bhavnagar, Porbandar, Maurvi and Viramgam), Tamil Nadu (Chennai, Tirunelveli, Madurai, Tuticorin, Salem,
Virudhnagar and Pollachi), Karnataka (Bengaluru, Belgaum, Mangaluru, Chitradurga, Gulbaraga and Mysore), Uttar Pradesh (Kanpur,
Etawah, Modinagar, Moradabad, Bareilly, Agra, Meerut and Varanasi), Madhya Pradesh (Indore, Gwalior, Ujjain and Bhopal),
Rajasthan (Kota, Jaipur, Sri Ganganagar, Bhilwara and Udaipur).
Woollen Textile The first woollen textiles mill was set-up in 1876 at Kanpur. Jammu and Kashmir is a large producer of handloom woollen goods.
Industry
Distribution Punjab (Dhariwal, Amritsar, Ludhiana, Ferozpur), Maharashtra (Mumbai), Uttar Pradesh (Kanpur, Mirzapur, Agra and
Tanakpur)
Jute Textile Industry First modern jute mill was set-up in 1855 at Rishra near Kolkata. India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute good production,
whereas it is second largest exporter of jute goods after Bangladesh.
Distribution West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Odisha, Tripura and Chhattisgarh.
Silk Textile Industry India is the second largest producer of natural silk, after China and is the only country producing all four varieties or natural silk viz
Mulberry, Tasar, Eri and Muga of which golden yellow Muga silk is unique in India.
Distribution Karnataka is the leading producer followed by West Bengal, Bihar etc.
Rubber Industry The first factory of synthetic rubber was set-up at Bareilly.
Distribution Bareilly (Uttar Pradesh), Baroda (Gujarat) Synthetic rubber units, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Amritsar-Reclaimed rubber units.
Tea Industry Tea cultivation in India was first started in the mid-19th century in Darjeeling, Assam and Nilgiris. Nearly 98% of the tea production
comes from Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala, while the rest of it comes from Karnataka, Terai region of Uttarakhand,
Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura.
Sugar Industry Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of sugar.
Distribution Uttar Pradesh (Gorakhpur, Deoria, Basti, Gonda, Meerut, Saharanpur, Muzaffarnagar, Bijnor and Moradabad), Bihar
(Darbhanga, Saran, Champaran and Muzaffarpur), Punjab (Phagwara and Dhuri), Haryana (Ambala, Rohtak and Panipat),
Maharashtra (Nashik, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Solapur) and Karnataka (Munirabad, Shimoga and Mandya).
Paper Industry The first paper mill in the country was set-up at Serampore (Bengal) in 1832, which failed. In 1870, a fresh venture was started at
Ballygunge near Kolkata. Raw material Bamboo (70%), Salai wood (12%), Sabai (9%), Bagasses (4%) and Waste paper and Rags
(5%).
Distribution Madhya Pradesh (Nepanagar), Hindustan Paper Corp, Vellore, Mysore Paper mill, Bhadravati, Maharashtra, (Mumbai,
Pune, Ballarpur and Kamptee produce paper and vikhroli), Andhra Pradesh (Rajahmundry and Sirpur), Madhya Pradesh (Indore,
Bhopal and Shandol) and Karnataka.
Iron and Steel Distribution Bhadrawati (Karnataka), Jamshedpur (Jharkhand), Durgapur, Burnpur (West Bengal), Bokaro (Jharkhand, Bhadrawati)
(Karnataka), Rourkela (Odisha), Bhilai (Chhattisgarh), Salem (Tamil Nadu) and Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh).
Ship Distribution Cochin Shipyard , Mumbai (Mazgaoze Dock), Hindustan Shipyard at Visakhapatnam and Kolkata (Gorden Reach
workshop). For Indian Navy, only at Mazgaon.
Aircraft Industry Distribution Hindustan Aeronautics India Limited was formed by merging two aricraft factories at Bengaluru and Kanpur. Four other
factories are at Nashik, Lucknow, Koraput (Odisha) and Hyderabad.
Fertilizer Industry The Fertilizer Corporation of India (FCI) was set-up in 1961 and National Fertilizer Limited (NFL) was set-up in 1974.
Distribution Sindri (Bihar), Nangal, Trombay, Gorakhpur (Uttar Pradesh), Durgapur, Namrup, Cochin, Rourkela, Neyveli, Varanasi,
Vadodra, Kanpur, Visakhapatnam and Kota.
Heavy Machinery Distribution Durgapur, Mumbai, Ranchi, Visakhapatnam, Tiruchirapalli and Naini.
Machine Tool It forms the basis for the manufacturing of industrial, defence equipments, automobiles, railway engines and electrical machinery.
Industry Distribution Hyderabad, Bengaluru, Pinjore (Haryana), Kalamassery (Kerala), Secunderabad, Ajmer and Srinagar.
Heavy Electrical Distribution Bengalure, Bhopal, Jammu, Tiruchirapalli, Ramchandrapuram (Hyderabad) and Jagdishpur (Uttar Pradesh).
Equipments
Photo Films Industry The Hindustan Photo Films Manufacturing Company at Udagamandalam (Tamil Nadu) is the only factory in the public sector,
producing photo paper and films.
Glass Industry Distribution Uttar Pradesh (Firozabad, Bahjoi, Hathras, Naini, Shikandrabad), Maharashtra (Mumbai, Telogaon, Pune, Sitarampur),
Tamil Nadu (Tiruvottiyor) and Karnataka (Bolgaon, Bengaluru).
908 CDS Pathfinder

• The second longest train route is of ‘Himsagar Express’ from

TRANSPORT Jammu Tavi to Kanyakumari. It covers a distance of 3726 km
and passes through ten states.
Railways • The oldest steam engine ‘Fairy Queen’ still runs on rail.
• India has the fifth largest railway network in the • Uttar Pradesh has largest railway network in India.
World after the USA, Russia, China and Canada. • Mumbai CST is busiest railway junction of India.
The Indian railway operate in three different • Railway track electrification was introduced in early 1920s. The
gauges first two sections from Victoria Terminus to Kurla and from
Gauge Routes (km) Victoria Terminus to Bandra were electrified. About 26% of
Broad Gauges (1. 676 m) 55000 the rail lines have been electrified.
Meter Gauges (1. 000 m) ~6809 • Anil Kakodkar Committee was constituted for Rail Safety in
Narrow Gauges (0.761 and 0.610 m) ~2463 2011.

• It is the largest public sector undertaking of the

country and it is the world’s largest railway Railways Specialities
network under single management. Darjeeling Himalayan Narrow gauge railway from Siliguri to Darjeeling in the state
• The first Indian railway line in India was operated Railways (1999) of West Bengal
for public traffic in 1853 between Mumbai and Chhatrapati Shivaji It was opened in 1887, in the time to celebrate Queen
Thane over a distance of 34 km. Terminus (2004) Victoria’s golden jubilee.
Nilgiri Mountain It connects the town of Mettupalayam with the hill station of
• The first electric train in India was ‘Deccan Railways (2005) Udagamandalam in the Nilgiri hills.
Queen’, it was introduced in 1929 between
Kalka-Shimla Narrow Gauge railway in North-West India travelling along
Bombay and Poona. Railways (2008) a most mountainous route from Kalka to Shimla.
• The headquarters of Indian railway is in New *The year in bracket represents the year in which UNESCO has added the railway
Delhi. line to the World Heritage site list.
• The fastest train in India is the Gatimaan Express,
whose maximum speed is 160 km/hr. Konkan Railways
• It runs from Mangalore to Roha (40 km South of Mumbai).
• It has the fastest track in India and has a total length of
Zone Headquarter
738 km.
Central railway Mumbai
• Almost 10% of the line passes through tunnels.
Eastern railway Kolkata
Northern railway New Delhi • Konkan railway connects Maharashtra, Karnataka and Goa.
North-Eastern railway Gorakhpur
North-East Frontier railway Malegaon
Start of
Southern railway Chennai City System Notes
Operations
South Central railway Secundrabad
Kolkata Kolkata Metro 24th October, First mass rapid transit system in
South-Eastern railway Kolkata 1984 India and the 17th zone of the
Western railway Mumbai (Church Gate) Indian Railways.
East Central railway Hajipur Chennai Chennai MRTS 1st November, It is planned for the MRTS to be
East Coast railway Bhubaneshwar 1995 taken over by the Chennai Metro
Rail Limited once the Chennai
North Central railway Allahabad
Metro becomes operational.
North-Western railway Jaipur
Delhi Delhi Metro 24th December, India’s first modern rapid transit
South-East Central railway Bilaspur
2002 system.
South-West railway Hubli
Bengaluru Namma Metro 20th October, First Metro in India to introduce
West Central railway Jabalpur 2011 Wi-Fi onboard trains.
• Indian railways has the second biggest electrified Gurgaon Rapid Metro 14th November, India’s first fully privatelly financed
system in the world after Russia. Rail Gurgaon 2013 metro, and the first metro system
in the country to auction naming
• The total route covered is approximately 63000 rights for its stations.
km.
Mumbai Mumbai Metro 8th June, 2014 The largest number of
• Vivek Express has the longest train route in India underground stations (86
connecting Dibrugarh and Kanyakumari. It is 8th spanning 3 planned lines) in any
longest in the world. metro system in India.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 909

• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is

Roadways already in the process of preparing a draft for creation
In 1943, Nagpur plan classified the roads into four categories of a National Expressway Authority of India (NEAI)
i. National highway on the line NHAI.
ii. State highway Some of the Important Information
iii. District roads Regarding the National Highways
iv. Village roads
• NH44, is the longest NH of India, running from
• Indian road network is the 2nd largest in the world. Srinagar to Kanyakumari
• India has a road network of over 4.8 million km. • NH5 and NH17 run along the Eastern and the Western
• National highways are constructed and maintained by coast respectively.
Central Public Works Department (CPWD). • NH15 represents the border road in Rajasthan desert.
• NH47A is the shortest highway in the Indian highway
network.
National
Route Distance • Maximum length of highway is present in State of Uttar
Highway
NH-1 New Delhi-Ambala-Jalandhar-Amritsar 456 Pradesh.
NH-1 A Jalandhar-Uri 663
NH-2 Delhi-Mathura-Agra-Kanpur-Allahabad-Varanasi- 1465
National Highway Development
Kolkata Programme (NHDP)
NH-3 Agra-Gwalior-Nasik-Mumbai 1161 National Highway Development Programme consists of
NH-4 Thane-Chennai via Pune and Bengaluru 1235 following projects :
NH-5 Kolkata-Chennai 1533 • The Golden Quadrilateral project involves connectivity
NH-6 Kolkata-Dhule 1949 of
NH-7 Varanasi-Kanyakumari 2369 – Delhi to Kolkata (NH2)
NH-8 Delhi-Mumbai (via Jaipur, Vadodra and 1428 – Delhi to Mumbai (NH8, NH76 and NH79)
Ahmedabad)
– Mumbai to Chennai (NH4, NH7 and NH46)
NH-9 Mumbai-Vijayawada 841
– Chennai to Kolkata (NH5, NH6 and NH60)
NH-10 Delhi-Fazilka 403
NH-15 Pathankot-Samakhiali (along great Indian desert) 1526 Total length 5846 km, out of which maximum
NH-17 Panvel-Edapplly (along West coast) 1269 length is in Andhra Pradesh (1016 km) followed by
Uttar Pradesh (753 km).
NH-22 Ambala-Shipki La (along Shipki La Gorge) 459
• North-South and East-West corridors
NH-31 Barhi-Guwahati (connecting East to North-East) 1125
– NS corridor connects Srinagar to Kanyakumari.
NH-37 Pancharatna near Goalpara-Saikhoaghat (along 680
Assam plain) – EW corridor connects Porbandar (Gujarat) to Silchar
NH-44 Srinagar to Kanyakumari 630 (Assam).
NH-47A Kundanoor and Willingdon-Island in Kochi Kerala 6
NH-49 Cochin-Dhanshkodi 440 Airways
NH-52 Daihatsu-Junction NH-47 (near Saikhowaghat) 850 • In 1935, the ‘Tata Airlines’ started its operation
NH-58 Delhi-Mana 538 between Mumbai and Thiruvananthapuram and in 1937
NH-65 Ambala-Pali 690 between Mumbai and Delhi.
NH-75 Gwalior-Ranchi 955 • In 1953, all the private airline companies were
NH-220 Kollam (Quilon)-Teui (TN Border) 265 nationalised and Indian Airlines and Air India came
into existence.
Expressway • International Airports Authority of India and National
• Expressway is a highway especially planned for high Airports Authority were merged on 1995 to form
speed traffic, limited point of a access or exist. Airports Authority of India. The Authority manages
Expressway are the highest class of roads in the Indian the Civil Aviation Training College at Allahabad and
roads network. Indian roads has approx 942 km National Institute of Aviation Management and
expressway. Research at Delhi.
910 CDS Pathfinder

International Airport City Ports of Important Facts

Rajiv Gandhi International Airport Hyderabad Eastern Coast
Kolkata Oldest port, India’s reverine port having two dock system.
Calicut International Airport Calicut
Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport Mumbai Paradip It handles iron ore and some amounts of coal and dry cargo.
Kempe Gowda International Airport Bengaluru Chennai All weather port having deep drafted berth, oil jetties, iron ore
terminals, etc.
Goa International Airport, Dabolim Goa
Visakhapatnam Seaport and well known for its outstanding performance. It
Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Kolkata serves the Bhilai and Rourkela steel plant.
Airport
Tuticorin Artificial deep sea harbour, all weather port offer direct weekly
Thiruvananthapuram International Airport Thiruvananthapuram container service to USA.
Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Guwahati Ennore First corporatised major port in India.
Airport
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport Ahmedabad
Indira Gandhi International Airport Delhi
Chennai International Airport Chennai Ports of Western Important Facts
Coast
Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee Amritsar
Mumbai It handles maximum traffic, natural harbour mostly
Cochin International Airport Cochin (Kerala) petroleum and dry cargo.
Coimbatore International Airport Coimbatore
Kandla Tidal port and important traffic handled are crude oil,
(Tamil Nadu)
petroleum, edible oil, foodgrains.
Lal Bahadur Shastri Airport Varanasi
(Uttar Pradesh) Marmagao It handles iron ore. It has a naval base.

Chaudhary Charan Singh Airport Lucknow New Mangaluru It is an all weather port.
(Uttar Pradesh) Cochin Major natural port in Willingdon Island.
Ambedkar Airport Nagpur (Maharashtra) Jawaharlal Nehru It is called as Nhava Sheva.
Gaya Airport Gaya (Bihar)
Imphal International Airport Imphal (Manipur) • Largest container port of India is Jawaharlal Nehru port in
Mumbai. The largest natural port is in Visakhapatnam.
Waterways • Kandla in Gujarat is a tidal port. It has been made into a free
trade zone.
Major Waterways of India • New Mangaluru port is also called the ‘Gateway of
Karnataka’.
Numbers Stretches of the Waterways Specifications
NW1 Allahabad-Haldia (1620 km) along Ganga river
• Mumbai port is the busiest port of India.
NW2 Sadiya- Dhubri (891 km) along
• Mundra port is largest private port of India.
Brahmaputra river • The Union Cabinet has given its in-principle approval for
NW3 Kottapuram-Kollam (168 km) along setting up a major port of Enayam near Colachel in Tamil
Champakara and Nadu. On completion the port will become country’s 13th
Udyogmandal
canal major port.
NW4 Bhadrachalam to Rajahmundri and along Godavari
Wazirabad to Vijaywada (1095 km) and Krishna river Demographic Profile of India
NW5 Mangalgarhi to Paradeep and along Mahanadi
Talcher to Dhamara (623 km) and Brahmini river
system
Population
• Population geography is closely related to demography. It is
NW6 Lakhipur to Bhanga (121 km) along Barak river
concerned with the study of demographic processes and their
consequences in and environmental context.
Ports in India • Population density is the degree of compaction in population
• The waterways authority in India divides Indian the closeness of persons living on a given surface, the spatial
ports into three categories, major, minor and balance of their social and economic assets.
intermediate. • Population density shows the population pressure on land
• India has about 200 ports, with 13 major and the resource. There are various ways to measure population
rest intermediate and minor. density such as crude or arithmetic density, nutritional or
• Project Sagarmala has been concieved for physiological density, agricultural density, economic density
development. etc. Among them arithmetic density is mostly used.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 911

• There are various factors that affect the distribution and Rural-Urban Composition
density of population such as physical factors (land India is primarily a country of villages. According to 2011
forms, vegetation, soils and water supply), climatic census, 68.84% of total population lives in rural areas and
factors (temperature, rainfall etc), availability of natural only 31.16% lives in urban areas, Goa is the most
resources, means of transport and communication etc. urbanised state where 62.17% of population lives in urban
• Population growth refers to the change in population. It areas. Tamil Nadu (48.45%), Kerala (47.72%), Maharashtra
can be measure in terms of absolute numbers and in (45.23%) are other states where urbanisation is high.
percentage. Basic components of population growth are Himachal Pradesh has mostly rural population.
fertility, mortality and migration.
• Migration is the permanent, seasonal or temporary shift Sex Ratio
of residence for substantial duration. Sex ratio refers to the number of females per thousands
• Population composition refers to the characteristics of males. According to 2011 census, India has recorded the
population. These characteristics are measurable and sex ratio of 943.
helpful in differentiating one group of people from the
other. Age—sex composition, literacy, rural-urban Literacy
composition, occupation etc are such characteristics. The literacy rates among both males and females have
Demographic Characteristics shown improvement in census 2011 compared to the last
• India is one of the most populous country of the world.
census. The literacy rates in the country as a whole is
Ethnic diversity, rural character and uneven distribution 74.04%. In the rural and urban areas, the literacy rate are
etc are some aspects of population affecting the process 68.9% and 84.9% respectively. The female literacy rate in
and pace of socio-economic development of India. the rural and urban areas shows wide variaton. In the
urban areas of the country, the female literacy rate is
• India’s population is unevenly distributed. Plains have
79.92%, in the rural areas it is only 58.75%.
more population than the mountains, deserts and
forested lands.
• According to 2011 census, India is home to 121.01 crore
Tribes of India
population. Among states Uttar Pradesh is most • India is the home to large number of indigenous people,
populous state in India with population of 19.95 crore who are still untouched by the lifestyle of the modern
followed by Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and world. These tribal people also known as adivasis are the
Andhra Pradesh. On the other hand, Sikkim shares least poorest in the country, who are still dependent on
proportion of population. hunting, agriculture and fishing.
• India’s average population density is 382 persons per sq
• Some of the major tribal groups in India include Gonds,
km. Arunachal Pradesh (17) has lowest population
Santhals, Khasis, Angamis, Bhils, Bhutias and Great
density whereas Bihar (1102) has highest density of
Andamanese. All these tribal people have their own
population. Among Union Territories, Delhi (11297) has
culture, tradition, language and lifestyle. This enables the
highest population density and Andaman and Nicobar
(46) has lowest population density. tourist to get an insight into many different cultures at
the same time on the tribal tour to India.
Growth of Population
Important Tribes of India
• There are four phases identified for the growth of
• Abors : Arunachal Pradesh
population in demographic history of India as follow
i. Period of stagnant growth rate (before 1921) • Aptanis : Arunachal Pradesh

ii. Period of steady growth (1921-1951) • Badagas : Nilgiri (TN)

iii. Period of rapid growth (1951-1981) • Bhils : Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, some in Gujarat
iv. Period of declining growth rate (after 1981) and Maharashtra
• The declining growth rate of population during • Bhot : Himachal Pradesh
2001-2011 was 17.64%. Kerala registered the lowest • Bhotias : Garhwal and Kumaon regions of Uttar Pradesh
growth rate of 4.86% whereas Daman and Diu • Chakma : Tripura
registered the highest growth rate of 53.54%.
• Chenchus : Andhra Pradesh, Orissa
Migration • Gaddis : Himachal Pradesh
A migrant is one who is enumerated in census at a place • Garos : Meghalaya
other than the place of his birth. In India, heavy pressure
• Gonds : Madhya Pradesh. Also in Bihar, Orissa and
of population, poverty, high incidence of unemployment,
Andhra Pradesh
etc are important factors responsible for migration.
912 CDS Pathfinder

• Gujjars : Himachal Pradesh Earthquake

• Jarawas : Little Andamans • An earthquake is a vibration or oscillation of the surface of the
• Khasis : Assam, Meghalaya Earth caused by the elasticity or the isostatic adjustment of the
• Kol : Madhya Pradesh rocks, beneath the surface of the Earth. Major earthquakes are
usually caused by sudden movements along faults.
• Kotas : Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu)
• Earthquakes are by far the most unpredictable and highly
• Kuki : Manipur destructive of all the natural disasters. There is a
• Lepchas : Sikkim geographic-pattern of the earthquake around the world at the
• Lushais : Mizoram
tectonic plate margins. Earthquakes that are of tectonic origin
have proved to be the most devastating and their area of
• Murias : Bastar (Madhya Pradesh) influence is also quite large.
• Mikirs : Assam • Earthquake Zones of India On the basis of the intensities or
• Mundas : Bihar, Orissa, West Bengal the destructiveness of the earthquakes. India is divided into four
• Nagas (Angami, Sema, Ao, Tangkul, Lahora): earthquake zones.
Nagaland, some in Assam and NEFA region. • Zone IV and Zone V had experienced some of the most
• Oarons (also called Kurukh): Bihar, Orissa and devastating earthquakes in India. Areas vulnerable to these
West Bengal. earthquakes are the North-East states, areas to the North of
Darbhanga and Araria along the Indo-Nepal border in Bihar,
• Onges : Andaman and Nicobar islands Uttarakhand, Western Himachal Pradesh (around Dharamshala)
• Santals : Birbhum region in Bengal, Hazaribagh, and Kashmir valley in the Himalayan region and the Kutch
Purnea in Bihar, Orissa (Gujarat).
• Sentinelese : Sentinel Island, Andaman and • Zone III covers Southern and South-Eastern parts of Rajasthan,
Nicobar larger parts of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka,
• Shompens : Andaman and Nicobar Jharkhand and Northern and North-Western part of Odisha.
• Todas : Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu)
Floods
• Uralis : Kerala
• These are sudden and temporary inundation of a large area as an
• Warlis : Maharashtra overflowing of rivers or reservoirs.
• The common causes which can be responsible for over flowing
NATURAL HAZARDS of river are heavy rainfall, sediment deposition, deforestation,
interference in drainage system, change in the course of river
AND DISASTER etc. Tsunami and cyclone are responsible for flood in coastal
areas.
MANAGEMENT Flood Prone Zones in India
• A disaster is a result of natural or man-made
• In India, around 40 million hectare area is flood-prone, which is
causes that leads to sudden disruption of normal
one eighth of the total area. The most flood prone areas are the
life, causing severe damage to life and property
Brahmaputra, Ganga and Indus basins.
to an extent those available social and economic
protection mechanisms are inadequate to cope. • As far as states are concerned, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West
Bengal and Odisha are the most flood affected states followed
• Disaster management is the managerial function
by Haryana, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh.
which deals with creating the framework within
which communities to reduce vulnerability to Droughts
hazards and cope with disasters.
It is either absence or deficiency of rainfall from its normal pattern
• As per origin, disasters can be classified into
in a region for an extended period of time leading to general
natural and man-made disasters. Based on generic suffering in the society.
disasters can be classified into five categories;
water and climate, geological, biological, On the basis of severity of droughts, India can be divided into the
accidental and chemical, industrial and nuclear. three regions, which are as follows :
1. Extreme Drought Affected Areas Most parts of Rajasthan,
Natural Disaster Marusthali and Kutch regions of Gujarat fall in this category.
2. Severe Drought Prone Area Parts of Eastern Rajasthan,
It is a major adverse event resulting from natural
most parts of Madhya Pradesh, Eastern parts of Maharashtra,
processes of the Earth; examples include floods,
interior parts of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka plateau,
droughts, cyclones, landslides, volcanic eruptions,
Northern parts of interior Tamil Nadu and Southern parts of
earthquakes, tsunamis and other geologic processes.
Jharkhand and interior Odisha.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 913

3. Moderate Drought Affected Area Northern parts Tropical Cyclones

of Rajasthan, Haryana, Southern districts of Uttar
• Tropical cyclones are characterised by destructive winds,
Pradesh, the remaining parts of Gujarat,
Maharashtra except Konkan, Jharkhand and torrential rainfall and storm surges disrupt normal life with
Coimbatore plateau of Tamil Nadu and interior the accompanying phenomena of floods due to the
Karnataka. exceptional level of rainfall and storm surge inundation
into inland areas.
Tsunami • Cyclonic storms are more common in India’s Eastern coast
• It is a Japanese word which means Harbor waves. and Bangladesh, they routinely hit between April and
Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause the November, causing deaths and widespread damage to
sea-floor, to move abruptly resulting in sudden property.
displacement of ocean water in the form of high
vertical waves are called tsunamis or seismic sea Man-Made Disaster
waves.
• Man-made disasters refer to non-natural disastrous
• Earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and other underwater occurrences that can be sudden or longer term.
explosions (including detonations of underwater
• Sudden man-made disasters include structural collapses,
nuclear devices), landslides, glacier calvings, meteorite
impacts and other disturbances above or below water such as building and mine collapse, when this occurs
all have the potential to generate a tsunami. independently without any outside force.
• From the tsunami point of view, Pacific ocean is in Nuclear Disaster
the most dangerous position. The tsunami that
• With increased emphasis on power generation through
occurred on the 26th of December, 2004 in the
nuclear technology, the threat of nuclear hazards has also
Sumatra island of Indonesia in the Indian ocean was
increased.
the result of subduction of Indian plate below the
Burmese plate. • The nuclear facilities in India have adopted internationally
accepted guidelines for ensuring safety to the public and
Landslides environment. A crisis management system is also in place
The term landslide includes all varieties of mass to take care of any nuclear hazard.
movements of hill slopes and can be defined as the
downward and outward movement of slope forming
Bhopal Gas Tragedy
• It happened in 23rd December, 1984 and considered as
materials composed of rocks, soils, artificial fills or
combination of all these materials along surface of world’s worst industrial disaster.
separation by falling, sliding and flowing, either slowly • A gas (methyl isocyanate) was leaked from Union Carbide
or quickly from one place to another. Pesticide plant. This incident cause approximately 2000
deaths.
Landslides in India
• Landslide and avalanches are among the major hydro- Disaster Management Act, 2005
geological hazards that affect large parts of India.
• The Disaster Management Act, 2005 has been enacted as
Besides the Himalayas, the North-Eastern hill ranges
the Central Act to deal with the management of disasters.
the Western Ghats, the Nilgiris, the Eastern Ghats
This act envisaged a three tier Disaster Management
and the Vindhyas in that order, covering about 15% structure in India at National, States and District levels.
of the landmass.
• Under the act, the NDMA, SDMA, NEC, NDRF, NIDM
• The Himalayas alone count for landslides of every
and disaster related funds were established. The Disaster
fame, name and description big and small, quick and Management Act mandates the Central Government to
creeping, ancient and new. The North-Eastern region establish National Disaster Management Authority as nodal
is badly affected by landslide problems of a authority with Prime Minister as its ex-officio chairperson.
bewildering variety. • The DM Act puts on Central Government the obligation
• A different variety of landslides, characterised by a to take all measures necessary and expedient for the
lateritic cap, pose constant threat to the Western purpose of disaster management including coordination
Ghats in the South, along the steep slopes overlooking between ministries and department, state governments,
the Konkan coast besides Nilgiris, which is highly various domestic and international agencies etc. It is also
landslide prone. obliged to make proper allocation of funds.
914 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which of the following pairs are 7. Which one of the following 13. Which one of the following lakes was
correctly matched? pairs is incorrectly matched? formed when the marine transgression
(a) Himalayas tertiary : Fold mountain had taken place forming a lagoon, but
1. Winter rain in : Western disturbance
North-West Indian (b) Deccan trap : Volcanic fissure at present is almost a fresh water lake?
2. Summer rain in : Retreating monsoon eruption (a) Pulicate (b) Sambhar
Malabar coast (c) Western Ghat : Palaeozoic fold, (c) Kolleru (d) Vembanad
3. Summer rain in : North-Westerly Mountains
14. Consider the following statements
Bengal basin (d) Aravalli : Pre-Cambrian
relict mountain 1. Rihand dam is on a tributary of the
4. Winter rain in : North-East Monsoon
Tamil Nadu coast Son river.
8. The Palk Bay lies between 2. Hirakud dam is on the Mahanadi
Codes (a) Gulf of Kutch and Gulf of
river.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Khambhat
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
3. Tungbhadra project is a joint
(b) Gulf of Mannar and Bay of
Bengal
venture of the Andhra Pradesh and
2. Amritsar and Shimla are almost Karnataka states.
(c) Lakshadweep and Maldive
on the same latitude, but their Islands 4. Kosi is known as the ‘Sorrow of
climate difference is due to (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Bihar’.
(a) the difference in their altitudes Which of the statements given above
(b) their distance from sea 9. At which one of the following are correct?
(c) snowfall in Shimla places two important rivers of (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) pollution in Amritsar India originate, while one of (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
3. Which one of the following is not them flows towards North and
merges with another important 15. Consider the following statement(s)
a causative factor with respect to 1. Western Himalayas are very dry
poor coverage of forest area in river flowing towards Bay of
Bengal, the one flows towards whereas Eastern Himalayas are
Jammu and Kashmir? wetter.
(a) Low amount of rainfall Arabian sea?
(a) Amarkantak (b) Badrinath 2. Western Himalayas rise gradually in
(b) Large area under cultivation
(c) Mahabaleshwar (d) Nasik a series of ranges whereas Eastern
(c) Steep barren slopes
Himalayas rises abruptly.
(d) Snow covered peaks 10. Which of the following pairs is Which of the statement(s) given above
4. The irregularity in the amount of incorrectly matched? is/are correct?
rainfall in different parts of the (a) Imphal basin : Lacustrine (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
North Indian plains is mainly due (b) Ladakh plain : Glacial (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to (c) Konkan coast : Alluvial
16. Which among the following rock system
(a) irregularity intensity of low pressure (d) Ganga plain : Alluvial
in India is also known as storehouse of
in the North-Western parts of India
11. Identify the incorrect minerals?
(b) variation in the location of the axis
statement about the Karnataka (a) Archean rock system
of low pressure trough
Plateau. (b) Dharwar system
(c) difference in frequency of cyclones
(a) It has an average elevation of (c) The Cudappah system
(d) variation in the amount of moisture
600-900 m (d) The Vindhyan system
5. Which of the following regions (b) It is composed of volcanic lava
flow of Deccan trap in its
17. With reference to the river Luni, which
has the potential for harnessing
Northern part one of the following statements is
of tidal energy in India?
(c) It has two distinct physiographic correct?
(a) Gulf of Cambay
features Malnad and Maidan (a) It flows into Gulf of Khambhat
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Backwaters of Kerala (d) The highest peak is Kalsubai (b) It flows into Gulf of Kutch
(d) Chilka Lake (c) It flows into Pakistan and merges with a
12. Which of the following is not
tributary of Indus
6. Consider the following rivers correct with respect to Chilka
(d) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann
1. Kishanganga 2. Ganga lake? of Kutch
(a) It is the largest brackish water
3. Wainganga 4. Penganga 18. Which of the following is the main
lagoon of Asia
The correct sequence of these (b) It experiences seasonal stream of the Avadh Plains and its
rivers when arranged in the fluctuations of water level course has been shifting considerably
North-South direction is (c) It is situated South of the suggesting that it is an aggrading
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 Mahanadi Delta river?
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3 (d) It is situated North of the (a) Kosi (b) Ghaghara
Mahanadi Delta (c) Gandak (d) Chambal
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 915

19. Which prominent geomorphic 25. The agglomeration of saline Which of the statements given
feature separates Shivaliks from depressions on the Western side of above are correct?
the Middle Himalayan Range? the Araval is are generally known (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Fault basins as (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
(b) Lacustrine basins (a) Bagar (b) Dhrians
(c) Kallar (d) Rann
32. Consider the following statements
(c) Glacial valleys
1. The Western part of Marusthali
(d) Terai and Bhabar regions 26. The Amindivi and Cannanore is covered by shifting sand
20. Which of the following pairs is islands are separated from Minicoy dunes called Dhrian.
incorrectly matched? island by 2. The Bhangar lands in Punjab
(a) 10° channel (b) 9° channel are called as Wetlands.
Wetland/Lake State (c) 8° channel (d) Duncan passage 3. Amarkantak is the highest peak
(a) Pichola : Rajasthan of Satpura range.
27. The sand dunes have formed a
(b) Ashtamudi : Kerala 4. Vindhya range acts as a
large number of shallow lagoons
(c) Uani : Maharashtra watershed between the Ganga
(d) Kabar : Uttar Pradesh
along the Malabar coast, these
lagoons are generally known as system and the river systems of
21. Consider the following (a) Nads (b) Kari South India.
statement(s) (c) Theris (d) Kayals Which of the statements given
1. Generally, Western ghats are above are correct?
28. Which one of the following is not (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
broader than Eastern ghats. true about Rajasthan Bagar?
2. Eastern ghats are more (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
(a) It drained by the river Luni
continuous than the Western (b) It has thin blanket of sand 33. Which one of the following
ghats. (c) It has salt lakes physiographic units has been
3. Eastern ghats act as a water (d) It has longitudinal and crescent created by both exogenic and
divide. shaped sand dunes endogenic forces?
Which of the following is/are the (a) The Peninsular plateau
29. What is the most important (b) The Thar desert
difference between Eastern and geographic use of the Himalayas to (c) The Indo-Gangetic plain
Western Ghats? India? (d) The Himalayas
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (a) Prevention of invasions
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (b) Valuable source of timber 34. Which of the following statements
(c) They prevent the monsoons from is correct in respect of India,
22. Which of the following pairs
crossing to the North and also serve geographical position?
Passes and Locations is/are (a) Lies between the latitudes of 8° and
as a reservoir of water from which
incorrectly matched? our perennial rivers flow 37°N
Passes Locations (d) They protect India from the icy cold (b) Lies between the longitudes of 68°
North winds and 92°E
1. Zojila and Burzila : Jammu and Kashmir (c) Lies in the North of Equator
2. Bara Lapcha La : Uttar Pradesh 30. Which one of the following
(d) All of the above
and Shipki La phenomenon happens when the
3. Thaga La, Niti : Himachal Pradesh Sun shines vertically over the 35. Which one of the following
Pass and Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern statements is incorrect?
Lipu Lekh
hemisphere? (a) Ghaggar’s water is utilised in the
4. Nathu La and : Sikkim
(a) High pressure develops over Indira Gandhi canal
Jelep La
North-Western India due to low (b) Narmada rises from Amarkantak
Codes temperatures region
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Nizam Sagar is situated on the
(b) Low pressure develops over
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 North-Western India due to high Manjra river
23. The Amarkantak hill is the temperatures (d) Penganga is a tributary of the
(c) No changes in temperature and Godavari
source of two rivers flowing in
pressure occur in North-Western India
two different directions (West and 36. Consider the following statement(s)
(d) ‘Loo’ blows in the North-Western India
East). They are 1. The average rainfall in India is
(a) Narmada and Tapti 31. Consider the following statements about 125 cm.
(b) Narmada and Son 1. The Garo-Rajmahal gap 2. The proportion of drought prone
(c) Tapti and Betwa separates the Meghalaya Plateau areas to the total area in India
(d) Tapti and Son from the main block of the is 30%.
Peninsular Plateau. Which of the statement(s) given
24. Which of the following is the 2. The Karnataka Plateau’s hilly
highest peak of the Zanskar above is/are correct?
region is known as Maland. (a) Only 1
range? 3. The backwaters in Kerala are (b) Only 2
(a) Kamet (b) Dhaulagiri locally known as Kayals. (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Kanchenjunga (d) K2 4. Kolleru lake was once far (d) Neither 1 nor 2
inland, but now it is a lagoon.
916 CDS Pathfinder

37. Which of the following statement (c) The West coast has little 48. Which of the following statement(s)
is incorrect? indentation except towards the with regard to the expansion of the
(a) Godavari forms the largest river South desert in Rajasthan is/are correct?
system of Peninsular region (d) The West and East coasts have 1. The predominant wind direction in
the same alluvial features Rajasthan is North-East to
(b) Narmada river forms Marble falls
(c) Cardamom hills is a branch of 43. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady South-West, so the tendency for
Annamalai hills and Mekong rivers originate in desertification has been more in that
direction.
(d) Karnataka has the largest teak Tibet and flow through narrow
2. The Thar desert is dominantly a
forest in India and parallel mountain ranges
monsoon driven sand desert where
in their upper reaches. Of wind erosion is a major problem
38. Which one of the following East
these rivers, Brahmaputra during the summer months. While
flowing rivers of India has Rift
makes a ‘U’ turn in its course the Aravalli range is a major barrier
valley due to down warping?
(a) Damodar (b) Mahanadi to flow into India. This ‘U’ turn in the spread of the desert, rampant
(c) Son (d) Yamuna is due to mining creating cuts in the range is
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series leading to the spread of the desert.
39. Consider the following statements (b) Syntaxial bending of geologically Select the correct answer using the
1. The Peninsular India has not young Himalayas codes given below.
undergone marine submergence (c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
since Archean times. tertiary folded mountain chains (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Aravalli mountains were (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
one of the oldest geosynclines 49. Which of the following statement(s)
of the world.
44. Which of the following are the is/are correct?
East flowing rivers of India? 1. Chaj doab is between Jhelum and
3. Dharwar system is rich in
1. Tapi 2. Betwa Indus.
minerals.
3. Beas 4. Pamba 2. Bari doab is between Beas and
4. The Peninsular block of India Sutlej.
is an earthquake-free zone. 5. Periyar
Select the correct answer using Select the correct answer using the
Which of the statements given codes given below.
above are correct? the codes given below.
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 4 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 4 and 5
45. Which one of the following 50. Consider the following statements
40. Which of the following is true 1. The new alluvial soils are known as
with regard to the characteristics characteristics is not relevant
Khadar.
of the Himalayan rivers? to Ganga river?
2. The old alluvial soils are called as
1. Many of them have their (a) It is a braided river with
Bhangar.
sources in the Inner numerous channels
3. Black soil is called as Regur.
Himalayas. (b) It has multiple inter-twined
sand-bars 4. Black soil has as low moisture
2. They have a perennial flow. holding capacity.
(c) It has extensive gully erosion
3. They have a great capacity for Which of the statements given above are
(d) Deposits enormous sediments
erosion. correct?
annually into the Bay of Bengal
4. They do not form gorges. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using 46. Identify the correct decreasing (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
the codes given below. order of river basins area in
India. 51. A state in India has the following
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 characteristics
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 (a) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus,
Godavari 1. Its Northern part is arid and
41. Which one of the following pairs (b) Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra, semi-arid.
is incorrectly matched? Krishna 2. Its central part produces cotton.
(c) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Godavari, 3. Cultivation of cash crops is
(a) Dandakaranya : Kalahandi
Indus predominant over food crops.
(b) Eastern ghats : Khader
(c) Shivaliks : Dun (d) Ganga, Indus, Godavari, Krishna Which one of the following state has all
(d) Mizoram : Blue Mountain
of the above characteristics?
47. Identify the correct decreasing (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
42. Which of the following is not order of annual yield of water (c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
correct with regard to the coastal in the river systems in India.
plains of India? (a) Brahmaputra, Ganga, Godavari, 52. Which one of the following is the correct
Indus sequence of the given Indian cities in
(a) The West coast has a narrow
alluvial margin interspersed by hilly (b) Brahmaputra, Indus, Ganga, the decreasing order of their normal
terrain Godavari annual rainfall?
(c) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Godavari, (a) Kochi, Kolkata, Delhi, Patna
(b) The Eastern coast has a wide
Indus (b) Kolkata, Kochi, Patna, Delhi
plain with well developed Deltas of
(d) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus, (c) Kochi, Kolkata, Patna, Delhi
the major rivers
Godavari (d) Kolkata, Kochi, Delhi, Patna
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 917

53. Which of the following 59. Which among the following were 63. Consider the following statements
statement(s) is/are true? the components of Green about Indian forestry
1. Southern part of Western Ghat Revolution? 1. About 40% of the Indian forests
is separated form main 1. High yielding varieties of seed. are in the inaccessible
Sahyadri by Palghat gap. 2. Irrigation (a) surface and (b) mountainous regions which
2. Northern section of the ground. impede the speedy transfer of
Western Ghat is made of 3. Land reforms. felled trees.
horizontal sheets of lava. 4. Rural electrification. 2. Although, according to India’s
Select the correct answer using Select the correct answer using forest policy, a high proportion of
the codes given below. the codes given below. the land area shall be covered by
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4 forest except in some states, the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these percentage of forest cover is
extremely low.
54. Which of the following is/are not 60. In the given below map of India, 4 3. Exploitation of forests is less time
fresh water lakes? National Parks are marked. consuming and less costly, as
1. Wular lake 2. Dal lake Match the alphabets with the almost in every forest a single
3. Sambar lake 4. Lonar lake correct name of the parks type of tree dominates.
4. The annual productivity of the
Select the correct answer using forests is 3.5 cubic metres per
the codes given below. hectare.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
A. B. are correct?
55. The first marine sanctuary in (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
India, within its bounds coral C. (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
reefs, mollusca, dolphins, 64. Which one of the following pairs is
tortoises and various kinds of sea D.
not correctly matched?
birds has been established in
(a) Sundarbans (b) Chilka lake Unit of Indian Railway Location
(c) Gulf of Kutch (d) Lakshadweep (a) Railway Staff College Vadodara
(a) A - Sariska, B - Dudwa, (b) Central Organisation for Varanasi
56. The typical area of ‘Sal’ forest in C - Kaziranga, D - Bandipur Railway Electrification
the India (b) A - Kanha, B - Jim Corbett, (c) Wheel and Axle Plant Bengaluru
(a) on the Western ghats C - Manas, D - Bandipur (d) Rail Coach Factory Kapurthala
(b) between the Tapti and the Narmada
(c) A - Kanha, B - Dudwa, 65. In the figure given below of natural
(c) to North-East of the Godavari C - Manas, D - Bandipur
(d) on the Malwa plateau vegetation, the Tropical Deciduous
(d) A - Sariska, B - Jim Corbett,
C - Kaziranga, D - Bandipur
Forest is represented by
57. On which of the following river
deltas are the mangrove forests 61. Which one of the following factors
found? is responsible for excessive soil
1. Narmada 2. Subarnarekha erosion in Chotanagpur plateau?
3. Krishna 4. Ganga (a) Heavy rain throughout the year C
B
Select the correct answer using (b) Loose sandy soil
A
the codes given below. (c) Deep ploughing by tractors
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (d) Large scale felling of trees
D
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
62. The alpine vegetation in the
58. Which of the following statements Western Himalayas is found only
regarding laterite soils of India up to a height of 3000 m while in
are correct? (a) A (b) C
the Eastern Himalayas it is found
(c) D (d) B
1. Laterites are generally red in up to a height of 4000 m. The
colour. reason for this variation in the 66. Kanha National Park belongs to
2. Laterites are rich in nitrogen same mountain range is that which one among the following
and potash. (a) Eastern Himalayas are higher than biogeographical areas in the world?
3. These are well developed in Western Himalayas (a) Tropical Sub-humid forests
Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. (b) Eastern Himalayas are nearer to (b) Tropical Humid forests
4. Tapioca and cashewnuts grow the equator and sea coast than (c) Tropical Dry forests
well on this soil. Western Himalayas (d) Tropical Moist forests
Select the correct answer using (c) Eastern Himalayas get more 67. Which one among the following
the codes given below. monsoon rainfall than the Western rivers does not flow into the Bay of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Himalayas
Bengal?
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 (d) Eastern Himalayas rocks are more (a) Mahanadi (b) Kaveri
fertile than the Western Himalayan (c) Tapti (d) Godavari
rocks
918 CDS Pathfinder

68. ‘El-Nino’ associated with the 2. The mining industry since (a) Provision for extensive irrigation facilities
formation of the South-West colonial days has been (b) Change in the crop calendar
Monsoon of India is export-oriented. (c) Avoidance of flood and drought prone
(a) an abnormally warm ocean current Which of the statement(s) given areas for agriculture
(b) a periodic warm air-mass above is/are correct? (d) Emphasis on selection of crops best
(c) a periodic warm wind (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 suited to flood and drought conditions
(d) a periodic low pressure centre (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 80. Which one of the following places with
69. Which one among the following 75. The rainfall distribution petro-chemical industries is most
cities never get the vertical rays of pattern over the Ganga basin westward located in India?
decreases from the (a) Kota (b) Nagpur
the Sun all through the year?
(a) Chennai (b) Mumbai (a) West to East and North to South (c) Barauni (d) Ujjain
(c) Kolkata (d) Srinagar (b) East to West and North to South 81. What is the characteristic feature of
(c) West to East and South to North Narmada Valley?
70. Which of the following (d) East to West and South to North (a) Volcanic origin (b) Structural origin
statement(s) regarding red soils of
76. The Vindhyan system of rocks (c) Glacial origin (d) Aeolian origin
India is/are correct?
1. The colour of the soil is red due is important for the production 82. Which one of the following is the
to ferric oxide content. of correct sequence of the given tiger
2. Red soils are rich in lime, (a) precious stones and building reserves of India from North to
materials South?
humous and potash.
(b) iron ore and manganese (a) Dudwa, Kanha, Indravati, Bandipur
3. They are porous and have
(c) bauxite and mica (b) Kanha, Bandipur, Dudwa, Indravati
friable structure.
(d) copper and uranium (c) Indravati, Kanha, Dudwa, Bandipur
Select the correct answer using the (d) Dudwa, Kanha, Bandipur, Indravati
codes given below. 77. Match the following
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 List I
83. Which of the following statement(s)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these List II with regard to the expansion of the
(Biosphere
(Places) desert in Rajasthan is/are correct?
71. According to the Census 2011, Reserve)
A. Manas 1. Meghalaya
1. The predominant wind direction in
which one among the following Rajasthan is North-East to
Union Territories has the least B. Pachmarhi 2. Assam
South-West, so the tendency for
population? C. Nokrek 3. Madhya Pradesh
desertification has been more in
(a) Daman and Diu D. Achanakmar 4. Chhattisgarh
Amarkantak that direction.
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli 2. The Thar desert is dominantly a
(c) Lakshadweep Codes
monsoon driven sand desert where
(d) Puducherry A B C D A B C D wind erosion is a major problem
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 during the summer months. While
72. Arrange the following oil refineries
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 4 the Aravalli range is a major
of India from West to East
78. Match the following barrier in the spread of the desert,
1. Koyali 2. Bongaigaon
rampant mining creating cuts in
3. Mathura 4. Haldia List I List II the range is leading to the spread
Codes (Natural Vegetation (Annual Rainfall of the desert.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2 of India) Received)
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1 Select the correct answer using the
A. Tropical 1. 100-200 cm
evergreen forests
codes given below.
73. Consider the following (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
B. Tropical 2. Above 200 cm
statement(s) about black soil of deciduous forests (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India C. Tropical dry 3. Less than 50 cm 84. During the Indian monsoon season
1. Black soil becomes sticky when forests
(a) the Westerly jet stream alone exists in
it is wet. D. Arid forests 4. Above 300 cm the Indian region
2. Black soil contains adequate 5. 50-100 cm (b) the Easterly jet stream alone exists in
nitrogen as well as phosphorus the Indian region
Codes
required for the growth of (c) both Westerly and Easterly jet streams
plants. A B C D A B C D
exist in the Indian region
(a) 1 2 5 3 (b) 4 3 1 5
Which of the statement(s) given (d) both Westerly and Easterly jet streams
(c) 2 1 5 3 (d) 2 1 3 4
above is/are correct? disappear
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 79. The agricultural production in
different parts of India is very 85. Which of the following three rivers of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
much affected by varying the peninsula India have the
74. Consider the following intensities of floods and Amarkantak region as their source?
statement(s) with regard to the droughts. Which one of the (a) Narmada, Krishna, Godavari
mining industry of India (b) Son, Mahanadi, Narmada
following measures would not
1. The spatial distribution of (c) Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri
be sustainable in this respect?
minerals is uneven. (d) Chambal, Betwa, Luni
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 919

86. Which among the following states 92. Consider the following (c) originate in dry areas
of India have common borders statement(s) regarding the (d) originate largely in the Western ghats
with Pakistan? Western coastal plains of India. and have a short distance to cover to
(a) Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal 1. The Western coastal plains are the sea
Pradesh, Punjab and Rajasthan known as konkan from Daman 97. Which one of the following projects of
(b) Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, to Goa. the NHPC (National Hydroelectric
Rajasthan and Gujarat 2. The plains are narrower in the Power Corporation) has the largest
(c) Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, North and wider in the South. power generation capacity
Haryana and Rajasthan Which of the statement(s) given (installed)?
(d) Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Gujarat above is/are correct? (a) Baira-Siul (b) Chamera-I
and Rajasthan (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Loktak (d) Salal
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
87. Consider the following places of 98. Which one of the following does not
Kashmir region 93. Consider the following features of have a heavy water plant?
1. Srinagar 2. Gilgit a border district of India and (a) Narora (b) Sriharikota
3. Kargil 4. Banihal identify the district using the (c) Kakrapar (d) Kota
Arrange the above place from codes given below 99. Consider the following statement(s)
North to South using the codes Situated at the height of 10000 1. The Damuda series of rock system
given below. feet, which is enchanted with contain all the metallurgical coal
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 scenic beauty, the district is in India.
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4 surrounded by two nations in the 2. Tamil Nadu is the Chief producer
of lignite coal in India.
88. Which one of the following North and South-West. River
3. Tertiary coal is mainly confined to
statements on biosphere reserves Nyamjang-chu runs through it. the Peninsular India.
is not correct? Potato, maize and millet are the Which of the statement(s) given
(a) In 1973, UNESCO launched a main crops of the district. Besides above is/are correct?
worldwide programme on man and monasteries, tourist attractions of (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
biosphere the district and its surrounding (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
(b) Biosphere reserves promote places include Sella Pass, PTSO, 100. Which of the following is the longest
research on ecological War memorial, Jaswant Garh etc. river in India?
conservation Losar is one of the prominent (a) Ganga (b) Brahmaputra
(c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is festivals of the district. (c) Yamuna (d) Godavari
located in Madhya Pradesh (a) Lohit (b) Tawang
(d) Biosphere reserves are 101. Which one of the following rivers
(c) Kangra (d) West Sikkim
multipurpose protected areas to forms an estuary?
preserve the genetic diversity in 94. Which is the correct arrangement (a) Narmada (b) Kavery
ecosystems of the following rivers from North (c) Krishna (d) Mahanadi
to South? 102. Which of the following is not known
89. Which one of the following (a) Godavari, Penner, Kaveri, Periyar
statements is not correct (b) Penner, Godavari, Periyar, Kaveri
for copper production in India?
regarding the Himalayas? (a) Balaghat (b) Jhunjhunu
(c) Godavari, Kaveri, Penner, Periyar
(a) Himalayas have nappe and (d) Kaveri, Godavari, Periyar, Penner (c) Singhbhum (d) Katni
recumbent folds 103. Consider the following statement(s)
(b) Himalayas rose up from the Tethys 95. Which of the following statements
with regard to rainfall in India 1. India does not have any deposits
Sea of thorium.
(c) Himalayas contain three mountain is/are correct?
1. Most of the rainfall in India is 2. Kerala’s monazit sands contain
ranges– Sivaliks, Great Himalayas uranium.
and Kunlun Ranges due to the South-West
monsoon. Which of the statement(s) given
(d) The orogeny took place in the
2. In South India, rainfall
above is/are correct?
Tertiary Era (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
decreases away from the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Which one of the following is not Eastern Ghats.
associated with monsoon climate 104. Karewas are terraces of glacial
in India? Select the correct answer using
the codes given below. origin found in
(a) El-Nino temporary warm currents (a) Teesta valley (b) Ravi valley
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) South-equatorial warm currents of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Jhelum valley (d) Alaknanda valley
Indian Ocean
(c) Western disturbances 96. Deltas are common in India for 105. Which type of soil retains maximum
the East-flowing river systems, amount of water?
(d) Cyclones of Bay of Bengal (a) Loam (b) Sandy
whereas they are nearly absent
91. Which one of the following places on the West coast, because (c) Clay (d) Red
is not located on the bank of river West-flowing rivers 106. The East Central Railway zone
Ganga? (a) are few headquarters is located at
(a) Uttarkashi (b) Kanpur
(b) have lesser water volume and (a) Patna (b) Hajipur
(c) Fatehpur (d) Bhagalpur carry less run-off silt (c) Muzaffarpur (d) Katihar
920 CDS Pathfinder

107. Which one of the following Select the correct answer using the 4. Trans-Himalaya belong to
statements is not true? codes given below. Himalaya system.
(a) Ghaggar’s water is utilised in (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statement(s) given
the Indira Gandhi Canal. (c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 above is/are correct?
(b) Narmada rises from Amarkantak (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
region. 114. In India, the main limiting factor
(c) 1 and 4 (d) Only 2
(c) Nizam Sagar is situated on the for cultivation is
Manjra river. (a) length of growing season 120. Arrange the following in terms of
(d) Penganga is a tributary of the (b) infertile soil population density.
Godavari. (c) indequacy of water supply
1. NCT Delhi
(d) small size of farms
108. The South-West monsoons end 2. Chandigarh
in India by 115. Among the following states, which 3. Puducherry
(a) December (b) October one does not have any significant 4. Daman and Diu
(c) November (d) December coal resources?
(a) Andhra Pradesh 5. Lakshadweep
109. The monsoon responsible for (b) Bihar Codes
rains in Jharkhand is (c) Chhattisgarh (a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
(a) North-East monsoon (d) Maharashtra (c) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(b) South-west monsoon 121. The greatest potential for the
(c) Northwester 116. Consider the following statement(s)
1. Kerala has dispersed settlements. generation of tidal power in India
(d) None of the above
2. Lower Ganga plain has hamleted is available in the
110. At which one of the following settlements. (a) Coromandel coast
places two important rivers of (b) Gujarat coast
Which of the statement(s) given
India originate, while one of (c) Konarat coast
them flows towards North and above is/are correct?
(d) Malabar coast
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
merges with another
important river flowing
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 122. Which of the following statements
towards Bay of Bengal, the 117. Which of the following statement(s) about sugar industry are correct?
other flows towards Arabian is/are correct regarding tribal 1. In the world, India’s share in
Sea? groups in India? sugar production is over 15%.
(a) Amarkantak (b) Badrinath 1. Bhils are the people of Dravidian 2. Sugar industry is the second
(c) Mahabaleshwar (d) Nasik stock now living in MP and largest agro-based industry in
Rajasthan. India.
111. Which type of irrigation covers
2. The Gonds constitute the largest 3. India is the largest consumer of
the largest area of the net
tribal group of India. sugar.
sown area?
(a) Canal 3. Onges, Shompens and Sentinelese 4. India is the largest producer of
are the inhabitants of Andaman sugar.
(b) Tank
(c) Well and tube wells and Nicobar Islands. Select the correct answer using the
(d) Others (springs etc) Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
112. Which states in India are the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
largest producers of (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
sugarcane? 123. Which one of the following
(a) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh 118. Consider the following statement(s) projects is also known as gift to
(b) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan 1. The density of population of Nepal?
(c) Andhra Pradesh and Jammu India according to 2011 census is (a) Gandak project (b) Kosi project
and Kashmir 252/sq km. (c) Hasdo project (d) None of these
(d) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh 2. The decadal population growth 124. Crude death rate is defined as
during 2001-11 is 17.5%.
113. The belt of coniferous forests in (a) Number of infant death
Which of the statement(s) given (b) Number of adult death
Nepal, Sikkim and Assam
above is/are correct? (c) Number of death in a particular
Himalayas is at a higher (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
altitude than those in Kashmir years/thousand of population
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Himalayas because Sikkim (d) Number of both Infant and adult
and Assam Himalayas 119. With respect to Himalaya, choose death
1. are at lower latitudes. the correct statement(s) 125. Which one of the following factors
2. get lesser snowfall at lower 1. There were two phase of is responsible for excessive soil
heights. upheaval of Himalaya erosion in Chotanagpur plateau?
3. have higher temperatures at 2. Himalayas are classified on two (a) Heavy rain throughout the year
lower heights. basis (b) Loose sandy soil
4. have lower altitudes. 3. Kumaon Himalaya belongs to (c) Deep ploughing by tractors
longitudinal series of Himalayas (d) Large scale felling of trees
5. have more rainfall at lower
heights.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 921

126. Tamil Nadu is a leading Which of the statement(s) given 140. The Nagarjunasagar dam is
producer of mill-made cotton above is/are correct? constructed on the river
yarn in the country. What could (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Krishna (b) Chambal
be the reason? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Kosi (d) Suttej
1. Black cotton soil is the 141. Consider the following statement(s)
predominant type of soil in 133. Jhum cultivation is a method of
the state. cultivation which used to be 1. Kavery is known as Dakshin
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is practiced in Ganga.
available. (a) Himachal Pradesh 2. Manjra is a tributary of
Which of the statement(s) given (b) Central Highland Godavari.
above is/are correct? (c) Coastal Tamil Nadu Which of the statement(s) given
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Nagaland above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
134. The direction of the monsoons of
127. Which is the artificial port of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the Arabian Sea branch is from
India? (a) North-West 142. Consider the following statements
(a) Kandla (b) Southern tip to West about Lonar lake. Which of the
(b) Mangalore (c) South-East statements given below is/are true?
(c) Chennai or Madras (d) None of the above (a) It is created by a meteor hitting the
(d) Haldia Earth.
135. Which one of the following is not
128. The Konkan Railway connects a plantation crop? (b) It is a crater lake.
(a) Goa – Mangaluru (a) Tea (b) Coffee (c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(b) Roha – Mangaluru (c) Rubber (d) Sugarcane (d) It is a man-made lake.
(c) Kanyakumari – Mangaluru
(d) Kanyakumari – Mumbai 136. Which of the following is not 143. ln which one of the following states,
part of Chotanagpur plateau? the cotton cultivation is based
129. If there were no Himalayan 1. Hazaribagh Plateau mainly on irrigation?
ranges, what would have been (a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh
2. Parasnath hills
the most likely geographical (c) Rajasthan (d) Haryana
impact on India? 3. Ranchi Plateau
4. Rajmahal hills 144. Which is the highest peak in
1. Much of the country would
experience the cold waves Select the correct answer using Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
from Siberia. (a) Saddle Peak (b) Mount Thuiller
the codes given below.
2. Indo-Gangetic Plain would be (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 4 (c) Mount Diavolo (d) Mount Koyale
devoid of such extensive (c) Only 4 (d) None of these 145. When the Kaveri river drops as
alluvial soils. soon as it enters Tamil Nadu, what
3. The pattem of monsoon would 137. Which one of the following East
flowing rivers of India has Rift waterfalls does it create?
be different from what it is at (a) Jog Falls
present. valley due to down warping?
(a) Damodar (b) Mahanadi (b) Five Falls
Which of the statement(s) given (c) Hoggenakkal Falls
above is/are correct? (c) Godavari (d) Yamuna
(d) Sivasamudram Falls
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 138. Consider the following
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
statement(s) 146. An important river of the Indian
desert is
130. Consider the following 1. Western dedicated freight (a) Luni (b) Narmada
statement(s) corridor is from Dadri in (c) Krishna (d) Beas
1. River Ravi flows between Pir Uttar Pradesh to Jawaharlal
Panjal and Dhauladhar. Nehru Port Trust near 147. Consider the following statement(s)
2. River Sutlej does not originate Mumbai. 1. River Ken is a left bank
in India. 2. Germany is assisting the tributary of Ganga.
Which of the statement(s) given project. 2. River Chenab is the largest
above is/are correct? Which of the statement(s) given tributary of Indus.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 above is/are correct? Which of the statement(s) given
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
131. Coal mines in Jharkhand are
located at 139. Identify the wrong statement (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Jharia (b) Jamshedpur (a) Khadar soils are more sandy in 148. Which of the following states has
(c) Ranchi (d) Lohardaga composition than Bhangar soils. the maximum total forest cover in
132. Consider the following (b) Regur is an intrazonal soil. India?
statement(s) (c) Red soil is a zonal soil. (a) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) The areas affected by wind (b) Assam
1. ‘Regur soil‘ is another name
erosion on an extensive scale in (c) Madhya Pradesh
for the Black soil.
Northern Haryana and Punjab are (d) Karnataka
2. Saline soil is also known as called Chhos.
Usara soil.
922 CDS Pathfinder

149. Consider the following 156. Bhakra Nangal Project is a joint 163. Consider the following fact(s) about
statements, with respect to venture of the Punjab, Haryana Central Highland
trans-Himalayas and 1. It slopes towards North and
1. It is not part of Himalayas. (a) Uttar Pradesh North-East direction.
2. It acts as watershed. (b) Himachal Pradesh 2. Its Eastern extension is formed
3. It is also known as Tibet (c) Rajasthan by Rajmahal hills.
Himalaya. (d) Uttarakhand 3. Satpura forms its boundary in
4. Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar 157. Soil erosion can be prevented by South.
are ranges of trans-Himalaya. (a) increasing bird population 4. Madhya Bharat Plateau is part
Select the correct answer using (b) afforestation of it.
the codes given below. (c) removal of vegetation Which of the statement(s) given
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (d) overgrazing above is/are correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
158. To meet its rapidly growing
150. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of (3) Only 2 (d) All of these
energy demand, some advise
(a) Assam Himalayas
that India should pursue 164. According to 2011 census, which
(b) Kumaon Himalayas
research and development on state has the highest sex ratio?
(c) Nepal Himalayas
thorium as the future fuel of (a) Kerala (b) Haryana
(d) Punjab Himalayas
nuclear energy. In this context, (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Punjab
151. Which one of the following what advantage does thorium 165. Which state has the largest
mountain ranges is spread over hold over uranium?
only one state in India? population of Scheduled Tribes?
1. Thorium is far more abundant (a) Arunachal pradesh
(a) Aravalli (b) Satpura
in nature than uranium. (b) Sikkim
(c) Ajanta (d) Sahyadri
2. On the basis of per unit mass (c) Madhya Pradesh
152. Which one of the following of mined mineral, thorium can (d) Jharkhand
districts is well known for the generate more energy
cultivation of coffee? compared to natural uranium. 166. Which state in India has the
(a) Balasore (b) Chikmangalur 3. Thorium produces less
maximum density of roads?
(c) Guntur (d) Khurda (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Kerala
harmful waste compared to
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
153. With reference to Indian uranium.
Agriculture, which one of the Which of the statement(s) given 167. Jaduguda is associated with the
following statements is correct? above is/are correct? mining of
(a) About 90% of the area under (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Iron (b) Mica
pulses in India is rainfed (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these (c) Uranium (d) Copper
(b) The share of pulses in the gross 168. Consider the following statements,
159. Identify the correct decreasing
cropped are at the national level
has doubled in the last two order of river basins area in with reference to Indian transport
decades India. systems
(c) India accounts for about 15% of (a) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus, 1. Indian railway system is the
the total area under rice in the Godavari largest in the world.
world (b) Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra, 2. National Highways cater to 45%
(d) Rice occupies about 34% of the Krishna of the total land transport
gross cropped area of India (c) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Godavari, demand.
154. Consider the following Indus 3. Among the states, Kerala has,
(d) Ganga, Indus, Godavari, Krishna the highest density of surface
statements
road.
1. Humus is not a mineral. 160. Which one among the following 4. National Highway 7 is the
2. Humus helps to retain is not a source of renewable longest in the country.
moisture in the soil. energy? Which of the statements given above
3. It helps the plant in (a) Hydroelectricity (b) Solar energy
absorbing materials from the are correct?
(c) Fuel cell (d) Wind energy (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
soil for building its body.
161. The greatest potential for the (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
4. A soil looks dark on account
of the presence of humus. generation of tidal power in 169. Consider the following statement(s)
Which of the statements given India is available in the
(a) Malabar coast 1. The movement of the isotherms
above are correct? is greater over the land than it
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) Konkan coast
is over the oceans.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these (c) Gujarat coast
(d) Coromandel coast
2. Coastal regions have a smaller
155. The first Indian railway train in range of temperature than the
162. The tribal population in continental interiors.
1853, journeyed between
(a) Bombay and Pune Andaman and Nicobar Islands Which of the statement(s) given
(b) Pune and Ahmedabad belongs to the above is/are correct?
(c) Bombay and Thane (a) Australoid race (b) Caucasoid race (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) Howrah and Kharagpur (c) Mongoloid race (d) Negroid race (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 923

170. In India, the problem of soil 171. Consider the following 172. The agricultural production in
erosion is associated with which statement(s) with regard to the different parts of India is very much
of the following? mining industry of India affected by varying intensities of
1. Terrace cultivation 1. The spatial distribution of floods and droughts. Which one of
minerals is uneven. the following measures would not be
2. Deforestation
2. The mining industry since sustainable in this respect?
3. Tropical climate (a) Provision for extensive irrigation
colonial days has been
Select the correct answer using export-oriented. facilities
the codes given below. Which of the statement(s) given (b) Change in the crop calendar
(a) 1 and 2 (c) Avoidance of flood and drought prone
above is/are correct?
(b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 areas for agriculture
(c) 1 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Emphasis on selection of crops best
(d) All of the above suited to flood and drought conditions

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) 5. Gaddis are 9. Match the following
(a) fishermen of Kerala
1. The country that shares longest List I List II
(b) pastoralists of Arunachal Pradesh
border with India is (Rivers) (Tributaries)
(c) shepherds of Himachal Pradesh
(a) China (b) Bangladesh (d) nomads of Rajasthan desert A. Ganga 1. Chambal and Ken
(c) Nepal (d) Pakistan B. Indus 2. Wainganga and Indravati
6. Arrange the following tributaries C. Yamuna 3. Chenab and Sutlej
2. Match the following of river Brahmaputra from West to D. Godavari 4. Gomti and Kosi
List I List II East.
(Tiger Reserves) (States) 1. Lohit 2. Dibang Codes
3. Subansiri 4. Tista A B C D A B CD
A. Indravati 1. Karnataka
Codes (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 4 3 1 2
B. Periyar 2. Odisha
C. Simlipal 3. Kerala (a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
D. Bandipur 4. Chhattisgarh (c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1 10. Tank irrigation is practised mainly
7. Match the following in Peninsular India because
Codes
1. undulating relief and hard
A B C D A B C D List I List II
rocks make it difficult to dig
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 (Hill Stations) (Locations in Map)
canals and wells.
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 A. Dharamsala 2. rivers are rainfed.
1
B. Almora 3 2 4 3. of compact nature of population
3. Duncan passage is located between
(a) South and Little Andaman C. Nainital and agricultural fields.
(b) Little and Great Nicobar D. Darjeeling
Select the correct answer using the
(c) North and Middle Andaman codes given below.
(d) Middle and South Andaman (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Codes
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
A B C D A B C D
2012 (II) (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 11. Which of the following are
4. Match the following (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 responsible for the decrease of per
8. Match the following capita holding of cultivated land in
List I India?
List II List I
(Biosphere List I 1. Low per capita income.
(States) (Producing
Reserves) (Minerals)
Centres in Map) 2. Rapid rate of increase of
A. Nilgiri 1. Odisha population.
A. Copper
B. Manas 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Practice of dividing land equally
B. Mice
C. Panchmarhi 3. Tamil Nadu 3 4 among the heirs.
C. Chromite
1 4. Use of traditional techniques of
D. Simeslipal 4. Assam D. Lignite 2 ploughing.
Codes Select the correct answer using the
Codes codes given below.
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 2 4 3
924 CDS Pathfinder

12. Surface water resources are Codes Codes

highest in AB C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) Ganga plains (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 1 2 3 4 (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2
(b) North-Eastern India (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
(c) Peninsular India
19. Match the following 24. Consider the following sanctuaries of
(d) Indus plains
India
13. The main aim of watershed List I List II
(Locations in Map)
1. Periyar 2. Dachigam
management strategy of India is (Places)
3. Sariska 4. Kanha
(a) promoting silviculture A. Kollam
(b) hillslope management
Which one among the following is
B. Tuticorin the correct sequence of location of
(c) arid land management
(d) soil conservation B. Ongole the above sanctuaries from South to
2 North?
14. Which among the following D. Nellore 4
3
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2
1
cities of India will have mid-day (c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
Sun exactly overhead only a Codes
year? 25. Which one among the following
A B C D A B C D
(a) Delhi and Chennai states does not form part of the
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
(b) Srinagar and Darjeeling
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2
Narmada basin?
(c) Hyderabad and Kohima (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(d) Nagpur and Kolkata 20. Veliconda hills, which is a part of (c) Rajasthan (d) Maharashtra
Eastern ghats, is situated in
15. Match the following (a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu 26. Which one among the following is
List II (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh the correct sequence of the rivers
List I (States where from North to South?
(Tribal Groups) Predominantly (a) Damodar - Brahmani - Mahanadi -
Located) 2013 (II) Tungabhadra
A. Reang 1. Arunachal Pradesh 21. Match the following (b) Damodar - Mahanadi - Brahmani -
B. Dimasa 2. Nagaland Tungabhadra
List I List II (c) Brahmani - Tungabhadra - Damodar
C. Konyak 3. Tripura (Industrials (Places of
D. Mishmi 4. Assam - Mahanadi
Production) Production)
(d) Damodar - Brahmani - Tungabhadra
Codes A. Brassware 1. Kanchipuram - Mahanadi
A B C D A B C D B. Silk Sarees 2. Lucknow
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3 C. Chikken Embroidery 3. Muradabad
27. Amarkantak plateau in the Maikal
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 D. Sports Goods 4. Jalandhar hills marks the origin of the river
(a) Gandak (b) Chambal
Codes (c) Narmada (d) Ghaggar
2013 (I) A B C D A B C D
28. Which of the following statement(s)
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
16. Which one among the following (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3 about Nathu la Pass is/are correct?
Indian rivers originates in 1. It links Sikkim with Tibet.
Maharashtra and flows through 22. Why is Himalayan region poor in
2. It was the main artery of the
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh mineral resources? ancient Silk Route.
to meet the Bay of Bengal in (a) Himalayan region is made up of
3. It was reopened in the year
Andhra coast? crystalline rocks
2006.
(a) Mahanadi (b) Kaveri (b) Displacement of rock strata has
disturbed the arrangement of rocks Select the correct answer using the
(c) Krishna (d) Godavari codes given below.
and made it complex
17. The Karewas of Kashmir refers (c) The climatic conditions are not (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
to which among the following suitable for exploration of minerals (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
types of deposits? (d) The rugged terrain makes exploration
(a) Aeolian and glacial
(b) Fluvial
of minerals difficult and costly 2014 (I)
(c) Lacustrine
23. Match the following 29. Which one of the following is the
(d) Volcanic List I example of subsistence farming?
List II
(Hydroelectric (a) Shifting cultivation
18. Match the following Power Stations)
(Locations in Map)
(b) Commercial farming
List I List II A. Nagarjunasagar (c) Extensive and intensive farming
(Dams) (Rivers) B. Mettur (d) Organic farming
A. Ukai Dam 1. Beas C. Hirakud 30. Which of the following is/are West
4
B. Bhakra Dam 2. Krishna D. Sileru 3 flowing river(s) of India?
2
C. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam 3. Sutlej 1. Mahanadi 2. Krishna
1
D. Pandoh Dam 4. Tapi (Tapti)
3. Narmada 4. Kavery
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 925

Select the correct answer using the Codes 41. Which of the following statements
codes given below. A B C D A B C D regarding jhum cultivation in India
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 are correct?
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 3 4 1. It is largely practised in
North-Eastern Indian States.
31. What would be the influence on the 36. Veliconda group of low hills is a
2. It is referred to as ‘slash and
weather conditions when in structural part of
burn’ technique.
mid-winter a feeble high pressure (a) Nilgiri Hills
(b) Western Ghats
3. In it, the fertility of soil is
develops over the North-Western exhausted in a few years.
(c) Eastern Ghats
part of India? (d) Cardamom Hills Select the correct answer using the
1. High and dry winds would blow codes given below.
outward from this high pressure 37. Which one of the following dams (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
area. is constructed across Krishna (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
2. The Northern plain would become River?
(a) Ukai Dam
42. Which of the following statement(s)
cold. relating to Indian agriculture
(b) Krishnaraja Sagar Dam
3. Scorching winds (locally called is/are correct?
(c) Srisailam Dam
loo) would blow during the day 1. India has the world’s largest
(d) Mettur Dam
time. cropped area.
4. There would be torrential rains 2. Cropping pattern is dominated
brought by thunderstorms. 2014 (II) by cereal crop.
Select the correct answer using the 3. The average size of an Indian
38. Arrange the following States of farm holding is too small for
codes given below. India on the basis of conferring
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 several agricultural operations.
statehood (starting from the
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these Select the correct answer using the
earliest) codes given below.
32. Arrange the locations of four oil 1. Arunachal Pradesh (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
refineries of india from West to 2. Nagaland (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
East. 3. Sikkim
(a) Koyali, Kochi, Panipat, Mathura 43. Arrange the following tiger
4. Meghalaya reserves of India from North to
(b) Kochi, Koyali, Panipat, Mathura
Codes South.
(c) Koyali, Panipat, Kochi, Mathura
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3 1. Indravati 2. Dudhwa
(d) Koyali, Panipat, Mathura, Kochi
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
3. Bandipur 4. Similipal
33. Which one of the following is a 39. Consider the following Codes
land-locked harbour? statement(s) regarding ground (a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
(a) Visakhapatnam (b) Ennore
water in India (c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) Mumbai (d) Haldia
1. The large scale exploitation of
44. Match the following
34. Match the following ground water is done with the
help of tube-wells. List I
List I List II List II
2. The demand for ground water (Hill Ranges of
(Hydroelectric Power (Locations in the (Locations in Map)
started increasing with the Central India)
Stations) Map)
advent of Green Revolution. (a) Satpura
A. Srisailam (b) Mahadeo
3. The total replenishable ground
B. Sabarigiri water reserves is highest in (c) Vindhya 1
2 3 4
C. Hirakud 1 the hilly tracts of Sikkim, (d) Maikala
D. Sileru 2 Nagaland and Tripura.
3

4
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? Codes
Codes (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 A B C D A B C D
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2
A B C D A B C D
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 40. Which of the following would
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 have happened if the Himalayas
35. Match the following did not exist? 2015 (I)
(a) Monsoon rains would have taken 45. Arrange the following tributaries of
List I place in winter months.
List II river Indus from North to South.
(Irrigation/Power
(Rivers) (b) Coastal India would have
Projects) 1. Chenab 2. Jhelum
experienced Mediterranean climate.
A. Bhakra Nangal 1. Bhagirathi (c) North Indian plain would have 3. Ravi 4. Sutlej
B. Dul Hasti 2. Mahanadi been much cooler in winter. Codes
C. Hirakud 3. Chandra (d) North-Western part of India would (a) 4, 3, 1, 2 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4
have experienced humid condition. (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4
D. Tehri 4. Sutlej
926 CDS Pathfinder

46. Tank irrigation is commonly found 51. Statement I India’s offshore 55. Match the following
in South-Central parts of India. and deep sea fish catch is very List I List II
What could be the reason? poor considering the marine (Farming Areas) (States)
1. Insufficient shallow ground potential.
A. Doab 1. Assam
water.
Statement II Indian coast does B. Char 2. Karnataka
2. Rocky plateau with impervious
not have many gulfs, bays, C. Maidan 3. Punjab
surface depression.
estuaries and backwaters. D. Terai 4. Uttar Pradesh
3. Undulating terrain helps in
accumulation of rain water in Codes Codes
depression or man-made tank. (a) Both the statements are A B C D A B C D
Select the correct answer using the individually true and Statement II (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4
is the correct explanation of
codes given below. (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
Statement I
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(b) Both the statements are 56. Match the following
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
individually true, but Statement II List I List I
47. Which of the following is/are the is not the correct explanation of (Steel Mills) (States)
reason(s) behind Gujarat being the Statement I
A. Kalinganagra 1. West Bengal
leading producer of Salt in India? (c) Statement I is true, but Statement
II is false B. Vijayanagara 2. Tamil Nadu
1. The long length of coastline.
(d) Statement I is false, but C. Salem 3. Odisha
2. Long duration of hot and dry
Statement II is true D. Durgapur 4. Karnataka
conditions.
3. Presence of gulf areas. Codes
Select the correct answer using the 2015 (II) A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
A B C D
(b) 1 2 4 3
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 52. Match the following (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these List I List II 57. Which of the following are the major
48. If 82° 30′ East longitude (Regions) (States) factors responsible for the monsoon
(Allahabad) shows 6:00 am of A. Baghelkhand 1. West Bengal type of climate in India?
Sunday (local time), what would be B. Kuttanad 2. Madhya Pradesh 1. Location
the local time of Florida (USA) C. Saurashtra 3. Kerala 2. Thermal contrast
located at 82° West longitude? D. Rarh 4. Gujarat 3. Upper air circulation
(a) 6 : 58 pm of Saturday 4. The Himalayan Mountains
(b) 7 : 02 pm of Sunday Codes
Select the correct answer using the
(c) 6 : 58 am of Sunday A B C D A B C D
(d) 7 : 02 am of Saturday
codes given below.
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
49. Consider the following (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
statement(s) with regard to cold 53. Match the following
58. Consider the following Indian states
waves in winter season in List I List II
Northern India 1. Andhra Pradesh
(Lakes) (Types) 2. Chhattisgarh
1. There is lack of maritime
influence. A. Ashtamudi Kayal 1. Residual 3. Tamil Nadu
(Sweet water)
2. Northern India is nearer to the 4. Telangana
B. Himayat Sagar 2. Lagoon
Himalayan region. 5. Uttarakhand
C. Dal Lake 3. Glacial
3. Air mass comes from polar Which among the states given above
D. Tsomgo Lake 4. Artificial
regions of Northern India. (Sweet water) are the largest and smallest
Which of the statement(s) given respectively (in terms of geographical
Codes
above is/are correct? area)?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 and 5 (d) 2 and 5
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
50. Match the following 54. Match the following 59. Match the following
List I List II List I List II
List I List II
(Sanctuaries) (States) (Plants) (Natural Vegetation Types)
(Cities) (Earthquake Zones)
A. Sharavati Valley 1. Gujarat A. Ebony 1. Moist deciduous
A. Kolkata 1. Zone V
B. Satkosia Gorge 2. Goa B. Guwahati 2. Zone IV B. Shisham 2. Himalayan moist
C. Pirotan Island 3. Odisha C. Delhi 3. Zone III C. Walnut 3. Alpine
D. Bhagwan Mahavir 4. Karnataka D. Chennai 4. Zone II D. Birch 4. Tropical evergreen

Codes Codes Codes

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 (a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4 (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3 (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 927

2016 (I) 63. With which one of the following Arrange the above rivers from West
countries, India has signed an to East.
60. Consider the following MoU under the International (a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
statement(s) regarding laterite Cooperation on Brahmaputra and (c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
soils of India Sutlej rivers? 69. Which of the following statement(s)
1. Laterite soils are generally red (a) Pakistan (b) China regarding chemical industry in India
in colour. (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
is/are correct?
2. Laterite soils are rich in
nitrogen and potash. 64. Headquarters of which one 1. Chemical industry is one of the
3. Laterite soils are well among the following Railway oldest industries in India.
developed in Rajasthan and Zones in India is situated at the 2. Dyestuff sector is one of the
Uttar Pradesh. highest elevation from the mean important segments of chemical
4. Tapioca and cashewnuts grow sea level? industry.
well in this soil. (a) East–Central Railway 3. Textile industry accounts for the
(b) South–Eastern Railway largest consumption of dyestuffs.
Which of the statement(s) given
(c) South–Western Railway
above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
(d) West–Central Railway
(a) Only 1 codes given below.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 65. Consider the following (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 statement(s) (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(d) 1, 2 and 4 1. Most of the coal and the 70. Arrange the following popular hill
61. Consider the following map of ferrous group of minerals in stations of India in terms of their
India. India occur in the peninsula,
height (from highest to the lowest)
South of the Vindhyas.
from the mean sea level.
2. The peninsular India once
formed part of the 1. Mussoorie 2. Shimla
super-continent which included 3. Ooty 4. Darjeeling
Australia, Antarctica, Africa Codes
and South America. (a) 3, 2, 4, 1 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2
Which of the statement(s) given (c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
above is/are correct? 71. Which of the following statements
(a) Only 1 relating to the Scheduled Tribes and
(b) Only 2
Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(c) Both 1 and 2
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2006 are correct?
66. The Mahatma Gandhi National 1. The Act recognises forest rights of
Marine Park is located in forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes
(a) Pirotan Island who have been occupying the
The areas marked in the map (b) Rameswaram
given above account for the forest land before 25th October,
(c) Ganga Sagar Island 1980.
production of which one of the (d) Port Blair
following cash crops? 2. The onus of implementation of the
(a) Cotton 67. Which one of the following islands Act lies at the level of the
(b) Groundnut is of volcanic origin? State/UT Governments.
(c) Sugarcane (a) Reunion island 3. The Act seeks to recognise and
(d) Tobacco (b) Andaman and Nicobar islands vest certain forest rights in the
(c) Lakshadweep islands forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes
62. Pir Panjal range in the (d) Maldives and other traditional forest
Himalayas is a part of dwellers.
(a) Shivalik 68. Consider the following tributaries
(b) Trans Himalaya of river Brahmaputra Select the correct answer using the
(c) Central Himalaya 1. Lohit 2. Tista codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) Lesser Himalaya 3. Subansiri 4. Sankosh (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
928 CDS Pathfinder

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 b 2 a 3 b 4 b 5 a 6 a 7 c 8 b 9 a 10 c
11 d 12 b 13 d 14 d 15 d 16 c 17 b 18 d 19 b 20 d
21 b 22 d 23 a 24 a 25 c 26 d 27 b 28 d 29 d 30 c
31 a 32 b 33 b 34 c 35 d 36 a 37 a 38 a 39 a 40 b
41 b 42 c 43 d 44 a 45 c 46 b 47 d 48 c 49 a 50 a
51 b 52 b 53 d 54 c 55 c 56 d 57 a 58 c 59 c 60 d
61 d 62 a 63 c 64 b 65 c 66 c 67 c 68 a 69 d 70 b
71 c 72 b 73 a 74 c 75 b 76 a 77 d 78 c 79 c 80 c
81 b 82 a 83 b 84 c 85 b 86 b 87 c 88 c 89 c 90 b
91 c 92 c 93 b 94 a 95 a 96 b 97 b 98 b 99 c 100 a
101 a 102 d 103 d 104 c 105 c 106 b 107 a 108 c 109 b 110 a
111 c 112 a 113 b 114 d 115 c 116 c 117 d 118 d 119 d 120 a
121 b 122 c 123 a 124 c 125 d 126 b 127 c 128 b 129 d 130 c
131 c 132 c 133 d 134 b 135 d 136 d 137 a 138 a 139 d 140 a
141 c 142 c 143 d 144 a 145 c 146 a 147 b 148 c 149 d 150 b
151 c 152 b 153 a 154 d 155 c 156 c 157 b 158 d 159 d 160 c
161 c 162 d 163 d 164 a 165 c 166 d 167 c 168 d 169 c 170 b
171 c 172 a

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 b 2 c 3 a 4 c 5 c 6 b 7 a 8 d 9 b 10 a
11 b 12 a 13 d 14 b 15 d 16 d 17 c 18 c 19 * 20 d
21 a 22 b 23 b 24 c 25 c 26 a 27 c 28 d 29 a 30 c
31 a 32 a 33 a 34 b 35 b 36 c 37 c 38 a 39 a 40 c
41 d 42 c 43 c 44 d 45 d 46 d 47 d 48 a 49 d 50 c
51 a 52 a 53 a 54 b 55 b 56 c 57 c 58 d 59 a 60 c
61 a 62 d 63 b 64 c 65 b 66 d 67 a 68 a 69 d 70 a
71 b
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 929

PART III
ENVIRONMENT, ECOLOGY AND BIODIVERSITY
ENVIRONMENT • In an ecosystem, the biotic and abiotic components are
inseparably inter-related and interact with each other.
• Environment literally means the surrounding and Being an open system, an ecosystem has energy and
everything that affects an organism during its lifetime, material flowing across its boundaries.
collectively known as its environment.
• In other words, “environment is the sum of the Components of Ecosystem
components of water, air and land; inter-relationships Components of ecosystem can be classified into two parts,
among them and also with human beings, other living which are as follow :
organisms and property”. It includes all the physical and
biological surroundings and their interactions. i. Abiotic Part It is the non-living component, e.g. air,
water, soil, suspended particulate matter etc. Abiotic
The environment broadly consists of two types of components of an ecosystem includes inorganic
components substances (carbon dioxide, nitrogen, oxygen water,
i. Abiotic Components Abiotic components of etc), organic chemicals (chlorophyll etc) and climate
environment includes non-living elements like-land, factors (light, temperature, humidity etc).
water and air. ii. Biotic Part It includes plants, animals and
ii. Biotic Components Biotic components of micro-organisms. It can be classified into various
environment include all the life forms like plants, categories on the basis of functions.
animals, decomposers.
Producers
Types of Environment • Plants are a major part of producers. Apart from trees
and plants, producers also include micro-organisms such
There are three types of environment : as bacteria near ocean vents. They produce their food
i. Natural Environment It consists of all abiotic themselves.
(non-living) and biotic (living) components, which exist • Producers make their food or derive their energy by two
naturally on Earth. processes :
ii. Man-Made Environment It consists of those places i. Photosynthesis ii. Chemosynthesis
which are artificially made by man by planned
manipulation. It includes crop fields, urban centres, Consumers (Heterotrophs)
industrial set-ups etc. Organisms that gather energy by consuming organic
iii. Social Environment It includes cultural norms and material from other organisms. Rather than performing
values prevailing in a particular society. It also includes photosynthesis or chemosynthesis, consumers perform
the network of political, economic and religious aerobic respiration, which converts sugar (glucose) and
institutions which often decide the environmental oxygen into carbon dioxide and water to give them
resources to be utilised by the people. energy.
There are four types of consumers, which are as follow :
ECOLOGY i. Primary Consumers Organisms that consume
mainly producers. Primary consumers are also known
It is a science, in which study of organism is undertaken in as herbivores because they consume mainly plants.
relation to their environment. This science developed in ii. Secondary Consumers Organisms that consume
response to the increasing awareness of inter-relationships mainly primary consumers. Secondary consumers are
between plants, animals and their physical habitats. also known as carnivores because they consume
mainly animals.
Ecosystem iii. Tertiary Consumers Organisms that consume
secondary consumers. Tertiary consumers are to top
• Then term ecosystem was first used by AG Tansley in 1935, carnivores because they are not eaten by other
who defined ecosystem as a particular category of physical animals.
system, consisting of organisms and inorganic components iv. Decomposer or Detritus Bacteria, fungi and insects
in a relatively stable equilibrium, open and of various sizes which degrade and decompose organic matter of all
and kinds. types and restore nutrients to the environment.
930 CDS Pathfinder

Functioning of Ecosystem There are two types of biomass pyramids, which are as
follow :
The main functions of an ecosystem are as follow :
i. Upright Pyramid An upright pyramid is one where
Food Chain the combined weight of producers is larger than the
• The feeding of one organism upon another in a sequence combined weight of consumers. e.g. forest ecosystem.
of food transfer is known as a food chain. Another ii. Inverted Pyramid An inverted pyramid is one where
definition is that it is the chain of transfer of energy the combined weight of producers is smaller than the
(which typically comes from the Sun) from one organism combined weight of consumers. e.g. an aquatic
to another. A simple food chain is like the following ecosystem.
Grass>Insect>Frogs>Snake>Hawk
• Except in deep-sea hydrothermal ecosystems, all food Pyramid of Numbers
chains start with photosynthesis and end with decay. The pyramid of numbers represents the number of
Food Web organisms in each trophic level.
• A network of food chains or feeding relationships by • Upright, partly upright and inverted are the three types
which energy and nutrients are passed on from one of pyramids of numbers. An aquatic ecosystem is an
species of living organism to another is called Food Web. example of upright pyramid where the number of
• A food web is represented by a graphical description of
organisms becomes fewer and fewer higher up in the
feeding relationships among species in an ecological pyramid.
community, e.g. of who eats whom. It is also a means of • A forest ecosystem is an example of a partially upright
showing how energy and materials (e.g. carbon) flow pyramid, as fewer producers support more primary
through a community of species as a result of these consumers, but there are less secondary and tertiary
feeding relationships. consumers.
• An inverted pyramid of numbers is one where the
number of organisms depending on the lower levels
grows closer toward the apex. e.g. a parasitic food chain.
Lion
Jackal Pyramid of Energy
The pyramid of energy represents the total amount of
Goat energy consumed by each trophic level. An energy
pyramid is always upright as the total amount of energy
Wild cat available for utilisation in layer above is less than the
Rabbit Kite energy available in the lower levels. This happens because
during energy transfer from lower to higher levels, some
energy is always lost. Energy is also lost at every level in
Snake the form of heat, respiration etc.
Green Plant Mouse
Poducer Food Web in a Forest
Ecosystem Productivity
• Trophic Levels Trophic levels are the feeding position The productivity of an ecosystem refers to the rate of
in a food chain such as primary producers, herbivore, production, i.e. the amount of organic matter accumulated
primary carnivore etc. Generally, green plants form the per unit area in unit time. It is of following types
first trophic level, the producers. Herbivores form the
• Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) It is minus
second trophic level, while carnivores and omnivores
form the third and even the fourth trophic levels. energy utilised in respiration.
NPP = GPP – R
• Ecological Pyramids An ecological pyramid is a
• Net Primary Productivity (NPP) It is the amount of
graphical representation designed to show the number of
organisms, energy relationships and biomass of an chemical energy, that is generated by primary producer
ecosystem. They are also called Eltonian pyramids after in a given period of time. It is also defined as rate of
Charles Elton, who developed the concept of ecological production of organic matter. NPP is the available
pyramids. biomass for consumption to heterotrophs.
• Pyramid of Biomass A pyramid of biomass is a • Secondary Productivity (SP) It is the rate of energy
representation of the amount of energy contained in storage at consumer level.
biomass, at different tropic levels for a particular time. It • Net Productivity (NP) It is the rate of storage of
is measured in grams per square metre or calories per organic matter not used by the heterotrophs or
sq m. consumers.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 931

Ecological Niche Causes and Sources

It is the role, position a species has in its environment. A • Air pollution is caused by various type of pollutants.
species niche include all of its interaction with biotic and Petroleum refineries release poisonous gases like sulphur
abiotic factor of its environment. dioxide, nitrogen oxides etc.
• Dust is produced from cement factories and from stone
Ecological Succession crushers and hot mix plant releases suspended particulate
It is a natural process by which different groups or matter more than five times the safety limits by industrial
communities colonise the same area over a period of time standards.
in a definite sequence. It can also be defined as series of • The thermal power plant produce deadly pollutants such
stages one after the other, by which a group of organisms as fly ash, hydrocarbons etc. In urban areas, automobiles
living in a community reaches its final stable state or are the chief sources of pollution.
climax. • The ever increasing traffic density has aggravated the
existing problem of air pollution. Automobiles mainly
POLLUTION produce pollutants like unburnt hydrocarbons, CO 2 ,
NO 2 , lead oxides etc.
Introduction of contaminants or impurities into the
natural environment is called pollution. Pollutant or Effects of Air Pollution
contaminant may be natural or foreign substance. • Effect on Human Health
Pollution cause adverse changes in the nature and in long – Irritation of eyes, nose, throat, damage to lungs when
term affects the life on Earth. inhaled.
– Acute and chronic asthma.
Environmental Pollution – Brochitis and emphysema (as a result of synergy

Environmental pollution is the effect of undesirable between SO 2 and suspended particulate matter).
– Lung cancer.
changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on
plants, animals and human beings. • Acid Deposition The process by which acidic air
pollutants, generally sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
Primary Pollutants are deposited on the Earth. Much of this deposition
• A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly occurs when the pollutants condense in water and fall to
from a source. A secondary pollutant is not directly the Earth as precipitation, known generally as acid rain.
emitted as such, but forms when other pollutants Acid deposition causes changes in the pH of water and
(primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere. soil, leading to a host of environmental problems.
• Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen oxides, Carbon monoxide, • Wet Deposition It refers to acidic rain, fog and snow. If,
CFCs, CO 2 , Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) etc the acid chemicals in the air are blown into areas where
are primary pollutants. the weather is wet, the acids can fall to the ground in the
form of rain, snow, fog or mist.
Secondary Pollutants • Dry Deposition In areas where the weather is dry, the

These are derived from primary pollutants. The examples acid chemicals may become incorporated into dust or
smoke and fall to the ground through dry deposition,
of secondary pollutants are as follow
sticking to the ground, buildings, homes, cars and trees.
• Particulate matter formed from gaseous primary
pollutants and compounds in photochemical smog, such 2. Noise Pollution
as nitrogen dioxide. Noise can be described as sound without agreeable musical
• Ground level ozone (O 3) formed from NO and Volatile quality or as an unwanted or undesired sound. Thus, noise
Organic Compounds (VOCs). can be taken as a group of loud, non-harmonious sounds or
• Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) similarly formed from NO vibrations that are unpleasant and irritating to ear.
2 and VOCs. Sources of Noise Pollution
• The noise pollution has two sources, i.e. industrial and
Kinds of Pollution non-industrial. The industrial sources includes the noise
from various industries and big machines working at a
1. Air Pollution very high speed and high noise intensity.
Presence of contaminants released by human activities into • Non-industrial source of noise includes the noise created
the Earth's atmosphere having potential of causing harm by road traffic, aircraft, railroads, construction, industry,
to property or the precious lives of plants, animals or noise in buildings and consumer products, loud speakers,
humans. sirens etc.
932 CDS Pathfinder

Effects of Noise Pollution • e-Waste Treatment Environmentally sound e-waste

• It decreases the hearing efficiency in humans. There treatment technology is identified at three levels, which
should be cool and calm atmosphere during the are as follow :
pregnancy. Unpleasant sounds make a lady of irritative i. In this level treatment includes decontamination,
nature. Sudden noise causes abortion in females. dismantling and segregation.
• The noises are recognised as major contributing factors in ii. This treatment includes shredding and special
accelerating the already existing tensions of modern treatment processes like electromagnetic separation,
living. These tensions result in certain disease like eddy current separation and density separation
enhanced blood pressure or mental illness etc. using water.
• Noise pollution damages the nervous system of animals. iii. This treatment includes recovery of metals and
Animal loses the control of its mind. disposal of hazardous e-waste fraction, including
• Loud noise is very dangerous to buildings, bridges and
plastics with flame retardants, CFCs, capacitors,
mercury, lead and other items. All three levels of
monuments. It creates waves which strike the walls and
e-waste treatment are based on material flow.
put the building in danger condition. It weakens the
structure of buildings.
4. Water Pollution
3. Radioactive Pollution According to definition of WHO, “water pollution occurs
when foreign materials either from natural or other
Radioactive pollution, like any other kind of pollution, is
sources are added to water supplies and may be harmful
the release of radioactive elements into the environment.
to life, because of their toxicity, reduction of normal
Radioactive element omits high energy waves which can
oxygen level of water, aesthetically unsuitable effects and
cause mutation in the DNA of living organisms.
spread of epidemic diseases”.
Causes of Radioactive Pollution
Sources of Water Pollution
• There are many causes of radioactive pollution, which
Sources of water pollution are as follow :
can significantly harm the environment.
• Industrial effluents.
• Production of nuclear weapons, decommissioning of
nuclear weapons, mining of radioactive ore, coal ash, • Industrial wastes derived from chemical industries,
medical waste, nuclear power plants are important source thermal power plants and nuclear power stations.
of radioactive pollution. • Sewage and other waste.
Radioactive Waste Management • Agricultural discharges.
Following techniques are effective in radioactive waste Types of Water Pollution
management Water pollution can be classified as :
• Geological Disposal This is effectively, the burying of • Surface Water Pollution Rivers, lakes and ponds
radioactive material. Rooms are then excavated at the constitute surface water.
bottom of geological formation and radioactive material is
• River Water Pollution It poses a serious problem.
stored here until it has decayed enough to not be
dangerous any more. Urban sewer drainage and industrial effluents are two
major sources of river pollution. Soil erosion causes
• Transmutation Transmutation of radioactive waste is the
siltation of lakes.
process of consuming this radioactive waste and turning
• Sea Water Pollution It occurs near coastal waters due
it into less harmful waste. This is currently not used very
often due to high coasts. to dumping of pollutants. Pollution at deep sea is
caused by leakage of oil due to ship wreckage. Oil spills
• Re-Use of Radioactive Waste Some radioactive
have caused great harm to sea life in recent past.
isotopes, such as strontium-90 and caesium-137 are able
• Ground Water Pollution Contamination of ground
to be extracted for use in other industries such as food
irradiation. water takes place through pollutants like nitrates,
phosphorus, potash, insecticides, pesticides etc. These
e-Waste pollutants reach into the ground water and make water
• It comprises of wastes generated from used electronic polluted.
devices and household appliances, which are no longer • Effects of Water Pollution The water we drink is a
suitable for their original intended use and are best suited crucial component for healthy living. Clean water is
only for recovery, recycling or disposal such as essential for health. Use of contaminated water is a
computers, mobiles or cell phones, personal stereos and major reason for various water borne diseases like
large household appliances such as refrigerators, Cholera, Typhoid, Hepatits-B etc.
air-conditioners.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 933

• The effects of water pollution are not only devastating to ii. Species Diversity It refers to the variety of species
people, but also to animals, fish and birds. Polluted water in a specific area. The diversity of species can be
is unsuitable for drinking, recreating, agriculture and measured through its richness, abundance and types.
industry. It diminishes the aesthetic quality of lakes and iii. Ecosystem Diversity The broad differences between
rivers. More seriously, contaminated water destroys ecosystem types and the diversity of habitats and
aquatic life and reduces its reproductive ability. ecological processes occurring within each ecosystem
Eventually, it is a hazard to human health. type constitute the ecosystem diversity.
5. Thermal Pollution Measurement of Biodiversity
• This pollution is the degradation of water quality by any
process that changes ambient water temperature. A Biodiversity is an important measure of ecosystem health.
common cause of thermal pollution is the use of water as Biodiversity can be measured and monitored at several
a coolant, storm water by power plants and industrial spatial scales.
manufactures. • Alpha Diversity It is used to measure richness and
• When water used as a coolant is returned to the natural evenness of individuals within a habitat unit.
environment at a higher temperature, the change in • Beta Diversity Beta diversity is distinct from alpha
temperature decreases oxygen supply and affects diversity as it is expression of diversity between
ecosystem composition. Thermal pollution is a crucial habitats.
source of global warming. • Gamma Diversity It is used to measure diversity of
habitats within a landscape or region.
6. Marine Pollution • Point Diversity It refers to diversity on the smallest
• It refers to the emptying of chemicals or other particles scale such as the diversity of microhabitat or sample
into the ocean and its harmful effects. These chemicals taken from within a homogenous habitat.
enter into food chain when they are taken up by plankton
and benthos.
Biodiversity Hotspots
• UNCLOS gives special attention to protection and
• A biodiversity hotspot is a bio-geographic region with
preservation of marine environment. It covers main
a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under
sources of ocean pollution, which are as follow
threat from humans. This concept was put forward by
– Land based and coastal activities
Norman Myers.
– Continental shelf drilling
• To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must
– Potential sea bed mining
meet two strict criterias. It must contain atleast 0.5%
– Ocean dumping or 1500 species of vascular plants as endemic and it has
– Vessel source pollution to have lost atleast 70% of its primary vegetation.
– Pollution from or through the atmosphere. • Around the world, 25 areas qualify under this
definition. These sites support nearly 60% of the
world’s plant, bird, mammal, reptile and amphibian
BIODIVERSITY species, with a very high share of endemic species.
It refers to the variety and abundance of organisms living in
a particular region. In other words, biodiversity is the Threats to Biodiversity
variability among living and non-living organism and • The unsustainable harvesting of natural resources,
ecological complexes of which they are part, including
including plants, animals and marine species and the
diversity within and between species and ecosystems.
degradation or fragmentation of ecosystems through
land conversion for agriculture, forest clearing etc.
Levels of Biodiversity Invasive non-native or alien species being introduced to
Biodiversity can be observed at three levels, which are as ecosystems to which they are not adapted.
follows : • Pollution from chemical contaminants certainly poses a
i. Genetic Diversity It means the variation found in the further threat to species and ecosystems. A changing
genes within a species. Each individual of every species global climate threatens species and ecosystems. The
have different genetic composition. Within a species distribution of species is largely determined by climate,
there may also be discrete populations with distinctive as the distribution of ecosystems and plant vegetation
genes. zones.
934 CDS Pathfinder

Conservation of Biodiversity International Union for

Conservation of biodiversity is important to
• prevent the loss of genetic diversity of a species.
Conservation (IUCN)
• IUCN is an international organisation dedicated to
• save a species from becoming extinct.
• protect ecosystems damage and degradation.
finding pragmatic solutions to our most pressing
environment and development challenges.
Conservation Strategies • The organisation publishes the IUCN red list
compiling information from a network of conservation
Conservation effects can be grouped into following two
organisations to rate which species are most
categories, which are as follow
endangered.
i. In situ (on site) conservation included to protection of
plants and animals with their natural habitats or in The IUCN Red List Classification
protected areas. Protected areas are land or sea No individuals remaining.
Extinct (EX)
dedicated to protect and maintain biodiversity.
Extinct in the Wild (EW) Known only to survive in captivity.
ii. Ex-situ (off site) conservation of plants and animals
Extremely high risk of extinction in the
outside the natural habitat. These include botanical Critically Endangered (CR) wild.
gardens, gene banks of seed, tissue culture and High risk of extinction in the wild.
Endangered (EN)
cryopreservation.
Vulnerable (VU) High risk of endangerment in the wild.
International Efforts to Protect Near Threatened (NT)
Likely to become endangered in near
future.
the Biodiversity Lowest risk, does not qualify for a ‘more
Least Concern (LC)
Critical Ecosystem Partnership Fund (CEPF) is a global at risk category’.
programme that provides funding and technical assistance to Data not enough to make an
Data Deficient (DD) assessment of its risk of extinction.
non-governmental organisations and other private sector
partners to protect critical ecosystems. They focus on Not Evaluated (NE)
Has not been evaluated against the
criteria.
biodiversity hot-spots.

The Convention on Man and Biosphere

Biological Diversity (CBD) Programme (MAB)
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an • MAB of UNESCO was established in 1971 to promote
international legally binding treaty. The convention has three interdisciplinary approaches to management, research
main goals, which are as follow : and education in ecosystem conservation and
i. Conservation of biodiversity. sustainable use of natural resources.
• Earlier focus of MAB programme was protection of
ii. Sustainable use of its components.
designated area, but in 1990's after Rio Summit focus
iii. Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from
shifted towards promoting interactions of mankind
genetic resources.
with nature in terms of sustainable living, income
generation and reducing poverty.
Cartagena Protocol in Biosafety
• On 29th January, 2000, the Conference of the Parties MAB-Network
(CoP) to the convention on biological diversity adopted a • Total membership has reached 669 biosphere reserves
supplementary agreement to the convention known as the
in 120 countries. It was created in 1971.
cartagena protocol on biosafety.
• Benefits gained from being part of network include
• The protocol seeks to protect biological diversity from the
access to a shared base of knowledge and incentives to
potential risks posed by living modified organisms
integrate conservational practices.
resulting from modern biotechnology.

The Nagoya Protocol on Access Conservation of Biodiversity in India

Several important steps have been taken by the Indian
and Benefit-Sharing Government including enactment of laws for in-situ and
The Nagoya Protocol on Access to genetic resources and the ex-situ conservation of endangered and valuable plants
fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their and animal, creation of biosphere reserves, national parks,
utilisation to the convention on biological diversity is an sanctuaries, world heritage sites, zoological parks are
international agreement which aims at sharing the benefits some of the important steps in this direction which have
arising from the utilisation of genetic resources in a fair and
been described briefly as below
equitable way.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 935

Endangered Species of India Wetlands

Birds Great Indian Bustard, Forest Owlet, Vulture, Bengal • A wetland is a land area that is saturated with water,
Florican, Himalayan Quail, Siberian Crane either permanently or seasonally, such that it takes on
Mammals Flying Squirrel, Red Panda, Pygmy Hog, Kondana Rat the characteristics of a distinct ecosystem.
Snow Leopard, Asiatic Lion, One-Horned Rhinoceros
• Wetlands consist primarily of hydric soil, which
Reptiles Gharial, Hawksbill Turtle, River Terrapin, Sispara Day supports aquatic plants. Wetlands play a number of roles
Gecko
in the environment, principally water purification, flood
Amphibians Flying Frog, Tiger Toad control and shoreline stability.
• Wetlands are also considered the most biologically
Wildlife Conservation in India diverse of all ecosystems, serving as home to a wide
Project Year Project Year range of plant and animal life.
Project Hangul 1970 Project Manipur Thamin 1977 Ramsar Convention
Project Gir 1972 Project Rhino 1987 • The Ramsar convention is an international treaty signed
in Ramsar, Iran for conservation and wise use of
Project Tiger 1973 Project Elephant 1992
wetlands. The agreement was signed on 2nd February,
Project Olive Riddey Turtles 1975 Project Red Panda 1996 1971 and came into force from 21st December, 1975.
Crocodile Breeding Scheme 1975 Project Vulture 2006 • It is one of the oldest specific conventions that deal not
only with the conservation of the wetlands, but also its
Tiger Conservation wise use. India joined Ramsar Convention in 1981 and
this convention is in force in India since, 1982.
‘The Project Tiger’ was launched in India in 1972 as
conservation programme for saving the Indian Tiger. Ramsar Wetlands and their State
Project Tiger Scheme has been under implementation since, S. No. Wetland State
1973 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Government of 01. Kolleru Lake Andhra Pradesh
India.
02. Deepor Beel Assam
03. Nalsarovar Gujarat
Tiger Census 2014
04. Pong Dam Lake Himachal Pradesh
The number of tigers in India has increased by 30% since,
05. Renuka Wetland Himachal Pradesh
2010 to 2226 in 2014 according to the Tiger Census, 2014
Karnataka has the highest number of tigers (406) followed 06. Chandertal Wetland Himachal Pradesh
by Uttarakhand (340), Madhya Pradesh (308), Tamil Nadu 07. Hokera Wetland Jammu and Kashmir
(229) and Maharashtra (190). 08. Surinsar-Mansar Lake Jammu and Kashmir
09. Tsomoriri Jammu and Kashmir
Important Tiger Reserves
10. Wular Lake Jammu and Kashmir
Name of Tiger Name of Tiger 11. Thrissur Kole Kerala
State State
Reserve Reserve
12. Vembanad-Kol Wetland Kerala
Kaziranga Assam Periyar Kerala
13. Sasthamkotta Lake Kerala
Manas Assam Dudhwa Uttar
Pradesh 14. Ashtamudi Wetland Kerala

Nameri Assam Simplipal Odisha 15. Bhoj Wetland Madhya Pradesh

16. Loktak Lake Manipur
Namdapha Arunachal Ranthambore Rajasthan
Pradesh 17. Chilika Odisha
Nagarjunsagar Andhra Melghat Maharashtra 18. Bhitarkanika Mangrove Odisha
Pradesh-
19. East Calcutta Wetlands West Bengal
Telangana
20. Ropar Punjab
Valmiki Bihar Sariska Rajasthan
21. Kanjili Punjab
Indravati Chhattisgarh Pench Madhya
Pradesh 22. Harika Lake Punjab
Bandipur Karnataka Bori, Satpura, Madhya 23. Keoladeo National Park Rajasthan
Pachmari Pradesh 24. Sambar Lake Rajasthan
Palamau Jharkhand Sathyamanglam Tamil Nadu 25. Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Tamil Nadu
Nagarhole Karnataka Kawal Telangana Sanctuary

Corbett Uttarakhand Mukundra Hills Rajasthan 26. Rudrasagar Lake Tripura

Kanha Madhya 27. Upper Ganga River Uttar Pradesh

Pradesh (Brijghat to Narora Stretch)
936 CDS Pathfinder

National Park and Wildlife Kaziranga National Park Assam One horned rhinoceros, gaur,
elephant, leopard and wild
buffalo
Sanctuaries Kanchenjunga National Sikkim Snow leopard, musk deer and
Park Himalayan boar
• There are 103 National Parks and 528 Wildlife
Sanctuaries covering an area of more than 15.67 million Nagarhole National Park Karnataka
ha in the country. Namdapha Sanctuary Arunachal Elephant, panther, sambhar,
Pradesh tiger, cheetal and king cobra
• Madhya Pradesh and Andaman and Nicobar Islands have
Pachmarhi Sanctuary Madhya Tiger, panther, boar, sambhar,
the maximum number of National Parks (9 each). Pradesh nilgai and barking deer
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands has 96 (maximum in Simlipal Sanctuary Odisha Elephant, tiger, leopard, gaur
India) and Maharashtra has 36 wildlife sanctuaries. and cheetal
Sunderban Tiger Reserve West Bengal Tiger, deer, wild boar,
Difference between National Park, Sanctuary crocodile and Gangetic
and Biosphere Reserve dolphin
Sonai Rupa Sanctuary Assam Elephant, sambhar, wild boar
National Park Sanctuary Biosphere Reserve
and one-horned rhinoceros
A reserved area for A reserved area for Multipurpose protected
Tungabhadra Sanctuary Karnataka Panther, cheetal, sloth bear
preservation of its preservation of area to preserve and four-horned antelope
natural vegetation, endangered species. genetic diversity in
wildlife and natural representative Valvadore National Park Gujarat Wolf and black buck
beauty. ecosystem. Vedanthangal Bird Tamil Nadu Important bird sanctuary
Sanctuary
Boundaries are fixed by Boundaries are not Boundaries are fixed by
legislation. sacrosanct. legislation. Wild Ass Sanctuary Gujarat Wild ass, wolf, nilgai and
chinkara
Important Sanctuaries and National Parks
Name Location Reserve For
Biosphere Reserves in India
Achanakmar Sanctuary Chhattisgarh Tiger, boar, cheetal, sambhar • The biosphere reserve programme was launched by the
and bison
UNESCO in 1971, under the aegis of its Man and
Bandhavgarh National Madhya Tiger, panther, cheetal, nilgai Biosphere (M&B) programme, to provide a global
Park Pradesh and wild boar
network of protected areas for conserving natural
Bandipur Sanctuary Karnataka and Elephant, tiger, panther, communities.
Tamil Nadu sambhar, deer and birds
• There are 18 biosphere reserves in India of which of 10
Banerghatta National Karnataka Elephant, cheetal, deer and
Park grey partridge and green recognised by UNESCO.
pigeon
Biosphere Reserves of India
Bhadra Sanctuary Karnataka Elephant, cheetal, panther,
sambhar and wild boar Name States Type Area (km2)
Chandraprabha Uttar Pradesh Gir lions, cheetal and sambhar Great Rann of Kutch Gujarat Desert 12454
Sanctuary
Gulf of Mannar Tamil Nadu Coasts 10500
Corbett National Park Uttarakhand Tiger, leopard, elephant and (UNESCO)
sambhar (named in memory of
Jim Corbett) Sunderbans West Bengal Gangetic Delta 9630
(UNESCO)
Dachigam Sanctuary Jammu and Kashmiri stag
Kashmir Cold Desert Himachal Western 7770
Pradesh Himalayas
Dandeli Sanctuary Karnataka Tiger, panther, elephant,
cheetal, sambhar and wild Nanda Devi Uttarakhand West Himalayas 5860
boar (UNESCO)
Dudhwa National Park Uttar Pradesh Tiger, panther, sambhar, Nilgiri (UNESCO) Tamil Nadu, Western Ghats 5520
cheetal, nilgai and barking Kerala and
deer Karnataka
Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary Madhya Cheetal, sambhar, chinkara Dihang-Dibang Arunachal East Himalayas 5112
Pradesh and wild birds Pradesh
Ghana Bird Sanctuary Rajasthan Water birds, black-buck, cheetal Pachmarhi Madhya Pradesh Semi-Arid 4926
and sambhar (UNESCO)
Gir Forest Gujarat India’s biggest wildlife Seshachalam Hills Andhra Pradesh Eastern Ghats 4755.997
sanctuary famous for gir lions
Simlipal (UNESCO) Odisha Deccan Peninsula 4374
Gautam Buddha Bihar Tiger, leopard, sambhar,
Sanctuary cheetal and barking deer Achanakamar- Madhya Pradesh, Maikala Range 3835
Amarkantak Chhattisgarh
Jaldapara Sanctuary West Bengal Rhinoceros (UNESCO)
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 937

Name States Type Area (km2) • Climate change would impact on agricultural and
Manas Assam East Himalayas 2837 forestry management.
Khanchenjunga Sikkim East Himalayas 2620 • Rising sea levels and heavy storm damage would severely
affect coastlines. Sea levels are increasing at about 2 mm
Agasthyamalai Kerala, Tamil Western Ghats 1828
(UNESCO) Nadu per year. A 1m rise in sea level over the 21st century
would mean sub-mergence of some low-lying island
Great Nicobar Andaman and Islands 885
(UNESCO) Nicobar Islands nations and displacement of a large number of people.
Dibru-Saikhowa Assam East Himalayas 765 • Infectious disease would become more common as
global temperatures rise.
Panna Madhya Pradesh Catchment area 2998
of Ken river
Nokrek (UNESCO) Meghalaya East Himalayas 48 Global Warming
• This refers to an increase in average global temperature.
CONTEMPORARY Natural events and human activities are believed to be
contributing to an increase in average global
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES temperature.
• This is caused primarily by increases in ‘greenhouse’
Climate Change gases such as carbon dioxide (CO 2), methane nitrous
oxide etc.
• Changes in the average weather for a particular location
leads to climate change. It result from both natural Greenhouse Effect
processes such as the change in the Sun's strength and • The term ‘greenhouse’ is used in conjunction with the
also from human activities, through the build-up of phenomenon known as the Greenhouse Effect.
greenhouse gases.
• Six main greenhouse gases are Carbon Dioxide (CO 2),
• The atmospheric concentrations of these gases have Methane (CH 4) (which is 20 times as potent a
increased significantly, since, pre-industrial times largely greenhouse gas as carbon dioxide) and Nitrous Oxide
because of fossil fuel usage, decrease in forest cover etc ( N 2O ), plus three fluorinated industrial gases:
resulting in climate change. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
• It is now a global concern that the climatic changes and Sulphur Hexafluoride (SF6).
occurring today have been speeded up because of man's
activities. Impact of Global Warming
Extreme Weather Patterns Most scientists believe that the
Causes of Climate Change warming of the climate will lead to more extreme
The causes of climate change can be divided into two weather patterns. Such as, more hurricanes and
categories, which are as follow : drought, longer spells of dry heat or intense rain
i. Natural Causes The Earth’s climate is influenced and (depending on where you are in the world).
changed through natural causes like volcanic Rising Sea Levels Water expands when heated and sea
eruptions, ocean current, the Earth’s orbital changes levels are expected to rise due to climate change.
and solar variations. Rising sea levels will also result as the polar caps begin
ii. Man-Made Causes Burning of fossil fuels, to melt. Rising sea levels is already affecting many
deforestation, mining, industrialisation etc are small Islands.
man-made causes of climate change. Ocean Acidification Oceans are able to absorb some of
the excess CO 2 released by human activity. This has
Effects of Climate Change helped to keep the planet cooler. But, due to it pH
• Climate changes can severely affect human societies, level of water become low, which affects marine life
agriculture and the natural ecosystem, terrestrial and especially to coral and animals having calcium shell.
aquatic ecosystem, which provide many goods and Global Dimming Inter-Governmental Panel on Climate
services on which we rely, would be severely affected. Change (IPCC). This is the leading international body
• Combined with oxidation of high latitude peat lands, for the assessment of climate change. It was established
release of the carbon stores would add greatly to the by the United Nations Environment Programme
CO 2 content in the atmosphere. Thus, the effects of (UNEP) and the World Meteorological Organisation
warming themselves would cause more warming. (WMO) in 1988 to provide the world with a clear
scientific view on the current state of knowledge in
• Many wild plants and animal species found today can be
climate change and its potential environmental and
forced out of their present area of growth/habitats as socio-economic impacts.
climate warms.
938 CDS Pathfinder

United Nations Framework Convention appeared during the Southern hemisphere’s spring
(October and November) and then filled in. Soon after
on Climate Change (UNFCCC) the Antarctic hole was found, Canadian scientists
• The United Nations Framework Convention on discovered that the ozone layer above the Arctic is also
Climate Change (UNFCCC), signed by over 150 thinning significantly.
countries at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992. The main • The highest latitudes; the North and South poles
purposes of this protocol was to experience the greatest amount of ozone loss, during their
– provide mandatory targets on greenhouse gas spring. Ozone depletion is most pronounced in the
emissions for the world's leading economies, all of Antarctic. But ozone depletion, to a lesser degree, now
whom accepted it at the time. occurs in the mid latitudes. e.g. the amount of
– provide flexibility in how countries meet their stratospheric ozone over the Northern hemisphere has
targets. been dropping by 4% per decade.
– further recognise that commitments under the Impacts of Ozone Layer Depletion
protocol would vary from country to country. • Stratospheric ozone filters out most of the Sun's
potentially harmful shortwave Ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
Kyoto Protocol If this ozone becomes depleted, then more UV rays will
• The Kyoto Protocol, 1997 to the UNFCCC is an reach the Earth. Exposure to higher amounts of UV
international treaty that sets binding obligations on radiation could have serious impacts on human beings,
industrialised countries to reduce emissions of animals and plants, such as the following
greenhouse gases. – Impact on Human Life More skin cancers, sunburns
• The protocol recognises that developed countries are and premature aging of the skin. UV radiation can
principally responsible for the current high levels of damage several parts of the eye, including the lens,
greenhouse gas emissions in the atmosphere, as a result cornea, retina and conjunctiva. Cataracts (a clouding of
of more than 150 years of industrial activity and places the lens) are the major cause of blindness in the world.
a heavier burden on developed nations under the – Agriculture, Forestry and Natural Ecosystems
principle of common, but differentiated responsibilities. Several of the world's major crop species are
particularly vulnerable to increased UV, resulting in
Paris Agreement reduced growth, photosynthesis and flowering.
• It is dealing with Green House Gas (GHG) emmissions – These species include wheat, rice, barley, oats, corn,
mitigation, adaptation and finance from year 2020.
soyabeans, peas, tomatoes, cucumbers, cauliflower,
• This agreement has been signed by 191 countries and broccoli and carrots.
61 countries have even ratified it. This agreement will – Damage to Marine Life In particular, plankton (tiny
come into force when 55 countries that emits 55%
organisms in the surface layer of oceans) are threatened
GHG ratify it.
by increased UV radiation. Decreases in plankton could
disrupt the fresh and saltwater food chains and lead to a
Hole in Ozone Layer species shift in canadian waters. Loss of biodiversity in
• The ozone layer lies in the stratosphere, in the upper our oceans, rivers and lakes could reduce fish yields for
level of our atmosphere. The ozone in it is spread very commercial and sport-fisheries.
sparsely. – Impacts on Animals In domestic animals, UV over

• Stratospheric ozone filters out most of the Sun's exposure may cause eye and skin cancers. Species of
potentially harmful shortwave Ultraviolet (UV) marine animals in their development stage (e.g. young
radiation. fish, shrimp larvae and crab larvae) have been
threatened in recent years by the increased UV
• This ozone has become depleted, due to the release of
radiation under the Antarctic ozone hole.
such ozone-depleting substances such as
– Impacts on Materials Wood, plastic, rubber, fabrics
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). When stratospheric
and many construction materials are degraded by UV
ozone is depleted, more UV rays reach the Earth.
radiation. The economic impact of replacing and/or
• Exposure to higher amounts of UV radiation could protecting materials could be significant.
have serious impacts on human beings, animals and
plants. The Main Ozone Depleting Substances (ODSs)
The main ozone of depleting substances are as follow :
Depletion of the Stratospheric Ozone • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) The most widely used
Layer (Ozone Depletion) ODS, accounting for over 80% of total stratospheric
• In 1985, a group of scientists made an unsettling ozone depletion. Used as coolants in refrigerators,
discovery, a marked decrease in stratospheric ozone freezers and air conditioners in buildings and cars
over the South pole, in the Antarctic. The depletion manufactured before 1995.
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 939

Found in industrial solvents, dry cleaning agents and from the core of the plan, representing multi-pronged, long
hospital sterilants. Also used in foam products such as termed and integrated strategies for achieving goals in the
soft-foam padding (e.g. cushions and mattresses) and context of climate change. The eight missions are as follow :
rigid foam (e.g. home insulation). i. National Solar Mission The NAPCC aims to
• Halons Used in some fire extinguishers, in cases where promote the development and use of solar energy for
materials and equipment would be destroyed by water power generation and other uses, with the ultimate
or other fire extinguisher chemicals. objective of making solar competitive with fossil-based
• Methyl Chloroform Used mainly in industry for energy options.
vapour decreasing, some aerosols, cold cleaning, ii. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
adhesives and chemical processing. The NAPCC recommends mandating specific energy
• Carbon Tetrachloride Used in solvents and some fire consumption decreases in large energy-consuming
extinguishers. industries, with a system for companies to trade
energy-saving certificates, financing for public-private
• Hydrochlorofluoro Carbons (HCFCs) HCFCs have partnerships to reduce energy consumption.
become major, transitional substitutes for CFCs. They
are much less harmful to stratospheric ozone than CFCs iii. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat The
are, but HCFCs, still cause some ozone destruction and NAPCC also aims at promoting energy efficiency as a
are potent greenhouse gases. core component of urban planning by extending the
existing Energy Conservation Building Code,
Montreal Protocol strengthening the enforcement of automotive fuel
economy standards, and using pricing measures to
• Ozone depletion has generated worldwide concern encourage the purchase of efficient vehicles and
leading to the adoption of montreal protocol which was incentives for the use of public transportation.
signed in 1987. This protocol bans the production of
iv. National Water Mission The NAPCC sets a goal of
CFCs, halons and other ozone depleting chemicals such
a 20% improvement in water use efficiency through
as carbon tetrachloride and trichloroethane.
pricing and other measures to deal with water scarcity
• Since 1987, more than 150 countries have signed an as a result of climate change.
international agreement on the montreal protocol, which v. National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan
called for a phased reduction in the release of CFCs,
Ecosystem This particular mission sets the goal to
such that the yearly amount added to the atmosphere in
prevent melting of the Himalayan glaciers and to
1999, would be half that of 1986. Modifications of that
treaty called for a complete ban on CFCs, which began protect biodiversity in the Himalayan region.
in January, 1996. vi. Green India Mission The NAPCC also aims at
afforestation of 6 million hectares of degraded forest
Environment Related Important International
lands and expanding forest cover from 23 to 33% of
Agreements/Conference
India’s territory.
UN Conference on the Human Environment Stockholm (1972) vii. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture The
Convention on Migratory Species Bonn (1979) NAPCC aims to support climate adaptation in
Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Vienna (1985) agriculture through the development of
Layer
climate-resilient crops, expansion of weather insurance
Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Montreal (1987) mechanisms and agricultural practices.
Ozone Layer
Convention on the Transboundary Movement Basel (1989) viii. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for
of Hazardous Wastes Climate Change To gain a better understanding of
Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment Rio-de-Janeiro (1992) climate science, impacts, and challenges, the plan
and Development) envisions a new Climate Science Research Fund,
Convention on Prior Informed Consent Rotterdam (1998) improved climate modeling, and increased
UN Conference on Sustainable Development Rio-de-Janeiro (2012) international collaboration.
Nagoya Protocol on Genetic Resources Nagoya (2010)
Convention on Biological Diversity Hyderabad (2012) Sustainable Development
(CBD-CoP-11)
• Sustainable development is the development that meets
UN Climate Change Conference (CoP-20) Lima (2014)
the need of the present generation without
Paris Climate Conference (CoP-21) Paris (2015)
compromising the ability of future generations to meet
their needs.
National Action Plan on Climate Change
• It is an organising principle for human life on a finite
(NAPCC) planet. It put forward or desirable future state for
National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) is a human societies, in which living conditions and resource
comprehensive action plan which outlines measures on use meet human needs without undermining the
climate change related adaptation and mitigation while sustainability of natural systems and environment.
simultaneously advancing development. The eight missions
940 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Match the following 5. Which one of the following pairs 9. Proper disposal of hazardous toxic
List I is not correctly matched? waste is essential as exposure to it can
List II causes serious problems to the health.
(Green House National Park State
(Major Sources) Which is potentially the safest means
Gases) (a) Kanha National Park : Madhya
Pradesh of disposing of the most toxic wastes:
A. Carbon dioxide 1. Enteric fermentation
in cattle (b) Sultanpur National Park : Haryana organic solvents, chlorinated
B. Methane 2. Burning of fossil (c) Ranthambhore National : Gujarat hydrocarbons and oil-base compounds
fuels Park (including PCBs are dioxins)?
C. Chlorofluoro 3. Mercury compounds (d) Bandipur National Park : Karnataka (a) Municipal incineration
carbons in waste water (b) Industrial high temperature incineration
6. In the context of ecosystem (c) Landfills
D. Nitrous oxide 4. Nylon production
productivity, marine upwelling (d) None of the above
5. Air-conditioners and
refrigeration units zones are important as they
increases the marine 10. Consider the following statement(s)
Codes 1. The boundaries of a National Park
productivity by bringing the
A B C D A B C D are defined by legislation.
1. decomposer micro-organisms
(a) 2 1 5 4 (b) 3 2 4 1
to the surface. 2. A biosphere reserve is declared to
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 5 conserve a few specific species of
2. nutrient to the surface. flora and fauna.
2. What is the primary reason for 3. bottom dwelling organisms to 3. In a wildlife sanctuary, limited
targeting ‘biodiversity hotspots’ the surface. biotic interference is permitted.
for conservation? Which of the statement(s) given Which of the statement(s) given above
(a) To protect all areas of threatened above is/are correct? is/are correct?
species would not allow for new (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
species to develop (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(b) Because the hotspots are
Earth-biologically richest and most 7. Which of the following air (s) of 11. Which among the following is the most
endangered terrestrial eco-regions projects are related with abundant Green House Gas (GHG) in
(c) They are areas where people do environmental problems? the Earth’s atmosphere?
not live and conservation would (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Water vapour
1. River Valley Project : Water body
therefore not be effecting the induced (c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Tropospheric ozone
economic development of the 2. Mining Project : Groundwater and
area surface water
12. The ranking of countries as the highest
(d) They are the only areas where pollution per capita emitters of carbon dioxide in
species are seriously threatened 3. Thermal power : Degradation of the world, takes into account their
in the world project land annual CO2 emissions from
Which of the pair(s) given above 1. burning of fossil fuels.
3. The United Nations Framework
is/are correctly matched? 2. cement manufacture.
Conventions on Climate Change
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 3. land use such as deforestation.
(UNFCCC) is an international
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these Which of the statement(s) given above
treaty drawn at
(a) United Nations Conference on the 8. Which of the following is not a is/are correct?
Human Environment, Stockholm, major positive feedback (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
1972 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
mechanism in which the activity
(b) UN Conference on Environment of humans to increase global 13. Below are the environmental benefits
and Development, Rio de Janeiro, climate temperature leads to an of organic farming
1992 even further increases? 1. It aims to produce food while
(c) World Summit on Sustainable (a) Tropical deforestation causes establishing an ecological balance to
Development, Johannesburg, 2002 warming and drying so that prevent soil fertility or pest
(d) UN Climate Change Conference remaining forests begin to decline problems.
Copenhagen, 2009 (b) Global warming causes snow to 2. It permits the use of GMOs.
4. The Chinkara (Gazella melt in polar regions and 3. It produces more biodiversity than
Bennettii) or Indian Gazelle is therefore increases global albedo other farming systems.
found in (c) Global warming causes increased 4. It improves the water retention
(a) Rajasthan, North-Western and rainfall, plant growth and capacity of the soil.
central parts of India photosynthesis Which of the statements given above
(b) North-East (d) Global warming causes increased are correct?
CO 2 release from biomass (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(c) Northernmost Himalayas
decomposition (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(d) South India
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 941

14. The concept of sustainable 3. It influence the micro-climate of 26. Which among the following
development relates to the locality in addition to processes helps in evolution?
(a) consumption levels checking of underground salt 1. Natural selection
(b) exhaustible resources water intrusion on an adjacent 2. Adaptation
(c) social equity brackish water environment 3. Mutation
(d) intergenerational equity through interface pressure. 4. Reproductive isolation
15. The mass nesting of the Olive Which of the statement(s) given Select the correct answer using
Ridley sea turtles in India occurs above is/are correct? the codes given below.
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
at
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(a) Sunderbans
(b) Gahirmatha marine sanctuary 21. Which one of the following comes 27. Match the following
(c) Mangalajodi wetlands under the in-situ approaches of
(d) Pulicat lake List I List II
conserving biodiversity in India?
(a) Sacred plants A. Acid Rain 1. Nitrogen
16. Which one of the following is not B. Automobile 2. Carbon dioxide
(b) Botanical gardens
a part of India’s National Action Smoke
(c) Seed banks
Plan on Climate Change C. Ozone Depletion 3. Nitrogen oxide
(d) Biosphere reserves
(NAPCC)? D. Global Warming 4. Oxide of sulphur
(a) National Mission on Sustainable 22. The CERES principles are 5. Chlorofluorocarbon
Habitat (a) codes for protection of salmon
Codes
(b) National Water Mission fisheries
A B C D A B C D
(c) National Mission on Pollution (b) a set of voluntary environmental
standards for businesses (a) 4 2 5 3 (b) 4 3 1 2
Control
(c) 4 3 5 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
(d) National Mission for Sustainable (c) anti-pollution codes that were adopted
Agriculture at the first Earth Summit in 1992 28. Which of the following pairs is
(d) designed to eliminate the production of correctly matched of an
17. Wind erosion is one of the key greenhouse gases endangered animal and a
causes of desertification and National Park?
occurs when soil is left bare of 23. Among the following greenhouse
gases, the emission of which one of (a) Great Indian : Keoladeo National Park
vegetation. State the major cause Bustard
of wind erosion in arid and the following is entirely
(b) Lion : Corbett National Park
semi-arid lands where this anthropogenic?
(c) Rhinoceros : Kaziranga National Park
problem is most severe. (a) Chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Wild Ass : Dudhwa National Park
(a) Cleaning of land for agriculture (b) Methane
(b) Overgrazing by livestock (c) Nitrous oxide 29. Endosulfan, a pesticide which
(c) Deforestation (d) Hydrogen sulphide was banned by the Supreme
(d) Forest fires Court of India, is listed under
24. Environmental Kuznets curve (a) Rotterdam convention
18. A high Biological Oxygen (a) a semi-circle curve suggesting increase (b) Stockholm convention
Demand (BOD) value in aquatic in per capita income increases the (c) Bonn convention
pollution
environment is indicative of (d) Ramsar convention
(b) a U-shaped curve suggesting the level
(a) a pollution free system
of development and carbon emission 30. Black carbon has emerged as a
(b) a highly polluted system due to
(c) suggest a U-shaped relationship major contributor to global
excess of nutrients
between the carbon emission and climate change. In the context of
(c) a highly polluted system due to
ozone layer depletion it, consider the following
abundant heterotrophs
(d) suggest a bell-shaped relationship statement(s)
(d) A highly pure water with abundant
between the concentration of certain 1. Black carbon particles strongly
of autotrophs
pollution emission and per capita real absorb sunlight and give soot
19. Genetic diversity in agricultural GDP its black colour.
crops is threatened by 25. The 1987 Montreal Protocol was 2. It is produced both naturally
(a) introduction of high yielding varieties and by human activities.
signed for which of the following
(b) intensive use of fertilizers
reasons? 3. Primary sources include
(c) extensive inter cropping
(a) To phase out the use of CFC’s, found emissions from diesel engines
(d) intensive use of bio-pesticides
to be causing depletion of the ozone and cooking stoves.
20. Consider the following layer 4. It remains in the atmosphere
statement(s) about wetland(s) (b) To ban nuclear testing in tropical continuously for more than a
1. It plays an important role in oceans
month.
pollution abatement. (c) Shifting from fossil fuel use to more
renewable energy source to reduce the Which of the statement(s) given
2. It is a habitat of endangered above is/are correct?
anthropogenic greenhouse effect
and rare species of birds, (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(d) To stop the global trade in products
animals, plants and insects. made from endangered tigers (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
942 CDS Pathfinder

31. The niche of an animal is best (a) human beings are not allowed to 42. Which of the following wires are
defined as enter correctly matched?
(a) the number of individuals of the (b) people are an integral part of the
Tiger Reserves Locations
species, the environment will system
1. Udanti Sitanadi : Rajasthan
support (c) plants are paid greater attention
2. Dandeli Anashi : Chhattisgarh
(b) the same as its habitat than the animals
3. Sariska : Odisha
(c) all the ways an animal fits into its (d) living organisms are brought from
all over the world and preserved 4. Satkosia : Karnataka
environment
for posterity Codes
(d) the specific part for which (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
organism is best suited 38. The broad objectives of the (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of these
32. Biodiversity manifests itself at Ministry of Environment and
Forest are 43. The Access and Benefit Sharing
different diversities at following (ABS) Protocol adopted by COP-10 at
level 1. afforestation and regeneration
Nagoya is regarding the fair and
1. Environmental diversity of degraded areas.
equitable sharing of benefits arising
2. Species diversity 2. prevention and control of from the use of
3. Genetic diversity pollution. (a) the genetic resources of the Earth
4. Ecosystem diversity 3. protection of the environment. (b) Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs)
4. ensuring the welfare of the (c) marine and coastal areas significant for
Select the correct answer using
animals. ‘eco-tourism’
the codes given below.
Select the correct answer using (d) technology transfer mechanisms for
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
the codes given below. Clean Energy Development
(c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 44. Consider the following wetland(s)
33. The use of micro-organism (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 1. Point Calimere (Tamil Nadu)
metabolism to remove pollutants 2. Sambar (Rajasthan)
such as oil spills the water bodies 39. Due to their extensive rice
cultivation, some regions may be 3. Loktak (Manipur)
is known as 4. Harike (Punjab)
(a) biomagnification (b) bioremediation contributing to global warming.
(c) biomethanation (d) bioreduction To what possible reason/reasons Which of the given above wetland(s)
is this attributable? of India have been included in the
34. Climate change may have an 1. The anaerobic conditions International Ramsar Convention
impact on the following associated with rice cultivation list?
(a) agriculture, natural terrestrial cause the emission of methane. (a) Only 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
ecosystems and water (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers
resources
are used, nitrous oxide is 45. Which among the following are the
(b) air quality, oceans and coastal
emitted from the cultivated major reasons behind preferring
zones
soil. Eucalyptus tree in the planned
(c) energy and human health
Select the correct answer using forestation process?
(d) All of the above
the codes given below. 1. Plantation grows very fast.
35. The effects of global warming are (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. Plantation makes the soil more
1. The sea level may rise. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 fertile.
2. It will prevent the stirring up 3. Wood from Eucalyptus tree is
40. Hazardous waste is generated easily converted into pulp for
of the oceans.
mainly by the industrial sector. It Paper Industry.
3. Fish population will migrate
not only causes harm to the Select the correct answer using the
towards the Tropics.
environment, but also leads to codes given below.
4. Precipitation will be frequent.
health problems. A small (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Select the correct answer using percentage of the hazardous (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
the codes given below. waste is also generated in the
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 46. The ‘pond bloom’ of blue-green algae
house. One of the following is a which causes the death of fishes and
(c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these
hazardous waste that is cattles produces the toxin of
36. In India, we find mangoes with generated in the house. Name it. (a) ammonia (b) hydroxylamine
different flavours, colours, (a) Paper (c) carbohydrates (d) fatty acids
fibre-content, sugar content and (b) Leftover foodstuff
(c) Old batteries 47. A balanced ecosystem is one in which
even shelf-life. The large the
variation is on account of (d) Plastic bags
(a) number of organisms at all levels are
(a) species diversity 41. Municipal waste is disposed in equals
(b) induced mutations the open dumps, landfills, (b) amount of energy synthesised and
(c) genetic diversity utilised is equal
sanitary landfills and is also
(d) hybridisation (c) amount of biomass at all trophic levels
burnt in large furnaces. This
37. Biosphere reserves differ from levels is equal
method is known as
(d) organisms are interdependent on each
national parks and wildlife (a) incineration (b) blast furnace
other
sanctuaries because in the former (c) waste furnace (d) All of these
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 943

48. Match the following 2. Sanctuaries are concerned 59. Eutrophication of lakes is a
with conservation of the consequential effect of the
List II
List I habitat of a particular accumulation of
(Physical
(Major Biomes) species. (a) silt load
Characteristics)
3. Biosphere reserves are (b) sewage
A. The Northern 1. Floristically poor
most of the (i.e. a continuous
connected with the habitat of (c) nitrates and phosphates
Temperate belt across North a particular wild animal. (d) vegetation
Formations America and Which of the statement(s) given
Northern Eurasia) 60. India is party to
above is/are correct? 1. United Nation Framework
B. Arctic Tundra 2. Boreal forest (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
Vegetation Convention on Climate Change
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
C. Marine 3. Pelagic division (UNFCCC).
D. The Terrestrial 4. Savanna woodland 54. Which one of the following pairs 2. Convention on Biological Diversity.
Biomes of the of geographical areas show 3. Convention on Conservation of
Tropics
maximum biodiversity in our Migratory Species of Wild
5. Soviet steppe and
North American country? Animals.
prairie (a) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch 4. Convention on World Heritage.
(b) Eastern Ghats and Paschim Banga Select the correct answer using the
Codes
(c) Eastern Himalayas and Western codes given below.
A B C D A B C D
Ghat (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 1 3 4 (d) Kerala and Punjab
(c) 4 3 5 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
49. The functioning of an ecosystem 55. The first research project 61. Which one of the following zones of
involves programme, which focused on the atmosphere is rich in ozone gas?
(a) flow of energy and circulation of the EI Nino-Southern (a) Mesosphere (b) Troposphere
nutrients Oscillation and its predictability (c) Stratosphere (d) Ionosphere
(b) an increasing simplicity of relations was called
(a) Climate Variability and
62. Mangroves are salt-tolerant forest
(c) increasing animal populations ecosystems. Name the largest
(d) increasing number of trees and Predictability
(b) Global Energy and Water Cycle mangrove forests in the world that
bushes etc
Experiment (GEWEX) constitute 7% of the world's
50. The term used for the conservation (c) Global Change and Terrestrial mangroves, house a variety of
of ecosystems and natural habitats Ecosystem (GCTE) wildlife sanctuaries and are also a
and the maintenance and recovery (d) Tropical Ocean and Global potential site to harness tidal energy.
of viable populations of species in Atmosphere (TOGA) (a) The Sunderbans in Paschim Banga
their natural surroundings is (b) Musser forests in Eucador
(a) core conservation 56. In which of the following the (c) The Mekong Delta in Vietnam
(b) in-situ conservation maximum plant diversity is (d) None of the above
(c) ex-situ conservation found?
(d) peripheral conservation (a) Tropical evergreen forests 63. Name the gas released from landfills,
(b) Tropical moist deciduous forests decaying organic matter under
51. Which of the following is not one of (c) Sub-tropical mountain forests shallow water in marshes and bogs,
the major environment problems (d) Temperate moist forests flooded paddy fields, by ruminant
resulting from human interference animals and termites and by the
in the nitrogen cycle? 57. Consider the following
characteristic(s), with reference burning of biomass. A molecule of
(a) Eutrophication
to a freshwater lake this gas has 21 times more global
(b) Nitrous oxide release increases
global warming 1. Richness in nutrients.
warming potential than a molecule of
(c) Increased acid rain 2. Rapid turnover of CO2.
phytoplankton. (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Methane
(d) Stratospheric ozone depletion
(c) Ammonia (d) Nitrous oxide
3. Depletion of dissolved oxygen.
52. Atmospheric ozone layer, which
protect us from UV-B and C is Which of the above is/are 64. Match the following
getting depleted most by addition of observed in a lake after its List II
List I
(a) chlorofluorocarbon eutrophication? (Biosphere Reserves) (Places)
(b) carbon monoxide (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these A. Manas 1. Meghalaya
(c) carbon dioxide
B. Pachmarhi 2. Assam
(d) sulphur dioxide 58. Which one of the following terms C. Nokrek 3. Madhya Pradesh
53. Consider the following describes not only the physical D. Achanakmar 4. Chhattisgarh
statement(s) space occupied by an organism, Amarkantak
1. National Parks are a special but also its functional role in the Codes
category of protected areas of community of organisms? A B C D A B C D
land and sea coasts where (a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4
people are an integral part of (c) Habitat (d) Home range
the system. (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
944 CDS Pathfinder

65. Which of the following 67. Kanha National Park belongs to 70. Which one of the following
statement(s) regarding ozone which one among the following statement(s) on biosphere reserves is
layer within the atmosphere bio-geographical areas in the not correct?
is/are correct? world? (a) In 1973, UNESCO launched a
1. It absorbs most of the (a) Tropical Sub-humid forests worldwide programme on man and
ultraviolet radiation found in (b) Tropical Humid forests biosphere
the Sun’s rays. (c) Tropical Dry forests (b) Biosphere reserves promote research
2. Chlorofluorocarbons are serious (d) Tropical Moist forests on ecological conservation
threat to the ozone layer. 68. Match the following (c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is
Select the correct answer using located in Madhya Pradesh
List II (d) Biosphere reserves are multipurpose
the codes given below. List I
(Characteristic
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (Regions) protected areas to preserve the
Vegetations)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 genetic diversity in ecosystems
A. Selvas 1. Mosses and
66. Match the following lichens 71. Consider the following statements
List I List II
B. Savanas 2. Epiphytes 1. Jim Corbett National Park is the
C. Tundra 3. Tropophytes oldest National Park of India.
(Natural Vegetations (Annual Rainfall
of India) Received) D. Monsoon lands 4. Grasses and trees 2. It was one of the nine Tiger
Codes Reserves created at the launch of
A. Tropical 1. 100-200 cm
evergreen forests A B C D A B C D the Project Tiger in 1973.
B. Tropical 2. Above 200 cm (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 3. Initially it was named as ‘Hailey
deciduous forests (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 National Park’.
C. Tropical dry forests 3. Less than 50 cm Which of the statements given above
D. Arid forests 4. Above 300 cm 69. Which one of the following is the
correct sequence of the given are correct?
5. 50-100 cm (a) 1 and 2
tiger reserves of India from North
Codes (b) 1 and 3
to South?
A B C D A B C D (a) Dudwa-Kanha-Indravati-Bandipur (c) 2 and 3
(a) 1 2 5 3 (b) 4 3 1 5 (b) Kanha-Bandipur-Dudwa-Indravati (d) All of the above
(c) 2 1 5 3 (d) 2 1 3 4 (c) Indravati-Kanha-Dudwa-Bandipur
(d) Dudwa-Kanha-Bandipur-Indravati

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) 3. Over 90% of the world’s biomass is 6. Carbon dioxide is called a
in greenhouse gas because
1. What is the major role of a (a) tropical rain forests (a) its concentration remains always
greenhouse gas that contributes to (b) freshwater wetlands higher than other gases
temperature rise of the Earth’s (c) topsoils
surface? (b) it is used in photosynthesis
(d) oceans
(a) Transparent to both incoming (c) it absorbs infrared radiation
sunlight and outgoing infrared 4. Match the following (d) it emits visible radiation
radiation List I List II
(b) Stops both incoming sunlight and
7. Consider the following statements
(Tiger Reserves) (States)
outgoing infrared radiation 1. Ozone is mostly found in the
A. Indravati 1. Karnataka
(c) Lets outgoing infrared radiation pass stratosphere.
B. Periyar 2. Odisha
through but stops incoming sunlight C. Simlipal 3. Kerala 2. Ozone layer lies 25 to 30 km
(d) Lets incoming sunlight pass through D. Bandipur 4. Chhattisgarh above the surface of the Earth.
but stops outgoing infrared radiation 3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet
Codes
2. Which one among the following A B C D A B C D
radiation from the Sun.
statements is not correct? (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 4. Ozone layer has no significance
(a) Trophic dynamics represents the for life on the Earth.
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
transfer of energy from one trophic
level to another in a food chain 5. Which one among the following is Which of the statements given
(b) In deeper parts of oceans, primary a source of methane emission into above are correct?
production remains almost nil the atmosphere? (a) 1 and 2
(c) The primary consumers are called (a) Automobile exhaust fume (b) 1 and 3
autotrophs (b) Industrial chimney (c) 2 and 3
(d) The decomposes are called (c) Mining (d) 3 and 4
saprotrophs (d) Wetland
GENERAL STUDIES Geography 945

8. In wildlife conservation which 2013 (I) Select the correct answer using the
one among the following best codes given below.
defines an ‘endemic species’? 13. Which of the following (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
(a) When the critical number of a statement(s) regarding recycling (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
species declines in a forest due is/are correct?
to parasitic attack 18. The vegetation type characterised by
1. Recycling is just the collection (i) a large expanse of grassland with
(b) A species which is cosmopolitan and separation of the waste
and can be commonly found in scattered trees and shrubs, (ii) lying
materials. between tropical rain forest and
biosphere
(c) An endangered species which is
2. Recycling is the collection and tropical steppes and deserts and
found in a few restricted areas on separation of the materials (iii) flat-topped trees, is called
the Earth from the waste stream and (a) mid-latitude broad-leaf mixed forest
(d) A species confined to a particular their subsequent processing to (b) temperate rain forest
region and not found anywhere produce a marketable product. (c) tropical savanna
else 3. Recycling leads to reduction of (d) mid-latitude grassland
waste disposal cost.
19. Biodiversity is richer in
2012 (II) Select the correct answer using (a) tropical regions
the codes given below. (b) polar regions
9. Match the following (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) temperate regions
List I (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (d) oceans
List II
(Biosphere
(States) 14. Which of the following gases in
Reserves)
A. Nilgiri 1. Odisha
the atmosphere is/are responsible 2014 (II)
for acid rains?
B. Manas 2. Madhya Pradesh 20. The Equatorial region has no other
1. Oxides of sulphur
C. Panchmarhi 3. Tamil Nadu season except summer. What could
D. Similipal 4. Assam
2. Oxides of nitrogen
be the reason?
3. Oxides of carbon
Codes 1. The length of day and night is
Select the correct answer using more or less equal over the year.
A B C D A B C D
the codes given below. 2. The Earth’s rotational velocity is
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 4 2 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 maximum at the Equator.
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 2 4 3 (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
3. The Coriolis force is zero at the
10. The variability among living Equator.
organisms from all sources 2013 (II) Select the correct answer using the
including terrestrial, marine and
15. Which one among the following is codes given below.
other ecosystems and the
(a) Only 1
ecological complexes of which responsible for formation of (b) 1 and 2
they are part which includes ‘Ozone Holes’ in the stratosphere? (c) 2 and 3
diversity within species, between (a) Benzopyrene (d) All of the above
species of ecosystems refers to (b) Hydrocarbons
(a) geographical diversity (c) Chloro fluoro carbons
(b) zoological diversity (d) UV radiation 2015 (I)
(c) ecological diversity
16. Consider the following 21. Match the following
(d) biological diversity
sanctuaries of India List I List II
11. Ozone holes are more pronounced 1. Periyar 2. Dachigam (Types of Grass) (Countries)
at the 3. Sariska 4. Kanha A. Llanos 1. Australia
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer Which one among the following is B. Prairies 2. Venezuela
(c) Tropic of Capricorn the correct sequence of location of C. Pampas 3. USA
(d) Poles the above sanctuaries from South D. Downs 4. Argentina
to North?
12. The variability among living (a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2 Codes
organisms from all sources (c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2 A B C D A B C D
including terrestrial, marine and (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 3 4 2
other ecosystems and the (c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 2 3 4 1
ecological complexes of which 2014 (I) 22. Ozone layer of the Earth’s
they are part which includes 17. Which of the following method(s) atmosphere is important for living
diversity within species, between is/are suitable for soil organisms because it
species of ecosystems refers to conservation in hilly region? (a) prevents entry of ultra-violet rays
(a) geographical diversity (b) prevents entry of X-rays
1. Terracing and contour bunding
(b) zoological diversity (c) maintains level of oxygen on the Earth
2. Shifting cultivation
(c) ecological diversity
3. Contour ploughing (d) prevents acid rain on the Earth
(d) biological diversity
946 CDS Pathfinder

23. Match the following 2. The most dramatic regional 26. Match the following
LPI decrease occurred in
List I List II List II
Africa. List I
(Sanctuaries) (States) (Natural Vegetation
Select the correct answer using (Plants)
A. Sharavati Valley 1. Gujarat Types)
the codes given below. A. Ebony 1. Moist deciduous
B. Satkosia Gorge 2. Goa (a) Only 1
C. Pirotan Island 3. Odisha B. Shisham 2. Himalayan moist
(b) Only 2
C. Walnut 3. Alpine
D. Bhagwan Mahavir 4. Karnataka (c) Both 1 and 2
D. Birch 4. Tropical evergreen
Codes (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A B C D A B C D Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 2015 (II) (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
25. Match the following (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
24. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct with List I List II 27. ‘Rio + 20’ is the short name for
regard to the Living Planet (Lakes) (Types) (a) Millennium Development Goals
Report-2014 (Species and Spaces, A. Ashtamudi Kayal 1. Residual (b) United Nations Conference on
(Sweet water) Sustainable Development
People and Places) released by
B. Himayat Sagar 2. Lagoon (c) Earth Summit
World Wildlife Fund (WWF)?
C. Dal Lake 3. Glacial (d) Post-2015 Development Agenda
1. The Living Planet Index (LPI),
which measures more than D. Tsomgo Lake 4. Artificial
10000 representative (Sweet water) 2016 (I)
populations of mammals, birds, Codes
reptiles, amphibians and fish, 28. The Mahatma Gandhi National
A B C D A B C D Marine Park is located in
has declined by 52% since (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
1970. (a) Pirotan Island (b) Rameswaram
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2 (c) Ganga Sagar Island (d) Port Blair

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 a 2 b 3 b 4 a 5 c 6 c 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 c
11 b 12 b 13 c 14 d 15 b 16 c 17 b 18 b 19 a 20 d
21 d 22 b 23 a 24 d 25 a 26 d 27 c 28 a 29 b 30 b
31 d 32 b 33 b 34 d 35 b 36 c 37 b 38 a 39 c 40 c
41 a 42 d 43 a 44 d 45 b 46 b 47 b 48 b 49 a 50 b
51 d 52 a 53 b 54 c 55 a 56 a 57 d 58 b 59 c 60 d
61 c 62 a 63 b 64 d 65 c 66 c 67 c 68 c 69 a 70 c
71 b

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 d 2 c 3 d 4 c 5 d 6 c 7 b 8 d 9 c 10 d
11 d 12 d 13 c 14 a 15 c 16 c 17 a 18 c 19 a 20 a
21 d 22 a 23 c 24 a 25 a 26 a 27 b 28 d
03
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 947

INDIAN POLITY

Analysing the previous year question papers of CDS examination, the Polity section has a great relevance.
Around 14-16 questions are asked from this section. The topics which are asked include Fundamental
Rights, Executive, Legislative and Judiciary system of India, Panchayati Raj system, Important Articles,
Important Constitutional Amendment Acts, Schedules of the Constitution etc.

The British Government has introduced a series of constitutional reforms to regulate and control the affairs of India. These
constitutional reforms were guided towards ensuring responsible governance in India. The emergence of India as an
independent and sovereign democratic republic has its roots in the history of British rule in India.
The evolution of Indian Polity and Constitution can be better understood, only if we start with brief reviews of
constitutional development during British rule.

HISTORICAL BACKGROUND
• The very genesis of Indian Constitution can be traced from 1773 as it was first constitutional intervention by British
Government to control and regulate the affairs of East India Company in India. British rule in India till 1858 was
basically that of the East India Company because after that British Government took the governance of India in its
hands directly.
• With rising activities and responsibilities of company, need was felt to regulate and control the affairs which resulted in
various enactments by British Parliament.
• The period of British constitutional experiment in India can be divided into two phases for better understanding that is
constitutional experiments during the rule of East India Company (1773-1857) and the constitutional experiments under
the British crown (1857-1947).

Constitutional Development Under East India Company

Regulating Act (1773)
• The Governor of Bengal was elevated to the position of the Governor-General of Bengal.
• The Parliament got the right to intervene in the affairs of the company. The dual government was abolished. A Supreme
Court was set-up at Calcutta headed by Elijah Impey.
948 CDS Pathfinder

Pitts India Act (1784) Constitutional Development Under

• The act established six commissioners for the
affairs of India. This body known as the British Crown
Board of Control was to exercise an effective
control over the Board of Directors, who Government of India Act (1858)
possessed the charge of the administration of • As a result of the Sepoy Mutiny, the power to govern was
the company. transferred from the East India Company to the British crown.
• The control of the Governor-General in • A post of Secretary of State (a member of British Council) for India
council over the presidencies of Madras and was created. He was assisted by a 15 Member Council (called Indian
Bombay was clearly defined and rendered Council). He was to exercise the powers of the crown.
more effective. • The Board of Control and the court of directors were abolished.
The Governor-General was given the title Viceroy. He represented
The Charter Act (1793) Secretary of State, who was assisted by an Executive Council which
• The powers of Board of Control were consisted of high officials of the government.
concentrated in the hands of the President, • The viceroy’s status was reduced to a subordinate authority in
who virtually became the Cabinet Minister relation to the British Government in matters of policy as well as
for India. execution of policy. He was aided by an Executive Council of 5
• The salaries of the members of the Board of members, who were heads of different departments.
Control and that of the President were to be
drawn from the Indian exchequer. Indian Council Act (1861)
• Provincial Legislative Council members introduced. Council of
The Charter Act (1813) Governor was known as Imperial Legislative Council. Non-official
Asserted the crown’s sovereignty over British (Indians) were added.
India. Company’s monopoly overtrade • Portfolio system was introduced. High Courts (1865) established
abolished except trade with China, allotted (High Court Act, 1861). Indian Civil Service Act, 1861 was passed.
money to promote education in Indian masses.
Christian missionaries were permitted. Indian Council Act (1892)
• It provided for nomination of some non-official members to Central
The Charter Act (1833) Legislative Council and Provincial Legislative Council.
• The act abolished the trading activities of the • This act made the provision for election for filling the some
company and hence forth, it became a purely non-officials seats in central and provincial legislative councils for
administrative body. the first time in the constitutional development of India.
• The Governor-General of Bengal was
designated as the Governor-General of India. Morley-Minto Reforms (1909)
William Bentinck thus became the first • The Morley-Minto Reforms or the Indian Council Act, 1909.
Governor-General of India. Separate electorate for muslims was introduced.
• Abolition of the power of different • Direct election (non-official members who are directly elected). They
presidencies to make law for themselves and could discuss the budget and also cross questioning could be done.
giving power to the Governor-General in • A bicameral legislature at the centre was provided. Dyarchy in the
council to make laws. provinces which unlike its dictionary meaning of two bodies :
• In order to enable the council to discharge Transferred and Reserved.
the important functions efficiently, a new • Separate electorates were further extended to Sikh in the Punjab and
member with expert knowledge of law was non-Brahmins in Madras. Right to Vote for women was provided.
added to it.
Government of India Act (1919)
The Charter Act (1853) • This is also known as Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, after the
• The number of directors were reduced and secretary of state Edwin Montague and the Viceroy Chelmsford.
the power of patronage was taken away • The Executive Council was enlarged and Central Legislature was
from them by instituting and open thoroughly remodelled and made bicameral, two chambers being the
competitive examination for the recruitment Council of State and the Legislative Council.
of civil servants.
• The legislature had virtually no control over the Viceroy and his
• The approval of the crown was made
Executive Council which the Central Government had unrestricted
necessary for all appointments of councillors, control over the Provincial Government. The Act introduced
both central and provincial. dyarchy or dual government in the provinces.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 949

The Government of India Act (1935) Members of Interim Government

• The act provided for the establishment of an all India Viceroy and Governor-General of India Viscount Wavell
Federation. It divided the powers into three lists Vice-President Jawaharlal Nehru
i. Federal List, Home Affairs, Information and Vallabhbhai Patel
Broadcasting
ii. Provincial List and
Agriculture and Food Rajendra Prasad
iii. Concurrent List
Commerce Ibrahim Ismail Chundrigar
• Residuary powers were with the Governor-General. (Muslim League)
• Act of 1935 introduced the provincial autonomy and Education and Arts C Rajagopalachari
abolition of Dyarchy. The provincial legislatures were Defence Baldev Singh
made bicameral for the first time in 6 provinces (i.e. Finance Liquat Ali Khan (Muslim League)
Bengal, Madras, Bombay, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Health Ghazanfar Ali Khan (Muslim
Assam). League)
Industries and Supplies John Mathai
The Indian Independence Act (1947) Labour Jagjivan Ram
• The act provided for setting up of two independent Law Jogendra Nath Mandal
dominions, to be known as India and Pakistan from 15th (Muslim League)
August, 1947. Posts and Air Abdur Rab Nishtar (Muslim League)

• The territories of the dominion of India would include Railways and Communication Asaf Ali
the whole British India exclusive of the territories Work, Mines and Power CH Bhabhan
consisting Pakistan. The legislature of each dominion
would have full power to make laws for that dominion. Drafting Committee
• With effect from 15th August, 1947, the British
• On 29th August, 1947, the Constituent Assembly set-up a
Government would cease to have any responsibility for
the Government of British. India and all treaties and Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of
agreements between his majesty’s government and the Dr BR Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution for
rulers of Indian states. India.
• The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th
• The two dominions as the provinces would be
governed as nearly as may be in accordance with the November, 1949 and the honourable members appended
Act of 1935. their signatures to it on that day. In all, 284 members
actually signed the Constitution. 26th November, 1949 is
• Provision was made for the division of the armed forces also mentioned in the Preamble as the date on which the
and the civil services between the new dominions. Each people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves
dominion would exercise authority over its armed and the Constitution.
civil services.
Constitution Committees and their Chairmen

MAKING OF THE Major Committees

Drafting Committee
Chairmen
Dr BR Ambedkar
CONSTITUTION Members
1. N Gopalaswami Ayyangar
• The demand that India’s political destiny should be 2. AK Ayyar
determined by the Indians themselves had been put 3. KM Munshi
forward by Mahatma Gandhi as early as in 1922. The 4. Mohammed Sadullah
idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put 5. BL Mittar
forward for the first time by MN Roy in 1934. 6. DP Khaitan
• The demand for the Constituent Assembly was first Union Power Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
accepted by the British in August offer (1940). The Union Constitution Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
Constituent Assembly was set-up as per the Cabinet Provincial Constitution Committee Sardar Patel
Mission Plan of 1946. An interim government was Advisory Committee on Fundamental Sardar Patel
formed on September 1946 from the newly elected Rights and Minorities, Tribal Affairs
Constituent Assembly. The first meeting was held on Rules of Procedure Committee Dr Rajendra Prasad
9th December, 1946 with Sachidanand Sinha, as the States Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
interim or provisional President. On 11th December, Steering Committee Dr Rajendra Prasad
1946, Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President
Special Committee to Examine the Draft Sir Alladi Krishna Swamy lyer
of the Constituent Assembly. Constitution
950 CDS Pathfinder

XII Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits 264 to 300 A

Borrowed Features of the Chapter I Finance 264 to 291
Constitution of India Chapter II Borrowing 292 to 293
Chapter III Property, Contracts, Rights 294 to 300
• From UK (England) Parliamentary System, Lower Liabilities, Obligations and Suits
House more powerful, Prime Minister, Cabinet System Chapter IV Right to Property 300 A
of Ministers, Single Citizenship, Bicameral Parliament, XIII Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the 301 to 307
Provision of Speaker in Lok Sabha, Council of Ministers Territory of India
responsible to Lower House, Nominal Head—President. XIV Services under the Union and the States 308 to 323
Chapter I Services 308 to 314
• From USA Written Constitution, Post of Vice-President,
Fundamental Rights, Supreme Court, Head of the State Chapter II Public Service Commission 315 to 323
known as President, Provision of States and Judicial XIVA Tribunals 323 A to 323 B
Review. XV Elections 324 to 329 A
• From France Republic and ideals of liberty, equality XVI Special Provisions Relating to Certain Classes 330 to 342
and faternity. XVII Official Language 343 to 351
• From Australia Concurrent List, Centre-State Chapter I Language of the Union 343 and 344
Relationship, Language of the Preamble. Chapter II Regional Languages 345 to 347
• From USSR Fundamental Duties and Five Year Plan. Chapter III Language of the Supreme Court, the 348 and 349
High Courts and so on
• From Germany Emergency provisions. Chapter IV Special Directives 350 to 351
• From Japan Procedure established by law. XVIII Emergency Provisions 352 to 360
• From Canada Federal system and Residuary powers. XIX Miscellaneous 361 to 367
• From South Africa Procedure of Constitutional XX Amendments of the Constitution 368
Amendment. XXI Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions 369 to 392
• From Ireland Concept of Directive Principles of State XXII Short Title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in 393 to 395
Policy (originally, it was borrowed from Spain). Hindi and Repeals

Constitution at a Glance î Part-VII (Article 238) deals with states was repealed in 1956 by
the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Articles
Part Subject Matter Covered Schedules in Constitution
I The Union and its Territory 1 to 4
II Citizenship 5 to 11 First Schedule List of States and Union Territories.
III Fundamental Rights 12 to 35 Second Schedule Salary of President, Governors, Chief Judges,
Judges of High Court and Supreme Court,
IV Directive Principles of State Policy 36 to 51
Comptroller and Auditor General.
IV A Fundamental Duties 51 A
Third Schedule Forms of Oaths and Affirmations.
V The Union 52 to 151
Chapter I The Executive 52 to 78 Fourth Schedule Allocate seats for each State of India in Rajya Sabha.
Chapter II Parliament 79 to 122
Chapter III Legislative Powers of the President 123 Fifth Schedule Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and
Tribes.
Chapter IV The Union Judiciary 124 to 147
Chapter V Comptroller and Auditor General of 148 to 151 Sixth Schedule Provisions for administration of Tribal Area in Assam,
India Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
VI The States 152 to 237 Seventh Schedule Gives allocation of powers and functions between
Chapter I General 152 Union and States. It contains three lists
Chapter II The Executive 153 to 167 1. Union List (for Central Govt.): 97 subjects
Chapter III The State Legislature 168 to 212 2. States List (Power of State Govt.): 66 subjects
3. Concurrent List (Both Union and States): 47
Chapter IV Legislative Powers of the Governors 213 subjects
Chapter V The High Courts 214 to 232 List of 22 languages of India recognised by
Chapter VI Subordinate Courts 233 to 237 Eighth Schedule Constitution.
VIII The Union Territories 239 to 242 Ninth Schedule Added by 1st Amendment in 1951. Contains acts
IX The Panchayats 243 to 243-0 and orders related to land tenure, land tax, railways
IX A The Municipalities 243 P to 243 ZG and industries.
IX B Cooperatives 243 ZG to Tenth Schedule Added by 52nd Amendment in 1985. Contains
243ZT provisions of disqualification on grounds of defection.
X The Scheduled and the Tribal Areas 244 to 244 A Eleventh By 73rd Amendment in 1992. Contains provisions of
XI Relations between the Union and the States 245 to 263 Schedule Panchayati Raj.
Chapter I Legislative Relations 245 to 255 Twelfth Schedule By 74th Amendment in 1992. Contains provisions of
Chapter II Administrative Relations 256 to 263 Municipal Corporation.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 951

Salient Features of the National Symbols

Constitution National Flag It was designed by Pingali Venkayya of Andhra
Pradesh. On 22nd July, 1947, it was adopted by Constituent
The salient features of the Constitution, as it
Assembly. It follows 3 : 2 ratio between length and breadth of
stands today, are as follows :
the flag. It has three colours saffron, white and green. Middle
i. Lengthiest Written Constitution The portion has Ashoka Chakra, in blue with 24 spokes.
Indian Constitution is the lengthiest in the
world. Originally, the Constitution had 395 National Emblem It has been taken from the Sarnath (Varanasi)
Articles, 8 Schedules and 22 parts. Pillar of Ashoka and on 26th January, 1950. It was adopted by
ii. Blend of Rigidity and Flexibility The Government of India. The word Satyameva Jayate which was
procedure of amendment of the Indian written at the base in Devanagari script (taken from Mundaka
Constitution is partly flexible and partly Upanishad) is the National Motto of India.
rigid. Some provisions can be amended easily National Anthem It was written by Rabindra Nath Tagore. Its
and some provisions can only be amended by recitation period is 52 seconds. First time it was sung in Calcutta
passage in both Union Parliament and half of
the State Legislatures. Congress Session on 27th December, 1911. On 24th January,
1950, Constituent Assembly adopted it (Jan Gan Man).
iii. Parliamentary Government India has a
parliamentary system of government both, at National Song Vandemataram taken from Bankim Chandra
the centre and in the states. The President is Chatterji’s work Anandmath, was officially adopted on 24th
the head of the Union of India and the January, 1950. It was sung for the first time as Kolkata session of
governors are head of the states. But they act Congress in 1896.
on the advice of the Council of Ministers. National Calendar Based on the Saka Era, Chaitra is its first
They have nominal powers.
month and a normal year of 365 days along with the Gregorian
iv. Independent Judiciary There is a single, calendar. It was adopted by the Central Government on 22nd
integrated and unified judiciary in India. The
March, 1957.
Supreme Court is the highest court of the
land. Both Supreme Court and high courts National Animal It is tiger. It has eight species around the world
have been given extensive powers to interpret and Indian species is known as Royal Bengal Tiger. The
the Constitution and law under various majestic tiger (Panthera Tigris) is the National Animal of India.
provisions of the Constitution of India. National Bird Indian peacock (Pavo Cristatus). It is fully protected
v. Federal System with Unitary under the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Features Our Constitution contains federal
features of government like division of
powers, written Constitution, independent The Preamble
judiciary and bicameralism but, also a large • The Preamble means introduction or preface of the Constitution
number of unitary features like a strong or essence of the Constitution.
centre, single citizenship, flexibility of
• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is based on the
Constitution, integrated judiciary emergency
provisions etc. Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru and
adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
vi. Secular State The Indian Constitution
• The idea of justice, social, economic and political have been taken
stands for a secular state i.e. all religions in
our country have the same right and support from the Russian Revolution (1917).
from the state, it does not uphold any • The idea of liberty, equality and fraternity have been taken from
particular religion as the official religion of the the French Revolution (1789-1799).
Indian state.
vii. Universal Adult Franchise Every Indian Preamble of India
citizen (above 18 years) has a right to vote in We, the People of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute
the elections without any discrimination of India into a sovereign socialist, secular, democratic, republic and
caste, sex, relation etc. secure to all its citizens.
viii. Emergency Provisions Indian Constitution Justice, social, economic and political.
has special provisions to meet any
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
extraordinary situation or emergency. During
emergency the Central Government becomes Equality of status and of opportunity and to promote among them all.
powerful and state comes under the total Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and
control of it. During emergency our federal integrity of the nation.
system becomes unitary without any
In our Constituent Assembly on this 26th day of November, 1949, do
amendment of the Constitution.
hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.
952 CDS Pathfinder

Amendability of the Preamble CITIZENSHIP

• Whether, the Preamble can be amended under
The Constitution of India provides for single citizenship. There
Article 368 or not, this question arose for the first
is no separate citizenship of state. According to the
time in Keshavananda Bharati Case (1973). In this
Constitution, the following three categories of persons are
case, Supreme Court held that Preamble is the part
entitled to citizenship
of the Constitution and can be amended, subject to
the condition that no amendment is done to the i. Persons domiciled in India.
basic features of the Constitution. ii. Refugees, who migrated to India from Pakistan.
• The Preamble has been amended only once so far, iii. Indians living in other countries.
in 1976, by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, • Article 5 Citizenship at the commencement of the
which added three new words Socialist, Secular and Constitution.
Integrity. This amendment was held to be valid. • Article 6 Rights of Citizenship of certain persons, who have
migrated to India from Pakistan.
• Article 7 Rights of Citizenship of certain migrants to
IMPORTANT PROVISIONS Pakistan.
• Article 8 Rights of Citizenship of certain persons of Indian
OF THE CONSTITUTION origin residing outside India.
• Article 9 Persons voluntarily acquiring Citizenship of a
The Union and its Territories Foreign State not to be citizens.
• Article 10 Continuance of the Rights of Citizenship.
Article 1 to 4 under part-1 of the Constitution deal
with the Union and its Territory. • Article 11 Parliament to regulate the Right of Citizenship
by Law.
• Article 1 Deals with name and territory of the
Union. It describes India, that is Bharat as Union
of States. The Territory of India includes territories
Acquisition of Citizenship
of states, union territories and territories that may The act provides for the acquisition of Indian citizenship after
be acquired by the Government of India at any the commencement of the Constitution in five ways, i.e. birth,
time. descent registration, naturalisation and incorporation of
• Article 2 Admission or establishment of new states. territory.
• Article 3 Formation of new states and alteration of By Birth
areas, boundaries or names of the existing states.
Every person born in India on or after 26th January, 1950 shall
• Article 4 Laws made under Articles 2 and 3 to be a citizen of India by law of soil, provided either or both of
provide for the amendment of the first and the his/her parents are citizens of India at the time of his/her birth.
fourth schedules and supplemental, incidental and But this law does not apply where his/her father is a diplomat
consequential matters. of any other country or is an enemy alien at the time of
his/her birth.
Reorganisation of State
• In 1953, State Reorganisation Commission was By Descent
set-up under the Chairmanship of Fazl Ali, HN Broadly, a person born outside India on or after 26th January,
Kanzu and KN Panikkar were the other two 1950, is a citizen of India by descent if his/her either of the
members of the commission. It suggested the parents is a citizen of India at the time of that person’s birth.
reorganisation of 27 States of various categories in
16 States and 3 Union Territories. By Registration
• The State Reorganisation Act, 1956 was passed by The prescribed authority may, on application, register as a
Parliament as a result 14 States and 6 Union citizen of India, any person who is not a citizen by virtue of
Territories were created on 1st November, 1956. Constitution or the provisions of the Citizenship Act.
This mode of acquiring citizenship is available to any of the
New Sates UT’s Created After, 1956 following categories :
Maharashtra and Gujarat 1960, Dadra and Nagar • Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in India
Haveli 1961, Goa, Daman and Diu 1961, Pondicherry for 7 years immediately before making an application for
1962, Nagaland 1963, Haryana, Chandigarh 1966, registration.
Himachal 1971, Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya 1972, • Persons of Indian origin who are ordinarily resident in any
Sikkim 1975, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa country or place outside undivided India.
1987, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand 2000 and • Women who are or have been married to citizens of India.
Telangana 2014. Minor children of persons who are citizens of India.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 953

By Naturalisation Overseas Citizen of India

• Citizenship by naturalisation can be acquired by
• Government of India recognises those person and provide them
making an application in the prescribed manner. overseas citizen of Indian card, who have following credentials
The qualifications for naturalisation are as
– Who are now citizen of another country but was citizen of
follows :
India at time of or at any time after commencement of
– He must be a person of full age and capacity.
Constitution.
– He must not be a citizen of a country where
– Who were citizen of other country but were eligible to
Indian citizens are prevented from becoming become citizen of India at time of commencement of
citizens by naturalisation. He has renounced Constitution.
the citizenship of the other country. – Who is citizen of another country but belonged to a territory
– He has either resided in India or has been in
that became part of India.
Government service for 12 months before the – Child/grand child/ great grand child of the above such
date of making the application for
citizens. Person of Pakistan and Bangladesh can’t get an OCI.
naturalisation or during 7 years prior to these
Recently, government has merged people of Indian origin card
12 months, he has resided or has been in the
with overseas citizen card.
Government service for not less than 4 years.
– He must take an oath of allegiance.
Non-Resident Indian
– He is of a good character.
• A citizen of India, having Indian passport and staying
– He has an adequate knowledge of a language temporarily in another country for purpose of employment,
recognised in the eight schedule to the education for more than 6 months.
Constitution.
• NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries
or not are eligible to vote. Eligible NRIs have to register by
By Incorporation of Territories filling up form 6-A with electoral registration office. They must
If any new territory becomes a part of India, after a be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their
popular verdict, the Government of India shall franchise.
specify the person of that territory to be the citizen
of India. Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas
• It is celebrated on 9th January every year to recognise
Loss of Citizenship contribution of overseas Indian community in the development
The Citizenship Act, 1955 also lays down three of India. 9th January is selected because on this date, Mahatma
modes by which an Indian citizen may lose his/ her Gandhi returned to India from South Africa. This celebration
citizenship. These are renunciation, termination and provide opportunity to overseas citizen to interact with
deprivation government and people of their homeland. Pravasi Bharatiya
Renunciation It is a voluntary act by which a Diwas started from year 2003.
person, after acquiring the citizenship of • The 14th Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas was held on 9th January,
another country, gives up his Indian 2017 in Bengaluru (Karnataka). The event was attended by
citizenship. This provision is subject to certain Portugal Prime Minister, Dr. Antonio Costa. The theme of this
conditions. edition is “Redefining Engagement with the Indian Diaspora”.
Termination Takes place by operation of law
when an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the
The Citizenship (Amendment)
citizenship of another country. He Bill, 2015
automatically ceases to be an Indian citizen
• Parliament of India passed the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill,
(Article 9).
2015 on 9th January, 2015 to bring parity between provisions
Deprivation It is a compulsory termination of the for Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) and Overseas Citizens of
citizenship of India obtained by registration or Indian (OCI) cardholders.
naturalisation, by the Government of India, on
charges of using fraudulent means to acquire • Now, the benefits under the PIO scheme would be extended to
citizenship. OCI cardholders with recognition granted to their great grand
children which was earlier limited to grand children.
954 CDS Pathfinder

• Article 21 (A) Right to education from age 6 to 14 years

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS was made a Fundamental Right by 86th Amendment,
2002.
• The Fundamental Rights have been described in
• Article 22 It entails protection against arrest and
Articles 12 to 35, Part III of Indian Constitution.
detention in certain cases. This right is not available to an
• Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles have a enemy alien and a person arrested or detained under a law
common origin. Nehru Report 1928 incorporated some providing preventive detention (detention of a person
Fundamental Rights. The framers of Constitution without trial).
derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA i.e.
Bill of Rights. Part III of Constitution is rightly Right Against Exploitation
described as Magna Carta of India. (Articles 23 and 24)
– Article 12 Definition of ‘State’.
• Article 23 It entails prohibition of traffic in human
– Article 13 Laws inconsistent with or in derogation beings and bonded labour, forced labour.
of the Fundamental Rights. • Article 24 No child below the age of 14 can be employed
Originally Fundamental Rights were seven in numbers viz in factories or mines or in hazardous employment.
i. Right to Equality
ii. Right to Freedom
Right to Freedom of Religion
iii. Right against Exploitation
(Articles 25 to 28)
iv. Right to Freedom of Religion • Article 25 Freedom of conscience and free profession,
practice and propagation of religion.
v. Cultural and Educational Rights
• Article 26 Freedom to manage religious affairs.
vi. Right to Constitutional Remedies
• Article 27 Freedom as to payment of taxes for
vii. Right to Property
promotion of any particular religion.
Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18) • Article 28 It prohibits any religious instruction in
educational institutions wholly maintained by state funds.
• Article 14 Equality before law and equal protection of
In other instructions aided and recognised by the state,
law.
every person will be free not to participate in religious
• Article 15 Social Equality It prohibits discrimination instruction or worship.
only on the ground of religion, race, sex, caste, place or
birth. Cultural and Educational Rights
• Article 16 It entails to equality of opportunity in the (Articles 29 to 30)
matter of public employment. • Article 29 It allows every community to conserve its
• Article 17 It deals with the abolition of untouchability. distinct language, script or culture. It also bars disallowing
a citizen admission to any educational institution
• Article 18 It deals with abolition of titles. Except maintained or aided by the state only on grounds of
military and academic. religion, race, caste or language.
Right to Freedom (Articles 19 to 22) • Article 30 Right of minorities to establish and administer
educational institutions.
• Article 19 It guarantees freedom to the citizen of
India. Following six fundamental freedoms are as follow Right to Property (Article 31)
i. Freedom of speech and expression (freedom of • Article 31 Right to property, repealed by the 44th
press, media). Amendment Act, 1978. Now, it is only a legal right.
ii. To assemble peacefully and without arms.
iii. To form association or unions. Right to Constitutional Remedies
iv. To move freely throughout the territory of India. (Article 32)
v. To reside and settle in any part of the territory • Article 32 It provides the right to the citizens to move to
of India. the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the
vi. Freedom to choose any profession and business. enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and it empowers
the Supreme Court to issue directions or writs for the
• Article 20 It gives protection in respect of conviction enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.
for offences.
• The writs include Habeas, Corpus, Mandamus,
• Article 21 It gives protection of life and personal Prohibition, Quo-waranto and Certiorari, Dr BR
liberty to both citizens and non-citizens. Articles 20 Ambedkar termed the Right to Constitutional Remedies
and 21 remain in force even during emergency. as the heart and soul of the Constitution.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 955

Forms of Writs Suspension of Fundamental

Habeas Corpus Rights
• It literally means ‘have the body’ i.e. to be produced
before the court. • The Constitution contains provisions for automatic
suspension of the Fundamental Rights under certain
• This kind of writ is issued to protect personal liberty
circumstances, e.g. during the National Emergency under
of an individual against the arbitrary action of both
Article 352 (i.e. war or external aggression).
the state and private individuals. The aggrieved person
can even claim for compensation against such action. • Under Article 358, when National Emergency is
proclaimed on the grounds of war or external aggression
Mandamus (and not armed rebellion), the Fundamental Rights under
• It literally means ‘command’. Article 19 are automatically suspended.
• This kind of writ is issued against a public authority • The Constitution empowers the President, under
or an officer and inferior courts for compelling the Article 359 to suspend any or all the Fundamental Rights
authority to do a particular work that it ought to do by issuing a separate proclamation during a National
but has not done. This writ cannot be issued against Emergency. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 prohibits the
the President and the Governors. Private rights cannot suspension of Articles 20 and 21 (protection in respect of
be enforced by the writ of the Mandamus. conviction for offences and protection of life and personal
Prohibition liberty, respectively) even during a National Emergency.
• It means ‘to forbid’.
• This kind of writ is issued by the higher courts to the DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF
lower courts or the quasi-judicial bodies when the
latter exceed their judicial authority. STATE POLICY (DPSP)
• The objective is to keep the inferior courts or the • Dr BR Ambedkar described the DPSPs as ‘novel feature of
quasi-judicial bodies within the limits of their the Constitution’. DPSPs are constitutional instructions or
respective jurisdiction. guidelines to state in the legislative, executive and
• The difference between ‘Mandamus’ and ‘Prohibition’ administrative affairs. It provides the social and economic
is that while the former can be issued against judicial base of a genuine democracy. Granville–Austin has
as well as administrative authorities, the latter is described the “FR’s and DPSP as conscience of
issued only against the judicial or quasi-judicial Constitution’’.
authorities. • The purpose of directive principles of state policy is to lay
down positive instructions which would guide state policy
Certiorari
at all levels.
• It means ‘to be certified’.
• However, on the basis of their content and direction, they
• This writ is issued to quash the order of a lower can be classified into three broad viz socio-economic
court or the decision of a tribunal in excess of its principles, Gandhian and liberal principles.
jurisdiction. The purpose of this writ is to secure that
the jurisdiction of an inferior court or tribunal is Socio-Economic Principles
properly exercised and that it does not usurp the
jurisdiction, it does not possess. (Articles 38 and 39)
Quo Warranto • To provide adequate means of livelihood.
• It literally means ‘by what authority or warrent’. • To prevent concentration of wealth and means of wealth
• This kind of writ is issued to ensure that the person and material resources.
holding a public office is qualified to hold the office. • To secure equal pay for equal work for both men and
• Besides the normal writs issued on violation of women.
Fundamental Rights, there has been a progressive • To ensure a decent standard of living and leisure for all
strengthening of the Fundamental Rights by the workers.
judiciary. • To provide necessary opportunities and facilities to children
î The principle of ‘Locus Standi’ applies only to the writs of and youth to prevent their exploitation.
Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari i.e. only aggrieved • To make efforts to secure the right to work, education and
person is entitled to seek these writs. public assistance in case of unemployment, sickness, old
age etc.
956 CDS Pathfinder

Gandhian Principles Difference between Fundamental Rights

and Directive Principles
• Article 40 The establishment of village
panchayats and make them powerful Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy
enough to function as a units of The democratic political system has been The economic welfare of the state is established
self-government. established by providing the FRs. by the implementation of the DPSPs.

• Article 43 To promote cottage FRs are subject to court of law at any point While DPSPs are not enforceable by the court of
of time if anybody feels that his FR are law.
industries. being violated.
• Article 45 State shall endeavour to FRs can be suspended except the right DPSP can never be suspended under any
provide early childhood care and mentioned in Articles 20 and 22 during condition.
education for all children until they emergency.
complete the age of 6 years. FRS are assumed negatively sometimes, DPSP are always affirmative because they
because of their restrictive attitudes direct the states for definite activity.
• Article 46 The promotion of educational towards the states.
and economic interest of weaker sections.
The Fundamental Rights are a bit limited in While, the scope of Directive Principle of State
• Article 47 The prohibition of its scope. policy is endless. In DPSP, the political
administrative, economic and subjects like
intoxicating drugs and drinks. international peace are also included.
• Article 48 Prevention of the slaughter of
cows and other milk cattle.
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
Western Liberal (ARTICLE 51 A)
Principles • The Fundamental Duties in the Constitution serve as a reminder to the
• Article 39 A equal opportunity for citizens that while enjoying their rights, they should also be conscious
justice and free legal aid. of their duties towards the country. Formed on the recommendation of
• Article 43 A Securing the participation Swarn Singh committee.
of workers in the management of • They were added by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 under Article 51 A. It
industries. contains the duties of the citizens. They are as follow
• Article 44 A Uniform civil code. – To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions,
the National Flag and the National Anthem.
• Article 45 Provision for free and
– To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national
compulsory education for children.
struggle for freedom.
• Article 46 Promotion of educational and
– To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
economic interests of Scheduled Castes,
– To defend the country and render national service when called upon
Scheduled Tribes and other weaker
sections. to do so.
– To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst
• Article 47 Duty of the state to raise the
level of nutrition and the standard of all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or
living and to improve public health. sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of
women.
• Article 48 Organisation of agriculture – To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
and animal husbandry.
– To protect and improve the natural environment including forests,
• Article 48A Protection and lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
improvement of environment and – To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry
safeguarding of forests and wildlife. and reform.
• Article 49 Protection of monuments and – To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective
places and objects of national activity so that the nation constantly rise to higher level of endevour
importance. and achievement.
• Article 50 Separation of judiciary from – To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
executive. – For every citizen who is a parent or guardian, to provide
• Article 51 Promotion of international opportunities for education to his child or as the case may be ward
peace and security. between the age of 6 and 14 years (86th Constutional Amendment).
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 957

Term of Office and Salary

THE UNION EXECUTIVE Tenure Under Article 56, the Presidents shall hold the
It deals with Union Government. It consists of the office for 5 years. There is no limit, as to how many times
President, the Vice-President and the Council of Ministers a person can become President. He can give his resignation
headed by Prime Minister to aid and advise the President. to the Vice-President before the full term completes. The
President may be removed from office before the expiry of
The President (Articles 52 to 78) his tenure through a special procedure called Impeachment.
On 11th September, 2008, the Government of India
The President of India is the highest executive authority. increased the salary of the President to 1.5 lakh.
The Constitution vests in him all the executive powers of
Union. All executive actions are taken on his name. He is Presidents of India
the head of the state and represents the Republic of India Tenure
and he is the first citizen of India.
Name From To
Dr Rajendra Prasad 26.01.1950 13.05.1962
Qualifications
Dr S Radhakrishnan 13.05.1962 13.05.1967
Article 58 deals with the qualification of a person to be Dr Zakir Hussain 13.05.1967 03.05.1969
the President of India.
V V Giri (Vice-President) 03.05.1969 20.07.1969
• Must be a citizen of India.
Justice M Hidayatullah 20.07.1969 24.08.1969
• Should have completed the age of 35 years.
V V Giri 24.08.1969 24.08.1974
• Should not hold any office of profit under the
F Ali Ahmed 24.08.1974 11.02.1977
government.
BD Jatti 11.02.1977 25.02.1977
• He should be qualified to become a member of the
N Sanjeeva Reddy 25.07.1977 25.07.1982
Lok Sabha.
Giani Zail Singh 25.07.1982 25.07.1987

Election (Articles 54, 55 and 71) R Venkataraman 25.07.1987 25.07.1992

Dr SD Sharma 25.07.1992 25.07.1997
• The President of India is not directly elected by the
people, but by the members of electoral college KR Narayanan 25.07.1997 25.07.2002
consisting of Dr APJ Abdul Kalam 25.07.2002 25.07.2007
– the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament. Mrs Pratibha Patil 25.07.2007 25.07.2012

– the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Shri Pranab Mukherjee 25.07.2012 25.07.2017
the State. Ram Nath Kovind 25.7.2017 Till Date
– the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of
Delhi and Puducherry. Impeachment
• Nominated members do not take part in the election of Article 61 The President can be impeached only on the
the President. ground of violation of the Constitution.
• Election is held through the system of proportional • The procedure for impeachment can be initiated in either
representation by means of the single transferable vote house of Parliament.
by secret ballot. The candidate who gets minimum 50% • The charges are contained in a notice which has to be
of votes, is considered elected. signed by atleast one-fourth of the total members of that
• States have different representation in the presidential houses. Notice is sent to the President before 14 days.
election depending on the population and the number of • Impeachment procedure is quasi-judicial in nature
elected members of Legislative Assembly. because after resolution to this effect is passed by the
• Value of vote of an MLA = (State population ÷ Total two-third majority. The other house can set-up a
numbers of elected MLAs) × 1000. committee to investigate the charges against President.
• Value of vote of an MP = Total value of MLAs of all • President can defend himself by taking service of
states ÷ Total number of elected MPs (Lok Sabha and Attorney General of India or any other lawyer.
Rajya Sabha).
This formula secures the uniformity between all the states Vacancy (Article 62)
on one hand and the Parliament on the other. • In the case of vacant seat due to any reason e.g. death,
• Only Supreme Court enquires all disputes regarding resignation or removal then the Vice-President acts as the
presidential election. President, if he is not available the Chief Justice of India,
• President takes oath in presence of Chief Justice of India
if not then the seniormost Judge of Supreme Court.
and in his absence, the seniormost judge of Supreme • The election is to be held within 6 months for the
Court administers oath to the President. vacancy.
958 CDS Pathfinder

Powers and Functions (Article 77) Reprieve It means a stay of execution of sentence pending
• The President has a very important role in our
a processing pro pardon or commutation.
democracy. He has vast powers to be exercised during Remission The power of remission reduces the amount of
normal time as well as during emergency period. sentence without changing its character. e.g. a sentence
• These powers however are actually exercised by the of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be
Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. remitted to rigorous imprisonment for 1 year.
Respite The power to grant respite means awarding a lesser
Executive Powers of President sentence instead of the prescribed penalty in view of
• He appoints Prime Minister who enjoys the support of some special facts. e.g. pregnancy of woman offender.
the majority in the Lok Sabha, appoints the members for Commutation It merely substitutes one form of the
the Council of Ministers and distributes portfolios
punishment for another of a lighter character. e.g. a
among them on the advice of the Prime Minister.
death sentence may be commuted to rigorous
• He appoints Chief Justice and judges of Supreme Court imprisonment.
and High Court, Chairman and Members of UPSC,
CAG, Attorney General, Chief Election Commissioner Financial Powers
and other members of Election Commission, Governors, • All Money Bills can originate in Parliament only on the
members of Finance Commission, Ambassadors etc. recommendation of the President.
• He can seek any information relating to the • Appointment of Finance Commissioner every 5th year.
administration of affairs of the Union and the proposal • Can make advances out of the Contingency Fund of
for legislation from the Prime Minister.
India to meet any unforseen expenditure.
Legislative Powers
Diplomatic Powers
• The President of India is an integral part of the
All kinds of international treaties and agreements
Parliament. Though legislation is the primary
concluded on his behalf.
responsibility of Parliament.
The President has the right to influence the legislative • He represents country on the international forum.
process in following ways • He sends ambassadors and receives diplomats.
– The summoning dissolution and propogation of Lok
Military Powers (Article 53)
Sabha.
He is the Supreme Commander of armed forces. He
– Right of President to address and he can also summon
appoints the chiefs of army, navy and airforce staff. He
a joint sitting of both the House of Parliament, which declares wars or conclude peace subject to approval of
is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Parliament.
– Nomination of the members of Parliament (12
members to Rajya Sabha from amongst person having Emergency Powers
special knowledge or practical experience in literature, The President of India can proclaim emergency in three
science, art and social services and 2 members from conditions after getting the written recommendation of the
Anglo-Indian community in Lok Sabha). Cabinet, which are as follow
– Laying down some reports at the floor of the National Emergency (Article 352) arising out of war,
Parliament. external aggression or armed rebellion within the
– Prior consent on some bills. (e.g. Money Bill) country.
– Article 123 of the Constitution empower the President Constitutional Emergency (Article 356) arising out of the
to promulgate ordinances during the recess of failure of the constitutional machinery in the states. It
Parliament. These ordinance have the same force and is also known as President’s Rule.
effect as and act of Parliament, but are in the nature of Financial Emergency (Article 360) arising out of a threat
temporary laws. to financial stability or credit of India.
Judicial Powers (Article 72)
President can grant pardon or reduce the sentence of any
Discretionary Powers
convicted person under central laws. • The President of India almost always acts on the aid and
advice of the Council of Ministers except under the
Various Pardoning Power of the President following circumstances where he/she acts on his/her
(Article 72) discretion
Pardon It removes both the sentences and the conviction – In appointing the Prime Minister from among the
and completely absolves the offender from all contenders when no single party attains majority after
punishments and disqualifications. elections to the Lok Sabha.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 959

President can refer a decision of an individual

–
minister for the collective consideration of Council
The Vice-President
of Ministers. • As per the Article 63, there shall be a Vice-President of
– When the Houses of the Parliament do not meet India. He occupies the second highest office in the country.
regularly, the President may act in his/her • In absence or illness of the President, the Vice-President
discretion and summon both the Houses of the performs the functions of the President. If the President
Parliament. resigns or dies, the Vice-President officiates as a President,
– While exercising a pocket veto. till a new President is elected.
– Can return the advice of the Council of Ministers Election
once for its reconsideration.
• The Vice-President is elected by an ‘Electoral College’
– Can return the bill passed by the Parliament once for
constituted by the members of both Houses of the
its reconsideration.
Parliament in accordance with the system of proportional
representation by means of single transferable vote and the
Veto Powers vote being secret.
The President enjoys three veto powers which he/she
• Nominated members also participate in the election.
can use to deny the execution of an action
Supreme Court enquires all disputes regarding
recommended by Parliament. They are as follows : Vice-President election.
Absolute Veto When a Bill other than a Money Bill
passed by Parliament, the President may decline to Qualifications
give assent to the Bill altogether. • Must be a citizen of India.
Suspensive Veto When a Bill other than a Money Bill • Should have completed the age of 35 years.
is passed by Parliament and the President may • Must be eligible to become a member of Rajya Sabha.
resend the Bill to Parliament for further • Must not hold any government post.
consideration with a message to amend certain
provisions of a Bill. However, if the Parliament Terms and Functions
passes it again with or without amendment, the • He is elected for 5 years and can be re-elected.
President is bound to give assent on it. • He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Pocket Veto This veto power is used when the • All bills, resolution, motion can be taken in Rajya Sabha
President feels that the party in power is likely to after his consent.
face destability and may disincline to assent to a Removal
Bill passed and neither communicate it to the
• The Vice-President can be removed from his office by a
Council of Ministers nor send it back for
resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a majority of all
Parliament for reconsideration. The Bill lies in the then members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the
President’s office for an indefinite period. In case House of People (Lok Sabha). Regarding Vice-President,
of a Money Bill the President may assent to it or there is no formal impeachment.
decline to do so but cannot send it back to • The Vice-President may also resign from his office by
Parliament. In case of Constitutional Amendment writing to the President.
Bills, the President is bound to give his/her assent
to it e.g. APJ Abdul Kalam with holding Office of Vice-Presidents of India
Profit Bill. Vice-President Tenure
Dr Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan 1952-1962
IMPORTANT FACTS Dr Zakir Hussain 1962-1967
●
Presidents who died on their posts—Zakir Hussain Varahagiri Venkatagiri 1967-1969
and Fakruddin Ali Ahmed. Gopal Swarup Pathak 1969-1974
●
Only President elected unopposed— Neelam BD Jatti 1974-1979
Sanjeeva Reddy. Justice Mohammed Hidayatullah 1979-1984
●
President who served as Speaker of Lok Sabha R Venkataraman 1984-1987
before becoming President—Neelam Sanjeeva
Dr Shanker Dayal Sharma 1987-1992
Reddy.
KR Narayanan 1992-1997
●
Only Chief Justice who acted as President—Justice
Hidayatullah. Krishan Kant (Died) 1997-2002
●
Only President who was elected twice—Dr Bhairon Singh Shekhawat 2002-2007
Rajendra Prasad. Mohammed Hamid Ansari 2007-2017
M. Venkaiah Naidu 2017 till date
960 CDS Pathfinder

Council of Ministers Prime Ministers of India

Tenure
• Council of Ministers is formed as soon as Prime Minister Name
is sworn in. Only Prime Minister alone can constitute From To
Council of Ministers. After 91st Amendment Act, 2003, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru 15.08.1947 27.05.1964
Article 75(1)(A) states that, strength of Union Council of Gulzari Lal Nanda 27.05.1964 09.06.1964
Ministers shall not be more than 15% of total strength of Lal Bahadur Shastri 09.06.1964 11.01.1966
the Lok Sabha. Gulzari Lal Nanda 11.01.1966 24.01.1966
• The Council of Ministers consist of three categories of Indira Gandhi 24.01.1966 24.03.1977
Minister namely; Cabinet Minister, Ministers of State and Morarji Desai 24.03.1977 28.07.1979
Deputy Ministers. Charan Singh 28.07.1979 14.01.1980
• The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible Indira Gandhi 14.01.1980 31.10.1984
to the House of People. There are three types of Rajiv Gandhi 31.10.1984 01.12.1989
Ministers VP Singh 21.12.1989 10.11.1990
i. Cabinet Ministers They are incharge of important Chandra Shekhar 10.01.1990 21.06.1991
portfolios. They are the real policy makers. The PV Narsimha Rao 21.06.1991 16.05.1996
cabinet meetings are not attended by other
Atal Bihari Vajpayee 16.05.1996 01.06.1996
ministers.
HD Deve Gowda 01.06.1996 21.04.1997
ii. Minister of State One, who hold independent
I K Gujral 21.04.1997 19.03.1998
charge of some ministries or are placed under a
Atal Bihari Vajpayee 19.03.1998 13.10.1999
Cabinet Minister.
Atal Bihari Vajpayee 13.10.1999 22.05.2004
iii. Deputy Ministers One, who assist Cabinet
Dr Manmohan Singh 22.05.2004 25.05.2014
Ministers and Ministers of States.
Narendra Modi 26.5.2014 Till date
• A person can remain a minister without being a member
of either house maximum upto 6 months.
Powers and Functions
The Prime Minister • In Relation to the Council of Ministers If a
difference in opinion arises between the Prime Minister
• The position of Prime Minister in the Council of and any of his subordinate ministers, he can ask the
Minister is described as ‘Primus Inter Pares’ i.e. first minister to resign or can advise President to dismiss
among the equals. He is the real executive as President is him.
nominal executive.
• In Relation of President Regarding the appointment
• The Prime Minister is the head of the Union of important officials like Attorney General of India,
Government. All the executive powers of the Central CAG, Chairman of UPSC, EC, Chairman of Finance
Government are formally vested with the President of Commission, etc the Prime Minister can advice the
India, but these powers are actually exercised by the President.
Council of Ministers under the leadership of the Prime
• He advises the President with regard to summoning and
Minister.
proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.
• The Prime Minister is appointed by the President.
• He can recommend dissolution of Lok Sabha to
[Article 75]
President at any time.
• Prime Minister allocates portfolios among the ministers
and he also can drop any minister. Deputy Prime Minister
• The Prime Minister is the chairperson of the Planning There is no mention of Deputy Prime Minister in the
Commission. Constitution. Deputy Prime Minister is appointed mostly
• The Prime Minister, who is not a member of Parliament due to political compulsion. Sardar Patel was the first
has to acquire its membership within 6 months of his Deputy Prime Minister during Prime Minister Nehru’s
appointment. time. Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, Jagjivan Ram, YB
• Even a Rajya Sabha member can become a Prime Charan, Devilal and LK Advani also worked as Deputy
Minister. Prime Minister during the period of various Prime
Minister’s.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 961

Attorney General Presiding Officer

The Attorney General of India is appointed by the • Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya
President of India under Article 76 of the Constitution. A Sabha. He presides over the proceedings of the Rajya
person qualified to be a Judge of Supreme Court is Sabha as long as he does not act as the President of
appointed to such a post. He is the first legal officer of the India during a vacancy in the office of the President of
Government of India. India.
He is consulted in all important cases. He also appears in • Also a Deputy Chairman is elected from among its
the Supreme Court on behalf of Government of India to members.
conduct cases. He has the right of audience in all the • In Rajya Sabha any bill can originate, apart from Money
courts and can take part in the proceedings of either house Bill (including budget).
of Parliament, but he is not entitled to vote. He holds • Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to
office during the pleasure of the President. He is dissolution unlike Lok Sabha.
prohibited to take appointment as director in any company
without permission of government, but he is not debarred Special Powers of the Rajya Sabha
from private legal practice. • A resolution seeking the removal of the Vice-President
can originate only in the Rajya Sabha.
• If, the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of
PARLIAMENT not less than two-third of the members present and
According to Article 79, the Parliament consists of the voting that it is necessary in the national interest that
President, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter
enumerated in the State List. It shall be lawful for
House of the People (Lok Sabha). Though, the President is
Parliament to make law for a period of not more than
not a member of either of the house, he is an integral part
1 year. (Article 249)
of it.
• If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of
Rajya Sabha (Article 80) not less than two-third of the members present and
voting, then it is necessary in the national interest to
• Maximum Strength 250 (Out of these, President create one or more All-India Services, Parliament by
nominates 12 members amongst persons having special law, provides for such service or services. (Article 312)
knowledge or practical experience in the fields of
literature, science, art and social service). Lok Sabha
• Presently, the Parliament, by law has provided for 233
• Maximum Strength 550 + 2 (530 : States, 20 : UTs).
seats for the States and the Union Territories. The total
membership of Rajya Sabha is 245. • Present Strength of Lok Sabha (543 +2).
• All the states and only 2 Union Territories, Delhi and • Lok Sabha is not a permanent body and is subject to
Puducherry are represented in the Rajya Sabha. dissolution.
• Representatives of the state are elected by members of • The normal tenure of the Lok Sabha is 5 years, but it
State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of proportional may be dissolved earlier by the President.
representation through a single transferable vote. States
are represented on the basis of their population. Tenure
• There are no seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and • The life of the Lok Sabha can be extended by the
Scheduled Tribes in Rajya Sabha. Parliament beyond the 5 years term, when a
proclamation of emergency under Article 352 is in force.
Membership But, the Parliament cannot extend the normal life of the
Conditions to be a member of Rajya Sabha are as follow Lok Sabha for more than 1 year at a time, but in any
case such extension cannot continue beyond a period of
• Citizen of India.
6 months after the proclamation of emergency comes to
• 30 years of age. an end.
• Be a parliamentary elector in the State, in which he is • Quorum for Either House Article 100 (c) Quorum is
seeking election. the minimum number of members required to be present
• Others as prescribed by Parliament from time-to-time. before it can transact any business. It is 1/10th of the
• For 6 years, as one-third members retire every 2 years. total number of members.
962 CDS Pathfinder

Membership Deputy Speaker

Conditions to be a member of Lok Sabha • The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the
• Citizen of India. Vice-Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha, the
• At least 25 years of age.
Lower House of Parliament of India. He acts
as the Presiding Officer in case of leave or
• Must not hold any office of profit.
absence caused by death or illness of the
• He must not be of unsound mind/insolvent. Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• He must be a registered voter in any parliamentary constituency.
• The Deputy Speaker is elected in the very first
A member can be disqualified meeting of the Lok Sabha after the General
• if, he voluntarily gives up the membership of party. Elections for a term of 5 years from among
• if, he over rules the ‘whip’. the Members of the Lok Sabha.
• if, he remains absent for 60 days without intimation.
Powers of Lok Sabha
Presiding Officers • Money and the Financial Bills originate only in
• Presiding officer in Lok Sabha is the Speaker (in his/her absence, Lok Sabha. The confidence and no confidence
Deputy Speaker). The members among themselves elect him/her. motions can be introduced in Lok Sabha only.
• Article 352 says that the Lok Sabha in a
• The Speaker continues in office even after the dissolution of the
Lok Sabha till a newly elected Lok Sabha meets. special sitting can disapprove the continuance
of National Emergency, even when the Rajya
The speaker has to vacate his office earlier in any of the following Sabha rejects such a resolution.
three cases
i. If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha; Power, Privileges and Immunities
ii. If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; of the Members of Parliament
iii. If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the Parliamentary privileges are special rights,
members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be removed immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two
only after giving 14 days’ advance notice. Houses of Parliament, their committees and
• Usually the Speaker, after his election cuts-off all connections with their members. Without these privileges the
his party and acts in an impartial manner. He does not vote in the Houses can neither maintain their authority,
first instance, but exercises his casting vote only to remove a dignity and honour nor can protect their
deadlock. members from any obstruction in the discharge
• Charges his salary from the Consolidated Fund of India. of their Parliamentary responsibilities.
Parliamentary privileges don’t extent to the
• The majority of the total membership can remove speaker after
President who is also an integral part of the
giving a 14 days notice. During this time, he does not preside over Parliament.
the meetings. After his removal, continues in office till his
successor takes charge. Parliamentary privileges can be classified into two
broad categories, which are as follows
Powers and Functions of Speaker i. Those that are enjoyed by each House of
• The Speaker presides at the meetings of the House of the People Parliament collectively.
as well as joint setting of two Houses of Parliament. ii. Those that are enjoyed by the members
• The Speaker gives permission to the members to speak in the individually.
house. Some of the privileges and immunities enjoyed by
• If, the Quorum (presence of only one-tenth of the total strength the members of the Parliament, are as follows
of the house) is not complete, the Speaker can adjourn the house.
• Freedom of speech in the House subject to the
• He decides as to whether a bill is a Money Bill or not.
rules framed by the House. The members are
• He appoints the Chairman as well as Deputy Chairman of all the not permitted to discuss the conduct of the
committees of the house. Speaker takes the final decision as to judges of the Supreme Court and High Court,
disqualify a member on grounds of defection. except when the removal of a Judge is being
considered by Parliament.
PRO-TEM SPEAKER
• Immunity from proceedings in any court in
The first meeting after election, in which Speaker and Deputy respect of publication of any report, paper or
Speaker is elected by Members of Parliament is head under the
proceedings under the authority of either
seniormost Member of Parliament, he is called Pro-Tem
Speaker. House of Parliament.
• Exemption from liability to serve as Jurors.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 963

Sessions of Parliament Mechanisms of Parliamentary

• Begins with the consent of the President. Proceedings
• Gap between two sessions should not be more than Question Hour
6 months. The Parliament generally meets in three
The first hour of a sitting of the Lok Sabha devoted to
sessions in a year, which are as follow
questions and that hours is called the Question Hour.
i. Budget Session (February-May) It is the longest
session. The questions are of three types
ii. Monsoon Session (July-August). i. A Starred Questions It is one to which a member
desires an oral answer from the Minister in the House
iii. Winter Session (November-December) It is the and is required to be distinguished by him/her with
shortest session. an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be
Termination of Sitting followed by supplementary questions by members.
The sitting of a house may be terminated by ii. An Unstarred Question It is one to which written
Dissolution The Lok Sabha is subject to dissolution. answer is desired an oral answer from the Minister in
Dissolution takes place when the President exercises the House and is required to be distinguished by
him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question
his power under Article 85(2). It can be dissolved by
may be followed by supplementary questions by
efflux of time i.e. on the expiry of its term of 5 years
members.
of the terms as extended during a proclamation of
iii. Short Notice Question A member may give a notice
emergency.
of question on a matter of public importance and of
Prorogation It means the termination of a session of the urgent character for oral answer at a notice less than
house by an order made by the President under 15 days prescribed as the minimum period of notice
Article 85 (2) (a) of the Constitution. for asking a question in ordinary course. Such a
Adjournment It does not put an end to the existence of question is known as Short Notice Question.
a session of Parliament, but it merely postpones the Zero Hour
further transaction of business for a specified time,
hours, days or weeks. Adjournment generally does not The period follows the question hours and it starts at the
noon and its duration is one hour (from 12 noon to 1pm).
have any effect on pending business.
During the Zero Hour various issues of public importance
Joint Session are raised without prior notice.
• It is ordered by the President to consider a particular
bill in case Parliamentary Proposal
– Bill passed by one house and rejected by the other.
Some parliamentary proposal in Lok Sabha are as follows
– The amendments made by the other house are not
Calling Attention Motion With the prior permission of
acceptable to the house where the bill originated. the Speaker, any Member of the Parliament may call
– When a bill remains pending or unpassed for more
the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public
than 6 months. importance. The minister may make a brief statement
• Joint session of Parliament is presided over by the about the matter or he may ask for time to make a
Speaker of the Lok Sabha. In his absence, by the Deputy statement later.
Speaker, or in his absence by the Deputy Chairman of
Privilege Motion It is a motion moved by a member of
Rajya Sabha or in his absence any other member of the
Parliament. He charges the minister with committing a
Parliament who is acceptable to both the houses.
breach of the privilege of the house by withholding or
• Deadlock over the bill is resolved by a majority of the
distoring facts.
members of both the Houses of Parliament present and
voting. Adjournment Motion It is introduced in the Parliament
to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of
• No fresh amendment can be done in joint session.
urgent public importance and needs the support of 50
• There is no provision of joint session for passing Money
members to be admitted. It can only be moved in
Bills and Constitutional Amendment Acts. Lower House of the Parliament. It should not raise
In Indian history, only three bills have been referred to the any matter which is under adjudication by a court.
joint sitting
No-Confidence Motion It is a resolution introduced by
i. Dowry Prohibition Bill — 1961 the opposition claiming that the house has lost its
ii. Banking Service Commission Bill — 1978 confidence in the government. If it is passed, then
iii. POTA Bill — 2002 government must resign from the office.
964 CDS Pathfinder

It can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Rajya President Assent to the Bills
Sabha does not enjoys this power because Article • After a Bill has been passed by both the Houses of
75 says that Council of Minister shall be Parliament, it is presented to the President for his/her assent.
collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This
• The President may either assent to the Bill, withhold his/her
motion requires the support of 50 members to be assent or return the Bill, if it is not a Money Bill, with a
admitted. message for reconsideration of the Bill or any specified
Censure Motion The motion seeks to censure the provisions thereof, or for considering the desirability of
government for its lapses. If the censure motion is introducing any such amendments as he may recommend in
passed against the government, it should pass a his/her message.
confidence motion as soon as possible to regain the • The President may either give or withhold his/her assent to
confidence of the house. And government, does not a Money Bill. A Money Bill cannot be returned to the
need to resign immediately unlike in case of House by the President for reconsideration.
No-Confidence Motion. It can be moved against an • Also, the President is bound to give his/her assent to
individual minister for specific policies or actions. Constitution Amendment Bill passed by Parliament by the
This motion should state the reason for its prescribed special majority and where necessary, ratified by
adoption. It is in practice since 1954. the requisite number of State Legislatures.

Legislative Procedure in Parliament CONSOLIDATED FUND OF INDIA

[ARTICLE 266 (1)]
The proposal for a law is called Bill. Until a bill is
passed through a proper procedure, it cannot be a law
●
All revenues received by the government by way of
or an act. Only Speaker of Lok Sabha decides whether taxes like income tax, central excise, customs and other
receipts flowing to the government in connection with
the bill is a Money Bill or an Ordinary Bill.
the conduct of government business i.e. non-tax
Ordinary Bill revenues are credited into the Consolidated Fund
constituted under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of
• All the bills other than Financial bills, Money bills
India.
and the Constitutional Amendment are Ordinary ●
All loans raised by the government by issue of public
bills. notifications, treasury bills (internal debt) and loans
• An Ordinary Bill can be introduced in any of the obtained from foreign government and international
two Houses of Parliament. The Ordinary Bill can be institutions (external debt) are credited into this fund.
introduced by either a Minister of the Government All expenditure of the government is incurred from this
or any Member of the House. fund and no amount can be withdrawn from the fund
without authorisation from the Parliament; Article 114
Money Bill (in effect that of Lok Sabha).
No Money Bill can be introduced without the consent CONTINGENCY FUND OF INDIA (ARTICLE 267)
of the President of India (Article 110). ●
The Contingency Fund of India records the transactions
• It can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. The Speaker connected with Contingency Fund set by the
certifies a bill to be a Money Bill and his decision is Government of India under Article 267 of the
final in this regard. (Article 110) Constitution of India.
• Money Bills relate to bills seeking imposition or
●
This fund acts more or less like an imprest account of
abolition of taxes, matters pertaining to borrowing of Government of India and is held on behalf of President
money by the government, custody and maintenance by the Secretary to the Government of India, Ministry
of Finance, Department of Economic Affairs. At
of consolidated funds etc.
present, it is 500 crore.
• When, the Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it
is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. PUBLIC ACCOUNT [ARTICLE 266(2)]
Rajya Sabha can delay, it only for 14 days. It’s final ●
In the public account, constituted under Article 266 (2)
approval lies with Lok Sabha only. of the Constitution, the transactions relate to debt other
than those included in the Consolidated Fund in India.
Financial Bill ●
The transactions under debt, deposits and advances in
• Any bill dealing with revenues or expenditure, but this part are those in respect of which government
not certified as, Money Bill by the speaker is a incurs a liability to repay the money received or has a
claim to recover the amounts paid.
Financial Bill.
●
The receipts under public account do not constitute
• Financial Bill only be introduced in Lok Sabha on
normal receipts of government. Parliamentary
the recommendation of President. authorisation for payments from the public account is
therefore not required.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 965

Budget in Parliament Estimates Committee

• ‘Budget’ is the popular name for the ‘annual financial • The origin of this committee can be traced to the
statement’ that has been dealt with in Article 112 of the standing financial committee set-up in 1921.
Constitution. The budget is a statement of the estimated
• The first Estimates Committee in the
receipts and expenditure of the Government of India in a
post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on
financial year.
the recommendation of John Mathai.
• Till 2016, the Government of India has two budgets– the
• Originally, it had 25 members but in 1956 its
Railway Budget and the General Budget. On the
membership was raised to 30. All the 30 members
recommendations of Bibek Debroy Committee, the
are from Lok Sabha only.
Government of India has announced that there will be single
General Budget 2017 onwards. The Finance Minister • These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every
presents the General Budget. year from amongst its own members, according to
the principles of proportional representation by
Parliamentary Committees means of a single transferable vote.
• Committees have been created so that members of • The function of the committee is to examine the
Parliament can discuss and debate on the working of a estimates included in the budget and suggest
certain department of the government. Most of the ‘economies’ in public expenditure.
committees function under the direction of the Speaker and
essentially of the Lok Sabha. Committee on Public Undertakings
• Committees are classified under two heads, which are as • This committee was created in 1964 on the
follow recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
i. Adhoc Committees They are created for a temporary • Originally, it had 15 members (10 from the Lok
period. They can be divided into two categories, i.e. Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). However, in
Inquiry Committees and Advisory Committees. 1974, its membership was raised on 22 (15 from the
Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha).
ii. Standing Committees They are broadly classified into
the following categories: Committees of Enquires • The members of this committee are elected by the
Committees to Scrutinise, Financial Committees, Parliament every year from amongst its own
Committees of Administrative Character, Committees members according to the principle of proportional
with provision of facilities to member. representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• The term of office of the members is one year. A
• The Chairman of all the committees (except the Joint
minister cannot be elected as a member of the
Committees on salaries and allowances of MPs) are
committee.
appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members of the
committees. In case, Speaker is a member of a committee, he
becomes Ex-officio chairman of the committee. THE STATE EXECUTIVE
Public Accounts Committee It deals with the government at state level. It consists
• This committee was set-up first in 1921 under the provisions of Governor and Council of Minister headed by Chief
of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been Minister.
in existence.
• At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Governor
Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The Constitution provides for an office of the
• The members are elected by the Parliament every year from Governor in the states under Article 153.
amongst its members according to the principle of
proportional representation by means of the single, Appointment
transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in • Appointed by the President, on the advice of the
it. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
• The function of the committee is to examine the annual Same person can be appointed Governor for more
audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of than one state.
India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the • Constitution prescribes a 5 years term, but it is
President. subject to the pleasure of the President.
966 CDS Pathfinder

Qualification and Oath • His powers are exercised by the Council of Ministers
headed by the Chief-Minister. But the Governor can
Under Article 158, the Constitution lays down the
exercise certain discretionary powers independently also.
following conditions for the Governors office
• He must be a citizen of India. Other Powers
Receives and tables the report by Controller Auditor
• He should be more than 35 years of age.
General, Act as Chancellor of state universities and
• He should not be a member of either House of appoints Vice-Chancellor.
Parliament and the State Legislature.
• He must not hold any government office of profit. Chief Minister
• The oath to the Governor is given by the Chief Justice
• Acticle 164(1) Appointed by Governor, generally the
of High Court (Article 159).
majority party leader is appointed. A Chief Minister is
Powers the elected Head or Government of the State and is
vested with most of the executive power.
Executive Powers • He enjoys the supports of legislators of the political
• Appoints the Council of Ministers (on the advice of party or coalition commanding an assembly majority.
CM). • The Governor is the Nominal Executive (de-jure
• Appoints the Advocate General, the Chairman and executive) and the Chief Minister is the Real Executive
Members of the State Public Service Commission. (defacto executive).
• Acts as the representative of the President. • There are no educational or other qualification about his
Legislative Powers appointment. Under the Constitution, all that is needed
is that such a person is a citizen of India and possesses
• He summons and prorogues the session of the State
such qualifications, as are required for becoming a
Legislative.
member of the Legislative Assembly.
• He can dissolve the State Assembly before the expiry of
its full term.
• Such a person could be Member of either House of the
Legislature or even an outside though in case he is not a
• He addresses the first session of the Legislature after
Member of State Legislative can be appointed CM, but he
every election and first session every year. has to get himself elected within 6 months otherwise
• He can issue ordinances, appoints 1/6th members of would have to be removed.
Legislative Council on the advice of Chief Minister. • The Governor may first appoint the Chief Minister then
• Nominates one member from the Anglo-Indian ask him to prove his majority in the Legislative
community (if not properly representated). Assembly within a reasonable period.
• Gives assent to the bills to make it a law. • If the Chief Minister resigns, entire ministry resigns.
The Governor has three alternatives, which are as follows :
i. He can give his assent to the Bill. Advocate General
ii. He can return it (other than a Money Bill) for • Article 165 of the Constitution provides for the office of
reconsideration, suggestion, alterations. But, such bills the Advocate General for the states. He is the highest
when passed again, have to be given assent. law officer in the state and appointed by the Governor.
iii. He may reserve the bill for the assent of the • He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a
President. judge of a High Court. The term of office of the
Advocate General is not fixed by the Constitution. He
Financial Powers holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Ensures that the budget is laid. Money Bills can be
introduced on his recommendation only.
Judicial Powers THE STATE LEGISLATURE
• He is consulted by the President of India for the
• Every State has a Legislature. Some of the State
appointment of judges in the High Court.
Legislatures have two houses Legislative Assembly
• Appoints judges of courts below the High Court, can (Vidhan Sabha), the Lower House and Legislative
grant pardon, (same point) reprieve or remission of Council (Vidhan Parishad), the Upper House.
punishment for offence against state laws.
• States having Bicameral Legislature Uttar Pradesh,
Emergency Powers Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Maharashtra, Karnataka and
• The Governor exercises important power during Andhra Pradesh. State Legislative Council can be created
emergency, which is also known as ‘President Rule’ and abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation
(Article 356). of Legislative Assembly.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 967

Legislative Council The Union Territories

• The states are the members of the federal system in India
It is known as Upper House, it cannot be dissolved. The
maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of and share a distribution of power with the centre. On the
the total strength of the Assembly and minimum other hand, the union territories are those areas which are
strength is Legislative Council are elected in accordance under the direct control and administration of the Central
with the system of proportional representation by means Government.
of the Single Transferable Vote. • Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution deal
with the union territories.
Strength and Election • Every Union Territory is administered by the President
• It cannot be larger than one-third of the Legislative acting through an administrator appointed by him.
Assembly of the State. One-third are elected by the • The President can specify the designation of an
local government bodies like Zila Parishad, administrator; it may be Lieutenant Governor or Chief
Municipalities. Another one-third are elected by Commissioner or Administrator.
Members of Legislative Assembly of the state.
• At present, it is Lieutenant Governor in the case of Delhi,
One-twelfth are elected by a constituency of graduates
Puducherry and Andaman and Nicobar Islands and
and another one-twelfth by teachers of secondary
Administrator in the case of Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar
schools, colleges and universities.
Haveli, Daman and Diu and Lakshadweep.
• One-sixth of the total members are nominated by the
• The Union Territories of Puducherry (in 1963) and Delhi
Governor from the persons of special knowledge or
(in 1992) are provided with a Legislative Assembly and a
practical experience of literature, science, art,
Council of Ministers headed by a Chief Minister.
cooperative movement and social service.

Qualifications and Tenure Jammu and Kashmir (Special Status)

• Article 370 gives temporary, transitional and special
A citizen of India, age not below 30 years. Chairman
and Vice-Chairman elected from among its members. 6 provisions to Jammu and Kashmir. Special status has been
years tenure with one-third members retiring every 2 given to this state at the time of its accession to India.
years. • Jammu and Kashmir has its own separate Constitution
which was formed by its own Constituent Assembly.
Legislative Assembly • The Parliament of India has no power to form laws regarding
• Like the Lok Sabha, the Legislative Assembly is not a
Jammu and Kashmir on the subjects of State List. Besides, this
all the residuary powers invest in the legislatures of Jammu and
continuing chamber. Its normal term is 5 years from
Kashmir.
the date of its first meeting after the General Election.
It can be dissolved before its term too. Term can be • It exercises dual citizenship. Person, who does not belong
extended by 1 year during national emergency. to the State of Jammu and Kashmir cannot purchase any
• The Constitution says that the Governor may appoint
immovable property in this state.
ane member from the Anglo-Indian Community if it • In case of constitutional breakdown, besides the President
is not adequately represented in the house. Rule, the Governor’s Rule can also be imposed for a
• Rest of the member are elected directly by the people
maximum period of six months.
from the territorial constituencies. Article 170(1) holds • The Union of India has no power for the proclamation of
that the Legislative Assembly of each state shall Financial Emergency in Jammu and Kashmir.
consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60, • The Indian Parliament has no power to change the name,
members chosen by direct election from territorial boundary or territory of Jammu and Kashmir without the
constituencies in the State. consent of State Legislature.
• Only National Emergency proclaimed on grounds of war
Strength and external aggression shall have automatic extension to
The strength of Legislative Assemblies cannot be more Jammu and Kashmir. On the contrary, National
than 500 and not less than 60. Emergency proclaimed on the basis of armed rebellion
shall not be automatically extended to Jammu and
Qualifications Kashmir.
• A citizen of India, age not less than 25 years. Speaker • Articles 19 (1) and 31 (2) have not been abolished for this
and Deputy Speaker chosen from among its members. state and hence, right to property shall stands guaranteed
• Must not possess other qualifications prescribed by to the people of Jammu and Kashmir.
Parliament, under the Representation of People Act, • Part IV (DPSP) and Part IV A (Fundamental Duties are
1951. not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir).
968 CDS Pathfinder

JUDICIARY Term and Removal of a Judge

• The judges hold the office upto the age of 65 years. A Judge of
• We have an integrated judicial set-up (taken from Supreme Court can only be removed from office by an order
Government of India Act, 1935) in our country. of the President after an address by each House of Parliament
The Constitution of India is the supreme legal supported by a majority of the total membership of the house
document. and by a majority of not less than two-third of the members
• It’s Part V and Part VI dealing with Union and present and voting on the ground on
State Governments respectively. i. proved misbehaviour ii. incapacity
• Indian Constitution has established an integrated The Constitution of India has ensured that
judicial system with the Supreme Court at the • they can be removed by Parliament (by complex procedure).
top.
• after retirement, they cannot practise in any Indian Court.
• Judiciary is independent of other two organs of
the state i.e. executive and legislature. Salary
Independence of the judiciary does not imply
• Salary is given from consolidated fund, which is not deducted
arbitrariness or absense of accountability.
(except during financial emergency).
• Judiciary is a part of the democratic structure of • Chief Justice’s salary ` 1 lakh.
the country. It is therefore, democratic traditions
and to the people of the country. Independence of Judges
• The organisation of the subordinate judiciary • Decisions and actions of judges cannot be criticised.
varies from state to state.
• Any type of conduct of judges cannot be discussed in
Parliament except in the case of removal.
Supreme Court of India • Chief Justice of India is appointed on seniority basis.
(Articles 124-147)
Jurisdiction
• The Supreme Court came into being on 28th
The functions and responsibilities of the Supreme Court are
January, 1950. Supreme Court is a federal court. defined by the Constitution.
It’s only seat located at Delhi. It’s bench can be The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be categorised as
established at other places also.
• It is the Apex court of justice in India. Having
Original Jurisdiction (Article 131)
one Chief Justice + Not more than 30 other • Disputes between the Government of India and one or more
judges (after amendment, earlier 25). states.
• Dispute between the Government of India and one or more
Appointment states on one side and one or more state on the other side.
The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by • Disputes between two or more states (e.g. Cauvery water
the President. The Chief Justice is appointed by the dispute between Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry).
President after consultation with such judges of the
Supreme Court and High Court as he/she deems PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION (PIL)
necessary. In PIL the court gives judgement in public interest on such
matters as the basic needs of life, exploitation,
Qualifications environment, child labour, exploitation of women etc. If
A citizen of India. Any person who has been a some person or institution just informs the court. The court
judge of a High Court for 5 years (or) an eminent investigate the matter and decides in the context of facts.
jurist or has been a practising advocate in High Such cases constitute what is PIL?
Court for 10 years.
SP Gupta vs Union of India Case, 1982, Supreme Court held that
Functions any member of the public can approach the courts for violation
It hears certain appeals of civil and criminal cases of Fundamental Rights of others, (who may not have sufficient
from the High Court. It hears disputes between the resources to reach the courts) even through a post card, PN
Union Government and the states. It can issue writs Bhagwati and CR Krishna Aiyar were the prominent justices to
for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental have laid down the conditions for such appeals, popularly called
Rights conferred by the Constitution. Public Interest Litigation (PIL). But PILs must work for public
interest alone. The concept of PIL originated in USA.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 969

Writ Jurisdiction Election Jurisdiction

• The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as The Supreme Court has obligation to decide on the
the guarantor and defender of Fundamental Rights of disputes regarding the election of the President and the
the citizen. Vice-President.
– Habeas Corpus Implies that a person imprisoned or Court of Record (Article 129)
detained by the law can enquire from the court of law, All the decisions and proceedings of the Supreme Court
under what authority he has been imprisoned or are kept as records and are quoted as precedents in the
detained. court. The court can punish for its own contempt, if any
– Mandamus Literally means a ‘Command’ issued by one does not abide by its decision. So, the Supreme Court
the court commanding a person or a public authority is called a ‘Court of Record’.
to do or forbade to do something in the nature of
Power of Judicial Review
public duty.
Supreme Court has power to make Judicial review of
– Quo Warranto An order issued by the court to
constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive
prevent a person from holding office to which he is orders of both centre and state. If the orders are found
not entitled and to out him from that office. violative, they can be declared null and void.
– Certiorari It is a writ, which orders the removal of a
suit from an inferior court to superior court. High Courts
– Prohibition By a higher court to stop proceedings in a
lower court on the ground of overstepping of The Constitution provides High Court for every state. But
jurisdiction or isolation of the rules of natural justice. even two or more states can have a common High Court if
provided by the Parliament.
Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143)
i. Presently there are 24 High Courts in India (21+3
As the highest court in the country, the Supreme Court State High Courts). Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura
can be consulted by the President on certain issues, if the are the new High Courts.
President feels that an important legal question or fact of
ii. The High Court consists of a Chief Justice and some
public interest has come to him he can ask the Supreme
other judges appointed by the President of India.
Court for its advice. The Supreme Court in such cases
would consider it and give its opinion to the President, but iii. There is no upper limit on the number of judges.
such an opinion is not binding on the President.
Qualifications
Appellate Jurisdiction
He/she must be a citizen of India. Must have held a
(Articles 132 (1), 133 (1) or 134) judicial office for at least 10 years or be a distinguished
Three type of appeals can be made to the Supreme Court, jurist in the opinion of the President.
these are as follows : Or
i. There can be an appeal against any decision or order
He should have for at least 10 years been an advocate in
of a High Court, if the High Court gives a certificate
High Court or of two or more such courts in succession.
that it involves some question of interpretation of the
Constitution. Appointment
ii. There can be an appeal against civil cases decided by a
• For the appointment of the Chief Justice of a High
High Court, if the High Court gives a certificate that
Court the President consults the Chief Justice of India
the case involves a substantial question of law.
and Governor of the concerned state. Other judges are
iii. In respect of criminal cases too there can be an appeal also appointed according to the same procedure.
to the Supreme Court. If a High Court has on appeal
• The Constitution bench of Supreme Court held that the
reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person
opinion of Chief Justice (Supreme Court and High
and sentenced him to death or if by withdrawing a
Court) will be given priority in both the appointment as
case from the lower court to itself it has sentenced a
well as transfer of senior judges.
person to death, one can go for an appeal to Supreme
Court.
Term, Boundation and Removal
Review Jurisdiction (Article 137) • A judge of High Court holds office till he attains the
The Supreme Court can review any judgement given by age of 62 years. Their term can be shortened, if he gives
itself. The Supreme Court is also given the power under our resignation and can be cut short if removed by the
Constitution to transfer a case that is being decided in any President.
court and bring it to itself. If it feels that an important • Retired Judge of a High Court can practice in the High
question of law is involved, Parliament can confer on the Court from where he has been retired and only in the
Supreme Court more powers by passing a law. Supreme Court.
970 CDS Pathfinder

• Judges of one High Court can be transferred to another High

Court.
Subordinate Courts
• They can be removed through the same procedure as followed Articles 233 to 237 in Part VI of the Constitution
in the case of a Judge of the Supreme Court (Parliament passes makes the provision to regulate the organisation of
subordinate courts and to ensure their
the resolution by a two-third majority of its members present
independence from the executive. The appointment,
and voting).
posting and promotion of district judges in a state
are made by the governor of the State in
Jurisdiction of High Court consultation with the High Court.
At present, a High Court enjoy the following jurisdiction and
powers Lok Adalat
• Original jurisdiction • Writ jurisdiction
Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute
• Appellate jurisdiction • Supervisory jurisdiction
redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes
• Control over subordinate courts or cases pending in the court of law or at
Jurisdiction and Seats of High Courts pre-litigation stage are settled or compromised
amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory
Established status under the Legal Services Authorities Act,
Name Territorial Jurisdiction Seat
in the Year 1987. The First Lok Adalat was held in Gujarat in
Madhya 1956 Madhya Pradesh Jabalpur (Benches at 1982.
Pradesh Gwalior and Indore)
Bombay 1862 Maharashtra, Dadra and
Nagar Haveli, Goa,
Mumbai (Bench at
Nagpur, Panaji and
LOCAL SELF GOVERNMENT
Daman and Diu Aurangabad)
• It deals with the Panchayats and Municipalities.
Calcutta 1862 West Bengal and Kolkata (Circuit Bench at It consists of two parts
Andaman and Nicobar Port Blair)
islands i. It contains 29 subjects related to Panchayati
Madras 1862 Tamil Nadu and Chennai Raj (Administrative powers) and added by
Puducherry 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, contains a new
Allahabad 1866 Uttar Pradesh Allahabad (Bench at schedule ‘Schedule Eleven’.
Lucknow) ii. It contains 18 subjects related to
Karnataka 1884 Karnataka Bengaluru Municipalities (Administrative powers) and
Patna 1916 Bihar Patna added by 74th Amendment Act, 1992,
contains a new schedule, ‘Schedule Twelve’.
Orissa 1948 Odisha Cuttack
Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of
Guwahati 1948 Assam, Nagaland, Guwahati (Benches at rural local self government. Local government
Mizoram and Arunachal Kohima and Aizawl and
Pradesh itanagar) is a subject of the State List.
Rajasthan 1949 Rajasthan Jodhpur (Bench at Jaipur) Various recommendation for Panchayati Raj
Andhra 1954 Andhra Pradesh and Hyderabad
Institution,are as follows :
Pradesh Telengana • Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 1957
Kerala 1958 Kerala and Lakshadweep Ernakulam establishment of three tier Panchayati Raj
Jammu and 1928 Jammu and Kashmir Srinagar and Jammu
System, which includes Zila Parishad at District
Kashmir level, Panchayati Samiti at Block level and Gram
Gujarat 1960 Gujarat Ahmedabad Panchayat at Village level.
Delhi 1966 Delhi Delhi
• Ashok Mehta Committee The three tier system
should be replaced by two tier system that is Zila
Punjab and 1875 Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
Haryana Chandigarh Parishad at District level and below it the Mandal
Panchayat consisting of a group of village
Himachal 1971 Himachal Pradesh Shimla
Pradesh comprising a population of 15000 to 20000.
Sikkim 1975 Sikkim Gangtok • LM Singhvi Committee 1986 The Panchayati
Raj Institution should be constitutionally
Uttarakhand 2000 Uttarakhand Nainital
recognised, protected and preserved.
Jharkhand 2000 Jharkhand Ranchi
• PESA (Panchayat Extention to Schedule Areas)
Chhattisgarh 2000 Chhattisgarh Bilaspur Act, 1996 or PESA law enacted by the
Manipur 2013 Manipur Imphal Government of India they cover the schedule
Meghalaya 2013 Meghalaya Shillong areas which are not covered in the 73rd
Amendment of Panchayati Raj Act of Indian
Tripura 2013 Tripura Agartala
Constitution.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 971

Panchayats Constitutional Bodies

The idea of Panchayati Raj forms the basis of Constitutional body is the body that has its name mentioned
Gandhian philosophy that considers village councils as in the Constitution of India. It derives power directly from
the units of self-governance. Rajasthan was the first the Constitution. Any type of change in mechanism of this
state to set-up Panchayati Raj on 2nd October, 1959 body needs constitutional amendment. Such bodies are as
followed by Andhra Pradesh. follows

Duration and Election Election Commission

• Its duration five years from the day appointed for its • The Election Commission is a permanent and an
first meeting. independent body established by the Constitution of India
• Before the expiry of its duration. directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
• Before the expiry of a period of 6 months from the • Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of
date of its dissolution. Provided that where the superintendence, direction and control of elections to
remainder of the period for which the dissolved Parliament, state legislatures, the office of President of India
• Panchayat would have continued is less than and the office of Vice-President of India shall be vested in
6 months, it shall not be necessary to hold any the election commission.
election for such period. • The Election Commission shall consists of the Chief
• Minimum age required to contest for election is 21 Election Commissioner and such number of other election
years. commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to
time fix. They hold office for a term of 6 years or until they
Reservation of Seats attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Seats shall be compulsorily reserved for women • He can be removed by the President on the basis of a
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Seats to be resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of
reserved for backward classes is left at the discretion of Parliament with special majority, either on the ground of
the State Government one-third of the seats are proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
reserved for women. In some states like Bihar, 50%
seats are reserved for women. NATIONAL PARTY
It should secure not less than 6% of the total valid votes
Municipalities polled in its state during a general election. Besides, it has
attained at least 4 members to Lok Sabha.
• They are eight types of urban local body in India –
Notified Area Committee, Town Area Committee, STATE PARTY
Municipal Corporation, Municipality, Cantonment It should secure not less than 6% of the total valid votes in
Board, Township, Port trust and Special Purpose that state in general election, besides attaining at least two
Agency. members to the Legislative Assembly of that state at the
last assembly elections.
• The first municipal corporation was established in
Madras Presidency in 1688.
Public Service Commission
Duration and Election The Public Service Commission is divided into two categories
• Election must be held before the expiry of its namely; Union Public Service Commission and State Public
duration of 5 years. Service Commission.
• Election must be held before the expiration of a Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
period of 6 months from the date of its dissolution. • It is the central recruiting agency in India. Articles 315 to
323 in Part XIV of the Constitution deal with the UPSC.
Reservation of Seats
• The UPSC consists of a chairman and other members
• There will be the reservation of seats for the
appointed by the President of India. The strength of the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in every Commission has been decided by the President.
municipality in proportion of their population to the
total population in the municipal area. • The chairman and members of the Commission hold office
for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65
• It also provides for the reservation of not less than
years, whichever is earlier.
one-third of the total number of seats for women
(including the number of seats reserved for women • The chairman or a member of the UPSC can be removed
belonging to the SCs and STs). from office by the President only in the manner and on the
grounds mentioned in the Constitution.
972 CDS Pathfinder

State Public Service Commission (SPSC) • 13th Finance Commission, headed by Vijay Kelkar,
• Parallel to UPSC at the Centre, there is a SPSC in a submitted its report for the period 2010-15. Finance
state. It consists of a chairman and other members Commission, headed by YV Reddy, has been appointed. Its
appointed by the Governor of the State. report will apply for the period 2015-20.
• The chairman and members of the Commission hold • The 14th Finance Commission has been specifically asked
office for a term of six years or until they attain the to recommend how non-priority PSUs be relinquished,
age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. besides its other constitutional duties.

National Commission for Functions

Scheduled Castes It is duty of the Finance Commission to make
• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SCs)
recommendations to the President as to :
is a constitutional body in the sense that it is directly • the distribution between the Union and States of net
established by Article 338 of the Constitution. proceeds of the taxes which are divisible between the
Union and the States.
• The main function of the Commission is to investigate
and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional • the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of a
and other legal sageguards for the SCs and to evaluate revenue to the states out of Consolidated Funds of India.
their working. • any other matter referred to the commission by the
• The Commission also has to investigate all matters President in the interest of sound finance.
relating to the constitutional and other legal
safeguards for the OBCs and the Anglo-Indian Comptroller and
Community and report to the President upon their
working. Auditor General of India
• They are appointed by the President by warrant under He is appointed by the President for control and audit of
his hand and seal. Their conditions of service and public accounts. He does not hold his office till the pleasure
tenure of office are also determined by the President. of the President. He is not eligible for further office.
• The Commission presents an annual report to the
President. It can also submit a report as and when it
Functions
thinks necessary. His main functions are as follows :
• He audits the account related to all expenditure from
National Commission for consolidated and contingency fund of India, each state and
Scheduled Tribes UT’s having a Legislative Assembly.
• The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (STs) • He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public
is a constitutional body in the sense that it is directly Account Committee of the Parliament.
established by Article 338-A of the Constitution. • To keep a vigilant watch on the finance of Union and the
• The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 States.
bifurcated and combined National Commission for • To submit periodic reports to the President and Governors
SCs and STs into two separates bodies namely; of State for consideration of Parliament and State
National Commission for Scheduled Castes (under Legislature.
Article 338) and National Commission for Scheduled • To see that the amount voted by the legislature are spent
Tribes (under Article 338-A). under appropriate heads and they are not exceeded.
• The main function of the Commission is to investigate
and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional Non-Constitutional Bodies
and other legal safeguards for the STs and to evaluate Non-Constitutional bodies are the bodies that are established
their working. either by an executive resolution of the Government of India
or by a legislation enacted by the Parliament or even by any
Finance Commission (Article 280) official Gazette notification issued by the Central
Government.
Composition
• Under Article 280 of the Constitution, provision has Planning Commission
been made for the Constitution of a Finance The Planning Commission was an institution in the
Commission within two years of the commencement Government of India, which formulated India’s Five-Year
of the Constitution and thereafter on the expiry of Plans. The Government has replaced Planning Commission
5th year. It consists of a Chairman and four other with a new institution named NITI Aayog (National
members appointed by the President. Institution for Transforming India).
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 973

National Development Council Salient Features of Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act

• It is the open body for decision making and • Lokpal bill consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight
deliberation on development matters in India members of which 50% shall be judicial members. 50% of
presided over by Prime Minister. members of Lokpal shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and
women.
• The council comprises the Prime Minister, the
Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all • The selection of chairperson and members of Lokpal shall be
States, Representation of the Union Territories through a selection committee consist of
and members of the planning commission. 1. Prime Minister
• It is an extra-constitutional and non-statutory 2. Speaker of Lok Sabha
body. It is the listed as an advisory body to 3. Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha
planning commission but its advice is not 4. Chief Justice of India or a sitting Judge of Supreme Court
binding. nominated by CJI.
5. Eminent jurist on the basis of recommendations of the first
NITI Aayog four members of the selection committee. Prime Minister
• The institution will serve as ‘Think Tank’ of the has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal.
Government, a directional and policy dynamo.
• NITI Aayog will provide governments and the National Human Rights Commission
central and state levels with relevant strategic and • The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body.
technical advice across the spectrum of key It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the
elements of policy. This includes matters of Parliament. The Commission is a multi-member body
national and international important PM is the consisting of a chairman and four members. The chairman
ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog. should be retired chief justice of India. In case State Human
Functions of NITI Aayog Rights Commission, the chairperson should be a retired Chief
Justice of a High Court.
• To foster cooperative federalism through
• The chairman and members hold office for a term of
structured support initiatives and mechanisms
with the states on a continuous basis, recognising 5 years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is
that strong states make a strong nation. earlier. After their tenure, the chairman and members are not
eligible for further employment under the Central or a State
• To develop mechanisms to formulate credible
Government.
plans at the village level and aggregate these
progressively at higher levels of government. National Commission for Minorities (NCM)
• To ensure, on areas that are specifically referred • The Union Government set-up the National Commission for
to it, that the interest of national security are Minorities under the National Commission for Minorities Act,
incorporated in economic strategy and policy. To 1992. Six religious communities namely; Muslims, Christians,
pay special attention to the sections of our Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis and Jains have been notified as
society that may be at risk of not benefitting minority communities by the Union Government.
adequately from economic progress.
• The Commission has one Chairperson and five Members
• To provide advice and encourage partnerships represented five minority communities. The Commission
between key stakeholders and national and consists of President, a Vice-President and five other members
international like-minded Think Tanks, as well as from minorities group.
educational and policy research institutions.

State Finance Commission CENTRE-STATE RELATION

There is a provision of State Finance Commission The Constitution of India, being federal in structure, divides all
to review the financial position of Panchayats and powers (legislative, executive and financial) between the centre and
recommended grant-in-aid. It shall make the the states.
following recommendation to the governor.
The centre-state relations can be studied under three heads, which
Lokpal and Lokayuktas are as follow
i. Legislative relations
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 was made by
the Parliament to provide for the establishment of ii. Administrative relations
body of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for iii. Financial relations
state to inquire into allegations of corruptions It deals with the relations between union and states. The centres
against certain public functionaries and for matters and states are an essential feature of federalism.
concerning them.
974 CDS Pathfinder

Legislative Relations Western Zonal Council Maharashtra, Goa, Gujarat and UTs
• The Constitution divides the subjects into the Union
of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman Diu. Headquarter
List (100 subjects), the State List (61 subjects) and the Mumbai
Concurrent List (52 subjects). Enumerated in the Southern Zonal Council Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu,
Seventh Schedule under Article 246. Parliament has Karnataka, Kerala and UT of Puducherry. Headquarter
exclusive power to legislate on subjects mentioned in Chennai
the Union List. This list contains subjects like defence, North-Eastern Council It was created in 1971 by a
foreign affairs, atomic energy etc. separate Act of Parliament for Assam, Manipur, Tripura,
• State legislatures have exclusive power to legislate on Meghalaya, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
subjects mentioned in the State List. The State List In 1994, Sikkim was included in it.
contains subjects like health, sanitation, public order,
agriculture etc. Both Parliament and State Legislatures î The issues in centre-state relations have been under
can legislate on subjects mentioned in the Concurrent consideration. Time to time government appoints commission for
List. This list contains subjects like criminal law, betterment of the relation.
forests, education, marriage and divorce etc.
• Residual Powers (i.e. subjects not included in any of SARKARIA COMMISSION
the list) rest with Union Government. It was set-up in June, 1983, by the Central Government of
India to examine the relationship and balance of power
Administrative Relations between states and centre. It was headed by Justice
The states are expected to comply with the Laws of the Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired Judge of the Supreme
Court of India.
Parliament and not impede the exercise of the Executive
Powers of the Union (Articles 256 and 257). In this PUNCHHI COMMISSION
regard, the Union Government can issue necessary In April, 2007, a new commission was set-up to re-examine
directives to the states. All disputes between states centre-state relations. The commission was headed by
regarding the use, distribution or control of water are former Chief Justice of India MM Punchhi.
decided by the centre (Article 262).

Financial Relations Inter-State Council

• The states are greatly dependent on the Central • Inter-State Council serves a purposeful mechanism to bring
Government for finance. The State Governments have various autonomous executive agencies of the state
been provided independent sources of revenue, but machinery, both the union and the states, and coordinate
these are inadequate. amongst them the ways and means of execution and
• The Union Government has the power to borrow implementation of policies concerning common interests,
from within India or outside, subject to the limits laid both regional as well as national.
down by the Parliament, the borrowing power of the • Although a provision was made in the Constitution under
states is subject to several limitations and the cannot Article 262 for the formation of such Inter-State Council,
borrow from outside India. it was not until 1990, a formal Inter-State Council was
established.
Zonal Councils • This measure was taken after the Sakaria Commission

Six zonal councils have been established to discuss and pitched for the formation of such a council.
advise on matters of common interest. The Union Home
Minister has been nominated to be the common Types of Emergency
Chairman of all Zonal Councils. Set-up under State The President is empowered to promulgate three kinds of
Reorganisation Act, 1956. emergencies which are as follows :
Northern Zonal Council Consist of Punjab, i. On the ground of threat to the security of India or of
Rajasthan, Haryana, Jammu and Kashmir, any part of the territory by war or an external
Himachal Pradesh, Chandigarh and Delhi. aggression or an armed rebellion (Article 352) known as
Headquarter New Delhi National Emergency.
Central Zonal Council Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, ii. On the ground of the failure of the constitutional
Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh. Headquarter machinery in a state. (Article 356) known as the
Allahabad President’s Rule or State Emergency.
Eastern Zonal Council Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal iii. On the ground of threat to the financial stability or
and Odisha. Headquarter Kolkata credit of India or any part of the territory (Article 360),
known as Financial Emergency.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 975

National Emergency (Article 352) • The National Emergency and Financial Emergency have
no time limit. They can continue to be extended without
• If the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists
any limit. But the State emergency has a time limit. It
whereby the security of India or any part of India is
cannot go beyond 3 years.
threatened, whether by a war or an external aggression
or an armed rebellion, he/she may proclaim a state of
emergency for the whole of India or part of the territory
E-Governance
thereof. The word electronic in the term e-Governance implies
• A proclamation of emergency can be made by the technology driven governance. e-Governance is the
President, even before the actual occurrence of war or application of Information and Communication
external aggression or armed rebellion, if he/she is Technology (ICT) for delivering government services.
satisfied that there is an imminent danger. e-Governance is basically a move toward SMART
• When a national emergency is declared on the ground of Governance i.e. Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive and
‘war’ or ‘external aggression’ it is known as External Transparent Governance.
Emergency. On the other hand, when it is declared on There are four types of interactions in e-Governance
the ground of ‘armed rebellion’ it is known as Internal 1. G2B : Government to Business
Emergency.
2. G2C : Government to Citizens
President’s Rule or State Emergency 3. G2E : Government to Employees
(Article 356) 4. G2G : Government to Government
• The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Articles
DIGITAL INDIA
355, 356 and 365. Article 355 says it shall be the duty
of the union to protect every state against external It is a flagship e-Governance programme of Government
aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that of India with a vision to transform India into a digitally
empowered society and knowledge economy.
the government of every state is carried on in accordance
with the provisions of this Constitution. The focus is to bring transformation to realise
IT +IT IT
• Article 356 says that if the President, on receipt of a
report from the Governor of a State or otherwise, is (Indian Talent) (Information Technology) (India Tomorrow)
satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the
Government of the State cannot be carried on in Mission Mode Projects (MMPs)
accordance with the provisions of this Constitution,
he/she may issue a proclamation. A Mission Mode Project (MMP) is an individual project
within the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) that
• Article 365 administration says that whenever a state focuses on one aspect of e-Governance, such as banking,
fails to comply with or give effect to any direction from land records or commercial taxes etc. Within NeGP,
the centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that Mission Mode Project implies that projects have clearly
a situation has arisen in which the government of the defined objectives, scopes and implementation timelines
state cannot be carried on in accordance with the and milestones, as well as measurable outcomes and service
provisions of the Constitution. levels. NeGP comprises 31 Mission Mode Projects
(MMPs), which are further classified as State, Central or
Financial Emergency (Article 360) Integrated Projects. Each State Government can also define
• Article 360 provides that if the President is satisfied that five MMPs specific to its individual needs.
a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability of
India or the credit of India or of any part of India is E-Panchayat
threatened, he/she may make a declaration to that effect.
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India has
Under such situation, the executive and legislative powers
initiated e-Panchayat, a flagship project, computerisation of
will go to the center. This article has never been invoked
till date. Gram Panchayats on a mission mode basis. After a
detailed system study by NIC (National Informatics
• The proclamation of Financial Emergency shall
Centre), the department prioritised the applications to be
ordinarily remain in force for a period of 2 months. automated for Gram Panchayats. The application areas are
However, it can continue to stay beyond 2 months if
birth and death registrations, house tax assessment and
before the expiry of the 2 months period, the
demand collections and trade licences. The applications
proclamation has been approved by both the Houses of
the Parliament. were developed and implemented in 475 Gram Panchayats
identified by department. The software is web enabled and
• If, at the time of proclamation of Financial Emergency,
hosted on NIC central servers. The capacity building had
the Lok Sabha stands dissolved, the proclamation needs been taken up at various levels by conducting State and
to be approved by the Lok Sabha within 30 days of its
District level workshops and the e-Panchayat project was
meeting after its reconstitution, provided in the meantime
initiated by Commissioner PR&RE in 2005.
the Rajya Sabha has approved it.
976 CDS Pathfinder

E-Choupal Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts. Such

e-court was established first time in Hyderabad High
It is an India-based business initiative by ITC (India
Court on 18th July, 2016.
Tobacco Company) Limited that provides internet access
to rural farmers. The purpose is to inform and empower Official Languages (Articles 343-351)
them and, as a result to improve the quality of agricultural
goods and the quality of life for farmers. ITC Limited is a Article 343 mentions that the official language of the
consumer product and agribusiness conglomerate in India Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. Article 348
known for their production of cigarettes, speciality paper, mentions that English will be language to be used in the
food products and packaging services. Supreme Court and in the high courts and for acts, bills,
etc. This part is related to the official languages,
Mobile Governance promotion of Hindi as well as mother tongues at least in
Mobile Government or m-Government, is the extension of primary education.
e-Government to mobile platforms and also the strategic
use of government services and applications which are only Amendment
possible using cellular/mobile telephones, laptop • An Amendment (Article 368) of the Constitution can be
computers, Personal Digital Assistants (PDAs) and wireless initiated only by the introduction of a bill for purpose
internet infrastructure. in either House of Parliament and not in the State
Legislatures.
E-Courts
• The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a
The e-Courts project was conceptualised on the basis of
private member and does not require prior permission of
the ‘National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation
the President.
of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in
the Indian Judiciary 2005’ submitted by e-Committee • Each house must pass the bill separately. No provision
(Supreme Court of India), with a vision to transform the of joint setting.

IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS

An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated in either House of the Parliament and there is no provision of joint
session here. President has to, under all conditions, provide his consent to such a bill. He cannot withhold his assent nor
can be return it.
• 1st Amendment, 1951 to overcome certain practical • 42nd Amendment, 1976 provided supremacy of
difficulties related to Fundamental Rights. Also added 9th Parliament and gave primacy to Directive Principles over
Schedule (Act and Regulation), Land Reform Act. Fundamental Rights. It also added 10 Fundamental Duties
• 7th Amendment, 1956 necessitated on account of to the Constitution. The Preamble of the Constitution was
reorganisation of states on linguistic basis and introduced also altered to ‘Sovereign’, ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and
changes in the 1st and 4th Schedule. ‘Democratic Republic’. It is also called Mini Constitution.
• 9th Amendment, 1960 gave effect to transfer certain • 44th Amendment, 1978 restored the normal duration of
territories to Pakistan following the 1958 Indo-Pak the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly to 5 years. The
agreement. Right to Property was deleted from Part III. Also
limited the power of the government to proclaim
• 10th Amendment, 1961 incorporated Dadra and Nagar
internal emergency. The national emergency shall not be
Haveli in India.
proclaimed except on the written recommendation of the
• 12th Amendment, 1962 incorporated Goa, Daman and Cabinet.
Diu in India. • 52nd Amendment, 1985 10th Schedule was added
• 13th Amendment, 1962 created Nagaland as a state. through this (Anti-Defection Law).
• 14th Amendment, 1963 incorporated Pudicherry in • 61st Amendment, 1989 reduced the voting age from 21
India from France. to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as Assemblies.
• 18th Amendment, 1966 reorganised Punjab into Punjab, • 62nd Amendment, 1989 extended reservation of seats
Haryana and UT of Chandigarh. for SC/ST till AD 2000.
• 27th Amendment, 1971 established Manipur and Tripura • 69th Amendment, 1991 accorded a special status to the
as states and Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh as UT. Union Territory of Delhi as a National capital territory
• 31st Amendment, 1973 increased the elective strength of of Delhi.
Lok Sabha from 525 to 545. The upper limit of • 70th Amendment proposed to grant statehood to Delhi.
representatives of state went up from 500 to 525.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 977

• 73rd Amendment, 1992 (Panchayati Raj) to provide • 93rd Amendment Added clause (5) to Article 15
among other things Gram Sabha in villages, Constitution making special provisions for advancement of any
of Panchayats at the village and other levels, direct socially and educationally backward classes.
elections to all seats in Panchayats and reservation of seats • 94th Amendment, 2006 To provide for a Minister of
for the SC and ST and fixing of tenure of 5 years for Tribal Welfare in newly created Jharkhand and
Panchayats. Chhattisgarh states and deletion of Bihar’s name.
• 74th Amendment, 1992 (Nagar Palika) To provide for, • 95th Amendment, 2010 To extend the reservation of
among other things, Constitution of three types of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and States
municipalities, reservation of seats in every municipality Assemblies from 60 to 70 years.
for the SC and ST, women and the backward classes.
• 96th Amendment, 2011 Substituted ‘Odia’ for ‘Oriya’.
• 76th Amendment Act, 1994 It provides reservation in
• 97th Amendment, 2012 To give right to form
educational institutions and posts in state services.
co-operative societies and give a framework for their
• 84th Amendment, 2001 Creation of the new states of working.
Chhattisgarh, Uttaranchal and Jharkhand.
• 98th Amendment, 2013 To empower the Governor of
• 86th Amendment, 2002 Article 21 (A), which makes Karnataka to take steps to develop the Hyderabad-
primary education a Fundamental Right to children Karnataka region.
between age of 6-14 years was added.
• 99th Amendment, 2014 National Judicial
– Article 45 of Directive Principle.
Appointments Commission was established. But on
– 11th Fundamental Duties were added through this. 16th October, 2015 Supreme Court struck down the
• 91st Amendment, 2003 The provision of 10th Schedule NIAC as unconstitutional.
(Anti-Defection Law) pertaining to exemption from • 100th Amendment, 2015 To the acquiring of
disqualification in case of split of 1/3rd member of the territories by India and transfer of territories to
legislature party has been deleted. It means that defectors Bangladesh in pursuance of the agreements and its
have no more protection on grounds of splits. protocol between India and Bangladesh.
• 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 Four languages were added • 101st Amendment, 2016 It is related to goods and
in 8th Schedule—Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali. services tax.
978 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which of the following provisions 4. Consider the following Select the correct answer using the
were made in the Charter Act of statement(s) codes given below.
1833? 1. Ministry of Parliamentary (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
1. The commercial functions of Affairs constitute Consultative (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
the East India Company came Committees of Members of 8. Match the following
to an end and now it had only both the Houses of Parliament.
political functions. 2. The main purpose of these List I List II
2. Government services in India Committees are to provide a A. Establishment of Board 1. Regulating
were thrown open to all forum for formal discussions of Control Act, 1773
Indians. between the Government and B. Establishment of 2. Pitt’s India
3. The designation of the Members of Parliament on Supreme Court Act, 1784
Governor-General of Bengal polices and programmes of the C. Christian missionaries 3. Charter Act,
was changed as the Governor- Government. were allowed to 1813
General of British India. spread their religion
Which of the statement(s) given in India
4. An Indian was to be appointed above is/are correct? D. Governor General of 4. Charter Act,
as a Law Member in the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Bengal as Governor 1833
Governor-General’s council. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 General of India
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
5. Which of the following pairs is Codes
incorrectly matched? A B C D A B C D
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (a) 9th December, : Constituent (c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
1947 Assembly’s first
2. Which of the following pairs are 9. Consider the following statements
meeting
not correctly matched? about the Government of India Act,
(b) 26th November, : The people of India
1. Government of India : Dyarchy 1949 adopted, enacted 1935 provide for
Act, 1919 and gave to 1. the provincial autonomy.
2. Government of India : Provincial themselves the 2. the establishment of federal court.
Act, 1335 autonomy Constitution 3. all India Federation at the
3. Minto-Morley Reforms : Separate (c) 24th January, : The Constitution Centre.
electorate 1950 was finally
4. Mountbatten Plan : Constituent signed by the
Which of the statements given above
Assembly members of the are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
5. Cabinet Mission Plan, : Partition of Constituent
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
1946 India Assembly
Codes (d) 26th January, : The date of 10. Consider the following statement(s)
1950 commencement the 1. The Charter Act, 1853 abolished
(a) 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 5 (d) 2 and 3 Constitution East India company’s monopoly of
Indian trade.
3. Which of the following are among 6. Match the following
2. Under the Government of India
the provisions of the Act of 1858? List I List II Act, 1858, the British Parliament
1. The administration of India A. Bill of Rights and 1. England abolished the East India Company
and the Indian Territories was Judicial Review altogether and undertook the
transferred to the Crown. B. Parliamentary system 2. Ireland responsibility of ruling India
2. The East India Company was of Democracy directly.
abolished. C. Directive Principles 3. USA Which of the statement(s) given
3. The Governor-General of India D. Residuary powers 4. Canada above is/are correct?
was to be known as the with the centre (a) Only 1
Viceroy of India and a Codes (b) Only 2
Secretary of State for India (c) Both 1 and 2
was also appointed. A B C D A B C D
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 3 4
4. The administrative power of
India was to be shared (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 4 11. Which one of the following Schedules
between the East India 7. Who among the following were of the Constitution of India includes
Company and the Crown of the members of the Drafting the disqualification of a Legislator on
England. Committee of the Constitution? grounds of defection?
Select the correct answer using 1. KM Munshi (a) 8th Schedule
the codes given below. 2. Jawaharlal Nehru (b) 7th Schedule
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 3. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar (c) 5th Schedule
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these 4. Sardar Patel (d) 10th Schedule
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 979

12. Which one of the following 17. Who among the following have the 22. What are the Gandhian principles
statements regarding the office of the Vice-President of incorporated in the Indian
Speaker is correct? India? Constitution?
(a) He holds office during the 1. Mohammed Hidayatullah 1. Efforts to be made for the
pleasure of the President development for weaker or
2. Fakh-ru-ddin Ali Ahmed
(b) He need not be a Member of the backward sections of the society.
House at the time of his election, 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma 2. Prohibition on the use of
but has to become a Member of
intoxicating liquor except for
the House within six months from Select the correct answer using the
the date of his election
medicinal purposes.
codes given below. 3. Organisation of Village
(c) He loses his office, if the House (a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
is dissolved before the end of its Panchayats.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these 4. Establishment of cottage and
normal tenure
(d) If, he intends to resign the letter 18. Which of the following taxes is/are small-scale industries in rural
of his resignation is to be levied by the Union and collected areas.
addressed to the President and appropriated by states? Select the correct answer using the
13. The Indian Parliamentary (a) Stamp Duties codes given below.
system is different from the (b) Passenger and Goods Tax (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Estate Duty (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
British Parliamentary system, in
that India has (d) Taxes on Newspapers 23. Which of the following are a
(a) both real and nominal executive 19. Which of the following can be Directive Principle of State Policy?
(b) a system of collective termed ‘Gandhian’ among the 1. Equal pay for equal work for men
responsibility Directive Principles? and women.
(c) bicameral legislation 1. Prevention of cow slaughter. 2. Equal right to an adequate means
(d) the system of judicial review 2. Promotion of cottage industries. of livelihood.
14. Which of the following is a basic 3. Establishment of Village 3. Abolition of untouchability.
Panchayats. 4. Just and human condition of
feature of the Presidential
4. Uniform civil code for the work.
Government?
(a) Rigid Constitution country. Select the correct answer using the
(b) Single Executive Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(c) Supremacy of the Legislature codes given below. (a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) Residual powers of the State (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 24. Consider the following statement(s)
15. Which of the following is the
common features of a Federal 20. Among the ‘Socialistic’ Directive 1. The Union Executive consists of
Constitution? Principles may be listed the President and the Council of
1. prevention of concentration of Ministers with the Prime Minister
1. A written and rigid
wealth. as the head.
Constitution.
2. right to work. 2. The President may, by writing
2. Division of power between the
3. separation of judiciary from under his hand addressed to the
centre.
executive. Vice-President, resign his office.
3. Separation of powers between
4. organising agriculture along 3. Executive power of the Union is
the Legislature and Executive.
scientific lines. vested in the Prime Minister.
4. Bicameral National Legislature.
Select the corect answer using the Which of the statement(s) given
Select the correct answer using above is/are correct?
the codes given below. codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
16. Match the following 21. What is meant by saying that the 25. Which of the following determines
Directive Principle of State Policy that the Indian Constitution is
List I List II federal?
(Features of the Indian (Borrowed
are non-justiciable?
1. In case they are violated, the (a) A written and rigid Constitution
Constitution) from)
matter cannot be taken to the (b) An Independent Judiciary
A. Fundamental Rights 1. UK court. (c) Vesting of residuary power with the
B. Parliamentary System 2. USA 2. Courts are debarred from centre
of Government (d) Distribution of powers between centre
consideration of Directive
C. Emergency provisions 3. Ireland and states
Principles.
D. Directive Principle of State 4. Germany
Policy 3. The law of the land does not 26. Which of the followig pairs is
recognise the existence. correctly matched?
Codes 4. They are sacrosanct. (a) Amendment Procedure : Article 268
A B C D A B C D Select the correct answer using the (b) Duties of Prime Minister : Article 74
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 1 3 4 codes given below. (c) President’s Rule : Article 365
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 2 4 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(d) Inter-State Council : Article 263
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
980 CDS Pathfinder

27. Which of the following authorities 3. Right to Information is 2. Withdrawal of moneys from
recommends the principles available only for citizen to Consolidated Fund of India only
governing the grant in aid of the citizens of India. after passing the Appropriation
revenues to states out of Select the correct answer using Bill.
consolidated fund of India? the codes given below. 3. Provisions of supplementary
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
grants and vote-on-account.
(a) Finance Commission
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
4. A periodic or atleast a mid-year
(b) Planning Commission
review of programme of the
(c) Union Ministry of Finance Government against
32. Which of the following provisions
(d) Inter-State Council macro-economic forecast and
of the Constitution of India have
28. The Parliament can legislate on expenditure by a Parliamentary
a bearing on Education? Budget Office.
any subject in the State List. 1. Directive Principles of State 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the
1. If, the Rajya Sabha declares Policy. Parliament.
by a 2/3rd majority resolution 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies. Select the correct answer using the
that it is expedient to do so in 3. 5th Schedule. codes given below.
national interest.
4. 6th Schedule. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 4
2. For the implementation of (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) All of these
5. 7th Schedule.
international treaties.
3. If, two or more states make a Select the correct answer using 36. Consider the following statements
request to Parliament to do so. the codes given below. 1. While members of the Rajya
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3, 4 and 5 Sabha are associated with
4. When Article 356 is imposed
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) All of these Committees on Public Accounts
in the state.
33. Under which one of the following and Public Undertakings,
Which of the statements given members of Committee on
above are correct? Constitution Amendment Acts,
Estimates are drawn entirely from
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 four languages were added to the Lok Sabha.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these languages under the Eighth 2. The Ministry of Parliamentary
Schedule of the Constitution of Affairs works under the overall
29. Which of the following
India, thereby raising their direction of Cabinet Committee on
statement(s) is/are stated in the
number to 22? Parliamentary Affairs.
Constitution of India?
(a) Constitution (90th Amendment) Act 3. The Minister of Parliamentary
1. The President shall not be a
(b) Constitution (91st Amendment) Act Affairs nominates Members of
member of either Houses of Parliament on Committees,
(c) Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act
Parliament. Councils, Boards and Commissions
(d) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act
2. The Parliament shall consist of etc set up by the Government of
the President and two houses. 34. Consider the following statements India in the various ministries.
Select the correct answer using 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has Which of the statements given above
the codes given below. the power to adjourn the are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 House sine die but, on (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 prorogation, it is only the (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
President, who can summon
30. Which of the following the house. 37. Which of the following special powers
statement(s) is/are correct? 2. Unless sooner dissolved or have been conferred on the Rajya
1. The Directive Principle are there is an extension of the Sabha by the Constitution of India?
meant to establish Political term, there is an automatic (a) To change the existing territory of a
Democracy. dissolution of the Lok Sabha state and to change the name of a
by efflux of time, at the end of state
2. The Directive Principle are the period of 5 years, even if
meant to establish Social no formal order of dissolution (b) To pass a resolution empowering the
Democracy. is issued by the President. Parliament to make laws in the State
3. The Directive Principle is List and to create one or more all
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
India Services
meant to establish Economic continues in office even after
the dissolution of the house (c) To amend the election procedure of
Democracy. the President and to determine the
and until ‘immediately before
Select the correct answer using the first meeting of the house’. pension of the President after his/her
the codes given below. retirement
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
Which of the statements given (d) To determine the functions of the
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these above are correct? Election Commission and to determine
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 the number of Election Commissioners
31. Which of the following (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
statement(s) is/are correct? 38. Consider the following statement(s)
35. Which of the following are the 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy methods of Parliamentary control power to declare that it would be
legal supremacy over Directive over public finance in India? in national interest for the
Principles. Parliament to legislate with
1. Placing Annual Financial
2. Right to Education is available Statement before the respect to a matter in the State
to foreigners in India. Parliament. List.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 981

2. Resolutions approving the 42. Who among the following can be Which of the statement(s) given
Proclamation of Emergency are the Chairperson of the National above is/are correct?
passed only by the Lok Sabha. Human Rights Commission? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Which of the statement(s) given (a) A Member of either House of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
above is/are correct? Parliament
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 47. Which of the following statement(s)
(b) A Chief Justice of the Supreme
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Court of India regarding Money Bill are incorrect,
(c) A social worker actively involved in except?
39. Consider the following (a) A Money Bill can only be introduced in
the promotion of human rights
statements Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha has no
(d) Any sitting Judge of High Court or
1. The joint sitting of the two Supreme Court power to make a change in it against
Houses of the Parliament in the will of Lok Sabha.
India is sanctioned under 43. The objective of including (b) A Money Bill may be introduced in
Article 108 of the Directive Principles of State Rajya Sabha but it must be approved
Constitution. Policy says that the state shall by both the houses.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok seek to ensure (c) A Money Bill can only be introduced in
Sabha and Rajya Sabha was (a) to establish a welfare state Lok Sabha, but it must also be
held in the year 1961. (b) to provide best opportunities for approved by Rajya Sabha.
3. The second joint sitting of the development (d) A Money Bill can be introduced in
two Houses of Indian either house but the decision of Lok
(c) to establise a democratic state
Parliament was held to pass Sabha thereon shall prevail.
(d) to check the arbitrary action of the
the Banking Service 48. Match the following
Government
Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of the statements given 44. Which of the following List I
above are correct? statement(s) are incorrect? (Articles of the List II
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Constitution (Provisions)
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Money Bill. of India)
2. Rajya Sabha can make A. Article 14 1. The state shall not
40. Which of the following statement recommendations on a Money discriminate against any
is correct? Bill. citizen on grounds only of
(a) The Parliamentary form of religion, race, caste, sex,
3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject place of birth or any of them
government emphasises on the Money Bill.
interdependence between the B. Article 15 2. The state shall not deny to
4. Rajya Sabha should return the any person equality before
legislative and executive organs
Money Bill to the Lok Sabha the law or the equal
(b) Only a member of the Rajya within 14 days. protection of laws within the
Sabha can contest for the office territory of India
5. Rajya Sabha cannot amend a
of the Vice-President
Money Bill. C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished
(c) While a candidate to the Lok and its practice in any form
Sabha can contest from any State Select the correct answer using is forbidden
in India, a candidate to the Rajya the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 5 D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of
Sabha should ordinary be a opportunity for all citizens in
resident of the state from where (c) 1 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 matters relating to
he is contesting 45. Which of the following employment or appointment
(d) The Constitution explicity prohibits to any office under the state
Constitutional Amendments
the appointment of a nominated Codes
states that the total number of
member of the Rajya Sabha to the A B C D A B C D
post of minister Ministers, including the Prime
Minister in the Council of (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
41. Consider the following Minister shall not exceed 15% of (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 4 1 2
statement(s) the total number of members of 49. Consider the following statement(s)
1. Union Territories are not the house of the people? 1. The maximum number of the
represented in the Rajya (a) 90th (b) 91st Judges of the Supreme Court of
Sabha. (c) 92nd (d) 93rd India is prescribed in the
2. It is within the purview of the Constitution of India.
Chief Election Commissioner 46. Consider the following
statement(s) 2. The maximum number of the
to adjudicate the election members of the Union Public
disputes. 1. The Chairman of the
Service Commission is prescribed
3. According to the Constitution Committee on Public Accounts
in the Constitution of India.
of India, the Parliament is appointed by the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha. Which of the statement(s) given
consists of the Lok Sabha and
2. The Committee on Public above is/are correct?
the Rajya Sabha only. (a) Only 1
Accounts comprises members of
Which of the statement(s) given (b) Only 2
Lok Sabha, members of Rajya
above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
Sabha and a few eminent
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
persons of industry and trade.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these
982 CDS Pathfinder

50. Consider the following statements Which of the statement(s) given 57. Consider the following statement(s)
1. Superintendence, direction and above is/are correct? 1. A person, who has held office as
conduct of free and fair (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 a permanent Judge of a High
elections. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Court cannot plead or act in any
2. Preparation of electoral rolls court or before any authority in
54. Which of the following statements India except the Supreme Court.
for all elections to the regarding Fundamental Duties
Parliament, State Legislature 2. A person is not qualified for
are correct? appointment as a Judge of a High
and the Office of the President 1. To preserve the rich heritage
and the Vice-President. Court in India unless he has for
of the nation’s composite at least 5 years held a judicial
3. Giving recognition to political culture. office in the territory of India.
parties and allotting election 2. To cherish and follow the
symbols to political parties and noble ideals of the freedom Which of the statement(s) given
individuals contesting the struggle. above is/are correct?
3. To renounce practice (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
election.
derogatory to the dignity of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Proclamation of final verdict in
the case of election disputes. women. 58. Who among the following determines
4. 11th Fundamental Duty was the authority who shall readjust the
Which of the above are the
added by 68th Constitutional allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha
functions of the Election Amendment 2000.
Commission of India? to the states and division of each
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using State into territorial constituencies?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 the codes given below. (a) The President of India
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (b) The Parliament of India
51. Financial distribution between (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner of
the Union and the State takes India
55. Consider the following statements
place on the basis of the (d) The Lok Sabha alone
1. The highest criminal court of
recommendations of which one of the district is the Court of
the following? 59. Consider the following statements
District and Sessions Judge.
(a) The National Development Council 1. Fundamental Duties added to
2. The District Judges are
(b) The Inter-State Council Constitution on the
appointed by the Governor in
(c) The Planning Commission recommendation of Swarn Singh.
consultation with the High
(d) The Finance Commission Court. 2. Fundamental Duties were added
3. A person to be eligible for by 44th Amendment Act, 1976.
52. Consider the following 3. Fundamental Rights meant to
appointment as a District
statement(s) Judge should be an advocate establish Political Democracy.
1. Part IX of the Constitution of or a pleader of 7 years 4. Fundamental Rights based on
India contains provisions for standing or more or an officer Nehru Report, 1928.
Panchayats and was inserted in Judicial Service of the Which of the statements given above
by the Constitution (73rd Union or the State.
are correct?
Amendment Act, 1992). 4. When the Sessions Judge (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
2. Part IX-A of the Constitution Awards death sentence, it (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
of India contains provisions for must be confirmed by the
municipalities and the Article High Court before it is carried 60. Match the following
243 envisages two types of out.
List I List II
municipalities–a Municipal Which of the statements given (Schedules) (Deals with)
Council and a Municipal above are correct?
A. 9th Schedule 1. Anti-Defection Act
Corporation for every state. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
B. 11th Schedule 2. Languages
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Which of the statement(s) given C. 8th Schedule 3. Panchayats
above is/are correct? 56. Which of the following D. 10th Schedule 4. Acts and
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 statement(s) is not correct? Regulation
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence Codes
53. Consider the following motion has to set out the grounds A B C D A B C D
statement(s) on which it is based (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has (b) In the case of a no-confidence (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
motion in Lok Sabha, no
the power to declare that it 61. Which of the following is/are Human
conditions of admissibility have
would be in national interest Right(s) under “Universal
been laid down in the rules
for the Parliament to legislate
(c) A motion of no-confidence once Declaration of Human Rights”?
with respect to a matter in
admitted has to be taken up within 1. Right to education.
the State List. ten days of the leave being 2. Right to equal access to public
2. Resolutions approving the granted service.
Proclamation of Emergency are (d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to
passed only by the Lok Sabha. 3. Right to food.
entertain a motion of no-confidence
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 983

Select the correct answer using 2. The President of India 69. In which of the following situations
the codes given below. automatically nominates a does the President promulgate an
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 representative of the ordinance?
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these community to Lok Sabha. (a) There is disagreement between the
3. It can derive benefits from the two Houses of Parliament over a bill
62. Consider the following Prime Minister’s 15-Point
(b) Both houses have refused to pass a
statement(s) Programme.
bill sponsored by the Government with
1. Article 301 pertains to the Select the correct answer using the previous sanction of President
Right to Property. the codes given below. (c) A bill has been pending in Parliament
2. Right to Property is a legal (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
for a long-period
right, but not a Fundamental (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Right. (d) Parliament is not in session
3. Article 300 A was inserted in 66. Match the following
70. What does the 104th Constitution
the Constitution of India by List II Amendment Bill relate to?
the Congress Government at List I
(Amendment Acts) (Amended (a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in
the Centre by the 44th Subjects) certain states
Constitutional Amendment.
A. 86th Amendment 1. Elementary (b) Introduction of dual citizenship for
Which of the statement(s) given Act, 2002 education a persons of India origin living outside
above is/are correct? Fundamental Right India
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 B. 73rd Amendment 2. Panchayati Raj
Act, 1992
(c) Providing quota to socially and
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
educationally backward classes in
C. 74th Amendment 3. Municipalities
63. Which of the following statements Act, 1992 private educational institutions
in regard to the Directive D. 61st Amendment 4. Minimum age limit (d) Providing quota for religious minorities
Principles of State Policy is Act, 1988 for voting in the services under the Central
correct? Codes Government
(a) Fundamental Right constitute 71. Which of the following sets of bill is
A B C D A B C D
limitation upon state action while
Directive Principles are in the nature (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 presented to the Parliament along
of instruction to the Government to (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 4 2 with the Union Budget?
achieve certain ends (a) Direct Taxes Bill and Indirect Taxes Bill
67. What does the 93rd Constitutional
(b) They are justiciable in certain (b) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
Amendment deal with?
respects (c) Finance Bill and Contingency Bill
(a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili
(c) They enjoin on the state to secure and Santhali languages in the 8th (d) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
a living wage to all workers within Schedule 72. Which of the following is correct
a specified period (b) Inclusion of service tax levied by about the Fundamental Duties?
(d) The court can compel the state to Union and collected and
implement some of the important 1. They are not enforceable.
appropriated by the Union and the
directions 2. They are primarily moral duties.
states in the 7th Schedule
(c) Free and compulsory education for 3. They are not related to legal
64. Match the following rights.
all children between the age of 6
List I List II and 14 years Select the correct answer using the
(Committees) (Recommendations) (d) No reservation in Panchayats need codes given below.
A. Balwantrai Mehta 1. 2-Tier Panchayati to be made in favour of Scheduled (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Committee Raj System Castes in Arunachal Pradesh (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
B. LM Singhavi 2. 3-Tier Panchayati
Committee Raj System 68. Consider the following statements 73. Match the following
C. Ashok Mehta 3. Constitutional 1. Free and compulsory education List I
Committee status for to the children of 6-14 years (Schedules in List II
Panchayat age group by the state was the Constitution (Subjects)
D. GVK Rao 4. Rural made a Fundamental Right by of India)
Committee Development the 76th Amendment to the
Constitution of India. A. 10th Schedule 1. Languages
Codes
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks B. 8th Schedule 2. Provisions as to
A B C D A B C D to provide computer education disqualification on the
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 2 1 even in rural areas. grounds of defection
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 3. Education was included in the C. 1st Schedule 3. Validation of certain Acts
Concurrent List by the 42nd and Regulations
65. In India, if a religious
Amendment, 1976 to the D. 9th Schedule 4. The States
sect/community is given the
status of a national minority, Constitution of India. Codes
what special advantages it is Which of the statements given A B C D A B C D
entitled to? above are correct? (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
1. It can establish and administer (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1
exclusive educational (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
institutions.
984 CDS Pathfinder

74. Which of the following are the 79. Match the following 84. Which of the following rights was
differences between the List I List II described by Dr BR Ambedkar as
Fundamental Rights and the “The heart and soul of the
A. Taxes on incomes 1. State List
Directive Principles? other than agricultural Constitution”?
1. Fundamental Rights are income (a) Right to Freedom of Religion
negative instructions, while the B. Estate duty in respect 2. Residuary (b) Right of Property
Directive Principles are of agricultural land power (c) Right to Equality
positive instruction to the C. Inter-planetary outer 3. Concurrent (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
government. space travel List
D. Acquisition and 4. Union List
85. Which of the following Directive
2. Fundamental Rights are Principles of State Policy come into
requisitioning property
justiciable while the Directive category of ‘liberal principles’?
Principles of State Policy are Codes
non-justiciable. 1. The state shall endeavour to
A B C D A B C D
secure a Uniform Civil Code
3. Fundamental Rights enjoy (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
throughout the territory of India.
constitutional basis while the (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
2. The state shall protect every
Directive Principles are based
80. Assertion (A) An award made monument or place or object of
on conventions.
by a Lok Adalat is deemed be a artistic or historic interest.
4. In case of a conflict between
decree of a Civil Court. 3. The state shall endeavour to
the Fundamental Rights and secure to all workers a living
most Directive Principles, the Reason (R) Award of Lok
wage and conditions of work
former get precedence. Adalat is final and binding on all
ensuring a decent standard of life.
Select the correct answer using parties and no appeal lies against 4. The state shall take steps to
the codes given below. thereto before any court. separate the judiciary from the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Codes executive.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these (a) Both A and R are true and R is the Select the correct answer using the
correct explanation of A
75. Who among the following was the codes given below.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
first Law Minister of India? not the correct explanation of A
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) A is true, but R is false
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (d) A is false, but R is true 86. Which of the following are listed
(c) Dr BR Ambedkar among the Directive Principles in
(d) T Krishnamachari 81. Who is the Chairman of second Part IV?
Administrative Reforms
76. The financial powers of the 1. Equal pay for equal work.
Commission?
President of India are that (a) Bimal Jalan 2. Uniform civil codes.
(a) he is responsible for the (b) Dr Karan Singh 3. Small family norm.
preparation for the Union Budget 4. Education through mother tongue
(c) M Veerappa Moily
and causes it to be laid before the
(d) Ahmed Patel at primary level.
Parliament
(b) He appoints the chairman and 82. Which of the following writs will Select the correct answer using the
members of the Finance be issued by the court in case of codes given below.
Commission (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
illegal detention?
(c) No Money Bill can be introduced (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(a) Habbeas Corpus
without his prior approval
(b) Mandamus 87. The Indian Parliament can invade a
(d) All of the above
(c) Prohibition State List, if
77. President holds office for a term (d) Quo-Warranto 1. a subject in the State List
of 5 years assumes a national importance.
83. Match the following
(a) from the date of his election 2. a proclamation of emergency has
(b) from the date of his entering the List I List II been issued by the President of
office A. Railway is a 1. Union List India.
(c) from a date specified in the subject list of
3. the Supreme Court authorises the
Constitution B. Residuary powers 2. Union Parliament to do so.
(d) from a date notified by the election are vested with the Government
commission C. High Courts in 3. Bombay, Select the correct answer using codes
India were started at Calcutta and given below.
78. In which of the following Madras (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
committee, are members from D. Enforcement of 4. Writs (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
both the Houses of Parliament Fundamental Rights
represented? Supreme Court issues 88. The Bombay High Court does not
(a) The Estimation Committee Codes have a bench at which one of the
(b) The Public Account Committee A B C D A B C D following places?
(c) The Committee on Government (a) Nagpur (b) Panaji
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
Assurance (c) Pune (d) Aurangabad
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 3 4 2
(d) The Business Advisory Committee
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 985

89. Consider the following statements 94. Consider the following statement(s) 99. Which of the following provision(s)
1. Indian Constitution establishes on Parliamentary Committees of Constitution are non-justiciable,
a secular state. 1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are that is not enforceable by the
2. The state treats all religions not associated with the courts?
equally. Freedom of faith and Committees on Public Accounts 1. Directive Principle of State
worship is allowed to all the and Public Undertakings.
people. Policy.
2. Members of the Committee on 2. The Preamble of Constitution
3. Educational institutions, Estimates are drawn from both
without exception, are free to 3. The Provision relating to
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
impart religious instruction. Sabha. citizenship.
4. The state make no 4. The Provision of 9th Schedule.
discrimination on the basis of Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
the religion in matters of
employment. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 codes given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1
Which of the statements given (b) 1, 2 and 3
above are correct? 95. Which of the following statement(s) (c) 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4 is/are correct? (d) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Article 26 of the Constitution of 100. The functions of Estimates
90. The term ‘Social Justice’ has India states that subject to public Committee include
enabled the Supreme Court of order, morality and health, every
1. To suggest alternatively policies
India to uphold legislation religious denomination or any
in order to bring out efficiency
(a) to remove economic inequalities section there of shall have the right and economy in administration.
(b) to provide a decent standard of 1. to establish and maintain
living to the working people 2. To see that the expenditure
institutions for religious and
(c) to protect the interests of weaker confirms to the authority which
charitable purposes.
section of society governs it.
2. to manage its own affairs in
(d) All of the above matters of religion. 3. To examine whether the money
is well laid out within the
91. The Panchayati Raj is based on 3. to own and acquire movable and
limits of the policy implied in
the Principle of immovable property.
the estimates.
(a) Decentralisation Select the correct answer using the
(b) Deconcentration
4. To suggested the form, in
codes given below. which estimates shall be
(c) Democratic Centralism (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(d) Democratic Decentralisation
presented to the Parliament.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Which of the statements given
92. Which of the following emerges 96. By which among the following above are correct?
clearly from Preamble ? amendments of the Constitution, (a) 1 and 2
1. When the Constitution was the territories of Goa, Daman and (b) 1, 3 and 4
enacted. Diu were incorporated in the (c) 1, 2 and 4
2. The ideas that were to be Indian Constitution? (d) All of the above
achieved. (a) Constitution (10th) Amendment Act,
3. The system of government. 1961 101. Match the following
4. The source of authority. (b) Constitution (12th) Amendment Act, List II
Select the correct answer using 1962 List I
(Oaths and
(Functionaries)
the codes given below. (c) Constitution (14th) Amendment Act, Affirmations)
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 1962
A. President of 1. Secrecy of
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (d) None of the above India Information
93. The Balwant Rai Mehta 97. Which among the following political B. Judges of 2. Faithful discharge
Committee recommended which party of India has an election Supreme Court of duties
one of the following Panchayati symbol almost close to the election C. Member of 3. Faith and
Raj structures? symbol of Republican Party of Parliament of Allegiance
India to the
(a) Gram Panchayat at the village level USA? Constitution
and Panchayat Samiti at the block (a) Samajwadi party
level only (b) Bahujan Samaj party D. Ministers of the 4. Upholding the
Union Union Constitution
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level (c) Janta Dal (United) and the Law
and Zilla Parishad at the district (d) Teluhudesam party
level only Codes
(c) Gram Panchayat at the village 98. Once a budget has been presented A B C D
level, Panchayat Samiti at the in the Parliament, the government (a) 3 4 1 2
block level and Zilla Parishad at has to get all money bills related to
(b) 4 3 2 1
the district level the union budget passed within_?
(d) Gram Panchayat at the village level (a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 3 4 2 1
and Zilla Parishad at the district (c) 75 days (d) 90 days (d) 4 3 1 2
level only
986 CDS Pathfinder

102. Match the following Those associated in with the 110. Match the following
List I List II planning process in India List I List II
(Articles) (Deals with) include (Writs) (Meanings)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
A. Article 49 1. To preserve historical A. Mandamus 1. ‘By what warrant or
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
monuments authority’
B. Article 47 2. Prohibit the slaughter 106. Consider the following B. Habeas Corpus 2. ‘We command’
of cow, calves and statements C. Qua Warranto 3. ‘To be certified’
other milk and
drought animals The fundamental object of D. Certiorari 4. ‘You may have the
C. Article 48 3. Prohibition of Panchayati Raj System is to body’
intoxication ensure Codes
D. Article 40 4. Organisation of 1. people’s participation in A B C D A B C D
Village Panchayats development (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
Codes 2. democratic decentralisation (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
A B C D A B C D 3. financial mobilisation
4. political accountability 111. Match the following
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 Select the correct answer using List I List II
the codes given below. A. The Council of Ministers 1. Article 74
103. Match the following (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 shall be collectively
List I List II (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 responsible to the House
(Parts) (Deals with) of People.
107. Which of the following
A. Part-III 1. The Panchayat statements with regard to the B. Duties of the Prime 2. Article 77
Minister towards the
B. Part-IV A 2. Fundamental Rights CAG are correct?
President.
C. Part-IX 3. Directive Principle 1. He is responsible only to the C. Council of Ministers 3. Article 76
D. Part-XI 4. Fundamental Duties Parliament.
to aid and advise the
E. Part-IV 5. Union and States 2. He certifies the net proceeds President.
Relationship of any tax.
D. All executive action 4. Article 75
Codes 3. He complies and maintains of the Government of
A B C D E
the accounts of State India shall be taken in the
Government. name of the President.
(a) 1 2 3 4 5
4. He has control over the issue 5. Article 78
(b) 2 4 1 5 3 of money from the
(c) 5 4 3 2 1 Consolidated Fund of India. Codes
(d) 4 3 5 1 2 Select the correct answer using A B C D A B C D
104. Which of the following the codes given below. (a) 4 5 1 3 (b) 3 2 4 1
statements are correct? (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 4 5 1 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
1. The Constitution does not fix 112. Consider the following statement(s)
the number of members of the 108. The Governor of a State
UPSC. 1. Article 46 of the Constitution of
1. possesses Executive India provides for free legal aid
2. One-half of the members of Legislative and judicial
the UPSC should be persons, to Scheduled Castes and
powers analogous to the Scheduled Tribes.
who have held office under President.
the Government of India or of 2. Article 14 of the Constitution of
a state atleast for 5 years. 2. has to act with the aid and
advice of the Council of India provides for equality before
3. The Chairman and members law.
Ministers always.
of the UPSC hold office for a Which of the statement(s) given
term of 5 years or until they 3. has the power to appoint and
attain the age of 60 years. remove the members of State above is/are correct?
Public Service Commission. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
4. The salaries and allowances of
4. has the power to allocate (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the members of the UPSC are
determined by the Parliament. business of the government
among the various ministers.
113. In the context of Panchayati Raj,
5. The entire expanses of UPSC which one of the following is true
are charged on the Which of the statements given
above are correct? about Gram Sabha?
Consolidated Fund of India.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) This is the top most tier of the
Select the correct answer using Panchayati Raj
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
the codes given below. (b) It consists of all the voters
(a) 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1 and 5 109. Who among the following was residing in the jurisdiction of a Village
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 4 and 5 the Finance Minister of India in Panchayat
105. Consider the following the Interim Government during (c) It is the executive body consisting of
1946-1947? selected representatives from Village
1. Planning Commission (a) RK Shanmukham Chetty Panchayat
2. National Development Council (b) John Mathai (d) It consists of all adult males of the
3. Indian Parliament (c) Liaquat Ali Khan Village Panchayat
4. Finance Commission (d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 987

114. With reference to the passage of 2. Extent of the executive power (c) This right has been taken from the
Money Bill in Indian of the Union and the states. British Constitution which was the first
Parliament, which one of the 3. Powers of the Supreme Court Welfare State in the world
following statements is correct? and High Courts. (d) This right has been given to all
4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Indian children between the ages of
(a) The decision of the Union
Schedule. 6 to 14 years under the 86th
Finance Minister is final on the
question whether a bill is Money Constitutional Amendment Act
Select the correct answer using
Bill or not the codes given below. 122. Which of the following statement(s)
(b) A Money Bill can be introduced (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 regarding writ of certiorari is/are
only in the Lok Sabha
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these correct?
(c) After a Money Bill is passed by
Lok Sabha and transmitted to 118. Consider the following 1. There should be court, tribunal
Rajya Sabha, it should be statement(s) or an officer having legal
returned within one month authority to determine the
1. The Ministries Departments of
(d) When Rajya Sabha returns the questions of deciding
the Union Government are
Money Bill with its Fundamental Rights with a duty
created by the Prime Minister.
recommendations, the Lok Sabha to act judicially.
has to accept such 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the
2. Writ of certiorari is available
recommendations Ex-officio Chairman of the
during the tendency of
Civil Services Board.
115. Which of the following are true proceedings before a subordinate
Which of the statement(s) given court.
of the President’s ordering
above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
making power?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 codes given below.
1. It is laid down in Article 123. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. Its ambit is co-extensive with (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the legislative power of 119. With respect to Article 371 A of
Parliament. the Constitution of India, the 123. The Veerapa Moily Commission in
3. He can promulgate an Governor of which one of the its report on Administrative
ordinance only when the Lok following states has special Reforms among other aspects has
Sabha is not in session. responsibility with respect to suggested doing away with which
4. It is a discretionary power of law and order of the State? one of the following pairs of Articles
the President. (a) Assam of the Constitution of India?
Select the correct answer using (b) Manipur (a) Articles 305 and 306
the codes given below. (c) Nagaland (b) Articles 307 and 308
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Andhra Pradesh (c) Articles 308 and 309
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these (d) Articles 310 and 311
120. Consider the following
116. Which of the following are the statement(s) 124. Which of the following feature(s)
objectives of the National 1. The Chairman and the is/are contrary to the norms of a
Development Council? members of the UPSC are federal polity?
1. To promote common economic appointed by the President.
1. Common All India Service.
policies in all vital spheres. 2. The Chairman and the
members of the UPSC are 2. Single integrated judiciary.
2. To secure the co-operation of
states in the execution of the eligible for further Select the correct answer using the
Plan. employment under the codes given below.
3. To review the working of the Government. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Plan from time-to-time. Which of the statement(s) given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. To consider important above is/are correct? 125. Which among the following
questions of social and (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
statement(s) regarding Lord Ripon’s
economic policy affecting (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
plan for local self-government in
development. 121. Which one among the following India is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using statement(s) regarding the 1. The district should be the
codes given below. constitutionally guaranteed maximum area served by one
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Right to Education in India is Committee or Local Board.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
correct? 2. The Local Boards should consist
117. Which of the following (a) This right covers both child and of a large majority of nominated
provisions of the Constitution of adult illiteracy and therefore, official members and be presided
India need the ratification by universally guarantees education over by an official member as
the legislatures of not less than to all citizens of India Chairman.
one-half of the states to effect (b) This right is a child right covering Select the correct answer using the
amendment? the age group of 6 to 14 years codes given below.
1. The manner of election of the and becomes operational from (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
President of India. the year 2015 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
988 CDS Pathfinder

126. Which one among the following (c) disputes relating to implementation 2. Both the Supreme Court and
is not true of the Planning of the Directive Principles of State High Courts can issue the writs
Policy of habeas corpus, mandamus,
Commission? prohibition, certiorari and quo
(d) a bill passed by the Parliament
(a) It is an advisory body and makes warranto only for the purpose of
which is violative of the
recommendations to the Cabinet Constitution enforcement of Fundamental
(b) It is responsible for the execution Rights.
of development programmes and 131. Which one among the following Select the correct answer using the
plans is a function of the Pro-Tem codes given below.
(c) It is responsible for formulation of Speaker of the Lok Sabha? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
a plan for the most effective and (a) Conduct of the proceedings of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
balanced utilisation of the the house in the absence of the
Speaker 135. Why is political power sharing
country’s resources
(b) To check if the election certificates through different levels of
(d) It indicates the factors which tend
of the members of the house are government desirable in a
to retard economic development
in order democracy?
127. Which of the following is/are (c) Swear in the members of the 1. It helps to reduce the possibility
elements of ‘annual financial house and hold the charge till a of conflict between various social
statement’ (budget)? regular Speaker is elected groups.
(d) Give his assent to the bills 2. It decreases the possibility of
1. Ways and means to raise the
passed by the house arbitrary decision-making.
revenue.
2. Estimates of revenue and 132. Which of the following 3. It prompts people’s participation
capital reciepts. statement(s) with regard to at different levels of government.
3. Estimates of expenditure. Inter-State Council is/are Select the correct answer using the
Codes correct? codes given below.
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 1. It was established under the (a) Only 3 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these provisions of the Constitution (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
128. Despite being a Republican of India. 136. Which of the following statement(s)
State, India is a member of the 2. The Council is a is/are correct?
Commonwealth of Nations recommendatory body. 1. A registered voter in India can
whose head is the British 3. There is a standing committee contest an election to Lok Sabha
of the Council under the from any constituency in India.
Monarch. This is because Chairmanship of the Prime
(a) this membership does not affect 2. As per the Representation of the
Minister of India to process People Act, 1951, if a person is
the sovereign nature of the Indian matters for consideration of
Republic convicted of any offence and
the Council. sentenced to an imprisonment of
(b) this membership only shows that Select the correct answer using
the British ruled over India 2 years or more, he will be
the codes given below. disqualified to contest election.
(c) members of the association are (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
sovereign and independent Select the correct answer using the
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these codes given below.
(d) it is a symbol of the unity among
the members of the association 133. In India, the right to ‘freedom of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
speech and expression’ is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
129. The President of India is elected
restricted on the grounds of 137. The impeachment of the President
by a proportional representation
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India can be initiated in
system through single
of India. (a) either house of the Parliament
transferable vote. This implies
2. contempt of court. (b) a joint siting of both houses of the
that Parliament
3. friendly relation with foreign
(a) each elected MP or MLA has an (c) the Lok Sabha alone
states.
equal number of votes
4. protection of minorities. (d) the Rajya Sabha alone
(b) MPs and MLAs of a State have
the same number of votes Select the correct answer using 138. Consider the following statements
(c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote the codes given below. about the Attorney-General of
each (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 India?
(d) MPs and MLAs of different states (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 1. He is appointed by the President
have different numbers of votes 134. Which of the following of India.
130. The original jurisdiction of the statement(s) is/are correct? 2. He has the right to take part in
the proceeding of the Parliament.
Supreme Court of India extends 1. In India, the constitutional 3. He has the right of audience in
to remedy under Article 32 is all courts in India.
(a) treaties and agreements signed available only in case of
Fundamental Rights, not in Which of the statements given above
by the Government of India are correct?
(b) disputes between the Government the case of rights which follow
from some other provision in (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
of India and one or more States (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
the Constitution.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 989

139. Who of the following constitutes (c) The Vice-President of India 149. Which one of the following is a
a Finance Commission for a continues to be in office even human right as well as a
State in India? after the expiry of his term till his Fundamental Rights under the
(a) The President of India successor takes over
Constitution of India?
(b) The Governor of the State (d) The Supreme Court of India has (a) Right to Information
to look into all disputes with
(c) The Union Finance Minister (b) Right to Education
regard to the election of the
(d) The Union Cabinet (c) Right to Work
Vice-President of India
(d) Right to Housing
140. Consider the following 145. Consider the following
statement(s) 150. Under which of the following
statement(s)
1. The Annual Appropriation Bill conditions can citizenship be
is passed by the Lok Sabha 1. A Money Bill cannot be provided in India?
in the same manner as any introduced in the Council of
States. 1. One should be born in India.
other Bill.
2. The Council of States cannot 2. Either of whose parents was born
2. An amendment to the
reject a Money Bill nor in India
Constitution of India can be
initiated by an introduction of amend it. 3. Who has been a resident of India
a Bill in either Lok Sabha or Which of the statement(s) given for not less than 5 years.
Rajya Sabha. above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
Which of the statement(s) given (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 codes given below.
above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) All of these (d) None of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 146. For which one of the following
Judgements of the Supreme 151. Which one of the following
141. Which one of the following is the Court of India, the Kesavananda International Human Rights
subject of the Narasimhan Bharati vs State of India case is Instruments has been signed by
Committee Reports of years considered a landmark? India but not yet ratified?
1991 and 1998? (a) The religion cannot be mobilised (a) Convention on the rights of the child
(a) Administrative Reforms (b) Convention on the elimination of all
for political ends
(b) Banking Reforms forms of discrimination against
(b) Abolishing untouchability from the
(c) Constitutional Reforms women
country
(d) Electoral Reforms (c) Convention on the political rights of
(c) The basic structures of the
142. Assertion (A) The number of Constitution, as defined in the women
the Members of the Union Preamble, cannot be changed (d) Convention on the nationality of
Public Service Commission is (d) Right to life and liberty cannot be married women
preserved in the Constitution of suspended under any 152. The Constitution (74th)
India. circumstance
Amendment Act makes mention of
Reason (R) The Union Public 147. Who among the following Indian the
Service Commission was Prime Ministers resigned before (a) composition of the National
constituted under the provisions facing a vote of no-confidence in Development Council
in the Constitution of India. the Lok Sabha? (b) structure of the Planning Commission
Codes (a) Chandra Shekhar of India
(a) Both A and R are true and R is (b) Morarji Desai (c) functions of the State Finance
the correct explanation of A (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh Commission
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is (d) VP Singh (d) functions of the Kaveri Water
not the correct explanation of A Authority
148. Consider the following
(c) A is true, but R is false 153. Consider the following statement(s)
statement(s)
(d) A is false, but R is true with respect to the Comptroller and
1. The total elective membership
143. Who was the President of India of the Lok Sabha is Auditor General of India
at the time of proclamation of distributed among the states 1. He shall only be removed from
emergency in the year 1976? on the basis of the population office in like manner and on the
(a) VV Giri and the area of the State. ground as a Judge of the
(b) Giani Zail Singh Supreme Court.
2. The 84th Amendment Act of
(c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad 2. He shall not be eligible for
the Constitution of India
(d) Shankar Dayal Sharma further office either under the
lifted the freeze on the
delimitation of constituencies Government of India or under
144. Which one of the following
the Government of any State
statement(s) is not correct? imposed by the 42nd
after he has ceased to hold his
(a) The Vice-President of India holds Amendment.
office.
office for a period of 5 years Which of the statement(s) given
(b) The Vice-President of India can
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? above is/are correct?
be removed by a simple majority (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
of votes passed in the Rajya (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sabha only
990 CDS Pathfinder

154. Under which of the following 2. A person who was born on 2. he votes or abstains from
condition(s) security deposits of a 1st July, 1988 in Itanagar, voting contrary to any direction
candidate contesting for a Lok whose mother is a citizen of issued by his political party.
Sabha seat is returned to India at the time of his birth, 3. as a result of split, less than
him/her? but the father was not, is one third of the members
deemed to be a citizen of
1. The nomination made by the formed a new group or party in
India by birth.
candidate if found to be invalid. the house.
2. The candidate has withdrawn Which of the statement(s) given
4. a member who has been elected
his/her nomination even though above is/are correct? as a independent member joins
it is found valid. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
any political party.
3. The candidate lost the polls but (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
secured l/6th of the total Select the correct answer using
159. Consider the following about the codes given below.
number of valid votes polled in
that election. ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Select the correct answer using the scheme (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
codes given below. 1. The scheme was launched on 164. The quorum for joint sitting of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 22nd January, 2015 from
Panipat, Haryana. Indian Parliament is
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) one-twelveth of the total number of
2. The scheme was initiated with
155. If the Prime Minister is a member an initial corpus of ` 100 members of the house
of the Rajya Sabha crore. (b) one-sixth of the total number of
(a) he/she has to get elected to the Which of the scheme(s) given members of the house
Lok Sabha within 6 months above is/are correct? (c) one-tenth of the total number of
(b) he/she can declare the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 members of the house
government’s policies only in the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) two-third of the total number of
Rajya Sabha members of the house
(c) he/she cannot take part in the 160. Identify the correct sequence of
voting when a vote of no passing a Budget in the 165. Which one of the following
confidence is under consideration Parliament. jurisdictions of the Indian
(d) he/she cannot take part in the (a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill, judiciary covers Public Interest
budget deliberation in the Lok Appropriation Bill, Discussion on Litigation?
Sabha Budget (a) Original Jurisdiction
156. The function of a Protem Speaker (b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, (b) Appellate Jurisdiction
Discussion on Budget, Vote on (c) Epistolary Jurisdiction
is to Accounts (d) Advisory Jurisdiction
(a) conduct the proceeding of the
(c) Discussion on Budget, Vote on
house in the absence of the 166. In India, the Supreme Command
Account, Finance Bill,
Speaker of the Armed Forces is vested in
Appropriation Bill
(b) officiate as Speaker when the the President. This means that in
(d) Discussion on Budget,
Speaker is unlikely to be elected
Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote the exercise of this power
(c) swear members and hold charge till on Account (a) he/she cannot be regulated by law
a regular Speaker is elected
161. Which one of the following states (b) he/she shall be regulated by law
(d) scrutinise the authenticity of the
election certificates of members does not have Vidhan Parishad? (c) during war, the President seeks
(a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra advice only from the Chiefs of the
157. Which one of the following Armed Forces
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh
right(s) conferred by the (d) during war the President can
Constitution of India is also 162. Who among the following Indian suspended the Fundamental Rights
available to non-citizens? Prime Minister(s) could not vote of citizens
(a) Freedom of speech, assembly and for himself during the ‘Vote of 167. Which of the following would be
form association Confidence’ that he was seeking construed as a reasonable
(b) Freedom to move, reside and settle from the Lok Sabha?
in any part of the territory of India
restriction of the ‘right to
(a) VP Singh freedom’?
(c) Freedom to acquire property or to (b) PV Narasimha Rao
carry on any occupation, trade or (a) When the state disallows a
(c) Chandra Sekhar
business candidate from securing votes in
(d) Manmohan Singh the name of religion
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
163. According to the Constitution (b) When the state disallows citizens
158. Consider the following (52nd Amendment Act, 1985 as from forming a club out of state
statement(s) funds that denies access to women
amended in 2003, a legislator
1. A person who was born on (c) When the Government of Nagaland
attracts disqualification under
26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, disallows temporary residents to
whose father was a citizen of the 10th Schedule if buy immovable property in
India by birth at the time of 1. he voluntarily gives up the Nagaland
his birth is deemed to be an membership of the party on (d) All of the above
Indian citizen by descent. whose ticket he was elected.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 991

168. The 73rd Amendment of the 2. He must have the same (a) Jagjivan Ram (b) K Kamaraj
Constitution provided qualifications as are required (c) PD Tandon (d) UN Dhebar
constitutional status to the by a Judge of High Court. Codes
Panchayati Raj Institutions. 3. In the performance of his (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
duties he shall have the right (c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Which of the following are the of audience in all courts of
main features of this provision? India. 176. Who among the following was the
1. A three-tier system of first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Which of the statement(s) given (a) MA Ayyangar
Panchayati Raj for all states. above is/are correct? (b) GV Mavalankar
2. Panchayat election in every 5 (a) Only 1
(c) Sardar Hukam Singh
years. (b) 1 and 3
(d) N Sanjiva Reddy
3. Not less than 33% of seats (c) 2 and 3
are reserved for women. (d) All of the above 177. Consider the following
4. Constitution of district Vice-Presidents of India
173. Match the following
planning committees to 1. VV Giri
prepare development plans. List I
2. M Hidayatullah
Select the correct answer using (Provisions of the List II
Constitution of (Sources) 3. BD Jatti
the codes given below. 4. GS Pathak
India)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 A. Amendment of 1. Constitution of Which one of the following is the
the Constitution Germany correct chronology of their tenures?
169. The Sachar Committee Report B. Directive 2. Constitution of (a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
pertains to Principles Canada (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2
(a) Indian federalism C. Emergency 3. Constitution of
Power of the South Africa 178. In which one of the following
(b) Economic development of
backward regions
President Ministries the census organisation
(c) Indian Muslims
D. The Union-State 4. Irish has been functioning on a
Relations Constitution permanent footing since, 1961?
(d) OBC’s
(a) Health and Family Welfare
170. Who among the following Codes (b) Home Affairs
recommends to the Parliament A B C D A B CD (c) Social Justice and Empowerment
for the abolition of the (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (d) Human Resource Development
Legislative Council in a State? (c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
(a) The President of India
179. Which of the following is not a
(b) The Governor of the concerned 174. According to Article 164(1) of recommendation of the Ashok Mehta
State the Constitution of India, in Committee on Panchayati Raj ?
(c) The Legislative Council of the three States there shall be a (a) Open participation of political parties
concerned State Minister in charge of tribal in Panchayati Raj affairs
(d) The Legislative Assembly of the welfare, who may in addition be (b) Creation of a three-tier system
concerned State in charge of the welfare of the (c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled
Scheduled Castes and Backward Castes and Scheduled Tribes
171. In which of the following years (d) Compulsory powers of taxation to
the Fundamental Duties have Classes. Which one of the
Panchayati Raj Institution
been added to the existent following states is not covered
Fundamental Rights in the by the Article? 180. With reference to the Constitution
(a) Jharkhand of India, which one of the following
Constitution of India? (b) Punjab
(a) 1965 (b) 1976 pair(s) is not correctly matched
(c) Madhya Pradesh Subject List
(c) 1979 (d) 1982
(d) Odisha
(a) Stock Exchanges : The State List
172. Consider the following
175. Which one of the following is the (b) Forest : The Concurrent List
statement(s) with respect to the
correct chronological order of (c) Insurance : The Union List
Attorney General of India
the tenures of the following (d) Marriage and : The Concurrent List
1. He is appointed by the Presidents of Indian National Divorce
President.
Congress?
992 CDS Pathfinder

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) Select the correct answer using Constitution of India. In this context,
the codes given below. which one among the following
1. Which one among the following is (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 statement(s) is correct?
a Fundamental Duty of citizens (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) The legislation is invalid as it violates
under the Constitution of India? the Freedom of Press
(a) To provide friendly co-operation to 5. Under which law it is prescribed
(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of
the people of the neighbouring that all proceedings in the
Article 31 B
countries Supreme Court of India shall be
(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes
(b) To protect monuments of national in English language? unreasonable restrictions under Article
importance (a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 19 (2) of the Constitution
(c) To defend the country and render (b) A Legislation made by the (d) The legislation is valid as the Press is
national service when called upon Parliament not a citizen under Article 19 of the
to do so (c) Article 145 of the Constitution of Constitution
(d) To know more and more about the India
history of India (d) Article 348 of the Constitution of 9. With regard to the powers of the
India Rajya Sabha, which one among the
2. Take the case of dignity and
following statement(s) is not correct?
equal rights for women. How do 6. Consider the following (a) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in
democracies help? statement(s) the Rajya Sabha
(a) Women in democracies have equal According to Hindu Law, (b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either
degree of political representation in marriage is defined as to reject or amend a Money Bill
legislatures 1. a contract (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the
(b) Women in democracies have
2. a sacrament Annual Financial Statement
guaranteed rights and are always
3. mutual understanding (d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to
treated with respect
4. indissoluble vote on the Demands for Grants
(c) Women in democracies are not
subjected sex discrimination in Which of the statement(s) given 10. Which one among the following is the
most aspects of social life above is/are correct? distinguishing factor between a
(d) In democracies, the principle of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 pressure group and a political party?
equality is accepted as legal norm, (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 (a) Pressure groups are confined to a few,
which makes it easier to guarantee while political parties involve larger
their freedom and dignity 7. Which one among the following
number of people
statement(s) is not correct?
3. The Constitution of India is (b) Pressure groups do not seek active
The word ‘socialist’ in the political power, political parties do
republican because it
Preamble of the Constitution of (c) Pressure groups do not politically
(a) provides for an elected Parliament
India read with motivate people, while political parties
(b) provides for adult franchise
(a) Article 39 (d), would enable the do
(c) contains a bill of rights
court to uphold the constitutionality (d) Political parties take political stance,
(d) has no hereditary elements of nationalisation laws while pressure groups do not bother
4. Which among the following (b) Article 14, would enable the court about political issues
conditions are necessary for the to strike down a-statute which
failed to achieve the socialist goal 11. There are different arguments given
issue of writ of quo warranto?
to the fullest extent in favour of power sharing in a
1. The office must be public and democratic political system. Which
must be created by a Statute (c) Article 25, would enable the court
to ensure freedom guaranteed one of the following is not one of
or by the Constitution itself.
under that Article them?
2. The office must be a
(d) Article 23, would enable the court (a) It reduces conflict among different
substantive one and not communities
to reduce inequality of income and
merely the function or status (b) Majority community does not impose
employment of a servant at its will on others
the will and during the 8. Suppose a Legislation was passed
(c) Since, all are affected by the policies
pleasure of another. by the Parliament imposing
of the government, they should be
3. There has been a contravention certain restrictions on consulted in the governance of the
of the Constitution or a Statute newspapers. These included page country
or Statutory Instrument, in ceiling, price and advertisements. (d) It speeds up the decision- making
appointing such person to that The legislation is included in the process and improves the chances of
office. Ninth Schedule to the unity of the country
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 993

12. While a proclamation of 17. Which one among the following is 20. Which of the following are envisaged
emergency is in operation the not guaranteed by the as being part of the ‘Right against
duration of the Lok Sabha can be Constitution of India? Exploitation’ in the Constitution of
extended for a period (a) Freedom to move freely throughout India?
(a) not exceeding 3 months the country 1. Prohibition of traffic in human
(b) not exceeding 9 months (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully beings and forced labour.
(c) of 1 year at a time without arms
2. Abolition of untouchability.
(d) of 2 years at a time (c) Freedom to own, acquire and
dispose property anywhere in the 3. Protection of the interests of the
13. Which one among the following country minorities.
pairs of level of government and (d) Freedom to practice any trade or 4. Prohibition of employment of
legislative power is not correctly profession children in factories and mines.
matched? Select the correct answer using the
18. The Constitution of India divided
(a) Central Government : Union List
the states of India in categories codes given below.
(b) Local Governments : Residuary (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Powers
A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) State Governments : State List this context, which of the
(d) Central and State : Concurrent following statement(s) is correct? 21. In which one of the following cases,
Government List (a) The Chief Commissioner was the the Supreme Court of India gave
executive head of category A verdicts which have a direct bearing
14. The purpose of Directive states. The Rajpramukh was the
Principles of State Policy is to on the Centre-State relations?
executive head of category B (a) Keshavananda Bharati case
(a) lay down positive instructions states. The Governor was the
which would guide State Policy at (b) Vishakha case
executive head of categories C
all levels and D states (c) SR Bommai case
(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a (b) The Rajpramukh was the executive (d) Indira Sawhney case
decentralised state head of category A states. The 22. Consider the following statements
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers Chief Commissioner was the about the powers of the President of
by the government executive head of categories B India.
(d) promote welfare of the backward and C states. The Governor was
sections of the society the executive head of the category 1. The President can direct that any
D states matter on which decision has
15. Which of the following been taken by a Minister should
(c) The Governor was the executive
condition(s) must be fulfilled by be placed before the Council of
head of category A states. The
the NRIs to be eligible to vote in Rajpramukh was the executive Ministers.
elections in India? head of category B states. The 2. The President can call all
1. They must be physically Chief Commissioner was the information relating to proposals
present in their place of origin executive head of categories C for legislation.
to exercise their franchise. and D states 3. The President has the right to
2. NRIs whether they have (d) The Governor was the executive address and send messages to
acquired citizenship of other head of category A states. The either House of the Parliament.
countries or not are eligible to Chief Commissioner was the 4. Decisions of the Council of
vote. executive head of category B Ministers relating to the
3. Eligible NRIs have to register states. The Rajpramukh was the administration of the Union must
by filling up form 6-A with executive head of categories C be communicated to the President.
electoral registration office. and D states Which of the statements given above
Select the correct answer using are correct?
19. Which of the following
the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 3
statement(s) is/are correct?
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these Under the provisions of Article
200 of the Constitution of India 23. With reference to the conduct of
16. The Kamraj Plan was a plan government business in the
the Governor of a State may
formulated in 1963 by then Parliament of India, the term
1. withhold his assent to a bill
(a) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a ‘closure’ refers to
passed by the State
new Constitution for the Indian
National Congress was proposed
Legislature. (a) suspension of debate at the
2. reserve the bill passed by the termination of a day’s sitting of the
(b) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby
State Legislature for Parliament
the senior ministers were asked to
leave government and work to consideration of the President. (b) a rule of legislative procedure under
rejuvenate the party 3. return the bill, other than a which further debate on a motion can
(c) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby Money Bill, for reconsideration be halted
a new set of principles for
of the legislature. (c) the termination of a Parliamentary
accepting donations for the party Select the correct answer using session
work was proposed the codes given below. (d) refusal on the part of the Government
(d) Chief Minister of Madras to root (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 to have the opposition look at
out corruption from India (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these important documents
994 CDS Pathfinder

24. According to the 2012 (II) 32. Which one among the following writs
Administrative Tribunal Act, literally means you may have the
1985, the Central 28. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a body?
Administrative Tribunal superior court (a) Certiorari
adjudicates disputes and (a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal (b) Habeas Corpus
complaints with respect to the from exceeding its jurisdiction or (c) Mandamus
service of persons who are acting contrary to the rules of natural (d) Quo Warranto
justice
(a) appointed to public services 33. Which one among the following is
and posts in connection with (b) to an inferior court or body exercising
judicial or quasi-judicial functions to not a recommendation of the
the affairs of the Union except
members of the Defence transfer the record to proceedings in a Sarkaria Commission on the
services case for its review appointment of the Governor in a
(b) official and servants of the (c) where it can call upon a person to state?
Supreme Court or any High show under what authority he/she is (a) He/She must not have participated in
Courts holding the office active politics atleast for sometime
(c) members of the Secretarial staff (d) to an authority to produce an illegally before his/her appointment as
of the Parliament or any state detained person before the court for Governor
legislatures trial (b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme
(d) members of the Defence 29. Which one among the following is not Court may be consulted by the
services included in the Fundamental Rights President in selecting a Governor
embodied in the Constitution of (c) The Governor’s term of office of
25. Which of the following
India? 5 years should not be disturbed
statement(s) with respect to except very rarely
the judiciary in India is/are (a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom (d) The Governor should not be the native
correct? of the state
(c) Right against Exploitation
1. Unlike in the United States,
(d) Right to Information 34. Which one among the following
India has not provided for
a double system of courts. 30. Consider the following statement(s) statement(s) about the functioning
2. Under the Constitution of relating to the procedure of the of political parties in a democracy is
India, there is a single election of the Speaker and the not correct?
integrated system of courts Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (a) Political parties give political education
for the Union as well as 1. The election of a Speaker shall be to the people
the states. held on such date as the Prime (b) Political parties serve as a link
3. The organisation of the Minister may fix and the between the government and the
subordinate judiciary varies Secretary General shall send to people
slightly from state to state. every member notice of this date. (c) Political parties fight elections and try
to get the maximum number of their
Select the correct answer using 2. The election of a Deputy Speaker
candidates elected
the codes given below. shall be held on such date as the
(d) None of the above
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 Speaker may fix and the
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Secretary General shall send to 35. Delimitation of constituencies and
every member notice of this date. determination of constituencies
26. Which of the following
3. At anytime before noon on the reserved for Scheduled Castes and
Committees are the
day preceding the date so fixed, Scheduled Tribes are done by
Committees of Parliament? any member may give notice in
1. Public Accounts Committee. (a) Election Commission
writing of a motion that another (b) Delimitation Commission
2. Estimates Committee. member be chosen as the Deputy (c) Planning Commission
3. Committee on Public Speaker of the House.
Undertakings. (d) Election Commission with the
Which of the statement(s) given above assistance of Delimitation Commission
Select the correct answer using is/are correct?
the codes given below. 36. With reference to Lok Adalats,
(a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
which one among the following
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these statement(s) is correct?
31. Which one among the following is not (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to
27. The Chief Election a Fundamental Duty of the citizen of settle the matters at pre-litigative state
Commissioner of India holds India? and not those matters pending before
office for a period of (a) To develop scientific temper, humanism any court
(a) 6 years and the spirit of inquiry and reform (b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters
(b) during the pleasure of the (b) To safeguard public property and to which are civil and not criminal in
President abjure violence nature
(c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 (c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, (c) Lok Adalats has not been given any
years, whichever is earlier unity and integrity of India statutory status so far
(d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 (d) To practice family planning and to (d) No appeal lies in a civil court against
years, whichever is earlier control population the order of the Lok Adalat
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 995

37. Which among the following 41. The Instrument of Instructions (b) Sustained economic growth specially
provision(s) of the Constitution of contained in the Government of after the 1990s
India is/are fulfilled by the India Act, 1935 has been (c) Regular elections in the centre and
National Social Assistance incorporated in the Constitution states since, 1950s
Programme launched by the of India in the year 1950 as (d) A strong industrial base with a vibrant
(a) Fundamental Rights federal structure
Government of India?
1. Fundamental Rights. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Fundamental Duties. (c) Extent of Executive Power of State 2013 (I)
(d) Conduct of business of the
3. Directive Principles of State 47. Consider the following statement(s)
Government of India
Policy. regarding e-courts, launched recently
Select the correct answer using 42. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
in India
the codes given below. may be removed from office by
(a) the majority party in the house 1. They will facilitate hearing of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
adopting a no-confidence motion cases via video conferencing.
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
(b) a resolution passed by not less 2. They will follow the same
38. Consider the following than half of the total membership procedures that are laid out for
statement(s) of the house the bench for hearing appeals in
1. In India, only two Union (c) a resolution passed by atleast an open court.
Territories have Legislative two-thirds of the total membership Which of the statement(s) given above
Assemblies. of the house is/are correct?
2. Mizoram, Nagaland and (d) a resolution passed by a majority (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Meghalaya, the three of all the members of the house (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
North-Eastern States of India, 43. What is/are the major
have only one seat each in the
48. Besides representation, the
difference(s) between a written Parliament of India is also a
Lok Sabha. and an unwritten Constitution? deliberative body with diverse
Which of the statement(s) given 1. A written Constitution is the
above is/are correct? functions. Which one among the
formal source of all
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Constitutional Laws in the following is not a function of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 country and the unwritten Parliament of India?
Constitution is not the formal (a) Ventilating the grievances of the people
39. The Rights to Information means (b) Executing major policy decisions
source.
and includes
2. A written Constitution is (c) Holding the government accountable
1. inspection of documents. for its actions and expenditure
entirely codified whereas an
2. taking out files from office to (d) Amending the Constitution
unwritten Constitution is not.
any place desired by the
applicant. Select the correct answer using 49. Which one among the following
3. taking photograph of files. the codes given below. statement(s) is not correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) The right conferred by Article 32
4. obtaining information in tapes.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 cannot be suspended except by virtue
Which of the statement(s) given of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution of
above are correct? 44. In the Rajya Sabha, the states
India
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 have been given seats
(a) in accordance with their population (b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these cannot be suspended
(b) equally
40. Match the following (c) Punishments can be prescribed by a
(c) on the basis of population and
State Legislation for offences under
List I List II economic position
Part III of the Constitution of India
(Acts) (Features) (d) on the basis of present economic
(d) The Fundamental Rights can be
A.The Indian 1. Introduction of status
abrogated by law made by the
Councils Act, 1892 provincial 45. The Preamble is useful in Parliament with regard to members of
autonomy the forces charged with the
constitutional interpretation
B.The Indian 2. Introduction of the maintenance of public order
Councils Act, 1909 principle of because it
election (a) uses value loaded words 50. The Government of India Act, 1919
C.The Government 3. Introduction of (b) contains the real objective and 1. established a bicameral legislature
of India Act, 1919 diarchy in philosophy of the Constitution
provinces at the centre.
makers
D.The Government 4. Introduction of (c) is a source of power and limitation 2. introduced dyarchy in the
of India Act, 1935 separate (d) gives and exhaustive list of basic provincial executive.
electorate for the features of the Constitution 3. introduced a Federal System of
Muslims Government in India.
Codes 46. Which one among the following is
Select the correct answer using the
A B C D A B C D
not an attribute of sustainability
of Indian democratic model? codes given below.
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(a) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
patterns
996 CDS Pathfinder

51. Which one among the following is 2. The Anti-Defection provisions (a) PESA was meant to provide self-
a Fundamental Duty of citizens do not apply if one-third of governance in the Scheduled Areas
under the Constitution of India? the members of a party (b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to disobey the mandate of the (c) PESA protects the interests of the
the people of the neighbouring party and constitute tribals
countries themselves as a separate (d) PESA conducts public hearings to
party. protect inheritance rights of the tribals
(b) To visit the monuments of national
importance Which of the statement(s) given 59. Which one among the following
(c) To defend the country and render above is/are correct? countries redefined the principles of
national service when called upon (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 ‘Panchashila’ for the purpose of
to do so (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 domestic politics?
(d) To know more and more about the (a) Ghana (b) China
56. The Constituent Assembly of India
religions of India (c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka
convened to prepare the
52. India’s Look East Policy was Constitution of India appointed a
conceived in the early 1990s at a sub-committee headed by 2013 (II)
time when India was in the Gopinath Bordoloi. Which of the
process of adjusting to the following recommendation(s) 60. The Planning Commission of India
post-cold war watershed changes was/were made by the committee? was constituted
in the international geostrategic 1. Fifth Schedule for the (a) under constitutional provision with
specific mention for it
environment. The Look East North-East Frontier (Asom)
(b) through an Act of Parliament
Policy Tribal and Excluded Areas.
(c) through a cabinet decision in this
1. reflects both historical 2. Constitution of District regard
imperatives and contemporary Councils in all autonomous (d) through constitutional amendment
compulsion of the post-cold districts of Asom.
war new world order. 3. Sixth Schedule for the 61. In the SR Bommai vs Union of India
2. seeks to optimise India’s North-East Frontier (Asom) case, which one among the following
synergies in the extended Tribal and Excluded Areas. features of the Constitution of India
Asia-Pacific neighbourhood. was upheld by the Supreme Court as
4. Demarcation of territories in
3. has led to India’s participation
North-East India. a basic structure?
in Asia-Pacific forums like (a) Liberalism
ASEAN, East Asia Summit, Select the correct answer using (b) Secularism
BIMSTEC and other the codes given below. (c) Dignity of the human person
institutions. (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Freedom of religion
Which of the statement(s) given (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
62. Which of the following freedoms is
above is/are correct? 57. How does participatory budgeting not specifically mentioned in the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 seek to make the functioning of Constitution of India as a
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these local governance institutions Fundamental Right, but has been
53. Which one among the following more transparent and subsequently upheld by the Supreme
committees of the Parliament of accountable? Court as such?
India has no members of the 1. By allowing citizens to (a) Freedom of trade, occupation and
Rajya Sabha? deliberate and negotiate over business
(a) Public Accounts Committee the distribution of public (b) Freedom to reside and settle in any
(b) Estimates Committee resources. part of the country
(c) Public Undertakings Committee 2. By allowing citizens to play a (c) Freedom of association and union
direct role in deciding how and (d) Freedom of the press
(d) Departmentally Related Standing
Committee on Finance where resources should be 63. Match the following
spent.
54. Which one among the following is List I
List II
not a constitutional body in 3. By allowing historically (Commissions/Com
excluded citizens with access (Mandates)
India? mittees)
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General to important decision-making
A. Sachar Committee 1. Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984
(b) National Commissioner for religious
venues.
B. Srikrishna 2. Socio-economic and
and Linguistic Minorities Select the correct answer using Commission educational
(c) National Commission for Scheduled the codes given below. conditions of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Muslims in India
Castes
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these C. Ranganath 3. Bombay Communal
(d) National Human Rights
Misra Commission Riots, 1992
Commission 58. The Parliament of India passed D. Nanavati 4. Linguistic and
55. Consider the following the Panchayats Extension to Commission religious minorities in
statement(s) Scheduled Areas Law popularly India
1. The Anti-Defection Law bans known as PESA Law. Which one Codes
an elected member from voting among the following statement(s) A B C D A B C D
against the explicit mandate of regarding PESA Law is not (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
his/her party. correct? (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 997

64. The Judge of the High Courts in 69. Power of the Supreme Court of 73. Which of the following statements
India is administered oath of India to decide the dispute between are correct regarding Joint Session of
office by centre and state falls under the Houses of the Parliament in
(a) the Chief Justice of the High (a) advisory jurisdiction India?
Court (b) original jurisdiction
1. It is an enabling provision,
(b) the Governor of the State (c) appellate jurisdiction
empowering the President to take
(c) the President of India (d) constitutional jurisdiction
steps for resolving deadlock
(d) the Chief Justice of India 70. The Governor may recommend the between the two houses.
65. Among the following ideals and imposition of the President's rule 2. It is not obligatory upon the
philosophy, identify those in the state President to summon the houses
enshrined in the Preamble to (a) on the recommendation of the State to meet in a joint sitting.
the Constitution of India. Legislature 3. It is being notified by the
1. Sovereign democratic republic. (b) on the recommendation of the President.
President
2. Socialism and secularism. 4. It is frequently resorted to
(c) on the recommendation of the Chief
3. Capitalism and free trade. establish the supremacy of the
Minister
Which of the statements given (d) if he is convinced that the Lok Sabha.
above are correct? Government of the State cannot be Select the correct answer using the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 carried on in accordance with the codes given below.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these provisions of the Constitution of (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
India (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
66. Which of the following pair(s) of
constitutional authority and 74. Match the following
procedure of appointment is/are 2014 (I) List I List II
correctly matched? 71. Certain bills cannot be introduced (Persons) (Committees)
1. President : Elected by an or proceeded with unless the A. BR Ambedkar 1. Drafting Committee
electoral college consisting of recommendation of the President is B. HC Mukherjee 2. Minorites
elected MLAs and MPs received. However, no Sub-committee
2. Vice-President : Elected by recommendation is required in C. Rajendra Prasad 3. Steering Committee
an electoral college consisting some other cases. In which one of D. Jawaharlal Nehru 4. States Committee
of MLAs and MPs
the following cases such Codes
3. Speaker : The House of recommendation is not required? A B C D A B C D
People chooses after its first
(a) For introduction of bills and for (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 2 3 4
sitting moving amendments relating to
Codes (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
financial matters
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 75. Consider the following statement(s)
(b) For introduction of a bill relating to
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these about democracy
formation of new states or of
67. Which of the following alternation of areas of existing states 1. It consists with the formation of
statement(s) is not correct? (c) For moving of an amendment government elected by the people.
(a) A Money Bill shall not be making provision for the reduction or 2. In democracy, those currently in
introduced in the Council of abolition of any tax power have a fair chance of
States (d) For introduction of a bill or moving losing.
(b) The Council of States has no of an amendment affecting taxation
3. Each vote has one value.
power to reject or amend a in which states are interested
Which of the statement(s) given
Money Bill 72. ‘The Draft Constitution as framed above is/are correct?
(c) The Council of Ministers is only provides a machinery for the (a) 1 and 2 (b) All of these
responsible to the House of the government of the country. It is (c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3
People and not to the Council of
not a contrivance to install any
States 76. Which one of the following
(d) The House of the People has
particular party in power as has
been done in some countries. Who statement(s) regarding the
special powers with respect to Departmental Committee of the
the State List compared to the should be in power is left to be
Council of States determined by the people, as it Parliament of India on the
must be, ‘if the system is to satisfy empowerment of women is correct?
68. Electoral disputes arising out of (a) The Committee will consist of
the test of democracy’?
Presidential and members of the Lok Sabha
Vice-Presidential Elections are The above passage from (b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member
settled by Constituent Assembly debates is of the Committees
(a) Election Commission of India attributed to (c) The term of office of the members of
(b) Joint Committee of Parliament (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru the Committee shall not exceed 2
(c) Supreme Court of India (b) Dr BR Ambedkar years
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (d) It reports on the working of welfare
(d) Acharya JB Kriplani programmes for the women
998 CDS Pathfinder

77. Consider the following 3. amendment of 1st Schedule 85. Which of the statement(s) relating to
statement(s) and 4th Schedule. the Deputy Speaker of the Lok
1. Forming a cooperative society Select the correct answer using Sabha is/are correct?
is a Fundamental Right in the codes given below. 1. The office of the Deputy Speaker
India. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 acquired a more prominent
2. Cooperative societies do not (c) All of these (d) None of these position after the enforcement of
fall within the ambit of the the Constitution of India in 1950.
81. The Annual Financial statement
Right to Information Act, 2. He/She is elected from amongst
of the Government of India in
2005. the members.
respect of each financial year
Which of the statement(s) given shall be presented to the House 3. He/She holds office until he/she
above is/are correct? on such day as the ceases to be a member of the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Speaker may direct
House.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) President of India may direct Select the correct answer using the
(c) Parliament may decide codes given below.
78. The legislative power of the (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
Parliament includes making laws (d) Finance Minister may decide
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
1. on matters not enumerated in 82. Which of the following principle(s)
the Concurrent List and State is/are taken into consideration by 86. The citizenship means
List. the Speaker while recognising a 1. full civil and political rights of
2. in respect of entries in the parliamentary party or group? the citizens.
State List if two or more 1. An association of members who 2. the right of suffrage for election
State Legislatures consider it have an organisation both to the House of the People (of the
desirable. inside and outside the House. Union) and the Legislative
3. for implementing any treaty 2. An association of members who Assembly of every state.
agreement or convention with shall have atleast one-third of 3. the right to become a Member of
any country even if it falls in the total number of members the Parliament and Member of
the State List. of the House. Legislative Assemblies.
Which of the statement(s) given 3. An association of members who Select the correct answer using the
above is/are correct? have a distinct programme of codes given below.
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2 parliamentary work. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Select the correct answer using (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these

79. Which of the following the codes given below. 87. The Committee on Public Accounts
statement(s) in the context of (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 under the Constitution of India is
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these meant for
structure of the Parliament is/are
correct? 83. Which one among the following 1. the examination of accounts
1. The Parliament of India was not a proposal of the Cabinet showing the appropriation of sums
Mission, 1946? granted by the House for the
consists of the President, the
(a) The Constituent Assembly was to
expenditure of the Government of
Council of States and the
be constituted on the democratic India.
House of the people.
principle of population strength 2. scrutinising the report of the
2. The President of India is Comptroller and Auditor- General.
directly elected by an electoral (b) Provision for an Indian Union of
Provinces and States 3. suggesting the form in which
college consisting of the estimates shall be presented to
elected members of both the (c) All the members of the Constituent
Assembly were to be Indians the Parliament.
Houses of the Parliament only.
(d) British Government was to Which of the statement(s) given
Select the correct answer using above is/are correct?
supervise the affairs of the
the codes given below. Constituent Assembly (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 84. After a bill has been passed by
the Houses of the Parliament, it 88. The principle of ‘collective
80. There are provisions in the is presented to the President, who responsibility’ under parliamentary
Constitution of India which may either give assent to the bill democracy implies that
empower the Parliament to or with hold his assent. The 1. a motion of no-confidence can be
modify or annual the operation of President may moved in the Council of Ministers
certain provisions of the (a) assent within 6 months as a whole as well as an
Constitution without actually (b) assent or reject the bill as soon as individual minister.
amending them. They include possible 2. no person shall be nominated to
1. any law made under Article 2 (c) return the bill as soon as possible the cabinet except on the advice
(relating to admission or after the bill is presented to him of the Prime Minister.
establishment of new states). with a message requesting the 3. no person shall be retained as a
house to reconsider the bill member of the Cabinet if the
2. any law made under Article 3
(d) with hold his assent even if the bill Prime Minister says that he shall
(relating to formation of new
is passed again by the houses be dismissed.
states).
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 999

Which of the statement(s) given 3. probes the significance of

above is/are correct? principles of rule of law,
2014 (II)
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 separation of power and judicial 96. Consider the following statement(s)
(c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3 review. about world‘s first Modern Slavery
89. Which of the following Which of the statement(s) given Bill, published in June, 2014 by the
statement(s) relating to above is/are correct? British House of Commons
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 1. This is the first of its kind bill in
Comptroller and Auditor
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Europe which specifically
General in India is/are correct?
93. The functions of the committee on addresses slavery and trafficking
1. He/She is not an officer of
estimates, as incorporated in the in the 21st century.
the Parliament but an officer
under the President. Constitution of India, shall be to 2. The Bill fixes the maximum
1. report what economies, sentence available for the most
2. He/She is an independent
improvements in organisation, serious offenders upto 14 years.
constitutional authority not
directly answerable to the efficiency or administrative Which of the statements given above
house. reform may be effected. is/are correct?
2. suggest alternative policies in (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Select the correct answer using
order to bring about efficiency (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2
the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 and economy in administration. 97. Which of the following about the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. examine whether the money is principles of Panchsheel are correct?
well laid out within the limits 1. These are a set of five principles
90. The Departmental Committee of of the policy implied in the
the Parliament of India on the governing relations between
estimates. states.
welfare of the Schedule Castes 4. examine the reports, if any, of
(SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes 2. The assumption of Panchsheel was
the Comptroller and Auditor that newly independent states
(STs) shall General on the public after decolonisation would be able
1. examine whether the Union undertakings. to develop a new and more
Government has secured due Which of the statement(s) given principled approach to
representation of the SCs and above is/are correct? international relations.
the STs in the services and (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 3. The first formal codification in
posts under its control. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 treaty form was done in an
2. report on the working of the
94. The Fundamental Rights, agreement between China and
welfare programmes for the
enshrined in Part III of the India.
SCs and the STs in the
Union Territories. Constitution of India, ‘‘are Select the correct answer using the
inherent and cannot be code given below.
Which of the statement(s) given (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
extinguished by any constitutional
above is/are correct? (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
and statutory provision’’. This was
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
made clear in the case of 98. Arrange the following states of India
(a) AKGopalan v/s State of Madras
on the basis of conferring statehood
91. The subject matter of an (b) IC Golak Nath v/s State of Punjab
(starting from earliest)
adjournment motion in the (c) State of West Bengal v/s Committee
1. Arunachal Pradesh
Parliament for Protection of Democratic Rights
West Bengal 2. Nagaland
1. must be directly related to
the conduct of the Union (d) Shankari Prasad Singh Dev v/s 3. Sikkim
Government. Union of India 4. Meghalaya
Codes
2. may involve failure of the 95. Which among the following was (a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
Government of India to the reason of the resignations of (c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
perform its duties in the Indian ministers in all the
accordance with the provinces in the year 1939? 99. Consider the following statements
Constitution. (a) The Governors refused to act as about Local Government in India.
Which of the statement(s) given constitutional heads. 1. Article 40 of Indian Constitution
above is/are correct? (b) The centre did not provide the provides for the state to organise
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 required financial help to provinces. Village Panchayat and endow
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) The Governor-General converted them with such powers and
Indian administration from federal to authority as may be necessary to
92. Political theory unitary one because of the make them function as units of
1. deals with the ideas and beginning of the Second World War. self government.
principles that shape (d) India was declared a party to the 2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution
Constitutions. Second World War without the Amendments inserted part IX and
2. clarifies the meaning of consent of the provincial IX A in the Constitution.
freedom, equality and justice. governments.
1000 CDS Pathfinder

3. The provisions in part-IX and 3. It was inserted by the 106. Which one of the following
IX A of Indian Constitution 42nd Amendment. statement(s) is incorrect?
are more or less parallel and 4. The laws in the Ninth (a) India does not have a Chief of Defence
analogous. Schedule are primarily Staff
4. The 73rd Constitution those which pertain to the (b) India does not have a Permanent
Amendment is applicable to all matters of national Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee
states irrespective of size of security. (c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff
population. Committee who functions as Chief of the
Which of the statements given Select the correct answer Defence Staff
above are correct? using the code given below. (d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Committee who does not function as
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 3 Chief of the Defense Staff
100. Consider the following 103. Which one of the following 107. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian
statement(s) about State categories of persons is not Constitution contains provisions for
Election Commission. treated at par so far as the the administration of Tribal areas.
1. The State Election availability of Fundamental Which of the following States is not
Commissioner shall be Rights is concerned? covered under this Schedule?
appointed by the Governer of (a) Members of the armed forces (a) Assam (b) Manipur
State. (b) Members of the forces (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
2. The State Election charged with the responsibility
Commission shall have power of maintenance of public order
108. Who acts as the chairman of the
of even preparing the Chiefs of Staff Committee?
(c) Members of the forces
electoral rolls besides the (a) The President of India in his capacity as
power of superintendence, employed in connection with
the communications systems the Commander-in-Chief
direction and control of (b) The Prime Minister
election to the Panchayat. set-up in the country
(d) Members of the forces (c) The Defence Minister
3. The State Election
Commissioner (SEC) can be employed in connection with (d) The seniormost Chief of Staff
removed in any manner from the communication systems 109. Which one of the following
the office. Until he demits set-up for maintenance of
public order
statement(s) is correct?
himself or complete his
(a) The President cannot pardon a person
tenure.
104. Notification regarding sentenced by a Court Martial
Which of the statement(s) given commencement or cessation (b) The supreme command of the defence
above is/are correct? of a State of war is the forces of the Union vests in the
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 President, but its exercise has to be
responsibility of
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these regulated by law
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
101. Which of the following (b) Ministry of Defence (c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment
statement(s) about Indian (c) Ministry of External Affairs cannot be compelled to do hard work
Judiciary is not correct? (d) None of the above as this would amount to violation of
(a) The Constitution of India has not Article 23 of the Constitution of India
105. Which of the following (d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007
provide for double system of
courts as in the United States statement(s) about Mahatma excludes the powers of the High Courts
(b) The organisation of the Gandhi’s South African under Article 226 of the Constitution of
subordinate Judiciary in India experiences (1893-1914) is/are India in relation to service matters of
varies slightly from state-to-state true? persons in the armed forces
(c) Every state in India has separate 1. Muslim merchants were 110. Which one of the following
High Court actively involved in statement(s) is not correct?
(d) The Supreme Court has issued Gandhian political (a) The Central Government is empowered
direction to constitute an all India movements in South Africa. to issue a notification to specify any
Judicial service to bring about 2. In 1906, Gandhi led a service in a State as a service of vital
uniformity in designation of campaign in Cape Town importance to the community
officers in criminal and civil side against the ordinance on (b) Such a notification remains valid for 6
compulsory registration and months
2015 (I) passes for Indians. (c) Every command given by a superior
3. Gandhi began his political officer casts a duty on all persons
102. Which of the following career with struggles subject to the Army Act, 1950, the Air
statement(s) is/are not correct against the imposition of Force Act, 1950 or the Navy Act, 1957
for the Ninth Schedule of the excessive taxes on Indians to obey the command when such a
Constitution of India? in Cape Town. notification is in force
1. It was inserted by the First Select the correct answer (d) The provision of the Armed Forces
Amendment in 1951. (Emergency Duties) Act, 1947 are
using the codes given below. applicable in connection with vital
2. It includes those laws which (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
are beyond the purview of services imposed in a emergency on the
(c) All of these (d) Only 1
judicial review. armed forces
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 1001

111. The power to decide the date of (b) It is included in Part III of the 120. Information under the RTI Act,
an election to a State Legislative Indian Constitution and is 2005 can be provided in respect of
Assembly rests with the therefore, itself a Fundamental (a) National Security Council Secretariat
(a) President of India Right
(b) Assam Rifles
(b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet (c) Dr Ambedkar called it the ‘very
(c) Border Road Development Board
(c) Election Commission of India soul of the Indian Constitution’
(d) Border Road Organisation
(d) Parliament (d) An aggrieved person has no right
to complain under Article 32 121. Which of the following statement(s)
112. A Parliamentary Democracy is where a Fundamental Right has is/are not true for the category of
one where not been violated the Overseas Citizens of India
1. a balance of popular 116. In which of the following cases (OCI) inserted by the amendment
participation and elite rule did the Supreme Court rule that the Citizenship Act of India in
takes place. 2003?
Constitutional Amendments
2. the government is responsible were also laws under Article-13 1. It gives dual citizenship to
not to the public but to the Persons on India Origin (PIO),
of the Constitution of India,
elected representatives. who are citizens another country.
which could be declared void for
3. the parliamentarians are 2. It gives Persons of Indian origin
delegated the responsibility of
being inconsistent with
Fundamental Rights? (PIO), who are citizens of another
thinking and acting on behalf country, are OCI card without
of their constituents. (a) Keshavanand Bharati Case
(b) Golaknath Case citizenship.
Select the correct answer using 3. It permits the OCI to vote in
(c) Minerva Mills Case
the code given below. (d) Maneka Gandhi Case general elections in India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
4. It allows the OCI to travel to
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 117. Which of the following is not Indian without visa.
113. When martial law is imposed, true about the Convention on
Select the correct answer using the
Parliament cannot make law in the Elimination of all forms of
codes given below.
respect of which one of the Discrimination Against Women (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
following matters? (CEDAW)? (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) It defines what constitutes
(a) Indemnify any person in respect 122. Which of the following statement(s)
discrimination against women and
of any act done by him in
sets-up an agenda for national with regard to the Armed Forces
connection with the maintenance
of order in the area where martial
action (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is/are
law in force (b) It was adopted in 1979 by the correct?
United Nations 1. The Act is applicable only to the
(b) Parliament can by law validate
any sentence passed when (c) It commits states to undertake States of Manipur, Tripura and
martial law was in force in the measures to end discrimination in Nagaland.
area their legal system 2. A person taken into custody
(c) A law of Parliament can validate (d) India is not a ratifying country under the above Act must be
forfeiture ordered when martial and is therefore not legally bound handed over to the officer-in-
law was in force in the area to put its provisions into practice charge of the nearest police
(d) Any act done under martial law 118. The Supreme Court guidelines station with least possible delay.
can be validated by Parliament by issued in the Vishaka case 3. An area can be declared as a
law pertain to disturbed area under the above
(a) domestic violence Act only when the State
114. Which among the following Government is of the opinion
features of a federal system is (b) rape and sexual violence
that the use of the armed forces
not found in the Indian Political (c) if sexual harassment at the work in aid of civil power is necessary
System? place to contain a dangerous condition
(a) Dual citizenship (d) trafficking in women in the concerned area.
(b) Distribution of powers between 119. Which one of the following Select the correct answer using the
the Federal and the State statements is incorrect? codes given below.
Governments (a) India does not have a Chief of (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Supremacy of the Constitution Defence Staff (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
(d) Authority of the Courts to interpret (b) India does not have a Permanent
the Constitution 123. Which of the following is not a laid
Chairman, Chiefs of Staff
Committee
down principle of the Panchsheel?
115. Which of the following is not (a) Mutual respect for each other’s
true of Article 32 of the Indian (c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of
territorial integrity
Constitution? Staff Committee who functions as
Chief of the Defence Staff (b) Mutual non-aggression
(a) It gives the Supreme Court and (c) Mutual support tor each other in
the High Courts the power to (d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of
Staff Committee who does not world forum
issue writs for the enforcement of (d) Mutual non-interference in each
Fundamental Rights function as Chief of the Defence
Staff other‘s internal affairs
1002 CDS Pathfinder

128. Which of the following is/are not 2. The Constituent Assembly did
2015 (II) central tenet(s) of the not include representatives of the
124. Which of the following laws Constitution of India? princely states.
have been repealed by the 1. Prohibits discrimination on 3. The discussions within the
Constitution of India? grounds of religion. Constituent Assembly were not
1. The Government of India Act, influenced by opinions expressed
2. Gives official status to certain by the public.
1935. religions.
2. The Indian Independence Act, 4. In order to create a sense of
3. Provides freedom to profess collective participation,
1947. any religion.
3. The Abolition of Privi Council submissions were solicited from
4. Ensures equality of all the public.
Juridisction Act, 1949.
citizens within religious
4. The Preventive Detention Act, Select the correct answer using the
communities.
1950. codes given below.
Select the correct answer using (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 133. Which of the following laws have
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 been repealed by the Constitution
129. Who is the current of India?
125. Which of the following is/are not
Vice-Chairperson of NITI
central feature(s) of Article 343 1. The Government of India Act,
Aayog?
of the Constitution of India? 1935.
(a) Raghuram Rajan
1. Hindi in Devanagari script (b) Arvind Panagariya 2. The Indian Independence Act,
shall be the national language (c) Bibek Debroy 1947.
of the Union. (d) VK Saraswat 3. The Abolition of Privy Council
2. The official language of the Jurisdiction Act, 1949.
Union shall be Hindi in 130. Freedom of conscience under the 4. The Preventive Detention Act,
Devanagari script. Constitution of India is subject 1950.
3. English language shall to Select the correct answer using the
continue to be used for official 1. public order, morality and codes given below.
purposes within states. health. (a) 1 and 2
4. If two or more states agree, 2. a law providing for social (b) 2 and 4
Hindi language should be the welfare and reform. (c) 1 and 3
official language of 3. opening Hindu religious (d) 1, 2 and 4
communication between the institutions of a public
states. character to all Hindus. 134. A writ of Habeas Corpus for the
Select the correct answer using release of a person can be issued
4. defamation or incitement to
the codes given below. an offence. 1. where the arrest or detention has
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 taken place in contravention of
Which of the statement(s) given
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2 the procedure established by law.
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 2. to secure the release of a person
126. After the general elections, the imprisoned on a criminal charge.
Protem Speaker is (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
3. where the arrest has taken place
(a) elected by the Lok Sabha 131. Which of the following for contempt of court or the
(b) appointed by the President of Fundamental Right(s) is/are Parliament.
India
available to non-citizens? Select the correct answer using the
(c) appointed by the Chief Justice of
the Supreme Court 1. Equality before Law codes given below.
2. Right against Discrimination (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(d) the seniormost member of the
3. Equality of Opportunity (c) All of these (d) 1 and 2
Lok Sabha
127. Match the following 4. Protection of Life and 135. Which one of the following changes
Personal Liberty has not been made to the
List I List ll Select the correct answer using Citizenship Act of India by the
(Leaders) (Parties) the codes given below. Amendment in 2015?
A. Shyama Prasad 1. Communist Party (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4 (a) The Overseas Citizens of India will
Mukherjee of India (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 now be called the Overseas Citizens
B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana of India cardholders
Sangh 132. Which of the following
(b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled
C. SA Dange 3. Swatantra Party statement(s) about the to vote in elections in India
D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist formation of the Constituent (c) The persons of Indian Origin have
Party Assembly is/are correct? been placed at par with the Overseas
Codes 1. The members of the Citizens of India
A B C D A B C D Constituent Assembly were (d) The persons of Indian Origin are now
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2 chosen on the basis of the entitled to life long visa to visit India
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2 Provincial Elections of 1946.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 1003

136. Name the French revolutionary 141. Which one of the following 3. National Commission for
who wrote Declaration of the statement(s) about the process Minorities
Rights of Woman and the Female of the Parliament to make new 4. National Human Rights
Citizen. states is not correct? Commission
(a) Olympe de Gouges (a) The Parliament may by law form Select the correct answer using the
(b) Nancy Ruhling a new state and alter the codes given below.
(c) Maximilien Robespierre boundaries or names of existing (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Mary Wollstonecraft states (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) A Bill to this effect cannot be
137. Which one of the following introduced in the Parliament 145. Consider the following statement(s)
statement(s) about Electoral except on the recommendation of 1. The President of India shall have
Government in India is not the President the power to appoint and remove
correct? (c) A Bill to this effect may be the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
(a) The superintendence, direction referred by the President to the 2. The Speaker has to discharge the
and control of elections are legislature of the affected state functions of his office himself
vested in the Election throughout his term and cannot
(d) Such a law will fall under the
Commission of India
purview of Article 368 delegate his functions to the
(b) There is one general electoral roll Deputy Speaker during his
for every territorial constituency 142. Which of the following absence from the station or
(c) The Parliament has the power to statement(s) with regard to during his illness.
make laws relating to the citizenship provisions of the Which of the statement(s) given
delimitation of constituencies Constitution of India is/are above is/are correct?
(d) The Supreme Court of India has correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the authority to scrutinise the 1. No person shall be a citizen (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
validity of a law relating to of India by virtue of Article 5, 146. The Second Administrative Reforms
delimitation of constituencies or be deemed to be a citizen Commission (2005) was concerned
138. The Electronic Voting Machines of India by virtue of Article 6 with
or Article 8, if he/she has
(EVMs) are developed jointly (a) reforms in institutional arrangements
voluntarily acquired the for good governance
with citizenship of any foreign
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals (b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and
state.
Limited. the Criminal Justice System
2. The Parliament has power to (c) creating an ombudsman mechanism
2. Bharat Electronics Limited. make any provision with for reduction of corruption in public
3. Electronics Corporation of respect to the acquisition and life
India Limited. termination of citizenship and
(d) devising new measures for urban
4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam all other matters relating to
governance and management
Limited. citizenship.
Select the correct answer using Select the correct answer using 147. As per the Constitution of India, the
the codes given below. the codes given below. Writ of Prohibition relates to an
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 order
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. issued against judicial and
quasi-judicial authority.
139. The Constitution of India 143. The protection against arrest
and detention under Article 22 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from
guarantees freedom of thought proceeding in a particular case
and expression to all its citizens of the Constitution of India is where it has no jurisdiction to
subject to not available to try.
1. implementation of Directive 1. an enemy alien. 3. to restrain a person from holding
Principles. 2. a person detained under a a public office to which he is not
2. Fundamental Duties. preventive detention law. entitled.
3. Right to Equality. 3. a foreigner. Select the correct answer using the
4. an overseas citizen of India. codes given below.
Select the correct answer using (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
the codes given below. Select the correct answer using
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 the codes given below.
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 148. Who among the following Prime
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Ministers of India were defeated by
140. Which one of the following does a vote of No Confidence?
not form part of Immanuel
Kant’s theory of ‘perpetual 2016 (I) 1. Morarji Desai
2. Vishwanath Pratap Singh
peace’?
(a) Republican constitutionalism
144. Which of the following is/are 3. HD Deve Gowda
(b) Federal contract among states to
constitutional body/bodies? 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
abolish war 1. National Commission for Select the correct answer using the
(c) World government Scheduled Tribes codes given below.
(d) Transformation of individual 2. National Commission for (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
consciousness Women (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
1004 CDS Pathfinder

149. Which of the following 153. Which of the following 156. In which one of the following cases,
statement(s) regarding Rajya statement(s) about the constitutional validity of the
Sabha is/are correct? Comptroller and Auditor Muslim Women (Protection of Rights
1. The maximum permissible General of India (CAG) is/are of Divorce) Act, 1986, was upheld by
strength of Rajya Sabha is correct? the Supreme Court of India?
250. 1. The CAG will hold office for (a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan vs Shah
2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members a period of 6 years from the Bano Begum
are elected indirectly from the date he assumes the office. (b) Danial Latifi vs Union of India
States and Union Territories. He shall vacate office on (c) Mary Roy vs State of Kerala
3. It shares legislative powers attaining the age of 65 (d) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India
equally with Lok Sabha in years, if earlier than the
expiry of the 6 years term. 157. Which of the following statement(s)
matters such as creation of
All India Services. 2. The powers of CAG are with regard to preventive detention
derived from the in India is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using Constitution of India.
the codes given below. 1. The detenue has no rights other
3. The CAG is a multi-member than those mentioned in Clauses
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 body appointed by the
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 (4) and (5) of Article 22 of
President of India in Constitution of India.
150. Which of the following consultation with the Prime
Minister and the Council of 2. The detenue has a right to
statements relating to the office Ministers. challenge the detention order on
of the President of India are the ground that he was already in
4. The CAG may be removed jail when the detention order was
correct? by the President only on an passed.
1. The President has the power address from both Houses of 3. The detenue can claim bail on the
to grant pardon to a criminal Parliament, on the grounds ground that he has been in prison
in special cases. of proved misbehaviour or beyond twenty-four hours without
2. The President can promulgate incapacity. an order of the Magistrate.
ordinances even when the Select the correct answer using Select the correct answer using the
Parliament is in session. the codes given below. codes given below.
3. The President can dissolve (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
the Rajya Sabha during (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
emergency.
4. The President has the power 154. In which one of the following 158. A Member of Lok Sabha does not
to nominate two members in judgements of the become disqualified to continue as a
the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Constitutional Bench of the Member of the House if the member
Indian community. Supreme Court of India, the (a) voluntarily gives up his/her membership
Select the correct answer using ‘rarest of rare’ principle in the of the political party from which he/she
the codes given below. award of death penalty was was elected
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 first laid down? (b) is expelled by the political party from
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) Bachan Singh vs State of which he/she had been elected to the
Punjab (1980) House
151. Which of the statement(s) given (b) Gopalanachari vs State of (c) joins a political party after being
below is/are correct? Kerala (1980) elected as an independent candidate
1. The ideal of a common civil (c) Dr Upendra Baxi vs State of (d) abstains from voting contrary to the
code is set forth in Article 44 Uttar Pradesh (1983) direction by his/her political party
of the Constitution of India. (d) Tukaram vs State of 159. Which one of the following language(s)
2. In certain respects, the High Maharashtra (1979) is not recognised in the Eighth
Courts in India have been Schedule to the Constitution of India?
given more extensive powers 155. Consider the following
statements about the (a) English (b) Sanskrit
than the Supreme Court. (c) Urdu (d) Nepali
3. The Supreme Court of India, President of India.
the first fully independent 1. The President has the right 160. The category of ‘Overseas Citizens of
Court for the country, was to address and send India’ was entered in the Citizenship
set-up under the Constitution message to the Council of Act of India through an amendment
of India in 1950. Ministers to elicit specific in the year
Select the correct answer using information. (a) 1986 (b) 1992 (c) 1996 (d) 2003
the codes given below. 2. The President can call for
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 information relating to 161. The Right to Education was added to
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these proposals for legislation. the Fundamental Rights in the
3. All decisions of the Council Constitution of India through the
152. Which one of the following of Ministers relating to (a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act,
Articles/Schedules in the administration of the Union 2002
Constitution of India deals with must be communicated to (b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act,
Autonomous District Councils? the President. 2005
(a) Eighth Schedule Which of the statement(s) given (c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act,
(b) Article 370 above is/are correct? 2003
(c) Sixth Schedule (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act,
(d) Article 250 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these 2011
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Polity 1005

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 a 2 a 3 b 4 c 5 a 6 a 7 d 8 b 9 d 10 b
11 d 12 b 13 d 14 b 15 c 16 c 17 b 18 a 19 b 20 a
21 a 22 d 23 b 24 c 25 d 26 d 27 a 28 d 29 c 30 b
31 d 32 c 33 c 34 d 35 a 36 d 37 b 38 a 39 d 40 a
41 d 42 b 43 a 44 d 45 b 46 a 47 a 48 c 49 a 50 a
51 d 52 a 53 a 54 a 55 d 56 a 57 d 58 b 59 b 60 c
61 d 62 a 63 a 64 d 65 c 66 a 67 c 68 c 69 d 70 c
71 d 72 d 73 b 74 c 75 c 76 d 77 b 78 b 79 c 80 b
81 c 82 a 83 a 84 d 85 d 86 b 87 b 88 c 89 b 90 d
91 d 92 d 93 c 94 d 95 d 96 b 97 b 98 c 99 d 100 b
101 b 102 b 103 b 104 d 105 b 106 a 107 c 108 c 109 c 110 d
111 d 112 b 113 b 114 b 115 c 116 c 117 d 118 c 119 c 120 c
121 d 122 b 123 d 124 d 125 a 126 b 127 d 128 b 129 c 130 b
131 c 132 c 133 a 134 c 135 d 136 b 137 a 138 d 139 a 140 b
141 b 142 d 143 c 144 b 145 c 146 c 147 d 148 c 149 b 150 c
151 b 152 c 153 c 154 b 155 c 156 c 157 c 158 a 159 a 160 d
161 c 162 b 163 d 164 c 165 b 166 b 167 d 168 a 169 c 170 d
171 b 172 b 173 b 174 b 175 c 176 b 177 a 178 b 179 b 180 a

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 c 2 d 3 d 4 b 5 d 6 b 7 d 8 b 9 c 10 b
11 b 12 c 13 b 14 a 15 d 16 b 17 c 18 c 19 d 20 c
21 c 22 d 23 a 24 a 25 d 26 d 27 c 28 a 29 d 30 a
31 d 32 b 33 b 34 a 35 b 36 d 37 c 38 a 39 c 40 d
41 b 42 d 43 c 44 a 45 b 46 b 47 c 48 b 49 d 50 c
51 c 52 a 53 b 54 b 55 d 56 d 57 c 58 b 59 b 60 c
61 b 62 d 63 a 64 b 65 a 66 c 67 d 68 c 69 b 70 d
71 a 72 b 73 b 74 b 75 b 76 d 77 c 78 d 79 a 80 a
81 b 82 d 83 d 84 c 85 b 86 b 87 c 88 d 89 b 90 a
91 a 92 d 93 c 94 b 95 d 96 c 97 c 98 a 99 b 100 b
101 c 102 c 103 a 104 c 105 d 106 c 107 b 108 d 109 b 110 b
111 c 112 b 113 d 114 a 115 a 116 b 117 d 118 c 119 c 120 d
121 b 122 c 123 c 124 a 125 a 126 b 127 a 128 d 129 b 130 b
131 b 132 a 133 d 134 a 135 b 136 a 137 d 138 b 139 d 140 d
141 d 142 c 143 a 144 a 145 d 146 a 147 a 148 d 149 a 150 b
151 d 152 c 153 a 154 a 155 d 156 b 157 b 158 b 159 a 160 d
161 a
1006 CDS Pathfinder

04
INDIAN ECONOMY

The Economy section is one of the most important sections of the CDS examination. Around 8-10 questions
are asked from this section every year. Topics from this section include Basic Economic concepts, Banking
system, Share market, Inflation and Deflation, Foreign exchanges and reserves, Some important financial
institutions, Important economic indices etc.

• Heavy population pressure and prevalence of chronic

INTRODUCTION OF INDIAN unemployment and under employment.
ECONOMY • Steadily improving rate of capital formation.
• Low capital per head and unequal distribution of
Indian economy is primarily an agricultural economy with wealth/assets.
major emphasis on service sector. Two-third of Indian people
earn their living directly or indirectly through agriculture.
Indian economy is the 7th largest economy in the world Broad Sectors of Indian Economy
measured by nominal GDP and the 3rd largest by Purchasing There are three sectors of Indian economy, which are as
Power Parity (PPP). follows
Main characteristics of Indian economy are as follows i. Primary Sector It is directly related to the extraction or
i. Agrarian Economy In an Agrarian economy, utilisation of natural resources. Agriculture, mining,
agriculture dominates in both the Gross National fishing, quarrying, dairy sector and many other such
Product (GNP) and employment. More than half of functions come under the primary sector.
India’s working population is engaged in agriculture. ii. Secondary Sector It utilises the end product of the
ii. Mixed Economy It is an economy where both public primary sector, to manufacture finished goods, through
and private sector co-exist. The nature of Indian the refinement and processing of the primary products.
economy is a mixed economy. The term was coined by Construction, manufacturing, electricity, gas and water
JM Keynes. India opted for ‘Mixed Economy’ in the supply come under the secondary sector.
industrial policy of 1948. iii. Tertiary Sector Tertiary sector generally provides
iii. Developing Economy Following features shows that services, instead of goods to other sector. It is also
‘Indian economy is a developing economy’ called as service sector. Business, transport,
• Low per capita income and occupational pattern is biased telecommunication, banking, insurance, real estate,
towards primary sector. community and personal services come under the
tertiary sector.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1007

Other Sector of Economy • According to National Income Committee (1949), “A

national income estimate measures the volume of
Quaternary Sector This sector consists of the intellectual and commodities and service turned out during a given
knowledge based abilities. Research and development, period counted without duplication”.
culture, information technology, consulting, financial
• NI = C + G + I + (X −M) + (R − P) − Depreciation −
planning, education etc come under the quaternary sector.
Indirect tax + Subsidies.
Quinary Sector This sector includes highest level of
decision-making. It includes top officials of government, Where, C = Total Consumption Expenditure
media, universities etc. G = Total Government Expenditure
I = Total Investment Expenditure
X = Export
SOCIAL AND ECONOMIC M = Import
DEVELOPMENT INDEX (R-P) = Net Factor Income from Abroad
∴ R ⇒ Received, P ⇒ Payment
Various economists have proposed different methods to
measure economic growth and development. One of the
important method is Human Development Index.
Methods of Measuring
National Income
Human Development Index (HDI) There are three types of methods, which are as follows
i. Product Method In this method, net value of final
• The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
goods and services produced in a country during a
introduced the HDI in its first Human Development Report year is obtained, which is called Total Final
(HDR), prepared under the stewardship of Mahbub-ul-Haq Product. This represents Gross Domestic Product
in 1990. (GDP).
• HDR, 1990 defined human development as the process of
ii. Income Method In this method, a total of net
widening people’s choices as well as raising the level of income earned by working people in different sectors
well-being achieved. and commercial enterprises is obtained.
Indicators of HDI iii. Consumption Method It is also called expenditure
method. Income is either spent on consumption or
Three main indicators of HDI are as follows saved. Hence, national income is the addition of total
i. Life Expectancy Index (LEI) Infant mortality is not consumption and total savings. In India, a
considered as a separate indicator in this index. Thus, life combination of production method and income
expectancy refers to life expectancy at birth, not at age one. method is used for estimating national income.
ii. Education Index (EI) This index is measured by mean of
years of schooling for adults aged 25 years and above and Estimates of National
expected years of schooling for children of school entering Income in India
age. • In 1868, the first attempt was made by Dadabhai
iii. Income Index (II) The standard of living dimension of Naoroji in his book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in
human development index is measured by gross national India’. He estimated the per capita annual income to be
income per capita. The index uses the logarithm of ` 20.
income, to reflect the diminishing importance of income
• The first scientific attempt to measure national income
with increasing GNI.
in India was made by Professor VKRV Rao in
1931-32. He divided the Indian economy into 13
Human Development Report, 2015 sectors.
In 2015 HDR, Norway, Australia and Switzerland are placed at
• In 1949, National Income Committee under the
top three positions. India ranked at 130th position with value of
Chairmanship of Professor PC Mahalanobis was
0.609 score in the medium human development category.
constituted. The other members were Professor VKRV
Rao and Professor DR Gadgil.
NATIONAL INCOME OF INDIA
• National Income (NI) is the net value of all the final goods
and services produced by its nationals during a financial
PLANNING IN INDIA
year. It is a flow concept. In India, the financial year is from Economic planning refers to the path of actions in terms
1st April to 31st March. The national income is calculated of policy measures to be followed in future, in pursuance
annually. of pre-determined objectives.
1008 CDS Pathfinder

Planning
History of Planning in NITI Aayog Parameter NITI Aayog
Commission
India • NITI Aayog or National Institution States Role State
governments are
States role was
limited to the
for Transforming India Aayog came expected to play National
• The first attempt to initiate economic
into existence on 1st January, 2015. A a more Development
planning in India was made by Sir M policy-making think-tank of significant role. Council and
Visvesvaraya, a noted engineer and government that replaces Planning annual
politician, in 1934 through his book, interaction
Commission and aims to involve during plan
‘Planned Economy for India’. states in economic policy-making. meetings.
• In 1938, National Planning • It will provide strategic and technical Member To be known as Secretaries or
Commission was set-up under the advice to the central and the state Secretary the CEO and to Member
be appointed by Secretaries were
Chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru governments. the Prime appointment
by the Indian National Congress. Minister. through the
usual process.
• Its recommendation could not be Structure under NITI
implemented because of the Aayog Part-time To have a Full Planning
Members number of Commission had
beginning of the World War II and part-time no provision for
• NITI Aayog will be headed by the
changes in the Indian political members, part-time
situation. In 1944, Bombay Plan was Prime Minister and will have a depending on members.
presented by eight leading Governing Council, comprising the need from
Chief Ministers of States and Heads time-to-time.
industrialists of Bombay.
of all the Union Territories. The
• Gandhian Plan was given by Shriman Government Council replaces the
Narayan Agarwal in this year. In
1945, People’s Plan was given by MN
earlier National Development
Council (NDC).
FIVE YEAR PLANS
Roy and in 1950, Sarvodaya Plan was
• In addition, there will also be a First Five Year Plan (1951-56)
given by Jai Prakash Narayan. A few
points of this plan were accepted by Regional Council comprising of • This was based on Harrod Domar
the government. Chief Ministers and Lieutenant model. Highest priority accorded to
Governors of Union Territories, agriculture in view of large import of
which will be mandated to develop
National Development plans that are region specific.
foodgrains and inflation.
• Target growth 2.1% and achieved
Council • The Aayog will have 7-8 full time
3.6%.
members and two well-known and
All the plans made by the Planning • Many irrigation project were initiated
accomplished part-time members,
Commission was to be approved by including the Bhakra, Hirakud and
drawn from leading research
National Development Council (NDC) Damodar Valley dams.
organisations and major universities.
first. It was constituted to build
cooperation between the states and the • Four Union Ministers, nominated by
Second Five Year Plan (1956-61)
Planning Commission for economic the Prime Minister, will also be
• Rapid industrialisation with particular
planning. It is an extra-constitutional included in ex-officio capacity.
emphasis on the development of basic
and extra-legal body.
Difference Between NITI and heavy industry, also called Nehru
Mahalanobis Plan.
Planning Commission Aayog and Planning • To increase the rate of investment
• The Planning Commission was set-up Commission from 7% to 11% of GDP. Atomic
on 15th March, 1950 under the Planning Energy Commission came into being
Chairmanship of Pt Jawaharlal Nehru. Parameter NITI Aayog and TIFR was set-up.
Commission
It was to formulate plans for the Financial To be an Enjoyed the • Targeted growth rate was 4.5% but
economic development of the country Clout advisory body, powers to achieved 4.1%.
on the basis of the available physical, or a think-tank. allocated funds
The powers to to Ministries and • Durgapur (UK), Bhilai (USSR) and
capital and human resources. allocate funds State Rourkela (Germany) steel plant was
• It was a non-statutory and might be vested Governments.
set-up with foreign help.
in the Finance
non-constitutional advisory body. Ministry.
On 1st January, 2015, Government Third Five Year Plan (1961-66)
Full-time The number of The last
of India established NITI Aayog Members full-time commission had • This is also known as Gadgil Yojana.
(National Institution for members could eight full-time
The basic goal was to make India a
Transforming India Aayog) to be fewer than members.
Planning self-reliant and self-generation
replace planning commission. Commission. economy.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1009

• To increase the national income by Sixth Five Year Plan (1980-85) • Reduction in gender gap in literacy
30% and per-capita income by 17%. and wage rates by atleast 50%.
• The emphasis was laid on greater
Targeted growth 5.6%, achieved
growth 2.8%. management, efficiency and Eleventh Five Year Plan
monitoring of various schemes.
• The situation created by Indo-Pakistan Targeted growth 5.2%, achieved (2007-2012)
conflict (1965), two successive years of growth 5.4%. • Sex ratio for age group of 0-6 years
severe drought, devaluation of to be raised to 9.35 by 2011-12 and
• Indian economy made on all round
currency by 57%, general rise in to 9.50 by 2016-17. Targeted growth
prices and erosion of resources caused progress and most of the targets
fixed by the plan was achieved. rate was 8.1% and achieved 7.9%.
delay in subsequent plan.
• As against the target of 4% growth
Annual Plan (1966-69) Seventh Five Year Plan in the agricultural sector only 3.1
• Due to unfortunate failure of the (1985-1990) was achieved.
Third Plan, the production in various • It saw the beginning of liberalisation
sectors of the economy became
Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-17)
of Indian economy.
stagnant. • This plan is based on the theme
• Average annual growth rate was
• In 1966, the Government of India ‘‘faster, sustainable and more
6.0% as against the targeted 5.0%. inclusive growth”.
declared the devaluation of rupee
with a view to increase the exports of Annual Plan (1990-92) • The paper indicates 14 key areas to
the country. be focussed by the Twelfth Five
• The Eighth Plan could not take off
• Fourth Plan was postponed and three Year Plan. Some of these are energy,
due to fast changing political transport, natural resources, rural
Annual Plan were implemented. Some situations at the centre. Therefore,
of the economists called this period transformation, health, transport,
in 1990-1991 and 1991-1992 two education and skill development.
(1966 to 1969) as plan holiday. Annual Plans were formulated.
Key Targets
Fourth Five Year Plan (1969-74)
Eighth Five Year Plan There are twelve key targets of
• Objective was growth with stability
(1992-1997) Twelfth Five Year Plan, which are as
and progressive achievement of
self-reliance. Targeted growth 5.7% • To provide a new dynamism to the follows
however, achieved growth 3.3%. economy and improve the quality of i. Real GDP growth rate-8% (down
• First 2 years of the plan were life of the common man. from earlier 8.2%).
successful with record foodgrain • Also called as Rao and Manmohan ii. Agricultural growth rate-4%.
production on account of Green Singh Model of economic iii. Manufacturing growth rate-10%.
Revolution. development. iv. Consumption poverty to be
• Also known as Ashok Rudrah Manne • Higher economic growth rate of reduced by 10%.
Model. 6.68% achieved as against the v. Employment 50 million new work
targeted 5.6%. opportunities in the non-farm
Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-1979)
sector.
• Original approach to plan was Ninth Five Year Plan
prepared by C Subramaniam, who
vi. Mean years of schooling-Increase
(1997-2002) it to 7 years by 2017.
proposed economic growth alongwith
• Emphasis on seven basic minimum vii. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)-
direct attack on poverty. Target
growth 4.4% and achieved growth services which included safe Reduce to 25 per 1000 live births.
4.8%. drinking water, universalisation of viii. Maternal Mortality Rate
• The Twenty-Point Programme was
primary education, streamining PDS (MMR)-Reduce to 1 per 1000 live
among others. births.
launched in 1975.
• Growth rate of 5.4 achieved as ix. Child (0-6) sex ratio-Raise it to
Rolling Plan (1979-80) against targeted 6.5%. 950 by 2017.
• Rolling plan (Gunnar Myrdal) was • Empowerment of women, x. Total fertility rate-Reduce it to
brought out by Janata Party SC/STs/OBCs was initiated. 2.1.
Government under Morarji Desai in xi. Gross irrigated area-Increase it
1978. Tenth Five Year Plan from 90 million hectare to 103
• The focus of the plan was (2002-2007) million hectare by 2017.
enlargement of the employment • It aimed at increasing domestic xii. Renewable energy capacity-Add
potential in agriculture and allied saving rate from 23.52%. to 29.4%. 30000 MW of new power
activities to raise the income of the Target growth of 8.1% achieved was capacity.
lowest income classes. 7.7%.
1010 CDS Pathfinder

calorie intake of 2400 calorie for rural the basis for determining poverty.
15 YEARS’ VISION
person and 2100 calorie for urban On the basis of this, it pegged
DOCUMENT
person is taken as a determining value. the total number of poor in India
The first 15 years vision document at 363 million or 29.6% of the
will come into effect from 2017-18
after the end of the Twelfth Five Poverty Estimation population which is higher than
the report of Suresh Tendulkar
Year Plan. It will be formulated with
central objective of eradication of
by Committees in Committee.
poverty. It will come alongwith 7 India State of Poverty
years National Development Agenda
which will lay down the Various economists and organisations (World Bank Report)
programmes, schemes and strategies have studied on the extent of poverty World Bank on 18th April, 2013, in
to achieve a long-term vision. The in India. Some of them are as follows its report entitled ‘Where are the Poor
long vision document (perspective i. Lakdawala Committee In and Most Poor’, observed that
plan) will comprise of 3 years September, 1989, the Planning • One-third of the global poor are in
macro economic framework. Commission constituted an Expert India and the poor in India live on
Group to consider methodological less than US$ 1.25 a day. There are
and computational aspects of around 120 crore extremely poor
estimation of proportion and
POVERTY number of poor in India. The
persons in the world today.
Between 1981-2010, the developing
Chairman of the Expert Group countries have witnessed a decline
• When a person is unable to fulfil his
was Professor DT Lakdawala. in poverty rate from 50% to 21%.
basic needs of food, clothing and
shelter, he is said to be living in ii. Tendulkar Committee • Despite development in Africa,
poverty. Report Tendulkar Committee poverty is still widespread.
• The Millennium Development Goals submitted its report in December,
(MDGs) have driven the most 2009, to the Planning
successful anti-poverty movement in Commission. In its findings, this
committee has moved away from
UNEMPLOYMENT
history and brought more than a
billion people out of extreme poverty, just calorie criterion definition to According to National Sample Survey
but their achievements have been a broader definition of poverty
Organisation (NSSO), a person who,
mixed and the world remains deeply that also includes expenditure on
health, education, clothing in owing to lack of work, had not
driven by inequality, the United worked, but either sought work
Nation’s (UN’s) final report on the addition to food. The updated
poverty estimates of the through employment exchanges,
goals has concluded.
Tendulkar Committee have intermediaries, friends or relatives or
• The world has reduced the number of
lowered the poverty line from by making applications to prospective
people living on less than $ 1.25 a day
` 32 a day to ` 28. employers or expressed his willingness
from 1.9 billion in 1990 to 836 million
in 2015. iii. SR Hashim Committee The or availability for work under the
Planning Commission had prevailing conditions of work and
• World Bank raised the international
constituted an expert group under remuneration, is considered as those
poverty line to $ 1.90 per day from the
the Chairmanship of SR Hashim seeking or available for work (or
existing $ 1.25 in October, 2015.
on 13th May, 2010, to recommend
unemployed).
detailed methodology for
Types of Poverty identification of BPL families in
The poverty has two aspects, which are as urban areas in the context of the Types of
follows
i. Absolute Poverty Low level of
Twelfth Five Year Plan. The panel
has suggested that the government
Unemployment
income, which is not sufficient to should use three-stage approach– Generally, unemployment can be
fulfil required basic minimum needs. automatic exclusion, automatic classified into two types, which are as
ii. Relative Poverty It refers to inclusion and scoring index to follows
poverty on the basis of comparison identify urban poor.
of per capita income of different iv. Rangarajan Report on 1. Voluntary
countries. Poverty The Expert Group under Unemployment
the Chairmanship of Dr C This type of unemployment is on
Measurement of Poverty Rangarajan has submitted its account of persons not interested to
A common method used to measure report on 30th June, 2014. The take the employment i.e. jobs are
poverty is based on the income or report retained consumption available, but the persons are not
consumption level. Generally, an average expenditure estimates of NSSO as interested in being employed.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1011

2. Involuntary Unemployment knowledge, education and The features of MGNREGA are as

healthcare. It will create avenues follows
It refers to a situation in which the persons
for livelihood generation and • It seeks to provide at least 100 days
are interested to work, but the jobs are not
financial inclusion through digital (150 days for tribals) of guaranteed
available. Under this, there are various payments and help bridge the
categories of unemployment wage employment in one financial
digital divide. year to at least one adult member of
• Structural Unemployment It refers to a
Deendayal Upadhyay Gram every rural household who
mismatch of job vacancies with the volunteers to do unskilled manual
supply of labour available, caused by Jyoti Yojana
work.
shifts in the structure of the economy. This scheme is designed to provide
• At least 33% of the beneficiaries are
• Disguised Unemployment This is a continuous power supply to the
entire rural India. It is one of the to be women.
situation in which more people are
flagship scheme of power ministry • Originally, it promised a wage rate
available for work than shown in the
unemployment statistics. and will facilitate 24×7 supply of of ` 100 per day. From January,
electricity. This scheme will replace 2011, wages have been linked to
• Open Unemployment It is a condition increase with Consumer Price Index
Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran
in which people have no work to do. for Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL)
Yojana (RGGVY) but features of
They are able to work and are also willing for each state.
RGGVY have been subsumed in
to work, but there is no work for them.
this scheme. Major component of • It provides time bound employment
• Seasonal Unemployment It is on this scheme includes separation of guarantee and wage payment within
account of the seasonal nature of the agriculture and non-agriculture 15 days.
productive activities i.e. some productive feeder facilitating judicious supply
activities are carried out only for certain of electricity to consumers in rural Urban Development
duration of a year. areas. Schemes
• Cyclical Unemployment This type of
unemployment is due to the recession in Sansad Adarsh Gram
Yojana The urban development schemes are as
the economy. This type of
It is a rural development and follows
unemployment is prevalent in the
developed countries. This is also known cleanliness programme broadly Heritage City Development and
as Keynesian Unemployment. focusing upon the development in Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY)
• Frictional Unemployment It occur when the villages, which includes social Union Government has launched a
a worker is shifting from one job to the development, cultural development Heritage City Development and
other. It is temporary phenomenon. and spread motivation among the Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY)
people on social mobilisation of the scheme to preserve and rejuvenate the
village community. rich cultural heritage of the country.
WELFARE The goal is to develop three Adarsh The scheme aims to preserve and
Grams by March 2019, of which revitalise soul of the heritage city to
PROGRAMMES one would be achieved by 2016. reflect the city’s unique character by
Thereafter, five such Adarsh Grams
AND SCHEMES (one per year) will be selected and
encouraging aesthetically appealing,
accessible, informative and secured
Indian state is a welfare state, which takes developed by 2024. environment.
steps to do away the human sufferings and MGNREGA AMRUT
provides an infrastructure that is condusive The National Rural Employment Under Atal Mission for Rejuvenation
to development. The Indian Government, Guarantee Act (NREGA) was and Urban Transformation (AMRUT),
since Independence, has been launching enacted in 2005. It was the government is targeting 500 cities.
various multi-dimensional social welfare implemented in three phases, It aims to transform cities and towns
programmes. starting with 200 districts on 2nd into efficient urban living spaces with
Rural Development Schemes February, 2006 to cover the whole special focus on a healthy and green
country by 2008. environment for children.
Rural development schemes are as follows On 2nd October, 2009, it was 500 cities and towns will be selected on
renamed as Mahatma Gandhi the basis of population i.e. one lakh and
Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital National Rural Employment above, while the other criteria of
Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). selection will apply for certain locations
PMGDISHA was launched on 8th October, India’s rural employment guarantee like tourist popularity, certain popular
2017. It aims at imparting digital literacy to programme MGNREGA has been hill towns and some selected islands.
citizens in rural areas free of cost. It aims ranked as the world’s largest public
to provide access to information, work programme.
1012 CDS Pathfinder

Social Security Schemes be distribute free of cost physical aids and Intensified Mission Indradhanush
assisted-living devices for senior citizens The Union Ministry of Health and
Social Security Schemes are schemes belonging to BPL category in Camp Family Welfare has launched
imposed and controlled by mode. Intensified Mission Indradhanush
government units for the purpose of Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti (IMI) on 8th October 2017 to
providing social benefits of particular Bima Yojana accelerate full immunization coverage
sections of the community. to more than 90% by December 2018.
The PMJJBY is available to people in the
The social security schemes are as Through this programme, Government
age group of 18 to 50 and having a bank
follows aims to reach each and every child
account. People who join the scheme
under two years of age and all those
Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana before completing 50 years can, however,
pregnant women who have been left
Yojana for Senior Citizens continue to have the risk of life cover
uncovered under the routine
upto the age of 55 years subject to
The Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana immunisation programme.
payment of premium. Aadhar would be
Yojana (PMVVY) was launched on the primary Know Your Customers NITI Aayog’s SATH Programme
22nd July, 2017. It is a pension (KYC) for the bank account. National Institution for Transforming
scheme exclusively for senior citizens
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima India (NITI) Aayog’s SATH
aged 60 years and above. Under this
(Sustainable Action for Transforming
scheme, senior citizens will get a Yojana Human capital) programme was
guaranteed interest of 8% for 10 Under PMSBY, the insurance subscriber launched on 22nd September 2017. The
years depending upon the investment will get annual life insurance in case of SATH programme aims to provide
made by them. accidental death, partial disability or full structured support to Assam in
Tele-Law Initiative disability. The insurance is available to identifying key health priorities and
‘Tele-Law’ Initiative was launched in any person in the age group of 18 to 70 implement the solutions towards
collaboration with the Ministry of years. For accidental death and full transforming the health and improving
Electronics and Information disability ` 2 lakh and for partial the well-being of people of state.
Technology on 12th June, 2017. The disability ` 1 lakh will be provided.
Kilkari Project
aim of this scheme is to provide legal Atal Pension Yojana
aid services to the marginalized The government launched Kilkari
The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) will (literally baby noises), a mobile voice
communities and citizens living in
focus on all citizens in the unorganised message service that delivers weekly
rural areas through the Common
sector, who join the National Pension messages to families about pregnancy,
Service Centres (CSC) at the
System (NPS) administered by the family planning, nutrition, childbirth
Panchayat level, spread across the
country. Pension Fund Regulatory and and maternal and childcare. The Bill
Development Authority (PFRDA) and and Melinda Gates Foundation has
Inclusive India Initiative who are not members of any statutory provided the mobile phone application
The conference “Inclusive India social security scheme. The minimum age for Kilkari and mobile academy; the
Initiative: Towards an Inclusive India” of joining APY is 18 years and maximum latter is a 240-minute free training
for Intellectual and Developmental age is 40 years. Therefore, minimum module for ASHAs.
Disabilities (IDDs) was launched on period of contribution by the subscriber In the first phase, the Kilkari
6th June, 2017. The initiative is under APY would be application is expected to benefit 1.84
specifically catering to persons with 20 years or more. This scheme is mainly crore pregnant women/newborns in
intellectual and developmental targeted at unorganised sector workers. Jharkhand, Odisha, Uttar Pradesh,
disabilities; with an objective to Uttarakhand and in some districts of
include these people in the Health Oriented Programmes Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
mainstream and in all important
aspects of social life. ‘Swasth Bachche, Swasth Bharat’ Mission Indradhanush
Programme Mission Indradhanush aims to achieve
Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana
full immunisation coverage for all
The Union Ministry of Social Justice This programme was launched on 22nd
August 2017. The programme will provide children by 2020. The mission aims to
and Empowerment has launched cover all those children who are either
Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana in Nellore a comprehensive and inclusive report card
for children covering all age groups and unvaccinated or are partially vaccinated
District of Andhra Pradesh on 4th against seven vaccine preventable
April, 2017. The scheme aims at children of different abilities. It will make
students, teachers and parents aware diseases including diphtheria,
providing physical aids and whooping cough, tetanus, polio,
assisted-living devices for senior about the importance of good health and
fitness and encourage 60 minutes of play tuberculosis, measles and hepatitis-B.
citizens belonging to Below Poverty
Line (BPL) category. The scheme will each day.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1013

Under the programme, 201 high focus districts in the country The beneficiaries include widows deserted by their families
having nearly 50% of all unvaccinated or partially vaccinated and relatives, women prisoners released from jail and
children have been identified and will be covered in the first without family support, women survivors of natural
phase of the mission. disasters, women victims of terrorist/extremist violence etc.
National Ayush Mission The implementing agencies are mainly NGOs. An
The basic objective of National Ayush Mission is to promote Evaluation Study conducted through Centre for Market
AYUSH medical systems through cost effective AYUSH Research and Social Development to assess the
services, strengthening of educational systems, facilitate the performance of the scheme observed that the scheme is
enforcement of quality control of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and successful for which it was formulated/implemented.
Homeopathy drugs and sustainable availability of raw materials
for drugs. It contemplates establishment of a National Mission Education Oriented Programmes
as well as corresponding missions at state level.
The education oriented programmes are as follows
Women Empowerment Programmes
“JIGYASA” – Student-Scientist connect
Empowerment of women is a major social phenomenon Programme
which requires an understanding of its multi-dimensional This programme has been launched by the government on
influence, including our family structures and units. 7th July, 2017. The programme would be implemented by
‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ Scheme (BBBP) the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) in
collaboration with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS).
Alarmed by sharp decline in child sex ratio, the government The main focus of the programme is to connect school
has introduced Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (BBBP) programme students and scientists as well as to extend student’s
in 100 gender critical districts. The overall goal of this scheme classroom learning to a very well-planned research
is to celebrate the girl child and enable her education. It aims laboratory based learning.
to prevent gender biased sex selective elimination, ensure
survival and protection of the girl child and ensure education Global Initiative of
of the girl child. The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao initiative has Academic Network Planning (GIAN)
two major components– mass communication campaign and GIAN aims at tapping the talent pool of scientists and
multi-sectoral action in 100 selected districts. entrepreneurs to engage with the institutes of higher
National Mission for education in India, to augment the country’s existing
academic resources, accelerated the pace of quality
Empowerment of Women (NMEW)
reforms, and further strengthen India’s scientific and
This mission aims to achieve holistic empowerment of women
technological capabilities.
through covergence of schemes of different
ministeries/department of Central and State Government. It Nai Manzil Scheme
aims to strengthen the conceptual and programmatic basis of Under the scheme, girls from minority communities will
women centric schemes implemented by ministry of women be imparted three-month skill development training in
and child development, other ministeries and State seven identified sectors relevant to the region. It is a
Government with the mechanism for covergence. bridge course to fill the academic and skill development
Ujjawala Scheme gaps of the deeni Madarsa passouts with their mainstream
It is a comprehensive scheme for prevention of trafficking and counterparts. It will be introduced in all Madarsas in
rescue, rehabilitation and re-integration of victims of phased manner.
trafficking for commercial sexual exploitation. The objective
of the scheme include social mobilisation and involvement of ACCREDITED SOCIAL HEALTH ACTIVISTS
local communities, awareness generation programmes, (ASHAs)
generate public discourse through workshop and seminars. ASHAs are community health workers instituted by the
Target group include women and children who are vulnerable Government of India’s Ministry of Health and Family
for trafficking for commercial sexual exploitation. Welfare (MoHFW) as a part of the National Rural Health
Mission (NRHM). The mission, begun in 2005, full
Swadhar Scheme implementation, was targeted for 2012. Once fully
The Swadhar Scheme was launched by the Union Ministry of implemented there would be an ASHA in every village in
Women and Child Development in 2002 for rehabilitation of India, a target that translates into 250000 ASHAs in
women in difficult circumstances. The scheme provides shelter, 10 states. ASHAs are local women trained to act as health
food, clothing and care to the marginalised women/girls who educators and promoters in their communities.
are in need.
1014 CDS Pathfinder

Other Programmes mission, the ministry also launched Main objectives of this scheme are as
Innovate in India (i3) program to follows
create an enabling ecosystem to – Free LPG gas connection in the
Pradhan Mantri LPG Panchayat
promote entrepreneurship and name of the female members. It
Country-wide Pradhan Mantri LPG indigenous manufacturing in the sector. will be a cylinder and regulator.
Panchayat scheme was launched on
Pravasi Kaushal Vikas Yojana – The scheme will include the rural
22nd September, 2017 to distribute LPG
connections among rural areas where (PKVY) and urban BPL family.
conventional fuel is used for domestic It is a skill development programme ` 1600 will be sent to Pradhan
purposes. It is backup scheme to launched on 9th January, 2017. It is Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana bank as
existing Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana. targeted at Indian youth seeking subsidies.
Sampoorna Bima Gram (SBG) overseas employment to make India Ujala Yojana
the Skill Capital of the World. PKVY
Yojana The UJALA scheme is being
will provide training and certify
It was launched to expand coverage of Indians who are seeking overseas implemented by Energy Efficiency
Postal Life Insurance (PLI) in a bid to employment in selected sectors that Services Limited (EESL), a joint
provide affordable life insurance services have high demand in the global labour venture of PSUs under the Union
to people particularly those living in market in line with international Ministry of Power. The scheme will
rural areas. Under SBG Yojana, at least standards. help reduce electricity bills of
one village (having a minimum of 100 consumers, contribute to the energy
households) will be identified in each of Pradhan Mantri Yuva Yojana security of India and also help in
revenue districts of country to cover all This scheme was launched to scale up environment protection. The main
households of identified village with an ecosystem of entrepreneur for motive of this policy is energy
minimum of one RPLI (Rural Postal youngsters. It will provide efficiency in the country. Consumers
Life Insurance) policy each. entrepreneurship education and can buy the bulbs from distributor by
training to over 7 lakh students in 5 showing any identification card.
Saubhagya Scheme
years through 3,050 institutes. It will
Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana provide easy access to information and
–“Saubhagya” was launched on 25th
September, 2017 with an aim at
mentor network, incubator, credit and POPULATION
accelerator and advocacy to create a
providing last mile electricity pathway for the youth. Population is the dynamic factor of an
connectivity to all rural and urban economy. The growth of an economy
households. Under the scheme, Urja Ganga Yojana is determined on the basis of
government will provide free electricity It is the highly ambitious gas pipeline development level of masses.
to all households identified under project in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. The
Socio-Economic and Caste Census gas pipeline project aims to provide
(SECC) data 2011. Piped Cooking Gas (PNG) to DEMOGRAPHY
residents of the Eastern region of • Demography is a statistical study of
Mentor India Campaign
the country and CNG gas for the human population. There are four
The National Institution for vehicles. stages of the demographic transition
Transforming India (NITI) Aayog has
launched Mentor India Campaign on Udan Scheme i. The first stage, birth and death
22nd August, 2017. It is a strategic Regional Connectivity Scheme rates are both high, population
nation building initiative to engage (RCS)-UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam growth is slow and fluctuating.
leaders for guiding and mentoring Nagrik) scheme was launched on 21st ii. In the second stage, birth rate
students at Atal Tinkering Labs. The October, 2016. It will provide remains high, death rate falls.
Mentor India Campaign aims at connectivity to un-served and Population begins to rise rapidly.
maximising the impact of Atal Tinkering under-served airports of the country. iii. In the third stage, birth rate
Labs by engaging leaders who will The primary objective of RCS is to starts to fall, death date continues
nurture and guide students in the Atal facilitate and stimulate regional air to fall. Population continues to
Tinkering Labs. connectivity by making it affordable. rise.
National Biopharma Mission Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala iv. In the fourth stage, birth and
death rates both are low.
The Union Ministry of Science & Yojana Population is steady or declining.
Technology has launched National The objective of the scheme is to It is called a stage of stationary
Biopharma Mission on 1st July 2017. It provide cooking gas connections to 5 population.
is a first ever Industry-Academia million beneficiaries below the poverty
mission to accelerate biopharmaceutical v. The period 1911-1921 is known
line in the next 3 years (till the year
development in India. Under this as the great divide in the
2019).
demographic history of India.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1015

rise constantly. But from the livelihood point of view,

Census of India about 48.9% people of India depend on agricultural sector.
We got the evidence of Census in India from Kautilya’s The sector, thus, presents challenging opportunities for the
Arthashastra. During the Mughal era, ‘Ain-e-Akbari’, written plant farmers in India, as much as these workers represent
by Abul Fazal also mentions about census. Sequential census an enormous pool of labour that can fuel labour intensive
was started by Lord Rippon in the year 1881. Since then, industrialisation over the coming decades.
after every ten years, the work of census is undertaken by the
Government of India. Green Revolution
• The introduction of high-yielding varieties of seeds after
Census of India, 2011 1965 and the increased use of fertilizers and irrigation are
• The Census 2011, was the 15th National Census of India known collectively as the Green Revolution, which
(since 1872) and 7th Census after Independence. The motto provided the increase in production needed to make India
of census 2011 was ‘Our census, Our future’. self-sufficient in foodgrains.
• Total Population - 1210.19 million • The term ‘Green Revolution’ is a general one that is
applied to successful agricultural experiments in many third
• Males - 623.7 million (51.54%)
world countries. It is not specific to India, but it was most
• Females - 586.46 million (48.46%) successful in India.
• Population of 0-6 age group - 164.4 million • There were three basic elements in the method of the
• Literacy - 74.04% Green Revolution
• Decadal Growth Rate - 17.64% i. Continued expansion of farming areas.
• Population Increase (2001-2011)- 181 million ii. Double-cropping existing farmland.
• Sex Ratio - 943 iii. Using seeds with improved yields.
• Population Density - 382
Second Green Revolution
AGRICULTURE • Second Green Revolution consist of a number of different
programmes working towards the same goals. Some of the
• Agriculture is the largest sector of the Indian economy and initiatives, which will help in this direction are as follows
has a crucial role to play in the country’s economic – Increasing crop yields in Eastern states.
development by providing food, raw materials and
– Organic farming and contract farming.
employment to a very large proportion of population,
capital for its own development and surpluses for national – Amending the Agricultural Produce Marketing

economic development. Committee (APMC) Acts.

– Investing in research to drought proof crops as well as
• This is the biggest unorganised sector of the economy
accounting for more than 90% share in total unorganised to tackle climate change.
labour force (93% of the total labour force of the economy – Use of plant breeding and biotechnology.
i.e. 39.7 crore, is employed in the unorganised sector). – Rainwater harvesting and watershed
development.
Importance of Agriculture in – Improving credit availability.
– Refocusing on land reforms.
Indian Economy – Improving soil quality and reclaiming degraded land.
Agriculture is an important sector of around Indian economy.
It is the spinal cord of the Indian economy. Around 48.9%
of labour force is working in this sector. Importance of
MAJOR AGRICULTURAL REVOLUTIONS
agriculture in Indian economy can be analysed by the Green Revolution : Cereals, wheat and leguminous
following points plants
Contribution of Agriculture in National Income White Revolution : Milk and dairy products
Agricultural sector contributes a significantly large share Silver Revolution : Egg and poultry
to the national income of India. However, it has come Yellow Revolution : Edible oil
down from as high as 56% during the 1950s to 13.7% in Blue Revolution : Fishery
2012-13 and is projected to go further down in
Pink Revolution : Prawns/Meat processing
immediate future.
Golden Revolution : Honey
Contribution of Agriculture in Employment The share of
Golden Fibre Revolution : Jute
agriculture has been falling in the country’s gross income
while industrial and service sectors’ shares have been on a Silver Fibre Revolution : Cotton
1016 CDS Pathfinder

• To ensure value addition of agricultural commodities.

National Food Security Act, 2013 • To establish a sustainable raw material supply chain for
(NFSA) each cluster.
• To facilitate induction of latest technology.
• NFSA is the biggest intervention of its kind in the world • Quality assurance through better process control and
in the realm of food security. If implemented property this capacity building.
law can improve the lives of millions in this country.
• Some of the highlights of this act are as follows Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY)
– It extends to the whole of India. Priority households The RKVY was launched in 2007-08, with an outlay of
are entitled to 5 kgs of foodgrains per person per ` 25000 crore in the Eleventh Plan for incentivising states to
enhance public investment to achieve a 4% growth rate in
month and Antyodaya households to 35 kgs per
agriculture and allied sectors. The RKVY permits taking up
household per month.
national priorities as sub-schemes allowing flexibility in
– Combined coverage of priority and Antyodaya project selection and implementation.
households will extend to 75% of the rural population
and 50% of the urban population. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana
– PDS issue prices will be 3/2/1 per kg for
(PMKSY)
rice/wheat/millets. These may be revised after 3 years. With an eye on improving farm productivity, the
government has decided to spend ` 50,000 crore over the
– For children in the age group 6 months to 6 years, an
next 5 years under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai
age-appropriate meal will be provided through the local Yojana (PMKSY). The major objective of the PMKSY is to
Anganwadi. achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field
– For children aged 6-14 years, one free mid-day meal in level expand cultivable area under assured irrigation
all government and government aided schools up to improve on farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of
class VII. water, enhance adoption of precision irrigation and other
– For children below 6 months ‘exclusive breast feeding water saving technologies.
will be promoted’.
– Every pregnant and lactating mother is entitled to a
free meal at the local Anganwadi (during pregnancy INDUSTRIES
and 6 months after) and maternity benefits of ` 6000. t
Industries constitute an important part of an economy.
Economic development of an economy is founded on the
Major Schemes of Agriculture advances made in the industrial sector. The Indian
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana Government has been trying to promote rapid industrial
growth since Independence. As a result of the various
This is the new crop damage insurance scheme that has been efforts, the industrial sector in India has grown in
approved by the Union Cabinet in January 2016. It will multifarious dimensions.
replace the existing 2 insurance schemes NAIS and Modified
NAIS. The theme of the scheme is One Nation–One Scheme.
In this, all shortcomings and weaknesses of all previous Important Industries of India
schemes were removed and incorporated with the best
features of all schemes. Iron and Steel Industry
• First Steel industry was set-up at Kulti (West Bengal)
Mega Food Park Scheme (MFPS) ‘Bengal Iron Works Company’ in 1870.
The 10th Plan scheme of food parks was renamed as the • First large scale steel plant TISCO was set-up at
Mega Food Park Scheme (MFPS) in 2008. The scheme has Jamshedpur in 1907 followed by IISCO at Burnpur in
been launched with the objective of implementing the express 1919. Both belonged to private sector.
objectives of the Vision 2015, document through creation of
• The first public sector unit was ‘Visveshvaraya Iron and
excellent infrastructure.
Steel Works’ at Bhadrawati.
At present, 13 mega food parks are at various stages of
• All these are managed by SAIL. (At present all important
implementation. 12th Plan (2012-17), has targeted to set-up
50 mega food parks during the plan period. steel plants except TISCO, are under Public Sector).
• Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) was established
Objectives of the Mega Food Park Scheme are as follows
in 1974 and was made responsible for the development
• To provide state of the art infrastructure for food
of the steel industry.
processing in the country on a pre-identified cluster basis.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1017

Public Sector Steel Plants • The total oil reserves in India have been estimated to
be about 13 crore tonnes. Domestic production of
Location Assistance
oil in India is much less to meet the domestic
Rourkela (Odisha) Germany
demand. India currently produces just over 32
Bhilai (Chhattisgarh) Russian Government million tonnes of crude oil against its annual demand
Durgapur (West Bengal) Britain Government of 105 million tonnes meeting only 30.5% of
Bokaro (Jharkhand) Russian Government demand from domestic resources.
Burnpur (West Bengal) Acquired by Private Sector in
1976 Core Industries
Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh) Russian Government • Eight core industries in the index of industrial
Salem (Tamil Nadu) — production consist of (with their weightage)
Vijaynagar (Karnataka) — – Cement (2.41%) – Coal (4.38%)
– Crude oil (5.22%) – Natural gas (1.71%)
Bhadrawati (Karnataka) Nationalisation of
Vishveshvarayya Iron and Steel – Electricity (10.32%) – Fertilizer (1.25%)
Limited (owned by Central and – Steel (6.68%)
State Government)
• They have a combined weight of 37.9% in overall
• Bhilai, Durgapur and Rourkela were established during the index of industrial production.
Second Five Year Plan. Bokaro was established during the
Third while the steel plants at Salem, Vijai Nagar and
Visakhapatnam were established in the Fourth Five Year Plan.
Maharatnas
• Presently India is the 5th largest steel producing country in the • In 2009, the government established the Maharatna
world, ranked behind China, Japan, US and Russia in that status, which raises a company’s investment ceiling
order. from ` 1000 crore to ` 5000 crore.
• The Maharatna firms can now decide on investments
Cotton and Textile Industry of upto 15% of their net worth in a project. In
• Oldest industry of India and employs largest number of
terms of turnover, ONGC is the largest PSU in
India.
workers. It is the largest organised and broad-based industry
which accounts for about 4% of GDP, 20% of manufacturing The six criteria for eligibility as Maharatna are as
value added and one-third of total export earnings. follows :
i. Having Navratna status.
• The first Indian modernised cotton cloth mill was established
ii. Listed on Indian stock exchange with minimum
in 1818 at Fort Gloaster near Calcutta, but this mill was not
prescribed public shareholding under SEBI
successful. The second mill named Bombay Spinning and regulations.
Weaving Company was established in 1854 at Bombay by
iii. An average annual turnover of more than ` 20000
KGN Daber. crore during the last 3 years. Earlier it was ` 25000
crore.
Cement Industry iv. An average annual net worth of more than ` 10000
• Production of cement was started in 1904 at Madras, but the crore during the last 3 years. Earlier it was ` 15000
foundation of stable Indian cement industry was laid in 1914 crore.
when the Indian Cement Company Limited started production at v. An average annual net profit after tax of more
Porbander in Gujarat. During planning period, the cement than ` 2500 crore during the last 3 years. Earlier it
industry has recorded continuous growth. India became not only was ` 5000 crore.
self-reliant at the end of Seventh Plan, but also started export of vi. Should have significant global
cement. At present, cement is the most advanced industries in the presence/international operations.
country.
• Its first modernised industrial unit was established at Rishra in
List of Maharatnas
i. Coal India Limited (CIL)
West Bengal in 1855.
ii. Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
Petroleum and Natural Gas iii. National Thermal Power Corporation Limited
(NTPCL)
• First successful oilwell was dug in India in 1889, at Digboi,
iv. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
Assam. At present a number of regions having oil reserves
(ONGCL)
have been identified and oil is being extracted in these regions.
v. Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
For exploration purpose, Oil and Natural Gas Commission
vi. Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited (BHEL)
(ONGC) was established in 1956 at Dehradun and Uttarakhand.
vii. Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)
1018 CDS Pathfinder

Navratnas Companies Act, 2013

• Navratnas was the title given originally to nine Public • This act introduces significant changes in the provisions
Sector Enterprises or PSE identified by the Government of related to governance, e-management, compliance and
India in 1997 as its crown jewels of the most prestigious enforcement, disclosure norms, auditors and mergers
PSEs, which allowed them greater autonomy to complete in and acquisitions. Also, new concepts such as one-person
the global market. company, small companies, dormant company, class
• The number of PSEs having Navratna status has now been action suits, registered valuers and corporate social
raised to 18, the most recent addition being Coal India responsibility have been included. The Act, 2013 has
Limited. introduced several new concepts and has also tried to
streamline many of the requirements by introducing
List of Navratnas new definitions.
i. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) • Dormant Company The Act, 2013 states that a
ii. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) company can be classified as dormant when it is formed
iii. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and registered under this Act, 2013 for a future project
or to hold an asset or intellectual property and has no
iv. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
significant accounting transaction.
v. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL)
• National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) The
vi. National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) Act, 2013 requires the Constitution of NFRA, which
vii. National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) has been bestowed with significant powers not only in
viii. Oil India Limited (OIL) issuing the authoritative pronouncements, but also in
ix. Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC) regulating the audit profession.
x. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (PGC) • Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) The Act,
xi. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited (REC) 2013 has bestowed legal status to SFIO.
xii. Shipping Corporation of India Limited (SCL) • Corporate Social Responsibility The Act, 2013 makes
xiii. Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited (NLCL) an effort to introduce the culture of Corporate Social
xiv. Container Corporation of India Limited (CONCOR) Responsibility (CSR). In Indian corporates by requiring
companies to formulate a corporate social responsibility
xv. Engineers India Limited (EIL)
policy and atleast incur a given minimum expenditure
xvi. National Buildings Construction Corporation Limited on social activities.
(MBCCL)
xvii. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL)
Competition Commission
Mini-ratnas of India (CCI)
CCI was established in 2003 according to the provision of
In addition, the Government created another category called
Mini-ratna. It can also enter into joint ventures, set subsidiary the Competition Act, 2002. CCI consists of a chairperson
companies and overseas offices, but with certain conditions. and 6 members appointed by the Central Government. It
is the duty of the commission to eliminate practices having
1. Category-I Mini-ratna This designation applies to adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain
PSEs that have made profits continuously for the last 3
competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure
years or earned a net profit of ` 30 crore or more in
freedom of trade in markets of India.
one of the 3 years.
These mini-ratnas are granted certain autonomy like
incurring capital expenditure without government Industrial Policies
approval upto ` 500 crore or equal to their networth, Industrial policy can be defined as a statement stating the
whichever is lower. Currently, there are 51 mini-ratna in role of government in industrial development, the position
category-I. of public and private sectors in industrialisation of the
2. Category- II Mini-ratna This category include those country, the comparative role of large and small industries.
PSEs which have made profits for the last lt enlists the rules and procedures that will monitor the
3 years continuously and should have a positive growth and pattern of industrial activity.
networth.
These mini-ratnas have autonomy to incurring the capital Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948
expenditure without government approval upto ` 300 In Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948, both public and
crore or upto 50% of their whichever is lower. private sectors were involved towards industrial
Currently, there are 14 mini-ratnas in category-II. development.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1019

Accordingly, the industries were divided Schedule C All industries not listed ‘umbrella programme’ weaving together
into four broad categories in Schedule A or B were many existing schemes under multiple
i. Exclusive Government included in the third category. ministries and departments to ensure that
Monopoly This includes These industries were left open its services are available to citizens
manufacture of arms and to the private sector. electronically.
ammunition, production and Digital Locker System aims to minimise
control of atomic energy and the New Industrial Policy, the usage of physical documents and
ownership and management of 1991 enable sharing of e-documents across
railway transport. These industries • The New Industrial Policy of 1991 agencies. Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)
were the exclusive monopoly of was at the center of economic mobile app would be used by people and
the Central Government. reforms that was launched during government organisations for achieving
ii. Government Monopoly for New the early 1990s. This policy the goals of Swachh Bharat Mission.
Units This category included coal, brought comprehensive changes in e-Sign framework would allow citizens to
iron and steel, aircraft manufacture, economic regulation in the digitally sign a document online using
ship building, manufacture of country. Aadhaar authentication. The Online
telephone, telegraphs and wireless • New industrial policy abolished all Registration System (ORS) under the
apparatus (excluding radio industrial licensing, irrespective of e-Hospital application has been
receiving sets) and mineral oils. the level of investment, except for introduced.
New undertakings in this category a short list of selected industries. Startup India - Standup India
was to be undertaken only by the Government announced its
The Startup India – Standup India
State. intention to offer a part of
initiative unveil the government’s actions
iii. Regulation This category included government shareholding in the
plans to support early stage startups.
industries of such basic importance public sector enterprises to mutual
Startup India – Standup India celebrates
like machine tools, chemicals, funds, financial institutions, general
public and the workers. the entrepreneurship spirit of country’s
fertilizers, non-ferrous metals, youth and those that are using
rubber manufactures, cement, • The 1956 Resolution had reserved
technology to change the way we solve
paper, newsprint, automobiles, 17 industries for the public sector. problems in India across industries, from
electric engineering etc which the The 1991 industrial policy reduced medicine and sports to education and the
Central Government would feel this number to 8. As of now only environment.
necessary to plan and regulate. 3 industries are reserved for
iv. Unregulated Private government.
Enterprise The industries in this
Major Schemes for
INDIAN BANKING
category were left open to the
private sector, individual as well as
Industry SYSTEM
cooperative.
Banking system is the pillar of an
Make in India
Industrial Policy Make in India compaign aims at
economic system. India’s banking system
is a stable one, under the supervision and
Resolution, 1956 reviving the job creating regulatory framework of the Reserve
The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 manufacturing sector, which is being Bank of India (RBI). In more than six
classified the entire industrial sector in seen as the key to taking the Indian decades of India’s independence, the
three schedules, which are as follows economy on a sustainable high Indian banking sector has expanded and
Schedule A ln the first category, those growth path. It aims to attract developed in multifarious dimensions.
industries were included whose foreign companies to set-up factories
in India and invest in the country’s
future development was the
exclusive responsibility of the State. infrastructure and transform the
Types of Banking
17 industries, were included in this economy from the services-driven There are three types of banking, which
category. growth model to labour-intensive are as follows
Schedule B In this category, those manufacturing-drive growth. This is
industries were included which expected to create over 10 million Core Banking
were progressively State-owned and new jobs annually. Core banking is often associated with
in which the private enterprises retail banking and many banks treat the
Digital India
would be expected only to retail customers as their core banking
Digital India aimed at transforming customers. Business is usually managed
supplement the efforts of the State.
the country into digitally empowered via the Corporate banking division of
In this category, 12 industries were
social and knowledge economy, as the institution. Core banking covers basic
included.
well as to revive the State of deposit and lending of money.
Governance in the country. It is an
1020 CDS Pathfinder

Normal core banking functions will money stock measures in India

include transaction accounts, loans, since 1970-71, which are as CURRENCY
mortgages and payments. Banks make follow • Rupee was first minted in India during
these services available across multiple the reign of Sher Shah Suri. India
• M1 ⇒ High-powered money =
channels like ATMs. It is also known as became a member of International
Core Banking Solution. Monetary base =
Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1947, and
Money with the public +
exchange value of rupee came to be
Retail Banking Reserves of banks with RBI fixed by IMF standards.
When a bank executes transactions • M1 ⇒ Money with the public • The symbol of Indian rupee (`) came
directly with consumers, rather than (currency notes and coins) + into use on 15th July, 2010. The new
corporations or other banks, then it is Demand deposits of banks (on symbol designed by D Udaya Kumar.
called Retail Banking. current and saving bank This symbol is an amalgamation of
accounts) + Other demand Devanagari ‘Ra’ and the Roman ‘R’
Narrow Banking deposits with RBI. without the stem.
It refers to very restricted form of
• M2 ⇒ M1 + Saving bank deposits
banking where banks are required to
with Post-Offices. Devaluation of
take calculated risk. It involves
mobilising large part of deposits in risk • M3 ⇒ M1 + Term deposits with Currency
free assets such as government securities. the bank. Refers to reducing value of the Indian
Banks in India partially implement • M4 ⇒ M3 + All deposits of rupee in comparison to the leading
narrow banking. currencies in the world market.
Post-Offices.
• M1 measure represents the most i. First Devaluation In June, 1949 (by
MONEY liquid form of money among 30.5%) (Finance Minister Dr John
Mathai).
• It plays an important role in our life. four money stock measures
adopted by RBI. As we proceed ii. Second Devaluation In June, 1966
Modern form of money includes paper
from M1 to M4, the liquidity gets (by 57%) (Finance Minister Sachindra
notes and coins. In India, the Reserve
reduced. In other words, M4 Chaudhary).
Bank of India (RBI) is authorised to
issue currency notes, on behalf of the possesses the lowest liquidity iii. Third Devaluation On 1st July, 1991
Government of India. among all these measures. (by 9%) (Finance Minister Dr
Manmohan Singh).
• Further, there is legal sanction behind • M3 is the most important
every currency, that implies that a component among all money
iv. Fourth Devaluation On 3rd July,
rupee cannot be refused as a means of 1991 (by 11%) (Finance Minister Dr
stock measures which is
settling transactions in India. Thus, Manmohan Singh).
generally termed as ‘Broad
rupee is the universally accepted Money’. v. The basic objective of devaluation is
means of exchange in India. to reduce deficits in balance of trade
Cheap Money Policy by making exports relatively cheap
and imports costly.
Types of Money and Dear
There are two types of money, which are Money Policy Note Issuing Authority
as follows • Cheap Money Policy is that • RBI has had the sole authority to issue
monetary policy in which loans currency notes other than ` 1 notes or
i. Legal Money The issuance of legal
and advances are made available coins and coins of smaller
currency always done under
on low interest rate and easy denominations since, its inception. ` 1
legislation by the Government or
terms to industries, businessmen notes or coins and coins of smaller
the Reserve Bank. The Reserve
and consumers. Cheap Money denomination are issued by the Central
Bank would undertake to pay the
Policy increases the inflation rate Government, but are put into
holder an equal amount. circulation through the RBI.
in the economy and it is generally
ii. Credit Money The payment is done • RBI can issue notes against the securing
adopted to get rid of deflationary
through cheque. of coins or bullion, foreign securities,
tendencies in the economy.
• On the other hand, Dear Money rupee coins, Government of India
Money Stock Policy is adopted to squeeze the securities such as bills of exchange. The
Reserve Bank has adopted Minimum
Measures in India credit utilisation facilities in the
economy. Under Dear Money
Reserve System for the note issue. Since
• On the recommendations of the 1957, it maintains gold and foreign
Policy, interest rate is increased
exchange reserves of ` 200 crore of
second working group on money which helps in controlling
which atleast ` 115 crore should be in
supply, RBI introduced a series of inflation in the economy.
gold.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1021

Printing of Securities and Minting in India • RBI provides the broad parameters within which the
banking and financial system of India functions.
Security Press Station Related by
• As the custodian of foreign reserves, RBI is responsible
Currency Notes Press Nasik Bank notes from ` 1 to
(1928) 100 for managing the investment and utilisation of the
Security Paper Hoshangabad Banks and currency
country’s foreign reserves in the best possible manner.
(Established 1967-68) notes paper • Credit control is an important tool used by RBI, a
Bank Notes Press (1974) Dewas Bank notes of major weapon of the monetary policy used to control
` 20, 50, 100 and 500 the demand and supply of money (liquidity) in the
Security Notes Printing Hyderabad Union excise duty economy.
Press (Established 1982) stamps
India Security Press
(1992)
Nasik Postal material, postal
stamps etc Methods of Credit Control
Modernised Currency Mysore (Karnataka) There are two types of methods of Credit Control
Notes Press (1995) Sarbani (West Bengal)
Coins are minted at four places viz, Mumbai, Kolkata, (i) Quantitative/General Credit Control
Hyderabad and Noida.
Quantitative credit control is used to control the volume
of credit and indirectly to control the inflationary and
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) deflationary pressures caused by expansion and
contraction of credit. The quantitative credit control
• RBI is the Central Bank of the country. It was set-up on consists of
the basis of Hilton Young Commission recommendation in
• Bank Rate It is also called the rediscount rate. It is the
April, 1935, with the enactment of RBI Act, 1934. Its first
Governor was Sir Osborne Smith. rate at which the RBI gives finance to Commercial
• The main purpose of creating RBI was to separate currency
Banks.
and credit from GOI. RBI was nationalised in 1949 and its • Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) It is the amount of funds
first Indian Governor was CD Deshmukh. The 22nd RBI that the banks are bound to keep with the RBI as a
Governor is Urijit Patel. He was appointed in September, proportion of their net demand and time liabilities.
2016. • Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) It is the ratio of
• There are 14 Directors in Central Board of Directors liquid asset, which all Commercial Banks have to keep
besides the Governor, 4 Deputy Governors and 1 in the form of cash, gold and unencumbered approved
Government official. The Headquarter of the RBI is situated securities equal to not more than 40% of their total
in Mumbai. demand and time deposits liabilities.
• Repo Rate It is the rate at which RBI lends
MONETARY POLICY COMMITTEE short-term money to the banks against securities. Repo
●
Government recently approves a six member rate injects liquidity in the market.
Monetary Policy Committee, that will set policy • Reverse Repo Rate It is the rate at which banks park
interest rates. Out of the six members, three members short-term excess liquidity with the RBI. Reverse repo
are from RBI including the governors, who would rate withdraws liquidity from the market. This is always
have a casting vote. 100 base point/ 1% less than Repo rate.
●
The other three external members in the committee • Open Market Operations (OMOs) Under OMOs,
would be appointed by the government. Besides, the when the RBI sells Government securities in the
six members, a finance ministry nominee would also
market, it withdraws money liquidity from the market
take part in the deliberations of the committee to
and thus, reduces volume of credit leading to control
convey the government’s view on policy, but he
of inflation. When it buys government securities, it
won’t have a voting right.
injects liquidity into the market and thus, increases
credit-volume leading to higher economic growth.
Role of the RBI
Following are the roles of the Reserve Bank of India
(ii) Qualitative/Selective/Direct
• RBI has the obligation to transact the banking business of
Credit Control
the union and state governments. Hence, it is banker to the Qualitative measures are used to make sure that purpose,
government. for which loan is given is not misused. It is done through
credit rationing and regulating loan to consumption etc.
1022 CDS Pathfinder

BANKING OMBUDSMAN SCHEME Scheduled Commercial Banks

● The scheme is in operation since 1995 and works under
Commercial bank is an institution that accepts deposit,
the control and supervision of the RBI. makes business loans and offer related services. They cater
● The scheme is applicable to all Commercial Banks,
to the financial requirements of industries and various
RRBs and Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks. sectors like agriculture, rural development etc. It includes
● The Banking Ombudsman currently have their offices at
public sector banks, private sector banks, foreign banks and
15 centres. regional rural banks.
● It is RBI’s Quasi Judicial Authority for resolving disputes
between Commercial Banks, primary co-operative and
Public Sector Banks
RRB’s and their customers. Public sector banks are those where a majority stake is held
by the government. It includes Nationalised banks, State
Bank of India, IDBI and Bharatiya Mahila Bank.
Basel Norms
It was in 1988 that the central banking bodies of the Nationalised Banks
developed economies agreed upon the provision of Capital • From 1st February, 1969, the government imposed social
Adequacy Ratio (CAR), also known as the Basel Accord. control on banks by introducing certain provisions in the
The accord was agreed upon at Basel, Switzerland. It Banking Regulation Act, 1949. It imposed severe
provides recommendations on banking, regulations with restrictions on the composition of the Board of Directors
regard to capital risk, market risk and operational risk. and internal management and administration of banking
companies.
Basel III Guidelines, 2015 • It also introduced restrictions on advances by banking
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released on 28th May, companies. These were intended to ensure that the bank
2015, the draft guidelines on the Net Stable Funding advances were not confined to large-scale industries and
Ratio (NSFR) under Basel III framework on liquidity big business houses, but were also directed, in due
standards of banks. proportion to other important sectors like agriculture,
• The NSFR is defined as the amount of available stable small-scale industries and exports.
funding relative to the amount of required stable funding.
• In draft guidelines released, the Central Bank said that NATIONALISED BANKS IN INDIA
banks will have to maintain Net Stable Funding Ratio 1. Allahabad Bank 11. Indian Overseas Bank
(NSFR) from January, 2018. 2. Andhra Bank 12. Oriental Bank of Commerce
• Basel III norms define the capital of the banks in different 3. Bank of Baroda 13. Punjab and Sind Bank
ways. It consider common equity and retained earnings as 4. Bank of India 14. Punjab National Bank
the predominant component of capital, but restrict the 5. Bank of Maharashtra 15. Syndicate Bank
inclusion of items such as-deferred tax assets, mortgage 6. Canara Bank 16. UCO Bank
service rights and investments in financial institutions to 7. Central Bank of India 17. Union Bank of India
not more than 15% of the common equity component. 8. Corporation Bank 18. United Bank of India
9. Dena Bank 19. Vijaya Bank
Scheduled and 10. Indian Bank

Non-scheduled Banks
• The scheduled banks are those which are enshrined in the State Bank of India
second schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. These banks have a • State Bank of India (SBI) was previously called Imperial
paid up capital and reserves of an aggregate value of not Bank of India in 1921, which was created by
less than ` 5 lakhs. amalgamation of 3 Presidency Banks viz, Bank of Bengal,
• Non-scheduled banks are those which are not included in Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras. It was nationalised
the second schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. They are also in 1955.
subject to the statutory cash reserve requirement. But State Bank’s Group
they are not required to keep them with the RBI; they
• State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur
may keep these balances with themselves.
• State Bank of Hyderabad
Scheduled banks are further divided into two banks
• State Bank of Mysore
i. Scheduled Commercial Banks
• State Bank of Patiala
ii. Scheduled Co-operative Banks
• State Bank of Travancore
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1023

Bharatiya Mahila Bank Foreign Banks

• The main objective of the bank is to focus on the banking • Foreign Banks are allowed to operate in India through
needs of women and to promote their economic branches and representative offices. A new Foreign Bank
empowerment. desirous of opening a branch in India is required to apply
• The Union Government on 12th November, 2013 to Reserve Bank of India giving relevant information
appointed Usha Anantha Subramanian as the first about its shareholders, financial position and dealings with
Chairperson and Managing Director of public sector Indian parties.
Bharatiya Mahila Bank (BMB). • CITI Bank, HSBC, Standard Chartered Banks are some
• The BMB is based on the principle of : ‘Women
examples of Foreign Banks in India.
empowerment is India’s empowerment’.
Regional Rural Banks
î The Union Cabinet, on 15th June, 2016, approved the merger
of 5 associate banks of SBI and Bharatiya Mahila Bank with • In 1976, the Parliament enacted the Regional Rural Banks
the State Bank of India. It is the first move to consolidate the Act, 1976 to provide for the incorporation, regulation and
country’s struggling public sector banks. winding up of Regional Rural Banks. The Act has been
made effective from the 26th September, 1975.
Industrial Development Bank of India • The equity of the RRBs is contributed by the Central
(IDBI) Government, concerned State Government and the
IDBI bank is an Indian government-owned financial service sponsor bank in the proportion of 50:15:35.
company. It is headquartered in Mumbai, India. In the • The objective of the RRBs is to develop the rural
group-wise classification, since 31st December, 2007, IDBI economy by providing; for the purpose of development of
Bank limited has been included in nationalised banks. agriculture, trade, commerce, industry and other
productive activities in the rural areas, credit and other
Private Sector Banks facilities, particularly to the small and marginal farmers,
All those banks where greater parts of stake or equity are agricultural labourers, artisans and small entrepreneurs and
held by the private shareholders are called as private sector for matters connected there with and incidental there to.
banks. In India, private sector banks are known with two
names; old private sector banks and new private sector banks. Scheduled Co-operative Banks
Old Private Sector Banks Co-operative banks have also played a limited, but important
The banks which were not nationalised at the time role in the banking system of the country. It can be further
of nationalisation of banks that took place during 1969 divided into two banks
and 1980 are known as the old private sector banks. These
Urban Co-operative Banks
were not nationalised, because of their small size and regional
• The UCBs are registered under the Co-operative Societies
focus.
Acts of the respective State Governments. UCBs having a
New Private Sector Banks multi-state presence are registered under the Multi-state
• The banks, which came in operation after 1991, with the Co-operative Societies Act and regulated by the Central
introduction of economic reforms and financial sector Government.
reforms are known as new private sector banks. Banking • Besides, the Reserve Bank also has regulatory and
Regulation Act was then amended in 1993, which permitted supervisory authority for bank related operations under
the entry of new private sector banks in the Indian banking
certain provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (as
sector.
applicable to Co-operative Societies).
• IDFC Bank started its operation in 2015.
• Bandhan Bank has started its operations in India from 23rd State Co-operative Banks
August, 2015. • State Co-operative Bank means the Principal co-operative
society in a state, the primary object of which is the
Top Five Private Sector Banks financing of other co-operative societies in the state.
Top five private sector banks are as follows
• ICICI Bank, 1994 Vadodara
Payment Banks
• HDFC Bank, 1994 Mumbai
RBI has issued license for establishment of 11 payment
banks. These banks are allowed to accept restricted deposits
• Axis Bank, 1994 Ahmedabad
but cannot issue loans and credit cards. Such banks operate
• Kotak Mahindra Bank, 1985 Mumbai
both current and saving accounts.
• Yes Bank, 2004 Mumbai
1024 CDS Pathfinder

Financial Institutions Major Stock Exchanges in India

Financial Institutions are an important part of the Indian The major stock exchanges in India are as follows
Financial System as they provide medium to long-term
finance to different sectors of the economy. Some of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
important financial institutions are as follows Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) is one of the oldest stock
• National Housing Bank set-up on 9th July, 1988, to exchanges in the world (since, 1875) and the oldest of Asia.
provide a sound, healthy, viable and cost effective housing The share sensex of BSE includes 30 listed companies. It has
finance system to all segments of the population. indices, viz (i) BSE 200, (ii) BSE 100, (iii) BSE 500,
• National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development (iv) SENSEX, (v) MIDCAP and (vi) SMLCAP.
(NABARD) for facilitating credit flow for promotion and
development of agriculture, small scale industries, cottage National Stock Exchange (NSE)
and village industries, handicrafts and other rural crafts. It was established in November, 1992 on the
• Industrial Finance Corporation of India Limited (IFCI) recommendation of pherwani committee. However, it
to provide financial assistance to medium and large became a full-fledged stock exchange in 1993 and
industries. commenced operations in 1994. In October 1995, it became
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) the biggest stock exchange in India. NSE share sensex
for promotion, financing and development of small scale includes 50 listed companies.
industries in the economy.
• Mudra Bank provide loans at low rates to small
Approved Stock Exchanges in India
entrepreneurs. • Vadodara Stock Exchange, Vadodara
• Coimbatore Stock Exchange, Coimbatore
Financial Market •
•
Bombay Stock Exchange, Mumbai
Over the Counter Exchange of India, Mumbai
Financial market is an important part of financial sector. It
is the market, where financial transactions take place. On
• National Stock Exchange, Mumbai
the basis of short-term and long-term transactions, such • Ahmedabad Stock Exchange, Ahmedabad
markets are classified as follows • Bangalore Stock Exchange, Bengaluru
• Bhubaneshwar Stock Exchange, Bhubaneshwar
Money Market • Calcutta Stock Exchange, Kolkata
• The cluster of financial institutions that deal in short-term • Cochin Stock Exchange, Cochin
securities and loans, gold and foreign exchange are termed • Delhi Stock Exchange, Delhi
as money market. • Guwahati Stock Exchange, Guwahati
Indian money market is broadly divided into two • Hyderabad Stock Exchange, Hyderabad
categories : • Jaipur Stock Exchange, Jaipur
i. Organised money market which includes call money • Mangalore Stock Exchange, Mangalore
market, collateral loan market, treasury bill market, • Ludhiana Stock Exchange, Ludhiana
commercial bill market, banker’s acceptance market, • Chennai Stock Exchange, Chennai
certificates of deposits market, commercial paper • Madhya Pradesh Stock Exchange, Indore
market.
• Pune Stock Exchange, Pune
ii. Unorganised money market includes unregulated • Saurastra Kutch Stock Exchange, Rajkot
non-bank financial intermediaries such as money
lenders, chit funds, nidhis etc.
Commodity Exchange
Capital Market There are six commodity exchanges in India
It is one of the most important segments of the Indian i. Multi Commodity Exchange of India Limited (MCX),
financial system. It is the market available to the companies Mumbai
for meeting their requirements of the long-term funds. These ii. National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange
are markets for buying and selling equity and debt Limited (NCDEX), Mumbai
instruments. It includes stock market. iii. Indian National Multi-Commodity Exchange (NMCE),
Mumbai
Stock Market iv. Commodity Exchange Limited (ICEX), Mumbai
A stock market, equity market or share market is the
v. ASE, Derivatives and Comodity Exchange Limited
aggregation of buyers and sellers of stocks (also called
(ASE, DCEL), Mumbai
shares). These may include securities listed on a stock
exchange as well as those only traded privately. vi. Universal Commodity Exchange (UCE), Hyderabad
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1025

Some Prominent Stock Indices of Some of the direct taxes are as follows
Famous Markets
Reforms in i. Income Tax It is the tax levied
Index Country
Insurance Sector directly on the income of the
people by the Central
Dollex, SENSEX. S&P CNX. India The reforms in the insurance sector Government.
NIFTY-FIFTY BANKEX started with the enactment of
ii. Corporate Tax It is levied on the
Dow Jones United States Insurance Regulatory and
(New York) profit of the companies or
Development Authority Act, 1999.
corporations. It is the largest source
Nikkei Japan The Act paved the way for the entry
of revenue of the Central
MID-DAX Germany of private insurance companies into
Government, covering about 18%
HANG SENG Hong Kong the insurance market and also
of the total revenue.
Constitution of Insurance Regulatory
STRAITS TIMES. SIHEX Singapore iii. Wealth Tax This tax is levied on
and Development Authority. In 1993,
KOSPI Korea Malhotra Committee was set-up to the net wealth of the individuals,
SET Thailand recommend reforms in insurance Hindu undivided family and joint
TAIEN Taiwan sector. stock companies. It is a minor
source of revenue of the
SHANGHAI COM China
Insurance Regulatory and government, primarily imposed to
NASDAQ USA reduce concentration of wealth in
Development Authority of the society.
India (IRDAI) iv. Gift Tax This tax is imposed by
INSURANCE • IRDAI was constituted on 19th the Central Government on all
Insurance has been an important part April, 2000 to protect the interest of donations and gifts over and above
of the Indian financial system. Until the holders of insurance policies and the prescribed limits to the family
recently, insurance services were to regulate, promote and ensure members. However, donation
provided by the public sector i.e. life orderly growth of the insurance given by the charitable institutions
insurance by the Life Insurance industry. The authority consists of a and companies is not covered
Corporation of India and general Chairperson, three whole-time under gift tax. This tax is basically
insurance by the General Insurance members and four part-time imposed to check the evasion of
Corporation and its four subsidiaries. members. estate duty and wealth tax.
• It provides for regulating the insurance v. Interest Tax This tax is imposed
(i) General Insurance sector, the authority has been issuing on the interest income of the
Corporation regulations covering almost the entire commercial banks on their gross
segment of insurance industry, namely; loans and advances. Presently, it is
(GIC) regulation on insurance agents, not in force in India.
Established on 1st January, 1973, It solvency margin, re-insurance,
has four subsidiary companies, which registration of insurers, obligation of
are as follows insurers to rural and social sector,
Indirect Tax
accounting procedure etc. Indirect taxes are those taxes which
i. National Insurance Company
have their primary burden or impact on
Limited, Kolkata. one person, but that person succeeds in
ii. The New India Assurance
Company Limited, Mumbai.
TAX STRUCTURE shifting his burden on to others.

iii. The Oriental and Insurance Tax is a compulsory payment by the Direct Tax Indirect Tax
Company Limited, citizens to the government to meet the Personal Income Tax Excise Duty
New Delhi. public expenditure. It is legally
Corporation Tax Custom Duty
imposed by the government on the
iv. United India Fire and General taxpayer and in no case taxpayer can Wealth Tax Sales Tax
Insurance Company Limited, deny to pay taxes to the government. Gift Tax Service Tax
Chennai.
Tax can be direct or indirect, which Land Revenue Value Added Tax

(ii) Life Insurance are as follows Profession Tax Passenger Tax

Corporation (LIC) Stamp Duty and Entertainment Tax

• Established on 1st September, 1956.

Direct Tax Registration Charges
Securities Electricity Duty
A direct tax is that tax, which is borne Transaction Tax
• Head office Mumbai, Zonal offices 7 by the person on whom it is levied. A Banking Cash Motor Vehicles Tax
(Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, direct tax cannot be shifted to other Transaction Tax
Kanpur, Hyderabad and Bhopal). person.
1026 CDS Pathfinder

C. Apart from taxes levied and which runs from 1st April to
Goods and Services collected by the state the 31st March.
Tax (GST) Constitution has provided for
the revenues for certain taxes
• In the Constitution of India the term
Budget is nowhere used. It is rather
Goods and Services Tax is a
on the Union List to be mentioned as Annual Financial
comprehensive indirect tax on
allotted, partly or wholly to statement under Article 112
manufacture, sale and consumption of
the states. comprising the revenue capital
goods and services throughout India,
budget and also the estimates for the
to replace taxes levied by the Central Finance Commission next fiscal year called Budget
and State Governments. Goods and Estimates.
Finance Commission is constituted to
services tax would be levied and define financial relations between the
collected at each stage of sale or
purchase of goods or services based
Centre and the States. Under the
provision of Article 280 of the
FRBM Act, 2003
on the input tax credit method. Constitution, the President appoints a The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
• Central Taxes Replaced by GST Finance Commission for the specific Management Act (FRBM), 2003 is an
Central Excise Duty, Additional purpose of devolution of non-plan act of the Parliament of India to
Duties of Excise and Customs, revenue resources. KC Niyogi was the institutionalise financial discipline,
Special Additional Duty of customs chairman of first finance commission. reduce India’s fiscal deficit, improve
(SAD), Service Tax and Cesses and The 14th Finance Commission was macro-economic management and the
Surcharges on Supply of Goods and headed by YV Reddy. overall management of the public
Services. funds by moving towards a balanced
Recommendations of 14th budget.
• State Taxes Subsumed in the GST
VAT, Central Sales Tax, Purchase Finance Commission Objectives
Tax, Luxury Tax, Entry Tax, • Devolution of Taxes to States The
Entertainment Tax, Taxes on The main objectives of the act are as
share of taxes of the centre to states follows
Advertisements, Lotteries, Betting, is recommended to be increased
Gambling and State Cesses and from 32% to 42%. 1. To introduce transparent fiscal
Surcharges. management systems in the
• Fiscal Deficit Fiscal deficit of states
country.
should be aimed at 3% of the Gross
Financial Relations State Domestic Product (GSDP) 2. To introduce a more equitable
during the period 2015 to 2020. and manageable distribution of
Between the country’s debts over the
• Compensation to States for GST
years.
Centre and States An autonomous and independent
3. To aim for fiscal stability for
• Article 264 and Article 293 explain Goods and Services Tax (GST)
compensation fund is to be set-up in India in the long run.
the financial relations between the
Union and State Governments. order to facilitate compensation to
Although states have been assigned
certain taxes, which are levied and
states. Revenue compensation to
states for the GST should be for
INFLATION
collected by them, they also have a 5 years. It is that state in which the prices of
share in the revenue of certain • Amendments to FRBM Act The goods and services rise on the one hand
union taxes and there are certain FRBM Act, 2003 should be and value of money falls on the other.
other taxes, which are levied and amended, to remove the definition of When money circulation exceeds the
collected by the Central effective revenue. production of goods and services, the
Government, but whole proceeds state of inflation takes place in the
are transferred to the states. economy.
• The Constitution provides
residuary powers to the centre. It
UNION BUDGET
makes a clear division of fiscal • The budget is an extension account Types of Inflation
powers between the Central and of the governments finances, in
Four types of inflation are as follows
the State Governments. which revenues from all sources and
expenses of all activities undertaken i. Demand Pull Inflation Inflation
A. List I of 7th Schedule of the created and sustained by excess of
are aggregated.
Constitution enlists the Union aggregate demand for goods and
Taxes. • The Finance Minister presents the
Union Budget every year in the services over the aggregate
B. List II of 7th Schedule enlists supply. In other words, demand
the taxes, which are within the Parliament that contains the
Government of India’s revenue and pull inflation takes place when
jurisdiction of the states increase in production lags behind
expenditure for one fiscal year,
the increase in money supply.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1027

ii. Cost Push Inflation Inflation which of CPI after 2015 revision has been
is created and sustained by increase in changed to 2012. CSO compile CPI Balance of Trade (BoT)
cost of production which is for urban and rural population The difference between a nation’s
independent of the state of demand separately. It also publish combined imports of goods and services and its
(e.g. trade unions can bargain for CPI (Urban+Rural). exports of them is known as Balance of
higher wages and hence, contribute to Trade.
inflation). DEFLATION • It is the most important element of
iii. Stagflation In this type, there is the Balance of Payments.
It is that state in which the value of
fall in the output and employment
money rises and the price of goods • There are three possibilities in the
levels. Due to various pressures, the
and services falls. Balance of Trade (BoT), which are as
entrepreneurs have to raise the price
The state of deflation may appear in follow
to maintain their margin of profit.
the economy due to the following – Balanced BoT i.e. Exports
But as they only partially succeed in
raising the prices, they are faced reasons = Imports
with a situation of declining output • When the government withdraws – Adverse BoT i.e. Exports
and investment. Thus, on one side money from circulation. < Imports
there is a rise in the general price • When government imposes heavy – Favourable BoT i.e. Exports
level and on the other side, there is direct taxes or takes heavy loans > Imports
a fall in the output and employment. from the public (voluntary or
compulsory or both).
iv. Hyper Inflation It is very rapid • When the Central Bank sells the
Balance of Payment
growth in the rate of inflation in securities in open market (which (BoP)
which money loses its value to the reduces the quantity of money in
point where alternative mediums of The Balance of Payment (BoP) of
circulation).
exchanges-such as barter or foreign country is the record of all economic
• When the Central Bank increases
currency are commonly used. Also transactions between the residents of a
the bank rate (which curtails the country and the rest of the world in
called Galloping Inflation. quantity of credit in the economy). particular period (over a quarter of a year
Measurement of Inflation Measures to Check or more commonly over a year). These
transactions are made by individuals,
• Inflation is measured by general price Deflation firms and government bodies.
index. General price index measures • To increase money supply.
the changes in average prices of goods It is divided into the following two
• To promote credit creation by the
and services. A base year is selected accounts :
banks.
and its index is assumed as 100 and on • Curtailment in taxes so as to Current Account
this basis price index for the current increase the purchasing power of
year is calculated. Current account of Balance of Payment
people. consist of all transactions relating to
• If the index of the current year is • To increase the public expenditure goods, services and income. It is
below 100, it indicates the state of and to increase the employment functionally classified into merchandise
deflation and on the contrary, if index opportunities in the economy. or visible and invisibles. Current
of the current year is above 100 it • To increase the money supply in account deficit is the situation where
indicates the state of inflation. circulation by repayment of old payments on the current account, out of
public debts. the country are more than the payments
WHOLESALE PRICE INDEX • To provide economic subsidy by into the country. In current account
(WPI) the government to the industrial surplus there is a net inward payment
●
It measures the change in sector of the economy. into the country on the current account.
wholesale prices on weekly basis.
Capital Account
On the basis of weekly indices
average annual WPI is worked
Foreign Trade Capital account is that acount which
out. Foreign Trade is a characteristic records all such transactions between
●
Average annual wholesale prices feature of all modern economies. residents of a country and rest of the
of the base year (assumed as 100). India, since ages, has experienced a world, which causes a change in the
thriving international trade. asset or liability status of the residents
However, with the rapid economic of a country or its government.
Consumer Price Index (CPI) progress in recent years, these has Investments (FDI and FII) and
It measures changes in price level of been a shift from the traditional Borrowings, External Commercial
goods and services purchased by areas and destinations of Borrowings (ECB) are part of the
households. The base year for calculation export/import. capital account.
1028 CDS Pathfinder

Some key features of the new foreign trade policy are as

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) follows
• It is an investment in a foreign country through the – India to be made a significant participant in world
acquisition of a local company or the establishment of an trade by 2020.
operation on a new greenfield site. – Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) to
• Brownfield investment is when a company or government promote specific services for specific markets foreign
entity purchase or leases existing production facilities to trade policy.
launch a new production activity. – FTP would reduce export obligation by 25% and
• Since, 1st April, 2010 in India, Foreign Direct Investment given boost to domestic manufacturing.
(FDI) has been regulated by the consolidated FDI policy – Industrial products to be supported in major markets
issued by the Department of Industrial Policy and rates ranging from 2% to 3%.
Promotion (DIPP). – Branding companies planned to promote exports in
• This consolidation is expected to clarify India’s FDI policy sectors where India has traditional strength.
and provide for a better understanding and predictability
of the foreign investment rules among foreign investors
and sectoral regulators. INTERNATIONAL
Foreign Institutional ORGANISATIONS
Investment (FII) An International Organisation has been defined as a
forum of co-operation of Sovereign States based on
• A foreign institutional investor is one which is registered in multilateral international agreement and comprising of a
a country outside of the one in which it is investing. In relatively stable range of participants.
India, it is used to refer to companies which invest in the
country’s financial markets. Bretton Woods Conference
• In 2013, India accepted the internationally laid down The Bretton Woods Conference, officially known as the
definition of FII to remove the ambiguity between FII and United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference, was
FDI. Now, when an investor has a stake of less than 10% a gathering of delegates from 44 nations that met from 1st
in a company, it will be treated as FII and where and to 22nd July, 1944, in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, to
investor has a stake of more than 10%, it will be treated as agree upon a series of new rules for the post World War II
FDI. International Monetary System.
• FIIs may invest in securities in both the primary and The two major accomplishments of the conference were
secondary market in shares, debentures and warrants of the creation of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and
listed or unlisted companies. the International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD) also known as World Bank.
Participatory Notes
These refers to instruments issued by registered foreign World Bank
institutional investors to overseas investors who are not Since, its inception in 1944, the World Bank has expanded
registered with SEBI but wish to invest in Indian stock from a single institution to a closely associated group of
markets. five development institutions. On 1st July, 2012, Jim Yong
Kim became the 12th President of the World Bank Group.
Foreign Trade Policy (FTP), He has been appointed as a head of World Bank in 2016
for second-term.
2015-20 The world bank is a vital source of financial and technical
• The new five years Foreign Trade Policy, 2015-20 provides assistance to developing countries around the world. It
a framework for increasing exports of goods and services aims to end extreme poverty and at the same time promote
as well as generation of employment and increasing value shared prosperity.
addition in the country in keeping with the ‘Make in India’
vision. The focus of the new policy is to support both the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
manufacturing and services sectors, with special emphasis The IMF came into formal existence in December, 1945,
on improving case of doing business. when its first 29 member countries signed its Article of
• The government is pitching India as a friendly destination Agreement. It began operations on 1st March, 1947. At
for manufacturing and exporting goods. present, 189 nations are Members of IMF.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1029

India is a founder Member of the IMF. International Labour Organisation of the

Finance Minister of India is the
ex-officio Governor on the Board of Organisation (ILO) Petroleum Exporting
Governors of the IMF, which is the The International Labour Organisation Countries (OPECs)
highest decision making body of the emerged with the League of Nations The headquarter of OPECs is located in
IMF. RBI Governor is the alternate from the Treaty of Versailles in 1919.
Vienna and it has
Governor at the IMF. The IMF’s It was founded to give expression to
12 members and it was established in
primary purpose is to ensure the the growing concern for social reform
after World War I and the conviction 1960. OPEC nations account for
stability of the International Monetary
that any reform had to be conducted at two-third of the world’s oil reserves
System—the system of exchange rates
and international payments that enables an international level. and 33.3% of the world’s oil
countries (and their citizens) to transact production.
The ILO has generated such hallmarks
with one another. of industrial society as the eight-hour The main objective is determination of
working day, maternity protection, the best means for safeguarding the
World Trade Organisation child labour laws and a range of organisation’s interests, individually and
policies, which promote workplace collectively. It pursues ways and means
(W TO) of ensuring the stabilisation of prices in
The WTO commenced under the safety and peaceful industrial relations.
international oil markets with a view to
Marrakesh Agreement in 1995 and Established on 11th April, 1919 eliminate harmful and unnecessary
replaced GATT. It deals with the fluctuations.
global rules of trade between nations, Associated with UNO 14th December,
1946
helps producers of goods and services, BRICS
exporters and importers conduct their Headquarters Geneva
In economics, BRICS (Brazil, Russia,
business. The WTO’s agreement on Membership 187 India, China,
Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Director-General Guy Ryder (2012-17) South Africa) is an acronym that refer to
Property Right (TRIPS), was negotiated in
Noble Peace Prize 1969 countries Brazil, Russia, India, China
1986-94 Uruguay round. Rules related to
and South Africa which are all deemed
trade, tariff, patent and intellecutual
property right are framed by the WTO. Asian Development Bank to be at similar stage of newly advanced
The members of the World Trade economic development.
(ADB)
Organisation (WTO) agree to accord
MFN status to each other.
The Asian Development Bank was New Development Bank
established following the (NDB)
recommendations of the United Nations
Economic and Social Commission for The New Development Bank, formerly
TRIPS (TRADE RELATED
Asia and the Pacific. It was formed to referred to as the BRICS Development
ASPECTS OF INTELLECTUAL Bank, is a multilateral development
PROPERTY RIGHTS) foster economic growth and co-operation
in the region of Asia and the Pacific and bank established by the BRICS states.
●
The 1995 TRIPS Agreement to contribute to the acceleration of According to the agreement on the
provided for both product economic development of the developing NDB, “the bank shall support public or
patents and process patents.
countries of the region. private projects through loans,
Product patents are meant to
The Asian Development Bank (ADB), guarantees, equity participation and
protect the individual product,
while process patent protect the an International Partnership of 67 other financial instruments.” The bank
process used to create the member countries, was established in is headquarter in Shanghai, China. KV
product. 1966 with its headquarters at Manila, Kamath, from India, is the first elected
●
The agreement gave developing Philippines. India is a founder member. President of the NDB.
countries 10 years to enact laws
to protect intellectual property. Asia-Pacific Economic SAARC
Thus, India enacted its Patents Cooperation (APEC) South Asian Association for Regional
(Amendment) Act in 2005 to Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation or Cooperation (SAARC) is an
confirm to the agreement. organisation of South Asian nations,
APEC, is the premier forum for
●
Developed countries on the facilitating economic growth, founded in December, 1985 and
other hand had to enact laws in cooperation, trade and investment in dedicated to economic, technological,
1995 itself. Under the social and cultural development
the Asia-Pacific region. APEC is the
agreement, protection to patents emphasising collective self-reliance. Its
only Inter-governmental grouping in
had to be provided for members are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India,
the world operating on the basis of
20 years. TRIPS agreement is Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka
non-binding commitments, open
administered by WTO.
dialogue and equal respect for the views and Afghanistan.
of all participants.
1030 CDS Pathfinder

The SAARC Secretariat is based in Kathmandu, Nepal. It Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
co-ordinates and monitors implementation of activities,
The headquarter of SCO is located in Beijing, China and it
prepares for services meetings and serves as a channel of
has 6 members. It is an inter-governmental mutual-security
communication between the association and its member
organisation, which was founded in 2001, in Shanghai by the
states as well as other regional organisations.
leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan
and Uzbekistan.
SAFTA
Except for Uzbekistan, the other countries had been members
The South Asian Free Trade Area or South Asian
of the Shanghai Five, founded in 1996, after the inclusion of
Preferential Trading Arrangement is an agreement reached
Uzbekistan in 2001, the members renamed the organisation.
on 6th January, 2004 at the 12th SAARC Summit in
India has signed memorandum on accession in 2016. It is
Islamabad, Pakistan. It created a free trade area of 1.6
expected to become full member in 2017.
billion people in Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives,
Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
BIMSTEC
ASEAN The headquarter of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for
Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is
Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN) was
located in Dhaka, Bangladesh and it has 7 members
established on 8th August, 1967, in Bangkok, Thailand,
Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Thailand
with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok
and Nepal and it was established in 1997. The main objective
Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely;
is to promote multi-sectoral cooperation for economic and
Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
social progress of the Bay of Bengal region. The member
Later on Brunei Darussalam, Vietnam, Lao PDR and countries agreed to create the BIMSTEC free trade area
Myanmar and Cambodia joined the organisation making it framework agreement in order to promote international trade
10 members group. The main aim of the organisation is to and investment in the region.
accelerate economic growth, social progress and cultural
development in the region. G-8
The member of G-8 are Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan
European Union UK, USA and the Russia. On 24th March, 2014, the original
The European Union (EU) is an economic and political G-7 nations voted to effectively suspend Russia in response to
union of 28 member states that are located primarily in latter’s annexation of Crimea. However, they decided that
Europe. The European Union received the 2012 Nobel Russia might restore its membership in G-8 depending on its
Peace Prize for having ‘‘contributed to the advancement of action. The main objective of G-8 aims at discussing and
peace and reconciliation, democracy, and human rights in evolving strategies to deal with the major economic and
Europe.’’ On 1st July, 2013, Croatia became the 28th EU political international issues. There is no formal institutional
member. In 2016, UK decided to exit from EU. structure or permanent secretariat. Heads of state of member
nations and EU representatives hold meetings annually.
India, Brazil, South Africa (IBSA)
The members of IBSA are India, Brazil, South Africa and it Multilateral Summits G-20
was established in 2003. The main objective of IBSA is to It was established on 26th September, 1999, when the
promote South-South Cooperation. It aims at increasing Finance Ministers of the G-7 announced the formation of the
the trade opportunities among the three countries and G-20 in Washington DC to establish an informal mechanism
facilitating the trilateral exchange of information, for dialogue among systematically important countries,
technologies and skills to complement each other strength. including the industrialised countries and the big emerging
markets within the framework of the Bretton Woods
Indian Ocean Rim Association for Institutional System.
Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC) India is member of G-20. The main objective of G-20 is
The headquarter of IOR-ARC is located in Mauritius and promoting discussion on and study and review of policy
it has 20 members. The main objective is to promote issues among industrialised countries and big emerging
balanced growth and sustainable development of the region markets with a view to enhancing international financial
and member states, to focus on those areas of economic stability. The G-20 does not have a permanent secretariat.
cooperation, which provide maximum opportunities for The chair rotates between the members selected from
development, shared interests and mutual benefits. different five regional grouping of countries each year.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1031

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Which are the incorrect functions 5. Which of the following was 2. Promotion of investment from
of the RBI, out of the given launched by the government on foreign sources.
statements? the advice of the World Bank? 3. Promotion of export of services
1. Issuing and disbursing agency 1. New Agricultural Strategy only.
for all currency notes and 2. Food Corporation of India Which of the objectives(s) given above
coins in India. 3. Public Distribution System is/are of this act?
2. Stabilising exchange rate of 4. Agriculture Prices Commission (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
rupee. (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Select the correct answer using
3. Forwarding short-term and the codes given below. 9. Consider the following statement(s)
long-term loans to the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 1. In Third Five Year Plan growth
Government of India. (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these rate of agriculture products was
Select the correct answer using negative.
the codes give below. 6. Aadhar has huge potential for
improving operations and delivery 2. In Third Five Year Plan Indian
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
of service. Its potential application economy took the first step to
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3
in various significant public devaluate the Indian rupee after
2. Which of the following does not independence.
services delivery and social sector
come under ‘Plan expenditure’? Which of the statement(s) given
programme is immense. In this
1. Supports to the state plans above is/are correct?
and ‘grants-in-aid’ given to context, consider the following
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
them by the Government of statements.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India. 1. The UID database can be used
2. Maintenance of assets created for the authentication of 10. What is an ECO-MARK?
under plan expenditure. beneficiaries under the Public (a) A scheme for labelling pollution-free
Distribution System. industrial unit
3. Recapitalisation funds for
2. It will help in enhancing the (b) A scheme for labelling environment
public sector banks.
efficiency of social audit of friendly consumer product
Select the correct answer using (c) A cost effective production technique
programmes.
the codes given below. (d) An international certification of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 3. It will enable greater
commitment towards Eco-friendly building
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
government financing of public 11. The Mahatma Gandhi National
3. Consider the following statements health and primary healthcare. Rural Employment Guarantee Act
1. Government of India has not Which of the statements given (MGNREGA) is an Indian job
set-up any new PSU in last above are correct? guarantee scheme enacted by
3 years. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 legislation on 25th August, 2005.
2. Government now concentrates (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
on social sector and lets the Which among the following
private sector to take care of 7. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding
industrial sector. statements, related to World MGNREGA?
Bank Organisations, IBRD and 1. The scheme provides a legal
Which of the statement(s) given
IDA? guarantee for at least one
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. India use IDA funds on social hundred days of employment in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 sector. every financial year to adult
2. India use IBRD funds on member of any rural household
4. Consider the following statements infrastructure development. willing to do work.
regarding ‘plan’ and ‘non-plan 3. IBRD loans are cheaper than 2. This act was introduced with an
expenditure’. IDA loans. aim of improving the purchasing
1. Plan expenditure goes towards Select the correct answer using power of the rural people.
fulfilling the Five Year Plan.
the codes given below. 3. The law was initially called the
2. Assets created under plan (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
expenditure get their National Rural Employment
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
maintenance funds also under Guarantee Act (NREGA) but was
plan expenditure. 8. The SEZ Act 2005, has certain renamed on 2nd October, 2009.
Which of the statement(s) given objectives. In this context, Select the correct answer using the
above is/are correct? consider the following. codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Development of infrastructure (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 facilities. (c) All of these (d) None of these
1032 CDS Pathfinder

12. With reference to BRIC countries, 16. The largest of Gross Domestic (c) tax on final consumption collected at
consider the following statement(s) Product (GDP) in India comes the consumption rate
1. At present China’s GDP is (d) a special tax levied by the states on
from
more than the combined GDP products from other states
(a) agriculture and allied sectors
of all the three other countries. (b) manufacturing construction, 21. Which one of the following is correct
2. China’s population is more electricity and gas about Twelfth Five Year Plan?
than the combined population (c) service sector (a) Twelfth Five Year Plan of Indian
of any two other countries. economy is from 2011-2016
(d) defence and public administration
Which of the statement(s) given (b) Twelfth Five Year Plan aims to grow
above is/are correct? 17. Consider the following GDP at the rate of 10%
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 statement(s) about the Navratna (c) Twelfth Five Year Plan aims to sustain
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Status Industries. inclusive growth, which started in
1. Navratna was originally Eleventh Plan
13. Which one of the following (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
statements is not correct? assigned to nine Public Sector
Enterprises in 1997. 22. Consider the following statement(s)
(a) Commercial Bank reserves held by
RBI are an asset of Commercial 2. The number of PSEs having 1. NABARD is an apex institution
Banks Navratna status is now 17 handling matters concerning
(b) Commercial Banks decrease the industries. policy, planning and operating the
supply of money, when they Which of the statement(s) given field of credit for agriculture and
purchase government bonds from above is/are correct? other developmental activities in
householders or businesses (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 rural India.
(c) Actual reserves don’t necessarily (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. NABARD operates through its
exceed required reserves headquarter at Mumbai.
(d) The supply of money increases, 18. Consider the following Which of the statement(s) given
when the RBI buys government statement(s). above is/are correct?
securities from households or 1. In the last 5 years, the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
businesses
revenue from the direct taxes (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Why is Reserve Bank of India constitute more than the half 23. Which one of the following is the
(RBI) also known as Bankers’ of revenue receipt in India. objective of the Twelfth Five Year
Bank and lender of last resort? 2. The corporate tax constitute Plan of India?
(a) Reserve Bank of India maintains more than 50% of direct tax (a) Faster and inclusive growth
the security of the Commercial
revenue source of the Central (b) Faster, quick and reliable inclusive
Banks and appointment of its
Government. growth
officials.
(b) Commercial Banks need to keep Which of the statement(s) given (c) Faster, reliable and more inclusive
some amount in the custody of the above is/are correct? growth
RBI and can borrow from the RBI (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Faster, sustainable and more inclusive
at the times of need and urgency (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 growth
(c) RBI acts as an agent of the 24. In India, which of the following have
government to regulate the day-to-day 19. Consider the following Public
the highest share in the
functions of the Commercial Banks Sector Enterprises (PSEs)
disbursement of credit to agriculture
and maintains the liquidity of the 1. Steel Authority of India
and allied activities?
banks Limited (a) Commercial Bank
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’ 2. Indian Oil Corporation Limited (b) Cooperative Bank
15. With reference to the Indian 3. Oil and Natural Gas (c) Regional Rural Bank
economy, consider the following Corporation (d) Micro Finance Institutions
statements 4. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
25. Match the following
1. Agriculture, forestry and Which of the PSEs given above
List I List II
fishing. are Maharatna industries in
(Five Year Plans) (Objectives)
2. Manufacturing. India?
A. First Plan 1. Growth with social
3. Trade, hotels, transport and (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 justice
communication. (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these B. Third Plan 2. Sustainable inclusive
4. Financing, Insurance, real growth
20. Value added tax is
estate and business services. C. Fifth Plan 3. Self-reliant and
(a) an advolerum tax on domestic self-generating economy
The decreasing order of the final consumption collected at all
contribution of these sectors to the D. Twelfth Plan 4. Agriculture, irrigation
stages between production and and power projects
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at point of final sale
factor cost at constant prices (b) an advolerum tax on final Codes
(2013-14) is consumption collected at the A B C D A B C D
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2 manufacturing level (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 1, 3, 2, 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 1 3 2 4
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1033

26. Consider the following statement(s) 31. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) 3. Companies exclusively financed by
1. General Agreement on Trade is investment directly into foreign companies.
in Services is a treaty of the production in a country by a 4. Portfolio investment.
World Trade Organisation company located in another Select the correct answer using the
(WTO) that entered into force country, then which one of the codes given below.
in January, 1995. following modes is correct about (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
2. All members of the WTO are the FDI? (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
signatories to the General (a) Buying a company in the target
Agreement on Trade in
36. The sum total of incomes received for
country
Services. the services of labour, land or capital
(b) Expanding operations of an
in a country is called
Which of the statement(s) given existing business in that country
(a) Gross Domestic Product
above is/are correct? (c) Investing in the shares and stocks
of a company in the target country (b) National Income
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (c) Gross Domestic Income
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Gross National Income
27. The banks are required to 32. Consider the following
maintain a certain ratio between statement(s) 37. Mixed economy means an economy
where
their cash in the hand and total 1. Bay of Bengal Initiative for
Multi-Sectoral Technical and (a) both agriculture and industry are
assets. This is called
equally promoted by the state
(a) Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR) Economic Cooperation
(BIMSTEC) is visualised as a (b) there is co-existence of public sector
(b) Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR) along with private sector
(c) Central Bank Reserve (CBR) bridging link between ASEAN
and SAARC. (c) there is importance of small-scale
(d) Central Liquid Reserve (CLR) industries along with heavy industries
2. It was formerly known as the
28. Consider the following norms of (d) economy is controlled by military as
Bangkok Agreement.
the Mid-day Meal Scheme. well as civilian rules
Which of the statement(s) given
1. To provide a minimum of 450 38. Which of the following bodies
above is/are correct?
calories of food. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 finalises the Five Year Plan
2. To provide a minimum 12 gm (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 proposals?
of protein. (a) Planning Commission
3. To provide adequate quantities 33. Devaluation of currency by a (b) Union Cabinet
of micro-nutrients like iron, country is meant to lead to (c) National Development Council
folic acid, Vitamin-A. 1. expansion of import trade. (d) Ministry of Planning
4. To provide adequate quantities 2. promotion of import
of essential fatty acids and substitution. 39. Economic survey is published by
(a) Ministry of Finance
medicine for the common cold 3. expansion of export trade.
(b) Planning Commission
and diarrhoea. Select the correct answer using (c) Government of India
Which of the norms given above the codes given below. (d) Indian Statistical Institute
are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 4 40. The Planning Commission of India
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these 1. was set-up in 1950.
34. Consider the following action(s)
2. was a constitutional body.
29. Which one of the following factors which the government can take.
3. was an advisory body.
is taken account to calculate the 1. Devaluating the domestic
Balance of Payment (BoP) of a 4. was a government department.
currency.
country? 2. Reduction in the export Select the correct answer using the
(a) Current account subsidy. codes given below.
(b) Changes in the Foreign Exchange 3. Adopting suitable policies (a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3
Reserves which attract greater FDI and (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
(c) Errors and omissions more funds from FIIs. 41. Match the following
(d) All of the above Which of the above action can
help in reducing the current List I List II
30. Which one of the following
unemployment is also known as account deficit? A. First Plan 1. Rapid Industrialisation
search unemployment which (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 B. Second Plan 2. Community
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 Development
occurs at the time period between Programme
jobs when a worker is searching 35. Which of the following would C. Third Plan 3. Expansion of Basic
for or transitioning from one job include Foreign Direct Industries
to another? Investment in India? D. Fourth Plan 4. Minimum Needs
(a) Seasonal unemployment Programme
1. Subsidiaries of companies in
(b) Frictional unemployment E. Fifth Plan 5. Achievement of
India. Self-Reliance and
(c) Classical unemployment 2. Majority foreign equity holding Growth with Stability
(d) None of the above in Indian companies.
1034 CDS Pathfinder

Codes (c) making rupee dearer in comparison (c) the Government of India lends to the
A B C D E to some foreign currency other countries
(a) 1 2 3 4 5 (d) None of the above (d) the Reserve Bank of India gives credit
(b) 2 1 3 5 4 to commercial banks
49. Hard Currency is defined as
(c) 2 1 3 4 5 currency 57. Participatory Notes (PNs) are
(d) 2 1 4 5 3 (a) which can hardly be used for associated with which one of the
42. Match the following international transactions following?
(b) which is used in times of war (a) Consolidated Fund of India
List I List II
(c) which loses its value very fast (b) Foreign Institutional Investors
A. Year of the Great Divide 1. 1950 (d) traded in foreign exchange market (c) United Nations Development
B. Industrial Policy Resolution 2. 1921 for which demand is persistently Programme
C. Setting up of Planning 3. 1969 relative to the supply (d) Kyoto Protocol
Commission
D. Nationalisation of 14 4. 1956 50. The first bank established in 58. ‘Repo Rate’ is the rate at which
Commercial Banks India was (a) the Reserve Bank of India lends to
(a) Punjab National Bank State Government
Codes
(b) Traders Bank (b) the Intrenational aid agencies lend to
A B C D A B C D Reserve Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 4 3 1 2 (c) the Reserve Bank of India lends to
(d) Bank of Hindustan
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 3 4 2 banks
51. For regulation of the Insurance (d) the banks lend to Reserve Bank of
43. Rolling plan was designed for the
Trade in the country the India
period
(a) 1978-83 (b) 1980-85
Government has formed
(a) SEBI 59. In India, the bank NABARD does not
(c) 1985-90 (d) 1974-97 provide refinance to
(b) Reserve Bank of India
44. Which Committee’s (c) Insurance Regulatory and (a) Scheduled Commercial Banks
recommendations are being Development Authority (b) Regional Rural Banks
followed for estimating Poverty (d) General Insurance Corporation (c) Export-Import Banks
Line in India? (d) State Land Development Banks
(a) Dutt Committee
52. Which of the following is not true
about the Reserve Bank of India? 60. Open market operations of a Central
(b) Chelliah Committee
(a) It regulates the currency and credit Bank are sale and purchase of
(c) Chakravorty Committee
system of India (a) foreign currencies
(d) Lakdawala Committee
(b) It maintains the exchange value of (b) corporate securities
45. Unemployment which occurs the rupee (c) trade bills
when workers move from one job (c) Foreign exchange reserves are (d) government securities
to another job is known as kept by RBI
61. The place where bankers meet and
(a) seasonal unemployment (d) One rupee notes and coins are
issued by RBI
settle their mutual claims and
(b) frictional unemployment
accounts is known as
(c) cyclical unemployment 53. When was the Reserve Bank of (a) treasury (b) clearing house
(d) technological unemployment India taken over by the (c) collection centre (d) dumping ground
46. The type of unemployment mostly Government?
(a) 1945 (b) 1948
62. Consider the following statement(s)
found in India can be characterised 1. Scheduled Banks are those Banks
as (c) 1952 (d) 1956
which are included in the second
(a) structural (b) frictional 54. What are gilt-edged securities? schedule of the RBI Act, 1934.
(c) cyclical (d) disguised (a) Securities issued by multinationals 2. There are 15 non-scheduled
47. Which of the following group of (b) Securities issued by the commercial banks operating in the
states has the largest government
country.
concentration of rural poor and (c) Securities issued by the private
sectors 3. Cooperative banks are organised
people living below the poverty and managed on the principle
line? (d) Securities issued by the joint
venture companies self help and mutual help.
(a) Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa
Which of the statement(s) given
(b) Goa, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra 55. Among the following, which one is
above is/are correct?
(c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa not a credit rating agency
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(d) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil operating in India? (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Nadu (a) CRISIL (b) ICRA
(c) Dow Jones (d) CARE 63. If the Cash Reserve Ratio is lowered
48. ‘Devaluation’ means
by the Central Bank, what will be its
(a) converting rupee into gold 56. Bank rate is the rate at which
effect on credit creation?
(b) lowering of the value of one (a) a bank lends of the public
(a) Decrease (b) Increase
currency in comparison of some (b) the Reserve Bank of India lends to
(c) No change (d) None of these
foreign currency the public
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1035

64. The main function of the Exim Which of the statements given 75. Which among the following
Bank is are correct? formulates Fiscal Policy?
(a) to help RBI in the regulation of (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) RBI
foreign exchange (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (b) Finance Ministry
(b) to prevent unlicensed transaction (c) SEBI
69. The standard of living in a (d) Planning Commission
(c) to promote exports and curtail
imports
country is represented by its
(a) National Income 76. What is ‘recession’?
(d) to conserve foreign exchange
(b) Per Capita Income (a) Rise is the cost of production,
65. Which of the following are the (c) Poverty Ratio especially because of wage increase
functions of the Central Bank of (d) Unemployment Rate (b) increase in money supply without a
India? matching increase in production
70. Which is the best measure of (c) Reduction in production and
1. Regulation of currency and economic growth of a country?
flow of credit system. employment for want of sufficient
(a) GNP (b) GDP demand for goods
2. Maintaining exchange value of (c) Net revenue (d) None of these
(d) None of the above
rupee.
3. Formulating monetary policy of
71. Consider the following statements 77. Match the following
India. with regard to Statutory
List I List II
4. Supervisory powers over the
Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
1. To meet SLR, commercial A. Depression 1. Co-existence of inflation
indigenous bankers and leasing and stagnation
companies. banks can use cash only.
B. Recession 2. Recovery from depression
2. SLR is maintained by the
Select the correct answer using C. Reflation 3. Reduction in production
banks with themselves. over a short period
the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 3. SLR restricts the banks D. Stagflation 4. Insufficient demand
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these leverage in pumping more leading to idle men
money into the economy. machinery over a long time
66. Consider the following Which of the statements given 5. Reduction is level of
statement(s) economy due to falling
above are correct? prices
1. Pump-priming refers to deficit (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
financing and spending by a (c) 3 and 2 (d) All of these Codes
government on public works in A B C D A B C D
an attempt to revive economy 72. Which of the following is not true (a) 1 2 3 5 (b) 4 3 2 5
during recession counter about ‘vote-on Account’?
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
cyclical measures. (a) It is a budget presented in the
2. The example of demerit goods Parliament to cover the deficit left 78. Which committee was constituted for
include tobacco, alcohol etc. by the last budget reforms in tax structure?
(b) It does not allow the government to (a) Narsimham Committee
3. Thirteenth Finance (b) Chelliah Committee
set for the economic policies of the
Commission called the demerit (c) Gadgil Committee
new plan which starts from 1st April
goods as sin goods and wants (d) Kelkar Committee
(c) It prevents the government from
them to be harshly taxed.
imposing fresh taxes or
Which of the statement(s) given withdrawing old one
79. The area under the Special Export
above is/are correct? (d) This allows the government to
Zones (SEZs) has been declared
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3 withdraw an amount for a period ‘Foreign Teritory’. This means that
(c) All of these (d) None of these with the consent of Parliament (a) goods cannot be brought into the
domestic tariff area
67. Which bank gives long-term loans 73. Which one of the following (b) SEZ goods cannot be sold in the
of farmers? statements is correct? domestic tariff area
(a) NABARD Fiscal Responsibility and Budget (c) goods brought from the SEZ to the
(b) Land Development Bank Management Act (FRBMA) domestic tariff area are to be treated
(c) SBI concerns as ‘imported’ goods
(d) Rural banks (a) fiscal deficit (d) SEZ goods are free of excise duty
68. Consider the following statements (b) revenue deficit
80. Under the Sick Industrial Companies
1. Life Insurance Corporation of (c) Both fiscal and revenue deficit
(Special Provisions) Act, an
India is the oldest insurance (d) Neither fiscal deficit nor revenue
industrial unit is considered sick, if
company in India. deficit
1. its net worth is entirely eroded.
2. National Insurance Company 74. Who among the following Indian 2. it has eroded 50% of its peak net
Limited was nationalised in freedom fighters made an worth during any one of five
the year 1972 and made a attempt to estimate the per consequent years.
subsidiary of General capita income of India? 3. its accumulated losses exceed its
Insurance Corporation of India. (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
net worth and it has suffered
3. Headquarters of United India (b) Feroze Shah Mehta
cash losses for the current and
Insurance Company Limited (c) Surendranath Banerjee
preceding years.
are located at Chennai. (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
1036 CDS Pathfinder

4. It has eroded its net worth in 87. Which tax is collected by Codes
the course of the preceding Panchayat? (a) Both the statements are individually
three financial years. (a) Sales Tax true and Statement II is the correct
(b) Custom Duty explanation of Statement I
Select the correct answer using
(c) Land Revenue (b) Both the statements are individually
the codes given below
(d) Tax on Local fairs true, but Statement II is not the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
correct explanation of Statement I
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 88. Which one of the following (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is
81. The core sector includes countries is not a founder false
1. coal member of OPEC? (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
2. power (a) Bahrain (b) Kuwait true
(c) Iraq (d) Iran
3. petroleum 93. Match the following
4. soaps and detergent 89. Which one among the following
List I List II
Select the correct answer using statements about United Nations
(Five Year Plans) (Emphasises)
the codes given below. organs is correct?
(a) Decisions of the General Assembly A. First 1. Food security and
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
women empowerment
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 are binding on all members
B. Second 2. Heavy industries
(b) The term of the non-permanent
82. Which of the following sectors members of the Security Council is
C. Fifth 3. Agriculture and
does not come under tertiary community
for three years development
sector? (c) International Court of Justice has D. Ninth 4. Removal of poverty
(a) Transport 20 judges elected for a period of
(b) Trade five years Codes
(c) Business services (d) The Trusteeship Council has been A B C D A B C D
(d) Electricity suspended since 1st November, (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3
1994 (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
83. Which of the following committes
was assigned to recommend 90. Which one among the following 94. Consider the following statement(s)
reforms in the insurance sector? statements about South Asia is about Sinking Fund
(a) Rekhi Committee not correct? 1. It is a method of repayment of
(b) Nadkarni Committee (a) All the countries in South Asia are public debt.
(c) Malhotra Committee currently democracies 2. It is created by the government
(d) Chelliah Committee (b) SAFTA was signed at the 12th out of budgetary revenues every
SAARC Summit in Islamabad year.
84. The headquarters of
International Monetary Fund and (c) The US and China play an Which of the statement(s) given
influential role in the politics of above is/are correct?
World Bank are located at
some South Asian States (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Geneva and Montreal
(b) Geneva and Vienna (d) Bangladesh and India have (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
agreements on riverwater sharing
(c) New York and Geneva 95. Which of the following statements
and boundary disputes
(d) Washington DC are correct?
91. Which among the following 1. The global economy relied on oil
85. Which one of the following is not
statements about European for much of the 20th century as a
a member of Organisation of the
Union (EU) are correct? portable and indispensable fuel.
Petroleum Exporting Countries
1. The EU is the world’s largest 2. The immense wealth associated
(OPEC)?
economy. with oil generates political
(a) Algeria (b) Brazil
2. The EU has its own flag, struggles to control it.
(c) Ecuador (d) Nigeria
anthem and currency. 3. History of petroleum is also the
86. According to the provisions of the 3. The EU’s combined armed history of war and struggle.
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget forces are the second largest 4. Nowhere is this more obviously
Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 in the world. the case of war and struggle than
and FRBM Rules, 2004, the 4. The EU has its own in West Asia and Central
Government is under obligation Constitution. America.
to present three statements Select the correct answer using Select the correct answer using the
before the Parliament along with the codes given below. codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
the Annual Budget. Which one of
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
the following is not one of them?
(a) Macro-economic Framework 92. Statement I Deficit financing 96. India’s market regulator SEBI is on
Statement does not lead to inflation if course to relax investment norms for
(b) Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement adopted in small doses. sovereign wealth funds, the
(c) Medium-term Fiscal Policy investment vehicles which are
Statement Statement II Deficit financing directly controlled by the
(d) Statement showing Short-term is an often used tool for financing government of a country. The main
Fiscal Policy budgetary deficits. reason behind this move is
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1037

(a) the desire of the government of 100. Consider the following 104. Consider the following statements
India to attract more foreign statement(s) regarding India’s about Tata Steel
investment advocacy for a permanent seat 1. It is Asia’s first privately owned
(b) pressure by foreign governments in the United Nations Security integrated iron and steel plant.
on India to execute specific mutual
Council 2. It is the first company outside
agreements on financial services
1. India is the largest democracy Japan to get the Deming
(c) SEBI’s desire to create a more Application Prize in 2008, for
level playing field for foreign in the world.
excellence in total quality
investors 2. India is among the top five management.
(d) RBI’s relevant directives to SEBI largest growing economies in
the world. 3. Immediately after the enactment
97. Consider the following statement(s) of Provident Fund Law in India,
3. India has been the largest Tata Steel introduced provident
1. The five permanent members of contributor to the United fund for its employees.
the Security Council are the Nations Peace Keeping Forces.
4. It is the first company in the
only countries recognised as 4. India is one of the top ten
world to get Social Accountability
nuclear-weapon states under the contributors of the United
Nations Budget. 8000 certification from Social
Nuclear Non-Proliferation Accountability International, USA.
Treaty. Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
2. The term of non-permanent are correct?
members of the council is 5 (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
years. (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these
Which of the statement(s) given 101. Brent index is associated with
above is/are correct? (a) crude oil prices 105. Which one of the following crops
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) copper future prices production has been exceeding target
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) gold future prices since 2004-2005 in India, but its
(d) shipping rate index growers have been committing
98. A recent survey (by Bloomberg) suicide in large numbers in many
shows that the USA has fallen 102. Consider the following parts of the country every year?
behind emerging markets in statement(s) relating to (a) Pulse (b) Cotton
Brazil, China and India as the estimation of National Income. (c) Oilseeds (d) Wheat
preferred place to invest. Why is 1. Foreigners working in India
it so? Embassies are normal 106. Consider the following statement(s)
residents of India. with regard to Statutory Liquidity
1. Unstable economic situation of
the USA which the global 2. Foreigners working in the Ratio (SLR)
investors feel not likely to office of WHO, World Bank, 1. To meet SLR, Commercial banks
UNO etc. located in India are can use cash only.
improve in the near future.
not normal residents of India. 2. SLR is maintained by the banks
2. Global investors are finding
3. Indians working in foreign with themselves.
Brazil, China and India to be embassies in India are not
actually more amenable to normal residents of India. 3. SLR restricts the banks leverage
foreign investment. in pumping more money into the
Which of the statement(s) given economy.
Select the correct answer using above is/are correct?
the codes given below. (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
Which of the statement(s) given
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3
103. Match the following (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
99. Match the following
List I List II 107. Which one of the following Public
List I (Industrial Policies) (Salient Features) Sector Bank’s emblem, figures a
(Phases of List II
A. The Industrial 1. Began the dog and the words ‘faithful
Industrial (Features) Policy, 1948 process of
Revolution) friendly’, in it?
state-centric
(a) Punjab National Bank
A. First Phase 1. Rise of steel, economy
(b) Syndicate Bank
chemicals, B. The Industrial 2. Reaffirmed faith in
electricity industries Policy, 1956 mixed economy (c) Oriental Bank of Commerce
B. Second Phase 2. Rise of cotton mill C. The Industrial 3. Initiated (d) State Bank of India
Policy, 1980 public-private
C. Third Phase 3. Rise of steam
partnership
108. Consider the following statement(s)
engine
D. The Industrial 4. Ushered in mixed 1. The current global economic
D. Fourth Phase 4. Rise of
petrochemicals, jet Policy, 1991 economy crisis owes its genesis to the
aircraft, computers sub-prime crisis in the United
Codes States.
Codes A B C D A B C D 2. The Indian economy is showing a
A B C D A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3 faster recovery from the economic
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4 crisis than its Western
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2 counterparts.
1038 CDS Pathfinder

Which of the statement(s) given 115. Match the following Which of the statement(s) given
is/are correct? List I List II is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (Persons) (Organisations) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A. Juan Somavia 1. IAEA
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 B. Margaret Chan 2. ILO 120. The acronym SRO, being used in
C. Kemal Dervis 3. WHO the capital market for various
109. In which one of the following D. Mohamed ElBaradei 4. UNDP market participants, stands for
places was Asia’s first Export which one of the following?
Codes (a) Self Regulatory Organisations
Processing Zone (EPZ) set-up?
(a) Santa Cruz (b) Kandla A B C D A B C D (b) Small Revenue Operators
(c) Cochin (d) Surat (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) Securities Roll-back Operators
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 1 3 2 4 (d) Securities Regulatory Organisations
110. Which one among the following
states has the highest gender 116. The Eleventh Five Year Plan 121. Who among the following was the
strategy to raise agricultural first Chairman of the Planning
disparity?
(a) Odisha (b) Uttar Pradesh
output envisages which of the Commission?
(c) Haryana (d) Maharashtra following? (a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
1. Greater attention to land (b) Pt Jawaharlal Nehru
111. In which of the following years reforms. (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
was General Agreement on 2. Double the rate of growth of (d) JB Kripalani
Tariffs and Trade (GATT) irrigated area. 122. Which one of the following
absorbed into the World Trade 3. Promote animal husbandry countries is not a member of
Organisation (WTO)? and fishery. ASEAN?
(a) 1991 (b) 1995 4. Interest free credit to the (a) Brunei Darussalam
(c) 2000 (d) 2005 farmers. (b) Cambodia
112. Consider the following Select the correct answer using (c) Vietnam
statement(s) about IAEA the codes given below. (d) India
1. It was set-up as the World’s (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 123. In which of the following
Atoms for Peace organisation (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
International Organisations is
in 1957. 117. By which one of the following India a member?
2. The IAEA Secretariat is years does the Eleventh Five 1. Indian Ocean Rim Association for
headquartered at the Vienna Year Plan aim at achieving 10% Regional Cooperation.
international centre in rural tele-density in India from 2. Organisation for Economic
Vienna, Austria. Cooperation and Development.
the present 1.9%?
3. In terms of its statute, the (a) 2009 (b) 2010 Select the correct answer using the
IAEA reports annually to the (c) 2011 (d) 2012 codes given below.
UN General Assembly. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Which of the statement(s) given 118. Which one of the following (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
above is/are correct? statements regarding
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1 Monitorable Socio-Economic 124. Consider the following statement(s)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these target of the Eleventh Five Year 1. The USSR assisted in the
Plan, under the head building of the Bhilai Steel
113. International Bank for Plant.
Reconstruction and environment, is not correct?
(a) Treat all urban waste water by
2. The British assisted in the
Development is also known as building of the Bokaro Steel
(a) Credit Bank (b) Exim Bank 2011-2012 to clear river waters
Plant.
(c) World Bank (d) Asian Bank (b) Increase energy efficiency by
20 percentage points by
Which of the statement(s) given
114. Which one of the following pairs 2016-1017 above is/are correct?
is not correctly matched? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Attain WHO standards of air
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Organisation Headquarter quality in all major cities by
2011-2012 125. The World Economic Forum (WEF)
(a) International : Geneva
Labour (d) Increase forest and tree cover by India Economic Summit will be
Organisation 15 percentage points hosted by which city of India?
(b) International : London (a) New Delhi (b) Chennai
119. Consider the following (c) Kolkata (d) Mumbai
Maritime
Organisation statement(s)
(c) International : Washington DC 1. Food for Work Programme
126. Which portal has been launched by
Monetary Fund was launched in India during the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to
(d) International : New York the Tenth Five Year Plan. curb illegal money pooling by firms?
Atomic Energy (a) Tez (b) Savdhan
Agency 2. The Planning commission in (c) Chetavani (d) Sachet
India is a constitutional body.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1039

127. Which Indian company has 132. The Government of India, in 137. In terms of BASEL what does LFR
become the first-ever Indian consultation with the Reserve refer to?
quasi-sovereign to issue a Masala Bank of India (RBI), has (a) Logistic Channel Report
bond on London Stock Exchange decided to issue (b) Least Cost Routing
(LSE)? (a) 2nd Tranche of Sovereign Gold (c) Looking for Raid
(a) Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited Bonds (d) Loan to Funding Ratio
(NLC) (b) 3rd Tranche of Sovereign Gold
(b) Nuclear Power Corporation of India Bonds 138. Real time gross settlement benefits
(a) the customers
Limited (NPCIL) (c) 4th Tranche of Sovereign Gold
Bonds (b) the banks
(c) National Thermal Power Corporation
Limited (NTPC) (d) 5th Tranche of Sovereign Gold (c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited Bonds (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(BHEL) 139. The Ministry of Finance is an
133. Which of the following scheme
128. India’s first facility to produce provide the insurance coverage important ministry within the
nickel metal has been launched in and financial support to the Government of India. It concerns
which of the following states? farmers in the event of failure itself with
(a) Odisha (b) Chhattisgarh of crops and subsequent low (a) taxation
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Jharkhand crop yield? (b) financial legislation
129. What is the India’s rank in the (a) NNAIS (b) MNAIS (c) financial institutions
(c) GIC (d) LNAIS (d) All of the above
technology-driven start-ups, as
per the latest report by 134. Which of the following 140. Consider the following statement(s)
Assocham? programme launched an aim to regarding the Office of Economic
(a) 4th (b) 3rd make all national highways Advisor (OEA)
(c) 2nd (d) 5th free of railway crossings by 1. It is attached to the Ministry of
130. “NIDHI” has launched by the 2019?
Finance.
Union Government for nurturing (a) SBP
(b) UY 2. The weekly compilation and
ideas and innovation into start
(c) NUHM publication of Wholesale Price
ups. What does “NIDHI” stands
(d) NRHM Indices (WPI) is done by the
for?
135. IRDAI is an autonomous apex office of economic advisor.
(a) National Imitation for Developing
and Harnessing Innovations statutory body, which Which of the statement(s) given
(b) National Immigration for Developing regulates and develops the above is/are correct?
and Harnessing Innovations insurance industry in India. (a) Only 1
(c) National Initiative for Developing IRDAI is headquartered at (b) Only 2
and Harnessing Innovations (a) Bengaluru (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) National Implementation for (b) Mumbai (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Developing and Harnessing (c) New Delhi
Innovations 141. The concept of ‘universal banking’
(d) Hyderabad
was implemented in India on the
131. The portfolio investment by 136. Which of the following is a part recommendations of
foreign institutional investors is of capital account? (a) Abid Hussain Committee
called (a) Private capital (b) RH Khan Committee
(a) FDI (b) Banking capital (c) S Padmanabhan Committee
(b) FII (c) Official capital (d) YH Malegam Committee
(c) Balance of Payment (d) All of the above
(d) SDR
1040 CDS Pathfinder

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) 7. Which one among the following 12. In the parlance of financial
is not a clause of World Trade investment, the term bear denotes
1. Which of the following measures
should be taken when an economy Organisation? (a) an investor, who feels that the price
(a) Most favoured nation treatment of a particular security is going to fall
is going through in inflationary
pressures? (b) Lowering trade barriers with (b) an investor, who expects the price of
negotiations a particular share to rise
1. The direct taxes should be
increased. (c) Providing financial support to the (c) a shareholder, who has an interest in
countries having deficit balance a company, financially or otherwise
2. The interest rate should be
of payments (d) any lender, whether by making a loan
reduced.
(d) Discouraging unfair trade or buying a bond
3. The public spending should be
practices such as antidumping
increased.
and export subsidies
13. Consider the following statement(s)
Select the correct answer using the 1. Rural forestry aims to raise the
codes given below. 8. The basis of European Union trees on community land and on
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 began with the signing of privately owned land.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 (a) Maastricht Treaty
(b) Treaty of Paris 2. Farm forestry encourages
2. Which of the following statement(s) (c) Treaty of Rome individual farmers to plant trees
is/are correct? (d) Treaty of Lisbon on their own farmland to meet
1. NIFTY is based upon 50 firms in the domestic need of the family.
India. 9. Which of the following
2. NIFTY is governed and regulated statement(s) is/are correct? Which of the statement(s) given
by the Reserve Bank of India. 1. If a country is experiencing above is/are correct?
3. NIFTY does not trade in mutual increase in its per capita (a) Only 1
funds. GDP, its GDP must (b) Only 2
necessarily be growing. (c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
codes given below. 2. If a country is experiencing
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 negative inflation its GDP 14. Which of the following are
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 must be decreasing. responsible for the decrease of per
3. Which one among the following is not a Select the correct answer using capita holding of cultivated land in
Millennium Development Goal of the the codes given below. India?
United Nations? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
1. Low per capita income.
(a) Eradicate extreme poverty (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Rapid rate of increase of
(b) Reduce birth rate and death rate 10. Fiscal Policy in India is population.
(c) Improve maternal health formulated by 3. Practice of dividing land equally
(d) Promote gender equality (a) the Reserve Bank of India among the heirs.
(b) the Planning Commission 4. Use of traditional techniques of
4. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
relate to (c) the Finance Ministry ploughing.
(a) the World Bank (d) the Securities and Exchange Select the correct answer using the
Board of India
(b) the Reserve Bank of India codes given below.
(c) the World Trade Organisation (a) 1 and 2
(d) the International Monetary Fund 2012 (II) (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
5. When the productive capacity of the 11. Which one among the following is (d) 2, 3 and 4
economic systems of a state is an appropriate description of
inadequate to create sufficient deflation? 15. Consider the following statement(s)
number of jobs, it is called (a) It is a sudden fall in the value of 1. High growth will led to inflation.
(a) seasonal unemployment a currency against other 2. High growth will lead to
(b) structural unemployment currencies deflation.
(c) disguised unemployment (b) It is a persistent recession in the
Which of the statement(s) given
(d) cyclical unemployment economy
(c) It is a persistent fall in the
above is/are correct?
6. National income ignores general price level of goods and (a) Only 1
(a) sales of a firm services (b) Only 2
(b) salary of employees (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) It is fall in the rate of inflation
(c) exports of the IT sector over a period of time (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) sale of land
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1041

2013 (I) 20. Which of the following are 25. Human Poverty Index (HPI) developed
included in the category of by UNDP is based on which of the
16. Which one among the following is direct tax in India? following deprivations?
not a salient feature of the 1. Corporation tax 1. Income deprivation
Companies Bill as amended in 2. Tax on income 2. Literacy deprivation
the year 2012? 3. Wealth tax 3. Social services deprivation
(a) For spending the amount 4. Customs duty 4. Employment deprivation
earmarked for corporate social 5. Excise duty Select the correct answer using the codes
responsibility, the company shall
Select the correct answer using given below.
give preferences to local areas
the codes given below. (a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
where it operates
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(b) Punishment for falsely inducing a
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
person to enter into an agreement
with bank or financial institution 21. Which one among the following 2013 (II)
with a view to obtaining credit is a fixed cost to a
facilities 26. The Government of India and Reserve
manufacturing firm in the
(c) There is no limit in respect of
Bank of India have decided to introduce
short run?
companies in which a person may 1 billion pieces of ` 10 notes in
(a) Insurance on buildings
be appointed as auditor polymer/plastic on a field trial basis.
(b) Overtime payment to worker
(d) ‘Independent directors’ shall be Which of the following is/are the
(c) Cost of energy
excluded for the purpose of objectives behind this move?
(d) Cost of raw materials
computing ‘one-third of retiring 1. Increase of the lifetime of the notes.
directors’ 22. The government can influence 2. Combating counterfeiting.
private sector expenditure by 3. Reducing the cost of minting of
17. Which of the following 1. taxation currency.
institution(s) was/were asked by 2. subsidies Select the correct answer using the
the Government of India to 3. macro-economic policies codes given below.
provide official estimates of black 4. grants (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(unaccounted) money held by (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
Select the correct answer using
Indians, both in India and the codes given below.
abroad? 27. Which bank is limited to the needs of
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
agriculture and rural finance?
1. National Institute of Public (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) SBI (b) NABARD
Finance and Policy.
23. Which of the following (c) IFC (d) RBI
2. National Council of Applied
Economic Research. occupations are included under 28. The effect of a government surplus
secondary sector as per the upon the equilibrium level of NNP (Net
3. National Institute of Financial
Management. national income accounts? National Product) is substantially the
1. Manufacturing same as
Select the correct answer using
2. Construction (a) an increase in investment
the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 3. Gas and water supply (b) an increase in consumption
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these 4. Mining and quarrying (c) an increase in saving
Select the correct answer using (d) a decrease in saving
18. The concept which tries to
the codes given below. 29. The value of money varies
ascertain the actual deficit in the (a) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (a) directly with the, interest rate
revenue account after adjusting (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these (b) directly with the price level
for expenditure of capital nature
24. The sharp depreciation of (c) directly with the volume of employment
is termed as
(a) revenue deficit rupee in the Forex market in (d) inversely with the price level
(b) effective revenue deficit the year 2011 was due to 30. Corporation tax is imposed by
(c) fiscal deficit 1. flight to safety by foreign (a) State Government
(d) primary deficit investors. (b) Central Government
2. meltdown in European (c) Local Government
19. Which one among the following
markets. (d) State as well as Central Government
programmes has now been
restructured as the National 3. inflation in emerging market 31. Statement I The economy of India in
economies. the 19th century came to a state of ruin
Rural Livelihood Mission?
(a) Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar 4. lag effect of monetary policy under English East India Company.
Yojana tightening.
Select the correct answer using Statement II English East India
(b) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar
the codes given below. Company’s acquisition of Diwani right
Yojana
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 led to the miseries of the peasants and
(c) Janshree Bima Yojana
(d) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these those associated with the traditional
handicrafts industry of India.
1042 CDS Pathfinder

Codes Which of the statement(s) given Select the correct answer using the
(a) Both the statements are above is/are correct? codes given below.
individually true and Statement II (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
is the correct explanation of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Only 1 (d) All of these
Statement I
(b) Both the statements are 38. The main functioning of the 43. ‘Inclusive growth’ is a phrase used in
individually true, but Statement II banking system is to India’s
is not the correct explanation of (a) accept deposits and provide credit 1. 9th Plan 2. 10th Plan
Statement I (b) accept deposits and subsidies
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement
3. 11th Plan 4. 12th Plan
(c) provide credit and subsidies
II is false (d) accept deposits, provide credit and Select the correct answer using the
(d) Statement I is false, but subsidies codes given below:
Statement II is true (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
39. In India, the price of petroleum (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
32. The production function of a products has been deregulated
firm will change whenever mainly to 44. Corporation tax in India is levied on
(a) input price changes income of a company. Which one of
(a) reduce the burden of subsidies
(b) the firm employs more of any input the following does not include
given to the oil companies
(c) the firm increases its level of output Corporation tax?
(b) discourage the exploration of oil
(d) the relevant technology changes (a) Profit from business
reserves in the country
33. If the average total cost is (c) discourage the demand for private (b) Capital gain
declining then vehicles (c) Interest on securities
(a) the marginal cost must be less (d) curb the use of black money in the (d) Sale proceed of assets
than the average total cost economy 45. In India, contribution of food
(b) total cost must be constant
40. Which of the following factors was inflation to overall inflation is
(c) the average fixed cost curve must 1 2
be above the average variable not a reason behind the occurrence around rd to th. Within food
cost curve of the Industrial Revolution in 3 5
(d) the marginal cost must be greater England first? inflation, contribution of food articles
than the average total cost (a) No part of the country was far from is higher because price rise in food
the sea articles is
34. In a perfectly competitive
economy production and (b) Navigable rivers made inland (a) higher and their weight is also higher
transport easier compared to food products
consumption will both be pareto
optimal, if the economy operates (c) In England machines could be (b) higher but their weight is lower
operated by wind or water power compared to food products
at a point where
(a) there is general equilibrium due to favourable climate condition (c) lower but their weight is higher
(b) output levels are below equilibrium (d) England had coal, iron and other compared to food products
(c) output levels are above equilibrium necessary mineral resources (d) lower and their weight is also lower
(d) consumption is less than output compared to food products

35. The average fixed cost curve will 2014 (I) 46. In India, mergers and acquisition of
always be 41. According to the Companies Act, firms are regulated by
(a) a rectangular hyperbola (a) National Manufacturing Competitiveness
2013, ‘nominal capital’ implies
(b) a downward sloping convex to Council
(a) such part of capital, which has been
the origin curve (b) Competition Commission of India
called for payment
(c) a downward sloping straight line (c) Security and Exchange Board of India
(b) the maximum amount of share
(d) a U-shaped curve capital of a company (d) Department of Industrial Policy and
Promotion
36. The income elasticity of demand (c) such part of capital, which has been
for inferior goods is received by a company from its 47. Which of the following statements
(a) less than one (b) less than zero shareholders about India’s unorganised sector are
(c) equal to one (d) greater than one (d) such capital as the company issues true?
from time to time for subscription 1. Labour is more in number than
37. Consider the following
statement(s) 42. Which of the following is/are the that in the organised sector.
1. The recent decision of objective(s) of ‘Mahatma Gandhi 2. Job security and work regulation
Government of India to Pravasi Suraksha Yojana’? are better in unorganised sector.
partially decontrol the sugar To encourage and enable the 3. They are usually not organised into
industry gives the millers the overseas Indian workers by giving trade unions.
freedom to sell sugar in open government contribution to
market and removes their 4. Workers are usually employed for
obligation to supply sugar at 1. save for their return and a limited number of days.
subsidised rates to ration resettlement. Select the correct answer using the
shops. 2. save for their old age. codes given below.
2. C Rangarajan panel also 3. obtain a life insurance cover (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
suggested decontrolling of against natural death for the (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
sugar industry in India. entire life of the worker.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1043

48. Classification of an enterprise 3. The World Bank is a vital 2. Insulate utilities from State
into public or private sector is source of financial and Governments to prevent
based on technical assistance to interference with internal
(a) number of employees in the developing countries around operations.
enterprise the world. It is not a bank in 3. Scrap the Electricity Act, 2003 in
(b) ownership of assets of the the ordinary sense but a order to improve the revenue
enterprise unique partnership to reduce generation of the power
(c) employment conditions for workers poverty and support
distribution companies.
in the enterprise development.
4. The World Bank Group Select the correct answer using the
(d) nature of products manufactured
by the enterprise comprises five institutions codes given below.
managed by their member (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
49. Share of food in total countries in order to promote (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
consumption expenditure has shared prosperity by fostering
been coming down as Per Capita 55. Which of the following is not the
the income growth of the
Income grew over time in last bottom 40% for every country.
recommendation of the Arvind
sixty years because Mayaram Committee on rationalising
Which of the statements given
(a) people have been purchasing less the FDI/FPI definition (June, 2014)?
above are correct?
food (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) Foreign investment of 10% or more in
(b) people have been preferring (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 a listed company will be treated as
non-cereal items in their food Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
basket 52. Which of the following statements (b) In a particular company, an investor
(c) growth in food expenditure has about International Monetary can hold the investments either under
been lower than growth in per Fund (IMF) are correct? the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)
capita income 1. The IMF is a United Nations route or under the FDI route, but not
(d) percentage of the poor in specialised agency. both.
population has increased over 2. The IMF was founded at the (c) Any investment by way of equity
time Bretton Woods Conference in shares, compulsorily convertible
1944 to secure international preference shares/debentures which is
monetary cooperation.
2014 (II) 3. The objective of the IMF is to
less than 10% of the post-issue paid
up equity capital of a company shall
50. Consider the following stabilise currency exchange be treated as FPI.
statements relating to the World rates and to expand
(d) On NRI Investors, the Committee
Trade Organisation (WTO) international liquidity (access to
recommended treating non-repatriable
1. The WTO deals with the hard currencies).
investment as FDI.
global rules of trade between Select the correct answer using
nations. the codes given below. 56. Which one among the following pairs
2. The goal of the WTO is to (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 is not correctly matched?
help producers of goods and (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these (a) When total product : Marginal product
services, exporters and increases at an increases
importers conduct their
53. Union Government in June, 2014 increasing rate
business. granted Navaratna status to (b) When total product : Marginal product
1. Engineers India Limited increases at a declines
3. The WTO, which is a diminishing rate
successor body of the General 2. Coal India Limited
(c) When total product : Marginal product
Agreement on Tariffs and 3. India Trade Promotion reaches its maximum becomes zero
Trade, came into being Organisation (d) When total product : Marginal product
following the Uruguay Round 4. National Buildings begins to decline becomes positive
of Negotiations. Construction Corporation
4. The WTO distances itself in 57. The way total output changes due to
Limited
framing of rules on trade in change in all inputs in same
intellectual property rights.
Select the correct answer using proportion is known as law of
the codes given below. (a) returns to scale
Which of the statements given (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
above are correct? (b) diminishing returns
(c) 1 and 4 (a) All of these (c) increasing returns
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 54. World Bank in June, 2014 (d) constant returns

51. Consider the following released a study report on India’s 58. Which of the following statements are
statements relating to the World Power Sector titled ‘More Power correct?
Bank to India : The Challenge of 1. When marginal revenue is
1. The World Bank was Electricity Distribution’. Which of positive, total revenue increases
established in 1946, which is the following is/are the key with increase in output.
headquartered in New York. recommendation(s) of the report? 2. When marginal revenue is zero,
2. The World Bank Group has set 1. Ensure regulatory autonomy, total revenue is maximum.
for itself the goal to end effectiveness and accountability 3. When marginal revenue becomes
extreme poverty from the world for utilities and regulators. negative, total revenue falls with
by 2030. increase in output.
1044 CDS Pathfinder

Select the correct answer 63. Which of the following theories form 68. In May, 2014, an agreement for credit
using the codes given below. the basis of international trade? of $ 24 million (equivalent) from World
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Absolute cost difference Bank for additional financing for
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Comparative cost difference Uttarakhand Rural Water Supply and
59. Which of the following 3. Opportunity cost Sanitation Project was signed. The
statement(s) is/are true? Select the correct answer using the objective/objectives of the agreement
codes given below. was/were
1. If increase in demand and
supply are of equal (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. to improve the effectiveness of Rural
magnitude, the price will (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these Water Supply and Sanitation
remain unchanged, but the (RWSS) services through
64. Which one among the following is decentralisation.
equilibrium quantity will
increase. not a source of tax revenue for the 2. to restore services of damaged
2. If increase in demand is of Central Government in India? schemes in the disaster affected
(a) Income tax (b) Customs duties areas in the State of Uttarakhand.
greater magnitude than
increase in supply, both (c) Service tax (d) Motor vehicle tax
Select the correct answer using the
equilibrium price and 65. Which of the following does not codes given below.
equilibrium quantity will form part of current account of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
increase. Balance of Payments? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. If increase in supply is of (a) Export and import of goods
greater magnitude than (b) Export and import of services
69. Consider the following statements
increase in demand, (c) Income receipts and payments relating to the Non-Alignment
equilibrium price will fall Movement
(d) Capital receipts and payments
but equilibrium quantity 1. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)
will increase. 66. Consider the following statement(s) was created and founded during the
Select the correct answer 1. Government of India has collapse of the colonial system and
using the codes given below. upgraded the National the independence struggles of the
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 Industrial Classification from people of Africa, Asia, Latin America
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 NIC-1987 to NIC-2008. and other regions of the world and
60. A market in which there are 2. NIC is an essential statistical at the height of the Cold War.
large numbers of sellers of a standard for developing and 2. The First Summit of the Movement
particular product, but each maintaining comparable of Non-Aligned countries was
seller sells somewhat database according to economic convened by the leaders of India,
activities. Indonesia, Egypt, Syria and
differentiated but close
products is termed as Which of the statement(s) given Yugoslavia at Belgrade on 1st to 6th
(a) perfect competition above is/are correct? September, 1961.
(b) monopoly (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 3. During the early days of the
(c) monopolistic competition (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Movement, its actions were a key
(d) oligopoly factor in the decolonisation process,
67. Under the forceful thrust of British
which led later to the attainment of
61. The value of all final goods rule, a rapid transformation of the
freedom by many countries and to
and services produced by the Indian economy took place. In this the founding of several new
normal residents of a country context, which of the following sovereign States.
and their property, whether statement(s) is/are correct?
operating within the domestic 4. The fundamental principle of the
1. Indian economy was movement is to maintain equal
territory of the country or transformed into a colonial distance from both the super powers
outside in an year is termed economy in the 19th century by joining the military alliances of
as whose structure was determined
(a) Gross National Income both the blocs.
by Britain’s fast developing
(b) Net National Income Which of the statements given above
industrial economy.
(c) Gross Domestic Product are correct?
2. The influx of cheap Indian (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(d) Net Domestic Product
products into England gave a (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
62. National product at factor cost great blow to English textile
is equal to industries. 70. Which of the following is not correct
(a) Domestic product + Net factor 3. The 19th century saw the regarding the 2014 FIFA Football
income from abroad collapse of the traditional World Cup?
(b) National product at market Indian village economy and (a) ‘We Are One’ is the official song
prices − Indirect taxes + fresh economic alignment along (b) ‘Dar um, Jeito’ (We Will Find A Way)’ is
Subsidies commercial lines. the official anthem
(c) Gross domestic product − (c) Brazil is the first country to host a World
Select the correct answer using the
Depreciation Cup for the second time
codes given below.
(d) National product at market (d) For the first time two consecutive World
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 1
prices + Indirect taxes + Cups are not hosted in Europe
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 2
Subsidies
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1045

71. Which of the following Select the correct answer using 79. Rise in the price of a commodity
statement(s) about Marrakesh the codes given below. means
Treaty is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) rise in the value of currency only
1. The main goal of the treaty is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) fall in the value of currency only
to create a set of mandatory (c) rise in the value of commodity only
75. Consider the following (d) fall in the value of currency and rise in
limitations and exceptions for
statement(s) on Bay of Bengal the value of commodity
the benefits of the blind and
Initiative for Multi-Sectoral
visually impaired. 80. Which of the following statement(s)
Technical and Economic
2. India has ratified the treaty. Cooperation (BIMSTEC) with regard to the proposed Asian
3. The treaty has come into force 1. BIMSTEC has seven members Infrastructure Investment Bank
from July, 2014. Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka 1. India is one of the founding
the codes given below. and Thailand. members of the bank.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 2. The bank is to be headquartered
2. BIMSTEC provides a link
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these in Shanghai.
between South Asia and
South-East Asia by way of Select the correct answer using the
72. Consider the following statements codes given below.
about SAARC economic cooperation and
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
linkages in identified areas of
1. The SAARC Secretariat is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
cooperation.
located at Kathmandu.
3. BIMSTEC was rechristened as 81. Which of the following statements
2. The Secretariat is headed by the
BISTEC in the year 2014. is/are true with regard to the newly
Secretary General, who is
Select the correct answer using launched Vanbandhu Kalyan
appointed by the Council of
codes given below. Yojana?
Ministers from Member States
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Under the scheme, Centre will
in alphabetical order for a three
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these provide ` 10 crore each for every
year term.
State and Union Territory of the
3. The Secretary General is country for the development of
assisted by eight Directors on 2015 (I) various facilities for the tribals.
deputation from the Member 2. The scheme mainly focuses on
States. 76. When two goods are completely bridging infrastructural gaps and
Select the correct answer using inter-changeable, they are gap in human development indices
(a) perfect substitutes between Schedules Tribes and
the codes given below.
(b) perfect complements other Social Groups.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Giffen goods
(c) All of these (d) 1 and 3 Select the correct answer using the
(d) Veblen goods
codes given below.
73. Match the following (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
77. Match the following
List I List II (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
List I List II
(Training Institutes) (Locations) 82. Which of the following statements is
(Industries) (Locations)
A. National Academy of 1. Hyderabad
A. Railway equipment 1. Kochi
not true?
Direct Taxes (a) The General Agreement on Tariffs and
B. Rafi Ahmed Kidwai 2. Nagpur B. Automobile 2. Ludhiana Trade (GATT) had regulated global
National Postal Academy C. Ship-building 3. Bhilai trade since, 1947
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 3. Dehradun D. Bicycle 4. Jabalpur (b) GATT was replaced by the World
National Police Academy Trade Organisation (WTO) in 1995
D. Indira Gandhi National 4. Ghaziabad Codes (c) The Most Favoured Nation principle
Forest Academy A B C D A B C D under GATT provided that preferential
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 trading agreements reached with one
Codes
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 country should be extended to other
A B C D A B C D countries
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 78. Consider the following (d) The WTO has been able to cover in
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 statement(s) with regard to the an agreements the agriculture and
First Renewable Energy Global textile sectors which are the principal
74. Consider the following concerned for the Least Developed
statement(s) on SAFTA Investors Meet and Expo (2015)
Countries (LDCs)
1. SAFTA is a trade liberalisation 1. This is a follow-up to the
programme among the ‘Make in India’ initiative. 83. Which of the following is not a part
South-Eastern countries of 2. The central theme of the meet of contemporary Indian foreign
Asia. is to attract large scale policy in relationships with its
2. According to SAFTA, the investments in the renewable neighbours?
Ministerial Council shall meet energy sector in India. (a) Look East Policy for linking up with
at least once every year or Which of the statement(s) given South-East Asia via Myanmar
more often as and when above is/are correct? (b) Panchsheel
considered necessary by the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Non-alignment
Contracting States. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) SAARC
1046 CDS Pathfinder

84. Consider the following 89. Which of the following is not a 2015 (II)
statement(s) central tenet of Socialism?
1. The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan is (a) Historical Materialism 94. Under flexible exchange rate system,
restructured into the Swachh (b) Dialectical Materialism the exchange rate is determined
Bharat Mission. (c) Alienation and Class Struggle (a) predominantly by market mechanism
2. The Swachh Bharat Mission (d) Individual Freedom (b) by the Central Bank
has two sub-missions — (c) as a weighted index of a group of
90. Which of the following is not true
Union Territories and States. currencies
for South Asian Free Trade Area
Which of the statement(s) given (d) by the World Trade Organisation
(SAFTA)?
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) It is a step towards a South Asian 95. A Bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’
customs union and common market if it has any provision dealing with
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) The agreement came into effect in 1. imposition, abolition, remission,
85. Which of the following is/are the 2006 alteration or regulation of any tax.
objective(s) of National AYUSH (c) The SAFTA is a trade liberalisation
2. appropriation of money from the
Mission, approved by the Union regime
Cabinet recently? Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The SAFTA agreement takes
1. Improvement of AYUSH precedence over any other 3. imposition of fines or other
educations through agreement a member country may pecuniary penalties.
enhancement in the number of have with States outside SAFTA 4. payment of fee for licences or fee
upgraded educational for service rendered.
91. The 3rd Meeting of the SAARC
institutions. Select the correct answer using the
Culture Ministers, convened in
2. Better access to AYUSH codes given below.
New Delhi on 25th September,
services through increase in (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
the AYUSH hospitals and 2014, unanimously resolved (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2
dispensaries, availability of 1. to declare 2015-16 as the
SAARC Year of Cultural 96. Which one of the following is not a
drugs and manpower.
Heritage. part of service sector in India?
3. Providing sustained (a) Transport
availability of quality raw 2. that Bamiyan will be the
(b) Construction
material for AYUSH systems SAARC cultural capital for
(c) Hotels and restaurants
of medicine. 2015-16.
(d) Insurance
3. to promote SAARC culture
Select the correct answer using 97. Which one of the following is not
online by launching a dedicated
the codes given below. correct in the context of industrial
SAARC website on culture, with
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
emphasis on digitisation of rare clusters development in India?
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
manuscripts, rare books and other (a) Industrial clusters play an important role
86. In recent plans, certain articles of intangible cultural value. for the MSME participants in their
words/phrases were used in the inclusiveness, technology absorption and
Select the correct answer using the
title of the plan along with efficiency improvement
codes given below.
‘growth’. They are (b) Industrial clusters are visible in
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3
traditional handloom, handicrafts and
1. inclusive 2. faster (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
modern SMC
3. more inclusive 4. sustainable 92. Inclusion strategy does not focus on (c) Industrial cluster programmes in India
5. more sustainable (a) reduction of inequality are administered by various ministries
Which combination is true of the (b) reduction of poverty (d) Industrial clusters lead to promotion of
12th Five Year Plan (2012-17)? (c) diversifying livelihood for tribal monopoly in the market
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 4 and 5 population 98. Private investment in Indian
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 (d) getting poorer countries closer agriculture is mostly on labour
87. Demand for a commodity refers to 93. Which among the following is not saving mechanisation. This could be
(a) desire for that commodity an aspect of Gender Mainstreaming a response to
(b) need for that commodity (a) rising productivity of agricultural sector
(GM)?
(c) quantity demanded of that (b) rising inequality in agriculture
(a) GM was established as a global
commodity (c) rising wages and tighter labour market
strategy for achieving gender
(d) quantity demanded at certain price equality by the United Nations (d) debt write-off by the government
during any particular period of (b) It was adopted in 1995 in the 99. Which one of the following is not a
time Beijing Platform of Action recommendation of the 14th Finance
88. An exceptional demand curve is (c) It requires a review of government Commission?
one that slopes policy in all sectors for eliminating (a) Share of states in Central Divisible
(a) downward to the right gender disparity Pool is increased from 32%-42%
(b) upward to the right (d) GM was followed by the Convention (b) Area under forest cover is an
(c) horizontally on the Elimination of all forms of important variable in distribution of
Discrimination Against Women states’ share among states
(d) upward to the left
(CEDAW)
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1047

(c) Fiscal discipline is dropped as a 105. What is meant by ‘Public 110. ‘Weibo’ is a social media platform,
variable in distribution of states’ share Good’? popularly used in
among states (a) A commodity produced by (a) South Korea (b) China
(d) Sector-specific grant is recommended government (c) Thailand (d) Japan
as in the previous Finance (b) A commodity whose benefits
Commissions 111. Which one of the following is not
are indivisibly spread among provided regular budgetary support
100. Which of the following statements the entire community by the Ministry of Defence?
with regard to New Development (c) A government scheme that (a) Himalayan Mountaineering Institute,
Bank (NDB), formerly referred to benefits the poor households Darjeeling
as the BRICS Development Bank (d) Any commodity that is very (b) Institute for Defence Studies and
is/are correct? popular among general public Analysis, New Delhi
1. The headquarters of the bank is 106. Which one of the following (c) Armed Forces Tribunal
situated at Moscow, Russia. (d) United Service Institution of India,
statements with regard to
New Delhi
2. KV Kamath is the first President India’s economy between
of the bank. 1814-1860 is not correct? 112. In April 2015, India and France
Select the correct answer using the (a) Between 1814 and 1850, four agreed to conclude an
codes given below. commodities dominated India’s inter-governmental agreement in
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 exports— raw silk, opium, respect of which one of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 cotton and indigo following platforms?
(b) Between 1814 and 1860, five (a) Rafale medium multirole combat
101. Which of the following factors led to commodities dominated India’s aircraft
a decline in inflation rate in India exports— raw silk, opium, (b) Scorpene submarines
during 2014-15? cotton, indigo and jute (c) Infantry mobility vehicles
1. Persistent decline in crude oil (c) Indigo and raw silk required (d) Precision guided munitions system
prices. processing techniques 113. Where was the 14th Asia Security
2. Softness in global prices of (d) Indigo and raw silk were Summit (Shangri-La Dialogue)
tradables such as edible oils and financed by foreign capital held in May 2015?
coal. (a) Beijing (b) Bangkok
107. In view of the fact that
3. Tight monetary policy pursued by (c) Jakarta (d) Singapore
the Reserve Bank of India. kerosene is an inferior good
in India, what is/are its 114. Which of the following are
Select the correct answer using the
implication(s)? members of BRICS?
codes given below.
1. As households get richer, (a) Bhutan, Russia, India, China and Sri
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
they consume less Lanka
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
kerosene. (b) Brazil, Russia, India, China and
102. Which one of the following 2. Over time there is a South Africa
statements about the Companies decline in quality of (c) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and
Act, 2013 is not correct? kerosene. Singapore
(a) The Act regulates the corporate (d) Bangladesh, Republic of Korea,
3. Government needs to stop Indonesia, Canada and Sri Lanka
sector to make it accountable subsidies on kerosene.
(b) It provides for Corporate Social Select the correct answer 115. The ‘Panchsheel Agreement’ for
Responsibility (CSR) peaceful co-existence was signed
using the codes given below.
(c) It provides more opportunities for (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 between
new entrepreneurs (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) India and Bhutan
(d) It enables wide application of (b) India and Nepal
information technology 108. Which one of the following is (c) India and China
the major source of Gross Tax (d) India and Pakistan
103. Which one of the following is an Revenue (GTR) for the
example of a ‘natural monopoly’? Government of India? 116. Which one of the following is not a
(a) Indian Airlines member of MERCOSUR (Southern
(a) Income tax
(b) Delhi Jal Board Common Market)?
(b) Corporation tax
(c) Delhi Transport Corporation (a) Argentina (b) Paraguay
(c) Customs duty
(d) Steel Authority of India Limited (c) Uruguay (d) Chile
(d) Service tax
104. What is meant by ‘Price 109. Which one of the following
discrimination’? represents a progressive tax 2016 (I)
(a) Increase in price of a commodity
structure? 117. Which one of the Five Year Plans
over time
(a) Tax rate is the same across all had a high priority to bring
(b) A situation where the same product incomes
is sold to different consumers for inflation under control and to
(b) Tax rate increases as income achieve stability in the economic
different prices
increases situation?
(c) Subsidisation of a product by the
(c) Tax rate decreases as income (a) Fourth Plan (1969-74)
government to sell it at a lower price
increases (b) Fifth Plan (1974-79)
(d) General decrease in price of a
(d) Each household pays equal (c) Sixth Plan (1980-85)
commodity over time
amount of tax (d) Seventh Plan (1985-90)
1048 CDS Pathfinder

118. Which of the following 4. The terms such as ‘Pareto 3. It is a national identity and
statement(s) is/are true with Efficiency’, ‘Pareto Optimality’ citizenship card.
respect to Phillips Curve? and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are Select the correct answer using the
all essentially one and the codes given below.
1. It shows the trade-off same which denote ‘efficiency
between unemployment and (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
in resource allocation’. (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
inflation.
Select the correct answer using
2. The downward sloping curve of 128. Human Development Report for
Phillips Curve is generally held the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 each year at global level is
to be valid only in the short
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these published by
run. (a) WTO (b) World Bank
3. In the long run, Phillips 123. Which one of the following (c) UNDP (d) IMF
Curve is usually thought to nations has faced severe
be horizontal at the economic crisis in the year 2015 129. Which one of the following is not a
Non-Accelerating Inflation resulting in default in repayment monitorable target of the Beti
Rate of Unemployment Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan?
of IMF loan?
(NAIRU). (a) Provide girls’ toilet in every school in
(a) China (b) Greece
Select the correct answer using (c) Ireland (d) Belgium 100 Child Sex Ratio (CSR) districts
the codes given below. by the year 2017
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 124. Which of the following is not a (b) 100% girls’ enrolment in secondary
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these ‘Public Good’? education by the year 2020
(a) Electricity (b) National Defence (c) Promote a protective environment for
119. Which one of the following (c) Light House (d) Public Parks girl children through implementation
nations is not a member of the
125. Which one of the following is not of Protection of Children from Sexual
Eurasian Economic Union? Offences (POCSO) Act 2012
(a) Belarus (b) Russia among the aims of the Second
(c) Kazakhstan (d) Uzbekistan Five Year Plan (1956-57 to (d) Train Elected Representatives/
1960-61)? Grassroot functionaries as Community
120. BRICS leaders signed the (a) Rapid industrialisation with
Champions to mobilise communities
agreement to establish a New to improve CSR and promote girls’
particular emphasis on the
Development Bank at the education
development of basic and heavy
summit held in industries 130. The National Policy for Children
(a) New Delhi, India (2012) (b) Large expansion of employment 2013 recognises every person as a
(b) Durban, South Africa (2013) opportunities child below the age of
(c) Fortaleza, Brazil (2014) (c) Achieve self-sufficiency in (a) 12 years (b) 14 years
(d) Ufa, Russia (2015) foodgrains and increase agricultural (c) 16 years (d) 18 years
121. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are production to meet the
requirements of industry and 131. Which of the following is not an
the schemes of exports objective of the Rashtriya
(a) Regional Rural Banks Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan
(d) Reduction of inequalities in income
(b) Micro Units Development and and wealth and a more even (RUSA)?
Refinance Agency Limited distribution of economic power (a) Improve the overall quality of private
(MUDRA) educational institutions
(c) Small Industries Development 126. Which of the following is/are the (b) Ensure reforms in the affiliation,
Bank of India example(s) of Transfer academic and examination systems
(d) Industrial Development Bank of Payment(s)? (c) Correct regional imbalances in access
India 1. Unemployment allowance to higher education
2. Payment of salary (d) Create an enabling atmosphere in the
122. Which of the following
higher education institutions to devote
statements are true with 3. Social security payments themselves to research and
respect to the concept of 4. Old age pension innovations
EFFICIENCY as used in Select the correct answer using 132. Which of the following is/are
mainstream economics? the codes given below. example(s) of ‘Near Money’?
1. Efficiency occurs when no (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
possible reorganisation of (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of these 1. Treasury Bill
production can make anyone 2. Credit Card
better off without making
127. Which of the following 3. Savings accounts and small time
someone else worse off. statements with regard to deposits.
2. An economy is clearly UID/Aadhar Card are correct? 4. Retail money market mutual
inefficient if it is inside the 1. It is a 12-digit unique form of funds.
Production Possibility identification for all residents Select the correct answer using the
Frontier (PPF). of India.
codes given below.
3. At a minimum, an efficient 2. It is an identity number along (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
economy is on its Production with the biometric information (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Possibility Frontier (PPF). of the individuals.
GENERAL STUDIES Indian Economy 1049

133. Which one of the following terms families than it does from 3. Second National Commission on
is used in Economics to denote a rich families. Labour has recommended against the
technique for avoiding a risk by 4. Indirect taxes have the utility of wage boards.
making a counteracting advantage of being Select the correct answer using the
transaction? cheaper and easier to codes given below.
collect. (a) Only 1
(a) Dumping (b) Hedging
Select the correct answer (b) Only 2
(c) Discounting (d) Deflating (c) 1 and 2
using the codes given below. (d) All of these
134. Which of the following (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
statements are correct? (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these 136. Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize
1. Ability to pay principle of for his contributions in
taxation holds that the 135. Which of the following 1. development of high-yielding crops.
amount of taxes people pay statement(s) is/are false?
2. modernisation of irrigation
should relate to their income 1. Wage Boards are infrastructure.
or wealth. tripartite in nature, with 3. introduction of synthetic fertilizers
2. The Benefit Principle of representatives from and pesticides.
taxation States that workers, employers and
independent members. Select the correct answer using the codes
individuals should be taxed in given below
proportion to the benefit they 2. Except for the Wage (a) Only 1
receive from government Boards for Journalists (b) Only 2
programmes. and Non-Journalists, all (c) 2 and 3
3. A progressive tax takes a the other wage boards are (d) All of these
larger share of tax from poor statutory in nature.

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 c 2 d 3 b 4 c 5 d 6 d 7 c 8 b 9 c 10 b
11 b 12 b 13 b 14 b 15 c 16 c 17 c 18 c 19 b 20 a
21 c 22 c 23 d 24 a 25 c 26 c 27 b 28 b 29 c 30 b
31 d 32 a 33 b 34 d 35 b 36 b 37 b 38 c 39 a 40 c
41 b 42 a 43 a 44 d 45 b 46 d 47 d 48 b 49 d 50 d
51 c 52 d 53 b 54 b 55 c 56 d 57 b 58 d 59 c 60 d
61 b 62 c 63 b 64 c 65 d 66 a 67 b 68 c 69 b 70 a
71 d 72 a 73 a 74 d 75 b 76 c 77 c 78 b 79 c 80 c
81 b 82 d 83 c 84 d 85 b 86 d 87 d 88 a 89 d 90 d
91 b 92 b 93 c 94 a 95 d 96 a 97 a 98 c 99 a 100 d
101 a 102 a 103 a 104 d 105 b 106 c 107 b 108 c 109 b 110 c
111 b 112 d 113 c 114 d 115 b 116 c 117 b 118 d 119 a 120 a
121 b 122 d 123 a 124 a 125 a 126 d 127 c 128 d 129 b 130 c
131 b 132 d 133 b 134 a 135 d 136 d 137 d 138 d 139 d 140 b
141 b

Questions From CDS Exam (2012-2016)

1 a 2 d 3 b 4 d 5 d 6 d 7 c 8 a 9 a 10 c
11 c 12 a 13 c 14 b 15 a 16 c 17 d 18 b 19 b 20 a
21 a 22 d 23 c 24 d 25 d 26 a 27 b 28 c 29 d 30 b
31 a 32 d 33 a 34 a 35 a 36 b 37 c 38 a 39 a 40 c
41 b 42 b 43 c 44 d 45 a 46 b 47 b 48 b 49 c 50 a
51 b 52 d 53 c 54 b 55 d 56 d 57 a 58 d 59 d 60 c
61 a 62 b 63 d 64 d 65 d 66 c 67 a 68 c 69 a 70 c
71 b 72 c 73 a 74 c 75 c 76 a 77 a 78 c 79 d 80 d
81 b 82 d 83 c 84 a 85 d 86 c 87 d 88 b 89 d 90 d
91 c 92 d 93 d 94 a 95 a 96 b 97 d 98 c 99 d 100 b
101 d 102 c 103 b 104 b 105 b 106 b 107 a 108 b 109 b 110 b
111 d 112 a 113 d 114 b 115 c 116 d 117 a 118 c 119 d 120 c
121 b 122 d 123 b 124 a 125 c 126 c 127 b 128 c 129 b 130 d
131 a 132 d 133 b 134 c 135 b 136 a
05
1050 CDS Pathfinder

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
After analysing the previous year question papers, we have noticed that the General Knowledge has a vital
role to play. Around 15-18 questions are asked from this section which includes a number of topics. A
candidate must update herself/himself with the topics like Sports, Important personalities, Defence,
Awards in various fields, Authors and their works, UNESCO World heritage sites, Space research etc.

First in World
First in World (Male)
First Secretary-General of United Nations Trygve Lie (Norway) First European to visit China Marco Polo
First President of United States of America George Washington First man to draw the map of Earth Aneximander
First President of the Republic of China Dr Sun Yat Sen (1912) First man to compile encyclopaedia Aspheosis (Athens)
First Prime Minister of Great Britain Sir Robert Walpole (1715) First man to win Nobel Prize for Literature Sully Prudhomme (France)
Pakistan’s first Governor-General Mohammed Ali Jinnah First man to win Nobel Prize for Peace Henry Dunant (Switzerland)
and Frederic Passy (France)
First Ethnic-Indian Prime Minister of Fiji Mahendra Choudhary
First man to win Nobel Prize for Physics WK Roentgen (Germany)
First American President to visit India Dwight David Eisenhower
First man to win Nobel Prize for Chemistry Jacobus H Van’t Hoft
First Russian (Soviet) Prime Minister Nikolai Bulganin (Holland)
to visit India
First man to win Nobel Prize for Medicine AE Von Behring (Germany)
First European invader of Indian soil Alexander The Great
First man to win Nobel Prize for Economics Ragnar Frisch (Norway) and
First man to go into space Major Yuri Gagarin (USSR) Jan Tinbergen (Holland)
First man to walk in space Alexey Leonov (Russia) First and only black man ever to win Arthur Ashe (USA)
First space tourist Dennis Tito (USA) singles Wimbledon Trophy

First man to set foot on the Moon Neil Armstrong (USA) First Asian to head the International Cricket Jagmohan Dalmiya
Council
First man to fly an aeroplane Wright Brothers
First man to hit double century in One Day Sachin Tendulkar (India)
First man to reach North pole Robert Peary International Match
First man to reach South pole Roald Amundsen First in World (Female)
First man to climb Mount Everest Sherpa Tenzing Norgay and First woman President of UN General Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit (1953)
Sir Edmund Hillary Assembly
(29th May, 1953)
First woman President of a country Maria Estela Peron (Argentina)
First man to climb Mount Everest twice Nawang Gombu (1965)
First blind man to scale Mount Everest Erik Weihenmayer First woman Prime Minister of a country S Bhandarnayake (Sri Lanka)
(25th May, 2001) First woman Prime Minister of England Margaret Thatcher
First person to sail around the world Ferdinand Magellan First woman Prime Minister of any Benazir Bhutto (Pakistan)
First deaf and dumb to cross the Strait Taranath Shenoy (India) Muslim country
of Gibralter
First woman cosmonaut in space Valentina Tereshkova (USSR)
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1051

First woman space tourist Anousheh Ansari First in India (Female)

(Irani American)
First lady to become Miss World Reita Faria
First woman to reach the North pole Frances Phipps
First woman Judge in Supreme Court Mrs Fatima Beevi
First woman to set foot on the North pole Ann Bancroft, USA
First woman Governor of a State in free India Mrs Sarojini Naidu
First woman to reach Antarctica Caroline Michaelson
First woman Prime Minister Mrs Indira Gandhi
First woman to climb Mount Everest Junko Tabei (Japan)
First woman to climb Mount Everest Bachhendri Pal
First woman in the world to cross the Sophie Psilolignou (Greek)
Strait of Gibralter First woman to receive Ashoka Chakra Nirja Bhanot
First woman to chair US Central Bank Janet Yellen First woman to receive Jnanpith Award Ashapurna Devi
‘Federal Reserve’
First woman to receive Nobel Prize Mother Teresa
First UN Deputy Secretary-General Louise Frechette (Canada)
First woman Director General of Police Kanchan Chaudhary
Bhattacharya
First in World (Miscellaneous)
First woman Lieutenant General Puneeta Arora
First city to be attacked with atom bomb Hiroshima (Japan)
First country to launch satellite into space Russia (former USSR)
First in India (Miscellaneous)
First country to host the modern Olympic Games Greece
First religion of the world Sanatan Dharma Census 1872

First country to print books China Regular decadal census 1881 onwards

First country to issue paper currency China Newspaper Bengal Gazette

First country to start civil services competition China University Nalanda University
First country to make education compulsory Prussia Defence University Indian National Defence University,
Gurgaon
First country to win the World Cup Football Uruguay (1930)
First country to make a Constitution United States of America Bank Bank of Hindustan

First country to launch satellite into space Russia Telephone in India 1851

First country to host modern olympics Greece Telegraph line Diamond Harbour to Calcutta

First space shuttle launched Columbia First rail line Mumbai to Thane
First spaceship landed on Moon Viking-1 First expressway Mumbai-Pune
First university of the world Taxila University First metro train Kolkata Metro
Marine National Park Kutch

First in India National Park Jim Corbatt National Park

Biosphere Reserve Nilgiri
First in India (Male)
First Stock Exchange Bombay Stock Exchange
First mountaineer to climb the Mount Ang Rita Sherpa
Everest 10 times Silent Film Raja Harishchandra

First Chairman of National Human Rights Rangnath Mishra Talkie Movie Aalam Ara
Commission
First Satellite Aryabhatta
First Chief Justice of India Hiralal J Kania
First to implement Panchayati Raj Rajasthan
First Muslim President of Indian National Congress Badruddin Tayyabji
First Indian in International Court Dr Nagendra Singh
First Muslim President of India Dr Zakir Hussain of Justice

First Governor General of Free India Lord Mountbatten First test tube baby Harsha (Indira)

First and last Indian to be Governor General C Rajagopalachari

of Free India Superlatives in World
First Indian to receive Bharat Ratna Award Dr Radhakrishnan (The Largest, Biggest, Smallest, Longest, Highest)
First Education Minister Abdul Kalam Azad Airliner Longest—Boeing 747-8
First person to receive Nobel Prize in Economics Amartya Sen Airport Largest—King Abdul Khalid International Airport
(Riyadh, Saudi Arabia)
First Wax Statue of a Living Indian Mahatma Gandhi at
Madame Tussaud’s Highest—Bangda Airport, Tibet (Now in China)
in 1939 Bay Largest—Hudson Bay, Canada
Building Tallest—Burj Khalifa, Dubai (828 m)
1052 CDS Pathfinder

Continent Smallest—Australia The longest Road NH-44 (Srinagar to Kanya Kumari)

Largest—Asia The highest Road Road at Khardungla (in Leh-Manali Sector)
Coral formation Largest—The Great Barrier Reef (Australia) The highest Airport Leh Airport (Ladakh)
Country Largest (in area)—Russia The largest Desert Thar (Rajasthan)
Highest—Tibet (The Pamirs)
The largest Delta Sunderbans (Paschim Banga)
Largest (in population)—China
The largest Zoo Zoological Garden (Kolkata)
Day Longest—21st June (in Northern hemisphere)
The tallest TV Tower Rameswaram Tower, Tamil Nadu
Shortest—22nd December (in Northern
hemisphere) The highest Peak Godwin Austin, K-2 (8611 m)
Delta Largest—Sundarbans, India The largest Mosque Jama Masjid (Delhi)
Democracy Largest—India The tallest Statue Gomateswara (Karnataka)
Desert Largest—Sahara, Africa The oldest Church St Thomas Church at Palayur, Trichur
(Kerala)
Gulf Longest—Gulf of Mexico
The biggest Church Saint Cathedral at Old Goa (Goa)
Island Largest—Greenland (renamed Kalaallit Nunaat)
Lake Deepest—Baikal (Siberia) The longest Beach Mariana Beach, Chennai
Highest—Titicaca (Bolivia) The largest Dome Gol Gumbaz (Bizapur, Karnataka)
Largest (Fresh Water)—Lake Superior, USA
The heaviest Rainfall Mawsynram (Meghalaya)
Largest (Artificial)—Lake Mead (Boulder)
Minar The oldest Refinery Digboi (Assam)
Tallest—Qutub Minar, Delhi (238 ft)
(Free standing) The longest Glacier Siachen Glacier (Indo-Pak Border)
Mosque Largest Masjid—al-Haram, Saudi Arabia Most populous city Mumbai (Maharashtra)
Mountain Peak Highest—Mt Everest (Nepal), Himalayas The fastest Train Gatimaan Express (Delhi-Agra)
(World)
The largest Cave Temple Ellora Temples (Aurangabad, Maharashtra)
Mountain Range Longest—Andes S America
The largest concentration of Madhya Pradesh
Ocean Deepest and Biggest—The Pacific Scheduled Tribes
Peninsula Largest—Arabia The largest concentration of Uttar Pradesh
Place Coldest—Oymyakon (Russia) Temperature −58°F. Scheduled Caste Population
Hottest—Al-Aziziyah (Libya, Africa) 136°F The largest Plateau Deccan Plateau
Driest—Mc Murdo Dry Valleys, Antarctica
The largest Public Sector Bank State Bank of India
River Longest—Nile (6690 km)
Largest (Basin)—Amazon Basin
Countries with Capitals, Currencies and Languages
Sea (Inland) Largest—Mediterranean
Statue Tallest—Spring Temple Buddha, China Primary
Country Capital(s) Currency
Language(s)
Tunnel Longest and Largest (Canal)—Le Rove Tunnel
(South of France) Afghanistan Kabul Afghani Dari Persian; Pashto
Longest (Railway)—Gotthard Base Tunnel
(Switzerland) Albania Tirane Lek Albanian

Volcano Largest—Mauna Loa (Hawaii) Algeria Algiers Algerian Dinar Arabic; Tamazight;
French
Highest—Ojos del Salado, Andes, Argentine-Chile
(6885 m) Angola Luanda Kwanza Portuguese
Waterfall Highest—Salto Angel Falls (Venezuela) Argentina Buenos Aires Argentine Peso Spanish
World’s Rainiest Spot Mawsynram (Meghalaya, India) Australia Canberra Australian Dollar English
Austria Vienna Euro German
Superlatives in India Bahrain Manama Bahraini Dinar Arabic
(Biggest, Highest, Largest, Longest, Smallest etc.)
Bangladesh Dhaka Taka Bangla
The longest River The Ganga (2640 km)
Belgium Brussels Euro Dutch; French;
The longest Canal Indira Gandhi Canal or Rajasthan Canal German
(Rajasthan)
Bhutan Thimphu Ngultrum Dzongkha
The longest Dam Hirakud Dam (Odisha)
Cambodia Phnom Penh Riel Khmer
The largest Lake Wular Lake (Jammu and Kashmir)
Canada Ottawa Canadian Dollar English; French
The highest Dam Tehri Dam on Bhagirathi River
Chile Santiago Chilean Peso Spanish
The highest Waterfall Kunchikal (Karnataka)
China Beijing Chinese Yuan Mandarin
The State with longest Coastline Gujarat
The longest Sea Bridge Bandra-Worli sea link
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1053

Primary Primary
Country Capital(s) Currency Country Capital(s) Currency
Language(s) Language(s)
Democratic Kinshasa Congolese Franc French Syria Damascus Syrian Pound Arabic
Republic of the
Congo Thailand Bangkok Thai Baht Thai
Cyprus Nicosia Euro Greek; Turkish Uganda Kampala Uganda Shilling Swahili; English
Denmark Copenhagen Danish Krone Danish United London Pound Sterling English
Kingdom
Egypt Cairo Egyptian Pound Arabic
Ukraine Kiev Hryvnia Ukranian; Russian
Ethiopia Addis Ababa Birr Amharic
United States Washington DC United States Dollar English; Spanish
France Paris Euro; CFP Franc French of America
Germany Berlin Euro German United Arab Abu Dhabi Dirham Arabic
Emirates
Ghana Accra Ghanaian Cedi English
Vatican City Vatican City Euro Latin; Italian
Greece Athens Euro Greek
Vietnam Hanoi Dong Vietnamese
India New Delhi Indian Rupee Hindi; English
Venezuela Caracas Bolivar Fuerte Spanish
Indonesia Jakarta Rupiah Indonesian
Zimbabwe Harare United States Dollar English
Iran Tehran Rial Persian
Iraq Baghdad Iraqi Dinar Arabic; Kurdish National Emblem of Major Countries
Japan Tokyo Yen Japanese
Country Emblem Country Emblem
Jordan Amman Jordanian Dinar Arabic
Australia Kangaroo
Kazakhstan Astana Tenge Kazakh; Russian
Bangladesh Water Lily Israel Candelabrum
Kenya Nairobi Kenyan Shilling Swahili; English
Belgium Lion Italy White Lily
Libya Tripoli Libyan Dinar Arabic
Canada White Lily, Japan Chrysanthemum
Malaysia Kuala Lumpur Ringgit Malay Maple Leaf
Mali Bamako West African CFA French Chile Candor and Huemul Netherlands Lion
Franc
Denmark Beach New Zealand Southern Cross,
Mauritius Port Louis Mauritian Rupee English Kiwi, Fern
Mongolia Ulaanbaatar Togrog Mongolian France Lily Norway Lion
Mexico Mexico City Mexican Peso Spanish Germany Corn Flower Pakistan Crescent and Star
Myanmar Naypyidaw Kyat Burmese India Lioned Capital Spain Eagle
(Burma)
Iran Rose UK Rose
Nepal Kathmandu Nepalese Rupee Nepali
Ireland The Harp USA Golden Rod
New Zealand Wellington New Zealand English
Dollar
North Korea Pyongyang North Korean Won Korean Principal Languages
Norway
Pakistan
Oslo
Islamabad
Norwegian Krone
Pakistani Rupee
Norwegian
Urdu; English
of India
Philippines Manila Phillipine Peso Filipino; English
India is home to several hundred languages. The
Constitution of India recognises 22 languages.
Poland Warsaw Zloty Polish
Language Region
Portugal Lisbon Euro Portuguese
Assamese Assam
Qatar Doha Qatari Riyal Arabic
Bengali West Bengal
Russia Moscow Ruble Russian
Bodo North-East States
Saudi Arabia Riyadh Saudi Riyal Arabic
Dogri Himachal Pradesh, Jammu
Singapore Singapore Singapore Dollar English; Malay;
Mandarin Chinese Gujarati Gujarat

South Korea Seoul South Korean Won Korean Hindi Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar,
especially in Northern part of India.
South Africa Pretoria; Rand Zulu; Xhosa;
Cape Town; Afrikaans Kannada Karnataka
Bloemfontein Kashmiri Jammu & Kashmir
Sri Lanka Colombo Sri Lankan Rupee Sinhala; Tamil Konkani Goa
Sudan Khartoum Sudanese Pound Arabic; English Malayalam Kerala
1054 CDS Pathfinder

Language Region Crematorium of Famous Persons

Manipuri Manipur
Crematorium Person Crematorium Person
Maithili Mithilanchal (Bihar)
Samata Sthal Jagjeevan Ram Veer Bhumi Rajiv Gandhi
Marathi Maharashtra
Karma Bhumi Dr Shankar Dayal Ekta Sthal Giani Zail Singh,
Nepali Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Assam
Sharma Chandra Shekhar
Oriya/Odia Odisha
Mahaprayan Dr Rajendra Prasad Uday Bhoomi KR Narayanan
Punjabi Punjab Ghat
Sanskrit Earliest language in India Raj Ghat Mahatma Gandhi Shanti Van Jawaharlal Nehru
Santhali Chotanagpur Plateau
Vijay Ghat Lal Bahadur Shastri Shakti Sthal Indira Gandhi
Sindhi Indo-Aryan language
Kishan Ghat Chaudhary Charan Abhay Ghat Morarji Desai
Tamil Tamil Nadu Singh
Telugu Andhra Pradesh
Urdu Jammu & Kashmir, Uttar Pradesh State and Folk Dances
Andhra Pradesh Kuchipudi, Ghantamardala, Ottam Thedal, Siddhi
Places Related to Famous Personalities Madhuri
Assam Bihu, Bichhua, Maharas, Kaligopal, Naga dance, Khel
Place Personality
Gopal, Tabal Chongli, Jhumura Hobjanai
Chittor (Haldighati) Maharana Pratap
Arunachal Pradesh Mask dance, Wardance
Lumbini, Kushinagar, Kapilvastu Gautam Buddha
Bihar Jata-Jatin, Bakho-Bakhain, Panwariya, Sama-Chakwa,
Porbandar, Sabarmati, Sewagram Mahatma Gandhi Bidesia
Shanti Niketan Rabindranath Thakur (Tagore) Chhattisgarh Goudi, Karma, Jhumar, Dagia, Navrani, Mundari,
Talwandi Guru Nanak Tapeli, Pali
Pavapuri, Kundagram Mahavir Swami Gujarat Garba, Dandiya Ras, Juriun
Fatehpur Sikri Akbar Goa Mandi, Jhagor, Khol, Dakni etc
Puducherry Arvind Ghosh Haryana Jhumar, Phag, Daph, Dhamal, Loor, Khor
Anaudvan Baba Amte Himachal Pradesh Jhora, Jhali, Dhaman, Chhapeli, Nati, Dangi, Stick
Belur Math Ramkrishna Paramhans dance
Pavrar Vinoba Bhave Jammu & Kashmir Rauf, Hikat, Kud Dandi Nach, Damali
Srirangpattnam Tipu Sultan Jharkhand Chhau, Sarhul, Karma, Sohrai, Bidesia
Jiradei Dr Rajendra Prasad Karnataka Yakshagan, Suggi, Kunitha, Karga, Lambi
Cuttak Subhashchandra Bose Kerala Kathakali (Classical), Ottam Thulal, Mohiniattam
Trimurti Bhavan, Anand Bhavan Jawaharlal Nehru
Maharashtra Lavani, Nakata, Koli, Lezim, Gafa, Dahikala Dasavtar
Bardoli Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel or Bohada, Tamasha, Gouricha
Meghalaya Laho, Baagia
Great Foundations and their Founders Manipur Manipuri, Rakhal, Nat Rash, Maha Rash, Riukhat etc
Foundation Founder Mizoram Khanatm, Pakhupila, Cherokan
Kashi Hindu Vishwavidyalaya (1916) Pandit Madanmohan Malviya Nagaland Chong, Khaiva, Lim, Nuralim
Shanti Niketan Ravindranath Tagore Odisha Odissi (Classical), Savari, Ghumara, Painka, Munari,
Swaraj Party (1923) CR Das and Motilal Nehru Chhau

Indian Association (1876) Surendranath Banerjee and West Bengal Kathi, Gambhira, Dhali, Jatra, Baul, Mahal, Keertan etc
Anand Mohan Bose
Punjab Bhangra, Giddha, Daff, Dhaman etc
Theosophical Society (1875) Madam Blavatsky
Rajasthan Ghumar, Chakri, Ganagor, Jhulan Leela, Jhuma,
Asiatic Society (1984) William Jones Ghapal, Kalbeliya
Indian National Congress (1885) AO Hume Tamil Nadu Bharatnatyam, Kumi, Kolattam
Ramkrishna Mission (1897) Swami Vivekananda Telangana Perini Sivatandavan or Perini Thandavan
Prarthana Samaj (1867) Aatmaram Pandurang Uttar Pradesh Nautanki, Raslila, Kajri, Jhora, Chappeli
Tatvabodhini Sabha Devendranath Tagore Uttarakhand Garhwali, Kumayuni, Kajari, Jhora, Raslila, Chappeli
Harijan Sewak Sangh (1932) Mahatma Gandhi
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1055

Indian Authors and their Books Writers

Meghnad Desai
Books
The Rediscovery of India
Writers Books Mulk Raj Anand The Village, Untouchable, Confession of a Lover,
Dr APJ Abdul Ignited Minds, Inspiring Thoughts, You are Born to Seven Summers, Two Leaves and a Bud, Coolie
Kalam Blossom, Envisioning an Empowered Nation, Turning Ruskin Bond Our Tree Still Grow in Dehra, The Blue Umbrella
Points (2012), India 2020 : A Vision for the New
Millennium, Target 3 Billion, The Family and the Nation Rabindranath Gitanjali, Gora, Dak Ghar, Raja
Tagore
(2008), Wings of Fire (Autobiography), Evolution of
Enlightened Societies, Transendence : My Spiritual Kailash Satyarthi Azad Bachpan Ki Aur
Experience with Swami Ji
TS Sudhir Saina Nehwal: An Inspirational Biography
Jawaharlal Nehru A Bunch of Old Letters, Glimpses of World History,
Kiran Desai The Inheritance of Loss, Hullabaloo in the Guava
Letters from Father to his Daughter, The Discovery of
Orchard
India
Anita Desai Fire on the Mountain, The Zig Zag Way
Indira Gandhi My Truth, On People and Problems
Mahasweta Devi Rudaali, Hazaar Chaurasi Ki Maa
Dr Hamid Ansari Travelling through Conflict, Citizen and Society
Annie Besant Wake up India, An Introduction to Yoga, The Case for
Narendra Modi Jyoti Punj (Hindi), Sakshi Bhaav (Hindi), Social
India, My Path of Atheism
Harmony (English), Convenient Action to Climate
Change (English) Chetan Bhagat Revolution 2020, What India Wants, Half Girlfriend,
Pranab The Dramatic Decade: The Indira Gandhi Years, The Making India Awesome, One Indian Girl
Mukherjee Turbulent Years (1980-1996) Vol-II, Thought and Shobhaa De Second Thoughts, Superstar India : From Incredible
Reflection
to Unstoppable, Sweet Sixteen
Dr Rajendra India Divided, Idea of a Nation
Prasad Mother Teresa Down Memory Lane

Sarvapalli Radha Shobha Narayanan Return to India

The Philosophy of Rabindranath Tagore, Indian
Krishnan Philosophy, The Hindu View of Life, Religion and Milkha Singh The Race of My Life
Society, Recovery of Faith Luis Suarez Crossing the Line
Aurobindo Ghosh Life Divine, Essays on Gita Kapil Dev Straight from the Heart
BR Ambedkar Annihilation of Caste, What Congress and Gandhi PT Usha Golden Girl
have Done to Untouchables
Saina Nehwal Playing to Win
Dada Bhai Naoroji Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
MC Mary Kom Unbreakable
Jyotiba Phule Gulamgiri
Salman Rushdie Midnight’s Children, Two Years Eight Months and
JP Narayan Prison Diary
Twenty-Eight Nights, Shame, The Moor’s Last Sigh,
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Pakhtoon Fury, The Satanic Verses
Khan
Aravind Adiga The White Tiger, The Last Man in Tower
Sarojini Naidu The Feather of Dawn, Broken Wing, Golden Threshold
Vikram Seth A Suitable Boy, An Equal Music, Two Lives, The
Lala Lajpat Rai Unhappy India
Golden Gate
Mahatma Gandhi My Experiment with Truth, Hind Swaraj, Pathway to
Arundhati Roy The God of Small Things, The Algebra of Infinite Justice
God, India of My Dreams
Rohinton Mistry Such a Long Journey, Family Matters, A Fine Balance
Raja Ram Mohan Percept of Jesus, Mirat-ul Akbar
Roy VS Naipaul A House for Mr Biswas, India : A Wounded Civilisation,
Shashi Tharoor Bookless in Bagdad, Show business, India Shastra, An Area of Darkness, India : A Million Mutinies Now,
The Elephant, Packs Indica, Great Indian Novel The Masque of Africa, A Bend in the River
Subhash Chandra The Indian Struggle Amitav Ghosh The Circle of Reason, Flood of Fire, River of Smoke,
Bose The Glass Palace, The Shadow Lines, The Calcutta
VD Savarkar Indian War of Independence Chromosome, The Hungry Tide, Sea of Poppies, In an
Antique Land
Amartya Sen Development as Freedom, The Idea of Justice, The
Argumentative Indians, Rationality and Freedom, Nayantara Sehgal Plans for Departure, A voice of Indian
Inequality Re-examined, Commodities and
Capabilities, Between the Assassination Parashar Kulkarni Cow and Company

Bankin Chandra Anand Math Devi, Devi Chaudharani Jhumpa Lahiri Namesake, The Interpreter of Maladies, The Lowland,
Chathopadhyay Unaccustomed Earth
Cyrus Mistry Passion Flower Akhil Sharma Family Life (Novel)
Dilip Kumar The Substance and the Shadow Dilip D’souza Ride Across the River
Khushwant Singh The Sunset Club, Train to Pakistan, Sahibs who Loved Nilotpal Mrinal Dark Horse : A Story
India, To the Thinkers Prayer Book, Why I Supported Shandilya
the Emergency
Chetan Bhagat Five Point Someone, The three Mistakes of My Life,
Vimal Kumar Sachin: Cricketer of the Century Two States, Revolution 2020
1056 CDS Pathfinder

IMPORTANT DATES AND DAYS OF THE YEAR

January 26 Kargil Victory Day
9 Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas 28 World Nature Conservation Day, World Hepatitis Day
12 National Youth Day (Birthday of Swami Vivekanand) August
15 Army Day
6 Hiroshima Day (World Peace Day)
24 Girl Child Day
9 Nagasaki Day
25 National Tourism Day, Voter’s Day
15 India’s Independence Day
26 Indian Republic Day
20 Sadbhavna Diwas
30 Martyr’s Day (Mahatma Gandhi’s Martyrdom), World
Leprosy Eradication Day 29 National Sports Day (Dhyanchand’s birthday)

February September
1 Indian Coast Guard Day 5 Teachers’ Day, Dr Radhakrishnan’s Birthday
2 World Wetlands Day 8 International Literacy Day (UNESCO)
28 National Science Day 15 International Day of Democracy
16 World Ozone Day
March
21 International Day of Peace/Wolrd Alzheimer’s Day
3 National Defence Day, World Wildlife Day
27 World Tourism Day
4 National Security Day
8 International Women’s Day October
15 World Consumer Rights Day 2 International Non-violence Day, Lal Bahadur Shastri and
21 World Forestry Day, International Day for the Mahatma Gandhi’s Birthday
Elimination of Racial Discrimination 8 Indian Air Force Day
22 World Water Day 10 World Mental Health Day; National Post Day
24 World TB Day 11 International Girl Child Day
April 20 National Solidarity Day
(China attacked India on that day)
5 National Maritime Day
24 United Nations Day
7 World Health Day
31 Unity Day
13 Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Day (1919)
14 BR Ambedkar Remembrance Day November
18 World Heritage Day 11 National Education Day
22 World Earth Day 14 Children’s Day, World Diabetes Day
24 Panchayat Divas 16 National Press Day
17 National Epilepsy Day
May
19 National Integration Day
1 International Labour Day (May Day)
20 Universal Children’s Day (UN)
8 World Red Cross Day
26 Constitution Day
21 Anti-Terrorism Day
22 World Biodiversity Day December
31 World Anti-Tobacco Day 1 World AIDS Day

June 2 International Day for the Abolition of Slavery

5 World Environment Day 3 World Disabled Day
20 World Refugee Day 4 Navy Day
21 International Yoga Day 10 Human Rights Day
16 Vijay Divas/Bangladesh Day
July
23 Kisan Divas (Farmer’s Day)
11 World Population Day
25 National Good Governance Day/X-Mas Day
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1057

ABBREVIATIONS
A D H
AD Anno Domini (After the birth of DDT Dichlorodiphenyl HAL Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Jesus) Trichloroethane HIV Human Immunodeficiency Virus
AFSPA Armed Forces Special Power Act DFDR Digital Flight Data Recorder
AIDS Acquired Immuno Deficiency (Black Box) I
Syndrome DIG Deputy Inspector General IAAI International Airport Authority of
APPLE Ariane Passenger Payload DPT Diphtheria Pertussis Tetanus India
Experiment IAEA International Atomic Energy Agency
DRDO Defence Research and
ASI Archaeological Survey of India Development Organisation ICRC International Committee of the Red
AWACS Airborne Warning And Control Cross
System E IMO International Maritime Organisation
INSAT Indian National Satellite
B ECG Electro Cardiogram
IPC Indian Penal Code
ECT Electro Convulsive Therapy
BC SBI Banking Codes and Standard IRBM Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile
(electric shock treatment)
Board of India IRS Indian Remote Sensing Satellite
EEG Electro-Encephalography
BBC British Broadcasting ISRO Indian Space Research Organisation
Corporation ELISA Enzyme Linked Immuno
BC Before Christ Sorbent Assay (used for J, K, L
(Before the birth of Jesus Christ) testing AIDS)
JAM Jandhan Yojana Aadhar, Mobile
BCG Bacillus Calmette Guerin ESCAP Economic and Social Number
(Anti-Tuberculosis Vaccine) Commission for Asia and the KYC Know Your Customer
Pacific
BIMSTEC Bay of Bengal Initiative for LCA Light Combat Aircraft
Multi-Sectoral Technical and EVM Electronic Voting Machine LIGO Laser Interferometer Gravitational
Economic Co-operation wave Observatory
BIS Bureau of Indian Standards F LOC Line of Control
BMDS Ballistic Missile Defence System FDI Foreign Direct Investment LOAC Line of Actual Control
BRO Border Roads Organisation FII Foreign Institutional Investor LTA Light Transport Aircraft
BRT Bus Rapid Transit FERA Foreign Exchange Regulation
Act M
C FEMA Foreign Exchange MAT Minimum Alternative Tax
CAG Comptroller and Auditor Management Act MMS Multimedia Message Service
General FICCI Federation of Indian MTCR Missile Technology Control Regime
CAIR Centre for Artificial Intelligence Chambers of Commerce and
and Robotics Industry N
CAZRI Central Arid Zone Research National AIDS Control Organisation
Institute
G NACO
NAFTA North American Free Trade
CBI Central Bureau of Investigation GATS General Agreement on Trade Agreement
Central Industrial Security Force in Services
CISF NASA National Aeronautics and Space
CITES Convention on International GATT General Agreement on Administration
Trade in Endangered Species Tariffs and Trade NATO North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
CNG Compressed Natural Gas GMT Greenwich Mean Time NEPA National Environment Protection
CPCB Central Pollution Control Board GNSS Global Navigation Satellite Authority
System NTPC National Thermal Power Corporation
CPRI Central Power Research
Institute GPS Global Positioning System
CSIR Council of Scientific and GSLV Geosynchronous Satellite O
Industrial Research Launch Vehicle OCI Overseas Citizen of India
CVC Central Vigilance Commission ODS Ozone Depletion Substances
1058 CDS Pathfinder

P TRAI Telecom Regulatory Authority of India

TRIPS Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
PIB Press Information Bureau
PSLV Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle U
Q, R UAV Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
UNCTAD United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
RAF Rapid Action Force
UNDP United Nations Development Programme
RBI Reserve Bank of India
UNEP United Nations Environment Programme
RLV Reusable Launch Vehicle
UNFPA United Nations Fund for Population Activities
S V
SAFTA South Asian Free Trade Area
VAT Value Added Tax
SAIL Steel Authority of India Limited
VOIP Voice Over Internet Protocol
SAPTA SAARC Preferential Trading Agreement
SATNAV Satellite Navigation W
SAVE SAARC Audio Visual Exchange
WADA World Anti-Doping Agency
SCO Shanghai Co-operation Organisation
WFP World Food Programme
SEBI Securities and Exchange Board of India
WWF World Wide Fund for Nature
SIDBI Small Industries Development Bank of India
STARTS Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty Station X, Y, Z
T YAHOO Yet Another Hierarchical Officious Oracle
TIN Tax Identification Number ZSI Zoological Survey of India
TIEA Tax Information Exchange Agreement

AWARDS AND HONOURS

INTERNATIONAL AWARDS Indian Nobel Laureates

AND HONOURS Name Field Year

Rabindranath Tagore Literature (Gitanjali) 1913
Nobel Prize CV Raman Physics (Raman Effect) 1930

• The nobel prizes are given under the will of Alfred Hargobind Khorana Medicine (Genetic Code) 1968
(of Indian Descent)
Bernhard Nobel, who died in 1896.
Mother Teresa Peace 1979
• Nobel prizes are given each year in the six fields. The
nobel prizes for Peace, Physics, Chemistry, Medicine Subramanian Chandrashekhar Physics 1983
(of Indian Descent) (Chandrashekhar’s Limit)
and Literature were started in 1901. The Nobel Prize for
Economics was started in 1968. Amartya Sen Economics 1998
(Welfare Economics)
• The awards are presented in stockholm in an annual
Sir VS Naipaul Literature 2001
ceremony on 10th December, except the Peace Prize, (of Indian Descent)
which awarded in OSLO, Norway. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan Chemistry (Ribosomes) 2009
• The prize is not awarded posthumously however, if a (of Indian Descent)
person is awarded a prize and dies before receiving it, Kailash Satyarthi (with Malala Peace 2014
the prize may still be presented. Yousafzai of Pakistan)
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1059

Indians Who have Won Winner of Man Booker Prize

Ramon Magsaysay Award
VS Naipaul (Novel-In a Free State) 1971
• Ramon Magsaysay Award is an annual award given in
Salman Rushdie (Novel-Midnight Children) 1981
memory of former Phillippine President Ramon
Rohinton Mistry (Such a Long Journey) 1991
Magsaysay. Basic objective of award is to perpetuate the
former President exemplary integrity in governance, Arundhati Roy (Novel-The God of Small Things) 1997
courageous service to the people and ideal Kiran Desai (Novel-The Inheritance of Loss) 2006
decision-making in democratic society. Aravind Adiga (Novel- The White Tiger) 2008
• Award is given by Ramon Magsaysay award foundation to
only Asian individuals. Since its inception in 1958, award
were given in six different categories viz Government
Man Booker International Prize
service, public service, community leadership, journalism, Man Booker International Prize is an International
literature and creative communication arts, peace and Literary Award. Earlier award was given biennially now it
international understanding and emergent leadership. But, is being given annually. Albanian novelist Ismail Kadare
from 2009 onwards awards are given for emergent was named the first winner in 2005. An author can win
leadership or in uncategorised category. this award only once.
• Vinoba Bhave was first Indian to receive Magsaysay Award. Important Facts About this Award
Awarded for Best English (or Available for
Pulitzer Prize Translation into English Fiction)
Presented by Man Group
• Pulitzer Prize is an award for achievements in newspaper,
Country Any Nationality
magazine and online journalism, literature and musical
Cash Award 60000 Pounds
composition in the United States.
First Awarded 2005
• It was established in 1917 by provisions in the will of
American (Hungarian-born) Joseph Pulitzer, who had
made his fortune as a newspaper publisher. Award is
administered by Columbia University in New York City.
Film, Music and Art Awards
• The winner in the public service category of the Oscar Award
journalism competition is awarded a gold medal, while The Academy Awards informally known as the Oscar, are
other gets a certificate and US $ 10000 cash award. a set of awards given annually for excellence in cinematic
achievement. It is organised and overseen by the Academy
Indians Who have Won Pulitzer Prize
of Motion Picture Arts and Science (AMPAS) of United
Gobind Behari Lal (for reporting) 1937 States.
Jhumpa Lahiri (Interpreter of Maladies) for Fiction 2000
Important Facts About the Oscar Award
Geeta Anand (for journalism) 2003
Founder Margaret Hareke on behalf of its first father
Dr Siddhartha Mukherjee (for Non-Fiction) 2011 Herman Oscar.
(The Emperor of all Maladies: A Biography of Cancer)
Nature of Prize Citation (Academy Award for Merit)
Vijay Seshadri (Poem) 2014
5 Spikes-Designate For Producer, Writer, Director, Actor and
Technician
Man Booker Prize
Some Important Facts Related to Oscar
The name of Booker Prize has been renamed as Man
Booker Prize in 2002, reflecting the sponsorship by an Only person, who won both Oscar George Bernard Shaw (Ireland)
Prize as well as Nobel Prize
investment of company, The Man Group PLC. The award is
given each year, it is an international literary award hosted Titanic (1997), Ben-Hur (1959) and 11 Oscars
in Britain. The Lord of the Rings : The Return
of the King (2003) these three films
Import Facts about Man Booker Prize have won
Most nominations for Oscar Walt Disney (59 times),
Awarded for Best full-length English novel
John Williams (50 times)
Presented by Man Group
Youngest to get Oscar Prize Tatum O Neil (Paper Moon), 10
Country Commonwealth of Nations, Ireland and Zimbabwe years
Prize Money 50000 pound First Posthumously Nominated Actor James Dean (2 Times)
First Awarded 1969 Oldest to get nominated Gloria Stuart (87 years) (California)
Recent George Saunders for his fiction Lincon in the Bardo First film to win Oscar Wings 1927-28 directed by William
(2017) A Wellman, a silent movie
1060 CDS Pathfinder

Indians Who have Won Oscar Awards Miss World

Name Category Year Formation In 1951, By Eric Morley, UK (It is the oldest
surviving major international beauty pageant)
Bhanu Athaiya Costume Design (Gandhi) (First Indian who won 1982
Oscar) Headquarters London, England

Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award 1992 Offical Language English

AR Rahman Best original score and best original song 2009 Slogan Beauty with a Purpose
(Slumdog Millionaire) Indian Winners (a) Reita Faria (1966) (First Asian Winner)
Gulzar Best original song (Slumdog Millionaire) 2009 (b) Aishwarya Rai (1994)
(c) Diana Hayden (1997)
Resul Pookutty Best sound mixing (Slumdog Millionaire) 2009 (d) Yukta Mookhey (1999)
Rahul Thakkar Dream Works Animation Media Review System 2016 (e) Priyanka Chopra (2000)
(Indian-American) (Sci-Tech. Award) (f) Manushi Chillar (2017)

Cottalango Leon Sony Pictures Image Works (Sci-Tech. Award) 2016 Cash prize 50000 British pound
(Indian-American)
Miss Earth
Grammy Awards Motto Beauties for a Cause

A Grammy award or Grammy, is an honor awarded by Formation In 2001

the recording academy to recognise outstanding Headquarters Philippines
achievement in the mainly English-language music Indian Winner (2010) Nicole Faria
industry.
Miss India
Important Facts About the Grammy Award
Formation 1963, Organised by Femina, a women’s magazine
Presented by National Academy of Recording Arts and published by Bennett, Coleman and Company
Sciences of the United States Limited
First Awarded 1959 Headquarters Mumbai, India
Categories 108
Award Description The Gold-Plated trophies, each depicting a
gilded gramophone. They are made and INDIAN AWARDS AND
assembled by hand by Billings Artworks in
Ridgway, Colorado HONOURS
Indians Who have Won Grammy Award India’s International Awards
Name Year
Pandit Ravi Shankar 1967, 1973, 2002, 2013 and Lifetime
International Gandhi Peace Prize
(5 Grammy Awards) Achievement Award received at the 55th Annual • It was instituted in 1995 by Government of India to
Grammy Awards encourage and promote Gandhian values world wide.
Zakir Hussain (2 times) 1992, 2009 • The award carries ` 10 million in cash, convertible in
Vishwa Mohan Bhatt 1994 any currency in the world, a plaque and citation. It is
Vikku Vinayak 1991 open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, creed
or sex.
AR Rahman 2009
• The Peace Prize is awarded annually by the Government
PA Deepak 2010
of India. The Award is given to individual and
Rickey Kej 2015 institutions for their contribution towards social,
economic and political transformation through
non-violence and other Gandhian methods.
International Beauty Contest • The Jury consists of Prime Minister of India, Leader of
Miss Universe opposition in the Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India and
Formation 1952, Founded by-California Clothing Company,
two other eminent personalities.
Pacific Mills • In 2014, ISRO was awarded International Gandhi Peace
Headquarters New York City, United States Prize.
Slogan Redefined for Today
Indira Gandhi Prize
Indian Winners (a) Sushmita Sen (1994)
(b) Lara Dutta (2000) • It is also known as Indira Gandhi Peace Prize or the
Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and
Cash prize US $ 70000
Development. It was instituted in 1986 and awarded by
Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust.
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1061

• The prize carries a cash award of ` 25 lakhs Winners of Bharat Ratna

Indian rupees and a citation. A written work 1954 Dr Chandra Sekhar Venkat Raman, Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan,
in order, to be eligible for consideration, Shri Chakravarti Rajagopalachari
should have been published. 1955 Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Dr Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya, Dr Bhagwan Das
1957 Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
Kalinga Prize
1958 Dr Dhondo Keshav Karve
Award is given for popularisation of science by
1961 Dr Bidhan Chandra Roy, Shri Purushottam Das Tandon
UNESCO. Award was established in 1952 by
Kalinga Foundation Biju-Patnaik. 1962 Dr Rajendra Prasad
1963 Dr Zakir Hussain, Dr Pandurang Vaman Kane
Jawaharlal Nehru Award for 1966 Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri (Posthumously)
International Understanding 1971 Smt Indira Gandhi
Jawaharlal Nehru award for International 1975 Shri Varahagiri Venkata Giri
understanding was instituted by the Government 1976 Shri Kumaraswamy Kamraj (Posthumously)
of India in the memory of India’s first Prime 1980 Mother Teresa
Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. It is open to the
1983 Shri Acharya Vinoba Bhave (Posthumously)
citizens and institutions of all countries who
have made an outstanding contribution to the 1987 Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (First Foreign Recipient)
promotion of International understanding, 1988 Shri Marudur Gopalan Ramachandran (Posthumously)
goodwill and friendship among people of the 1990 Dr Nelson Rolihlahla Mandela, Dr Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar (Posthumously)
world. 1991 Shri Rajiv Gandhi (Posthumously), Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (Posthumously),
Shri Morarji Ranchhodji Desai
Rabindranath Tagore Peace 1992 Shri Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (Posthumously),
Award Shri Satyajit Ray, Shri Jehangir Ratanji Dadabhai Tata

The Tagore award is an award given in 1997 Dr APJ Abdul Kalam, Smt Aruna Asaf Ali (Posthumously), Shri Gulzari Lal Nanda
commemoration of the 150th birth anniversary 1998 Smt MS Subbulakshmi, Shri Chidambaram Subramaniam
of the nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore for 1999 Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi (Posthumously), Professor Amartya Sen,
cultural harmony. Established in 2011 by Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan (Posthumously), Pandit Ravi Shankar
Government of India, it is given for outstanding 2001 Ustad Bismillah Khan, Lata Dinanath Mangeshkar
achievement in fostering harmony and 2009 Pandit Bhimsen Gururaj Joshi
universalism and values of cultural harmony
2014 Sachin Ramesh Tendulkar, CNR Rao
especially in conflict or extreme situations
2015 Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Madan Mohan Malaviya (Posthumously)
through innovative systems/strategies and which
have an enduring and transformational impact.
Padma Awards
NATIONAL AWARDS Padma Vibhushan
It is the second highest Civilian Award after Bharat Ratna and is
Bharat Ratna awarded by the President of India. It was established on 2nd January,
• Bharat Ratna is India’s highest Civilian 1954. The first recipients of this award were Satyendranath Bose,
Award. It was first awarded in 1954. The Nand Lal Bose, Zakir Hussain, VK Krishna Menon etc.
actual award is designed in the shape of a
Peepal leaf with Bharat Ratna inscribed in Padma Bhushan
Devanagari script in the Sun Figure. The award was established on 2nd January, 1954. This is the third
• The reverse side of the decoration Satyamev highest Civilian Award after Bharat Ratna and Padma Vibhushan. It
Jayate has been written in Hindi with an is announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year. Shivam
inscription of state emblem. The emblem, the Shetty Manohar was the youngest to have achieved this award. Shanti
Sun and the rim are of platinum. The Swarup Bhatnagar and MS Subbulakshmi were among the first
inscriptions are in burnished bronze. recipients of this award.
• The first recipients of the Bharat Ratna were Padma Shri
politician C Rajagopalachari, Philosopher This is the fourth highest Civilian Award after Bharat Ratna, Padma
Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan and Scientist CV Vibhushan and Padma Bhushan. It is awarded irrespective citizenship
Raman who were honoured in 1954. to recognise their distinguished contribution in various spheres of
• Abdul Gaffar Khan was the first foreigner to activities including the arts, education, industry, literature, science,
be honoured with this award in 1987. sports, medicine, social service and public affairs.
1062 CDS Pathfinder

Valour Awards All the three awards are also given posthumously.
Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra are Other Military Awards
awarded for the highest degree of valour or self-sacrifice
Category Award
in the presence of enemy. These are awarded by
Government of India. All these awards were established Wartime/Peacetime Service and Sena Medal (Army), Nao Sena Medal
Gallantry (Navy), Vayusena Medal (Air Force)
on 26th January, 1950.
Wartime Distinguished Service Sarvottam Yudh Seva Medal, Uttam Yudh
Param Vir Chakra (PVC) It is India’s highest military Seva Medal, Yudh Seva Medal
decoration, awards for the highest degree of valour or
Peacetime Distinguished Service Param Vishisht Seva Medal, Ati Vishisht
self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy. Medal is a Seva Medal, Vishisht Seva Medal
circular bronze disc of 1.375 inches in diameter and
purple ribbon holds it.
In the centre of medal emblem of India is made on a National Bravery Award
crafted circle and outside the circle replica of vajra is
• It was started in 1957 by Indian Council for child welfare
in four direction and other side Param Vir Chakra
was written in Hindi and English and it was separated to recognise and honour children who have performed
by lotus. Major Somnath Sharma was first army man outstanding deeds of bravery and self-sacrifice.
to receive this honour. • Awards are given to children below age of 18 years.
Maha Vir Chakra (MVC) It is the second highest Awards are announced on 14th November (Childrens’
military decoration in India and is awarded for acts of day) and presented by Prime Minister on eve of Republic
conspicuous gallantry in the presence of the enemy, day. The awardees received a medal, certificate and cash.
whether on land, at sea or in the air. It may be
awarded posthumously. Literary and Cultural Awards
The words Maha Vir Chakra are embossed in Hindi
and English on the reverse with two lotus flowers in Bharatiya Jnanpith Award The Jnanpith Award is an
the middle. The decoration is worn on the left chest Indian literary award presented annually by the
with a half-white and half-orange ribbon about 3.2 Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust to an author for their
cm in width, the orange being near the left shoulder. outstanding contribution towards literature.
Lt Col Dewan Ranjit Rai was first army man to won Instituted in 1961, the award is bestowed only on the
Mahavir Chakra. Indian writers who have been writing in Indian
Vir Chakra It is an Indian gallantary award presented languages, included in the Eighth Schedule to the
for acts of bravery in the battlefield. It is third in Constitution of India and in English. As of 2015, the
precedence in the war time gallantary awards and cash prize has been revised to 11 lakh with a bronze
comes after the Param Vir Chakra and Maha Vir replica of Saraswati. G Shankara Kurup was the first
Chakra. recipient in 1965.
Sahitya Akademi Awards It started in 1954. These
Peace Time Gallantry Awards awards are conferred by government to the most
These awards include Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra and outstanding literary work published in language
Shaurya Chakra. These are Indian military decoration recognised by Constitution, English and Rajasthani.
awarded for valour, courageous action or self sacrifice away Saraswati Samman Award The Saraswati Samman is an
from the battlefield. These awards are given by Government annual award for outstanding prose or poetry literary
of India and was established on 4th January, 1952. works in any 22 Indian languages listed in Schedule
Eight of the Constitution of India. The award was
Award Year of Institution Awarded by Awarded for
instituted in 1991 by the KK Birla Foundation. It
Ashoka 4th January, 1952 Government National bravery away consists of ` 10 lakh, a citation and a plaque. The first
Chakra with effect-from of India from battle field
15th August, 1947 recipient of this award was Harivansh Rai Bachchan.
Kirti 4th January, 1952 Government National bravery away Moorti Devi Award It is an annual literary award
Chakra with effect-from of India from battle field presented by the Bharatiya Jnanpith Trust/organisation
15th August, 1947 for work which emphasises Indian philosophy and
Shaurya 4th January, 1952 Government National bravery culture. The prize includes an amount of ` 4 lakh, a
Chakra with effect-from of India generally for counter plague a statue of saraswati, and a shawl. C.K. Nagaraja
15th August, 1947 insurgency operations
and action against the Rao was first recipient in 1983 for his Kannada
enemy during peace language work Pattamahadevi Shantala Devi.
time
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1063

Science Award Sports Award

Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize of Science and Technology Award Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award It is
presented by CSIR for notable and outstanding research in field of India’s highest honour given for
basic science, engineering, medicine and mathematics. This awards was achievement in sports. It is awarded
established in 1958. by Government of India, since
Borlaug Award This award is conferred to eminent Indian scientist for 1991-92.
his/her contribution in the field of agriculture and environment. It recognises the spectacular and most
Award was created in 1972 and is conferred by fertilizer company, outstanding performance by a sports
Coromandel International. person over a period of 4 years
immediately preceding the year during
Dr Vikram Sarabhai Award This award is conferred by Gujarat Council
which award is given.
of Science and Technology to promote and encourage research in the
First Khel Ratna award was given to
field of Energy, Environment, Biotechnology, Industry and IT. Indian
Viswanathan Anand in 1991. In 2016,
Science Congress also gives it for contribution to space research.
the award was given jointly to PV
Dr BC Roy Award This award was instituted by the Medical Council of Sindhu, Sakshi Malik, Dipu Karmakar
India in 1976. It is given in the field of medicine and relate field of and Jitu Rai.
social service.
Arjuna Award Instituted in 1961.
RD Birla Award This award is established by RD Birla foundation in Carries a cash prize of ` 500000, a
1979. Award is conferred for outstanding work in the field of medicine. bronze statuette of Arjuna and a
Kurien Prize This award is given by National Dairy Research scroll. The Arjuna awards are given
Organisation for outstanding contribution in development of dairy and by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and
farming product. Sports, Government of India to
Homi Bhabha Award This award is conferred by Government of India recognise outstanding achievement in
for Excellence in the field of atomic energy. National sports.
Dronacharya Award Dronacharya
Environment Awards Award is an award presented by the
Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports,
Awards and Honour Estab. Foundation/Organisation Specialisation Government of India for excellence in
Indira Priyadarshini 1986 Ministry of Environment and For excellence in the sports coaching.
Vrikshamitra Puraskar Forests (Government of afforestation and wasteland The award comprises a bronze
( ` 2.5 lakh +Medal + India) development
Citation) statuette of Dronacharya, a scroll of
Indira Gandhi Paryavaran 1987 Ministry of Environment and For significant contribution in
honour and a cash component of `
Puraskar Forests (Government of the field of environment 700000 (seven lakhs). The award was
( ` 1 lakh +Citation+ India) instituted in 1985. BI Fernandez
Silver medal)
(Cuba) is the first foreign coach to be
Rajiv Gandhi Quality 1991 BIS (Bureau of Indian To control quality in the awarded Dronacharya Award.
Award Standards) industries
Rajiv Gandhi Environment 1993 Ministry of Environment and For significant contribution in
Dhyanchand Award Instituted in 2002,
Award for clean Forests (Government of the field of environment, in honour of famous hockey player,
Technology India) which have measurable Major Dhyanchand. Carries a cash
(` 2 lakh + Trophy + impact on the protection/
Citation) overall improvement of the prize of ` 500000. Dhyanchand Award
environment is India’s highest award for lifetime
Amrita Devi Bishnoi — Ministry of Environment and Given to individual/institution achievement in sports and games,
Wildlife Protection Award Forests pertaining to rural community given by the Ministry of Youth
( ` 1 lakh+ Medallion+ for significant role in the field Affairs and Sports.
Citation) of protection of wildlife
Medini Puraskar — Ministry of Environment and Given to authors each year to Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar It
( ` 15000 to 31000) Forests encourage original works in was introduced in 2009 to promote
Hindi on environment and its involvement of corporates and
related subjects such as
wildlife water resources institutional boards in sports.
conservation
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA)
Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife — Ministry of Environment and Given to individual/institution Trophy Instituted in 1956-57. It is
Conservation Award Forests for significant role in the field
( ` 1 lakh + Medallion + of wildlife protection given to top performer of inter-state
Trophy + Citation) university tournament. It is a rolling
National Award for — Ministry of Environment and For adopting various trophy.
Pollution Control Forests pollution control measures
1064 CDS Pathfinder

Some Famous Awards by State Governments

Awarded/
SPORTS
Award Field of Honour
Instituted by
Mahatma Gandhi Madhya Pradesh To an institution Olympics
Award Government working according
to Gandhi • First time the olympics were held in 776 BC on Mount
philosophy and Olympus. The International Olympic Committee (IOC) was
ideology founded in 1894 in Paris. It acts as the umbrella organisation of
Tansen Award Madhya Pradesh Indian classical the olympic. Its headquarter is at Lausanne (Switzerland).
Government music Olympic symbol contains five rings as circles representing the
Kalidas Award Madhya Pradesh Classical dance and five continents.
Government music, theatre,
painting and • First game under the auspices of IOC was held in 1896 in
sculpture Athens. Separate winter olympic started in 1924 and first
Tulsidas Award Madhya Pradesh Folk and traditional paralympics was held in 1960.
Government tribal art (only for • Youth olympic game meant for 14-18 year age of player was
male artist)
held for first time in Singapore 2010.
Lata Mangeshkar Madhya Pradesh For music direction
Award Government and playback List of Indian Athletes who have Won Olymic Medals
singing in field of
light music Name/Team Medal Years, Venue Sport Event
Santhala Dance Karnataka Government Santhal dance (a National team Gold 1928, Hockey Men’s competition
Award tribal dance form) Amsterdam
Konark Samman Odisha State Council Literature, art National team Gold 1932, Hockey Men’s competition
of Culture sculpture, music, Los Angeles
dance and
socio-cultural work National team Gold 1936, Berlin Hockey Men’s competition
National team Gold 1948, London Hockey Men’s competition
National team Gold 1952, Helsinki Hockey Men’s competition
Film Awards Khashaba Bronze 1952, Helsinki Wrestling Men’s freestyle Bantamweight
National Film Awards Dadasaheb
Jadhav
It is administered by the Directorate of Film National team Gold 1956, Hockey Men’s competition
Festivals. Every year the award ceremony Melbourne
organised is in New Delhi and President of India National team Silver 1960, Rome Hockey Men’s competition
presents the awards. It started from the year 1954.
National team Gold 1964, Tokyo Hockey Men’s competition

Dada Saheb Phalke Award National team Bronze 1968, Mexico Hockey Men’s competition

Dada Saheb Phalke award is given to film National team Bronze 1972, Munich Hockey Men’s competition
personality for his/her outstanding contribution to National team Gold 1980, Moscow Hockey Men’s competition
the growth and development of Indian cinema. Leander Paes Bronze 1996, Atlanta Tennis Men’s singles
This award was introduced by Government of Karnam Bronze 2000, Sydney Weightlifting Women’s 69 kg
India in 1969 and award comprises of ` 1000000 Malleswari
(a cash prize), Swarna Kamal and a Shawl. Devika Rajyavardhan Silver 2004, Athens Shooting Men’s double trap
Rani Roerich was the first person to receive this Singh Rathore
award. Abhinav Bindra Gold 2008, Beijing Shooting Men’s 10 m Air Rifle
Vijender Singh Bronze 2008, Beijing Boxing Men’s 75 kg
Filmfare Awards Sushil Kumar Bronze 2008, Beijing Wrestling Men’s 66 kg Freestyle
The filmfare awards are presented annually by the
Gagan Narang Bronze 2012, London Shooting Men’s 10m Air Rifle
Times Group to honour both artistic and technical
excellence of professionals in the Hindi language Vijay Kumar Silver 2012, London Shooting Men’s 25 Rapid Fire Pistol
film industry of India. The filmfare ceremony is Saina Nehwal Bronze 2012, London Badminton Women’s Singles
one of the oldest film events in India. The awards Mary Kom Bronze 2012, London Boxing Women’s Flyweight
were first introduced in 1954. The 61st Filmfare Yogeshwar Dutt Bronze 2012, London Wrestling Men’s 60 kg Freestyle
awards were held on 15th January, 2016 at the
Sushil Kumar Silver 2012, London Wrestling Men’s 66 kg Freestyle
Prince Ahuja Studio in Mumbai.
Sakshi Malik Bronze 2016, Rio Wrestling Women’s 58 kg Freestyle
Sindhu PV Silver 2016, Rio Badminton Women’s Singles
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1065

Two Indian cricketer have been awarded Rajiv Gandhi

Paralympics Khel Ratna Award– Sachin Tendulkar and MS Dhoni.
It is a multi-sport event for differently abled athletes or Cricket World Cup is held every four years since, 1975.
players. Paralympic games are organised at a same venue after The event is organised by the International Cricket
the olympic games. It is organised by International Council (ICC). First World Cup was held in England
para-olympic committee. Offically games were organised in and it was won by West Indies.
1960, but unoffically it was being organised since, 1948.
List of Cricket World Cup
In 2016 paralympics, India won 2 gold, 1 silver, 1 bronze and
overall it was on 43rd place in medals tally. Mariyappan 1975 Lord’s, England West Indies beat Australia
Thangovelu and Devendra Jhajharia won gold in high jump 1979 Lord’s, England West Indies beat England
and Javelion Throw respectively. While Deepa Malik got 1983 Lord’s, England India beat West Indies
silver in shotput and Varun Bhati won Bronze for high jump. 1987 Kolkata, India Australia beat England
1992 Melbourne, (Australia) Pakistan beat England
Commonwealth Games 1996 Lahore, Pakistan Sri Lanka beat Australia
First Commonwealth games were held in 1930 in Hamilton, 1999 Lord’s, England Australia beat Pakistan
Canada. In 2010, Commonwealth games were held in Delhi.
2003 Johannesburg, South Africa Australia beat India
20th Commonwealth Games of 2014 was held in Glasgow,
2007 Bridgetown, West Indies Australia beat Sri Lanka
Scotland and next Commonwealth games will be held in
Australia in 2018. Currently, 71 nations and territories 2011 Mumbai, India India beat Sri Lanka
participate in these games. 2015 Australia/New Zealand Australia beat New Zealand
2019 England and Wales Scheduled
Asian Games
It is also known as Asiad. It is a pan continental multi-sport T-20 World Cup
event organised after every 4 years. Athlete from all over the It is organised by the International Cricket Council
Asia participates in it. It was organised for first time in 1951 (ICC) every two years. It was first started in 2007. This
at New Delhi. inaugural event was staged in South Africa and won by
Asian games are organised by Olympic Council of Asia. India after defeating Pakistan. The 2016 edition was
These games are described as the second largest multi-sport won by West Indies after defeating England.
event after the olympics. In 2014, games were held in
Women’s Cricket World Cup
Incheon, South Korea. The next games is scheduled to be held
in Jakarta and Palembang, Indonesia in 2018. The Women’s Cricket World Cup is the oldest and
prestigious international women’s cricket tournament,
organised by ICC. It was first played in 1973 at
Other Games England. The 2017 World Cup, scheduled in England
has been won by England women cricket team and it is
Cricket their 4th title. Australia has won most of the time (6
India played its first match against England in 1932 and won titles). The next 2021 has scheduled in New Zealand.
its first match also against England in 1952. First overseas test
victory for India in cricket was against New Zealand under Football
captaincy of MAK Pataudi.
The Football World Cup is organised by FIFA
India has played its 500th test match against New Zealand at (Federation of International Football Association). The
Kanpur in 2016. headquarters of FIFA is located in Zurich, Switzerland.
Indian cricketer Sachin Tendulkar hold record for maximum The World Cup is also called ‘Jules Rimet Cup’ named
number of runs in test and one-day internationals and he also after the name of FIFA President Jules Rimet. The first
holds record for maximum number of centuries. Football World Cup was organised in Uruguay in 1930
Maximum number of wickets have been taken by and it was won by Urugway. 2018 Football World Cup
Sri Lankan cricketer Murlidharan. Australia has won will be held in Russia.
maximum number of matches in cricket.
1066 CDS Pathfinder

Some Facts Grand Slam Tournaments

• Women’s Football World Cup is also organised by FIFA. It First
was held for first time in 1991 in China. USA has won Tournament Month Location Surface
Held
maximum numbmer of title (3 times). Australian Open January Melbourne Hard 1905
• Brazil was the host of 2014 Football World Cup. Germany (Plexicushion)
was the winner and Argentina became the runner-up. Brazil French Open May-June Paris Clay 1925
has won maximum number of times world cup in football Wimbledon June-July London Grass 1877
i.e. 5 times.
US Open August- New York Hard 1881
• Germany’s Miroslav Klose holds record for maximum September City (Deco Turf)
number of goals in World Cup followed by Pele (Brazil)
and Jurgen Klinsmann. Boxing
• Euro Cup is played between the European countries. • It is regular feature in olympics and commonwealth
Recent addition 2016 of Euro Cup was held in France in games, and along with these it has its own world
2016 and winner of that edition was Portugal. championship.
• Brazil won olympic gold medal in men’s and Germany won • Mary Kom is only Indian to have won medal in every
gold medal in women’s format in 2016 olympic games. edition of world championship and she has won
• India Super Leage (ISL), a men’s professional football Bronze in olympics 2012.
league in India. Currently, it is not part of Indian football • Vijendra Singh famous boxer of India has won bronze
pyramid. medal in Bejing olympics and in world championship.
He was India’s first boxer to win a medal in olympics.
Hockey
The Hockey World Cup is organised by the International Wrestling
Hockey Federation (FIH) once in four years. The headquarters • It features in olympic, commonwealth and it has its
of FIH is located in Lausanne, Switzerland. own world championship.
Some Facts • Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav is first Indian to won
• The first Hockey World Cup was organised in Barcelona medal in olympic in wrestling. He won bronze in 1952
(Spain) in 1971 and winner was Pakistan. in Helsinki.
• Women’s Hockey World Cup has been held since, 1974. • Sushil Kumar is most successful wrestler from India.
• The 13th Hockey World Cup was held in Hague
He has won two Olympic Medal (2008, 2012), World
(Netherlands) in 2014 and its winner was Australia. Championship (2010), two golds at commonwealth
(2010, 2014) and many Asian championship.
• In 2010, Hockey World Cup was held in New Delhi and
winner was Australia. Badminton
• India has won Hockey World Cup only once i.e. in the • It is played in olympics, commonwealth games and it
year 1975. India has also won Sultan Aslam Shah Cup 5 has its own championship. It was first played in
times. olympics in 1992.
• Argentina has won gold medal for hockey in Rio olympics • Saina Nehwal is the first Indian to win a olympic
2016. medal in badminton from India. She won bronze
• Hockey India League (HIL) is professional field hockey medal in London olympics. Saina Nehwal held rank-I
league in India. in 2015 and she is also recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel
Ratna Award, Arjun Award and Padma Shri.
Lawn Tennis • PV Sindhu (rank-II in 2017) won silver medal in Rio
• It was invented in 1870 by Major Wing Field in Wales. olympics. She is youngest Indian to receive Padma
Wimbledon championship started in 1877 for men only. Shri.
For women it was introduced in 1884. India first time
• Srikanth Kidambi is Indian shuttler with rank-II in
participated in Davis Cup in 1921.
2017. By defeating China’s olympic Champion Lin
• Leander Paes has won maximum number of grand slams Dan in 2014, he won China Open Super Series
from India in mixed doubles and doubles. premier. He is first Indian to win this title.
• Sania Mirza has won her first double grandslam in • Primer/Indian Badminton League started in year 2013,
Wimbledon, 2015. in 2016 its 2nd season was held and winner of 2nd
• Leander Paes hold record for maximum wins in Davis Cup season was Delhi Acers.
for India.
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1067

Kabaddi Polo
• The game of Kabaddi originated in India. The modern • Sometimes called The Sport of Kings, polo was
form of Kabaddi came up in 1920. All India Kabaddi started by the Persians. The modern game of polo,
Federation (AIKF) was formed in 1950. originated in Manipur.
• The game was included in the Asian Games of 1982. Men’s • The first Polo Club was established in the town of
Kabaddi World Cup has been held in 2004, 2007, 2010, Silchar in Assam, India in 1833. It reached England in
2011, 2012, 2013 and 2014, and India has won all of them. 1869.
• Most of times, India has won the Kabaddi World Cup. • The first international polo match was played in 1886,
between England and USA. Federation of International
Chess Polo is the highest governing body, established in 1930
• The Federation Internationale Des Echecs (FIDE) or and its headquarters is in Beverly Hills, USA.
World Chess Federation is governing body of Important Cups and Trophies
international chess competition. FIDE administers the
world championship. Sport Cup and Trophy
• It is believed that origin of chess is traced in North-West Cricket Irani Trophy, Dilip Trophy, Ranji Trophy, Vizzy Trophy, Asia
India, during Gupta period. won. India has got two very Cup, Deodhar Trophy, CK Naidu Trophy, Cooch-Behar
Trophy
top rankers and world renowned chess player viz
Viswanathan Anand who is world No. 2 and Koneru Football Durand Cup, Nizam Gold Cup, Rovers Cup, Sanjay Gold
Cup, Santosh Trophy, Subroto Mukherjee Cup, Vittal
Humpy is female world No. 3. Trophy, Nehru Gold Cup
Hockey Agha Khan Cup, Azlan Shah Cup, Nehru Trophy,
Shooting Dhyanchand Trophy, Beighton Cup, Scindia Gold Cup,
• Shooting is regular feature in olympics since its inception Modi Gold Cup, Indira Gandhi Gold Cup, Rangaswami
and for first time its world championship was held in Cup, Khan Abdul Gaffar Cup
1897. Shooting is governed by International Shooting Golf Canada Cup, Muthian Gold Cup, Ryder Cup, Walker Cup
Sports Federation. Table Tennis Corbillion Cup (women), Jayalaxmi Cup (women), Swaythling
Cup (men)
• Indian players have consistently won accolades in
shooting either be it olympics, commonwealth or world Lawn Tennis Davis Cup, Hamlet Cup, Australian Open, French Open,
Wimbledon, US Open
championship. India’s first individual gold in olympics
Badminton Thomas Cup (men), Uber Cup (women), Narang Cup
has been won through shooting. Abhinav Bindra won
gold in mens 10 m Air Rifle in 2008 Beijing olympics. Boxing Aspy Adjania Trophy
Rowing Wollington Trophy
Billiards Bridge Ruia Trophy
Billiards started in England in 16th century. It is of two types Polo Ezra Cup, Winchestor Cup, Radha Mohan Cup
- 8 ball billiards and 9 ball billiards. Geet Sethi and Pankaj
Advani are two very famous players of billiards in India. î Anthony De Mello trophy is associated with the test cricket
series played between England and India.
Golf
Specific Names of Playing Areas
• The modern game of Golf originated in 15th century in
Scotland. The rules of Golf were compiled by the Name of Name of
Sport Sport
Honourable Company of Edinburgh Golfers. Playing Area Playing Area
Badminton Court Golf Link, Green**
• The Open Championship, which is world’s oldest golf
tournament in existence, was first played on 17th Baseball Diamond Lawn Tennis Court
October, 1860, at Ayrshire, Scotland. It was included in Boxing Ring Ice Skating Rink
Delhi Asiad in 1982. Cricket Pitch* Wrestling Ring, Arena
• The Masters is one of the most prestigious professional
* Pitch in fact is the space between the wickets and not
golf tournaments, held every April in Georgia. Willie
Park Sr. was the first person to win any Golf Open the entire cricket field.
Championship major in 1860. ** It is the area around the hole only.
1068 CDS Pathfinder

Important Sport Terms Stadium Sports Place

Sport Terms Dhyan Chand National Hockey Delhi

Stadium
Basketball Dunk, front court, lay up, held ball, pivot, rebound, steal
Wankhede Stadium Cricket Mumbai
Cricket Bye, draw, googly, topspin, over throw, duck, hit wicket
Brabourne Stadium Cricket Mumbai
Football Bend dribble, dissent, dummy, feint, free kick, header,
throwins Eden Garden Cricket Kolkata
Hockey Bully, striking, circle, post back Green Park Stadium Cricket Kanpur
Chess Castle, diagonaes, files, pawns, peices, promote, gambit Keenan Stadium Cricket Jamshedpur
Boxing Jab, laying on knock, second out habbit punch, upper cut Trent Bridge Cricket England (UK)
Badminton Loab, let, drive, drop, love White City Dog race England (UK)
Polo Chuker, bunker Hurlington Polo England (UK)
Baseball Diamond, home run, put out, strike, ant-rubber. Henlay Regatta Regata England
Rifle Shooting Target, muzzle fulb, bulls eye Brisbance, Melbourne, Cricket Australia
Wrestling Half, nelson, hold sager, rebuts Perth, Sydney

Golf Fore some, stymie, T, put hole, caddy, nib lick, iron, the Indraprastha Stadium Indoor Games Delhi
green, bunkeer
Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium Athletics Delhi
Billiards Jigger, pot, break pot, in off, cans, bolting, long, hazard, cue
Ferozeshah Kotla Ground Cricket Delhi
Swimming Breast stroke, twist, butterfly, crawl, spring board
Ambedkar Stadium Football Delhi
Volley Ball Antennae, attack hit, libero, service, set-up, blocking,
dribbling Nehru, Chepauk Stadium Cricket Chennai

Lawn Tennis Advantage, ace, dence, volley, foot foult, smash, Barabati Stadium Cricket Cuttack
grand-slam, slice, love
Aintree, Doncaster Epsom Horse Racing England (UK)
Table Tennis End line, flat hit, foil, service, penholder grip, reverse,
top-spin, couter-hitting, let
Players and their Associated Games
Famous Sports Stadiums/Venues Players Game Country
Stadium Sports Place Jhansher Khan Squash Pakistan
Brookland Football England (UK) Jaspal Rana Shooting India
Twickenham Rugby Football England (UK) Geet Sethi Billiards India
Putney Mart Lake Boat Race England (UK) Ian James Thorpe Swimming Australia
Yankee Stadium Boxing New York (USA) Anju B George Long Jump India
Brooklyn Baseball New York (USA) Michael J Jordan Basket Ball USA
Forest Hill Tennis USA Pankaj Arjan Advani Snooker India
Sendy Lodge Golf Scotland Saina Nehwal Badminton India
Flemington Horse Racing Melbourne (Australia) Surya Sekhar Ganguly Chess India
Headingley Manchester Cricket England (UK) Shikha Tandon Swimming India
Lords, Oval, Leeds Cricket England (UK) Ignace Tirkey Hockey India
Black Heath Rugby Football London (UK) Soma Biswas Athletics India
Circuit de Monaco Racing Track Monte Carlo Arjun Singh Atwal Golf India
Augusta National Golf Club Golf Clubs Augusta (Georgia) Narayan Karthikeyan Formula One India
Estadio Azteca Football Santa Ursula Mexico Tiger Woods Golf USA
Camp Nou Football Barcelona, Spain Andi Murray Tennis Scotland
Wimbledon Lawn Tennis London (UK) Kim Clijster Tennis Belgium
Wembley Stadium Football London (UK) Caroline Wozniaciki Tennis Den Mark
Shivaji Stadium Hockey Delhi Victoria Anzarenka Tennis Belarush
Sania Mirza Tennis India
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1069

Nickname of Players Names of National Players

Player Nickname Sport Players
Major Dhyanchand Hockey ka Jadoogar Badminton Sayyed Modi, Nandu Natekar, Aparna Popah, Saina Nehwal, Prakash
Padukone, Dipankar Bhattacharya, PV Sindhu, Jwala Gutta,
Milkha Singh Flying Sikh Gopichand, P Kashyap.
PT Usha Payyoli Express, Golden Girl Boxing Mary Kom, Dingko Singh, Shiva Thapa, Vijendra Singh, Manoj Kumar.
Shoaib Aktar Rawalpindi Express Archery Atanu Das, Deepika Kumari, Lakshmirani Majhi, Bombayala Devi
Rahul Dravid The Wall Laishram.

Harbhajan Singh Bhajji, The Turbanator Athletes Dipa Karmakar, Dutee Chand, Indrajeet Singh, Tintu Luka, Lalita
Babar, Gurmeet Singh, Ashwini Akkunji, Vikas Gowda, Jisna Mathew.
Javagal Srinath Mysore Express
Cricket Sunil Gavaskar, Kapil Dev, Dilip Vengsarkar, Sachin Tendulkar, Virat
Paes and Bhupati Indian Express Kohli, MS Dhoni, Shikhar Dhawan, Saurav Ganguly.
Car Racing Narain Karthikeyan, Armaan Ebrahim, Karun Chandhok.
National Sports Squash Cyrus Poncha, Ritwik Bhattacharya, Saurav Ghosal, Joshna
Chinappa, Dipika, Pallikal Karthik.
National
Country National Sport Country Table Tennis Chetan Baboor, Poulomi Ghatak, Mouma Das.
Sport
Australia Cricket Japan Sumo Swimming Mihir Sen, Bula Choudhary, Sajan Prakash, Shivani Kataria.
Shooting Abhinav Bindra, Gagan Narang, Manvjit Singh Sandhu, Anjali
Canada Lacrose (Ice Hockey) Malaysia Badminton Bhagwat, Gurpreet Singh, Henna, Siddhu, Mairaj Ahmed Khan, Apurvi
China Table Tennis Scotland Ring by Chandela, Jitu Rai, Chain Singh, Prakash Nanjappa, Ayonika Paul.
Football Golf Arjun Atwal, Jyoti Randhawa, Jeev Milkha Singh
England Cricket Spain Bull Fighting Billiards and Pankaj Advani, Ashok Shandilya.
Snooker
India Hockey USA Baseball
Hockey Sardara Singh, Sushila Chanu, Rupinder Pal Singh, Dhyanchand
Singh, Dhanraj Pillai, Rani Devi, Pargat Singh, Jaspal Singh.
Players and their Books
Chess Aman Sharma, SL Narayanan, Vishwanathan Anand, Padmini Rout,
Player Book Anish Giri, Pendayala Hari Krishna, Krishna Shashi Kiran.

Balvir Singh Golden Hatrick Football Sandesh Jhingan, Subrata Pal, Sunil Chettri, Jeje Lalpekhlua

Viswanathan Anand My Best Game of Chess Lawn Tennis Leander Paes, Anand Amritraj, Mahesh Bhupathi, Sania Mirza,
Somdev Debvarman, Rohan Bopanna.
David Beckham My Side Weight Lifting Saikhom Mirabai Chanu, Sudhir Kumar Chitradurga.
Major Dhyanchand Goal Wrestling Narsingh Pancham Yadav, Yogeshwar Dutt, Babita Kumari, Sushil
Sunil Gavaskar Sunny Days, Idols Kumar, Sakshi Malik, Praveen Rana, Ravindra Khatri, Satish Shiv
lengim
Tiger Woods How I Play Golf
Kapil Dev Cricket My Style, Straight Names of International Players
from the Heart
Sport Players
Sachin Tendulkar Playing It My Way
Badminton Carolina Marin (Spain), Lin Dan (China), Lee Chong Wei (Malaysia).
Yuvraj Singh The Test of My Life Football Lionel Messi (Argentina), Pele (Brazil), David Beckham (Britain),
Brian Lara Beating the Field Nehma (Brazil), Diago Mardona (Argentina).
Hockey Peter Kelly (Australia), Juan Martin Lopez (Argentina), Mathew Philips
Controversilly Yours Shoaib Akhtar
(Britain), Rehan Butt (Pakistan), Matias Vila (Argentina), Sukhvinder
Singh Gabbar (Canada).
Number of Players in Different Sport Cricket Ricky Ponting (Australia), AB De Villers (South Africa), Mohammed
Hafeez (Pakistan), Dwayne Bravo (West Indies), James Peter Faulkner
Sport Players Sport Players (Australia).
Badminton 1 or 2 Rugby 15 Table Tennis Ma Long (China), Timo Boll (Germany), Li Xiaoxia (China), Jun
Football Mizutani (Japan), Dimitij Ovtcharov (Ukraine).
Baseball 9 Kabaddi 7 Car Racing Michael Schumacher (Germany), Lewis Hamilton (Britain), Sebastian
Vettel (Germany).
Basketball 5 Hockey 11
Lawn Tennis Andre Agassi (US), Boris Becker (Germany), Novak Djokovic (Serbia),
Bridge 2 Polo 4 Roger Federer (Switzerland), Rafeal Nadal (Spain).
Carrom 1 or 2 Tennis 1 or 2 Chess Magnus Carlson (Norway), David Baramidze (Germany), Bobby
Fischer (America), Fabiano Karuana (Italy), Garry Kasparov (Russia).
Cricket 11 Volleyball 6
Atheletics Usain Bolt (Jamaica), Micken Johnson (Norway), Robert Harting
Chess 1 Water Polo 7 (Germany), Darya Klishina (Russia), Neko Hiroshi (Cambodia).
Football 11 Swimming Michael Phelps (America), Gabriele Detti (Italy), Yulia Efimova (Russia).
1070 CDS Pathfinder

Sport Players Indian Regional Navigational Satellite System

Wrestling Jackeline Renteria (Columbia), Hassan Yazdani (Iran), Mijain Lopez (IRNSS)/ NAVIC It has 7 satellite (IRNSSA to
(Cuba), Yohana Melson (Sweden). IRNSSG), all the satellites have been launched.
Weight Sopila Tanasan (Thailand), Qingquan Long (China), Nijat Rahimor Satellites are in Geo-stationary orbit and
Lifting (Kazakistan), Wei Deng (China). Geo-synchronous transfer orbit. Satellites were
Boxing Mohammed Ali (America), Mike Tysen (America), Wladimir Klitschko launched by Polar satellite launch vehicle. It is
(Ukraine), Floyd Joy Mayweather (USA). designed to provide position information
Squash David Troy Palmer (Australia), Nour El Sherbini (Egypt). services to user in India as well as 1500 km
Golf Rory Mcllroy (North Ireland), Phil Mickelson (United States). from its boundary. It will provide standard
Billiards and Neil Robertson (Australia), Mark Selby (England). positioning service to all users and restricted
Snooker service to authorised users.
Shooting Andrea Arsovic (Serbia), Zorana Arunovic (Serbia), Niccolo Campriani Mars Orbiter Mission or Mangalyaan It was
(Italy).
launched on 5th November in 2013 and it is
Archery Ku Bon-chan (South Korea), Brady Ellison (United States), Sjef van orbiting mars since 24th September, 2014.
den Berg (Netherland), Jean-Charles Valladont (France).
Primary aim of Mars Orbiter Mission was to
showcase India’s launch system, spacecraft
building and operation capabilities for operation
SPACE PROGRAMME of interplanetary mission. Missions 2nd
objective was to study mar’s surface feature,
OF INDIA mineralogy morphology and motion
atmosphere. It was launched by PSLV-XLC25.
• The Indian Space Programme was launched in 1962, when the
Indian National Committee for Space Research was formed. To Chandrayan It was launched in 2008 using
this were added the Indian Space Research Organisation in 1969 PSLV-XLC11. Primary objective of this mission
and the Space Commission and Department of Space in 1972. was to develop a technology to study feature of
moon, its chemical composition, detect water-ice
• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is responsible
on the moon. Chandrayan II is being planned to
for the planning, execution and management of space research
be launched in 2017.
activities and space application programmes. The ISRO has its
headquarters at Bengaluru. GAGAN The GPS Aided GEO Augmented
Navigation (GAGAN) is an implementation of a
• India’s first Satellite Communication Earth station was set-up
regional Satellite-Based Augmentation System
at Arvi near Pune. The first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta was
(SBAS) by the Indian Government. It is a system
launched on 19th April, 1975 from Baikonur (erstwhile USSR).
to improve the accuracy of a GNSS receiver by
• The first Indian Remote Sensing Satellite was launched on providing reference signals. The AAI’s efforts
17th March, 1988. The first Indian Communication Satellite, towards implementation of operational SBAS can
APPLE was launched on 19th June, 1981 from Kourou in be viewed as the first step towards introduction
French Guiana. It was the first Indian satellite that was placed of modern communication, navigation,
in geostationary orbit. surveillance/Air Traffic Management system over
Indian airspace.
Some of the Important Space programme of The project has established 15 Indian Reference
India Stations, 3 Indian Navigation Land Uplink
Cartosat-2c Earth observatory satellite launched by PSLV in Stations, 3 Indian Mission Control Centers and
Sun-synchronous orbit on 22nd June, 2016. Its primary installation of all associated software and
objective are design and develop highly agile satellite with a communication links. It will be able to help
spatial resolution of 1.0 in panchromatic band and meet user pilots to navigate in the Indian airspace by an
demand for cartographic application at cadastral level, urban accuracy of 3 m. This will be helpful for landing
planning etc. aircraft in tough weather and terrain like
Mangalore and Leh airports.
GSAT-15 A communication satellite launched on 10th
November, 2015 from Kourou using Rocket Ariane. Satellite
was placed in Geostationary orbit. Satellite carried 24 km INDIA’S ATOMIC RESEARCH
bond transponders and 2 Gagan navigational pay loads. India’s atomic energy research started with the
Astrosat It was launched on 28th September, 2015 using polar establishment of the Atomic Energy Commission on
satellite launch vehicle (PSLV-XL) into equatorial orbit. It is 10th August, 1948. Department of Atomic Energy
multiwavelength-space observatory. It can study x-ray, (DAE) was established in 1954, for implementation
visible, near UV, far UV and hard x-ray radiations. of atomic energy programmes.
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1071

It has five Research Centres Field Formations of the Indian Army

Name Year Location Division It usually consists of 15000 combat troops and 8000 support
elements. Each division is composed of several Brigades.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) 1954 Trombay, Mumbai
Brigade A Brigade generally consists of around 3000 combat troops with
Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced 1984 Indore supporting elements. An Infantry Brigade usually has 3 Infantry
Technology (RRCAT) (Madhya Pradesh) Battalions along with various Support Arms and Services.
Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic 1971 Tamil Nadu Battalion A Battalion is commanded by a Colonel and is the Infantry’s main
Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam fighting unit. It consists of more than 900 combat personnel.
Variable Energy Cyclotron Centre (VECC) 1977 Kolkata Company Headed by the major a company comprises 120 soldiers.
Atomic Minerals Directorate for 1998 Hyderabad Platoon An intermediate between a company and section a Platoon is
Exploration and Research (AMD) headed by a Lieutenant. It has a total strength of about 32 troops.
Section Smallest military outfit with a strength of 10 Personnel.
Nuclear Power Plants in India
Power Station State Indian Army
Tarapur Maharashtra (India and USA)
HQ New Delhi
Rawatbhata Kota, Rajasthan (India and Canada) Motto Service Before Self
Kudankulam (Tirunelveli) Tamil Nadu (India and Russia) Battle Cry Bharat Mata ki Jai
Kaiga Karnataka Founded on 1947
Kalpakkam Tamil Nadu Army Day 15th January
Kakrapar Gujarat Active Personnel 1.4 million
Narora Uttar Pradesh Reserve Personnel 2.1 million
Colours Gold, Red and Black
India’s Nuclear Test First Army Chief Robert Mc Gregor Lockhart (1947)
• On 18th May, 1974 India conducted her first
î Indian Army is organised into seven Regional Commands
underground nuclear explosion at Pokhran
(Rajasthan) in the Thar desert at a depth of 100 Army Commands and their Headquarters
metres. The code name used to convey the success of
Army Commands Headquarters
the test to the then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi,
was ‘Buddha is Smiling’. Northern Command Udhampur
• For the second time, India conducted on 11th May, Southern Command Pune
1998 three underground nuclear explosions at the Eastern Command Kolkata
same place i.e, Pokhran in the Thar desert of
Western Command Chandi mandir (Panchkula, Haryana)
Rajasthan at a depth of 100 metres. The test were
code named ‘Operation Shakti’. Central Command Lucknow
• The Indian Government has officially declared the South-Western Command Jaipur
11th May as National Technology Day in India to Army Training Centre (ARTRAC) Shimla
commemorate the first of the five nuclear tests that
were carried out on 11th May, 1998. The day is î Vairengte is the Indian Army's counter-insurgency school.
celebrated by giving awards to various individuals and
industries in the field of science and technology. Commissioned Ranks of Three Forces
The following are the commissioned ranks in the three services.
Each rank is shown opposite its equivalent in the other service.
INDIAN DEFENCE
Army Navy Air Force
• The President of India is the Supreme Commander of
General Admiral Air Chief Marshal
the Indian Armed Forces (Army, Navy and Air Force).
Lieutenant General Vice-Admiral Air Marshal
• Administrative and operational control is with the
Major General Rear Admiral Air Vice-Marshal
Defence Ministry of India.
Brigadier Commodore Air Commodore
The Ministry of Defence comprises of four departments,
which are as follows : Colonel Captain Group Captain

i. Department of Defence Lieutenant Colonel Commander Wing Commander

ii. Department of Defence production Major Lieutenant Commander Squadron Leader
iii. Department of Defence Research and Development Captain Lieutenant Flight Lieutenant
(DRDO) Lieutenant Sub-Lieutenant Flying Officer
iv. Department of Ex-Service man welfare
1072 CDS Pathfinder

Indian Navy National Cadet It was established in 1948. Its main objective is to stimulate
Corps (NCC) interest among the youth in the defence of the country in
HQ New Delhi order to build up a reserve manpower to expand armed
forces.
Motto Sham no varunah
Central Reserve It was set-up in 1939. Its main objective is to assist the
Navy Day 4th December Police Force (CRPF) State/Union Territory Police in maintenance of law and order.
Personnel 79,023 The 88th Battalion of CRPF, known as ‘Mahila Battalion’
(commissioned on 30th March, 1986) is the world’s first
Founded 1947
paramilitary force comprising entirely of women.
Home Guard It was established in 1946, to assist the police in maintaining
Functional Commands and Headquarters security, to help defence forces and to help local authorities.
Navy Commands Headquarter Coast Guard It was set-up in 1978.
Eastern Command Visakhapatnam Its objective is to protect the maritime and other national
interests in the maritime zones of India.
Western Command Mumbai Intelligence Bureau It was set-up in 1920. Its objective is to collect secret
Southern Command Kochi (IB) information relating to country’s security. It was originally
set-up as Central Special Branch (CSB) in 1887 and
renamed IB in 1920.
î Kanwar is the operational Naval Base which is exclusively
Central Bureau of It was established in 1953. Its objective is to investigate
controlled by Indian Navy. Hindustan shipyard is located at Investigation (CBI) cases of misconduct by public servants, cases of cheating,
Visakhapatnam. Goa shipyard is in Vasco-da-Gama. embezzlement, fraud also work on International crime cases
in collaboration with INTERPOL.
Indian Airforce National Crime It was established in 1986.
Founded 8th October, 1932 Records Bureau Its objective is to collect crime statistics at the national level.
(NCRB)
Air Force Day 8th October Motto - Nabha Sparsham Deeptam Rapid Action Force It was established in 1991, wing of CRPF. It deals with riot,
(Touch the Sky with Glory) (RAF) crowd control, relief operation.
HQ New Delhi
Personnel 140,139 DRDO
Colours Navy blue, sky blue and white It is responsible for the development of technology for use by
the military and is headquartered in New Delhi, India. Define
Functional Commands and Headquarters Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) was formed
Training Command (TC) Bengaluru, Karnataka in 1958, by the merger of Technical Development Establishment
Maintenance Command (MC) Nagpur, Maharashtra and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production
with the Defence Science Organisation.
Operational Commands and Headquarters
Integrated Guided Missile Development
Central Air Command (CAC) Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh
Eastern Air Command (EAC) Shillong, Meghalaya
Programme (IGMDP)
The IGMDP was launched in 1983, for the development of a
Southern Air Command (SAC) Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
comprehensive range of missiles including the intermediate range
South Western Air Command (SWAC) Gandhinagar, Gujarat Agni Missile (surface to surface) and short range missiles such as
Western Air Command (WAC) Subroto park, New Delhi the Prithvi Ballistic Missile (surface to surface), Akash Missile
(surface to air), Astra Missile (air to air), Trishul Missile (surface
Territorial Army (TA) to air) and Nag Missile (anti tank).
It is a citizens voluntary force, which functions on a Indian Missiles
part time basis. It was established on 9th October, 1949 Agni (I-VI) Agni series of missile is a ballistic missile having 6 missiles in it with a
and is designed to give the citizens an opportunity to range varying from 700-10000 km. Agni I-V are in operational stage
receive military training during their spare time. while VI is in testing and developmental stage.
Prithvi Prithvi is a tactical surface to surface Short-Range Ballistic Missile
Internal Security of India (SRBM). It has three versions - Prithvi I, II, III with range of 150-350 km.
Indo-Tibetan Border It was established in 1962, after the Chinese Dhanush Dhanush is reportedly a naval version of Prithvi-III, which can be
Police (ITBP) attack. It protects India-China border. (SS-350) launched from ships. It can carry 500 kg of conventional or nuclear
National Security warhead.
Mandate to fight in anti-terrorist operation and
Guards (NSG) in security of VVIPS. Astra Astra is Beyond Visual Range (BVR) air to air missile. Astra is designed
to be capable of engaging targets at varying range and altitudes
Central Industrial It was set-up in 1969, its work is to secure allowing for both short-range targets (upto 20 km) and long range
Security Force (CISF) industrial complex of government.
targets (upto 80 km) using alternative propulsion modes.
Assam Rifles It was established in 1835 and is the oldest Akash Akash is a medium range surface to air missile. The missile can target
paramilitary force in the country. It patrols aircraft upto 30 km away, at altitudes of 18000 m. Akash can be fired
India-Myanmar border and insurgency in from both tracked and wheeled platforms. Akash is said to be capable
North-East. of both conventional and nuclear warheads, with a reported payload of
Border Security It was established in 1965. It patrols Pakistan 60 kg.
Force (BSF) and Bangladesh.
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1073

Trishul Trishul is a short range surface to air missile. The range of List of Submarines of the Indian Navy
the missile is 12 km and is fitted with a 15 kg warhead. The
weight of the missile is 130 kg. INS Vibhuti It was India’s first indigenously built missile boat launched at
Mazgaon Docks in Mumbai. It is a veer class corvette.
Nag Nag is India’s third generation ‘Fire-and-Forget’ anti-tank
missile. It is an all weather, top attack missile with a range of INS Shakti It was India’s first indigenously built submarine. The ship is one
3 to 7 km. of the largest in the Indian Navy as it is 175 m in length and 32 m
in width.
Sagarika K-15 Sagarika is a nuclear-capable submarine launched
ballistic missile with a range of 700 km. It belongs to the K INS It is India’s largest naval base located near Karwar in Karnataka.
Missile family. The latest test of the K-15 Missile was done Kadamba It was commissioned in 2005, under the project Seabird.
on 11th March, 2012. INS Talwar It is the leadership of the Talwar class frigates of the Indian
Navy. Its name means ‘Sword’ in Hindi. It was built in Russia and
Brahmos Brahmos is a stealth supersonic cruise missile that can be
commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2003.
launched from submarines, ships, aircraft or land. It is a
jointly developed by India and Russia.It is the world’s INS Vikrant The first aircraft carrier of Indian Navy was INS Vikrant. India
fastest cruise missile in operation. The missile travels at a purchased the INS Vikrant from the United Kingdom in 1957.
speed of mach 2.8 to 3.0. It has a range of 290 km. It can
carry 300 kg of conventional or nuclear warhead. INS Mysore It is a Delhi class guided missile destroyer currently in active
service with the Indian Navy. INS Mysore was built at Mazagaon
Shaurya The Shaurya Missile is a short-range surface to surface Dock Limited in Mumbai and it was commissioned in 1999.
ballistic missile developed by DRDO for use by the Indian
Army capable of hypersonic speeds, it has a range of 600 INS Beas It is a Brahmaputra class frigate of the Indian Navy. It was
km and is capable of carrying a payload of one to one commissioned in 2005.
conventional or nuclear warhead. Shaurya Missile is a land INS Chakra II The INS Chakra II (K-152 Nerpa) is a 8140 tonne project 518
version of the under-water launched K-15 Missile, Sagarika. (NATO Akula II) type nuclear-powered attack submarine.
Nirbhay Nirbhay is a long range, subsonic cruise missile developed INS Arihant Powered by 83 MW PWR. It is a part of Indian Navy’s Advanced
in India. The missile has a range of 1000 km. The missile Technology Vessel.
will have a speed of 0.8 mach. The Nirbhay will be able to
be launched from multiple platforms on land, sea and air. INS Kalvari It is a diesel-electric attack Submarine which is designed by
DCNS and being manufactured at Mazagon Dock Limited,
NOVATOR It is an air to air missile designed as an AWACS killer for Mumbai. It is commissioned in late 2017 (expected) but
K-100 ranges upto 300-400 km. launched in April 2015. It is Navy’s six kalvari-class submarines.
BARAK-8 It is an India-Israel long range surface to air missile.
Ashwin It is an anti-ballistic missile designed to intercept in coming
ballistic missiles in endo-atmosphere at an altitude of 30
km. UNITED NATIONS
Defence Production Undertakings The United Nations (UN) is an international organisation,
whose stated aims are facilitating co-operation in international
Name and Established in Factories at law, international security, economic development, social
progress, human rights and achievement of world peace. The
Bharat Dynamics Ltd (BDL) 1970 Hyderabad United Nations Day is celebrated on 24th October each year.
Bharat Earth Movers Ltd (BEML) 1964 Bengaluru, Mysore, Kolar Presently, there are 193 member states of the United Nations.
Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) 1954 Bengaluru, Ghaziabad, Pune,
Machilipatnam, Taloja
(Maharashtra), Panchkula
Principle Organs
(Haryana), Kotdwara There are six principle organs of the United Nations, which are
(Uttarakhand), Hyderabad,
Chennai as follows
Garden Reach Shipbuilders and
Engineers Ltd (GRSE) 1934
Kolkata 1. General Assembly
(Government acquired in 1960) • Headquarters of General Assembly is at New York.
Goa Shipyards Ltd (GSL) 1957 Goa General Assembly consists of all member states of the UN.
Each member nation can send five delegates, but each
Heavy Vehicles Factory Avadi
nation has only one vote.
Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) 1964 Bengaluru (five factories), • The General Assembly meets at least once in a year and the
Koraput, Nashik, Karwa,
Kanpur, Lucknow, session commences on the first Tuesday of September. It
Barrackpore, Hyderabad appoints the Secretary General of UN Secretariat on the
Mazagaon Docks Ltd (MDL) 1960 Mumbai recommendation of the Security Council.
• The presidency of the Assembly rotates each year among
Mishra Dhatu Nigam Ltd (MIDHANI) Hyderabad
1973 the five geographical groups of the countries viz Asia,
African, Latin America, East European and West European
Praga Tools Hyderabad
and other states.
1074 CDS Pathfinder

2. Security Council 5. The International Court of

• The main aim of Security Council is the maintenance of Justice (ICJ)
the international peace and security. The Security Council • The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the
originally consisted of eleven members, but increases to primary judicial organ of the United Nations. The ICJ
fifteen in 1965. was established in 1945. It consists of 15 judges. The
• Security Council comprises of five permanent members judges of the court are elected by the General
namely China, UK, Russia, France and USA and Assembly along with the Security Council for a 9
10 non-permanent members, elected for a term of 2 years years term.
by a two-third majority of the General Assembly, five • Its main functions are to settle legal disputes submitted
non-permanent members retire every year. Retiring to it by states and to provide advisory opinions on legal
members cannot be re-elected immediately. questions submitted to it by only authorised
• Permanent member have veto power, which can be cast international organs, agencies and the UN General
against any decision supported by the majority members. Assembly. The headquarters of ICJ is at Hague
The headquarters of Security Council is at New York (US). (Netherland).

3. Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) 6. The Secretariat

Its main aim is to promote social progress and better standards • The United Nations Secretariat is one of the principle
of life. ECOSOC comprises 54 members, 18 (one third) of organs of the United Nations, an inter governmental
whom are elected every year by the General Assembly of organisation charged with aiding/helping states to
UN, to serve a 3 years term. The retiring members as well as collectively maintain international peace and security.
the President are eligible for immediate re-elections. The It serves as a forum for member-states to discuss and
headquarters of ECOSOC is at New York (US). resolve pressing issues in the international field
through primarily diplomatic resources.
4. The Trusteeship Council • The Secretariat is composed of a Secretary General,
• The United Nations Trusteeship Council was established assisted by a staff of international civil servants
to help ensure that trust territories were administered in worldwide. The Secretary General is appointed by the
the best interests of their inhabitants and of international General Assembly upon the recommendation of the
peace and security. Security Council.
• Trusteeship Council was formed in 1945. The headquarters • The Secretary General of the UN is elected for 5
of Trusteeship Council was at New York (US). The years and eligible for re-election, although, none so
Trusteeship Council suspended operation on 1st far has held office for more than two terms.
November, 1994. With the independence of Polau, the last • The present Secretary General of the UN is Antonio
remaining United Nations trust territory, on Guterres.
1st October, 1994.
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1075

Important International Agencies

Name of Agency Estd in Headquarter Objectives
International Telecommunication Union 1865 Geneva Sets international regulations for radio telegraph, telephone and space radio
(ITU) communications.
International Labour Organisation (ILO) 1919 Geneva To improve conditions and living standard of workers.
International Monetary Fund (IMF) 1945 Washington DC Promotes international monetary co-operation.
Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) 1945 Rome To improve living conditions of rural population.
International Bank for Reconstruction 1944 Washington DC To provide funds from different sources, offers loans to middle income developing
and Development (IBRD) countries.
United Nations Educational, Scientific 1945 Paris To promote collaboration among nations through education, science and culture.
and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)
United Nations International Children’s 1946 New York To promote children’s welfare all over the world.
Emergency Fund (UNICEF)
World Health Organisation (WHO) 1948 Geneva Attainment of highest possible level of health by all people.
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) 1957 Vienna To promote peaceful uses of atomic energy.
International Development Association 1960 Washington DC An affiliate of the World Bank, aims to help under-developed countries raise living
(IDA) standards.

United Nations Environmental 1972 Nairobi Promotes international co-operation in human environment.
Programme (UNEP)
World Trade Organisation (WTO) 1995 Geneva Setting rules for world trade to reduce tariffs.

International Organisations and Groups

Organisations and HQ Members Objectives
Red Cross Estd in 1863 (Geneva, Switzerland) 190 International Humanitarian Movement for relief of suffering in time of war/disaster.
International Criminal Police Organisation (INTERPOL) 190 To promote international co-operation among criminal police authorities.
Estd in 1923 (Lyon, France)
Arab League (AL) Estd in 1945 [Cairo (Egypt)] Syria 22 To promote economic, social, political and military co-operation.
suspended following the 2011 uprising
International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO) Estd 163 To promote the development of international standards.
in 1947 (Switzerland)
North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) 28 Mutual defence and co-operation
Estd in 1949 (Brussels)
South-East Asia Treaty Organisation (SEATO) 8 To provide for collective and economic co-operation in South-East Asia.
Estd in 1954 (Bangkok)
Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) 14 Attempts to set world prices by controlling oil production and also pursues member
Estd in 1960 [Vienna (Austria)] interest in trade and development.
World Wildlife Fund For Nature (WWF) – To save the wildlife from extinction.
Estd in 1961 (Switzerland)
Amnesty International (AI) – To keep a watch over human rights violation worldwide. Got Nobel Prize in 1977 for
Estd in 1961 (London) peace.
Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) Estd in 1961 114 Political co-operation and establishment of separate identity from both USA and
USSR (in the Cold-War era).
Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN) 10 Regional economic social and cultural co-operation among the non-communist
Estd in 1967 (Jakarta) countries of South-East Asia.

Group of 8 (G-8) on 24th March, 2014, Russia was 8 To promote co-operation among major non-communist economic power.
suspended, due to association with crimean crises
World Economic Forum (WEF) – To improve the state of the world by engaging leaders in partnerships to shape global,
Estd in 1971 (Geneva) regional and industry agendas.
Gulf Co-operation Council (GCC) Estd in 1981 6 It is a political and economic union of the Arab states.
South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation 8 To promote economic, social and cultural co-operation.
(SAARC) Estd in 1985 (Kathmandu)
Group of 15 (G-15) Estd in 1989 17 To promote economic co-operation among developing nations.
Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC) Estd in 1989 21 To promote trade and investment in the Pacific basin.
(Singapore)
Group of Twenty (G-20) Estd in 1999-2014 20 For co-operation and consultation or matters pertaining to the International Financial
summit-Brisbane System.
BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) 5 To improve the economical condition of the country.
First formal summit-Yekaterinburg, 2009
1076 CDS Pathfinder

PRACTICE EXERCISE
1. Consider the following regarding 6. Match the following 10. Who is the first Indian woman to
AGNI-IV win an Asian games gold in
List I List II
1. Most advanced long range 400 m run?
missile system. A. Last Man in Tower 1. Arvind Adiga (a) ML Valsanna (b) PT Vish
2. Missile has two stages of solid B. The Valley of 2. Tarun Tejpal (c) Kamaljeet Sandhu (d) K Maheshwari
propulsion. Masks
11. Which day is the ‘International
3. It was earlier known as ‘AGNl C. Thorns to 3. Walter lsaacson
Competition Human Rights Day’?
II’ Prime.
D. Steve Jobs 4. Rajita Chaudhary (a) 10th December
Which of the statement(s) given (b) 24th October
above is/are correct? Codes (c) 25th November
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 A B C D A B C D (d) None of the above
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 3 4 1 12. Consider the following
2. Which of the following pair(s) (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 statement(s)
is/are correctly matched? 7. Consider the following statement(s) 1. North Atlantic Co-operation
List I List II about Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (SSA) Council (NACC) is the name
of the new organisation which
1. PRAHAAR Surface to surface missile 1. The scheme of SSA was
has replaced the North
2. SHOURYA First hypersonic missile
launched in 2001.
Atlantic Treaty Organisation
2. It is to provide useful and
3. PRITHVI-II Surface to surface ballistic (NATO).
strategic missile relevant elementary education
2. The United States of America
for children in the 6-14 age
and the United Kingdom
Codes group.
became the members of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 3. It is 100% centrally sponsored
NATO when it was formed in
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these scheme.
the year 1949.
3. Consider the following about Which of the statement(s) given Which of the statement(s) given
Olympics games above is/are correct? above is/are correct?
1. It is held every four years. (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. Their creation was inspired by (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the ancient Olympic games. 8. Consider the following statements 13. Which award is given for
3. Only developed countries can 1. The first Indian to win an excellence in sports?
participate in Olympic games. individual medal in olympics was (a) Jamnalal Bajaj Award
4. International Olympic KD Jadhav. (b) Arjuna Award
Committee is founded in 1894. 2. Kunjarani Devi is associated (c) Tagore Award
Which of the statement(s) given with weight lifting. (d) Moortidevi Award
above are correct? 14. Which one of the following
Which of the statement(s) given
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 statement(s) is/are true about
above is/are correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these Ranji Trophy?
(a) Only 1
4. Which of the following players are (b) Only 2 1. Ranji Trophy is a domestic
honorary officers of the Indian (c) Both 1 and 2 first class Cricket
Army? (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Championship.
1. MS Dhoni 2. The trophy is named after
9. Consider the following statement(s)
2. Abhinav Bindra England and sussex cricketer
about the Twenty-20 cricket.
3. Deepak Rao Kunwar Shri Ranjit Singh Ji.
1. It was introduced by the
3. It was fisrt played in 1934.
Select the correct answer using England and Wales Cricket
the codes given below. 4. It is played between national
Board.
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
teams.
2. It is not recognised by
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these Select the correct answer using
International Cricket Council.
the codes given below.
5. Who is the India’s first 3. 1st Twenty-20 World Cup is (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
sportsperson to receive Padma played in 2007. (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Vibhusan Award? Which of the statement(s) given
(a) Sachin Tendulkar 15. Who among the following is a
above is/are correct?
(b) Saina Nehwal (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
Hindustani Classical Singer?
(c) Viswanathan Anand (a) Geeta Chandran (b) Leela Samson
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(d) Mahesh Bhupati (c) Gangubai Hangal (d) Swapnasundari
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1077

16. Arrange the following Nobel 23. Which among the following is/are Which of the statement(s) given
Laureates in correct chronological true about Sarojini Naidu? above is/are correct?
order. 1. She was the first woman (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
1. Amartya Sen President of the Congress. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Hargobind Khorana 2. She was the first woman
3. Subramanian Chandrasekhar
28. The National Defence Academy has
Governor of independent India. foreign cadets from which of the
4. Mother Teresa
3. She was the first Health following countries?
Codes
Minister of independent India. 1. Bhutan 2. Bangladesh
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 3, 4, 2, 1 4. She wrote the Golden Bough. 3. Nepal 4. Afghanistan
Select the correct answer using Selct the correct answer using the
17. What is the correct chronological
the codes given below. codes given below.
order of conferring Bharat Ratna
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
for the following persons?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
1. MS Subbalakshmi
2. Amartya Sen 24. Consider the following statements 29. India’s first airport-based dedicated
3. APJ Abdul Kalam about APEC cargo handling zone, exclusively
4. Lata Mangeshkar 1. Established in the year 1989. for pharmaceutical products is at
Codes 2. A forum for 21 Pacific Rim (a) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport,
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4 Countries. Hyderabad
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2 3. APEC members account for (b) Indira Gandhi International Airport,
18. Which one of the following is approximately 40% of the New Delhi
correctly matched? world’s population. (c) Chhatrapati Shivaji International
Special Bodies of Headquarters 4. India and Pakistan are not Airport, Mumbai
the UN members. (d) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
International Airport,
(a) United Nations High Nairobi, Kenya Which of the statements given
Kolkata
Commissioner above are correct?
for Refugees (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 30. Consider the following statement(s)
(b) United Nations Paris, France (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these 1. The main decision-making forum
Children’s Fund of the Commonwealth of Nations
(c) United Nations Vienna, Austria
25. SWAN stands for
is the biennial Commonwealth
Office on Drugs and (a) State Wild Life Area Networks
Heads of Government Meeting
Crime (b) State Wide Acceleration of
(CHOGM).
(d) None of the above Networks
(c) State Water Augmentation Network
2. The Commonwealth of Nations
19. Consider the following statements comprises 54 countries across all
(d) State Wide Area Networks
1. The currency of IMF is SDR. six inhabited continents.
2. The lAEA was set-up in the 26. Match the following Which of the statement(s) given
year 1957. List I List-II above is/are correct?
3. Russia is not a member (Organisations) (Reports) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(permanent) of UN’s Security (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Council. A. WEF 1. Trade and
Development 31. Which of the following pair(s) is/are
Which of the statement(s) given Report correctly matched?
above is/are correct? B. UNCTAD 2. The Global
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 Competitiveness List I List II
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these Report 1. HDI UNDP
20. When International ‘Yoga Divas’ C. Charities Aid 3. World Giving 2. Red Data Book IUCN
Foundation Index
is celebrated? 3. Economic Survey Ministry of Finance
(a) 1st May (b) 21st June D. RICS, India 4. Sustainable
Competitiveness Codes
(c) 25th April (d) 2nd July Report (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
21. When is ‘World Environment Codes (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
Day’, recognised by the UN, A B C D A B C D
observed? 32. Which one of the following is not an
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2 issue straining Indo-China
(a) 11th December (b) 20th December
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3 relations?
(c) 15th September (d) 5th June
27. Consider the following (a) Construction of a dam across the
22. The ancient Hindu temple ‘Preah river Brahmaputra in Tibet
Vihear’ is a source of dispute statement(s)
(b) Visit of Dalai Lama to Arunachal
between 1. National Cadet Corps (NCC) is
Pradesh
(a) Nepal and Bhutan a pre-independence
(c) Stapling of Chinese visa for the
(b) Bhutan and Bangladesh organisation.
people of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Thailand and Singapore 2. The motto of NCC is unity (d) Linking Kashmir Valley with the Indian
(d) Cambodia and Thailand and discipline. Railways Network
1078 CDS Pathfinder

33. Match the following 38. Consider the following 42. Consider the following statement(s)
List I List II statement(s) 1. The Golden Lion is the highest
1. The Kalinga Prize is an award prize given to a film at the
A. Grand Slam 1. Chess given by UNESCO for Venice film festival.
B. Grand Prix 2. Bridge exceptional skill in presenting 2. The Venice film festival is the
C. Grand Master 3. International Race scientific ideas to laypeople. oldest film festival in the world.
Codes 2. Dorairajan Balasubramanian
was the last person from India Which of the statement(s) given
A B C A B C above is/are correct?
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3
to receive the Kalinga Prize.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 Which of the statement(s) given (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
above is/are correct?
34. Consider the following (a) Only 1 43. Aam Admi Bima Yojana is an
statement(s) (b) Only 2 insurance scheme for rural landless
1. Usain Bolt, the 100-metres (c) Both 1 and 2 households introduced by
race world record holder is (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) LIC (b) UTI
from Jamaica. (c) ICICI (d) None of these
2. Narain Karthikeyan is the
39. Match the following
sportsman in the field of
44. Consider the following statements
List I List II
Formula One Car Racing. about Jnanpith Award
A. Borlaug Award 1. Agricultural 1. It is the highest literary award.
Which of the statement(s) given Research
above is/are correct? 2. The award was instituted in
B. Dhanwantri 2. Medical
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Award Services 1961.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 C. Bhasin Award 3. Sciences 3. G Sankara Kurup, was its first
recipient in 1965.
35. Which of the following pairs are Codes 4. Only official languages of
correctly matched? A B C A B C Indian’s writing are eligible for
List I List II (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1 the honour.
(Reports) (Organisations) (c) 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2
Which of the statements given
1. World Investment UNCTAD 40. Consider the following above are correct?
Report statement(s) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
2. Scores SEBI 1. The Nobel Prize Awarding (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these
3. Rich Club OECD Ceremony takes place on 45. Which of the following pairs is/are
4. Economic World Bank 10th December of every year.
correctly matched?
2. The Nobel Prize for Literature
Codes List I List II
was added later on to the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
other five areas-Physics, 1. True Colours Adam Gilchrist
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Chemistry, Physiology or 2. Two States Chetan Bhagat
36. Consider the following Medicine, Peace and
3. Rivers of Smoke Amitav Ghosh
statement(s) Economics.
1. Justice Verma Committee was Which of the statement(s) given Codes
constituted to recommends above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
amendments to the Criminal (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Laws for committing sexual (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 46. An ‘‘Autobiography of a Yogi’’ is a
assault against women.
41. Which one of the following book written by
2. The committee recommended (a) Paramhansa Yogananda
that the gradation of sexual statements regarding Bharat
Ratna Award is not correct? (b) Orham Pamuk
offences should be retained in (c) Tony Blair
the Indian Penal Code, 1860. (a) The original specifications for the
award called for a circular gold (d) None of the above
Which of the statement(s) given
medal, 35 mm in diameter, with 47. Which of the following pairs are
above is/are correct?
the Sun and the Hindi legend correctly matched?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
‘Bharat Ratna’ above and a floral
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 List I List II
wreath below. The reverse was to
37. Transchart is the carry the state emblem and motto 1. IQ 84 Haruki Marakami
(a) chartering wing of the Ministry of (b) The provision of Bharat Ratna was 2. The good Muslim Greg Chappell
Surface Transport introduced in 1954 3. The sense of an Julian Barnes
(b) container service established by (c) Bharat Ratna is awarded to Indian ending
Indian Railways citizens only
(c) Training Institute of Maritime Codes
(d) The first ever Indian to receive this
Studies and Research (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
award was the famous scientist, (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(d) Passenger Insurance Scheme or Chandrasekhara Ventkata Raman
Indian Railways
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1079

48. Match the following 53. Kargil Vijay Diwas is celebrated TIEA stands for
List I List II
on ..........., in India. (a) Targeted Information Exchange
(a) 26th July (b) 25th July Agreement
A. Tale of Two Cities 1. Charles Dickens (c) 24th July (d) 20th July (b) Tax Information Exchange Agreement
B. The Tenth Parellel 2. Paul Allen (c) Targeted Information Exchange
54. ........ is celebrated as Victory Day
C. Fierce Focus 3. Greg Chappel Association
in Bangladesh and Vijay Diwas in
D. Idea Man 4. Eliza Griswold (d) Tax Information Exchange Association
India.
Codes (a) 16th December (b) 18th December 60. Consider the following statement(s)
A B C D A B C D (c) 16th November (d) 18th November 1. In India, there are several days
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 4 3 2 declared as Martyr’s Day that
55. Consider the following
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 2 3 1 4 honour those recognised as
statement(s)
49. Consider the following 1. 5th June is a day that Martyrs for the nation.
statement(s) stimulates awareness of the 2. The most prominent Martyr’s
1. The Arundhati Roy and Arvind environment and enhances Day at the national level is 30th
Adiga were the Debut political action. January.
Novelists when they won the 2. From 5th-6th June, 1972, the 3. 30th January is celebrated as
Booker. UN Conference on the Human Martyr’s Day as its marks the
2. The Ramon Magsaysay Award Environment was held. assassination of MK Gandhi in
is given only to individuals. 3. The first World Environment 1948.
3. The Ramon Magsaysay Award Day was held in 1974.
is given only to Asians. Which of the statement(s) given
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are incorrect? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(a) Only 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 1
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 1 61. Which among the following is the
56. Which of the following pairs is/are unit raised to protect the naval
50. Match the following correct? assets?
List I List II 1. BASIC : Brazil, Africa, Sudan, (a) Sagar Rakshak Bal
India, China. (b) Sagar Suraksha Bal
A. Anti Tobacco Day 1. 17th November
2. IBSA : India, Brazil, South (c) Sagar Prahari Bal
B. Diabetes Day 2. 22nd September
Africa. (d) Sagar Nigrani Bal
C. International 3. 14th November
Peace Day Codes 62. Consider the following statements
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 about ‘Rafale’.
D. National Epilepsy 4. 31st May
Day (c) Only 1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is a French twin engine,
Codes 57. POPs are organic compounds that delta-wing, multi-role jet fighter
A B C D A B C D are resistant to environmental aircraft.
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 degradation through chemical, 2. It is designed and built by
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1 4 biological and photolytic Dassault Aviation.
processes. POP stands for 3. It has been purchased by India
51. Often our computer systems are (a) Pre-existing Organisms Pool to enhance its military power.
said to be attacked by virus. (b) Persistent Organic Pollution
What does VIRUS stand for? Which of the statements given
(c) Persistent Organism Pollutant
(a) Very important Resources Under (d) Persistent Organic Pollutant
above are correct?
Seige (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(b) Vital Imports Reduced Under Seige
58. Consider the following (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
(c) Vital Inputs Removed Under Seige statement(s) about the National
63. Consider the following statement(s)
(d) Vital Information Resources Under Youth Day.
1. The DRDO developed two
Seige 1. It is celebrated on 20th
January every year. variants of Prithvi Missile.
52. Match the following 2. Since 1985, this day has been 2. Prithvi II is equipped with
celebrated. features of manoeuverability to
List I List II
3. It is celebrated on the birthday deceive the enemy defence
A. 24th October 1. Human Rights Day system.
of Swami Vivekananda.
B. 10th December 2. Commonwealth 3. Induction of Prithvi Missile
Day Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are incorrect? enhances the capability of the
C. 24th May 3. UN Day Indian Army to attack multiple
(a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 3
D. 21st September 4. International Day targets simultaneously.
(c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 2
of Peace
59. DTAA is signed with the Which of the statement(s) given
Codes above is/are correct?
A B C D A B C D countries in order to provide
relief to persons, while TIEA is (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 1 2 4
signed to exchange information. (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 2 1 3
1080 CDS Pathfinder

64. Match the following 68. Cryogenic Engine is used in 75. Consider the following statements
(a) boeing aircraft UNESCO’s World Heritage Mission
List I List II
(b) high speed rail engines is to
(Organisations) (Reports)
(c) space shuttle 1. takeover the management,
A. World Bank 1. Doing Business (d) nuclear testing
Index maintenance and preservation of
B. Yale University 2. Better Life Index 69. Which one of the following pair(s) World Heritage Sites.
C. OECD 3. Environmental is not correctly matched? 2. encourage state parties to the
Performance (a) China : Xichang Space convention concerning the
Index Launch Center protection of the world cultural
D. UNDP 4. Global HDI (b) India : Sriharikota Island and natural heritage to
(c) USA : Moron Air Base nominate sites within their
Codes
(d) Japan : Tanegashima Island national territory for inclusion
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 70. Apart from India, which of the on the World Heritage List.
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3 following countries celebrate 3. provide emergency assistance for
Independence Day on 15th World Heritage Sites in
65. Given below are six most immediate danger.
populous states of India. August?
1. Pakistan Which of the statements given
Arrange them in decending order
2. Bahrain above are correct?
1. West Bengal
3. Republic of Congo (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
2. Uttar Pradesh (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
3. Bihar 4. South Korea
4. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using 76. Well-known Suzlon Group of India
5. Maharashtra the codes given below. is engaged in which one of the
6. Madhya Pradesh (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 following as its major operations?
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (a) Telecommunications
Codes
(b) Automotive components
(a) 6, 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 (b) 2, 6, 3, 1, 5, 4 71. Match the following (c) Wind energy
(c) 2, 5, 3, 1, 6, 4 (d) 6, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
List I List II (d) Hotels
66. Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan Yojana is
A. UNEP 1. 1957 77. The ‘Courage and Conviction’ is the
associated with?
B. UNICEF 2. 1972 autobiography of
(a) Making community latrines in slums
C. IAEA 3. 1985 (a) Shashi Tharoor (b) VK Singh
(b) Educating rural women
D. UNIDO 4. 1946 (c) Narendra Modi (d) Yashwant Sinha
(c) Drinking water
(d) Building dams 78. Match the following
Codes
67. Which of the statements given A B C D A B C D List I List II
below correctly defines the (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 4 3 1 (Libraries) (Locations)
difference between PSLV and (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 2 3 4 A. Saraswati Mahal Library 1. Patna
GSLV? 72. The World Asthma Day is B. Library of Tibetan Work 2. Dharamsala
1. The Polar Satellite Launch and Archives
observed across the world to
Vehicle (PSLV) launches C. Raza Library 3. Thanjavur
spread awareness and care
satellites into Sun synchronous D. Khuda Baksh Oriental 4. Rampur
orbits, while the including India, with the Public Library
Geosynchronous Satellite theme-Its Time to Control
Codes
Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Asthma. The day is observed on
(a) first Monday of May A B C D A B CD
launches satellites into Geostatic
(b) first Tuesday of May (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 2 1 4
orbit.
(c) first Sunday of May (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 3 4 1
2. The PSLV launches satellite
on the Earth’s poles while the (d) 1st May every year 79. Consider the following heritage
GSLV launches satellites into 73. The term P5 + 1 refers to the five sites
the solar orbit. permanent members of the UN 1. Jantar Mantar, Jaipur
3. The PSLV is a three-stage Security Council plus 2. Red Fort, Delhi
launch vehicle, while the (a) Germany (b) India 3. Valley of Flowers, Uttarakhand
GSLV is a four-stage launch 4. Nilgiri Mountain Railway, Tamil
(c) Japan (d) South Korea
vehicle. Nadu
4. The PSLV is a four stage 74. The ‘Abyei region’ is a disputed
Which of the heritage sites given
launch vehicle while the GSLV area between which of the
is a three-stage launch vehicle. above are included in the
following countries? UNESCO’s list of World Heritage
Select the correct answer using (a) Pakistan and Afghanistan Sites?
the codes given below. (b) China and Japan (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) Switzerland and Germany (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 (d) Sudan and South Sudan
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1081

80. The UNESCO declared which of 85. Match the following 91. What is General Agreement on
the following islands as a World List I List II Trade is Services (GATS)?
Biosphere Reserve under its Man 1. It is a treaty of the World Trade
A. Bull’s Eye 1. Cricket
and the Biosphere Programme in Organisation (WTO).
B. Caddy 2. Tennis
India? 2. It entered into force in January,
(a) Lakshadweep C. Deuce 3. Shooting
2005 as a result of the Uruguay
(b) Miconi Islands D. Googly 4. Golf
Round negotiations.
(c) Nicobar Islands Codes Which of the statement(s) given
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands A B C D A B C D above is/are correct?
81. Match the following (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
List I List II
(Institutes) (Locations) 86. Lionel Messi, who has been 92. The United States announced a
chosen for Golden Boot Trophy new initiative called BRAIN which
A. Central Institute of 1. Hyderabad
Higher Tibetan for third time, is from which refers to as
Studies country? (a) name of NASA’s new mission on
B. Indira Gandhi Institute 2. Mumbai
(a) Germany (b) France Mars
of Development and (c) Italy (d) Argentina (b) name of the new computer
Research 87. Consider the following technology to curb terrorism
C. National Institute of 3. Bengaluru statement(s) (c) brain research through advancing
Mental Health and 1. Colombo cup is associated with innovative neuro technologies
Neuro- Science (d) None of the above
the game of Football.
D. Central Institute of 4. Dharamsala 2. Sultan Azlan Shah
English and Foreign
93. Which of the following island is the
Tournament is associated with cause of dispute between China and
Languages
Boat race.
5. Varanasi Japan and controlled by Tokyo?
Which of the statement(s) given (a) Senkaku (b) South China Sea
Codes above is/are correct? (c) Falkland (d) None of these
A B C D A B C D (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 5 3 4 1 (b) 5 2 3 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 94. Identify the port
(c) 3 2 4 5 (d) 4 5 1 2 1. It is a popular mountain resort.
88. Which of the following are
2. Nestling in the Western Ghats.
82. Which one of the following is not member(s) of BRICS?
3. It is the main gateway for the
correctly matched? (a) Bhutan, Russia, India, China and
Sri Lanka trade of North-West India.
Cup Trophies Games (b) Brazil, Russia, India, China and
Codes
(a) CK Nayudu Trophy : Cricket South Africa (a) Trombay (b) Kandla
(c) Cochin (d) Mangaluru
(b) Sivanthi Gold Cup : Volleyball (c) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China
(c) Chennai Open Cup : Badminton and Singapore 95. Which of the following countries
(d) Bangladesh, Republic of Korea, became the first NATO and also the
(d) Durand Cup : Football Indonesia, Canada and Sri Lanka
first European country to make
83. Match the following 89. The ‘City Next’ an initiative military services obligatory for
List I List II technology for sustainable male as well as the females?
growth of cities in India has been (a) Norway (b) Britain
A. 2nd February 1. World Forestry
Day launched by (c) Italy (d) France
(a) Facebook (b) IBM
B. 21st March 2. World Wetland
(c) Microsoft (d) Yahoo 96. Consider the following UN
Day organisations
C. 21st September 3. World Alzheimer’s 90. Consider the following 1. UNEP : United National
Day statement(s) Environment Programme
Codes 1. The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna 2. UNESCO : United Nations
A B C A B C (RGKR) is India’s highest Economic Society and Cultural
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3 honour given for achievement Organisations
(c) 1 3 2 (d) 3 2 1 in sports. 3. UNFPA : United Nations for
2. It carries a medal, a scroll of Population Activities
84. The book titled ‘1283’ is about of honour and a substantial cash 4. UNHCR : United Nations High
the career illustration of which component. Commission for Refugees
football legend? Which of the statement(s) given
(a) David Beckam Which of the above are incorrect
above is/are correct? abbreviated?
(b) Pele
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Baichung Bhutia
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(d) Lionel Messi
1082 CDS Pathfinder

97. Consider the following 101. Consider the following 105. Consider the following statements
statement(s) statement(s) 1. French Open is the only Grand
1. The Paralympic games are 1. Ramon Magsaysay is awarded Slam held on clay.
where athletes with a physical only to Asian individuals 2. French Open is also known as
disability compete. achieving excellence in their Roland Garros.
2. All Paralympic Games are respective fields. 3. Roland Garros is named after
governed by the International the famous French Aviator
Paralympic Committee (IPC). 2. The maximum number Indian
received the award in the Roland Garros.
Which of the statement(s) given Which of the statements given
field of Peace and
above is/are correct? above are correct?
International Understanding.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statement(s) given
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
98. Match the following above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 106. Which one of the following is the
List I List II (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 oldest Grand Slam of the world?
(Trophies) (Games) (a) Wimbledon (b) French Open
102. Match the following list
A. Aga Khan Cup 1. Bridge (c) Australian Open (d) US Open
B. Durand Cup 2. Hockey
List I List II 107. Which of the following pairs are
(Days) (Observances)
C. Irani Trophy 3. Football correctly matched?
D. Holker Trophy 4. Cricket A. 26th 1. World AIDS Vaccine
January Day List I List II
Codes B. 20th 2. International 1. Davis Cup Men’s Tennis
A B C D A B C D February Customs Day 2. Azlan Shah Cup Hockey
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1 C. 12th April 3. World Day of Social 3. Chess National Game of
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2 Justice Russia
D. 18th May 4. International Day for 4. Basket Ball National Game of
99. Match the following Street Children USA
List I List II Codes Codes
A. Vatican City 1. Most populous city A B C D A B C D (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
in the world (a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
B. Shanghai 2. The largest (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
metropolitan area 108. Match the following
by population 103. Consider the following
List I
C. Manila 3. City having the statement(s) List II
highest density in (Name of the
1. The Pritzker Architecture (Locations)
the world Shipyards)
Prize is awarded annually to
D. Tokyo 4. The smallest honour a architect, whose A. Hindustan Shipyard 1. Kolkata
country in the world Limited
built work demonstrates a
Codes combination of those qualities B. Garden Reach 2. Vasco-da-Gam
A B C D A B C D Shipbuilders and a
of talent, vision and Engineers Limited
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 commitment posthumously.
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 C. Goa Shipyard 3. Mumbai
2. The Stirling Prize is a Limited
100. Consider the following British Prize for excellence in D. Mazagaon Dock 4. Visakhapatnam
statement(s) architecture. Limited
1. Bharat Dynamics Limited Which of the statement(s) given Codes
(BDL), a Mini-Ratna above is/are correct? A B C D A B C D
company, was incorporated in (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 1 2 4
the year 1970 and it is a (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
pioneer in the manufacture of (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 2 1 4
Anti-Tank Guided Missiles. 104. Consider the following 109. Which of the following pairs are
2. MIDHANI, a Mini-Ratna statement(s) correctly matched?
company, was established in 1. Australia is the only country
November, 1973 to achieve to win the ICC Cricket World List I List II
self-reliance in the Cup three times
1. Santosh Trophy Football
manufacture of a wide range consecutively.
of super alloys, titanium 2. Ranji Trophy Cricket
2. India won the ICC Cricket
alloys, special purpose steels World Cup for the first time 3. ICC Award Cricket
etc primarily for defence and in 1979. 4. Dhyan Chand National Sports
strategic sectors. Award Award
Which of the statement(s) given
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Codes
above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1083

110. Indian Army’s counter-insurgency 1. Indian Military Academy 2. The longer-term problem for
school is situated in 2. Officers Training Academy China is the rather skewed
(a) Kanker (b) Srinager 3. National Defence Academy structure of its age pyramid
(c) Tezpur (d) Vairengte 4. National Defence College following on from big reductions
5. College of Defence in births in the 1970s and
111. Which among the following is 1980s.
not correct about Borlaug Management
Codes Select the correct answer using
Award?
(a) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 (b) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2 the codes given below.
(a) It is given for outstanding
(c) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
performance in the field of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
agriculture and environment 117. Which city was selected as the
(b) It was created in 1974 host for the 2022 Commonwealth 123. Which of the following
(c) It carries a cash prize of Games at the Federation’s organisation issue the rules of
` 5 lakhs General Assembly in New global trade?
(d) It was named in honour of Zealand? (a) World Bank
Nobel Laureate Norman E (a) Johannesburg (b) Gauteng (b) World Trade Organisation
Borlaug (c) Durban (d) Pretoria (c) Foreign Exchange Dealer’s
118. Consider the following Association
112. In which state is the Rajiv (d) Directorate General of Foreign
Gandhi National Institute of statement(s)
1. Nag is a third generation fire Trade
Youth Development located?
and forget anti-tank missile 124. Main objective of Antyodaya
(a) Tamil Nadu
which can be fired in both programme is to
(b) Karnataka
night and day time. (a) uplift the urban poor
(c) Himachal Prdesh
(d) Uttarakhand
2. It has a length of 1.90 m. (b) uplift the farmer
3. It can be fired against only (c) uplift the landless labour
113. Match the following fixed targets. (d) uplift the poor
4. The missiles has land
List I List II 125. Consider the following
water-launched and man
(Ships) (Types) statement(s)
portable (weighing 14 kg)
A. INS Arihant 1. Aircraft carrier versions. 1. ASEAN is India’s fourth
B. INS Vikrant 2. Landing platform Which of the statement(s) given largest trading partner.
dock above is/are correct? 2. European Union (EU) is India’s
C. INS Shivalik 3. Nuclear (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 largest trading partner.
submarine (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these Which of the statement(s) given
D. INS Airavat 4. Stealth frigate above is/are correct?
119. Ms Reena Kaushal
Codes Dharmshaktu is the first Indian (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
woman (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 (a) to reach Antarctica 126. Which of the following is
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 (b) pilot inducted in Indian Air Force incorrectly matched?
(c) to ski to the South Pole (a) Anna Hazare : Anti Corruption
114. Consider the following pair(s) Movement
(d) to win the gold medal in Asian
1. Pinaka : Multi barrel rocket Boxing Championship (b) Dr Pramod : Jaipur Foot
launcher system Karan Sethi
2. Nag : Anti-tank missile system 120. START (Strategic Arms
(c) Dr MS : Agriculture
Reduction Treaty) is a treaty
3. Lakshya : Unmanned aerial vehicle Swaminathan
between/among
Select the correct answer using (d) Dr Abdul : Development
(a) China and Japan
the codes given below. Kalam of Economics
(b) USA and USSR
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) USA and European Union 127. Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (d) China, India, USA and Russia is given for outstanding
115. Which one among the following 121. Which one of the following is not contribution to
is the unit raised to protect the a member of BASIC bloc of (a) afforestation and conservation of
naval assets? countries? wasteland
(a) Sagar Rakshak Bal (a) South Africa (b) China (b) clean technology and development
(b) Sagar Suraksha Bal (c) India (d) Australia (c) wildlife conservation
(c) Sagar Prahari Bal (d) writing of Hindi books on
(d) Sagar Nigrani Bal 122. Why has China ended its environment
one-child policy?
116. Arrange the following Military 1. An aging population and 128. The Nobel Prize was instituted by
Training Institutes in India in slowing economic growth rates which country?
terms of their geographical fed calls to change the policy (a) USA (b) UK
location form North to South and over time it was eased. (c) Russia (d) Sweden
1084 CDS Pathfinder

129. Which one of the following Which of the statements given (c) WEO forecasts include the
countries had hosted the first above are correct? macro-economic indicators, such
as GDP, inflation, current account
winter Paralympic Games? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
and fiscal balance of countries
(a) United States (b) Russia (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(d) It is published once in 5 years
(c) Sweden (d) Germany 134. India has got its first online
interactive portal ‘Sahapedia’ on 138. Which is sometimes called ‘The
130. Consider the following
the cultural heritage of the Sport of Kings’?
statement(s) regarded Pro (a) Horse race (b) Chess
Kabaddi League (PKL) country in May, 2016.
1. Sahapedia aims to educate the (c) Polo (d) Squash
1. PKL is a professional
people of India about the 139. Consider the following
Kabaddi (indigenous sport)
traditions, visual arts, statement(s)
league based on the format of performing arts, literature and
the Indian Premier League 1. The first Indian to participate
languages that is scattered
(IPL) T-20 cricket tournament. in Olympic games was
across the country.
2. The first edition of the Norman Pritchard.
2. This online portal is a
tournament was played in collection of resources on the 2. Women’s participation started
2014. diverse heritage of India. from 2nd Olympic games in
1900.
Which of the statement(s) given 3. It is non-profit society, led by
above is/are correct? former TCS chairman Which of the statement(s) given
(a) Only 1 S Ramadorai, who is the head above is/are correct?
(b) Only 2 of the National Skill (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 Development Agency. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statement(s) given 140. Stand-up India scheme is about
above is/are correct? (a) providing credit to young
131. The five permanent members of
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 entrepreneurs in IT sector
the United Nations Security (c) All of these (d) None of these (b) providing credit to farmers in
Council are
135. Which of the following ministries drought affected region
(a) Canada, China, France, USA, UK
(b) China, France, Russia, USA, UK has launched UDAY scheme? (c) providing credit to Scheduled
(a) Ministry of Minority Affairs Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST)
(c) Japan, Germany, Russia, USA, UK
(b) Ministry of Law and Justice and women borrowers in the
(d) Germany, China, Russia, USA, UK
(c) Ministry of Power non-farm sector
132. Which of the following (d) Ministry of Shipping Ministry of (d) providing credit to students for
committees is not constituted for Power higher education
poverty estimation? 141. Which of the following is/are
136. Consider the following
1. Lakdawala statement(s) correctly abbreviated?
2. SD Tendulkar 1. Dadasaheb Phalke Award is 1. ASEAN is Association of
3. NC Saxena India’s highest award in South-East Asian Nations.
Select the correct answer using cinema given annually by the 2. APEC is Asian Pacific
the codes given below. Government of India for Economic Co-operation.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 lifetime contribution to Indian Select the correct answer using
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these cinema. the codes given below.
133. Consider the following 2. Prithviraj Kapoor is the first (a) Only 2
statements about historic Paris recipient of the Dadasaheb (b) Only 1
Climate Agreement on Earth Phalke Award. (c) Both 1 and 2
day. Which of the statement(s) given (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. All the countries agreed to above is/are correct? 142. Consider the following
work to limit global (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 statement(s)
temperature rise to well below (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Stanley Cup is associated with
2° celsius. the hockey.
137. Which of the statement(s) given
2. Take into account principle of 2. Heisman Trophy is associated
below is/are correct?
equity and common but with the football.
(a) World Economic Outlook is
differentiated responsibilities.
basically a survey conducted and 3. Wightman Cup is associated
3. Developed countries will published by International with the track and field.
provide 100 billion dollars Monetary Fund
annually to the developing Which of the statement(s) given
(b) It portrays the world economy in above is/are incorrect?
counterparts beginning in the near and medium context
2010. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) None of these
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1085

QUESTIONS FROM
CDS EXAM (2012-2016)
2012 (I) 5. Which of the following statements 10. In which one among the following
1. Which among the following is correct with regard to Yudh Latin American countries, a woman
countries has recently decided to Abhyas? has won first time for, the
give grant of US $ 1 billion for (a) It is an Indian military ‘war game’ presidential elections for the second
with regard to Pakistan term?
reconstruction of Nalanda
(b) It is an Indian military exercise with (a) Brazil (b) Venezuela
University? Oman (c) Uruguay (d) Argentina
(a) USA (b) China
(c) It is an Indian military exercise with
(c) UK (d) Japan
Bhutan 11. The Operation Polo was associated
2. Which one among the following (d) It is an Indian military exercise with with the annexation of which one
statements is correct? US among the following Princely
(a) Due to border problems, India’s States into Indian Union?
6. Consider the following statements (a) Kashmir (b) Junagadh
trade with China did not register a
1. The Kalinga Prize is an award (c) Travancore (d) Hyderabad
quantum jump between the years
given by UNESCO for
2001-2010 12. An African country, Sudan has
exceptional skill in presenting
(b) The stand off between India and been broken into two recently with
scientific ideas to lay people.
China on Pakistan and Arunachal formation of a new country named
Pradesh did not let India’s trade to 2. Dorairajan Balasubramaniam
grow with China in the years was the last person from India South Sudan. Economy of South
2001-2010 as much as it grew in to receive the Kalinga Prize. Sudan will depend on its
the years 1991-2001 Which of the statements given (a) agricultural product
(b) minerals
(c) While India-China trade has above is/are correct?
registered a quantum jump (c) forest product
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
between the years 2001-2010, both (d) fishery product
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the countries have ensured parity 13. Which one among the following
of trade 7. Match the following
statements about NATO is not
(d) Inspite of border problems, India’s List I List II correct?
trade with China registered a (Short-listed books (Author) (a) NATO is a collective defence
quantum jump during the years for DSC Prize for organisation in Europe
2001-2010 South Asian (b) The US is an ex-officio member of
3. Which one among the following is Literature 2012) NATO
the fastest Indian Supercomputer A. Bharathipura 1. Kavery Nambisan (c) Turkey is a member of NATO
recently developed by ISRO? (d) NATO has 28 independent member
B. A Street in 2. Shehan
Srinagar Karunatilaka states
(a) Aakash A-l (b) Saga 220
(c) Jaguar-Cray (d) Tianhe-lA C. Chinaman 3. Chandrakanta 14. In the year 2011, a missile named
4. Assume that India and Pakistan D. The Story that 4. UR Ananthamurthy ‘PRAHAR’, developed by DRDO
are engaged in an increasingly must not be told was test fired. This is a
volatile situation over the LoC in Codes (a) short-range surface to air missile
Jammu and Kashmir with a (b) long-range surface to air missile
A B C D A B C D
Kargil type infiltration by (c) short-range surface to surface missile
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
Pakistan. A conventional war (d) long-range surface to surface missile
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2 4
between both the countries is 15. Sabin Award is given for the
8. The Indian Research Station
inevitable under the shadow of conservation of
‘Himadri’ is located at
nuclear weapons. In this (a) Siachen (b) Darjeeling
(a) amphibians (b) reptiles
situation, what is the nuclear (c) birds (d) corals
(c) Arctic Region (d) Antarctica
capacity that India should 16. In the year 2011, NASA launched a
possess against Pakistan to deter 9. Which one among the following
mission to study the moon from
a nuclear exchange? statements is correct with regard
crust to core through its
(a) A first use nuclear policy to the C-5M Super Galaxy?
(a) Gravity Recovery and Interior
(b) A much larger nuclear arsenal than (a) It is a large military helicopter Laboratory
Pakistan (b) It is a large military transport (b) Fast Auroral Snapshot Explorer
(c) A credible nuclear deterrence with aircraft Spacecraft
second strike capability (c) It is a galaxy of stars very close to (c) Ultraviolet Spectroscopic Explorer
(d) An intercontinental ballistic missile the Sun Spaceraft
with a range of 5000 km (d) it is a US fighter aircraft to be (d) Transition Region and Coronal
completed in 2014 Explorer Spacecraft
1086 CDS Pathfinder

24. The Treaty on Integrated (c) Green Peace International stated that
2012 (II) Development of Mahakali River it is a ‘false start’ than a ‘fast start’
17. Anna Hazare was awarded with was signed between India and (d) Oxfam’s research report says that
the Padma Bhushan in (a) Pakistan (b) Nepal levels of public climate finance are
recognition for (c) Bhutan (d) Bangladesh set to fall in the year 2013 compared
(a) his war against corruption and to past 3 year
25. INS Vikramaditya, scheduled for
launching Bhrashtachar Virodhi Jan 30. Which one among the following
Andolan induction into the Indian Navy
soon, is the name given to regarding G-20 is not correct?
(b) his service to the Indian Army
(a) an aircraft carrier (a) A group of developed countries
(c) transforming a barren dry village (b) An integral part of the United Nations
called Ralegan-Siddhi in (b) a nuclear submarine
(c) an amphibious assault vessel (c) Outside the World Bank and IMF
Maharashtra’s Ahmednagar district
(d) a stealth ship (d) An offshoot of G-7
into a model village of
self-sufficiency, eco-friendly and 26. Farkhor Air Base, operated by 31. Outstanding historian Eric
harmony the Indian Air Force, is situated Hobsbawm who expired on 1st
(d) his remarkable social service in the in which one among the following October, 2012, has authored a large
Adivasi areas of Bihar number of books. The title of his
countries?
18. Consider the following statements (a) Kazakhstan (b) Uzbekistan famous autobiography is
about Viswanathan Anand (c) Afghanistan (d) Tajikistan (a) Bandits
1. He has won the World Chess 27. Which one among the following (b) Uncommon People : Resistance,
Championship five times. Rebellion and Jazz
statements about Mohammad
2. He is the first sports person to (c) The New Century : In Conversation
receive the Padma Vibhushan Nasheed of Maldives is not
with Antonio Polito
Award. correct?
(d) Interesting Times : A 20th Century
3. He is currently the Number 1 (a) He was the first President of
Life
Maldives to be elected through
rating player on the FIDE
Multiparty elections 32. Which one among the following was
Ratings.
(b) He become the President of added in the year 2012 in the list of
Which of the statement(s) given Maldives in the year 2008
above is/are correct? world heritage sites of the
(c) He was a strong advocate of the UNESCO?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 policies of longtime President
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these (a) Western Ghats
Maumoon Abdul Gayoom (b) Agra Fort
19. Which one among the following (d) He has been advocating and (c) Ajanta Caves
nuclear capable countries has a promoting democracy and Human (d) Meenakshi Temple
declared No First Use Policy? Rights in Maldives
(a) United States of America 33. Which one among the following has
(b) People’s Republic of China 2013 (I) been included as a parameter for
(c) Pakistan the first time under the National
(d) Russia 28. ‘Global Dimming’ means Ambient Air Quality Standards
(a) gradual increase of the (NAAQS) based on Central
20. The year 2002 Code of Conduct temperature of ionosphere
related to territorial and Pollution Control Board and
(b) gradual loss of biodiversity hot
maritime dispute in the South spots IIT-Kanpur research, WHO
China sea was signed between (c) gradual reduction in the amount of guidelines and European Union
China and global direct irradiance at the Earth limits and practices?
(a) Philippines (b) Vietnam surface (a) Sulphur dioxide
(c) United States of America (d) gradual increase in the melting of (b) Oxides of nitrogen
(d) ASEAN ice in polar regions (c) Ozone
21. In the year 2012, India undertook 29. Consider the following statement (d) Carbon monoxide
its largest military exercise since Rich countries have largely 34. Consider the following statements
independence. This was named cheated the developing countries about Malala Yousafzai
(a) Yuddh Abhyas (b) Rudra Akrosh 1. In November, 2012, she was
of the 30 billion dollars of funds.
(c) Sudarshan Shakti (d) Shoor Veer awarded with the Bravery
They had committed to transfer
22. The Indian Army undertook to the poor ones between 2010 Award by the World Peace and
Operation Meghdoot to establish and 2012. Prosperity Foundation.
Indian control over Which one among the following 2. The United Nations declared
(a) Sir Creek (b) Alksai Chin 10th November as ‘Malala Day’
relating to the above statement is
(c) Siachen Glacier (d) Drass Sector in honour of her contribution in
not correct?
23. The Partnership Council was (a) The above statement is a report
the field of girls’ education.
launched the Strategic out of Oxfam research Which of the statement(s) given
Partnership Agreement signed in (b) The developed nations only above is/are correct?
the year 2011 between India and provided one-third of the total (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) United States (b) China funding (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Maldives (d) Afghanistan
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1087

35. Why was Kaushik Basu, the 41. During the last part of November 46. Which one among the following
ex-economic advisor to the Prime 2012, there was a severe fire Indian scientists has been awarded
Minister of India, in news accident which took away the the ‘2012 award for International
recently? He was appointed as lives of more than hundred people Science Cooperation’ by Chinese
(a) the President of the IMF in Bangladesh. The accident Academy of Sciences?
(b) the President of the World Bank occurred inside a (a) KS Srinivasan
(c) the Economic Advisor of the (a) textile factory (b) Sreekumar Banerjee
United Nations (b) jute factory (c) DD Bhawalkar
(d) the Chief Economist of the World (c) polythene manufacturing factory (d) CNR Rao
Bank (d) cement factory 47. Which legendary actor has been
36. Which one among the following 42. Who among the following was awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke
statements about Grigori declared as the immediate future Award, 2012?
Perelman is not correct? President of China in the 18th (a) Shashi Kapoor
(a) He is a genius from Russia National Congress of the (b) Pran Krishan Sikand
(b) He rejected the offer of Communist Party of China held (c) Anupam Kher
professorship in Princeton and in November, 2012? (d) Soumitra Chatterjee
Stanford University (a) Zhang Dejiang (b) Xi Jinping 48. Consider the following statements
(c) He works in the area of cosmology (c) Liu Yunshan (d) Li Keqiang 1. Rafael Nadal won Men’s Singles
(d) He has refused to accept the French Open Tennis
‘Fields Medal’ and the ‘Millennium
43. Some atheists, skeptics and
non-believers called to celebrate Tournament-2013, defeating
Prize’ recently Spanish compatriot David
‘25th December’ as Newtonmas
37. Mention the odd one out. Ferrer.
Day instead of observing
(a) Didier Drogba 2. This is Nadal’s maiden French
‘Christmas Day’. The reason they
(b) Oliver Kahn Open title.
propose that
(c) Lionel Messi Which of the statements given
(a) both Isaac Newton and Jesus
(d) Cristiano Ronaldo above is/ are correct?
Christ were great
38. Which one among the following (b) Isaac Newton was born on 25th (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
countries initiated the process of December (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Fourth Wave of Democratic (c) ‘Skeptic Society' was founded on 49. Who among the following is the
Transition? 25th December author of the book, ‘Sachin : Born
(a) Libya (b) Afghanistan (d) Isaac Newton was a deep believer to Bat—The Journey of Cricket’s
(c) Tunisia (d) Morocco of Christianity Ultimate Centurian’?
39. The Rohingya are the minorities 44. Which one among the following (a) Khalid AH Ansari (b) Boria Majumdar
of statements about Barack Obama (c) Kiran Nagarkar (d) Ed Hawkins
(a) South Africa (b) Canada is not correct? 50. Who among the following was not
(c) Myanmar (d) Bhutan (a) In the year 2012, he was elected associated with the art of painting?
40. The President of India on 20th as the President of USA for the (a) Abanindranath Tagore
second time, defeating the (b) Abdur Rahman Chaghatai
November, 2012 released a
republican candidate Mitt Romney (c) Nandlal Bose
commemorative postage stamp on
(b) He is the first African-American (d) Satish Chandra Mukherjee
the occasion of Ramgopal President of USA
Maheshwari’s birth centenary (c) He is the first Democratic President
51. ‘Silent Spring’, considered by many
year celebration. Which of the since Franklin D Roosevelt to twice as one among the greatest science
following statements regarding win the majority of the popular books of all time, is written by
Ramgopal Maheshwari is/are vote in USA presidential election Rachel Carson. The book deals with
correct? (d) He is the only American President (a) wildlife preservation
1. He is regarded as a doyen of who won the Nobel Peace Prize (b) protection of the environment
journalism in India. (c) pollution of the water body
2. He was a trusted aid of Netaji (d) None of the above
Subhash Chandra Bose and
2013 (II) 52. On March 8, 2013 President of
helped him in mobilising the 45. The Pulitzer Prize for fiction in India has released a
forces of Indian National Army the year 2013 has been commemorative postage stamp on
in Kohima. announced for the book late Sahir Ludhianvi at
Select the correct answer using (a) ‘The Orphan Master’s Son’ Rashtrapati Bhawan. Ludhianvi
the codes given below. authored by Adam Johnson was
(a) Only 1 (b) ‘What We Talk About When We (a) the translator of the Omar Khayyam’s
(b) Only 2 Talk About Anne Frank’ authored Rubaiyat into Hindi
(c) Both 1 and 2 by Nathan Englander (b) an eminent social activist of India
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) ‘The Snow Child’ authored by (c) one of the top Urdu dramatists and
Eowyn Ivey actor
(d) None of the above (d) widely acclaimed as a people's poet
1088 CDS Pathfinder

53. VS Ramadevi, who died in 58. Well known film ‘Chittagong’, 2. Martha Dodray was awarded for
Bengaluru on April 17, 2013, was directed by Bedabrata Pain, is her dedicated service in the bird
the Governor of Karnataka and mainly based on the life of flu affected areas of India.
Himachal Pradesh. What was (a) Subodh Roy Which of the statements given above
more specific about her? She was (b) Binod Bihari Chowdhury is/are correct?
the (c) Preetilata Wadedar (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) Ganesh Ghosh (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Governor of the two States
simultaneously 59. British Scientist Robert Edwards, 64. Carefully read the following passage
(b) only female Chief Election winner of Nobel Prize for and identify the person referred to
Commissioner of India Physiology and Medicine, passed in that
(c) only female Indian High Her best known works are The
away on April 10, 2013. What
Commissioner to United Kingdom Golden Notebook, Memoirs of a
was so important about him?
(d) Governor of Reserve Bank of India Survivor and The Summer Before
(a) He was the pioneer in the field of
54. In April, 2013, an agreement was cloning the Dark. She was the oldest
signed, between India and a (b) He led the human genome project recipient of the Nobel Prize in
country which extends the use of Literature.
(c) His pioneering works led to the
(a) Alice Munro (b) Doris Lessing
training and exercise facilities in birth of the first test tube baby
(c) Herta Muller (d) Elfriede Jelinek
India to the army of that country (d) He discovered the artificial heart
for a further period of five years 65. Which of the following statements
from August, 2013. Sort out the 60. Consider the following about Prof. CNR Rao is/are correct?
country from among the following statements
1. He is considered to be an
(a) Malaysia (b) Singapore 1. ISRO has recently given
clearance for using the international authority in
(c) Myanmar (d) Bangladesh solid-state and structural
frequency from KU band for
55. The Saudi Arabia Government using the satellite for internet chemistry.
has recently decided to strictly in trains in India. 2. He is the first Indian to reach
implement a law called Nitaqat 2. KU frequency range is the H-index of 100, reflecting the
law. As a result allocated to be exclusively economy of the body of his
(a) 10% jobs in Saudi should be used by satellite published research work.
reserved for Saudi nationals communication system. Select the correct answer using the
(b) 50% jobs in Saudi should be Which of the statements given codes given below:
reserved for Saudi nationals above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) A foreigner will be allowed to work (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
in Saudi Arabia for a maximum (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
period of 10 years
66. Rachel Carson’s famous book, Silent
61. The ‘Thomas Cup’ is associated Spring refers to
(d) ‘Foreigner’s’ job contracts in Saudi with
Arabia will be on year to year (a) geology of terrain where river
(a) Table Tennis (b) Lawn Tennis
basis originates
(c) Badminton (d) Billiards
(b) ecology and degradation of a hot
56. With which one among the 62. Which one among the following spring due to excessive tourism
following countries, did India sign was the main demand of the (c) biodiversity of an unknown terrain rich
a Memorandum of Understanding ‘2013 Shahbag Protests’? in flora and fauna
on Cooperation in the field of (a) Employment for all above eighteen (d) the death of songbirds due to eating
Election Management and years insects poisoned with pesticides
Administration (on April 12, 2013 (b) Equal rights for men and women
in New Delhi)? (c) Capital punishment for those 67. The concept of hegemony is used to
(a) Japan (b) Mauritius convicted of crimes against understand the capacity to
(c) Thailand (d) Sri Lanka humanity during 1971, Bangladesh ‘manufacture consent’. Here,
Liberation War hegemony implies
57. Which of the following statements
(d) Introduction of Urdu and Arabic 1. class ascendency in ideological
about India-China relations is/are languages as compulsory subjects
correct? spheres.
in primary education
1. ‘Look East’ policy is a vital 2. deploying ideological resources to
part of the relationship. shape behaviour of weaker
2. There is an active defence 2014 (I) states/powers.
exchange programme. 3. provision of global public goods
63. Consider the following
by a dominant power.
3. Institutional mechanism to statements about UN Frontline
share international waters is 4. military dominance in relative
Workers Global Leadership
in place. and absolute terms.
Award
Select the correct answer using 1. Martha Dodray, an auxiliary Select the correct answer using the
the codes given below: nurse and midwife from codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 Bihar, was conferred the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3 Award in the year 2013. (c) Only 4 (d) Only 1
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1089

68. Heena Sidhu, who recently won a 74. The Union Ministry of 79. ‘Arihant’ is the name of
World Cup Gold Medal for India, Environment and Forest recently (a) an infantry combat vehicle
is associated with approved in principle a proposal (b) a ballistic missile
(a) shooting (b) archery for Western Ghats development (c) an attack helicopter
(c) weightlifting (d) boxing prepared K Kasturirangan-led (d) a nuclear-powered submarine
69. Internal Security Academy is panel. The panel has 80. Consider the following statements
located at recommended a ban on about GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo
(a) Nashik (b) Mount Abu development activities in around Augmented Navigation) system:
(c) Hyderabad (d) Pune 60000 sq km ecologically sensitive 1. It offers free enhanced satellite
area spread over navigation signals over India
70. Indian Navy commissioned its (a) Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil which are ten times more
first Advanced Light Helicopter Nadu, Maharashtra, Kerala and precise than GPS.
Squadron at Kochi in November Karnataka
2. It was developed jointly by ISRO
2013. What is the name of the (b) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa,
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu and NASA
helicopter?
(c) Odisha, Maharashtra, Goa, Kerala, Which of the statements given above
(a) Chetak (b) Dhruv
(c) Rudra (d) Cheetah Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu is/are correct?
(d) Karnataka, Odisha, Gujarat, Kerala, (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
71. Consider the following statements Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
regarding Indian Ocean Rim
75. Which of the following nations 81. Andaman and Nicobar Command is
Association (a) a Command of the Indian Army
were recently suspended with
1. The 13th Council of Ministers (b) a regional Command of the Indian
meeting of the Association was regard to the voting rights by the
UNESCO for not paying their Coast Guard
held in November 2013 in
Perth. dues to it? (c) an integrated theatre Command
operating directly under the Chiefs of
2. India was elected Chair of the 1. USA 2. Israel 3. Iran 4. Staff Committee
Association from 2013 to 2015. Iraq (d) a joint Command of the Indian Navy
3. There are twenty member
nations in the Association.
Select the correct answer using and the Indian Air Force
the codes given below. 82. Which one among the following is
Which of the statements given (a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
above is/are correct? not a Command of the Indian Army?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) South-Western Command
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these (b) South-Eastern Command
2014 (II) (c) Army Training Command
72. Match the following (d) Central Command
76. Which of the following is/are
List I List II department(s) in Ministry of 83. Master Chief Petty Officer is a rank
(Author) (Concept/Book) Defence? in the
A. Hobbes 1. Natural Law 1. Department of Defence (a) Indian Navy
B. Rousseau 2. ‘Might is Right’ 2. Department of Defence (b) Military Engineering Service
Research and Development (c) Army Aviation Corps
C. Locke 3. Discourse on
Inequality 3. Department of Defence (d) Indian Air Force
D. Adam Smith 4. The Wealth of Production 84. ‘Project Seabird’ is connected with
Nations 4. Department of Defence Finance (a) greenfield naval base at West coast
Select the correct answer using of India
Codes (b) anti-pirate operation at Somalia
the codes given below.
A B C D A B C D (c) Indian Navy’s island development
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 project
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 1
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 (d) shipyard in Kutch district, Gujarat
73. Non-military Confidence Building 77. Which of the following is/are
Paramilitary Force(s) of India? 85. Consider the following statements
Measures (CBMs) in a peace about ‘Project Mausam’:
process include 1. Indian Coast Guard
1. The project was launched in
1. people to people contact across 2. Assam Rifles
June, 2014 by the Ministry of
borders. 3. Directorate General of External Affairs.
2. literary and cultural interaction Resettlement 2. At the macro level, the project
under government and Select the correct answer using aims to re-connect and
non-governmental agencies. the codes given below. re-establish communications
3. increase in travel facilities. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 between countries of the Indian
4. joint initiatives to tackle common (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 2 Ocean world, which would lead
socio-economic problems. to an enhanced understanding of
78. ‘Garuda-V’, concluded recently, is cultural values and concerns;
Select the correct answer using a joint exercise between the Air while at the micro level, the
the codes given below. Forces of India and focus is on understanding
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 national cultures in their
(a) Japan (b) Canada
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these regional maritime milieu.
(c) Russia (d) France
1090 CDS Pathfinder

Which of the statements given 91. Match the following 94. Which one among the following was
above is/are correct? the theme of the International Day
List I List II
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (Founder/First (Premier Research for the Preservation of the Ozone
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Director) Institute) Layer 2014?
(a) Ozone Day—A Healthy Atmosphere,
86. Consider the following statements A. Vikram Sarabhai 1. Indian Statistical
The Future We Want
about Star Alliance network: Institute
(b) Protecting Our Atmosphere for
1. Established in the year 1997, B. Homi J. Bhabha 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
Centre for Generations to Come
it is the leading global airline (c) HCFC Phase Out : A Unique
Advanced
network with the highest Scientific Opportunity
number of member airlines, Research (d) Ozone Layer Protection : The Mission
daily flights, destinations and C. CNR Rao 3. Tata Institute of Goes On
countries flown to. Fundamental
2. Air India has recently joined Research 95. What was the claim to fame of
the Star Alliance in a bid to D. PC Mahalanobis 4. Physical Dr Dwarkanath Kotnis?
garner more revenue. Research (a) He provided succour to the poor
Laboratory (b) He set-up hospitals in the difficult to
Which of the statements given
Codes reach regions of India
above is/are correct?
A B C D A B C D (c) He was a leading Indian nationalist
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 3 1 (d) He laid down his life providing
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
medical help to the Eighth Route
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
87. Stepwell Rani-ki-Vav was Army
approved as a World Heritage 96. Which among the following teams
Site by the UNESCO recently. It 2015 (I) won the Duleep Trophy Cricket
is located at 92. Notification regarding Tournament 2014?
(a) Rajasthan
commencement or cessation of a (a) East Zone
(b) Gujarat
State of war is the responsibility (b) Central Zone
(c) Madhya Pradesh
of (c) West Zone
(d) Maharashtra
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs (d) South Zone
88. Consider the following statements (b) Ministry of Defence 97. What was the common element
1. World Vitiligo Day is observed (c) Ministry of External Affairs among (i) GD Birla, (ii) Ambalal
on June 25 every year. (d) None of these Sarabhai and (iii) Walchand
2. Vitiligo is a progressive skin Hirachand?
disease. 93. Which of the following
statement(s) about caste (a) They were leading members of the
Which of the statements given above movements in early 20th century socialist movement in India
is/are correct? Kerala is/are false? (b) They were Indian industrialists
(a) Only 1 (c) They were nationalist leaders
1. Kerala’s first modern novel
(b) Only 2 (d) All of the above
Indulekha attacked the social
(c) Both 1 and 2 dominance of Nambudiri
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Brahmans in Kerala.
98. Which of the following statements
2. CV Raman Pillai’s novel
is/are correct?
89. Novak Djokovic, who won the 1. ‘Yudh Abhyas 2014’ was an
Marthanda Varma was written
Men’s Wimbledon tennis India-USA military exercise.
against the exploitation of
tournament 2014, is from peasants by Nair landlords. 2. ‘Yudh Abhyas 2014’ was
(a) Serbia (b) Spain 3. Sree Narayana Guru was one conducted in Himachal Pradesh.
(c) Switzerland (d) England of the founders of the Sree Select the correct answer using
Narayana Dharma Paripalana the codes given below
90. Consider the following statements Yogam that was engaged in
about Pragati missile system of the upliftment of the Ezhavas (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
in Kerala. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India
1. It is a short range solid fuel 4. Dr Palpu, the first Ezhava 99. The Central Industrial Security
missile system. graduate, was one of the Force is under the administration
founders of the Sree Narayana control of which of the following
2. It has all weather day and Dharma Paripalana Yogam
night operational launch ministries?
that was engaged in the
capability. (a) Ministry Heavy Industries and
upliftment of the Ezhavas in
Which of the statements given Public Enterprises
Kerala.
above is/are correct? (b) Headquarters of the Integrated
Select the correct answer using Joint Staff
(a) Only 1 the codes given below.
(b) Only 2 (c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (d) PMO
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 (d) 2 and 4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
GENERAL STUDIES General Knowledge 1091

100. Indian Coast Guard is 106. 31st May is celebrated as ‘World 112. The first summit of the Forum for
(a) a branch of the Indian Navy No Tobacco Day’ by the World India-Pacific Islands Cooperation
(b) an organisation under the Health Organisation. Which one (FIPIC) was held in
Central Board of Excise and of the following was the theme of (a) Jaipur (b) Suva
Customs the ‘World No Tobacco Day (c) New Delhi (d) Port Moresby
(c) an organisation under the 2015’?
Ministry of Defence
113. Which of the following statements
(a) Raise taxes on tobacco
(d) a para-military force under the
relating to the Bandung
(b) Stop illicit trade of tobacco
Ministry of Home Affairs products Conference on Afro-Asian
(c) Ban tobacco advertising, Resurgence (1955) are correct?
101. Seeking to revive historic ties, promotion and sponsorship 1. Bandung Conference was
the Indian Air Force has gifted (d) Tobacco free youth organised by Indonesia,
a vintage Dakota Aircraft from Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon
its museum to (September, 107. ‘Red Flag’ is the name of a joint
exercise between India and (Sri Lanka), India, and Pakistan
2014) in which 29 countries
(a) the Pakistan Air Force which one of the following
representing more than half of
(b) the Bangladesh Air Force countries?
the world’s population sent
(c) the Chinese Air Force (a) China
delegates.
(d) the Sri Lankan Air Force (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) The USA
2. The Conference reflected the
102. Which one of the following (d) Japan
five sponsors’ dissatisfaction
statements is incorrect? with what they regarded as a
(a) The Armed Forces Tribunal has 108. Who among the following is the reluctance by the Western
the power to adjudicate author of the autobiography powers to consult with them on
disputes relating to conditions entitled Amar Katha (1913)? decisions affecting Asia.
of service of persons subject to (a) Satyajit Ray 3. The Conference was concerned
the Army Act, 1950 (b) Rassundari Devi over tension between the
(b) Findings and sentences of court (c) Ganesh Chandra Ghosh People’s Republic of China and
martial can be challenged (d) Binodini Dasi
before the Armed Forces
the United States.
Tribunal 109. The Dashakumaracharita or Select the correct answer using
(c) The Chairperson and members the codes given below.
Tales of Ten Princes was
of the Armed Forces Tribunal (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
composed by (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
shall be appointed only after
(a) Bhatti (b) Banabhatta
consultation with the Chief
Justices of India (c) Bhasa (d) Dandin 114. The Erawan Shrine, which
(d) The Chairperson and members of witnessed a major bomb blast in
August, 2015, is located at
the Armed Forces Tribunal can
be removed only after
2016 (I) (a) Singapore (b) Bangkok
consultation with the Chief Justice 110. Which one of the following (c) Kuala Lumpur (d) Kabul
of India services of ‘India Post’ has 115. Who among the following is the
103. ‘And Then One Day : A Memoir’ permanently been discontinued? first Indian sportsperson to reach
is an autobiography of (a) Money Order the finals in the World Badminton
(a) Kamal Hasan (b) Telegram
Championship (Women) in 2015?
(b) Shahrukh Khan (c) Postal Life Insurance
(a) Jwala Gutta
(c) Naseeruddin Shah (d) Inland Letter
(b) Saina Nehwal
(d) Karan Johar 111. Which of the following (c) PV Sindhu
statements about India’s (d) Madhumita Bisht
2015 (II) scientific and research mission 116. Leander Paes won the US Open
in Antarctica is/are correct? Mixed Doubles Tennis Title (2015)
104. Government of which one of the 1. The first scientific base
following states has (in partnering with
station in Antarctica was (a) Kristina Mladenovic
May 2015) decided to withdraw Dakshin Gangotri. (b) Flavia Pennetta
the Armed Forces Special Powers 2. Dakshin Gangotri is now (c) Martina Hingis
Act from the state? being used as supply base (d) Sania Mirza
(a) Tripura and transit camp.
(b) Assam 3. The Maitri station is manned
117. Who among the following is the
(c) Nagaland throughout the year for winner of the World Food Prize
(d) Arunachal Pradesh scientific activities. (2015)?
(a) Sanjaya Rajaram
105. Khan Saheb Osman Ali Select the correct answer using (b) Baldev Singh Dhillon
Stadium is located at the codes given below (c) Sir Fazle Hasan Abed
(a) Karachi (b) Dhaka (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (d) Rajendra Singh Paroda
(c) Fatullah (d) Chittagong (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
1092 CDS Pathfinder

118. ‘Citizenfour’, the 87th Academy 119. The rank of Major General in 120. Among the currently operational
Award winner in the category of Indian Army is equivalent to Indian satellites, there is no
documentary feature, is based on (a) Air Marshal in Indian Air Force (a) communication satellite
the life of (b) Rear Admiral in Indian Navy (b) navigation satellite
(a) Abraham Lincoln (c) Air Commodore in Indian Air Force (c) Earth observation satellite
(b) Albert Einstein (d) Commodore in Indian Navy (d) Jupiter orbiter satellite
(c) Edward Snowden
(d) Laura Poitras

ANSWERS
Practice Exercise
1 d 2 d 3 c 4 b 5 c 6 a 7 d 8 c 9 b 10 c
11 a 12 b 13 b 14 b 15 c 16 c 17 b 18 c 19 c 20 b
21 d 22 d 23 d 24 d 25 d 26 a 27 b 28 b 29 a 30 c
31 d 32 d 33 c 34 c 35 d 36 c 37 a 38 a 39 a 40 a
41 c 42 c 43 a 44 d 45 d 46 a 47 c 48 b 49 b 50 b
51 d 52 b 53 a 54 a 55 c 56 b 57 d 58 d 59 b 60 d
61 c 62 d 63 d 64 b 65 c 66 a 67 a 68 c 69 c 70 d
71 a 72 b 73 a 74 d 75 d 76 c 77 b 78 a 79 d 80 c
81 b 82 c 83 b 84 b 85 c 86 d 87 a 88 b 89 c 90 c
91 a 92 c 93 a 94 b 95 a 96 b 97 c 98 b 99 b 100 c
101 c 102 b 103 c 104 a 105 b 106 a 107 a 108 c 109 d 110 d
111 b 112 a 113 b 114 d 115 c 116 b 117 c 118 d 119 c 120 b
121 d 122 c 123 b 124 d 125 c 126 d 127 b 128 d 129 c 130 c
131 b 132 d 133 d 134 c 135 c 136 a 137 a 138 c 139 c 140 c
141 c 142 c

Questions from CDS Exam (2012-16)

1 b 2 d 3 b 4 c 5 d 6 a 7 c 8 c 9 b 10 d
11 d 12 a 13 a 14 c 15 a 16 a 17 c 18 b 19 b 20 d
21 b 22 c 23 d 24 b 25 a 26 d 27 c 28 c 29 a 30 a
31 d 32 a 33 c 34 a 35 d 36 a 37 b 38 c 39 c 40 a
41 a 42 b 43 b 44 d 45 a 46 d 47 b 48 a 49 a 50 d
51 b 52 d 53 b 54 b 55 a 56 b 57 c 58 a 59 c 60 c
61 c 62 c 63 a 64 b 65 c 66 d 67 b 68 a 69 b 70 b
71 c 72 b 73 d 74 b 75 b 76 b 77 c 78 d 79 d 80 a
81 c 82 b 83 a 84 a 85 b 86 c 87 b 88 c 89 a 90 c
91 a 92 c 93 c 94 d 95 d 96 b 97 b 98 a 99 c 100 c
101 b 102 d 103 c 104 a 105 c 106 b 107 c 108 d 109 d 110 b
111 d 112 b 113 d 114 b 115 b 116 c 117 c 118 c 119 b 120 d